Chapter 1: Microbiology: Then and Now

1. Who was the first person to see bacterial cells with the
microscope?
a. Pasteur
b. Koch
c. Leeuwenhoek
d. Hooke
2. What process was studied by Redi and Spaltanzani?
a. Spontaneous generation
b. Fermentation
c. Variolation
d. Antisepsis
3. What is the name for the field of study established by Semmelweis
and Snow in the mid l800s?
a. immunology
b. Bacteriology
c. Virology
d. Cpidcniology
4. The process of___________involved inoculation of dried small
pox scabs under the skin.
a. vaccination
b. antisepsis
c. variolation
d. immunization
5. The process of controlled heating, called__________ was used to
keep wine from spoiling.
a. curdling
b. fermentation
c. pasteurization
d. variolation
6. What surgical practice was established by Lister?
a. antisepsis
b. chemotherapy
c. variolation
d. sterilization
7. Which one of the following is not a part of Kochs postulates?

a. The microorganism must be isolated from a dead animal and

pure cultured
b. The microorganism and disease can be identified from a
mixed culture
c. The pure cultured organism is inoculated into a healthy
susceptible animal.
d. The same microorganism must be present in every case of
the disease.
8. Match the lab with the correct set of identified diseases.
a. Pasteur: tetanus and tuberculosis
b. Koch: anthrax and rabies
c. Koch: cholera and tuberculosis
d. Pasteur: diphtheria and typhoid
9. What group of microbial agent was identified from the work of
Ivanowsky a Beijerinck?
a. Viruses
b. Fungi
c. Protozoa
d. Bacteria
10. What microbiological field was established by Winogradsky and
Beijerinck?
a. Virology
b. Microbial ecology
c. Bacteriology
d. Mycology
11. What group of microorganisms has a variety of internal cell
compartments and acts as decomposers?
a. Bacteria
b. Viruses
c. Archaea
d. Fungi
12. Which one of the following organisms was NOT a model organism
related the birth of molecular genetics?
a.
Streptococcus
b. Penicillium
c. Escherichia
d. neurospora
13. Which group of microbial agents is eukaryotic?
a. Bacteria

14.

15.

16.

17.

18.

19.

b. Viruses
c. Archaea
d. Algae
The term antibiotic was coined by _________to refer to
antimicrobial substances naturally derived from _______.
a. Waksman; bacteria and fungi
b. Domagk; other living organisms
c. Fleming; fungi and bacteria
d. Ehrlich; bacteria
Which one of the following is NOT considered an emerging
infectious disease?
a. Polio
b. Hantavirus pulmonary disease
c. Lyme disease
d. AIDS
A ________is a mixture of________ that form as a complex
community.
a. genome;genes
b. biofilm; microbes
c. biofilm; chemicals
d. miasma; microbes
Microbiology includes which of the following groups of
microorganisms?
a. bacteria
b. fungi
c. algae
d. protozoa
e. all the above
Which of the following early natural philosophers coined the
term cells?
a. Lister
b. Koch
c. Hooke
d. Leeuwenhoek
Which of the following surgeons stopped a cholera epidemic in
London by removing the pump handle of a contaminated pump?
a. Lister
b. Snow
c. Koch

20.

21.

22.

23.

24.

25.

d. Pasteur
Which early physician used vaccination with the mild cowpox to
prevent the deadly smallpox?
a. Jenner
b. Snow
c. Lister
d. Semmelweis
One of the reasons Koch was able to show the cause of disease
was that he could grow them
a. in a pure culture
b. in an animal host
c. in a tissue culture
d. in chicken eggs
Which of the following scientists came up with the first vaccine
for rabies?
a. Koch
b. Pasteur
c. Lister
d. Snow
Ivanowsky, Beijerinck and Reed all began studies with particles
smaller than the filters they were working with. This began the
study of _____.
a. measles
b. viruses
c. prions
d. bacteria
Which classification would include prokaryote cells that live in
extreme conditions like hot springs and the Dead sea?
a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Viruses
d. Archaea
Which group includes single celled protozoa and algae?
a. Bacteria
b. Archaea
c. Fungi
d. Protista

Chapter 2: The Chemical Building Blocks of Life

1. These positively charged particles are found in the atomic nucleus.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Protons only
Electrons only
Protons and neutrons
Neutrons only

2. Atoms of the same element that have different numbers of neutrons

are called _______
a.
b.
c.
d.

isotopes
ions
isomers
inert elements

3. If an element has two electrons in the first shell and seven in the
second shell, the element is said to be what?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Unstable
Unreactive
Stable
Inert

4. For _______ bonding, one or more electrons are transferred between

atoms.
a.
b.
c.
d.

hydrogen
ionic
peptide
covalent

5. The covalent bonding of atoms forms a/an

a.
b.
c.
d.

Molecule.
Ion.
Element.
Isomer.

6. The bond is a weak bond that can exist between poles of adjacent
molecules.
5

a.
b.
c.
d.

hydrogen
ionic
polar covalent
non polar covalent

7. In what type of chemical reaction are the products of water removed

during the formation of covalent bonds?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Hydrolysis
Ionization
Dehydration synthesis
Decomposition

8. A _____ dissolves in water.

a.
b.
c.
d.

solvent
hydrophobic molecule
solute
non polar molecule

9. The pH scale relates the measure of _______ of a chemical substance.

a.
b.
c.
d.

ionization
denaturation
acidity
buffering

10. Which one of the following statements about buffers is false?

a.
b.
c.
d.

They work inside cells.

They consist of a weak acid and weak base.
They prevent pH shifts.
They enhance chemical reactions.

11. A functional group designatedCOOH is known as a/an

a.
b.
c.
d.

Carboxyl.
Carbonyl.
Amino.
Hydroxyl.

12. Which one of the following is NOT a polysaccharide?

a. Chitin

b. Glycogen
c. Cellulose
d. Lipid
13. How do the lipids differ from the other organic compounds?
a.
b.
c.
d.

They are the largest organic compounds.

They are nonpolar compounds.
They have no biological role.
They are not used for energy storage.

14. Both DNA and RNA are composed of _______

a.
b.
c.
d.

polynucleotides
genes
polysaccharides
polypeptides

15. The _______ structure of a protein is the sequence of amino acids.

a.
b.
c.
d.

primary
secondary
tertiary
quaternary

16. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Protein - amino acids

Nucleic acid - nucleotides
Fats - glycogen
Starch - glucose

17. A nucleic acid has a "backbone" consisting of _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

The nitrogenous bases.

sugar-phosphate-sugar-phosphate-...
N-C-N-C-N-C-N-C-...
functional groups.

18. Proteins are chains of _____ that sometimes function as _____.

a. monosaccharaides; energy compounds
b. lipids; structural materials
c. amino acids; enzymes

d. disaccharides; enzymes
19. The sum of the mass numbers of the atoms in a molecule equals the
______, which is measured in units called _______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Atomic Number; Milligrams

Mass Weight; Micrograms
Chemical Weight; Moles
Molecular Weight; Daltons

20. An inert element has electron shells that

a.
b.
c.
d.

Overlap The Shells Of Other Atoms.

Are Completely Filled With Electrons.
Yield Hydrogen Ions.
Form Covalent Bonds.

21. Which one of the following pairs is matched correctly?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ions - covalent bonds

Carbon - organic compounds
Glucose - enzyme
Thymine - amino acid

22. When sulfuric acid, a strong acid, is added to water, the pH of the
solution
a.
b.
c.
d.

Goes Up.
Remains The Same.
Goes Down.
Cannot Be Determined.

23. The double helix is a structural arrangement associated with _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

A Polysaccharide.
The DNA Molecule.
Glucose Molecules In Starch.
A Protein.

24. In order to become a/an ______, an atom of chlorine must ______

an electron.
a. Ion; Gain

b. Molecule; Lose
c. Ion; Lose
d. Molecule; Gain
25. Atoms with varying mass numbers are called ________.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Electrons
Ions
Isotopes
Neutrons

26. The elements with filled electron shells are called _______
a.
b.
c.
d.

Inert Elements.
Active Elements.
Radioactive Elements.
Bonded Electrons.

27. When two or more atoms are linked together the force holding them
together is called a _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

charged particle
chemical bond.
electric attraction.
magnetic bond.

28. Equal sharing of electrons is called _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

ionic bonds
covalent bonds bonds
double bonds
triple bonds

29. What is the weak bond holding the nucleic acids together in DNA?
a.
b.
c.
d.

ionic bonds
covalent bonds bonds
polar bond
hydrogen bond

30. What is the name for a chemical reaction that builds up larger
molecules?

a.
b.
c.
d.

dehydration synthesis
hydrolysis
reactants
products

31. An ___________ solution which consists of solutes in water, is

essential for chemical reactions to occur.
a.
b.
c.
d.

hydrophobic
aqueous
covalent
vitreous

32. What prevents extremes of pH in biological systems?

a.
b.
c.
d.

acid
bases
buffers
neutrons

33. What is needed in order for reactions to occur at body temperatures?

a.
b.
c.
d.

buffers
acids
bases
enzymes

34. What are the building blocks of proteins?

a.
b.
c.
d.

monosaccharaides
amino acids
fatty acids
glycerol

35. Denaturation refers to the loss of the ______ structure of a ______

molecule.
a.
b.
c.
d.

primary; carbohydrate
molecular; fat
secondary; starch
tertiary; protein

10

Chapter 3: Concepts and Tools for Studying Microorganisms

1. What is the term that describes the ability of organisms to
maintain a stable internal state?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Metabolism
Homeostasis
Biosphere
Ecotype

2. Which one of the following is NOT an organizational pattern

common to all organisms?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Genetic organization
Protein synthesis
Compartmentation
Microcompartments

3. Which one of the following is NOT found in bacterial cells?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Ribosomes
DNA
Mitochondria
Cytoplasm

4. Who is considered to be the father of modern taxonomy?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Woese
Whittaker
Haeckel
Linnaeus

5. _______ was first used to catalog organisms into one of three

domains.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Photosynthesis
Ribosomal RNA genes
Nuclear DNA genes
Mitochondrial DNA genes

6. Which one of the following is the correct genus name for the
bacterial organism that causes syphilis?
a. pallidum
11

b. Treponemo
c. pallidum
d. T. pallidum
7. Several classes of organisms would be classified into one
a.
b.
c.
d.

order.
genus.
phylum.
family.

8. An important method used in the rapid identification of a pathogen is

a.
b.
c.
d.

RNA gene sequencing

polymerase chain reaction
molecular taxonomy
biochemical tests

9. Most bacterial cells are measured using what metric system of

length?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Millimeters (mm)
Micrometers (m)
Nanometers (nm)
Centimeters (cm)

10. Resolving power is the ability of a microscope to

a.
b.
c.
d.

Estimate cell size.

Magnify an image.
See two close objects as separate.
Keep objects in focus.

11. Before bacterial cells are simple stained and observed with the
light microscope, they must be
a.
b.
c.
d.

Smeared on a slide.
Heat fixed.
Air dried.
All the above (AC) are correct.

12. If you wanted to study bacterial motility you would most likely
use

12

a.
b.
c.
d.

A transmission electron microscope.

A tight microscope with dark-field optics.
A scanning electron microscope.
A light microscope with phase-contrast optics.

13. If you wanted to study the surface of a bacterial cell, you would
use
a.
b.
c.
d.

A transmission electron microscope.

A light microscope with phase-contrast optics.
A scanning electron microscope.
A light microscope with dark-field optics.

14. The ability to maintain a relatively stable internal state is called

_____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Homeostasis
Metabolism
Equilibrium
Balancing

15. A _____ is a communal association of microbes.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Domain
Biofilm
Division
Species

16. Which one of the following is not an organizational property

common to all living organisms?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Genetic organization
Metabolic organization
Compartmentation
A cell nucleus

17. In eukaryotic microbes, energy metabolism is associated with the

_____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Golgi apparatus
flagella
cytoskeleton
mitochondria

13

18. All of the following are found in prokaryotes and eukaryotes, except
a.
b.
c.
d.

acell (plasma) membrane

mitochondria
cytoplasm
ribosome

19. The second word in a species name is referred to as the _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

genus
order
specific epithet
biotype

20. In the three domain system, fungi would belong to the _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Eukarya
Bacteria
plants
Archaea

21. _____ is an example of a differential stain technique.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Simple staining
Negative staining
Contrast staining
Gram staining

22. The _____ microscope would be used to view cell structures within
ultrathin sections of cells.
a.
b.
c.
d.

scanning electron
transmission electron
bright-field
dark-field

23: Bacterial cells in biofilms can communicate with each other through
a.
b.
c.
d.

osmosis
quorum sensing
diffusion
enzymes

14

24: How can biofilms can be useful?

a.
b.
c.
d.

preventing tooth decay

keeping surgical sites sterile
bioremediation
A-C are correct

25: Which of the following statements supports the cell theory?

a.
b.
c.
d.

all living things are made of cells

all living things have a chromosome in the nucleus
all living things have cellular metabolism in the mitochondria
A-C are correct

26: Where does protein synthesis take place in all cells?

a.
b.
c.
d.

mitochondria
cell membranes
ribosomes
Golgi apparatus

27: Which of the following do some bacterial cells use for motility?
a.
b.
c.
d.

flagella
cillia
fimbriae
pseudopodia

28: In the 18th century Carl Linnaeus started classifying organisms

based
a.
b.
c.
d.

Similarities in form
DNA
RNA
Enzymes

29: How many domains do we currently have?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

5
4
3
2
1

15

30: What is evidence for the endosymbiotic theory?

a. Ribosomes are the same size in eukaryotes and prokaryotes
b. Organelles like mitochondria and cholorplasts have their own
dna and ribosomes
c. Flagella are the same in both types of cells
d. A-C are correct
31: Place the classification categories in order from large - small.
a.
b.
c.
d.

domain, kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species

domain, kingdom, phylum, order, family, class, genus, species
genus, species, family, order, class, phylum, kingdom, domain
phylum, kingdom, domain, family, class, order, genus, species

16

Chapter 4: Cell Structure and Function in the Bacteria and

Achaea

1. Which one of the following is NOT a genus within the gram-positive

bacteria?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Staphylococcus
Methanogens
Mycoplasma
Bacillus and Clostridium

2. The domain Archaea includes all the following groups except the
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mycoplasmas.
Extreme halophiles.
Crenarchaeota.
Euryarchaeota.

3. Spherical bacterial cells in chains would be a referred to as a _______

arrangement.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Vibrio
Streptococcus
Staphylococcus
Tetrad

4. Intracellular organization in bacterial and archaeal species is centered

a.
b.
c.
d.

Compartmentation of metabolism.
Growth and reproduction.
Sensing and responding to environment.
All the above (AC) are correct.

5. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to Pilli?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Pilli are made of protein.

Pilli allow for attachment to surfaces.
Pilli facilitate nutrient transport.
Pilli contain adhesions.

6. Flagella are

17

a.
b.
c.
d.

Made of carbohydrate and lipid.

Found on all bacterial cells.
Contain dextran fiber
Important for chemo taxis.

7. Capsules are similar to pili because both

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contain DNA.
Are made of protein.
Contain dextran fibers.
Permit attachment to surfaces.

8. Gram-negative bacteria would stain_________ with the Gram stain

and have _______in the wall.
a.
b.
c.
d.

orange-red; Teichoic acid

orange-red; lipopolysaccharide
purple; peptidoglycan
purple; Teichoic acid

9. The cell membrane of archaeal cells contains

a.
b.
c.
d.

A monolayer.
Sterols.
Ester linkage
All of the above (AC are correct.)

10. The movement of glucose into a cell occurs by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Facilitated diffusion.
Active transport.
Simple diffusion.
Phospholipid exchange.

11. When comparing bacterial and archaeal cell membranes, only

bacterial cell membranes
a.
b.
c.
d.

Have three layers of phospholipids.

Have a phospholipid bilayer.
Are fluid.
Have ether linkages.

12. Which one of the following statements about the nucleoid is NOT
true?

18

a.
b.
c.
d.

It contains a DNA chromosome.

It represents a nonmembranous subcompartment.
It represents an area devoid of ribosomes.
It contains nonessential genetic information.

13. Plasmids
a.
b.
c.
d.

Replicate with the bacterial chromosome.

Contain essential growth information.
May contain antibiotic resistance genes.
Are as large as the bacterial chromosome.

14. Which one of the following is NOT a structure or subcompartment

found in bacterial cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Micro compartments
Volutin
Ribosomes
Mitochondria

15. The bacterial cytoskeleton

a.
b.
c.
d.

transport vesicle
helps determine cell shape
Is organized identical to its eukaryotic counterpart.
Centers the nucleoid.

16. The bacterial cell is capable of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Spatial separation of metabolic processes.

Carrying out complex metabolic processes.
Sub compartmentalizing biochemical processes.
All the above (AC) are correct.

17. The Rickettsias are transmitted to humans by _________.

a.
b.
c.
d.

arthropods
flies
mosquitoes
viruses

18. The group Firmicutes means _______ skin.

a. soft

19

b. strong
c. hard
d. rough
19. The phylum Cyanobacteria are unique because they _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

convert nitrogen to a useable form

are poisonous
photosynthesize
have a waxy cell wall

20. The phylum Spirochaetes _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

move by a corkscrew pattern

cause gonorrhea
can photosynthesize
A-C are correct

21. Where might extreme halophiles be found?

a.
b.
c.
d.

at the bottom of a lake

in antartica
in the Dead sea
in hot springs

22. Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 basic shapes of

bacteria?
a.
b.
c.
d.

bacillus
coccus
spirillum
square

23. What is a packet of 8 cocci called?

a.
b.
c.
d.

diplococcus
tetrad
sarcina
Staphylococcus

24. What is the function of the cell envelope?

a. growth and reproduction
b. protection from osmotic pressure

20

c. sensing and responding to the environment

d. acquiring nutrients
25. How can bacteria exchange pieces of DNA?
a.
b.
c.
d.

mitosis
budding
meiosis
conjugation

26. What is the process called, when cells will move toward attractants
and away from danger?
a.
b.
c.
d.

run and tumble

chemotaxis
Brownian movement
gliding

21

Chapter 5: Microbial Growth and Nutrition

1. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to bacterial
reproduction?
a.
b.
c.
d.

A fission ring apparatus is present.

Septum formation occurs.
A spindle apparatus is used.
Symmetrical cell division occurs.

2. If a bacterial cell in a broth tube has a generation time of 40 minutes,

how many cells will there be after 6 hours of optimal growth?
a.
b.
c.
d.

18
64
128
512

3. A bacterial species generation time would be determined during the

phase.
a.
b.
c.
d.

decline
lag
log
stationary

4. Which one of the following is NOT an event of sporulation?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Symmetrical cell divisions

Mother cell disintegration
DNA replication
Prespore engulfment by the mother cell

5. A microbe that is a microaerophilic mesophile would grow optimally

at and
a.
b.
c.
d.

high 02; 30C

low 02; 20C
no 02; 30C
low 02; 37C

22

6. If the carbon source in a growth medium is beef extract, the medium

must be an example of a/an medium.
a.
b.
c.
d.

complex
chemically defined
enriched
synthetic

7. A medium would involve the addition of the antibiotic methicillin to

identify methicillin-resistant bacteria.
a.
b.
c.
d.

differential
selective
thioglycollate
VBNC

8. Which one of the following is NOT part of the streak-plate method?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Making four sets of streaks on a plate.

Diluting a mixed culture in molten agar.
Using a mixed culture.
Using a sterilized loop.

9. Direct methods to measure bacterial growth would include all the

following except the
a.
b.
c.
d.

total bacterial count

microscopic count
turbidity measurements
most probable number

10. Reproduction in bacterial cells occurs by the sequence of events

known as _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

mitosis
binary fission
selfing
budding

11. Psychrophilic bacteria species grow well at 10 degrees C, while

mesophilic bacteria species grow well at _____ degrees C.
a. 37
b. 50

23

c. 75
d. 98
12. During the stationary phase of bacterial growth, the population of
living cells is _____ the population of dying cells.
a.
b.
c.
d.

greater than
smaller than
equal to
increasing faster than

13. Organisms that practice heterotrophy are able to synthesize their

own food from _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

light
simple carbon sources
carbon monoxide
oxygen gas

14. When nutrients are limiting, some bacterial species can form
resistant structures called _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

endospores
cysts
seeds
capsules

15: Facultative anaerobes can live with or without _____ gas.

a.
b.
c.
d.

carbon dioxide
hydrogen
nitrogen
oxygen

16. Barophiles are prokaryotes that withstand high _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Oxygen concentrations.
Nitrogen gas concentrations.
Hydrostatic pressures.
Salt concentrations.

17. In terms of temperature tolerance, human pathogens tend to be

a. Psychrophilic

24

b. Thermophiles
c. Mesophylls
d. Hyper thermophiles
18. Prokaryotes that can withstand very high salt concentrations are
called ___
a.
b.
c.
d.

Capnophiles
Barophiles
Halophiles
Microaerophiles

19: The inward pinching to the cell envelope in reproduction is called

a.
b.
c.
d.

Binary fission
Cytokinesis
Mitosis
Asexual reproduction

20. The interval of time between successive reproductions is called

a.
b.
c.
d.

Doubling time
Generation time
Incubation time
Fission time

21. What is the period where there is the least amount of growth in the
growth curve?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Lag phase
Log phase
Stationary phase
Decline phase

22. Which of the following diseases result from germination of

endospores?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pneumonia
Strep throat
Meningitis
Anthrax

23. Which of the following conditions are important for the growth of
microbes?

25

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Temperature
Gas
pH
Oxygen
All the above

24. An example of an anaerobe that causes disease in humans is _____.

Clostridium
a. E.coli
b. Salmonella
c. Pseudomonas
25. Which kind of organisms will grow best in a candle jar?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Aerobes
Microaerophiles
Anaerobes
A-C are correct

26. Which kind of organisms will grow everywhere in a thioglycollate

broth?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Aerobes
Microaerophiles
Anaerobes
Facultative anaerobes

27. What is a medium that contains ingredients that inhibit the growth
of some organisms while allowing the growth of others?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Differential
General purpose
Enriched
Selective
All the above

28. one way to get a pure culture is by using _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Aseptic technique
Pour-plate method
Streak-plate method
A and C
B and C
26

Chapter 6: Metabolism of Microorganisms

1. Enzymes are
a.
b.
b.
a.

Inorganic compounds.
Destroyed in a reaction.
Proteins.
Vitamins.

2. Enzymes combine with a ___________at the___________ site to

lower the activation energy.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Substrate; Active
Product; Noncompetitive
Product; Active
Coenzyme; Active

3. Which one the following is NOT a metabolic pathway?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Citric Acid Cycle

The Carbon-Fixing Reactions
Glycolysis
Sucrose
Glucose + Fructose

4. If an enzymes active site becomes deformed, inhibition was likely

responsible.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Metabolic
Competitive
Noncompetitive
Cellular

5. Which one of the following is NOT part of an ATP MOLECULE?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Phosphate group
Cofactor
Ribose
Adenine

6. The use of oxygen gas (02) in an exergonic pathway generating ATP

is called
a. Anaerobic Respiration.
b. Photosynthesis.
27

c. Aerobic Respiration.
d. Fermentation.
7. Which one of the following is NOT produced during glycolysis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

ATP
NADH
Pyruvate
Glucose

8. All the following are produced during the citric acid cycle except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

CO2.
02.
ATP.
NADH.

9. The electron transport chain is directly involved with

a.
b.
c.
d.

ATP Synthesis
CO2 Production.
H+ Pumping
Generating Oxygen Gas.

10. Which one of the following macromolecules would NOT normally

be used for microbial energy metabolism.
a.
b.
c.
d.

DNA
Proteins
Carbohydrates
Fats

11. Anaerobic respiration does NOT

a.
b.
c.
d.

Use An Electron Transport System.

Use Oxygen Gas (02)
Occur In Bacterial Cells.
Generate ATP Molecule

12. In fermentation, the conversion of pyruvate into a final end product

is critical for the production of
a. CO2.
b. glucose

28

c. NAD.
d. 02.
13. Which one of the following is correct sequence for the flow of
electrons in the energy-fixing reactions of photosynthesis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Waterphotosystem 1photosystem IINADPH

Photosystem INADPHwaterphotosystem II
Water------ photosystem II------ photosystem INADPH
NADPHphotosystem Ilphotosystem Iwater

14. Microorganisms that use organic compounds as energy and carbon

sources are
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chemoheterotrophs.
Chemoautotrophs.
Photoautotrophs.
Photoheterotrophs.

15. Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Alcohol-fermentation
Pyruvate-glycolysis
Carbon dioxide-glycolysis
NADH-citric acid cycle

16. The photosynthetic pigments used by the green sulfur bacteria and
some archaeal species are
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chlorophyll
Bacteriochlorophyll
Cytochrome
Sulfate

17. A key energy compound in bacterial photosynthesis by

cyanobacteria is ______ and a major end-product is ______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

GTP; protein
citrate; lactose
glucose; chlorophyll
ATP; glucose

18. Which one of the following statements is false about enzymes?

29

a. All enzyme names end in -ase.

b. Some enzymes are made entirely of protein.
c. Enzymes lower the amount of activation energy needed for a
reaction to take place.
d. Enzymes are reusable.
19. A molecule of ATP contains
a.
b.
c.
d.

Ribose But No Adenine.

Phosphate But No Ribose.
Adenine But No Deoxyribose.
Deoxyribose But No Thymine.

20. In fermentation reactions occurring in yeast, two products of

metabolism are ______ and ______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Acid; Hydrogen Gas

Hydrogen Gas; Sucrose
Ethyl Alcohol; Methane
Carbon Dioxide; Ethyl Alcohol

21. Glucose is to photosynthesis as pyruvate is to _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Oxidative Phosphorylation
Glycolysis
Fermentation
Citric Acid Cycle

22. Chemoautotrophic bacteria obtain the energy they need from

a.
b.
c.
d.

The Reactions Of Photosynthesis.

Sunlight.
Carbon Dioxide In The Atmosphere.
Inorganic Chemicals.

23: All of the following are electron acceptors for anaerobic respiration
except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Carbonate.
Oxygen gas.
Nitrate.
Sulfate.

24: Anabolism involves the

30

a.
b.
c.
d.

Synthesis of larger organic compounds.

Release of energy.
Hydrolysis of organic compounds.
Synthesis of organic compounds without enzymes.

25 What is the breakdown of molecules into smaller particles called?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Anabolism
Catabolism
Fantabolism
Metabolism

26 A reaction that requires energy to take place is called ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Endergonic
Exergonic
Andergonic
Catagonic

27 What part of the enzyme forms the enzyme substrate complex?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Allosteric Site
Active Site
Productive Site
Alternate Site

28 How do enzymes work?

a.
b.
c.
d.

They Lower The Activation Energy

They Raise The Activation Energy
They Cancel Energy Requirements
They Generate ATP

29: Which of the following is an example of a coenzyme?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mg
Fe
NAD
Ag

31

30: What is it called when an enzyme is blocked at its active site so the
normal substrate can't bind?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Competitive Inhibition
Feedback Inhibition
Noncompetitive Inhibition
Pathway Modulation

31: Where is ATP produced in prokaryotic cells?

a.
b.
c.
d.

In The Mitochondria
In The Chloroplast
On The Cell Membrane
On The Ribosomes

32. If cells can use oxygen in cellular respiration it is called _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Anaerobic Respiration
Alcoholic Fermentation
Acid Fermentation
Aerobic Respiration

33: What is the product of glycolysis?

a.
b.
c.
d.

pyruvate and 2 ATPs

AcetylCoA and 4 ATPs
CO2 and H20 and 36 ATPs
pyruvic acid and 6 ATPs

34: Where is the most ATP produced in cellular respiration?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fermentation
Electron Transport Chain
Glycolysis
Citric Acid Cycle

32

Chapter 7: Control of Microorganisms: Physical and

Chemical Methods

1. All the following terms apply to microbial killing except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Sterilization.
Microbicidal.
Bactericidal.
Fungistatic.

02. The thermal death time is

a. The Time To Kill A Microbial Population At A Given
Temperature.
b. The Time To Kill A Microbial Population In Boiling Water.
c. The Temperature To Kill All Pathogens.
d. The Minimal Temperature Need To Kill A Microbial Population.
3. At 160C, it takes about minutes to kilt bacterial spores in a hot-air
oven.
a.
b.
c.
d.

30
60
90
120

4. An autoclave normally sterilizes material by heating the material

to_____C for minutes at__________ psi.
a.
b.
c.
d.

100; 10 30
121.5; 15; 15
100; 15; 0
110; 30; 5

5. Air filtration typically uses a filter.

a.
b.
c.
d.

HEPA
Membrane
Sand
Diatomaceous Earth

33

6. For bactericidal activity,__________ has/have the ability to cause

thymine dimer formation.
a.
b.
a.
b.

X rays
B ultraviolet light
Gamma Rays
Microwaves

7. The elimination of pathogens in foods by irradiation is called

a.
b.
c.
d.

The D Value.
The Pasteurizing Dose.
Incineration.
Sterilization.

8. Preservation methods such as salting result in the microbial cells.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Loss Of Salt From

Gain Of Water Into
Loss Of Water From
Lysis Of

9. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to

antiseptics?
a.
b.
c.
d.

They Are Used On Living Objects.

They Usually Are Microbicidal.
They Should Be Useful As Dilute Solutions.
They Can Sanitize Objects.

10. All the following are chemical parameters considered when

selecting an antiseptic or disinfectant except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Dehydration.
Temperature.
Stability.
Ph.

11. If a chemical has a phenol coefficient (PC) of 63, it means the

chemical
a. Is Better Than One With A PC Of 22.,
b. Will Kill 63P/O Of Bacteria.
c. Kills Microbes At 63C.

34

d. Will Kill All Bacteria In 63 Minutes.

12. Which one of the following is NOT a halogen?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Iodine
Mercury
Clorox Bleach
Chlorine

13. Phenolics include chemical agents

a.
b.
c.
d.

Such As The Iodophores.

Derived From Carbolic Acid.
Used As Tictures.
Such As Formaldehyde. ,

14 Heavy metals, such as____work by _____

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mercury; Disrupting Membranes

Copper; Producing Toxins
Iodine; Denaturing Proteins
Silver; Binding Protein Molecules Together

15. Alcohols are

a.
b.
c.
d.

Surfacants.
Heavy Metals.
Denaturing Agents.
Detergents.

16. All the following statements apply to quats except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

They React With Cell Membranes.

They Are Positively Charged Molecules.
They Are Types Of Soaps.
They Can Be Used As Disinfectants.

17. Hdrogen peroxide

a.
b.
c.
d.

Is An Effective Sterilant.
Cross-Links Proteins And Nucleic Acids.
Can Emulsify And Solubilize Pathogens.
Is Not Recommended For Use On Open Wounds.

18. Ethylene oxide can be used to

35

a.
b.
c.
d.

Kill Bacterial Spores.

Clean Wounds.
Sanitize Work Surfaces.
Treat Water Supplies.

19 Which of the following terms best fits the destruction of all living
micobes, spores and viruses.
a. Sanitization
b. Sterilization
c. Aseptic Technique
d. Pasteurization
20. Which of the following descriptions would tell you all microbes are
killed?
a. Bacteriostatic
b. Fungistatic
c. Microbicidal
d. Microbistatic
21. What is the thermal death time?
a. The Time Necessary To Kill Bacteria At A Specific Temperature
b. The Temperature Necessary To Kill Microbes In A Specific Time
c. The Average Amount Of Time To Kill Microbial Cells
d. It Is The Same As The Thermal Death Point
22. Which of the following describes incineration?
a. Flaming The Loop Before Transferring Bacteria
b. Burning Medical Waste
c. Burning Cattle That Died Of Anthrax
d. A-C Are Correct
23 Why is moist heat more versatile than dry heat?
a. It More Easily Penetrates Materials.
b. Water Molecules Conduct Heat Better Than Air
c. It Denatures Proteins By Changing Their Structure And Chemical
Bonds
d. A-C Are Correct
24 What is the setting for most autoclaves?

36

a.
b.
c.
d.

121oC at 15 psi for 15-30 minutes

100oC at 10 psi for 10-20 minutes
110oC at 21 psi for 20-30 min
150oC at 20 psi for 10-15 minutes

25 What is the advantage of flash pasteurization?

a. It Doesn't Get As Hot
b. It Is Faster
c. It Is Also Used For Solids, Not Just Liquids
d. It Also Sterilizes The Liquid
26 When is a HEPA filter used?
a. To Filter Bacteria Out Of A Vaccine
b. To Trap Particles In The Air
c. To Protect Burn Victims
d. To Separate Bacteria And Viruses
27: What needs to come into consideration when using UV light to
sterilize?
a. It Needs Direct Exposure
b. It Can Cause Skin Cancer
c. It May Not Be Effective Against All Kinds Of Endospores
d. A-C Are Correct
28: The process of destroying pathogens on an object is _____.
a. Disinfection
b. Sanitization
c. Sepsis
d. Antiseptic
29: When is ionizing radiation used to sterilize?
a. To Sterilize Vitamins
b. For Preserving Foods
c. To Sterilize Hormones
d. To Sterilize Antibiotics
e. All The Above
30 Which of the following chemicals are halogens used for
disinfection?
37

a.
b.
c.
d.

Phenol
Alcohol
Detergent
Chlorine

31: Which of the following is a common bisphenol in widespread use in

antibacterial soaps?
a. Chlorhexidine
b. Betadine
c. Triclosan
d. Alcohol
32: What common product acts as a surfactant, poking holes in cell
membranes?
a. Alcohol Sanitizer
b. Soap
c. Phenol
d. Betadine
33: Which of the following gases were used to decontaminate mail after
the anthrax scare?
a. Ethylene Oxide
b. Chlorine Dioxide
c. Carbon Dioxide
d. Ozone

38

Chapter 8: Microbial Genetics

1. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of the bacterial
chromosome?
a.
b.
c.
d.

It Is Located In The Nucleoid.

It Usually Isa Single, Circular Molecule.
Some Genes Are Dominant To Others.
It Usually Is Haploid.

2. DNA compaction involves

a.
b.
c.
d.

A Twisting And Packing Of The DNA.

Supercoiling.
The Formation Of Looped Domains.
All The Above (AC) Are Correct.

3. Plasmids are
a.
b.
c.
d.

Another Name for Transposons.

Accessory Genetic Information.
Domains within A Chromosome.
Daughter Chromosomes.

4. The enzyme adds complementary bases to the DNA template strand

during replication.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Ligase
Helicase
DNA polymerase III
RNA polymerase

5. At a chromosome replication fork, the lagging strand consists of__

That is joined by___.
a.
b.
c.
d.

RNA sequences; DNA ligase

Okazaki Fragments; RNA Polymerase
RNA sequences; ribosomes
Okazaki fragments; DNA ligase

39

6. In a eukaryotic microbe, those sections of a primary RNA transcript

that
will NOT be translated are called
a.
b.
c.
d.

Introns.
Anticodons.
Jumping Genes.
Exons.

7. Which one of the following codons would terminate translation?

a.
b.
c.
d.

AUG
UUU
UAA
UGG

8. The translation of a mRNA by multiple ribosomes is called

formation.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Okazaki
Polysome
Plasmid
Transposon

9. If an antibiotic binds to a 50S subunit, what cellular process will be

inhibited?
a.
b.
c.
d.

DNA replication
Intron excision
Translation
Transcription

10. Which one of the following is NOT part of an operon?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Regulatory gene
Operator
Promoter
Structural genes

11. Being compartmentalized, bacterial RNA polymerases are localized

in the and ribosomes are found

40

a.
b.
c.
d.

Nucleoid; At The Nucleoid Periphery

Cytosol; In The Cytosol
Cytosol; At The Cell Poles
Nucleoid; In The Nucleoid

12. Spontaneous mutations could arise from

a.
b.
c.
d.

DNA replication errors.

Atmospheric Radiation.
Addition Of Insertion Sequences.
All the above (AC) are correct.

13. Which one of the following could NOT cause a change in the
mRNA
reading frame?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Insertion Sequence
Base-Pair Substitution
Base Addition
Base Deletion

14. Excision repair would correct DNA damage caused by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Antibiotics.
UV Light.
A Chemical Mutagen.
A Dna Replication Error.

15. Transposable genetic elements (transposons)

a.
b.
c.
d.

Were First Discovered By Watson And Crick.

Are Smaller Than Insertion Sequences.
Are Examples Of Plasmids.
May Have Information For Antibiotic Resistance.

16. Nutritional mutants are referred to as

a.
b.
c.
d.

Prototrophs.
Wild Type.
Revertants.
Auxotrophs.

17. The Ames test is used to

41

a.
b.
c.
d.

Identify Potential Human Carcinogens.

Discover Auxotrophic Mutants.
Find Pathogenic Bacterial Species.
Identify Antibiotic Resistant Mutants.

18: Why is DNA replication considered semiconservative?

a.
b.
c.
d.

none of the materials are wasted

it is a very efficient process
half of the new DNA molecule is half of the original molecule
none of the above are correct

19 What is the process called of making a mRNA copy of DNA?

a.
b.
c.
d.

translation.
transcription.
transposon
transformation

20: What happens at the ribosome in the production of a protein?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

mRNA brings the codon

tRNA brings the anticodon
the amino acids are linked by polypeptide bonds
translation
all the above

21: What is a difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells in

making protein?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Eukayotes have introns that stay inside the nucleus

Prokaryotes can transcribe and translate at the same time
the process is faster in prokaryotes
A-C are correct

22: Multiple ribosomes working together on one mRNA are called

a.
b.
c.
d.

polysomes
multisomes
polymerases
A-C are correct

23: In bacteria a group of genes located together and functioning

together on a chromosome are called _____.

42

a.
b.
c.
d.

polysome
operon
polymerase
exons

24: An example of an inducible group of genes is the ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

ARG operon
NAC operon
LAC operon
SAC operon

25 A heritable change in DNA is called a ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

mistake
mutation
gene
pathogen

26: Which of the following are examples of mutagens?

a.
b.
c.
d.

detergent
UV light
fertilizer
none of the above are correct

27: Which of the following are examples of repair mechanisms in cells?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

mismatch repair
excision repair
DNA polymerase
DNA ligase
all are important in fixing mutations

28. A ______ can move a part of DNA to another place on the

chromosome.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

translation.
transferon
transposon
transition
transcription

43

29: The Ames test is an effective procedure for

a.
b.
c.
d.

Identifying disease-causing bacterial species.

Detecting potential human carcinogens.
Determining if DNA replication has occurred.
Detecting antibiotic resistance.

30: The bacterium Deinococcus radiodurans has been of interest to

molecular biologists because
a.
b.
c.
d.

it has the smallest known bacterial genome.

it is a "living fossil" linking the Bacteria and Archaea.
it has the largest known bacterial genome.
it is very resistant to radiation damage.

31: Ribosomes match up the ______ of the mRNA and the ______ of
the tRNAs.
a.
b.
c.
d.

codons; anticodons
introns; exons
anticodons; codons
genes; anticodons

32: Transposons are of particular significance because they

a.
b.
c.
d.

often contain genes for antibiotic resistance.

inhibit the effects of overlapping genes.
come in pairs and often are associated with viruses.
regulate gene transcription in bacterial cells.

33: Which one of the following statements is not true of RNA?

a.
b.
c.
d.

RNA contains the monosaccharide ribose.

RNA is primarily a single-stranded molecule.
RNA has a sugar-phosphate backbone.
RNA contains five different nucleotides.

34: A prokaryotic mRNA that consists of 999 nucleotides will code for
how many amino acids?
a.
b.
c.
d.

332
333
666
999

44

35: Which one of the following statements is true?

a. Plasmids are circular molecules of RNA.
b. RNA replicates by a conservative method of replication.
c. Deletions or insertions of a nucleotide in a gene will cause a
reading frameshift during translation.
d. Okazaki fragments are removed from a RNA before translation
occurs.
36: Which one of the following is common between prokaryotic and
eukaryotic chromosomes?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Presence or absence of introns.

Loop or linear chromosomes.
Genetic recombination occurrence in RNA.
Mutations occur in the DNA.

37: In the semiconservative method of replication

a.
b.
c.
d.

Both parent strands are degraded.

One parent strand is conserved in each of the the new dna.
Both parent strands reform with one another.
Okazaki fragments form both of the new molecules of DNA.

45

Chapter 9: Gene Transfer, Genetic Engineering, and

Genomics

1. Which one of the following is NOT an example of genetic

recombination?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Conjugation
Binary fission
Transduction
Transformation

2. Transformation refers to
a. Using A Virus To Transfer DNA Fragments.
b. DNA Fragments Transferred Between Live Donor And Recipient
Cells.
c. The Formation of an F- Recombinant Cell.
d. The Transfer of Naked Fragments of DNA.
3. An F-cell is unable to initiate conjugation because it lacks
a.
b.
c.
d.

Double-Stranded DNA.
A Prophase.
An F Factor.
DNA polymerase.

4. An Hfr cell
a.
b.
c.
d.

Has A Free F Factor In The Cytoplasm.

Has A Chromosomally Integrated F Factor.
Contains A Prophage For Conjugation.
Cannot Conjugate With A F- Recombinant.

5. A is NOT associated with specialized transduction.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Virulent Phage
Lysogenic Cycle
Prophage
Recipient Cell

6. Which complementary sequence would NOT be recognized by a

restriction endonucLease?
46

a.
b.
c.
d.

GAATTC CTTAAG
AAGCTT TTCGAA
GTCGAC CAGCTG
AATTCCTTAAGG

7. A seals sticky ends of recombinant DNA segments.

a.
b.
c.
d.

DNA Ligase
restriction endonuclease
protease
RNA polymerase

8. are single-stranded DNA molecules that can recognize and bind

to a distinctive nucLeotide sequence of a pathogen.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Prophages
Plasmids
Cloning vectors
DNA probes

9. The first completely sequenced genome from a free-living organism

was from
a.
b.
c.
d.

Humans.
E. coil.
Haemophiius.
Bordeteila.

10. What percentage of the human genome is identical to the yeast

genome?
a.
b.
c.
d.

5%
10%
25%
50%

11. A metagenome refers to

a.
b.
c.
d.

A Large Genome In An Organism.

The Collective Genomes Of Many Organisms.
The Genome Of A Metazoan.
Two Identical Genomes In Different Species.

47

12. Genomic islands are

a. Gene Sequences Not Part Of The Chromosomal Genes.
b. Adjacent Gene Sequences Unique To One Or A Few Strains In A
Species.
c. Acquired By HGT.
d. Both B And C Are Correct.
13. Craig Venters sampling of ocean microorganisms is an example of
a.
b.
c.
d.

Microarrays.
Horizontal Gene Transfer.
Microbial Forensics.
Metagenomics.

14: By some estimates, about ______ of our 25,000 genes are identical
to those in some members of the Bacteria.
a.
b.
c.
d.

10
20
200
1000

15 During Griffith's transformation experiments _____.

a. Live S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Dead R Strain Bacteria
Caused Animal Death.
b. Live S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Dead R Strain Bacteria
Failed To Kill The Animals.
c. Dead S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Live R Strain Bacteria
Caused Animal Death.
d. Dead S Strain Bacteria Mixed With Live R Strain Bacteria
Failed To Kill The Animals.
16 The process of conjugation in bacteria requires that _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Two Types Of Viruses Be Present.

The Conjugating Bacteria Be Deprived Of Nutrients.
Two Bacteria Exchange Dna.
Two Live Bacteria Come Together.

17. During the process of lysogeny _____.

a. Phage DNA Integrates Into The Bacterial Chromosome.

48

b. A Bacterium Acquires DNA From The External Environment.

c. Competent Cells Receive Plasmids.
d. New Phage Particles Are Assembled In The Host Bacterium.
18. Without restriction endonucleases, it would be very difficult to
a.
b.
c.
d.

Force Plasmids into Bacteria.

Chemically Open Dna Molecules.
Replicate Dna In A Recombinant Cell.
Bring About Mutations In Bacteria.

19. A transgenic organism is one that _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Has Donated A DNA Fragment To Another Organism.

Contains A Gene From Another Organism.
Contains Useless "Genetic Debris."
Has Exchanged Gene Loci Within The Organism.

20. A bacterial cell that is transformed _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cannot Form A Conjugation Pilus.

Has Undergone A Frameshift Mutation.
Has Acquired Dna From The Environment.
Will Probably Die Within 24 Hours.

21. Competence refers to a bacterial cell's ability to

a.
b.
c.
d.

Take Up DNA Fragments From The Environment.

Be Infected By A Transducing Phage.
Produce A Protein Product From An Engineered Gene.
Undergo Conjugation With An F+ Cell.

22. Specialized transduction is carried out by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Virulent Phages That Have A Lytic Cycle Of Infection.

Temperate Phages Carrying A Entire Bacterial Chromosome.
Temperate Phages That Carry A Segment Of Host Dna.
Virulent Phages That Swap Dna Segments.

23 A plasmid carries _____.

a. Nonessential Genes
b. Resistance Factors
c. Genes For Toxins

49

d. all the above

24: What is the term for manipulating the genes of organisms to
introduce new characteristics?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Genomics
Genetic engineering
Recombinant RNA
Genetic resistance

25: The transfer of DNA from a donor cell to a recipient cells is called
a.
b.
c.
d.

horizontal gene transfer

vertical gene transfer
lateral gene transfer
medial gene transfer

26: Which of the following is NOT a type of horizontal gene transfer

between bacterial cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.

transformation
conjugation
transduction
translation

27 Transformed bacterial cells may display enhanced drug resistances

from the acquisition of _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

F factors
M factors
R factors
S factors

28: Conjugation pili are found only on some ______ bacteria, though it
may occur between cells of various bacteria.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Gram-positive
Gram-negative
Acid-fast
Capsule containing

29: One of the practical applications of genetic engineering is the

bacterial production of ____.

50

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

human insulin.
human growth hormone
blood clotting factors VIII and IX
antiviral proteins
all of the above

30 Applications of genetic engineering can include _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

environmental biology
medicine
agriculture
A-C are correct

31: A DNA probe and PCR are being used to identify _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

HIV infection
HPV in PAP smears
coli in water quality tests
A-C are correct

32: A microarray can be used to _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

identify if a patient has been infected by a pathogen

produce human insulin
insert a viral gene into a plant to prevent viral infection
A-C are correct

33: A new field of _________ has arisen from sequencing, analyzing

and comparing microbial genomes.
a.
b.
c.
d.

PCR
DNA probes
microbial genomics
microarrays

51

Chapter 10: Airborne Bacterial Diseases

1. Which one of the following is NOT part of the lower respiratory
system?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Alveoli
Pharynx
Larynx
Trachea

2. Which one of the folowing is a complication of streptococcal

pharyngitis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Rheumatic Fever
Pseudomembrane Blockage
Strawberry Tongue
Chest, Back, And Leg Pain

3. Methylene blue staining of metachromatic granules is diagnostic for

which of the following bacteria?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Coiynebacterium Diphtheriae
Chlamydia Pneumoniae
Bordetella Pertussis

4. Severe throat pain, fever, muffled voice, and stridor are symptoms of
a.
b.
c.
d.

Sinusitis.
Epiglottitis.
Bronchitis.
Diphtheria.

5. Which one of the following illnesses is characterized byyeLow or

green pus discharged from the nose?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pertussis
Diphtheria
Bronchitis
Acute Sinusitis

52

6. Swimmers ear is a common name for a infection of the_________

ear.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bacterial; Outer
Viral; Outer
Bacterial; Middle
Viral; Inner

7. Acute meningitis
a.
b.
c.
d.

Is An LRT Infection.
Is A Disease Affecting The Membranes Of The Heart.
Can Be Caused Be Corynebacterium Diphtheriae.
Often Starts As A Nasopharynx Infection.

8. A catarrhal and paroxysma stage is typical of which one of the

following bacterial diseases?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Tuberculosis
Pneumonia
Pertussis
Q Fever

9. Acid-fast staining is typicaly used to stain which bacterial genus?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Haemophilus
Streptococcus
Klebsiella
Mycobacterium

10. A person whose inner walls lining the main airways of the lungs
become
inflamed and who develops a dry cough for a few days, probably has
a.
b.
c.
d.

Acute Bronchitis.
Epiglottitis.
Pneumonia.
Chronic Bronchitis.

11. Which one of the following is a gram-positive bacterial species

commonly causing hospital-acquired pneumonia?
a. Haemophilus Influenzae

53

b. Kiebsiella Pneumoniae
c. taphylococcus aureus
d. Chiamydophila pneumoniae
12. Humans can acquire which one of the following diseases from the
droppings of infected birds?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Q fever
Legionellosis
Tuberculosis
Psittacosis

13: Which of the following normal microbiota cause disease in

immunocompromised patients?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Neisseria
Streptococcus
Corynebacterium
Proprionibacterium

14: Streptococcus pyogenes is highly contagious by _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Unwashed hands
Oral/fecal route
Respiratory droplets
Remaining on surfaces for long periods of time

15: Some strains of Streptococcus carry toxins that cause a pink red
rash. This is called _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Rhumatic Fever
Q Fever
Scarlet Fever
Pharyngitis

16: Cases of Rheumatic heart disease have decreased in recent years

because of _________.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Use of Antibiotics for Strep. Throat

A New Vaccine for Strep. Throat.
The Vaccine for Pertussis.
Better Hygiene.

54

17: Diptheria is caused by ______ diphtheriae.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mycobacterium
Corynebacterium
Streptococcus
Haemophilus

18: DTaP is a toxoid vaccine that prevents ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Diptheria
Pneumonia
Polio
Diarrhea

19: The _____ is the most commonly infected region of the respiratory
tract.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Lungs
Bronchi
Throat
Nose
Tonsils

20: Swimmer's ear is commonly seen in children from swimming pools

in the summer. It is often caused by _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Streptococcus
Staphylococcus aureus.
Pseudomonas
A-C are correct

21. Acute bacterial meningitis can begin with ____ that develops into a
blood infection that then invades the meninges.
a.
b.
c.
d.

N. meningitidis
S. pneumoniae
H. influenzae
A-C are correct

55

Chapter 11: Food Borne and Waterborne Bacterial Diseases

1. Which one of the following is NOT a digestive organ of the
gastrointestinal (GI) tract?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Large intestine
Oral cavity
Liver
Small intestine

2. What part of the GI tract contains the largest population of

microorganisms (micro biota)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Colon
Jejunum
Duodenum
Stomach

3. Which one of the following statements does NOT apply to dental

plaque?
a.
b.
c.
d.

It is an example of a biofilm.
It is most noticeable on the molars.
Its buildup on teeth can lead to gingivitis and periodontal disease.
It is dominated by aerobic bacterial species.

4. What type of periodontal disease occurs when plaque bacteria build

up between teeth and gums?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Trench mouth
ANUG
Gingivitis
Periodontitis

5. Gastroenteritis can result in

a.
b.
c.
d.

an intestinal inflammation.
an infection.
an intoxication
All the above (AC) are correct.

6. Foodborne microbes can be found in

56

a.
b.
c.
d.

cattle carcasses.
fresh fruits and vegetables.
healthy animals.
All the above (AC) are correct.

7. Which one of the following bacterial species is NOT a cause of food

poisoning (noninflammatory gastroenteritis)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Escherichia coli
Bacillus cereus
Staphylococcus aureus
Clostridium perfringens

8. One of the most excessive diarrheas of the GI tract is associated with

which of the following poisonings or diseases?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Staphylococcal food poisoning

Typhoid fever
Cholera
Campylobacteriosis

9. Escherichia coli is a common gram that can be a cause of

a.
b.
c.
d.

positive rod; hemorrhagic colitis

negative rod; travelers diarrhea
positive coccus; typhoid fever
negative rod; cholera

10. Clostridium difficile is

a.
b.
c.
d.

the cause of pseudomembranous colitis.

travelers diarrhea.
meningoencephalitis.
undulant fever.

11. This gram-positive rod can cause meningoencephalitis, septicemia,

and
newborn meningitis.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bacillus cereus
Listeria monocyto genes
Clostridium peringens
Escherichia coli

57

12. This species is the most virulent of the vibrios.

a.
b.
c.
d.

V vulnficus
V. cholerae
V enterocolitica
V. parahaemolyticus

13. Typhoid fever is characterized by

a.
b.
c.
d.

The production of an exotoxin.

Hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Rose spots on chest and abdomen.
All the above (ac) are correct.

14. The symptoms of salmonellosis usually last about

a.
b.
c.
d.

24 hours.
48 hours.
5 days.
14 days.

15. What is the name of the syndrome of fever, abdominal cramps, and
bloody mucoid stools caused by Shigella species?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Bacterial dysentery
Typhoid fever
Pseudomembranous colitis
HUS

16. Enterohemorrhagic E. coil (EHEC) can cause

a.
b.
c.
d.

Undulant fever.
Hemolytic uremic syndrome.
Guillain-barr syndrome.
Stomach ulcers.

17. The most commonly reported cause of invasive bacterial

gastroenteritis is associated with which of the following bacterial
genera?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Campylobacter
Staphylococcus
Shigeila
Ciostridium

58

18. Yersiniosis is caused by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Yersinia pestis.
Yersinia pseudotuberculosis.
Yersinia entercolitica.
All of the above (AC) cause the illness.

19. Gastric ulcer disease is caused by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Helicobacter pylori.
Yersinia entercolitica.
Escherichia coli.
Salmonella Typhi.

20: Botulism is an example of a _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

waterborne infection
foodborne intoxication
waterborne intoxication
fecal/oral infection

21: Cases of cholera are caused by _____ cholerae.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Vibrio
Clostridium
Salmonella
Shigella

22: Which one of the following genera is not associated with a

foodborne intoxication?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Clostridium
Salmonella
Staphylococcus
All three (A-C) are associated with a foodborne intoxication.

23: Traveler's diarrhea is most often caused by a species of _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Salmonella
Vibrio
Escherichia
Listeria

24: Shigellosis is primarily a disease of the _____.

59

a.
b.
c.
d.

Nervous System
Blood
Respiratory Tract
Gastrointestinal Tract

25: Brucellosis can be an occupational hazard of _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Farmers
Veterinarians
Dairy Workers
All Three (A-C) Occupations Are At Risk.

26: Hemorrhagic colitis and hemolytic uremic syndrome are associated

with
a.
b.
c.
d.

Helicobacter Pylori.
Staphylococcus Aureus.
Escherichia Coli.
Salmonella Typhi.

27 Which one of the following parts of the body is not associated with
listeriosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Lungs
Meninges
Blood
Uterus

28: One could make a case for _____ being the most extensive diarrheal
disease.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Gastric Ulcer Disease

Cholera
Brucellosis
Listeriosis

29: The majority of bacterial species that cause foodborne and

waterborne illnesses in humans are _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Gram-Negative Rods
Gram-Negative Cocci
Gram-Positive Rods
Rods Without A Wall

60

30: John Snow was able to correlate the spread of cholera with a
contaminated _____ in London in 1866.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Water Pump
Dairy
Butcher Shop
Hand Soap

31: Where do the indigenous microbiota come from to repopulate the

gut after diarrhea?
a.
b.
c.
d.

The Food You Eat

The Place You Live
The Appendix
The Liver

32: It has been discovered that Helicobacter pylori is the cause of

______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Acute Gastritis
Gastric Ulcers
Stomach Cancer
A-C Are Correct

33: Which of the following is NOT a condition seen with the

development of dental caries?
a.
b.
c.
d.

A Susceptible Tooth With A Buildup Of Plaque

Dietary Carbohydrates (Usually Sugar)
Acidogenic Bacterial Species
Chewing A Lot Of Gum

34: What is the most common infectious disease today?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Respiratory Infections
Intestinal Infections
Sexually Transmitted Infections
Dental Caries

35: Which group of people would be more susceptable to intestinal

infections?
a. Infants
b. Young Children

61

c. Teenagers
d. Adults
36: Which of the following is NOT a way to prevent food from being
contaminated?
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Control The Initial Number Of Bacteria Present

Prevent The Small Number From Growing
Destroy Bacteria By Cooking Properly
Avoid Recontamination After Cooking
Re-Freeze Food After Cooking

37. Which of the following can be a cause of food poisoning?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Streptococcus Pyogenes
Staphylococcus Aureus.
Pseudomonas Fluorescens
Streptococcus Epidermidis

38: Which is the most common food causing infant botulism?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Milk
Water
Honey
Apple Juice

39: What is the best treatment for cholera?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Antibiotics
Water
Milk
Oral Rehydration Therapy

62

Chapter 12: Soil Borne and Arthropod Borne

Bacterial Diseases
1. Woolsorter disease applies to the form of
a.
b.
c.
d.

inhalation; tularemia
toxic; myonecrosis
intestinal; anthrax
inhalation; anthrax

2. Which one of the following describes the mode of action of

tetanospasmin?
a.
b.
c.
d.

It inhibits muscle contraction.

It damages and lyses red blood cells.
It disrupts cell tissues.
It inhibits muscle relaxation.

3. A crackling sound associated with myonecrosis is due to

a.
b.
c.
d.

Respiratory Distress Due To Plague.

Nerve Contractions Due To Tetanus.
Lymph Node Swelling Due To Plague.
Gas Produced By C. Perfringens.

4. Leptospira interrogans has all the following characteristics except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Endoflagella.
Aerobic Metabolism.
Exotoxin Production.
A Hook At One End Of The Cell.

5. A characteristic of cell staining of Y. pestis is a

a.
b.
c.
d.

Gram-Positive Staining.
Bipolar Staining.
Gram-Positive Staining.
Gram-Variable Staining.

6. Skin ulcers are a common lesion resulting from being bitten by

a. A Tick Infected With B. Burgdorferi.
b. Fleas Infected With Y. Pestis.
c. A Tick Infected With F. Tularensis.
63

d. Lice Infected With C. Tetani.

7. Erythema migrans is typical of the stage of Lyme disease.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Early Localized
Early Disseminated
Late
Recurrent

8. A brief tick bite and a small number of recurring periods of fever and
chills is typical of
a.
b.
c.
d.

Louseborne Relapsing Fever.

Ehrlichiosis.
Rocky Mountain spotted fever.
Epidemic Typhus.

9. Rocky Mountain spotted fever is most common in the

a.
b.
c.
d.

Southeastern United States.

Rocky Mountains.
Pacific Northwest.
New England.

10. A lowering of the white blood cell count is characteristic of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Plague.
Anthrax.
Ehrlichlosis.
Rmsf.

11 Which one of the following is not a form of plague?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Relapsing
Bubonic
Pneumonic
Septicemic

12: Lyme disease is transmitted by _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fleas
Mosquitoes
Lice
Ticks

64

13: Epidemic, endemic, and scrub typhus are caused by a different

species
a.
b.
c.
d.

Yersinia
Borrelia
Rickettsia
Clostridium

14: Clostridium tetani grows in a/an _____ environment.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Acidic
Anaerobic
High Oxygen
Aerobic

15: Tularemia is also called _____ fever.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cat Scratch
Typhoid
Rabbit
Rat Bite

16: The cells of Leptospira interrogans, the causative agent of

leptospirosis, have a _____ shape.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Rod
Spiral
Spherical
Spirochete

17: A hyperbaric oxygen chamber may be used to treat a patient

suffering from _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Tetanus
Anthrax
Plague
Gas Gangrene

18: Bacillus anthracis is a gram-_____ rod.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Positive, Spore-Forming
Positive, Anaerobic
Negative, Spore-Forming
Negative, Aerobic

65

19: Ehrlichiosis is transmitted by _____ and infects _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Lice; Red Blood Cells

Ticks; Leukocytes
Fleas; Skin Cells
Ticks; Liver Cells

20: Currently, the most common arthropodborne disease in the US is.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Relapsing Fever
Lyme Disease
Tularemia
Epidemic Typhus

21: Which of the following is NOT a method of getting anthrax?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Inhalation
Intestinal
Cutaneous
Urinary

22: What disease is described by: "the toxin acts at the neuromuscular
junction, preventing the release of neurotransmitters needed to inhibit
muscle contraction."
a.
b.
c.
d.

Botulism
Tetanus
The Plague
A-C Are Correct

23: Gas gangrene is caused by _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Clostridium tetani
Clostridium botulinum
Clostridium perfringens
Clostridium gangrenum

24: ______ is the most wide-spread zoonosis.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgdorferi
Rickettsia rickettsii
Yersinia pestis

66

25: _____ is an ancient disease now endemic in the southwestern US in

gophers and prairie dogs.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Leptospira interrogans
Borrelia burgdorferi
Rickettsia rickettsii
Yersinia pestis

26: An early symptom of ________ is a spreading bulls-eye rash at the

site of a tick bite.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Tularemia
Lyme disease
Yersinia pestis
Q fever

27: ________ is seen with periods of fever and chills when many
spirochetes are present in the blood.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Rabbit fever
Lyme disease
Relapsing fever
The Plague

28: The Rickettsias demonstrate a characteristic ______ and ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fever And Chills

Fever And Rash
Fever And Difficulty Breathing
Chills And Low White Blood Cells.

29: ________ is a tickborne pathogen that inhabits human leukocytes.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Francisella Tularensis
Yersinia Pestis
Ehrlichia
Rickettsia

30: Which of the following is a soilborne disease?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Tularemia
the plague
Rickettsia
Tetanus

67

Chapter 13: Sexually Transmitted & Contact Transmitted

Bacterial Diseases

1. The primary sex organs of the female reproductive system is/are the
a. Uterus.
b. Vagina.
c. Clitoris
d. Ovaries.
2. What part or parts of the male and female reproductive systems are
typically colonized by indigenous microbiota?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Male: Ureters; Female: Vagina And Ovaries

Male: Testes And Epididymis
Male: Urethra; Female: Vagina, Vulva, And Cervix
Male: Bladder And Ureters; Female: Fallopian Tubes And
Cervix

3. Which one of the following microbes is NOT associated with

vaginosis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Peptostreptococcus
Gardnerella
Prevotella
Staphylococcus

4. Which one of the following statements is NOT correct concerning the

reproductive cycle of Chlamydia?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Reticulate Bodies Are Infectious.

Reticulate Bodies Reorganize Into Elementary Bodies.
Elementary Bodies Infect Host Cells.
Elementary Bodies Transform Into Reticulate Bodies.

5. Salpingitis is associated with_______ and can lead to___________

a.
b.
c.
d.

Syphilis; Gumma Formation

Gonorrhea; Sterility
Chlamydia; Ophthalmia
Chancroid; Soft Chancre

68

6. A chancre is typical of which stage of syphilis?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Primary
Secondary
Tertiary
Chronic, latent

7. Besides chlamydia urethritis, what other STD is associated with

another
Serotype of Chlamydia trachomatis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)

Genital warts
Granuloma inguinale
Chancroid

8. Which one of the following is NOT part of the urinary tract?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Urethra
Bladder
Kidneys
Ureters

9. What bacterial species is most often associated with cystitis?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Treponemo pallidum
Escherichia coIi
Chlamydia trachomatis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

10. What type of immune defensive cell is found in the sublayers of the
epidermis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Keratinocyte
Dendritic (Langerhans) cell
Neutrophil
Basophil

11. The skin is

a. Dominated By Gram-Negative Bacterial Cells.
b. Free Of Bacterial Cells.
c. Without A Microbiota.

69

d. Dominated By Gram-Positive Bacterial Cells.

12. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of acne?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Acne is caused by Propionibacterium acnes.

Plugged sebaceous glands are called erythemas.
Whiteheads are completely blocked follicles.
Acne is not a preventable disease.

13. An acute wound could be due to

a.
b.
c.
d.

Surgical Procedures.
Cuts.
Lacerations.
All The Above (AC) Are Correct.

14. In children, this skin disease is characterized by the production of

thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid and forming yellowishbrown flakes.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Toxic shock syndrome

Scalded skin syndrome
Erysipelas
Impetigo

15. Which one of the following skin diseases is NOT caused by

Streptococcus
pyogenes?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Necrotizing fasciitis
Toxic shock syndrome
Gas gangrene
. Erysipelas

16. The most common cause of an invasive wound infection, such as a

burn, is
a.
b.
c.
d.

gram-positive bacterial species.

treponema pallidum.
Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Escherichia coli.

17. Bartonelia henselae is the causative agent of this skin disease.

70

a.
b.
c.
d.

Leprosy
Cat-scratch disease
Necrotizing fasciitis
Rat-bite fever

18. Leprosy can be contracted by contact with

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contaminated Water.
Insects.
Nasal Secretions.
Contaminated Food.

19. The SAFE strategy has greatly reduced the global burden of what
disease?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Trachoma
Neonatal conjunctivitis
Leprosy
Blepharitis

20: The rapid plasma reagin test and VDRL test are both used _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

In The Diagnosis Of Syphilis.

To Detect Toxic Shock Syndrome.
To Gauge The Extent Of Dental Decay.
To Distinguish Ureaplasmal And Mycoplasmal Urethritis.

21. Two methods for transmitting leprosy are

a.
b.
c.
d.

Arthropod Bites And Fomites.

Skin Contact And Respiratory Droplets.
Arthropod Bites And Contaminated Food.
Contaminated Water And Food.

22: Which one of the following pairs is mismatched?

a.
b.
c.
d.

TSS-skin peeling
Gonorrhea-urethritis
Leprosy-liver damage
Cat scratch fever-swollen lymph nodes

23: Newborns exposed to Chlamydia trachomatis from an infected

mother may experience

71

a.
b.
c.
d.

Toxic Shock Syndrome or Staphylococcal Skin Disease.

Dental Caries When the Teeth Grow In.
Destruction of the Reproductive Organs.
Disease of the Eyes or Lungs.

24: The scalded skin syndrome is generally associated with

a.
b.
c.
d.

Hutchinson's triad.
children born to parents who have had pasteurellosis.
high mortality rates in untreated cases.
damage of the urethra from mycoplasmal urethritis.

25: Organisms that normally inhabit the body

a.
b.
c.
d.

include Treponema pallidum.

cause endogenous diseases.
may be detected by Donovan bodies.
resist the effects of antibiotics.

26: All the following apply to trachoma except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

the disease occurs in the eyes.

tetracycline is helpful in therapy.
tiny, pale nodules form on the conjunctiva.
the agent of the disease is Treponema pertenue.

27: All the following are among the opportunistic organisms that may
cause nosocomial disease except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pseudomonas aeruginosa.
Escherichia coli.
Staphylococcus aureus.
Mycobacterium leprae.

28: The condition known as pseudomembranous colitis is associated

with
a.
b.
c.
d.

Excessive antibiotic use in the intestine.

Invasion of the tissues by Streptococcus mutans.
Swollen lymph nodes.
The secondary stage of syphilis.

72

29: Impetigo is a skin disease caused by

a.
b.
c.
d.

a species of Haemophilus.
a species of Chlamydia.
Bacteroides fragilis.
Staphylococcus aureus.

30: What is the most common sexually transmitted infection in the

United States?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
AIDS

31: Which organism is found in the acidic vagina of women of

reproductive age?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Candida albicans
Lactobacillus
Escherichia coli.
Staphylococcus epidermidis

32: Which of the following may result from untreated STDs in females?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pelvic Inflammatory Disease (PID)

ectopic pregnancy
infertility
A-C are correct

33: Which of the following STIs start with a chancre, then a rash and if
untreated results in gummas and death many years later?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
Syphilis
Granuloma inguinale

34: Which of the following are antimicrobial defense mechanisms in the

urethra?
a. size and length of the urethra
b. shedding of cells in the mucosal lining and bacteria with urination

73

c. normally basic urine

d. A-C are correct
35: ______ is a bladder infection.
a.
b.
c.
d.

urethritis
pyelonephritis
cystitis
prostatitis

36: Which of the skin microbiota is responsible for most cases of the
inflammatory condition of acne?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Propionebacterium
Staphylococcus
Corynebacterium
Acinetobacter

37: _____ is a widespread and highly contagious staphylococcal skin

disease with thin-walled blisters oozing a yellowish fluid that forms a
crust.
a.
b.
c.
d.

furuncle
carbuncles
impetigo
abscess

38: Of the hemolytic groups of streptococci, _____ is the most

dangerous because the organisms completely destroy red blood cells.
a.
b.
c.
d.

alpha hemolytic group

the beta hemolytic group
the gamma hemolytic
strep viridins group

39: Which of the following organisms cause necrotizing fasciitis, or the

flesh-eating disease?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Group A streptococcus
Group B streptococcus
Staphylococcus aureus.
strep viridins group

74

40. The primary sex organs of the male reproductive system is/are the
a.
b.
c.
d.

Penis
Testicles
Seminal Vesicles
Vas Deferens

Chapter 14: The Viruses and Virus Like Agent

1. Which one of the following scientists was NOT involved with
discovering viruses?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Felix dHerrelle
Dimitri Ivanowsky
Robert Fleming
Martinus Beijerinck

2. Viral genomes consist of

a.
b.
c.
d.

DNA only.
RNA only.
DNA or RNA.
DNA and RNA.

3. A nucleocapsid can have

a.
b.
c.
d.

radial
icosahedral
vertical
bilateral

4. Tissue tropism refers to

a.
b.
c.
d.

what tissues grow due to a viral infection.

what tissues are resistant to viral infection.
what organisms a virus infects.
what cells or tissues a virus infects.

5. An RNA virus genome in the form of messenger RNA is referred to

as a
a. + strand RNA.

75

b. double-stranded RNA
c. strand RNa
d. Reverse strand RNA.
6. A virulent bacteriophage will
a.
b.
c.
d.

Carry Out A Lytic Cycle.

Integrate Its Genome In The Host Cell.
Remain Dormant In A Bacterial Cell.
Exist As A Prophage.

7. The release of the viral genome from the capsid is called

a.
b.
c.
d.

Uncoating.
Endocytosis.
Penetration.
Maturation.

8. Provirus formation is possible in members of the

a.
b.
c.
d.

Single-Stranded DNA Viruses.

Retroviruses.
Double-Stranded RNA Viruses.
Single-Stranded ( Strand) RNA Viruses.

9. Cytopathic effects would include all the following except

a.
b.
c.
d.

Changes In Cell Structure.

Provirus Formation.
Vacuolated Cytoplasm.
Syncytia Formation.

10. A plaque is a
a.
b.
c.
d.

Change In Cell Structure Due To Viral Infection.

Viral Cell Inclusion.
Clear Zone Within A Lawn Of Bacteria.
Cellular Aggregation Of Phage Heads.

11. A benign tumor

a. Will Metastasize.
b. Represents Cancer.
c. Is Malignant.

76

d. Is A Clone Of Dividing Cells.

12. Which of the following is NOT a carcinogen?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Genetic factors
UV light
Certain chemicals
X rays

13. The oncogene theory states that transforming genes

a.
b.
c.
d.

Normally Occur In The Host Genome.

Can Exist In Viruses.
Are Not Of Viral Origin.
All Of The Above (AC) Are Correct.

14. Newly emerging viruses causing human disease can arise from
a.
b.
c.
d.

Species Jumping.
Mutations.
Genetic Recombination.
All Of The Above (AC) Are Correct.

15. Viruses derived from fragments of cellular genetic material and

macromolecules forms the basis of the
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cellular Origins Hypothesis.

Independent Entities Hypothesis.
Rna World Hypothesis.
Regressive Evolution Hypothesis.

16. Viroids contain

a.
b.
c.
d.

RNA and DNA.

Only RNA.
DNA and a capsid.
RNA and an envelope.

17. Which one of the following statements about prions is FALSE?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Prions are infectious proteins.

Prions have caused disease in Americans.
Human disease is called variant CJD.
Prions can be transmitted to humans from infected beef.

77

18: The genome of a virus may contain either ______ or ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

DNA; protein
protein; carbohydrate
carbohydrate; RNA
RNA; DNA

19: Though few in number, some drugs, such as _____, can be used to
treat some viral infections.
a.
b.
c.
d.

penicillin and ampicillin

isoniazid and dapsone
amantadine and acyclovir
streptomycin and amphotericin

20: Attenuated viruses are those that _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

can be used to treat viral disease.

give rise to viroids and prions.
multiply in cells but at a low rate.
have been treated with chemicals such as formaldehyde.

21: Viroids and prions differ in that viroids are believed to contain only
______, while prions are believed to contain only _______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

carbohydrate; amino acids

nucleic acid; protein
amino acids; carbohydrate
protein; nucleic acid

22: Retroviruses are so-named because their reverse transcriptase

_____.
a. reverses the flow of genetic information by stimulating
information to proceed from RNA to DNA.
b. reverses the normal multiplication of cells from a low rate to a
high rate.
c. reverses the ability of viruses to associate with cells.
d. reverses the action of drugs on viruses and allows them to
continue multiplying in living cells.
23: Rivers' postulates can be used to

78

a.
b.
c.
d.

locate an oncogene in a cell that is cancerous.

develop inactivated viruses for use in a vaccine.
eliminate viruses with certain chemical agents.
relate a particular virus to a particular disease.

24: Cancer cells interfere with cell functions in all the following ways
except:
a. they rob cells of their nutrients and induce cell starvation.
b. they stimulate the immune system to produce destructive
interferons.
c. they clog the vascular network and reduce the oxygen supply to
cells.
d. they overwhelm cells through sheer force of numbers.
25: The protein coat of a virus particle is called a _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

capsid
capsomere
nucleocapsid
envelope

26: An example of a large complex virus is _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

polio
smallpox
cold sores
SARS

27: When a viral nucleic acid becomes part of the host cell chromosome
it is called _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

lysis
lysogeny
maturation
latent

28: Which of the following viruses is a retrovirus with reverse

transcriptase?
a. HPV
b. polio
c. HIV
79

d. Ebola
29: An example of a virus causing cytopathic effects is _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Paraxyxoviruses causeing syncytia

Infectious mononucleosis with foamy-llking cytoplasm
Rabies causing Negri bodies
A-C are correct

30: Viruses can be grown on _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

nutrient agar
nutrient broth
blood agar
tissue culture

31: Which of the following are oncogenic viruses?

a.
b.
c.
d.

polio
HIV
HPV
rabies

32: Which of the following cause new emerging infectious diseases?

a.
b.
c.
d.

mutation
recombination
cross host ranges
A-C are correct

33: _____ are infectious RNA particles

a.
b.
c.
d.

Viroids
Prions
Virions
A-C are correct

34. Which of the following are the causes of "mad cow disease"?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Viriods
Prions
Virions
A-C are correct

80

Chapter 15: Viral Infections of the Respiratory Tract and

Skin

1. There are more than___________ different rhinoviruses, which

belong to the ________family.
a.
b.
c.
d.

50; Orthomyxoviridae
100; Adenoviridae
30; Paramyxoviridae
100; Picornaviridae

2. ALL of the following are diseases caused by the adenoviruses except

a.
b.
c.
d.

Viral pneumonia.
Acute respiratory disease.
Parainfluenza.
Common cold.

3. Which one of the folLowing statements is NOT true of the influenza

viruses?
a.
b.
c.
d.

They have a segmented genome.

The genome is double-stranded DNA.
The viruses have an envelope.
There are three types of flu viruses.

4. Which one of the following is NOT a member of Paramyxoviridae.

a.
b.
c.
d.

RSV
Human metapneumovirus
SARS-CoV
Parainfluenza virus

5. SARS is
a.
b.
c.
d.

A skin infection.
Spread through close person-to-person contact.
A mild, respiratory infection.
Most often seen in young children.

6. Cold sores and genital herpes can be caused by

a. HSV-1.
b. HHV-6.
81

c. VZV.
d. HHV-8.
7. A red, itchy rash that forms small, teardrop-shaped, fluid-filled
vesicles is typical of
a.
b.
c.
d.

Measles.
Rubella.
Chickenpox.
Mumps.

8. HHV-6 that causes roseola primarily affects

a.
b.
c.
d.

The elderly.
Pregnant mothers.
Infants.
Teenagers.

9. Kaposi sarcoma is a tumor of the

a.
b.
c.
d.

Blood vessels.
Liver.
Lymph nodes.
Kidneys.

10. are diagnostic for measles.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Koplik spots
Wart-like lesions
Swollen lymph nodes
Blisters on the body trunk

11. The characteristic sign of rubella is

a.
b.
c.
d.

Orchitis.
Pale-pink maculopapular rash.
Fiery red rash on cheeks and ears.
High fever and sensitivity to light.

12. Fifth disease

a. Is hospital acquired?
b. Causes white skin warts.
c. Causes benign skin growths.

82

d. Is transmitted by respiratory droplets.

13. Some papillomaviruses are capable of causing
a.
b.
c.
d.

A lacy rash on the skin.

Lung cancer.
Pneumonia.
Cervical cancer.

14. Which one of the following statements applies to smallpox?

a.
b.
c.
d.

The disease is associated with animal contact.

The disease has been eradicated worldwide.
It can be sexually-transmitted.
The virus can lie dormant in host cells.

15: _____ is the most common lower respiratory tract disease among
infants and young children
a.
b.
c.
d.

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

Viral pneumonia
Influenza
The common cold

16: SARS has a reservoir of infection in _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Chickens
Pigs
Bats
Monkeys

17: Hanta virus is present in the desert southwest for those in contact
with
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mouse Droppings
Ticks; Leukocytes
Mosquitoes
Prairie Dogs

18. Medications that can be used early in influenza are ____ and ____
because they inhibit the release of new virions.
a. aspirin, decongestants
b. Relenza, Tamiflu

83

c. Penicillin, ampicillin
d. AZT, ribivirin
19: A common trait among Herpes viruses is _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Lysogeny
Lysis
Laxity
Latency

20: Chickenpox can resurface years later as _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Shingles
Zostavax
Smallpox
Roseola

21. _____ can spread from person to person in respiratory secretions or

it may be inherited congenitally.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Measles
Chickenpox
Rosella
Herpes

22: Which of the following diseases is not prevented by the MMR

vaccine?
a. Measles
b. Mumps
c. Rabies
b. Rubella
23: Which of the following viruses has a vaccine to prevent it?
a.
b.
c.
d.

HPV
HIV
fifths disease
herpes simplex I

84

Chapter 16: Viral Infections of The Blood, Lymphatic,

Gastrointestinal, And Nervous Systems

1. Mononucleosis is an infection of________ cells by the _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

T; cytomegalovirus
B; Epstein-Barr virus
Lung; cytomegalovirus
red blood; Epstein.Barr virus

2. Which of the foLlowing is NOT a transmission mechanism for

hepatitis B?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Sexual contact
Non-sterile body piercing equipment
Fecal-oral route
Blood-contaminated needles

3. Symptoms of headache, fever, and muscle pain Lasting 3 to 5 days,

followed by a 2 to 24 hour abating of symptoms is characteristic of
a.
b.
c.
d.

Yellow fever.
Hepatitis C.
Dengue fever.
Ebola hemorrhagic fever.

4. A long thread-Like RNA virus is typical of the viruses.

a.
b.
c.
d.

hepatitis C
Ebola
polio
West Nile

5. The reservoir for Lassa fever is

a.
b.
c.
d.

Rats.
Mosquitoes.
Ticks.
Sandffles.

6. Which one of the following characteristics pertains to hepatitis A?

85

a.
b.
c.
d.

Transmission is by the fecal-oral route.

The incubation period is 2 to 4 weeks.
It is an acute, inflammatory liver disease.
All of the above (AC) are correct.

7.__________are the single most important cause of diarrhea in infants

and young children admitted to American hospitals.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Noroviruses
Echoviruses
Hepatitis A viruses
Rotaviruses

8. Hydrophobia is a term applied to

a.
b.
c.
d.

rotavirus infections.
West Nile fever.
arboviral encephalitis.
rabies.

9. These viruses multiply first in the tonsils and then the lymphoid
tissues of the gastrointestinal tract.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Rabies virus
Rotavirus
Polio virus
Hepatitis A virus

10. Arboviral encephalitis is an example of a

a.
b.
c.
d.

disease causing gastroenteritis.

disease spread by the fecal-oral route.
Zoonosis
type of hepatitis.

11. The fecal-oral route is the mode of transmission for the _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Hepatitis A virus.
Hepatitis B virus.
Hepatitis A and B viruses.
All hepatitis viruses.

12: Dengue fever is transmitted primarily by

86

a.
b.
c.
d.

contact with body fluids.

contaminated water and food.
arthropods.
None of the above( A-C) is correct.

13: Researchers have associated the ______ virus with infectious

mononucleosis and have evidence that the virus also causes _______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Epstein-Barr; hepatitis B
Epstein-Barr; Burkitt's lymphoma
Coxsackie; hepatitis B
Coxsackie; Burkitt lymphoma

14: Which investigator developed a polio vaccine containing inactivated

viruses?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Enders
Sabin
Jenner
Salk

15: Rotavirus and the noroviruses can both be causes of viral ______
when transferred to humans by ______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

meningitis; mosquitoes
meningitis; water
gastroenteritis; mosquitoes
gastroenteritis; water

16: Which one of the following is not a viral disease of the nervous
system?
a.
b.
c.
d.

West Nile fever

Hantavirus
Polio
Rabies

17: The rabies virus is shaped like a/an ______ and enters the body by a
_______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

icosahedron; skin wound

icosahedron; mosquito bite
bullet; skin wound
bullet; mosquito bite
87

18: The ______ causes a viral hemorrhagic fever that has been
responsible for many outbreaks in Africa.
a.
b.
c.
d.

norovirus
Lassa fever virus
Ebolavirus
Rotavirus

19: Infectious _____ is caused by the ________virus infecting the B

lymphocytes.
a.
b.
c.
d.

mononucleosis, Epstein Barr

shingles, varicella
Epstein Barr, yellow fever
Meningitis, Lassa

20: The ______ can cause serious birth defects including mental
impairment.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mononucleosis
Cytomegalovirus
Polio
Hepatitis C

21: Which of the following can be prevented by a vaccine?

a.
b.
c.
d.

hepatitis A
hepatitis B
hepatitis C
herpes simplex I

22: Damage from ________ is the major cause of liver transplants in the
US, alcohol and drug use are cofactors.
a.
b.
c.
d.

hepatitis A
hepatitis B
hepatitis C
herpes simplex I

23: Arboviruses are _____ viruses.

a. arthropod-borne
b. arthritis causing
c. tree-borne

88

d. A-C are correct

24: _________ fever was the first human disease associated with a
virus. Walter Reed identified _________ as the carrier.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Lassa, rats
Dengue, mosquitoes
Ebola, bats
Yellow, mosquitoes

25: The zoonotic reservoir for Ebolavirus and Marburgvirus may be

_____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

rats
monkeys
mice
fruit bats

26: Lassa fever is transmitted by the zoonotic host, _______ which are
used for food.
a.
b.
c.
d.

fruit bats
bush rats
monkeys
rabbits

27: The majority of cases of rabies are from _____ and ______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

dogs, cats
rabbits, fox
raccoons, bats
dogs, coyotes

28: Where in the body does polio attack?

a.
b.
c.
d.

the gray matter of the spinal cord

the white matter of the spinal cord
the gray matter of the brain
the white matter of the brain

89

Chapter 17: Eukaryotic Microorganisms: The Fungi

1. Which one of the following statements about fungi is NOT true?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Some fungi are dimorphic.

Fungi have cell walls made of chitin.
Fungi are photosynthetic organisms.
Fungi consist of the yeasts and molds.

2. Which one of the following best describes the growth conditions for a
typical fungus?
a.
b.
c.
d.

pH 3; 23C; no oxygen gas present

pH 8; 30C; no oxygen gas present
pH 6; 30C; oxygen gas present
pH 3; 23C; oxygen gas present

3. All the following are examples of asexual spore formation except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Arthrospores.
Conidia.
Sporangiospores.
Basidiospores.

4. An organism without a known sexual stage would be classified in the

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mitosporic fungi.
Zygomycota.
Basidiomycota.
Ascomycota.

5. Yeasts of the species Saccharomyces

a.
b.
c.
d.

Are Used In Bread Making.

Reproduce By Budding.
Are Members Of The Ascomycetes.
All Of The Above (AC) Are Correct.

6. Aflatoxin is produced by__ and is

a. Sporothrix schenkii; a hallucinogen
b. Aspergillusflavus; carcinogenic

90

c. Cloviceps purpurea; a hallucinogen

d. Aspergillus niger; a mycotoxin
7. Mushroom poisoning is
a.
b.
c.
d.

Always fatal.
Characterized by immediate symptoms.
Most common in children under 6 years of age.
Treatable with antifungal drugs.

8. This fungal disease can cause a blister-like lesion on the scalp.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Candidiasis
Dermatophytosis
Cryptococcosis
Histoplasmosis

9. ______ causes more than 20 million cases each year and symptoms
include an itching sensation and burning internal pain.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Thrush
Dock itch
Vulvovaginitis
Sporotrichosis

10. From the following, sporotrichosis would most likely be transmitted

from
a.
b.
c.
d.

Peat Moss.
Bat Caves.
Mushrooms.
Dusty Soil.

11. Which one of the following fungi would most likely be found in
pigeon
droppings?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pneumocystis
Cryptococcus
Coccidioides
Sporothrix

91

12. Moving to the Ohio or Mississippi River valleys might make one
susceptible to
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pcp.
Valley fever.
Dermatophytosis.
Histoplasmosis.

13. This dimorphic fungus produces conidia that are inhaled from dusty
soil or bird droppings.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Aspergillis fumigatus
Pneumocystis jiroveci
Amanita phalloides
Blastonyces dermatitidis

14. The formation of arthrospores and spherules is characteristic of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Coccidioidomycosis.
Histoplasmosis.
Candidiasis.
Aspergillosis.

15. This funqal disease is the most common cause of nonbacterial

pneumonia in immunocompromised individuals.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Blastomycosis
Pneumocystis pneumonia
Aspergillosis
Coccidioidomycosis

16. The most deadly form of aspergillosis is

a.
b.
c.
d.

A pulmonary form.
A toxigenic form.
A blood form.
An invasive form.

17: Sexual reproduction in the fungi

a. Occurs in all phyla.
b. Provides an opportunity for the evolution of new genetic forms.
c. Results in sporangia and conidia.

92

d. Takes place only in the mitosporic fungi.

18: Which one of the following statements is true of fungal growth?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Most fungi grow best at 37 degrees C.

Most fungi, with the exception of yeasts, are anaerobic.
Most fungi thrive under mildly acidic conditions.
Most fungi grow in extreme environments.

19: Which one of the following is true of the hypha?

a.
b.
c.
d.

It is the morphological unit of the fungus.

It is visible without a microscope.
It lacks a cell wall.
None of the above (A-C) is true.

20: Both the ascus and the basidium

a.
b.
c.
d.

Are formed by fungi in the mitosporic fungi.

Are involved in coenocytic formation by fungi.
Are diploid structures.
Are produced during the sexual stage of fungal reproduction.

21: The tinea infections of the human skin are

a.
b.
c.
d.

All caused by fungi.

Transmissible from pets.
Treated with a variety of powders or ointments.
All the above (a-c) are true.

22: The fungus Candida albicans has been known to infect

a.
b.
c.
d.

The human intestine.

The mucous membranes of the oral cavity.
The female vagina.
All the above (a-c) are correct.

23: The fungal diseases histoplasmosis and blastomycosis both

a.
b.
c.
d.

Occur in the United States.

Affect the human brain and spinal cord.
Are due to fungi that grow as a mycelium in the body.
Are accompanied by the production of aflatoxins.

24: The baking and brewing yeasts

93

a.
b.
c.
d.

Belong to the genus Aspergillus.

Break down glucose and other carbohydrates.
Induce bread to rise by producing oxygen gas.
Cause serious diseases in humans.

25: Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Penicillium-blue cheese
Sporotrichosis-rose thorns
Chytrids-mushrooms
Trichophyton-athlete's foot

26: All the following characteristics apply to fungi except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

There may be 1.5 million species.

They lack chlorophyll.
They include molds and yeasts.
They are prokaryotic microorganisms.

27: The study of fungi is called _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fungology
Mycology
Hyphology
Mycosis

28: A difference between molds and yeasts are that molds are _____ and
yeasts are _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Unicellular, filamentous
Filamentous, unicellular
Filamentous, hyphous
Hyphous, filamentous

29: Cell walls in fungi are made of _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cellulose
Glycogen
Silicon
Chitin

94

30: Which of the following terms does NOT describe fungal nutrition?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Heterotrophic
Saprobes
Decomposers
Chemolithotrophs

31: Bread mold is a member of which phylum? Sexual mating types

fuse forming a _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Zygomycota, zyogospores
Glomeromycota, sporangiospores
Ascomycota, ascospores
Basidiomycota, basidiospores

32: A _____ is a mutualistic association between a fungus and a

photosynthetic organism like a cyanobacterium or algae.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Morel
Lichen
Rust
Smut

33: Toxins produced from some fungi include all but which of the
following?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Aflatoxin
Ergot
Amatoxin
Botulinin

34: Tinea infections include all but which one of the following?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Athlete's foot
Ringworm
Thrush
Jock itch

35: Which of the following fungi would most likely be seen in an

individual with AIDS?

95

a.
b.
c.
d.

Cryptococcus neoformans
Sporothrix schenkii
Trichophyton
Microsporum

36: _____ causes a disease from spores in the soil in the desert
southwest.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Pneumocystis jiroveci
Coccidioides immitis
Aspergillus
Cryptococcus neoformans

96

Chapter 18: Eukaryotic Microorganisms: The Parasites

1. The _______are members of the_____________

a.
b.
c.
d.

Green Algae; Protozoa

Radiolarians; Apicomplexans
Dinoflagellates; Phytoplankton
Radiolarians; Fungus-Like Protists

2. This group of protozoa has a single mitochondrion with a mass of

DNA.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Kinetoplastids
Ciliates
Apicomplexans
Diplomonads

3. The group of protozoa have food vacuoles and pseudopods.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Kinetoplastid
Excavata
Chromalveolata
Amoebozoa

4. Which one of the following is NOT found in the ciliates?

a.
b.
c.
d.

A contractile vacuoLe
Macronuclei and micronucLei
A compLex of organelles in the tip
Mitochondria

5. An intermediate host is
a.
b.
c.
d.

Where parasite asexual cycle occurs.

Always a nonhuman host
Where parasite sexual cycle occurs.
The human host between two other animal hosts.

6. The vector transmitting Leishmaniasis is the

a. Mosquito.
b. Sand fly.

97

c. Tsetse fly.
d. Sand flea.
7.______ enters the human body as a cyst and develops into a
trophozoite in the small intestine; a severe form of dysentery may occur.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cryptosporidium parvum
Entamoeba histolytica
Giardia intestinalis
Cyclospora cayetanensis

8. Sucker-Like devices allow this protozoan to adhere to the intestinal

Lining.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cyclospora cayetanensis
Entamoeba histolytico
Giardia intestinalis
Cryptosporidium parvum

9. This disease sickened more than 4x105 residents of Milwaukee in

1993.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Giardiasis
Cryptosporidiosis
Trypanosomiasis
Cyclosporiasis

10. This genus of parabasalid affects over 7.4 million Americans

annually and is considered a sexually transmitted disease.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Toxoplasma
Ctyptosporidium
Cyclospora
Trichomonas

11. The ________form of the malarial parasite enters the human blood
while The_____ enters the mosquito.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Sporozoites; Merozoites
Merozoites; Gametocytes
Merozoites; Sporozoites
Sporozoites; Gametocytes

98

12. Chagas disease is caused by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Trypanosome Cruzi.
Toxoplasma Gandii.
Babesia Microti.
Trypanosoma Brucei

13. Babesiosis is carried by.___ and infects___________

a.
b.
c.
d.

Mosquitoes; Rbcs
Fleas; The Kidneys
Ticks; Rbcs
Mosquitoes; The Liver

14. The T in TORCH stands for the disease caused by

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Trypanosome Brucei.
Toxoplasma Gondii.
Taenia Spiralis.
Trypanosoma Cruzi.
Trichomonas Vaginalis.

15. This opportunistic protozoan causes primary meningoencephalitis

(PAM).
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Plasmodium Vivax
Toxoplasma Gondil
Naegieria Fowleri
Paragonimus Westermani
Entamoeba Histolytica

16. Transmitted by an arthropod.

a. Filariasis
b. Trichinosis
c. Hookworm disease
17. Beef tapeworm species.
a. Echinococcus Granulosus
b. Schistosoma Mansoni
c. Taenia Saginata
18. Type of fluke.

99

a. Schistosoma
b. Necator
c. Echinococcus
19. Cause of pinworm disease.
a. Trichinella
b. Enterobius
c. Ascaris
20. Infects the human intestines.
a. Trichineila Spiralis
b. Scaris Lumbricoides
c. Taenia Saginata
21. Type of tapeworm.
a. Taenia
b. Echinococcus
c. Necator
22. Snail is the intermediate host.
a. Blood fluke
b. Echinococcus
c. Intestinal fluke
23. Attaches to host tissue by hooks.
a. Necator
b. Trichinella
c. Enterobius
24. Affects pigs as well as humans.
a. Wuchereria
b. Trichinella
c. Schistosoma
25. Life cycle includes miracidia and cercaria.
a. Schistosoma
b. Echinococcus
c. Ascaris

100

26. Acquired by consuming contaminated pork.

a. Taenia solium
b. Echinococcus
c. Necator americanus
27. Classified in the phylum Nematoda.
a. Ascaris
b. Wuchereria
c. Schistosoma
28. Causes inflammation and damage to the Lymphatic vessels.
a. Echinococcus
b. Ascaris
c. Wuchereria
29. Male and female forms exist.
a. Taenia
b. Ascaris
c. Schistosoma
30. Forms hydatid cysts.
a. Blood fluke
b. Enterobius
c. Echinococcus
31: Which one of the following protozoa would most likely be isolated
in an individual with AIDS?
a. Cryptosporidium
b. Balantidium
c. Babesia
d. Leishmania
32: Which one of the following diseases is transmitted by contaminated
food or water?
a. Trypanosomiasis
b. Trichomoniasis
c. Giardiasis
d. Leishmaniasis

101

33: The parasites of malaria invade the body's ______ and bring on
intense _________.
a. White Blood Cells; Diarrhea
b. White Blood Cells; Chills And Fever
c. Red Blood Cells; Chills And Fever
d. Red Blood Cells; Diarrhea
34: Which disease is associated with domestic cats?
a. Cyclosporiasis
b. Cryptosporidiosis
c. Toxoplasmosis
d. None of the above (A-C) is correct.
35: As a general rule, tapeworms require
a. Two Hosts.
b. A Fish Host.
c. Only A Human Host.
d. No Host At All.
36: Among the major signs of trichinellosis are
a. Some Diarrhea And Intestinal Ulcers.
b. Ulcers On The Lower Surface Of The Feet.
c. Extensive Inflammation Of The Lymph Vessels.
d. Pain In The Breathing Muscles Of The Ribs.
37: Gravid proglottids are essential elements of the
a. Reproductive Cycle of Tapeworms.
b. Nutrient Cycle of Hookworms.
c. Swimming Activity of Beef Tapeworms.
d. Reproductive Cycle of Intestinal Flukes.
38: Wuchereria bancrofti manifests its presence in the human tissues
by
a. Swimmer's Itch.
b. Swollen Arms and Legs.
c. Severe Diarrhea.
d. Damage to the Retina of the Eye.

102

39: Malaria is a protozoal disease caused by _____ .

a. Trypanosoma
b. Toxoplasma
c. Plasmodium
d. Leishmania
40: Which one of the following represents the correct sequence of
stages in the life cycle of flukes?
a. Cercaria to redia to miracidium to sporocyst
b. Miracidium to sporocyst to redia to cercaria
c. Metacercaria to redia to cercaria to sporocyst
d. Redia to miracidium to metacercaria to cercaria
41: Which of the following is NOT one of the organisms that are in
Protista?
a. plant-like organisms
b. animal-like organisms
c. fungal-like organisms
d. bacterial-like organisms
42: ______ are marine protists that have chalky skeletons.
a. diatoms
b. foraminifera
c. algae
d. radiolarians
43: Red tides are caused by ______.
a. flagellates
b. cilliates
c. pseudopodia
d. algae
44: _____ is a parasitic flagellate in humans and is transmitted through
sexual intercourse.
a. Trichonympha
b. Trypanosoma
c. Trichomonas
d. Leishmania,
45: In humans, amoebic dysentery or encephalitis may result from
drinking water or consuming food contaminated by _____ .
a. Entamoeba
b. Naegleria
103

c. Giardia
d. Apicomplexa
46: _____ is a cutaneous or visceral disease transmitted by the bite of
an infected female sandfly.
a. Malaria
b. Leishmaniasis
c. Apicomplexa
d. Amoebiasis
47: _____ is an intestinal disease you can get from a day care or
swimming pool.
a. Giardiasis
b. Amoebiasis
c. Cryptosporidiosis
d. Leishmania
48: A disease also called "black water fever" from blood in urine is
_____.
a. Leishmania
b. Cryptosporidiosis
c. Giardiasis
d. Malaria
49: _____ which are free-living trophozoites appear to enter the body
through the mucous membranes of the nose and then follow the
olfactory tracts to the brain.
a. NaegleriaLeishmania
b. Giardia
c. Babesia
50: A common roundworm in young children is ______, causing an
itchy anus at night.
a. Ascaris
b. hookworm
c. pin worm
d. elephantiasis

104

Chapter 19: Infection and Disease

1. A newborn
a.
b.
c.
d.

Contains indigenous micro biota before birth.

Remains sterile for many weeks after birth,
Becomes colonized soon after conception.
Is colonized with many common micro biotas within a few days
after birth.

2. Factors affecting virulence may include

a.
b.
c.
d.

The presence of pathogenicity islands.

Their ability to penetrate the host.
The infectious dose.
All the above (ac) are correct.

3. A healthy person can be diagnosed as having a infection with the

multiplication of bacterial cells in the blood.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Primary; bacteremia
Primary; vermeil
Primary; septicemia
Secondary; parasitemia

4. Changes in body function sensed by the patient are called

a.
b.
c.
d.

Symptoms.
Syndromes.
Prodromes.
Signs.

5. Adhesions can be found on

a.
b.
c.
d.

Host Cells.
Viruses.
Bacterial Pili And Capsules.
Cells At The Portal Of Entry.

6. In the body, bacterial invasiveness can be limited by

a. Fever.

105

b. Phagocytosis.
c. Enzyme production..
d. Toxic production.
7. Which one of the following is NOT true of exotoxins?
a.
b.
c.
d.

They are proteins.

They are part of cell wall structure.
They are released from live bacterial cells.
They trigger antibody production.

8. A portal of exit would be

a.
b.
c.
d.

The feces.
An insect bite.
Blood removal.
All of the above (ac) are correct.

9. If a person has recovered from a disease but continues to shed disease

agents, that person is a
a.
b.
c.
d.

Vector.
Fomite.
Vehicle.
Carrier.

10. All of the following are examples of communicable diseases except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Chickenpox.
Measles.
The common cold.
Tetanus.

11. Which one of the following is an example of an indirect method of

disease transmission?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Coughing
Droplet transmission
A mosquito bite
An animal bite

12. Fifty cases of hepatitis A during one week in a community would

most likely be described as a/an

106

a.
b.
c.
d.

Outbreak.
Pandemic.
Endemic Disease.
Epidemic.

13. The most common nosocomial infection involves

a.
b.
c.
d.

Blood.
Lungs.
Urinary Tract.
A Surgical Site.

14. A zoonosis is a disease

a.
b.
c.
d.

Transmitted From Humans To Animals.

Spread From Animals To Humans.
Transmitted Between Wild And Domestic Animals.
Spread Between Wild Animals.

15. A disease that occurs at a low level in a certain geographic area is

a/an
a. Local Disease.
b. Pandemic Disease.
c. Endemic Disease.
d. Systemic Disease.
16: _____ methods of disease transmission include fomites and _____.
a. Indirect; kissing
b. Indirect; arthropods
c. Direct; kissing
d. Direct; arthropods
17: The site where a pathogen enters the body is commonly called the
_____ while the number of pathogens necessary to establish an
infection is the _____.
a. Penetration Point; Dose
b. Penetration Point; Acme
c. Portal Of Entry; Dose
d. Portal Of Entry; Acme
18: _____ refers to bacteria that grow and spread through the blood.
a. Chronic Disease
b. Septicemia

107

c. Acute Disease
d. Bacteremia
19: A disease that is restricted to a single area of the body is a _____
disease.
a. Local
b. Topical
c. Focused Disease
d. Subclinical
20: A disease that is slower to develop, rarely reaches a climax, and
fades very slowly is a/an _____ disease.
a. Primary
b. Subclinical
c. Acute
d. Chronic
21: The bacterial enzyme ______ assists the spread of bacteria away
from a blood clot, while ______ assists the spread through body tissues.
a. Streptokinase; Hyaluronidase
b. Streptokinase; Hemolysin
c. Coagulase; Hyaluronidase
d. Coagulase; Hemolysin
22: A disease in which the agent is acquired directly from the
environment and is not transmissible is a/an _____ disease.
a. Local
b. Secondary
c. Noncommunicable
d. Acute
23: The organisms of diphtheria and ______ are known for their
production of _______.
a. Typhoid Fever; Antitoxins
b. Typhoid Fever; Exotoxins
c. Tetanus; Antitoxins
d. Tetanus; Exotoxins
24: An acute disease becomes _____ when the body is incapable of
ridding itself of the pathogen, while a local disease becomes ______
when it disseminates to deeper organs and tissues.
a. Contagious; Systemic
b. Contagious; Secondary
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c. Chronic; Systemic
d. Chronic; Secondary
25: _____the scientific (and medical) study of the causes, transmission,
and prevention of disease within a population.
a. Epidemiology
b. Pathology
c. Microbiology
d. Virulence
26: _____ is any change from the general state of good health.
a. Infection
b. Disease
c. Parasitism
d. Virulence
27: ________ occurs if a microbial member of the normal microbiota
should gain access to sterile tissue.
a. Pathogenicity Islands
b. Exogenous Infection
c. Endogenous Infection
d. Polymicrobial Disease
28: ______ infections are more common in AIDS or cancer patients.
a. Indigenous
b. Opportunistic
c. Primary
d. Secondary
29: Which of the following is a sign of disease?
a. Sorethroat
b. Nausea
c. Headache
d. Fever
30: The ability of a pathogen to penetrate tissues, cause damage and
spread is _____.
a. Pathogenicity
b. Invasion
c. Adhesiveness
d. Infectiousness
31: Which of the following is NOT an enzyme a pathogen might use to
gain entrance into the body?
109

a. Coagulase
b. Streptokinase
c. Hemolysin
d. A-C Are Correct
32: The body responds to exotoxins by producing antibodies called
_____.
a. Adhesins
b. Antitoxins
c. Toxoids
d. A-C Are Correct
33: Which of the following is a reservoir of a disease?
a. Dog - Toxoplasmosis
b. Monkey - Ebola
c. Bat - Rabies
d. Goat - Leishmania
34: Which of the following is a fomite?
a. Turtle
b. Water
c. Bed Linens
d. Food

110

Chapter 20: Resistance End the Immune System; Innate Immunity

1. Which pair of cells represents granulocytes?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Basophils and lymphocytes

Neutrophils and eosinophils
Eosinophils and monocytes
Lymphocytes and monocytes

2. The secondary lymphoid tissues include the__________

and_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.

Thymus; Bone Marrow

Bone Marrow; Tonsils
Spleen; Thymus
Spleen; Lymph Nodes

3. Which one of the following statements is NOT true of innate

immunity?
a.
b.
c.
d.

It is an early-warning system against pathogens.

It is a form of immunity found only in vertebrates.
It is a nonspecific response.
It responds within minutes to many infections.

4. The stomach is a chemical barrier to infection because the stomach

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contains bile.
Harbors helicobacterpylori, a member of the host microbiota.
Possesses defensive cells.
Has an acid ph.

5. Which one of the following is the correct sequence for the events of
phagocytosis?
a. Cell attachment, acidification, phagosome formation, lysosome
degradation
b. Cell attachment, phagosome formation, acidification, lysosome
degradation
c. Phagosome formation, cell attachment, acidification. lysosome
degradation

111

d. Cell attachment phagosome formation, lysosome degradation.

acidification
6. Which characteristic sign of inflammation is NOT correctly
associated with its cause?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Edemanerve damage
Heatblood warmth
Swellingfluid accumulation
Rednessblood accumulation

7. Pyrogens are
a.
b.
c.
d.

Proteins Affecting the Hypothalamus.

Bacterial Fragments.
Fever-Producing Substances.
All the Above (AC) Are Correct.

8. Natural killer (NK) cells kill by secreting

a.
b.
c.
d.

Lysozymes.
Granzymes.
Defensins.
Interferons.

9. Which one of the following is NOT a function of complement?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Stimulation of inflammation
Stimulation of antibody formation
Formation of membrane attack complexes
Heightened level of phagocytosis

10.________ bind to_________ on microbial invaders.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Toll-like receptors; PAM Ps

Mast cells; histamine
Toll-like receptors; complement
Macrophages; defensins

11. Which one of the following statements about interferon is FALSE?

a. Interferon is produced in response to a viral infection.
b. Interferon is a naturally produced protein.
c. Interferon puts uninfected cells in an antiviral state.

112

d. Interferon is a protein that binds to RNA virus genomes.

12. _____ is the scientific study of how the immune system functions in
the body to prevent or destroy foreign material, including pathogen
a.
b.
c.
d.

Epidemiology
Microbiology
Immunology
Toxicology

13. Which of the following is NOT a lymphocyte?

a.
b.
c.
d.

B-cells
T-cell
NK cells
Basophils

14: Which of the following is NOT a granulocyte?

a.
b.
c.
d.

Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Basophils

15: Which of the following is a secondary lymphatic tissue?

a.
b.
c.
d.

thymus
bone marrow
spleen
A-C are correct

16: Which of the following is a barrier to entry of pathogens?

a.
b.
c.
d.

the skin
tears
nasal mucosa
A-C are correct

17: Which of the following is a cellular barrier in the innate defense

system?
a. macrophages
b. Erythrocytes
c. B-cells

113

d. T-cells
18: _____ is a nonspecific defensive response by the body to trauma.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Phagocytosis
Inflammation
Abcess
Respiratory burst

19: Which of the following is NOT part of inflammation?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Redness
Pain
Swelling
Temperature
Coughing

20: Virus infected cells produce a set of cytokine proteins called _____
that "alert" surrounding cells to the viral threat.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
Interferon.
Toll Like Receptors (TLR)
Acute Phase Proteins

21: A _____ is a cytokine that induces fever by stimulating the ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

pyrogen, hypothalamus
pyogen, thalamus
defensin, thyroid
perforin, pituitary

22: A _____ is a protein receptor on the surface of macrophages,

dendritic cells, and endothelial cells that allow them to recognize
foreign cell markers.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Toll-like receptor (TLR)

pathogen-associated
Membrane attack complex (MAC)
Natural killer cells (NK)

114

Chapter 21: Resistance And The Immune System: Acquired

Immunity

1. ALL the following are immunogenic except:

a.
b.
c.
d.

Bacterial Flagella.
Haptens.
Bacterial Pili.
Viral Spikes.

2._________ cells are associated with immunity while_____________

cells are part of___________ immunity.
a.
b.
c.
d.

B; cell-mediated; T; innate
T; humoral; B; cellular
T; cell-mediated; B; humoral
T; humoral; B; nonspecific

3. Clonal selection includes

a. Antigen-receptor binding on B cells.
b. Antibody secretion recognizing same epitope as on B cell
receptors.
c. Differentiation of B cells into plasma cells and memory
cells.
d. All the above (AC) are correct.
4. Which one of the following cell types is NOT derived from myeloid
progenitors?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Lymphocytes
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Neutrophits

5. An antigen binding site on the IgG antibody is a combination of

a. One variable region from a light chain and one from a heavy
chain.
b. Two variable regions from two light chains.
c. Two variable regions from two heavy chains.

115

d. One variable region from a constant region and one from a

variable region.
6. This dimeric antibody class often occurs in secretions of the
respiratory
and gastrointestinal tracts.
a.
b.
c.
d.

IgE
IgM
IgA.
IgG

7. The presence of IgM antibodies in the blood indicates

a.
b.
c.
d.

An early stage of an infection.

A chronic infection.
An allergic reaction is occurring.
Humoral immunity has yet to start.

8. Antibody diversity results from

a.
b.
c.
d.

Apoptosis.
Antigenic shift.
Somatic recombination.
Complement binding.

9. A/an ________mechanism facilitates the clearance of toxins from the

body.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Opsonization
Precipitation
Agglutination
Neutralization

10. MHC class I proteins would be found on___________ whereas

MHC class II proteins would be found on_____________
a.
b.
c.
d.

Nucleated Cells; Plasma Cells

Nucleated Cells; Macrophages
Dendritic Cells; Neutrophils
Only White Blood Cells; Red Blood Cells

11. TH1 cells activate

116

a.
b.
c.
d.

B cells.
Killing of pathogens in macrophages.
Cytotoxic T cells.
Humoral immunity.

12. Performs and granzymes are found in

a.
b.
c.
d.

Helper T cells.
Antigen-presenting cells.
Cytotoxic T cells.
B cells.

13. TH2 cells bind to

a.
b.
c.
d.

MHC-11/peptide complex on APC cells.

B cell receptors.
MHc-1/etid complex on infected cells.
MHC-11/peptide complex on B cells.

14: The _____ cell contains on its surface a CD4 receptor site that
enhances binding to the macrophage.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Helper T
molecular patterns (PAMPs)
plasma
B

15: Resistance to disease in the passageways of the respiratory and

gastrointestinal tract is dependent on antibodies in the class _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

IgG
IgA
IgE
IgM

16: To activate a bound helper T lymphocyte, the macrophage produces

a. Interleukin-1 (IL-1)
b. granzymes
c. Interferon
17: The immune system originates with a primordial cell of the fetus
known as the _____ stem cell.

117

a.
b.
c.
d.

T
dendritic
monocyte
hematopoietic

18: Which one of the following is not an antigen?

a.
b.
c.
d.

A toxin
A virus
A bacterial cell
All (A-C) are antigens

19: Antigens that bind directly to MHC proteins without any processing
are known as _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

epitopes
haptens
superantigens
nave cells

20: The _____ class of antibodies is the principal component of a

secondary antibody response.
a.
b.
c.
d.

IgM
IgD
IgG
IgE

21: In the body's immune system, _____ are the major producers of
secreted antibodies.
a.
b.
c.
d.

macrophages
plasma cells
T cells
B cells

22: The unique sets of proteins that present antigens on the surfaces of
body cells are
a.
b.
c.
d.

MHC proteins.
Cytokines.
Complement proteins.
Immunoglobulins.

118

23: Antibodies contain two identical_____ chains, and two identical

_____ chains.
a.
b.
c.
d.

right, left
constant, variable
heavy, light
Fab, Fc

24: _____ responds to, distinguishes between and remembers specific

pathogens it has encountered.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Acquired immunity
Innate immunity
Humoral immunity
Cell-mediated immunity

25: Acquired immunity usually involves protein receptors on B and T

cells that recognize discrete regions of the antigen called _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

haptens
epitopes
antibodies
protein receptors

26: _____ T cells prevent autoreactive T cells from attacking self.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Memory
Helper
Regulatory
Effector

27: ____ becomes activated to eliminate "nonself" cells, such as virusinfected cells or cancer cells.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Humoral immune response

Cell-mediated immune response
Complement
Inflammation

28: _____ cells have antibodies on their surface that perform receptor
functions by binding to antigen (epitope).

119

a.
b.
c.
d.

T
B
NK
A-C are correct

29: Cytotoxic T cells release which 2 toxic proteins as they fight target
cells?
a.
b.
c.
d.

histamine and heparin

perforin and granzymes
interleukin and interferon
lysozymes and cytokines

30: The cytotoxic T cells have a_____ co-receptor while the helper T
cells have a _____ co-receptor.
a.
b.
c.
d.

CD8. CD4
CD4, CD8
MHCI, MHCII
MHCII, MHCI

31: Acquired immunity consists of humoral immunity maintained by

_____ and _____, and cell-mediated immunity controlled by _____
a.
b.
c.
d.

T cells, complement, B cells

T cells, Interleukin, B cells
B cells, antibodies, T cells
B cells, histamine, T cells

32: The formation of _____ by_____ directly lyses and kills pathogens.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Membrane Attack Complexes, complement

Inflammation, lymph nodes
antibodies, plasma cells
Plasma cells, B cells

33: Of the five classes of antibodies,_____ and_____ are primary

disease fighters, while secretory _____ is found on body (mucosal)
surfaces.
a.
b.
c.
d.

IgA, IgG, IgD

IgG, IgA, IgM
IgG, IgD, IgM
IgG, IgM, IgA
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Chapter 22: Immunity and Serology

1. Exposure to the flu virus, contracting the flu, and recovering from the
disease would be an example of
a.
b.
c.
d.

Artificially acquired passive immunity.

Naturally acquired active immunity.
Artificially acquired active immunity.
Naturally acquired passive immunity.

2. An attenuated vaccine contains

a.
b.
c.
d.

Inactive toxins.
Living, but slow growing (replicating) antigens.
Killed bacteria.
Noninfective antigen subunits.

3. Immune complex formation and serum sickness are dangers of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Artificially acquired passive immunity.

Naturally acquired active immunity.
Artificially acquired active immunity.
Naturally acquired passive immunity.

4.Herd immunity is affected by

a.
b.
c.
d.

The percentage of a population that is vaccinated.

The strength of an individuals immune system.
The number of susceptible individuals.
All the above (ac) are correct.

5. Approximately of 100,000 vaccinated individuals are likely to suffer

a serious reaction to the vaccination.
a.
b.
c.
d.

1
50
100
500

6. Titer refers to
a. The most concentrated antigen-antibody concentration
showing a reaction.

121

b. The first diluted antigen-antibody concentration showing a

reaction.
c. The precipitation line formed between an antigen-antibody
reaction.
d. The most dilute antigen-antibody concentration showing a
reaction.
7. _______ is a serological reaction that produces Little or no visible
evidence of a reaction.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Precipitation
ELISA
NeutraLization
Agglutination

8. The serological reaction where antigens and antibodies form an

extensive Lattice of large particles is called
a.
b.
c.
d.

Fixation.
Precipitation.
Neutralization.
Agglutination.

9. When antigens are attached to the surface of latex beads and then
reacted with an appropriate antibody, a/an reaction occurs.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Inhibition
Agglutination
Neutralization
Precipitation

10. What serologicaL test requires sheep red blood cells and a
preparation of antibodies that recognizes the sheep red blood ceLls?
a.
b.
c.
d.

ELISA
Radioimmunoassay
Immunodiffusion
Complement fixation test

11. In an ELISA, the primary antibody represents

a. The patients serum.
b. The antibody recognizing the secondary antibody.

122

c. The enzyme-linked (labeled) antibody.

d. The antibodies having been washed away.
12. A hybridoma cell
a.
b.
c.
d.

Secretes monoclonal antibodies.

Presents antigens on its surface.
Secretes polyclonal antibodies.
Is an antigen-presenting cell

13. A vaccination would be an example of _____ immunity that is

______ acquired.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Active; Naturally
Active; Artificially
Passive; Naturally
Passive; Artificially

14: Antibodies produced by a single clone of myeloma cells are referred

to as _____ antibodies.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Chimeric
Monoclonal
Polyclonal
Hybrid

15: An attenuated vaccine is one that

a.
b.
c.
d.

Can provide life-long immunity.

Contains live microbes or viruses.
Is closest to the natural pathogens.
All the above (a-c) are correct.

16: Booster immunizations are used to raise the antibody level by

stimulating the _____ cells to induce the secondary antibody response.
a.
b.
c.
d.

helper T
B
memory
plasma

17: A/an _____ vaccine contains inactivated toxins.

a. toxigenic

123

b. toxoid
c. antitoxin
d. immunotoxic
18: Passive artificial immunity occurs in the body when a/an _____ is
injected into the body or when a developing fetus receives antibodies
across the placenta.
a.
b.
c.
d.

antibody-rich serum
antigens
haptens
adjuvant

19: All forms of immunity depend on an exposure to antigens and a

subsequent response by _____ cells.
a.
b.
c.
d.

basophil
neutrophil
NK
T

20: The colostrum, or first milk of a nursing mother, contains _____ that
is transferred to the nursing child.
a.
b.
c.
d.

IgA
IgG
IgM
IgE

21: Hyperimmune serum is serum with a higher than normal level of

_____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

antigens
antibodies
toxins
immune cells

22: _____ acquired _____ immunity usually follows an obvious illness

or it may follow a subclinical illness.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Naturally; passive
Artificially; active
Naturally; active
Artificially; passive
124

23: The danger of attenuated vaccines is they should not be given to

_____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

infants
young children
immunocompromised patients
all of the above (A-C)

24: Why should you get a new influenza vaccine every year?
a.
b.
c.
d.

it wears off fast

the viruses change rapidly
you need a booster to keep the immune level up
none of the above are correct

25 Why are inactivated vaccines safer than attenuated vaccines?

a.
b.
c.
d.

they can't mutate and cause the disease

they last a lifetime
they are easier to administer
they aren't any better

26: What is the advantage of a recombinant subunit vaccine?

a. it can't cause disease
b. adverse reactions are rare because only the important subunits of
the antigen are included
c. the vaccine is not made from blood fragments
d. A-C are correct
27: Which of the following is a conjugate vaccine with tetanus or
diphtheria toxoid?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Salk polio
Sabin polio
influenza
Hib

28: The newest and safest vaccines under development are _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

attenuated vaccines
toxoid vaccines
DNA vaccines
conjugated vaccines

125

29: The maternal _____ antibodies remain with the child for
approximately three to six months after birth providing immunity after
birth.
a.
b.
c.
d.

IgA
IgG
IgM
IgD

30: Often it may be necessary to add a substance to a vaccine to

improve its ability to stimulate the immune system called a/an ____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

adjuvant
conjugant
toxoid
formulant

31: If a serum is given to prevent a disease it is called a ______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

therapeutic
prophylactic
synthetic
convalescent

32: _____ implies that if enough people in a population are immunized

against certain diseases, then it is very difficult for those diseases to
spread.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Herd immunity
Passive immunity
Active immunity
Natural immunity

126

Chapter 23: Immune Disorders

1. All the following are types of immediate hypersensitivities except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Asthma.
Contact Dermatitis.
Food Allergies.
Hay Fever.

2. Systemic anaphylaxis is characterized by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contraction Of Smooth Muscles.

A Red Rash.
Blood Poisoning.
Hives.

3. Which of the following is NOT a type I hypersensitivity?

A. Food Allergies
B. Contact Dermatitis
C. Allergic Rhinitis
D. Exercise Induced Allergies
4. The early response in asthma is due to activity.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cytotoxic T Cell
Basophil
TH2 Cell And NI( Cell
Dendritic Cells

5. What type of immune cell may control IgE-mediated

hypersensitivities?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Suppressor T cells
Plasma cells
Cytotoxic T cells
Neutrophils

6. Desensitization therapy can involve

a. The use of blocking antibodies.
b. Injections of small amounts of allergen.

127

c. Allergen injections of several months.

d. All the above (AC) are correct.
7. A cytotoxic hypersensitivity would occur if blood type is transfused
into a person with blood type
a.
b.
c.
d.

A;AB
0; AB
A; 0
0; B

8. Serum sickness is a common symptom of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Contact dermatitis.
Hemolytic disease of the newborn.
Immune complex hypersensitivity
Food allergies.

9. Which one of the following allergens is NOT associated with contact

dermatitis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Foods
Cosmetics
Poison ivy
Jewlery

10. Immunological tolerance to self is established by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Destruction of self-reactive lymphoid cells.

Clonal anergy.
Clonal deletion.
All the above (AC) are correct.

11. A is a graft between genetically different members of the same

species.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Xenograft
Autograft
Allograft
Isograft

12. Immunosuppressive agents used in preventing transplant rejection

primarily affect

128

a.
b.
c.
d.

macrophages.
neutrophils.
dendritic cells.
T cells.

13. What immunodeficiency disorder is associated with a tack of T and

B cells and complete immune dysfunction?
a.
b.
c.
d.

DiGeorge syndrome
Severe combined immunodeficiency disease
Chronic granulomatous disease
Chdiak-Higashi syndrome

14. An HIV patient with swollen lymph nodes and CD4 T cell count of
would be in stage of HIV disease/AIDS.
a.
b.
c.
d.

1,000; stage II
700; stage I
400; stage III
400; stage IV

15 All the following are associated with hemolytic disease of the

newborn except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

It is one of the most common diseases among Americans.

It may occur if an Rh (-) female conceives a child who is Rh (+).
It involves a reaction between red blood cells and antibodies.
It can be prevented by using rhogam.

16 Which one of the following applies to the disease systemic lupus

erythematosus (SLE)?
a.
b.
c.
d.

It is a type of cytotoxic hypersensitivity.

It is often accompanied by a butterfly rash.
It is due to an overreaction of T lymphocytes.
It is the result of a cellular hypersensitivity.

17: During the course of a cellular hypersensitivity

a. Antibodies react with antigens in tissues.
b. Serotonin and histamine are released by cells.
c. Immune complexes form on blood vessel surfaces.

129

d. A skin thickening called an induration may form.

18: DiGeorge syndrome and X-linked (Bruton) agammaglobulinemia

differ in the
a.
b.
c.
d.

Type of antibody produced by the immune system.

Lymphocytes that the body fails to produce.
Systems affected by the respective diseases.
Type of hypersensitivity that ensues.

19: Hashimoto disease and Graves disease are similar in that both
a.
b.
c.
d.

Affect the thyroid gland.

Affect the red blood cells.
Are forms of cellular hypersensitivity?
Are accompanied by histamine release.

20: An essential element of all allergy reactions is the

a.
b.
c.
d.

Release of interferons from tissue cells.

Accumulation of ige on the surfaces of mast cells and basophils.
Passage of igg from the immune system to local tissue cells.
Elimination of all traces of plasma cells from the body.

21: The transfusion reaction that arises from the mixing of incompatible
blood types illustrates a/an
a.
b.
c.
d.

Form of lupus erythematous.

Type i hypersensitivity.
Immune complex reaction.
Cytotoxic hypersensitivity.

22: The major histocompatibility complex of antigens may be found

a.
b.
c.
d.

On the surface of body cells.

Only on cells sensitized during allergy reactions.
Only on cells involved in a xenograft.
On cells stimulated by the urushiol in poison ivy plants.

23: Severe combined immunodeficiency disease refers to a condition

wherein a patient
a. Cannot produce T and B cells.

130

b. Interferon.
c. Antigen-presenting cells.
d. Hydrogen peroxide in phagocytes.
24: _____ is an exaggerated or inappropriate immune defense that is
causing the problems in an affected individual.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Hypersensitivity
Autoimmune disease
AIDS
HIV

25: In Type I hypersensitivity the first dose of antigen is the _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Immunizing Dose
Sensitizing Dose
Allergizing Dose
Activating Dose

26: The most important preformed mediator of allergic reactions is/are

a.
b.
c.
d.

Prostaglandin
Interleukin
Histamine
Leukotrienes

27: Systemic _____ is the most dangerous form of a Type I

Hypersensitivity.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Anaphylaxis
Unconsciousness
Edema
Prostaglandins

28: Exercise sometimes also causes allergies, usually in the form of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Anaphylaxis
An asthma attack.
Hives.
Edema.

29: ______ follow streptococcal diseases and appear to be consequences

of immune complex formation in the kidneys or heart.

131

a.
b.
c.
d.

Scarlet fever
Yellow fever
Rheumatic fever
Necrotizing fasciatis

30: An example of infection allergy is the _______.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Skin test for allergies

Arthus phenomenon
Poison ivy
Tuberculin test

31: Which of the following is NOT an autoimmune disease?

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Myasthenia gravis
Type i diabetes
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Rheumatoid arthritis
All of the above are autoimmune disorders

32: Which of the following is a cause of a secondary

immunodeficiency?
a.
b.
c.
d.

X-linked inheritance
Deficiencies in the complement system
Viral infection resembling self-cells
All the above are correct

33: What are some of the initial symptoms in about 70% of people
infected with HIV within the first few weeks?
a.
b.
c.
d.

A migrating rash covering the whole body

Flu-like symptoms, of fever, chills
Sneezing and symptoms of a head cold
No one develops symptoms until several years later

132

Chapter 24: Antimicrobial Drugs

1. Ehrlich and Hata discovered that was used to treat

a.
b.
c.
d.

Salvarsan; syphilis
penicillin; surgical wounds
Salvarsan; malaria.
Prontosil; malaria

2. The re-isolation and purification of penicillin was carried out by

a.
b.
c.
d.

Waksman.
Florey and Chain.
Domagk.
Fleming.

3. The concentration of an antibiotic causing harm to the host is called

a.
b.
c.
d.

Toxic dosage Level.

Therapeutic dosage level.
Minimal inhibitory concentration.
Chemotherapeutic index.

4. In the soil, antibiotics are produced by some

a.
b.
c.
d.

Fungal species and viruses.

Bacterial species and viruses.
Viruses and helminthic species.
Fungal and bacterial species.

5. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole are examples of synthesis.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Sulfonamides; PABA
Penicillins; Cell Wall
Sulfonamides; Folic Acid
Macrolides; Protein

6. Isoniazid and ethambutol are used to treat

a. Cholera.
b. Influenza.
c. MRSA.

133

d. Tuberculosis.
7. Penicillins are useful in treating
a.
b.
c.
d.

Gram-positive infections.
Leprosy.
Gram-negative infections.
Tuberculosis.

8. All the following are drugs or drug classes blocking cell wall
synthesis except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Cephalosporins.
Carbapenems.
Monobactams.
Tetracyclines.

9. Vancomycin inhibits _____________ synthesis.

a.
b.
c.
d.

protein
DNA
bacterial cell wall
RNA

10. Two cyclic polypeptide antibiotics are

a.
b.
c.
d.

Vancomycin and streptomycin.

Penicillin and cephalosporin.
Bacitracin and polymyxins
.gentamicin and chloramphenicol

11. Which one of the following is NOT an inhibitor of protein

synthesis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Clindamycin
Macrolides
Rifampin
Chioramphenicol

12. Antibiotics inhibiting nucleic acid synthesis include

a. Rifampin and quinolones.
b. Aminoglycosides and tetracyclines.
c. Lincosamides and streptogramins..

134

d. Macrolides and ami noglycosides.

13. Antiviral drugs that are base analogs inhibit
a.
b.
c.
d.

Viral Entry.
Genome Replication.
Uncoating.
Naturation.

14. Antifungal drugs, such as_ __, inhibit proper formation of

a.
b.
c.
d.

Miconazole; A Plasma Membrane

Griseofulvin; Dna
Ketoconazole; A Cell Wall
Tiucytosine; A Rnicrotubule

15. All of the following antiprotozoal drugs have been used to treat
malaria except:
a.
b.
c.
d.

Melarsoprol.
Quinine.
Mefloquine.
Chloroquine.

16. This antihelminthic agent makes the membrane permeable to

calcium ions.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Mebendazole
Pentamidine
Ivermectin.
Praziquantel

17. The is used to determine an antibiotics minimal inhibitory

concentration (NEC).
a.
b.
c.
d.

Ames test
tube dilution method
agar disk diffusion method
Kirby-Bauer test

18. The phosphorylation of an antibiotic is an example of which

mechanism of resistance?
a. Target modification

135

b. Reduced permeability
c. Antibiotic inactivation
d. Altered metabolic pathway
19. A superinfection could arise from
a.
b.
c.
d.

Using antibiotics when not needed.

Using unnecessarily large doses of antibiotics.
Stopping antibiotic treatment prematurely..
All of the above (AC) are correct.

20. New approaches to antibiotic therapy include

a.
b.
c.
d.

Carbohydrate targets in the wall LPS.

unregulating DNA replication.
Discovering new and unique antibiotics.
All of the above (AC) are correct.

21._____ is examples of drugs that are derived from the metabolism of

microorganisms.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Salvarsan
Prontosil
Penicillin
A-C are correct

22: _____ is when an antimicrobial drug should harm the infectious

agent but not the host.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Selective toxicity
Toxic dose
Therapeutic dose
Chemotherapeutic index

23: The sulfa drugs work by _______ with PABA in making folic acid.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Positive Feedback
Negative Feedback
Competitive Inhibition
Allosteric Inhibition

136

24: Isoniazid has a very narrow drug spectrum as the active form of the
drug specifically interferes with cell wall synthesis in _____ by
inhibiting the production of mycolic acid in the cell wall.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Staphylococcus
Streptococcus
Enterococcus
Mycobacterium

25: Antibiotics and chemotherapeutic agents have been available to

doctors since
a.
b.
c.
d.

The Civil War.

The days of the Roman physicians.
1965
The 1940s.

26: The sulfonamides interfere with bacterial metabolism by

a.
b.
c.
d.

blocking cell wall synthesis.

disrupting folic acid metabolism.
reacting with bacterial cell membranes.
inhibiting DNA replication.

27: Gentamicin and other aminoglycoside drugs are widely prescribed

for treatment of _____ infections.
a.
b.
c.
d.

fungal
gram-positive bacterial
gram-negative bacterial
staphylococcal

28: Which one of the following pairs is incorrectly matched as to

antibiotic and use?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Penicillin-gram-positive bacteria
Nystatin-fungi
Tetracycline-viruses
Griseofulvin-fungi

29: A Candida albicans infection of the intestine, vagina, or oral cavity

are commonly treated with
a. cefotaxime.

137

b. vidarabine.
c. streptomycin.
d. nystatin.
30: A paper disc or small cylinder containing antibiotic is used in the
antibiotic sensitivity assay known as the
a.
b.
c.
d.

Tube dilution method.

Immunodiffusion method.
Agar diffusion method.
Passive detection method.

31: The imidazole drugs are of value for treating

a.
b.
c.
d.

Viral diseases.
Protozoal diseases and bacterial diseases.
Bacterial diseases.
Fungal diseases.

32: Tetracyclines interfere with

a.
b.
c.
d.

Translation.
Transcription.
Dna Replication.
Membrane Function.

33: The drug isoniazid is used widely in contemporary medicine to

a.
b.
c.
d.

Treat tuberculosis.
Prevent fungal overgrowth in the intestine.
Clear away wound infections.
Eliminate infections due to gram-negative bacteria.

34: Two drugs that affect cell wall synthesis are

a.
b.
c.
d.

Erythromycin and penicillin.

Vancomycin and cephalosporin.
Tetracycline and polymyxin b.
Chloramphenicol and streptomycin.

35: Two major drawbacks to the use of ______ is allergies and betalactamases produced by resistant bacteria.
a. Tetracycline

138

b. Penicillin
c. Cephalosporin
d. Bacitracin
36: Bacitracin, Polymyxin and Neomycin are used together for topical
skin infections under the name of _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Neosporin
Vancomycin
Cephalosporin
Nystatin.

37: Which of the following antibiotics work by targetting protein

synthesis?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Methicillin
Chloramphenicol
Penicillin
Nystatin.

38: _____ cause a yellow-gray-brown discoloration of teeth and stunted

bones in children, which have limited its use to adults.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Methicillin
Vancomycin
Tetracycline
Erythromycin

39: There are limited medications for fungi, protozoan and other
parasites because they are _____ like us.
a.
b.
c.
d.

heterotrophs
multicellular
macroscopic
eukaryotes

40: Antibiotics will not work against _____ diseases because they lack
the structures and metabolic machinery with which antibiotics interfere.
a.
b.
c.
d.

viral
bacterial
fungal
protozoan

139

Miscellaneous 1
1: Spoiled food can be caused from _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

enterotoxins in food
contaminating microorganisms from the air
human food handling
A-C are correct

2: Food must be moist, with a minimum water content of _____before

contamination by microorganisms and spoilage can occur.
a.
b.
c.
d.

18% to 20%
10 to 15%
5 to 10%
0 to 5%

3: _________foods include poultry, eggs, meats, most vegetables and

fruits.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Nonperishable
Semiperishable
Highly perishable
Antibacterial

4: Bacterial species in fish are naturally adapted to the cold environment

in which most fish live and thus, _____ will not affect them; _____ is
preferred.
a.
b.
c.
d.

heating, cooking
cooling, refrigeration
warming, boiling
cooling, freezing

5: Many cases of _____ have been related to raw oysters.

a.
b.
c.
d.

botulism
cholera
typhoid
food poisoning

6: Processed foods such as chicken pot pies, whole egg custard,

mayonnaise, eggnog, and egg salad also may be sources of

140

a.
b.
c.
d.

Staphylococcus
Chlamydia
Salmonella
E.coli

7: Two types of grain spoilage are _____ and _____.

A. aflatoxins, ergotism
a. botulism, ergotism
b. Staphlococcus, Streptococcus
c. aflatoxins, enterotoxins
8: _____ is used to make processed cheeses and "cheese foods."
a.
b.
c.
d.

Sour curd
Sweet curd
Whey
Butterfat

9: The modern refrigerator is set at _____ to provide a suitable

environment for preserving food without destroying appearance, or
taste.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

30F
35F
40F
45F
50F

10: Approximately 33% of all preserved food in the United States

is______.
a.
b.
c.
d.

canned
frozen
dehydrated
pasteurized

141

Miscellaneous 2
1: _____ is water that is safe to drink.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Potable water
Surface water
Well water
Ground water

2: Polluted water usually contains coliform bacteria like _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Streptococcus
Proteus
Escherichia coli
Pseudomonas

3: Which of the following is NOT one of the 3 main types of water

pollution?
a.
b.
c.
d.

Physical pollution
Chemical pollution
Thermal pollution
Biological pollution

4: An emerging pathogen associated with contaminated water is _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

typhoid fever
cholera
shigellosis
Vibrio vulnificus

5: _____ bacteria live as individuals and do not live in biofilms.

a.
b.
c.
d.

Planktonic
Anaerobic
Aerobic
Facultative anaerobic

6: Some scientists estimate that in nature, _____ of all microbial

activities occur in biofilms.

142

a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

0.25
0.33
0.45
0.6
0.99

7: Rhizobium fixes nitrogens in the roots of _____, so they don't need to

be fertilized; in fact they add nitrogen to the soil.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

corn
legumes
wheat
grasses
oats

8: _______ disease develops on the hands or feet. Sores on the skin

become infected with Mycobacterium marinum in polluted water or in
infected fish.
a.
b.
c.
d.
e.

Fish handlers
Cholera
Cowpox
Rotovirus
Coxsackie

9: In 1842, Edwin Chadwick's report raised the possibility that sewage

spreads disease along with a ______ outbreak which began the
________ movement.
a.
b.
c.
d.

typhoid, aseptic
cholera, sanitation
polio, immunization
none of the above are correct

10: One of the benefits of biofilms is _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

quorum sensing
keeping aquariums clean
bioremediation of toxic wastes
production of oil

143

Miscellaneous 3
1: ______ form the bulk of microbial products of industrial interest.
a.
b.
c.
d.

primary metabolites
secondary metabolites
tertiary metabolites
quaternary metabolites

2: Some contemporary products already obtained by plasmid technology

include
a.
b.
c.
d.

interferon
insulin
human growth hormone
A-C above are correct

3: Bacillus subtilis makes a good "bacterial factory" in genetic

engineering because _____.
a.
b.
c.
d.

it normally retains the products it makes

it is not a human pathogen
contains endotoxins in it's cell wall
traditionally ferments sugars

4: When the Exxon Valdez oil spill occurred, technologists "fertilized"

the oil-soaked water with _____ to modify the environment and
stimulate he growth of naturally occurring microorganisms.
a.
b.
c.
d.

nitrogen sources (e.g., urea)

phosphorus compounds
other mineral nutrients
A-C above are correct

5: To the present time, over _____ antibiotic substances have been

described and approximately _____ such drugs are available to the
medical practitioner.
a.
b.
c.
d.

10,000; 100
8,000; 100
6000; 300
4,000; 400
144

6: In the United States, distilled beverages are designated with a "proof

number," which is _____ the percentage of the alcohol content.
a.
b.
c.
d.

half
one fourth
twice
4 times

7: In making beer, in the process of ____ barley grains are steeped in

water while naturally occurring enzymes digest the starch to simpler
carbohydrates.
a.
b.
c.
d.

steeping
mashing
maltng
worting

8: The alcoholic content of beer is approximately _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

0.02
0.04
0.06
0.08

9: _____ from the mold Aspergillus oryzaeis used as a spot remover in

laundry presoaks, as an adhesive, and in baking, where it digests starch
to glucose.
a.
b.
c.
d.

Amylase
Lactase
Sucrase
Maltase

10. One indirect way to determine microbial growth is using a _____.

a.
b.
c.
d.

UV light
Spectrophotometer
Light meter
Radioactive counter

145

146

Answers
Chapter1
1. c
2. a
3. d
4. a
5. b
6. a
7. d
8. c
9. a
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.

b
a
c
d
c
c
b
e
c
b
a
a
b
b
d
d
a

Chapter2
1. a
2. a
3. a
4. b

5.
6.
7.
8.
9.
10.
11.
12.
13.
14.
15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.

a
d
c
c
c
d
a
d
b
a
a
c
b
c
d
b
b
c
b
a
c
a
b
b
d
a
b
c
d
b
d

4. a
5. b
6. d
7. c
8. d
9. b
10. d
11. d
12. a
13. c
14. a
15. b
16. d
17. d
18. b
19. c
20. a
21. d
22. b
23. b
24. c
25. a
26. c
27. a
28. a
29. b
30. b
31. a
Chapter4
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

Chapter 3
1. b
2. d
3. c

147

b
a
b
d
c
d

7. d
8. c
9. a
10. b
11. b
12. d
13. c
14. d
15. b
16. b
17. a
18. b
19. c
20. a
21. c
22. d
23. c
24. b
25. d
26. b
Chapter 5
1. c
2. d
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. a
7. b
8. b
9. c
10. b
11. a
12. c
13. b
14. a

15.
16.
17.
18.
19.
20.
21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.

d
c
c
c
b
b
a
d
e
a
b
d
d
d

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.

b
d
b
a
b
a
b
a
c
a
c
d
a
b

Chapter 6

Chapter 7

1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. d
8. b
9. c
10. a
11. b
12. a
13. d
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. d
18. a
19. c
20. d

1. d
2. a
3. d
4. b
5. a
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. d
10. b
11. a
12. b
13. d
14. d
15. c
16. c
17. a
18. a
19. b
20. c

148

21.
22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.

a
d
d
a
b
b
d
a
e
d
c
b
b

Chapter 8
1. c
2. d
3. b
4. b
5. d
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. c
10. d
11. a
12. d
13. b
14. b
15. d
16. d
17. a
18. c
19. b
20. e
21. d

22.
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.
35.
36.
37.

a
b
c
b
b
e
c
b
d
a
a
d
a
c
d
b

19. b
20. c
21. a
22. c
23. d
24. b
25. a
26. d
27. c
28. b
29. e
30. d
31. d
32. a
33. c
chapter10

Chapter 9

1. b
2. a
3. b
4. b
5. d
6. a
7. d
8. c
9. d
10. a
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. c
15. c
16. a
17. b
18. a
19. d

1. c
2. b
3. c
4. b
5. a
6. d
7. b
8. d
9. a
10. c
11. b
12. d
13. d
14. c
15. c
16. d
17. a
18. b

149

20. d
21. d
Chapter11
1. c
2. a
3. d
4. c
5. d
6. d
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. a
11. b
12. a
13. c
14. b
15. a
16. b
17. a
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. a
22. b
23. c
24. d
25. d
26. c
27. a
28. b
29. a
30. a
31. c
32. d

33. d
34. d
35. a
36. e
37. b
38. c
39. d

28. b
29. c
30. d
Chapter 13

Chapter 12
1. d
2. d
3. d
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. a
8. c
9. a
10. c
11. a
12. d
13. c
14. b
15. c
16. d
17. d
18. a
19. b
20. b
21. d
22. b
23. c
24. a
25. d
26. b
27. c

150

1. d
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. b
6. a
7. a
8. c
9. b
10. b
11. d
12. b
13. d
14. d
15. d
16. c
17. a
18. c
19. a
20. a
21. b
22. c
23. d
24. c
25. b
26. d
27. d
28. a
29. d
30. a
31. b

32. d
33. c
34. b
35. c
36. a
37. c
38. b
39. a
40. a

26.
27.
28.
29.
30.
31.
32.
33.
34.

b
b
c
d
d
c
d
a
b

Chapter 14

Chapter 15

1. c
2. c
3. b
4. d
5. a
6. a
7. c
8. b
9. b
10. c
11. d
12. a
13. d
14. d
15. a
16. b
17. d
18. d
19. c
20. c
21. b
22. a
23. d
24. b
25. a

1. d
2. c
3. b
4. b
5. b
6. a
7. c
8. c
9. a
10. a
11. b
12. d
13. d
14. b
15. a
16. c
17. a
18. b
19. d
20. a
21. c
22. c
23. a

1. d
2. c
3. a
4. b
5. a
6. d
7. d
8. d
9. c
10. c
11. a
12. c
13. b
14. d
15. d
16. b
17. c
18. c
19. a
20. b
21. b
22. c
23. a
24. d
25. d
26. b
27. c
28. a
Chapter 17
1.
2.
3.
4.
5.
6.

Chapter 16

151

c
c
d
a
d
b

7. b
8. b
9. c
10. a
11. b
12. d
13. d
14. a
15. b
16. d
17. b
18. c
19. a
20. d
21. d
22. d
23. a
24. b
25. c
26. d
27. b
28. b
29. d
30. d
31. a
32. b
33. d
34. c
35. a
36. b
Chapter 18
1.
2.
3.
4.

c
a
d
d

5. a
6. b
7. b
8. c
9. b
10. d
11. d
12. a
13. c
14. b
15. c
16. a
17. c
18. a
19. b
20. a
21. a
22. a
23. a
24. b
25. d
26. b
27. c
28. b
29. c
30. a
31. a
32. c
33. c
34. c
35. a
36. a
37. a
38. b
39. c
40. b

41.
42.
43.
44.
45.
46.
47.
48.
49.
50.

d
b
d
c
a
b
c
d
a
c

Chapter 19
1. a
2. d
3. c
4. a
5. d
6. b
7. d
8. d
9. d
10. d
11. c
12. d
13. c
14. b
15. c
16. b
17. c
18. b
19. a
20. d
21. a
22. c
23. d
24. c

152

25. a
26. b
27. c
28. b
29. d
30. b
31. d
32. b
33. c
34. c
Chapter 20
1. b
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. b
6. d
7. d
8. b
9. b
10. a
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. b
15. c
16. d
17. a
18. b
19. d
20. b
21. a
22. b
Chapter 21

1. d
2. c
3. d
4. a
5. a
6. c
7. a
8. c
9. d
10. b
11. d
12. c
13. d
14. a
15. b
16. a
17. d
18. d
19. c
20. c
21. b
22. b
23. c
24. a
25. b
26. c
27. b
28. b
29. b
30. a
31. c
32. a
33. d

2. b
3. a
4. d
5. a
6. d
7. c
8. b
9. b
10. d
11. b
12. a
13. b
14. b
15. d
16. c
17. b
18. a
19. d
20. a
21. b
22. c
23. c
24. b
25. a
26. d
27. d
28. c
29. b
30. a
31. b
32. a
Chapter 23
1. b
2. a
3. b

Chapter 22
1. b

153

4. c
5. a
6. d
7. c
8. c
9. a
10. d
11. c
12. d
13. b
14. a
15. b
16. b
17. d
18. b
19. a
20. b
21. d
22. a
23. a
24. a
25. b
26. c
27. a
28. b
29. c
30. d
31. e
32. c
33. b
Chapter 24
1.
2.
3.
4.

a
b
a
d

5. c
6. d
7. a
8. a
9. c
10. c
11. c
12. a
13. b
14. d
15. a
16. d
17. b
18. c
19. b
20. d
21. c
22. a
23. c
24. d
25. d
26. b
27. c
28. c
29. d
30. c
31. d
32. a
33. a
34. a
35. b
36. a
37. b
38. c
39. d
40. a

Miscellaneous 1
1. d
2. a
3. c
4. d
5. b
6. c
7. a
8. c
9. c
10. b
Miscellaneous 2
1. a
2. c
3. c
4. d
5. a
6. e
7. b
8. a
9. b
10. c
Miscellaneous 3
1. b
2. d
3. b
4. d
5. b
6. c
7. c
8. b
9. a
10. b

154