GENERAL BIOLOGY 1 (BIO01) REVIEWER

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. Ten years before Schleiden's pronouncement of the cell theory, who had discovered the presence of nuclei
in plant cells?
a. Robert Hooke
b. Robert Brown
c. Theodor Schwann
d. Rudolf Virchow
e. Anton van Leeuwenhoek
____ 2. The cell theory was proposed by
a. Robert Hooke.
b. Robert Brown.
c. Theodor Schwann.
d. Rudolf Virchow.
e. Anton van Leeuwenhoek.
____ 3. One of the generalizations of the cell theory is that
a. all cells have a nucleus.
b. all cells divide by meiosis.
c. all living organisms are made up of cells.
d. cells arise through spontaneous generation.
e. growth is solely the result of cell division.
____ 4. The idea that all living cells came from preexisting living cells was proposed by
a. Robert Hooke.
b. Robert Brown.
c. Theodor Schwann.
d. Rudolf Virchow.
e. Anton van Leeuwenhoek.
____ 5. Which of these cell features is absent in a bacterial cell?
a. plasma membrane
b. nucleoid
c. cytoplasm
d. nucleus
e. DNA
____ 6. If the volume of a cell increases, its surface area will
a. decrease.
b. remain the same.
c. increase proportionately.
d. increase to a greater degree.
e. increase to a lesser degree.
____ 7. Cells are of small size because of considerations of
a. weight.
b. complexity.
c. diffusion.
d. space.
e. division.
____ 8. Elephants are large animals because they
a. have bigger cells.
b. possess expandable cells.
 c. are made of a greater number of cells.
d. have bigger cells and are made of a greater number of cells.
e. have bigger cells that are expandable and of greater number.
____ 9. The highest magnification generally used to study cells is provided by the
a. transmission electron microscope.
b. compound light microscope.
c. phase contrast microscope.
d. scanning electron microscope.
e. binocular dissecting microscope.
____ 10. Which of the following organelles is correctly matched with its function?
a. nucleus: protein synthesis
b. ER: heredity
c. Golgi bodies: packaging
d. mitochondria: digestion
e. chloroplasts: storage of lipids
____ 11. The organelle that pinches off portions of its membrane to form a vesicle used for storage or transport is
the
a. mitochondrion.
b. chloroplast.
c. nucleolus.
d. Golgi body.
____ 12. Which of the following is the primary advantage of the eukaryotic nuclear envelope?
a. providing residence for ribosomes
b. allowing isolation of DNA from cytoplasmic machinery
c. providing pore entry places
d. enabling faster cell division
e. enabling larger cell size
____ 13. Which of the following terms cannot be used to characterize eukaryotic chromosomes?
a. DNA plus proteins
b. duplicated
c. condensed
d. bathed in cytoplasm
e. "colored bodies"
____ 14. Organelles composed of a system of canals, tubes, and sacs that transport molecules inside the cytoplasm
are
a. Golgi bodies.
b. ribosomes.
c. mitochondria.
d. lysosomes.
e. endoplasmic reticula.
____ 15. The endoplasmic reticulum
a. serves as the internal transportation system of a cell.
b. is the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
c. is characterized by the presence of ribosomes throughout.
d. manufactures ATP.
____ 16. Which of the following are sometimes referred to as rough or smooth, depending on the structure?
a. Golgi bodies
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. lysosomes
e. endoplasmic reticula
____ 17. Which of the following are the primary cellular assembly sites for the production of proteins?
a. Golgi bodies
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. lysosomes
e. smooth endoplasmic reticula
____ 18. Which of the following contain enzymes and are the main organelles of intracellular digestion?
a. Golgi bodies
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. lysosomes
e. endoplasmic reticula
____ 19. Which of the following are the primary cellular sites for the recapture of energy from carbohydrates?
a. Golgi bodies
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. lysosomes
e. endoplasmic reticula
____ 20. Which of the following contain enzymes used in the breakdown of glucose and generation of ATP?
a. Golgi bodies
b. ribosomes
c. mitochondria
d. lysosomes
e. endoplasmic reticula
____ 21. Energy stored in which of the following molecules is converted by mitochondria to a form usable by the
cell?
a. water
b. carbon compounds
c. NAD+
d. ATP
e. carbon dioxide
____ 22. If a biologist said that the human body might be getting its power from "bacteria," he would be referring
to
a. energy cells that utilize bacteria by producing energy.
b. bacteria in our intestinal tract that digest food to supply us with energy.
c. the mitochondria in our cells that may have originated as endosymbiotic bacteria.
d. the E. coli throughout the human body that produce ATP.
____ 23. Which of the following is NOT used as evidence that mitochondria and chloroplasts may have arisen
according to the endosymbiotic relationship?
a. They can live an independent existence when isolated from a cell.
b. They possess their own type of DNA different from that found in the nucleus.
c. They possess their own ribosomes.
d. They have their own membranes and are the same size as bacteria.
____ 24. In which of the following is photosynthesis NOT possible?
a. chloroplasts
b. amyloplasts
c. grana
d. mitochondria
e. both amyloplasts and mitochondria.
____ 25. Fluid-filled sacs that may store food, ions, or water in cells are called
 a. plastids.
b. vacuoles.
c. microvilli.
d. nucleoli.
e. Golgi bodies.
____ 26. Organelles that dramatically increase the surface area of a membrane are
a. plastids.
b. vacuoles.
c. chloroplasts.
d. nucleoli.
e. microfilaments.
____ 27. Structural features that contain the protein actin and help to control the shapes of cells are
a. plastids.
b. vacuoles.
c. microvilli.
d. nucleoli.
e. microfilaments.
____ 28. Cell components used to move chromosomes are the
a. cilia.
b. flagella.
c. microtubules.
d. microfilaments.
e. Golgi bodies.
____ 29. Microfilaments are commonly found in
a. cilia.
b. skeletal muscle cells.
c. flagella.
d. only cilia and flagella.
e. cilia, flagella, and skeletal muscle cells.
____ 30. The centrosome of a cell
a. gives rise to the spindle microtubules.
b. is a type of microtubule organizing center.
c. is located near the nucleus.
d. gives rise to the spindle microtubules and is a type of microtubule organizing center.
e. gives rise to the spindle microtubules, is a type of microtubule organizing center, and is
located near the nucleus.
____ 31. Cilia and flagella
a. are found only in motile cells.
b. are found only in sex cells and unicellular organisms.
c. are fundamentally the same structurally.
d. may also function as receptor sites for certain hormones.
____ 32. Which of the following is NOT found as a part of all cells?
a. cell membrane
b. cell wall
c. ribosomes
d. DNA
e. RNA
____ 33. The cell wall
a. provides skeletal support for plants.
b. controls what enters and leaves a cell.
c. replaces the plasma membrane of animal cells in plant cells.
 d. is found in all eukaryotes.
____ 34. Prokaryotic cells do NOT have
a. ribosomes.
b. membrane-bound nuclei.
c. cytoplasm.
d. a plasma membrane.
e. ribosomes or membrane-bound nuclei.
____ 35. Prokaryotes
a. have nucleoid regions.
b. are unicellular.
c. have cell walls.
d. are monerans.
e. all of these
____ 36. Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common observation. Select the exception.
a. Hooke
b. Galileo
c. Schwann
d. Schleiden
e. Virchow
____ 37. Four of the five statements listed below are portions of a well-known theory. Select the exception.
a. Cells are the structural and functional components of living things.
b. Cells arise from preexisting cells.
c. All organisms are composed of cells.
d. Cells are the basic living unit of organization of living things.
e. All cells have a nucleus.
____ 38. Four of the five answers listed below are familiar organelles in the cytoplasm. Select the exception.
a. nucleolus
b. mitochondrion
c. ribosome
d. Golgi body
e. chloroplast
____ 39. Four of the five answers listed below are parts of an electron microscope. Select the exception.
a. projector lens
b. mirror
c. electron gun
d. condensing lens
e. fluorescent screen or photographic film
____ 40. Four of the five answers listed below are organelles found in eukaryotic cells. Select the exception.
a. mitochondrion
b. Golgi body
c. nucleoid
d. lysosome
e. vacuole
____ 41. Four of the five answers listed below are composed of membranes. Select the exception.
a. endoplasmic reticulum
b. granum
c. plasma membrane
d. chromosome
e. nuclear envelope
____ 42. The conversion of solar energy to chemical energy occurs during
 a. glycolysis.
b. photosynthesis.
c. respiration.
d. fermentation.
e. chemosynthesis.
____ 43. Chemosynthetic bacteria may use which element as a hydrogen donor instead of water?
a. potassium dihydrogen phosphate
b. sulfur
c. hydrogen sulfate
d. hydrogen chloride
e. hydrogen peroxide
____ 44. Chemosynthetic forms of life
a. derive energy from sunlight.
b. derive energy by stripping hydrogen from inorganic compounds such as sulfur
compounds.
c. are anaerobic forms that live in the dark.
d. are one form of heterotrophic life.
e. are unable to generate enough energy to synthesize complex food-storage molecules.
____ 45. The carbon source for organisms that derive their energy from photosynthesis is
a. carbon monoxide.
b. carbon dioxide.
c. hydrocarbons.
d. methane.
e. glucose.
____ 46. Most carbon enters the web of life through
a. chemosynthesis.
b. aerobic respiration.
c. anaerobic respiration.
d. photosynthesis.
e. both chemosynthesis and aerobic respiration.
____ 47. Which of the following is NOT associated with the light-dependent reactions?
a. ATP
b. thylakoids
c. chlorophyll
d. stroma
e. water
____ 48. Actual assembly of sugars during photosynthesis
a. occurs during light-independent reactions.
b. takes place in the stroma.
c. requires chlorophyll.
d. occurs during light-independent reactions and takes place in the stroma.
e. occurs during light-independent reactions, takes place in the stroma, and requires
chlorophyll.
____ 49. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. Photons are packages of solar energy.
b. The longer the wavelength of light, the more energy it has.
c. Chlorophyll absorbs energy from light.
d. Photons with different energy levels produce different colors.
e. Visible light is a very small portion of the electromagnetic spectrum.
____ 50. Which of the following statements about the electromagnetic spectrum is true?
a. Infrared energy is sufficient to produce ionization.
 b. Infrared radiation has more energy than red radiation.
c. Visible light has more energy than ultraviolet radiation.
d. Chlorophyll absorbs some visible wavelengths, but not all.
e. Chloroplasts absorb all wavelengths of light equally.
____ 51. When light excites chlorophyll, the chlorophyll molecule
a. changes to carotene.
b. becomes agitated and moves rapidly.
c. becomes radioactive.
d. absorbs the energy and moves an electron to a higher energy state.
e. becomes ionized.
____ 52. The first event of photosynthesis is the
a. hydrolysis of water.
b. synthesis of sugar.
c. transfer of an electron from chlorophyll.
d. manufacture of ATP.
e. synthesis of NADPH.
____ 53. Chlorophyll reflects (does not absorb) which color of light?
a. red
b. yellow
c. orange
d. green
e. blue
____ 54. Carotenoid pigments reflect (do not absorb) which color of light?
a. red
b. yellow
c. orange
d. green
e. blue
____ 55. Where in a plant cell is chlorophyll found?
a. on the outer chloroplast membrane
b. inside the mitochondria
c. in the stroma
d. in the thylakoids
e. none of these
____ 56. Photosystems are mainly
a. light-trapping molecules.
b. enzymes for splitting water.
c. clusters of ATP molecules.
d. sugar assembly sites.
____ 57. The photosystem with P700 is designated "I" (Roman numeral one) because
a. it is the first to react.
b. it is assumed to have evolved first.
c. it is primary.
d. a and b are correct
e. b and c are correct
____ 58. The cyclic pathway functions mainly to
a. fix CO2.
b. produce O2.
c. make ATP.
d. reduce NADP.
e. split H2O.
____ 59. In the cyclic pathway,
a. ATP alone forms.
b. ATP and NADPH form.
c. oxygen is a by-product.
d. water participates in the process.
e. two photosystems are involved.
____ 60. The final hydrogen acceptor in the noncyclic pathway of ATP formation is
a. FAD.
b. PGA.
c. NADP+.
d. FMN.
e. PEP.
____ 61. The transition of the early earth's atmosphere from one rich in hydrogen to one rich in oxygen may be
attributed to
a. photolysis.
b. photophosphorylation.
c. cyclic AMP.
d. chlorophyll breakdown.
e. all of these
____ 62. If P700 were replaced by a molecule that merely trapped electrons,
a. photolysis would cease.
b. NADPH synthesis would stop.
c. ATP synthesis would continue.
d. photolysis would cease and NADPH synthesis would stop.
e. NADPH synthesis would stop and ATP synthesis would continue.
____ 63. The chlorophyll molecules that give up electrons used in photosynthesis are
a. the chlorophyll molecules that receive the energy in sunlight.
b. the molecules that transfer energy from one chlorophyll molecule to another.
c. the chlorophyll molecules that respond to the longest wavelengths of light to which
chlorophyll is sensitive.
d. the chlorophyll molecules that are sensitive to the shortest, most energetic wavelengths of
light.
e. the chlorophyll acceptor molecules in the thylakoid membrane.
____ 64. Hydrogen ion flow in the thylakoid compartments
a. occurs between photosystems I and II.
b. is called the hydrogen transfer system.
c. provides energy to produce ATP molecules.
d. causes excitation of chlorophyll molecules.
e. requires the intermediary action of acceptor molecules.
____ 65. The chemiosmotic model is based upon
a. the use of two photosystems in photosynthesis.
b. the idea that concentration and hydrogen ion gradients drive ATP production.
c. the cyclic pathway as the oldest method to produce ATP.
d. the use of light to split water molecules in the noncyclic pathway.
e. the polarity and high specific heat of water.
____ 66. All but which condition must be present for light-independent reactions to occur?
a. presence of carbon dioxide
b. exposure of the plant to light
c. presence of ribulose bisphosphate
d. presence of ATP and NADPH
e. presence of required enzymes
____ 67. The light-independent reactions were discovered by
a. M. D. Hatch.
b. Andrew Benson.
c. Melvin Calvin.
d. Robert Hill.
e. both Andrew Benson and Melvin Calvin.
____ 68. The carbon dioxide acceptor in the Calvin-Benson cycle is
a. phosphoglycerate (PGA).
b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP).
c. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL).
d. glucose.
e. phosphoenol pyruvate.
____ 69. Which of the following chemicals has five carbon atoms?
a. phosphoglycerate (PGA)
b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
c. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
d. glucose
e. phosphoenol pyruvate
____ 70. The light-independent reactions of photosynthesis
a. fix carbon dioxide.
b. involve the liberation of oxygen.
c. cannot occur in light.
d. are known as photolysis.
e. all of these
____ 71. How many molecules of PGAL (phosphoglyceraldehyde) are used to regenerate the six molecules of
RuBP (ribulose bisphosphate)?
a. 3
b. 6
c. 10
d. 12
e. 18
____ 72. In the Calvin-Benson cycle, which of the following can donate phosphate?
a. NADPH
b. ATP
c. RuBP
d. ATP and RuBP only
e. NADPH, ATP, and RuBP.
____ 73. Which of the following chemicals has six carbon atoms?
a. phosphoglycerate (PGA)
b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
c. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
d. glucose
e. oxaloacetate
____ 74. Which of the following chemicals has the most energy?
a. phosphoglycerate (PGA)
b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
c. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
d. glucose
e. oxaloacetate
____ 75. In most complex plants, the excess glucose is stored as
 a. glucose.
b. starch.
c. sucrose.
d. glycogen.
e. cellulose.
____ 76. Plants manufacture glucose
a. for exclusive use by animals.
b. to function as the beginning of more complex molecules.
c. as a by-product produced as the plant manufactures oxygen.
d. during the process known as photorespiration.
e. via the tricarboxylic acid cycle.
____ 77. Which of the following chemicals has four carbon atoms?
a. phosphoglycerate (PGA)
b. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP)
c. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
d. glucose
e. oxaloacetate
____ 78. Photosynthesis takes place in which of the following cells?
a. mesophyll
b. epidermal
c. sclerenchyma
d. xylem
e. phloem
____ 79. Which is a C4 plant?
a. corn
b. pine
c. sugarcane
d. crabgrass
e. all except pine
____ 80. Plants need which of the following to carry on photosynthesis?
a. carbon dioxide and water
b. nitrogen and hydrogen
c. oxygen and carbon dioxide
d. water and oxygen
e. ribose and carbon dioxide
____ 81. Four of the five answers listed below are heterotrophs. Select the exception.
a. fungus
b. carrot
c. earthworm
d. lobster
e. parasite
____ 82. Four of the five answers listed below are part of the light-independent reactions. Select the exception.
a. water
b. carbon dioxide
c. ribulose bisphosphate
d. phosphoglyceraldehyde
e. phosphoglycerate
____ 83. Four of the five answers listed below are wavelengths absorbed by chloroplast pigments. Select the
exception.
a. red
b. green
 c. blue
d. violet
e. yellow
____ 84. Four of the five answers listed below are processes associated with light-dependent reactions. Select the
exception.
a. photolysis
b. chemiosmosis
c. fixing carbon dioxide
d. photosystem I and II
e. noncyclic ATP formation
____ 85. Four of the five answers listed below are processes associated with light-independent reactions. Select the
exception.
a. uses ATP and NADPH
b. involves RuBP
c. produces PGA
d. is called the Calvin-Benson cycle
e. requires light
____ 86. Three of the four answers listed below are sources of energy for chemosynthesis. Select the exception.
a. ammonium ions
b. iron compounds
c. sunlight
d. sulfur compounds
____ 87. The minimum evidence of anything being "alive" is
a. breathing.
b. heartbeat.
c. carbon dioxide production.
d. physical activity.
e. response to stimulus.
____ 88. When molecules are broken apart in respiration,
a. the heat produced is used to drive biological reactions.
b. the oxygen in the compounds that are broken apart is used as an energy source.
c. the energy released in respiration is channeled into molecules of ATP.
d. ATP is converted into ADP.
e. ADP is released as a waste product.
____ 89. Cellular respiration
a. is the mechanism that evolved to enable living organisms to utilize energy stored in
glucose.
b. occurs only in animal cells because plants carry on photosynthesis.
c. utilizes fat as its primary energy source.
d. occurs at the same rate throughout all cells of the body.
e. is the only cellular mechanism that yields ATP.
____ 90. Cellular respiration
a. is the reverse of the process of photosynthesis.
b. involves the physical exchange of gases.
c. is a mechanism of tapping the energy found in the bonds between atoms forming organic
compounds.
d. can occur only if there is a supply of glucose available because no other compound is
involved in cellular respiration.
e. occurs only in animal cells.
____ 91. ATP is to the cell as __________ is (are) to the financial community.
a. printed currency
 b. checks
c. credit
d. gold reserves
e. automated tellers
____ 92. ATP
a. can be produced by photosynthesis.
b. is produced in the degradation of organic compounds such as glucose.
c. is generated in anaerobic respiration.
d. is released in aerobic respiration.
e. all of these
____ 93. Plant cells are capable of
a. photosynthesis.
b. ATP production.
c. glucose breakdown.
d. aerobic respiration.
e. all of these
____ 94. Which of the following liberates the most energy in the form of ATP?
a. aerobic respiration
b. anaerobic respiration
c. alcoholic fermentation
d. lactate fermentation
e. All liberate the same amount, but through different means.
____ 95. Which of the following has the greatest total energy?
a. cAMP
b. ADP
c. ATP
d. glucose
e. NADPH
____ 96. The correct operational sequence of the three processes listed below is:

I. glycolysis
II. ETP
III. Krebs

a. I >>> II >>> III

b. II >>> I >>> III
c. III >>> I >>> II
d. II >>> III >>> I
e. I >>> III >>> II
____ 97. For glycolysis to begin,
a. glucose must enter the mitochondria.
b. there must be an input of energy from ATP.
c. oxygen must be available.
d. some hydrogen acceptors must be available.
e. none of these
____ 98. Glycolysis depends upon a continuous supply of glucose and
a. NADP.
b. pyruvate.
c. NAD+.
d. NADH.
e. H2O.
____ 99. In the breakdown of glucose, a phosphorylated six-carbon compound is split into two three-carbon
compounds, which are named
a. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL).
b. pyruvate.
c. acetyl-CoA.
d. lactate.
e. acetaldehyde.
____ 100. Substrate-level phosphorylation
a. occurs during glycolysis.
b. requires the presence of oxygen.
c. is a precursor for the phosphorylation of glucose.
d. is the source for the majority of the ATP produced in aerobic respiration.
e. does not occur during fermentation.
____ 101. Which of the following is the most unstable intermediate compound in respiration?
a. pyruvate
b. phosphoglycerate (PGA)
c. phosphoenol pyruvate (PEP)
d. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL)
e. fructose bisphosphate
____ 102. Which of the following molecules does NOT have three carbon atoms?
a. PEP
b. PGAL
c. oxaloacetate
d. pyruvate
e. phosphoglycerate (PGA)
____ 103. The end product of glycolysis is
a. acetyl-CoA.
b. oxaloacetate.
c. pyruvate.
d. citrate.
e. both a and b
____ 104. The process by which a small amount of the energy in a glucose molecule is released, as it is converted
into two small organic acid molecules, is called
a. photolysis.
b. glycolysis.
c. oxidative phosphorylation.
d. substrate-level phosphorylation.
e. the Krebs cycle.
____ 105. The chemical that enters the mitochondria to continue respiration is
a. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL).
b. oxaloacetate.
c. phosphoglycerate (PGA).
d. pyruvate.
e. citrate.
____ 106. Krebs cycle reactions and electron transfer phosphorylation are
a. in the mitochondrion and ER, respectively.
b. in separate parts of the mitochondrion.
c. inside and outside the mitochondrion, respectively.
d. in the same mitochondrial compartment.
e. cytoplasmic reactions.
____ 107. The breakdown of pyruvate in the Krebs cycle results in the release of
 a. energy.
b. carbon dioxide.
c. oxygen.
d. hydrogen.
e. all except oxygen.
____ 108. During the Krebs cycle,
a. substrate-level phosphorylation occurs.
b. oxaloacetate is regenerated.
c. electrons and H+ are transferred to coenzymes NAD+ and FAD.
d. molecules of carbon dioxide are formed.
e. all of these
____ 109. Which is capable of being reduced during either glycolysis or the Krebs cycle?
a. NAD+
b. FAD+
c. ADP
d. NADH
e. NADP+
____ 110. Because __________ cells have a NAD+ shuttle built into their mitochondria, they deliver 38 ATP
molecules per glucose molecule.
a. liver
b. heart
c. kidney
d. liver and heart
e. liver, heart, and kidney
____ 111. The last intermediate produced in the Krebs cycle before the entry of the next acetyl-CoA is
a. pyruvate.
b. acetyl-CoA.
c. fructose bisphosphate.
d. oxaloacetate.
e. citrate.
____ 112. Which of the following marks the transition from glycolysis to the Krebs cycle?
a. acetyl-CoA formation
b. conversion of PGAL to PGA
c. regeneration of reduced NAD+
d. oxidative phosphorylation
e. substrate-level phosphorylation
____ 113. When glucose is used as the energy source, the largest amount of ATP is produced in
a. glycolysis.
b. acetyl-CoA formation.
c. the Krebs cycle.
d. substrate-level phosphorylation.
e. electron transfer phosphorylation.
____ 114. The greatest number of ATP molecules is produced in
a. glycolysis.
b. alcoholic fermentation.
c. anaerobic electron transfer.
d. electron transfer phosphorylation.
e. the Krebs cycle.
____ 115. What is the name of the process by which reduced NAD+ transfers electrons to oxygen?
a. glycolysis
b. acetyl-CoA formation
 c. the Krebs cycle
d. electron transfer phosphorylation
e. substrate-level phosphorylation
____ 116. The electron transfer chain of cellular respiration is located
a. on the inner membrane of the mitochondria.
b. on the inner membrane of the chloroplasts.
c. in the fluid part of the chloroplast.
d. throughout the cytoplasm of the cell.
e. on the plasma membrane.
____ 117. Which is NOT ordinarily capable of being reduced at any time?
a. NAD+
b. FAD
c. oxygen, O2
d. water
e. all of these
____ 118. The energy used to generate most of the ATP formed in aerobic respiration is released when electrons are
passed from NADH to
a. oxygen.
b. acetyl CoA.
c. FADH.
d. CO2.
e. NADPH.
____ 119. Because of its location in the electron transfer chain, delivery of electrons to each FAD results in
__________ ATPs.
a. 4
b. 2
c. 3
d. 32
e. 0
____ 120. The efficiency of the complete aerobic breakdown of a molecule of glucose is approximately
a. 5 percent.
b. 20 percent.
c. 40 percent.
d. 60 percent.
e. 80 percent.
____ 121. If fermentation follows glycolysis,
a. CO2 will be one of the products as pyruvate is converted to lactate.
b. the two NADH molecules produced during glycolysis will (depending on the organism) be
used to reduce pyruvate to either lactate or ethanol and CO2.
c. ATP will be required to convert pyruvate to either lactate or ethanol and CO2.
d. oxidative phosphorylation occurs either on the plasma membrane or on derivatives of the
plasma membrane.
____ 122. In the conversion of pyruvate to ethanol, which of the following is (are) produced?
a. acetaldehyde
b. carbon dioxide
c. NADH
d. acetaldehyde and carbon dioxide only.
e. acetaldehyde, carbon dioxide, and NADH.
____ 123. Under anaerobic conditions, muscle cells produce
a. ethyl alcohol.
b. acetaldehyde.
 c. pyruvate.
d. lactate.
e. citrate.
____ 124. Sour cream and sour milk are produced by bacteria that form
a. ethyl alcohol.
b. acetaldehyde.
c. pyruvate.
d. lactate.
e. citrate.
____ 125. If you were searching for anaerobic bacteria, you would NOT look for them in
a. the guts of farm animals.
b. swamps.
c. mountain streams.
d. sediments of lakes and oceans.
e. canned goods.
____ 126. Lactate production in muscle cells is
a. temporary.
b. due to oxygen deficiency.
c. an NAD regenerator.
d. temporary and due to oxygen deficiency.
e. temporary, due to oxygen deficiency, and an NAD regenerator.
____ 127. The bacteria that live in hot springs use __________ as their final hydrogen acceptor.
a. oxygen
b. sulfate
c. nitrogen
d. magnesium
e. phosphorus
____ 128. Sulfate-reducing bacteria transfer electrons to __________ in their environment.
a. SO2
b. H2
c. H2SO4
d. S
e. SO4- -
____ 129. The main source of energy in the human diet is
a. fats.
b. carbohydrates.
c. proteins.
d. nucleotides.
e. steroids.
____ 130. In glycolysis, approximately what percent of the total energy in glucose is released?
a. 2
b. 6
c. 10
d. 15
e. 20
____ 131. Which statement is false?
a. High concentrations of ATP inhibit the formation of more ATP.
b. When cells need large supplies of energy, the ATP concentration in these cells actually
decreases at first.
c. When ATP concentration declines, enzymatic activity that produces ATP declines.
d. Cells constantly adjust their metabolic reactions to provide energy whenever it is needed.
 e. The activity of many different enzymes influences the supply of ATP in cells.
____ 132. Which of the following statements is true?
a. In aerobic respiration, ATP is released in the very first reaction.
b. The process of fermentation is restricted to anaerobic organisms.
c. Glucose has more energy than fructose bisphosphate.
d. Glycolysis occurs free in the mitochondria.
e. Enzymes lower the activation energy for each step in the chemical reactions in respiration.
____ 133. Excess glucose in the human diet can result in accumulations of
a. pyruvate.
b. NADH.
c. fat.
d. lactate.
e. ATP.
____ 134. Four of the five answers listed below are intermediates in the Krebs cycle. Select the exception.
a. succinate
b. citrate
c. malate
d. fumarate
e. acetyl-CoA
____ 135. Four of the five answers listed below are compounds in the Krebs reactions. Select the exception.
a. oxaloacetate
b. isocitrate
c. alpha-ketoglutarate
d. pyruvate
e. succinyl-CoA
____ 136. Four of the five answers listed below are degradation processes for carbon compounds. Select the
exception.
a. Calvin-Benson cycle
b. Krebs cycle
c. fermentation
d. respiration
e. glycolysis
____ 137. When a eukaryotic cell divides, the daughter cells
a. manufacture all the organelles from material in the cytoplasm.
b. receive enough of the organelles to start up the new cells and produce additional
organelles as needed.
c. produce individual organelles that attach to the spindle fibers and are distributed just like
chromosomes.
d. produce an equal number of organelles distributed to each cell.
e. get cellular organelles by an unknown process.
____ 138. Strictly speaking, mitosis and meiosis are divisions of the
a. nucleus.
b. cytoplasm.
c. chromosomes.
d. nucleus and chromosomes.
e. nucleus, cytoplasm, and chromosomes.
____ 139. Eukaryotic DNA molecules
a. have no proteins.
b. have small amounts of protein at each end of the DNA molecules.
c. have large amounts of protein at each end of the DNA molecules.
d. have small amounts of protein dispersed among the DNA molecules.
 e. have large amounts of protein dispersed among the DNA molecules.
____ 140. Chromatids that are attached at the centromere are called what kind of chromatids?
a. mother
b. daughter
c. sister
d. programmed
e. either mother or daughter.
____ 141. Which of these statements concerning the centromere is NOT true?
a. It appears to join duplicated DNAs.
b. It anchors proteins to DNA.
c. Its position along the chromosome varies.
d. It is the attachment site for microtubules.
e. It is temporary.
____ 142. Which of the following statements is false?
a. There are more than 1,000 chromosomes found in some organisms.
b. The more highly evolved a species is, the more chromosomes it possesses.
c. The number of chromosomes remains constant throughout a life cycle.
d. The number of chromosomes is the same for all members of a species.
e. There are half as many chromosomes in germ cells as there are in somatic cells.
____ 143. Which statement is true of the behavior of chromosomes in mitosis?
a. Each new cell receives half of the number of chromosomes in the original cell.
b. Each new cell receives copies of all the original chromosomes.
c. If the original number of chromosomes was 46, each new cell will have 23..
d. The sister chromosomes are not identical due to breakages in the DNA..
e. All chromosomes are duplicated except the sex chromosomes.
____ 144. Cells with two of each kind of chromosome are described by the term
a. polyploid.
b. diploid.
c. triploid.
d. haploid.
e. tetraploid.
____ 145. Chromosomes are duplicated during what portion of the cell cycle?
a. M
b. D
c. G1
d. G2
e. S
____ 146. During the "gap" phases of the cell cycle, most of the activity is directed toward
a. DNA replication.
b. nuclear membrane synthesis.
c. resting for the next step.
d. sorting the chromosomes.
e. synthesizing cytoplasmic organelles.
____ 147. The interval before the onset of DNA replication is
a. the G1 stage.
b. the G2 stage.
c. the M stage.
d. the S stage.
e. all stages.
____ 148. Which of the following is NOT true of spindles?
 a. They are permanent cell structures.
b. They interact with kinetochores.
c. Some of their microtubules overlap at the cell equator.
d. Tubulin is the main component.
e. Their subunits continually change.
____ 149. Which of the following is NOT necessary for spindle apparatus formation?
a. microtubules
b. proteins
c. centrioles
d. microtubule organizing centers
e. tubulins
____ 150. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. When chromosomes are duplicated during interphase, the centromeres are not.
b. The spindle fibers are attached to kinetochores.
c. The spindle apparatus is composed of protein molecules of tubulin.
d. The spindle fibers attach to kinetochores.
e. All of these are true.
____ 151. The spindle apparatus begins to become visible during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
____ 152. In eukaryotic cells, which can occur during the stages of mitosis?
a. the duplication of chromatids
b. the replication of DNA
c. synapsis and crossing over
d. fragmentation and disappearance of nuclear envelope and nucleolus
e. all of these
____ 153. The chromosomes are aligned at the spindle equator during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
____ 154. In which of the stages below does each chromosome consist of two DNA molecules?

I. metaphase
II. telophase
III. prophase
IV. anaphase

a. III and IV
b. I, III, and IV
c. I and III
d. I, II, and III
e. I, II, III, and IV
____ 155. The chromatids detach from one another and become visibly separate chromosomes during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
 d. prophase.
e. telophase.
____ 156. The entire process of producing two cells from one cell
a. starts with prophase.
b. ends with cytokinesis.
c. results in the equal distribution of organelles between cells.
d. occurs only in multicellular organisms.
e. starts with prophase and ends with cytokinesis.
____ 157. The chromosomes have arrived at opposite poles during
a. anaphase.
b. metaphase.
c. interphase.
d. prophase.
e. telophase.
____ 158. Which of the following statements is false?
a. Homologous chromosomes do not pair during mitosis.
b. Genes and chromosomes are duplicated during prophase.
c. There is a specific number of chromosomes for each species.
d. New nuclei are formed during telophase.
____ 159. Which of the following statements is true?
a. After the centromere divides, the chromatids are called chromosomes.
b. Centromeres are separated during anaphase.
c. During anaphase, some microtubules ratchet past each other while others shorten.
d. Telophase is essentially the reverse of the events of prophase.
e. all of these
____ 160. Which of the following is the proper sequence for mitosis?

I. metaphase
II. telophase
III. prophase
IV. anaphase

a. I, III, IV, II
b. I, II, III, IV
c. III, I, IV, II
d. IV, I, III, II
e. III, IV, I, II
____ 161. Division of the cytoplasm (cytokinesis)
a. in animal cells begins with various deposits of material associated with groups of
microtubules at each pole of the nucleus.
b. in animal cells occurs when the plasma membrane is pulled inward by a ring of
microtubules that has become attached to the cell plate.
c. usually accompanies nuclear division.
d. in plant cells begins with the deposition of a very rigid lipid bilayer, which is the major
constituent of the cell wall.
____ 162. The distribution of cytoplasm to daughter cells is accomplished during
a. prokaryotic fission.
b. mitosis.
c. meiosis.
d. cytokinesis.
e. karyokinesis.
____ 163. The cell plate is composed of
a. the nuclear membrane.
b. the cytoplasmic membrane.
c. microtubule elements and cellulose.
d. cellular organelles.
e. the chitin and centrioles.
____ 164. Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common phase of mitosis. Select the exception.
a. beginning of microtubule assembly outside the nucleus
b. division of centromere
c. disappearance of nucleolus
d. disappearance of nuclear membrane
e. shortening and condensation of chromosomes make them more visible
____ 165. Four of the five answers listed below assist in chromosome movement. Select the exception.
a. centromere
b. spindle microtubules
c. kinetochores
d. centriole
e. nuclear envelope
____ 166. Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common phase of mitosis. Select the exception.
a. chromosomes align at the spindle equator
b. sister chromatids become individual chromosomes
c. centromeres divide
d. chromosomes move apart
e. spindle microtubules shorten, pulling chromosomes toward the poles
____ 167. Four of the five answers listed below are related by a common division association. Select the exception.
a. mitochondria
b. chromosomes
c. ribosomes
d. plastids
e. microbodies
____ 168. Which is NOT a typical site for the occurrence of meiosis?
a. plant ovary
b. plant root cells
c. human testis
d. human ovary
e. plant anther
____ 169. Asexually produced daughter cells are
a. identical to each other.
b. identical to the parental cell.
c. different from parental cell.
d. different from each other.
e. identical to each other and to the parental cell.
____ 170. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a. In asexual reproduction, the parent passes a complete set of genes to its offspring.
b. In sexual reproduction, both meiosis and fertilization must occur during the life cycle.
c. In sexual reproduction, a human offspring receives two genes for every trait.
d. Sexual reproduction puts together new combinations of genes.
e. Sexual reproduction produces clones.
____ 171. Chromosomes of a pair of homologous chromosomes may differ from other chromosomes in terms of
a. size.
b. shape.
 c. alleles they carry.
d. position of the centromere.
e. all of these
____ 172. Synapsis and crossing over occur during
a. anaphase I.
b. metaphase II.
c. prophase I.
d. prophase II.
e. telophase II.
____ 173. Under favorable conditions, during which phase of meiosis will the chromosomes appear as packets of
four chromatids?
a. anaphase I
b. telophase II
c. anaphase II
d. prophase I
e. metaphase II
____ 174. Anaphase
a. involves the lining up of the chromosomes across the equatorial plate.
b. is the same in mitosis and meiosis I and II.
c. is initiated when the newly divided centromeres begin to move apart.
d. results in an unequal distribution of chromosomes to the resulting cells.
____ 175. Paired homologous chromosomes are found at the spindle equator during
a. metaphase I.
b. telophase I.
c. prophase II.
d. metaphase II.
e. anaphase II.
____ 176. Crossing over is one of the most important events in meiosis because
a. it produces new arrays of alleles on chromosomes.
b. homologous chromosomes must be separated into different daughter cells.
c. the number of chromosomes allotted to each daughter cell must be halved.
d. homologous chromatids must be separated into different daughter cells.
e. all of these
____ 177. Which of the following does NOT occur in prophase I of meiosis?
a. cytokinesis
b. tetrad formation
c. synapsis
d. crossing over
e. condensation of chromatin
____ 178. Chiasmata provide evidence of
a. meiosis.
b. crossing over.
c. chromosomal aberration.
d. fertilization.
e. spindle fiber formation.
____ 179. At the beginning of prophase I, there are __________ molecules of DNA in a developing human sperm
cell.
a. 92
b. 23
c. 46
d. half as many (as compared to somatic cells)
 e. twice as many (as compared to mature sperm)
____ 180. Which of the following events does NOT occur in prophase II, but does occur in prophase I?
a. crossing over
b. synapsis
c. spindle formation
d. crossing over and synapsis only
e. crossing over, synapsis, and spindle formation.
____ 181. Crossing over
a. increases variability in gametes.
b. results in only one exchange per homologue.
c. occurs between sister chromatids.
d. prevents genetic recombination.
e. is followed immediately by separation of each of the chromatids.
____ 182. At the end of telophase I in corn (20 chromosomes), which of the following is true?
a. Each cell has 10 chromosomes.
b. Each chromosome is duplicated.
c. Centromeres are undivided.
d. Each cell has 10 chromosomes; and Each chromosome is duplicated.
e. Each cell has 10 chromosomes; Each chromosome is duplicated; and Centromeres are
undivided.
____ 183. If a diploid organism has a genome consisting of 4 chromosomes, it can produce __________ different
combinations of maternal and paternal chromosomes (disregarding crossing over).
a. 4
b. 8
c. 12
d. 16
e. 32
____ 184. Independent assortment refers to which of the following statements?
a. The position where crossing over occurs is random.
b. The pole that any one chromosome moves toward is completely independent of the
movement of the other 45 chromosomes in humans.
c. A maternal chromosome may move toward either pole while the paternal homologue
moves toward the other.
d. The sperm that fertilizes the egg is selected at random.
e. none of these
____ 185. The period that may occur between meiosis I and meiosis II is called
a. cytokinesis.
b. interkinesis.
c. synapsis.
d. reduction division.
e. karyokinesis.
____ 186. Which of the following is NOT true of human chromosomes?
a. The haploid number is 23.
b. The diploid number is 46.
c. There are 23 pairs of chromosomes.
d. Human gametes end up with two of each type of 23 chromosomes.
e. Human gametes end up with one of each type of 23 chromosomes.
____ 187. Gametogenesis is
a. always the result of the process of meiosis.
b. the pairing of homologous chromosomes.
c. the formation of sex cells.
 d. the fusion of gametes.
e. a process that occurs only in asexually reproducing forms.
____ 188. Which of the following cells is NOT haploid?
a. secondary spermatocyte
b. sperm
c. primary oocyte
d. spermatids
e. polar bodies
____ 189. Which of the following will NOT develop into a gamete?
a. spermatogonium
b. polar bodies
c. oocyte
d. spermatid
e. secondary spermatocyte
____ 190. The mature ovum is produced by maturation of the
a. oogonium.
b. primary oocyte.
c. secondary polar body.
d. polar body I.
e. none of these
____ 191. A pine tree is called a sporophyte because it
a. develops from a germinated spore.
b. produces spores by meiosis.
c. is haploid.
d. undergoes fertilization.
e. reproduces by both sexual and asexual means.
____ 192. Fertilization of plant gametes produces a
a. zygote.
b. gametophyte.
c. spore.
d. meiospore.
e. multicellular haploid plant.
____ 193. Which of the following does NOT produce variation?
a. crossing over
b. random alignment of chromosomes during meiosis
c. asexual reproduction
d. genetic recombination of alleles
e. sexual reproduction
____ 194. In comparing mitosis and meiosis, which of the following statements is true?
a. Meiosis I is more like mitosis than is meiosis II.
b. Both processes result in four cells.
c. Synapsis occurs in both.
d. Chromatids are present only in mitosis.
e. Meiosis II resembles mitosis.

Exhibit 10-1
With reference to the mammalian reproductive system, answer the following questions by using the five
items listed below.

I. sperm
II. mature ova
 III. primary oocytes
IV. primary spermatocytes
V. zygotes

____ 195. Refer to Exhibit 10-1. During fertilization, which two items combine to form a fertilized egg?
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. I and IV
d. II and IV
e. III and IV
____ 196. Four of the five answers listed below concern cells with two chromosome sets. Select the exception.
a. zygote
b. somatic cells
c. gamete
d. diploid
e. two full chromosome sets
____ 197. Four of the five answers listed below are related to pairing of chromosomes. Select the exception.
a. synapsis
b. crossing over
c. exchange of genes
d. pairing of homologues
e. interkinesis
____ 198. Four of the five answers listed below are related to the process of synapsis. Select the exception.
a. genetic recombination
b. increase in variability
c. exchange of genes
d. identical daughter cells
e. chiasmata
____ 199. Four of the five answers listed below are characteristic of meiosis. Select the exception.
a. involves two divisions
b. reduces the number of chromosomes
c. results in producing genetically identical cells
d. produces haploid cells
e. involves synapsis
____ 200. Four of the five answers listed below are haploid. Select the exception.
a. zygote
b. meiospore
c. egg
d. sperm
e. gametophyte
GENERAL BIOLOGY 1 (BIO01) REVIEWER
Answer Section
MULTIPLE CHOICE
1. ANS: B PTS: 1
2. ANS: C PTS: 1
3. ANS: C PTS: 1
4. ANS: D PTS: 1
5. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: BASIC ASPECTS OF CELL STRUCTURE AND
FUNCTION
6. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: BASIC ASPECTS OF CELL STRUCTURE AND
FUNCTION
7. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: BASIC ASPECTS OF CELL STRUCTURE AND
FUNCTION
8. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: BASIC ASPECTS OF CELL STRUCTURE AND
FUNCTION
9. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: FOCUS ON SCIENCE:
MICROSCOPES-GATEWAYS CELLS
10. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: DEFINING FEATURES OF EUKARYOTIC CELLS
11. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: DEFINING FEATURES OF EUKARYOTIC CELLS
12. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE NUCLEUS
13. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THE NUCLEUS
14. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: THE ENDOMEMBRANE SYSTEM
15. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THE ENDOMEMBRANE SYSTEM
16. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: THE ENDOMEMBRANE SYSTEM
17. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE ENDOMEMBRANE SYSTEM
18. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THE ENDOMEMBRANE SYSTEM
19. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: MITOCHONDRIA
20. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: MITOCHONDRIA
21. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: MITOCHONDRIA
22. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: MITOCHONDRIA
23. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: MITOCHONDRIA
24. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: SPECIALIZED PLANT ORGANELLES
25. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: SPECIALIZED PLANT ORGANELLES
26. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: SPECIALIZED PLANT ORGANELLES
27. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: EVEN YOUR CELLS HAVE A SKELETON
28. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: EVEN YOUR CELLS HAVE A SKELETON
29. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MOVE?
30. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MOVE?
31. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MOVE?
32. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: CELL SURFACE SPECIALIZATIONS
33. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: CELL SURFACE SPECIALIZATIONS
34. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: PROKARYOTIC CELLS
35. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: PROKARYOTIC CELLS
36. ANS: B PTS: 1
37. ANS: E PTS: 1
38. ANS: A PTS: 1
39. ANS: B PTS: 1
40. ANS: C PTS: 1
41. ANS: D PTS: 1
42. ANS: B PTS: 1
43. ANS: B PTS: 1
44. ANS: B PTS: 1
45. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: PHOTOSYNTHESIS-AN OVERVIEW
46. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: PHOTOSYNTHESIS-AN OVERVIEW
47. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: PHOTOSYNTHESIS-AN OVERVIEW
48. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: PHOTOSYNTHESIS-AN OVERVIEW
49. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: SUNLIGHT AS AN ENERGY SOURCE
50. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: SUNLIGHT AS AN ENERGY SOURCE
51. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THE RAINBOW CATCHERS
52. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: THE RAINBOW CATCHERS
53. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THE RAINBOW CATCHERS
54. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE RAINBOW CATCHERS
55. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THE RAINBOW CATCHERS
56. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THE RAINBOW CATCHERS
57. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-DEPENDENT REACTIONS
58. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-DEPENDENT REACTIONS
59. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-DEPENDENT REACTIONS
60. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-DEPENDENT REACTIONS
61. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-DEPENDENT REACTIONS
62. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-DEPENDENT REACTIONS
63. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-DEPENDENT REACTIONS
64. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: CASE STUDY: A CONTROLLED RELEASE OF
ENERGY
65. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: CASE STUDY: A CONTROLLED RELEASE OF
ENERGY
66. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
67. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
68. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
69. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
70. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
71. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
72. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
73. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
74. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
75. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
76. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THE LIGHT-INDEPENDENT REACTIONS
77. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: FIXING CARBON-SO NEAR | YET SO FAR
78. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: FIXING CARBON-SO NEAR | YET SO FAR
79. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: FIXING CARBON-SO NEAR | YET SO FAR
80. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: FIXING CARBON-SO NEAR | YET SO FAR
81. ANS: B PTS: 1
82. ANS: A PTS: 1
83. ANS: B PTS: 1
 84. ANS: C PTS: 1
85. ANS: E PTS: 1
86. ANS: C PTS: 1
87. ANS: C PTS: 1
88. ANS: C PTS: 1
89. ANS: A PTS: 1
90. ANS: C PTS: 1
91. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MAKE ATP?
92. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MAKE ATP?
93. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MAKE ATP?
94. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MAKE ATP?
95. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MAKE ATP?
96. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: HOW DO CELLS MAKE ATP?
97. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
98. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
99. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
100. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
101. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
102. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
103. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
104. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: GLYCOLYSIS: FIRST STAGE OF
ENERGY-RELEASING PATHWAYS
105. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
106. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
107. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
108. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
109. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
110. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
111. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
112. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: SECOND STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
113. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
114. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
115. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
116. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
117. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
118. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
119. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
120. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: THIRD STAGE OF THE AEROBIC PATHWAY
121. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
122. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
123. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
124. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
125. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
126. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
127. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
128. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: ANAEROBIC ROUTES OF ATP FORMATION
129. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: ALTERNATIVE ENERGY SOURCES IN THE
HUMAN BODY
130. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: ALTERNATIVE ENERGY SOURCES IN THE
HUMAN BODY
131. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: ALTERNATIVE ENERGY SOURCES IN THE
HUMAN BODY
132. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: ALTERNATIVE ENERGY SOURCES IN THE
HUMAN BODY
133. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: ALTERNATIVE ENERGY SOURCES IN THE
HUMAN BODY
134. ANS: E PTS: 1
135. ANS: D PTS: 1
136. ANS: A PTS: 1
137. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
138. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
139. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
140. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
141. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
142. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
143. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
144. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: DIVIDING CELLS: THE BRIDGE BETWEEN
GENERATIONS
145. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: THE CELL CYCLE
146. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: THE CELL CYCLE
147. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THE CELL CYCLE
148. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: THE CELL CYCLE
149. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
150. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
151. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
152. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
153. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
154. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
155. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
156. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
157. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
158. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
159. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
160. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: MITOSIS
161. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: DIVISION OF THE CYTOPLASM
162. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: DIVISION OF THE CYTOPLASM
163. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: DIVISION OF THE CYTOPLASM
164. ANS: B PTS: 1
165. ANS: E PTS: 1
166. ANS: A PTS: 1
167. ANS: B PTS: 1
168. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: COMPARING SEXUAL WITH ASEXUAL
REPRODUCTION
169. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: COMPARING SEXUAL WITH ASEXUAL
REPRODUCTION
170. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: COMPARING SEXUAL WITH ASEXUAL
REPRODUCTION
171. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: HOW MEIOSIS HALVES THE CHROMOSOME
NUMBER
172. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
173. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
174. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
175. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
176. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
177. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
178. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
179. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
180. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
181. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
182. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
183. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
184. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
185. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: CLOSER LOOK AT KEY EVENTS OF MEIOSIS I
186. ANS: D PTS: 1 TOP: FROM GAMETES TO OFFSPRING
187. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: FROM GAMETES TO OFFSPRING
188. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: FROM GAMETES TO OFFSPRING
189. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: FROM GAMETES TO OFFSPRING
190. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: FROM GAMETES TO OFFSPRING
191. ANS: B PTS: 1 TOP: FROM GAMETES TO OFFSPRING
192. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: FROM GAMETES TO OFFSPRING
193. ANS: C PTS: 1 TOP: MEIOSIS AND MITOSIS COMPARED
194. ANS: E PTS: 1 TOP: MEIOSIS AND MITOSIS COMPARED
195. ANS: A PTS: 1 TOP: MEIOSIS AND MITOSIS COMPARED
196. ANS: C PTS: 1
197. ANS: E PTS: 1
198. ANS: D PTS: 1
199. ANS: C PTS: 1
200. ANS: A PTS: 1