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CONTENTS
CGCJ MOCK TEST 15 2
CIVIL PROCEDURE CODE 2
INDIAN EVIDENCE ACT 5
CONSTITUTION OF INDIA 9
INDIAN PENAL CODE 14
TRANSFER OF PROPERTY ACT 17
INDIAN CONTRACT ACT 19
CODE OF CRIMINAL PROCEDURE 21
SRA 24
LIMITATION ACT 25
NI ACT 27
CG RENT CONTROL 28
CG LAND REVENUE 29
CG EXCISE ACT 30
COURT FEES ACT 32
REGISTRATION ACT 33

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1.A alleging that he is adopted son of X, sues B to recover certain property
granted to him by X, under a deed and forming part of X’s estate. The court
finds that A is not the adopted son of X, but he is entitle to the property under
the deed and a decree is passed for A. The finding that A is not the adopted son
of X-
(a) Will operate as Res Judicata in a subsequent suit between A and B
(b) Will not operate as Res Judicata in subsequent suit between A and B
(c) Court will decide this issue
(d) None of the above

2. Under which provision of Code of Civil Procedure, restoration of setting

aside of orders passed exparte can be sought regarding an application filed
under Order XXI of CPC which has been dismissed for nonappearance or
decided ex parte?
(a) Order LX Rule 13
(b) Order XXI Rule 58
(c) Order XXI Rule 106
(d) Order XXI Rule 100

3.On dismissal of a suit for noncompliance with an order for discovery under
order XI Rule 21 of the Civil Procedure Code 1908 the plaintiff:
(a) Can bring a fresh suit on the same cause of action as a matter of right.
(b) Can bring a fresh suit on the same cause of action only with the leave of the
court
(c) Can bring a fresh suit on the same cause of action only if the court
dismissing the suit has granted liberty to file a fresh suit.
(d) Cannot bring any fresh suit on the same cause of action.

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4. Suit was fled on 20.11.2012 and it has been specifically pleaded that cause
of action arose on 06.10.2012. Defendant appeared and without filing written
statement he hled an application under Order 7 Rule 11 C.P.C. on the ground
that suit is barred by Limitation. State what is the correct legal position?
(a) Application under Order 7 Rule 11 C.P.C. is not maintainable because
written statement should be filed firstly
(b) Plaint shall be rejected because suit is barred by law of limitation
(c) Dismissed of application will be proper. Objection could not be decided
without recording evidence of parties
(d) Application should be allowed because plaint does not disclose correct
cause of action.

5.A sues B for the specific performance of contract. In the plaint, A seeks the
relief of specific performance. He does not seek any relief in the alternative.
The Court determines that it cannot order the specific performance of the
contract. Can the court award compensation instead?
(a) Yes, as Specific Relief Act directs that compensation must be awarded.
(b) Compensation can be awarded since Order VII. Rule 7 of the Code of Civil
Procedure provides that any other relief can be awarded and the same does
not have to be specifically pleaded
(c) Compensation can be awarded only after the Court allows the plaint to be
amended for including a claim of compensation.
(d) No damages cannot be awarded since the relief of specific performance
and of compensation are inconsistent pleadings and therefore no amendment
can be brought to this effect.

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6. According to the Civil Procedure Code, from amongst the following, which
combination is properly arranged?
1. Execution of decrees and orders - Order 21
2. Suits by indigent persons - Order 33
3. Commission - Order 35
4. Attachment and arrest before judgment - Order 38.
The right answer is
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1,3 and 4.

7. Under what circumstances, in the pending cases before any Court, it may
make a reference to the High Court for seeking opinion of the High Court on
the question of validity of a certain law?
(a) Where it involves a question as to the validity of any Act, Ordinance or
Regulation or of any provision contained therein.
(b) Where there is doubt as to whether the 7 suit is cognizable or not
cognizable by a Small Causes Court.
(c) Where it appears to a District Court that a Court subordinate thereto has,
by reason of erroneously holding a suit to be cognizable by a Court of Small
Causes or not to be so cognizable, failed to exercise a jurisdiction vested in it
by law, or exercised a jurisdiction not so vested.
(d) All of the above.

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8. Under what Section/Order of the Civil Procedure Code, it has been
enshrined that in the case of disobedience or breach of any injunction or any
of its terms, the Court may order that the property of the person guilty of such
disobedience or breach to be attached or/and such person to be detained in
the civil prison?
(a) Order 39, Rule 1
(b) Order 39, Rule 2
(c) Order 39, Rule 2-A
(d) Order 39, Rule 3-A.

9. Where a judgment-debtor expresses his intention to apply to be declared an

insolvent and furnishes security, to the satisfaction of the Court, that he will
within ------so apply, and that he will appear, when called upon, in any
proceeding upon the application or upon the decree in execution of which he
was arrested, the Court may release him from arrest.
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Four months.

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10. During the pendency of an appeal by the four defendants in the suit, one of
the appellants (defendants) dies and no steps for substitution of his legal
representatives are taken and the appeal in so far as it relates to the said
appellant abates. The five respondents (plaintiff apply for dismissal of the
entire appeal as abated. Answer whether:
(a) The entire appeal abates and has to be dismissed
(b) The entire appeal abates only if the cause of action against the entire
defendant was one and allowing the appeal of the other defendants would
lead to inconsistent decrees
(c) The appeal only of the deceased appellant abates and as far as the other
defendants’ appellants) are concerned has to continue
(d) the proceedings in the appeal have to be stayed and a second appeal is
required to be filed for determination of this question

11.An admission is evidence against the party who had made the admission
and it can be proved only against him. Admissions cannot be proved by, or on
behalf of, the person who makes them. Which of the following is an exception
to this general rule?
a) Dying declaration
b) Statements as to his state of body or of mind
c) Statement sought to be sued in evidence otherwise than as an admission
d) All of the above

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12.A statement before the police officer in the course of investigation was that
the design was carried out according to plan; but no reference was made to
persons who were involved in murder or to the maker of statement himself
a) Prosecution shall not be allowed to prove this statement, being hit by
Section 25 of Indian Evidence Act
b) Prosecution may prove this statement. It is not hit by Section 25 of Indian
Evidence Act
c) Only that part of the statement may be proved which leads to discovery of a
fact in consequence of information received
d) None of the above is correct

13. Which of the following combinations are not correctly matched?

1. Voluntary and direct acknowledgement – Admission of guilt
2. Self-exculpatory confession of accused - Cannot be used against co-accused
when confessing accused is not on trial
3. Extra judicial confession - Corroboration is must
4. Evidence of trained police officer of - Can be taken as expert opinion
handling guns
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1 and 3
c) 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4

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14. Assertion (A): Even for a child immediately after marriage, presumption of
legitimacy under section 112 of the Evidence Act would apply.
Reason (R): The legislature which extended the period of operation of the
presumption by 280 days after dissolution of marriage did not chose to
exclude any minimum initial period of matrimony for application of the
presumption.
Find the correct response:
a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
c) (A) is true but (R) is false
d) (A) is false but (R) is true

15. A news item in the newspaper stated that those who will open industrial
units in North-east India will be exempted from Corporate Tax for 5 years. X
who wanted to set up an industry, applied to Director of Industries as well as
to the Chief Secretary of one of the States and both confirmed the availability
of exemption. X proceeded with his plans. However, the State Government
withdrew its policy after one year. Can X bring estoppel against the State?
a) No, because estoppel cannot be against state
b) No, as there was no direct promise between the State and X
c) Yes, X can bring a suit of estoppel as he suffered detriment on the promise
made by the State
d) It will be at the discretion of Court

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16. In what kind of proceedings a wife is a competent witness?
i. In civil proceedings
ii. In criminal proceedings
iii. She cannot be a witness
iv. Both in civil and criminal proceedings
Select the correct answer with the help of code given below:
a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
b) (i) only
c) (ii) only
d) (iii) only

17.Mark the incorrect statement in relation to professional communication

between a client and his legal advisor under Section 126:
a) No barrister shall at any time be permitted to disclose any communication
made to him by or n behalf of his client, or any advice given by him to his client
in the course and for the purpose of his employment
b) The privilege extends only to communications made to a lawyer
confidentially and with a view to obtaining professional advise
c) If the communication is made during the existence of the relationship the
privilege
does not get terminated by the termination of the litigation or the death of the
parties
d) The privilege also attaches to communication to an attorney of pleader
consulted as a friend

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18. X had made some communication to his wife Y during their marriage
under Section 122 of the Evidence Act, the correct proposition are:
I. X can be compelled to disclose such communications before the Court, if
II. X can be compelled to disclose such communication whether Y consents or
not in any proceedings
III. Y can be compelled to disclose such communication whether X consents or
not in a divorce proceeding between them
IV. Y may be permitted by Court, if deems fit, to disclose any such
communication in a criminal proceeding not between X and Y
a) I, III, IV are not correct
b) I, II, III are not correct
c) II, III, IV are not correct
d) I, II, IV are not correct

19. In which case Supreme Court observed that the evidence of an approver
does not differ from the evidence of any other witness except that his evidence
is looked upon with great suspicion. But the suspicion may be removed and if
the evidence of the approver is found to be trustworthy and acceptable then
that evidence might well be decisive in securing a conviction.
a) State of Tamil Nadu v Suresh
b) Haroon Haji v State of Maharashtra
c) Jasbir Singh v Vipin Kumar
d) None of the above

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20. According to statutory rules no student obtaining less than 40% marks in
qualifying examination can be admitted to LL.B. degree course; but ‘A’ who has
obtained less than 40% marks in the qualifying examination has been
admitted to the above course. Later on his admission was cancelled. Whether
mere permission to prosecute studies will operate as estoppel:
a) Yes, permission granted to prosecute studies will operate as estoppel
b) No, mere permission to prosecute studies will not operate as estoppel
c) Yes, mere permission to prosecute studies will operate as estoppel in
certain
circumstances
d) None of the above is correct

21. A state legislature passed an Act banning the use of loud speakers within
100 metres of educational institutions and also between 10.00 p.m. and 4.00
a.m. The validity of the legislation is challenged on several grounds. Which one
of the following correctly states the law?
a) The Act is invalid as it is relatable to entry 31 of the List I (broadcasting and
other like forms of communication),
b) The Act is valid as it is relatable to entry 1 (Public Order) and entry 6
(Public Health) of the List III
c) The Act is valid as the same was enacted alter receiving nu8merous
complaints from the
educational institutions and resident welfare associations
d) The Act is invalid as it violates the freedom of trade and freedom of speech
and expression

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22. The legislature of State enacts a law prohibiting the use of loud speaker
during night at public places and near educational institutions and religious
places. In regard to the above, consider the following statements:
1. Law is valid as it falls under the head ―Public Health provided in List II (7th
Schedule) of the Constitution of India.
2. Law is valid as it falls under the head ―Public Order under List II (7th
Schedule) of the Constitution of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

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23. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given
below the lists :
List I (Doctrine) List II (Related Judgement)
A. Doctrine of Repugnancy 1. State of Bombay v. F.N. Balsara
B. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation. 2. Prafulla Kumar v. Bank of
Commerce
C. Doctrine of Pith Substance 3. K.C.G. Narayun and Deo v. State of
Orissa
D. Doctrine of Harmonious 4. M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India
Construction
Codes:
ABCD
a) 4 2 3 1
b) 4 3 2 1
c) 1 3 2 4
d) 1 2 3 4

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24. Which of the following statements is/are correct?
1. No bill can be introduced in the legislature of a state for imposing
reasonable restrictions on the freedom of trade without previous sanction of
the President.
2. No bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament for altering the
name of a state without the name of a state without the recommendation of
the President and the concurrence of the
state legislature concerned.
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
a) 1 only
b) 2 only
c) Both 1 and 2
d) Neither 1 nor 2

25. Which of the following is not a function of the UPSC and State Public
Service Commissions?
1. Advising the appropriate governments on matters relating to methods of
recruitment to civil
services and for civil posts.
2. Consultation in creation of All India Services.
3. Consultation on disciplinary matters affecting a person serving the
Government of India or of a person serving the Government of a State in a civil
capacity.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 2
c) 2 only
d) 2 and 3

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26. What are the reasons due to which a person could be considered unfit for
registration in the electoral roll?
I. Being an Indian citizen
II. Being of unsound mind and standing declared as such by a competent court
III. Disqualified from voting for the time being under the provisions of any law
relating to corrupt-to-corrupt practices and other offences in connection with
elections
IV. Being less than 18 years of age
V. Being ordinarily resident of a constituency
a) None of these
b) II and V
c) III and V
d) II, III and IV

27. Which Constitution provision mandates that the President or the Governor
of a State shall not be answerable to any Court for the exercise and
performance of the powers and duties of his office or for any act done or
purporting to be done by him in the exercise and performance of those
powers and duties?
a) Article 316
b) Article 346
c) Article 361
d) Article 363

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28. The first Amendment to the Constitution made in 1951, made changes in
relation to which of the following provisions?
1. Special provisions for advancement of socially and educationally backward
classes
2. Validation of certain Acts and Regulations specified in the Ninth Schedule
3. Saving of certain laws giving effect to certain Directive Principles
4. Saving of laws providing for acquisition of estates
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
a) 1, 2 and 3
b) 1, 2 and 4
c) 2, 3 and 4
d) 1, 3 and 4

29. Match the following Correctly:

List I List II
A. Kesavananda Bharati v. UOI 1. 1975
B. Indira Gandhi v. Raj Narain. 2. 1973
C. Minerva Mills Case 3. 200
D. State of Bihar v. Bal Mukund Shah. 4. 1980

ABCD
a) 1 2 3 4
b) 2 1 4 3
c) 4 2 3 1
d) None of the above

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30. According to Article 254 of the Constitution of India, Repugnancy between
two statutes may thus be ascertained on the following three principles:
(i) Whether there is a direct conflict,
(ii) Whether Parliament intended to lay down an exhaustive code in respect of
the subject-matter replacing the Act of the State Legislature,
(iii) Whether the law made by Parliament and the State Legislature occupied
the same field, was held in:
a) Deep Chand v. State of U.P, 1959
b) M. Karunanidhi v. Union of India, 1979
c) State of Assam v. Horizon Union, 1967
d) Clyde Engg. Co. v. Cowburn, 1926

31. A woman approaches 'X', an officer in charge of a police station and alleges
that her boyfriend tried to forcibly remove her shirt in a dress shop, seeking
legal action to be taken, but X refuses to take note of the incident and asked
her to file a criminal complaint before a magistrate. Here, 'X'
committed a
(a) misconduct but not any penal offence
(b) cognizable offence
(c) non-cognizable offence
(d) None of these

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32. A falsely informs a policeman that he was assaulted and robbed in the
neighborhood of a particular village. He does not mention that name of any
person as one of his assailants, but knows
it to be likely that in consequence of this information the police will make
enquiries and institute searches in the village to the annoyance of the villagers
or some of them. A has committed an offence punishable under __________ of the
Indian Penal Code.
(a) Section 182
(b) Section 183
(c) Section 184
(d) Section 185

33. The courts have to follow the procedures strictly and cannot allow a
witness to escape the legal action for giving false evidence before the court on
mere explanation that he had given it under the pressure of the police or for
some other reason. Whenever the witness speaks falsehood in the court, and it
is proved satisfactorily, the court should take a serious action against such
witnesses ‘.
In which of the following cases the Supreme Court made the above
observation?
(a) Jessica Lal Case
(b) Priyadarshini Matto Case
(c) B M W Case
(d) Mishrilal v State

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34. Whoever drives any vehicle, or rides, on any public way in a manner so
rash or negligent as to endanger human life, or to be likely to causes hurt or
injury to any other person, shall be punished with __________ _.
(a) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to three
months, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
(b) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to six
month or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
(c) Imprisonment of either description for a term which may extend to one
year, or with fine which may extend to one thousand rupees, or with both.
(d) None of the above

35. X takes a girl out of the custody of her lawful guardians. Which of the
following statements is a complete defence if X is charged under section 361 of
the IPC for kidnapping on the ground that the girl was below the age of
eighteen years when taken away:
(a) the girl was a student in a college and could understand what was right or
wrong for her
(b) the girl was maltreated by the guardians and A promised her a better life
(c) the girl looked more than 18 years of age and the accused had satisfied
himself that she was more than 18 years of age
(d) none of these.

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36. Match List I with List II and give the correct answer by using the codes:
List I List II
A. Sexual harassment (i) 354 B
B. Stalking. (ii) 354 C
C. Voyeurism. (iii) 354 A
D. Assault or use of criminal force to woman with intent (iv) 354 D
to disrobe.
Codes:
ABCD
(a) (iii) (iv) (ii) (i)
(b) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(c) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(d) (iii) (i) (ii)l (iv)

37. A person held guilty for commission of an offence described under Section
326a of the Indian Penal Code, is liable to be punished with imprisonment
which shall not be less than ten years, but which may extend to imprisonment
for life with fine, required to be paid to the victim. Such fine
shall be:
(a) Not less than Rs. 1,00,000/-
(b) Not more than Rs. 5,00,000/-
(c) Just and reasonable to meet the medical expenses of the treatment of
victim
(d) Determined by the Court but in no case shall be less than Rs. 5,00,000/

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38. Under section 415 of the Indian Penal Code, a person is said to cheat when
he by deceiving another person fraudulently or dishonestly induces the
person so deceived to deliver any property
to him, or to consent that he shall retain any property or intentionally induces
the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do or
omit if he was not so deceived and which act or omission causes or is likely to
cause damage or harm to that person in ______
(a) Body
(b) Mind or reputation
(c) Property
(d) Any of the above

39. The appellant stabbed the deceased in the abdomen. The deceased was
taken promptly to hospital and the wound was stitched but few days later he
died. The evidence showed that at the time of death the wound had healed. But
due to terramycin injection being given in excess lungs had become over
logged and caused pneumonia on the question of causation:
(a) The appellant can be acquitted
(b) The appellant cannot be acquitted
(c) The appellant and the doctor both cannot be acquitted
(d) The doctor must be acquitted

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40. Whoever takes or entices away any woman who is and whom he knows or
has reason to believe to be the wife of any other man, from that man, or from
any person having the care of her on behalf
of that man, with intent that she may have illicit intercourse with any person,
or conceals or detains with that intent any such woman is punishable under
________ of the Indian Penal Code.
(a) Section 498
(b) Section 497
(c) Section 366A
(d) Section 366

41.Section 52 of Transfer of Property Act, 1882 imposes a prohibition on

transfer or otherwise dealing of any property during the pendency of a suit,
provided the conditions laid down in section are satisfied. The statement is:
(a) false
(b) true
(c) partly true
(d) none of the above.

42. The Supreme Court held that the act of taking illegal possession of
property or the continuance of wrongful possession of property does not
amount to "otherwise dealing with the property” so as to attract section 52,
even if the wrong doer be a party to the suit. This was held in case of:
(a) Narain Singh v. Iman Din, (1934) 154 IC 729
(b) Dhansingh v. Sushilabai, AIR 1968 MP 229
(c) Harnam Singh v. liwan, 1906 PR 7
(d) Rajendra Singh v. Sama Singh, AIR 1973 SC 2537.

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43. Which of the following statements will apply in case a landlord in a suit for
ejectment of tenant obtains a decree for ejectment?
(a) A notice would need to be given under section 106 of the Transfer of
Property Act, 1882
(b) A notice under section 106 of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882 will be
needed in case the lease is not terminable at will
(c) A notice under section 106 of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882 is not
needed
(d) A notice under section 106 of the Transfer of the Property Act, 1882 will be
needed unless there is a contract to the contrary

44. Under the provisions of section 6 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, the
chance of an heir-apparent succeeding to an estate, the chance of a relation
abstaining a legacy on the death of a kinsman, or any other mere possibility of
like nature:
(a) cannot be transferred
(b) can be transferred
(c) can be transferred subject to certain conditions
(d) none of the above.

45. Under section 16 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 where an interest
created for the benefit of a person or class of persons fails then:
(a) any interest created in the same transaction intended to take effect after
or upon failure of such prior interest also fails
(b) any interest created in the same transaction and intended to take effect
after or upon failure of such prior interest does not fail
(c) such failure does not affect
(d) none of the above.

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46. A dress is displayed in the showroom of a shop with a price tag attached to
the dress. A buyer interested in the dress and ready to pay the price
mentioned in the tag approached the shopkeeper for purchasing the dress.
Which one of the following is correct?
(a) The shopkeeper can refuse to sell the dress
(b) The shopkeeper cannot refuse to sell the dress as the buyer has accepted
the offer
(c) In case of refusal, the shopkeeper will be liable for breach of contract
(d) The shopkeeper cannot refuse to sell the dress but may charge higher
price

47. A wanted to purchase B‘s old car which he wanted to dispose of and
therefore sent a telegram to B asking him the lowest price of the car which he
would accept. B telegraphed back that he would accept Rs. 55,000. On A‘s
agreeing to buy at the price, B refused to sell. In this case
(a) B is liable of breach of contract, as his offer to sell the car was accepted by
A
(b) B is not liable of breach of contract
(c) B is not guilty of breach of contract as his telegram stating the price of the
car was no more
than an invitation to proposal
(d) B is liable for damages.

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48. Assertion (A): A party to the contract can excuse himself from performing
his part of contract on the ground that he is left with no money or property to
Pay.
Reason (R): An agreement to do an impossible act in itself is void and both
parties are discharged from future performances.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

49. Consider the following statements:

I. The party rescinding avoidable contract is not liable to restore the benefits
received by him under the contract
II. Every promisee may dispense with or remit the performance of the promise
made to him
III. Every promisee may extend time for performance of the contract
IV. When an agreement is discovered to be void, any person who has received
any advantage under such agreement is bound to restore it to the person from
Whom he has received it
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) II, III and IV
(b) I, II and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) I, III and IV

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50. Consider the following statements in an action for breach of a contract
damages may be claimed by the parties
I. For loss or damage arising naturally.
II. For causing mental anxiety and hence as a measure of revenge
III. For causing loss of profit arising due to the breach of contract
IV. For loss or damage which the parties knew when they entered into the
contract
Of these statements
(a) I alone is correct
(b) II and III are correct.
(c) I and IV are correct
(d) II, III and IV are correct.

51. The protection under section 162 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973
is –
A. Available in Civil Proceedings
B. Available for proceedings under Article 32 and/or 226 of the Constitution
C. Not Available in rape cases
D. Only available in Criminal enquiry or trial in respect of the offence under
investigation

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52. A Metropolitan Magistrate can award sentence of imprisonment -in default
of payment of fine
(a) equal to the term of imprisonment which he is competent to inflict as
substantive punishment
(b) not exceeding half of the term of imprisonment which he is competent to
inflict as substantive sentence
(c) not exceeding one-third of the term of imprisonment which he is
competent to inflict as substantive sentence
(d) not exceeding one-fourth of the term of imprisonment which he is
competent to inflict as substantive sentence

53. Which of the following is true of Section 31 Cr. P.C.?

A. it relates to the quantum of the punishment that the Court has jurisdiction
to pass where the accused is convicted of two or more offences at one trial
B. it is rule of the procedural law
C. Neither (A) or (B)
D. both (A) and (B)

54. The section making it mandatory for the police officer making arrest to
inform about the arrest and place where the arrested person is being held to a
nominated person as inserted by Criminal Procedure (Amendment) Act, 2005
(25 of 2005) is
(a) section 50A
(b) section 53A
(c) section 54A
(d) section 53B

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55. Under section 164 of Cr PC, statements other than confession
(a) can be recorded by a Magistrate where the person who intends to make
such statement appears before the Magistrate on his own
(b) can be recorded by a Magistrate where the person who intends to make
such statement is produced or sponsored by the defence.
(c) cannot be recorded by a Magistrate unless the person who intends to make
such statement is produced or sponsored by the investigating officer
(d) can be recorded by the Magistrate without going into the question as to
how or who has produced or sponsored the person who intends to make such
statement

56. If an accused is charged of a major offence, but on the facts established he

cannot be held guilty of that major offence. At the same time the facts
established indicate that a minor offence has been committed, the person so
tried for major offence can be convicted for such minor offence. It has been so
provided
(a) under section 220 of Cr PC
(b) under section 223 of Cr PC
(c) under section 222 of Cr PC
(d) under section 221 of Cr PC.

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57. Under section 243 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973-
A. A magistrate cannot issue summons to the complainant for being examined
as a witness of the accused
B. The Court cannot ask the accuse to deposit expenses which might be
incurred by the witness
C. At the instance of the accused the complainant can be re-summoned
D. All of the above

58. Continuation of investigation, in a summons case triable by a Magistrate,

beyond the period of six months, from the date of arrest of the accused,
without the previous permission of the Magistrate
(a) shall render the entire investigation vitiated bad and the accused is liable
to be discharged
(b) shall not render the entire investigation bad but the accused is liable to be
discharged
(c) shall not render the entire investigation bad, but the prosecution can not
rely on the investigation so carried out and the evidence so collected shall not
be admissible
(d) either (a) or (b)

59. An order under ____________ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 acts as a
bar under section 300 of the Code to the trial of the accused for the same
offence.
A. Section 256
B. Section 203
C. Section 227
D. Section 239

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60. Which of the following statements in NOT true regard•ing the charge sheet
made under the provisions of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973?
A. In case of offence of a rape of a child the charge sheet must be submitted
within three months of the FIR
B. After submission of the charge sheet there cannot be any further
investigation into the case by police
C. The right to be released on bail is lost once the charge-sheet is filed
D. Charge sheet against absconding accused can be filed even if the accused is
not arrested

61. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that section 19
of the specific relief act is exhaustive on the question as to who are the parties
against whom a contract for specific
performance may be enforced?
(a) Kasturi v Lyyamperumal
(b) Vaidyanadan v Vairavan
(c) Chand Rani v Kamal Rani
(d) None of the above

62. In which of the following cases has the Supreme Court held that when
granting of damages is an adequate relief, the specific performance would be
refused?
(a) Prakash chandra v Angadlal
(b) Maria v Bilkees
(c) Chand Rani v Kamal Rani
(d) None of the above

31
63. In which of the following cases the court can award compensation?
(a) If, in any suit, the court decides that specific performance ought not to be
granted, but that there is a contract between the parties which has been
broken by the defendant, and that the plaintiff is entitled to compensation for
that breach
(b) If, in any suit, the court decides that specific performance ought to be
granted, but that is not sufficient to satisfy the justice of the case, and that
some compensation for breach of the contract should also be made to the
plaintiff
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

64. As per section _______ Specific Relief is to be granted only for enforcing
individual civil rights and not for enforcing panel laws:
(a) Section 3
(b) Section 4
(c) Section 5
(d) Section 6

65. Obligation under the Specific Relief Act is _________

(a) Right in personam
(b) Right in rem
(c) Depends
(d) None of the above

32
66. On acknowledgment, fresh period of limitation starts:
(a) from the date of signing of acknowledgment
(b) from the date of expiry of initial period of limitation
(c) from the date of expiry of extended period of limitation
(d) from the date of delivery of document containing acknowledgment to the
person concerned or
any other person.

67. Which section of the Limitation Act is an exception to the general rule that
in personal actions, the Limitation Act bars only the remedy and does not
extinguish the right?
(a) Section 26
(b) Section 27
(c) Section 28
(d) Section 29

68. In which of the following cases, the reference on the question whether use
of the expression date in article 54 of the schedule to the Act is suggestive of a
specific date in the calendar, has been
answered by the supreme court in:
(a) Ramzan v. Hussaini
(b) Tarlok Singh v. Vijay Kumar Sabharwal
(c) AhmadSahab Abdul Mulla v. Bibijan
(d) S Brahmanad v. K.R. Muthu Gopal

33
69. The Limitation Period in a suit by a mortgagee for foreclosure is;
(a) 30 Years
(b) 6 Years
(c) 12 Years
(d) 1 Year

70. The Limitation Period in a suit by a mortgagee for possession of

immovable property mortgaged is:
(a) 30 Years
(b) 6 Years
(c) 12 Years
(d) 1 Year

71. Who can treat an ambiguous instrument according to his election either as
a promissory note or as a Bill of exchange?
(a) Banker
(b) Holder
(c) Payee
(d) None of the above

72. A promissory note or Bill of exchange are payable on demand:

(a) In all cases
(b) If a time is specified for payment
(c) If no time is specified for payment
(d) None of the above

34
73. Who can complete an inchoate boats32 stamped instrument under section
20 of the Negotiable
Instruments Act?
(a) Maker
(b) Holder
(c) Banker
(d) One who signed in it

74. Public holiday under section 25 of the Negotiable Instruments Act includes
______.
(a) Sunday
(b) Holidays declared by the Central Government
(c) Holidays declared by Central and State Governments
(d) Both (a) and (b)

75 _________can draw, accept, indorse and negotiate a negotiable instrument

under section 26 of the Negotiable Instruments Act.
(a) Every Indian citizen
(b) Every person capable of contracting
(c) Every person above 21 years
(d) Only banker

35
76. Which of the following buildings or categories of buildings are exempted
from the provisions of the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011, as per Section
3?
A) Buildings owned by private individuals
B) Buildings owned by government departments
C) Buildings exempted by the government in public interest
D) Buildings used for commercial purposes

77. Under the Chhattisgarh Rent Control Act, 2011, who is responsible for
executing the orders?
a) Rent Controller
b) Tenant
c) Landlord
d) Local Administration

78. Where should an appeal be filed if a tenant is aggrieved by an order of the

Rent Controller?
a) Rent Control Tribunal
b) Supreme Court
c) High Court
d) District Court

36
79. Under Schedule 3, what should the landlord do regarding the
accommodation and premises?
a) Keep them vacant at all times
b) Conduct regular inspections
c) Maintain them in a good and tenantable condition
d) Allow the tenant to make structural changes

80. What is the tenant's obligation regarding rent payment?

a) Pay rent only when requested by the landlord
b) Pay the security deposit but not the rent
c) Pay the security deposit, rent, and other dues fully and regularly
d) Expect reimbursement from the landlord for rent payments

81. As per Section 124, what can the State Government order regarding survey
numbers or plot numbers?
a) Fix and demarcate the boundaries of all survey numbers or plot numbers.
b) Abolish survey numbers and plot numbers in villages.
c) Delegate the responsibility to the village residents.
d) None of the above.

82. Under what circumstances can the State Government grant remission or
suspension of land revenue?
a) When there is a change in land ownership
b) When crops fail or cannot be grown due to competent authority's order
c) When land is transferred to the State Government
d) When land revenue exceeds a certain limit

37
83. What is the timeframe for which a person is not allowed to transfer land
after lease or allotment?
a) Five years
b) Ten years
c) Fifteen years
d) Twenty years

84. Under what circumstances can the Collector divert unoccupied land
mentioned in Section 237?
a) When it is required for an industrial or mining project
b) When equivalent land is provided for the same purpose
c) When approved by the Gram Sabha
d) When there is a shortage of agricultural land in the village

85. According to Section 256, what can the public inspect at reasonable hours?
A) Revenue records, maps, and land records
B) Agricultural machinery and equipment
C) Livestock farms and animal shelters
D) Agricultural research facilities

86. What is the purpose of licensing the construction and working of a

distillery or brewery?
a) To regulate the sale of intoxicants
b) To promote competition among manufacturers
c) To ensure quality control of spirits
d) To generate revenue for the government

38
87. What is the penalty for short lifting liquor as per Section 28?
a) Suspension of the license for a month
b) Revocation of the license
c) Payment of a prescribed penalty rate
d) Community service at a government facility

88. If a person is convicted for an offense covered by Section 34(2) for a

second or subsequent time, what is the minimum punishment?
a) Two years imprisonment and a fine of fifty thousand rupees
b) Three years imprisonment and a fine of one lac rupees
c) Four years imprisonment and a fine of one lac rupees
d) Five years imprisonment and a fine of two lac rupees

89. Under what circumstances can an Excise Officer stop further proceedings
against a person accused or suspected of an offense under this Act, as
mentioned in Section 55?
a) Without reference to a Magistrate, based on the officer's written record and
for reasons recorded
b) With the consent of the accused person
c) If the accused person is a first-time offender
d) Only if the State Government approves

39
90. Under Section 61A of the Act, who has the authority to tender a pardon to
an accused person in exchange for a full and true disclosure of all facts
connected with the offense?
a) Chief Investigating Officer
b) Excise Officer
c) Chief Judicial Magistrate
d) Police Officer

91. What action can be taken if a person fails to pay the court fee after
receiving a notice under Section 28A(3) of the Court Fees Act, 1870?
a) Issue an arrest warrant against the person
b) Order the person to provide community service in lieu of payment
c) Recover the fee as an arrear of land revenue on certification from the
presiding officer or revenue officer
d) File a civil lawsuit against the person for recovery of fees

92. What is the maximum punishment for a person appointed to sell stamps
who disobeys the rules made under Section 34 of the Court Fees Act, 1870?
a) Imprisonment for six months
b) Fine of five hundred rupees
c) Both imprisonment for six months and a fine of five hundred rupees
d) Fine of one thousand rupees

40
93. When a difference arises between the officer responsible for fee collection
and a suitor or attorney, where is the matter referred in the High Courts?
a. Taxing officer
b. Chief Justice of the High Court
c. Judge appointed by the Chief Justice
d. Clerk of the Court

94. According to Section 7 of the Court Fees Act, 1870, what should the plaintiff
state in suits where relief sought is valued for accounts?
a) Amount claimed for one year
b) Value of the subject matter
c) Minimum fee of forty rupees
d) Relief sought in the plaint or memorandum of appeal

95. What action can the Collector take if the petitioner has under-estimated
the value of the property of the deceased, as per Section 19H of the Court Fees
Act?
a) Amend the valuation themselves
b) Reject the application for probate or letters of administration
c) Move the Court to hold an inquiry into the true value of the property
d) Request the petitioner to pay a higher Court fee

41
96. In which case was it held that the principles governing the interpretation
of the Stamp Act do not govern the interpretation of the Registration Act?
a) Jogi Das v. Fakir Panda
b) Central Warehousing Corporation v. Registrar of Registration of
Documents-cum Collector
c) Hakim Ghulam Mohammad v. Zahoor Ismaill
d) Leela Dhundiraj Direkar v. E.C. Shinde

97. Which of the following documents is not required to be compulsorily

registered?
(a) Instruments. creating or declaring right, title or interest to or in
immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards
(b) Wills in respect respect of immovable property
(c) Leases of immovable property for a term exceeding one year transferring
(d) Instruments transferring any decree of a court when such decree purports
to create right in immovable property of rupees one hundred and upwards

98. Under the Registration Act, 1908, which type of lease of immovable
property requires compulsory registration?
a) Leases for a term not exceeding one year
b) Leases with a yearly rent exceeding fifty rupees
c) Leases for a term exceeding one year
d) Leases granted by the State Government

42
99. What does Section 24 of the Registration Act, 1908 deal with?
a) Time for presenting documents
b) Re-registration of certain documents
c) Documents executed by several persons at different times
d) Provision where delay in presentation is unavoidable

100. According to the Registration Act, 1908, at any time, when can a will be
presented for registration or deposited?
a) Within one year of its execution
b) Within two years of its execution
c) Within three years of its execution
d) At any time, without any time limit

43
 ANSWER KEY

1. (A) 36. (A) 71. (B)

2. (C) 37. (C) 72. (B)
3. (D) 38. (D) 73. (B)
4. (C) 39. (A) 74. (D)
5. (C) 40. (A) 75. (B)
6. (B) 41. (B) 76. (C)
7. (D) 42. (D) 77. (A)
8. (C) 43. (C) 78. (A)
9. (A) 44. (A) 79. (C)
10. (B) 45. (A) 80. (C)
11. (D) 46. (A) 81. (A)
12. (A) 47. (C) 82. (B)
13. (A) 48. (D) 83. (B)
14. (A) 49. (A) 84. (A)
15. (B) 50. (C) 85. (A)
16. (A) 51. (D) 86. (A)
17. (D) 52. (D) 87. (C)
18. (C) 53. (D) 88. (A)
19. (C) 54. (A) 89. (A)
20. (A) 55. (C) 90. (C)
21. (B) 56. (C) 91. (C)
22. (C) 57. (A) 92. (C)
23. (B) 58. (C) 93. (A)
24. (A) 59. (A) 94. (B)
25. (C) 60. (B) 95. (C)
26. (D) 61. (A) 96. (C)
27. (C) 62. (A) 97. (B)
28. (B) 63. (C) 98. (C)
29. (B) 64. (B) 99. (C)
30. (A) 65. (A) 100. (D)
31. (B) 66. (A)
32. (A) 67. (B)
33. (D) 68. (A)
34. (B) 69. (A)
35. (D) 70. (C)

44
45