ASSORTED QUESTIONS 1

ASSORTED QUESTIONS

Enhance more your mind by going over these jumbled questions.

These questions are extracted from the six areas of study in
criminology specifically prepared as a BONUS review pointer. Some of
these questions were selected from the First series and the Second
series of MY QUIZZER IN CRIMINOLOGY.
=================================================================

INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following

questions.  Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE                                           SET ONE

1.    His key ideas are concentrated on the principle of “Survival of the

Fittest” as a behavioral science. He advocated the “Somatotyping
Theory”.
A. W Sheldon
B. R Merton
C. E Sutherland
D. Ivan Nye
A
2.    What is means of “R” in the criminal formula?
A.  Total Situation
B.  Criminal Tendency
C.  Temperament
D.  none of these
D
3.    The term use to refer to the adverse psychological impacts of rape on
rape victims who continue to suffer long after the incident.
A.  Sexual Anxiety
B.  Rape Trauma Syndrome
C.  Fear
D.  Neurotic Behavior
B  
4.    The term white- collar crime was coined by
A.  E. Sutherland
B.  R. Quinney
C.  E. Durkheim
D.  C. Darwin
A
5.    The field of criminology is a multi-disciplinary science. One of its
aspect is the study of crime focused on the group of people and
society which is known today as:
A.  Criminal Psychology
B.  Criminal Sociology
C.  Criminal Psychiatry
D.  Criminal Etiology
B
6.    In as much as crime is a societal creation and that it exist in a
society, its study must be considered a part of social science. This
means that criminology is __.
A.  Applied science   
B.  Social Science    
C.  Natural Science  
D.  All of these
D
7.    Criminology changes as social condition changes. This means the progress
of criminology is concordant with the advancement of other sciences
that has been applied to it. This means that criminology is _____.
A.  Dynamic
B.  Excellent
C.  Progressive
D.  None of these
A
8.    The theory in criminology, which maintains that a person commits crime
or behaves criminally mainly because he or she is being possessed by
evil spirits or something of natural force that controls his/her
behavior is called:
A.  Devine Will Theory
B.  Demonological Theory
C.  Classical Theory
D.  All of these
B
9.    The Italian leader of the positivist school of criminology, who was
criticized for his methodology and his attention to the biological
characteristics of offenders, was:
A.  C Lombroso
B.  C Beccaria
C.  C Darwin
D.  C Goring
A
10.  The Latin term POENA means:
A. Penalty
B. Pain
C. Punishment
D. Police
B
11.  Former warship used to house to house prisoners in the 18th and 19th C
were called:
A. Gaols
B. Galleys
C. Hulks
D. Lavons
C
12.  Public humiliation or public exhibition also mean:
A. public execution
 B. social degradation
C. banishment
D. public trial
B
13.  During the 16th up to the 18th century, a criminal may be sent away
from a place carried out by prohibition to coming against a specified
territory. This is an ancient form of punishment called:
A. Exile
B. Banishment
C. Transportation
D. public trial
B
14.  The theory in penal science which maintains that punishment gives
lesson to the offender and the would be criminals is called:
A. Deterrence
B. Incapacitation
C. Reformations
D. public safety
A
15.  One of the following represents the earliest codification of the Roman
law, which was incorporated into the Justinian Code.
A. 12 Tables
B. Burgundian Code
C. Hammurabic Code
D. Code of Draco
A
16.  The generic term that includes all government agencies, facilities,
programs, procedures, personnel, and techniques concerned with the
investigation, intake, custody, confinement, supervision, or treatment
of alleged offenders refers to:
A. Correction
B. Penology
C. Criminal Justice
D. the base pillar
A
17.  The science, which deals with the study, comparison and identification
of weapons alleged to have been used in the commission of a crime
referred to ___.
A. Ballista
B. Ballistica
C. Forensic
D. Forensic Ballistics
D
18.  Those that are left behind by the criminal perpetrator in the scene of
the crime, which have significance in criminal investigation are
called __.
 A. Weapons
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Instrumentation
D. Crime fruits
B

    
19.  The study of physical evidences such as blood, bloodstains,
fingerprints, tool marks, etc. through a laboratory work refers to
___.
A. Criminalistics
B. Investigation
C. Interrogation
D. Police Science
A
20.  One of the following is a vital investigative tool that has helped in
the reconstruction of crime and the identity of suspects as well as
victims because it is a factual and accurate record of the crime.
A. Police works
B. Photography  
C. Crime Scene Investigation
D. All of these
B
21.  It refers to the collection of photographs of known criminals and their
identities that is placed together in one file. This is known as ___.
A. Police File
B. Mug File
C. Individual File
D. Album
B
22.  The criminal activity by an enduring structure or organization
developed and devoted primarily to the pursuit of profits through
illegal means commonly known as ___.
A. Organized crime
B. Professional Organization
C. White collar crime
D. Blue collar crime
A 
23.  What is the literal meaning of the term Cosa Nostra?
A. One thing
B. Omerta
C. Two Things
D. 5th estate
A
24.  The strict code of conduct that governs the behavior of the Mafia
members is called ___.
A. Omerta
B. Triad
C. Silencer
D. Mafioso
A

25.  The group of drugs that are considered to be mind altering and gives
the general effect of mood distortion are generally called
A. Sedatives
B. Hypnotic
C. Hallucinogens
D. Tranquillizers
C
26.  Drugs like glue, gasoline, kerosene, ether, paint, thinner, etc. are
called:
A. Solvents
B. Deliriants
C. Inhalants
D. All of these
D
27.  Cocaine is a stimulant drug; LSD is a
A. Hallucinogen
B. Narcotic
C. Solvent
D. Depressant
A
28.  What opium preparation is combined with camphor to produce a household
remedy for diarrhea and abdominal pain?
A. Tincture of opium
B. Raw opium 
C. Paregoric
D. Granulated opium
C
29.  The group of drugs that when introduced into the system of the body can
produce mental alertness and wakefulness
A. Stimulants
B. Uppers
C. Speeds
D. All of these
D
30.  The hallucinogenic alkaloid from a small Mexican mushroom used by
Mexican Indians to induce nausea and muscular relaxation is called:
A. Psilocybin
B. STP
C. DMT
D. Ibogaine
A
31.  What do you call the most powerful natural stimulant?
A. Erythroxylon coca
B. Heroin
C. Beta Eucaine
D. Cocaine Hydrochloride
D

32.  What is the most important constituent of opium?

A. Morphine
B. Heroin    
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
A
33.  What drug is known as the “assassins of the youth”?
A. Heroin
B. Cocaine
C. Marijuana
D. Shabu
C
34.  Which of the following is a drug known in the street as “angel dust”
A. Mescaline
B. Diethyltryptamine
C. Phencyclidine
D. Psilocybin
C
35.  In acute cases withdrawal of drugs causes serious physical illness also
called abstinence syndrome. It is also otherwise known as:
A. Psychological dependence
B. Physical dependence
C. Drug Addiction
D. “Cold Turkey”
D
36.  It is defined as a crime where a person of respectability and high
social status in the course of his or her occupation commits the
criminal act.
A. Labor Crimes
 B. Organized Crimes
C. High Collar crimes
D. White collar crime
D
37.  The groups of crimes categorized as violent crimes (Index crimes) and
property crimes (Non Index crimes) are called ___.
A. Conventional crimes
B. Non-conventional Crimes
C. Felony
D. Offense
A
38.  These crimes are also called moral offenses or vice. Many of these
crimes generally refer to Public Order Crimes – an offense that is
consensual and lacks a complaining participant.
A. Victimless crimes
B. Consensual crimes   
C. Sexual crimes
D. A & B only
D
39.  Penitentiary generally refers to
A. Prison
B. Place of Confinement
C. Penal Colony 
D. All of these
A
40.  One under the custody of lawful authority by reason of criminal
sentence is __.
A. Prisoner
B. Inmate
C. Detainee
D. All of these
D
41.  The theory in which reformation is based upon, on the ground that the
criminal is a sick person.
A. Positivist Theory
B. Classical Theory
C. Neo Classical School
D. Sociological Theory
A
42.  Any act committed or omitted in violation of a public law forbidding or
commanding it.
A. legal act
B. Crime
C. Poena
 D. Punishment
B
43.  A rule of conduct, just, obligatory, enacted by legitimate authority
for the common observance and benefit.
A. Regulation
B. City Ordinance
C. Law
D. Lawful Act
C
44.  The so called “forgotten person” in the criminal justice process.
A. Police
B. Criminal
C. Judge
D. Victim
D
45.  The term used to refer to the putting of a person to jail or prison by
reason of service of sentence.
A. Imprisonment
B. Confinement
C. Reformation
D. All of these
A

46.  The knowledge acquired by the investigator from various sources.

A. Intelligence
B. Information
C. Surveillance
D. all of these
A
47.  It is the Latin term referring to "caught in the act" of performing a
crime.
A. Nullum Crimen
B. Dura lex sed lex
C. Ignorancia lex excusat
D. none of these
D
48.  A system of coordinated activities, group of people, authority and
leadership and cooperation towards a goal is called
A. Formal Organizations
B. Informal Organizations
C. Police Administration
D. All of the above    
 A      
49.  An indefinite and unstructured organization that has no definite
subdivision and comprised of unconscious group feelings, passions and
activities of individuals is referred to as:
A. Formal Organizations
B. Informal Organizations
C. Police Administration
D. None of the above
B 
50.  The study of the processes and conditions of the Law Enforcement pillar
that is also called “police in action”:
A. Police Management
B. Police Organization
C. Organizational Structure
D. Police Administration
D
51.  The ability of police administrators in winning support for
departmental programs from people with in the department as well as
the citizens is called:
A. Community relation
B. Police Leadership
C. Police planning
D. Community Policing
B 
52.  The extent to which an authority is concentrated or dispersed is
called:
A. Unity of Direction
B. Centralization
C. Scalar of Chain
D. Unity of Command B
53.  The principle of organization suggesting that communication should
ordinarily go upward and downward through establish channels in the
hierarchy is
A. Chain of Command
B. Unity of Command
C. Span of Control
D. Delegation of Authority
      A
54.  The principle of organization that results from the division of force
into separate units to perform individual task is called
A. Specialization
B. Chain of Command
C. Organizational Structure
D. All of the above
A
55.  The staff specialist or unit in line organization that provides service
knowledge is known as:
A. Line and Staff Organization
B. Functional Organization
C. Line Organization
D. Structural Organization
B 
56.  A type of organizational structure in which quick decisions are made
because of direct line authority and discipline is easily administered
is called:
A. Line and Staff Organization
B. Functional Organization
C. Line Organization
D. Functional and Staff Organization
C 
57.  The placement of subordinate into the position for which their
capabilities best fit them is referred to as:
A. Staffing
B. Organizing
C. Directing
D. Planning
A      
58.  A theory underlying the system of our criminal law, of which Rafael
Garafalo and Enrico Ferri, including Dr. Cesare Lombroso, were the
greatest exponents, that crime is considered as essentially asocial
and natural phenomenon.
A. Juristic or classical theory        
B. Positivist or realistic theory
C. Punitive theory
D. Non- punitive theory
B

59.   One of the characteristics of criminal law, where penal laws do not

have retroactive effect, except in cases where they favor the accused
charged with felony and who are not habitual criminals.   
A. Retrospective
B. General
C. Territorial
D. All of the foregoing
A
60.   Are those crimes committed against the society which produce direct
damage or prejudice common to all its members.
 A. Private crimes
B. Public crimes
C. Felony         
D. Infractions
B
61.  Are those crimes committed against individuals, particularly against
their chastity, but which do not produce danger or prejudice common to
other members of society.
A. Private crimes
B. Public crimes
C. Felony
D. Infractions
A
62.   Are those acts and omissions committed not only by means of deceit, but
also by means of fault and are punishable by law.
A.  Justifying circumstances
B.  Felonies
C.  Exempting circumstances
D.  Attempted felony
B
63.  Is committed whenever the offender commences the commission of a crime
directly by overt acts but does not perform all the acts of execution
which should produce the felony as a consequence by reason of some
cause or accident other than his own spontaneous desistance.
A.  Frustrated felony
B.  Attempted felony
C.  Consummated felony
D.  Felony
B

64.  From among the following, which is correct?

A. RA 6975, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which
took effect on June 7, 2002
B. RA 9165, Comprehensive Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which
took effect on July 4, 2002
C. RA 6975, Dangerous Drugs Act of 1972, took effect on March
2, 1972
D. RA 6425, Dangerous Drugs Act of 2002 which took effect on
July 4, 2002
B
65.  What is the term used to describe the intoxicating effect of a drug in
the lingo of the drug users?
A. Stoned
 B. Rush
C. High
D. Trip
A
66.  The drug heroin was a chemically synthesized of
A. Morphine
B. Opium Juice    
C. Codeine
D. Coca paste
A
67.  What group of countries where the first important drug traffic route
was organized from drug discovery up to marketing?
A. Peru-Uruguay-Panama-Columbia
B. The Golden Triangle
C. Middle East- Europe-U.S
D. The Golden Crescent
C
68.  What part of the globe is the principal source of all forms of cocaine?
A. South East Asia
B. South America
C. Middle East
D. South West Asia
B
69.  The Golden Triangle is for the Chinese Triad, Columbia and Peru is for:
A. La Cosa Nostra
B. Cammora
C. Medellin Cartel
D. YAKUZA
C
70.  The drug addict who shows many “tracks” from injection of hypodermic
needles is mostly addicted to:
A. liquid amphetamine
B. heroin
C. shabu
D. freebase cocaine
A
71.  The drug addict or user generally acquires the drug habit because of
being:
A. powerless and less self control
B. emotionally unstable
C. socially maladjusted
D. all of these
D
72.  In knowing the history of drug taking of a person, the best information
is taken from:
 A. trained psychologist
B. doctors or physicians
C. laboratory results
D. patient himself
D
73.  When the drug dependent develops changes in the normal functioning of
the brain that can be manifested in undesirable conditions, he suffers
from mental invalid. Mental invalid in the context of drug abuse
means:
A. mental deterioration due to drug addiction
B. loss of will power to quit from drug use
C. loss of contact with reality
D. distortion of sensory perception
A
74.  A drug abuser, because of his use of unsterilized paraphernalia, tends
to develop low resistance and becomes susceptible to various
infections such as:
A. stomach cancer
B. head aches and body pains
C. communicable diseases
D. loss of appetite
C
75.  Any private person who shall enter the dwelling of another against the
will of the latter
A. none of these
B. trespassing to dwelling
C. light threats 
D. usurpation 
B
76.  Which of the following types of accident is most decreased by the
installation of traffic light?
A. Cross traffic accidents
B. Misunderstanding between motorist and traffic officers
C. Accidents of confusion
D. Accidents of decision of right of way
D
77.  Is that which is not excluded by the law as tending to prove a fact in
issue
A. material evidence
B. relevant evidence
C. direct evidence
D. competent evidence
B
78.  The use of one or more electrical appliances or devices which draw or
consume electrical current beyond the designed capacity of the
existing electrical system
A. self-closing door
B. jumper
C. overloading
D. oxidizing material
C
79.  The method of determining and finding the best way to remedy the
specific cause or causes of the complaint or grievance refers to
_____.
A. investigation procedure
B. cross examination
C. grievance procedure
D. criminal procedure
A
80.  When people are considered as source of information, the experienced
police officer
A. recognizes that persons from all walks of life represent
potential investigative resources
B. develops his contracts only with law abiding citizens
C. restricts his efforts to members of the departments
D. concentrates all his efforts to acquire informants only from
criminal types
A
81.  Macho means    
A. assertive      
B. angry     
C. heroic
D. stubborn
C
82.  The adjudication by the court that the defendant is guilty or is not
guilty of the offense charged and the imposition of the penalty
provided by law on the defendant who pleads or is found guilty thereof
A. judgment
B. false informant
C. information
D. admission
A
83.  A clandestine operation in a police parlance means:
A. covert intelligence
B. surveillance
C. secret activity
D. overt intelligence
C
84.  Any motor vehicle accident that result in injuries other than fatal to
one or more persons.
A. non-fatal injury accident
B. fatal accident
C. traffic law enforcer
D. property damage accident 
B
85.  An enclosed vertical space of passage that extends from the floor to
floor, as well as for the base to the top of the building is called
A. sprinkle evidence
B. vertical shaft
C. flash point
D. standpipe system
B
86.  A word or group of words that express a complete thought.
A. adverb 
B. verb      
C. subject   
D. sentence
D
87.  When an investigator finds a tool a the crime scene, he should first of
all:
A. pick it up for closer examine taking care not to jar it.
B. Compare the cutting edge of the tool with the impressions to
determine if this was the tool used in the crime.
C. immediately collect it and always send it to the crime
laboratory for scientific examination
D. wait until the crime scene has been sketched or photographed
and measurements taken before he collects the evidence
D
88.  A wall designated to prevent the spread of fire having a fire
resistance rating of not less than four hours with sufficient
structural stability to remain standing even if construction on either
side collapses under the fire conditions.
A. Wood rack
B. fire wall    
C. post wall    
D. fire trap
B
89.  The presence of the symptom of alcohol intoxication with out smell of
alcoholic breath  is a sign that the suspected person is under the
influence of:
 A. Amphetamine drug
B. Barbiturates
C. Hallucinogens
D. Narcotics
B
90.  In a state of agitation and dullness of the mind as a result of drug,
the dependent becomes careless and losses concentration on his job.
This may cause to:
A. accident in the home
B. accident at work
C. dependence to family resources
D. Withdrawn forgetfulness
B
91.  Drugs that are categorized as uppers or speeds can give the following
symptoms of abuse, except:
A. dilation of pupils
B. sudden burst of laughter
C. increasingly inactive
D. wakefulness
B
92.  The burning of a small quantity of the suspected substance and
determining the odor or smell having similar to burnt banana leaves or
has a sweetish odor is a field test that can reveal the drug ___.
A. Marijuana
B. Opium
C. Coca leaves
D. Peyote Cactus
A
93.  The drug that is obtained from the alkaloid of the leaves of the
Erythorxylon coca and the other species of Erthroxlon Linne, or by
synthesis from ecgoine and its derivatives is called:
A. Heroin
B. Sodium Carbonate    
C. Codeine
D. Cocaine
D
94.  “Bennies” and “dexies” are for amphetamines; “red devils” and “double
trouble are for ___.
A. Demerol
B. Sulfates
C. Barbiturates
D. Deliriants
C
95.  What kind of drug examination is made during the initial investigation
conducted by the first responding officers?
 A. Field Testing
B. Laboratory Analysis
C. Color Reaction Testing
D. all of these
A

96.  Duquenois-Levine test is for marijuana; Symone’s test is for:

A. Shabu
B. Cocaine
C. Opium derivatives
D. Amphetamine
A
97.  The presence of drug paraphernalia at the drug scene in the form of
syringe and needle, tourniquet, spoon or bottle top “cookies” and
tinfoil packet reveals that the drug being administered are:
A. tablet drugs
B. capsule drugs
C. liquid drugs
D. marijuana leaves
C
98.  The body sign, in narcotic death investigation, of bluish discoloration
of the face and or fingernails due to insufficient oxygenation of the
blood caused by increase in carbon dioxide in the body is called:
A. Petechial hemorrhage
B. Cyanosis
C. Asphyxia
D. Hematoma
B
99.  What is called the “visual evidence” in drug related cases?
A. Needle marks/tracks
B. Asphyxiation
C. Skin diseases
D. Internal body signs
A
100. What kind of alcohol is used in alcoholic drinks?
A. Methyl Alcohol
B. Ethyl Alcohol
C. Brewery
D. Ethylene
B
 - End of Set One -

ASSORTED QUESTIONS 2
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions.  Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE                                           SET TWO

1.    Intoxication when considered under the law is considered

A.  Alternative Circumstance
B.  Maladaptive Behavior
C.  Delinquent act            
D.  Anti social Behavior
A
2.    In substance abuse, what is the scientific name of the tobacco plant?
A.  Nicotino Tabakumo
B.  Nicotiana Tabacum
C.  Nikotiano Tabaku
D.  Tabaku Nicotino
B
3.    What is the addictive substance or chemical contained in tobacco
cigarettes?
A.  Tar
B.  Carbon Monoxide
C.  Carbon Dioxide  
D.  Nicotine
D
4.    A certain intersection, for several reasons, has more traffic accidents
than any other part in the area. The Police unit assignment to the
area should.
A.  Park near the intersection, in plain view, and wait for violators.
B.  Park your motorcycle at the center of intersection to caution motorist
C.  Park near the intersection, more or less hidden from view
D.  Cruise all the assigned area but give extra attention to the
intersection
D
5.    Every device which is self-propelled and every vehicle which is
propelled by electric power obtained from overhead trolley wires, but
not operated upon rails.
A.  Skating
B.  Bicycle
C.  Tricycle
D.  Motor vehicles
D
6.    Hypothetical means
A.  Temporary
B.  Exaggerated
C.  Provable
D.  Assumed
D
7.    A public officer or employee when NOT being authorized by judicial
order, shall enter a dwelling against the will of the owner thereof is
committing:
A.  Legal entry
B.  Violation of domicile
C.  Illegal entry
D.  Abatement
B
8.    Any act that would remove or naturalized a fire hazard
A.  Allotment
B.  Combustion
C.  Distillation
D.  Abatement
D
9.    It is the investigator’s responsibility to insure that every precaution
is exercised to preserve the evidence.
A.  Tagging of evidence
B.  Evaluation of evidence
C.  Preservation of evidence
D.  Releasing evidence
B
10.  Trial is allowed only after arrangement and the accused may waive his
right to appear at the trial except when his presence is required for
purposes of identification. This is the principle of trial in __.
A.  Substitution     
B.  Absentia
C.  Re-assignment     
D.  Ordeal    
B
11.  What is the sworn written statement charging a person with an offence,
subscribed by the offended party, any peace officer or other employee
of the government or government institution in change of the
enforcement or execution of the law violated?
A.  Deposition      
B.  Complaint
C.  Police blotter
D.  Information
B

12.  Evidence is admissible when it is relevant to the issue and is not

excluded by the rules on
 A.  Real evidence
B.  Secondary evidence
C.  Admissibility of evidence
D.  Relevancy of evidence
D
13.  The fundamental responsibility of the officer in charge of protecting
the crime scene is to: 
A.  interrogate the witnesses
B.  engage in the search for traces left by the search for traces left by
the criminal
C.  remove  of evidence which may prove importance to the case
D.  preserving the site of the crime in the same physical condition as it
was left by the perpetrator
D
14.  The main reason why both traffic officers and signal lights are used on
some intersection is that
A.  motorist are discourage from “jumping signals”
B.  traffic can be kept moving at a faster rate
C.  greater safety to pedestrians and motorist is effected
D.  an officer can stop and start as necessity demands
D
15.  It is the coordinating machinery in the operation of the criminal
justice system.
A.  Department of Justice 
B.  Peace and Order council
C.  Court
D.  Municipal Government
D
16.  All lines, patterns, words, colors or other gadgets EXCEPT signs set
into the surface or applied upon or attached to the pavement or
curbing officially place for the purpose of regulating traffic is
called _____
A.  warning signs
B.  traffic management
C.  traffic engineering
D.  pavement marking
D
17.  A person undergoing criminal investigation enjoys his three
constitutional rights such as
A.  the right to oppose whatever the accusation on him
B.  the right to plea guilty and not guilty
C.  the right to oppose whatever accusation or him based on his
constitutional right
D.  the right to remain silent, the right to counsel, the right to be
informed of the nature of the accusation
D

18.  “A” stabbed “B”. “A” brought “B” to a hospital for medical treatment.
Had it not been the timely medical attendance. “B” would have died.
This is a case of 
 A.  a physical injury
B.  an attempted felony
C.  a consummated felony
D.  a frustrated felony
D
19.  The authority of the court to take cognizance of a case in the first
instance is known as:
A.  original jurisdiction
B.  appellate jurisdiction
C.  general jurisdiction
D.  delegated jurisdiction      
A
20.  Amphetamine is representative of good class of stimulant known as
A.  sticks   
B.  knocks– out drops    
C.  reefers    
D.  pop pills  
D
21.  The primary purpose of bail is
A.  to protect the accused rights
B.  to keep the accused in jail until trial
C.  to punish the accused for the crime
D.  to release the accused
D
22.  Prohibitive traffic signs and restrictive traffic signs shall have
A.  blue background and white symbols
B.  a red background and white symbols and black border
C.  white background with black symbols and red border
D.  green background with white and black symbols
D
23.  The ____ shall be conducted as a pre-requisite to grant permits and/or
license by local governments or other government agencies.
A.  Fire safety inspection
B.  Fire protection assembly
C.  Fire alerting system
D.  Fire service          
A
24.  The place of trial for a criminal action is cited
A.  territory     
B.  action     
C.  jurisdiction    
D.  venue 
D

25.  Motor vehicle propelled by an internal combustion engine shall be

equipped with a ____ and said motor vehicle passes through a street of
any city, municipality or thickly populated district or barrio.
A.  wiper    
B.  light     
C.  muffler     
 D.  windshield
C
26.  Investigator must be patient to obtain accurate and complete
information especially with uncooperative subjects. 
A.  logical mind
B.  power  of self-control   
C.  perseverance  
D.  integrity 
B
27.  Intervention of the offended party in the criminal action is not
allowed in the following instances EXCEPT:
A.  when he has not waived the civil action
B.  when he has file the civil action ahead of the criminal
C.  when he ahs expressly reserved the right to institute the civil action
separately
D.  when he has waived the civil action 
B
28.  60. Articles and material which are found in connection with the
investigation and which aid in establishing the identify of the
perpetrator or the circumstances under which the crime was committed
or which, in general assist in the prosecution of this criminal.
A.  physical evidence
B.  associative evidence
C.  corpus delicti
D.  tracing evidence
A
29.  One in which all the ingredients of the offense are committed in one
place.
A.  local action   
B.  local crimes    
C.  none of these
D.  transitory action

30.  A traffic police officer stationed the route of a parade has been
ordered by his superior to allow no cars to cross the route. While the
parade is in progress, an ambulance driver on an emergency run
attempts to drive his ambulance across the route while the parade is
passing. Under these circumstances the traffic police officer should.
A.  ask the driver to wait until the traffic police officer contact his
superior and obtains decisions
B.  stop the parade long enough to permit the ambulance to cross the street
C.  hold up the ambulance in accordance with the superior’s order
 D.  direct the ambulance driver to the shortest detour which will add at
least then minutes to run
B
31.  An instance that may cause fires from the heat accumulated from the
rolling, sliding or friction in machinery or between two hard
surfaces, at least one of which is usually a metal is called.
A.  static electricity
B.  overheating of machine
C.  friction heat
D.  heat from arching
C
32.  Method of heat transfer by direct contact
A.  nuclear fission    
B.  conduction    
C.  convection   
D.  Radiation  
B
33.  The desire to give information as an excuse to talk to the police in
order to get more information from them than he gives.
A.  double crosser informants
B.  false informants
C.  self aggrandizing
D.  mercenary informants
A
34.  Assume that a dead body has been discovered on the street and being the
only police officer around, you have been called upon by a passersby
to proceed to the scene upon arriving at the scene, several onlookers
are gathered. As a rule, it essential that a police office should
refrain from expressing his opinion as to the probable cause of death
because.
A.  his opinion may influence the investigator assigned to the case
B.  no useful purpose will be served
C.  the killer may overhead your conclusion
D.  he do not know the cause of the death
A
35.  The first action taken by a traffic unit to escape from collision
course or otherwise avoid a hazard
A.  state of evasive action
B.  point of possible perception
C.  point of no escape
D.  final position
A
36.  An informant who gives information to the police/investigator, and his
purpose of informing the police is to eliminate rival or competition.
A.  rival-elimination informant
B.  self aggrandizing informant
C.  mercenary informants
D.  anonymous informant
A
37.  A number representing the resistance to sliding of two surfaces in
contract is known as:
A.  coefficient of friction
 B.  traffic jam
C.  attribute
D.  contract damage
A
38.  The primary job of an investigator is to determine whether a crime has
been committed in order to determine such he must have knowledge of
the so called cardinal question of investigation and there are ____
cardinals of investigation.
A.  six    
B.  three    
C.  vocabulary    
D.  diction  
A
39.  The correct choice of word selecting the exact precise objective words
to convey as meaning
A.  exclamation point   
B.  punctuation   
C.  vocabulary
D.  diction
C
40.  Instrument used to open and close a fire hydrant
A.  hydrant key
B.  kilowatts       
C.  key board      
D.  bunch of key

41.  For offense falling under the jurisdiction of Municipal Trial Courts

and Municipal Circuit trial courts, prosecution is instituted
A.  By filling a compliant with the Regional Trial Court
B.  By filing a complaint directly with the court
C.  By filling a complaint with the chief of Police in the municipality
D.  By filling a complaint with the fiscal for preliminary investigation
B
42.  With respect to minor traffic violations, the traffic police officers
should be guided foremost by the consideration that 
A.  some traffic violation are intended
B.  the aim is to discourage violations
C.  same traffic violations are caused by negligence
D.  violations must be punished                          C         
43.  Bilious means
A.  wealthy   
B.  puffed out   
C.  bad tempered   
D.  irritable
D
44.  “A” wanted to kill “C”. The former pointed his gun to the latter. As
“A” pressed the trigger, the gun jammed and “C” manage to escape. This
is an example of:
A.  frustrated felony
B.  attempted felony
C.  consummated and frustrated
D.  consummated felony
B
45.  The act that provides the National Police Commission to conduct Police
examination is;
A. RA 2260
B. RA 6040
C. RA 4864
D. RA 6141
B
46.  The maximum tenure of office of the Chief of PNP or the Director
General of the PNP is;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 8 years
A
47.  In the Attrition System of the PNP, the maximum tenure of  the PNP
Regional Director is ;
A. 4 years
B. 6 years
C. 5 years
D. 9 years   B 
48.  What should be conducted in order to determine whether a case falls
under the jurisdiction of the regional Trial Court?
A.  Inquest proceeding  
B.  Preliminary conference
C.  Preliminary investigation
D.  Search and Seizure                         
C
49.  What is the Latin term for criminal intent?
A. Mens Rea
B. Magna Culpa 
C. Inflagrante Delicto
D. Mala Vise
A
50.  In simple sense, it is an act of deciding in advance on what is to be
done and how it is to be accomplished; it is in essence, preparations
for action.
A.  Operations
B.  management
C.  planning
D.  administration
C
51.  Standard operating procedures that is intended to be used in all
situations of all kinds, and shall be outlines as a guide to officers
and men in the field.
 A. headquarters procedures
B. special operating procedures
C. field procedures
D. characteristics of plans
C
52.  Standard operating procedures, that is includes the procedures and the
duties of dispatcher, jailer, matron and other personnel concerned
which may be reflected in the duty manual.
A.  headquarters procedures
B.  special operating procedures
C.  field procedures
D.  operational plans
A
53.  A type of plans, that considers plans for the operations of special
divisions like, patrol, traffic, vice, and juvenile delinquency
control.
A. Policies or procedures
B. Tactical plans
C. Operational plans
D. extra-office plans  
C

54.  A type of plan that includes those procedures for coping with specific
situations at known locations, such plans for dealing  with an attack
against building with alarm systems and an attack against.
Headquarters of the PNP.
A.  tactical plans
B.  management plans
C.  extra-office plans 
D.  operational plans
A
55.  A plan that includes the mapping out in advance all operations involved
in the organization, management of personnel and material and in the
procurement and disbursement of money, etc.
A.  management of plans
B.  operational plans
C.  extra-office plans
D.  characteristics of plans
A
56.  A step in planning, that calls for identification of the problem,
understanding both records and its possible solution; a situation must
exit for which something must and can be done.
A.  collecting all pertinent facts
B.  analyzing the facts
C.  clarifying the problems
D.  developing alternative plans
C
57.  A step in planning, that states that no attempt shall be made to
develop a plan until all facts relating to it have been gathered.
A. collecting all pertinent facts
B. developing alternative plans
C. analyzing the facts
D. selecting the most appropriate alternative
A
58.  Of the following steps in planning, one which after all the data have
been gathered, a careful study and evaluation shall be made; this
provides the basis from which a plan or plans are evolved.
A.  developing alternative plans
B.  selecting the most appropriate alternative
C.  developing the facts
D.  selling the plan
C
59.  One step in planning, that is necessary in order to know whether a
correct alternative was chosen, whether or not the plan is correct,
which phase was poorly implemented, and whether additional planning
may be necessary.
A. evaluating the effectiveness of the plan
B. arranging for the execution of the plan
C. selecting the most appropriate alternative
D. selling the plan   A
60.  What activity requires the duty of a superior officer of any unit of
the Philippine National Police and its units subordinates to establish
rapport or good relationship with other law enforcement agencies of
the government?
A.  Police Executive Training
B.  Business – like Activity
C.  Coordination and Cooperation
D.  Socialization    
C
61.  The division that shall accomplish the primary responsibility of
safeguarding the community through protection of persons and property,
the suppression of criminal activities, the apprehension of criminals,
the enforcement of laws and ordinances and regulations of conduct, and
performing necessary services and inspections is
A. Traffic Division
B. Theft and Robbery Division
C. Patrol Force
D. Juvenile Delinquency Control Division
C
62.  The traffic accident investigator is chiefly concerned with accidents
that involves one or both of the elements namely
A.  motor vehicles and traffic way
B.  motor vehicle and victim
C.  victim and traffic way
D.  victim and traffic unit
A
63.  One of the following statements that best indicates the main purpose of
traffic law enforcement is
A.  reduce traffic by punishing violators of traffic rules
 B.  keep traffic moving at a steady rate to avoid bottlenecks
C.  control the speed limited in densely populated areas
D.  prevent traffic accidents and expedite the flow of traffic 
D
64.  It is customary for the police to keep records of lost or stolen
automobile license plates. The best reason for this practice is to
A.  permit the promote issuance of new plate
B.  prevent cards from being stolen
C.  keep record of all outstanding license plate in use
D.  detain any person found using or attempting to use any of these plates.
D

65.  The general principle of traffic accident investigation is to

A. consider road conditions as limiting conditions rather than as causes
KVB
B. consider violation as primary causes and any other factors as secondary
causes
C. regard any unfavorable factor existing immediately prior to the
accident as a cause
D. look for the “key event” that cause the accident
D
66.  The basic principle behind selective enforcement in traffic control is
A.  selection of geographical areas for strict enforcement
B.  concentration of enforcement activities at peak traffic hours
C.  a shifting emphasis on different types of violations
D.  a warning rather than a citation will act as preventive measure for
future violation
A
67.  In the examination of the scene of accident, which of the following
evidence will show how the accident happened?
A. hole on the road pavement
B. the driver under the influence of liquor
C. point of impact
D. vehicle has break failure                        
C
68.  The optional retirement for officers and new officers of the police
service is
A.  15 years
B.  25 years
C.  30 years
D.  20 years
D
69.  The nature of complaint against any PNP member is called
A. Individual Complaint
B. Public Complaint
C. Citizen’s Complaint
D. Administrative Complaint
C
70.  The consequence of an act, which temporarily deprives an officer from
the privilege of performing his duty, is referred to as:
A.  Dismissal
B.  Retirement
C.  Resignation
D.  Suspension
D

71.  The staff service of the NAPOLCOM who renders legal opinion arising
from the administration of the PNP is referred to as
A. Personnel Administration Service    
B. Planning and Research Service
C. Legal Affairs Service
D. People’s Law Enforcement Board
C
72.  The method of separation from the police service after completing the
required age for length of service is called
A.  Retirement
B.  Dismissal
C.  Demotion
D.  AWOL
A
73.  The term of office of the four regular and full-time Commissioners of
the NAPOLCOM is
A. 6 years
B. 5 years
C. 4 years
D. 9 years
A
74.  The NAPOLCOM shall be composed of the offices of Chairperson,
Commissioners and one –
A. Ex-officio Chairman
B. Secretary
C. Ex-officio Commissioner
D. Ex- officio Chairperson
C
75.  The agency of the government responsible for the administration of
police entrance and promotional examination is the
A.  Civil Service Commission
B.  NAPOLCOM
C.  PNPA
D.  CHED
B
76.  Complaints against personnel of the Internal Affairs Office shall be
brought to the
A. NAPOLCOM
B. Internal Affairs Service
C. PLEB
 D. Inspector’s Office
D
77.  The PNP shall be organized to ensure accountability and uprightness in
the police exercise of discretion as well as to achieve
A.  Reformation and rehabilitation
B.  Efficiency and effectiveness
C.  Organization and Administration
D.  None of the above
B
78.  The ex-officio chairman of the NAPOLCOM is the
A. Chief of the PNP
B. Secretary of DILG
C. Commissioner from the civilian sector
D. None of the above
B
79.  The four regulars and fulltime Commissioners shall appointed for a term
of
A.  4 years
B.  5 years
C.  6 years
D.  9 years
C
80.  The reorganization of the PNP is made by the NAPOLCOM who shall conduct
management audit, and prepare a proposed reorganization plan to be
approved by
A. DILG Secretary
B. Congress
C. C/PNP
D. President 
B
81.  The required age for the grant of waiver of age requirement for initial
appointment in the PNP is
A.  not below 25 nor over 35 years of age
B.  not below 20 nor over 35 years of age
C.  less than 25 but not more than 32 years of age
D.  more than 22 but less than 32 years of age          
B
82.  Anybody who will enter the PNP service with out a baccalaureate degree
shall be given a maximum period of
A. 3 years to comply with the education qualification
B. 4 years to comply with the education qualification
C. 5 years to comply with the education qualification
D. 6 years to comply with the education qualification  
B
83.  Under  RA 8551 any PNP personnel who has not been promoted for a
continuous service shall be retired or separated if the said period of
non promotion gained with in:
A.  20 yrs
B.  10 yrs
C.  18 months
D.  none of these
B
84.  The power to direct or oversee the day to day functions of police
investigation of crime, crime prevention activities and traffic
control in accordance with the rules and regulations promulgated by
the Commission is
A. Employment
B. Planning
C. Operational Supervision
D. Deployment
C
85.  Governors and mayors, upon having been elected and having qualified as
such, are automatically deputized as representatives of the 
A.  NAPOLCOM
B.  DND
C.  PLEB
D.  None of the above
C
86.  As a police officer, he/she should live a decent and virtuous life to
serve as an example to others. This statement is part of the:
A. PNP Code of Covenant
B. Policeman’s Code
C. Police Officer’s Creed
D. All of the above
C
87.  The rank of a Senior Police Officer IV is equivalent to:
A.  Master Sergeant in the Military rank
B.  Captain in the Military rank
C.  Lieutenant in the Military rank
D.  None of the above
A
88.  A person can escape from the scene of the accident on one of the
following ground:
A. offense committed is serious
B. bringing the person to your custody
C. bring the suspect before the court to answer a charge of violation
D. if the person is under the imminent danger
D
89.  In arresting the traffic violator or when it involved arrest due to
traffic violation, the following procedures are followed except:
A.  bring the suspended person before the court
B.  detention of the arrested person may take place
C.  arrest can be effected even without a warrant
D.  impose the probable penalty that might be imposed   
D
90.  What is missing in the sentence?  “The investigator is _____.”
A.  noun    
B.  verb    
C.  adverb    
D.  adjective
B
91.  They are necessary in the sentence, since they show whether the
sentence is clear or has a doubtful meaning.
A.  subject    
 B.  punctuations    
C.  verbs    
D.  paragraphs     
B
92.  This statement is incorrect, except
A.  A police report that carries lies or half truth statements is still a
police report.
B.  A police report can be submitted as time allows.
C.  Accurateness of a police report can be based partly on the use of our
senses.
D.  Adverbs are modifiers.                              
 B
93.  It explains best what a police report is.
A.  daily operational occurrences
B.  exact narrations of facts
C.  police records
D.  reaffirming what took place    
B
94.  Supply the correct form of verb; “I am not as good today, as I
_____yesterday.”
A.  am    
B.  was    
C.  were    
D.  did                            
B
95.  In police technical writing, avoid repetitions of nouns by using
A.  a verb    
B.  a pronoun    
C.  a common noun    
D.  a proper noun  
B
96.  SPO1 Matiyaga was promoted to the next rank by his Commanding Officer,
on the strength of his recommendation. He gave a blow-out to his
friends. Three months passed and he was still receiving the same
salary. What form of communication is missing?
A.  Memorandum
B.  Special order
C.  Approval by his CO
D.  Written confirmation
B
97.  A final police report can only be submitted, and the case considered
closed and solved when suspect was arrested and charged, witnesses are
willing to testify in court, and,
A.  police investigator was summoned to appear in court.
B.  statements taken were corroborated by witnesses
C.  evidence were gathered and preserved for the prosecution of the case.
D.  Judge to handle the case was already appointed.
    
C
98.  All statements are incorrect, except
A.  the relevance of the police report depends on how it relays the
exclusive objective
B.  verbs are modifiers
C.  keeping an open mind in reporting, makes the report fair
D.  sometimes report writers should result to one’s opinion.
C
99.  These words are _____ e.g.; brake – break, bail – bale, buy – by, die –
dye, and dear- deer. They are similar in sound but different in
meaning and spelling.
A.  vocabularies    
B.  antonyms    
C.  homonyms    
D.  phrases
C
100. These statements are correct, except
A.  Police reports can serve as raw materials from which record systems can
be adopted.
B.  Police reports likewise serve as a gauge for good police performance.
C.  Police reports make police investigators efficient in their jobs.
D.  Police reports can be used for future reference.    
C

- End of Set Two -

ASSORTED QUESTIONS 3
INSTRUCTION: Select the correct answer for each of the following
questions.  Mark only one answer for each item by marking the box
corresponding to the letter of your choice on the answer sheet
provided. STRICTLY NO ERASURES ALLOWED. Use pencil no. 1 only.

MULTIPLE CHOICE                                           SET THREE

1.    “Ballista” is a gigantic bow or catapult which was used to hurl large

objects such as stones at a particular distance to deter animals or
enemy forces.
A. Catapult
B. Balle
C. Ballein
D. Ballista
D
2.    Ballistics is the scientific study of the propulsion and motion of
projectiles such as bullets, artillery shells, rockets and guided
missiles.
A. Propulsion
B. Expulsion
C. Repulsion
D. Extraction
A
 3.    The British engineer Benjamin Robins conducted many experiments in
interior ballistics. His findings justly entitle him to be called the
A. father of modern gunnery
B. father of modern ballistics
C. father of interior ballistics
D. father of forensic ballistics
A
4.    Late in the 18th century the Anglo-American physicist Benjamin Thompson
made the first attempt to measure the pressure generated by gunpowder.
The account of his experiments was the most important contribution to
A. Exterior ballistics
B. Forensic Ballistics
C. Interior ballistics
D. None of these
C
5.    Burning Rate - An arbitrary index of the quickness that burning
propellant changes into gas. It is the rate controlled by the chemical
composition, the size and shape of the propellant grains, and the
pressure at which the burning takes place.
A. Gas Power
B. Burning Rate
C. Propulsion Rate
D. Bulk Density
B

6.    It is the equal and opposite reaction of the gun against the forward
movement of the bullet during the explosions.
A.  Residual Pressure
B.  Recoil
C.  Backfire
D.  Misfire
B
7.    The speed per unit of time of the M16 is 3,300 ft/sec. This refers to:
A. Fire power
B. Velocity
C. Energy
D. All of these
B
8.    The noise created at the muzzle point of the gun due to the sudden
escape of the expanding gas coming in contact with the air in the
surrounding atmosphere at the muzzle point.
                   Muzzle Blast
                   Muzzle Energy
                   Range noise
                   Fire power
A
9.    What is the actual curved path of the bullet during its flight from the
gun muzzle to the target?
                   Yaw
                   Accuracy
                   Trajectory
                   Velocity
A
10.  The means that the bullet may lose its speed very rapidly during its
flight the air. This is a number that relates to the effect of air
drag on the bullet's flight and which can be used to later predict a
bullet's trajectory under different circumstances through what are
called "drag tables." 
A. Bullet trajectory
B. Critical zone
C. Ballistics Coefficient
D. Down Range
C
11.  The curve taken by the bullet while in flight is called
A. rifling curves
B. effective range
C. drift
D. maximum distance

12.  Key-hole Shot – the tumbling of the bullet in its flight and hitting
the target sideways as a result of not spinning on its axis.
A. Key-hole shot
B. Back shot
C. Mid range trajectory
D. Point Blank
A
13.  The power of the bullet that results in the instantaneous death of the
victim is called
A. Zero power
B. Power ranger
C. Shocking power
D. Power range
C
14.  What do you call the depth of entry of the bullet in the target?
A. Terminal Velocity
B. Terminal Penetration
C. Terminal Ballistics
D. Terminal Power
B
15.  Shotgun pellets made from lead especially hardened by the addition of a
slight amount of antimony. This refers to
A. Shot Gun
B. Chilled Shot
C. Shot ballistics
D. All of these
B
16.  This is caused by the flame or hot gases not by the hot projectiles as
is commonly believed.  It is also known as burning or charring.
 A. Blackening
B. Tattooing
C. Scorching
D. Pink coloration
C
17.  It is the clogging of the blood vessel by foreign bodies such as air or
bits of fats or septic embolus causing blocking to the blood flow to
the distal tissues supplied by the blood.
A. Embolism
B. Bleeding
C. Hemorrhage
D. Infection
A
18.  Among the following, which is a long smooth bored firearm that is
designed to prepare a single shot?
A.  Shotgun
B.  Musket
C.  Carbine
D.  Caliber
B
19.  One from Hartford, Connecticut, who produced the first practical
revolver and became famous for its .45 caliber.
A. Samuel Colt
B. Carl Walther
C. Oliver Winchester
D. John C. Garand
A
20.  Historians considered that the age of gunpowder began with its first
use as a propellant for a projectile on
A. 1313
B. 1413
C. 1280
D. 1350
A
21.  That part of the handgun designed in a metal tube through which the
bullet is fired.
A.  Grip
B.  Frame
C.  Barrel
D.  Rifling
C
22.  The main advantage of the double-action revolver over the single-action
revolver is that
A.  it can be fired rapidly
B.  it can be fired single shot
C.  there is no recoil
D.  better fire power
A
23.  An automatic weapon that can fire from 400 to 1,600 rounds of
ammunition each minute.
A.  Armalite
 B.  Uzi
C.  Machine gun
D.  Glock
C
24.  Technically speaking, the term ammunition refers to
A.  a group of cartridges or to a single unit or single cartridge
B.  a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, cartridge, case,
gunpowder and primer
C.  a “single round”
D.  all of these
D
25.  It includes rocket launchers and such mounted guns as howitzers,
mortars, antiaircraft guns, and naval guns.
A.  Gunnery
B.  Artillery
C.  Musketry
D.  Ballistics
B
26.  It is the soft guiding metal which serves as the container of priming
mixture, paper disc and anvil.
A.  Primer cup
B.  Primer mixture
C.  Paper disc
D.  Battery cup
A
27.  Proof Marks – It is the examination and testing of firearms by a
recognized authority according to certain rules and stamped with a
mark to indicate that they are safe for sale and used by the public.
A.  Provisional Proof
B.  Proof Marks
C.  Skid Marks
D.  Slippage Marks
B
28.  Skid Marks – When the bullet first starts forward without turning, that
before the bullet can begin to turn, it moves forward a small distance
and this makes the front of the groove in the bullet wider than the
rear part which leave an impression called
A.  Provisional Proof
B.  Proof Marks
C.  Skid Marks
D.  Slippage Marks
C
29.  A mechanism in a revolver that connects pivot between the frame and
cylinder.
A.  trigger spring
B.  trigger guard
C.  yoke
D.  anvil
C
30.  A photograph of the crime scene is a factual reproduction and accurate
record of the crime scene because it captures time, space and ___
A. person
 B. event
C. thing
D. crime scene
B
31.  In police photography it can be use as demonstration enlargements,
individual photos, projection slides, motion pictures during
A. Court prceedings
B. Court exhibits
C. Educational tour
D. Crime prevention
B

32.  In photography, the light writes when it strikes minute crystals of

light sensitive surfaces (films and photographic papers) thru the use
of a mechanical device called
A. Camera
B. Photograph device
C. Film and accessories
D. Flashlight
A
33.  ___ is a mechanical result of photography. 
A. Camera
B. Picture
C. Photograph
D. Film
C
34.  The bending of light around an object gives rise to the phenomenon
called ___. This phenomenon is responsible for the partial
illumination of object parts not directly in the path of the light.
A. detraction
B. retraction
C. diffraction
D. defragmentation
C
35.  What is the approximate wavelength of the primary color red?
A. 700 mu
B. 450 mu
C. 550 mu
D. 590 mu
A
36.  In photography, which one is not a primary color?
A. All of these
B. Cyan
 C. Magenta
D. Yellow
A
37.  ___Absorption refers to the taking in of light by the material.
Following the law of conservation of energy, such light taken in is
not lost but merely transformed into heat.
A. Diffraction
B. Somnambulism
C. Absorption
D. Convection
C

38.  These are TRANSPARENT OBJECTS – mediums that merely slow down the speed
of light but allow to pass freely in other respects, transmit 90% or
more of the incident light.
A. Translucent objects
B. Opaque objects
C. Transparent objects
D. None of these
C
39.  The simplest camera is a ___, which consists of a box with a small hole
in one of its sides.
A. Camera obscura
B. Fixed focus camera
C. Pinhole camera
D. Nikkon camera
C
40.  What changes the size of the aperture of the lens and regulates the
amount of light reaching the film?
A. diaphragm
B. shutter
C. lens
D. film
A
41.  What part of the camera controls the opening and closing of the
shutter, regulates the quantity of light that reaches and affects the
sensitized material, a dial which sets the length of time in which the
light is allowed to enter the camera?
A. Shutter speed
B. Focusing mechanism
C. Shutter release button
 D. Shutter speed dial
D
42.  The lens is as important a part of a camera as the body. Lenses are
referred to in generic terms as wide-angle, normal, and telephoto. The
three terms refer to the focal length of the lens, which is
customarily measured in ____
A. Millimeters
B. Inches
C. Centimeters
D. Mile per second
A
43.  What kind of lens causes light rays to converge, or come together, and
is called a positive lens. A positive lens focuses light form a
distant source into visible image that appears on then opposite side
of the lens to the object.
A. Concave
B. Convex
C. Reflex
D. converge
B
44.  ___ is the process of changing the distance between the centers of the
lens to the focal plane. It is the technique of adjusting the focal
length to get the sharp image of the object or scene to be
photographed.
A. Infinity
B. Lens change
C. Focusing
D. Shutting
C
45.  It is important to have the lens at the right distance from the film
otherwise the image of an object point will be seen as a circle which
is
A. clear in appearance
B. blurred in appearance
C. no photo
D. all of these
B
46.   What part of the film consists of silver compounds which are light
sensitive and halogens?
A. Top layer
B. Emulsion layer
C. Film base
D. Film surface
B
47.  It is defined as the product of illumination and time. The unit of it
is usually in meter candle second which is equivalent to exposure
 produced by a light source of one candlepower, in the second at a
distance of one meter from the surface of the sensitive material.
A. Photographic exposure
B. None of these
C. Photographic speed
D. Light
A
48.  These are used to control the relative tone values in which colors are
rendered by the photographic process, to lighten or darkened
particular colors or to obtain color separation records for color
photography works.
A. Viewing Filter
B. Color Filter
C. Filtering
D. None of these
B

49.  Because of the fact that all negative do not print best on one kind of
paper, and in order to permit printing for special effects,
photographic papers is made in several different grades of contrast
and surface texture. What is the paper made by Kodak that offers six
degrees of contrast and glossy surface?
A. Glossy paper
B. Manila paper
C. Velox paper
D. Bond paper
C
50.  One that is executed in accordance with the Code of Commerce or any
Mercantile Law, containing disposition of commercial rights or
obligations.
A. Commercial document
B. Holographic wills
C. Notarial wills
D. Private document
A
51.  The  term  "insertion"  and "interlineations"  include the addition of
writing and  other material  between  lines or paragraphs or  the
addition  of whole page to a document.
A. Insertion or interlineations
B. Integration
 C. Obliteration
D. None of these
A
52.  In questioned document examination, what is an “OFF-HAND OPINION”?
A. A conclusion that is not based on scientific examination
B. A mere speculation of facts contained in the document
C. A scientific findings as to the content of document
D. All of these
A
53.  It is a kind of handwriting that is characterized by being connected in
which one letter is joined to the next.
A. Script
B. Block
C. Vigorous
D. Cursive
D
54.  A writer may deliberately try to alter his usual writing habits in
hopes of hiding his identity. The results, regardless of their
effectiveness are termed as ___.
A. Down stroke
B. Gestalt
C. Disguised writing
D. Graphology
C

55.  The place where the writer grasps the barrel of the pen and the angle
at which he holds it is called
A. Pen lift
B. Pen hold
C. Print script
D. Pren pressure
B
56.  The element of the writing movement which is marked by regular or
periodic recurrences. It may be classed as smooth, intermittent, or
jerky in its quality.
A. Shading
B. Simplification
C. Slope slant
D. Rhythm
D
57.  What do we call the series of lines or curves written in a single
letter; one of the lines of an alphabet or series of lines or curves
within a single letter; the path traced by the pen on the paper?
A. Pen lift
B. Slope
 C. Delta
D. Stroke
D
58.  One is not a type of handwriting "Standards"
A. Collected Standards
B. Requested standards
C. Post litem motan exemplars
D. All of these
B
59.   The act/process of making the content/s of a document not the intended
content.
A. falsification
B. counterfeiting
C. forgery
D. erasure
A
60.  The study of handwriting to determine one's personality traits is
called
A. handwriting analysis
B. graphology
C. dactyloscopy
D. fecalysis
B

61.  Who studied fear and its influence on the hearth and his observations
subsequently formed the basis for the technique in the development of
the sphygmamomanometer and the scientific cradle, which he used in
studying fear on the heart?
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Angelo Mosso
C. William Marston
D. John Larson
B
62.  Who employed the first scientific instrument to detect deception? This
instrument known as hydrosphygmograph, measured changes in pulse and
blood pressure when suspects were questioned about their involvement
in or knowledge of a specific response.
A. Cesare Lombroso
B. Angelo Mosso
C. William Marston
 D. John Larson
A
63.  It is a scientific diagnostic instrument used to record physiological
changes in the blood pressure, pulse rate, respiration and skin
resistance of an examinee under controlled condition.
A. Lie detection
B. Polygraph
C. Polygraph examination
D. Truth serum
B
64.  Any untruthful statement; falsehood; anything that deceives or creates
false impression.
A. Joke
B. Story
C. Telling
D. Lie
D
65.  “Hindu book of health and science” which is considered as the earliest
known reference of the methods for detecting deception.
A. Hindu Yoga
B. Ayur-Veda
C. Arya abram
D. Midos Yagu
B

66.  The science and art of improving human breeds by so applying the

ascertained principles of genetics and inheritance as to secure a
desirable combination of physical characteristics and mental traits in
the offspring of suitably mated parents?
A. Genetics
B. Eugenics
C. Metabolism
D. Psycho Synthesis
B
67.  In polygraph examination, the whole chart when finished is called
A. result
B. polygram
C. analysis
D. diagnostic
B
68.  The major component of the polygraph machine are, except
A. PNEUMOGRAPH
B. CARDIO-SPHYMOGRAPH
C. GALVANOGRAPH
D. KYMOGRAPH
E. PEN AND INKING SYSTEM
E              
69.  “Did you shoot Mr X?” is an example of __ in polygraph examination.
A. Control question
B. Relevant question
C. Irrelevant question
D. Evidence connecting question
B
70.  Which of the following questions made in a polygraph examination maybe
considered an irrelevant question?
A. Have you ever been called by the name Allan?
B. Is today Monday?
C. Are you over 20 years of age?
D. All of the above
D
71.  This test is applied when the response to relevant and control
questions are similar in degree and in consistency and in a way that
the examiner cannot determine whether the subject is telling the truth
or not.
A. Silent answer test
B. Peak of tension test
C. Guilt complex test
D. General question test
D

72.  To facilitate evaluation and interpretation of test charts, markings

are made with the use of signs and symbols. Which of the following
examples of chart markings should be the first marking of the examiner
in the chart?
A. X / 60 / 1.5 A
B. XX / 60 / 1.5 A
C. X                    
D. XX
C
73.  A principle involved in fingerprinting which states that there are no
two fingerprints that are exactly alike unless taken from the same
finger.
 A. Permanency
B. Individuality
C. Infallability
D. Generality
A
74.  The biggest percentage of fingerprint pattern is
A. Arches
B. Loops
C. Whorls
D. Accidentals
B
75.  It symbolized by letter X in the fingerprint classification.
A. Ulnar Loop
B. Plain arch
C. Accidental whorl
D. Tented arch
C
76.  The reason why fountain pen ink, colored ink and stamp pad are
objectionable are, except
A. They are too thin
B. They dry too quickly
C. The stamp pad smears easily
D. Satisfactory for comparison purposes
D
77.  These are fingerprints which are imprinted by mere chance or without
any intention to produce the print. 
A. Chance print
B. Chance impression
C. Visible print
D. Latent print
B
78.   If a finger appears to be amputated (cut off) just place the symbol or
simple abbreviation as __ and the date of amputation on the box of the
finger actually amputated.
A. AMP
B. AMPT
C. APT
D. AMPUT A
79.  Which has been known as the circulating tissue of the body?
A. brain
B. skin
C. Mucus membrane
D. None of these
D
 80.  The yellowish fluid of blood in which numerous blood corpuscles is
called
A. Serum
B. Plasma
C. Red cells
D. Cloth
B
81.  What test is used to determine whether blood is a human or non-human
origin?
A. Marquis test
B. Precipitin test
C. Baberios test
D. Levine test
B
82.  ____ is a specialized epithelial outgrowth of the skin which occur
everywhere on the human body except on the palm of the hands and the
sole of the feet.
A. nails
B. skin
C. hair
D. pores
C
83.  What kind of fluid is used to restore tampered serial numbers?
A. Etching fluid
B. STP fluid
C. Motolite fluid
D. Gun serial fluid
A
84.  As regards the relation of the site of the application of force and
location of injury, the injury found at site of the application of
force is called
A. Coup injury
B. Contre injury
C. Coup contre coup injury
D. Locus minoris resistancia
A
85.  Wound characterized by products of forcible contact are called
brasion
ultiple wound
utilation
unctured
A

86.  All forms of violent death which results primarily from the

interference with the process of respiration or to condition in which
 the supply of oxygen to the blood or tissue or both has been reduced
below normal level are called
A. Death by asphyxia
B. Death by mutilation
C. Death by injection
D. Death by violence
A
87.  It is defined as a remedy or process by which a child born out of
lawful wedlock and are therefore considered illegitimate are by
fiction of law considered by subsequent valid marriage of the parents.
A. Adoption
B. Legitimation
C. Foster parenting
D. Naturalization
B
88.  The introduction of seminal fluid with spermatozoa in the generative of
a woman by any means of springe, pipette, irrigator, etc is called
A. penetration
B. insertion
C. insemination
D. fingering
C
89.  The physical incapacity of either sex to allow or grant to the other
legitimate sexual gratification.
A. Sterility
B. Impotency
C. Frigidity
D. Erectile failure
B
90.  In England, he was a buckle maker then a brothel operator; a master
criminal who became London’s most effective criminal investigator. He
was the most famous THIEF-CATCHER in 1720s.
A. Alexander Mocanochie
B. Jonathan Wild
C. Billy Cook
D. John Howard
B
91.  He was known to be the creator of the “bow street runners”, a group of
police officers attached to the Bow Street Court, and not in uniform,
performing criminal investigative functions.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
A
92.  The founder and chief organizer of the London Metropolitan Police – the
Scotland Yard, which became famous police organization in the world.
A. Henry Fielding
B. John Fielding
C. John Howard
D. Robert Peel
D
93.  America’s most famous private investigator and founder of Criminal
Investigation
A. Alec Nayhem
B. Allan Pinkerton
C. Thomas Byrnes
D. None of these
B
94.  The first woman detective in the history of criminal investigation.
A. Kathleen Jacob
B. Candy Miles
C. Kate Wayne
D. Pines Hamilton
C
95.  A French Police Clerk who introduced and established the first
systematic identification system based on anthropmetrical Signalment
and became the founder of criminal identification.
A. Fox Talbot
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
C
96.  An Englishman who published his study on classifying fingerprints.
While other scientists were studying fingerprints in their biological
nature, he recognized their uniqueness and significance in criminal
identification.
A. Arthur Conan Lyle
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
D
97.  An Englishman who published a handbook for Examining Magistrates in
Munich, Germany and advocated the use of scientific methods in
criminal investigation process.
A. Hans Gross
B. Thomas Byrnes
C. Alphonse Bertillon
D. Francis Galton
A
98.  The SC ruled the illegally obtained evidence is inadmissible in state
criminal prosecutions in the famous case of
A. Miranda vs Arizona
B. Otit vs Jeff
C. Mapp vs Ohio
D. Milkey vs Wett
C
99.  As a rule, do not touch, alter or remove anything at the crime scene
until the evidence has been processed through notes, sketches and
photographs, with proper measurements. This refers to
A. the golden rule in investigation
B. the number one SOP in investigation
C. the act of note taking
D. the act of crime scene preservation
A
100. The continues accountability of persons handling evidences, and having
responsibility of taking care and preserving the evidences from the
time it was found until brought to court for presentation is called
A. Chain of events
B. Key events
C. Chain of custody of evidence
D. Chain of command
C

- End of Set Three -