Crop Protection

1. The hindlegs of the grasshoppers adapted for

jumping purposes is equipped with

a. Enlarged femur
b. Opposing spurs and spines
c. Hook-like structure
d. None of the above
2. The stages of insects that undergo a
holometabolous type of metamorphosis
include the

a. egg, larva, pupa, adult

b. Egg, nymph, adult
c. Egg, naiad, adult
d. Egg, young, adult
3. Insects are important to man and agriculture
because they

a. Serve as vectors of plant pathogens causing

plant diseases
b. Are sources of important products such as
honey
c. Serve as biological control agents
d. All of the above
4. A specialized field in entomology dealing with
species that are important in beneficial or
injurious manner

a. Economic entomology
b. Insect morphology
c. Insect ecology
d. Insect physiology
5. The insects can be distinguished from other
arthropods by their

a. One or two pairs of wings, if any

b. Three distinct body regions
c. Three pairs of legs
d. All of the above
6. A type of insect antennae whose segments
particularly the distal half are more or less
triangular in shape

a. Serrate
b. Moniliform
c. Clavate
d. Filiform
7. Refers to the monetary value lost to the
commodity such as reduction in yield due to
an insect pest

a. Injury
b. Damage
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
8. The three main body regions of an insect
include the

a. Head, thorax, abdomen

b. Head, thorax, epiproct
c. Head, thorax, cerci
d. Head, cepalothorax and abdomen
9. Serve as excretory organs in insects

a. Malpighian tubules
b. Rectum
c. Rectal pads
d. Colon
10. The thrips possess this particular type of
mouthparts

a. Rasping-sucking
b. Piercing-sucking
c. Chewing-lapping
d. Sponging
11. The first pair of wings among the beetles
characterized as hard/sclerotized and used to
protect the hindwings

a. Tegmina
b. Elytra
c. Hemelytra
d. Fringed
12. The segment of the insects’ antennae that
nearly always contain a sensory organ is
known as the

a. Clavola
b. Scape
c. Pedicel
d. Flagellum
13. The ants, bees and wasps belong to the
order

a. Diptera
b. Hymenoptera
c. Coleoptera
d. Lepidoptera
14. The insect pest commonly known as corn
earworm, tomato fruitworm, tobacco
budworm, cotton bollworm and sorghum
headworm is scientifically known as

a. Ostrinia furnacalis
b. Leucinodes orbonalis
c. Helicoverpa armigera
d. Spodoptera litura
15. Any insects which annoys, injures or
damages man directly and indirectly is called

a. Insect pest
b. Entomophagous insect
c. Both a & b
d. None of the above
16. Known as insect vectors of viruses causing
tungro disease

a. Nephotettix virescens
b. Nilaparvata lugens
c. Hydrellia philippina
d. Leptocorisa oratorius
17. The level of pest population at which control
measures are employed to prevent the
population from exceeding the density that
will cause economic damage

a. Economic threshold level

b. Economic injury level
c. Equilibrium potential
d. None of the above
18. These are relatively minor pests whose
populations rise to economically damaging
levels only at certain times or in certain places

a. Key pests
b. Migrant pests
c. Potential pests
d. Occasional pests
19. The undesirable effect of insecticides
resulting from a combination of suppression
of the original target pest and effects of
development of insecticide resistance as well
as destruction of natural enemies is known as

a. Pest resurgence
b. Secondary pest outbreak
c. Host switching
d. Population explosion potential
20. Chemical found in rice plants that provides
resistance against rice stemborers

a. Oryzanone
b. DIMBOA
c. Gossypol
d. Cucurbitacin
21. The mouthparts in insects where the galea
of the maxillae are greatly elongated and
joined to form slender hallow tube is known
as the

a. Sponging mouthparts
b. Siphoning mouthparts
c. Chewing-lapping mouthparts
d. Piercing-sucking mouthparts
22. The system in insects which consists of
hardened sclerotized plates joined together by
thin unsclerotized strips and provides rigidity
with flexibility

a. Digestive system
b. Integumentary system
c. Excretory system
d. Muscular system
23. Beetles and weevils belong to the order

a. Coleoptera
b. Lepidoptera
c. Orthoptera
d. Dermaptera
24. Paired structures located dorsally on the
abdomen of aphids that secrete substances to
repel predators

a. Cornicles
b. Vasiform orifice
c. Pincers
d. Furcula
25. The shedding of the insect’s old cuticle in
order for it to grow is called

a. Ecdysis
b. Apolysis
c. Mitosis
d. Secretion
26. The damage inflicted on the rice plant by the
brown planthoppers characterized as drying
and browning of tillers due to removal of plant
sap

a. Tungro
b. Grassy stunt
c. Hopperburn
d. Rice blast
27. Broken stalks and tassels as well as borings
on base of the ear shanks on corn plants is an
indication of attack by

a. Corn borer
b. Corn earworm
c. Corn semi-looper
d. Corn aphids
28. A mechanism of HPR where the
morphological characteristics of the plant
influence the choice of the insect pest with
regards to source of food, shelter or
ovipositional sites

a. Antixenosis
b. Antibiosis
c. Tolerance
d. Avoidance
29. A mango insect pest that is present only in
Palawan where the presence of dark-brown,
soil-like frass & moving larvae inside the fruit
make these unfit for human cosumption

a. Mango seed borer

b. Mango fruitfly
c. Mango pulp weevil
d. Mango twig borer
30. A predatory insect responsible in the
suppression of the population of the cottony
cushion scale, Icerya purchasi

a. Rodolia cardinalis
b. Menochilus sexmaculatus
c. Trichogramma evanescence
d. None of the above
31. The spread of viruses in crops in the field is
mostly due to aphid vectors. Which of the
following is a vector?

a. Pentalonia nigronervosa
b. Menochilus sexmaculatus
c. Idioscopus clypealis
d. Leptocorisa oratorius
32. The damage caused by larvae of stemborers
when they feed on the rice plants before the
flowering stage is known as

a. Deadheart
b. Whiteheads
c. Hopperburn
d. Damping-off
33. This is an example of an entomopathogen

a. Beauvaria bassiana
b. Sclerotium rolfsii
c. Cercospora nicotianae
d. Bipolaris maydis
34. The newly hatched larvae of this insect pest
penetrate the epidermis and feed on the leaf
tissue of the cabbage plant

a. Plutella xylostella
b. Phyllotreta striolata
c. Crocidolomia binotalis
d. Hellula undalis
35. Refers to the orientation of the insect’s head
where the jaws are directed forward

a. Prognathous
b. Hypognathous
c. Opistognathous
d. None of the above
36. An important mite pest of roses and other
crops especially in the Cordillera Region

a. Tetranychus urticae
b. Polyphagotarsonemus latus
c. Aphis gosspii
d. Tetranychus kanzawai
37. All of the following are insect pests of rice
except

a. Nephottetix virescens
b. Spodoptera litura
c. Hydrellia philippina
d. Myzus persicae
38. An internal framework that affords many
points for muscle attachment which
contribute to the rigidity of head capsule

a. Gena
b. Cervical sclerite
c. Vertex
d. Tentorium
39. In many Hymenoptera, the first abdominal
segment is completely associated with the
thorax and is separated from the remaining
abdominal segments

a. Propodaeum
b. Gaster
c. Petiole
d. Sternum
40. The first written document on Philippine
insects was recorded by

a. Pigafette
b. Philippi
c. Guissepi
d. Mardon
41. This insect does not lay eggs in the soil

a. Aulacophora similis
b. Gryllotalpa orientalis
c. Nilaparvata lugens
d. Cylas formicarius
42. The Mother of Philippine Entomology

a. Clare R. Baluran
b. Clare R. Barreto
c. Clare R. Briones
d. Clare R. Baltazar
43. The first written record on Philippine insects
was recorded in the year

a. 1565
b. 1540
c. 1521
d. 1587
44. The genus of the starling locally known as
“Martinez” which was imported from
Southern China to control locust

a. Aetheopsar
b. Microhierax
c. Halcyon
d. Brahminy
45. The only insect order that molts after the
wings become functional

a. Odonata
b. Ephemeroptera
c. Plecoptera
d. Dermaptera
46. Armyworms and cutworms prefer to pupate
in the

a. Leaves
b. Soil
c. Panicle
d. Stem
47. Responsible for the reduced uptake of
insecticide solution by the insect integument

a. Wax
b. Chitin
c. Sclerotin
d. Tannin
48. The year the National Crop Protection Center
was founded

a. 1966
b. 1986
c. 1976
d. 1996
49. The year when airplane was first used in the
Philippines for pesticide application

a. 1925
b. 1927
c. 1929
d. 1923
50. Acarologist who spearheaded the research
on mites in the Philippines

a. F.F. Sanchez
b. L.C. Rimando
c. L.C. Raros
d. C.R. Baltazar
51. An insect that feeds on many unrelated
species of plants

a. Polyphagous insect
b. Monophagous insect
c. Oliphagous insect
d. Phytophagous insect
52. This refers to any material in a pesticide
preparation which has pesticidal activity

a. Active ingredient
b. Inert ingredient
c. Surfactant
d. Emulsifying agent
53. The concentration of a toxicant required to
produce a percentage kill, usually in 24 hours
is called

a. Lethal concentration
b. Lethal dosage
c. Rate
d. Dosage
54. Toxicity hazard of a pesticide is recognized by
key words on the printed label of every
pesticide package. The most hazardous
pesticide pesticide bear the word/s

a. Warning
b. Caution
c. Danger/Poison
d. None of the above
55. The destructive stage of the citrus butterfly
possesses what type of mouthparts

a. Chewing type
b. Siphoning type
c. Piercing-sucking type
d. Sponging type
56. The young stage in a paurometabolous type
of insect metamorphosis is known as

a. Larva
b. Naiad
c. Nymph
d. Maggot
57. This method of insect pest control involves
purposely manipulation of the environment to
make it unfavorable for pest development and
survival

a. Cultural control
b. Mechanical control
c. Integrated Pest Management
d. Biological control
58. The mesothorax and the metathorax are the
wing-bearing segments in winged insects.
These two segments are collectively known as

a. Prothorax
b. Pterothorax
c. Cephalothorax
d. None of the above
59. These structures are used by the Diptera to
maintain equilibrium while in flight

a. Halteres
b. Hamuli
c. Frenulum
d. Johnston’s organ
60. Malphigian tubules are used as excretory
organs in insects. All insects possess
Malpighian tubules

a. True
b. False
c. Not sure
d. Not really
61. The insect wings are flattered, double-
layered expansion of the body wall. As such,
the wings consist of same elements of the
body wall

a. True
b. False
c. Not sure
d. Not really
62. These type of mouthparts has the labium on
the lower side of the head as a fleshy,
elbowed, retractile proboscis with its distal
segment specialized into a sponge-like organ

a. Siphoning type
b. Sponging type
c. Piercing-sucking type
d. Rasping-sucking type
63. What group of insect vectors is considered
the most efficient and effective in the
transmission of plant viruses in the field

a. Beetles
b. Whiteflies
c. Hoppers
d. Aphids
64. The first report of insect transmission of a
plant virus in the country dates back in 1926
where G.O. Ocfemia reported transmission of
a plant virus by Pentalonia nigronervosa. What
is the particular virus disease?

a. Abaca bunchy top

b. Papaya ringspot
c. Citrus tristeza
d. Bean mosaic
65. This insect order is characterized by having
scales on the membranous wings

a. Hymenoptera
b. Odonata
c. Lepidoptera
d. Coleoptera
66. Which is not a entomophagous insect?

a. Micraspis crocea
b. Menochilus sexmaculatus
c. Ophionea nigrofasciata
d. Aphis craccivora
67. The second segment of the insect’s leg

a. Coxa
b. Trochanter
c. Femur
d. Tibia
68. The region of the insects’ alimentary canal
where absorption of the products of digestion
occur

a. Foregut
b. Midgut
c. Hindgut
d. All of the above
69. Insects feeding on any part of the plant
either by removing tissues from plant parts or
feeding on plant sap, nectar and other plant
products

a. Phytophagous
b. Zoophagous
c. Saprophagous
d. Entomophagous
70. Typical mode of insect reproduction where
offspring develop from unfertilized egg

a. Parthenogenesis
b. Paedogenesis
c. Hermaproditism
d. Neoteny
71. The required wettable formulation for 1000 L
of 0.05% spray is 0.588 kg. what is the
concentration of the commercial formulation?

a. 85
b. 87
c. 75
d. 80
72. A 2.875 kg WP insecticide is required for the
control of fruit and shoot borer in a 2 ha.
eggplant field. The recommended rate is 0.5
kg a.i/ha. What is the % a.i formulation of the
insecticide?

a. 33%
b. 40%
c. 35%
d. 45%
73. 500 L of 0.03% insecticide Y spray is needed
to control pod borer. 500 ml of this product is
the volume of formulation. What is the
concentration of the commercial formulation?

a. 35%
b. 40%
c. 30%
d. 25%
74. Insecticide K has a dilution rate to water of
1:320. What is its recommended dosage per
16 L of water?

a. 50 g
b. 25 g
c. 20 g
d. 40 g
75. If the recommended rate of insecticide R is
0.3 kg a.i/ha, how much of a 30% formulation,
in liters, is needed to cover an area of 650 sq.
m?

a. 0.0650 L
b. 0.0625 L
c. 0.0675 L
d. 0.0680 L
76. Juan bought an insecticide for his 1.17 ha
tomato field. How much insecticide will he
need if the recommended dosage is 3tbsp/16L
of water and spray volume of 160 L per
hectare?

a. 350 ml
b. 250 ml
c. 300 ml
d. 500 ml
77. What is the recommended rate of
application in amount of formulated product
per hectare of the insecticide Juan will spray?

a. 30 ml/ha
b. 35 ml/ha
c. 350 ml/ha
d. 300 ml/ha
78. What is the recommended rate of
application in terms of g a.i/ha if the
insecticide Juan bought has 3% active
ingredient?

a. 8.97
b. 8.79
c. 0.897
d. 9.00
79. Mang Jose’s stringbeans are infested with aphids.
He was advised to spray insecticide. The insecticide
has 250 g thaimethoxam per kilogram formulated
product. Its recommended dosage is 2 g/16 L of
water and it can be applied either as foliar or
drench. What is % concentration of the formulated
product?

a. 2.5%
b. 250%
c. 0.25%
d. 25%
80. A 1000 L of 0.07% spray solution is needed
for control corn borer. The wettable powder to
be used contains 80% active ingredient. What
is the required weight of WP formulation?

a. 0.885 kg
b. 0.875 kg
c. 0.895 kg
d. 0.880 kg
81. If drenching application is to be employed,
how much commercial formulation is needed
to cover an area of 1.25 ha? The distance of
planting is 1 m between hills and furrows and
the recommended rate of spray solution per
hill is 100 ml

a. 156.25 g
b. 165.35 g
c. 76.52 g
d. 157.25 g
82. How many plants can be drenched with 137
L insecticide solution?

a. 137
b. 13,700
c. 1370
d. 130,700
83. A 0.06 a.i/ha of insecticide J is needed to
control cabbage webworm. How much 40%
WP formulation is required for a 1.75 ha
cabbage field?

a. 2.625 kg
b. 2.655 kg
c. 2.750 kg
d. 2.575 kg
84. How many liters of insecticide X are required
to treat a 0.5 ha area of tomato? The
recommended concentration is 0.04 percent,
spray volume desired is 320 per ha and the
insecticide contains 45% a.i.

a. 0.142 L
b. 1.42 L
c. 14.2 L
d. 1.55 L
85. How many sprayer loads are required to
spray the 0.5 hectare if the spray volume
required is 320L/ha? Assume that spray load
holds 8 liters

a. 20
b. 18
c. 23
d. 25
86. Insecticide L should be applied at 20 and 37
16 L sprayer load per hectare of corn plant at
seedling and vegetative stage, respectively.
How many of the solution has to be prepared
for 1.87 ha corn field at seedling stage?

a. 598.4 L
b. 600 L
c. 550 L
d. 500 L
87. Product 75 WP effective against leafminers
has 750 g cyromazine per kilogram formulated
product. For stringbeans, its recommended
rate 5 to 7 g/L of water. How many kilograms
of the product are needed to prepare a 150 L
spray solution if the rate to be used is 5g/16 L?

a. 0.47 kg
b. 0.047 kg
c. 4.7 kg
d. 0.0047 kg
88. If the recommended rate to be used is 7g/16
L of water, how much cyromazine does a 200 L
spray solution contains?

a. 656. 25 g
b. 6.5625 g
c. 6562.5 g
d. 65.625 g
89. An 800 sq. m of land is planted with
eggplant. How much insecticide Z 40% EC is
needed to cover this area with the
recommended rate of 0.5 kg a.i/ha?

a. 1.0 L
b. 0.1 L
c. 0.15 L
d. 2.0 L
90. In a hybrid corn company it is a regular operation to
treat the corn seeds with an insecticide before
packing it in 20kg bags. For 1kg of seed, slurry is
prepared by mixing 12.5 ml of insecticide ST in 10ml
of water. A mechanized mixer is used to fully coat the
seeds and after which, the seeds are air dried. How
much slurry is needed for seed treatment of 6.75 tons
of harvested corn?

a. 15.18 L
b. 160 L
c. 151.87 L
d. 187.51 L
91. How much water would be added to 151.875
L of insecticide ST in order to treat a 6.75 tons
seeds?

a. 67.5 L
b. 70 L
c. 80 L
d. 60.7 L
92. A farmer needs to spray copper oxychloride
to his rice field infected with bacterial leaf
blight. This product has to be mixed at a rate of
30-50 ml/100 L of water. If he uses the rate of
30ml/100 L, how much of the fungicide does
he need to prepare a 285 L of spray solution?

a. 85.5 ml
b. 8.55 ml
c. 0.855 ml
d. 850 ml
93. If recommendation calls for 35 and 20 ml of
insecticide L per sprayer load of 20 and 37
sprayer loads will be used, respectively, how
much more insecticide L is needed in spraying
a hectare at vegetative than at seedling stage?
(See Question #86)

a. 50 ml
b. 40 ml
c. 45 ml
d. 60 ml
94. An area of 10 m x 5 m seedbed needs
application of granular insecticide. If the
recommended rate of 2.0 kg a.i product is to
be used and the % a.i. of the product is 3%,
how much of the product is needed to treat
the seedbed twice

a. 0.45 kg
b. 4.34 kg
c. 66.4 kg
d. 0.66 kg
95. To control leafhoppers in okra, 1000 liters of
0.10 percent carbaryl is to be prepared. The
wettable powder to be used contains 85%
carbaryl. What is the required weigh of the
product?

a. 1.176 kg
b. 1.716 kg
c. 17.16 kg
d. 11.67 kg
96. Fungicide SN 50WP at 700 ppm applied 4
times is recommended to control anthracnose
disease in onion. How many grams of the
product will be used to prepare one liter spray
solution?

a. 14 g
b. 0.14 g
c. 5.6 g
d. 1.4 g
97. (Continuation of Question #96). If the spray
volume needed is 800L/ha per spraying and
onion area to be treated is 700 sq. m, what is
the total weight in kg of the product to be
used?

a. 3.136
b. 3.316
c. 0.784
d. 7.880
98. (Based on Question #96). How much will the
fungicide SN 40WP at a unit price of Ph 220
per kg cost in a total of 4 sprayings?

a. Ph 689.92
b. Ph 729.52
c. Ph 724.80
d. Ph 733. 60
99. 2400 ppm of Mancozeb 80WP is equivalent
to

a. 15 g/L water
b. 30 g/L water
c. 3 g/L water
d. 5 g/L water
100. Pesticide recommendation is usually
expressed in

a. Kg/L per ha
b. Percentage active ingredient/ha
c. a or b
d. None of the above
101. Plant disease is the malfunctioning of host
cells and tissues resulting to continuous
irritation by a pathogenic agent or
environmental factor that leads to the
development of

a. Symptoms
b. Signs
c. Abnormal morphology of plants
d. Abnormal physiology of plants
102. Parasitism involves one organism taking its
nourishment from another

a. Organism
b. Hosts
c. Parasites
d. None of the above
103. Pathogenicity is the ability of the pathogen
to cause

a. Disease
b. Resistance
c. Susceptibility
d. Tolerance
104. Obligate parasite is a parasite that can grow
only in association with

a. Non-living host
b. Resistant host
c. Susceptible host
d. Living host
105. Inoculum is a pathogen or part of the
pathogen that can initiate

a. Infection
b. Invasion
c. Inoculation
d. Colonization
106. Infection court is the part of the host from
which the pathogen can establish

a. Pathogenic relationship
b. Parasitic relationship
c. Mutual relationship
d. Commensalism
107. Alternate host are plants on which some
pathogens must develop to complete its

a. Disease cycle
b. Secondary cycle
c. Life cycle
d. Pathogenic cycle
108. Facultative parasite is an organism that can
be a parasite under appropriate conditions but
it is primarily

a. Obligate parasite
b. Saprophyte
c. Facultative saprophyte
d. Pathogen
109. Infection occurred when the host plant
becomes associated with the cells of the

a. Hosts
b. Parasite
c. Pathogen
d. Susceptible host
110. External and internal reactions or
alterations of a plant as a result of a disease is
called

a. Infection
b. Symptom
c. Invasion
d. Colonization
111. Hyperplastic symptom refers to

a. Underdevelopment of tissue
b. Overdevelopment of tissue
c. Suppression of growth cells, tissues or organs
d. All of the above
112. Signs of plant disease refers to the
structure of the pathogen that are found
associated with the

a. Disease plant
b. Pathogen
c. Alternate host
d. All of the above
113. Disease identification in plants is called

a. Plant disease diagnosis

b. Field diagnosis
c. Laboratory diagnosis
d. All of the above
114. This is crucial in correct diagnosis of the
disease

a. Symptom
b. Resistance
c. Tolerance
d. Signs
115. The physical factor that affects the growth,
sporulation, development of all living
organisms

a. Temperature
b. Moisture
c. Wind
d. Lights
116. This affects the water holding capacity and
temperature of the soil

a. Temperature
b. Moisture
c. Soil type and pH
d. Light nutrition
117. This is responsible for wide spread
distribution of the inoculums

a. Wind
b. Moisture
c. Soil type and pH
d. Nutrition
118. It determines the germination and spread
of the inoculum

a. Wind
b. Moisture
c. Soil type and pH
d. Nutrition
119. Its quality, intensity and duration affect the
growth of both host and the pathogen

a. Wind
b. Moisture
c. Light
d. Nutrition
120. The time between the initial penetration of
the host and appearance of symptoms

a. Incubation period
b. Infectious period
c. Dormant period
d. Latent period
121. The hydrophobic layer that repels water
and the first layer of defense of a plant against
the pathogen

a. Cutin
b. Wax
c. Cuticle
d. Epidermis
122. A cellular structure of fungal plant
pathogen used to penetrate the epidermal
layer of the plants

a. Appressorium
b. Germ tube
c. Haustoria
d. Infection peg
123. A cellular structure used to absorb
nutrients from the plant cell

a. Appressorium
b. Germ tube
c. Haustoria
d. Infection peg
124. Where gutation water gets out from the
leaves

a. Hydathodes
b. Lenticels
c. Stomata
d. Growth cracks
125. Type of fungal penetration whereby the
mycelia occupies the spaces between the cells
and send out haustorium into the cell

a. Direct intercellular
b. Direct with haustoria
c. Direct intercellular with haustoria
d. Direct intra cellular
126. Stage of disease cycle whereby hydrolytic
enzymes are secreted

a. Dissemination
b. Infection
c. Colonization
d. Invasion
127. Stage of disease cycle whereby the pathogens
are already reproducing within the host tissues

a. Dissemination
b. Infection
c. Colonization
d. Invasion
128. Infectious plant diseases

a. Tungro virus disease

b. Anthracnose of onion
c. Bacterial soft rot of tomato
d. All of the above
129. Not a characteristic of a fungi

a. Ultra microscopic
b. Lacks chlorophyll
c. Reproduce by spore
d. Filamentous
130. Direct assault strategy involves

a. Direct penetration through the cuticle and

epidermis
b. Destruction of the structural integrity of the
plant cell wall
c. Degradation of the pectins joining cells
together leading to maceration of the plant
tissue
d. All of the above
131. The specialized cell penetrating structure

a. Appressorium
b. Penetration peg
c. Germ tube
d. Haustorium
132. Hydrolizing enzymes

a. Cellulases
b. Pectinases
c. Ligninases
d. All of the above
133. Most abundant carbon source on earth

a. Pectin
b. Cellulose
c. Lignin
d. None of the above
134. It is the second most abundant carbon
source on earth, and very difficult to degrade

a. Lignin
b. Cellulose
c. Pectin
d. None of the above
135. Degradation of ___ begins the process of
cell wall degradation and leads to the
maceration of the plant cells

a. Pectins
b. Cellulose
c. Lignin
d. All of the above
136. ___ are considered to be the most
important enzyme in disease development.
These enzymes can kill cells, presumably due
to the weakening of the cell wall and the
eventual bursting of the cell membrane due to
turgor pressure in the plant cell

a. Pectinases
b. Cellulases
c. Ligninases
d. All of the above
137. Without hydrolizing enzymes, can the
pathogen still penetrates the epidermal layer
of the plant?

a. Yes
b. No
c. Undecided
d. No answer
138. The bursting of the plant cell releases
nutrients for the pathogen to absorb

a. Yes
b. No
c. Undecided
d. No answer
139. Cellulases releases proteins that can be
metabolized further by the pathogen for food

a. Yes
b. No
c. Undecided
d. No answer
140. ___ cuts at the ends of the pectin polymer,
producing small fragments (monomers and
dimers) that can potentially be used as food
source by the pathogen

a. Pectin methylesterase
b. Ligninases
c. Exopolygalacturonase
d. Mannase
141. ___ removes methyl (CH 3) groups from the
pectin polymer and improves degradation by
other pectin degrading enzymes

a. Pectin methylesterase
b. Ligninases
c. Exopolygalacturonase
d. Mannase
142. ____ this enzyme softens and disintegrates
the cell wall tissue, leading to collapse and
disintegration of the plant cellular structure

a. Cellulases
b. Pectin methylesterase
c. Ligninases
d. Exopolygalacturonase
143. ___ includes a family of specialized sugars
that link pectin and cellulose molecule

a. Lignin
b. Mannose
c. Hemicellulose
d. Cellulose
144. Hemicellulases produced by fungi includes

a. Xylanase
b. Galactanase
c. Glucanase
d. All of the above
145. Fungi produce a number of other
secondary metabolites that are toxic to
humans and other animals

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
146. In several cases, fungal strains that do not
produce mycotoxins colonize plants as well as
strains that do produce mycotoxins, so their
role in causing plant disease is questionable.

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
147. Aspergillus flavus produced one of the
most common mycotoxins called

a. Gibberellins
b. Ochratoxin
c. Fumonisins
d. Aflatoxin
148. This toxin cause

a. Skin cancer
b. Leukemia
c. Cancer of esophagus
d. Lung cancer in human
149. Part of the mycelium that branches
between plant cells

a. Germ tube
b. Infection peg
c. Haustorial mother cell
d. Appresorium
150. This can grow in complex patterns within
the cell that can be characteristic for different
fungi

a. Germ tube
b. Haustoria
c. Appresorium
d. Infection peg
151. Fungi over season on infected plant parts
as

a. Mycelium
b. Spores
c. Conidia
d. All of the above
152. Fungal specialized survival structure

a. Sclerotia
b. Spores
c. Conidia
d. Mycelia
153. Most of the genetic information in a
bacterial cell is carried on a single
chromosome with

a. Single stranded DNA in a closed circular form

b. Double stranded DNA in a closed circular
form
c. Single stranded RNA in a closed circular form
d. Double stranded RNA in a closed circular
form
154. Plasmids are circles of ___ which replicate
independently of the chromosomes

a. RNA
b. Double stranded RNA
c. DNA
d. Single stranded DNA
155. The causal organism of soft rot of
vegetables

a. Pectobacterium carotovora subsp. carotovora

b. Pectobacterium carotovora
c. Erwinia tracheiphila
d. Erwinia amylovora
156. Color of Pseudomonads in culture medium

a. Greenish
b. Yellowish green
c. Bluish-green diffusible flouscent
d. Creamy white
157. The causal organism of bacterial wilt of
solanaceous crops

a. Pseudomonas solanacearum
b. Xanthomonas campestris
c. Xylella fastidiosa
d. Ralstonia solanacearum
158. Xanthomonas are Gram negative, short
rods, usually 0.4-07 x 0.7-1.8 µm. Motile by
means of

a. Two to three polar flagella

b. Three to four polar flagella
c. Four to five polar flagella
d. One to two polar flagella
159. All species of ___ are plant pathogens and
are found only in association with plants or
plant materials

a. Pseudomonas
b. Xanthomonas
c. Erwinia
160. What is the nucleoprotein of the virus?

a. Capsid
b. RNA
c. DNA
d. b or c
161. Shape of virus which looks like a flexuous
threads

a. Gemini
b. Spherical
c. Bacillus
d. Elongate
162. How many million virus particles can be
produced in each infected cell?

a. 2-3
b. 1-5
c. 3-4
d. 1-10
163. Viruses moves from one cell to another at a
rate of approximately

a. 3 mm/day
b. 2 mm/day
c. 1 mm/day
d. 5 mm/day
164. How does viruses move systematically in
the plant? Is it via

a. Xylem
b. Phloem
c. Plasmodesmata
d. Protoplasmic streaming
165. The structure that differentiates plant
parasites from free-living nematodes

a. Cuticle
b. Esophagus
c. Tail
d. Stylet
166. What is the most destructive stage in the
life cycle of root knot nematode?

a. J1
b. J2
c. J3
d. J4
167. Example of viroid caused disease

a. Potato spindle tuber

b. Bunchy top of abaca
c. Grassy stunt
168. Catechol and protocatechuic acid is an
example of

a. Glycosides
b. Alkaloids
c. Phenolic compounds
d. Toxin
169. In the presence of these compounds, the
conidia

a. Burst
b. Plasmolyzed
c. Dehydrated and thus no infection occurs
d. None of the above
170. Abscission layer is an example of

a. Passive defense structure

b. Histological defense structure
c. Active defense structure
d. None of the above
171. Sudden death of cells surrounding the
pathogen is due to production of

a. Phytoalexin
b. Phenols
c. Hydrolases
d. Alkaloids
172. Solarization and plastic mulching falls under

a. Destruction
b. Elimination
c. Removal
d. All of the above
173. Identify the chemical barrier against
bacterial plant pathogens

a. Metalaxyl
b. Strobilurins
c. Triazoles
d. Fixed copper
174. What is the mode of action of protectant
fungicides?

a. Prevent germination of fungal conidia

b. Dehydrates the conidia
c. Plasmolyzed the conidia
d. Burst the conidia
175. Example of sterol inhibitors

a. Triazoles
b. Benzimidazoles
c. Azoxystrobin
d. Captan
176. Fungicide with preventative and curative
characteristics

a. Sterol inhibitors
b. Strobilurins
c. Triazoles
d. Azoxystrobin
177. Azoxystrobin is an example of

a. Oximinoacetates
b. Beta-methoxyacrylates
c. Phenylamides
d. None of the above
178. Example of fungicide developed for seed
treatment purposes

a. Benomyl
b. Azoxystrobin
c. Captan
d. Difeconazole
179. Mechanisms of biocontrol methods that
utilizes crucifers (Brassicas) as rotation crops

a. Biofumigation
b. Antibiosis
c. Suppressive soils
d. Fungistasis
180. Mechanisms of biocontrol methods which
involves production of anti-microbial
compound by the antagonist

a. Biofumigation
b. Antibiosis
c. Suppressive soils
d. Fungistasis
181. Mechanisms of biocontrol methods which
involves restriction on fungal germination and
growth in soils

a. Biofumigation
b. Antibiosis
c. Suppressive soils
d. Fungistasis
182. Mechanisms of biocontrol methods which
is due to the presence of biological agents in
the soil that suppress disease development

a. Biofumigation
b. Antibiosis
c. Suppressive soils
d. Fungistasis
183. One of the reasons why genetic
engineering approaches should be adopted is
when resistance genes cannot be moved
between plant species by traditional breeding
practices

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
184. Transferring non-host resistance
characteristics controlled by many genes from
other species is possible thru genetic
engineering

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
185. Wide crosses usually involve the transfer of
undesirable linked agronomic traits that come
from the wild relatives. With molecules
engineering methods or through marker-assisted
selection, more backcrosses are needed to make
a resistant variety with good agronomic
characteristics

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
186. Quantitative resistance is easier to work
with because many progeny must be screened
and many replications across different
environments are no longer needed

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
187. The most recent developments, popularly
known as genetic engineering involve site-
directed mutagenesis (“transgenics”) and
direct gene transfer (chimeraplasty)

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
188. Many engineered plants show good
resistance in the lab and greenhouse, but not
in the field

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
189. Public concern about genetic engineering is
high at the moment because the public
perception is that the risks involved in
engineering plants are high

a. False
b. True
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
190. Secondary metabolites that are also toxic to
humans

a. Chitinase
b. Saponins
c. Phenolic compounds
d. All of the above
191. Phase in the process of creating transgenic
plants which involve introduction of foreign
gene into the plant

a. Gene expression
b. Selection
c. Regeneration
d. Transformation
192. Phase in the process of creating transgenic
plants which involve selection and
regeneration of plant cells expressing the gene
to become whole plants

a. Gene expression
b. Selection
c. Regeneration
d. Transformation
193. Phase in the process of creating transgenic
plants which involve introduction of expressed
gene to produce the protein product

a. Gene expression
b. Selection
c. Regeneration
d. Transformation
194. Two general strategies are used to
transform plants. The first strategy is based on
integrative vector systems: e.g. the Ti plasmid
of Agrobacterium tumefaciens and the use of
particle bombardment method

a. True
b. False
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
195. For gene expression, it is common to use
plant promoters or promoters from plant
viruses to turn foreign genes in the proper
plant tissue

a. True
b. False
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
196. For selection and regeneration, it is most
common to use plant tissue culture

a. True
b. False
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
197. Integrated management combines or
integrates, biological and non-biological
control techniques to suppress weeds, insects,
and diseases

a. True
b. False
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
198. Integrated disease management is based
on knowledge and understanding of
economic, environmental, cultural, genetic,
and microbiological factors that determine
crop development and crop use

a. True
b. False
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
199. Generally, it can be said that chemical
control is not only aimed at influencing the
pathogen directly, whereas, integrated control
may not reduce the level of disease by
influencing any or several of the four
components of the disease tetrahedron

a. True
b. False
c. Undecided
d. Don’t know
201. Considering that competition between crop
and weed is worst when both are
morphologically similar; which will be the
serious weed of rice?

a. Echinochloa colona
b. Sphenoclea zeylanica
c. Ipomoea aquatica
d. Cyperus iria
200. Identify which is not part of cultural
management strategy?

a. Use of systemic acquired resistance product

(e.g. Bion)
b. Crop rotation
c. Sowing date
d. Mulching
202. The most popular definition of weeds
states that weeds are plants that are out of
place; which of the choices could best
illustrate this scenario?

a. Corchorus olitorius in onion fields

b. Mimosa pudica in fallow lands
c. Eleusine indica in furrows
d. Arachis pintoi in landscapes
203. Which of the weed definitions will best fit the
situation: “Saccharum spontaneum___ in area
were “kaingin” had been previously done.”

a. Weed is the most important member of the

total pest complex
b. Weeds are aggressive competitors of the crop
c. Weeds are products of disturbed natural
vegetation
d. Weeds are unwanted plants
204. Which of the weed definitions will be appropriate
for the foregoing statements: Weeds are removed
by farmers prior to land preparation. Weeds grow
with the crops; later on, compete aggressively with
the crop. And after harvest, still persist in the area

a. Weed is the most important member of the total

pest complex
b. Weeds are aggressive competitors of the crop
c. Weeds are products of disturbed natural
vegetation
d. Weeds are unwanted plants
205. In the agroecosystem point of view, which
of the weed will fit this weed definition that
states ___ weeds are useless plants

a. Cyperus rotundus
b. Sphenoclea zeylanica
c. Centella asiatica
d. Lantana camara
206. If competition is serious between crop and
weed of similar growth habit, which of the
following weeds will be the watermelon’s
worst weed

a. Rottboellia exaltata
b. Ipomoea triloba
c. Cyperus kyllingia
d. Tridax procumbens
207. If competition for space is the major
consideration, which of the weeds will rank
first as rice worst weed?

a. Leptochloa chinensis
b. Ischaemum rugosum
c. Echinochloa colona
d. Sphenoclea zeylanica
208. Among fishpond weeds, which will require
more effort to remove?

a. Nelumbo
b. Azolla
c. Pistia
d. Hydrilla
209. A farmer sowed rice seeds in his seed bed.
Prior to pulling of the rice seedlings, some
Echinochloa species were found growing with
it. For him, what character will distinguish the
rice from Echinochloa?

a. Color of Echinochloa is lighter than rice

usually
b. Check the shape and the length of the leaves
c. Look for differences in roots
d. None of the above
210. Rottboellia exaltata and Ischaemum
rugosum have similar panicle: which
characteristics should you look for to
distinguish between the species?

a. Color of the stem

b. Upright or decumbent
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
211. Which of the following aquatic weeds is
used in landscaping ponds and water gardens?

a. Hydrilla
b. Pistia
c. Azolla
d. Elodea
212. Which of the following aquatic weeds is
used in aquariums?

a. Hydrilla
b. Pistia
c. Azolla
d. Elodea
213. Onion farmers’ resourcefulness is reflected in
their utilization of onion weeds as food; usually
washing amaranthus weeds and placing it on
top of simmering rice. This led the rice a reddish
color. Which of the following Amaranthus spp.
is the most common weed of onion?

a. Spiny amaranth
b. Slender amaranth
c. Red root amaranth
d. Palmer’s amaranth
214. This is a concept in crop weed competitions
that ensures practicality in weed control
application; it refers to the minimum length of
time during which the crop should be weed-
free to avoid yield reduction. Which of the
following does not fit?

a. Critical Weed Threshold

b. Critical Period of Competition
c. Critical Period for Weed Control
d. Critical Weed-Free Period
215. The most cumbersome weed group based
on life-span are

a. Annuals
b. Biennials
c. Simple perennials
d. Creeping perennials
216. Weed seeds, as most plant seeds are, have
that innate characteristic that endows them
the natural ability to disperse. Which of the
following special adaptations of weed seeds is
usually found in weeds classified under the
Family Asteraceae?

a. Puncture vine
b. Pappus
c. Sandbur
d. Cocklebur
217. Seeds of Bidens pilosa are usually dispersed
artificially, via machineries, and also by
sticking on field workers’ clothing. Among
these special adaptation structures , which
structure is found in Bidens?

a. Puncture vine
b. Spanish needle
c. Cocklebur
d. Seed pod
218. Critical Threshold Level, a basis for
determining crop-weed competition pertains
to the impact of weed number on crops, is
dependent on ___

a. Aggressiveness of weeds
b. Weed density
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
219. Weed science is appropriately defined as the study
of weeds and its control. the statement in the choice
items support this fact except

a. Weeds should be studied because they are part of

nature
b. The study of weeds disregarding the control
measures does not conform with the agricultural
perspective
c. Studies such as Biology or Morphology of a given
weed species give insights on its control
d. Managing the weeds must be salient feature of
research in weed science
220. Allelopathy is a phenomenon occurring
between two plant species wherein one plant
harms another via exudates, aroma and gases.
Which of the following depicts allelopathy?

a. Mungbean and Cyperus rotundus

b. Cucumber seedlings and talahib root
exudates
c. Echinochloa crusgalli and Echinochloa colona
d. Tomato seedlings and algae
For items #221 to 230, use the choices below.
Which herbicide classification best fits the
situation?

a. Timing of application
b. Selectivity or Physiological impact
c. Mobility in Plant
d. Mode of Action
e. Toxicity
f. Site of Application
g. Chemistry or Herbicide Groupings
221. A farmer needs to apply herbicide after sowing
to prevent weed-pressure> A
222. The active ingredient is a major concern of the
herbicide-product developer> G
223. The farmer technician is concerned whether
the herbicide will affect the crop where the
herbicide will be applied> C
224. After an untoward incident that occurred; the
farmer who sprayed pesticide was rushed to the
hospital due to probable poisoning. The doctor
asked for the color of the band at the bottom of
the pesticide that the farmer used> E
225. The weed scientist is concerned whether
the herbicide will cause phytotoxic symptoms
on crops such as burnt leaves in as much as a
few hours to one day after application> B
226. Another concern of the weed scientist is
whether the herbicide will affect the sprayed
areas of the plant only or all the plants within
the area applied> C
227. When a student asks what the color band
at the bottom of the label signifies> E
228. When during crop maturity, a farmer (seed-
grower) decided to spray post directedly, the
weed which threatens the quality of seed> A

229. When a chemist decided to research on

evaluating different brandnames of herbicides
with the same active ingredient> G

330. When acute LD50 was quantified> E

For items #231 to 235, use the choices below
that you think pertains to the adjuvant

a. Dispersing agent
b. Spreading agent
c. Sticking agent
d. Humectant
e. Synergist
231. The climate change brought about the
increasing temperatures in the Philippines.
Which of the adjuvant should be added to the
formulation, to lengthen the duration from
the time the spray droplet touches the leaf
surface to evaporation?> D

232. This adjuvant ensures that the farmer need

not mix the solution from time to time while
applying or spraying, since the solutions is
kept thoroughly mixed> A
233. Since the design of the common sprayer
head does not allow for a mist-like release of
the solution. Which of the spray supplement
could be added to improve/enhance contact
between solution droplets and leaf surface?> B
234. Most leaves have a waxy surface layer.
Which adjuvant should be included to improve
adhesion specifically of the active ingredient
residues? > C
235. Some herbicides are made more effective by
this kind on adjuvant> E
236. All noxious weeds are characterized as
follows except for ____

a. Rapid vegetative growth

b. Efficient and early reproduction
c. Ability to cause significant damage even at
low densities
d. Ability to survive
237. Onion and garlic crops are easily affected
by weeds like Cyperaceae and some
broadleaves. It is most likely due to ___

a. Morph of onion and garlic

b. Aggressiveness of Cyperaceae
c. Environmental factors affecting both weed
and crop
d. Sensitivity of both onion and garlic
238. 2,4-D is classified as

a. Aliphatics
b. Amides
c. Phenoxy derivatives
d. Nitrile derivatives
239. An approach to weed management that
implies non-exchange of weeds from one area
to another

a. Prevention
b. Eradication
c. Control
d. None of the above
240. This weed management approach is
deemed ideal for it deals with both present
and future weed problems

a. Prevention
b. Eradication
c. Control
d. None of the above
241. Among the weed management approaches,
this appears to be the most practical since it
aims for desirable weed suppression

a. Prevention
b. Eradication
c. Control
d. None of the above
242. Due to certain circumstances, the weed
management approach can be applicable in
confined, high-maintenance areas

a. Prevention
b. Eradication
c. Control
d. None of the above
243. When the weed management level applies
balance between economic gains and actual
cost of weed control practiced, it is said to be
___

a. Prevention
b. Eradication
c. Control
d. None of the above
244. For this management level or approach to
be effective, quarantines must be established
and legislative control required

a. Prevention
b. Eradication
c. Control
d. None of the above
245. Altering of weed itinerary in the field best
characterizes this control method

a. Physical
b. Biological
c. Chemical
d. Cultural
246. Major weeds of crops deposited in the soil
seedbank are estimated to be at ___

a. 1-5%
b. 10-20%
c. 50-70%
d. 70-90%
247. Both the negative and positive effects of
weeds on man contribute to this nature of
weeds

a. Vigour
b. Duality
c. Harmfulness
d. Persistence
248. When God created paradise, weeds are
present

a. True
b. False
c. Could be true
d. Whatever
249. ____ ensures that distribution of herbicide
solution in the field during spraying is uniform

a. Gravimetric
b. Sprayer calibration
c. Readjustment
d. Spraying tactic
250. Weeds are crops have similar requirements
that is why weeds are characterized as

a. Competitive
b. Reproductive
c. Persistent
d. Pernicious
251. In addressing weed management, there are
two type of approaches that could be
performed: proactive and reactive. Among the
levels of weed management which could be
deemed proactive

a. Eradication
b. Preventive
c. Control
d. Could be a or b
252. Repeated use of triazine herbicides has
encouraged the build-up of grassy weeds.
Among the selection below, which genus of
grassy weed is not common to maize?

a. Panicum/Paspalum
b. Rottboellia/Striga
c. Brachiaria/Digitaria
d. Imperata/Saccharum
253. The weed which occurs in sorghum, millet
and maize, as a hemi-root parasite

a. Rottboellia
b. Striga
c. Panicum
d. Paspalum
254. The important broadleaf weed of legume
crops are listed below except for ___

a. Amaranthus
b. Bidens
c. Cenchrus
d. Tridax
255. The onions’ life span is about 110 days. The
critical period of competition in onion is ___

a. 32 to 56 DAT
b. 8 TO 10 WAE
c. About 120 DAT
d. None of the above
256. The established critical period of
competition in cucumber is ____

a. 30 to 40 DAE
b. 60 to 80 DAE
c. 10 to 20 DAE
d. 50 to 60 DAE
257. The essence of the critical period of
competition in crops is______

a. That it is absolutely the first 1/3of the total crop

weed stage
b. That weeds should be controlled in the early
stage of the crop
c. That weeds should be under control and
sustained in the growing period until crop is able
to compete effectively with weeds
d. That weeds are supposed to be not in the
agroecological scenario
258. The most applied and well-developed
control method for vegetable crops tend to be
____ because these are grown on relatively
small areas

a. Physical
b. Cultural
c. Chemical
d. Biological
259. Average yields due to weeds in yam
(“ube”), ranges between 40-90%. The species
of grassy weed that is noxious to yam is _____

a. Imperata cylindrica
b. Cynodon dactylon
c. Saccharum spontaneum
d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
260. Manihot esculenta Crantz, though more
relatively tolerant to pests such as weeds,
could have a yield loss of 75 to 95% if weed
growth is uncontrolled. If crop duration is 10
to 24 months, what is the best gauge of its
critical period of competition?

a. Could be 3 to 4 months after planting

b. Once the crop canopy has been formed
c. About 2 to 4 months after planting
d. None of the above
261. Perennial species are known as the most
serious weeds of bananas and plantains.
Which of the weeds below is not?

a. Axonopus
b. Cynodon
c. Pennisetum
d. Commelina
262. Cover plants are used to suppress weed
growth and have been widely recommended
for bananas. Of the list below, which is the
unlikely choice?

a. Crotolaria juncea
b. Vigna radiata
c. Vigna unguiculata
d. Arachis pintoi
263. Physical methods of weed control in citrus
orchards would include the following choices
except _____

a. Flaming
b. Burning
c. Hot water
d. Slashing
264. Cotton is known to be very susceptible to
weed competition. Data shows that nearly 30%
of world cotton production is lost due to the
adverse effects of weeds. If the crop is
unweeded, losses can be up to 90%. Of the
choices, which weed should not be present
throughout the crop duration?

a. Amaranthus and Centella

b. Bidens and Cenchrus
c. Portulaca and Trianthema
d. Rottboellia and Ischaemum
265. Of the broadleaf weeds of sugarcane listed
in the choices below, which clings to
sugarcane?

a. Cleome
b. Euphorbia
c. Amaranthus
d. Ipomoea
266. The genus of weed which is tagged “root-
parasitic” is the main problem in tobacco.
What is its genus?

a. Orobanche
b. Sinapsis
c. Drymaria
d. Oxalis
267. In 1969, Holm listed the top 10 world’s
worst weeds. In 1977, together with Plucknett,
Pancho and Herbenger, they listed 18 species.
Two species from the 1969 list were not
included in the 1977 list. What are these?

a. Portulaca and Chenopodium

b. Lantana and Panicum
c. Digitaria and Convolvulus
d. Cyperus and Cynodon
268. The genus Echinochloa, is composed of
about 50 species. Which 2 species are
considered as world’s worst weeds?

a. crus-galli and colona

b. Indicum and colonum
c. Rotundus and iria
d. Hybridus and spinosus
269. The broadleaf weed belonging to the plant
family, Asreraceae, tagged as an invasive weed
by pasture managers is _____

a. Bidens pilosa
b. Tridax procumbens
c. Euphorbia heterophylla
d. Chromolaena odorata
270. Of the following aquatic weed: scientific
and common name combinations, which does
not seem right?

a. Eichhornia crassipes- water hyacinth

b. Salvinia molesta- water fern
c. Nelumbo nucifera- water lotus
d. Pistia stratiotes- water lettuce
271. Ducks, as weeds control agent, is usually
considered as this type of biological control
agent

a. Classical biological control

b. Augmentative biological control
c. Natural biological control
d. None of the above
272. Of the herbicides formulations, this is
known as flowables because finely ground
active ingredient is blended with liquid
surfactants

a. Wettable powder
b. Water dispersible granules
c. Suspension concentrates
d. Emulsifiable concentrates
273.His herbicide formulation requires that
water insoluble active ingredient be dissolved
in an organic solvent and blended with
surfactants

a. Wettable powder
b. Suspension concentrates
c. Emulsifiable concentrates
d. Dispersible granules
274. Herbicide names listed on labels include
chemical name, common name, and trademark
name. Glyphosate is a common name and its
chemical name is N (phosphonomethyl)
glycine. Of the choices, which is not its brand
name (trademark name)?

a. Round-up
b. Sting
c. Power
d. Goal
275. These following herbicide groups are
known to inhibit cell division. Which of the
choices does not inhibit cell division?

a. Bipyridiniums
b. Amides
c. Carbamates
d. Chloroacetanilides
276. Among the four rat species, this is the rat
species commonly found in rice fields

a. Rattus rattus
b. Rattus tanezumi
c. Rattus argentiventer
d. Rattus exulans
277. Which genera of bird pests in fields are
migratory?

a. Bubulcus
b. Lonchura
c. Ploceus
d. None of the above
278. The most common control method used by
farmers for the control of snails would likely
be _____

a. Chemical
b. Biological
c. Physical
d. Cultural
279. Which of the following signs of
presence/damage represent that birds are the
culprit?

a. Missing hills
b. Cut grains
c. Milky substance
d. Presence of strawberry colored eggs
280. This pest will likely infest or grow in
numbers if conditions such as staggered
planting and ripening of grains are occurring

a. Rats
b. Snails
c. Weeds
d. Birds
281. Which of the following pests shows similar
damage on rice ______ whitehead, i.e. similar
to Leptocorisa acuta or rice bug

a. Rats
b. Snails
c. Birds
d. Slugs
282. Some pests have similar damage. What
damage signs are common to rats and snails?

a. Missing plants
b. Chopped plants
c. Strawberry colored eggs
d. Plants cut near base at 45o angle
283. The stage of rice most vulnerable to golden
snail damage

a. Early vegetative stage

b. Late vegetative stage
c. Tillering
d. Panicle initiation
284. The most common physical method for
golden snail IPM is ____

a. Staking
b. Handpicking
c. Straining
d. None of the above
285. Which cultural control method is best for
lessening the populations of golden snail in
rice?

a. Burning
b. Crop rotation
c. Mulching
d. Water management
286. Rodents could live for one year or longer;
females reproducing up to 4 times a year. If
the average litter size is 6. how many
offsprings can one female rat produce in a
year?

a. About 25
b. About 45
c. About 65
d. About 100
287. In view of the many pests in the fields,
oftentimes damage or signs of damage are
similar. Which of the following would be
definitely a rat rodent damage in ricefields?

a. Presence of rodent trails or droppings

b. Damage tillers cut near base at 45o angle
c. Missing hills
d. Lurking rats in the field
288. Which of the following is not a
recommended rodenticide for rice IPM?

a. Ratoxin
b. Tomorin
c. Racumin
d. Diphaconyl
289. Handpicking of snails is not practical for
direct-seeded rice. Which of the following will
be appropriate?

a. Construction of small canals along edges of

rice paddies, to facilitate easier collection
b. Draining the paddies after broadcasting so
that snails will follow the flow of water
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
290. Birds cause the most serious damage this
period in the fields

a. Vegetative stage
b. Sowing time
c. Fallow period
d. None of the above
291. Three methods of killing field rats, are
suggested for rat control. which do you think
is “painless” for rats?

a. Blanket-system
b. Acute poisons
c. Anti-coagulant poisons
d. None of the above
292. Zinc phosphide, deemed by man as “really
effective” in killing rats is ____

a. An acute poison
b. An anti-coagulant poison
c. Both a and b
d. Neither a nor b
293. The trade name for Zinc phosphide is

a. Cyanogas
b. Rattos
c. Zelio Phosphido
d. Rat Bait ZP
294. The reason for the continuous gnawing of
rats on stems and fruits is due to the fact that

a. Rats are voracious

b. Rats’ chisel-like front teeth or incisors grow
continuously throughout its life time
c. Rats need to keep their teeth at normal
length
d. Gnawing is their hobby
295. The gestation period, or pregnancy (from
mating to delivery), of rats is

a. 2 weeks
b. 3 weeks
c. 4 weeks
d. 5 weeks
296. Feeding and movement of rats in the field
happen during

a. The early morning

b. The middle of the day
c. The afternoon
d. The nighttime
297. Rats are able to move around the field
because

a. They have excellent vision

b. They have specialized tails
c. They have extremely well-developed sense of
hearing and smelling
d. They could grope around nibbly
298. Some known field products which are
preferred by rats, except for ____

a. Corn
b. Rootcrops
c. Coconuts
d. Leafy greens
299. Some known organisms who use snails as
food source, except for ____

a. Ducks
b. Swine
c. Man
d. Dogs
300. Recorded biological control agent for
rodents in rice fields include the following
except for _____

a. Snakes
b. Cats
c. Deer
d. Rats