ANIMAL SCIENCE

1. The parasympathetic nervous system is called the

craniosacral system because the nerve fibers arise from the
cranial nerves and sacral portion of the spinal cord. The
following are the effect of parasympathetic stimulation of a
given organ except

a. Contracts pupil of the eye

b. Dilate blood vessels
c. Accelerates heartbeat
d. Excites gastrointestinal motility
2. Reflex centers are located throughout the central nervous
system and are involved with the integration of more complex
reflexes. When the animal sneeze and cough, the reflex center
involved in these reactions is the

a. Hypothalamus
b. Cerebellum
c. Medulla oblongata
d. Cerebrum
3. Which of the following is not true about pain reception?

a. Pain receptors are bare nerve endings of sensory neurons

b. Pain could arise from visceral organs
c. Referred pain could be felt on the surface of the body
d. Diversion of attention from a painful part increases pain
perception
4. The retina is the innermost tunic of the eye which is composed
of the light sensitive cell layer consisting of the rods and cones.
Which of the following is not true about the rods and cones?

a. Rods are more sensitive to light than cones

b. Cones are responsible for the color vision
c. At dusk or when light intensity is low, the cones are sensitive
d. Chemicals in the rods and cones decompose on exposure to
light
5. Which of the following statements does not describe the
similarities and differences of muscle cells of the body?

a. Both skeletal and visceral muscles are striated

b. All muscle cells are capable of contraction or shortening of
cell
c. Cardiac and visceral muscles are involuntary in action
d. All muscles are capable of undergoing hypertrophy
6. Water is the most important constituent of the body fluids
comprising 60% of the total body weight. The following
statements best described the functions of water except

a. It functions as a lubricant
b. Helps regulate body temperature
c. Transport glandular products
d. None of the above
7. If certain organ reached normal size and it decreases its size,
the term for this is

a. Atrophy
b. Hypertrophy
c. Aplasia
d. Hypoplasia
8. If an animal had an allergic response, what kind of white blood
cells will increase in number in response to the allergens?

a. Neutrophils
b. Lymphocytes
c. Eosinophils
d. Basophils
9. What will happen to a red blood cell when its bathing fluid has
lower osmotic pressure than the cell?

a. The cell will move

b. The cell will shrink
c. The cell will burst
d. The cell will grow
10. What part of the bone is responsible for the increase in the
length of a growing bone?

a. The epiphysis
b. The epiphyseal cartilage
c. The marrow cavity
d. The diaphysis
11. The following statements describe the physiological response
of the bone except

a. Bone can decrease in size

b. Bone can increase in size
c. Bone can undergo repair
d. Bone cannot reshape itself
12. The enarthrodial joint moves just like a ball and a socket,
which of the following is the best example of this joint

a. Atlanto-axil joint
b. Carpal joint
c. Hip joint
d. Fetlock joint
13. The cardiovascular system is composed of the blood vessels
together with the heart, the following are the functions of this
system except

a. Carries oxygen to the lungs from the different tissues

b. Transports hormone
c. Assists in overcoming diseases
d. Helps maintain water equilibrium in the body
14. This type of blood circulation functions to transport nutrients
from the digestive tract to the liver

a. Pulmonary
b. Systemic
c. Portal
d. Cardiac
15. The respiratory system is a complementary system of the
cardiovascular system which is involved in the following
functions except

a. Supply oxygen to the blood and remove carbon dioxide from

the blood
b. Temperature regulation
c. Elimination of water
d. Overcoming diseases
16. During panting, there is an increase in ventilatory rate but
reduced tidal volume because the increase in air movement is
primarily in the upper airways that are not sites of gas
exchange. These airways are called

a. Atmospheric dead space

b. Lung dead space
c. Anatomic dead space
d. Physiologic dead space
17. The mouth is the beginning of the digestive system, and it
functions as follows except

a. Initial breakdown of food

b. Use for grasping mechanism
c. Use as offensive and defensive weapon
d. For chemical digestion of food
18. The front cutting teeth of animals are referred to as the

a. Canine
b. Premolars
c. Incisors
d. Tusks
19. Which is not true about the digestive system of chicken?

a. Prehension is a function of the beak

b. The crop serves as temporary storage for food
c. There are two cecae and no rectum in chicken
d. The stomach is divided into a glandular and muscular portion
20. The starch-digesting enzyme amylase is present in the saliva
of some domestic animals and it is most abundant in the

a. Dog
b. Pig
c. Horse
d. None of the above
21. Rennin is an enzyme that coagulates milk and reduces its rate
of passage through the gastrointestinal stomach. It is secreted
in the stomach of what animal?

a. Pig
b. Dog
c. Horse
d. Cow
22. There are three processes involved in urine formation, which
of the following is not included?

a. Glomerular filtration
b. Selective tubular reabsorption
c. Selective tubular absorption
d. Selective tubular secretion
23. This hormone is involved in the regulation of kidney function
by increasing the reabsorption of sodium ions to decrease urine
volume

a. ADH
b. Aldosterone
c. Renin
d. Pitocin
24. Which statement is not true about animals whose testis/testes
failed to descend into the scrotum?

a. A cryptorchid is liely to be sterile

b. A monorchid is fertile
c. Both cryptorchid and monorchid produce testosterone
d. Both cryptorchid and monorchid could be used as breeders
25. Spermatids are the cells resulting from the second meiotic
division in the seminiferous tubules. What is the term for series
of functional and structural changes undergone by a spermatid
to become spermatozoa?

a. Spermatogenesis
b. Spermiogenesis
c. Acrosome reaction
d. Mitosis
26. The Follicle Stimulating Hormone promotes spermatogenesis
and follicular growth, however a protein hormone produce a
negative feedback effect on the adenohypophysis to suppress
further of FSH. What is this hormone?

a. Inhibin
b. Rennin
c. Luteinin
d. Prohibin
27. This hormone is responsible for the rupture of fully grown
follicles in the ovary

a. Follicle Stimulating Hormone

b. Luteinizing Hormone
c. Estrogen
d. Progesterone
28. The most important factor associated with seasonal breeding
in domestic animals is

a. Nutritional status of the animals

b. The specie characteristics
c. Photoperiod
d. The age of the animals
29. These are basket cells that surround the alveoli and ducts that
causes contraction during milk let down

a. Glomerulus
b. Myoepithelial cells
c. Lacteals
d. Capillaries
30. In ruminants, dietary carbohydrates are fermented in the
rumen to become volatile fatty acids. What VFA is the major
source of glucose and glycogen in the ruminant?

a. Propionic acid
b. Acetic acid
c. Lactic acid
d. Butyric acid
31. Only the exocrine secretions of the pancreas are involved in
the digestive process. Which of the following secretions are
involved in the neutralization of the chyme from the stomach?

a. Protease
b. Lipase
c. Bicarbonates
d. Amylase
32. The following are statements about body temperatures in
animals, which is incorrect?

a. Different parts of the body can differ in temperature

b. Animals that are active during the day and sleep at night
have body temperatures lower in the morning than in the
afternoon
c. Mammals and birds can maintain a relatively constant
temperature regardless of the temperature of the
surroundings
d. None of the above
33. When an animal is exposed to extreme environmental heat,
which is not a physiologic response of its body?

a. There will be vasodilatation

b. There will be vasoconstriction
c. There will be an increase in evaporation los like sweating
and panting
d. All of the above
34. The epididymis is a male structure with the following
functions except

a. Serves as storage space for spermatozoa

b. Reabsorbs seminiferous tubular fluid
c. Site of maturation for spermatozoa
d. None of the above
35. The S-shape structure in the penis is called the sigmoid
flexure. Erection causes extension of this structure. Sigmoid
flexure is located pre-scrotally in what male animal?

a. Boar
b. Stallion
c. Bull
d. Ram
36. Which of these muscles pull the flaccid penis back into the
prepuce during ejaculation?

a. Bulbospongiosus muscle
b. Retractor penis muscle
c. Ischiocavernous muscle
d. Cremaster muscle
37. Testosterone is the hormone secreted by the male animal. The
following are the functions of this hormone except

a. Development and maintenance of libido

b. Development of Leydig cells
c. Responsible for the secretory activity of the accessory organs
d. Development of body features associated with the male
38. Estrogen is the female hormone secreted by the ovarian
follicle, it is involved in the following functions except

a. Initiation of sexual receptivity

b. Regulation of secretion of luteinizing hormone
c. Promotion of the lobuloalveolar growth in the mammary
gland
d. Stimulation of duct growth in the mammary gland
39. Ventilation is the process by which air is moved in and out of
the lungs. The volume of air that moved during each breath is
known as

a. Residual volume
b. Inspiratory reserve volume
c. Tidal volume
d. Respiratory volume
40. The influx of sodium ions inside the nerve cell results to ____
of the resting membrane potential

a. Polarization
b. Depolarization
c. Hyperpolarization
d. Inverse polarization
41. One of the four known native species of pigs endemic in the
Philippines found in the Visayan region

a. Sus philippinensis
b. Sus cebifrons
c. Sus oliveri
d. Sus ahoenobarbus
42. The economic trait in pigs that can be associated to feed
efficiency

a. Litter size
b. Growth rate
c. Back fat thickness
d. Birth weight
43. Cooked pork contains about 23% protein. To satisfy 50% of
the 35g daily protein allowance a person should consume how
much cooked pork?

a. 55 g
b. 64 g
c. 76 g
d. 98 g
44. Growth does not only involve increase in size and weight but
also changes in the organs. The first to reach full development
in the pig’s body is

a. Adipose tissue
b. Skeletal system
c. Lean muscle
d. Reproductive organs
45. A sow bred 25 March can be expected to farrow on

a. 10 July
b. 17 July
c. 21 July
d. 28 July
46. Segregated early weaning of piglets allows the advantage of

a. Increased reproductive rate of sows

b. Reduced risk of piglet infection and mortality
c. Lower feed cost
d. Faster growth rate
47. Mothering ability of a sow is measured by the number of

a. Piglets born alive per sow per year

b. Piglets weaned per sow per year
c. Piglets reared per sow per year
d. Fatteners sold per sow per year
48. Pigs with a tendency to have thick carcass fat tend to

a. Have high feed conversion ratio

b. Reach market weight fast
c. Resist heat stress effectively
d. Have high lean percentage
49. Reproductive longevity stars from first mating to last
weaning. Gilts expected to have good reproductive longevity
must possess this characteristic

a. At least 14 functional teats

b. Long, wedge-shaped body
c. Strong legs and arched back
d. Well developed ham and shoulder
50. The physical attributes of a gilt that can describe its potential
for mothering ability

a. Legs and back

b. Mammary system and body length
c. Development of ham, loin and shoulder
d. Shape and size of vulva
51. In the process of upgrading, heterosis is expected to be
highest in

a. F1 50:50
b. F2 75:25
c. F3 87.5:12.5
d. All equal
52. In the three-way cross where P1 AxB, p2 CxAB, what is the
expected genetic constitution of the tri-hybrid progeny relative
to breeds A-B-C?

a. 1:1:1
b. 1:1:2
c. 1:2:3
d. none
53. A boar is assumed to have reached puberty when

a. 6 months and weighing 80-90 kg

b. Manifest mounting behavior
c. Able to produce semen with viable sperm cells
d. Grunts and become restless when there is a female in heat
54. The minimum required sperm count per inseminate in 3
billion. A 300 ml ejaculate with a concentration of 200 million
sperm cells per mL can produce how many inseminates?

a. 15 doses
b. 18 doses
c. 20 doses
d. 23 doses
55. Shelf life of a processed boar semen for artificial
insemination can be prolonged by storing at approximately 40
hours after the onset of estrus. What is the temperature range
for storage?

a. 2-8oC
b. 10-14oC
c. 16-17oC
d. 20oC
56. Optimum conception is achieved if insemination is performed
12 hours before ovulation or

a. 14 hours after onset of estrus

b. 22 hours after onset of estrus
c. 28 hours after onset of estrus
d. 32 hours after onset of estrus
57. A sow was served by artificial insemination. At what stage
can it be assumed pregnant?

a. Missed heat period after 3 weeks

b. Absence of estrus after 2nd heat control or day 42 after mating
c. Markedly gained weight
d. Mammary system enlarge and milk is secreted
58. A sow on its first parity gave birth to only 6 piglets. The best
decision to undertake is

a. Cull the sow for having poor reproductive performance

b. Retain the sow up to 3rd parity
c. Review performance of the AI technician
d. Try new method of mating the sow
59. Early introduction of solid diet to suckling piglets is primarily
intended to

a. Augment feed intake of piglets

b. Allow early weaning to increase reproductive rate of the sow
c. Ensure heavy piglets at weaning
d. Prevent lost of body condition of the sow
60. In case pre-weaning piglets suffer from scouring., the
immediate course of action must be

a. Withdraw solid feed given to piglets

b. Withdraw feed of the sow
c. Administer antibiotics to the piglets
d. Administer antibiotics to the sow
61. Type of feeding scheme that aims to achieve maximum
growth rate thereby allowing more pigs slaughtered per year

a. Restricted
b. Ad libitum
c. Combination
d. All
62. Excessive feeding immediately after mating
predisposes a sow to suffer

a. Obesity
b. Repeat breeding
c. Low litter size
d. Early embryonic losses
63. Normally, a lactating sow is given 2 kg for maintenance plus
0.3 kg per piglet and + 0.5 kg based on body condition. Late in
lactation a sow was in poor condition for raising 13 piglets. To
recover, the ration of the sow must be

a. 2.8 kg/day
b. 5.9 kg/day
c. 6.4 kg/day
d. 8.0 kg/day
64. Pigs with body weight less than 50 kg require ration
amounting to 5% of their body weight. How much feed in a
week is required to feed 25 fatteners weighing an average of 32
kg

a. 1.68 kg
b. 16.8 kg
c. 168 kg
d. 1680 kg
65. Most commonly used method of identification in swine
production

a. Ear notch
b. Ear tag
c. Ear tattoo
d. Ear brand
66. Cannibalism in the form of tail biting in growing pigs
can be reduced by

a. Teeth clipping
b. Ad lib feeding
c. Reducing light intensity
d. Tail docking
67. A sow failed to give birth on the expected date and appears to
give no sign of impending parturition. The immediate action to
take is

a. Check breeding record for possible error on date of breeding

b. Check sow for pseudo pregnancy
c. Administer exogenous hormone to induce parturition
d. Prepare for caesarian operation of the sow
68. A sow apparently is having difficulty in farrowing. The
appropriate assistance to the sow to undertake is

a. Administer oxytocin to enhance contraction of the uterus

b. Check for obstruction in the birth canal
c. Leave the sow alone
d. Allow the sow to stand
69. A sow farrowed a large litter. Which among the decisions is
the best option?

a. Foster the smallest to eliminate the weakest in the litter

b. Foster the largest for it has a higher chance of competing and
survival
c. Foster piglets randomly to give equal chances to all the
piglets in the litter
d. Consider not fostering and let nature allow survival of the
fittest
70. Transfer of endo-parasite from sow to piglets can be
prevented by administering broad spectrum anthelmintic to the
sow. When is the best time to do it?

a. 2 weeks before mating

b. 10 days before expected date of farrowing
c. On the day of farrowing before allowing the piglets to nurse
from the sow
d. At weaning time before the piglets are separated from the
sow
71. A newly castrated piglet was found dead with extended stiff
limbs, erect ears and the tail was also stiff. The piglet is
suffering from what disease?

a. Blackleg
b. Parturient paresis
c. Tetanus
d. Pseudorabies
72. Foot and mouth disease is a contagious viral disease of
ruminants and pigs which is characterized by fever, vesicles in
the mouth and foot areas. The following are the recommended
preventive measures for FMD except

a. Vaccination
b. Slaughter of all affected and in-contact susceptible animals
c. Strict restriction on movement of animals and vehicles
around the infected premises
d. None of the above
73. Blackleg is a bacterial disease characterized by
emphysematous swelling in the heavy muscles of what animal?

a. Cattle
b. Pig
c. Horse
d. Chicken
74. Infectious diseases are caused by microorganisms and could
be classified as contagious or non-contagious. Which of the
following diseases is considered as non-contagious infectious
disease?

a. Hog cholera
b. Tetanus
c. Pseudorabies
d. Tuberculosis
75. Coccidiosis is common in chicken and can cause decreased
grown rate to high percentage of sick birds, severe diarrhea and
high mortality. The causative agent of this disease is

a. Roundworm
b. Flatworm
c. Bacteria
d. Protozoa
76. Toxoid is the recommended preventive measure for Tetanus
in pigs, ruminants and horses. Giving of toxoid will confer
what type of immunity?

a. Natural passive immunity

b. Natural active immunity
c. Artificial passive immunity
d. Artificial active immunity
77. Which of the following animals is most sensitive to the
neurotoxin produced by Clostridium tetani?

a. Chicken
b. Horse
c. Dog
d. Pig
78. Outstanding lesions observed in this contagious viral disease
in chicken include a swollen and edematous cloacal bursa and
hemorrhagic pectoral, thigh and leg muscles. The disease is

a. Fowl plague
b. Diptheria
c. Gumboro Disease
d. Avian Pest
79. Avian pneumoencephalitis is a common poultry disease that
is characterized by respiratory signs like coughing and
sneezing and nervous signs like twisting of the neck, paralysis
and drooping wings. This disease is caused by

a. Poxvirus
b. Birnavirus
c. Coronavirus
d. Paramyxovirus
80. Fowl pox is a common disease of chicken which is
characterized by proliferative lesions in the skin that progress
to thick scabs and by lesions in the gastrointestinal tract and
respiratory tract. Which of the following is not vaccinated
against fowl Pox?

a. Layers
b. Broilers
c. Breeders
d. None of the above
81. This is an acute respiratory disease of chicken characterized
by nasal discharge, sneezing and swelling of the face under the
eyes

a. Infectious Coryza
b. Chronic Respiratory Disease
c. Newcastle Disease
d. Fowlpox
82. The infective stage of Fasciola gigantica in ruminants is the

a. Miracidium
b. Rediae
c. Metacercaria
d. Cercaria
83. The mode of infection of Schistosoma japonicum (blood
fluke) in both man and animals is through

a. Ingestion of the metacercaria

b. Skin penetration of cercaria
c. Ingestion of the cercaria
d. Skin penetration of the rediae
84. Haemonchus contortus is a common roundworm that causes
severe anemia in ruminants. This endoparasite is found in the

a. Rumen
b. Small intestine
c. Abomasum
d. Cecum
85. Which of the following ectoparasite does not parasitize
ruminants?

a. Mite
b. Flea
c. Tick
d. Lice
86. The disease condition caused by mite in animals is
known as

a. Pediculosis
b. Mange
c. Dermatitis
d. Surra
87. Surra is a protozoan disease of horse and ruminants which is
commonly transmitted by biting flies. It causes intermittent
fever and anemia, the causative agent for this disease is

a. Trypanosoma evansi
b. Trypanosoma cruzi
c. Trypanosoma equiperdum
d. Trypanosoma brucei
88. Newcastle Disease La Sota vaccine is given to chicks using
this route of administration

a. Intraocular
b. Wing web
c. Intramuscular
d. Subcutaneous
89. Fowl pox vaccine is given in poultry through this route
of administration

a. Drinking water
b. Wing web
c. Intramuscular
d. Spray
90. Which of the following is not a reason for vaccination
failure?

a. Presence of maternal antibodies

b. Presence of disease
c. Immunosuppression
d. None of the above
91. This disinfectant is often used to cover dead carcasses when
burying

a. Phenol
b. Chlorine
c. Quicklime
d. Formalin
92. This metabolic disorder is seen just before or during
parturition because of a decrease in calcium serum level

a. Milk fever
b. Bloat
c. Tetany
d. Ketosis
93. The larvae of mosquitoes are also known as

a. Tumblers
b. Wrigglers
c. Snorkets
d. Nits
94. The larvae of biting flies could develop in the subcutaneous
tissue of the skin or organs of domestic animal and develop the
condition called

a. Mange
b. Breech
c. Myiasis
d. Psoriaris
95. A reactive defense of the body that results from increase in
body temperature brought by the presence of microorganisms
in the body of the animal is termed

a. Hypothermia
b. Fever
c. Hyperthermia
d. Chill
96. The following are causes of bloat in ruminants except

a. High grain diets

b. Pure legume pasture
c. Esophageal obstruction
d. None of the above
97. Contagious Ecthyma is an infectious dermatitis of sheep and
goat that affects primarily the lips of young. Another name for
this disease is

a. Foot and Mouth Disease

b. Orf
c. Sore blister
d. Pyoderma
98. This refers to a disease that spreads rapidly over a large
area

a. Endemic
b. Epizootic
c. Sporadic
d. Enzootic
99. Anthrax is an acute febrile disease of warm blooded animals
including man. This disease in man is called

a. Bang’s disease
b. Woolsorter’s disease
c. Lockjaw
d. Conjunctivitis
100. Which of the following biological agents will produce solid
and lasting immunity?

a. Modified live vaccine

b. Toxoid
c. Inactivated vaccine
d. Antiserum
101. The scientific name of beef cattle that is common in
tropical areas

a. Bos indicus
b. Bos taurus
c. Bos caballo
d. Bos hircus
102. The new scientific name of Philippine carabao

a. Bos bubalis
b. Bubalus bubalis carabanensis
c. Bubalus buffalo
d. Bubalus carabao
103. In a cow-calf operation, the standard weaning weight
of Brahman and its crosses

a. 125 kg
b. 150 kg
c. 175 kg
d. 200 kg
104. The recommended rebreeding time before a cow must be
culled

a. 2 times
b. 3 times
c. 4 times
d. 5 times
105. Under continuous breeding program in beef cattle
production, bull culling should be done

a. Yearly
b. Every 2 years
c. Every 4 years
d. Every 5 years
106. In beef cattle breeding, what is the recommended bull to
cow ratio under normal situation

a. 1:20
b. 1:30
c. 1:40
d. 1:50
107. Before breeding, a ready to breed heifers should have
an average bodyweight of

a. 250 kg
b. 300 kg
c. 350 kg
d. 400 kg
108. The distinguishing features of Philippine carabao are the
two diagonal stripes on its brisket or known as

a. Chevon
b. Chevron
c. Stripes
d. Liners
109. A simple instrument that is commonly used in
castrating large ruminants

a. Emasculator
b. Trocar
c. Castrator
d. Matador
110. An abnormal condition affecting reproduction wherein
female twin in mixed sexed twins occur

a. Pre-martin
b. Free-martin
c. Mixed twins
d. Martins
111. Usually, a stag that is used as draft animal

a. Bull
b. Sire
c. Bullock
d. Steer
112. The total number of animals carried per unit of pasture and
it is measured in terms of animal unit

a. Stocking rate
b. Grazing pressure
c. Stocking density
d. General herd
113. The recommended post partum breeding in beef cattle

a. 45-60 days
b. 30 days
c. 21 days
d. 3 months
114. Fresh forage offered to cattle under confinement

a. Silage
b. Soilage
c. Silo
d. Herbage
115. Fermented feeds for cattle and preserved under
anaerobic condition

a. Silage
b. Soilage
c. Silo
d. Herbage
116. To consider as good silage, the proper pH range of the
ensiling materials should be

a. 4.2-4.5
b. 3.2-3.5
c. 5.2-5.5
d. 3.0-4.0
117. A good silage should contain how many percent lactic
acid?

a. 5-9%
b. 10-15%
c. 1-5%
d. 15-20%
118. A container or structure that is used in silage making

a. Silo
b. Silage
c. Soilage
d. Ensiling
119. In establishing beef cattle or buffalo enterprise, what is the
most important consideration?

a. Breed
b. Housing
c. Labor
d. Feed
120. What is the normal pulse rate of beef cattle?

a. 40-60/ minute
b. 20-40/ minute
c. 10-20/ minute
d. 20-30/ minute
121. In cattle housing, what is the recommended height of
the ceiling?

a. 3-3.5 m
b. 5m
c. 8m
d. 5-10 m
122. For beef cattle shed or barn, what is the proper space
requirement of yearling?

a. 3-4 sq. m
b. 2-3 sq. m
c. 4-5 sq. m
d. 1-2 sq. m
123. In cattle feeding, the percent dry matter requirement of
feedlot cattle based on its body weight is

a. 2.5%
b. 2.0%
c. 3%
d. 1.5%
124. The extensive system of beef cattle/buffalo production
is also popularly known as

a. Ranching
b. Cow-calf
c. Feedlot fattening
d. Backyard system
125. Stocking rate is measured in terms of animal unit, what is
the A.U. equivalent of a heifer?

a. 1.0 A.U
b. 0.75 A.U
c. 0.5 A.U
d. 0.25 A.U
126. To measure carrying capacity of pasture, usually one animal
unit is equivalent to how many kilograms?

a. 300 kg
b. 250 kg
c. 275 kg
d. 325 kg
127. In beef/buffalo production, one of the improved grasses as
forage in cattle feeding is

a. Napier
b. Centrosema
c. Siratro
d. Calopogonium
128. In buffalo production, what breed is a good example
of swamp type?

a. Draft type
b. Philippine carabao
c. Bulgarian
d. Nili-ravi
129. Paragrass is an improved forage, what is its scientific
name?

a. Brachiaria mutica
b. Brachiaria decumbens
c. Brachiaria ruziziensis
d. Panicum maximum
130. Siratro is an improved legume, what is its scientific
name?

a. Macroptilium atropurpureum
b. Centrosema pubescens
c. Arachis pintoi
d. Desmanthus virgatus
131. A substance being produced during stressful conditions and
helps in glycogen breakdown in the muscle

a. Lactic acid
b. Epinephrine
c. Myoglobin
d. Acetic acid
132. Which is not a principle being followed in meat fabrication?

a. Tender meat is separated from tough meat

b. Cheap part is separated from tough part
c. Cutting of muscles across the grain
d. Thick part separated from thin part
133. Which is not a use of the bone structure?

a. Estimating age of live animals

b. Guide for cutting carcasses
c. Clue to the tenderness of the cut
d. In identifying and naming of the cut of meat
134. Which is not included as lean cut of pork carcass?

a. Ham
b. Loin
c. Belly
d. Shoulder
135. This substance function during the aging of meat

a. Collagen
b. Myoglobin
c. Enzymes
d. Myofibrillar proteins
136. Which is not an advantage of fasting animal prior to
slaughtering?

a. Ease of evisceration
b. Results to a pale carcass
c. Gives low shrinkage
d. Lengthens shelf-life of meat
137. These are proteins that are extracted during processing of
sausages

a. Myofibrillar proteins
b. Sarcoplasmic proteins
c. Stromal proteins
d. Connective tissue proteins
138. Which sensory characteristics is not affected by
moisture content?

a. Texture
b. Flavor
c. Tenderness
d. Color
139. Which nutrient has little effect on the nutritive value
of meat?

a. Water
b. Fat
c. Protein
d. Carbohydrate
140. Which of the following is considered Kosher?

a. The hindquarter of the carcass

b. Animal with imperfections
c. The forequarter of pork carcass
d. The forequarter of a beef carcass
141. This procedure could lead to the smoothening of the external
fat of beef carcass and prevent shrinkage and oxidation

a. Chilling
b. Singeing
c. Shrouding
d. Blanching
142. Which is not true about the presence of glycogen in
the muscle?

a. Half of it is only present in the muscle

b. It undergoes glycolysis after slaughtering
c. Its amount is high in postmortem meat
d. None of the above
143. Splitting of swine carcass is done purposely to

a. Make the carcass firm

b. Make fabrication easy
c. Produce uniform porkchops
d. Clean the carcass
144. Which of the following is not considered in selection
of cattle to be slaughtered?

a. Age of the animal

b. Sex of the animal
c. Health of the animal
d. Degree of fatness
145. Which is not an advantage of fasting animals before
slaughtering?

a. Saving of feeds
b. Ease of evisceration
c. Gives high shrinkage of meat
d. Lengthens shelf-life of carcass
146. The following are measurements for determining carcass
composition of pork except

a. lean-fat-bone component
b. Rib eye area
c. Density or specific gravity
d. Maturity
147. The following are functions of phosphate in meat
processing except

a. Stabilizes the color of cured product

b. Increases product yield
c. Makes product firm and dry
d. Increases the water holding capacity of meat
148. This ingredient is helpful in the growth of lactic acid
bacteria in sausages

a. Salt
b. Sugar
c. Nitrate
d. Phosphate
149. Which of the following causes of meat spoilage is
considered the most harmful?

a. Biological
b. Chemical
c. Physical
d. All of the above
150. Meat grading offers the following advantages except

a. Provides products of varying quality

b. Facilitates sale based on inspection
c. Increases competition
d. Improves pricing efficiency
151. Which of the following does not describe the use of
smoking in processed meat?

a. It causes rapid oxidation of fat in meat

b. It helps develop the color of the product
c. It reduces moisture content of meat
d. Improves the shelf-life of the product
152. Which is not a function of nitrite?

a. Stabilizes the color of lean tissues

b. Inhibits the growth of Clostridium botulinum
c. Makes product firm and dry
d. Retards development of rancidity
153. Which is not true about meat preservation?

a. Only microorganisms can cause deterioration of meat

b. A preservation method can either inhibit or destroy the
microorganisms
c. Its purpose is to lengthen the shelf-life of meat
d. The initial microbial load in meat determines the success of
preservation method
154. Which of the following properties of meat affects the
yield of processed meat product?

a. Binding ability
b. Emulsion stability
c. Water holding capacity
d. Emulsifying ability
155. Which of the following by-products of slaughter is used for
gelatine and glue production?

a. Blood
b. Bile
c. Hair
d. Bone
156. This edible by-product of slaughtering pig is also
referred to as chitterlings

a. Small intestines
b. Thymus gland
c. Testicles
d. Stomach
157. This is an organism that causes spoilage of canned
meat products

a. Staphylococcus aureus
b. Escherichia coli
c. Clostridium botulinum
d. Salmonella typhimurium
158. Which is not a part of the steps in slaughtering cattle?

a. Stunning
b. Evisceration
c. Flaying
d. Singeing
159. This is best considered as the most important factor in
determining the value of an animal

a. Carcass weight
b. Dressing weight
c. Live weight
d. Fabrication weight
160. These are group of bacteria that usually thrives in
meat kept at room temperature

a. Psychrophiles
b. Psychrotrophs
c. Mesophiles
d. Thermophiles
161. Recommended male to female ration for egg-type
chicken breeders is

a. 1:10-12
b. 1:8
c. 1:5
d. 1:12-15
162. The group of quails is known as

a. Colony
b. Covey
c. Company
d. Brood
163. The group of geese is called

a. Parliament
b. Ostentation
c. Gaggle
d. Murder
164. The most common roof designs adopted by
commercial chicken producer

a. Shed
b. Gable
c. Semi monitor/monitor
d. None of the above
165. A practice done at any stage of production for the purpose of
reducing boarders and increasing efficiency of production

a. Flock replacement
b. Culling
c. Selection
d. Breeding
166. The oil which helps in water-proofing the birds’
feather is secreted by

a. Preen green
b. Uropygial gland
c. Oil gland
d. All of the above
167. The act of egg laying is called

a. Oviposition
b. Ovulation
c. Gastrulation
d. Molting
168. The recommended floor space for 100 adult broiler
chickens is

a. 10 ft. 2
b. 100 ft. 2
c. 1.0 ft. 2
d. 10 ft. 2
169. 100 laying chickens consume about

a. 110 kg feed
b. 150 kg feed
c. 200 kg feed
d. 90 kg feed
170. The daily water requirement of 100 broiler chicks can be
provided using drinking fountain with a capacity of

a. 1 gallon
b. 3.78 liters
c. 3780 cc
d. All of the above
171. A variety of chicken which is popularly used as male
line for breeding meat-type chicken

a. Cornish
b. Leghorn
c. Hampshire
d. Plymouth Rock
172. A native chicken found in the Visayas which is
famous for its taste

a. Bolinao
b. Camarines
c. Paraokan
d. Darag
173. A recommended management practice with the
purpose of preventing cannibalism

a. Debeaking
b. Dewattling
c. Dubbing
d. Caponizing
174. For optimal egg production, hens are provided daily
photoperiod of 16-18 hours for sufficient secretion of
gonadotrophins

a. FSH
b. LH
c. FSH & LH
d. Estrogen
175. The instinct of some chickens to incubate their eggs is
seen in breeds such as

a. Banaba
b. Leghorn
c. Hybro G
d. Cornish
176. The total egg production of 340 eggs in one production
period is possible with modern strains of chickens such as

a. Dekalb
b. Starbro
c. Cobb 500
d. Hybro G
177. The total feed consumption of a broiler chicken with a feed
conversion ratio of 1.80 and body weight of 1.7 kg at 32 days
of age is

a. 3.06 kg
b. 3.60 kg
c. 3.00 kg
d. 4.00 kg
178. The removal of a bird’s comb is termed as

a. Dewattling
b. Dubbing
c. Decrowning
d. Debeaking
179. A hen needs 18 g protein per day for body maintenance and
egg production, how much feed with 16 crude protein is
needed to support this need?

a. 112.5 g
b. 112.5 kg
c. 112.5 mg
d. None of the above
180. Chicks are subjected to brooding because their

a. Down cannot keep them comfortably warm

b. Oxygen consumption per unit time is low
c. Their capacity to metabolize nutrient is low
d. None of the above
181. Which of the following is used as an indicator of point
of sexual maturity of a flock of pullets?

a. Fully developed comb

b. An egg collected
c. When they started to crow
d. None of the above
182. Young chicks with mixed population of male and
female

a. Straight-run chicks
b. Sexed chicks
c. Birds in the downy stage
d. All of the above
183. Which does not belong to the group?

a. Kabir
b. Sasso
c. Grimaud Freres
d. None of the above
184. Which of the following is the cause of soft shelled
egg?

a. Dietary calcium deficiency

b. High ambient temperature
c. Premature oviposition
d. All of the above
185. Section of birds’ oviduct where fertilization of ovum
takes place

a. Magnum
b. Isthmus
c. Infundibulum
d. Vagina
186. Type of poultry house being recommended to mitigate the
adverse effects of climate change

a. Tunnel ventilated house

b. Open-sided house
c. Slat-floor house
d. Litter-floor house
187. Which of the following is not a qualitative trait of
poultry?

a. Egg production
b. Type of comb
c. Skin color
d. Color of earlobe
188. The brooding temperature during the first week of life
of birds

a. 32-35 oC
b. 24-29 oC
c. 30-32 oC
d. 20-22 oC
189. Which of the following is correct regarding the
incubation period of poultry species?

a. Chicken egg hatches at 21 days

b. Quail egg hatches at 18 days
c. Mallard duck egg hatches at 35 days
d. All of the above
190. The recommended photo period to delay sexual
maturity of growing pullets is

a. 16-18 hours per day

b. 24 hours a day
c. 12-14 hours per day
d. 10 hours per day
191. Which of the following minerals are involved in bone
formation?

a. Calcium
b. Phosphorus
c. Magnesium
d. All of the above
192. Which of the following lipids contain saturated fatty
acids?

a. Corn oil
b. Tallow
c. Fish oil
d. A& C
193. The science that deals with the study of relationship of
food and genes is

a. Nutrition
b. Nutrigenomics
c. Nutrology
d. Anthropology
194. Nutrients are used for

a. Structural material for building and maintaining the body

structure
b. Source of energy for heat production, work and or fat
deposition
c. Regulating body processes or in the formation of body
regulators
d. All of the above
195. Which of the following is not correct?

a. Roughage is needed to promote bulk in ruminants’ diet

b. In most cases, roughage constitutes 70 percent of ruminants’
diet
c. Readily available source of energy is needed for efficient
degradation of roughage in the rumen
d. All of the above
196. Chemical agents that facilitate uniform dispersion of
molecules in feeds or feed mixtures

a. Surfactants
b. Lipase
c. Feed enzyme
d. Acidifier
197. A 100 kg ration is deficient in metabolizable energy of 100
kcal. How much coco oil (8,600 kcal/kg) is needed to
supplement the deficiency?

a. 0.012 kg
b. 12.0 kg
c. 0.12 kg Phosphorus
d. 1.2 kg
198. This toxic factor in ipil-ipil leaf meal causes alopecia

a. Mimosine
b. Hydrocyanic acid
c. Anti-trypsin factor
d. Gossypol
199. Which animal protein containing 80-85% CP but low
in isoleucine is commonly used as bypass protein in
ruminants?

a. Blood meal
b. Fish meal
c. Feather meal
d. Squid meal
200. Macro mineral found in amino acids cystine and
methionine and in vitamins biotin and thiamine

a. Sulfur
b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus
d. None of the above
201. The ideal ratio of calcium and phosphorus in the diet
for monogastric animals

a. 1:1-2:1
b. 2:1-3:1
c. 1:2-2:3
d. None of the above
202. Vitamin K functions in the blood coagulation system such as

a. Synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factor

b. Degradation of prothrombin and other clotting factors
c. Prevents synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting
factors
d. Synthesis of prothrombin and other plasma clotting factors
203. The process of digestion is accomplished through

a. Mastication and muscular contraction of the gastro-intestinal

tract
b. Chemical processes such as action of HCL produced in the
gastro-intestinal tract
c. Enzymatic action produced by bacteria located in the cecum
d. All of the above
204. Proper nutrition practice requires

a. Providing the essential chemical elements for life

b. Providing sources of substances/elements that function
in vivo as antioxidant
c. Providing feed that provides fiber for the maintenance
of gut mucosa
d. All of the above
205. Diet is a preparation which is

a. Composed of individual feed selected to make balance

ration
b. Also known as mixed feed
c. Also known as formula feed
d. All of the above
206. Feed additive are important component of animal rations
because

a. They provide extra nutrient for the animal

b. Their use guarantee production performance
c. Some helps minimizing pollution of the environment from
animal wastes
d. None of the above
207. Lipids are made up of carbons, hydrogen and oxygen. They
release more energy upon oxidation because

a. Oxygen comprises much smaller proportion of the molecule

than its counterpart
b. Oxygen comprises greater percentage of the molecule than
its counterpart
c. There are three molecule of fatty acids
d. The glycerol component also yield energy
208. Enzymes produced by microorganisms in the rumen
during digestion

a. Cellulase
b. Trypsin
c. Pepsin
d. Urease
209. A feed was analyzed to contain 3% nitrogen. How
much crude protein does the feed contain?

a. 18.75%
b. 19.50%
c. 20.0%
d. None of the above
210. Which fat soluble vitamin can be synthesized by the
microflora of the digestive system of herbivores?

a. K
b. A
c. D
d. E
211. The recommended inclusion rate of a feed enzyme is 2
kg per ton of diet. How much enzyme is needed for 200
kg diet?

a. 0.40 kg
b. 400 kg
c. 400,000 mg
d. All of the above
212. A diet is deficient in protein. How much fish meal (65% CP)
is needed to correct the 2.0% crude protein deficiency?

a. 3.08%
b. 30.8%
c. 0.30%
d. 0.03%
213. How much each of rice bran (125 CP) and soybean meal
(47% CP) is needed for a dietary mixture with 16% crude
protein?

a. RB 88.60% & SBM 11.40%

b. RB 50% & SBM 50%
c. RB 75% & SBM 25%
d. RB 11.40% & SBM 88.60%
214. The breakdown of feed nutrients to their basic units is

a. Digestion
b. Absorption
c. Anabolism
d. Mastication
215. Fats and oil have this as the basic unit of their
molecule

a. Fatty acid
b. Amino acid
c. Hydrochloric acid
d. Sulfuric acid
216. Stored carbohydrates in the animals’ body

a. Glycogen
b. Animal starch
c. Glucose
d. All of the above
217. The most digestible polysaccharide is

a. Hemicellulose
b. Cellulose
c. Starch
d. Lignin
218. The sweetest monosaccharide is

a. Fructose
b. Glucose
c. Galactose
d. Xylose
219. Rice bran is a feedstuff that contains high amount of
organic phosphorus called

a. Phytin phosphorus
b. Phosphoric acid
c. Phytate
d. A& B
220. This feed is derived from processing of corn grain into
ethanol

a. Distiller’s dried grain with soluble

b. Yeast culture extract
c. Corn germ meal
d. Corn grits
221. Which of the following plant protein sources has the
highest nutritive value?

a. Soybean meal
b. Corn gluten meal
c. Peanut meal
d. Ipil-ipil leaf meal
222. The toxic compound found in cassava is

a. Hydrocyanic acid
b. Hydrochloric acid
c. Volatile fatty acid
d. Pyruvic acid
223. Micromineral essential for the formation of enzymes related
to oxygen transport and utilization

a. Fe
b. Mn
c. I
d. Zn
224. Choline deficiency causes

a. Slipped tendons in chickens and turkey

b. Goose stepping in swine
c. Cracked hooves in swine
d. Poor appetite
225. This vitamin contains cyanide group attached to
cobalt atom

a. B1
b. B2
c. B6
d. B 12
226. A condition due to severe vitamin A deficiency is
known as

a. Xeropthalmia
b. Osteomalacia
c. Hemephilia
d. Agalactia
227. Which of the following minerals are needed in small
amount by animals?

a. Ca & P
b. Cu & Zn
c. Na & Cl
d. All of the above
228. Which of the following statement is correct regarding
essential and non-essential amino acids?

a. Essential amino acids must be supplied in the diet because

the animal cannot synthesize them at the rate they are
required
b. Non-essential amino acids must be supplied in the diet
because the animal can synthesize them at the rate they are
required
c. Essential amino acids are normally synthesized or sufficient
in the diet and need not be supplemented
d. Essential amino acids are normally present in the feeds and
may not be supplemented in the diet
229. A goat weighing 40 kg needs a daily ration equivalent to 2%
of its body weight. How much roughage should be offered to
the animal if such constitutes 70% of the ration

a. 0.56 kg
b. 0.60 kg
c. 0.18 kg
d. None of the above
230. Vitamin sources should be provided in animal’s diet in
consideration of the following

a. Provide nutrient that regulates metabolic processes

b. Assume that all vitamins in feeds are present as precursor
compounds
c. Water soluble vitamins will be used by the animal for the
direct metabolism of energy giving nutrients
d. All except item b
231. ILRI is a non-profit association for the advancement in
animal science, which aims to promote sustainable livestock
production. Where is the location of the second headquarters of
this famous institute?

a. Addis Ababa, Ethiopia

b. Geneva, Switzerland
c. Ibadan, Nigeria
d. Shanhua, Thailand
232. A famous organization established in 1963 in Diliman
Quezon City by 31 veterinarians and one animal scientist

a. Association of Animal Science

b. Society of Animal Scientist
c. Philippine Society of Animal Science
d. Philippine Society of Animal Nutritionist
233. The acronym AFTA, which is one of the major causes of the
dumping of products by other countries in the Philippines
stands for

a. ASEAN Free Trade Association

b. ASEAN Free Trade Agreement
c. Asian Free Trade Administration
d. Asian Free Trade Agreement
234. The value of pork imports as of January 1, 2009

a. US $ 48, 114.71 FOB

b. US $ 108, 134.22 FOB
c. US $ 57, 216.55 FOB
d. US $ 78, 324.13 FOB
235. The top cattle producing region in the country in
terms of population

a. MIMAROPA
b. BICOL REGION
c. SOCCKSARGEN
d. ILOCOS REGION
236. The strain of Ebola that hit the swine industry in 2008

a. Chauvoei
b. Pyogenes
c. Reston
d. Pullorum
237. International Training Center on Pig Husbandry is an
institution in the Philippines that helps in the improvement of
our local swine industry. It is located at

a. San Pedro, Laguna

b. Los Baños, Laguna
c. Lipa City, Batangas
d. Balayan, Batangas
238. Festivities for the good harvest and promotion of local
products are popular among the country’s provinces. One of
these festivals is Lechon festival, which is being celebrated at

a. San Pedro, Laguna

b. Los Baños, Laguna
c. Lipa City, Batangas
d. Balayan, Batangas
239. The carabao is popular among Filipino farmers being the
beast of burden that helps folks in the countryside in their field
works. Owing a lot from this animal a festival is being held for
it in

a. Dumaguete City
b. Science City of Muñoz
c. Puerto Prinsesa
d. Pulilan
240. The top most duck populated region in the country is

a. CALABARZON
b. MIMAROPA
c. CENTRAL LUZON
d. BICOL REGION
241. The per capita consumption of milk of Filipinos as
January 1, 2009

a. 9.76 kg/person/yr
b. 12.15 kg/person/yr
c. 19.5 kg/person/yr
d. 14.74 kg/person/yr
242. The supply of live goats increased in the year 2008
due to the increment in the number of live births. Total
supply of goats in the Philippines as of January 1, 2009
was

a. 3.54 million hd
b. 7.40 million hd
c. 5.67 million hd
d. 10.33 million hd
243. Cheese from goat’s milk is popularly known as

a. Chevre
b. Mozzarella
c. Roquefort
d. Brie
244. Which of the following is not among the top 5 largest
swine producing countries?

a. USA
b. Canada
c. Brazil
d. Argentina
245. The world’s largest producer of pork

a. China
b. Brazil
c. Canada
d. Argentina
246. The largest importer of dairy products

a. Philippines
b. Malaysia
c. Indonesia
d. Japan
247. The first mammal to be successfully cloned from a
mature cell is

a. Goat
b. Sheep
c. Rabbit
d. Rat
248. Milk protein component of the lactose synthetase
enzyme

a. Whey
b. Casein
c. Lactalbumin
d. Zein
249. The freezing point of milk is used to determine the presence
of what contaminant in milk

a. Bacteria
b. Fungi
c. Vegetable oil
d. Added water
250. A cross between genuses is permissible with the use of
biotechnology like crossing a tiger with a lion producing a
liger. What is the term for the animals produced from the
crossing of turkey and chicken?

a. Chiturks
b. Turkins
c. Chicteys
d. Keykens