MCQ Test

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MCQ TEST

1.) The pulse oximeter uses LEDs that transmit light at


specific wave lengths:

a) 660nm (red) & 940nm (infrared)


b) 660nm (infrared) & 940nm (red)
c) 640nm (red) & 960nm (infrared)
d) 640nm (infrared) & 960nm (red)
2.) In which zone of the lung the alveolar pressure is more
than the pulmonary arterial pressure

a.) Zone I
b.) Zone II
c.) Zone III
d.) Zone IV
3.) Regarding the latest ATLS guidelines all of the
statements are correct except

a.) Emphasis on videolaryngoscopy for airway


management
b.) Phenytoin is recommended to decrease the incidence of
early posttraumatic seizures (within 7 days of injury)
c.) A bolus of isotonic solution 2 L for adults
d.) In the Glasgow Coma Scale ‘pain’ is replaced by
‘pressure’
4.) What is the O2 content of whole blood if the Hb
concentration is 10gm/dl, the PaO2 is 60mmhg, and the
saO2 is 90%?

a. 10 mL/dl

b. 12.5 mL/dl
c. 15 mL/dl

d. 17.5 mL/dl
 
5.) Interpret the given flow volume loop

a. intrathoracic obstruction
b. extrathoracic obstruction
c. fixed obstruction
d. variable intrathoracic obstruction
6.) Which of the following is not true?

a) FRC=ERV+RV
b) TLC=IRV+ERV+RV
c) VC=IRV+TV+ERV
d) IC=IRV+TV
7.) Mini-cog is a screening test for

a.) Assessing mental retardation in children


b.) Assessing ischemic brain injury in stroke patients
c.) Assessing cognitive impairment in old patients
d.) Assessing mental status in eclamptic patients
8.) Which of the following is true for BLS(basic life
support) for infants

a.) Preferred pulse check is the carotid pulse check


b.) Heimlich maneuver for foreign body airway obstruction
c.) Start chest compression only when there is no pulse
d.) Compression-ventilation ratio is 15:2 with two rescuers
9.) Cerebral blood flow(CBF) increases with

a.) Propofol
b.) Dexmedetomidine
c.) Etomidate
d.) Nitrous oxide
10.) Which of the following is NOT a preferred
endotracheal tube for cleft lip and palate surgery

a.) Reinforced endotracheal tube


b.) RAE south ETT
c.) PVC ETT
d.) Oxford ETT
11.) ECG changes associated with hyperkalemia include

a. Increased P wave amplitude

b. Shortened PR interval
c. Narrowed and peaked T waves

d. Increase in U- wave amplitude


12.) Which of the following is NOT a component of
MELD Score?

a.) Serum bilirubin


b.) Serum Albumin
c.) Serum creatinine
d.) INR
13.) Which of the following is true about the neonate?

a.) Oxygen consumption is 3.5ml/kg/min


b.) Alveolar ventilation is 60mL/kg/min
c.) PaO2 of 65-85mm of Hg in room air
d.) Vital capacity 70mL/Kg
14.) Most common pulmonary complication after
thoracotomy is

a.) Atelectasis
b.) Airway trauma
c.) Pneumothorax
d.) Hemorrhage
15.) Pacemaker syndrome is

a.) Maximum with DDD pacing


b.) Due to loss of AV synchrony
c.) Associated with normal cardiac output
d.) Diagnosed by increase in blood pressure
16.) A 55yr old male known case of COPD has pH 7.34,
paCO2 60, paO2 of 58, HCO3 32, Na 140, K 4.0, Cl
100. The patient has

a.) Respiratory acidosis (chronic) uncompensated


b.) Respiratory acidosis (acute) uncompensated
c.) Respiratory acidosis(chronic) compensated
d.) Respiratory acidosis(acute) compensated
17.) An 18yr old type I diabetic presented with Kussmaul
breathing and the ABG showed: pH 7.05, paCO2 15,
paO2 68, HCO3 5, Na 140, K 4.0, Cl 98. The patient has

a.) Low anion gap metabolic acidosis


b.) High anion gap metabolic acidosis
c.) Low anion gap metabolic alkalosis
d.) High anion gap metabolic alkalosis
18.) In a hypoxemic patient with a A-a normal gradient in
ABG the hypoxemia is due to

a.) V/Q mismatch


b.) Impaired diffusion
c.) Alveolar hypoventilation
d.) Shunt
19.) The X ray chest shows

a.) Pulmonary edema with cardiomegaly


b.) Left pleural effusion with consolidation left lower lobe
c.) B/L pleural effusion
d.) Aspiration pneumonitis
 
20.) The X ray chest is of a patient with

a.) Tetrology of Falot


b.) ASD
c.) VSD
d.) Rheumatic heart disease
21.) Which of the following is not a part of the
intermediate pressure system

a.) Pipeline inlet connections


b.) Master switch
c.) Oxygen flush
d.) Gas cylinder
22.) Which of the following is not a risk factor in the
Revised Cardiac Risk Index

a.) History of transient ischemic attack or stroke


b.) Renal insufficiency(s. creatinine level> 2mg/dl)
c.) Congestive heart failure based on history or
examination
d.) Diabetes requiring oral hypoglycemic agent
23.) Potency of the spinal drug depends on

a.) Lipid solubility


b.) protein binding
c.) quantity of drug
d.) Increases with addition epinephrine
24.) Cardiac output returns to pre-pregnancy levels
between

a.) 2 to 7 days post partum


b.) 2 to 6 weeks post partum
c.) 8 to 10 weeks post partum
d.) 12 to 24 weeks post partum
25.) For how long should succinylcholine be avoided in a
patient who has sustained burn injury?

a.) 6months to 1 yr
b.) 1-2 yrs
c.) 3-4 yrs
d.) 5-6 yrs
26.) Most sensitive tool for detecting venous air embolism

a.) End tidal CO2


b.) Transesophageal echocardiography
c.) Doppler
d.) ECG
27.) Which of the following in NOT true for a patient with
Pickwickian syndrome

a.) Obesity
b.) Polycythemic
c.) Daytime hypersomnolence
d.) Respiratory alkalosis
 
28.) As per the ACLS guidelines in persistent
bradyarrhythmia unresponsive to atropine we should

a.) Administer Dopamine infusion at the rate of 1-2


mcg/kg/min
b.) Administer Epinephrine iv infusion at the rate of 2-
10mcg/kg/min
c.) Administer Phenylephrine
d.) Do transcutaneous pacing
29.) Which of the following is NOT a sign of magnesium
toxicity

a.) Hyperthermia
b.) ECG showing increased PQ interval, QRS widening
c.) Loss of DTR
d.) Respiratory arrest
 
30.) All the following are a cause of anaemia in chronic
renal disease except

a.) Decreased erythropoetin production


b.) Bone marrow supression
c.) Iron deficiency
d.) GIT blood loss
ALL THE BEST

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