LET Review

PROFESSIONAL EDUCATION
ASSESSMENT OFLEARNING
Michael Tomas Sebullen, LPT, CFP, PhD
 How does measurement differ 1
from evaluation?

A. Measurement is assigning a numerical value to a

given trait while evaluation is giving meaning to
the numerical value of the trait.
B. Measurement is the process of quantifying data
while evaluation is the process of organizing
data.
C. Measurement is a pre-requisite of assessment
while evaluation is the pre-requisite of testing.
D. Measurement is gathering data while assessment
is quantifying the data gathered.
Miss del Sol rated her students in terms of 2
appropriate and effective use of some
laboratory equipment and measurement
tools and if they are able to follow specified
procedures. What mode of assessment
should Miss del Sol use?

A. Portfolio Assessment
B. Journal Assessment
C. Traditional Assessment
D. Performance-Based Assessment
 aWho
formative
amongevaluation?
the teachers below performed 3
A. Ms. Olivares, who asked questions when the
discussion was going on to know who among her
students understood what she was trying to stress.
B. Mr. Borromeo, who gave a short quiz after
discussing thoroughly the lesson to determine the
outcome of instruction.
C. Ms. Berces, who gave a 10-item test to find out the
specific lessons which the students failed to
understand.
D. Mrs. Corpuz, who administered a readiness test to
the incoming grade one pupils.
 St. Andrews School gave a standardized
achievement test instead of giving a teacher-made 4
test to the graduating elementary pupils. Which
could have been the reason why this was the kind
of test given?
A. Standardized test has items of average level of
difficulty while teacher-made test has varying levels of
difficulty.
B. Standardized test uses multiple-choice format while
teacher-made test uses the essay test format.
C. Standardized test is used for mastery while teacher-
made test is used for survey.
D. Standardized test is valid while teacher-made test is
just reliable.
 5
Which test format is best to use if the
purpose of the test is to relate inventors and
their inventions?

A. Short-Answer

B. True-False

C. Matching Type

D. Multiple Choice
 6
In the parlance of index of test construction,
what does TOS mean?

A. Table of Specifics

B. Terms of Specifications

C. Table of Scopes

D. Table of Specifications
Here is an item:
7
“From the data presented in the table,
form generalizations that are supported by the
data.”

Under what type of question does this item fall?

A. Convergent

B. Evaluative

C. Application
The following are synonymous
8
to performance objectives EXCEPT:

A. Learner’s objective

B. Instructional objective

C. Teacher’s objective

D. Behavioral objective
 9
Which is (are) a norm-referenced statement?

A. Danny performed better in spelling than

60% of his classmates.
B. Danny was able to spell 90% of the
words correctly.
C. Danny was able to spell 90% of the words
correctly and spelled 35 words out of 50
correctly.
D. Danny spelled 35 words out of 50 correctly.
Which guideline in test construction is NOT 10
observed in this test item?
A. The length of the blank suggests
EDGAR ALLAN POE WROTE .
the answer.
B. The central problem is not packed in
the stem.
C. It is open to more than one correct answer.
D. The blank is at the end of the question.
 11
Which does NOT belong to the group?

A. Completion

B. Matching

C. Multiple Choice

D. Alternate Response
 12
A test is considered reliable if:

A. it is easy to score.

B. it served the purpose for

which it is constructed.

C. it is consistent and stable.

D. it is easy to administer.
 13
Which is claimed to be the overall advantage
of criterion-referenced over norm-referenced
interpretation?
A. An individual’s score is compared with the
set mastery level.
B. An individual’s score is compared with that of his
peers.
C. An individual’s score is compared with the average
scores.
D. An individual’s score does not need to
be compared with any measure.
Teacher Liza does
14
norm-referenced
interpretation of scores. Which of the
following does she do?
A. She uses a specified content as its frame of
reference.
B. She describes group performance in relation
to a set mastery level.
C. She compares every individual student score
with others’ scores.
D. She describes what should be
their performance.
All examinees obtained scores below
15
the
mean. A graphic representation of the
score distribution will be .

A. Negatively skewed

B. Perfect normal curve

C. Leptokurtic

D. Positively skewed
 16
In a normal distribution curve, a T-score of 70 is:

A. Two SDs below the

mean

B. Two SDs above the

mean

C. One SD below the mean

 17
Which type of test higher-order
measures thinking skills?

A. Enumeration

B. Matching

C. Completion

D. Analogy
Who is the best admired for outstanding
contribution to world peace?
18
A. Kissinger C. Kennedy
B. Clinton D. Mother
Teresa
What is WRONG with this item?

A. Item is overly specific.

B. Content is trivial.

C. Test item is opinion-based.

D. There is a cue to the right answer.

 19
The strongest disadvantage of the
alternate- response type of test is:

A. the demand for critical thinking

B. the absence of analysis

C. the encouragement of rote memory

D. the high possibility of guessing

 20
A class is composed of academically
poor students. The distribution will most likely
to be:

A. leptokurtic

B. skewed to the right

C. skewed to the left

D. symmetrical
 21
Of the following types of tests, which is
the most subjective in scoring?

A. Enumeration

B. Matching Type

C. Essay

D. Multiple Choice
 22
Tom’s raw score in the Filipino class is 23 which is
equal to the 70th percentile. What does this
imply?
A. 70% of Tom’s classmates got
a score lower than 23.
B. Tom’s score is higher than 23%
of his classmates.
C. 70% of Tom’s classmates got
a score above 23.
D. Tom’s scoreis higher than 23 of his
classmates.
 23
Test norms are established in order to have
a basis for:

A. establishing learning objectives

B. identifying pupil’s difficulties

C. planning effective instructional devices

D. comparing test scores

 24
The score distribution follows a normal
curve. What does this mean?

A. Most of the scores are on the -2SD.

B. Most of the scores are on the +2SD.

C. The scores coincide with the mean.

D. Most of the scores pile up between -1SD

and +1SD.
 25
In her conduct of item analysis, Teacher Cristy
found out that a significantly greater number
from the upper group of the class got test item
#5 correctly. This means that the test item:

A. Has a negative discriminating power

B. Is valid

C. Is easy

D. Has a positive discriminating power

 26
Mr. Reyes taske his students to play
volleyball. d learning target is he
assessing? What

A. Knowledge

B. Skill

C. Products

D. Reasoning
 27
Martina obtained an NSAT percentile rank of 80.
This indicates that:

A. She surpassed in performance 80% of her

fellow examinees.
B. She got a score of 80.
C. She surpassed in performance 20% of her
fellow examinees.
D. She answered 80 items correctly.
 28
Which term refers to the collection of students’
products and accomplishments for a period for
evaluation purposes?

A. Anecdotal Records

B. Portfolio

C. Observation Report

D. Diary
 29
Which form of assessment is consistent with the
saying “The proof of the pudding is in the
eating?”

A. Contrived

B. Authentic

C. Traditional

D. Indirect
 30
Which error do teachers commit when they tend
to overrate the achievement of students
identified by aptitude tests as gifted because
they expect achievement and giftedness to go
together?
A. Generosity Error

B. Central Tendency Error

C. Severity Error

D. Logical Error
 31
Under which assumption is portfolio assessment
based?

A. Portfolio assessment is dynamic assessment.

B. Assessment should stress the
reproduction of knowledge.
C. An individual learner is
inadequately characterized by a test score.
D. An individual learner is
adequately characterized by a test score.
 32
Which is a valid assessment tool if I want to find
out how well my students can speak
extemporaneously?
A. Writing speeches
B. Written quiz on how to
deliver extemporaneous speech
C. Performance test in
extemporaneous speaking
D. Display of speeches delivered
 33
Teacher J discovered that her pupils are weak in
comprehension. To further determine which
particular skill(s) her pupils are weak in, which
test should Teacher J give?

A. Standardized test

B. Placement

C. Diagnostic

D. Aptitude test
 34
“Group the following items according
to phylum” is a thought test item on .

A. Inferring

B. Classifying

C. Generalizing

D. Comparing
 35
In a multiple choice test, keeping the
options brief indicates .

A. Inclusion in the item irrelevant clues such as

the use in the correct answer
B. Non-inclusion of option that mean the same
C. Plausibility & attractiveness of the item
D. Inclusion in the item any word that
must otherwise repeated in each
response
 36
Which will be the most authentic assessment
tool for an instructional objective on working
with and relating to people?

A. Writing articles on working and relating

to people

B. Organizing a community project

C. Home visitation

D. Conducting a mock election

 37
While she is in the process of teaching, Teacher J
finds out if her students understand what she is
teaching. What is Teacher J engaged in?

A. Criterion-referenced evaluation

B. Summative evaluation

C. Formative evaluation

D. Norm-referenced evaluation
 38
With types of test in mind, which does
NOT belong to the group?

A. Restricted response essay

B. Completion

C. Multiple choice

D. Short answer
 39
Which tests determine whether the students
accept responsibility for their own behavior or
pass on responsibility for their own behavior to
other people?

A. Thematic tests

B. Sentence Completion tests

C. Stylistic tests

D. Locus-of-control tests
 40
When writing
objectives, which
performance word is NOT
acceptable?
A. Manipulate

B. Delineate

C. Comprehend

D. Integrate
Here is a test item: 41
is an example of a
mammal.
What is defective with the test item?

A. It is very elementary.

B. The blank is at the beginning

of the sentence.

C. It is a very short question.

D. It is an insignificant test item.

 42
“By observing unity, coherence, emphasis, and
variety, write a short paragraph on taking
examinations.”
This is an item that test the students’ skill to
.
A. Evaluate

B. Comprehend

C. Synthesize

D. Recall
 43
Teacher A constructed a matching type of test.
In her columns of items are a combination of
events, peoples, and circumstances. Which of
the following guidelines in constructing
matching type of test did he violate?
A. List options in an alphabetical
order.
B. Make list of items homogeneous.

C. Make list of items heterogeneous.

D. Provide three or more options.

 45
A number of items in a test are said to be non-
discriminating, What conclusion/s can be drawn?
I. Teaching or learning was very good.
II. The item is so easy that anyone could
getit right.
III. The item is so difficult that nobody could get
it.
A. I only
B. I and III
C. II only
D. II and III
 46
Measuring the work done by a gravitational
force is a learning task. At what level of
cognition is it?

A. Comprehension

B. Application

C. Evaluation

D. Analysis
 47
Which improvement/s should be done in
this completion test item:
An example of a mammal is

.
A. The blank should be longer to accommodate
all possible answers.
C. The
B. The blank shouldshould
question be at the beginning
have only of one
the
sentence. answer.
acceptable
D. The item should give more
clues.
Here is Teacher D’s lesson objective: 48
“To trace the causes of Alzheimer’s Disease.”
Which is a valid test for this particular objective?

A. Can Alzheimer’s Disease be traced to

old age? Explain.
B. To what factors can Alzheimer’s Disease
be traced? Explain.
C. What is Alzheimer’s Disease?
D. Doyoung people get attacked
by Alzheimer’s Disease? Support your
answer.
 49
What characteristic of a good test will pupils be
assured of when a teacher constructs a table of
specifications for test construction purposes?

A. Reliability

B. Content Validity

C. Construct Validity

D. Scorability
A test is valid when .
a. it measures what purports to measure
50
b. covers a broad scope of subject matter
c. reliability of scores
d. easy to administer
How can you improve this test item?

A. Make the length of the options uniform.

B. Pack the question in the stem.
C. Make the options parallel.
D. Construct the options in such a way that the
grammar of the sentence remains correct.
 51
In taking a test, one examinee approached the
proctor for clarification on what to do. This
implies a problem on which characteristic of a
good test?
A. Objectivity

B. Administrability

C. Scorability

D. Economy
 52
Teacher Jane wants to determine if her students’
scores in the second grading is reliable.
However, she has only one test and her students
are already on their semestral break. What test
of reliability can she use?
A. Test-Retest

B. Split-half

C. Equivalent forms

D. Test-Retest with equivalent forms

 53
Mrs. Cruz has only one form of test and she
administered her test only once. What test of
reliability can she do?

A. Test of stability

B. Test of equivalence

C. Test of correlation

D. Test of internal consistency

 Class Limits
50 – 54
Frequency
9 54
45 – 49 12
40 – 44 16
35 – 39 8
30 – 34 5

What is the lower limit of the class with highest

frequency?
A. 39.5
B. 40
C. 44
D. 44.5
 Class Limits
50 – 54
Frequency
9 55
45 – 49 12
40 – 44 16
35 – 39 8
30 – 34 5

What is the crude mode?

A. 40
B. 42
C.
42.5
 56
About what percent of the cases falls between
+1 and -1 SD in a normal curve?

A. 43.1%

B. 95.4%

C. 99.8%

D. 68.3%
aStudy
classthis
to group
whomofPeter
the question:
belongs, then answer
test which was administered to 57
SUBJECT MEAN SD PETER’S SCORE
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) did Peter perform most poorly in

relation to the group’s mean performance?
A. English
B. Physics
C. English and Physics
D. Math
aStudy
classthis
to group
whomofPeter
the question:
belongs, then answer
test which was administered to 58
SUBJECT MEAN SD PETER’S SCORE
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) were the scores most

widespread?
A. Math
B. Physics
C. Cannot be
determined
 59
A mathematics test was given to all Grade V
pupils to determine the contestants for the
Math Quiz Bee. Which statistical measure should
be used to identify the top 15?

A. Mean Percentage Score

B. Quartile Deviation

C. Percentile Rank

D. Percentage Score
 60
A test item has a difficulty index of .89 and a
discrimination index of -0.44. What should the
teacher do?

A. Make it a bonus item.

B. Reject the item.

C. Retain the item.

D. Make it a bonus and reject it.

What is/are important to state when
61
explaining percentile-ranked tests to parents?
I. What group took the test
II. That the scores show how
students performed in relation to other
students
III. That the scores show how
students performed in relation to an
absolute measure
A. II only
B. I and III
 62
Which of the following reasons for measuring
student achievement is NOT valid?
A. To prepare feedback on the
effectiveness of the learning process
B. To certify the students have attained a
level of competence in a subject area
C. To discourage students from cheating
during test and getting high scores
D. To motivate students to learn and
master the materials they think will be
covered by the achievement test
 63
The computed r for English and Math scores is
-0.75. What does this mean?

A. The higher the scores in

English, the higher the scores in Math.
B. The scores in Math and English do not
have any relationship.
C. The higher the scores in
Math, the lower the scores in
English.
D. The lower the scores in
English, the lower the scores in Math.
Which statement holds TRUE to
64
grades? Grades .

A. Are exact measurements of intelligence

and achievement

B. Are necessarily a measure of a student’s

intelligence

C. Are intrinsic motivators for learning

D. Are a measure of achievement

 65
What is the advantage of using computers
in processing test results?

A. Test results can easily be assessed.

B. Its statistical computation is accurate.

C. Its processing takes a shorter

period of time.

D. All of the above

 1
Which of the following steps should be completed
first in planning an achievement test?

A. Set-up a table of specifications.

B. Go back to the instructional objectives.

C. Determine the length of the test.

D. Select the type of test items to use.

 is an example of a leafy vegetable.

Why is this test item poor?

2
I. The test item does not pose a problem to the
examinee.
II. There is a variety of possible correct answers to this
item.
III. The language used in the question is not precise.
IV. The blank is near the beginning of a sentence.
A. I and III

B. II and IV

C. I and IV

D. I and II
On the first day of class after introductions, the
teacher administered a Misconception/
3
Preconception Check. She explained that she
wanted to know what the class as a whole already
knew about the Philippines before the Spaniards
came. The Misconception/Preconception Check is
a form of a

A. diagnostic test

B. placement test

C. criterion-referenced test

D. achievement test
A test item has a difficulty index of .81 and a 4
discrimination index of .13. What should the
test constructor do?

A. Retain the item.

B. Make it a bonus item.

C. Revise the item.

D. Reject the item.

If a teacher wants to measure her students’ 5
ability to discriminate, which of these is an
appropriate type of test item as implied by
the direction?

A. “Outline the chapter on The Cell”.

B. “Summarize the lesson yesterday.”
C. “Group the following items
according to shape.”
D. “State a set of principles
that can explain the following
events.”
A positive discrimination index means that 6
A. the test item could not
discriminate between the lower and upper
groups.
B. more from the upper group got the
item correctly.
C. more from the lower group got the
item correctly.
D. the test item has low reliability.
Teacher Ria discovered that her pupils are 7
very good in dramatizing. Which tool
must have helped her discover her pupils’
strength?

A. Portfolio Assessment

B. Performance Assessment

C. Journal Entry

D. Pen-and-Paper test
Which among the following objectives in the 8
psychomotor domain is highest in level?

A. To contract a muscle

B. To run a 100-meter dash

C. To distinguish distant and close sounds

D. To dance the basic steps of the waltz

If your LET items sample adequately the 9
competencies listed in education
courses syllabi, it can be said that LET
possesses
validity.

A. Concurrent

B. Construct

C. Content
 10
In the context on the theory on multiple
intelligences, what is one weakness of the
pen-and-paper test?

A. It is not easy to administer.

B. It puts the non-linguistically

intelligent at a disadvantage.

C. It utilizes so much time.

D. It lacks reliability.
 11
Which test has broad sampling of topics
as strength?

A. Objective Test

B. Short Answer Test

C. Essay

D. Problem Type
 12
Quiz is to formative as periodic is to ?

A. criterion-referenced

B. summative test

C. norm-referenced

D. diagnostic test
 13
What does a skewed score
negatively distribution
imply?
A. The score congregate on the left side of
the normal distribution curve.
B. The scores are widespread.
C. The students must be
academically poor.
D. The scores congregate on the right side
of the normal distribution.
The criterion of success in Teacher Lyn’s
objective is that “the pupils must be able 14
to spell 90% of the words correctly”. Ana
and 19 others correctly spelled 40 words
only out of 50. This means that Teacher
Lyn:
A. attained her objective because of
her effective spelling drill
B. attained her lesson objective
C. failed to attain her lesson
objective as far as the twenty pupils are
concerned
D. did not attain her lesson
 15
In group percentile
norming, examinee
is: rank
A. dependent onofhis batch of examinees.

B. independent on his batch

the
of examinees.

C. unaffected by skewed distribution.

D. affected by skewed distribution.

 16
When a significantly greater number from the
lower group gets a test item correctly, this
implies that the test item:
A. is very valid

B. is not very valid

C. is not highly reliable

D. is highly reliable
 17
Which applies when there are extreme scores?

A. The median will not be a very

reliable measure of central tendency.
B. The mode will be the most
reliable measure of central tendency.
C. There is no reliable measure for central
tendency.
D. The mean will not be a very
reliable measure of central tendency.
 18
Which statement about performance-
based assessment is FALSE?

A. They emphasize merely process.

B. They stress on doing, only
not knowing.
C. Essay tests are examples of
performance-based assessments.
D. They accentuate onprocess as well
as product.
If the scores of your test follow a negatively 19
Find out distribution, what should
skewed . you do?

A. Why your items were easy

B. Why most of the scores are high

C. Why most of the scores are low

D. Why some pupils scored high

 20
Median is to point as standard deviation
is to .

A. Area

B. Volume

C. Distance

D. Square
statement
Referring toonassessment
the normalof
curve is FALSE?
learning, which 21
A. The normal curve may not necessarily apply
to homogeneous class.
B. When all pupils achieve as expected of their
learning, curve may deviate from the normal
curve.
C. The normal curve is sacred. Teachers must
adhere to it no matter what.
D. The normal curve may not be achieved when
every pupil acquires targeted competencies.
above the mean
Aura Vivian of his group
is one-half in arithmetic
standard
and one standard deviation above in
deviation 22
spelling. What does this imply?

A. She excels both is arithmetic and

spelling.

B. She is better in arithmetic than in

spelling.

C. She does not excel in spelling

nor in arithmetic.
make scores of 95, 91, and
test,91, respectively,
You give a 100-point three students
while the other 22 students in the class 23
make scores ranging from 33 to 67. The
measure of central tendency which is apt
to best describe this group of 25 is:

A. the mean

B. the mode

C. an average of the median and mode

D. the median
 24
NSAT and NEAT results are interpreted
against a set of mastery level. This means that
NSAT and NEAT fall under:

A. Criterion-referenced test

B. Achievement test

C. Aptitude test

D. Norm-referenced test
 25
Which of the following is the MOST important
purpose for using achievement test? To
measure the .

A. Quality & quantity of previous learning

B. Quality & quantity of previous teaching

C. Educational & vocational aptitude

D. It emphasizes learning not objectivity of

scoring.
 26
What should be AVOIDED in arranging
the items of the final form of the test?

A. Space the items so they can be read

easily.
B. Follow a definite response pattern
C. Arrangeforthethe sections
correct answers to ensure
such that they
ease of scoring. the very
progressfrom
complex. simple to very
D. Keep all the items and options together on
the same page.
 27
What is an advantage of point system
of grading?

A. It does away with

establishing clear distinctions
among students.

B. It is precise.

C. It is qualitative.

D. It emphasizes learning not

 28
Which statement on test result interpretation
is CORRECT?

A. A raw score by itself is meaningful.

B. A student’s score is a final
indication of his ability.
C. The use of statistical
technique gives meaning to pupil’s
scores.
D. Test scores do not in any
way reflect teacher’s effectiveness.
 29
Below is a list of methods used to establish the
reliability of the instrument. Which method is
questioned for its reliability due to practice
and familiarity?

A. Split-half

B. Equivalent Forms

C. Test-Retest

D. Kuder-Richardson Formula 20
 30
Q3 is to 75th percentile as median is to:

A. 40th percentile

B. 25th percentile

C. 50th percentile

D. 49th percentile
What type of test is this? 31
Knee is to leg as elbow is to .
A. Hand B. Fingers C. Arm D.
Wrist

A. Analogy

B. Rearrangement type

C. Short answer type

D. Problem type
 32
Which statement about standard deviation
is CORRECT?

A. The lower the SD, the more

spread the scores are.
B. The higher the SD, the less
spread the scores are.
C. The higher the SD, the more spread the
scores are.
D. It is a measure of central tendency.
 33
Which test items do NOT affect variability
of test scores?

A. Test items that are a bit easy.

B. Test items that are moderate in difficulty.

C. Test items that are a bit difficult.

D. Test items that every gets

examinee correctly.
 34
Teacher B wants to diagnose in which vowel
sound(s) her students have difficulty. Which
tool is most appropriate?
A. Portfolio Assessment

B. Journal Entry

C. Performance Test

D. Paper-and-pencil Test
 35
The index of difficulty of a particular test is
0.10. What does this mean? My students
.

A. Gained mastery over the item.

B. Performed very well against expectation.

C. Found that the test itemwas either

easy nor difficult.

D. Find the test item difficult.

with the following results, then answer the question
Study this group of test which was administered
that follows: 36
SUBJECT MEAN SD RONNEL’S SCORE
Math 56 10 43
Physics 41 9 31
English 80 16 109

In which subject(s) did Ronnel perform best

in relation to the group’s mean performance?
A. Physics and Math
B. English
C. Math
D. Physics
 37
Which applies when the distribution
is concentrated on the left side of the curve?

A. Bell curve

B. Positively skewed

C. Leptokurtic

D. Negatively skewed
 38
Standard deviation is to variability as
is to central tendency.

A. quartile

B. mode

C. range

D. Pearson r
 39
Danny takes an IQ test thrice and each time
earns a similar score. The test is said to
possess .

A. Objectivity

B. Reliability

C. Validity

D. Scorability
 40
The test item has a discrimination index of -0.38
and a difficulty index of 1.0. What does this imply
to test construction? Teacher must .

A. recast the item

B. shelve the item for future use

C. reject the item

D. retain the item

Here is a sample TRUE-FALSE test item:
All women have a longer life-span than men.
41
What is wrong with the test item?

A. The test item is quoted verbatim from a

textbook.
B. The test item contains trivial detail.
C. A specific determiner was used
in the statement.
D. The test item was vague.
 42
In which competency do my students find
greatest difficulty? In the item with the
difficulty index of:

A. 1.0

B. .50

C. .90

D. .10
 43
“Describe the reasoning errors in the following
paragraph” is a sample thought question
on
.

A. synthesizing

B. applying

C. analyzing

D. summarizing
 44
In a one hundred-item test, what does
Ryan’s raw score of 70 mean?

A. He 70 of his classmates in
surpassed
terms
B. He of score.
surpassed 30 of his classmates
in terms of score.
C. He got a score above the mean.
D. He got 70 items correct.
attractiveness and non-plausibility of
Study the table on item analysis for non-distractors
based on the results of a multiple choice tryout test 45
in math. The letter marked with an asterisk in the
correct answer.
A* B C D
Upper 27% 10 4 1 1
Lower 27% 6 6 2 0

Based on the table, which is the most effective

distracter?
A. Option A
B. Option C
C. Option B
D. Option D
 46
Here is a score distribution: 98, 93, 93, 93, 90, 88,
87, 85, 85, 85, 70, 51, 34, 34, 34, 20, 18, 15, 12, 9,
8, 6, 3, 1.

Which is a characteristic the score

of distribution?
A. Bi-modal
B. Tri-modal
C. Skewed to the right
D. No discernible pattern
 47
Which measure(s) of central tendency is (are)
most appropriate when the score distribution is
badly skewed?

A. Mode

B. Mean and mode

C. Median

D. Mean
 48
Is it wise to practice to orient our students
and parents on our grading system?

A. No, this will court a lot of complaints later.

B. Yes, but orientation must be only for our
immediate customers, the students.
C. Yes, so that from the very start, students
and their parents know how grades are
derived.
D. No, grades and how they are derived are
highly confidential.
 49
With the current emphasis on self-assessment
and performance assessment, which is
indispensable?

A. Numerical grading

B. Paper-and-Pencil Test

C. Transmutation Table

D. Scoring Rubric
 50
“In the light of the facts presented, what is most
likely to happen when…?” is a sample thought
question on .

A. inferring

B. generalizing

C. synthesizing

D. justifying
 51
With grading practice in mind, what is meant by
teacher’s severity error?
A teacher .

A. Tends to look down on students’ answers

B. Uses tests and quizzes as

punitive measures

C. Tends to give extremely low grades

D. Gives unannounced quizzes

 52
Ms. Ramos gave a test to find out how the
students feel toward their subject Science. Her
first item was stated as
“Science is an interesting _ _ _ _ _ boring subject.
What kind of instrument was given?
A. Rubric

B. Likert-scale

C. Rating Scale

D. Semantic Differential Scale

 53
Which holds true to standardized tests?

A. They are used for comparative purposes.

B. They are administered differently.

C. They are scored according to

different standards.

D. They are used for assigning grades.

 54
What is simple frequency distribution? A graphic
representation of:

A. means

B. standard deviation

C. raw scores

D. lowest and highest scores

 55
When points in a scattergram are spread evenly
in all directions this means that:

A. The correlation between two variables is

positive.
B. The correlation between two variables is
low.
C. The correlation between two variables is
high.
D. There is no correlation
between two variables.
 56
Which applies when skewness is 0?

A. Mean is greater than the median.

B. Median is greater than the mean.

C. Scores have 3 modes.

D. Scores are normally distributed.

 57
Which process enhances the comparability
of grades?

A. Determining the level of difficulty of the test

B. Constructing departmentalized
examinations for each subject area

C. Using table of specifications

D. Giving more high-level questions

 58
In a grade distribution, what does the
normal curve mean?
A. All students having average grades.
B. A large number of students with high grades
and very few with low grades.
C. A large number of more or less average
students and very few students receiving low
and high grades
D. A large number of students receiving low
grades and very few students with high
grades
 59
For professional growth, which is a source
of teacher performance?

A. Self-evaluation

B. Supervisory evaluation

C. Student’s evaluation

D. Peer evaluation
 60
The following are in
trends reporting system,
EXCEPT: marking
A. indicating strong points as well as
and
those needing improvement
B. conducting parent-teacher
conferences as often as needed
C. raising the passing grade from 75 to 80
D. supplementing subject grade
with checklist on traits
“Diligence is the mother of good fortune.

And idleness, its opposite, never brought a

man to the goal of any of his best wishes.”

- Miguel de Cervantes
Contact Details

 E-mail address:
[email protected]
 1
Which goes with the spirit of “assessment
for learning?”

A. Stress on summative tests

B. Absence of formative tests.

C. Emphasis on self-assessment

D. Emphasis on grades and honors

 2
Which must go with self-assessment for it to be
effective?

A. Public display of results

of self- evaluation
B. Scoring rubric
C. Consensus of evaluation
results from teacher and student
D. External monitor
 3
The main purpose in administering a pretest and
a posttest to students is to .

A. accustom the students to

testing frequent
B. measure
taught the value of the material
C. measure gains in
learning
D. keep adequate records
 4
If I favor “assessment for learning”, which will
I do more most likely?
I. Conduct a pre-test; formative and
summative tests.
II. Teach based on pre-test results.
III. Give specific feedback to
students
IV. Conduct peer tutoring for students in need
A. II,ofIIIhelp.
and IV C. I, II, III and IV
B. I, II and III D. I, II and IV
 5
A teacher would use a standardized
. test

A. to engage in easy scoring

B. to serve as a final examination

C. to compare her students to

national norms

D. to serve as a unit test

 6
Other than finding out how well the course
competencies were met, Teacher K also wants to
know his students’ performance when compared
with other students in the country. What is
Teacher K interested to do?

A. Formative evaluation

B. Authentic evaluation

C. Norm-referenced evaluation

D. Criterion-referenced evaluation
 7
If all of your students in your class passed
the pretest, what should you do?

A. Go through the lesson

quickly in order not to skip any.
B. Go through the unit as usual because it
is part of the syllabus.
C. Administer the posttest.
D. Go on to the next unit.
 8
Assessment is said to be authentic when
the teacher .

A. considers students’
suggestions in testing
B. gives valid and reliable paper-and pencil
test
C. gives students real-life
tasks to accomplish
D. includes parents in the determination of
assessment procedures
 9
Teacher Bing wanted to teach the pupils the skill
of cross-stitching. Her check-up quiz was a
written test on the steps of cross stitching. What
characteristics of a good test does it lack?

A. Objectivity

B. Predictive validity

C. Content validity

D. Reliability
 10
In the parlance index of a test construction, what
does TOS mean?

A. Team of Specifications

B. Terms of Specifications

C. Table of Specifications

D. Table of Specifics
 11
The difficulty index of a test item is 1. This means
that .

A. the test item is quality item

B. the test is very easy

C. nobody got the item correctly

D. the test is very difficult

 12
Students’ scores on a test were 72, 72, 73, 74, 76,
78, 81, 83, 85. The score 76 is the .

A. Mean

B. Cutoff score

C. Median

D. Average
 13
Which is TRUE of a bimodal score distribution?

A. The scores are high.

B. The scores are low.

C. The group tested has two

different groups.

D. The scores are neither high nor low

 14
Which group of scores is most varied?
The group with .

A. .10 SD
B. .75 SD
C. .90 SD
D. .50 SD
 15
A number of test items in a test are said to be
non-discriminating. What conclusion/s can be
drawn?
I. Teaching or learning was very good.
II. The item is so easy that anyone could get it
right.
III. The item is so difficult that nobody could
get it.

A. III only C. II only

B. I and II D. II and III
 16
An examinee whose score is within X + 1
SD belongs to which of the following
groups?

A. Needs improvement

B. Average

C. Above average

D. Below average
 17
What can be said of student performance in a
positively skewed score distribution?

A. Almost all students had

average performance.

B. Most students performed poorly.

C. A few students performed excellently.

D. Most students performed well.

 18
What does a percentile rank of 62 mean?

A. Sixty-two percent (62%) of those who took

the test scored higher than the individual.
B. The student answered sixty-two
percent (62%) of the items correctly.
C. It is the student’s score in the test.
D. The student’s scores is higher
than 62 percent of all students who took
the test.
 19
In an entrance examination, student A’s
Percentile is 25 (P25). Based on this percentile
rank, which is likely to happen?

A. Student A has 50-50 percent chance

to be admitted.
B. Student A will not be admitted.
C. Student A has a 75-percent chance
to be admitted.
D. Student A will be admitted.
 20
What is the mean of this score distribution:
40, 42, 45, 48, 50, 52, 54, 68, 68?

A.
50.88

B. 50

C. 51.88

D. 68
 21
What does a skewed score distribution mean?

A. The scores are normally distributed.

B. Most of the scores are on the lower end of
the curve.
C. Most of the scores are on the upper end of
the curve.
D. The scores are concentrated more at
one end or the other end of the normal
curve.
 21
Suppose that in the April 2008 LET the mean in
the professional testfor
education group was
elementary the does
44.3. mean? What this
A. 44.3 is the best single value that represents the
performance of the elementary teacher
examinees as a whole.
B. Most of the elementary teacher examines
obtained a score of 44.3.
C. 50% of the elementary teacher examinees got a
score of at least 44.
D. None of the elementary teacher examines got a
score below 44.
In a 50-item test where the mean is 20 and
22
the standard deviation is 8, Soc obtained a
score of
16.What descriptive rating should his
teacher give him?

A. Average

B. Below Average

C. Poor

D. Above Average
The score distribution of Set A and Set B
23
have mean but with different SDs. Set A has an
equal
SD of 1.7 while Set B has an SD of 3.2. Which
statement is TRUE of the score distributions?
A. The scores of Set B has less variability than
the scores in Set A.
B. Scores in Set A are more widely scattered.
C. Majority of the scores in Set A are clustered
around the mean.
D. Majority of the scores in Set are
clustered around the mean.
Principal A is talking about “grading on the
curve” in a faculty meeting. What does this 24
expression refer to?
A. A student mark compares his achievement to
his effort.
B. A student grade or mark depends on how his
achievement compares with the achievement
of other students in a class.
C. A student grade determines whether or not a
student attains a defined standard of
achievement.
D. A student mark tells how closely he is
achieving to his potential.
“A man is like a fraction whose
numerator is what he is and whose
denominator is what he thinks of
himself. The larger the
denominator, the smaller the
fraction.”
Contact
Details
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