SCE – FC

Dean John Michael Dionisio

RCrim., MSCJ, CSP
 SOCIOLOGY OF CRIMES AND ETHICS WITH HUMAN
RELATIONS (SCE-HR)
3RD DAY OF THE BOARD EXAM (DECEMBER 14, 2021)
100 ITEMS
6 AREAS
1. INTRO TO CRIM
2. JUVENILE
3. HUMAN BEHAVIOR
4. POLICE ETHICS
5. PCJS
6. RESEARCH
1. It is the study of human society, its origin structure, functions
and direction.
a. criminology b. sociology
c. psychology d. anthropology

CRIMINOLOGY – STUDY OF CRIMES , CRIMINAL AND

THEIR CRIMINAL BEHAVIOR
RA 11131 – CRIMINOLOGY – STUDY OF CRIMES,
CRIMINALS , VICTIM AND THE PROCESS OF PREVENTION
PSYCHOLOGY – STUDY OF HUMAN AND ANIMAL
BEHAVIOR
ANTHROPOLOGY – STUDY OF MAN KIND
2. The science of classifying the physical characteristics.
a. free will b. positivism
c. atavism d. somatology

Other terms: somatotyping; somatotypes

William Sheldon
FAT  ENDOMOPRHS  “FRAUD / ESTAFA”
THIN  ECTOMORPH  THEFT / ROBBERY
MUSCULAR  MESOMORPHS  VIOLENCE / RAPE
Note: mesomorph has the highest chance to commit crime.
 ERNEST KRETSCHMER (4)

FAT  PYKNIC
THIN  ASTHENIC
MUSCULAR  ATHLETIC
COMBI  DYSPLASTIC

WILLIAM SHELDON  MORPH MOPRH

ERNEST KRETSCHMER  NIC NIC
FREE WILL  “CLASSICAL”
- “ABSOLUTE”
FREEWILL IS NOT ABSOLUTE  NEO CLASSICAL

ATAVISM  “CESARE LOMBROSO” – CRIMES IS A

RESULT OF PRESENCE OF APE LIKE TRAITS (BORN
CRIMINAL)
NOTE: AT LEAST 5 TRAITS = ATAVISTIC

POSITIVISM = “AUGUST COMTE” – CRIMES ARE

PRODUCT OF SCIENTIFIC FACTORS
HOLY THREE: “GARO – FE – LO”
3. The approach that is using the perspective of heredity in
explaining the cause of crime.
a. geographical approach
b. biological approach
c. psychiatric application
d. psychological application
GEOGRAPHICAL APPROACH  LOCATION & CLIMATE
& TEMP  “CARTOGRAPHIC SCHOOL
- Adolphe Quetelet  “Thermic Law”
- 1st scientific criminologist
- Father of cartographic school
- Father of moral statistics
4. The purpose of penalty in the positivism school of
criminology.
a. retribution b. rejection
c. reformation d. restoration
Purposes of penalty
Classical = retribution (Cesare Beccaria)
Neo Classical = retribution + exemption & mitigation for
those who doesn’t freewill
Positivism = Treatment / Reformation & rehabilitation
5. He founded Sociology and applied scientific methods in the
study of society, which to him passes through stages divided on
the basis of how people try to understand it, leading them to
adopt a rational scientific understanding of the world. Comte
called this the positive stage and those who followed his
writings were called,
a. August Comte b. Positivists
c. Positivism d. Sociologists

August Comte
- Determinism – everything has sufficient causes
- father of sociological positivism
6. It is the study of formation of the skull in relation to the
behavior of the criminal.
a. entomology b. penology
c. phrenology d. criminology

Other terms: Craniology / Cranioscopy

Founder: Franz Joseph Gall
Entomology – study of insects
Penology – Latin “poena” – pain and suffering – study of
penalty and rehabilitation
7. Science concerned with improving the quality of
offspring.
a. criminology b. eugenics (Francis Galton)
c. genetics d. heredity

Charles Goring – he said that criminals must be prohibited

from having children
Genetics = study of genes and chromosomes (Gregor
Mendel)
Heredity – Transmission of traits from parents to offspring
8. Commonly known as victimless crime:
A.occasional crime B. political crime
C.public order crime D. conventional crime

Victimless crime
- crimes with no private offended party
- crimes with no complaining victim
- a.k.a. public order crime
examples: prosti, gambling, drugs, traffic violation
Who shall file the complaint ? = state, government, “p.p.” –
plaintiff
9. The principle that events including criminal behavior that
has sufficient causes.
a. atavism b. narcissism
c. determinism (Comte) d. positivism

Narcissism  excessive self importance (Bida bida)

10. This refers to a significant loss of contact with reality.
a. split mind b. psychosis
c. neurosis d. schizophrenia
Schizophrenia = +psychosis +imaginary environment +bizarre
behavior + lack routine activity (Dementia Preacox – split
mind)
Psychosis
1. Severe mental disorder
2. Loss of contact with reality
3. Withdrawal from reality
4. Symptoms: H-I-D (Hallucination, Illusion, Delusion)
Neurosis
- mild mental disorder

Examples:
1. anxiety – excessive worry
2. depression – excessive sadness (Melancholia)
3. psychastenia – Mania (desire) and Phobia (fear)
4. Obsession – uncontrollable thinking
11. What is a person who kills 3 or more in a separate event?
A. mass murder B. serial killer
C. homicidal D. spree killer

Serial Killer / Murder

- Killing of large number of people overtime
- Killing with a cool off stage
Mass Murder
- Killing of large number of people in a single violent outburst
SPREE MURDER
- Continuous killing is separate places
12. A bank robber who kills some individual in the bank,
flees with hostages, and kills a number of people while in
flight diving a chase would be an example of:
A. Serial Murder
B. Spree Murder
C. Mass Murder
D. Multiple Murder

Genocide – killing of an entire race

13. What is the legal term for nighttime?
A. sanctuary B.absurdity
C. ephitomy D. nocturnity

Night time = aggravating circumstances

14. These are the rights of an accused that are derived from
special laws enacted by Congress.
A. Constitutional rights – “right of suffrage”, right to due
process, the right to marry, right of freedom of
expression.
B. Civil rights  “private rights” – right to property, right
to travel, right to sell property, business.
C. Statutory rights
D. Natural rights – right to life , liberty

Law  congress  “RA” - statutes

15. If Metro Manila accounts for 26% of the national
total crime volume of 84, 875, how many crimes were
reported to the police?
a. 22, 868 b. 22, 068
c. 20, 250 d. 32, 644

LCV = NCV X % (decimal form)

LCV = 84, 875 x 0.26
LCV = 22, 067.5
LCV = 22, 068 cases
16. Murder cases numbered 180 in 2010 and 220 in 2011. What was the
percent increase?
a. + 22.2% b. + 20.2%
c. + 22.0% d. + 20.1%
Variance = change
V = new data – old data x 100
old data

V = 220 – 180 X 100

180
V = (40 / 180) X 100
V= 22.22222222 X 100
V = 22.2%
17. In 2000 the police recorded a total of 84,875 crimes committed.
If the population was 62 million what was the crime rate?
a. 139.6 b. 193.6
c. 136.9 d. 163.9
CR = Crime Volume x 100,000
population

CR = 84, 875 X 100,000

62,000,000
CR = 000136.89 X 100,000
= 136.89 OR 136.9
Ilo-ilo Province has a total crime volume of 24,000 cases
with the population of 1,500,000 people. What is the crime
rate?

CR = CV x 100,000
pop

CR = 24,000 x 100,000
1,500,000
= 1,600
18. If the 128 murder cases in City of Malolos represent
40% of the total murder cases in the province of Bulacan,
what is the total value for murder cases province wide?
a. 120 b. 420
c. 430 d. 340 (nearest)

NCV = LCV / % (decimal)

NCV = 128 x 0.40
NCV = 320
19. This theory views crime and delinquency as a result of the
frustration and anger people experience over their inability to
achieve legitimate social and financial success.
a. strain theory b. psychological theories
c. differential association d. labeling theory

Strain Theory – Robert King Merton

F – frustration
R – resentment
A – anger
P – pressure
S – Stress
 Differential Association Theory
- Edwin Sutherland
ALI – CSI
A – adaptation
L – Learning
I – Influence
C – Communication
S – Socialization
I – Interaction
Labelling Theory = Social Reaction Theory
- Frank Tannembaum, Erwin Lemert & Howard Becker

Crime is a product of social stigma (Mark)

20. This theory suggest that females and males are
becoming equal in society in terms of family, politics, and
education
A. Feminist Theory
B. Paternalism
C. Liberation Theory
D. Life Course Theory – behavior changes as people travel
in their life course either positive or negative changes.
21. In the power control theory by Hagan, which father
and mother share similar roles in the workplace and
power in the family
A. Feminist theory
B. Egalitarian family
C. Patriarchal family – father leads the family
D. Matriarchal family – nanay ay umiibabaw kay tatay sa
pagdedesisyon sa pamilya
 Styles of Parenting

1. Authoritarian – Rigid rules, high expectations, lack of

support (tyrant)
2. Authoritative – rigid rules, high expectation, supportive
3. Permissive – relax, free rein
4. Neglectful – lack of physical and emotional support
22. These views suggest that males such as judges, police
officers, and prosecutors tend to have traditional views on
women thus, they are more lenient to them as compared to
their male counterparts.
A. Paternalism
B. Chivalry Hypothesis – the government are more
lenient to female suspects
C. Masculinity doctrine - male crime rate is greater than
female crime rates
D. Power Control Theory – “John Hagan” – patriarchal,
matriarchal, egalitarian
23. This new branch in criminology opposes the theoretical
perspective and proposes the involvement of all
stakeholders in the use of non violent solutions
A. Peacemaking Criminology
B. Sociology of Law
C. Restorative Justice – settlement of cases without going
to formal court proceedings (Reconciliation)
D. Non Violent Criminological Hypothesis

New Zealand = no firearms

24. This crimes are those that the lower class commit
against the upper class of society in a capitalist system
A. Crimes of Passion
B. Crimes of Accommodation and Resistance (LC vs
UC) – blue collar crime
C. Crimes of domination and Repression
D. Crimes of Lower class group

White Collar = crimes of the upper class (E.Sutherland)

25. The ruling class in a capitalist system is the
A. Proletariat – lower class / labor group (workers)
B. Bourgeois – upper class
C. Capitalist
D. Ruling class

Capitalism = country lead by upper class men

Capitalist  capital (puhunan)  namuhunan
1. SM & BDO – Sy
2. PAL – Tan
3. Makati – Ayala
4. NLEX, SCTEX, PLDT, Smart, Talkntext, Araneta, Maynilad = Manny
Pangilinan
26. Who proposed the theory of capitalism and invoked communism
as a remedy?
A. George Vold
B. Karl Marx – conflict theory
C. Emile Durkheim
D. Max Weber
Emile David Durkheim
- Father of modern sociology
- Crime is a normal part of society
- Theory of Anomie
B – breakdown of social order
A – absence of social norms
N – normlessness
27. This theory believes that society is divided into two
groups with competing values the upper class and lower
class.
A. Class Theory
B. Differential Opportunity – Lloyd Ohlin – crime is a
result of lack of legitimate opportunities
C. Conflict Theory
D. Consensus Theory – crime will not happen if their
harmonious relationship between people
28. The term criminology was originally derived from
Italian word:
a. Crimen (latin) b. criminologo (Spanish)
c. criminologia d. criminologie (French)

Ciminologia = Rafaelle Garofalo

Criminologie = Paul Topinard
29. It is the scientific study of crime and the effort of the
society to prevent and repressed them?
a. Crime b. Criminology
c. Victimology d. Criminal justice

Crime - an act of omission punishable by law prohibiting

or commanding it
Victimology – study of the role of victim / victim’s
participation
Criminal Justice – Study of various Government Agencies
which deals with crime control
30. The study of Criminology involves the use of knowledge
and concept of other sciences and field of study which makes
the study of criminology:
a. Dynamic b. Nationalistic
c. Social science d. An applied science

Crime = act or omission punishable by law

Types of laws
1. RPC = Felony
2. SPL = Offense
3. Ordinance – Infraction
 4 nature of Criminology

S – SOCIAL SCIENCE -STUDY PEOPLE and

community
A – APPLIED SCIENCE – barrow knowledge
N – NATIONALISTIC – we study our own criminal law
D – DYNAMIC – changing, developing, improving
Atty. Ramil Gabao – Chaiman
Hon. George Fernandez – member
Hon. Warren Corpuz – Member
Hon. Lanie Palmones – Member
- Appointed by the President
Misdemeanor – minor violations of law usually committed
by children (delinquency)
31. Criminal ________ refers to the study of the
relationship between criminality and the inhabitants of a
certain locality (population):
a.Ecology - crime & spatial distribution
b) Demography
c) Epidiomology – crime & environment / milieu
d) Physical anthropology – crime & physical constitution
of men (physical appearance)
32. It deals primarily with the study of crime causation.
a. Criminology b. Criminal Etiology
c. Victimology d. Criminal Sociology

3 branches of criminology
S – SOCIOLOGY OF LAWS - NATURE OF LAW
E – ETIOLOGY OF CRIMES – CAUSES & ORIGIN OF
CRIME (criminogenesis)
P – PENOLOGY – penal science
33. An act or omission in violation of the public law
commanding or forbidding it.
Crime
34. Crimes are committed either by dolo or deceit or by
_____________.
a. Culpa b. intent
c. Fault d. both a and c
35. The following are the elements of Dolo or deceit,
EXCEPT:
a. Intelligence c. Freedom
b. Intent d. Negligence (CULPA)
 3 elements of DOLO

I – intent
F – freedom – affected by duress (uncontrollable fear and
irrestible force
I – intelligence = insanity & imbecility

Negligence + imprudence + LOS + LOF = culpa

36. Jessa, a victim of rape, was able to identify her assailant,
a neighbor, before she dies on her way to the hospital where
she was declared dead on arrival, This crime is called, (Rape
with homicide)
a. complex crime b. simple crime
c) instant crime d) situational crime

Simple crime  one act = one crime

Instant Crime  short period of time
Situational Crime  the situation is conducive
37. Ms. Malou Wang is a skilled woman in making
deception through verbal communication. She had
committed estafa to several persons through illegal
recruitment. What crime according to result did she
committed?
a. acquisitive crime – material gain
b. extinctive crime – “destructive crime”
c. instant crime
d. situational crime
Compound crime = one act resulting to 2 or more grave or
less grave felonies
38. It refers to the study of the role of the victim in the
commission of a crime.
a. criminal victim b. criminal psychiatry
c. victimless crime d. victimology

Victim = forgotten character o the CJS

Main actor / principal person = Accused / Offender
39. It is the scientific study of human behavior or man’s
external manifestation in relation to criminality.
a) Epidiomology
b) Criminal Psychiatry
c) Criminal psychology
d) Physical anthropology

Alienist = criminologist who blames crime in mental

disorders
40. A crime can be classified according to its stages of
commission. What crime is committed when the offender
merely commences the execution of an offense by overt act
but which nevertheless did not perform all acts of
execution `which would produce the felony by reason of
some cause other than his own spontaneous desistance?
a. Attempted crime b. Consummated crime
c. Frustrated crime d. Complex crime

Performed all acts but did not produce the felony =

frustrated
41. It is the process by which individual reduce the
frequency of their offending behavior as the age increases.
a. doing gender b. aging out
c. criminal reduction d. active precipitation

a.k.a. spontaneous recission

Male  erectile dysfunction

Female  arousal insufficiency  dry
Vaginismus  vaginal lock
42. Crimes are classified under the Revised Penal Code
according to their gravity. What crime to which the law
attaches the capital punishment or afflictive penalties.
a. grave felonies b. less grave felonies
c. light felonies d. complex felonies

Grave – Prision Mayor – RT – RP  Death

Less grave  arresto Mayor – Prision Correctional
Light  arresto menor – Fine P200
43. What crimes according to the time or period of the
commission are those which are committed only when the
circumstances or situation is conducive to its commission
like for instance, committing theft in a crowded place.
a. seasonal crimes b. instant crimes
c. situational crimes d. continuing crimes

Certain part of the year = seasonal

Committed in several places = continuing crime / transitory
crimes
One place = Static Crime
44. There are crimes that are committed within a certain
length of time. What crime is committed by a series of acts
in a lengthy space of time?
a. static crime b. instant crime
c. situational crime d. episodical crime

45. Crimes such as theft, shoplifting, and others which are

committed to maintain one’s livelihood or as a means for
living are what crimes?
a. Rational crimes b. Irrational crimes
c. Blue-collar crimes d. White collar crimes
46. It is that element of intentional felony which means that the
person who committed the felony has the capacity to
distinguish between what is right and wrong and fully
understands the consequences of his actions:
a. intelligence b. imprudence (element of culpa
c. intent d. freedom
47. A psychological disorder in which a child shows
developmentally inappropriate impulsivity, hyperactivity
and lack of attention.
a. psychotism b. attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
(ADHD)
c. neuroticism d. KSP disorder
48. The commission of criminal acts using the instruments of modern
technology such as computers or the internet.
a. cyber sex b. cyber crime
c. computer crimes d. computer hacking
RA 10175 – Cyber Crime Prevention Act
Hacking = “Cracking” – illegal access to a computer system or website
Cyber Sex – Online Prostitution using webcam or computer
49. An act in violation of the criminal law that is designed to bring
financial gain to the offender.
a. organized crime b. economic crime
c. cyber crime d. profit crime
Economic Crime = White Collar Crime
Organized Crime = crime committed by 3 or more person
acting in concert with aim of committed a serious with
profit / monetary benefit / material gain / motivation
(Criminal Enterprise / Criminal Syndicate)

Criminal Organization  business of Crime = Cartel

(Racketeering)
50. This term literally means “little war”. Today, the term is used
interchangeably with the term “terrorism”.
a. violence b. revolution
c. guerilla – forest warfare d. rebel
RA 11479 – Anti Terror Law of 2020
51. The killing of a large number of people over time by an
offender who seeks to escape detection.
a. road rage b. hate crime
c. mass murder d. serial murder
Road rage – assault between 2 motorist
Hate Crime – “bias Crime “ selective victimization = LGBT, Race,
Ethnic group, religion
52. Known as the “Mother of Criminals”.
a. Margaret Juke b. Ada Kallikak
c. Ada Juke d. Ada Edwards
Who studied ada juke = Richard Dugdale
53. It refers to a study showing the relationship between the
physical built of a person to his personality structure and
the type of offense he is most prone to commit
a. physiognomy (facial features) – G. dela Porta
b) somatotype (Sheldon / Kretschmer)
c. phrenology (shape of skull)
d) psychology
54. It is a proposal of a double male or super male
syndrome. This theory held that the possession of an extra
Y-chromosome causes males to be violent and aggressive.
a. XYY syndrome b XXY syndrome
c. YYX syndrome d. YXX syndrome

X Chromosomes = mother (23)

Y chromosomes = father (23)
55. A phenomenon that refers to the handling down of
delinquent behaviors as socially learned and transferred
from one generation to the next taking place mostly among
disorganized urban areas.
a. Cultural Transmission b) Social Phenomenon
c. Crime d) Delinquent behavior

Transmission of traits = heredity

Transmission of norms = cultural transmission
56. In this theory of crime causation, mankind is viewed as
manifestations of basically evil human nature reflecting
either with the prince of darkness or an expression of
divine wrath.
a. Classical theory – absolute free will
b. positivist theory – scientific factors
c. Demonological theory – pre-classical / judeo –
christian theory
d. neo-classical theory – free will is not absolute
57. An attempt to determine intelligence and personality on
the basis of the size and shape of the skull.
a. Physiognomy
b. palmistry
c. Craniology
d. Somatotype
57. An attempt to determine intelligence and personality on
the basis of the size and shape of the skull.
a. Physiognomy
b. Palmistry – determining the destiny based on the ridges
of the palm
c. Craniology
d. Somatotype
58. It involves the measurement of facial and other body
characteristics as indicative of human personality.
a. Physiology
b. somatotype
c. Physiognomy
d. Palmistry

Face = physiognomy
Body = somatology
59. According to Sheldon, the three “somatotypes” or body
built which have relationships to personality characteristics
are the following, EXCEPT:
a. Ectomorph – thin  asthenic
b. Extomorph
c. Endomorph – fat  pyknic
d. Mesomorph – muscular  athletic

Combination = dysplastic (crimes against morality of men)

60. A type of violent offender who uses violence as a means
of perpetrating the criminal act:
a. Culturally violent offender – violence resulting from
poverty
b. pathologically violent offender – violence resulting from
insanity
c. Criminally violent offender
d. situationally violent offender – occasional violence

He divided 4 types of violent criminals = John Conrad

61. One way of classifying criminals is on the basis of
etiology. What kind of criminal is that whose action arises
from the intra-psychic conflict between the social and
anti-social components of his personality?
a. Acute (anger and passion) “Lombroso” – Criminaloids

c. Chronic (deliberate thinking)

b. neurotic
d. normal (copycat crime)
62. Criminals can also be classified according to this
behavioral system. What are those criminals who have
high degree of organization that enables them to commit
crime without being detected and usually operates in a
large scale?
a. ordinary criminals
b. professional criminals –highly skilled + source of
income
c. situational criminals
d. organized criminals
63. A forcible sex in which the offender and the victim are
acquainted with each other.
a. statutory rape (12 y/o below)
b. date rape (unmarried couple)
c. marital rape (spouses)
d. acquaintance rape
Rape = latin “rapere” to take by force
2 types of rape
1. Rape thru sexual intercourse (RPC)
2. Rape thru sexual Assault (RA 8353 – 1997)
penis  mouth or anus
object  vagina or anus
RPC – no
Husband – rape –as principal by direct participation
Wife – rape – as principal by indispensable cooperation

RA 8353 – yes!

Object  vagina
(finger / bote/ pinay  vagina)
64. According to Lombroso, these are physical
characteristics that distinguish born criminals from the
general population and are throwbacks to animals or
primitive people.
a. physical deviations
b. distinguishable traits
c. atavistic stigmata – at least 5 – born criminal
d. ape-like appearance

Atavism  evolutionary factors ; anthropological approach

65. It is the most essential part of the definition of the
criminal law:
a. elements b. penalty
c. degree of evidence d. motive

66. The concept that conduct norms are passed down from
one generation to the next so that they become stable within
the boundaries of a culture.
a. heredity b. inheritance
c. cultural transmission d. DNA
DNA – DEOXYRIBONUCLEIC ACID
67. Group of urban sociologists who studies the
relationship between environmental conditions and
crime.
a. classical school - freewill b. chicago school
c. neo-classical school – freewill is not absolute
d. positive school – crime is a product of scientific factors

Chicago school = founded by Clifford Shaw and Henry

Mckay
68. He is recognized as the first codifier of laws:
a. Drakon b. the Hittites
c. Solon d. Hammurabi

Code of Draco – 1st code of Greece / harsh code of

Greece
- all crimes must be punishable by Death.
69. He said that individuals are like human calculators
(felicific calculus). Before a person commits a crime, he
first analyzes whether the satisfaction he would gain is
greater than the possible negative effect he would have to
suffer if the gets caught doing the crime:
a. Cesare Beccaria (Classical)
b. b. Cesare Lombroso (Atavism)
c. Edwin Sutherland (DAT)
d. Jeremy Bentham
70. Who stated that crime is normal in a society?
a. Cesare Beccaria b. Cesare Lombroso
c. Emile Durkheim d. Enrico Ferri
71. This theory contested the findings of Beccaria’s Free
Will Study, stating that its absence among mentally
retardate persons or those with some psychological
imbalances and personality disorders or physical
disabilities, could likewise lead to violation of laws thereby
citing said theory as one of crime causation.
a. Classical Criminology
b. b. Positivist Criminology
c. Neoclassical Criminology
d. Social Structure Theory
Freewill = Self rule / Autonomy
72. This refers to the act of killing a large number of people
in a single violent outburst.
a. Road rage
b. serial killing
c. Mass murder – no cool off stage
d. mass destruction
73. A type of sexual deviancy where the person achieves
sexual gratification by cruelty, psychotic desire to often
torment torture or otherwise abuse his victim.
a. Masochism – endurer of pain awhile having sex
b. Bestiality – zoophilia / bestosexual
c. Sadism – inflictor of pain while having sex
d. Incest – sex with a blood related person
Sado – masochism = algolagnia
 Sexual Deviance  “abnormal sexuality” – “paraphilia”

Normal Sex
1. Hetero Sexual – opposite sexes
2. Marital Affair
3. Purpose – reproduction
4. Position – missionary
As to choice of partner
1. Child – pedophilia
2. Old – Gerontophilia
3. Animal – Bestiality
4. Object – Fetishism
5. Same Sex – Homosexuality
6. Dead – Necrophilia
7. Blood related – incest
8. Self – autosexuality

Pygmalionism – love with a doll, statue

As to number of participants
1. Troilism – “cockholdism” – 3some
2. Pluralism – more than 3 “sexual festival “orgy”

As to expression
3. Sadism
4. Masochism
5. Oralism (mouth)
a. felatio – irrumation
b. cunnilingus – licking of vagina
c. anillism - licking of anus
AS TO PARTS OF THE BODY
1. SODOMY – “BUGGERY” – anal sex
2. Frottage – kis kis gang
3. Uranism  “KFC”
4. Partialism – being attracted to a specific body part
74. A sexual relationship between persons closely related
by blood.
a. Incest
b. sadism
c. Masochism
d. Rape
75. These are violent acts directed toward a particular
person or members of group merely because the targets
share discernible racial, ethnic, religious or gender
characteristics.
a. Violent crimes
b. hate crimes
c. Copy-cat crimes – idolization and imitation “Gabriel
Tarde”
d. victimless crimes
76. A term to denote a premeditated, politically motivated
violence perpetrated against non-combatant targets by
subnational groups or clandestine agents, usually intended
to influence an audience.
a. Rebellion
b. piracy
c. Terrorism
d. little war
Murder
Kidnapping
Firearms

Victim: Non Combatants (civilians)

Goal: inflict massive fear
Purpose: coerce the government to give in to their unlawful demands

NPA  CHANGE THE FORM OF GOVERNMENT

ASG / ISIS / MAUTE  ESTABLISH AN INDEPENDENT
COUNTRY SOUTHERN PHILIPPINE.
77. It conceded that certain factors such as insanity might inhibit
the exercise of free will. – free will is affected by insanity
a. Classical theory – free will is absolute
b. neo-classical
c. Sociological
d. Positivist
78. These are crimes committed by a person of respectability and
high social status in the course of occupation.
a. Blue collar crimes
b. crime of the upper world
c. White collar crimes
d. crime of the underworld
79. The law that provides Board Examination for
Criminologists in the Philippines.
a. R.A. 6975 – DILG act of 1990
b. R.A. 8551 – PNP Reform and Reorganization Act of
1998
c. R.A. 6506 – TEODULO C NATIVIDAD
d. R.A. 8353 – Anti Rape law of 1997
80. The law that repealed RA 6506 and established the
“Criminology Profession Act of 2018”
a. RA 10175 – Anti Cyber Crime Law
b. RA 11131 – Antonio Trillanes
c. RA 10591 – Comprehensive Firearms and Ammunition
Code
d. RA 10575 – BuCor law of 2013
81. Criminals who have a high degree of organization to enable
them to commit crimes without being detected.
a. Professional criminals
b. ordinary criminals
c. Organized criminals
d. expert criminals – use techonology
82. Who among the following are the “Holy Three in Criminology”?
a. Lombroso, Bentham, Beccaria
b. Lombroso, Garofalo, Ferri – Positivism (Italian school)
c. Beccaria, Bentham, Ferri
d. Beccaria, Garofalo, Lombroso
83. Culture Conflict Theory was thorough studied by ____
wherein he concluded that the main difference between a
criminal and a non-criminal is that each is responding to
different sets of conduct norms.
A. Emile Durkheim – Anomie
B. Andre Michael Guerry – Crime Mapping
C. Thorsten Sellin
D. Abraham Maslow – Hierarchy of Needs

Highest form of needs according to maslow = Self

Actualization (realization of ambition)
84. This school of thought in criminology states that
although individuals have self-rule, there are other factors
that affect the exercise of their autonomy, which cause them
commit crimes:
a) neo-classical b) utilitarianism
c) classical d) positivist

Utilitarianism – Jeremy Bentham

1. Greatest happiness principle
2. Principle of utility
85. This theory reflects the way people react to a given
situation based on the social influences they acquired
from other people that practically determine their
behaviors. This theory likewise serves as the learning
process of delinquent behaviors and considered as one of
the most important theory in crime causation.
a) Social Disorganization theory
b) Culture Conflict theory
c) Differential Association Theory – E.S .
d) Social Reaction Theory
 Social Disorganization Theory
Shaw & McKay
O – Overpopulation
M – Migration
U – Unemployment
B – Broken Family
I – Industrialization
P – Povertty
U – Urbanization
86. It is the breakdown of social order as a result of the loss
of order in a society.
a. Synomie b) anarchy
c) anomie - E.D. d) chaos
87. He introduced the “theory of imitation” which states
that individuals copy behavior patterns of other individuals,
and that those with weaker personalities tend to get
influenced easier by those with stronger personalities:
a. Emile Durkheim b) Adolphe Quetelet
c) Gabriel Tarde d) Enrico Ferri
Enrico Ferri – member of holy three; supporter of positivism
crime = sociological factors
1. political factors
2. Economic Factors

88. A term that used to describe motorists who assault each other.
a. road rage b. predation
c. hate crime d. serial murder
Predation – looking for a weaker person to victimize
Predator – dominant animals
Prey – weaker animals
89. This theory argues that intelligence is largely
determined genetically; that ancestry determines IQ; and,
that low intelligence as demonstrated by low IQ is linked to
behavior including criminal behavior:
a. Nature Theory b) Psychological theory
c) Strain Theory d) Labeling theory

1st IQ test = Alfred Binet

90. The theory which states that attachment, connection
and link to society will determine whether a person shall
commit a crime or not:
a. social control
b) social disorganization
c) social bond – Travis Hirschi
d) social learning
B.I.A.C – belief, involvement, attachment & commitment =
social bond theory
91. This asserts that strong self-image (inner control)
protects the youth from the influence and pressure of
criminogenic pulls (outer control) in his environment.
A. Rational Choice theory  Classical School
B. Conflict theory – Karl Marx – Bourgeois vs Proletariat
C. Label theory – Social Reaction
D. Containment theory – Walter Reckless
92. The philosophy of justice that asserts that those who
violate the rights of others deserve to be punished. The
severity of the punishment should be commensurate with
the seriousness of the crime.
a. restorative justice b. jus desert
c. utilitarianism d. equality of punishment

Legal sense – jus desert

Hammurabi’s – lex talionis
Classical – Retribution
Penology – Commensurate Penalty
93. A condition in which the glucose in the blood falls
below levels necessary for normal and efficient brain
functioning.
a. hyperglycemia
b. b. hyperglycomia
c. hypoglycemia – low blood sugar level
d. Hypoglycomia

BIO-CHEMICAL THEORY
94. This school on crime causation emphasized economic
determinism and concentrated on the need for the quality
among all citizens. They provided statistical data which
claimed to show that variations in crime rates are associated
with variations in economic conditions.
a. Cartographic School (SCL – STATISTICS,
CLIMATE & LOCATION) – Adolphe Quetelet
b. Socialist School
c. Psychiatric School
d. Chicago School – Crime and Environmental Condition
95. “Manie sans delire” (madness without confusion) This
was the term used by Philippe Pinel describing the
personality that is characterized by an inability to learn
from experience, lack of warmth, and no sense of guilt
better known as:
a. psychotic personality – “H.I.D.”
b. psychopathic personality
c. neurotic behavior – mild mental disorder
d. dementia praecox – other term for Schizophrenia”
96. A police officer’s frustration in the realization of his
ambition and goals in life both as an officer of the law, and
as a private citizen, can push him to a life of crime, as
pointed out in this particular theory.
a. Disorganization Theory – “OMUBIPU”
b. Culture Conflict Theory “ Thorsten Sellin – UC vs
Lower Class Culture”
C. Differential Association Theory – “ALICSI” – Edwin
Sutherland
d. Strain Theory
97. Crimes which occur per 100,000 population per month.
It is the theoretical basis which determines the peace and
order situation.
a. index crimes b. crime rate
c. non-index crimes d. crime statistics

Crime statistics – refers to the data on the amount and

level of crime.
Index Crimes – crimes with sufficient frequency (RPC)
Non-Index – Less Frequent (SPL)
98. A stage of development when girls begin to have sexual
feeling for their fathers.
a. Oedipus complex b. doing gender
c. Electra complex (female Oedipus)d. chivalry
hypothesis

Male  sexual attraction  mother = Oedipus complex

Oedipus and electra complex  Phallic Stage

 SIGMUND FREUD
Birth – 2 y/o => mouth – oral stage
2 – 3  bowel movement – anal stage
3 – 5  phallic stage
Late childhood - weaker sexuality = latency
Adulthood – matured sexuality = genital stage
99. The legal principle by which the decision or holding in
an earlier case becomes the standard by which subsequent
similar cases are judged. It literally means “to stand by
decided cases”.
a. jus desert b. stare decisis – jurisprudence
c. story decisis d. just stare

Jurisprudence – court decisions that became part of the law

SAME CASES = SAME JUDGMENT
100. This is a theory by Robert Merton which assumes that people
are law abiding but under great pressure, they will resort to crime.
a. strain theory b. social learning
c. cultural deviance d. anomie (e,d)

101. The first IQ test was developed by a French psychologist

named:
a. Rafael Garofalo (Moral Anomalies)
b. Albert Bandura (Social Learning Theory)
c. Walter Reckless (Containment)
d. Alfred Binet
102. His study focused on the Kallikak family tree and he
concluded that feeblemindedness is inherited and related to
deviant behavior and poverty. He was the first person to use
the term “moron”.
a. Richard Dugdale  he studied Ada Juke
b. b. Henry Goddard
c. Ernest Hooton – criminal are physical inferior
d. Charles Goring – he said the criminals must be
prohibited from having children
103. This theory focuses on the development of high crime
areas associated with the disintegration of conventional
values caused by rapid industrialization, increased
migration and urbanization.
a. Cultural Deviance Theory
b. Differential Association Theory
c. Social Disorganization Theory
d. Strain Theory
104. A societal stage marked by normlessness in which
disintegration and chaos have replaced social cohesion.
a. Social disorganization
b. Anomie – older version of strain theory
c. Strain
d. Synomie
105. He invoked that only justified rationale for laws and
punishment is the principle of the greatest happiness shared
by the greatest number of people.
a. Utilitarianism
b. Jeremy Bentham  “PHUF”
c. Felicific Calculus
d. Cesare Beccaria
106. The beginning to have sexual feelings for the mother,
which occurs during the third year from birth is known as:
a. Oedipus Complex
b. Inferiority Complex
c. Electra Complex – FEMALE  FATHER
d. Incest
107. Serious illegal detention is a crime committed through
series of acts or episodes and in much longer time. This
crime is classified as:
a. Instant crime – short time
b. episodical crime
c. Situational crime – situation is conducive
d. seasonal crime – committed in a certain part of the year
108. The following are the characteristics of the Classical School of
Criminology:
I. The basis of criminal liability is human free will and the purpose of
penalty is retribution (yes)
II. Man is essentially a moral creature with an absolute free will to
choose between right and wrong. (yes)
III. Criminals are distinguishable from non-criminals because of their
physical deviations. (no)
IV. That every man is therefore responsible for his act. (yes)
a. I, II, III are correct.
b. I, III, IV are correct.
c. II, III, IV are correct.
d. I, II, IV are correct.
109. His great contributions to criminology were the
principle of utilitarianism and the felicific calculus.
a. Cesare Beccaria
b. Jeremy Bentham
c. Cesare Lombroso
d. Emile Durkheim
110. He propounded the theory of evolution that inspired
the now known “Father of Modern Criminology” to
develop the theory of atavism.
a. Cesare Lombroso
b. Charles Goring
c. Cesare Beccaria
d. Charles Darwin
111. According to him, people with criminal behavior,
should be prohibited from having children.
a. Robert Dugdale
b. Henry Goddard
c. Charles Goring
d. George Wilker – criminology is not a science
112. It states that individuals are deviant mainly because
they have been labeled as deviant by social agencies and
others. The notion of deviance is not inherent in the act
itself, but rather in the reaction and stigma attached to the
actor.
a. Containment Theory – walter reckless
b. Theory of Imitation – Gabriel tarde
c. Social Process Theory – group of theories such as DAT,
Differential reinforcement & Neutralization
d. Social Reaction theory
113. Cesare Lombroso classified this type of criminal with
five (5) or more atavistic stigmata.
a. Born-criminal type
b. Insane – mental disorder (neurotic Criminals)
c. Criminaloid – criminal by passion (Acute criminals)
d. pseudo-criminal – criminal by self defense
114. These are crimes which are wrong from their very
nature. Examples of these are murder, robbery, and other
violations of the Revised Penal Code.
a. Heinous crimes
b. mala in se – “mallum inse” – naturally evil, morally
wrong.
c. Serious crimes
d. mala prohibita – wrong due to existing laws.

All SPLs are mala prohibita. True or false?

115. These are crimes which are wrong only because there are laws
that prohibit them in order to regulate an orderly society. Examples
of these are the violations of special laws like the violation of
“Anti-Smoking Law”.
a. Mala prohibita
b. less grave felonies
c. Mala in se
d. light felonies

RA 8750 – SEATBELT LAW – M.P.

RA 8353- RAPE LAW OF 1997- M.I
RA 10054 – HELMET LAW – M.P.
116. The principle of criminal law which is “nullum crimen
nulla poena sine lege” means:
a. An act done by me against my will is not my act
b. There is no crime where no law punishing it.
c. Ignorance of the law excuses no one. (IGNORANTIA
LEX NON EXCUSAT)
d. Mistake of fact is an excuse. (IGNORANTIA FACTI
EXCUSAT)
117. He was the one who introduced the following
definition of criminology: “It is the entire body of
knowledge regarding crime as a social phenomenon. It
includes within its scope the process of making laws, of
breaking laws and of reacting towards the breaking of the
laws”:
a) Raffaelle Garofalo b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Beccaria d) Paul Topinard

Edwin Sutherland & Donald Cressy – broad definition of

criminology
118. Classical Theory states that individuals have freewill.
It is focused on an individual's choice as to whether or not
he will commit a crime and the purpose of Classical Theory
in giving punishment is________________.
a) Restoration b) Treatment
c) Retribution d) Deterrence

Positivism = Treatment
119. Refers to the circumstances which attendant in the
commission of a crime serve to increase the penalty,
without however exceeding the maximum of the penalty
provided by law for the offense.
a. Justifying b. Exempting
c. Mitigating d. Aggravating

Lowering = mitigating
Lower / increase = alternative
No criminal liability / no civil = justifying
No criminal but with civil = exempting
120. Those wherein the acts of the person are in
accordance with the law, hence he incurs no criminal
liability.
a. Exempting – Art 12
b. Aggravating – Art 14
c. Justifying – Art 11
d. Mitigating – Art 13
Alternative – Art 15

JEMAA – Art 11 – 15
121. Mr. A committed loitering within the vicinity of
Manila City Hall on January 14, 2011. June 14, 2011, a city
ordinance was passed punishing loitering within the
vicinity of Isetan Recto. Can A be held liable for his act of
loitering?
a. Yes, for there is a law passed punishing it
b. Yes under the principle of retroactive effect of criminal
law
c. No, for the act was done prior to the effectivity of the
law. (prospectivity / irretrospectivity)
d. No, for A did not loiter again.
122. Having spent half of his life in the study of the causes
of crime and true to his dedication to his lifetime works,
upon his death he willed his brain and body to the Institute
of Anatomy at the University of Turin in Italy to be further
studied. To this, he was named the “Father of Modern and
Empirical Criminology”.
a) Cesare Beccaria b) Edwin Sutherland
c) Cesare Lombroso d) Jeremy Bentham
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY
123. Which of the following is NOT included in the
components of criminal justice system of the United States?
a. Law enforcement b. Corrections
c. Prosecution d. Courts
LAW ENFORCEMENT
- POLICE PILLAR
- INITIATOR OF CJS
- PRIME MOVER
- FRONTLINE DEFENDER
PROSECUTION
- LINKING PILLAR
- LAWYER OF THE STATE
- SCREENING PILLAR
COURT
- CENTERPIECE OF CJS
- MOST IMPORTANT PILLAR
- MEDIATOR OF JUSTICE
- DISPENSER OF JUSTICE
- NOT PART OF THE EXECUTIVE
CORRECTION
- WEAKEST PILLAR
- COLOR CODED PILLAR
- PENALIZATION PILLAR

COMMUNITY
- INDEPENDENT PILLAR
- REINTEGRATION PILLAR
124. Refers to any person below 18 years of age or those
over but unable to fully take care of themselves from
neglect, abuse, cruelty, exploitation or discrimination due to
some physical defect or mental disability or condition.
a. child
b. wards – child under guardianship
c. physically disabled d. youth
PD 603 – CHILD BELOW 21
RA 6809 – CHILD BELOW 18
RA 7610 – CHILD (BELOW 18 & 18 ABOVE –
IMBECILE)
125. Act or omission which may not be punishable if
committed by an adult but becomes unlawful when they
are committed by a child or a person of tender year or one
who is in need of supervision or assistance.
a. crime b. status offense
c. delinquency d. felonies

ex. Curfew, truancy (absent 20 days), vagrancy, profanity,

running away from home, smoking (RA 9211)
126. The power of the state to give any form of charity of public
nature. It is the philosophy behind the view that youthful
offender/child in conflict with the law is the victim of improper
care and that the state is duty bound to provide protection.
a. positivism
b. loco parentis – temporary guardian (teacher, nurse, baby
sitter)
c. patria potestas - parental authority
d. parens patriae (father of the land / state)
Guardian Ad litem – for the proceeding

Criminology magaling salatin

18  emancipated child  freedom from parental
authority

127. Under the law, they are the one responsible for
preventing the child from becoming addicted to
intoxicating drinks, narcotic drugs, smoking, gambling or
any harmful practices.
a. DSWD b. Parents (parental responsibility)
c. state d. police
128. The civil personality of the child is deemed to have
been commenced upon:
a. birth of the child
b. when the child celebrates his first birthday
c. from the time of his conception
d. upon reaching the age of majority

Act of expulsion of a fetus from the womb?

ABORTION
129. Refers to a person appointed by the court to act as
the legal guardian of the child even though the parents of
the child are still alive when the best interest of the said
child so require.
a. Adopter – adoptive parent
b. loco parentis
c. guardian ad litem
d. temporary guardian – loco parentis

Adoptive child – adoptee

130. Under the RA 9344 a child over 15 under 18 is exempt from criminal liability(+)
unless (-) :
a. he is committed a heinous crime
b. he is the principal accused
c. he acted without discernment
d. he acted with discernment
Summary of RA 9344
15 below = automatic exemption
Bellow 18 = rugby, prosti, mendicancy, ordinance  exempted
15 & 1 day – 17  turn over social worker (to determine if there is
DISCERNMENT)
no discernment = EXEMPTED
with discernment
a. 6 years below = Diversion
b above 6 years = File a complaint
Guilty = suspended sentence  bahay pag asa  18th
birthday
3 choices
1. Discharge – release
2. Extend – 21 y/o
3. Execute
3 years below = BJMP / provincial jail
above 3 years = BuCor
 DIVERSION VS INTERVENTION

DIVERSION VS INTERVENTION

Alternative for trial Purpose Equivalent to

Rehabilitation
Settlement of case If the child is
without resorting to exempted to the crime
formal court
proceeding
CASE CLOSE
131. The Child in Conflict with the law cannot be
prosecuted for the commission of the following, EXCEPT:
a. mendicancy b. sniffing of rugby
c. prostitution d. theft

132. A child left by himself without provisions for his

needs/or without proper supervision falls under what
special category of a child?
a. abandoned child b. abused child
c. neglected child d. dependent child
No parent, no guardian for 3 months = abandoned child
Needs are coming from public support = dependent child
Low IQ, mentally subnormal  Retarded Child
Severe Mental disorder  Mentally ill
Anxiety, depression, phobia  emotionally disturbed
Buta, bungol, piang, amang  Handicapped
133. In the absence or death of both parents of the child
who shall continue to exercise authority over the child?
I. Surviving grand parents (yes)
II. Elder brother and sister over 21 years of age (yes)
III. Surviving parents of child (no)
IV. Actual custodian of the child over 21 years of age. (yes)
Note: substitute parental authority
a. I, II and IV only b. I and II only
c. I, II, III only d. all of the above
134. Is a self-association of peers, bound together by
mental interest, who acted in concert in order to achieve a
specific purpose which includes the conduct of illegal
activities and control over a particular territory, facility or
type of enterprises.
a. Juvenile gang b. Organized criminal
c. a bond d. street corner gang

Positive activities  Cliques

135. The court can suspend parental authority if it finds
that the parent:
I. Treats the child with excessive harshness of cruelty. (yes)
II. Gives the child corrupting order, counsel or example
(yes)
III. Compel the child to beg (yes)
IV. Imposed to child disciplinary actions. (no)
a. I and II only c. I and III only
b. I, II, III and IV d. I, II and III only
136. Who among the following is considered as “Child in Conflict with
the Law”?
a. Bryan who is 15 years old.
b. Yang who is 10 years old.
c. Lover Boy who is 17 years old
d. anyone of them
137. Refers to the totality of the circumstances which are most beneficial
for the child.
a. child as zone of peace – status of children during armed conflict (war)
b. nation building
c. best interest of the child (all decision, processes, laws must be in
favor of the benefit of the child)
d. presumption of minority
138. Children shall be given priority during_____ as result
of armed conflict?
a. war b. treatment
c. evacuation d. education
139. A child whose basic needs have been deliberately
unattended.
a. abandoned child b. dependent child
c. abusive child d. neglected child

2 types of neglect
Food , water, clothes, shelter = Physical neglect
Love, care, attention = emotional neglect
140. Is the mass obligation which the parents have in relation to the
persons and property of their an unemancipated child.
a. Paretal authority b. Patria Potestas
c. Parens’ Patriae d. Parental Responsibility

141. A person of such age is automatically exempted from criminal

liability but should be taken to the custody and care of his parents,
DSWD representative or any institution engage in child caring.
a. 15 years and below
b. under 18 years of age
c. under 15 years of age
d. under 21 years of age
All of the damages incurred by the child shall be paid by parents =
family purpose doctrine
143. In case of separation between parents of the child, a
child of such age is given by the court the preference to
choose between either parents.
a. under 9 years of age b. 7 years of age
c. 10 years of age d. 5 years of age

Note: tender years doctrine (not an absolute rule)

Best interest of the child rule
Not applicable for unmarried couple
144. Parental authority is deemed terminated upon:
a. death of the parents
b. emancipation of the child
c. death of the child
d. All of the choices
145. Which of the following is the best way for the police to
win youth’s trust and confidence?
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good and stand with pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a person in authority
142. Refers to a child raise to the status of legitimate child
by subsequent marriage of his/her parents.
a. illegitimate b. legitimated
c. legitimate d. adopted

Marriage  child = legitimate

Child  marriage = legitimated
Child – unknown parents  Foundling

RA 9255 – illegitimates can use the surname of their fathers

145. Which of the following is the best way for the police
to win youth’s trust and confidence?
a. be friendly
b. be firm and show them that you are strong
c. show to them that your bearing is good and stand with
pride
d. let them know that you are an agent of a person in
authority
146. A child born inside a marriage where either party is
suffering from an impediments.
a. illegitimate child b. legitimated child
c. legitimate child d. adopted child

147. This refers to the apprehension or taking into custody of a

child who committed an offense by the law enforcement
officer:
a. initial contact with the child
b. preliminary investigation
c. initial investigation
d. inquest proceedings
148. This common procedure applied when arresting an
offender shall NOT be employed when the person who is
the subject of apprehension is a child.
a. informing the suspect is a child
b. stating the reason for the arrest
c. employing reasonable force
d. use of handcuffs
149. In case of a child in conflict with the law his age shall
be determine. In the absence of proof what principle shall
be observed?
a. He is presumed to be minor
b. He should prove his age
c. The Birth certificate should be produced pending such
issuance he should be hold.
d. The testimony of the child should be enough to prove his
age.
150. It is the psychological, emotional and behavioral
reactions and deficits of women victims and their inability
to respond to repeated physical and psychological
violence?
A. Battered Woman Syndrome
B. Battered Wife – victim of BWS
C. Abused Woman
D. Rape trauma syndrome

Note: PP vs Genoza (landmark case for BWS)

Note: BWS is an absolutory cause (Exempting Circ.)
151. Child in conflict with the law may undergo diversion
program without necessity of court intervention on the
following:
a. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committee
is not more than six (6) years imprisonment;
b. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed
exceeds six (6) years imprisonment;
c. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed
exceeds six (6) years but not more than 12 years
imprisonment;
d. Where the imposable penalty for the crime committed
does not exceeds 12 years imprisonment.
152. Once the court, after trial finds that a child in conflict
with the law is guilty of the crime charged, the court shall:
a. Pronounce its judgment;
b. Wait for the application for suspension of sentence of the
child and order his turn over to DSWD.
c. Automatically place the child in conflict with law
under suspension of sentence. Until the age of “18” –
can be extended until 21
b. Determine the civil liability and order the final discharge
of the child in conflict with the law.
153. Once the child in conflict with the law reached the age
of 18 while under suspended sentence the court may:
A. Order the execution of sentence; (yes)
B. Order the discharge of the child in conflict with the law;
(yes)
C. Extend the suspended sentence at certain period or to its
maximum age of 21. (yes)
D. Any of the above choices
154. All records and proceedings involving children in
conflict with the law from initial contact until final
disposition of the case shall be:
a. placed in the dockets of court forms part of the public
record;
b. open to the public;
c. considered restricted;
d. considered privileged and confidential

Itago nalang natin sya sa pangalang bugart

155. Mona was charged with vandalism on her 18th
birthday when she painted her neighbor’s walls with
greeting to herself. How will you classify Mona as an
offender?
a. juvenile offender b. habitual offender
c. adult offender d. none

RA 6809 (1989) – THE LAW THAT CHANGES THE AGE

OF MAJORITY FROM 21 TO 18 (lola ni bimby)
156. All statements, EXCEPT ONE, are correct:
a. the family becomes a cause of juvenile delinquency
when parents find it hard to balance their jobs with their
parental responsibilities (yes)
b. peer group is a factor to juvenile delinquency (yes)
c. parental rejection causes juvenile delinquency (yes)
d. it is only within the family that a child must learn his
life values
157. Being an orphan, Pedro Basurero, roams the street 24
hours a day with no place to go, surviving on foods given
by kind-hearted people with no one to supervise him at
his young age of six (6). How do you categorize Pedro as a
child?
a. neglected child b. independent child c. Abandoned child
d. dependent child
158. Ms. RCBC, a 25-year old mongoloid, was raped by
her addict neighbor, Mr. Go. How do you classify her as a
victim?
a. an adult b. an insane
c. a child d. an adolescent

159. It is the act of buying and selling children:

a. exploitation b. prostitution
c. abuse d. trafficking (RA 9208)
 QUALIFIED TRAFFICKING
1. VICTIM IS A CHILD
2. ACCUSED IS A FAMILY MEMBER
3. ACCUSED IS A GOVERNMENT OFFICIAL
4. HIV / STD
160. This refers to the maltreatment of children, whether habitual or not:
a. exploitation b. abuse
c. prostitution d. trafficking

PROSTITUTION – SEX FOR HIRE

- Oldest job known to man
Types of prostitutes
1. Street walkers – “sidestreets” – kya kya kya
2. Call girls – “out call and in call”
3. Skeezer – sex for drugs
4. Lot lizards – trucking
5. Pimp / madam – “procurer” – bugaw
6. Gigolo – male prostitutes
161. Children are declared as ____________ in situations
of armed conflict:
a. priorities for evacuation b. exemptions
c. zones of peace d. shields
162. This refers to pledging by the debtor of his or her
personal services or those of a person under his or her
control as security or payment for a debt, when the length
and nature of services are not clearly defined:
a. debt bondage b. involuntary servitude
c. abuse d. slavery
Human trafficking = modern day slavery
163. A working child below fifteen years old may be
allowed to work for only _______ hours per day:
a. eight b. four
c. five d. six

RA 9321 – anti child labor law

Time of work
15 below  4hrs a day (6am to 8pm)
15-17  8hrs a day (6am to 10pm)
164. Publication of photographs of persons or children in various obscene or
indecent poses meant to cause sexual excitement to those who will see them
is a form of:
a. adult entertainment
b. illegal publication
c. obscene material
d. Pornography
2 laws against porn
1. RA 9995 – anti photo and video voyeurism law
2. RA 9775 – anti Child pornography
2 genres of porn
3. Soft core – no penetration (title: kapag dumikit kumakapit, budburan
mo ng latik ang nanunuyo kong pichi pichi, mamasa masang tilapia)
4. Hard core – with penetration
 7 prisons

4 – penal colonies
1. Iwahig
2. Sablayan
3. DaPeCol
4. San Ramon
3 – regular prisons
5. NBP
6. CIW
7. LRP
165. Employers shall provide an opportunity for education
to all working children up to this level:
a. elementary b. college
c. secondary d. vocational

166. In employing children, the employment contract must

be signed:
a) by the Department of Labor and Employment
b) in the presence of the family’s lawyer
c) by the child’s parent or guardian
d) and notarized by a Notary Public
167. In cases of working children, this has the duty of securing
the permit from the Department of Labor and Employment:
a. parents b. working child
c. manager d. employer

168. This form of violence includes acts causing or likely to

cause mental or emotional suffering of the victim such as but
not limited to intimidation, harassment, stalking and repeated
verbal abuse:
b. battery
c. psychological (incld. Destruction of property)
c. sexual d. physical
169. The crime of human trafficking shall be qualified
when:
a) the person trafficked is an elderly
b) the person trafficked is a woman
c) the person trafficked is a special child
d) the person trafficked is a child
170. This refers to any word or deed which debases,
degrades or demeans the intrinsic worth and dignity of the
child as human being.
a. Neglect b. psychological abuse
c. sexual abuse d. cruelty
171. The following person are liable for child prostitution, EXCEPT:
a. those who act as procurer of child prostitute (yes)
b. children recruited as prostitutes (victim)
c. managers or owners of the establishment where the prostitution
takes place (yes)
d. clients of child prostitute (yes)
172. This refers to the use, hiring, employment and coercing of
children as actors or models in printed pornographic materials:
a. indecent shows b. child prostitution
c. obscene publication d. child exploitation
Video, audio = pornography
Printed = obscene publication
indecent shows = live shows
173. The legislative act that penalizes the acts, means and
purposes of human trafficking:
a. R.A. 9344 – JJWSA b. R.A. 7610 – ACAL
c. R.A. 9208 d. R.A. 8043 – intercountry adoption
174. 1st. The crime of trafficking in person is qualified when
the trafficked person is a child. (true)
2nd. As a general rule, children below 15 years of age shall not
be employed. (true)
a. Both statements are correct.
b. The 1st statement is correct, the 2nd is incorrect.
c. The 1st statement is incorrect, the 2nd is correct.
d. Both statements are incorrect.
175. The “Anti-Violence Against Women and their
Children Act of 2004”:
a. R.A. 9262 b. R.A. 7610
c. R.A. 9208 d. R.A. 9344

176. It refers to an act of inflicting physical harm upon the

woman or her child resulting to the physical and
psychological or emotional distress.
a. stalking b. economic abuse
c. battery d. sexual violence
Battery – act
Battered woman = victim
BWS – effect

177. This includes the employment, use, inducement or

coercion of a child to engage in sexual intercourse or
lascivious conduct; the molestation, prostitution and or
incest with children.
a. sexual abuse b. physical abuse
b. psychological abuse d. cruelty
178. Refers to a program organized by travel
establishments and individuals which consist of packages
or activities, utilizing and offering escort and sexual
services as enticement for tourists.
a. prostitution b. exploitation
c. sex tourism d. pornography
179. Refers to an intentional act committed by a person
who knowingly and without lawful justification follows the
woman or her child or places the woman or her child under
surveillance directly or indirectly.
a. stalking b. economic abuse
c. battery d. sexual violence

What type of abuse is stalking? Psychological abuse

180. A working child over fifteen but under eighteen may
work but his work hours must not exceed ____ hours:
a) eight (6am – 10pm) b) seven
c) ten d) six

181. A working child who is below eighteen but over

fifteen years old may be allowed to work between the hours
of:
a) six to eight o’clock pm b) seven to eight o’clock p
c) six to ten o’clock pm d) seven to ten o’clock pm
182. It means failure to provide, for reasons other than
poverty, the basic needs of the child, such as food, clothing,
medical care, shelter and basic education
a. sexual abuse b. physical abuse
c. psychological abuse d. neglect

183. Refers to acts that make or attempt to make a woman

financially dependent.
a. stalking b. economic abuse
c. battery d. sexual violence
184. No child shall be employed as a model in any
advertisement directly or indirectly promoting the
following:
i. alcoholic beverages and intoxicating drinks (no)
ii. pornographic materials (no)
iii. medicines for use of adults (yes)
iv. cigarettes and any form of gambling (no)
a. I, II, III are correct
b. II, III, IV are correct
c. I, II, IV are correct
d. I, III, IV are correct
185. The law that provides special protection of children
against child abuse, exploitation and discrimination.
a. R.A. 7610
b. R.A. 9208
c. R.A. 9231 (anti child labor
d. P.D. 603 – the child and youth welfare code
186. The law prohibiting the worst forms of child labor.
a. R.A. 9262 - VAWC b. R.A. 7610
c. R.A. 9231 d. R.A. 9344

187. This form of child abuse includes lacerations,

fractured bones, burns, internal injuries and serious
bodily harm suffered by a child:
a. psychological b. emotional
c. physical d. cruelty
188. This is the Latin term for parental authority:
a) loco parentis – TEMPORARY GUARDIAN
b) patria potestas
c) parens patriae – father of the land
d) patria adorada – love of country
189. Before any petition for adoption may be approved, the
adopter and the adoptee must first undergo a supervised
trial custody for a period of:
a) at least six months b) not more than six months
c) at least one year d) not less than one year
Adopter
1. Legal age
2. Filipino
3. age gap – 16 years

Alien
4. 27 y/o
5. Age gap – 16
6. Diplomatic relationship
7. Residency = 3 years
190. This refers to the document issued by the court
signifying the approval of the application for adoption:
a) decree of adoption b) petition for adoption
c) annulment d) rescission
Petition = application
Cancelled adoption  rescission

Voiding of marriage = Annulment

191. This is the legal age in the Philippines:
a) twenty-one b) seventeen
c) eighteen d) twelve

Annulment vs divorce

Annulment = there is marriage but the marriage will be void “hindi

naging legal ang kasal”
1. underage
2. psychological problem
3. bigamy
Divorce  legal marriage = STOP!!!
Legal separation  marriage is valid = living separately
192. A child who has been voluntarily or involuntarily
committed to the DSWD or to a duly licensed child
placement agency and is free from parental authority:
a) child legally available for adoption
b) legally-free child
c) emancipated child
d) abandoned child
193. Emancipation takes place when:
a) the parents decide to emancipate him or her
b) the child becomes 18 years old
c) the child is already married
d) the child applies for it
194. The CICL shall be entitled to the automatic suspension
of sentence until the maximum age of __:
a) twenty-three b) eighteen
c) twenty-one d) twenty
195. In case the child has been found guilty by the court,
he shall be ordered to be transferred to _______:
a) a youth rehabilitation center
b) a youth detention home
c) a city or municipal jail
d) an agricultural camp – IF THE CHILD IS
INCORRIGIBLE AND THE COURT DECIDED TO
EXECUTE THE SENTENCE

GUILTY  BAHAY PAG ASA  18  EXECUTE

196. Preliminary investigation ( shall only be conducted
when the:
a) CICL is over fifteen but under eighteen
b) CICL is disqualified for diversion
c) CICL acted with discernment
d) victim filed the complaint

WHEN TO FILE A CASE AGAINST THE CHILD?

A. IF THE CASE IS PUNISHABLE BY MORE THAN 6
YEARS
B. IF THE PARENTS DID NOT AGREE WITH THE
TERMS OF DIVERSION
197. The law enforcement officer must ensure that all
statements signed by the child during investigation are
witnessed and signed by the following:
a) his parents, lawyer and social worker
b) his parents or guardian
c) legal counsel
d) social worker
198. The body search of the child in conflict with the law must
be done only by a law enforcement officer:
a) who has initial contact
b) assigned to the case
c) of the opposite sex
d) of the same gender
199. The first important thing that a law enforcer must do upon
initial contact is to ____:
a) know the age of the child
b) notify the local DSWD
c) call the parents
d) make a report
200. It is the best evidence to prove the age of the child in
conflict with the law:
a) testimony of the parents of the child
b) testimony of the child
c) certificate of birth
d) school records
201. It is the holding in abeyance of the service of the
sentence imposed by the court upon a finding of guilt of the
child in conflict with the law, whereby the child undergoes
rehabilitation within a fixed period under such terms and
conditions as may be ordered by the court:
a) probation b) suspension of sentence
c) parole d) pardon
202. It is a disposition under which a defendant, after
conviction and sentence, is released subject to conditions
imposed by the court and to the supervision of a probation
officer:
a) suspension of sentence b) parole
c) probation (PD 968) d) pardon
RELEASE AFTER SERVING THE MINIMUM
SENTENCE = PAROLE (ACT # 4103)
203. A child in conflict with the law is exempted from _____:
a) both criminal and civil liability
b) neither criminal nor civil liability
c) criminal liability only
d) civil liability only – paid by the parents (family purpose
doctrine)
204. If the penalty for the crime committed by the CICL is
imprisonment of more than six years, diversion will be
within the jurisdiction of the ____________:
a) barangay b) DSWD
c) police d) court
205. Discernment is the determining factor if the CICL is
over fifteen years old. The decision as to whether the child
acted with or without discernment is made initially by the
_______:
a) social worker c) law enforcer
b) CICL d) judge
206. The duty of determining the age of the child in conflict
with the law lies with the _______:
a) social worker b) law enforcer
c) CICL d) judge
Discernment = social worker
Age- law enforcer
207. The age of full criminal responsibility (liable) is:
a. Less than 18 but more than 70 years old
b. More than 18 but less than 70 years old
c. Over 15 but under 18 years old
d. Not less than 18 but not more than 70 years old
1. 70 pataas = mitigating circumstance
2. Minimum security = 65 y/o
3. Death  reprieve
208. It pertains to the document that must be signed by the
parents of the child in conflict with the law as part of the
conditions of diversion:
a) contract of diversion proceedings
b) certification of conciliation
c) memorandum of agreement
d) contract of diversion  fulfilled within 45 days
209. A child in conflict with the law who is under fifteen
years of age (exemoted) shall be turned over to the
________________ by the police for the determination of
appropriate program:
a) nearest police station b) family
c) local DSWSD (intervention) d) court

210. The diversion proceedings must be completed within

____ days:
a) thirty b) forty-five
c) sixty d) twenty
211. If the court finds that the child in conflict with the law
is guilty of the crime he is accused of doing, the
____________ of the sentence shall automatically be
suspended:
a) imposition b) determination
c) execution d) discharge

While under suspended sentence, where can we find the

child? Bahay pag asa
212. The ________________ has the right to refuse the
diversion program designed for the child:
a) offended party b) parents of the child
c) victim d) social worker

What is the effect of the parents refused diversion? = file a

complaint
213. When the court decides to execute the suspended
sentence, the child must be transferred to a:
a) youth rehabilitation center
b) youth detention home
c) agricultural farm – don vicente madrigal
d) prison
214. It shall be the duty of the ______________________
to make proper recommendation to the court regarding the
disposition of the child who is undergoing rehabilitation
while under suspension of sentence:
a) prosecutor b) social worker
c) Lawyer d) judge
215. All records pertaining to the case of the child in
conflict with the law shall remain _______ and ______:
a) Privileged and confidential
b) classified and confidential
c) privileged and restricted
d) secret and confidential

Juvenile court  Family court

All cases in the family court = CLOSED COURT
HEARING
216. The age of full criminal irresponsibility (NOT
LIABLE) is:
a. Over 15 but under 18 years old who acted with
discernment
b. 18 to 70 years old
c. 15 years old and below
d. Below 18 even if the act is committed with discernment
HUMAN BEHAVIOR AND
CRISIS MANAGEMENT
217. It refers to the sum total of man's reaction to his
environment or the way human beings act.
a. Human Beings
b. Learning
c. Human Behavior
d. Stimulus – any external forces; any action producing
agent
 JAMES – LANGE THEORY OF EMOTION

1. STIMULUS – ANY EXTERNAL FORCES (tunog, galaw,

amoy, imahe, etc)
2. SENSATION – “receptors”
C – cutaneous – touch
A – auditory – hearing
V - visual – sight
O – olfactory – smell
G – gustatory – taste
3. PERCEPTION - knowledge of stimulus (idea)
4. RESPONSE – reaction
5. AWARENESS – interpretation of past experience (memory)
34-24-36 (stimulus)  sensation (visual)  perception
(sexy, palong palo, talap talap)  response (cat call, 360
head turn)

Hilaw na manga (stimulus)  sensation (Gustatory) 

perception (maasim)  response (make face)

YAH YAH YAH YAH! (STIMULUS)  SENSATION

(auditory)  perception (XB)  RESPONSE (jive to the
music)
218. Refers to any behavioral reactions or reflexes
exhibited by people because of their inherited capabilities
or the process of natural selection.
a. Inherited Behavior
b. Inborn Behavior
c. Learned Behavior
d. both a and b
 Types of Behavior
1. Inborn – present at birth
2. Learned – operant – experience and practice
3. Overt – visible
4. Covert – hidden (dreams, ideas, imagination)
5. Simple – one act
6. Complex – 2 or more acts
7. Conscious – aware of the activity
8. Unconscious – unaware
9. Habitual – repetitive
10. Instinctive – survival
11. Symbolic – signs, images, hand movements
12. Voluntary – controllable
13. Involuntary – uncontrollable
219. It is a behavior pattern where an individual return to
a state of form adjustment and attempt to experience
them again in memory.
a. phobia b. anger
b. frustration d. regression – childish

Phobia - irrational fear

Frustration – feeling brought by inability to achieve goals
220. Defense mechanisms are used to shield one’s self from _____.
a. anger b. fear
c. pleasure d. pain

Some defense mechanisms

1. Anger  object  displacement
2. Pain  accepted channel = sublimation
3. Pain  “day dreaming” = fantasy
4. Pain / failure  activities where he can excel  compensation
5. Pain / lack of self confidence  frat (alpa phi chupapi) 
identification
6. Pain  forget  repression
221. Human behavior is man’s response to the
interpretation of the ______ from within the person or from
his environment.
a. stimulus b. action
c. perception d. inclination
222. This personality system controls the gateway to action.
a. alter ego b. Id
c. ego d. Superego
 S.F.
Id – pleasure principle
Ego – reality principle
- gate way to action
- controller of human actions
Superego
- moral principle
- conscience
Conflicts – events, goals, motivation come along at the
same time.

Oath taking sa PICC (+)

family reunion sa Boracay (+)
1. Approach – approach ( + + ) win win
2. Approach – avoidance ( + - )
3. Avoidance – avoidance ( - - )
223. What is the process of interpreting our behavior in
ways to make it more acceptable to the self usually with the
use of good reasons and alibi to substitute for real cause?
a. projection b. sublimation
c. rationalization d. Compensation
THEORY = NEUTRALIZATION THEORY (DRIFT)
224. Conflicts and their behavioral outcomes are classified
as follows, EXCEPT:
a. avoidance-approach b. avoidance-avoidance
c. approach-avoidance d. approach-approach
225. Manny, angry at his girlfriend, boxed a nearby tree
manifests what particular defense mechanism?
a. repression b. sublimation
c. displacement d. projection

226. An uncontrollable, morbid propensity to steal or

pathological stealing.
a. kleptomania b. pyromania
c. phobia d. Dipsomania
Pyromania – uncontrollable urge to set up fire
Dipsomania - uncontrollable urfge to drink liqour
227. This type of conflict occurs when there is an
attraction (+) to an object or state of affairs at the same
time repulsion (-) towards something associated with it.
a. avoidance-avoidance c. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance d. multiple

228. This is the process of excluding from the

consciousness a thought or feeling that causes pain, shame
or guilt.
a. identification b. regression
c. repression d. fixation
229. This is an attempt to disguise or cover-up felt
deficiencies or undesirable traits by emphasizing a
desirable type of behavior.
a. rationalization b. sublimation
c. compensation d. projection

230. Kadyo Tero, a B.S. Criminology student, after tasting

an unripe mango grimaced. This sensation is said to be:
a. olfactory b. Auditory
c. cutaneous d. gustatory
Hallucination
231. This is a serious mental and emotional disorder that
is a manifestation of withdrawal from reality.
a. Neurosis b. Depression
c. Psychosis d. Anxiety
Mild = neurosis

Excessive worry = anxiety

Excessive sadness = depression (melancholia)
232. This occurs when goal achievement is blocked.
a. frustration b. conflict
c. anxiety d. Depression

233. The aggregate observable responses of an organism to

internal and external stimuli.
a. human behavior b. behavior
c. personality d. attribute
234. The process by which behavior changes as a result of
experience or practice.
a. actualization b. learning
c. thinking d. feeling

235. This type of conflict occurs when there are two

desirable (+) but mutually exclusive goals.
a. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance d. multiple
236. This type of conflict when there are two courses of
action, each of which has both pleasant (+) and unpleasant
(-) consequences.
a. avoidance-avoidance b. approach-approach
c. approach-avoidance d. multiple
Types of Conflict
+ + = ap ap
+ - = ap av
- - = av av
237. This is an excessive, irrational and uncontrollable fear
of a perfectly natural situation or object.
a. melancholia b. phobia
c. exaltation d. Mania

Neurosis – mild mental disorder

Psychastenia = group of phobia and mania
Mania = “compulsion” – uncontrollable desire
Melancholia – “depression”
Exaltation – feeling that you are a God, Hero, powers
238. It is characterized by anxiety, depression and phobia.
a. psychoses b. neuroses
c. abnormality d. Psychopathy

Neurosis – singular
Neuroses – plural

Psychopathy (abno)
A – ANTI SOCIAL –loner – introvert – schizoid
B – brutality & cruelty
NO – conscience, no sense of guilt, no remorse
239. Hydrophobia is fear of ________.
a. Water - aquaphobia
b. Darkness – nyctophobia
c. Snakes – ophidiophobia
d. deep water

Thalassophobia – Fear of deep water / ocean / rivers

240. A distortion in reality such as delusion, hallucination
and regression.
a. psychosis b. neurosis
c. abnormality d. psychopathy

Gamophobia – fear of marriage

Monophobia – fear of being alone
Philophobia – fear of loving again
Phobophobia – fear of having a phobia
Hallucination – false perception without external stimulus

Illusion – false interpretation with external stimulus

Delusion – false belief; grandeur

241. A transmission of physical characteristics, mental
traits, tendency to disease, etc. from parents to offspring.
a. heredity b. environment
c. inheritan ce d. Introvert
3 personality traits
Introvert = loner, loves soltitude, shy type, want solitary
Extrovert – outgoing, thrill, adventure, very social
Ambivert – balanced intro and extro
242. Drug addicts and alcoholics may deny that they have
problems. This is a manifestation of what type of defense
mechanism?
a. Fantasy – day dreaming
b. Sublimation – pain  accepted channel
c. Denial
d. Displacement  anger  object
243. Kenneth Totnak, a B.S. Criminology student in the
evening session, blames his poor performance in the
preliminary examination to his professor rather than
his lack of preparation. This is an example of what type
of defense mechanism?
a. Reaction formation – stating the reverse side of your true
feelings
b. displacement
c. Sublimation
d. Rationalization – justification & alibi
244. Ms. Pining Garcia, frustrated on her boyfriend when
she saw the latter kissing another girl, cries. This is an
example of what defense mechanism?
a. Regression
b. suppression
c. Repression
d. Displacement
245. Texting while driving is an example of what
classification of human behavior?
a. Habitual – repetitive
b. Symbolic – use of images, signs, hand movements
c. Instinctive – necessary for survival
d. Complex - 2 or more acts
246. It refers to the person’s knowledge of a given
stimulus which largely helps to determine the actual
behavioral response in a given situation.
a. Perception
b. Awareness – interpretation of past experience (memory)
c. Sensation – parts of the body that accepts messages
d. Learning – improvement of behavior as part of practice
and experience
247. A person who is a balanced introvert and extrovert is
said to be:

AMBIVERT

248. He is known as the “Father of Psychoanalysis”.

Sigmund Freud

father of psychology – Wilhelm Woudt

249. Coping mechanism is the way people react to
__________.
a. Fear
b. anxiety
c. Frustration
d. Anger

Defense mechanism – defense against fear of rejection,

criticism, failures
Coping mechanism – reaction to frustration
 2 Types of Coping Mechanism

1. Fight – Direct Approach – look for the problem and find

a solution
2. Flight – withdrawal; giving up; sulking; suicide
250. It can be seen among people who handle their
problems in a very objective way.
a. Coping Mechanism
b. Direct Approach
c. Detour – looking of an alternative
d. Withdrawal
251. The most tolerated way of handling frustration.
a. Defense Mechanism
b. Direct Approach
c. Detour
d. Withdrawal

Anger  object = displacement

Ange  accepted channel = sublimation
Failure  focusing on activities where you can excel =
compensation
Failure  alibi, justification = rationalization
252. A type of defense mechanism whereby a person concentrates in
area where he can excel.
a. Displacement
b. Compensation / substitution
c. Rationalization
d. Fantasy
253. What type of defense mechanism is manifested by Pining
Garcia when she joined the fraternity, Alpha Phi Chupapi, because of
low self-esteem?
a. Identification
b. projection
c. Fantasy
d. regression
254. This refers to an action-producing agent:
a. Motives – desire
b. Drives – satisfaction
c. Stimulus
d. Sensation – receptors (5 senses)
255. Human actions in relation to events taking place inside
the body such as the brain and the nervous system is
known as:
a. Neurological
b. psychological
c. Cognitive
d. Humanistic
 VIEWS ON HUMAN BEHAVIOR

1. Neurological view – all behavior are product of our

working brain and nervous
2. Behavioral view – behavior must OVERT
3. Humanistic View – focuses on experiences and goal
4. Cognitive View – Learning process and brain activity
5. Psychoanalytical View – aggressive impulses (ID,
EGO, SE)
256. A child who is always brushing his teeth after eating
manifests what particular classification of human behavior?
a. Habitual
b. Complex
c. Instinctive
d. Symbolic
Antonio a funeral parlor attendant takes pleasure by
imagining himself having sexual intercourse with a corpse.
What type of behavior he posses
a. Rape
b. Necrophilia
c. Acts of lasciviousness
d. None
Actus interna (internal acts)  Mens Rea (Guilty
Mind)
257. Displaying the diplomas and graduation awards
signify one’s academic achievement. This classification of
human behavior is known as:
a. Habitual
b. complex
c. Instinctive
d. Symbolic

Eating when you are hungry

258. Mathematical ability and English communication
skills are examples of what type of human behavior?
a. Learned
b. inborn
c. Operant
d. both a and c

learned and operant is the same

259. Eating when you are hungry is an example of _______
behavior.
a. Habitual
b. complex
c. Instinctive
d. Symbolic
260. It is the ability to withstand frustration without
developing inadequate modes of response such as being
emotionally depressed or irritated, becoming neurotic, or
becoming aggressive.
a. Frustration Tolerance
b. Frustration Shield
c. Frustration Flexibility
d. all of the above
261. Mr. Six Footer, an aspiring PNP applicant, turned up
applying into the Armed Forces of the Philippines when
he failed in the initial height and weight measurement stage
because he was under height. This is an example of:
a. Sublimation
b. repression
c. Substitution
d. withdrawal
262. Which of the following items does not belong to the
group?
a. prostitution b. assassination
c. sabotage d. bombing

B,c and d = tactics of terrorism

Assassination – oldest tactic (Excellent Cadaver)

Bombing – most common tactic
263. It is characterized by infantile level of response, lack
of conscience, deficient feeling of affection to others and
aggression to environment and other people.
a. schizophrenic personality – psychosis + bizarre
behavior
b. b. psychopathic personality
c. compulsive neurosis – “mania”
d. neurotic personality – mild mental disorder
264. Which of the following is not a common tactic in
terrorism?
a. Robbery c. bombing
b. hijacking d. kidnapping

PD 532 – Piracy and highway robbery

265. This is an abnormal mental condition whereby a
person performs an act while sleeping.
a. somnambulism b. mesmerism
c. somnolencia d. delirium
Fugue  unconscious wandering
266. Animals are used for the achievement of sexual
excitation and gratification.
a. voyeurism – watching nude woman
b. fetishism – sexual attraction to an object
c. Pedophilia – sex with a child
d. Bestiality

Scoptophilia – watching sex acts

RA 9995 – anti photo and video voyeurism

267. A person suffers from _____ when he developed a
maladaptive behavior in his childhood as a result of an external
influence that later on becomes a part of his lifestyle and which
he uses to relate to the world around him.
a. personality disorder
b. abnormal behavior
c. personality behavior
d. abnormal personality

Child  sexual abuse ( 2 effects)

1. Philophobia – fear of loving
2. Nymphomania – excessive sexual urge
Satyriasis – excessive sexual urge of men
Nymphomania – excessive sexual urge of women

268. These are priorities in a hostage taking situation

EXCEPT,
a. Preservation of life
b. Arrest of hostage taker
c. recover and protect property
d. involve the media
269. Containment in a hostage taking situation refers to:
a. police handling of the situation
b. negotiation
c. contact
d. control of area and people

Note:
Containment is the 1st step in hostage taking negotiation
(crowd control)
What is the last resort? = assault
270. The cardinal rule to follow in a hostage taking
situation is,
a. commanders should not negotiate, negotiators should
not command (division of labor) – cause confusion
b. open the communication at once
c. negotiate
d. ask for demands

Mortal sin in hostage taking = saying “no” in the hostage

taker
271. When both hostage and hostage taker develop a
mutual feeling of sympathy, understanding, and other
shared stand on issues, leading them to become enemies of
the State, this turn referred to as,
a. Stockholm Syndrome
b. Confrontation
c. Negotiation
d. familiarization
 3 unique events in hostage taking

1. Stockholm syndrome (Stockholm, Sweden) – the

hostages expressed sympathy over the hostage taker
2. Lima syndrome – (Lima, Peru) – the hostage takers
expressed sympathy over the hostages
3. London Syndrome – the hostage takers and the hostages
are hostile with each other
272. Motivation is classified under 28 needs. The need to
assault or injure is:
a. need deference b. need aggression
c. need recognition d. need order

273. The need to influence or control others is:

a. need order
b. need dominance
c. need achievement
d. need exhibition
 DEMONYONG CLASSMATE

CLASSMATE: TOL, PAPASOK KA BA?

IKAW: IKAW, PAPASOK KA BA?
CLASSMATE: DEPENDE, KUNG PAPASOK KA?
IKAW: GANITO NALANG, KUNG DI KA PAPASOK, DI
NARIN AKO PAPASOK
274. A person has _____ when he/she has painful memories
associated with some shocking experience which are
repressed and cannot be recalled.
a. anxiety b. delusions
c. amnesia d. phobia
275. The first step in hostage taking crisis is:
a. crowd control
c. negotiation
b. Assault – LAST RESORT
d. traffic control
 3 types of amnesia

1. RETROGRADE AMNESIA – FORGOT ALL IN THE

PAST (USB  FORMATTED)
2. ANTEROGRADE AMNESIA – FORGOT
SOMETHING WHICH HAS JUST HAPPENED
(SHORT TERM MEMORY LOSS)
3. LOCALIZED AMNESIA – FORGOT SOME PART
OF THE MEMORY
276. Antonio, a funeral parlor attendant takes place
pleasure in imagining having sexual relations with newly
dead young female bodies who were victims of suicides or
vehicular accidents. What sexual deviant act did Antonio
commit?
a. necrophilia
b. rape
c. incest
d. none
277. The most important person in a hostage situation:
a. negotiator b. hostage taker – captors
c. commander d. hostage – CAPTIVES
278. A group of bank robbers barricaded themselves inside
the bank together with their hostages; their demand is
geared towards:
a. revenge
b. economic gain
c. escape
d. vindication
 5 types of H.T.
C4P
C – COMMON CRIMINALS – personal gain
P – POLITICAL TERRORIST – ideology / political goal
P – PERSON IN CRISIS – prolonged frustration and
problems
P – PRISONERS – escape & better treatment
P – PSYCHOTICS – “attention due to mental disorder”
What is the easiest to negotiate? – common criminals
What is the hardest to negotiate? – political terrorist
279. In hostage situation, non-verbal communication
which indicates openness and willingness to listen can be
shown by:
a. a posture of folded arms in a dominant position
b. calmly repeating words of comfort and assurance
c. by not attempting to trick or lie
d. keeping arms open and with a gesture that you are
willing to negotiate
280. It is referred to as sexual gratification by watching
nude woman or man.
a. exhibitionism b. voyeurism
c. transvestitism d. fetishism
Exhibitionism = public exposure of sex organ
Transvestitism = cross dressing
281. This is a mentally disturbed person who is opposed to
the principles upon which society is based.
a. Anti-social b. Psychopath
c. Schizophrenic d. Sociopath
282. A morbid insanity characterized by a deep and
morbid sense of religious feeling.
a. mania b. mania fanatica
c. delusion d. legal insanity

283. This is impairment in desire for sexual gratification in

the female or an inability to achieve it.
a. masturbation b. prostitution
c. exhibitionism d. frigidity
284. This is any pattern of behavior including a habitual,
preferred, and compelling need for sexual gratification by
any technique, other than willing coitus between man and
woman and involving actions that are directly results in
genital excite.
a. crime against chastity
b. acts of lasciviousness
c. sexual deviation – abnormal sexual behavior
(paraphilia)
d. sexual offenses
 Sexual abonormality

Male: (3)
1. Pre Mature Ejaculation – fast to ejaculate
2. Retarded Ejaculation = taking to long to ejaculate
3. Erectile dysfunction – failed to erect
FEMALE (4)
4. Orgasmic Dysfunction – failure to reach climax
5. Dyspareunia – painful coitus
6. Arousal Insufficiency (frigid) – numbness; dry;no natural
lubricant
7. Vaginismus – vaginal spasm, vaginal lock
285. The best approach in negotiating with a Paranoid
Schizophrenic hostage taker is:
a. to accept their beliefs as being true
b. to try to convince them that their beliefs are wrong
c. to show them that they are just crazy
d. to try to bluff or trick them
286. The following are reasons, why common criminals are
easy to negotiate, except:
a. fears of police assault and punishment
b. criminals are usually rational thinkers
c. they are familiar with police operations and tactics
d. their ultimate desire is to surrender
287. In the field of terrorism, the most common tactic used
is_____?
A. Kidnapping C. Bombing
B. Assassination D. Extortion
288. A personality disorder characterized by
suspiciousness, hypersensitivity, envy, excessive self
important, and argumentativeness, plus a tendency to
blame others for one’s own mistakes and failure and to
ascribe evil motives to others.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Dependent Personality
C. Schizoid Personality
D. Borderline Personality
 Personality Disorders
1. Schizoid = “loner”
2. Schizotypal = “magic & superstition”
3. Narcissism – excessive self adoration / importance
4. Paranoid – over suspiciousness; hypersensitive
types of paranoia
a. persecutory – “feeling always blamed”
b. jealous paranoia – “irrational jealousy”
c. erotic paranoia – “GGSS”
d. exaltic paranoia – “hero ; god; super power”
5. Histrionic – dramatic; immature
6. Avoidant – afraid of rejection
7. Borderline – Drastic moodshift
8. DEPENDENT – no self reliance
289. A personality disorder characterized by an inability to
form social relationships and can be classified as “loners”.
A. Paranoid Personality
B. Schizoid Personality
C. Dependent Personality
D. Borderline Personality
290. A personality disorder characterized by instability,
reflected in dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems.
Such individuals are frequently described as impulsive and
unpredictable.
A. Borderline Personality
B. Compulsive Personality
290. A personality disorder characterized by instability,
reflected in dramatic mood shifts and behavior problems.
Such individuals are frequently described as impulsive and
unpredictable.
A. Borderline Personality
B. Compulsive Personality – mania
C. Passive-aggressive Personality  hostile / stubborn
D. Anti-social Personality
291. When the disorder is characterized by chronic mental
and physical fatigue and by various aches and pains, it is
considered as:
A. Anxiety Disorder
B. Somatoform Disorder – psychosomatic disorder
C. Dissociative Disorder
D. Amnesia
2 TYPES OF SOMATOFORMS
1. CONVERSION DISORDER – fake blindness and
other sickness
2. Hypochondriasis – overreacting to a simple sickness
292. In general, hostage takers are emotionally tense,
when trapped expand a great deal of emotional physical
and psychic energy, hence:
a. swift and precise attack will be one advantage for the
authorities
b. shortening the time will pressed him to surrender
c. prolonging the passage of time shall wear them down
– “delay the moment”
d. aggravating their stress will lead them to surrender.
293. Considered as a “mortal sin” in hostage situation.
a. giving all the demands of the hostage taker
b. acting that would prejudice the lives of the hostages
c. deceiving and bluffing the hostage taker
d. saying “no” to the demands of the hostage taker
294. They serve as stimuli-producing action that satisfies a
need:
a. interest b. perception
c. motives d. drives

295. It is an effective planning, formulation of an effective

plan, policies, procedures and techniques in dealing with
sudden violent act of terrorist & disasters
a. Crisis management b. stress mgt.
c. hostage negotiation d. political analysis
What is the ultimate goal of crisis management? SALVARI
VITAS – TO SAVE LIVES

296. Last option in hostage crisis:

a. crowd control (1ST STEP) b. negotiation
c. traffic control d. assault

What team conduct assault? – tactical team

297. A hostage taker is characteristically all of these,
EXCEPT
a. mental derange
b. suffers severe depression and mental aberration
c. sociopath personality
d. mental balance
298. These are not negotiable in a hostage taking situation:
a. guns and ammunition b. drinks
c. foods d. all of the choices
What if the HT ask for a non negotiable demand?  talk to
him and delay the moment
299. One of the following is not a terrorist tactics:
a. bombing b. assassination
c. hostage-taking d. media exposure

Al Jazeera – MEDIA NETWORK WHO COVERED THE

AL QAEDA

300. This is an assault team responsible in carrying out

assault operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. medical team b. tactical team
c. negotiation team d. snipers
301. It is any incident in which people are being held by
another person or persons against their will, usually by
force or coercion, and demands are being made by the
perpetrator.
a. kidnapping b. crisis management
c. hostage incident d. abduction – kidnapping with lewd
design

Difference Kidnapping HT

Line of Electronic Personal

communication
Location of victim Unknown Known

Exchange Ransom Demand

302. “Persons in crisis” are those hostage takers who take
hostages:
a. by reason of mental illness – psychotics
b. by reason of prolonged frustration, despair and
problems
c. for personal reason – common criminals
d. because of political and ideological belief – political
terrorist
303. In psychoanalytic theory, the unconscious wish for death is
called;
A. eros – expression of love & sex
B. animus
C. thanatos
D. Lupus - skin disease

304. In a crisis management, there is no other purpose but

“SALVARI VITAS” , which means:
a. the truth will prevail
b. kill the hostage-taker
c. to save lives
d. save the host
In vino veritas in aqua sanitas = in wine there in truth but in
water there is health

305. When a highly trained and motivated group of hostage

takers asked non-negotiable demands, they were left with three
options: (1) choose martyrdom, kill the hostages and commit
suicide; (2) lessen demands to a more realistic proportions; and
(3) surrender. If they choose martyrdom and kill hostages, the
useful action is:
a. attack them swiftly with precision (assault)
b. withhold the media from the terrorist
c. give all their demands
d. let the hostages killed
306. In hostage negotiation, if the hostage taker demands
an airplane/helicopter (non negotiable), what will you
do?
a. go to your ground commander
b. give it with consent
c. talk to him and delay the moment – prolong the
passage of time
d. assault and kill him immediately
307. Considered to be the oldest tactic in terrorism:
a. Prostitution – oldest job known to man
b. Bombing – modern technique in terrorism
c. Assassination
d. Kidnapping – crimes against fundamental law of state
308. These are important in a hostage taking situation, EXCEPT:
a. Presence of linguist negotiator – the negotiator understand the
language of the HT
b. Considerable screening of all members – divide the jobs in
hostage taking negotiation
c. Dry run or constant practice – training
d. Inclusion of the media people in the negotiation
309. It is the position from which a unit commander and his
staff exercise command over the hostage incident.
a. command post b. outer perimeter
c. inner perimeter d. command headquarters

Where can we find the command post?

Outer perimeter

Get rid of kibitzers  mosang at mosong

310. It is an assault team responsible in carrying out assault
operation whenever negotiation fails.
a. Negotiation Team b. Medical Team
c. Tactical Team d. Response Team

311. Pursuant to the PNP Police Operational Procedures Manual

of 2010, this group should immediately be activated in case of
hostage situation:
a. Hostage Negotiation Team
b. Civil Disturbance Management Team – anti riot and anti rally
c. Crisis Management Task Group
d. PNP Command Post
312. Which of the following is considered least among terroristic
tactic?
a. noise barrage – rally or demonstration
b. assassination
c. bombing
d. Kidnapping
313. In dealing with the hostage taker, the negotiator should not:
a. give his name
b. give his rank and designation
c. give in to all demands
d. look friendly or accommodating
Note: HT  consensus (negotiation)
314. The highest ranking field commander should not also
be the chief negotiator because:
a. hostage takers will be afraid
b. b. he is not authorized to grant concessions
c. conflict of interest as mediator and decision maker
d. d. hostage takers will not trust him

Cardinal rule – negotiator should not command and

commander should not negotiate
315. What is known to be the oldest but commonly used
terrorist tactic where target are often police, military
officials or political figures?
a. Hijacking
b. Ambush
c. Assassination
d. Kidnap for Ransom

La Cosa Nostra (Sicilian Mafia) – Assassination 

Excellent Cadaver
316. The stage of advance planning, organization and
coordination and control in response to an anticipated
future crisis occurrence is called
a. Proactive Crisis Management
b. Reactive Crisis Management
c. Performance Stage
d. Reaction Phase

Proactive Crisis Management  4P’s (Plan, Predict,

Prepare, Prevent)
Reactive CM  “P” – perform during the crisis
317. A comprehensive plan which delineates
responsibilities and specific action to be taken when a
bomb incident or bomb threat occurs is called
a. Floor plan
b. Bomb threat plan
c. Drill – “dry run; practice”
d. Contingency plan – emergency plan in case of calamit

What unit of the PNP is tasked for Bomb Threats? = EOD –

Explosive and Ordnance Division (Bomb Squad)
JUVENILE DELINQUENCY PART 2
318. the crime charged against a child in conflict with the
law is more than 12 years of imprisonment, which will
determine whether diversion is necessary?
A. The Police
B. The Prosecutor
C. The Court
D. The Barangay Chairman – head of the lupong
tagapamayapa

6 YEARS BELOW = “diversion – police, dswd, brgy”

Above 6 years = file in court
319. From the moment a child is taken into custody, the law
enforcement officer shall immediately but not later than
____ hours after apprehension, turnover custody of the
child to the Social Welfare and Development Office.
A. Nine
B. Eight
C. Seven
D. Six
320. An Act Strengthening (Amendment) the Juvenile
Justice System in the Philippines.
A. RA 9344
B. RA 10630
C. RA 10627
D. RA 8960
321. It is one of the most important assets of the nation.
Thus, every effort should be exerted to promote his welfare
and enhance his opportunities for a useful and happy life.
A. Teenager
B. Kid
C. Child
D. Youth
322. The Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council is under
what agency of the government?
A. Department of Justice
B. Department of Social Welfare and Development
C. Department of Tourism
D. Department of Interior and Local Government

RA 9344 JJWC  UNDER DOJ

RA 10630  JJWC  UNDER DSWD
323. The taking of the statement of the child in conflict
with the law shall be conducted in the presence of the
following, EXCEPT.
A. Child’s counsel of choice
B. Local Social Welfare and Development Officer
C. Child’s relative
D. Child’s parents
324. It shall coordinate with the Local Council for the
Protection of Children (LCPC) in the formulation and
implementation of juvenile intervention and diversion
programs in the community.
A. Women and Children Protection Desk
B. Local Government Unit
C. Sangguniang Kabataan
D. Local Social Welfare and Development
NATIONAL LEVEL  JJWC (DSWD)
LGU  LOCAL COUNCIL FOR THE PROTECTION OF
CHILDREN (CITY)
BRGY  “SK”
325. It attributes variations in delinquency to influence of
social structures.
A. Biogenic approach – physical and heredity
B. Sociogenic approach
C. Psychogenic approach – human behavior and mental
disorders
D. All of these
326. It refers to a person whose behavior results with repeated
conflict with the law.
A. Delinquent
B. Habitual delinquent
C. Juvenile – latin – juvenilis “youth”
D. Recidivist
327. Failure to provide for the child’s support for this period
shall be a presumptive evidence of the intent to abandon.
A. 3 Months B. 5 Months
C. 4 Months D. 6 Months
Old law – PD 603 – 6 months
New law – RA 9523 – 3 months
328. These are undesirable conditions in the community
which are harmful to the youth, EXCEPT.
A. Gambling Houses (yes)
B. Recreational Facilities – library, play ground, mall
C. Vice Dens – drug den
D. Attractive Nuisances (bar – yes)
329. This view asserts that children who started delinquent
careers early and committed violent acts throughout their
adolescence would likely to continue as adults.
A. Culture conflict
B. Persistence
C. Containment theory
D. Reflective role taking

Latent Trait theory – “master trait” – constant trait

330. If the offender is over nine years of age but under 18
years of age at the time of the commission of the crime, he
is often referred to as?
A. Socialized delinquent
B. Truant – ABSENT IN SCHOOL FOR 20 DAY
C. Criminal
D. Youth offender – CICL
331. What is an institution that receives and rehabilitates
youthful offenders or other disturbed children who have
behavioral problems for the purpose of determining the
appropriate care for them or recommending their permanent
treatment or rehabilitation in other child welfare agencies?
A. Rehabilitation Center – bahay pag asa
B. Reintegration Center
C. Reformation Center
D. Restoration Center
332. Which among the following is not part of the rights of
a child in conflict with the law?
A. The right to be imposed a sentence of capital punishment
or life imprisonment, without the possibility of release
B. The right not to be subjected to torture or other cruel,
inhuman or degrading treatment or punishment (yes)
C. The right not to be deprived, unlawfully or arbitrarily,
of his/her liberty; detention or imprisonment being a
disposition of last resort, and which shall be for the shortest
appropriate period of time (yes)
D. The right to bail and recognizance, in appropriate cases
(yes)
 Rights of a CICL
1. No – life imprisonment
2. No – death penalty
3. No – reclusion perpetua
4. No – torture
5. No – handcuff
6. Search – the same gender
7. Imprison – separated from adults
8. Imprison – same gender
9. In all proceedings the child has the right to be with his parents
10. Right to bail
11. Right to probation
12. Right to presumption of minority
13. Right to diversion
14. Right to suspension of sentence
333. A person who learns the facts or circumstances that
give rise to the belief that a child has suffered abuse may
report the same to what agency?
A. School
B. Neighborhood Association
C. Barangay Council  BCPC “BARANGAY
COUNCIL FOR THE PROTECTION OF
CHILDREN”
D. Church
334. Who are those with any behavioral disorder, whether
functional or organic, which of such a degree of severity as to
require professional help or hospitalization?
A. Mentally Ill Children
B. Physically Handicapped Children – BUTA, BUNGGOL,
PIANG, AMANG
C. Emotional Disturbed Children – “NEUROSIS”
D. Retarded at Maturity – LOW IQ
BORDERLINE – 75 -89
EDUCABLE – 50 – 74
TRAINABLE – 25 – 49
CUSTODIAL – BELOW 25
335. A delinquent child who internalizes his conflicts and
becomes preoccupied with his feelings is a:
A. Social delinquent – “aggressive youth”
B. Accidental delinquent – peer pressure & curiosity
C. Asocial delinquent – “anti social – cruel; no remorse”
D. Neurotic delinquent
336. It exists when the children are maltreated, raped or
seduced; when children are exploited, over worried or
made to beg in the streets or public places, or when
children are in moral danger, or exposed to gambling,
prostitution, or other vices.
A. Physically Neglected Child
B. Emotionally Neglected Child
C. Psychologically Neglected Child
D. Sexually Neglected Child

Food, water, clothing = physically neglected

337. This is the highest group of mentally retarded, with
I.Q.s from about 75 to about 89. The members of this
classification are only slightly retarded and they can usually
get by in regular classes if they receive some extra help,
guidance and consideration.
A. Trainable group – 25 – 49 “ imbecile”
B. Custodial group – below 25 “idiot”
C. Educable group – 50 – 74 “ moron”
D. Borderline or low normal group “ dull”
338. A theory that point criminal behavioral patterns to
childhood socialization and pro or anti social attachments
over the life course.
A. Culture conflict – Thorsten sellin
B. Social development model – life course theory
C. Differential opportunity – Lloyd Ohlin
D. Containment theory – Walter Reckless
339. This group’s I.Q. ranges from about 50 to about 75,
and the intellectual development is approximately ½ to ¾
of that expected of a normal child of the same
chronological age.
A. Trainable group
B. Borderline or low normal group
C. Educable group
D. Custodial group
340. This cause of behavioral disorder of the youth is a
result of factors such as personal problems, ignorance
and curiosity.
A. Predisposing factor – factors that starts the delinquency
B. Environmental factor
C. Biologic factor – heredity and physical
D. Precipitating factor – factors that continue the
delinquency
341. This is where the molding of the character of the
child starts and every member of the family should strive
to make it a wholesome and a harmonious place.
A. Family
B. Home
C. Church
D. School – 2nd home of the child

2nd parents = teachers

342. The youth misdeed may be attributed to their learning
process cultured in on youth gangs, stigmatizing contacts
with governmental and social control agencies and other
similar variables.
A. Biogenic approach – physical factors
B. Socio-genic approach
C. Psychogenic approach – mental disorder
D. None of the above
343. What program is required for the child in conflict with
the law to undergo after he/she is found responsible for an
offense without resorting to formal court proceedings?
A. Diversion – 45 days
B. Community Service
C. Parole – early release after serving the minimum
D. Probation – conditional release with conditions of the
court
344. It is the application of the criminal justice to minors
and youthful offender through the cooperation of the
criminal justice system.
A. Child Justice System
B. Youth Justice System
C. Minor Justice System
D. Juvenile Justice System – RA 9344 – author – boy
Sana All

5 pillars = CICL
345. A category of delinquency which may be credited to peer
pressure or pure curiosity on the part of the young person.
A. Social – aggressive
B. Accidental
C. Neurotic – preoccupied feelings
D. Asocial – cold, brutal, no conscience
346. Putting a child under duress to consent to engage in an
activity.
A. Coercion
B. Cruelty – deed or word with degrades youth’s dignity
C. Molestation – sexual abuse
D. Abuse – maltreatment of children
347. It asserts that lower class youths with limited legitimate opportunity,
join gangs and pursue a criminal career to achieve alternate means universal
success goals.
A. Culture conflict
B. Social development model
C. Containment theory
D. Differential opportunity – Lloyd Ohlin
348. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”, which among the
following refers to a child who is alleged as, accused of, or adjudged as,
having committed an offense under Philippine laws?
A. Juvenile Delinquent
B. Child in Conflict with the Law
C. Minor Offender
D. Youth Criminal
Note: CICL will used in the entire process
 CJS Nomenclatures
Law Enforcer = Suspect (CICL)
Prosecutor = Respondent (CICL
Court = Accused / defendant / appellant (CA & SC) - CICL
Correction = Convict, prisoner, Inmate  “PDL” -CICL
Community = Law Abiding Citizen
349. It is devoted and focused on curbing the problem on
delinquency through undertaking preventive programs,
policies and activities.
A. Philippine National Police – WCPD
B. Department of National Defense
C. Local Government
D. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
350. It refers to one with no proper parental care or
guardianship, whose abandonment is for a period of at
least six months (OLD LAW).
A. Neglected Child
B. Deserted Child
C. Unattended Child
D. Abandoned Child

WCPD – WOMEN AND CHILDREN PROTECTION

DESK
351. It refers to the programs provided in a community
setting developed for purposes of intervention and
diversion, as well as rehabilitation of the child in conflict
with the law, for reintegration into his/her family and/or
community.
A. Community Juvenile Programs
B. Community Rehabilitation Programs
C. Community Outreach Programs
D. Community - Based Programs - NIC
352. Their degree of success or accomplishment depends
upon the quality and type of education they receive as well
as on the treatment at home and in the community, their I.Q
range from about 50 to 75.
A. Educable
B. Custodial
C. Borderline
D. Trainable
353. It refers to anti-social act which deviates from normal pattern of rules
and regulations.
A. Recidivism
B. Juvenile delinquency
C. Quasi recidivism
D. Delinquency
354. It refers to persons and individuals who are effective deterrents to
crime and delinquency such as police or watchful and concerned
neighbors.
A. Clever guardians
B. Proficient guardians
C. Capable guardians
D. Qualified guardians
Routine activities theory (felson & Cohen)
 3 elements of routine activities theory

1. Presence of Motivated Offender

2. Availability of Suitable Target
3. Absence of Capable Guardians
355. It exists when the child is malnourished, ill clad and
without proper shelter. A child is unattended when left by
himself without provision for his needs and/or without
proper supervision. What classification of neglected child is
this?
A. Physically Neglected Child
B. Psychologically Neglected Child
C. Emotionally Neglected Child
D. Sexually Neglected Child
356. It refers to a system dealing with children at risk and
children in conflict with the law, which provides child-
appropriate proceedings, including programs and
services for prevention, diversion, rehabilitation, re-
integration and aftercare to ensure their normal growth and
development. (CJS APPLIED TO CICL)
A. Child Justice and Welfare
B. Youth Justice and Welfare
C. Minor Justice and Welfare
D. Juvenile Justice and Welfare – RA 9344 as amended
by RA 10630
357. A phenomenon that occurs when youth who regard
themselves as delinquents are giving an inner voice to
their perception or view of how significant others feel
about them. (labeling)
A. Reflective role taking
B. Culture conflict
C. Persistence – criminal behavior will start from childhood
and continue until death
D. Containment theory

Note: other terms: deviant amplification

358. A legal act of entrusting a child to the care of the
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
duly licensed child placement agency or individual.
A. Placement – giving the child into adoption
B. Commitment – putting a child in prison
C. Consignment
D. Entrustment
359. Failure to provide the basic needs of a child.
A. Abuse
B. Cruelty
C. Exploitation
D. Neglect
360. High moral principles should be instilled in the child
by the following, EXCEPT.
A. Government
B. School – education
C. Home – parents
D. Church – faith
361. A child left by himself without provisions for his
needs and / or without proper supervision.
A. Unattended Child – other term for physical neglect
B. Neglected Child
C. Dependent Child – food & needs are coming from
public support
D. Abandoned Child – no parents, no guardian for 3 months
362. It refers to an alternative, child-appropriate process of
determining the responsibility and treatment of a child in
conflict with the law on the basis of his/her social, cultural,
economic, psychological or educational background
without resorting to formal court proceedings.
A. Diversion
B. Friendly Interview
C. Due Process
D. Preliminary Investigation
Program designed to address or solve the negative behavior
of children = intervention
363. Family home type which provide temporary shelter
from 10 to 20 days for children under observation by the
DSWD.
A. Receiving homes
B. Maternity homes – pregnant woman and newly given
birth
C. Nursery – children below 6 years (Day Care)
D. Shelter care institution
364. His delinquent act has a cold, brutal, vicious quality
for which the youth feels no remorse.
A. Asocial
B. Neurotic
C. Accidental
D. Social

Aggressive youth – social

Peer pressure, curiosity – accidental
Preoccupied feeling – neurotic
365. Who among the following shall primarily ensure that
the status, rights and interests of children are upheld in
accordance with the Constitution and international
instruments on human rights?
A. National Youth Commission (NYC)
B. Kabataan Party list
C. Commission on Human Rights
D. Sangguniang Kabataan
366. It is characterized by disrespect or disobedience for
authority.
A. Emotional Disorder
B. Vagrancy – RUNNING FROM HOME
C. Truancy – absent – 20 days
D. Anti Social Behavior

Note: Status offenses

367. These are crippled, deaf, mute, blind, or otherwise
defective which restricts their means of action on
communication with others.
A. Physically Handicapped Children
B. Mentally Subnormal
C. Essentially Incurable
D. Retarded at Maturity

Low IQ = retarded
368. Duty of any head of a public or private hospital upon
any knowledge of a child who have been treated or suffered
from abuse.
A. Report to the DSWD within 48 hours upon discovery
of abuse
B. Report the incident to the family
C. Report the incident to the law enforcement authority
D. File a case in court in behalf of the child
369. Aside from the child, who may file a complaint against
any violation of R.A. 7610?
A. Parents or guardians
B. Ascendants or collateral relatives within the 3rd degree
of consanguinity
C. Barangay Chairman Officer or DSWD or at least any
three responsible citizen
D. All of the choices

Ra 9262, ra 7610, ra 9208, ra 9231, ra 9775, ra 995 =

public crime (all can file a case)
370. The anti-social behavior of the youth is a direct result
of internal conflict and pre-occupation with his own
emotion and mood.
A. Neurotic
B. Social – aggressive
C. Accidental – curiosity
D. Asocial – cold, brutal, no remorse
371. Forcing an activity on the child without consent.
A. Coercion
B. Abuse
C. Cruelty
D. Molestation

372. View that youth can move in and out of delinquency and that
their lifestyle can adjust and embrace both deviant and conventional
values. (Neutralization Theory)
A. Swift
B. Drift – David matza and Gresham sykes
C. Coast
D. Waft
373. A child who is bound to travel abroad alone may do
so with a permit or clearance issued by:
A. The parents
B. The guardians
C. Department of Social Welfare and Development
D. Any of the choices

PD 603
TRAVEL ALONE
- DOMESTIC – parental consent
- ABROAD – permit from the DSWD
374. This refers to children who are unable to cope with
their family life and chooses to leave the family home.
This is a direct result of feeble-mindedness, disagreeable
home conditions, broken homes and misdirected fancy for
adventures.
A. Vagrancy – act ; Vagrant = person
B. Cheating
C. Lying
D. Stealing
375. What is a child caring institution that provides care for
six or more children below six years of age twenty-four
hours a day, except those duly licensed to offer primarily
medical and educational services?
A. Nursery
B. Detention Home
C. Day Care
D. Maternity
376. It refers to the totality of the circumstances and
conditions, which are most congenial to the survival,
protection and feelings of security of the child and most
encouraging to the child's physical, psychological and
emotional development.
A. Anti Youth Exploitation Measure
B. Special Protection of Minor
C. Restorative Juvenile Justice
D. Best Interest of the Child
 Doctrines related to children

1. Parent patria – father of the land

2. Patrial potestas – parental authority
3. Tender years doctrine – below 7  mother
4. Psychological parent doctrine – 7 pataas  power to
choose
5. Family purpose doctrine = all civil liability od the child
will paid by the parents
6. Substitute parental authority – both parents are dead
377. A place of residence whose primary function is to give
shelter and care to pregnant women and their infants.
A. Maternity home
B. Hospital
C. Rehabilitation center
D. Foster homes – place for adoptees
378. This may be demonstrated by any of the following:
severe anxiety, depression, aggressive or withdrawal
behavior.
A. Psychological injury
B. Mental injury
C. Physical injury
D. Emotional injury

Psychosis or neurosis
379. It refers to a series of activities, which are designed to
address issues that caused the child to commit an
offense. It may take the form of an individualized treatment
program, which may include counseling, skills training,
education, and other activities that will enhance his/her
psychological, emotional and psychosocial well-being.
A. Diversion – alternative for formal court proceedings
B. Rehabilitation
C. Probation
D. Intervention – process of solving the behavior
With discernment = DIVERSION
Exempted  Intervention

380. If children, whether male or female, who for money,

profit or any other consideration or due to the coercion or
influence of any adult, syndicate or group, are indulge in
sexual intercourse or lascivious conduct it is known as…
A. Child Abuse
B. Child Trafficking
C. Child Prostitution (client, pimp, hotel , motel child)
D. Child Exploitatio
381. It implies the keeping of unlawful behavior from
occurring
A. Control
B. Recession
C. Repression
D. Prevention – removal of opportunity to commit
crime
How?  police presence  police visibility 
PATROL
382. Under the “Juvenile Justice and Welfare Act of 2006”,
it refers to the person in authority or his/her agent as
defined in Article 152 of the Revised Penal Code, including
a barangay tanod.
A. Police Officer
B. Probation Officer – CONDUCTS PSI & SUPERVISION
(amicus curiae – friend of court)
C. Law Enforcement Officer
D. Public Officer – ALL EMPLOYEES OF THE
GOVERNMENT
383. He is one whose basic needs have been deliberately
unattended or inadequately attended.
A. Abandoned Child
B. Abused Child
C. Neglected Child
D. Dependent Child
384. This period of human life covers puberty to 17 years
old.
A. Adolescence
B. Early adolescence
C. Juvenile
D. None of the above
Stage of human development
1. Prenatal period = fetal stage (inside the womb)
2. Infancy – birth – 2 weeks (hazardous age)
3. Babyhood – 2 week – 2 years (demanding age)
4. Early childhood – 2 y/o – 6 years old (preschool age)
5. Late childhood – 6 – 10 or 12 (elementary age; quarrelsome
age) 90% ano ano ano 10% suntukan
6. Puberty – 12 – 14 (rapid change)
7. Adolescence – 14 – 18 (threshold of adulthood)
8. Early Adulthood – 18 – 40 (reproductive age)
9. Middle age – 40 – 60 – age of evaluation
10. Old age – 60 – death – age of decline; age of rejuvenation
385. What refers to anti-social act or behavior which
deviates from the normal pattern of rules and regulation,
custom and culture which society does not accept and
which therefore, justifies some kind of corrective measures
in the public interest and it is being committed by minors?
A. Juvenile Delinquency
B. Minor Delinquency
C. Child Delinquency
D. Youth Delinquency
386. Police officers who have taken into custody a child in
conflict with the law, under the juvenile justice act is
mandated to turn over said child to the custody of the
Department of Social Welfare and Development or any
accredited Non-Government Organization immediately but
not later than hours after apprehension.
A. 8
B. 24
C. 12
D. 36
387. This type of delinquent youth is characterized by
aggressiveness and resentment to the authority of any
person who tries to control his behavior.
A. Neurotic – preoccupied feelings
B. Accidental- - peer pressure / curiosity
C. Asocial – cold, brutal, no conscience
D. Social
388. It refers to offenses, which discriminate only against
a child, while an adult does not suffer any penalty for
committing similar acts. These shall include curfew
violations; truancy, parental disobedience and the like.
A. Delinquency – violation of norms
B. Exclusive
C. Status Offense
D. Grave – prison mayor – death (afflictive)
389. Children detained pending trial may be released on bail
or______ as provided for under Sections 34 and 35 of RA 9344.
A. Probation
B. Recognizance – cases with a penalty 6m below & indigent
C. Parole
D. Bond
390. Which of the following refers to the maltreatment of a
minor, whether habitual or not?
A. Caress – giving care or attention
B. Abuse
C. Discrimination
D. Exploitation
391. He is one who is without a parent or guardian, or
whose parents, guardian or other custodian for good cause
desire to be relieved of his care and custody; and is
dependent upon the public of support.
A. Abandoned Child
B. Neglected Child
C. Abused Child
D. Dependent Child
392. It refers to aggregate of persons or those responsible
persons from various sector of the community for the
welfare of the child worker
A. Organization
B. Association
C. Club
D. Samahan – “union”
393. A 24-hour child-caring institution that provide short
term resident care for youthful offenders.
A. Bahay Pag-asa – youth rehabilitation center
B. Nursery
C. Child caring institution
D. Foster home
394. The parents or guardian of a working child is
obligated by law to set up a trust fund for the child which
shall constitute at least ____ percent of the earning of the
child.
A. 20
B. 40
C. 30
D. 50
 RA 9231 – ANTI CHILD LABOR
SALARY DIVISION
RULE 1 = 100%  CHILD
RULE 2 = MAX 20%  PARENTS
RULE 3 = MIN 30%  SAVINGS OR TRUST FUND
395. The chairman of Juvenile Justice and Welfare Council
under the law is:
A. The undersecretary of the DOJ
B. The undersecretary of DepEd
C. The undersecretary of the DILG
D. The undersecretary of the DSWD

BRANCH – PRESIDENT
DEPARTMENT – SECRETARY
BUREAU – DIRECTOR (USEC)
DIVISION – HEAD (ASEC)
396. It refers to a principle, which requires a process of
resolving conflicts with the maximum involvement of the
victim, the offender and the community. It seeks to obtain
reparation for the victim; reconciliation of the offender,
the offended and the community; and reassurance to the
offender that he/she can be reintegrated into society. It also
enhances public safety by activating the offender, the victim
and the community in prevention strategies.
A. Restorative Justice
B. Rehabilitative Justice
C. Reformative Justice
D. Reintegrative Justice
 2 TYPES OF JUSTICE

1. RETRIBUTIVE JUSTICE  PUNISHMENT, FINE,

LIABILITIES, IMPRISONMENT, DEATH (JUS
DESERT)

2. RESTORATIVE JUSTICE  DIVERSION,

SETTLEMENT, REPARATION,
INDEMNIFICATION, RESTITUTION,
RECONCILIATION.
397. It refers to a 24-hour residential care facility managed by the
Department of Social Welfare and Development (DSWD), LGUs,
licensed and/or accredited NGOs monitored by the DSWD, which
provides care, treatment and rehabilitation services for children
in conflict with the law. Rehabilitation services are provided under
the guidance of a trained staff where residents are cared for under a
structured therapeutic environment with the end view of reintegrating
them into their families and communities as socially functioning
individuals. Physical mobility of residents of said centers may be
restricted pending court disposition of the charges against them.
A. Youth Reformation Center
B. Youth Reintegration Center
C. Youth Rehabilitation Center – bahay pag-asa
D. Youth Restoration Center
398. The child who is under 18-years of age at the time of
the commission of the offense is found guilty of the offense
charged, shall place the child under .
A. Recognizance
B. Diversion
C. Bail
D. Suspended Sentence – judicial reprieve

Reprieve given by the president = Death penalty

Judicial reprieve = insane or minor
PART 4: CJS
399. Who is the chairman of the Lupon Tagapamayapa in
the Barangay Level where there is a diversion program?
A. Punong Barangay – BRGY CHAIRMAN; brgy chief
executive
B. BCPC Chairman
C. LSWDO
D. PNP member

How many members does Lupon have? 10 -20 members

Pangkat ng tagapgkasundo? 3 members
400. This criminal justice model is based on the idea that
the most important function of the CJS is the protection of
the public and the repression of criminal conduct.
a. Crime prevention b. Crime control
c. Law and order d. Due process

2 models of CJS (Herbert Packer)

1. Crime control – suppression of crime
2. Due process model – protection of equal rights
401. According to this criminal justice model, the rights of
an individual must be co-equal with the concern for
public safety.
a. Crime prevention b. crime control
c. Law and order d. due process

Due process
- Art 3 sec 1, 1987 Constitution
- Uniform procedures
- “we hear before we condemn”
402. This concerns to the obligations of the community to
individuals and requires fair disbursement of common
advantages and sharing of common burden.
a. Prosecution b. justice
c. equality d. trial

Alder Mortimer – “justice is giving or rendering what is due to

others”
SC - 3 symbols of justice
1. Blindfolded woman – impartiality
2. Sword – no one is above the law “dura lex sed lex
3. Balance / scale – degree of evidence
403. This function of the law enforcement is being done
through elimination of factors influencing the
occurrence of crimes, good community relations,
educating the citizens about their role, introduction of
delinquency prevention programs, good parenting and
others.
a. Maintenance of law and order
b. b. Reduction of crime
c. c. crime prevention – primordial duty of a police
officer (modern concept)  absence of crime
d. crime control – old concept  high number of arrest
LEA CJS patrol
1. Old concept  crime control  Reactive patrol
2. Modern Concept  crime prevention  proac..

404. This principal character (main actor, superstar,

spotlight of CJS) of the criminal justice process links all
components of the CJS.
a. Offender
b. Victim – forgotten character
c. Witness
d. Crime
405. The frontline defender of democracy in the CJS.
a. Prosecution
b. b. Correction
c. c. Police / law enforcer
d. d. Court

Linking pillar = prosecution

Weakest pillar = correction
Center piece of CJS = court
Independent pillar = community
406. He is responsible in evaluating the evidence the
police have gathered and deciding whether it is sufficient
to warrant the filing of charge(s) against the alleged
violator.
a. Investigator – “prober”
b. Judge – arbiter of court
c. prosecutor
d. solicitor general – prosecutor for appeal

Note: P.I. – preliminary investigation

407. He is an arbiter in court who ensures that the defense
and the prosecution adhere to the legal requirements of
introducing evidences.
a. Clerk of court b. judge
c. sheriff d. jury

Sheriff = executor of judge’s decision

Shire = military camp
Reeve – head man
Shire-reeve  sheriff
Constabuli  “constable” keeper of horse
408. The pillar of the CJS which is not under the
executive branch of the government.
a. law enforcement – DILG  PNP
b. Court  Judiciary
c. Prosecution  DOJ
d. Correction  DOJ
409. This is a governmental body that is charged with the
responsibility of administering (dispensation) of justice.
a. Law enforcement b. correction
c. Prosecution d. court
410. Any person directly vested with jurisdiction, whether
as an individual or as a member of some court, Government
Corporation, board or commission.
a. Agent of person in authority
b. Government employee
c. Government officer
d. person in authority

Person tasked in maintaing peace and order AGENT

411. A pillar of CJS which occupies a unique position in the
Philippine Criminal Justice System serving as the lawyer
of the State or government in criminal cases.
a. law enforcement b. court
c. prosecution d. correction

Prosecution
- Linking pillar
- Evaluation pillar
- Screening pillar
- Lawyer of the state
412. This document is required by the Prosecutor’s Office
before it can entertain a complaint on a case covered by the
Barangay Court.
a. Certificate of Non-Settlement
b. Certificate of Non-arbitration
c. Certificate to file action
d. complaint affidavit
PD 1508 – Katarungang Pambarangay
Cases:
1. All cases with penalty of 1 year below
2. All cases with fine of not more than 5,000 pesos
 Cases not covered by barangay
1. Cases of more than 1 year of penalty
2. Cases of more than fine of 5,000 pesos
3. One party is a public official
4. Victimless crimes
5. One party is the government
6. Both parties are living in different cities
413. It refers to the study of the various agency of our
government in charged of processing law violators to
ensure the protection of the society and maintenance of
peace and order.
a. Criminology b. Criminal Justice
c. Victimology d. Sociology
414. Refers to the person who is being implicated to the
commission of a crime and subject of an investigation of a
prosecutor.
a. Convict b. respondent
c. Accused d. suspect
415. Is the machinery of the state which enforces the rules of
conduct necessary to protect life and property and to maintain peace
and order?
a. Criminal Justice System
b. b. Criminology
c. Criminal law d. Criminal jurisprudence
Criminal Jurisprudence = Court Decisions
Machineries state
- Tool - government
- Means - nation
- Instrument - society
- Linking process - community
- - country
416. It is that degree of proof requires in criminal case
which would convince a reasonable mind based on moral
certainty but which nevertheless does not preclude the
possibility of error.
a. Preponderance of evidence
b. Clear and convincing evidence
c. substantive evidence
d. proof beyond reasonable doubt
99% - sure – Guilty
1 % - doubt
Judgment = Not guilty
417. A negotiation between the defense counsel and the
prosecutor, aimed at reaching an agreement whereby the
prosecutor uses discretion to obtain from the judge a
lighter sentence in exchange for the defendant’s
entering a guilty plea.
a. Arraignment – formal reading of charges (appraisal of
charges)
b. preliminary investigation
c. pre-trial
d. plea bargaining – plea of guilty to a lesser of offense
Answer to arraignment = PLEA
PLEA OF GUILTY
PLEA OF NOT GUILTY

418. The PNP is the law enforcement agency of the

country which is under the ________?
a. DOJ b. DILG
c. NAPOLCOM d. DSWD

Napolcom is not under DILG directly

Napolcom is an attached agency to the DILG
419. A person who is under custodial investigation is
basically protected by a number of rights mandated under
the constitution and this was even expounded in the
legislative act known as _______?
a. Miranda Doctrine
b. b. R.A. 7438 – rights of a person under arrest,
detention or custodial investigation
c. Bill of Rights
d. R.A. 6975
Napolcom
1. Administrative control (promotion, recruitment,
dismissal)
2. Operational Supervision
420. A body officially assembled under authority of law in
which judicial power is vested or the administration of
justice is delegated.
a. court b. corrections
c. prosecution d. law enforcement

Judicial power
1. Power to apply the laws
2. Power to settle cases
3. Judicial independence and judicial review
421. A body of civil authority tasked to maintain peace
and order, enforce the law, protect life, liberty and
property and ensure public safety.
a. police b. prosecution
c. Court d. corrections

422. System of taking care of the custody, rehabilitation

and treatment of persons convicted of committing crime.
a. police b. prosecution
c. court d. corrections
 3 powers of state
1.Police power – make law and punish people
2. Power of taxation – “buwis”
3. Power of eminent domain - use of land for public
purposes
423. The “Anti Graft and Corrupt Practices Act”.
a. R.A. 8294 b. R.A. 7080 – Plunder (50 million)
c. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 3019

Where the complaint should be filed? = OMBUDSMAN

(TANOD BAYAN)
424. Exclusive original jurisdiction over all offenses
punishable with imprisonment not exceeding six years.
a. Supreme Court c. RTC
b. Court of Appeals d. MTC

Highest court of the land = SC

SC  14 AJ & 1 CJ
Tax & Customs Duties = CTA
Muslim Personal Laws =Sharia
NOTE: ALL OF THEME HAVE THE SAME
JURISDICTION BUT DIFFERENT LOCATION
MTC – “MUNICIPALITY”
MCTC  1 COURT FOR 2 MUNICIPALITIES (3SOME)
MTCC  CITIES OUTSIDE METRO MANILA
METC  NCR *EXCEPT PATEROS
425. It is otherwise known as the Department of the
Interior and Local Government Act of 1990, enacted on
December 13, 1990. Established the PNP, BFP, BJMP and
the PPSC.
a. R.A. 6975 b. P.D. 1184
c. R.A. 8551 – pnp reform law of 1998
d. R.A. 6040 – Napolcom entrance exam
426. Refers to that sector of society composed of NGO’s, cause
oriented groups and advocacy groups that promote the welfare
of the people against all forms of abuse and exploitation.
a. crime control b. political parties (LP & PDP)
c. civil society d. volunteer
427. It is the process of reducing if not eliminate the existence
of a cause from initially occurring, thus, lessen the police work
as suppressing the spread of criminality.
a. Crime Prevention
b. Crime control –old concept – reactive
c. Criminal apprehension
d. law enforcement
428. Directly under the supervision of the Department of
Justice, its most important function in the Criminal Justice
System is to maintain and recognize the rule of law through
the speedy delivery of services particularly in the
prosecution and investigation of all crimes.
a. National Prosecution Service
b. PNP
c. Ombudsman – special prosecutor for cases against public
officials
d. Solicitor General – special prosecutor for appellate cases
429. What do you call a court covering two (2) or more
municipalities?
a. MTC b. MeTC
c. MCTC d. MTC’s

Municipalities = MTC
Cities outside NCR = MTCC
Courts in NCR = MeTC
430. What is that term which refers to the wise use of one’s
own judgment in a given situation without referring to
your superior due to the eminence of the situation?
a. Police resourcefulness b. Police discretion
c. Police integrity d. police prudence

Prudence – ability to discipline oneself; ability to make

good judgment
431. It refers to the art or science of identifying law violators,
locating and tracing them in order to affect their arrest and
gather evidence to prove their guilt in court.
a. Crime prevention
b. criminal investigation
c. Crime control
d. Intelligence work

3 fold aims of criminal investigation

1. Identify
2. Locate
3. Provide evidence
432. An attached agency of the Office of the President
tasked to make policies on anti drug campaign

DDB – policy making body for drugs (RA 6245)

PDEA – implementing arm (Ra 9165)

PNP  PDEG
433. Sworn statement, subscribed by Offended party, any
peace officer of public officer in charge of enforcement of the
law violated filed either to the court or to the office of the
prosecutor.
a. Complaint b. Information
c. Pleadings – answer to an accusation
d. Affidavit – sworn statement

Accusation in writing subscribed by the prosecutor =

information
Where complainT shall be filed? Prosecutor
Where the info shall be filed? Court
434. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there
is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a
crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
guilty thereof, and should be held for trial (probable cause)
a. preliminary investigation
b. Prejudicial question
c. inquest proceeding – summary proceeding to determine
the legality of arrest in cases of warrantless arrest
d. custodial investigation
435. Preliminary investigation is conducted on cases
punishable by:
a. at least four (4) years, two (2) months and one (1) day.
(mandatory PI)
b. more than four years, two months and one day
c. less than four years, two months and one day
d. six years, one day and above
436. It is the actual restraint of a person into custody of
the law in order for him to answer for the commission of an
offense.
a. Arrest b. investigation
c. invitation d. seizure – confiscation
437. It refers to the ways and means of trapping and
capturing the law breakers in the execution of their criminal
plan.
a. Instigation b. Entrapment
c. Investigation d. Raid
 2 definitions of arrest

1. Legal definition  rule 113 – taking of a person into

custody/………..
2. Technical definition  actual restraint of person
438. A pillar of our CJS which is not under or
interdependent from any branch of government.
a. prosecution b. correction
c. court d. community

Law enforcement, prosecution & correction = executive

branch
Court  judiciary
Community = independent
439. During trial of a criminal case, it is the prosecutor
who directs the prosecution of the offense and he/she did
it on the behalf of the state. Once a case is elevated to the
higher court such as Court of Appeals, who represents the
State in the prosecution of the offense?
a. Chief State Prosecutor
b. Solicitor General – aka chief state prosecutor (Jose
Calida)
c. National or provincial prosecutor
d. Judge
440. It refers to the questioning initiated by law
enforcement officer after a person has been taken into
custody.
a. custodial investigation b. interview
c. inquest d. interrogation
Simple questioning of a person willing to give information
– interview
Vigorous question for reluctant suspects = interrogation
441. In cases committed by Public officer with salary grade
27 and above in violation of Act 3019, R.A. 1379 or Art.
210 to 212 of the Revised Penal Code a complaint should
first be filed to the office of _______ for the conduct of the
required preliminary investigation.
a. Ombudsman b. Solicitor General
c. Judge of MTC d. the President
442. In flagrante delicto means ______?
a. caught in the act
b. caught after commission
c. instigation
d. entrapment
Ombudsman is not a court
Ombusdman is a prosecutor
Functions:
1. Accepts complaint against a public officer
2. Conducts P.I.
3. Looks for probable cause before filing the case

Sandigan Bayan (court)

- This is where the ombudsman will file the case
Mayor, congressman, senator, governor, pulis

Cases of ombudsman
- Public officer (tauhan ng gobyerno)
- Cases related to their official function

MAYOR  PLUNDER, GRAFT, MALVERZATION 

OMBUDSMAN

1. ACCEPT THE COMPLAINT

2. CONDUCT P.I.
3. LOOK FOR PROBABLE CAUSE
4. ISSUE INFORMATION = SANDIGAN BAYAN
 SANDIGANBAYAN

- ANTI GRAFT COURT

- PD 1606
- CASES
1. PUBLIC OFFICIAL
2. SG – 27
EXCEPTION
3. BELOW SG 27 – PROVIDED THAT THERE IS A
CONSPIRACY BETWEEN A SALARY GRADE 27
443. Courts in the Philippines are cloth with the power or
try cases submitted to for adjudication. What term is use in
referring to the authority or power to hear and decided
cases.
a. Jurisdiction
b. Venue – place where the trial will be held
c. Jurisprudence – court decision that became part of the
law
d. Territory
444. It is the authority of the court to try/hear cases for the
first time to the exclusion of other courts.
a. original jurisdiction – 1st (MTC & RTC)
b. exclusive jurisdiction – specific cases (Sharia, CTA, SB)
c. appellate jurisdiction – 2nd or 3rd (CA & SC)
d. concurrent jurisdiction – 2 or more courts can handle the
case
3 TYPES OF COURTS
1. REGULAR COURT – “trial court” – mtc , rtc
2. SPECIAL COURT – SB, Sharia, CTA
3. REVIEW COURT – CA & SC
CA – 2ND HEARING (Appellate)
RTC – 1ST TRIAL  CONVICTED (Original)

Kidnapping  caloocan  Malabon  navotas  Manila

RTC of caloocan
RTC of Navotas
RTC of Malabon
RTC Manila
445. It is the formal reading of the charges against a
person accused of a crime and latter asking him whether he
pleads guilty or not to the crime charged.
a. arraignment
b. preliminary investigation
c. plea
d. promulgation of judgment

Is the presence of the accused required in arraignment?

YES!
446. It is a body of men created to settle disputes within
Barangay level.
a. barangay tanod
b. pangkat tagapagkasundo (3) – arbitration (15 days)
c. barangay council
d. lupon tagapamayapa (10 – 20) – mediation (15 days)
Failed mediation + failed arbitration = CFA
447. It is the most common way by which the police
discovers, or it informed that a crime has been committed:
a. When the witness voluntarily reports the crime.
b. When the police discovers the crime
c. When the victim reports the crime
d. When the suspect surrenders
448. The Lupon Tagapamayapa shall be composed of the
Brgy. Chairman as Chairman of the Lupon and the Brgy.
Secretary as the Secretary of the Lupon and other members
who shall be:
a. more than 10 but less than 20
b. not less than 10 but not more than 20
c. more than 10
d. less than 10
449. When arrest may be made?
a. At any time of the day and night
b. At day time
c. At night time
d. from sun dust till dawn
450. Under what circumstances arrest can be made even
without a warrant? Rule 113 sec 5 par a to c
a. All of the choices
b. When the crime was committed in the presence of the
arresting officer. (inflagrante)
c. When the crime was in fact been committed and there is
personal knowledge based on probable cause that the
person to be arrest has committed it. (hot pursuit)
d. When the person to be arrested is an escapee (escaped
prisoner)
451. It is a process directed to a person requiring him to
attend and to testify (ad testificandum) or to bring with him
any books or documents (duces tecum) under his control at
the trial of an action.
a. subpoena
b. subpoena ad testificandum
c. subpoena duces tecum
d. warrant of arrest

Testify “and” bring books or documents = duces tecum

Subpoena – it is an order that refusal may lead to the crime
of contempt (Fiscsal, Court, Congress, Senante)

Summon – Invitation (refusable) / police / brgy.

452. The “anti-Plunder Act”.

a. R.A. 7080 c. R.A 3019 - AGCP
b. R.A. 1379 d. R.A. 6713 - COPCES
453. This attached agency of the DOJ is tasked to provide
free legal assistance to poor members of society:
a. National Bureau of Investigation
b. National Prosecution Service
c. Board of Pardons and Parole
d. Public Attorney’s Office
Former name : CLAO (citizens Legal Assistance Office)

Chairman – Atty. Persida Acosta

454. This is the power to apply the law to contests or
disputes concerning legally recognized rights or duties
between the state and private persons, or between
individual litigants in cases properly brought before the
judicial tribunal.
a. Judicial Power b. Judicial Review
c. Court d. Court of Justice

Judicial review – test the constitutionality of laws passed

by congress
455. This is the process or method whereby accusations
are brought before the court of justice to determine the
innocence or guilt of the accused.
a. Prosecutor b. Prosecution
c. Trial d. Preliminary Investigation

456. The settlement of a dispute by a person/s chosen to

hear both sides and to come to a decision.
a. Mediation (15 days) b. Settlement
c. Arbitration d. Agreement
457. One who prosecutes another for a crime in the name of
the government?
a. Public Prosecutor – counsel de officio
b. Private Prosecutor – counsel de parte
c. Prosecution
d. Ombudsman
458. It refers to the “court of last resort”.
a. RTC b. Sandiganbayan
c. Supreme Court (general jurisdiction) d. MTC
459. This court was created under RA 1125, as amended, which
has exclusive appellate jurisdiction to review on appeal decisions
of the Commissioner of the Internal Revenue (taxes) involving
internal revenue taxes and decisions of the Commissioner of
Customs (customs duties) involving customs duties.
a. Court of Justice b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals

SC – 14 + 1 = 15
CA – 68 + 1 = 69
SB – 14 + 1 = 15
CTA – 5 + 1 = 6
460. This court has jurisdiction over crimes committed by
high-ranking public officials (with salary grade of 27
above), which can only be committed because of their
position.
a. Court of Justice b. Court of Appeals
c. Sandiganbayan d. Court of Tax Appeals
461. It a writ order of the court bearing its seal and the
signature of the judge directing the jail or prison authorities
to receive the convicted offender for service of sentence.
a. Commitment Order b. Mittimus
c. warrant of arrest d. habeas corpus
462. Is that branch of the criminal justice system charged
with the custody, supervision and rehabilitation of a
convicted offender.
a. Penology b. Probation
c. Correction d. Criminology

463. Executive clemencies are acts of grace exercise by the

president. Which of the following is not one of them?
a. Pardon b. Amnesty
c. Commutation of Sentence d. Parole  BPP
464. Prison is a place for confinement of convicted
prisoners. What classification of prisoners is sentenced to
serve a prison term of one day to three (3) years or whose
fine is less than 6,000 but more than 200 or both?
a. National prisoner  MORE THAN 3 YEARS (insular)
b. b. City prisoner
c. provincial prisoner – 6 MOS 1 DAY – 3 YEARS
d. municipal prisoner – 1 DAY TO 6 MOS
465. Prisons are institution for confinement of convicted
offenders sentenced to more than three (3) years of
imprisonment. It is derived from the Greco-Roman word
_____?
a. Presinto b. Precindio
c. presidio d. precinto

466. There are how many members the composed the

Lupon?
a. 3 members b. 5 to 10 members
c. 10 to 20 members d. 5 members
467. It is granted to convicted offenders who have served a
portion of their service granted by the Board of Pardons
and Parole.
a. Pardon b. Probation
c. Amnesty d. Parole

President + congress = AMNESTY

468. It is a security facility, usually operated by the police
stations, for the temporary detention of persons held for
investigation or awaiting preliminary investigation before
the prosecutor.
a. Lock-up jail b. Ordinary jail (BJMP_
c. Workhouses d. prison
3 TYPES OF JAIL
1. LOCK UP – PNP
2. ORDINARY JAIL – BJMP
3. WORKHOUSE – DSWD AND OTHER JAILS
469. It is a form of motivation granted by the Director of Prisons
whereby a number of days are deducted from the length of years
that a prisoner have been sentenced to serve for his good conduct.
a. Commutation of sentence b. Parole
c. GCTA d. reprieve
470. Correctional institutions in the country is divided into National
and Local institution. What Department of the Executive Branch is
the one in charge of the National Penitentiary?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Department of Interior and Local Government
d. Bureau of Correction
471. It is the suffering that is inflicted by the state for the transgression of the law.
a. penalty b. self-defense
c. exemplarity d. punishment – REDRESS
472. City and Municipal is the division of our correctional
institution which primarily in charge of those detention prisoner,
awaiting for final judgment of their trial and serving short sentences
and under the Bureau of Jail Management and Penology. While it is
true that even the Provincials Jails like the City and Municipal Jails
are under the DILG, it is subject to the control and supervision of
the __________?
a. Bureau of Jail Management and Penology
b. Department of Justice
c. Bureau of Correction
d. Provincial government
473. This is the process wherein the inmate, after serving
his sentence, is released to be able to mingle with the
community.
a. Reintegration – COMMUNITY
b. Reincarnation – 2nd life
c. Realization
d. Rehabilitation

POSITIVISM = CRIMINALS ARE SICK INDVIDUALS

= TREATMENT
474. It refers to the examination of an individual’s person, house, papers
or effects, or other buildings and premises to discover contraband or
some evidence of guilt to be used in the prosecution of a criminal action:
a. Search b. seizure – confiscation
c. Raid d. entrapment
475. This court was established by virtue of PD 1083, otherwise known
as “Code of Muslim Personal Laws of the Philippines”.
a. Court of Tax Appeals
b. Shari’a Court
c. Sandiganbayan
d. Family Court – juveniles, child abuse, vawc (RTC)
2 types of sharia
1 sharia circuit – eq. of mtc
2. Sharia district – eq of rtc
476. What is the antonyms of the word arrest?
A. Apprehend B. Search
C. Set free D. Renounce

Synonyms – different words but the same meaning

Antonym – words with reverse meaning (left – right /
correct – wrong)
Homonyms – same sounds different meaning (right and
right) - see – sea
477. Refers to the counsel provided by the government to
assist destitute litigant?
a. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office
d. volunteer counsel
478. He represent the government’s position in a criminal
case during court proceedings from the time of the
suspect’s arrest until the adjudication of his case.
a. Counsel de officio b. counsel de parte
c. Public Attorney’s Office d. prosecutor
479. What is the highest rank in the national prosecution service?
a. Prosecutor V (prosecutor general)
b. b. Prosecutor IV
c. Prosecutor VI d. Chief Prosecutor

480. The Office of the ____________represents the Government of the

Philippines, its agencies and instrumentalities and its officials and agents
in any litigation, proceeding, investigation or matter requiring the
services of lawyers
a. Solicitor General (prosecutor for appeal / lawyer of the
government in case the that government is under litigation)
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Counsel de officio
b. counsel de parte
481. An office which Investigate and prosecute on its own
or on complaint by any person, any act or omission of any
public officer or employee, office or agency, when such
act or omission appears to be illegal, unjust, improper or
inefficient
a. Solicitor General Office
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Ombudsman – Tanod bayan
b. Sandiganbayan
482. An office which shall independently discharge its
mandate to render, free of charge, legal representation,
assistance, and counselling to indigent persons in
criminal, civil, labor, administrative and other quasi-
judicial cases
a. Solicitor General Office
b. Public Attorney’s Office (only for indigent)
c. Ombudsman
b. Sandiganbayan
483. Is an inquiry or proceeding to determine whether there
is sufficient ground to engender a well-founded belief that a
crime has been committed and the respondent is probably
guilty thereof and should be held for trial
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest proceeding
c. preliminary investigation (mandatory – 4y 2m & 1d)
b. arraignment
484. Is an inquiry made by the duty prosecutor to determine the
legality of the arrest made especially those arrests made without
a warrant
a. custodial investigation
b. inquest proceeding
c. preliminary investigation
b. Arraignment
485. It is the power to apply the laws to contests or disputes
concerning legally recognized rights or duties of and between the
state and the private persons or between individual litigants in
cases properly brought before the judicial tribunals.
a. court power b. legal power
c. judicial power d. right power
486. It has original exclusive jurisdiction over public
officers accused of committing crimes in relation to their
official functions and whose salary grade is 27 and above.
a. Solicitor General Office
b. Public Attorney’s Office
c. Ombudsman – special prosecutor
b. Sandiganbayan – anti graft court
487. It is said that the home is the cradle of human
personality, for it where the child develops his fundamental
attitudes and habits that last throughout his life
a. school b. community
c. barangay b. family
488. It refers the process whereby disputants are persuaded
by the Punong Barangay or Pangkat to amicably settle their
disputes
a. agreement b. conciliation
c. conference d. mediation
POLICE ETHICS
489. An established and generally accepted moral values
refer to.
a. integrity – ability to stay away from any corrupt
practices
b. morality – quality of being good or bad
c. ethical standard
d. authority – the power to command
490. These are forbidden acts involving misuse of office or
authority for personal gain.
a. corruption
b. c. immorality – act of going unacceptable activities
b. deviance - violation of norms (delinquency)
d. Brutality – excessive use of police force
491. It is the unreasonable, unnecessary and excessive use
of force in the conduct of police operations which does not
support a legitimate police function.
a. cruelty – word or deed that degrades human dignity
c. torture – 3rd degree; corporal punishment
b. police brutality
d. Battery = physical + psychological abuse
492. An example of police immorality is _____:
a. going to the office not in uniform
b. living with a woman not his wife
c. smoking while patrolling
d. always absent from his post

Violation of police officer’s creed”

Respect for sanctity of marriage and respect for women
493. Considered as the highest form of love in the PNP
hierarchy of police values.
a. love of women - 4th
b. love of God
c. selfless love of people
d. love of power
494. The _____ character of the police requires adherence
to the rule on merit and fitness system.
a. civilian c. social
b. authoritarian d. democratic
Art xvi sec 6, 1987 constitution
495. Giving unfair breaks to friends and relatives.
a. deviance c. misconduct (malfeasance)
b. nepotism / cronyism d. corruption

496. PNP members are expected to by the public not to seek

political influence nor get “padrino” on matters pertaining to
assignment, award, training and promotion. This means that all
PNP members are discouraged to resort to:
a. political patronage
b. influence peddling
c. partisan politics
d. political corruption
497. The legislative act which provides for the rights of the person
arrested, detained or under custodial investigation.
a. R.A. 3019 (anti graft and corr) c. R.A. 7610 – acal
b. R.A. 7438 d. R.A. 9165 – cdda 2002
498. Any public officer who agrees to perform an act
constituting a crime, in connection with the performance of
his official duties, in consideration of any offer, promise, gift or
present received by such officer personally or through the
mediation of another shall be liable for ________?
a. direct bribery
b. Malversation – misuse of public funds
c. indirect bribery – no exchange in return
d. illegal exaction
499. Insp. Garcia’s word is his bond, he stand by it and
commit to uphold it. Inspector Garcia therefore has:
a. delicadeza c. word of honor
b. camaraderie d. honor code

Delicadeza – ability to sacrifice self interest

Camaraderie – spirit of teamwork and brotherhood
Honor code (Douglas McArthur) – do not lie, do not cheat
and don’t steal
500. Reason why a police officer must always wear his
uniform securely buttoned.
a. loose clothing is shabby
b. complete uniform gets women’s attention
c. it is a minor offense
d. a neat appearance will command respect
501. Which of this statement is FALSE?
a. Religion in advance societies tends to the collective or
group experience.
b. Participation in organized religious activity is higher
among women, especially widows.
c. Come religions are attractive to the deprived because
they promise rewards in
d. the other world.
e. Religion has served as a functional alternative to political
extremism.
502. PNP members shall conduct themselves properly at all
times in keeping with the rules and regulations of the
organization. This commitment to police professional
conduct is simply known as _________:
a. discipline c. devotion to duty
b. delicadeza d. dedication to work
503. A manifestation of love of country with a pledge of
allegiance to the flag and a vow to defend the Constitution.
a. nationalism c. heroism
b. patriotism d. valor – highest form of bravery /
ability to sacrifice life
504. It is the ability to last.
a. Endurance (stamina) b. patience
b. perseverance d. fortitude

Patience – ability to be calm

Perseverance – ability to go on despite of obstacles
Fortitude – firmness of the mind; ability to endure without
yielding
505. The concept that the manner in which the police were
viewed was likely to influence the degree of cooperation
they were to receive was espoused by:
a) Sir Robert Peel
b) Friedrich Taylor – father of scientific management
c) Max Weber
d) Edwin Sutherland – DAT

Note: symbiotic relationship

506. It means courage to endure without yielding.
a. Prudence c. fortitude
b. temperance d. justice

Prudence – ability to discipline oneself; ability to make

sound judgment

Temperance – ability to control sexual appetite

507. It means “love for the country”
a. patriotism c. nationalism
b. valor d. bravery

508. What Executive Order provides for the

institutionalization of the Doctrine of Command
Responsibility in all law enforcement agencies particularly
in the PNP?
a. E.O. 266 b. E.O. 226 (FVR)
c. E.O. 227 d. E.O. 236
 3 exceptions for command responsibility

1. Not fully informed

2. Conduct of immediate investigation
3. Follow lawful orders from higher authorities
509. The ability to go on despite obstacles or oppositions.
a. patience
b. perseverance
c. Endurance – ability to last
d. Prudence
510. The police officers use of offensive and obscene
languages is known as police _______.
a. brutality c. profanity
b. perjury d. gratuity
Gratuity = gift for good service
Perjury = lying under oath
511. It is the ability to be calm in enduring situations.
a. patience / composure c. perseverance
b. endurance d. prudence

512. It the ability to moderate or to avoid something.

a. prudence
b. fortitude
c. temperance
d. justice
513. Excessive use of force or police brutality is a violation of the
ethical standards. PNP members shall exercise proper and ______
use of authority in the performance of duty.
a. effective c. proportionate
b. legitimate d. responsible

514. Imports the act of cruelty, severity, unlawful execution,

domination or excessive use of authority.
a. dishonesty c. disloyalty
b. incompetency d. oppression
Dishonesty – distortion of truth
Disloyalty – breach of allegiance to the government
Incompetence – lack of necessary skills
515. Otherwise known as the “Code of Ethics of Public
Officials or Employees”.
a. a. R.A. 3019 c. R.A. 7080
b. R.A. 6713 d. R.A. 7438

516. Under this ethical standard, the PNP member shall

take legitimate means to achieve goals despite of internal
of external and internal difficulties.
a. integrity c. orderliness (follow procedures)
b. Humility (humble ) d. perseverance
517. All PNP members must have the moral courage to
sacrifice self-interest in keeping with the time-honored
principle of ____.
a. Delicadeza c. Amor propio
b. Pride d. Pakikisama
518. What is the complete title of the PNP Code of Conduct?
COPSES
a. PNP Code of Ethical Standards and Professional Conduct
b. PNP Code of Professional Conduct and Ethical
Standards
c. PNP Code of Conduct and Standards
d. PNP Ethical Standards
519. A police community relations program must provide
opportunities for the police and the citizens to _______.
a. talk with each other
b. talk for each other
c. talk through each other
d. talk to each other
520. PO1 Juan Alba governs and disciplines himself by
means of reason and sound judgment. What virtue does
he practice?
a. endurance c. prudence
b. Courtesy (RESPECT) d. patriotism
521. It is an omission or refusal, without sufficient excuse, to
perform an act or duty which is the police officer’s legal
obligation to perform.
a. nonfeasance b. misfeasance
b. malfeasance d. corruption

NON FEASANCE – may inuutos pero di ginawa (neglect of

duty
MAL FEASANCE – may ginawa pero ipinagbabawala (mis
conduct)
MISFEASANCE – may inutos, sinunod ang utos pero mali ang
pagkakasagawa (improper performance of duty) – irregularities
522. No PNP member shall engage in any activity which
shall be in conflict with their duties as public servant.
a. malingering c. moonlighting
b. loyalty to the service d. delicadeza

Malingering – faking sickness to escape work

523. What is the primary purpose of a public relation program?
a. to develop mutual understanding between the police and public;
b. To plan for a community relation program;
c. To recruit new members for community relations;
d. To train police officers in community relations.

Summary of PCR
- Goodwill
- Cooperation
- Mutual trust
- Trust
- Confidence
- Good image
524. What program is concerned with creating a favorable
public image of the police?
a. police relations c. Press relations
b. Community relations d. Public relations

525. The binding spirit that enhances teamwork and

cooperation in the police organization.
a. loyalty c. patriotism
b. Camaraderie d. valor

Highest award given to a military = medal of valor

 Bago mag asawa tingin muna ang ethics nya!!!

3 KATAININGAN NG MAGANDANG ETHICS

1. MAHABANG ETHICS – PATIENCE
2. MATIGAS NA ETHICS – INTEGRITY
3. MAPULANG ETHICS – VALOR
4. BAWAL ANG MAUGAT NG ETHICS
5. BAWAL ANG MABUHOK NA ETHICS- PROPER
HAIRCUT
6. BAWAL ANG MATABANG ETHICS – PHYSICAL
FITNESS
526. The authority to make decisions without reference to
the specific rules or facts, using instead one’s own
judgment.
a. Discretion c. Negotiation
b. prudence d. conviction
526. The authority to make decisions without reference to the
specific rules or facts, using instead one’s own judgment.
a. Discretion c . Negotiation
b. prudence d. conviction

527. What is the most important supervisory principle in

order to improve the morale of staff?
a. Be fair and just
b. Be strict on attendance
c. Be kind and respectful
d. Be forgiving
528. It refers to the planned use of mass communication
for public purpose:
a. Press release
b. advertisement
c. Publication
d. Propaganda

KAPAG ANG BABAE ANG TANGA - PUROPAGANDA

529. The best measure for the competence of police officer
is ______.
a. High morale of his men
b. Ability of his men to prepare reports.
c. Good command of words
d. High level of education among his men
530. This particular program makes the policemen a friend
and partner of the people as well as their defender. In short,
this program makes the police a part of, and not apart from
society.
a. Civic Action Program
b. Public information Program
c. Public relation Program
d. Mass Communication Program
531. It is the sum total of all the dealings of the police with
the people it serves and whose goodwill and cooperation
the police needs for the greatest possible efficiency in
public service.
a. Police Community Relations
b. Human relations
c. Police Public relation
d. Public relations
532. The best relation a law enforcement organization can give
to the community is:
a. good and credible performance
b. frequent media coverage of police work
c. good public press relations
d. community visitations
533. In launching a police community program, to attain a sound
degree of success, link or “ugnayan” should be made first with:
a. Community Civic organization
b. Local prominent residents
c. local ladies club
d. Barangay officials
534. To develop public good will, a policeman on duty
must do the following, EXCEPT:
a. be selective of people to serve
b. be courteous and fair
c. be quick to assist individuals in their problem
d. perform job with dedication and efficiency
535. It refers to the conceptual policy laid down for the
observance of all law enforcement personnel to exercise
utmost restraint and self-control in the performance of their
official functions.
a. command responsibility
b. reasonable force
c. rules of engagement
d. maximum tolerance – UTMOST RESTRAINT
536. The primary purpose of police ethics is to enlighten
the members of the police service of _________.
a. what is right and what is wrong
b. the right attitude
c. what behavior is really acceptable
d. the right thing to do
537. It is a habit which inclines a man to act in a way that
harmonizes with his nature. (HABIT OF DOING GOOD)
a. ethics c. virtue
b. right d. conscience
HABIT OF DOING BAD = VICE
538. An authority a person lawfully exercises over subordinates
by virtue of his rank and assignment or position.
a. command c. orders
b. responsibility d. memorandum

539. Police officers should have a feeling of devotion, duty or

attachment to the PNP organization. Such attitude is an
example of _____________.
a. integrity
b. honesty
c. loyalty to the service
d. obedience to superior
540. The police officer’s relations with the officers and
men of his own department, his supervisor, the station
commander, as well as the city or municipal mayor where
he is assigned is an example of:
a. intra-departmental relations
b. professional relation
c. good relation
d. inter-departmental relation

OUTSIDE THE DEPARTMENT = EXTRA

DEPARTAMENTA / INTERDEPARTAMENTAL
541. PNP members must promote a living that is acceptable
and respectable in the eyes of the public. They must
promote simple yet credible lives.
a. police lifestyle
b. delicadeza
c. human rights
d. image
542. A part of the PNP’s ceremony where the flag is raised
in the middle of the pole in difference to deceased member
of the command or unit.
a. flag raising - monday
b. half-mast – DEATH OF A PNP MEMBER
c. flag retreat – Friday
d. funeral service
543. PNP members shall provide service to everyone
without discrimination regardless of party affiliation in
accordance with existing rules and regulations.
a. political patronage
b. non-partisanship
c. commitment to democracy
d. social awareness
544. PNP members shall not allow themselves to be victims
of corruption and dishonest practices.
a. integrity c. honesty
b. clean living d. corrupt

Types of corrupt police officials

1. White knights – 100% clean
2. Straight shooter – tolerator
3. Grass eater / vegetarian cops – minor corruption
4. Meat eaters / carnivorous cops – major corruption
5. Rouges – criminals
545. The misuse of police authority which involves violations
of the rules and regulations of the police organization.
a. police profanity
b. police corruption
c. police misconduct
d. police deviance
546. These are material favor or gifts in return for service.
a. Bribe – “pabagsak”
b. Kickback – “commission in an illegal activities
c. Gratuity – pasasalamat
d. Extortion – pangingikil
547. All PNP officers shall follow logical procedures in
accomplishing task assigned to them to minimize waste in
the use of time, money and efforts. This refers to ________.
a. perseverance c. humility
b. orderliness d. integrity

548. PO1 Habagat frequently assumes that he is the master

of the people, perform his duties with arrogance and feel
that he is invincible and not an ordinary mortal. PO1
Habagat violated the ethical act of:
a. perseverance c. humility
b. integrity d. morality
549. PO3 Perez refrains himself from patronizing houses of ill-
refute and always faithful to his lawfully wedded wife. PO3
Perez practices the ethical act of:
a. integrity c. loyalty
b. morality d. temperance

550. The act of extending hospitality to visiting personnel

who pays respect to the command or unit.
a. courtesy
b. exit call
c. courtesy of the post
d. turn over ceremony
 Police officers creed

1. I believe in God
2. I believe in respect for authority is a duty
3. I believe in selfless love and service to people
4. I believe in sanctity of marriage and respect for women
5. I believe in responsible dominion and stewardship over
materials things
6. I believe in wisdom of truthfulness
551. The sum total of the dealings between the police and
the people it serves, and whose goodwill and cooperation
it craves, for the greatest possible efficiency in the service.
a. police community relations
b. police public relations
c. human relation
d. community relation
552. An established usage or social practices carried on by
tradition that has obtained the force of the law.
a. customs c. traditions
b. mores d. values

553. It is the doing either through ignorance, inattention or

malice, of that which the officer had no legal right to do.
a. nonfeasance c. misfeasance
b. malfeasance d. oppression
554. When police officers are taught how to deal with
people in a warm and friendly manner, they are trained
in _________.
a. Public information
b. international relations
c. Media relations
d. human relations
555. Which of the following nearly expresses the meaning
of ridicule?
a. Anger c. Resentment
b. to make fun d. disgust
556. All the members of the PNP shall guard the
confidentiality of classified information against ____
disclosure including aspects of official business, special
order, communications and other documents.
a. Authorized c. unauthorized
b. Approved d. discriminately

Secrecy discipline
CDI = omerta -code of silence
557. Which of the following does NOT belong to the group?
a. Non-partisanship c. Humility
b. Morality d. Perseverance

Nonpartisanship, humility and perseverance are professional

conducts

558. Which of the following nearly expresses the meaning of

animosity?
a. Resentment b. Anger
b. Disgust d. Bribe
559. PNP members should always bare in mind that they
are public servants and not masters of the people; they
must perform their duties without arrogance.
a. Orderliness c. Integrity
b. Humility d. Perseverance
560. Under this police professional conduct, PNP members
including their families must encourage to be actively
involved in religious, social and civic activities to
enhance the image of the organization without affecting
their official duties.
a. Happy Hours c. Police Lifestyle
b. Social Gatherings d. None of these (social awareness)
561. The code of professional conduct and ethical standards
for public employee is known as:
a. RA 6713 c. RA 6448
b. RA 6975 d. RA 8551

SALN – statement of assets, liabilities and networths

Submitted annual
Assets = wealth (30Million)
Liabilities = loans (2 Million)
Networth = wealth – loans (28 million)
562. “Judicious use of Authority” means:
a. Respect for Human Rights
b. Legitimate use authority
c. Practical use of government resources
d. d. Logical procedures
563. Under this professional conduct, PNP personal shall
perform their duties with dedication, thoroughness,
efficiency, enthusiasm and manifest concern for public
welfare.
a. Respect for human rights
b. Orderliness
c. Police lifestyle
d. None of these – devotion to duty / dedication to work
564. With regard to the police service, any gift or item of
value exchanged for a service rendered is known as:
a) Bribe c. Love offering
b) donation d. gratuity

565. A practical science that treats the principle of human

morality and duty as applied to law enforcement.
a) Ethics – “Ethos” – character “ethicus” – customs
b) Command responsibility
c) Police service
d) police ethics
566. The police officer performed an act under the law
but committed a mistake in the execution of such act:
a) Nonfeasance c. malfeasance
b) Misfeasance d. none of these

COP – magpatrol ka, hindi mo ginawa = nonfeasance

COP – mag check point = 3 lang kayo – misfeasance
COP – mag check point – tumanggap ka ng suhol – mal
feasance
Nanay – anak mag saing ka = jhindi mo ginawa

Nanay – mag saing ka – sunog = mis feasance

Nanay – mag saing ka – pinamigay mo sa bf mo – mal

feasance
RESEARCH
567. It is defined as a careful, systematic study of knowledge in the
field of criminology or criminal justice, undertaken to discover or
establish facts of the crimes or causations of crime.
A. social science research
B. criminal justice research
C. descriptive research
D. criminological research

RESEARCH – SYSTEMATIC COLLECTION, EVALUATION,

ANALYSIS OF DATA TO CREATE A SOLUTION TO A PROBLEM

WHAT IS MOST IMPORTANT GOAL OF RESEARCH – TO

CREATE A SOLUTION TO A PROBLEM
 TYPES OF RESEARCH
1. SURVEY  STATISTICS  QUANTITATIVE RESEARCH
2. INTERVIEW  “WORDS”  QUALITATIVE RESEARCH
3. QUANTI + QUALI  MIXED RESEARCH
4. STUDYING THE PAST  HISTORICAL RESEARCH
5. STUDY OF THE CURRENT SCENARIOS  DESCRIPTIVE RESEARCH
6. STUDY OF FUTURE EVENTS  EXPERIMENTAL RESEARCH
7. STUDY OF THE CAUSE AND EFFECT  CASE STUDY
8. CREATE A THEORY  PURE OR BASIC RESEARCH
9. TEST THEORY  APPLIED RESEARCH
10. GROUP OF PEOPLE  ETHNOGRAPHY
11. ACTUAL EXPERIENCE  PHENOMENOLOGY
12. RELATIONSHIP BETWEEN 2 VARIABLES – CORRELATIONAL
RESEARCH
13. MEASURE OF PERFORMANCE – EVALUATIVE RESEARCH
568. This finds answer to the questions who, what, when, where and
how; this type of research describes a situation or a given state of
affairs in terms of special aspects or factors.
A. descriptive research C. historical research
B. experimental research D. all of these

569. It is concerned with the acquisition of new knowledge

(CREATE A NEW THEORY) for the sake of science or the
development of the field.
A. pure basic research C. applied research
B. empirical research D. action research
TEST THEORY = APPLIED RESEARCH
ACTION RESEARCH – DEVELOP AN IMMEDIATE SOLUTION
570. It is a practical research concerned with solving
immediate policy problems.
A. action research C. pure research
B. applied research D. basic research

OVERPOPULATION  CONDOM; PILLS

571. In this classification of research; concepts are assigned
numerical value; and research methods in the social
sciences, of which criminal justice is heir, had followed
these basic philosophical traditions.

QUANTITATIVE
572. This is responsible for new products, new knowledge
and new ways of undertaking projects.
A. Manufacturing C. Developmental
B. Research D. Experiment

IPHONE 55
WASHING MACHINE  FOLD
RECYCLABLE CONDOM
573. The first and the most important step in conducting a
research project.
A. Determining the appropriate research method
B. Collection of Data
C. Identification of a research problem
D. Formulating hypothesis

JUVENILE DELINQUENCY – “ FACTORS AFFECTING

JUVENILE DELINQUENCY AMONG THE YOUTH OF
BRGY 1 OF TACLOBAN CITY”
DRUG ADDICTION
TRAFFIC CONGESTION
574. This refers to the overall plan and scheme in
conducting the study.
a. Methods of Research
b. Research Design
c. Both A and C
d. None of them

CHAPTER 3 – RESEARCH DESIGN, RESPONDENTS,

SAMPLING METHOD, INSTRUMENT, STATISTICAL
TREATMENT
I. PRELIMINARY PAGES (TITLE PAGE, ABSTRACT, TABLE
OF CONTENTS, ACKNOWLEDGEMENT, DEDICATION)
II. CHAPTER 1 – INTRODUCTION / THE PROBLEM AND ITS
SETTING (STATEMENT OF THE PROBLEM,
HYPOTHESIS, SIGNIFICANCE OF THE STUDY, SCOPE
AND LIMITATION, DEFINITION OF TERMS)
III. CHAPTER 2 – REVIEW OF RELATED LITERATURES AND
STUDY
IV. CHAPTER 3 – METHODS OF RESEARCH
V. CHAPTER 4 – PRESENTATION AND ANYLSIS OF DATA
VI. CHAPTER 5 – CONCLUSION AND RECOMMENDATION
VII.END PAGES – BIBLIOGRAPHY (REFERENCE)
APPENDICES
THE ACT OF COPYING WITHOUT CITATION 
PLAGIARISM
575. A data-gathering instrument or device used to
determine what is occurring or what individuals are doing.
A. Interview C. Questionnaire
B. Observation D. Survey

SURVEY – WRITTEN QUESTIONNAIRE (QUANTI)

INTERVIEW – ORAL QUESTIONNAIRE (QUALI)
576. This is an oral type of questionnaire to determine the
perceptions of the individuals or groups.
A. Interview C. Questionnaire
B. Observation D. Survey

577. This uses carefully planned and printed items given

to respondents in order to elicit answers to questions of the
research.
A. Interview C. Questionnaire
B. Observation D. Survey
 5 QUALITIES OF A GOOD RESEARCH

S – SPECIFIC / SIMPLE
M – MEASURABLE
A – ATTAINABLE
R – REALISTIC
T – TIME BOUND
578. The purpose of this part of research is to give readers the
context of the present research.
A. Introduction – CONTAINS THE REASON FOR
RESEARCH
B. Method of Research – chapter 3
C. Review of Related Literature – chapter 2
D. Conclusion – chapter 5
579. These are inferences, deductions, abstractions and/or
generalizations based on findings.
A. Presentation of Data C. Conclusion
B. Introduction D. Recommendations
Suggested solutions to the problem = recommendation
580. These are addressed to those concerned to help solve
the problem, guided by the research findings.
A. Presentation of Data C. Conclusion
B. Introduction D. Recommendations

581. This part of research must be feasible, logical and

valid which may address (solve the problem) the findings
of the research.
A. Presentation of Data C. Conclusion
B. Introduction D. Recommendations
582. This highlights the findings without detailed
statistical data and analysis.
A. Presentation of Data (chapter 4)
C. Conclusion
B. Summary
D. Recommendations
583. This part of research includes the works-and only
those works-cited in the text.
A. References C. Appendices
B. Bibliography D. Both A and B
584. Is a method of inquiry for the purpose of obtaining facts
in response to questions.
a. Manufacturing C. Developmental
b. Research D. Experiment
Re – again
Search – to find
585. It describes phenomena in words instead of numbers or
measures.
a. Qualitative Research
b. Quantitative Research
c. Both A and C
d. None of them
586. The ultimate aim of research is –
a. To test a theory
b. To solve a problem
c. To develop new theory or product
d. All of them

587. This is a specific statement of prediction.

a. Setting of the Study C. Introduction
b. Framework D. Hypothesis (assumptions)
2 types of hypothesis
+ hypothesis = alternative hypothesis
- Hypothesis = null hypothesis
Title: the effect of titan gel in the penis of filipinos

Hypothesis = titan gel is not effective (null)

Hypothesis = titan gel is really effective (alternative)
588. Its purpose is to study intensively the background,
current status, and environmental interactions of a given
social unit: an individual, group, institution or
community.
a. Survey C. Case Study
b. Ethnographic D. None of them

589. This is used in studying the society – its customs,

traditions, behavior and beliefs.
a. Survey C. Case Study
b. Ethnographic D. None of them
590. This section presents the specific problems of the
study that needs to be stated correctly by way of a precise
question which demands specific answer.
a. Background of the Study
b. Hypothesis of the Study
c. Statement of the Problem
d. Theoretical or Conceptual Framework

Temporary answer to the SOP = hypothesis

+ - alternative
- - null
591. In this part of the research, the researcher outlines theory
he wishes to espouse or verify.
a. Review of Related Literature – chapter 2
b. Methods of Research – chapter 3
c. Theoretical Framework – chapter 2
d. Introduction – chapter 1
592. In this part, the researcher reads literature, summarizes the
literature, and synthesizes the results in relation to the problem.
a. Review of Related Literature
b. Methods of Research
c. Theoretical Framework
d. Introduction
Literature  “published” – books, newspaper, journals,
magazines
Study  unpublished – thesis, dissertation (Ph.D)

593. These are unpublished materials such as manuscripts,

theses and dissertations from the country of origin of the
researcher.
a. Foreign Studies C. Local Studies
b. Foreign Literature D. Local Literature
594. Is a branch of mathematics that deals with the
techniques for collecting, analyzing, and drawing
conclusions from data?
a. Geometry C. Algebra
b. Statistics D. Trigonometry

Father of moral statistics = Adolphe Quetelet

School  Cartographic School
Theory = Thermic Law
595. Research in criminology is focused on –
a. Crime and Criminalities (yes)
b. Criminals and Criminal Behaviors (yes)
c. Corrections and Treatment (yes)
d. All of them
596. Research is not –
a. Responsible for new products, ideas and knowledge
b. A process directed at gathering, processing, analyzing
and interpreting data
c. Pushes back the dark areas of ignorance
d. Confined only in the science laboratory
597. These are terms that need to be defined in the study?
a. Universally accepted terms
b. Operational Terms
c. Terms defined over dictionaries
d. None of them

Operational terms = definitions of terms on how these

terms are used in the research

Dionisio is the HEAD of the group

HEAD – leader of the organization
598. Setting of the Study (SCOPE AND LIMITATION) in the Traditional
Format (APA) is similar to this component of the IMRAD Format.
a. Paradigm C. Research Design
b. Research Locale (PLACE) D. None of them

APA – AMERICAN PSYCHOLOGICAL ASSOCIATION

(5CHAPTERS)
IMRAD – MODERN OR INTERNATIONAL FORMAT (4 CHAPTERS
I – INTRODUCTION
M – METHODS
R –RESULTS
A- AND
D- DISCUSSION
599. Simulacrum in the IMRAD Format is similar to this
part of the Traditional Format.
a. Paradigm C. Research Design
b. Research Locale D. None of them
Research flowchart

TITAN GEL FREQUENT USE LONG JUN JUN

600. The following scientific inquiry may be useful in
criminological research except –
a. Solutions of crimes and criminalities
b. Causation of Crimes
c. Marketing problems – business administration
d. Crime Prevention

Maraming salamat