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Stochastic Processes Homework Help

Problem 1.
Consider these two propositions:
P: (A ∨ B) ⇒ C
Q: (¬C ⇒ ¬A) ∨ (¬C ⇒ ¬B)
Which of the following best describes the relationship between P and Q? Please
circle exactly one answer.

1. P and Q are equivalent

2. P ⇒ Q
3. Q ⇒ P
4. All of the above
5. None of the above

Draw a truth table to illustrate your reasoning. You can use as many columns
as you need.
A B C P Q
T T T T T
T T F F F
Solution. T F T T T
T F F F T
F T T T T
F T F F T
F F T T T
F F F T T

Observe from the last two columns of the table that P ⇒ Q is always true, but Q ⇒
P is not always true (e.g. line 4). Thus P and Q are not equivalent but P ⇒ Q.
Problem 2.
Let G0 = 1, G1 = 3, G2 = 9, and define
Gn = G n−1 + 3Gn−2 + 3Gn−3
for n ≥ 3. Show by induction that Gn ≤ 3n for all n ≥ 0.
Solution. The proof is by strong induction with hypothesis P(n) := Gn ≤
3n .

Proof. Base Cases

n = 0: G0 = 1 = 30.
n = 1: G1 = 3 ≤ 31.
n = 2: G2 = 9 ≤ 32.
Inductive Step: Assume n ≥ 3 and P(k) for all k such that 0 ≤ k ≤ n.

n−1 + 3Gn−2 +
Gn = G
by (
3Gn−3

≤ 3n−1 + (3)3n−2 + 1) by induction

(3)3n−3 hypothesis
= 3n−2[3 +
3 + 1]
= (7)3n−2
< (9)3n−2
= 3n
Problem 3.
In the game of Squares and Circles, the players (you and your computer)
start with a shared finite collection of shapes: some circles and some
squares. Players take turns making moves. On each move, a player
chooses any two shapes from the collection. These two are replaced
with a single one according to the following rule:
A pair of identical shapes is replaced with a square. A pair of different
shapes is replaced with a circle.
At the end of the game, when only one shape remains, you are a winner
if the remaining shape is a circle. Otherwise, your computer wins.

(a) Prove that the game will end.

Solution. Proof. We use induction on the number of turns to prove the
statement. Let n
be the number of shapes originally, and let P(k) be the proposition that
if 0 ≤ k ≤ n − 1
then after k turns, the number of remaining shapes is n − k. Thus the
game ends after
n − 1 steps.
Base case: P(0) is true by definition; the number of
reamaining shapes after 0 turns is
n − 0 = n, the original number of shapes.
Inductive step: Now we must show that P(k) implies P(k + 1) for all k ≥
0. If k >= n − 1, P(k) implies P(k + 1) would always be true, since P(k +
1) would be trivially true. So we only need to prrove this for k < n − 1. So
assume for your inductive hypothesis that P(k) is true, where 0 ≤ k < n
− 1; that is, after k turns the number of remaining shapes in n − k. Since
k < n − 1, the number of remaining shapes is n − k > 1. Hence there are at
least 2 shapes to choose from and
the game has not ended yet. In the k+1st turn either the computer
will choose 2 shapes, or you will choose two shapes. In either case
the two shapes chosen, will be replaced by exactly once. Hence the
number of shapes remaining
will be n − k − 2 + 1 = n − k − 1 = n − (k + 1) as desired. This
proves that P(k) implies
P(k + 1) for all k ≥ 0.
By the principle of induction, P(k) is true for all k ≥ 0.
Hence, by our inductve hypothes after n-1 turns, 1 shape remains,
which by the problem definition implies the game ends.
(b) Prove that you will win if and only if the number of
circles initially is odd.
Solution. Proof. We use induction on the number of turns to prove the
statement. Let a be the number of circles initially, and let P(k) be the
proposition that if 0 ≤ k ≤ n − 1 then after k turns, the number of
remaining ciircles is a − 2i, for some nonnegative integer i. Thus if a is
odd initially, at turn n − 1, when the game ends, a − 2i circles - an odd
number
- remain, and since there is only one shape remaining, there must be
exactly 1 circle left, and you win.
Base case: P(0) is true by definition; the number of reamaining
circles after 0 turns is
a − 2 ∗ 0 = a, the original number of shapes.
Inductive step: Now we must show that P(k) implies P(k + 1) for all
k ≥ 0. If k >= n − 1, P(k) implies P(k + 1) would always be true,
since P(k + 1) would be trivially true. So we only need to prrove this
for k < n − 1. So assume for your inductive hypothesis that P(k) is
true, where 0 ≤ k < n − 1; that is, after k turns the number of
remaining circles is a − 2i1. for some nonnegative integer i1. Since k <
n − 1, the number of remaining shapes is n − k > 1 (from part
a), hence there are at least 2 shapes to choose from and the game
has not ended yet. In the k+1st turn either the computer will
choose 2 shapes, or you will choose two shapes. If the two
shapes chosen are both squares, then they are replaced by a
square, and the number of circles doe not change, and hence is
still a − 2i1. If the two shapes chosen are both circles, then they
are replaced by a square, and the number of circles gets
decreased by 2, and is a − 2i − 2 = a − 2(i + 1). If one of the
shapes chosen was a circle and the other was a square, they get
replaced by a circle, and again the number of circles does not
change and remains a − 2i. Hence in all three transitions P(k+1)
holds.
By the principle of induction, P(k) is true for all k ≥ 0.
Hence, by induction when the game ends the parity of the
number of circles is the same as the original parity of the
number of circles. So you will win only if the number of circles
to begin with was odd.
Problem 4.
(a) Find a number x ∈ {0, 1, . . . , 112} such that 11x ≡ 1 (mod 113).
Solution. We can do this using the pulverizer. Specifically, if we find a
pair (s, t) such that 11s + 113t = 1, then we know that 11s ≡ 1 (mod
113).
x y rem (x, y) = x −
113 11 q· y
3 =
3 2 = 11 − ·
113 − 10
1 11
3 ·13== 11
3 −− 3 · (113
31 2 − 10 · 11)
2 = −3 · 113 + 31
· 11
= (113 − 10 ·
11) − (−3 · 113 + 31 · 18)
= (4 · 113 − 41
· 11)
From the above work we see that 1 = 4 · 113 − 41 · 11, and so −41 ·
11 ≡ 1 (mod 113). Therefore -41 is an inverse of 113. However, it is
not the unique inverse of 113 in the range {1, . . . , 113}, which is
given by rem (−41, 113) = 72. So the multiplicative inverse of 11
modulo 113 is 72. (mod □
113),
(b) [7 pts] Find a number y ∈ {0, 1, . . . , 112} such that 11112111 ≡ y
(mod 113) (Hint: Note that 113 is a prime.)
Solution. By Fermat’s Theorem, since 113 is prime and 113 and 11
so xrelatively
are ≡ 111 (mod 113)it (where
prime, must bexthat
is defined as in part a). As a
result, 11 · 11111 ≡ 11113−1 ≡ 1 (mod 113),
1000
11112111 ≡ 11112·1000+111 ≡ 11112 · 11111 ≡ 11000 · x ≡ x ≡ 72

so the answer is 72.

Problem 5.
Consider the simple graph G given in figure 1.

Figure 1: Simple graph G

A C

D F
E

(a) Give the diameter of G.

Solution. Recall that the diameter is the maximum of all shortest path
lengths between pairs of vertices. Note that the shortest path length
between D and F is 3, and all other pairs of non-adjacent vertices share
a neighbor. □

(b) Give a Hamiltonian Cycle on G.

Solution. One possible solution is (A, F, E, C, D, B, A). This cycle and
its reverse should constitute all possible solutions. □
 (c) Give a coloring on G and show that it uses the smallest possible
number of colors.
Solution. One possible 3-coloring is: {A, D, E} red; {B, F} green; C
blue. Because there exists an odd-length cycle (e.g. (B, D, C)), no 2-
coloring exists. Therefore the given coloring uses the least possible
number of colors. □

(d) Does G have an Eulerian cycle? Justify your answer.

Solution. No. This follows from the fact that there exist vertices with
odd degree; e.g.
B.
Now consider graph H, which is like G but with weighted edges, in
figure 2: Figure 2: Weighted graph H
□
3 B 2
A C
1
3 0 4
D 1
F
E 3
(e) [4 pts] Give a list of edges reflecting the order in which one of the
greedy algorithms presented in class (i.e. in lecture, recitation, or the
course text) would choose edges when finding an MST on H.
Solution. Kruskal’s alg (building up an acyclic subgraph) gives two
possible orders:
((C, D), (B, C), (A, B), (E, F), (C, E)) and ((C, D), (B, C), (E, F), (A, B),
(C, E)). Prim’s al­
gorithm (building up a connected, acyclic subgraph) gives one possible
order:
((C, D), (B, C), (A, B), (C, E), (E, F)). Figure 3 below gives the MST
generated in any case.
Figure 3: MST on graph H

3 B 2
A C
1
3 0 4
1
D F
E 3
Problem 6 Let G be a graph with m edges, n vertices, and k components.
Prove that G contains at least m − n + k cycles. (Hint: Prove this by
induction on the number of edges, m)
Solution. The proof is by induction on m with hypothesis P(n):= If G
is a graph with n
vertices, m edges and k components, then G contains at least m + k −
n = c cycles

Proof. Base Case m = 0: Let G be any graph with 0 edges and n

vertices. Then since there are no edges, each vertex is its own
connected component, hence there are k = n connected components.
Since there are no edges there are also no cycles. Lastly we note that m
+ k − n = n + 0 − n = 0, and hence our base case.
Inductive Step Assume that P(m) holds, that is any graph with m
edges, n vertices, and
k components has at least m − n + k cycles. We must show that P(m+1)
holds.
Consider an arbitrary graph G with m + 1 edges, n vertices, and k
components. Suppose we remove an arbitrary edge, e, from G to obtain
G�. This edge, e, was either in a cycle in G or not:
Case 1: e is part of a cycle in G
If e is in a cycle in G then removing it removes at least one cycle.
Furthermore, removing e does not disconnect the graph so the number
of components remains the same. So G� has m edges, n vertices, and k
components, which by the inductive hypothesis tells us it
has at least m + k − n cycles. But G has at least one more cycle than G�
(since e is part of a
cycle). So G has at least m + k − n + 1, or (m + 1) + k − n cycles, as
desired.
Case 2: e is not part of a cycle in G If e is not part of a cycle
10removing it
disconnects the graph of G, so the number of components in G� is k + 1.
vertices,
So, and k m
G� contains + edges,
1 components,
n so by the inductive hypothesis it
contains at least m + (k + 1) − n cycles. Now since e was not part of a
cycle, G and G� have the same number of cycles. So G also has at
leastm + (k + 1) − n cycles. Rearranging we get that G has at least (m
+ 1) + k − n cycles as desired.
Problem 7. For the following sum, find an upper and a lower bound □
that differ by at most 1.
The two bounds differ by exactly 1. We conclude that
∞

Problem 8. State whether each of the following claims is True or

False and prove your answer.
(a) x ln x is O (x)
Solution. False. limx→∞ x ln x/x = limx→∞
ln x = ∞ > 0
x/100
= 1 → 1/100 > 0
(b)x/100 is o (x)
x 100 as x → ∞
Solution. False. In this case we
have
(c
)
Solution. True. Taking the quotient
we arrive to

(d)