TEST NO.

21
1. Fast process of analyzing all elements and a chemical
components of steel casting is

a. Pyrometer

b. Carbon analyzer

c. Wet analyzer

d. Spectrometer
2. Which of the following is not a kind of mandrel?

a. Expanded

b. Extended

c. Contraction

d. Taper
3. A cutting tool angle between the side cutting edge and the plane
perpendicular to direction of feed travel is _____ angle.

a. Side relief

b. Side cutting edge

c. Lead

d. Side rake
4. A section in a machine shop operation is called

a. Core making

b. Machining

c. Fitting

d. Pattern
5. The tool bit made of tool blank consists of face, nose, shank and
_______.

a. Cutting edge

b. None of these

c. Round nose

d. Nose
6. The cutting tool used the shaper are similar to turning tools of
________ machine.

a. Planer

b. Broaching

c. Boring

d. Lathe
7. The blades for hacksaw have number of teeth range of

a. 15 – 38 teeth

b. 14 – 32 teeth

c. 12 – 30 teeth

d. 12 – 32 teeth
8. __________ no part of the headstock.

a. Back gear

b. Spindle

c. Anvil

d. Motor
9. _____ is a lathe carriage part that bridge across the bed to
carry the cross slide and tool rest.

a. Automatic feed

b. Apron

c. Compound rest

d. Saddle
10. What is the recommended cutting speed range for bronze in
fpm

a. 60 / 70

b. 200 / 250

c. 80 / 60

d. 100 / 110
11. For ordinary turning drilling and milling on low strength steel the
cutting fluid applied have soluble oil with consistency of 1 part oil to
_____ parts water.

a. 10 to 30

b. 10

c. 5 to 10

d. 10 to 20
12. The five principal parts of the shaper are the table, tool
slide, base, ram and

a. Column

b. Vise

c. Drive motor

d. Apron
13. In drilling soft material use cutting angle as low as 40
degrees but for extremely hard material up to _____ degrees is
recommended.

a. 80

b. 65

c. 75

d. 70
14. An act of cutting out a piece of material at a desired shape and
size

a. Broaching

b. Blanking

c. Slitting

d. Dinking
15. A research agency handling assistance to all foundry, machine
shop and metallurgical plant operation.

a. MIRDC

b. BOI

c. DOST

d. All of these
16. Web is a part of a drill and is usually thicker _____.

a. Beside the land

b. Nearing the shank

c. Close to the future

d. At the tip portion

17. It is a symbol _____ that the work surfaces should be
machined finished and placed on the line that represents the
surface to be machined.

a. f

b. 5

c. 20

d. F. A. O.
18. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at
machine, black smith welding and foundry shops called

a. Walkway shops

b. Safety notices

c. Safety goggles

d. Safety notices in markers / boards

19. It is axially located rectangular groove in a hub and shaft

a. Key seat

b. Cotter pin set

c. Flute

d. Set screw point

20. In a cutting tool the cutting end can also be generally called

a. End cutting edge

b. Nose

c. Back rake

d. Side rake
21. What factors can modify the recommended cutting speed of
known work piece?

a. Rough cutting of work piece

b. Modify the shape of the cutting tools

c. Use correctly shape of the cutting tools

d. Depth of cut
22. A machine shop equipment that can filter horizontally,
vertically or angular plane called

a. Shaper machine

b. Welding machine

c. Drill machine

d. Power saw
23. It is petroleum by product used as electrodes in an electric arc
furnace melting operation.

a. Anthracite coke

b. Foundry coke

c. Graphite electrodes

d. Bituminous coke
24. Which of the following is an unsafe condition in operating
machine?

a. Wearing denim pants / safety shoes

b. Wearing a canvass apron

c. Operating with safety gloves

d. Wearing safety goggles / heating aid

25. Relief angle of single point cutting mild steel cast iron and other
average work as recommended should be in the range of _____
degrees for high speed tools.

a. 8 to 12

b. 10 to 5

c. 5 to 7

d. 12 to 16
26. Tap not used for cutting thread _____.

a. Tapping tap

b. Bottoming tap

c. Plugging tap

d. Taper tap
27. Which of the following tools does not belong to the group?

a. Hermaphrodite caliper

b. Divider

c. Double VEE block

d. Trammel
28. In machine shop had forging operation of lengthening a piece of
work while reducing the cross sectional area of work is called

a. Bloating

b. Upsetting

c. Spreading

d. Draining
29. Which of the following services is not considered to be a work
of a machinist?

a. Reboring

b. Grinding

c. Over hauling

d. Honing
30. Type of chuck wherein the work of piece with standard diameter
or size could be attached fast and quick specially small size work of
mass production called

a. Lathe drive plate

b. Clamp toe dog

c. Collet attachment

d. Steady center rest

31. This particular cutting tool material could stand cutting
temperature of 1800 °F and higher at cutting speed beyond those
possible with other cutting tool materials called

a. Titanium carbide

b. Ceramic

c. Carbide grade

d. Cubic boron nitride

32. Common defects encountered in the foundry shop steel casting
operation and also in welding practices.

a. Cracks

b. Cold shot

c. Parting line

d. Blow / pin holes

33. Lathe operator to remove the taper shank from the taper hole
uses drift. It is also called

a. Tong

b. Morse taper

c. Chuck taper

d. Pyrometer
34. It is the best instrument for measuring a thousand of an inch

a. Micrometer

b. Tachometer

c. Caliper

d. Pyrometer
35. What tool will be used in making wood pattern in the foundry
shop?

a. Band saw

b. Drill machine

c. Saw and chisel

d. Hammer
36. The usual ratio of water to soluble oil used as cutting fluid is
_____

a. 50% water to 50% oil

b. 2 water to 1 oil

c. 3 water to 1 oil

d. 4 to 80 water to 1 oil
37. Machine tool used for lying straight lines on metal surfaces
made of sharp tool steel is called

a. Plain scriber

b. A trammel

c. Hermaphrodite caliper

d. Divider
38. A lathe machine threading mechanism is called

a. Reverse gear and lever

b. Spindle gear

c. Changed stud gear

d. All of these
39. Which of the following is not used to resemble the shape of tool
bit?

a. Round nose

b. Center cut

c. Thread cutting

d. Square nose
40. A lathe with multiple cutting stations called

a. Turret lathe

b. Engine lathe

c. Manual lathe

d. None of these
41. Device used to measure accurately speed called

a. Speedometer

b. Dial indicator

c. Tachometer

d. Dial gage
42. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a machine tool,
is called

a. Universal chuck

b. Slooter

c. Dividing head

d. Indexing
43. Recommended best cutting angle of drill for work on steel or
cast iron is _____ degrees.

a. 48

b. 63

c. 59

d. 50
44. What is the common shop practice to prevent solder from
running away from surface to be joined?

a. All of these

b. Surround the work with clay

c. Introduce around the work rolled wet cloth

d. Put asbestos sheeting around the work

45. Name the type of chuck commonly used for holding work piece
in a lathe operation? Example 3-jaw universal chuck, 4-jaw
independent chuck.

a. Magnetic jaw chuck

b. 2-jaw independent

c. 8-jaw universal

d. Combination
46. A machinery operation where by done with the work accurately
fastened has a reciprocating motion and the tool head is stationary
is called

a. Shaping

b. Planning

c. Turning

d. Reaming
47. What happens to a drill if the operating speed is too fast?

a. Drill will crack

b. Drill will become overheated And will bend

c. Drill will become overheated and will be drawn from the

steel

d. Drill will become very dull and wear dust

48. Which do not belong to foundry or metal casting shop

a. Shake out machine

b. Molding machine

c. Core making

d. Forging
49. It is an arbitrary modification by removing a small portion of a
tooth material at the tip of the gear tooth.

a. Tip removal

b. Tip under cut

c. Tip relief

d. Pressure angle cut

50. What is the difference between the shaper and a planer?

a. The tool of a shaper moves while the planer is stationary

b. The shaper can perform slotting operation while the planer

cannot

c. The shaper handles large pieces while the planer handles only
small pieces

d. The tool of the shaper moves in reciprocating motion while the

tool in the planer moves in rotary motion.
TEST NO. 22
1. Safety features that must be placed and maintained at
machine, blacksmith, welding and foundry shop is called

a. Safety goggle

b. Walkway guide

c. Safety notices in markings

d. All of these
2. Test sometimes referred to as upsetting test called

a. Bend

b. Flaring

c. Flange

d. Crush
3. It is a machine used for the testing of very thin steel or surface
layers.

a. Charpy test

b. Izod test

c. Description test

d. Rockwell test
4. _____ is a test for pipe used for coiling in sizes 2 inches

a. Flaring

b. Crush

c. Flange

d. Bend
5. Imparts of reciprocating motion to a single point cutting tool
called

a. Dividing head

b. Slotting attachment

c. Circular pitch

d. Circular milling attachment

6. Milling machine accessories are used to hold milling cutter in
the milling machine called

a. spindle nose tooling

b. milling machine size

c. vertical milling attachment

d. milling machine arbors

7. An important accessory of milling machine

a. Milling machine vise

b. Cutters

c. Ram

d. Vertical milling attachment

8. A machine used in testing steel generally strikes the specimen
with an energy from 220 to 265 ft-lb.

a. Izod test

b. Charpy test

c. Rockwell test

d. Test blocks
9. The area of the machine shop whose metal is being melted to
form a new shape is the

a. Foundry area

b. Tool and die area

c. Welding area

d. Mass production area

10. Which of the following is not the work of a machinist?

a. Reboring

b. Overhauling

c. Grinding

d. Boring
11. The machine, which can flatter surface on horizontal, vertical or
angular plane.

a. Drilling machine

b. Shaper machine

c. Power saw

d. Lathe machine
12. Which of the following is not part or a lathe machine?

a. Fan

b. Carriage

c. Headstock

d. Tail stock
13. One important skill that operates of machine tools must have an
understanding of measurements, which demands?

a. Speed

b. Precision

c. Sociability

d. Neatness
14. Which tools does not belong to the group?

a. Vice group

b. Feeler gage

c. Torque wrench

d. Adjustable wrench
15. A machinery operation whereby the tool rotates while the feed
is stationary.

a. Shaping

b. Milling

c. Turning

d. Reaming
16. Which of the following is not part of the headstock?

a. Anvil

b. Spindle

c. Motor

d. Back pressure
17. A machining operation whereby the tool reciprocates and the
feed is stationary.

a. Planing

b. Shaping

c. Turning

d. Reaming
18. _____ is the kind of center, which is being attached and
meshed to the tailstock spindl, which is also static while the work, is
rotating.

a. Dead center

b. Live center

c. Focal center

d. Work center
19. A machine used in shaping metal by means of an abrasive
wheel or the removal of metals with an abrasive is called

a. Planer machine

b. Power saw

c. Shaper machine

d. Grinding machine
20. A machine tool in which an abrasive wheel is used as a cutting
tool to obtain a very smooth finish.

a. Broaching machine

b. Planer

c. Tool grinder

d. Milling machine
21. A machine tool used principally to machine flat or plane
surfaces with a single pointed tool.

a. Shaper

b. Planer

c. Drill

d. Power saw
22. A tool with hardened steel points for scribing or laying of
distances.

a. Plain scriber

b. Divider

c. Trammel

d. Hermaphrodite
23. _____ used to machine flat or curved surfaces with a tool,
which moves in a reciprocating motion.

a. Planer

b. Shaper

c. Grinder

d. Lathe
24. _____ used in the production of flat surfaces on pieces two
large or too heavy to hold in a shaper.

a. Planer

b. Shaper

c. Grinder

d. Shaver
25. A machine tool used to produce a variety of surfaces by using a
circular type cutter with a multiple teeth called.

a. Lathe machine

b. Milling machine

c. Broaching machine

d. Grinding
26. A cutting tool used to finish internal and external surfaces by
the use of a cutter called a broach, which has a series of cutting
edges of teeth.

a. Lathe machine

b. Broaching machine

c. Planer

d. Shaper
27. The method of cold working by compression

a. Broaching

b. Lapping

c. Piercing

d. Reaming
28. A group of thin steel strips used for measuring clearances

a. Feeler gage

b. Tachometer

c. Micrometer

d. Caliper
29. The process of working metals by the application of sudden
blows or by a steady pressure called

a. Rolling

b. Forging

c. Casting

d. Turning
30. A kind of chuck, which should not be used where accuracy is
required called

a. Collet chuck

b. Magnetic chuck

c. Four Jack Shuck

d. Universal chuck
31. A kind of chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could be,
adjusted separately called

a. Collet chuck
b. Independent chuck
c. Four jaw chuck
d. Magnetic chuck
32. A tool which when pressed into a finished hole in a piece of
work, provides centers on which the piece may be turned or
otherwise machined called

a. mash
b. butt
c. mandrel
d. wobble
33. A machine tool, which is very similar to a shaper except that,
the ram reciprocates vertically rather than horizontally

a. lathe
b. grinder
c. planer
d. slotter
34. A cylindrical bar of steel with the threads formed around it and
grooves or flutes running lengthwise in it, intersecting with the
threads to form cutting edges. It is used to cut internal threads

a. groove
b. lap
c. tap
d. flute
35. A mechanism, which usually do the indexing in a machine tool
called

a. slotter
b. chuck
c. Dividing head
d. indexer
36. The operation of machining the end of a work piece to make
the end square with the axis.

a. squaring
b. buffing
c. lapping
d. honing
37. The operation of enlarging a hole by means of an adjustable
cutting tool with only one cutting edge.

a. drilling
b. broaching
c. milling
d. boring
38. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the
end of a hole, as for a recess for a flat head screw.

a. Counter sinking
b. knurling
c. squaring
d. performing
39. It is an operation of sizing and finishing a hole by means if a
cutting tool having several cutting edges.

a. notching
b. piercing
c. turning
d. reaming
40. The hop term used to include the marking or inscribing of
center points circles, area or straight lines upon metal surfaces,
either curve or flat, for the guidance of the worker called:

a. shaping
b. hobbing
c. Laying out
d. shoping
41. It is used to true and align machine tools fixtures and works to
test and inspect size trueness of finished work, and to compare
measurements either heights or depths or many other
measurements.

a. Dial gage
b. Dial indicator
c. tachometer
d. speedometer
42. A tool used for measuring diameters.

a. caliper
b. manometer
c. tachometer
d. pyrometer
43. The process of forming metals by the use of dies after the
metal is heated to its plastic range.

a. rolling
b. forging
c. turning
d. casting
44. A machine tool used to out metal parts a lift, medium and large
section using a reciprocating hacksaw blade.

a. Tool grinder
b. shaper
c. planer
d. Power saw
45. A cold chisel is made of

a. Cast iron
b. German silver
c. High carbon steel
d. High speed steel
46. Trimming is a process associated with

a. electroplating
b. forging
c. Machining of metals
d. Press work
47. Foundry crucible is made of

a. graphite
b. German silver
c. lead
d. Mild steel
48. Formed milling operation of cutting gears can be used for
cutting which type of gears.

a. spur
b. worm
c. All of the above
d. bevel
49. Select the one that is gear finishing process.

a. Gear shaving
b. Gear shaping
c. Gear hobbing
d. Gear milling
50. Broaching operation is generally used in automobile industry as

a. It is a mass production machine

b. It is an automatic machine
c. Operation is completed in one stroke
d. semi-skilled operators can be employed
TEST NO. 23
1. Point angle of 135 degrees on drills is used for

a. Bakelite hard rubbers and fibrous plastic

b. Hard steels and nickel alloys
c. Thin sheets metal
d. B and C
2. A twist drill is specified by

a. Its diameter and lip angle

b. Its shank and diameter
c. Shank , material and diameter
d. Shank , material and flute
3. The usual value of helix angle of a drill is

a. 30 o
b. 60 o
c. 110 o
d. 120 o
4. The helix angle on a high speed steel twist drill for drilling cast
iron is of the order of

a. 12 – 22 o
b. 21 – 32 o
c. 35 – 40 o
d. 40 – 45 o
5. Dressing is

a. An inspection method for castings

b. A method of cleaning the castings
c. A method of deoxidizing of molten metal
d. The formation of oxides on the molten metal surface
6. Sweep pattern is used for molding parts having

a. Complicated shape having intricate details

b. Rectangular shape
c. Uniform symmetrical shape
d. None of the above
7. Which of the following processes that hydraulic fluid acts as
transfer media ?

a. Electronic beam machining

b. electro-discharge machining
c. Iron beam machining
d. Water jet machining
8. Wiping is the process of

a. Applying flux during welding

b. Cleaning the welded surface after the welding operation is over
c. Connecting load pipes by soldering alloy
d. Low temperature welding
9. Ornaments are cast by

a. Continuous casting
b. Die casting
c. Gravity casting
d. Pressed casting
10. In such casting process

a. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic mould by gravity

b. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a predetermined time

the mould is inverted to permit a part of metal still in the molten
state to flow out of cavity

c. Cavity is filed with a precalculated quantity of metal and a core or

plunger inserted to force the metal into cavity

d. Metal is forced into mould under high pressure

11. In Carthias process ,

a. Molten metal is fed into the cavity in metallic mould by gravity

b. Metal is poured into die cavity and after a predetermined time

the mould is inverted to permit a part cf metal still in the molten
state to flow out of cavity

c. Cavity is filed with a precalculated quantity of metal and a core or

plunger inserted to force the metal into cavity

d. Metal is forced into mould under high pressure

12. What is the purpose of riser ?

a. Feed the casting at a rate consistent with the rate of

solidification
b. Acts as a reservoir for molten metal
c. Help feed the casting until all solidification takes place
d. Feed molten metal from pouring basin to gash
13. The mould for casting ferrous materials

a. copper
b. High carbon steel
c. Low carbon steel
d. Medium carbon steel
14. Dilatometer are used to find out which property of molding sand ?

a. fineness
b. Hot strength
c. Moisture content
d. permeability
15. Select the one that is not an angle measuring device.

a. Angle iron
b. Bevel protector
c. combination
d. Sine bar
16. The draft allowance on metallic pattern as compared to wooden
ones is

a. more
b. same
c. less
d. more/less depending on size
17. The pressure of inoculation is used

a. To clean the casting

b. To decrease the melting temperature of a cast metal
c. To change the chemical composition of a cost metal
d. To modify the structure and properties of a cast metal
18. Tumbling is done so as to

a. Clean the surface of small parts

b. Get surface finish
c. Stress relieve the components
d. Plate the surface
19. What is referred to as a gate

a. A passage through which metal is poured into the mould

b. A passage through which metal rises when the mould is filled
c. A passage that finally leads molten metal from the runner into
the mould cavity.
d. A vent hole to allow for the hot gases to escape
20. A sprue is

a. A tool used in mould repairing

b. A process of cleaning castings
c. A chemical that is added to molten materials for sound castings
d. A vertical passage through the cope and joining the pouring
basin to the runner,
21. Hacksaw blade that has the same number of teeth as given
below area available. Which one you chose for cutting brass ?

a. 13 teeth per inch

b. 24 teeth per inch
c. 28 teeth per inch
d. 31 teeth per inch
22. A plug gage is used to measure

a. Cylindrical bores
b. Screw threads
c. Spherical holes
d. Taper bores
23. When large number of components are turned and parted off
from a bar , the chuck generally used is the _______

a. Collet chuck
b. Four jaw chuck
c. Magnetic chuck
d. Two jaw chuck
24. Which of the following is the cutting speed of brass ?

a. 30 m/min
b. 40 m/min
c. 50 m/min
d. 80 m/min
25. Under cutting is

a. An operating of cutting extra deep groove

b. An operation of cutting a groove next to a shoulder on a piece of
work
c. Cutting from the of work piece
d. An operation of cutting extra wide threads
26. Permeability of a foundry sand is

a. The capacity to hold moisture

b. Distribution of binder in sand
c. Fineness of sand
d. Porosity to allow the escape of gases
27. Quick return motion is used in a

a. Drilling machine
b. grinder
c. lathe
d. shaper
28. Draft on a pattern is provided for

a. Facilitating pattern making

b. Easy lifting of the casting
c. Facilitating withdrawal of the pattern from the mould
d. Providing for shrinkage of the casting
29. Mandrel are used to hold

a. Cutting tools
b. Drill bits
c. Face plate
d. Hollow work pieces
30. The operation of enlarging a hole is called

a. boring
b. Counter sinking
c. drilling
d. reaming
31. In up cut milling the work piece is fed

a. Against the rotating cutter

b. At an angle of 60 o to the cutter
c. At right angle to the cutter
d. In the direction of the cutter
32. Sprue is the passage provided for the

a. Out flow
b. In flow
c. Smooth flow
d. Solidification of the molten material
33. Feed in a lathe is expressed in

a. mm
b. mm per degree
c. mm per revolution
d. rpm
34. Rapping allowance is provided on a pattern to take care of

a. shrinkage
b. machining
c. distortion
d. Easy withdrawal
35. Upsetting is the term used in one of the following operations

a. casting
b. drilling
c. forging
d. turning
36. One of the materials used for making surface plate is

a. brass
b. granite
c. Stainless steel
d. wood
37. Feeler gages are used for measuring the

a. Clearances between mating parts

b. Pitch of screw threads
c. Radius of curvature
d. Thickness of plates
38. Chuck used on turret lathe is

a. Collet chuck
b. Four jaw self centering chuck
c. Magnetic chuck
d. Three jaws independent chuck
39. Routing prescribes

a. Inspection of final product

b. Proper utilization of machines
c. Proper utilization of man power
d. The flow of materials in the joint
40. Cope in foundry practice refers to

a. Bottom half of molding box

b. Coating on the mold face
c. Middle portion of the molding box
d. Top half of molding
41. A vent wire is used in

a. foundry
b. Hot forging
c. Cold forging
d. fitting
42. The purpose of chaplets is to

a. Ensure the directional solidification

b. Function a lower and upper parts of the molding box
c. Provide efficient venting
d. Support the cores
43. Angle plate is used for

a. Cutting tapers in a lathe

b. Cutting gears in a shaper
c. Cutting gears in milling
d. Fixing job cut angles is a grinder
44. Cores are used in a mould to make it

a. hollow
b. smooth
c. strong
d. symmetrical
45. Pipes subjected to high pressures are generally made by

a. Centrifugal casting
b. extrusion
c. Pressure casting
d. Slush casting
46. In a typical lathe machining , discontinuous chips of _______
are formed when machining

a. Carbon steel
b. Copper alloy
c. copper
d. Steel and high speeds
47. Permeability , in relation to molding sands , is high for

a. Course grains
b. Fine grains
c. Medium grains
d. Round grains
48. The purpose of tumbler gears in lathe is to

a. Cut gears
b. Cut threads
c. Give desired direction of movement to the lathe carriage
d. Reduce spindle speeds
49. For machining the flange of a 90 elbow on a lathe , which of the
following holding devices is used ?

a. Angle plate
b. Catch plate
c. Face plate
d. Lathe plate
50. Which of the following is not part of combination set ?

a. Bevel protractor
b. Dial gage
c. scale
d. Try square
TEST NO. 24
1. A sine bar cannot be used without a/an

a. Angle gage
b. micrometer
c. Slip gage
d. Vernier caliper
2. The tool life is affected to the maximum extent by

a. Gear grinding
b. Gear shaping
c. Gear shaving
d. milling
3. The operation of finishing a drilled hole to the correct size
is known as

a. Counter-boxing

b. Counter sinking

c. Reaming

d. Spot facing
4. When the extreme outer corners of the cutting edges of a
drill wear away too rapidly, it is an indication of:

A. not enough speed

B. too much rake speed

C. too high speed

D. B or C
5. Carbon steel drill should be operated at

A. speed greater than that when using the high speed drill

B. speeds less than that when using a high speed drill

C. the same speed as that when using a high speed drill

D. none of the above

6. Removing the sharp edges from a piece of stock referred
to as

A. polish material

B. roughen material

C. sharpen material

D. smooth material
7. Knurling is done to ____________.

A. Boring

B. Chamfering

C. Planning

D. Turning
8. When cutting material in a lathe, the harder the material
being cut, the tool bit should have

A. less side rake

B. more side rake

C. more top rake

D. no side rake
9. When turning a piece of round metal in a lathe, the front
clearance should be smaller for

A. Cutting angles

B. large-diameter cutting

C. small-diameter cutting

D. none of the above

10. After grinding a tool bit, the cutting edge should be

A. case hardened

B. rubbed with emery cloth

C. rubbed with crocus clothe

D. stoned with an oilstone

11. When cutting material in a lathe, the softer the material
being cut, the tool bit should have

A. any of these

B. double top rake

C. less top rake

D. more top rake

12. A piece of cast iron held against an emery wheel will give
off

A. bright shiny sparks

B. dull yellow sparks

C. red sparks

D. no sparks
13. The alignment of coupling faces can be checked by

A. inserting a feeler gage between the coupling faces at

various points around the circumference

B. inserting a thermometer

C. rotating and measuring to nearest permanent fitting

D. using an inside micrometer

14. A drill bit has

A. no flutes

B. 2 flutes

C. 3 flutes

D. 4 flutes
15. Before applying layout blue on a piece of metal, it must be

A. Cleaned

B. Cold

C. Heated

D. Roughened
16. A scriber is made from

A. carbon steel

B. cold-rolled steel

C. hot-rolled steel

D. tool steel
17. Copper is annealed by heating to a cherry red color and

A. cooling slowly in air

B. dousing in cold water

C. dousing in hot water

D. dousing in oil
18. When drilling a hold in a piece of work held in a lathe
chuck, one would use the

A. head stock

B. compound rest

C. cross-feed

D. tallstock and drill chuck

19. When using a drill press, the work should be held with

A. A pair of pliers

B. a vise or clamp

C. gloves on

D. the hand
20. When a lathe is put into back gear, it will go

A. at a slower speed backwards

B. at the same speed backwards

C. faster

D. slower
21. On a lathe, the dead center is used after

A. Boring

B. Center-drilling

C. Drilling

D. Reaming
22. To remove metal shock rapidly the file to be used is a

A. double-cut bastard

B. double-cut coarse

C. Rasp

D. A and C
23. The best file to use when finishing sharp corners or slots
and grooves is the:

A. A jeweler’s file

B. knife file

C. mill file

D. square file
24. Never use a file

A. that is dirty

B. with a tang

C. without a handle

D. without oiling
25. Which of the following information is necessary when
ordering a file?

A. Size

B. Shape

C. type of teeth

D. all of the above

26. when filling a piece of metal in a lathe if short quick
strokes are used, the finished piece will probably

A. be out of round

B. be perfect

C. have small flat areas on the surface

D. A and C
27. The best procedure when filling a piece of metal in a lathe
is to take _____________.

A. long fast strokes

B. long slow strokes

C. short even strokes

D. short fast strokes

28. The safe edge of a file is

A. the end opposite the handle

B. the one with the handle

C. the edge with no teeth

D. none of the above

29. Small pieces of metal clogged between the teeth on a file
are called

A. Bumps

B. Clogs

C. Flats

D. Pins
30. Finishing off a piece of metal with a real smooth finish can
be done by

A. draw-filing

B. flat-filing

C. milling-filing

D. side-filing
31. For finishing a piece of work to size, the file to use is the

A. crossing file

B. double-cut fine-tooth file

C. mill file

D. single-cut fine-tooth file

32. For filing lead or rabbit, use a

A. lead float file

B. mile file

C. vixen file

D. A or C
33. A hacksaw blade with 32 TPI is best suited for cutting

A. small tubing

B. Conduit

C. sheet metal under 18 gage

D. any of the above

 34. A coolant is usually used when cutting material in a
power hacksaw to

A. absorb heat of friction

B. prevent the blade from overheating

C. prevent the blade from losing its temper

D. all of the above

 35. A hacksaw blade with 18 teeth per inch is best suited for
cutting

A. Aluminum

B. cast iron

C. solid iron

D. any of the above

36. when cutting a long thin piece of metal

A. set the blade in the frame with the teeth facing toward you

B. turn the blade at right angles to the frame

C. turn the blade upside down in the frame

D. use a blade with fewer teeth per inch

37. The hacksaw blade should be placed in the frame with

A. one end looser than the other end

B. the teeth facing in any direction

C. the teeth pointing backward

D. the teeth pointing forward

38. A hacksaw blade with 34 teeth per inch should be used for
cutting

A. Brass

B. Cast iron

C. Heavy

D. thin wall tubing

39. The best instrument for measuring thousandths of an inch
is the

A. Caliper

B. Micrometer

C. Pyrometer

D. Tachometer
40. All hard hacksaw blade is best suited for work on

A. Brass

B. cast iron

C. tool steel

D. any of the above

41. A hacksaw blade with 14 TPI is best suited for cutting

A. cold-rolled steel

B. hot-rolled steel

C. structured steel

D. any of the above

42. Files are divided into two general classes, namely

A. flat shapes and round shapes

B. large and small

C. rough and smooth

D. single-cut and double-cut

43. A hacksaw blade can be placed in a frame in

A. one position

B. two positions

C. three positions

D. four positions
44. All hard hacksaw blade is one that

A. has a hard back and flexible teeth

B. has a flexible back and hard teeth

C. has the entire body hardened

D. with only fit a solid frame hacksaw

45. Hacksaw blade with 24 TPI is best suited for cutting

A. Brass and copper

B. Sheet metal over 18 gage

C. Tubing

D. Any of the above

46. Hacksaw blades are made of

A. high speed steel

B. tool steel

C. tungsten alloy steel

D. any of the above

47. A flexible back hacksaw blade is one that has

A. a movable back

B. flexible ends

C. only the back hardened

D. only the teeth hardened

 48. The flexible type hacksaw blade is best suited for work
on ___________.

A. Aluminum

B. Channel

C. Tubing

D. any of the above

49. When lathe tool bit burns, the means that the

A. speed is too low

B. speed is too fast

C. material is too hard

D. material cannot be cut

50. The lathe compound is used for

A. Angle cutting

B. Grooving

C. Facing

D. any of the above

Test 25: Machine Shop Practice
1. A universal chuck cannot be used to cut

A. an eccentric

B. a round stock

C. a cam

D. A and C
2. The jaw of a standard vise is

A. Hard

B. semi-hard

C. semi-soft

D. soft
3. When facing off a piece of material in the lathe chuck the
tool bit must be set ___________.

A. above center

B. at the center

C. below the center

D. off center
4. Before applying layout blue on a piece of metal, it must be

A. Cleaned

B. Cold

C. Hot

D. Roughened
5. Tool Steel can be hardened by:

A. heating red hot and plunging into water

B. heating red hot and cooling in a blast of air

C. heating red hot and plunging into line seed or cotton seed
oil

D. any of the above, depending on the type and use

6. A piece of mild steel held against an emery wheel will give
off

A. bright shiny sparks

B. green sparks

C. light straw-colored sparks

D. no sparks
7. Another name for hydrochloric acid is

A. Acetic Acid

B. Muriatic acid

C. nitric acid

D. sulfuric acid
8. A flexible hacksaw blade has a tendency to ____________.

A. snap easily

B. buckle or run out of line when two much pressure is

applied

C. cut too fast

D. cut on a slant
9. A pillar file is used for

A. filing against a shoulder

B. filing keyways

C. filing slots

D. any of the above

10. The length of a file is measured from __________.

A. end to end

B. heel to end

C. point to end

D. point to heel
11. In general, files are divided into two classes, namely

A. fine and coarse

B. rough and smooth

C. single-cut and double-cut

D. shapes and sizes

12. A pillar file has

A. one safe edge

B. three sage edges

C. two safe edges

D. A and C
13. The tang of a file is the part that

A. does the cutting

B. fits into the handle

C. has no teeth

D. is opposite the handle

14. One of the factors involved in the choice of grinding wheel
is

A. the kind of material to be ground

B. the amount of stock to be removed

C. the kind of finish required

D. all of the above

15. The main difference between a planer and a shaper is
that:

A. The planer has an offset table and a sharper has a

horizontal table

B. the shaper has a rotating table and the planer has a

horizontal table

C. the table of a planer has a reciprocating motion past the

tool head while the table of the shaper is stationary and the
tool head has a reciprocating motion

D. one is larger than the other

16. A piece of tool steel held against an emery wheel will give
off _____________.

A. white sparks with stars on the end

B. yellow sparks

C. no sparks

D. green sparks
17. If you use a dry grinding wheel for sharpening tool bits,
dip the end of the bit in water frequently to prevent
______________.

A. annealing the cutting edge of the bit

B. burning your fingers

C. hardening of the tip

D. the tip for crystallizing

18. The tool used to cut gears is called a

A. gear center

B. gear cutter

C. gear hob

D. gear threader
19. The tool used to check internal pipe threads is called a

A. pitch gage

B. plug gage

C. ring gage

D. thread gage
20. The tool used to check external pipe threads is called a

A. pitch gage

B. plug gage

C. ring gage

D. thread gage
21. The operation of truing a grinding wheel is known as

A. Centering

B. Dressing

C. Rounding

D. Sizing
22. The cutting angle on a drill for drilling mild steel should be
_________

A. 39

B. 49

C. 59

D. 69
23. Which of the following is not common drill shank?

A. Bit

B. Fluted

C. Straight

D. Taper
24. Tapered shanks are used on large drill presses so that

A. the drill can be centered more easily

B. the drill can be easily forced out of the sleeve with a drift

C. the shank can be reground when worn

D. the shank will not turn when cutting

Answer: B
25. When using a drill press, the work should be held with

a. The hand

b. A gloved hand

c. A vise or clamp

d. Pliers
26. A tool bit for cutting an American National Thread should
be ground with a

a. 300 angle

b. 450 angle

c. 600 angle

d. 900 angle
27. Center drilling is the operation of

a. Drilling a center in an odd-shaped piece of metal

b. Drilling and countersinking with one tool

c. Centering with one tool and drilling with another

d. Drilling a center in a piece of stock in a drill press

28. When cutting a drill, it will squeal due to

a. Drill being ground improperly

b. Drill being too hot

c. Insufficient lubrication

d. Any of the above

29. The correct cutting angle on a drill for ordinary work is

a. 450

b. 500

c. 590

d. 650
30. If the cutting edges of a drill are cut at different angles

a. The drill will not cut

b. The hole will be larger than the drill

c. The hole will be smaller than the drill

d. None of the above

31. If a drill speed of too great. It will

a. Cut faster

b. Close its temper

c. Cut slower

d. Not cut
32. Soda added to water is used for cooling instead of plain
water because

a. It reduces the amount of heat generated

b. It improves the finish

c. It overcomes rusting

d. All of the above

33. If the angle on a drill is less than 590

a. The drill will make a large hole

b. The drill will make a smaller hole

c. The hole will take longer to drill and more power is required
to drive the drill

d. The drill will not center properly

34. The name of a the taper shank used on drills is

a. Miller

b. Morse

c. Starrett

d. Stanley
35. The tool used to cut threads on pipe is called a

a. Pipe tool

b. Pipe stock

c. Pipe vise

d. Pipe cutter
36. The instrument sued o reshape a grinding wheel that is
grooved or out of round is called

a. Wheel aligner

b. Wheel dresser

c. Wheel emery

d. Wheel cutter
37. The instruments used to removed old packing from
packing glands and stuffing boxes and called

a. Packing tools

b. Packing bits

c. Gland box cleaner

d. Packing screw
38. Before drilling a hole in a pipe of metal it should be

a. Center- punched

b. Marked with chalk

c. Protracted

d. Scribed
39. When measuring a drill for size, measure across the

a. Flutes

b. Margins

c. Point

d. Shank
40. The tool used in precision work to smooth on enlarge hole
is called a

a. Drift pin

b. Reamer

c. Round out

d. Protractor
41. The size of a drill is stamped on the

a. Flute

b. Margin

c. Point

d. Shank
42. The tool used for cleaning files is called

a. File cleaner

b. File card

c. File oilstone

d. Scraper
43. The metal cutting wedge is fundamental to the geometry of

a. Head of tools only

b. Power driven tools only

c. Sheet metal cutting tools only

d. All cutting non ferrous alloys only

45. What is the function of rake angle of a cutting tool?

a. To control the chip formation

b. To prevent rubbing

c. To determine the profile of tool

d. To determine whether the cutting action is oblique or

orthogonal
44. Continuous chips are formed when cutting

a. Brittle materials

b. Ductile materials

c. Amorphous plastic materials

d. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only

46. Back rake angle for high speed steel single point cutting
tool to machine free cutting brass is

a. 00

b. 50

c. 100

d. 150
47. The chip removal process is called

a. Extruding

b. Forging

c. Rolling

d. Broaching
48. The non-chip removal process.

a. Grinding

b. Spinning on lathe

c. Thread cutting

d. Drilling
49. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to

a. Reduce the hole diameter

b. Increase the rake angle

c. Locate in the center punch mark

d. Reduce the axial feed pressure

50. A reamer is used to correct the

a. Size and roundness of a drilled hole

b. Size and position of a drilled hole

c. Finish and position of a drilled hole

d. Finish and depth of a drilled hole

Test 26
1. ---------- to prevent leakage in dynamic seal.

a. Gaskets

b. Seals

c. Packing

d. Felts
2. Plus of minus of the tolerance is also called

a. Total tolerance

b. Unilateral tolerance

c. Bilateral tolerance

d. None of these
3. Is the permissible variation of the size of a dimension?

a. Tolerance

b. Allowance

c. Clearance

d. Interference
4. When the hole is smaller than the shaft, it will take pressure
to put the parts together the allowance is said to be negative
and is termed.

a. Negative tolerance

b. Negative allowance

c. Negative fits

d. Interference of metal
5. It is used in conjunction with circular cross sectional
members to retain oil and prevent dirt, foreign particles, and
moisture and to permit pressure differential between exterior
of the applied part.

a. Seal

b. Gasket

c. Safety shield

d. Packing
6. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids, normally
under dynamic condition.

a. Nylon

b. Seal

c. Teflon

d. Packing
7. Which of the following is not a common term to the
classification of fits?

a. Tunking

b. Snug

c. Medium force fit

d. Bound
8. The total permissible variation in the size of a dimension the
difference between the limits of the size.

a. Tolerance

b. Fits

c. Allowance

d. Clearance
9. A device used to prevent leakage of media.

a. Seal

b. Packing

c. Teflon

d. Graphite
10. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if

a. Lips of drill are of unequal length

b. Feed is too high

c. Insufficient coolant is used

d. Cutting speed is too high

11. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine metal even
when their cutting elements get heated up to the temperature
of -----------.

a. 16500C

b. 14000C

c. 10000C

d. 18000C
12. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided with

a. Positive back rake angle

b. Neutral back rake angle

c. Negative back rake angle

d. Depth of cutter
13. Friction between chip and tool may be reduced by

a. Increased sliding velocity

b. Increase shear angle

c. Use of low tool finish

d. None of these
14. The studs used as a coolant in general machine shop
consist of

a. A solution of detergent and water

b. A straight mineral oil

c. An emulsion of oil and water

d. A chemical solution
15. Milling cutter is sharpened on

a. Tool and cutter grinder

b. Center less grinder

c. Cylindrical grinder

d. Surface grinder
16. Two major factors, which determined the rpm of milling
cutter, are the material being cut and

a. Number of teeth in cutter

b. Diameter of cutter

c. Time allowed to completer the job

d. Depth of cutter
17. Gear pumps used in hydraulic system are used for

a. Low and medium pressure

b. Medium and high pressure

c. Low and high pressure

d. None of the above

18. Electron beam machining process is quite suitable for a
material having

a. High melting point and high thermal conductivity

b. High melting point and low thermal conductivity

c. Low melting point and low thermal conductivity

d. Low melting point and high thermal conductivity

19. Emery is a/an

a. Artificial abrasive

b. Natural abrasive

c. Type of cloth

d. None of the above

20. Grinding is hat type of operation?

a. Metal fusing operation

b. Metal powdering operation

c. None of the above

d. Metal finish operation

21. Grinding is done wherever

a. Other machining operations can not be carried out

b. A large amount of material is to be removed

c. High accuracy is required

d. None of the above

22. Laser beam machining process is used to machine

a. Thicker materials

b. Thinner materials

c. Heavier materials

d. None of the above

23. The size of abrasive grains in an abrasive a jet machining
varies from

a. 60 to 100 microns

b. 10 to 50 microns

c. 1 to 5 microns

d. 110 to 150 microns

24. The young’s module of carbide tools is about

a. Three times than for steel

b. Six times than for steel

c. Nine times than for steel

d. None of the above

25. Twist drills are usually considered suitable for machining
hoes having a length less than

a. Two times their diameter

b. Five times their diameter

c. Ten times their diameter

d. Fifteen times their diameter

26. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for grinding

a. Hard materials

b. Soft materials

c. Both hard and soft materials

d. None of the above

27. The relative motion of work piece in planning is

a. Rotary

b. Translatory

c. Rotary and translatory

d. None of the above

28. In quick return mechanism of shaping machine the ram
stroke length is proportional to

a. Slotter arm length

b. Crank length

c. Ram length

d. None of the above

29. The usual return mechanism of shaping machine is ratio
of forward and return stroke in

a. 3:2

b. 6:8

c. 3:1

d. 5:2
30. The amount of metal removed by honing process is less
than

a. 0.125mm

b. 0.255mm

c. 0.015mm

d. 0.315mm
31. The type and number of bearings to be used for spindles of
machine tool depend on

a. Type of spindle

b. Type of machine

c. Load on the bearing

d. None of the above

32. If there is no fit, a liberal tolerance of the order of _______
in machining work could be permitted.

a. +- 0.020

b. +- 0.010

c. +- 0.09

d. +- 0.05
33. A tolerance where the size of a part is permitted to be
either larger or smaller that the given dimension.

a. Bilateral

b. Unilateral

c. Lateral

d. None of the above

34. A tolerance where the size of a part may be larger only or
smaller only, than the given dimension.

a. Bilateral

b. Unilateral

c. Lateral

d. None of the above

35. ______ are generally used on those dimensions involved in
a fit.

a. Bilateral

b. Unilateral

c. Lateral

None of the above

36.The ASA fits are based on the.

a. Basic number system

b. Basic hole system

c. Basic size system

d. Unit system
37. When the hole is smaller than the shaft it will take force of
pressure to put the cold part together. The allowance is said to
be negative and is termed as

a. Negative fits of metal

b. Positive fits

c. Interchangeable

d. Interference of metal
38. Is the relatively finely spaced irregularities o the surface.

a. Smoothness

b. Lay

c. Waiveness

d. Roughness
39. It is the irregularities or departures from the nominal
surface of greater spacing than roughness.

a. Roughness

b. Lay

c. Smoothness

d. Waiveness
40. It is the direction of the predominant surface pattern

a. Lay

b. Roughness

c. Smoothness

d. Waiveness
41. The surface finish of micrometer anvils in ________ rms.

a. 1

b. 8

c. 16

d. 32
42. The surface finish of heavy cuts and coarse feed.

a. 80 rms

b. 200 rms

c. 400 rms

d. 500 or greater rms

43. The outbreak of fire can be avoided by preventing which of
the following?

a. Fuel

b. Oxygen

c. Heat

d. Any of the above

44. The square head of a combination set is used for making
or checking which measure of an angle?

a. 900 only

b. 900 and 450

c. 450 only

d. Any angle between 0-1800

45. Angle plate is made of

a. Cast steel

b. Closed grain cast iron

c. High speed steel

d. Tool steel
46. The eyehole of a hammerhead is made in oval shape and
taper towards center because

a. It is easy for production

b. It is specially designed by experts

c. It accommodates the handle and a wedge for preventing it

from flying off.

d. None of the above

47. The jaws of a leg vise are opened

a. Parallel to each other

b. In “V” form

c. In “A” and “B” both

d. Neither “A” and “B”

48. For general work, the cutting angle of a cold flat chisel is
ground at an angle of

a. 350

b. 600

c. 700

d. 800
49. A new hacksaw blade should not be used in old cut
because.

a. The blade is very costly

b. The blade have very sharp teeth

c. The space is not sufficient to play the new blade in the old
cut

d. None of the above

50. Which part of the file is not hardened?

a. Body

b. Heel

c. Point

d. Tang
TEST NO. 28
1. A planer which has a cutting action on both strokes.

a. Open side planer

b. Pit planer

c. Double housing planer

d. Universal planer
2. The straddle milling is done by means of two ______.

a. Side milling cutters

b. Face milling cutters

c. Plain milling cutters

d. Form cutters
3. In a standard dividing head, the ratio between the worm
wheel and the worm is

a. 10:1

b. 20:1

c. 30:1

d. 40:1
4. In a standard dividing head, 3 holes in 27 holes circle will
index ______.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6
5. These are two different movements of the crank in which
type of indexing?

a. Angular

b. Compound

c. Differential

d. Simple
6. In a vertical milling machine. The spindle is situated _____
to work table.

a. At certain angle

b. Horizontal

c. Vertical

d. Adjacent
7. Planner type milling machine is built up for ____ work.

a. Heavy duty

b. Light duty

c. Medium duty

d. ordinary
8. In a straddle milling operation, how many cutters are used
to mill the work?

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. More than three

9. For gear cutting, which of the following cutters is used?

a. End mill cutter

b. Form relieve cutter

c. Plain milling cutter

d. All of the above

10. In a slotter, the table gets _____ different feeds.

a. four

b. two

c. three

d. five
11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is 5, the lip angle is 75,
the rake angle will be

a. 10

b. 70

c. 80

d. 60
12. The approximate hardness of high speed steel end mill
cutter is:

a. 45 HRC

b. 52 HRC

c. 62 HRC

d. 72HRC
13. The over arm of a milling machine is used to support

a. arbor

b. column

c. spindle

d. table
14. Where does the feed motion take place in a slotting
machine?

a. During the cutting motion

b. After each forward stroke

c. At the end of return motion

d. After each double stroke

15. Which of the following conditions may cause error during
knurling?

a. Clamped length of tool too short

b. Surface speed too low

c. Too much longitudinal feed

d. Unnecessary support with tail stock center

16. Mark the milling method during which the formation of
chatter marks is very likely

a. During down cut milling with a straight too cutter

b. During face milling with a straight tooth cutter

c. During up cut milling with a straight tooth cutter

d. While using spiral tooth cutter

17. Taps are resharpened by grindings

a. diameter

b. flutes

c. relief

d. threads
18. Grinding fluids are used to

a. Reduce the friction between the wheel face and the job

b. Wash away chips

c. Prevent loading wheel

d. All of the above

19. While soldering, the flux is used because

a. it assists for quick melting and increasing the fluidity of solder

b. it saves the part from oxidation

c. it takes molten metal on all surface

d. all of the above

20. the usual ratio of soluble oil and water used in coolant is

a. 1:10

b. 1:20

c. 10:1

d. 20:1
21. For a given rpm. If the diameter of a twist drill increases, then
cutting speed will

a. decrease

b. increase

c. same.

d. none of the above

22. An advance motion along the longitudinal axis of twist drill is
called

a. cutting speed

b. feed

c. speed

d. none of the above

23. in internal cylindrical grinding wheel and the work rotate in

a. same direction

b. opposite direction

c. neither A or B

d. A and B both
24. For grinding materials having low tensile strength which of the

following abrasives is used?

a. aluminium

b. corundum

c. emery

d. silicon carbide
25. the size of grinding wheels is taken from

a. diameter of the wheel

b. bore size

c. width of face

d. all of the above

26. which center is used for supporting open end of pipes, shells
etc., while turning or thread cutting in a lathe?

a. ball center

b. half center

c. female center

d. pipe center
27. when outside diameter of a job is turned in relation to the
internal hole, the job should be ______.

a. between centers

b. in three jaw chuck

c. on face plate

d. on lathe mandrel
28. What is the included angle of a dead center?

A. 30 °

B. 45 °

C. 60 °

D. 90 °
29. What is the main alloying element in high speed steel?

A. Chromium

B. Tungsten

C. Vanadium

D. Nickel
30. The value of one micron is

A. 1.00 mm

B. 0.01 mm

C. 0.10 mm

D. 0.001 mm
31. For the accurate measurement of bores, the instrument to use
is

A. dial test indicator

B. inside micrometer

C. plug gauge

D. verneir calliper
32. Under sine principle the length of sine bar takes the place of
____________.

A. adjacent

B. height

C. hypotenuse

D. opposite
33. In a hydraulic driven shaper the metal is removed at

A. average speed

B. higher speed

C. lower speed

D. none of the above

34. In a shaper, the cutting speed is expressed in

A. meter per minute

B. meter per hour

C. meter per second

D. none of the above

35. amount of automatic feed in shaper is increased by taking

the crankpin

a. at the center of crank disc

b. towards the center of crank disc

c. away from the center of crank disc

d. none of the above

36. in a shaper the feed is usually expressed in

a. mm / stroke

b. mm / revolution

c. meter / minute

d. none of the avbove

37. for cutting gear teeth in a shaper, the ____ tool is used.

a. form

b. gooseneck

c. round nose

d. V shaped
38. shaper tool bit should not extend in tool holder beyond

a. 5mm

b. 15mm

c. 25mm

d. 50mm
39. the standard ratio of cutting to return stroke in shaper is

a. 3:1

b. 1:3

c. 2:3

d. 3:2
40. A tipped tool is more useful than high speed steel tool because

a. it can resist more heat

b. it can keep the cutting point sharp

c. cutting speed can be increased

d. all of the above

41. the feed in sharper takes place at

a. the beginning of return stroke

b. the beginning of cutting stroke

c. the middle of return stroke

d. the end of return stroke

42. Which of the following quick return mechanism is most widely
used in most of the slotters?

A. Slotter disc mechanism

B. Slotter link and gear mechanism

C. Hydraulic mechanism

D. With worth mechanism

43. In a slotter, the cutting speed depends upon the ___________.

A. materials to be cut

B. finish required

C. material of the slotter tool

D. all of the above

44. Convex shaped slotter tools are used for machining

A. concave surface

B. comical surface

C. convex surface

D. flat surface
45. The clamp block used in a slotter to support the end of the trap
is made of

A. high carbon steel

B. high speed steel

C. lead

D. wood
46. The table of slotter has feeding requirements which is

A. longitudinal

B. cross

C. rotary

D. all of the above

47. Divided table planer has __________.

A. one table

B. one housing

C. two tables

D. two housing
48. In a planer the feed is provided

A. at forward stroke

B. at return stroke

C. in between forward stroke

D. in between return stroke

49. In a planer the cutting speed depends upon the

A. material of job material of tool and feed rale

B. rpm of ball gear

C. depth of cut

D. none of the above

50. The planer tool differs from lathe tool because it has

A. less front and side clearance

B. more front and side clearance

C. less rake and angle

D. more rake and angle

TEST NO. 28
1. A planer which has a cutting action on both strokes.

a. Open side planer

b. Pit planer

c. Double housing planer

d. Universal planer
2. The straddle milling is done by means of two ______.

a. Side milling cutters

b. Face milling cutters

c. Plain milling cutters

d. Form cutters
3. In a standard dividing head, the ratio between the worm
wheel and the worm is

a. 10:1

b. 20:1

c. 30:1

d. 40:1
4. In a standard dividing head, 3 holes in 27 holes circle will
index ______.

a. 1

b. 2

c. 4

d. 6
5. These are two different movements of the crank in which
type of indexing?

a. Angular

b. Compound

c. Differential

d. Simple
6. In a vertical milling machine. The spindle is situated _____
to work table.

a. At certain angle

b. Horizontal

c. Vertical

d. Adjacent
7. Planner type milling machine is built up for ____ work.

a. Heavy duty

b. Light duty

c. Medium duty

d. ordinary
8. In a straddle milling operation, how many cutters are used
to mill the work?

a. one

b. two

c. three

d. More than three

9. For gear cutting, which of the following cutters is used?

a. End mill cutter

b. Form relieve cutter

c. Plain milling cutter

d. All of the above

10. In a slotter, the table gets _____ different feeds.

a. four

b. two

c. three

d. five
11. If the clearance of a cutting edge is 5, the lip angle is 75,
the rake angle will be

a. 10

b. 70

c. 80

d. 60
12. The approximate hardness of high speed steel end mill
cutter is:

a. 45 HRC

b. 52 HRC

c. 62 HRC

d. 72HRC
13. The over arm of a milling machine is used to support

a. arbor

b. column

c. spindle

d. table
14. Where does the feed motion take place in a slotting
machine?

a. During the cutting motion

b. After each forward stroke

c. At the end of return motion

d. After each double stroke

15. Which of the following conditions may cause error during
knurling?

a. Clamped length of tool too short

b. Surface speed too low

c. Too much longitudinal feed

d. Unnecessary support with tail stock center

16. Mark the milling method during which the formation of
chatter marks is very likely

a. During down cut milling with a straight too cutter

b. During face milling with a straight tooth cutter

c. During up cut milling with a straight tooth cutter

d. While using spiral tooth cutter

17. Taps are resharpened by grindings

a. diameter

b. flutes

c. relief

d. threads
18. Grinding fluids are used to

a. Reduce the friction between the wheel face and the job

b. Wash away chips

c. Prevent loading wheel

d. All of the above

19. Balancing of grinding wheel is done

a. Make the outside diameter concentric with the above

b. Make the sides of the wheel parallel

c. Equalize the weight in every portion of the wheel

d. None of the above

20. A grinding wheel, which has got the marking “C”, is made with
what abrasive?

a. Aluminum oxide

b. Silicon oxide

c. Combination of “A” and “B”

d. Corundum
21. Which bond is suitable for wet grinding?

a. Rubber

b. Shellac

c. Silicate

d. None of the above

22. Which kind of bond is commonly used?

a. Vitrified

b. Rubber

c. Shellac

d. Silicon
23. The grade of grinding wheel depends upon

a. Grain size

b. Hardness of bond

c. Kind of abrasive

d. Structure
24. One of the causes of grinding wheel gazing.

a. Grain size is too fine

b. Wheel is hard

c. Wheel speed is too fast

d. “A” and “B” both

25. Which of the following is used to clean the gage blocks before
and after use?

a. Brush

b. Chamois leather or linen cloth

c. Cotton waste

d. None of the above

26. Internal and external type on cylindrical jobs are ground in

a. Plain cylindrical grinding machine

b. Universal cylindrical grinding machine

c. Internal grinding machine

d. Center less grinding machine

27. Mark the cutter which works simultaneously with the up cut
and down cut process

a. Semi-circular milling cutter

b. Shell and milling cutter

c. Side milling cutter

d. Palin milling cutter

28. What happens if the job is loosely fitted between centers in
cylindrical grindings?

a. The job will be out of round

b. The job will be thrown out

c. The job will be oversize

d. The job will not rotate

29. Where does the relieved cutters area reground?

a. On the circumstances

b. Relieved cutters are not reground

c. On the flank

d. On the side faces

30. Used for scribing large radius of circle and arcs.

a. Compass

b. Protractor

c. Ruler

d. Trammel
31. Which of the following has its angle 30 and is used for giving
sharp impression on soft metals?

a. Center punch

b. Dot punch

c. Prick punch

d. Hollow punch
32. Which of the following has its angle 60 and is used for dotting
after marking the lines on general works?

a. Center punch

b. Dot punch

c. Hollow punch

d. Prick punch
33. Which of the following has its angle 90 and used to give marks
for the location of drills?

a. Center punch

b. Dot punch

c. Hollow punch

d. Prick punch
34. It is used on soft metals and non-metals for making holes.

a. Center punch

b. Dot punch

c. Hollow punch

d. Prick punch
35. Reason why cast iron is selected for the manufacturers of
surface plate.

a. It is easy for machinery.

b. It is cheaper

c. It has less wear and tear

d. All of the above

36. The common measuring tools arc

a. Steel rule

b. Vernier caliper

c. Micrometer

d. All of the above

37. It is an operation of stretching or spreading over the metal by
means of the plane of the hammer.

a. Peening

b. Swaging

c. Bending

d. Upsetting
38. The good quality of a measuring tool

a. Should be easy to handle

b. Should be easy to read

c. Should be wear resistance

d. All of the above

39. The flatness of surface can be checked

a. By using straight edge

b. By using surface plate

c. By using dial test indicator

d. All of the above

40. It is an operation in which round rod is placed between the top
and bottom swages and hammered to remove the bends and
marks.

a. Bending

b. Peening

c. Swaging

d. upsetting
41. A holding device, which is used to hold, or grip work piece,
while filling, chipping or any other bench work or while machining
or drilling them.

a. vise

b. clamp

c. grip

d. pressed
42. A multi pointed hand anything tool used to remove material
from metallic and non-metallic work pieces to match with drawing,
shape and size.

a. Cold chisel

b. file

c. hacksaw

d. None of the above

43. A side cutting tool used for accurately finishing the straight or
tapered holes already drilled or bored.

a. reamer

b. swaging

c. peering

d. tapping
44. A device used to fix two or more parts.

a. Jigs

b. fixtures

c. fastener

d. clamp
45. A machine element inserted parallel to the axis of a shaft.

a. fastener

b. cotter

c. key

d. None of the above

46. A machine element inserted at right angle of the axis of shaft is
known as

a. fastener

b. cotter

c. key

d. clamp
47. The process of extracting iron in a blast furnace is called

a. sintering

b. smelting

c. casting

d. manufacturing
48. Which of the following is a product of blast furnace?

a. Wrought iron

b. Cast iron

c. Pig iron

d. Gray iron
49. A type of iron, which contains 3 to 3.5%carbon either in,
combined form or in free state.

a. Wrought iron

b. Cast iron

c. Pig iron

d. Gray iron
50. Which of the following furnace used for manufacturing of cast
iron?

a. Cupola furnace

b. Crucible furnace

c. Electric furnace

d. All of the above

TEST NO. 29
1. A product of paddling furnace, which contains les than 0.10%
carbon is called

a. Wrought iron

b. Cast iron

c. Pig iron

d. Gray iron
2. Which of the following is a property of wrought iron?

a. ductile

b. brittle

c. Can not be forged

d. Can be easily cast into different shapes

3. Which of the following gives greater hardness, cutting toughness
and fine grain structure?

a. chromium

b. nickel

c. tungsten

d. vanadium
4. Which of the following gives greater hardness, cutting toughness
and resistance to wear and tear?

a. chromium

b. tungsten

c. nickel

d. vanadium
5. Which of the following rises the tensile strength, protects from
corrosion and improves wearing property?

a. cobalt

b. nickel

c. molybdenum

d. tungsten
6. _______ gives greater harness and resistance to forging and
drawing.

a. molybdenum

b. vanadium

c. tungsten

d. cobalt
7. ________ improves the cutting quality and gives excellent
magnetic property in the steel.

a. cobalt

b. molybdenum

c. nickel

d. chromium
8. It is an operating involving heating and cooling of metals to
change the properties.

a. annealing

b. nitriding

c. tempering

d. Heat treatment
9. It is a process to impact maximum hardness to the steel part.

a. hardening

b. tempering

c. annealing

d. normalizing
10. It is a process to reduce some brittleness and to induce some
toughness in the steel part.

a. Case hardening

b. normalizing

c. annealing

d. tempering
11. It is a process to soft the steel part by removing the internal
stress.

a. normalizing

b. annealing

c. tempering

d. hardening
12. It is process to make the steel part to its normal stage.

a. annealing

b. normalizing

c. Case hardening

d. tempering
13. It is the process of making the outer surface harder of the steel
part.

a. Flame hardening

b. hardening

c. Case hardening

d. carburizing
14. It is a case hardening process by which the carbon content of
the steel near the surface of a part is increased.

a. nitriding

b. tempering

c. carburizing

d. Flame hardening
15. It is case hardening process in which work piece is heated in a
stream of ammonia at 500 to 550 C.

a. carburizing

b. nitriding

c. tempering

d. normalizing
16. The size by which it is referred to as a matter of convenience
called:

a. Basic size

b. Actual size

c. Nominal size

d. Effective size
17. The size in relating to which all limits of variation is made.

a. Actual size

b. Basic size

c. Effective size

d. Nominal size
18. The relation between two mating parts with reference to ease
the assembly is called

a. allowance

b. clearance

c. tolerance

d. fits
19. Two extreme permissible sizes of a dimension.

a. boundary

b. limits

c. tolerance

d. allowance
20. _______ is the difference between the high and low limit of a
size.

a. clearance

b. allowance

c. tolerance

d. fits
21. It is the intentional difference in the sizes of mating parts.

a. allowance

b. clearance

c. limits

d. tolerance
22. It is an operation of finishing the flat and cylindrical surfaces to
a fine degree of accuracy.

a. lapping

b. shaping

c. planing

d. honing
23. It is an operation of finishing cylindrical surfaces to a fine
degree of accuracy by means of abrasive sticks.

a. lapping

b. planing

c. shaping

d. honing
24. It is a device, which hold the job in position and guide the
cutting tool.

a. clamp

b. jig

c. vise

d. grip
25. It is a device, which hold the job firmly.

a. clamp

b. grip

c. fixture

d. jig
26. The movement of belt upon the face of rim or outer of the
driver and driven pulleys within the area of arc of contact is called.

a. slip

b. creep

c. crowning

d. dressing
27. If the belt is loosely fitted on pulleys, ____ slips down.

a. creep

b. crowning

c. dressing

d. slip
28. It is the outer surface of face or rim of the pulley and made in
convex form to keep the belt in center when it is in motion.

a. crowning

b. dressing

c. creep

d. slip
29. To avoid slip or creep, the resin powder or paste is poured in
between the outer surface of pulley and belt for increasing the
tension. This process is known as

a. crowning

b. dressing

c. creep

d. slip
30. It is used to transmit motion at high speed without producing
noise.

a. Bevel gears

b. Hypoid gears

c. Helical gears

d. Worm gears
31. It is used to transmit motion at high speed with heavy load
without producing noise.

a. Worm gear

b. Herring bone gear

c. Bevel gear

d. Spur gear
32. It is used to connect and disconnect the driving and driven
units.

a. breaks

b. springs

c. clutches

d. coupling
33. It connects the shafts with soft materials such as rubber, leather
and canvass.

a. Universal coupling

b. Flexible coupling

c. Rigid coupling

d. Oldham coupling
34. What is used to connect the shafts whose axes are intersecting?

a. Rigid coupling

b. Oldham coupling

c. Flexible coupling

d. Universal coupling
35. It is generally used on high speed with light load because it has
point contact.

a. Ball bearing

b. Roller bearing

c. Metal bearing

d. Wood bearing
36. It is generally used on high speed with heavy load because it
has line contact.

a. Plastic bearing

b. Metal bearing

c. Roller bearing

d. Ball bearing
37. It is a process by which the length of a work piece is increased
by reducing its cross-sectional area.

a. Drawing out

b. drifting

c. jumping

d. upsetting
38. It is a process by which the length of a work piece is reduced.

a. upsetting

b. Drawing out

c. drifting

d. jumping
39. Refers to the process for bulging on one end of work piece to
bring a required shape.

a. bending

b. upsetting

c. drifting

d. jumping
40. It is a process of enlarging and smoothening the punched hole
by means of tapered drifts of various sizes and shapes.

a. drifting

b. jumping

c. Drawing out

d. upsetting
41. It is a machine tool used to remove metal from a work piece to
give it the required shape and size.

a. Drill press

b. lathe

c. shaper

d. planer
42. It is a set of gears fitted in different positions on a plate, which
are controlled by a lever.

a. Gear train

b. Stud gear

c. Tumbler gear

d. Differential gear
43. It moves on the lathe bed with cutting tool according to the
rotating of lead screw or by the hand traversing wheel.

a. apron

b. Compound rest

c. saddle

d. mandrel
44. It acts the carriage or compound rest through the mechanism
lifted inside the ________.

a. saddle

b. apron

c. compound

d. mandrel
45. It gives the cutting tool longitudinal feed, cross feed or angular
feed.

a. Compound rest

b. apron

c. saddle

d. carriers
46. A holding device used to hold the job properly when turning
the outer surface truly with the finished hole called

a. clamp

b. fixture

c. jig

d. mandrel
47. The center that is fitted in head stock spindle called

a. Dead center

b. Live center

c. Below center

d. Above center
48. A center, which is fitted a tail, stock spindle caleed

a. Dead center

b. Live center

c. Above center

d. Below center
49. It is a machine tool used to produce flat surfaces, which may be
horizontal, vertical or inclined.

a. planer

b. slotter

c. shaper

d. milling
50. Which of the following gives hearing action?

a. Slide rake

b. Top rake

c. Side clearance

d. Front clearance
TEST 30
1. What supports the top rake?

A. Front clearance

B. Side clearance

C. Side rake

D. None of the above

2. What supports for free feeding?

A. Side rake

B. Side clearance

C. Front clearance

D. Top rake
3. Which of the following reduces the rubbing
action?

A. Front clearance

B. Side clearance

C. Side rake

D. Top rake
4. It is a reciprocating type machine tool used for
machining flat, cylindrical and irregular surfaces.

A. Planer

B. Shaper

C. Slotter

D. Lathe
5. Which of the following is used for all general
purposes.

A. Production slotter

B. Puncher slotter

C. Tool room slotter

D. None of the above

6. A machine tool used for all general purposes.

A. Planer

B. Shaper

C. Slotter

D. Lathe
7. It is a machine tool used to machine plane
curved surfaces, slots, groovies, teeth, with a
fast rotating multipoint cutter.

A. Milling

B. Planer

C. Shaper

D. Grinder
8. It is also known as conventional milling in
which the rotation of the cutter is in the
direction opposite to the direction of the table
movement.
A. Down milling

B. Up-milling

C. Straddle milling

D. Gang milling
9. It is also known as climb milling in which the
rotation of the cutter and the movement to the
table is in the same direction.

A. Gang milling

B. Down milling

C. Up-milling

D. Straddle milling
10. It is an operation of milling the complex
surfaces with the help of a group of cutters
mounted on the same arbor.

A. Gang milling

B. Straddle

C. Climb milling

D. Down milling
11. It is an operation of milling two opposite
sides of work piece at a time by using two side
milling cutters on the same arbor.

A. Gang milling

B. Straddle milling

C. Side milling

D. Face milling
12. It is an attachment to the milling machine,
which helps to divide the job periphery into a
number of equal divisions.

A. Indexing

B. Dividing head

C. Slotting

D. Universal spiral
13. It is an operation to produce narrow slots or
grooves using a sitting saw milling cutter.

A. Saw milling

B. Form milling

C. End milling

D. Side milling
14. It is an operation to produce irregular
contours using a form cutter.

A. Face milling

B. Form milling

C. Side milling

D. End milling
15. It is an operation to divide the periphery of
the job into number of equal parts accurately.

A. Divisding head

B. Indexing

C. Slotting

D. None of the above

16. The angle formed between the face of a tool
and the work surface or the tangent to the work
piece at the point of contact with the tool called

A. Clearance angle

B. Cutting angle

C. Rake angle

D. Wedge angle
17. It is a device, which is used to change the
shape of a piece by removing material in the
form of chips.

A. Cutting tool

B. Machine tool

C. Chisel

D. Hacksaw
18. The angle formed the face and the normal to
the work piece at the point of contact with the
foot.

A. Clearance angle

B. Cutting angle

C. Wedge angle

D. Rake angle
19. The angle formed between the face and the
clearance surface.

A. Wedge angle

B. Rake angle

C. Clearance angle

D. Cutting angle
20. The angle formed between the clearance
surface and the work surface or the tangent to
the work piece at the point of contact with the
tool.
A. Clearance angle

B. Wedge angle

C. Rake angle

D. Cutting angle
21. The best method of avoiding accident is by
observing _________ related to job, machine
and work piece.

A. emery

B. opponent

C. safety precautions

D. cleanliness
22. The size of try square measured from the
inner edge of stock to the end of its _________.

A. base

B. blade

C. edge

D. body
23. Angle of center punch is

A. 30°

B. 45°

C. 60°

D. 90°
24. Mallets are made of _________.

A. hardwood

B. Soft wood

C. steel

D. Cast iron
25. The size of bench vise is measured from the
_________ of its jaws.

A. width

B. length

C. thickness

D. curvature
26. For cutting oil grooves in bearing ________
chisel is used

A. Full round nose

B. Half round nose

C. Square nose

D. rectangular
27. Staggering of hacksaw blade teeth on both
sides alternatively is called

A. Positioning to teeth

B. Arrangement of teeth

C. Setting of teeth

D. None of the above

28. The size of a flat file is measured from
_________ to heel of the file.

A. edge

B. base

C. tip

D. body
29. A triangular scraper has ________ sharp
cutting edges.

A. one

B. two

C. three

D. four
30. Reamer should also be turned in
__________ direction when taking it out.

A. Same direction

B. Opposite direction

C. clockwise

D. Counter clockwise
31. It is the distance measured parallel to the
axis from a point on a screw thread to the
corresponding point on the next thread.

A. Lead

B. Pitch

C. Linear

D. Chord
32. Cupola furnace is used to produce
_________.

A. Cast iron

B. Cast steel

C. aluminum

D. Stainless steel
33. Percentage of carbon in high carbon steel is

A. 0.10% to 0.50%

B. 0.70% to 1.5%

C. 3% to 7%

D. 5% to 10%
34. It is done to decrease the brittleness and to
increase the toughness.

A. Annealing

B. Normalizing

C. Tempering

D. Nitriding
35. Ratchet stop is attached with micrometer to
measure the accurate reading by applying
________ pressure irrespective of users skill and
strength.
A. atmospheric

B. gage

C. uniform

D. variable
36. A hole, which is drilled for a particular size of
a tap, is called

A. Drilling hole

B. Reaming hole

C. Tapping hole

D. Plugging hole
37. A ________ gage is used to check the
clearance between the mating parts.

A. feeler

B. plug

C. tap

D. dial
38. A _________ gage is used to check the size
of hole/bore.

A. feeler

B. plug

C. tap

D. dial
39. The difference between the high limit and
the low limit of a size is called.

A. allowance

B. clearance

C. boundary

D. tolerance
40. An intentional difference between the hole
and the shaft dimensions for any type.

A. allowance

B. clearance

C. tolerance

D. range
41. The material for laps should always be
________ than the material or part to be
tapped.

A. harder

B. shorter

C. softer

D. longer
42. Jigs are generally used for holding the job
and ________ the tool.

A. support

B. guide

C. control

D. regulate
43. Measuring and other setting methods can be
eliminated by using ______ and fixtures

A. guide

B. support

C. jigs

D. structure
44. When two or more tools are to be used
through the same hole then _____ bushes are
used in jigs.

A. Positive slip

B. Negative slip

C. friction

D. slip
45. The ________ gears are used for changing
the plane direction.

A. spur

B. helical

C. worm

D. bevel
46. Solder is an alloy of __________.

A. Lead and zinc

B. Lead and tin

C. Lead and tungsten

D. Lead and antimony

47. Flash point is the _________ at which the
sufficient vapor is given off from the oil without
actual setting fire to the oil.

A. Gage temperature

B. Lower temperature

C. Higher temperature

D. Absolute temperature
48. When hard material is to be drilled, the
cutting angle of drill should be _______ 118°.

A. Less than

B. Equal to

C. More than

D. Either more than or less than

49. If the taper shank of the drill is too large as
compared to the spindle hole, then ________ is
used.

A. Drill socket

B. planer

C. Electric drill

D. Copping saw
50. What is the lip clearance angle of twist drill
for generated work?

A. 3 - 6°

B. 8 - 10°

C. 12 - 15°

D. 18 - 22°
TEST 31
1. A machine for shaping a work piece by
gripping it in a holding device and rotating it
under power against a suitable cutting tool for
turning, boring facing or threading.
A. Shaper

B. Lathe

C. Planer

D. Engine Lathe
2. A machine for the removal of metal by
feeding a work piece through the periphery of a
rotating circular cutter.

A. Milling machine

B. Milling planer

C. Milling cutter

D. Milling shaper
3. It is a machine tool used for cutting flat-on-
flat-an-toured surfaces by reciprocating a single-
point tool across the work piece.

A. Planer

B. Shearing machine

C. Shaper

D. Slab cutter
4. It is a machine for the shaping of long, flat or
flat contoured surfaces by reciprocating the
work piece under a stationary single-point tool
or tools.
A. Planer

B. Shaper

C. Lathe

D. Turret lathe
5. It is the machine used for shaping of metal or
plastic by pushing or pulling a broaching across a
surface or through an existing hole in a work
piece.
A. Planning

B. Shaping

C. Broaching

D. Milling
6. It is a device, usually motor-driven, fitted with
an end cutting tool that is rotated with sufficient
power either to create a hole or to enlarge an
existing hole in a solid material.
A. Drill jigs

B. Drill press

C. Drill chuck

D. Drilling machine
7. It is a machine tool designed to machine
internal work such as cylinders, holes in castings,
and dies, types are horizontal, vertical jig and
single.
A. Boring machine

B. Broaching machine

C. Drilling machine

D. Boring mill
8. It is a milling method in which parts placed in
a row parallel to the axis of the cutting tool end
are milled simultaneously.

A. Abreast milling

B. Angular milling

C. Helical milling

D. None of the above

9. A cone drill with hardened steel shot pellets
that revolve under the rim of the rotating tube,
employed in rotary drilling in very hard ground.

A. Automatic drill

B. Double core barrel drill

C. Flat frill

D. Adamantine drill
10. The part of a machine for wood planning
that carries the cutters.

A. Adz stock

B. Adz block

C. Head stock

D. Heel block
11. A grinding mill of large diameter with either
lumps of ore, pebbles or steel balls as crushing
bodies the dry lead is air swept to remove mesh
material.
A. Aero fall mill

B. Aero motor

C. Aerial speed

D. Ball mill
12. A tool - steel cutter used for finishing
surfaces of angles greater or less than 90° with
its axis of rotation called ________.

A. Circular cutter

B. Helical cutter

C. Angle cutter

D. Asphalt
13. Milling surfaces that area flat and at an angle to the axis of the
spindle of the milling machine called

a. Hammer milling

b. Helical milling

c. Angular milling

d. Circular milling
14. It is a hole in revolving cutter or grinding wheel for mounting on
an arbor

a. Hike saw

b. Arbor hole

c. Star drill

d. Peep hole
15. A machine used for forcing an arbor or a mandrel into drilled or
bored parts preparatory to turning or grinding.

a. Automatic press

b. Bladder press

c. Arc press

d. Arbor press
16. A solids grinder and the product is a fine powder.

a. Atomizer mill

b. Autogenous mill

c. Attrition mill

d. Ball mill
17. A machine in which materials are pulverized between two
toothed metal disks rotating in opposite directions.

a. Attrition mill

b. Tumbling mill

c. Ball mill

d. Bealer mill
18. A straight brace for bits whose shank comprises a coarse –
pitch screws in a threaded tube with a handle at the end of the
device is operated by pushing the handle called

a. Automatic capacity

b. Automatic drill

c. Automatic regulator

d. Automatic stocker
19. A press in which mechanical feeding of the work is sychronized
with the press action

a. Dial press

b. Punch press

c. Automatic press

d. Manual press
20. A supporting member that carries a wheel and either rotates
with the wheel to transmit mechanical power to or from it, or allows
the wheel to rotate freely on it is called

a. Shaft

b. Axle

c. Bushing

d. Coupling
21. A portable sanding tool having a power – driven abrasive
coated continuous belt is called

a. Bench sander

b. Belt heightener

c. Gear sander

d. Belt sander
22. A machine for bending a metal or wooden part by pressure is
known as

a. Pressing machine

b. Bending machine

c. Forming machine

d. Shaping machine
23. A machine, which simultaneously molds and cures a pneumatic
tire is called

a. Bladder press

b. Crank Press

c. Automatic press

d. Manual press
24. A file whose edges are parallel is known as

a. Crochet file

b. Cross cut file

c. Equaling file

d. Blunt file
25. Slightly rounding a cutting edge to reduce the probability of
edge chipping referred to as

a. Broaching

b. Butting

c. Blunting

d. Bleaching
26. A rigid tool holder to machine internal surfaces is called:

a. Boring bar

b. Boring mill

c. Broaching machine

d. Corrugated bar
27. Which of the following is a boring machine tool used particularly
for large work piece, types are horizontal and vertical

a. Boring mill

b. Burrstone mill

c. Cage mill

d. Chile mill
28. A flat – ended twist drill designed to convert a cone at the
bottom of a drilled hole into a cylinder is called

a. Chum drill

b. Core drill

c. Bottoming drill

d. Spiral drill
 29. A tap with a chamfer of 1 - 1 threads in length

a. Center tap

b. Bottom tap

c. Taper tap

d. Plug tap
30. A small portable hand drill customarily used by hand setters to
drill the holes in breast is called:

a. Diamond drill

b. Spiral drill

c. Chum drill

d. Breast drill
31. In _______ type shaper, the reciprocating movement of the arm
is affected by means of a rack and pinion

a. Gear

b. Thread

c. Screw

d. Bolt
32. In a hydraulic shaper the reciprocating movement of the ram is
obtained through ________ pressure

a. Mercury

b. Oil

c. Water

d. Alcohol
33. A job, which is fixed away from the table, can be machined by

a. Running head

b. Moving head

c. Traveling head

d. Static head
34. The stroke positioning lever is located on the _______ of the
shaper

a. Lever

b. Table

c. Ram

d. Chunk
35. The length of shaper stroke is the length of job plus _______.

a. Displacement

b. Tolerance

c. Allowance

d. Clearance
36. Rocker arm is a/an ________ part of the shaper.

a. Oscillating

b. Reciprocating

c. Moving

d. Running
37. In a shape, the ______ strokes takes place.

a. Backward

b. Forward

c. Return

d. Cutting
38. In shaper, the tool is fed at the end of _______ stroke.

a. Cutting

b. Return

c. Backward

d. Forward
39. Generally, shaper tool cuts metal on the ________ strokes.

a. Backward

b. Cutting

c. Forward

d. Return
40. Generally, shaper is used for machining _______ surfaces.

a. Curve

b. Flat

c. Rough

d. Smooth
41. Shaper tools are made of

a. Mild steel

b. Cast iron

c. High speed steel

d. Wrought iron
42. For machining cast iron in shaper, the tool is ground with
______ rake angle.

a. Negative

b. Positive

c. 30o

d. 45o
43. Which of the following best describe a milling machine?

a. It is a machine equipment.

b. It is a machine tool.

c. It is a machine device.

d. It is a machine apparatus.
44. The quick return mechanism in slotter is provided in order to
save the time in ______ stroke.

a. Backward

b. Forward

c. Cutting

d. Return
45. An arbor is used to ________ and drive the milling cutter.

a. Guide

b. Hold

c. Control

d. Support
46. A puncher slotter is used for ________ stock removal.

a. Light

b. Heavy

c. Small

d. Large
47. Snagging is the form of _______ grinding.

a. Hard

b. Rough

c. Soft

d. Smooth
48. Carbide and ceramic tools are ground on _______ grinding
wheel.

a. Fine grain

b. Hard

c. Soft

d. Diamond
49. The term ________ means that particle of metal are adhering
to the cutting surfaces of the grinding wheel.

a. Loading

b. Feeding

c. Rating

d. Grinding
50. In _______ jaw chuck each jaw can be adjusted independently.

a. Five

b. Two

c. Three

d. Four
TEST NO. 32
1. Refers to the unit that can be moved longitudinally along the
swivel table and is clamped in position by two bolts one on either
side of those

a. Foot stock

b. Head stock

c. Tail stock

d. Cross stock
2. An instrument used for determining the relative hardness of
materials by a drop and rebound method.

a. Scleroscope

b. Rockwell Hardness Tester

c. Universal Testing Machine

d. Brinell Hardness Tester

3. An instrument used for measuring the degree of surface
roughness in micro inches.

a. Caliper

b. Micrometer

c. Profilometer

d. Scleroscope
4. Refers to the portion of the circumference of a grinding wheel
touching the work being ground.

a. Area of contact

b. Arc of contact

c. Angle of contact

d. Contact ratio
5. The spindle of the grinding machine on which the wheel is
mounted.

a. Bushing

b. Arbor

c. Bearing

d. Fluting
6. A device for holding grinding wheels of special shape or the
working piece being grounded.

a. Head stock

b. Fixtures

c. Jigs

d. Chuck
7. Grinding the grooves of a twist drill or tap.

a. Fluting

b. Flaring

c. Lapping

d. Honing
8. The dulling of the cutting particles of a grinding wheel resulting in
a decreased rate of cutting is called

a. Grinding

b. Glazing

c. Fluting

d. Lapping
9. Grinding the gates, fins and sprues from casting is termed as

a. Honing

b. Tumbling

c. Snagging

d. Truing
10. The process of increasing the cross – sectional area of a given
portion or possibly of the whole piece.

a. Forging

b. Upsetting

c. Spreading

d. Drawing
11. The process of lengthening a piece of stock while the cross –
sectional area is being reduced.

a. Tapping

b. Honing

c. Drawing

d. Upsetting
12. An alloy of copper, tin, and antimony.

a. Bearing

b. Babbit

c. Iconel

d. Titanium
13. Sometimes used for soldering bright tin.

a. Tallow

b. Sal ammoniac

c. Tinning

d. Rosin
14. A very effective flux for soldering galvanized iron and zinc.

a. Soldering paste

b. Muriatic acid

c. Zinc chloride

d. Cut acid
15. The process of checking the surface of a piece by rolling
depressions into the surface.

a. Honing

b. Knurling

c. Snagging

d. Reaming
16. The groove providing for the cutting faces of the threads or
teeth, chip passage, and lubrication.

a. Heel

b. Land

c. Flute

d. Thread relief
17. The process of cutting internal threads by means of a cutting
tool.

a. Tapping

b. Reaming

c. Chamfering

d. Honing
18. The operation of producing a circular hole by removing solid
metal.

a. Knurling

b. Reaming

c. Boring

d. Drilling
19. The surface below the cutting edge.

a. Face

b. Flank

c. Nose

d. Side relief
20. The surface over which the chip flows.

a. Nose

b. Flank

c. Face

d. None of the above

21. It measures the downward slope of the top surface of the tool
from the nose to the rear along the longitudinal axis.

a. Side cutting edge angle

b. End relief angle

c. Side rake angle

d. Back rake angle

22. Which one is the hardest material?

a. Steel

b. Diamond

c. Bronze

d. Brass
23. It measures the slope of the top surface of the tool to the side in
a direction perpendicular to the longitudinal axis.

a. Side rake angle

b. Side cutting edge angle

c. Side relief edge angle

d. End relief angle

24. A type of bonding material which is made of clay and water.

a. Resinoid bond

b. Vitrified bond

c. Shellac bond

d. Rubber bond
25. The process of producing an extremely accurate highly finished
surface.

a. Lapping

b. Buffing

c. Polishing

d. Honing
26. It is the surface finishing process by which the scratches and
tool marks are removed with a polishing wet wheel.

a. Honing

b. Lapping

c. Polishing

d. Buffing
27. It is used for holding straight shank drills in the spindle of the
machine when drilling.

a. Drill chuck

b. Chuck key

c. Floating holder

d. Magic chuck
28. Continuous chips are formed when cutting.

a. Brittle materials

b. Ductile materials

c. Amorphous plastic materials

d. Free cutting non ferrous alloys only

29. The rake angle of the cutting tool

a. Controls the chip formation

b. Prevents rubbing

c. Determine the profile of tool

d. Determine whether the cutting action is oblique or orthogonal

30. Back rake angle for H.S.S single point cutting
tool to machine free cutting brass is

a. 0˚
b. 5˚
c. 10˚
d. 15 ˚
31. In the list of processes given below, the chip
removal process is the

a. Die Casting
b. Extruding
c. Forging
d. Broaching
32. A twist drill has its point thinned in order to

a. Reduce the hole diameter

b. Increase the rake angle
c. locate in the center punch mark
d. reduce the axial pressure
33. In the list of processes given below, the non-
chip removal process is

a. Grinding
b. Spinning on lathe
c. Thread cutting
d. Milling
34. A reamer is used to correct the

a. size and roundness of a drilled hole

b. size and position of the drilled hole
c. finished and position if the drilled
hole
d. finish and depth of a drilled hole
35. An oversize hole is produced by a drill if

a. lips of drill are of unequal length

b. feed is too high
c. insufficient coolant is used
d. cutting speed is too high
36. Cemented carbide tipped tools can machine
metal even when their cutting elements get
heated up to the temperature of
a. 1650 ˚C
b. 1000 ˚C
c. 1400 ˚C
d. 1800 ˚C
37. Cemented carbide tools are usually provided
with

a. positive back rake angle

b. neutral back rake angle
c. negative back rake angle
d. none of the above
38. the point angle of twist drill to machine steel
is

a. 112 ˚
b. 116 ˚
c. 118 ˚
d. 120 ˚
39. The cutting speed of H.S.S twist drill to
machine gray cast icon is

a. 10 – 20 m/min
b. 15 – 25 m/min
c. 20 – 30 m/min
d. 25 – 40 m/min
40. The recommended value of rake angle for
machining aluminum with cutting tools made up
of diamond tool

a. 0˚
b. 15 ˚
c. 35 ˚
d. 45 ˚
41. The cutting speeds of H.S.S milling cutter to
machine aluminum is

a. 140 – 200 m/min

b. 160 – 220 m/min
c. 180 – 240 m/min
d. 200 – 260 m/min
42. The major factors, which determined the
rpm of milling cutter, are the material being cut
and the ______________.

a. number of teeth in cutter

b. diameter of cutter
c. time allowed to complete the job
d. depth of cutter
43. Friction between chip and tool may be
reduced by

a. increased sliding velocity

b. diameter shear angle
c. use of low tool finish
d. none of the above
44. The studs used as a coolant in general
machine shop consist of

a. a solution of detergent and water

b. a straight mineral oil
c. an emulsion of oil and water
d. a chemical solution
45. The recommended value of rake angle for
machining aluminum with cutting tools made up
of high speed steel tool.

a. 5˚
b. 10 ˚
c. 15 ˚
d. 35 ˚
46. Milling cutter is sharpened on

a. tool and cutter grinder

b. cylindrical grinder
c. centerless grinder
d. surface grinder
47. Electron beam machining process is quite
suitable for a material having

a. high melting point and high thermal

conductivity
b. b . high melting point and low thermal
conductivity
c. low melting point and low thermal
conductivity
d. low melting point and high thermal
conductivity
 49. Grinding is

a. metal fusing operation

b. metal powdering operation
c. metal finishing operation
d. none of the above
48. A process can be considered as a hot
working process if the material is heated

a. below recrystallization temperature

b. above recrystallization temperature
c. below normal temperature
d. above normal temperature
 50. Grinding is done wherever

a. other machining operations cannot

be carried out
b. a large amount of material is to be
removed
c. high accuracy is required
d. none of these
Test 33
1. The recommended value of rake angle for
machining aluminum with cutting tools made up
of cemented tool.

a. 5˚
b. 10˚
c. 15 ˚
d. 25
2. Laser beam machining process is used to
machine

a. Thicker materials
b. Thinner materials
c. Heavier materials
d. Stronger materials
3. The size of abrasive grains in abrasive a jet
machining varies from

a. 60 to 100 materials
b. 10 to 50 microns
c. 1 to 5 microns
d. 20 to 40 microns
4. In collet the included angle of taper is usually

a. 10˚
b. 20˚
c. 30˚
d. 40 ˚
5. Straight fluted drill are used to drill
_________ materials

a. soft
b. hard
c. thin
d. thick
6. Twist drills are usually considered suitable
machining holes having a length less than

a. Two times their diameter

b. Five times their diameter
c. Ten times their diameter
d. Twenty times their diameter
7. A hard grade grinding wheel is suitable for
grinding

a. Hard material
b. Soft material
c. Both material
d. None of these
8. The relative motion of work piece in planning
is

a. rotary
b. translatory
c. Rotary and translatory
d. None of the above
9. The accuracy obtained by the grinding process
can be of the order of

a. 0.25 mm
b. 0.025 mm
c. 0.0025 mm
d. 0.00025 mm
10. In quick return mechanism of shaping
machine, the ram stroke length is proportional
to

a. Slotter arm length

b. Crank length
c. Ram length
d. None of these
 11. The usual ratio of forward and return stroke
in quick return mechanism of shaping machine is

a. 3:2
b. 3:1
c. 3:4
d. 3:5
12. The amount of metal removed by honing
process is less than

a. 0.125 mm
b. 0.225 mm
c. 0.325 mm
d. 0.425 mm
13. In E.C.M process normal current
requirement is

a. 100 amps/cm^2 of work piece area

b. 200 amps/cm^2 of work piece area
c. 500 amps/cm^2 of work piece area
d. 800 amps/cm^2 of work piece area
14. The voltage applied between tool (cathode)
and work piece (anode) in E.C.M process is

a. 30 – 50 V
b. 60 – 90 V
c. 3 – 20 V
d. None of the above
15. The diameter (D) of a plain milling cutter is
approximately related to arbor diameter (d) is

a. D = 1.5d to 2d
b. D = 2.5d to 3d
c. D = 4.5d to 6d
d. D = 5.5d to 8d
16. The type and number of bearing to be used
for spindles of machine tool depends on the

a. Type of spindle
b. Type of machine tool
c. Load on the bearing
d. None of the above
17. H.S.S cutting tool are generally provided with

a. positive rake angle

b. Negative rake angle
c. Positive cutting angle
d. Negative cutting angle
18. Cemented carbide and ceramic cutting tools
are usually provided with

a. positive rake angle

b. Negative rake angle
c. Positive cutting edge angle
d. Negative cutting egde angle
19. Coefficient of friction In anti-friction guide
ways is

a. High
b. Low
c. Medium
d. None of these
20. Nitriding process of surface treatment for
steel tools is used for tools taking

a. Light curts
b. Heavy cuts
c. Medium cuts
d. None of the above
21. At very low cutting speeds the tool wear is
due to

a. Plowing action
b. Tranfer
c. Material
d. Temperature
22. Are mixtures of lard, cotton seed or rape-
speed oils and mineral oils.

a. Cutting oils
b. Cooling oils
c. Heating oils
d. Emulsions
23. How are aluminums work piece marked

a. Ball pen
b. Lead pencil
c. Crayon
d. Chalk
24. How is the height of a bench vice adjusted?

a. By using a wooden plate form

b. By using a wooden packing piece
under the vice base
c. By using a vice adjusting fixture
d. All of the above
25. What is the material hacksaw blade?

a. High carbon steel

b. High speed steel
c. Low tungsten steel
d. Any of the above
26. Why hacksaw blade teeth get dull

a. Coarse pitched blade is used on hard

metal
b. Too much speed and pressure
c. Pressure is not released in return
stroke
d. Any of the above
27. Files are classified according to

a. Size or length
b. shape
c. Grade and cut
d. All of the above
 28. How are rivets made?

a. Cold pressing
b. Rolling
c. Drawing
d. None of these
29. Its is a case hardening process in which work
piece is heated in a steam of ammonia at 500° to
550°C

a. Quenching
b. Annealing
c. Tempering
d. Nitriding
30. It is used to measure gap between two mating parts
to set the job and machine in alignment and to measure
clearance of piston and cylinder in automobiles

a. Compound gauge
b. Feeler gauge
c. Inspection gauge
d. Workshop gauge
31. The movement of belt upon the face of rim
or outer surface of the driver and driven pulley
within the area of arc of contact

a. Slip
b. Creep
c. Interference
d. Crowning
32. The temperature at which an oil gives off
sufficient vapor without actually setting fire to
the oil

a. Flash point
b. Fire point
c. Pour point
d. Cloud point
33. It is the process by which the length of a
work piece is reduced

a. Drawing
b. Drifting
c. Jumping
d. Upsetting
34. It cannot be forged because it will break if
heated and beaten by hammer

a. High speed steel

b. Tool steel
c. Carbon steel
d. Cast iron
35. It is a process of enlarging and smoothing
the punched hole by means of tapered drifts of
various sizes and shapes.

a. Drifting
b. Drawing
c. Upsetting
d. Jumping
36. It is the process by which the length of a
work piece is increased by reducing its cross-
sectional area.

a. Flattening
b. Drawing out
c. Swaging
d. Jumping
37. Shaper tools are made of what type of
material?

a. Brass
b. Bronze
c. High speed steel
d. Babblt
38. A ______ is a recip0rocating type tool used
for machining flat, cylindrical and irregular
surfaces.

a. shaper
b. planer
c. puncher
d. slotter
39. An operation to enlarge the previously
drilled hole.

a. Drilling
b. Boring
c. Reaming
d. Broaching
40. An operation to make smaller hole in exact
center for the lathe center

a. Broaching
b. Reaming
c. Counter Boaring
d. Center Drilling
42. It is the operation of smoothing and squaring
the surface around the hole

a. Reaming
b. Counter sinking
c. Spot facing
d. Counter boring
43. The size of abrasive grains produced by
crushing process is called

a. Grade
b. Grift
c. Peeble
d. None of the above
44. It is the combination of iron, carbon and
other alloying elements

a. Cast iron
b. Brass
c. Carbon steel
d. Alloy steel
45. The main purpose of ________ is to resist
wear and unable it to cut the other metal.

a. Tempering
b. Hardening
c. Quenching
d. Normalizing
46. Lip clearance angle for drilling soft materials
should be _______ that for drilling hard
materials.

a. Less than
b. Equal to
c. More than
d. zero
47. It is also known as slab peripheral milling.

a. Form milling
b. Climb milling
c. Convex milling
d. Plain milling
48. in _______ the tool is released in return
stroke

a. Shaper
b. Planer
c. Slotter
d. Reamer
49. It is the process of dividing the periphery of
the job in degrees.

a. Direct indexing
b. Plain indexing
c. Differential indexing
d. Angular indexing
 50. It is also known as conventional milling in which the
rotation of the cutter is in a direction opposite to the direction
of the table movement.

a. Down milling
b. Up milling
c. Straddle milling
d. Gang milling
TEST NO. 34
1. It is also known as climb milling in which the
rotation of the cutter and the movement of the
table is in the same direction.

a. Down milling
b. Up milling
c. Straddle milling
d. Gang milling
 2. The _______ is a machine tool used to remove metal
from a work piece to give it the required shape and size

a. Shaper
b. Planer
c. Lathe
d. Grinder
3. It is the method of grinding cylindrical
surfaces

a. Centerless grinding
b. Plunge-cut grinding
c. Through feed grinding
d. None of the above
4. It is the angle between the side cutting edge
and the longitudinal axis of the tool

a. Side cutting edge angle

b. End cutting edge angle
c. Side relief angle
d. End relief angle
 5. It is a surface finishing process and is used to
produce a lustrous surface of attractive appearance.

a. Polishing
b. Buffing
c. Lapping
d. Glazing
 6. It consists of surface irregularities, which
result from the various manufacturing process.

a. Lay
b. Waiveness
c. Flaws
d. Roughness
7.A ___is formed when a shaft rotates in a bush, lines or the
bore of a
 
A. Ball bearing
B. roller bearing
C. plain bearing
D. needle bearing
8. CNC in machine shop means
 
a. computer number control
b. computer numerical control
c. communication network control
d. computer network center
9. . It is the time lost due to break downs, waiting for tools, minor accidents,
etc,
 
a. Set up time
b. Handling time
c. Machining time
d. Down time
10. Refers to the process of separating or removing the burning
or combustible material from the neighborhood of the fire.

a. Starvation
b. Blanketing
c. C. cooling
d. D. none of above
11. When does a chisel get blunt?

a. When it is properly heat treated.

b. When it is not properly heat treated.
c. When it is properly tempered
d. When it is not properly tempered
12. What is it necessary to provide tolerance?

a. It saves the labor charges

b. It saves the material from wastage
c. C. it saves the time
d. All of the above
13. It is done then and there by adjusting or repairing the faults
come in notice during work

a. Preventive maintenance
b. predictive maintenance
c. routine maintenance
d. Corrective maintenance
14. A _______ is used between the cutting tool and work piece
to minimize the friction head.

a. Lubricant
b. Coolant
c. Water
d. alcohol
15. Which of the following is Not a function of bearings?

a. To support the shaft

b. To guide the shaft
c. To give free rotation to the shaft
d. To transmit power
16. It is a process of cleaning the face of grinding wheel by
means of a dresser for removing the glazing and loading of
wheel and to improve the cutting action of a wheel.

a. Dressing
b. Polishing
c. Truing
d. lapping
17. What should be the top rake angle to cut brass?

a. 0
b. 15
c. 0
d. 45
18. it is a long, tapered punch used for loosening, straight pins,
taper pins, rivets and other small parts being disassembled.

a. Drive pin punch

b. Hand punch
c. Drift punch
d. Center punch
19. A tool used for turning nuts or bolts

a. Plier
b. Wrench
c. Long nose
d. C-clamps
20. A sharp pointed steel tool used to scribe lines on metal being
laid out

a. Divider
b. Scriber
c. Trammel
d. Hermaphrodite caliper
21. a____ is used to test the accuracy of holes

a. Snap gage
b. Ring gage
c. Plug gage
d. Depth gage
22. A_____ consists of a hardened and ground steel bar in
which two hardened and ground plugs of the same diameter are
set.
a. Caliper
b. Gage block
c. Sine bar
d. micrometer
23. a______ consists of a slide and a swivel vise mounted on
the compound rest in place of the tool post.

a. Milling attachment
b. Relieving attachment
c. Grinding attachment
d. Reaming attachment
24. _____ are hardened steel devices with a taper shank on one
end and a 60-degree point at the other end.

a. Tailstock centers
b. Lathe centers
c. Live centers
d. Dead centers
25. It is a work- holding device

a. Arbor
b. Mandrel
c. Jigs
d. fixtures
26. The cutting of groove next to a shoulder on a piece of work

a. Undercutting
b. Necking
c. Grooving
d. Any of the above
27. The operation of producing a beveled edge at a specified
angle on the end of a turned diameter.

a. Chamfering
b. Knurling
c. Honing
d. undercutting
28. It is a large casting located on the left end of the bed

a. Tailstock
b. Head stock
c. Carriage
d. chuck
29. a____ is a thread that has a lead equal to pitch.

a. Right hand thread

b. Left hand thread
c. Single thread
d. Multiple thread
30. The distance between the crest and the base of the thread
measured perpendicular to the axis

a. Depth of thread
b. Length of engagement
c. Depth of engagement
d. Axis of thread
31. Used to permit lever shift for vertical travel of rail

a. Ball crank
b. Clamp plates
c. Plunger knob
d. None of the above
32. It is mounted on the top of the column and is guided in
perfect alignment by the machined dovetailed surfaces.
a. Over arm
b. Spindle
c. C. arbor
d. D. saddle
33. Refers to circular milling attachment that is bolted to the top
of the table of a plain or universal milling machine

a. Slotting attachment
b. Rotary attachment
c. Milling attachment
d. Spiral attachment
34. The process of removing burrs and the gates and risers left
on castings after the molding process

a. Reaming
b. Snagging
c. Honing
d. knurling
35. The ______ supports the table on the cross rail and moves
across it from left to right.

a. Apron
b. Bearing
c. Spindle
d. handle
36. Name of mechanism, which a welding operator holds during
gas welding and at the end of which the gases are burred to
perform the various gas welding operation

a. Hose
b. Torch
c. Gage
d. switch
37. A tool used for measuring diameters

a. Protractor
b. Scriber
c. Caliper
d. compass
38. A fine grained, slaty silica rock used for sharpening edged
tools

a. Oilstone
b. Surface grinder
c. Rocky oil
d. None of the above
39. Device used to prevent leakage of media

a. Gasket
b. Seal
c. Shield
d. seal
40. Flexible material used to seal pressurized fluids normally
under dynamic conditions

a. Packing
b. Gasket
c. Shield
d. seal
41. A hand tool used to measure tension on bolts

a. Tensile range
b. Torque wrench
c. Hooke’s gauge
d. Spring balance
42. A hand tool used to measure engine crank web deflection

a. Feeler gage
b. Compound gage
c. Distortion gage
d. Dial gage
43. A device used for accurately measuring diameters.

a. Dial gage
b. Feeler gage
c. Caliper
d. micrometer
44. It is used to true and align machine tools, fixtures and works

a. Dial indicator
b. Radial indicator
c. Dial gage
d. Feeler gage
45. The operation of making a cone-shaped enlargement of the
end of a hole, as for a recess for a flattened screw

a. Counter boring
b. Counter sinking
c. Reaming
d. drilling
46. A kind if chuck, which has reversible jaws, which could be
adjusted separately.

a. Independent chuck
b. Combination chuck
c. Magnetic chuck
d. Universal chuck
47. It is used for cutting long pieces of metals

a. Planer
b. Shaper
c. Power saw
d. Broaching machine
48. It is used for external , internal and relieving of milling cutters
and taps.

a. Milling attachment
b. Thread attachment
c. Taper attachment
d. Relieving attachment
49. It is the stretching or spreading of metal by hammering

a. Peening
b. Flaring
c. Upsetting
d. bending
50. The ________ is the most common of the standard tapers.

a. Brown
b. Jamo
c. Sharpe
d. morse
TEST 35
1. What is the lightest known metal?

A. Mercury
B. Steel
C. Chromium
D. Aluminum
2. Material having high electrical resistance and
should not be used as conductor.

A. Magnesium
B. Copper
C. Nickel
D. Iron
3. The property that characterizes a materials ability
to be drawn into a wire is known as

A. Plasticity
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. Utility
4. Stress relieving is also _____ for the purpose of
reducing internal stress of steel material/metal.

A. Quenching
B. Normalizing
C. Tempering
D. Drawing
5. A carbon content in the range of ____ in steel
readily responds to heat treatment.

A. 0.35 to 0.40% C
B. 0.28 to 0.30% C
C. 0.18 to 0.25% C
D. 0.12 to 0.15% C
6. It indicates how many times a volume of material is
heavier than an equal volume of water.

A. Specific gravity
B. Specific volume
C. Specific weight
D. Specific density
7. Nickel – chromium – molybdenum steel designation
SAE ______.

A. 81xx
B. 74xx
C. 94xx
D. 64xx
8. Moment of inertia is also called

A. Modulus of elasticity
B. Weep strength
C. Radius of gyration
D. None of the above
9. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is
being heated to a very high temperature then
suddenly subject to rapid cooling to improve
hardenability of wear resistance is called

A. Annealing
B. Normalizing
C. Tempering
D. Quenching
10. A good general purpose deoxidizer which
promotes fined grain in steel

A. Copper
B. Magnesium
C. Molybdenum
D. Silicon
11. Treatment process that produces a residual
compressive stress at the surface and residual tension
on the inside that results in considerable increase in
fatigue strength for members on torsion/bending is
known

A. Partial quenching
B. Heavy oil quenching
C. Quenching
D. Shallow quenching
12. The flux that should be provided in soldering
electrical connection or commutator wires as it tends
to corrode the connections.

A. Sal ammoniac
B. Zinc chloride
C. Stearin
D. Acid fluxes
13. The characteristics of tool steel sustain shocks and
major impacts is due to its

A. Toughness
B. Stiffness
C. Ductility
D. Machinability
14. The application of electrical current to the
corrosion circuit to counter the corrosion reaction is
called

A. Cathodic protection
B. Sacrificial anodes method
C. Chemical corrosion process
D. Galvanic action
15. A major component of cast steel is

A. Silicon
B. Iron
C. Manganese
D. Chromium
16. Normally, cast iron contains 2% carbon or more
and silicon in the range of ____%

A. 1 to 3
B. 1 to 4
C. 2 to 3
D. 1 to 6
17. The material for engine radiation is usually made
of _____.

A. Yellow brass
B. Silicon brass
C. Admiralty brass
D. Navy brass
18. A problem by-product used as an electrode in an
electric arc furnace melting operation is called

A. Anthracite coke
B. Foundry coke
C. Graphite electrodes
D. Bituminous coke
19. Which of the following does not effect the tensile
strength of steel?

A. Sulfur
B. Cobalt
C. Phosphorous
D. Boron
20. Alloy steel axle under repeated load/stress will
eventually fail if the load/stress is above the
endurance for the steel under consideration. The
endurance limit of the steel is

A. Equal to the allowable stress of the module of

elasticity
B. Equal to half of the ultimate strength
C. Equal to module of elasticity
D. Equal to 80% of the elastic limit
21. Mirror finish has surfaces of ____rms.

A. 1
B. 2 to 8
C. 1 to 3
D. 2 to 5
22. Chromium steel to include heat and corrosion
resistant designation

A. SAE 56xx
B. SAE 511xx
C. SAE 61xx
D. SAE 9xx
23. Non – metallic material of high melting
temperature being used as furnace lining.

A. Quartz bricks
B. Refractories
C. Silica sand
D. Dolomile clay bricks
24. In greater quantity, this element is harmful to the
molten ferrous metal.

A. Silica
B. Aluminum
C. Oxides
D. Sulfur
25. Silicon manganese steel designation, SAE___.

A. 72xx
B. 40xx
C. 92xx
D. 9xx
26. Cold drawing is also called _____.

A. Hard drawn
B. Oxidized steel
C. Cold lap steel
D. Strain hardening
27. The brittleness in steel at elevated temperature is
known as

A. Hard drawn
B. Cold lap
C. Red shortness
D. Residual stresses
28. Material may be stretched and still returns to its
former form/condition upon release of force is called

A. Plasticity
B. Modulus of elasticity
C. Ductility
D. Elastic limit
29. What is SAE specification number of molybdenum
chromium nickel?

A. 48xx
B. 47xx
C. 46xx
D. 45xx
30. Galvanized iron is term referring to iron coated
with _____.

A. Aluminum
B. Tin
C. Zinc
D. Manganese
31. A metal, which has high electrical conductivity but
should not be used for high temperature.

A. Silicon
B. Zinc
C. Chrome alloy
D. Carbide
32. It improves red hardness of steel.

A. Chromium
B. Cobalt
C. Boron
D. Lead
33. What is the SAE specification number of
molybdenum?

A. SAE 2xxx
B. SAE 3xxx
C. SAE 4xxx
D. SAE 5xxx
34. Which does not belong to the group?

A. SAE
B. AISI
C. SEA
D. ASTM
35. It is the ability of the material to resist
deformation under stress.

A. Plasticity
B. Stiffness
C. Toughness
D. All of the above
36. Which of the following is not a structural class of
steel?

A. High speed steel

B. Tool and die
C. Low carbon
D. High carbon
37. Continuous stretching under load even if the stress
is less than the yields point is known as

A. Plasticity
B. Elasticity
C. Creep
D. Ductility
38. Killed steel is always associated with

A. Silicon
B. Manganese
C. Phosphorous
D. Sulfur
39. The good deoxidizer in steel melting

A. Manganese
B. Silicon
C. Aluminum
D. All of the above
40. Good stabilizer in stainless steel is

A. Columbium
B. Titanium
C. Tantalum
D. All of the above
41. Metals are conductive because

A. The electrons are loosely bound to the nuclei and

therefore mobile
B. Having characteristics luster
C. They are on the left side of the periodic table
D. They have extra electrons as exhibited by normally
possible balance state
42. The yield strength of a rectangular yellow brass 65
to 70% Cu, 30 to 35% Zn can be increase/improve by
______.

A. Cold working
B. Tempering
C. Shill casting
D. Heat treatment
43. Used as cast condition steel casting with carbon
content less than ____ % C.

A. 0.26
B. 0.15 to 0.18
C. 0.20
D. 0.25
44. Liners are normally made of

A. Cast iron
B. Alloyed bronze
C. Alloyed steel
D. Alloyed aluminum
45. A furnace used in melting of non – ferrous metals
is called

A. Cupola furnace
B. Crucible furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Normalizing furnace
46. A furnace used in melting ferrous metalss

A. Annealing furnace
B. Tempering furnace
C. Induction furnace
D. Normalizing furnace
47. All are associated with standard material specified
except

A. American Iron and Steel Institute

B. Society of Automotive Engineers
C. Southeast Asia Iron and Steel Institute
D. American Society for Testing Material
48. The ability of the material to be deformed
considerably without rupture is called

A. Malleability
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. Plasticity
49. Permanent deformation or strain may occur
without fracture is called

A. Malleability
B. Elasticity
C. Ductility
D. Plasticity
50. An alloy that improves strength of steel at high
temperature application.

A. Tungsten
B. Molybdenum
C. Chromium
D. All of the above
TEST NO. 36
1. Metal that assists lubrication or lubricant in itself.

a. zinc

b. antimony

c. Babbitt

d. lead
2. The smallest area at the point of rupture of a tensile specimen
divided by the original area is called.

a. Percentage elongation

b. Izod test

c. Charpy test

d. Percentage reduction of area

3. All are associated with the grade of steel except.

a. SAE 43xx

b. SAE 13xx

c. SAE 10xx

d. SAE 74xx
4. Cold working of steel plates make the metal

a. tougher

b. More detail

c. harder

d. More malleable
5. The property that characterizes the material’s ability to be drawn
into a wire called

a. ductility

b. Thermal conductivity

c. Tensile strength

d. Endurance limit
6. Normal stress relieving temperature for cast steel is

a. 200 to 350 F

b. 400 to 500 F

c. 300 to 400 F

d. 450 to 550 F
7. Most effective alloying element for reducing brittleness of steel
at very low temperature.

a. manganese

b. molybdenum

c. silicon

d. nickel
8. Ordinary steel begins to lose strength and elasticity significantly
of about what temperature.

a. 900 – 1000 F

b. 800 – 900 F

c. 700 – 850 F

d. 600- 700 F
9. For a high corrosion resistant stainless steel what minimum
chromium content is required?

a. 8%

b. 4.3%

c. 1.1%

d. 5.8%
10. A material that should be avoided in constructing wood pattern
is _____.

a. Sap wood

b. Klin dried wood

c. Heart wood

d. Core portion of wood

11. The gradual chemical reaction by other substance such that the
metal is converted to an oxide or other compounds.

a. corrosion

b. cheeping

c. rusting

d. weathering
12. What is the property of a material, which resist forces acting to
pull the material apart?

a. Shear strength

b. Tensile strength

c. Torsional strength

d. Compressive strength
13. What is the difference between brass and bronze?

a. Brass is composed of copper and zinc whole bronze is composed

of copper and tin.
b. Brass is composed of copper and zinc while bronze is basically
copper and tin plus non-ferrous alloy such as manganese,
aluminum and chromium.
c. Bronze is reddish in color while brass is a mixture of copper and
antimony.
d. Bronze is mostly an alloy of copper and tin while brass is a
mixture of copper and antimony.
14. A liquid metal is called ______.

a. mercury

b. lead

c. zinc

d. aluminum
15. Which of the following elements when large quantity is harmful
to the ferrous metal?

a. sulfur

b. silicon

c. zinc

d. aluminum
16. It has molybdenum alloy except _____.

a. SAE 43xx

b. SAE 41xx

c. SAE 6xxx

d. SAE 5xxx
17. Cast alloy steel for very high temperature application.

a. Manganese – nickel steel casting

b. High chrome steel casting

c. Chrome – nickel steel casting

d. High manganese casting

18. What heat treatment process can cast steel materials of high
chrome high manganese etc. be subjected for the purpose of
machining process?

a. annealing

b. tempering

c. normalizing

d. quenching
19. Galvanize steel plate is

a. aluminum

b. tin

c. zinc

d. manganese
20. Major components of bronze casting is

a. copper

b. manganese

c. zinc

d. lead
21. Alloy steel known for its resistance to corrosion, abrasion and
wear that is usually ideal for mill grinding of ore in cement and
concentrator application. It is usually combined with molybdenum
to increase the depth hardening

a. Manganese chromium steel

b. Chromium – moly steel

c. Chromium – nickel – moly steel

d. Manganese – moly steel

22. Commonly utilized/cheapest shaft material available in the
market with carbon content of 0.28 to 0.34?

a. SAE 4132

b. SAE 4320

c. SAE 1030

d. SAE 4130
23. Heating of metal above the critical temperature and then
cooling slowly usually in the furnace to reduce the hardness and
improve the machinability is called.

a. normalizing

b. annealing

c. tempering

d. quenching
24. It is hardening treatment whereby a cast metal is being heated
to a very high temperature then suddenly subjected to rapid
cooling to improve hardenability or wear resistance is called

a. normalizing

b. tempering

c. annealing

d. quenching
25. SAE steel that responds to heat treatment.

a. SAE 1060

b. SAE 1117

c. SAE 1030

d. SAE 1020
26. A form of correction that develop on a highly localized area on
a metal surfaces.

a. crevice

b. erosion

c. galvanic

d. spitting
27. The deterioration of organic coating characterized as
completely ______.

a. chalking

b. rusting

c. checking

d. fritting
28. The temperature above which the alloy is liquid and will run is
known as ____.

a. Melting point

b. Flow point

c. Pour point

d. Dew point
29. It refers to any layer or deposit of extraneous material on the
heat – transfer surface.

a. Low line

b. Pressure drop

c. fouling

d. scaling
30. Steel containing large amount of mild nickel and chromium.

a. Carbon steel

b. Stainless steel

c. Alloy steel

d. Cast steel
31. The corrosion of iron or iron – base alloys.

a. rusting

b. crazing

c. chalking

d. fritting
32. A corrosion occurs within or adjacent to a crevice formed by
contact with another piece of the same or another metal is called
_____.

a. pitting

b. galvanic

c. erosion

d. crevice
33. An alloy of tin, copper, antimony, or sometimes lead.

a. Gold

b. Babbitt

c. aluminum

d. Cast iron
34. The cheapest and most abundant engineering material is
______.

a. aluminum

b. steel

c. Cast iron

d. babbitt
35. They are usually steel or steel casting

a. Mild steel

b. Carbon steel

c. Fire box steel

d. Drop – forge - dies

36. An iron has physical properties closely resembling those of mild
steel is called.

a. Malleable cast iron

b. Malleable iron

c. White iron

d. Gray iron
37. An iron in which most of the carbon is chemically combined
with the iron is called

a. Cast iron

b. Gray iron

c. White iron

d. Malleable iron
38. Which of the following metals is non-magnetic?

a. Manganese steel

b. Cast steel

c. Alloy steel

d. Cast iron
39. Which of the following is not a kind of cast iron?

a. Gray iron

b. White iron

c. Malleable iron

d. Lead iron
40. Which of the following is not used to temper steel?

a. Oil bath

b. brine/ salt bath

c. Steam bath

d. Water bath
41. Which of the following metal is easy to chisel?

a. Alloy steel

b. Manganese steel

c. Stainless steel

d. Cast iron
42. Ferrous metals contain a relatively large amount of _______.

a. manganese

b. carbon

c. sulfur

d. phosphorous
43. Which of the following is not a classification of iron core?

a. siderite

b. hematite

c. sulfurite

d. magnetite
44. Stainless steel is obtained principally by the use of which of the
alloying elements?

a. chromium

b. nickel

c. carbon

d. tungsten
45. Which of the following metals will respond to heat treatment?

a. Cast iron

b. Wrought iron

c. Medium carbon steel

d. Low carbon steel

46. The property of steel, which resist indentation on penetration is
called

a. hardness

b. elasticity

c. ductility

d. None of the above

47. The ability of metal to stretch band or twist without breaking or
cracking is called

a. elasticity

b. ductility

c. brittleness

d. plasticity
48. The ability of the material to return to its original state after
being elongated or distorted when the forces are released is called

a. elasticity

b. ductility

c. plasticity

d. creep
49. material, usually ceramics employed where resistance to very
high temperature is required, as for furnace linings and metal
melting pots is called

a. bricks

b. insulator

c. refractories

d. clay
50. Any material that retard the flow of electricity, used to prevent
or escape of electric current from conductors.

a. bricks

b. insulators

c. refractories

d. composite
 TEST

TEST 37
1. Hardening the surface iron-based alloys by
heating then below the melting point in contact
with a carbonaceous substance
A. Carbonizing

B. Normalizing

C. Mar tempering

D. Hardening
2. A special metal formed when two or more
metals are melted together.
A. Monel

B. Alloy

C. Solder

D. Hastalloy
3. Subjecting a substance to a high temperature
below the fusion point usually to make it friable
A. Calcination

B. Fusion

C. Boiling

D. Super heating
4. Substances having sufficient carbon and/ or
hydrogen for chemical oxidation to produce
exothermally, worthwhile quantities of heat.
A. Lubrication

B. Graphite

C. Grease

D. Fuels
5. The principal material used in high production
metal working tools.
A. Hyper-Eutectoid

B. High speed steel

C. Lead

D. High speed carbon

6. The softening of high metal by heat treatment
and most commonly consist of heating the
metal up to near molten state and cooling it very
slowly.
A. Annealing

B. Indexing

C. Knurling

D. Soldering
7. The operation of cooling a heated piece of
work rapidly by dipping it in water, brine or oil.

A. Quenching

B. Annealing

C. Tempering

D. Normalizing
8. A metallic elements and only metal that is
liquid at ordinary temperature.

A. Aluminum

B. Mercury

C. Zirconium

D. ZInc
9. A metallic of copper - tin alloy.

A. Aluminum

B. Brass

C. Bronze

D. Chromium
10. An alloy of copper and zinc.

A. Aluminum

B. Brass

C. Bronze

D. Chromium
11. Which of the following is not a classification
of iron ore?

A. Hematite

B. Magnetite

C. Sulfurite

D. Siderite
12. A soft metal, known since ancient times as a
precious metal which all material values are
based.

A. Solids

B. Bronze

C. Gold

D. Austenite
13. An amorphous solid made by fusing silica
with a basic oxide.

A. Pearlite

B. Rock

C. Silicon

D. Glass
14. A fine grain salty silica rock used for
sharpening edge tools.

A. Eutectoid

B. Austenite

C. Oilstone

D. Pearlite
15. A highly transparent and exceedingly hard
crystalline stone of almost pure carbon is called.

A. Gold

B. Diamond

C. Bronze

D. Crystalline
16. The common deoxidizer and cleanser of
steel forming oxides and sulfate that are carried
off in the slag.

A. Manganese

B. Carbon

C. Tungsten

D. Sulfur
17. An alloy copper, tin and small amount of
phosphorous.

A. Chromium

B. Bronze

C. Brass

D. Aluminum
18. The material used in high speed processes.

A. High speed steel

B. Chromium

C. Cast iron

D. Carbon steel
19. A mat’l that can wear away a substance
softer than itself is called.

A. Abrasive

B. Corrosive

C. tungsten

D. alloy
20. The process of heating a piece of steel to a
temp. within or above critical range and cooing
rapidly.

A. Normalizing

B. Hardening

C. annealing

D. tempering
21. The process of checking or producing
checkers on the surface of a piece by rolling
checkered depression into the surface is called.

A. Knurling

B. hemming

C. breading

D. embossing
22. A mat’l used in softening a piece of metal
that is too hard to machine and is done by
heating steel slowly above the usual hardening
temp. keeping it at the heat for ½-2hrs. Then
cooling slowly, preferably in a furnace
A. Broaching

B. Quenching

C. normalizing

D. Annealing
23. A manganese steel containing approx. 0.20%
carbon.

A. SAE 1320

B. SAE 1230

C. SAE 2340

D. SAE 4230
24. Heating to some 100F above the
transformation range with subsequent cooling
to below that range in still air at room temp. to
produce uniform structure of the metal termed
as.
A. annealing

B. hardening

C. normalizing

D. tempering
25. Heating to a sub-critical temp. about 1100F
to 1300F and holding at that temp. for a suitable
time for the purpose of reducing internal
residual stresses is called.
A. annealing

B. hardening

C. tempering

D. Stress relieving
26. Reheating to temp. below the
transformation range, followed by any desired
rate of cooling to attain the desired properties of
the metal.
A. annealing

B. hardening

C. tempering

D. Stress relieving
27. The effect of alloying zinc to copper.

A. To increase hardness

B. To increase strength and ductility if added up to 10-30%

C. To impart free-machining properties

D. To improve hardness and strength

28. Polyesters belong to he group of.

A. phenotics

B. Thermoplastic plastics

C. Thermosetting plastics

D. All of the above

29. The imperfection in the crystal structure of
metal is known as.

A. dislocation

B. Fracture

C. impurity

D. slip
30. The most important element that controls
the physical properties of steel is

A. carbon

B. chromium

C. silicon

D. tungsten
31. The process commonly used over thermo-
plastic mat’ls is.

A. Cold forming

B. Die casting

C. Injection molding

D. Shell molding
32. A space lattice found in alpha-iron is called.

A. Body centered cubic space lattice

B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

C. Face centered cubic space lattice

D. None of the above

33. A unit cell that contains nine atoms is known
as the.

A. Body centered cubic space lattice

B. Close packed hexagonal space lattice

C. Face centered cubic space lattice

D. None of the above

34. A knoop indenter is a diamond ground to a
___________.

A. Cylindrical from

B. Needle form

C. Prismoidal form

D. Pyramidal form
35. Which of the following timber is used for
sport goods?

A. Deodar

B. Mahogany

C. Mulberry

D. Sal
36. Super conductors

A. Are non-crystalline

B. Are the purest form of metal

C. are the densest metals without voids

D. Exist at temp. below 10 degrees K

37. Select the one that has highest specific
gravity.

A. aluminum

B. brass

C. High carbon steel

D. lead
38. For heavy loads in aircraft bearings the
materials used with lead to reduce the risk of
seizure is.

A. iron

B. silver

C. tin

D. zinc
39. Age-hardening is related with.

A. Cast iron

B. Duralumin

C. German silver

D. Stainless steel
40. Which of the following has highest specific
strength of all structural materials?

A. Chromium alloys

B. Magnesium alloys

C. Titanium alloys

D. None of the above

41. Addition of lead and bismuth to aluminum
will produce

A. An improvement of casting characteristics

B. An improvement of corrosion resistance

C. One of the best known age and precipitation hardening

system

D. An improvement in machinabiity
42. Hastalloy contains

A. Aluminum and nickel

B. Copper and aluminum

C. Nickel and copper

D. Nickel and molybdenum

43. In compression, a prism of brittle material
will break

A. By forming a bulge

B. By shearing along oblique plane

C. In a direction along at the direction of load

D. Into large number of piece

44. The maximum hardenability of any steel
depends on _______.

A. The alloying element present

B. The carbon content

C. The chemical composition

D. The grain size

45. Steel with 0.8% carbon and 100% pearlite is
known as

A. austenite

B. eutectoid

C. Hyper-eutectoid

D. solidous
46. Substance that can increase the
machinability of steel

A. phosphorous

B. Phosphorous and aluminum

C. Silicon and sulfur

D. Sulfur, graphite and aluminum

47. Compressive strength of gray cast iron in
tons per cm^2 is of the order of

A. 3-5

B. 5-7

C. 7-10

D. 15-22
48. The presence of sulfur in pig iron
makes_______.

A. It brittle

B. It easily machinable

C. It hard

D. The casting unsound

49. The hardness of steel increase if it contains
_______.

A. Austenite

B. Pearlite

C. Stalactite

D. Martensite
50. Which one is different from the group?

A. Cyaniding

B. Nitriding

C. Flame hardening

D. Electroplating
 TEST

TEST 38
1. The process of increasing the carbon content
surface of steel by exposing it to hot
carbonaceous material above the
transformation of 1650 to 1750F.
A. Carbonitriding

B. Case Hardening

C. Carburizing

D. Electroplating
2. In the SAE identification code of steel shafting
the 3rd and 4th digits represents the content of

A. % of manganese in the steel

B. % of alloy

C. % of carbon content

D. % of chronium in the steel

3. It is associated with nickel steel.

A. Magnesium

B. Lead

C. Columbium

D. Tin
4. A non-magnetic metal is

A. Nodular iron

B. Manganese steel

C. Tungsten-molybdenum steel

D. All of these
5. In small quantity this alloy is effective for
improvement strength at high temperature

A. Chronium

B. Manganese

C. Selenium

D. Molybdenum
6. The type of carbon and alloy used in
production of precision work tools.

A. Chrome-manganese

B. Titanium

C. High speed steel

D. Chrome-molybdenum
7. In powder metallurgy, the process of heating
the cold pressed metal powder is called

A. deposition

B. granulation

C. precipitation

D. sintering
8. Elecro-forming is especially valuable for

A. Decorative items

B. Good conductors of electricity

C. Non-ferrous components

D. Thin walled parts requiring a high order of

accuracy and internal surface finish
9. Aluminum alloys for pressure die casting

A. Must possess considerable fluidity

B. Must not be free from shortness

C. Must have iron a one of the constituents

D. Must be light
10. In carbon steel castings

A. The percentage for alloying elements is controlled

B. The percentage of carbon is between 1.7% to 2%

C. The percentage of carbon is less than 1.7%

D. None of the above

11. It has a powerful softening effect on cast iron
and its pressure in cast iron reduces the ability
of the iron to retain carbon in chemical
combination.
A. Aluminum

B. Carbon

C. Silicon

D. Sulfur
12. Cyaniding is the process of

A. Adding carbon and nitrogen by heat treatment of

steel to increase its surface hardness

B. Dipping steel in cyanide bath

C. Obtaining cyanide salts

D. Reading steel surface with cyanide salts

13. An engineer’s hammer is made of

A. Cast iron

B. High speed steel

C. Forged steel

D. Mild steel
14. A cold chisel is made of

A. Cast iron

B. High carbon steel

C. High speed steel

D. Mild steel
15. Eutectoid steel the percentage of carbon is

A. 0.02%

B. 0.30%

C. 0.03%

D. 0.80%
16. Machining properties of steel can be
improved by adding

A. chromium, nickel

B. silicon, aluminum, titanium

C. sulfur, lead, phosphorous

D. vanadium, aluminum
17. The ability of material to absorb energy
when deformed elastically and to return it when
unloaded is known as

A. creep

B. Fatigue strength

C. hardness

D. resilience
18. A ductile fracture is characterized by

A. Appreciable plastic deformation prior to

propagation of crack

B. Fragmentation into more than two pieces

C. Negligible deformation

D. Rapid rate for crack propagation

19. The behavior of metals where in strength of
metal is increased and the ductility is decreased
on heating at a relatively low temperature after
cold working.
A. clustering

B. Screw dislocation

C. Solid solution hardening

D. Strain aging
20. If a material recovers its original dimensions,
when the load is removed it is called

A. annealed

B. brittle

C. elastic

D. plastic
21. A body having identical properties all over is
called

A. ductile

B. elastic

C. Homogeneous

D. Isentropic
22. Points of arrest of iron correspond to

A. Stages at which allotropic forms of change

B. Stages at which further heating does not increase

temperature for sometime

C. Stages at which properties do not change with

increase in temperature

D. There is nothing like points of arrest

23. Delta iron occurs at

a. Temperature above melting point

b. Temperature between 1400°C and 1539°C

c. Temperature between 1000°C and 1400°C

d. Room temperature
24. Gamma iron exists at the temperature range

a. Between 910°C and 1400°C

b. Between 1400°C and 1539°C

c. Near melting point

d. Room temperature
25. Ferromagnetic alpha iron exists in temperature range of

a. Below 723°C

b. 700 – 910°C

c. 1000 – 1440°C

d. 1400 – 1539°C
26. The mould for casting ferrous materials in continuous casting
process is made of

a. Low carbon steel

b. Medium carbon steel

c. High carbon steel

d. Copper
27. A silver refers to

a. The pointed location spot silver plated

b. The point on an instrument dial a reading beyond which may be

dangerous

c. The temperature at which silver melts

d. The temperature of equilibrium between solid silver and liquid

silver at normal atmospheric pressure
28. Piston compression rings are made of

a. aluminum

b. bronze

c. Cast iron

d. White metal
29. One of the materials used for making surface plate is

a. brass

b. granite

c. Stainless steel

d. wood
30. Cast iron contains _____ % carbon.

a. 0.05 to 0.30

b. 0.30 to 0.60

c. 0.60 to 1.30

d. 2 to 4
31. Tungsten in high speed steel imparts which of the following
characteristics?

a. Corrosion resistance

b. ductility

c. Red hardness

d. Shock resistance
32. High carbon steel has a carbon content of

a. 0.5 to 1%

b. 0.8 to 2%

c. 1 to 3%

d. 2 to 4%
33. During tensile testing on a specimen cup and cone formation is
observed with _________.

a. Cast iron

b. Cast steel

c. glass

d. Mild steel
34. Kerosene is used as coolant, while machining which material?

a. aluminum

b. Cast iron

c. Mild steel

d. Stainless steel
35. One of the following materials is commonly used for bearings.

. Aluminum

. Gun metal

. Steel

. Zinc
36. Babbitt metal is an alloy of

a. Tin, copper, antimony and head

b. copper, zinc, and tin

c. Iron and tungsten

d. Tin, copper, lead and phosphorus

37. The bed of a machine tool is normally made of

a. Alloy steel

b. Cast iron

c. Medium carbon steel

d. Mild steel
38. The main constituent molding sand is

a. carbon

b. clay

c. graphite

d. silicon
39. Cobalt is added to high speed steel to

a. Increase ductility

b. Increase fatigue strength

c. Increase hot hardness

d. Increase wear resistance

40. During cold, working metals are worked

a. Below room temperature

b. Below their melting point

c. Below their recrystallization temperature

d. Below 200 C
41. Copper is annealed by healing to a cherry red color and

a. Dousing in cold water

b. Cooling slowly in water

c. Dousing in oil

d. Dousing in hot water

42. Tool steel can be hardened by

a. Heating red hot and plunging into water

b. Heating red hot and cooling in a blast of dry air

c. Heating red hot and plunging into linseed or cotton seed oil

d. Any of the above, depending on type and use

43. The purpose of annealing is to make a metal

a. harder

b. Medium hard

c. softer

d. shiny
44. The purpose of tempering is to make the metal

a. harder

b. softer

c. Less brittle

d. More brittle
45. A scriber is made of

a. Carbon steel

b. cold-rolled steel

c. hot-rolled steel

d. Tool steel
46. Knurling is done to

a. Polish material

b. Roughen material

c. Sharpen the material

d. Smoothen material
47. Muntz metal contains which of the following alloys?

a. copper-nickel

b. copper-zinc

c. copper-tin

d. copper-aluminum
48. A reinforced concrete beam is considered to be made up of

a. Clad material

b. Composite material

c. Homogenous material

d. heterogeneous
49. In testing a material for endurance strength it is subjected to

a. Static load

b. Impact load

c. Dynamic load

d. Completely reversed load

50. Which of the following is not a sound absorptive material?

a. Rug

b. Mirror

c. Carpet

d. Heavy drape
TEST NO. 39
1. The ability of a substance to exist in more than one lattice form is
known as

a. Allotropy

b. Grain

c. Crystallization

d. Diamagnetic
2. Properties, which describe the behavior of materials under the
application of force, are called as

a. Physical properties

b. Chemical properties

c. Mechanical properties

d. Electrical properties
3. The amount of energy per unit volume, which the material will
possess when subjected to the elastic limit stress is called

a. Bulk modulus

b. Modulus of resilience

c. Modulus of elasticity

d. Modulus of rigidity
4. ____________ means the resistance to penetration.

a. Hardness

b. Strength

c. Toughness

d. Stiffness
5. __________ means the increasing hardness and strength by
plastic deformation at temperature lower than the recrystallization
range.

a. Case hardening

b. Strain hardening

c. Nitriding

d. Stiffness
6. The plastic deformation at temperature above the
recrystallization temperature.

a. Hot working

b. Cold working

c. Normalizing

d. Annealing
7. The plastic deformation at temperature below the
recrystallization temperature.

a. Hot working

b. Normalizing

c. Annealing

d. Cold working
8. A preliminary evaluation of the elevated temperature properties
of materials may be secured by means of a

a. Stress rupture test

b. creep

c. Impact test

d. Modulus of rupture
9. The temperature of which this decrease of impact energy occurs
is called

a. Recrystallization temperature

b. Transition temperature

c. Rupture temperature

d. Ultimate temperature
10. An intimate mechanical mixture of two or more phases having a
definite composition and a definite freezing or melting point.

a. Allotropy

b. Peritectic

c. Eutectic

d. Protectic
11. The science which deals with the preparation and application of
metals and alloys.

a. Manufacturing

b. Metalloids

c. Metallurgy

d. Refractories
12. A combination of minerals, which can be profitably mined.

a. Gangue

b. Metal

c. Alloy

d. Ores
13. The mechanical treatments by which the concentrations of ores
is increased are called

a. Gravity separation

b. Ore dressing

c. Distillation

d. Sintering
14. Process which involve the reduction of the metal from aqueous
solutions by

a. Pyrometallurgical processes

b. Electrometallurgical processes

c. Hydrometallurgical processes

d. Amalgamation process
15. Non-metallic materials of high melting temperature used in the
construction of furnaces, crucibles and so forth are called.

a. Refractories

b. Ceramics

c. Insulations

d. Grate
16. The flux and gangue when in proper proportions will have a
melting temperature considerably lower than that of either one and
the resulting combination is called

a. Time

b. Residue

c. Slag

d. Refractories
17. An iron-bearing slate or chart in the form of compact siliceous
rock.

a. Taconite

b. Hematite

c. Magnetite

d. Limonite
18. A mechanical mixture of very pure iron and a silicate slag.

a. Bronze

b. Brass

c. Cast iron

d. Wrought iron
19. An alloy of iron and carbon in which the carbon content does
not exceed 1.7 per cent.

a. Brass

b. Steel

c. Babbitt

d. Bronze
20. The structure formed when transformation occurs at
temperature down to the knee of the curve.

a. Pearlite

b. Bainite

c. Martensite

d. Limonite
21. The process of producing a hard surface in a steel having a
sufficiently high carbon content to respond to hardening by rapid
cooling of the surface.

a. Flame hardening

b. Induction hardening

c. Cyaniding

d. Carburizing
22. It is one in which some elements other than carbon has been
added to improve or change the physical properties.

a. Low carbon steel

b. Alloy steel

c. Medium carbon steel

d. High carbon steel

23. SAE 1020 steel is a carbon steel containing _____ percent
carbon.

a. 20%

b. 0.20%

c. 10%

d. 0.10%
24. SAE 2317 steel is a nickel-steel alloy containing ______
percent nickel.

a. 2%

b. 3%

c. 1%

d. 7%
25. AISI C 1095 designates that it is a basic open earth carbon
steel having ______ percent carbon.

a. 5%

b. 9%

c. 95%

d. 0.95%
26. Molybdenum steels are painted ________.

a. Green

b. Blue

c. Red

d. Orange
27. Used for members of intricate shape that would be difficult to
manufacture by other methods.

a. Forging

b. Casting

c. Extruding

d. Hot working
28. AISI means

a. American Iron and Steel Institute

b. African Iron and Steel Institute

c. Aluminum Iron and Steel Institute

d. American Investment for Steel Industry

29. SAE means

a. Society of American Engineers

b. Society of Automotive Engineers

c. Society of Australian Engineers

d. Society of African Engineers

30. Which of the following metals increases the strength without
sacrificing the ductility of the carbon steels.

a. Brass

b. Nickel

c. Bronze

d. Copper
31. It serves as an excellent deoxidizing agent, and promotes the
nitriding of steels.

a. Aluminum

b. Boron

c. Copper

d. Brass
32. It is used to toughen and strengthen the steel, to reduce the
grain size and to act as a cleanser and degasifier.

a. Nickel

b. Boron

c. Vanadium

d. Molybdenum
33. Materials having a high percentage of alumina or steatite are
known as

a. Titanium

b. Vanadium

c. Refractories

d. Ceramics
34. It is a process of hardening the outer portion of the metal by
prolonged heating free from contact with air while the metal is
packed in carbon in the form of bone char, leather scraps, and
charcoal.

a. Carburizing

b. Cyaniding

c. Nitriding

d. Aging
35. The degree to which a material will deform before ultimate
fracture.

a. Brittleness

b. Ductility

c. Malleability

d. Plasticity
36. The property of a material that indicates its ability to transfer
heat.

a. Thermal conductivity

b. Electrical resistivity

c. Thermal expansion

d. Electrical conductivity
37. A group of heat-treatable cast iron with moderate to high
strength, high modulus of elasticity, goal machinery and good
resistance carbon.

a. Gray iron

b. Malleable iron

c. Ductile

d. White iron
38. Steels may be carburized and nitrided simultaneously by the
process known as

a. Nitriding

b. Carburizing

c. Carbonitriding

d. Cyaniding
39. It is used in steels as an alloying element to combine hardness
obtained by quenching with high strength and high elastic limit.

a. Vanadium

b. Chromium

c. Titanium

d. Molybdenum
40. The art of making definite impressions in sand by means of a
pattern for the purpose of producing a casting.

a. Molding

b. Pattern

c. Extrusions

d. Die casting
41. Products that have cross-sections of less than 6 inches and
that are not in the finished forms.

a. Slabs

b. Gangue

c. Blooms

d. Billets
42. It is the process of forging by which the metal in the plastic
state is made to flow within a die by the application of plunger
pressure.

a. Extrusion forging

b. Smith forging

c. Drop forging

d. Press forging
43. It is a squeezing process use to finish sheet or bar stock for
special purposes.

a. Cold forging

b. Sizing

c. Cold rolling

d. Coining
44. A term used for most press operations.

a. Sizing

b. Stamping

c. Coining

d. Swaging
45. It is a process of shearing in which sheet or plate is cut out to a
definite outline in a press.

a. Blanking

b. Stamping

c. Spinning

d. Trimming
46. It is special case of drawing in which the work is rotated
and formed by means of a tool.

a. Spinning

b. Embossing

c. Bulging

d. Stretching-forming
47. It is a squeezing operation use for flattening or surfacing
various parts where a very small amount of flow of the
material is involved.

a. Hobbing

b. Stamping

c. Coining

d. Sizing
48. It is a process by which a hot plastic metal is made to flow into
dies by the application of the sudden blows to the material.

a. Drop Forging

b. Press Forging

c. Extrusion

d. Machine Forging
49. It is a measure of stiffness.

a. Modulus of rigidity

b. Modulus of resilience

c. Modulus of elasticity

d. Modulus of toughness
50. It is a measure of the total energy absorbing capacity of the
material and includes the energy of both the elastic and plastic
deformation.

a. Modulus of toughness

b. Modulus of resilience

c. Modulus of elasticity

d. Modulus of rigidity
Test 40
1. The maximum stress to which a standardized test specimen
may be subjected without a permanent deformation.

a. Endurance limit
b. Proportional limit
c. Elastic limit
d. Plastic limit
2. The modulus of elasticity is a measure of

a. Stiffness
b. Toughness
c. Resilience
d. Harness
3.Aging at moderately elevated temperature expedites the
process and is called

a. Natural aging
b. Artificial aging
c. Normal aging
d. Supernatural aging
4.It is tendency to fracture without appreciable deformation.

a. Ductility
b. Brittleness
c. Malleability
d. Plasticity
5.It is the characteristic of exhibiting different properties what
tasted is different directions.

a. Allotropy
b. Anisotropy
c. Isentropy
d. Isotropic
6.It is one in which specimen, supported at both ends as a
simple beam is broken by the impact strength of the metal.

a. Charpy test
b. Izod test
c. Rockwell test
d. Universal test
7. Steel that has been deoxidized with a strong deoxidizing agent,
such as silicon or aluminum in order to eliminate a reaction
between the carbon and oxygen during solidification.

a. Carbon steel
b. Tool steel
c. Killed steel
d. Structural steel
8.Involves the loss of ductility because of a physical or chemical
change of the material is known as

a. Embrittlement
b. Pitting
c. Cold shortness
d. Decarburization
9.A material commonly used for shielding or screening
magnetism

a. Brass
b. Copper
c. Aluminum
d. Soft iron
10.A magnet is able to attract

a. Iron, aluminum and brass

b. Iron, cobalt and zinc
c. Iron, copper and nickel
d. Nickel, cobalt and steel
11.Which of the following materials is used for making
permanent magnets?

a. Carbon steel
b. Platinum cobalt
c. Alnico
d. All threes mentioned above
12.One of the following is the best conductor of electricity.
Which one?

a. Graphite
b. China clay
c. Porcelain
d. Ceramics
13.Dielectric strength of a material depends on the material’s

a. Moisture contect
b. Thickness
c. Temperature
d. All of the above
14.Which medium has highest value of dielectric strength?

a. Glass
b. Mica
c. Porcelain
d. Quartz
15.Which of the following is a primary cell?

a. Mercury-oxide
b. Lead-acid
c. Nickel-iron-alkaline
d. Nickel-cadmium-alkaline
16.Which of the following contact point metals has highest
melting point?

a. Silver
b. Tungsten
c. Gold
d. Copper
17.A material best suited for manufacturing of fuse wire.

a. Aluminum
b. Silver
c. Lead
d. Copper
18.The laminations are made from

a. Low carbon steel

b. Silicon sheet steel
c. Nickel alloy steel stays
d. Chrome steel sheets
19.Which of the following metals gets deposited to provide an
undercut for chromium?

a. Copper
b. Silver
c. Bronze
d. Lead
20.In nickel-iron cell, the electrolyte is

a. Dilute sulpnuric acid

b. Dilute potassium hydroxide
c. Dilute sodium ammonium hydroxide
d. Dilute sodium chloride solution
21. Which of the following is not a primary cell?

a. Carbon zinc
b. Silver oxide
c. Silver zinc
d. Nickel- cadmium
22. Select from the conductors below that has the least electrical
conductivity.

a. Lead
b. Tin
c. Zinc
d. Aluminum
23.The material used for commutator brushes is mostly

a. Copper
b. Mica
c. Carbon
d. Cast iron
24. generally, the material for thermocouple is

a. Chromel copel
b. Chromel alumel
c. Platinum rhodium
d. Any of the above
25.Select the best conductor of electricity

a. Carbon
b. Silver
c. Copper
d. Iron
26.Any heating and cooling of steel that produces a rounded or
globular form of carbide

a. Spheroidizing
b. Malleability
c. Graphitizing
d. Normalizing
27.Steel that has been hammered rolled or drawn in the process
of manufacture

a. Wrought steel
b. Rimmed steel
c. Killed steel
d. Stainless steel
28. Which of the following improves red hardness?

a. Boron
b. Cobalt
c. Copper
d. Colombium
29.An alloy of nickel and copper

a. Monel
b. Iconel
c. Titanium
d. Vanadium
30.Commutator segments are made of

a. Zinc
b. Brass
c. Copper
d. Nickel
31.What are the most commonly used materials as photo
cathode for the photoelectric emission?

a. Barium and calcium

b. Cesium and rubidium
c. Arsenic and boron
d. Thorium and tungsten
32. Manganin is an alloy of

a. Copper, manganese and nickel

b. Copper, zinc and lead
c. Copper, aluminum and chromium
d. Copper, chromium and cadnium
33.Select the one that is an acceptor impurity element.

a. Antimony
b. Gallium
c. Arsenic
d. Phosphorous
34.Which of the following is not a method of non desfructive
testing of steel casting and forging?

a. Radiography
b. Magnetic particle
c. Ultrasonic
d. Chemical analysis
35.All of the following statements about rusting of iron are
correct except.

a. Contact with water and oxygen are necessary

for rusting to occur
b. Contact with a more electropositive metal
reduces rusting
c. Halides aggravate rusting, process which
involves electrochemical oxidation reduction
reaction
d. Pitting occurs in oxygen-rich anodic areas and
the rust is deposited nearby
36.If 1080 steel is annealed by very slow cooling from 10C0°C to
ambient temperature, its microstructure will consist almost
safely of

a. Austenite
b. Bainite
c. Cementile
d. Pearlite
37.Steel can be strengthened by all of the following practices
EXPERT

a. Annealing
b. Quenching and tempering
c. Work hardening
d. Grain refinement
38. Intrinsic silicon becomes extrinsically conductive, with
electrons as majority canlers when doped with which of the
following?

a. Antimony
b. Boron
c. Germanium
d. Aluminum
39.The linear portion of the stress strain diagram of steel is
known as the

a. Modulus of elasticity
b. Plasticity
c. Irreversible range
d. Elastic range
40.Imperfections within metallic crystal structures may be all of
the following. EXCEPT:

a. Lattice vacancies, or extra interstitial atom

b. Ion pairs missing in ionic crystals
c. Displacement of atom to interstitial sites
d. Linear defects, or slippage dislocations
caused by shear
41. When a metal is cold worked all of the following generally
occur EXCEPT:

a. Ductility decreases
b. Grains becom equi-axed
c. Tensile strength increases
d. Slip or twinning occurs
42. hard water is water, which contains soluble water salts of
which of the following elements.

a. Sodium
b. Sulfur
c. Calcium
d. Chlorine
43.Which of the following metals has the highest specific heat
capacity at 100°C?

a. Aluminum
b. Bismush
c. Copper
d. Iron
44.Aluminum pistons are either cast or

a. Ground
b. Forged
c. Pressed
d. Welded
45.Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of

a. Iron
b. Brass
c. Copper
d. Bronze
46. Which of the following gasket materials should be used of a
freon systen?

a. Metallic
b. Asbestos
c. Rubber
d. A&B
47. The non-ferrous alloy corrodes in ammonia is

a. Copper
b. Bronze
c. Brass
d. All of the above
48.What is used in the main condenser to control electrolysis?

a. Brass plate
b. Aluminum plates
c. Zinc plates
d. Bronze plates
49.Which of the following types of packing would be used on
steam joints?

a. Asbestos
b. Neoprene
c. Metallic
d. A or C
50. The process applied to iron pipe, which retards corrosion, is
called

a. Galvanizing
b. Annealing
c. Soldering
d. Tinning
51. A scriber is made from what steel?

a. Carbon steel
b. Cold- rolled steel
c. Tool steel
d. Hot-rolled steel