Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of

A. entropy
B. internal energy
C. temperature
D. pressure
Which of the following is the most efficient
thermodynamic cycle?

A. Brayton
B. Carnot
C. Otto
D. Pressure
what is the first law of thermodynamics?

A. internal energy is due to molecular motions

B. entropy of the universe is increased by
irreversible processes
C. energy can neither be created nor destroyed
D. heat energy cannot be completely
transformed into work
An ideal gas is compressed isothermally. what
is the enthalpy change?

A. always negative
B. always positive
C. zero
D. undefined
Name the process that has no heat transfer.

A. Isothermal
B. isobaric
C. polytropic
D. adiabatic
an ideal gas is compressed in a cylinder so
well insulated that there is essentially no heat
transfer. the temperature of the gas

A. decreases
B. increases
C. remain constant
D. is zero
what is the SI unit of pressure?

A. Kg/cm2
B. dynes/cm2
C. pascal
D. psi
the equation Cp = Cv + R applies to which
of the following?

A. Enthalpy
B. ideal gas
C. two phase states
D. all pure substances
in the flow process, neglecting kinetic and
potential energies, the integral of Vdp
represent what?

A. heat transfer
B. flow energy
C. enthalpy change
D. Shaft work
Mechanical energy of pressure transformed
into energy of heat

A. Kinetic energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat of compression
The theory of changing heat into
mechanical work.

A. thermodynamics
B. Kinematics
C. inertia
D. kinetics
average pressure on a surface when a
changing pressure condition exist

A. back pressure
B. partial pressure
C. pressure drop
D. mean effective pressure
which of the following cycles consists
two isothermal and two constant
volume processes?

A. Diesel cycle
B. Ericsson cycle
C. Stirling Cycle
D. otto cycle
a control volume refers to what?

A. a fixed region in space

B. a reversible process
C. an isolated system
D. a specified mass
in the polytropic process, PV=constant, if the
value of n is infinitely large, the process is

A. Isobaric
B. isometric
C. isothermal
D. polytropic
if the temperature is held constant and the
pressure is increased beyond the saturation
pressure, then the working medium must
be:

A. Compressed Liquid
B. subcooled liquid
C. saturated vapor
D. saturated liquid
is one whose temperature is below the
saturation temperature corresponding to its
pressure.

A. superheated vapor
B. wet vapor
C. subcooled liquid
D. saturated liquid
number of molecules in a mole of any
substance is a constant called

A. rankine constant
B. avogadro’s number
C. otto constant
D. Thompson constant
if the pressure of a gas is constant the
volume is directly proportional to the
absolute temperature.

A. boyle’s law
B. Joule’s law
C. Charles’ law
D. Kelvin’s law
the number of protons in the nucleus of
an atom or the number of electrons in the
orbit of an atom

A. atomic volume
B. atomic number
C. atomic weight
D. atomic mass
in a p-t diagram of a pure substance, the
curve separating the solid phase from liquid
phase is:

A. vaporization curve
B. fusion curve
C. boiling point
D. sublimation point
a water temperature of 18 F in the water
cooled condenser is equivalent in C to

A. 7.78
B. 10
C. 263.56
D. -9.44
the latent heat of vaporization on joules per kg
is equal to

A. 5.4 x 102
B. 4.13 x 103
C. 22.6 x 105
D. 3.35 x 105
form of energy associated with the kinetic
energy of the random motion of large
number of molecules.

A. internal enegy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat of fusion
D. heat
If the temperature is held constant and the
pressure is. increased beyond the saturation
pressure, then, the working medium must
be:

A. saturated vapor
B. compressed liquid
C. saturated liquid
D. subcooled liquid
is the condition of pressure and temperature
at which a liquid and its vapor are
indistinguishable.

A. Critical point
B. dew point
C. absolute humidity
D. relative humidity
when a substance in gaseous state is
below the critical temperature, it is called

A. vapor
B. cloud
C. moisture
D. steam
superheated vapor behaves

A. just as gas
B. just as steam
C. just as ordinary vapor
D. approximately as a gas
which of the following provides the basis for
measuring thermodynamic property of
temperature?

A. zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law of thermodynamics
D. third law of thermodynamics
which of the following is commonly used
as a liquid absorbent ?

A. silica gel
B. activated alumina
C. ethylene glycol
D. none of these
mechanism design to lower the temperature
of air passing through it

A. air cooler
B. air defense
C. air spill over
D. air cycle
a device for measuring the velocity of wind

A. aneroid barometer
B. anemometer
C. anemoscope
D. anemograph
heat normally flowing from a high temperature
body to a low temperature body wherein it is
impossible to convert heat without other effect

A. first law of thermodynamics

B. second law of thermodynamics
C. third law of thermodynamics
D. zeroth law of thermodynamics
the temperature at which its vapor pressure
is equal to the pressure exerted on the liquid

A. absolute humidity
B. calorimetry
C. boiling point
D. thermal point
a nozzle is used to

A. increase velocity and decrease pressure

B. decrease velocity as well as pressure
C. increase velocity as well as pressure
D. decrease velocity and increase pressure
the sum of the energies of all molecules in a
system where energies appear in several
complex form

A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. internal energy
D. frictional energy
the total energy in a compressible or
incompressible fluid across any section in a
pipeline is a function of

A. pressure and velocity

B. pressure, density, and velocity
C. pressure , density ,velocity and viscosity
D. flow energy , kinetic energy , height above
datum and internal energy
the ratio of the density of a substance to the
density of some standard substance

A. relative density
B. specific gravity
C. specific density
D. relative gravity
is one whose pressure is higher than
saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature

A. compressed liquid
B. saturated liquid
C. saturated vapor
D. super heated vapor
the changing of solid directly to vapor
without passing through the liquid state is
called

A. evaporation
B. vaporization
C. sublimation
D. condensation
weight per unit volume is termed as

A. specific gravity
B. density
C. weight density
D. specific volume
what is the SI unit of force

A. pound
B. newton
C. kilogram
D. dyne
the volume of fluid passing a cross-section of
steam in unit time

A. steady flow
B. uniform flow
C. discharge
D. continous flow
what equation applies in the first law of
thermodynamics for an ideal gas in a
reversible open steady-state system?

A. Q - W = U2 - U1
B. Q + vdp = h2 - h1
C. Q – Vdp = u2 - u1
D. Q - pdv = h2 - h1
a pressure of 1 millibar is
equivalent to

A. 1000 dynes/cm2
B. 1000 cm of hg
C. 1000 psi
D. 1000 kg/cm2
when a system deviates infinitesimally from
equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing :

A. isobaric process
B. quasi-static process
C. isometric process
D. cyclic process
what is the force which tends to draw a
body toward the center about which it is
rotating ?

A. centrifugal force
B. centrifugal in motion
C. centrifugal advance
D. centripetal force
what is the process that has no heat transfer?

A. reversible isometric
B. isothermal
C. polytropic
D. adiabatic
which of the engine is used for fighter
bomber?

A. turbojet
B. pulsejet
C. rockets
D. ramjet
exhaust gases from an engine posses:

A. solar energy
B. kinetic energy
C. chemical energy
D. stored energy
at critical point the latent enthalpy of
vaporization is

A. a temperature dependent
B. zero
C. minimum
D. maximum
what is the force which tends to draw a
body toward the center about which It is
rotating?

A. centrifugal force
B. centrifugal in motion
C. centrifugal advance
D. centripetal force
when a system deviates infinitesimally from
equilibrium at every instant of its state, it is
undergoing

A. isobaric process
B. quasi-static process
C. isometric process
D. cyclic process
a pressure of 1 millibar is
equivalent to

A. 1000 dynes/cm2
B. 1000 cm of hg
C. 1000 psi
D. 1000 kg/cm2
work done per unit charge when charged is
moved from one point to another

A. equipotential surface
B. potential at a point
C. electrostatic point
D. potential difference
how many independent properties are
required to completely fix the equilibrium
state of a pure gaseous compound

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
which of the following relations defines
enthalpy?

A. h = u + p/t
B. h = u + PV
C. h = u+P/V
D. h = pV + T
which of the following is true for water at
a reference temperature where enthalpy
is zero?

A. internal energy is negative

B. entropy is non-zero
C. specific volume is zero
D. vapor pressure is zero
on what plane is the Mollier diagram
plotted

A. p-V
B. p-T
C. h-s
D. h-u
the compressibility factor z, is used for
predicting the behavior of non-ideal gases.
how is the compressibility factor defined
relative to an ideal gas? (subscript c refers to
critical value)

A. Z = P/Pc
B. Z = PV/RT
C. Z = T/Tc
D. Z = (T/Tc)(Pc/P)
how is the quality x of a liquid- vapor mixture
defined?

A. the fraction of the total volume that is

saturated vapor
B. the fraction of the total volume that is
saturated liquid
C. the fraction of the total mass that is
saturated vapor
D. the fraction of the total mass that is
saturated liquid
what Is the expression for heat of vaporization?

A. hg
B. hf
C. hg - hf
D. hf - hg
what is the value of the work done for a
closed, reversible, isometric system?

A. zero
B. positive
C. negative
D. indeterminate
what is the equation for the work done by a
constant temperature system?

A. W = mRT ln(V2-V1)
B. W = mR(T2-T1) ln(V2/V1)
C. W = MRT ln(V2/V1)
D. W = RT ln (V2/V1)
what is the true about the polytropic
exponent n for a perfect gas undergoing
an isobaric process?

A. n >0
B. n<0
C. n=∞
D. n=0
how does an adiabatic process compare to an
isentropic process?

A. adiabatic : heat transfer = 0, isenstropic: heat

transfer = 0
B. adiabatic : heat transfer = 0 , Isentropic: heat
transfer = 0
C. adiabatic: Reversible , Isentropic : not
reversible
D. both Heat transfer = 0 ; Isenstropic : Reversible
during an adiabatic, internally reversible
process , what is true about the change in
entropy?

A. it is always zero
B. it is always less than zero
C. it is always greater than zero
D. it is temperature-dependent
for an irreversible process, what is true
about the change in entropy of the system
and surroundings

A. ds = dq/dt
B. ds = 0
C. ds > 0
D. ds < 0
for which type of process does the
equation dq = Tds hold

A. irreversible
B. reversible
C. isobaric
D. isothermal
which of the following is true for any process

A. S(surrounding) + S (system) > 0

B. S(surrounding) +s (system) < 0
C. S(surrounding) +S (system) < = 0
D. S(surrounding) + S(system) > = 0
which of the following thermodynamics
cycles is the most efficient?

A. brayton
B. rankine
C. carnot
D. otto
the ideal reversible carnot cycle involves four
basic processes. what type of processes are
they?

A. all isothermal
B. all adiabatic
C. all isentropic
D. two isothermal and two isentropic
what is the temperature difference of the cycle
if the entropy difference Is S, and the work
done is W?

A. W-S
B. W/S
C. S/W
D. S-W
which of the following is not an advantage of a
superheated, closed rankine cycle over an
open rankine cycle?

A. lower equipment cost

B. increased efficiency
C. increased turbine life
D. increased bolier life
which of the following statements regarding rankine
cycle is not true?

A. use of condesaable vapor in the cycle increases

the efficiency of the cycle
B. the temperature at which energy is transferred
to and from the working liquid are less separated
than in a carnot cycle
C. superheating increases the efficiency of a rankine
cycle
D. in practical terms, the susceptibility of the engine
materials to corrosion is not a key limitation on the
operating efficiency
which one of the following is standard
temperature and pressure (STP)

A. 0k and 1 atm pressure

B. 0f and zero pressure
C. 32 F and zero pressure
D. 0 C and 1 atm pressure
a substance is oxidized when which of the
following occurs?

A. it turns red
B. it loses electrons
C. it gives off heat
D. if absorb energy
which of the following is not a unit of pressure

A. Pa
B. kg/m-s
C. bars
D. kg/m2
which of the following is the definition of joule

A. newton meter
B. kgm/s2
C. unit of power
D. rate of change of energy
which of the following is the basis for Bernoulli’s
law for fluid flow?

A. the principle of conservation of mass

B. the principle of conservation of energy
C. the continuity equation
D. fourier’s law
equation of state for a single component can be any
of the following except:

A. the ideal gas law

B. any relationship interrelating 3 or more state
functions
C. relationship mathematically interrelating
thermodynamics properties of the material
D. a mathematical expression defining a path
between states
the state of a thermodynamic system is always
defined by its:

A. absolute temperature
B. process
C. properties
D. temperature and pressure
in any non quasi – static thermodynamic
process, the overall entropy of an isolated
system will

A. increase and then decrease

B. decrease and then increase
C. increase only
D. decrease only
entropy is the measure of:

A. the internal energy of a gas

B. the heat capacity of a substance
C. randomness or disorder
D. the change of enthalpy of a system
which of the following statements about entropy
is false

A. entropy of a mixture is greater than that of

its components under the same condition
B. an irreversible process increases entropy of
the universe
C. net entropy change in any closed cycle is
zero
D. entropy of a crystal at 0 F is zero
work or energy can be function of all the
following except

A. force and time

B. power and time
C. force and time
D. temperature and entropy
energy changes are represented by all except
which one of the following

A. mCpdt
B. – ʃVdp
C. Tds – Pdv
D. dQ/T
U + pV is a quantity called :

A. shaft work
B. entropy
C. enthalpy
D. internal energy
in flow process, neglecting KE and PE changes
vdP represent which item below

A. heat transfer
B. shaft work
C. enthalpy change
D. closed system work
power may be expressed in units of

A. ft-lb
B. kw-hr
C. btu
D. btu/hr
Equilibrium condition exist in all except which of
the following?

A. in reversible processes
B. in processes where driving forces are
infinitesimals
C. in a steady state flow process
D. where nothing can occur without an effect on
the system’s surrounding
in a closed system(with a moving boundary)
which of the following represents work done
during an isothermal process?

A. W=0
B. W = P(V2 - V1)
C. W = P1V1 ln (V2/V1)
D. W = (P2V2 - p1V1) / (1 – n)
a substance that exists , or is regarded as
existing, as a continuous characterized by a
low resistance to flow and the tendency to
assume the shape of its container

A. fluid
B. atom
C. molecule
D. vapor
a substance that is homogeneous in composition
and homogeneous and invariable in chemical
aggregation

A. pure substance
B. simple substance
C. vapor
D. water
a substance whose state is define by variable
intensive thermodynamics properties.

A. pure substance
B. simple substance
C. vapor
D. water
a system in which there is no exchange of
matter with the surrounding or mass does not
cross its boundaries

A. open system
B. closed system
C. isolated system
D. nonflow system
a system that is completely impervious to its
surrounding or neither mass nor energy cross
its boundaries

A. Open system
B. Closed system
C. isolated system
D. non flow system
a system in which there is a flow of mass across
its boundaries

A. open system
B. closed system
C. isolated system
D. steady flow system
the properties that are dependant upon the
mass of the system and are total values such
as total volume and total infernal energy

A. intensive properties
B. extensive properties
C. specific properties
D. state properties
the properties that are independent of the
mass the system such as temperature,
pressure, density and voltage

A. intensive properties
B. extensive properties
C. specific properties
D. state properties
the properties for a unit mass and are
intensive by definition such as specific volume

A. intensive properties
B. extensive properties
C. specific properties
D. thermodynamic properties
102. The condition as identified through the
properties of the substance, generally defined by
particular values of any two independent
properties.

A. State B. Point
C. Process D. Flow
103. The only base unit with a prefix kilo is

A. Kilogram B. Kilometer
C. Kilo Joule D. kilopascal
104. The force of gravity on the body ?

A. Weight B. Specific volume

C. Specific weight D. Specific gravity
105. The total mass per unit volume of any
substance

A. Density B. Specific Volume

C. Specific weight D. Specific gravity
106. The force of gravity on unit in volume is

A. Density B. Specific volume

C. Specific weight D. Specific gravity
107. The reciprocal of density is ?

A. Specific volume B. Specific weight

C. Specific gravity D. Specific heat
108. Avogadro’s number a fundamental constant of
nature, is the number if molecules in a gram-mole.
This constant is

A. 6.05222 x 1023 B. 6.02252 x 1023

C. 6.20522 x 1023 D. 6.50222 x 1023
109. The ratio of the gas constant to Avogadro’s
number is:

A. Maxwell’s constant B. Boltzmann’z constant

C. Napier constant D. Joule’s constant
110. The absolute zero on the Fahrenheit scale is at

A. -459.7 degree F B. 459.7 degree F

C. -273.15 degree C D. 273.15 decree C
111. Absolute temperature on the Fahrenheit scale
are called:

A. Degrees Rankine B. Degrees Kelvin

C. Absolute Fahrenheit D. Absolute Celsius
112. The absolute zero on the Celsius scale is at

A. -459.7 degree F B. 459.7 degree F

C. -273.15 degree C D. 273.15 degree C
113. What is the absolute temperature in Celsius
scale?

A. Degree Rankine C. Absolute Fahrenheit

B. Degrees Kelvin D. Absolute Celsius
114. The Fahrenheit scale was introduced by
Gabriel Fahrenheit of Amsterdam, Holland in what
year?

A. 1592 C. 1730
B. 1742 D. 1720
115. The centigrade scale was introduced by
Anders Celsius in what year?

A. 1542 C. 1730
B. 1740 D. 1720
116. The Bureau of Standard uses, among others,
the liquid – vapor equilibrium of hydrogen at.

A. -196°C C. 253°C
B. 196°C D. -253°C
117. The Bureau of Standard uses, among others,
liquid – vapor equilibrium of Nitrogen at.

A. -196°C C. 253°C
B. 196°C D. -253°C
118. The liquid – vapor equilibrium of Oxygen is at
what temperature?

A. 197.82°C C. 182.97°C
B. 197.82°C D. -182.97°C
119. the solid – liquid equilibrium of Mercury is at
what temperature?

A. 38.87°C C. 37.88°C
B. -38.87°C D. -37.88
120. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tim is at what
temperature?

A. - 38.87°C C. 231.9°C
B. 38.87°C D. 231.9°C
121. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Zinc is at what
temperature?

A. 231.9°C C. 444.60°C
B. 419.505°C D. 630.9°C
122. The liquid – vapour equilibrium temperature of
Sulfur is at what temperature?

A. 231.9°C C. 444.6°C
B. 419.505°C D. 630.5°C
123. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Antimony is at
what temperature?

A. 630.5°C C. 444.60°C
B. 419.505°C D. 231.9°C
124. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Silver is at what
temperature?

A. 630.5°C C. 1063°C
B. 960.8°C D. 1774°C
125. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Gold is at what
temperature?

A. 630.5°C C. 1063°C
B. 960.8°C D. 1774°C
126. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Tungsten is at
what temperature?

A. 630.5°C C. 1063°C
B. 960.8°C D. 1774°C
127. The solid – liquid equilibrium of Platinum is at what
temperature?

A. 3730°C C. 3073°C
B. 3370°C D. 3037°C
128. The device that measures the temperature by the
electromotive force.

A. thermometer C. electro-thermometer
B. thermocouple D. thermoseebeck
129. The emf is a function of the temperature difference
between a junctions, a phenomenon called:

A. seebeck effect C. primming

B. stagnation Effect D. electro motive force
130. The device that measure temperature by the
electromotive force called thermocouple was
discovered by:

A. Galileo C. Celcius
B. Fahrenheit D. Seebeck
131. When two bodies, isolated from other
environment, are in equilibrium with a third body, the
two are in thermal equilibrium with each other.

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law of thermodynamics
D. third law of thermodynamics
132. The total entropy of a pure substance approaches
zero as the absolute thermodynamics temperature
approaches zero.

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. first law of thermodynamics
C. second law of thermodynamics
D. third law of thermodynamics
133. If any one or more properties of a system change,
the system is said to have undergone a ________.

A. cycle C. flow
B. process D. control
134. when a certain mass of fluid in particular state
passes through a series of process and returns to its
initial state, it undergoes a:

A. revolution C. process
B. rotation D. cycle
135. The term given to the collection of matter under
consideration enclosed within a boundary.

A. system C. environment
B. matter D. atoms
136. The region outside the boundary or the space and
matter external to a system:

A. Ex- system C. Matter

B. surrounding D. Extension
137. The pressure measured above a perfect
vacuum.

A. absolute pressure C. atmospheric pressure

B. gage pressure D. vacuum pressure
138. The pressure measured from the level of
atmospheric pressure by most pressure recording
instrument like pressure gage and open – ended
manometer.

A. gage pressure C. barometric pressure

B. atmospheric pressure D. vacuum pressure
139. The pressure obtained from barometric reading.

A. absolute pressure C. atmospheric pressure

B. gage pressure D. vacuum pressure
140. It is a form of energy associated with the
kinetic random motion of large number of
molecules.

A. internal energy C. Heat

B. kinetic energy D. Enthalpy
141. The heat needed to change to change the
temperature of the body without changing its phase.

A. latent heat C. specific heat

B. sensible heat D. heat transfer
142. The heat needed by the body to change its phase
without changing its temperature.

A. latent heat C. specific heat

B. sensible heat D. heat transfer
143. The measure of the randomness of the molecules of
a substance.

A. enthalpy C. entropy
B. internal energy D. heat
144. The heat energy transferred to a substance at a
constant pressure process is ______.

A. enthalpy C. internal energy

B. heat D. entropy
145. it is the energy stored within the body.

A. enthalpy C. internal energy

B. heat D. entropy
146. A theoretical gas which strictly follows boyle’s
law and Charles law of gasses.

A. universal gas C. combined gas

B. perfect gas D. imperfect gas
147. In a confined gas, if the absolute temperature is
held constant, the volume is inversely proportional to
the absolute pressure.

A. Boyle’s law C. Dalton’s law

B. Charles law D. Avogadro’s law
 148. In a confined gas if the absolute pressure is held
constant the volume is directly proportional to the
absolute pressure.

A. Boyle’s law C. Dalton’s law

B. Charles law D. Avogadro’s law
149. The pressure exerted in a vessel by a mixture of
gasses is equal to the sum of the pressure that each
separate gas would exert if it alone occupies the whole
volume of the vessel.

A. Boyle’s law C. Dalton’s law

B. Charles law D. Avogadro’s law
150. at equal volume, at the same temperature and
pressure conditions. The gas contains the same
number of molecules,

A. Boyle’s law C. Dalton’s law

B. Charles law D. Avogadro’s law
 151. A process in which the system departs from
equilibrium state only infinitesimally at every instant.

A. reversible process C. cyclic process

B. irreversible process D. quasi-static process
152. A process which gives the same
states/conditions after the system undergoes a
series of process:

A. reversible process C. cyclic process

B. irreversible process D. quasi-static process
153. A thermodynamic system that generally
serves as a heat source or sink for another system.

A. combustion chamber C. heat engine

B. heat reservoir D. stirling engine
154. A thermodynamic system that operates
continuously with only energy (heat and work)
crossing its boundaries; its boundaries are
impervious to the flow of mass.

A. Heat engine C. Stirling engine

B. Steady flow work D. Ericson engine
155. A surface that is impervious to heat is

A. Isothermal surface C. Isochoric surface

B. Adiabatic surface D. Isobaric surface
156. one of the consequences of Einstein’s theory
relatively is that mass may be converted into
energy and energy into mass, the relation being
given by the famous equation, E = mc². What is the
value of the speed of light c?

A. 2.7797 x 1010 cm/s

A. 2.9979 x 1010 cm/s
A. 2.7797 x 1010 cm/s
A. 2.9979 x 1010 cm/s
157. In the polytropic process we have pvn =
constant, if the value of n is infinitely large, the
process is called

A. Constant volume process

B. Constant pressure process
C. Constant temperature process
D. Adiabatic process
158. The themodynamic cycle used in a thermal power
plant is

A. Ericson C. Joule
B. Bryton D. Rankine
159. for the same heat input and same compression ratio:

A. Both otto cycle and diesel cycle are equally efficient

B. Otto cycle is less efficient than diesel cycle
C. Efficiency depends mainly on the working substance
D. None of the above is correct
160. heat exchange process where in the product of
pressure and volume remains constant called:

A. Heat exchange process C. Throttling process

B. Isentropic process D. Hyperbolic process
161. Which of the following provides the basis for
measuring thermodynamic property of temperature?

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
162. 1 watt...

A. 1Nm/s C. 1 Nm/hr
B. 1Nm/min D. 1kNm/hr
163. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric,
isochoric, and adiabatic process are;

A. Dynamic process
B. Stable process
C. Quasi – static process
D. Static process
164. Isentropic flow is

A. Perfect gas flow

B. Irreversible adiabatic flow
C. Ideal fluid flow
D. Reversible adiabatic flow
165. exhaust gases from an engine possess

A. Solar energy C. Chemical energy

B. Kinetic energy D. Stored energy
166. The extension and compression of helical spring is
an example of what process?

A. Isothermal process
B. Thermodynamic process
C. Adiabatic process
D. Reversible process
167. At critical point the latent enthalpy of vaporization
is _______.

A. Dependent on temperature C. Minimum

B. Zero D. Maximum
168. Which of the following relations is not applicable in
the free expansion process?

A. Heat supplied is zero

B. Heat rejected is zero
C. Work done is zero
D. Change in temperature is zero
169. The triple point of a substance is the temperature
and pressure at which:

A. The solid and liquid phases are in equilibrium

B. The liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium
C. The solid, liquid, and the gaseous phases are in
equilibrium
D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil, and
the gas does not condense
170. according to Clausius statement

A. Heat flow from hot surface to cold surface unaided

B. Heat cannot flow from cold substance to hot substance
C. Heat can flow from cold substance to substance with
the aid of external work
D. A and C
171. A heat engine is supplied heat at rate of 30,000J/s
gives an output of 9kW. The thermal efficiency of the
engine is:

A. 30% B. 43%
C. 50% D. 55%
172. The RMS velocity of hydrogen gas at NTP is
approximately:

A. 3838 m/s B. 1839 m/s

C. 4839 m/s D. 839 m/s
173. Which of the following cycles has two
isothermal and two constant volume processes?

A. Joule cycle B. Diesel cycle

C. Ericsson cycle D. Stirling cycle
174. “It is impossible to construct a heat engine that
operates in a cycle and receives a given quantity of heat
from a high temperature body and does an equal
amount of work”. The above statement is known as:

A. Gay Lussac’s law B. Kinetic theory

C. Kelvin-Planck’s law D. Joule-Thompson’s law
175. For steam nozzle, which of the following ratios
will have the value less than unity?

A. Pressure at inlet/pressure at outlet

B. Specific volume at inlet/specific volume at outlet
C. Temperature of steam at inlet/temperature of
steam at outlet
D. None of the above
176. A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed:

A. Stirling cycle B. Brayton cycle

C. Joule cycle D. Carnot cycle
177. Ericsson cycle consists of the following processes:

A. Two isothermal & two constant volume processes

B. Two isothermal and two constant isentropic
C. Two isothermal and two constant pressure
D. Two adiabatic and two constant pressures
178. A steam nozzle changes:

A. Kinetic energy into heat energy

B. Heat energy into potential energy
C. Potential energy into heat energy
D. Heat energy into kinetic energy
179. Which is not correct for calculating air standard
efficiency?

A. All processes are reversible

B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all temperatures
C. No account of the mechanism of heat transfer is
considered
D. Gases dissociate at higher temperatures
180. According to Pettlier Thompson effect:

A. It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a

cycle and receives a give quantity of heat from a high
temperature body and does an equal amount of work
B. It is impossible to construct a device that operates in a cycle
and produces no effect other than the transfer of heat form a
cooler body to a hotter body.
C. When two dissimilar metals are heated at one end and cooled
at other, emf that is developed is proportional to difference of
temperatures at two ends
D. Work can’t be converted into heat
181. In actual gases the molecular collisions are:

A. Plastic B. Elastic
C. Inelastic D. Inplastic
 182. The Beattie-Bridgeman equation of state is
quite accurate in cases of:

A. All pressures above atmospheric pressure

B. Densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density
C. Near critical temperature
D. None of the above
183. Which of the following statement about Van der
Waals equation is correct?

A. It is valid for all pressures and temperatures

B. It represents a straight line on PV versus V plot
C. It has three roots of identical value at the critical point
D. The equation is valid for diatomic gases only.
184. The Clapeyron’s equation is applicable to:

A. 1 system in equilibrium
B. A change of state
C. A change of state when two phases are in equilibrium
D. A change of state when water and water vapor
are involved
185. The vapor pressure is related to the enthalpy
of vaporization by the:

A. Clausius-Clayperon equation
B. Dalton’s law
C. Rauolt’s law
D. Maxwell’s equation
186. Solubility of a gas in a liquid at small
concentration can be represented by which law?

A. Henry’s law
B. Clausius-Clapeyron’s equation
C. Dalton’s law
D. Raoult’s law
187. A compound pressure gauge is used to
measure:

A. Complex pressures
B. Variable pressures
C. Average pressures
D. Positive and negative pressures
188. Which of the following is used for fighter jets?

A. Turbopop B. Turbojet
C. Ramjet D. Pulsejet
189. The thermal efficiency of gas vapor cycle as
compared to the steam turbine or gas turbine:

A. Greater than B. Less than

C. Not comparable D. Equal
190. The process in which heat energy is transferred to
thermal energy storage device is known as:

A. Adiabatic B. Regeneration
C. Intercooling D. Heat transfer
191. The absolute zero in Celsius scale is:

A. 100 B. 0
C. -273 D. 273
192. What is the temperature when water and water
vapor are in equilibrium with the atmospheric
pressure?

A. Ice point B. Steam point

C. Critical point D. Freezing point
193. The temperature of a pure substance at a
temperature of absolute zero is:

A. Unity B. Zero
C. Infinity D. 100
194. When the number of reheat stages in a reheat
cycle is increased, the average temperature:

A. Increases B. Decreases
C. Is constant D. Is zero
195. The temperature measurement in an ordinary
thermometer which has constant specific humidity:

A. Critical temperature
B. Dew point temperature
C. Dry bulb temperature
D. Wet bulb temperature
196. In a closed vessel, when vaporization takes place,
the temperature rises. Due to the rising temperature,
the pressure increases until an equilibrium is
established between the temperature and pressure. The
temperature of equilibrium is called:

A. Dew point
B. Ice point
C. Superheated temperature
D. Boiling point
197. When hot soup was served in a cup during
dinner an engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it
was hot he added cubes of ice to cool the soup and
stirred it. He noticed that dew starts to form on the
outermost surface of the cup. What is this
temperature equal to?

A. Superheated temperature
B. Equal to zero
C. Standard temperature
D. Equal to air’s dew point temperature
 198. Is a measure of the energy that is no longer
available to perform useful work within the current
environment?

A. Absolute entropy B. Absolute enthalpy

C. Fugacity D. Molar value
199. A graph of enthalpy versus entropy for steam:

A. Mollier diagram B. Moody diagram

C. Steam table D. Maxwell diagram
 200. The reaction of inertia in an accelerated body is
called:

A. Kinetic reaction B. Endothermic reaction

C. Kinematic reaction D. Dynamic reaction
201. A mollier chart of thermodynamic properties is
shown in which of the following diagrams?

A. T-S diagram B. P-V diagram

C. h-S diagram D. p-h diagram
202. The following are not included in the first law
of thermodynamics for closed system EXCEPT:

A. heat transferred in and out of the system

B. work done by or on the system
C. internal energy
D. kinetic energy
203. All processes below are irreversible except one.
Which one?

A. Magnetization with hysteresis

B. Elastic tension and release of a steel bar
C. Inelastic deformation
D. Heat conduction
204. The combination of conditions that best describes a
thermodynamic process is given by which of the following?

I. Has successive states through which the system passes

II. When reversed leaves no change in the system
III. When reversed leaves no change in the system or the
surroundings
IV. States are passes through so quickly that the surroundings do
not change

A. I & II B. I & III

C. I &IV D. I only
 205. The sum of the energies of all the molecules in a
system where energies appear in several complex
forms is the:

A. Kinetic energy B. Potential energy

C. Internal energy D. Frictional energy
206. The Carnot refrigeration cycle includes all of the
following processes except:

A. Isentropic expansion
B. Isothermal heating
C. Isenthalpic expansion
D. Isentropic compression
207. The maximum possible work that can be
obtained a cycle operating between two reservoirs is
found from:

A. Process irreversibility
B. Availability
C. Carnot efficiency
D. Reversible work
208. The following factors are necessary to define a
thermodynamic cycle except:

A. Working substance
B. High and low temperature
C. The time it takes to complete the cycle
D. The means of doing work on the system
209. All of the following terms included in the second
law for open system except:

A. Shaft work B. Flow work

C. Internal energy D. Average energy
210. All of the following terms included in the first
law for open system except

A. Heat transferred in and out of the system

B. Work done by or in the system
C. Magnetic system
D. Internal system
211. The following terms are included in the first law of
thermodynamics for closed system except:

A. Heat transferred in and out of the system

B. Work done by or in the system
C. Internal energy
D. Kinetic energy
212. Which of the following statements about a path
function is not true?

A. On a p-v diagram, it can represent work done

B. On a t-s diagram, it can represent heat transferred
C. It is dependent on the path between states of
thermodynamic equilibrium
D. It represents values for p, v, t and s between states
that are path functions
213. A constant pressure thermodynamic process
obeys:

A. Boyle’s law B. Charles’ law

C. Amagat’s law D. Dalton’s law
214. The first and second laws of thermodynamics are:

A. Continuity equations B. Momentum equations

C. Energy equations D. Equations of state
215. Represents the temperature an ideal gas will attain
when it is brought to rest adiabatically:

A. Absolute zero temperature

B. Stagnation temperature
C. Boiling temperature
D. Critical temperature
216. Gauge pressure and absolute pressure differ from
each other by:

A. The system units

B. Atmospheric pressure
C. The size of the gauge
D. Nothing they mean the same thing
217. Each of the following is correct values of standard
atmospheric pressure except:

A. 1,000 atm B. 14.962 psia

C. 760 torr D. 1013 mmHg
218. All of the following are properties of an ideal gas
except:

A. Density B. Pressure
C. Viscosity D. Temperature
219. Which of the following is not the universal gas
constant?

A. 1545 ft-lb/lbmol-R B. 8.314 J/mol-K

C. 8314 kJ/mol-K D. 8.314 kJ/kmol-K
220. The following are all commonly quoted values of
standard temperatures and pressures except:

A. 32F and 14.696 psia

B. 273.15K and 101.325 kPa
C. 0C and 760mm Hg
D. 0F and 29.92in Hg
221. The variation of pressure in an isobaric process is:

A. Linear with temperature

B. Described by the perfect gas law
C. Inversely proportional to temperature
D. Zero
222. For fluid flow, the enthalpy is the sum of internal
energy and:

A. Entropy B. Work flow

C. Pressure D. Temperature
223. A thermodynamic process whose deviation from
equilibrium is infinitesimal at all times is:

A. Reversible B. Isentropic
C. In quasi-equilibrium D. Isenthalpic
224. Which thermodynamic property best describes
the molecular activity of a substance?

A. Enthalpy B. Entropy
C. Internal energy D. External energy
225. Stagnation enthalpy represents the enthalpy of a
fluid when it is brought to rest:

A. Isometrically B. Adiabatically
C. Isothermally D. Disobarically
226. During stagnation process, the kinetic energy of a
fluid is converted to enthalpy which results in an:

A. Increase in the fluid specific volume

B. Increase in the fluid pressure
C. Increase in the fluid temperature and pressure
D. Increase in the fluid temperature
 227. The properties of fluid at stagnation in state are
called:

A. Stagnation property B. Stagnation phase

C. Stagnation state D. Stagnation vapor
228. All of the following are thermodynamic
properties except_____________.

A. temperature B. pressure
C. density D. modulus of elasticity
229. A liquid boils when its vapor pressure equals.

A. the gage pressure

B. the critical pressure
C. the ambient pressure
D. one standard atmosphere
230. A system composed of ice and water at 0°C is said
to be _______________.

A. a multiphase material
B. in thermodynamic equilibrium
C. in thermal equilibrium
D. all of the above
231. The heat of fusion of a pure substance is:

A. the change in phase from solid to gas

B. the change in phase from liquid to gas
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction
D. the energy required to melt the substance
232. The heat of vaporization involves the change in
enthalpy due to:

A. the change in phase is from solid to gas

B. the change in phase in phase from liquid to gas
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction
D. the change in phase from solid to liquid
233. The sublimation involves the change in enthalpy
due to:

A. the change in phase from solid to gas

B. The change in phase from liquid to gas
C. the energy released in a chemical reaction
D. the change in phase from solid to liquid
234. a specific property

A. defines a specific variable (e.g., temperature)

B.is independent of mass
C.is an extensive property multiplied by mass
D.is dependent of the phase of the substance
235. A material’s specific heat can be defined as;

A. the ratio of heat required to change the temperature

of mass by a change in temperature.
B. being different for constant pressure and constant
temperature processes.
C. a function of temperature.
D. all of the above
236. if a substance temperature is less than its
saturation temperature , the substance is:

A. subcooled liquid B. wet vapor

C. saturated vapor D. superheated vapor
237. If a substance temperature is equal to its
saturation temperature, the substance is a ________.

A. subcooled liquid
B. wet vapor
C. saturated liquid and vapor
D. superheated vapor
238. if a substance temperature is greater than the
saturation temperature, the substance is a ________.

A. subcooled liquid
B. wet vapor
C. saturated vapor
D. superheated vapor
239. Critical properties refer to

A. extremely important properties, such as

temperature and pressure
B. heat required for phase change and important for
energy production
C. property values where liquid and gas phase are
indistinguishable
D. properties having to do with equilibrium
conditions, such as the Gibbs and Helmholtz
240. for a saturated vapor, the relationship between
temperature and pressure is given by:

A. the perfect gas law

B. Van der Waal’s equation
C. the steam stable
D. a Viral equation of state
241. Properties of a superheated vapor are given by:

A. the perfect gas law

B. a superheated table
C. a one to one relationship, such as the properties of
saturated steam
D. Viral equation state
242. Properties of non-reacting gas mixture are given by:

A. geometric weighting
B. volumetric weighting
C. volumetric weighting for molecular weight and
density, and geometric weighting for all other
properties except entropy.
D. arithmetic average
243. The relationship between the total volume of a
mixture of non-reacting gases and their partial volume
is given by:

A. gravimetric fractions B. Amagat’s law

C. Dalton’s law D. mole fractions
244. The relationship between the total pressure of a
mixture of non-reacting gases and the partial pressures
of constituents is given by:

A. gravimetric fractions B. volumetric fractions

C. Dalton’s law D. mole fractions
245. Which of the following is the best definition of
enthalpy?

A. The ratio of heat added to the temperature

increases in a system
B. The amount of useful energy in a system
C. The amount of energy no longer available to the
system.
D. The heat required to cause a complete conversion
between two phases at a constant temperature
246. Which of the following statements is not true for
real gases?

A. Molecules occupy a volume not negligible in

comparison to the total volume of gas
B. Real gases are subjected to attractive forces
between molecules (e.g. Van der Waal’s forces)
C. The law of corresponding states may be used for
real gases
D. Real gases are found only rarely in nature
247. The stagnation of state is called the isentropic
stagnation state when the stagnation process is:

A. reversible as well dynamic

B. isotropic
C. adiabatic
D. reversible as well as adiabatic
248. The entropy of a fluid remains constant during
what process?

A. polytropic stagnation process

B. unsteady stagnation process
C. combustion process
D. isentropic stagnation process
249. All of the following process are irreversible except.

A. stirring a viscous fluid

B. an isentropic deceleration of a moving perfect fluid.
C. an unrestrained expansion of a gas
D. phase changes
250. All of the following processes are irreversible
except.

A. chemical reactions
B. diffusion
C. Current flow through an electrical resistance.
D. an isentropic compression of a perfect gas.
251. all of the following processes are irreversible
except:

A. magnetization with hysteresis

B. elastic tension and release of a steel bar
C. inelastic deformation
D. heat conduction
252. Which of the following state(s) is/are necessary for
a system to be in thermodynamic equilibrium.

A. Chemical equilibrium
B. Thermal equilibrium
C. Mechanical equilibrium
D. Chemical, mechanical, and thermal equilibrium
253. Adiabatic heat transfer within a vapor cycle refers
to:

A. Heat transfer that is atmospheric bit not reversible

B. The transfer of energy from one stream to another
in a heat exchanger so that the energy of the input
streams equals the of the output streams.
C. the net transfer equal the net work of the cycle
D. the net heat transfer equals the energy change if
no work done.
254. Which of the following gives polytropic under n?

A. log (P2/P1) / log (V1/V2)

B. log (P1/P2) / log (V1/V2)
C. log (V1/V2) / log (P2/P1)
D. log (V1/V2) / log (P1/P2)
255. The work done in an adiabatic process in a system:

A. Is equal to the change in total energy in a closed

system
B. Is equal to the total net heat transfer plus the
entropy change
C. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed
system plus entropy change
D. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed
system plus net heat transfer
256. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which of
the following is wrong?

A. The heat transfer equals the work plus energy

change
B. The heat transfer cannot exceed the work done
C. The net heat transfer equal the net work of the
cycle
D. The net heat transfer equals the energy change if
no work is done
257. Assuming real processes, the net entropy change
in the universe:

A. must be calculated B. equals zero

C. is negative D. is positive
258. Which of the following types of flowmeters is
most accurate?

A. Venturi tube B. Pitot tube

C. Flow nozzle D. Foam type
259. What is referred by control volume?

A. an isolated system B. closed system

C. fixed region in space D. reversible process only
260. What is the most efficient thermodynamics cycle?

A. Carnot B. Diesel
C. Rankine D. Brayton
261. How do you treat a statement that is considered
scientific law?

A. We postulate to be true
B. Accept as a summary of experimental observation
C. We generally observed to be true
D. Believe to be derived from mathematical theorem
262. An instrument commonly used in most research and
engineering laboratories because it is small and fast
among the other thermometers.

A. Mercury thermometer
B. Liquid-in-glass thermometer
C. Gas thermometer
D. Thermocouple
263. In an actual gases, the molecular collisions are

A. plastic B. elastic
C. inelastic D. inplastic
264. Which of the following is used in thermal power
plant?

A. Brayton B. Reversed Carnot

C. Rankine D. Otto
265. The elongation and compression of a helical spring
is an example of

A. irreversible process B. reversible process

C. isothermal process D. adiabatic process
266. Otto cycle consist of

A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes

B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure
processes
C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
267. Brayton cycle has

A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes

B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume and
two adiabatic processes
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume and one
constant pressure processes
268. A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed

A. Stirling cycle B. Joule cycle

C. Carnot cycle D. Otto cycle
269. A steam nozzle changes

A. kinetic energy into heat energy

B. heat energy into potential energy
C. heat energy into kinetic energy
D. potential energy into heat energy
270. The pitot tube is a device used for measurement of

A. pressure B. flow
C. velocity D. discharge
271. The continuity equation is applicable to

A. Viscous, unviscous fluids

B. Compressibility of fluids
C. Conservation of mass
D. Steady, unsteady flow
272. The work done by a force of R Newtons moving in
a distance of L meters is converted entirely into kinetic
energy and expressed by the equation:

A. RL = 2MV2 B. RL = 2MV
C. RL = 1/2 MV2 D. RL = 1/2 MV
273. Gas being heated at constant volume is undergoing
the process of:

A. isentropic B. adiabatic
C. isometric D. isobaric
274. Dew point is defined as

A. The temperature to which the air must be cooled at

constant pressure to produce saturation
B. The point where the pressure and temperature
lines meet
C. The temperature which dew is formed in the air
D. The pressure which dew is formed in the air.
275. What do you call the changing of an atom of
element into an atom of a different element with a
different atomic mass?

A. Atomization B. Atomic transmutation

C. Atomic pile D. Atomic energy
276. What do you call the weight of the column of air
above the earth’s surface?

A. Air pressure B. Aerostatic pressure

C. Wind pressure D. Atmospheric pressure
277. What keeps the moisture from passing through
the system?

A. Dehydrator B. Aerator
C. Trap D. Humidifier
278. What condition exist in an adiabatic throttling
process?

A. Enthalpy is variable
B. Enthalpy is constant
C. Entropy is constant
D. Specific volume is constant
279. The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of
its density to the density of:

A. mercury B. gas
C. air D. water
280. A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:

A. complex pressure
B. variable pressure
C. compound pressure
D. positive and negative pressure
281. Isentropic flow is

A. perfect gas law

B. ideal fluid flow
C. frictionless reversible flow
D. reversible adiabatic flow
282. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric,
isochoric and adiabatic processes are:

A. dynamic processes B. stable processes

C. quasi-static processes D. static processes
283. One watt is:

A. 1Nm/s B. 1Nm/ min.

C. 1Nm/ hr D. 1kNm/s
284. A temperature above which a given gas cannot be
liquefied:

A. Cryogenic temperature
B. Vaporization temperature
C. Absolute temperature
D. Critical temperature
285. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal radiator at
a given temperature

A. Absorptivity B. Emissivity
C. Conductivity D. Reflectivity
286. Which of the following occurs in a reversible
polytropic process?

A. Enthalpy remains constant

B. Internal energy does not change
C. Some heat transfer occurs
D. Entropy remains constant
287. The instrument used to measure atmospheric
pressure is:

A. Rotator B. Manometer
C. Venturi D. Barometer
288. A pneumatic tool is generally powered by

A. Water B. Electricity
C. Steam D. Air
289. which of the following gasses can be use to measure
the lowest temperature?

A. Nitrogen B. Helium
C. Oxygen D. Hydrogen
290. The triple point of a substance is the temperature
and pressure at which:

A. The solid and liquid phase are in equilibrium

B. The solid and gaseous phase are in equilibrium
C. The solid liquid and gaseous phases are in the
equilibrium
D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and
the gas does not condense
291. Which of the following relations is not applicable in
a free expansion process?

A. Heat rejected is zero

B. Work done is zero
C. Change in temperature is zero
D. Heat supplied is zero
292. Ericsson cycle has

A. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes

B. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
C. Two isothermal and two constant entropy process
D. Two adiabatic, one constant volume and constant
pressure process
293. A stirling cycle has

A. Two adiabatic and two constant volume process

B. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes
C. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
294. The temp of the fluid flowing under pressure
through a pipe is usually measured by:

A. A glass thermometer
B. An electric resistance thermometer
C. A thermocouple
D. All of the above
295. Specific heat capacity is an SI delivered unit
describe as

A. J/kg B. W/mK
C. kJ/kgK D. J/m
296. Which of the following is mathematically a
thermodynamic property?

A. A point function B. Discontinuous

C. A path function D. Exact differential
297. When the expansion or compression of gas takes
place “without transfer of heat” to or from the gas, the
process is called:

A. Reversible B. Adiabatic
C. Polytropic D. Isothermal
298. Another name for liquid valve is:

A. Freon valve B. Shut-off valve

C. King valve D. Master valve
299. A liquid whose temperature is lower than
saturation temperature corresponding to the existing
pressure:

A. Subcooled liquid B. Saturated liquid

C. Pure liquid D. Compressed liquid
300. The law that state “Entropy of all perfect crystalline
solid is zero at absolute zero temperature”:

A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics

B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Second law of thermodynamics
D. Third law of thermodynamics
301. What should be the temperature of both water and
steam whenever they present together?

A. Saturation temperature for the existing pressure

B. Boiling point of water at 101.325 kPa
C. Super heated temperature
D. One hundred degrees centigrade
302. A manometer is an instrument that is used to
measure:

A. Air pressure B. Heat radiation

C. Condensate water level D. Air volume
303. What is the area under curve of a temperature
entropy diagram?

A. Volume B. Heat
C. Work D. Entropy
304. What do bodies at a temperature above absolute
zero emit?

A. Energy B. Heat of convection

C. Thermal radiation D. Heat of compression
305. In the absence of any irreversibilities, a
thermoelectric generator, a device that incorporates both
thermal and electric effects, will have the efficiency of
a/an

A. Carnot cycle B. Otto cycle

C. Diesel cycle D. Rankine cycle
306. Both Stirling and Ericson engine are

A. Internal combustion engines

B. External combustion engines
C. Carnot engines
D. Brayton engines
307. Nozzle does not involve any work interaction. The
fluid through this device experiences:

A. No change in potential energy

B. No change in kinetic energy
C. No change in enthalpy
D. Vacuum
308. If the actual kinetic energy of a nozzle is Ka and Ki is
the maximum valve that can be attained by an isentropic
expansion from an initial to final state, then the
efficiency of the nozzle is:

A. Ki/Ka B. (Ka – Ki) / Ka

C. (Ka – Ki) / Ki D. Ka/Ki
309. The convergent section of a nozzle increases the
velocity of the flow of the gas. What does it to do on its
pressure?

A. Pressure become constant

B. Pressure equal the velocity
C. It increases the pressure
D. It decreases the pressure
310. A close vessel, when vaporization takes place, the
temperature rises. Due to the rising temperature, the
pressure increases until an equilibrium established
between the temperature and pressure. The
temperature of equilibrium is called______.

A. Dew point B. Ice point

C. Boiling point D. Super heated temperature
311. At steam point, the temperature of water and its
vapor at standard pressure are:

A. Extremes or maximum B. Unity

C. In equilibrium D. Undefined
312. When hot soup was served in a cup during dinner, an
engineer was so eager to drink it. Since it was hot, he
added cubes ice to cool the soup and stirred it. He notice
the dew starts to form on the outermost surface of the
cup. He wanted to check the temperature of the
outermost surface of the cup. What is this temperature
equal to?

A. Superheated temperature
B. Equal to zero
C. Standard temperature
D. Equal to air’s dew point temperature
313. What do you call the conversion technology that
yields electricity straight from sun light without the aid of
a working substance like gas or steam without the use of
any mechanical cycle?

A. Power conversion
B. Stirling cycle conversion
C. Solar thermal conversion
D. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
314. Which of the following property of liquid
extend resistance to angular or shear deformation:

A. Specific gravity B. Specific weight

C. Viscosity D. Density
315. What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube in
turbine?

A. Below atmospheric B. Above atmospheric

C. Atmospheric D. Vacuum
316. When changes in kinetic energy of a compressed
gas are negligible or insignificant, the work input to an
adiabatic compressor is___________.

A. Negligible B. Zero
C. Infinity D. Equal to change in enthalpy
317. What is the area under the curve of a pressure
volume diagram?

A. Non flow work B. Steady flow work

C. Heat D. Power
 318. In Stirling and Ericson cycle, regeneration can

A. Increase efficiency B. Decrease efficiency

C. Control efficiency D. Limit efficiency
319. The first law of the thermodynamics is based on
which of the following principle?

A. Conservation of mass
B. Enthalpy-entropy relationship
C. Entropy-temperature relationship
D. Conservation of energy
320. In a two-phase system, 30% moisture means

A. 70% liquid and 30% vapor

B. 70% vapor and 30% liquid
C. 30% liquid and 100% vapor
D. 30% vapor and 100% liquid
321. At 101.325 kPa, the boiling point of water is 100C. If
the pressure is decrease, the boiling temperature will:

A. Increase B. Decrease
C. Remain the same D. Drop to zero
322. Which of the following is equivalent to 1 hp in
btu/hr?

A. 778 B. 2545
C. 746 D. 3.41
323. What is the pressure above zero?

A. Gage pressure B. Absolute pressure

C. Vacuum pressure D. Atmospheric pressure
324. One Newton-meter is equal to

A. 1 Joule B. 1 Btu
C. 1 Calorie D. 1 Ergs
325. Which of the following is the instrument used to
measure fluid velocity?

A. Pitot tube B. Orsat apparatus

C. Anemometer D. Viscosimeter
326. Cryogenic temperature ranges from:

A. -150F to -359F B. -250F to -459F

C. -100F to -300F D. -200F to -400F
327. Steam at 2 kPa is saturated at 17.5C. In what state
will the state be at 40c if the pressure is 2 kPa?

A. Superheated B. Saturated
C. Subcooled D. Supersaturated
328. Acceleration is proportional to force.

A. Newton’s law B. Archimedes principle

C. Law of gravitation D. Theory of relativity
329. Which of the following could be defined as simply
push and pull?

A. Power B. Inertia
C. Work D. Force
330. the true pressure measured above a perfect
vacuum is:

A. Absolute pressure B. Atmospheric pressure

C. Gauge pressure D. Vacuum pressure
331. if an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed
to one-half its original volume and to twice its
original temperature, the pressure:

A. Doubles B. Halves
C. Quadruplets D. Triples
332. When the expansion or compression of gas takes
place without transfer of heat to or from the gas, the
process is called:

A. Isometric process B. Isothermal process

C. Isobaric process D. adiabatic process
333. A body radiates heat proportional to the fourth
power of its absolute temperature:

A. Stefan-Boltzmann law B. Planck’s law

C. Kirchhoff’s law D. Maxwell’s law
334. All substances emit radiation, the quantity and
quality of which depends upon the absolute temperature
and the properties of the material, composing the
radiating body.

A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law
335. For bodies in thermal equilibrium with their
environment, the ratio of total emissive power to the
absorptivity is constant at any temperature.

A. Stefan-Boltzmann law
B. Planck’s law
C. Kirchhoff’s law
D. Maxwell’s law
Which is not a viscosity rating?

A. Redwood
B. SSU
C. Centipoises
D. Entropy degrees API
Percent excess air is the difference between
the air actually supplied and the theoretically
required divided by

A. The theoretically air supplied

B. The actually air supplied
C. The deficiency of air supplied
D. The sufficient air supplied
What is the apparatus used in the analysis of
combustible gases?

A. Calorimeter differential
B. Calorimeter gas
C. Calorimetry
D. Calorimeter
Percent excess air is the difference between
the air actually supplied and the theoretical
air divided by

A. The sufficient air supplied

B. The deficiency air supplied
C. The actually air supplied
D. The theoretically air supplied
The viscosity of most commercially available
petroleum lubricating oil changes rapidly
above

A. 120 F
B. 180 F
C. 150 F
D. 130 F
When 1 mol carbon combines with 1 mol oxygen

A. 2 mols carbon dioxide

B. 1 mol carbon dioxide
C. 1 mole carbon and 1 mol carbon dioxide
D. 1 mol carbon dioxide
What are the immediate undersirable
products from the petroleum based
lubricating oil when subjected to high
pressure and temperature?

A. Gums,resins and acids

B. Sulfur
C. Soots and ashes
D. Carbon residue
What kind of bonding do common gases that
exist in free state as diatomic molecules
experiences?

A. Ionic bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Metallic bonds
D. Nuclear bonds
An Orsat’s apparatus is used for

A. Volumetric analysis of the flue gas

B. Gravimetric analysis of the flue gas
C. Smoke density analysis of the flue gas
D. All of the above
A theorem that states that the total property of a
mixture of ideal gases is the sum of the
properties that the individual gases would have if
each occupied the total mixture volume alone as
the same temperature

A. Gibbs theorem
B. Dalton’s theorem
C. Boltzmann’s theorem
D. Maxwell theorem
A small enough particles suspended in a fluid
will exhibit small random movements due to
the statistical collision of fluid molecules on
the particle’s surface. This motion is called

A. Boltzmann motion
B. Rectilinear motion
C. Kinetic gas motion
D. Brownian motion
When two or more light atoms have sufficient
energy( available only at high temperature
velocities) to fuse together to form a heavier
nucleus the process called

A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. The photoelectric effect
D. The Compton effect
What is the residue left after combustion of a
fossil fuel?

A. Charcoal
B. Ash
C. Scraper
D. All of the choices
What is formed during incomplete combustion
of carbon in fuels?

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Carbon monoxide
C. Nitrogen oxide
D. Oxygenated fuel
A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil
and cannot be found in the flue gases is:

A. Oxygen
B. Nitrogen
C. Hydrogen
D. Carbon dioxide
Which of the following chemical reactions in
which heat is absorbed?

A. Heat reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Exothermic reaction
D. Combustion reaction
A chemical reaction in which heat is given off

A. Heat reaction
B. Endothermic reaction
C. Exothermic reaction
D. Combustion reaction
A colorless, odorless mixture of nitrogen and
oxygen with traces of other gases water vapor
and same impurities.

A. Air
B. Helium
C. Water gas
D. Nitrite
The transfer of air and air characteristics by
horizontal motion is called

A. Convection
B. Air transfer
C. Advection
D. Adhesion
Properties of non- reacting gas mixtures are
given by

A. Geometric weighting
B. Volumetric weighting
C. Volumetric weighting for molecular weight
and density, and geometric weighting for all
other properties except entropy
D. Arithmetic average
The process of separating two or more
liquids means of the difference in their
boiling point.

A. Engler distillation
B. Fractional distillation
C. Gas scrubbing
D. Fractional crystallization
The gaseous products of combustion of a
boiler which contains carbon dioxide, carbon
monoxide, oxygen, nitrogen and water vapor
is called

A. Flue gas
B. Producer gas
C. Product gas
D. Universal gas
A substance whose burning with oxygen
yields heat energy such as coal, petroleum
and natural gas.

A. Air
B. Fluid
C. Fuel
D. Gas
Stoichiometric ratio is

A. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume

B. Chemically correct air- fuel ratio by weight
C. Theoretical mixture of air for complete
combustion
D. Actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum
efficiency
A type of radiation consisting of singly charge
particles that generate to intermediate
distances.

A. Nuclear radiation
B. Alpha radiation
C. Beta radiation
D. Gamma radiation
The increase in velocity past the throat is
due to the rapid decrease in the:

A. Fluid density
B. Fluid specific volume
C. Fluid temperature
D. Fluid pressure
In an oxidation – reduction chemical reaction, all of
the following occur except:

A. The exchange of electrons between elements

B. Elements becoming more positive
C. Elements becoming more negative
D. Nuclear fusion
The residual oil left after distillation of
gasoline and kerosene from crude petroleum;
yellow to brown oil, used as a diesel fuel and
for enriching water gas.

A. Diesel oil
B. Gasoline oil
C. LPG
D. Gas oil
A fuel gas obtained by the destructive
distillation of soft coal is called

A. Gas scrub
B. Coal gas
C. Alcogas
D. Water gas
Removing of impurities from a gas by bubbling
it through liquid purifying agent is called

A. Gas scrubbing
B. Gas purifying
C. Gas liquefying
D. Gas bubbling
During the fusion process, mass is lost and
converted to energy according to:

A. The Heisenburg uncertainty principle

B. The Compton’s law
C. Einstein’s law
D. The 2nd law of thermodynamics
A finely divided carbon deposit by the smoke
or flame is called

A. Fly ash
B. Soot
C. Residue
D. All of the choices
Rare gases such as helium, argon, krypton,
xenon and radon that are non-reactive are
called

A. Non-reactants
B. Stop gases
C. Inert gases
D. Residual gases
Kinematics and dynamic viscosity vary from
each other only by a factor equal to the:

A. Fluid density
B. Temperature
C. Pressure
D. Specific gas constant
The following properties are different for isomers of
the same chemical compound except

A. Density
B. Melting point
C. Number of atoms in a mole of each isomers
D. Specific heat
Atomic weights of the elements in the periodic
table are not whole numbers because of:

A. The existence of isotopes

B. Imprecise measurements during the
development of the periodic table
C. Round- off error in calculating atomic weights
D. The exchange of reference of the atomic mass
unit from oxygen- 16 to carbon -12 in 1961
The tendency of a pure compound to be
composed of the same elements combined in
a definite proportion by mass

A. Avogadro’s law
B. Boyle’s law
C. The law of definite proportions
D. Le chatelier’s principle
How do you call of removing of impurities
from a gas by bubbling it through a liquid
purifying agent?

A. Gas scrubbing
B. Gas purifying
C. Gas liquefying
D. Gas bubbling
What is the effect of catalyst in a chemical
reaction?

A. Absorb the exothermic heat of reaction

B. Provide the exothermic heat of reaction
C. Lower the activation energy
D. Provide the heat of sublimation
The relationship between the concentration
of products and reactants in a reversible
chemical reaction given by

A. The ionization constant

B. The equilibrium constant
C. The solubility product
D. Le chatelier’s principle
What fuel gas obtained by the destructive
distillation of soft coal

A. Gas scrub
B. Coal gas
C. Alcogas
D. Water gas
The process of splitting the nucleus into smaller
fragments.

A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. The photo electric effect
D. The Compton effect
The ash that is removed from the
combustor after fuel is burn is the:

A. Fly ash
B. Bottom ash
C. Scraper ash
D. Top ash
A mixture of hydrogen and carbon monoxide
made by passing steam over hot coke.

A. Water gas
B. Water vapor
C. Hydrocarbon
D. Air
All of the following are true of non-stoichiometric
reactions except

A. There is an excess of one or more reactants

B. The percentage yields measures the efficiency of
the reaction
C. Non-stoichiometric reactions are rare in the
combustion process
D. In combustion, air is often the excess reactant to
assure complete combustion of fuel
It is the ratio of the volume at the end of heat
addition to the volume at the start of heat
addition

A. Compression ratio
B. Air-fuel ratio
C. Volumetric ratio
D. Cut-off ratio
Piston rings are made of:

A. Alloy steel
B. Carbon steel
C. Copper
D. Cast iron
Loss power is due to:

A. Poor compression
B. Restricted exhaust
C. Clogging of air cleaner
D. Low injection pressure
A branch system of pipes to carry waste
emissions away from the piston chambers of
an internal combustion engine is called

A. Exhaust nozzle
B. Exhaust deflection pipe
C. Exhaust pipe
D. Exhaust manifold
The type of filter where the filtering
elements is replaceable

A. Paper edge filter

B. Metal edge filter
C. Pressure filter
D. Filer with element
When four events takes place in one
revolution of a crankshaft of an engine, the
engine is called:

A. Rotary engine
B. Steam engine
C. Two stroke engine
D. Four stroke engine
Which of the following does not belong to
the group?

A. Air injection system

B. Mechanical injection system
C. Time injection system
D. Gas admission system
Specific heat capacity is an SI derive unit
describe as:

A. J/Kg
B. W/m K
C. J/m3
D. J/kg K
A device whose primary function is to meter
the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator

A. Sniffer valve
B. Equalizer
C. Thermostatic expansion valve
D. Crossover valve
The internal combustion engines never work in

A. Rankine cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Dual combustion cycle
D. Otto cycle
The general chemical formula for all
hydrocarbons is CnHm. In different
combination of interest, as internal
combustion engine fuel, n varies from:

A. 1 to 26
B. 2 to 54
C. 2 to 26
D. 1 to 54
The general chemical formula for all
hydrocarbons is CnHm. In different
combination of interest, as internal
combustion engine fuel, m varies from:

A. 1 to 26
B. 2 to 54
C. 2 to 26
D. 1 to 54
The general chemical formula of a
paraffin fuel is

A. CnH2n
B. CnH2n-6
C. CnH2n+2
D. CnH2n-2
Naphthenes and olefins are types of
hydrocarbons with chemical formula of:

A. CnH2n
B. CnH2n-6
C. CnH2n+2
D. CnH2n-2
Which of the following types of
hydrocarbons have chemical formula of
CnH2n-2?

A. Diolefins
B. Aromatics
C. Asphaltics
D. Paraffins
Which of the following types of
hydrocarbons have chemical formula of
CnH2n-4?

A. Diolefins
B. Aromatics
C. Asphaltics
D. Paraffins
What is the chemical formula of an
aromatic type of hydrocarbon fuels?

A. CnH2n-6
B. CnH2n-2
C. CnH2n
D. CnH2n+2
At atmospheric condition, hydrocarbon
molecules with a low number of carbon
atoms, 1 to 4 are

A. Liquids
B. Atomic
C. Gases
D. Light oils
Hydrocarbons with 5 to 15 carbon atoms are:

A. More or less volatile light oils

B. Referred to as heavy oils
C. Mixtures of many kinds of hydro carbons
D. Commercial fuels
Hydrocarbons with 16 to 26 carbon atoms
are referred to as :

A. Light oils
B. Heavy oils
C. Commercial fuels
D. Lubricating oils
In a four stroke engine if a valve opens 25
before B.D.C. and close 10 after T.D.C the valve
should be:

A. Puppet valve
B. Exhaust valve
C. Inlet valve
D. Spring valve
In a hot wire anemometer the rate of heat
loss from sensing element is a function of:

A. Mass rate of flow

B. Pressure
C. Velocity of flow
D. All of the above
Sticking valves

A. Valve tappet clearance incorrect

B. Valve springs of defective material
C. Valve guided gummed
D. Lubricating oil of poor quality
Detonation of pinging noise is due to :

A. Early timing of fuel injection

B. Late timing of fuel injection
C. Head of piston carbonized
D. Valve springs weak or broken
The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine
with fixed compression ratio and fixed
quantity of heat and with increase in pressure
ratio, will

A. Increase
B. Remain same
C. Decrease
D. Depends on other factors
Scavenging efficiency of a four stroke diesel
engine is:

A. In the range 80-95 percent

B. In the range 60-80 percent
C. Below 60 percent
D. Between 95% and 100 %
Volumetric efficiency of a well designed
engine may be in the range of:

A. 75 to 90%
B. 60 to 75%
C. 30 to 50%
D. Below 30%
During idling in compression ignition
engine the air fuel ratio may be of the
order of:

A. 30
B. 200
C. 150
D. 100
Vapor lock is

A. Lock of vaporization of fuel to atmospheric

pressure
B. Excess fuel supply to engine because of faster
evaporation
C. Complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply
because of vaporization of fuel in supply steam
D. Locking carburetor jets because of vapor
pressure
Flash point of liquids is the temperature at which:

A. The fuel emits vapors at a rate which

produces and inflammable mixture with air
B. The fuel spontaneously ignites
C. The fuel ignites with clearly visible flash
D. The fuel ignites without a spark
The mean effective pressure of a diesel cycle
having fixed compression ratio will increase
if cut off ratio is:

A. Increased
B. Decreased
C. Independent of compression ratio
D. Depends on other factor
Hot spots

A. Do not exist in engines

B. Are the hotter spots in engines
C. Are the spots where heavier functions of
fuel are vaporized
D. Are the defects in S.I in engines
Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be:

A. Maximum 49 C
B. Maximum 49 C
C. Maximum 200 C
D. Maximum 300 C
Morse test is conducted on :

A. Single – cylinder engines

B. Multi-cylinder engines
C. Horizontal engines
D. Vertical engines
Prony brake is used for testing of:

A. Small engines
B. Large engines
C. Engines having small flywheel
D. High speed engines
Clog point of an oil refer to:

A. the point of maximum contamination of oil

B. the level of impurities beyond which oil ceases
to flow
C. the temperature at which oil solidifies
D. the temperature at which paraffin ad waxes
in oil start precipitating
Otto cycle consists of

A. two isentropic and two constant volumes

processes
B. two isentropic and two constant pressure
processes
C. two adiabatic and two isothermal
processes
D. two isothermal and two constant volume
processes
Diesel cycle consists of:

A. isentropic, isothermal, constant volume,

constant pressure process
B. two constant volume, one constant pressure,
and one isothermal process
C. two isentropic, one constant volume and one
constant pressure processes
D. two constant pressure, one constant volume,
and one isentropic processes
Which is not correct for calculating air standard
efficiency?

A. All processes are reversible

B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all
temperatures
C. No account of the mechanism of heat
transfer is considered
D. Gases dissociate at higher temperature
The king pin inclination is generally:

A. Less than 0.5

B. Between 1 and 2
C. Between 2 and 5
D. More than 9
For balancing single cylinder engine a
counter weight is added to:

A. Piston
B. Piston pin
C. Cam
D. Crank
To measure the clearance between the
valve and tappet of an automobile engine
we use a

A. Vernier scale
B. Feeler gauge
C. Pneumatic gauge
D. Slip gauge
By supercharging:

A. Power stroke becomes stronger

B. Loss in exhaust gets reduced
C. Engine can be made to run smoother
D. Thermal efficiency of the engine can be
improved
Speedometer drive is generally taken
from:

A. Dynamo
B. Flywheel
C. Fan belt
D. Front wheel
Odometer is:

A. An instrument that indicates the condition

of the battery
B. An instrument used for measurement of
fuel consumption
C. An instrument used for BHP
measurement
D. An instrument used for distance
measurement
Automobile radiator is filled with:

A. Acidic water
B. Alkaline water
C. Hard water
D. Soft water
The ignition coil acts as:

A. A capacitor
B. An inductor
C. An RC circuit
D. A step up transformer
The self starting motor for automobiles is a:

A. Universal motor
B. Dc shunt motor
C. Dc series motor
D. Synchronous motor
Starting motor current may be about

A. 0.15 A
B. 0.5 A
C. 5.1 A
D. 25 A
As a rule before the piston are removed,
it is essential to remove the :

A. Gudgeon pin
B. Circlip
C. Piston rings
D. Crankshaft
Common causes for excessive oil
consumption

A. Heavy oil and light bearings

B. High speed and worn engine
C. Short trips and cold weather
D. Frequent oil changes
The device that is used for reducing the
exhaust noise is called

A. Exhaust manifold
B. Exhaust pipe
C. Muffler
D. None of the above
The device that is used to measure the
clearance between the valve and tappet of
an internal combustion engine is
measured by using:

A. Snap gauge
B. Slip gauge
C. Feeler gauge
D. Micrometer
Which of the following instrument is
used in measuring specific gravity?

A. Thermometer
B. Hygrometer
C. Anemometer
D. Hydrometer
Exhaust gas leakage into the cooling system
is most likely occur because of defective:

A. Cylinder head gasket

B. Manifold gasket
C. Water pump
D. Any of the above
Clutch slippage while clutch is engaged is
specially noticeable

A. During idling
B. At low speed
C. During acceleration
D. During braking
To engage, securely and prevent dragging
the clearance between bearing and
release collar in a clutch is generally :

A. 2-3 mm
B. 10-12 mm
C. 20-22mm
D. 30-32 mm
Gudgeon pins are made of :

A. Same materials as that of piston

B. Cast iron
C. Hardened and ground steel
D. None of these
Latex is:

A. A plastic
B. A cover on writes carrying current to spark plugs
C. A variety of lubricant
D. A milky juice of rubber
Cross wire grooves on tires

A. Decrease the danger of skidding

B. Absorb shocks because of road unevenness
C. Provide good traction
D. Provide better load carrying capacity
The diesel fuel pump is designed to supply fuel

A. Just sufficient against the demand of the

injection pump
B. In excess quantity than needed by the
injection pump
C. A constant quantity at all engine speeds
D. Insufficient quantity in accordance with the
engine speed
The fuel is injected into the cylinder in diesel engine
when the piston is:

A. Exactly at B.D.C after compression stroke

B. Exactly at T.D.C before compression stroke
C. Approaching T.D.C during compression stroke
D. Approaching B.D.C during exhaust stroke
In the cam, the distance between the base
circle and the nose is known as

A. Flank
B. Nose
C. Lobe
D. Lift
Dirt or gum in fuel nozzle or jets can
produce:

A. Excessive fuel consumption

B. Lack of engine power
C. Smoky black exhaust
D. White exhaust
Oil pan is attached:

A. To the bottom of the cylinder block

B. In a separate unit away from the crankcase
C. At the top of the cylinder block
D. At the outside wall of the crank case
Excess oil consumption in engine may be because
of:

A. Leakage of oil through oil pan gasket

B. Poor quality or improper viscosity of engine
oil
C. Excessive oil pressure
D. Any of the above
Wheel base of a vehicle is the:

A. Distance between front and rear axles

B. Distance between the front tires
C. Extreme length of the vehicle
D. Width of tires
The percentage of heat released from fuel-
air mixture, in an internal combustion
engine which is converted into useful work
is roughly:

A. 10 %
B. 10 -20 %
C. 20 -25 %
D. 40 -45 %
The efficiency of hydraulic braking system is:

A. About 90%
B. 60-80 %
C. 50-60 %
D. 40-50 %
The instrument that is used to check
the state of charge of a battery is called

A. Hydrometer
B. Battery charger
C. Battery eliminator
D. Anemometer
When not in use, the self discharge of an
automobile battery in dry weather is
generally:

A. 0.5 to 1 %
B. 3 to 5 %
C. 5 to 7.5 %
D. Not more than 10 %
A laminated glass on cracking :

A. Bursts into sharp edged fragments

B. Bursts into granular pieces
C. Sandwitched layer taps the fragments
D. Breaks into the farm of crystals
Wax is applied on card body as:

A. It is water repellent
B. It seals off the pores
C. The surface shines
D. Any of the above
A spark voltage requires a voltage of:

A. 112 V
B. 124 V
C. 220 V
D. 440 V
The minimum cranking speed in petrol engine is:

A. Same as the normal operating speed

B. Half of operating speed
C. One fourth of operating speed
D. 60-80 rpm
Which oil is more viscous?

A. SAE 30
B. SAE 50
C. SAE 80
D. SAE 40
Engine oil is generally changed after:

A. 100 km
B. 1500 km
C. 1100 km
D. 2500 -6000 km
The most probable cause for uneven wear of
tires for a truck is:

A. Low tire pressure

B. Excessive camber
C. Tires over loaded
D. Any of the above
In a vehicle the most probable cause for hard
steering may be:

A. Low tire pressure

B. Bent wheel spindle
C. Tie rod ends tight
D. Any of the above
Poor compression in a two stroke engine cannot be
because of:

A. Leaky valves
B. Broken piston rings
C. Leaking cylinder head gasket
D. Poor fits between pistons, rings and cylinder
The number of exhaust manifolds in a V -8
engine is :

A. One
B. Four
C. There is no exhaust manifold
D. Two
The device for smoothing out the power
impulses from the engine Is known as :

A. Clutch
B. Fly wheel
C. Gear box
D. Differential
The firing order in case of four cylinder in
engines is generally

A. 1-2–4–3
B. 1–3–4–2
C. 1 – 4 – 3 -2
D. Either B or C
In case of four cylinder opposed cylinder
engines, the firing order is :

A. 1- 4 – 3 -2
B. 1–3–4–2
C. 1 – 2 -3 -4
D. 1–2–4–3
In a four stroke engine, for the combustion of
one liter of fuel, the volume of air needed
would approximately

A. 1 cu.m
B. 2 cu.m
C. 5-7 cu.m
D. 9 – 10 cu.m
Theoretically air needed for the combustion
of one kg of fuel is:

A. 100 kg
B. 14.5 kg
C. 16.7 kg
D. 27.4 kg
Which of the following is the cause of
loss power?

A. Poor compression
B. Restricted exhaust
C. Clogging of air cleaner
D. Low injection pressure
A valve in the carburetor of an internal
combustion engines which regulates the
proportion of air gasoline vapors entering
the cylinder .

A. Gate valve
B. Choke valve
C. Check valve
D. Globe valve
What device combines air and fuel for
burning in cylinder?

A. Intercooler
B. Regenerator
C. Fuel injection
D. Carburetor
A passive restraint device consisting of bags
in front of the driver and passenger

A. Air buoy
B. Air bag
C. Air balloon
D. Air duct
The heat exchanger used in an Ericsson cycle
is :

A. Regenerator
B. Combustion chamber
C. Intercooler
D. Recuperator
In Stirling engine, the heat is added during

A. Isothermal process
B. Isometric process
C. Isobaric process
D. Isentropic process
In an Otto engine, the heat is added during

A. Isothermal process
B. Isometric process
C. Isobaric process
D. Isentropic process
Exhaust stroke of gasoline engine is also
known as

A. Supercharging
B. Choking
C. Scavenging
D. Knocking
The mechanical efficiency of a device is the ratio
of the

A. Mechanical energy input to the mechanical

energy output of the device
B. Ideal energy input to the actual energy input
C. Actual energy extracted to the ideal energy
extracted
D. Actual to the ideal energy input
The smallest subdivision of an element that
can take place in a chemical reaction is a/an

A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Electron
D. Proton
The smallest subdivision of a compound than
can exist in a natural state is a/ an

A. Atom
B. Molecule
C. Electron
D. Proton
Elements with different atomic weight but
the same atomic number are:

A. Isomers
B. Isotropes
C. Isotopes
D. Isobars
All of the following are characteristics of
metals except:

A. High electrical conductivities

B. Tendency to form positive ions
C. Tendency to form brittle solids
D. High melting points
The following are all characteristics of non
metals except:

A. Having little or no luster

B. Appearing on the right end of the periodic
table
C. Having low ductility
D. Being reducing agents
Graduations in the properties of elements
from one elements to the next less
pronounced in :

A. The lanthanide series

B. Periods
C. Groups
D. Active metals
All of the following are components of a
chemical elements except:

A. Protons
B. Neutrons
C. Electrons
D. Ions
Which of the following is not a prefix used
in naming isomers?

A. Para
B. Meta
C. Cis
D. Bi
All of the following are types of chemical
bonds except:

A. Ionic bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Metallic bonds
D. Nuclear bonds
The equilibrium distance between elements
in an ionic bond is function of all the
following except:

A. Ionic charge
B. Coordination number
C. Atomic weight
D. Temperature
Which of the following statements is no
characteristic of ionic compounds?

A. They are usually hard, brittle, crystalline solids

B. They have high melting points
C. They are nonvolatile and have low vapor
pressures
D. They are good electrical conductors in the solid
phase
What kind of bonding do common gases
that exist in a free state as diatomic
molecules experience?

A. Ionic bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Metallic bonds
D. Nuclear bonds
Measure the diffuser’s ability to increase
the pressure of the fluid is:

A. Speed recovery factor

B. Pressure recovery factor
C. Volume recovery factor
D. Diffuser recovery factor
A decrease in stagnation pressure will
decrease the mass flux through the :

A. Diverging nozzle
B. Converging nozzle
C. Converging – diverging nozzle
D. None of these
What is the main power generating plant that
produces the most electricity per unit thermal
energy in the fuel input and has the greatest
surplus of electricity for most cogeneration
system?

A. Steam engine
B. Steam turbine
C. Gas turbine
D. Diesel turbine
Air standard efficiency of a diesel engine
depends on:

A. Speed
B. Compression ratio
C. Fuel
D. Torque
What is meant by brake horsepower?

A. Power developed in the engine cylinder

B. Final horse power delivered to the
equipment
C. Actual horsepower delivered to the engine
drive shaft
D. Work required to raise a weight of 33,000 lbs
at a height of one foot in one minute of time
Average pressure on a surface when
a changing pressure condition exist

A. Back pressure
B. Partial pressure
C. Pressure drop
D. Mean effective pressure
What air pressure is needed of air
starting a diesel engine?

A. 350 psi
B. 250 psi
C. 450 psi
D. 150 psi
Mechanical energy of pressure transformed
into energy of heat:

A. Kinetic energy
B. Enthalpy
C. Heat exchanger
D. Heat of compression
Ignition of the air – fuel mixture in the
intake of the exhaust manifold.

A. Backlash
B. Backfire
C. Exhaust pressure
D. Back pressure
The total sulfur content in a diesel fuel
must not exceed

A. 0.3 %
B. 0.5 %
C. 0.8 %
D. 0.11 %
Total sulfur content in a diesel fuel oil
must not exceed

A. 0.2 %
B. 0.5 %
C. 0.15 %
D. 0.1 %
The color of lubricating oil:

A. Does not indicate contamination

B. Does not indicate qualities
C. Indicates qualities
D. Indicates viscosity
There are two broad types in the
classification of lubricating oils, these are
straight and

A. Active
B. Inactive
C. Crooked
D. Additives
Most commercially available petroleum
lubricating oil deteriorates staring from
operating temperature of:

A. 150 F
B. 200 F
C. 300 F
D. 250 F
An Orsat apparatus is used for :

A. Volumetric analysis of the flue gases

B. Gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
C. Smoke density analysis of the flue gases
D. All of the above
The indicator used to determine the anti-knock
characteristics of gasoline

A. Aniline point
B. Cetane number
C. Octane number
D. Diesel index
Amount of heat liberated by the complete
combustion of a unit weight or volume of
fuel is:

A. Heating value
B. Latent
C. Sensible heat
D. Work compression
Air that controls the rate of combustion in
the combustion chamber is known as:

A. Secondary air
B. Excess air
C. Control air
D. Primary air
Percentage of excess air is the difference
between the air actually supplied and the
theoretically required divided by :

A. Actual air supplied

B. Theoretical air supplied
C. Theoretical less actual supplied
D. Deficient air supplied
When fuel oil has a high viscosity then the fuel oil

A. Will evaporate easily

B. Will have a low specific gravity
C. Will burn without smoke
D. Will flow slowly through pipes
Engines using heavy fuels require heating
of the fuel so that the viscosity at the
injector is:

A. Around 200 SSU

B. 100 SSU or less
C. 200 SSU + 50
D. 150 SSU or slightly higher
A gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil
and cannot be found in the flue gases is :

A. Carbon dioxide
B. Hydrogen
C. Oxygen
D. Nitrogen
Amount of heat liberated by the complete
combustion of a unit weight or volume of fuel
is :

A. Heating value
B. Latent heat
C. Sensible heat
D. Work of compression
The products of complete combustion of
gaseous hydrocarbons.

A. Carbon dioxide and water

B. Carbon monoxide
C. Carbon monoxide, water and ammonia
D. Water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
When the water in the products of
combustion is in the vapor state, the heating
value is:

A. Lower heating value

B. Higher heating value
C. Gross calorific value
D. Average heating value
At what temperature wherein an oil of any
grade becomes cloudy and it freezes, thus its
application is limited

A. Cold point
B. Flash point
C. Pour point
D. Freezing point
Dry air can be approximated as __ % oxygen
and __ % nitrogen by mole numbers.

A. 30 % and 70 %
B. 70 % and 30 %
C. 21 % and 79 %
D. 79 % and 21 %
When H2O in the products of combustion is in
liquid form the heating value is known as:

A. Higher heating value

B. Lower heating value
C. Low and medium heating value
D. Average heating value
Flows of fluid wherein its particles do not
have definite paths and the paths of the
individual and distinct particles cross one
another is :

A. Non-uniform flow
B. Unsteady flow
C. Laminar flow
D. Turbulent flow
If the composition of hydrocarbon fuel is
known, the ratio between the nitrogen and
oxygen that is supplied in air is :

A. Equal
B. Constant
C. Intensity
D. Fixed
The property of liquid in which they extend
resistance to angular or shear deformation
is :

A. Specific gravity
B. Specific weight
C. Viscosity
D. Density
A property of lubricating oil that measures
the thickness of the oil and will help
determine how long oil will flow at a given
temperature is known as :

A. Viscosity
B. Flash point
C. Cloud point
D. Cloud point
The minimum amount of air required for a
complete combustion of fuel is called

A. Dry air
B. Excess air
C. Theoretical air
D. Flue gas
The temperature at which lubricating will
form a cloud.

A. Cloud point
B. Pour point
C. Critical point
D. Boiling point
The ideal cycle based on the concept that the
combustion process is both diesel and gasoline
in the combination of heat transfer processes
that is constant pressure and constant volume.

A. Ericsson cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Rankine cycle
The unit used for expressing API gravity is:

A. Gm/cc
B. Dimensionless numbers
C. Degrees
D. None of the above
ASTM coal classification is based on :

A. Proximate analysis
B. Orsat analysis
C. Ultimate analysis
D. None of the above
API gravity of water is:

A. gravity
API Zeroof water is:
A. Zero
B.
B. 10
10
C. 1.0
C. 1.0
D. 100
D. 100
Which of the following variety of coal has
highest ash content

A. Lignite
B. Bituminous coal
C. Grade 1 steam coal
D. Coking coal
Which of the following s a petroleum
fuel?

A. Benzol
B. Ethyl alcohol
C. Methyl alcohol
D. Naptha
Diesel engine fuels are rated by:

A. Specific gravity
B. Calorific value
C. Cetane number
D. Octane number
Which of the following needs to be filtered in
a diesel engine?

A. Air only
B. Lubricating oil only
C. Air and diesel oil only
D. Air, diesel oil and lubricating oil
1. An engine in which the fuel is burned directly
within the working cylinder.

a) Internal combustion engine

b) External combustion engine
c) Compression ignition engine
d) Spark ignition engine
2. An engine in which the fuel is burned outside of
the power cylinder.

a) Internal combustion engine

b) External combustion engine
c) Compression ignition engine
d) Spark ignition engine
3.An engine where the ignition is caused by heat of
compression

a) Internal combustion engine

b) External combustion engine
c) Compression ignition engine
d) Spark ignition engine
4. What temperature is required to ignite the fuel oil?

a) 800 to 1000 0F
b) 700 to 900 0F
c) 900 to 11000F
d) 1000 to 12000F
5. What air pressure is required to produce the
required ignition temperature?

a) 350 to 500 psi

b) 250 to 400 psi
c) 450 to 600 psi
d) 150 to 300 psi
6. In a four stroke Diesel engine, drawing air into the
cylinder is what stroke?

a) First stroke
b) Second stroke
c) Third stroke
d) Fourth stroke
7. Compressing air in a four stroke cycle is

a) First stroke
b) Second stroke
c) Third stroke
d) Fourth stroke
8. Which of the following strokes is produced by the
burning gases?

a) First stroke
b) Second stroke
c) Third stroke
d) Fourth stroke
9. Which of the following strokes expels the burned
gases?

a) First stroke
b) Second stroke
c) Third stroke
d) Fourth stroke
10. Clearing a cylinder of exhaust gases by forcing into
it a current of air which provides clean air for the
next compression stroke.

a) Scavenging
b) Supercharging
c) Choking
d) Knocking
11. Increasing the total amount of charging air in the
working cylinder of the engine.

a) Scavenging
b) Supercharging
c) Choking
d) Knocking
12. The portion of the piston which extends below the
piston pin and serves as a guide for the piston and
connecting rod.

a) Piston skirt
b) Piston ring
c) Piston scoring
d) Piston seizure
13. Rings located in the grooves of the piston usually
near the top and near the bottom.

a) Piston skirt
b) Piston ring
c) Piston scoring
d) Piston seizure
14. Binding of the piston and the cylinder wall as a
result of the lubrication having been destroyed by
excessive temperature and friction.

a) Piston skirt
b) Piston ring
c) Piston scoring
d) Piston seizure
15. Grooves in the cylinder wall or piston or in both. It
I caused by the piston scraping the cylinder wall in
its movement without proper lubrication.

a) Piston skirt
b) Piston ring
c) Piston scoring
d) Piston seizure
16. A device which automatically governs or controls
the speed of an engine.

a) Servomotor
b) Governor
c) Indicator
d) Speedometer
17. A combination of liquids which do not mix – or
combine chemically.

a) Emulsion
b) Deposition
c) Evaporation
d) Separation
18. What temperature should be the maximum to
which lubricating oil is permitted to rise?

a) Not more than 1000F

b) Not more than 2000F
c) Not more than 3000F
d) Not more than 4000F
19. What air pressure is needed for air starting a
Diesel engine?

a) 250 psi
b) 150 psi
c) 350 psi
d) 450 psi
20. At what temperature will self igniting cartridges
ignite?

a) About 2000F
b) About 1900F
c) About 2100F
d) About 2500F
21. The fuel is supplied by the one pump and
switched to each cylinder by a multi outlet rotating
valve or distributor.

a) Distributor system
b) Injector system
c) Non injector system
d) Non distributor system
22. This virtually a distributor two stage pumping
system that is, modified distributor system.

a) Distributor system
b) Injector system
c) Non injector system
d) Non distributor system
23. A chamber so proportioned with respect to the
clearance volume proper of the cylinder that only
about 30% of the combustion takes place with in
the chamber itself.

a) Pre combustion chamber

b) Separate combustion chamber
c) Ante combustion chamber
d) Mixed combustion chamber
24. The entire charge is ignited in the separate
combustion chamber before the initial expansion
takes place, forcing the burning gases through the
connecting passages and against the moving piston.

a) Pre combustion chamber

b) Separate combustion chamber
c) Ante combustion chamber
d) Mixed combustion chamber
25. A chamber so designed that injection takes place
directly opposite its outlet, the chamber extending
backward from the outlet.

a) Pre combustion chamber

b) Separate combustion chamber
c) Ante combustion chamber
d) Air cell chamber
26. Fuel is injected only into the main cylinder, during
expansion of the burning gases in the main
chamber, when the pressure therein drops below
that of the air in the cell.

a) Pre combustion chamber

b) Separate combustion chamber
c) Ante combustion chamber
d) Mixed combustion chamber
27. What is the temperature of the air in the cylinder
when the Diesel engine is operating at full load?

a) Between 800 and 11000F

b) Between 800 and 10000F
c) Between 900 and 12000F
d) Between 900 and 11000F
28. What are the exhaust gas temperatures at
normal operating conditions?

a) Between 400 and 7000F

b) Between 500 and 8000F
c) Between 300 and 6000F
d) Between 200 and 5000F
29. How is high speed Diesel engines started?

a) By an electric motor
b) By compressed air
c) By a diesel fuel
d) By an electric spark
30. What speeds are considered high speed diesel
engine?

a) 100 to 2000 rpm or 3000 rpm

b) 100 to 1000 rpm
c) 100 to 1500 rpm
d) 100 to 1750 rpm
31. It is a device used for atomizing of cracking fuel oil
and through which the fuel oil is injected into the
working cylinders of Diesel engines.

a) Atomizer
b) Fuel spray nozzle
c) Injector
d) Cracker
32. What is the proper seat width of a spray valve?

a) 1/16 in
b) 1/8 in
c) 1/32 in
d) 1/4 in
33. A cylindrical vessel connected in the fuel system to
absorb the shock of the injection pumps and to
provide a reservoir at high pressure for supplying
an even flow of fuel oil to the cylinders.

a) Absorber
b) Accumulator
c) Governor
d) Injector
34. How hot are the exhaust gases?

a) 400 to 700 0F
b) 300 to 600 0F
c) 200 to 500 0F
d) 500 to 8000F
35. Which of the following is an automatic device
used for keeping constant air pressure?

a) Relief valve
b) Unloader
c) Strainer
d) Barometer
36. What is the other term of the diameter of the
circular cylinder?

a) Bore
b) Stroke
c) Swept volume
d) Clearance
37. What do you call the maximum distance traveled
by the piston?

a) Bore
b) Stroke
c) Swept volume
d) Clearance
38. Which of the following is the product of the
cylinder area and stroke?

a) Bore
b) Stroke
c) Swept volume
d) Clearance
39. The ratio of the clearance volume to the swept
volume.

a) Fractional clearance
b) Compression ratio
c) Expansion ratio
d) Cut off ratio
40. The piston is at maximum reach from the
crankshaft to which of the following?

a) Top dead center

b) Bottom dead center
c) ¾ from top center
d) ¾ from bottom center
41. The piston is closest to the crankshaft to which of
the following?

a) Top dead center

b) Bottom dead center
c) ¾ from top center
d) ¾ from bottom center
42. Which of the following engines where the
expanding combustion gases act on end of the
piston?

a) Single acting engine

b) Double acting engine
c) Single expansion engine
d) Double expansion engine
43. Which of the following types of engine where the
expanding combustion gases act on both ends of
the piston?

a) Single acting engine

b) Double acting engine
c) Single expansion engine
d) Double expansion engine
44. The compression ratio of a Diesel engine varies
from about:

a) 13.5 to 17.5
b) 8 to 10
c) 14to 19
d) 10.5 to 14.5
45. In standard Diesel, thermal efficiency was not
much higher than about what percent?

a) 35%
b) 30%
c) 40%
d) 50%
46. A closed heat exchanger that transfers heat from
compressed air to cooler air.

a) Regenerator
b) Intercooler
c) Aftercooler
d) Reheater
47. Which of the following is used to improve cold
weather starting?

a) Poppet valve
b) Glow plug
c) Check valve
d) Spark plug
 48. The rated power that the manufacturer claims
the engine is able to provide on a continuous basis
without incurring damage.

A. brakepower B. Continuous duty training

C. Intermittent rating D. Power rating
49. What is the peak power rating that can be
produced on an occasional basis?

A. brakepower B. Continuous duty rating

C. Intermittent rating D. Power rating
50. Which of the following is the value of a
property that includes the effect of friction?

A. Brake value B. Friction value

C. Indicated value D. Actual value
Brayton cycle has:

A. Two isentropic and two constant volume

processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure
processes
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume,
and two adiabatic processes
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume and
a constant pressure process
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating
engines even for same adiabatic compression ratio
and work output because:

A. Otto cycle is highly efficient

B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be
efficiently handled in reciprocating engines
Which cycle is generally used
for gas turbine?

A. Otto cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Brayton cycle
When r is the compression
ratio, the efficiency of
brayton cycle is given by:

A. 1 – 1/r(k - 1)/k
B. 1 - 1/rk - 1
C. 1 - 1/rk
D. 1 - 1/r
A regenerator in a gas turbine:

A. Reduces heat loss during exhaust

B. Allows use of higher compression ratio
C. Improves thermal efficiency
D. Allows use of fuels of inferior quality
Which of the following compressors is
generally used for gas turbines?

A. Lobe type
B. Centrifugal type
C. Axial flow type
D. Reciprocating type
The constant pressure gas turbine works
on the principle of:

A. Carnot cycle
B. Bell- coleman cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Brayton cycle
What type of gas turbine is used in air craft?

A. Open cycle type

B. Closed cycle type with reheating
C. Closed type with reheating and
regeneration
D. Open cycle type with reheating,
regeneration and intercooling
In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a
waste heat boiler is used to :

A. Heat air from intercooler

B. Gases from regenerator
C. Recover heat from exhaust gases
D. None of the above
Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is

A. Equal to Carnot cycle efficiency

B. Equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C. Less than Diesel cycle efficiency
D. More than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
Which of the following turbine has least weight
per bhp developed?

A. Simple open cycle gas turbine

B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling
and reheating
C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling
and reheating and regenerating
D. Closed cycle gas turbine
Which of the following is/are advantage of a
closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas
turbine ?

A. No containing of working substance with

combustion gases
B. Inferior quality fuel can be used
C. Low maintenance costs
D. All of the above
The range of compression
ratio in a gas turbine is:

A. 3 to 5
B. 5 to 8
C. 8 to 12
D. 12 to 20
A constant volume combustion gas turbine
operates on:

A. Ericsson cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Atkinson cycle
Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer
between the exhaust gases and the air prior to
its entrance to the combustor

A. Evaporator
B. Combustion chamber
C. Regenerator
D. Heater
How does the value for work per unit mass
flow of air in the compressor and turbine
influenced by the addition of a regenerator?

A. Slightly increased
B. Unchanged
C. Greatly decreased
D. Greatly increased
What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work?

A. Brayton cycle
B. Stag combined cycle
C. Bottom cycle
D. Ericsson cycle
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating
engines even for same adiabatic compression
ratio and work output because

A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient

B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be
efficient handled in reciprocating engines
In order to increase the gas velocity gas
turbines generally have fixed nozzles. This is
allow the:

A. Compression of gases
B. Condensation of gases
C. Expansion of gases
D. Evaporation of gases
Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the
preferred combustion engines in application
much above

A. 8 MW
B. 9 MW
C. 10 MW
D. 7 MW
Large units gas turbine regularly operate:

A. In 100 to 200 MV range

B. In 50 to 100 MV range
C. Over 150 MW
D. Below 150 MW
Small units gas turbine operate below

A. 20 MW
B. 12 MW
C. 30 MW
D. 24 MW
Heavy duty gas turbines typically have:

A. Doubles shafts
B. Single shaft
C. Triple shafts
D. Quadruples shafts
Which of the following is basically a jet
engine that exhausts into a turbine
generator?

A. Aeroderivative gas turbine

B. Industrial gas turbine
C. Brayton engine
D. Joule turbine
Most aeroderivative combustion turbine
produce less than :

A. 20 MW
B. 30 MW
C. 40 MW
D. 50 MW
The compression ratio based on pressures
in the compression stage in a gas turbine is
typically:

A. 11 to 16
B. 5 to 8
C. 12 to 18
D. 8 to 14
The compression ratio based on pressures of
heavy duty gas turbine is in the range of

A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21
C. 11 to 16
D. 16 to 18
Aeroderivative combustion turbine have
higher compression ratios typically :

A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21
C. 11 to 16
D. 16 to 18
Most heavy duty combustion turbines have
how many compression stages ?

A. 14 to 16
B. 18 to 20
C. 10 to 12
D. 16 to 18
The temperature of the gas entering the
expander section is typically:

A. 1200 C to 1290 C
B. 1000 C to 1200 C
C. 1500 C to 1490 C
D. 1300 C to 1390 C
The exhaust temperature which makes the
exhaust an ideal heat source for combined
cycle is typically :

A. 540 C to 590 C
B. 600 C to 650 C
C. 300 C to 350 C
D. 440 C to 490 C
Most combustion turbines have:

A. 2 to 3 expander stages
B. 3 to 4 expander stages
C. 4 to 5 expander stages
D. 1 to 2 expander stages
The exhaust flow rate in modem heavy
duty turbines per 100 MW is
approximately :
A. 240 to 250 kg/s
B. 140 to 150 kg/s
C. 340 to 350 kg/s
D. 440 to 450 kg/s
The Brayton gas turbine cycle is also
known as:

A. Joule cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Atkinson cycle
Approximately how many percent of the
turbine power is used to drive the high
efficiency compressor?

A. 50 to 75 %
B. 60 to 85 %
C. 45 to 70 %
D. 30 to 55 %
Depending on the turbine construction
details, the temperature of the air entering
the turbine will be between :

A. 650 C to 1000 C
B. 750 C to 1100 C
C. 550 C to 950 C
D. 850 C to 1200 C
Which of the following engines are typically
used by turbojet and turboprop?

A. Open combustors
B. Closed combustors
C. Turbo combustors
D. High combustors
The full load thermal efficiency of existing
heavy duty combustion turbines in simple
cycle is approximately :
A. 34 to 36 %
B. 30 to 32 %
C. 40 to 42 %
D. 26 to 28 %
New combustion turbines on the cutting edge
of technology (advanced turbine systems) are
able to achieve

A. 38 to 38.5 %
B. 36 to 36.5 %
C. 40 to 40.5 %
D. 34 to 34.5 %
Aeroderivative turbines commonly achieves
efficiencies up to:

A. 42 %
B. 38 %
C. 45 %
D. 35 %
Which of the following is the typical
backwork ratio of gas turbines?

A. 50 to 75 %
B. 40 to 65 %
C. 30 to 55 %
D. 35 to 60 %
Which of the following is an example of
regenerator?

A. A counter flow heat exchanger

B. A cross flow heat exchanger
C. A mixed flow heat exchanger
D. A parallel flow heat exchanger
Which of the following is an effect of having a
regenerator?

A. Less heat is added

B. Compressor work is reduced
C. Turbine work is increased
D. Compressor work is increased
A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect in :

A. Compressor and turbine work

B. Heat added
C. Thermal efficiency
D. Combustor
In Brayton cycle multiple stages of
compression and expansion will

A. Increase thermal efficiency

B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Control efficiency
In a Brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling
will

A. Increase thermal efficiency

B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Control efficiency
In Brayton cycle, reheating has no effect in :

A. Heat added
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Backwork ratio
D. Network
In a Brayton cycle, intercooling has no
effect in:

A. Turbine work
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Backwork ratio
D. Network
If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the
compressor power then the backwork
ratio is

A. Wt/Wc
B. Wc/Wt
C. Wt-Wc/Wt
D. Wt-Wc/Wc
If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the
compressor power then the network is:

A. Wt x Wc
B. Wc / Wt
C. Wt – Wc
D. Wt + Wc
Physical limitations usually preclude more
than how many stages of intercooling and
reheating?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Brayton cycle has:

A. Two isentropic and two constant volume

processes
B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure
processes
C. One constant pressure, one constant volume,
and two adiabatic processes
D. Two isothermal, one constant volume and
a constant pressure process
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating
engines even for same adiabatic compression ratio
and work output because:

A. Otto cycle is highly efficient

B. Brayton cycle is less efficient
C. Brayton cycle is for slow speed engines only
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be
efficiently handled in reciprocating engines
Which cycle is generally used
for gas turbine?

A. Otto cycle
B. Dual cycle
C. Carnot cycle
D. Brayton cycle
When r is the compression
ratio, the efficiency of
brayton cycle is given by:

A. 1 – 1/r(k - 1)/k
B. 1 - 1/rk - 1
C. 1 - 1/rk
D. 1 - 1/r
A regenerator in a gas turbine:

A. Reduces heat loss during exhaust

B. Allows use of higher compression ratio
C. Improves thermal efficiency
D. Allows use of fuels of inferior quality
Which of the following compressors is
generally used for gas turbines?

A. Lobe type
B. Centrifugal type
C. Axial flow type
D. Reciprocating type
The constant pressure gas turbine works
on the principle of:

A. Carnot cycle
B. Bell- coleman cycle
C. Rankine cycle
D. Brayton cycle
What type of gas turbine is used in air craft?

A. Open cycle type

B. Closed cycle type with reheating
C. Closed type with reheating and
regeneration
D. Open cycle type with reheating,
regeneration and intercooling
In a gas turbine combined cycle plant, a
waste heat boiler is used to :

A. Heat air from intercooler

B. Gases from regenerator
C. Recover heat from exhaust gases
D. None of the above
Overall efficiency of a gas turbine is

A. Equal to Carnot cycle efficiency

B. Equal to Rankine cycle efficiency
C. Less than Diesel cycle efficiency
D. More than Otto or Diesel cycle efficiency
Which of the following turbine has least weight
per bhp developed?

A. Simple open cycle gas turbine

B. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling
and reheating
C. Open cycle gas turbine with inter-cooling
and reheating and regenerating
D. Closed cycle gas turbine
Which of the following is/are advantage of a
closed cycle gas turbine over open cycle gas
turbine ?

A. No containing of working substance with

combustion gases
B. Inferior quality fuel can be used
C. Low maintenance costs
D. All of the above
The range of compression
ratio in a gas turbine is:

A. 3 to 5
B. 5 to 8
C. 8 to 12
D. 12 to 20
A constant volume combustion gas turbine
operates on:

A. Ericsson cycle
B. Joule cycle
C. Brayton cycle
D. Atkinson cycle
Heat exchanger used to provide heat transfer
between the exhaust gases and the air prior to
its entrance to the combustor

A. Evaporator
B. Combustion chamber
C. Regenerator
D. Heater
How does the value for work per unit mass
flow of air in the compressor and turbine
influenced by the addition of a regenerator?

A. Slightly increased
B. Unchanged
C. Greatly decreased
D. Greatly increased
What is the ideal cycle for gas turbine work?

A. Brayton cycle
B. Stag combined cycle
C. Bottom cycle
D. Ericsson cycle
Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating
engines even for same adiabatic compression
ratio and work output because

A. Brayton cycle is highly efficient

B. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only
C. Brayton cycle needs large air-fuel ratio
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be
efficient handled in reciprocating engines
In order to increase the gas velocity gas
turbines generally have fixed nozzles. This is
allow the:

A. Compression of gases
B. Condensation of gases
C. Expansion of gases
D. Evaporation of gases
Combustion turbines or gas turbines are the
preferred combustion engines in application
much above

A. 8 MW
B. 9 MW
C. 10 MW
D. 7 MW
Large units gas turbine regularly operate:

A. In 100 to 200 MV range

B. In 50 to 100 MV range
C. Over 150 MW
D. Below 150 MW
Small units gas turbine operate below

A. 20 MW
B. 12 MW
C. 30 MW
D. 24 MW
Heavy duty gas turbines typically have:

A. Doubles shafts
B. Single shaft
C. Triple shafts
D. Quadruples shafts
Which of the following is basically a jet
engine that exhausts into a turbine
generator?

A. Aeroderivative gas turbine

B. Industrial gas turbine
C. Brayton engine
D. Joule turbine
Most aeroderivative combustion turbine
produce less than :

A. 20 MW
B. 30 MW
C. 40 MW
D. 50 MW
The compression ratio based on pressures
in the compression stage in a gas turbine is
typically:

A. 11 to 16
B. 5 to 8
C. 12 to 18
D. 8 to 14
The compression ratio based on pressures of
heavy duty gas turbine is in the range of

A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21
C. 11 to 16
D. 16 to 18
Aeroderivative combustion turbine have
higher compression ratios typically :

A. 14 to 15
B. 19 to 21
C. 11 to 16
D. 16 to 18
Most heavy duty combustion turbines have
how many compression stages ?

A. 14 to 16
B. 18 to 20
C. 10 to 12
D. 16 to 18
The temperature of the gas entering the
expander section is typically:

A. 1200 C to 1290 C
B. 1000 C to 1200 C
C. 1500 C to 1490 C
D. 1300 C to 1390 C
The exhaust temperature which makes the
exhaust an ideal heat source for combined
cycle is typically :

A. 540 C to 590 C
B. 600 C to 650 C
C. 300 C to 350 C
D. 440 C to 490 C
Most combustion turbines have:

A. 2 to 3 expander stages
B. 3 to 4 expander stages
C. 4 to 5 expander stages
D. 1 to 2 expander stages
The exhaust flow rate in modem heavy
duty turbines per 100 MW is
approximately :
A. 240 to 250 kg/s
B. 140 to 150 kg/s
C. 340 to 350 kg/s
D. 440 to 450 kg/s
The Brayton gas turbine cycle is also
known as:

A. Joule cycle
B. Stirling cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Atkinson cycle
Approximately how many percent of the
turbine power is used to drive the high
efficiency compressor?

A. 50 to 75 %
B. 60 to 85 %
C. 45 to 70 %
D. 30 to 55 %
Depending on the turbine construction
details, the temperature of the air entering
the turbine will be between :

A. 650 C to 1000 C
B. 750 C to 1100 C
C. 550 C to 950 C
D. 850 C to 1200 C
Which of the following engines are typically
used by turbojet and turboprop?

A. Open combustors
B. Closed combustors
C. Turbo combustors
D. High combustors
The full load thermal efficiency of existing
heavy duty combustion turbines in simple
cycle is approximately :
A. 34 to 36 %
B. 30 to 32 %
C. 40 to 42 %
D. 26 to 28 %
New combustion turbines on the cutting edge
of technology (advanced turbine systems) are
able to achieve

A. 38 to 38.5 %
B. 36 to 36.5 %
C. 40 to 40.5 %
D. 34 to 34.5 %
Aeroderivative turbines commonly achieves
efficiencies up to:

A. 42 %
B. 38 %
C. 45 %
D. 35 %
Which of the following is the typical
backwork ratio of gas turbines?

A. 50 to 75 %
B. 40 to 65 %
C. 30 to 55 %
D. 35 to 60 %
Which of the following is an example of
regenerator?

A. A counter flow heat exchanger

B. A cross flow heat exchanger
C. A mixed flow heat exchanger
D. A parallel flow heat exchanger
Which of the following is an effect of having a
regenerator?

A. Less heat is added

B. Compressor work is reduced
C. Turbine work is increased
D. Compressor work is increased
A regenerator in a gas turbine has no effect in :

A. Compressor and turbine work

B. Heat added
C. Thermal efficiency
D. Combustor
In Brayton cycle multiple stages of
compression and expansion will

A. Increase thermal efficiency

B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Control efficiency
In a Brayton cycle, reheating and intercooling
will

A. Increase thermal efficiency

B. Decrease thermal efficiency
C. Limit thermal efficiency
D. Control efficiency
In Brayton cycle, reheating has no effect in :

A. Heat added
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Backwork ratio
D. Network
In a Brayton cycle, intercooling has no
effect in:

A. Turbine work
B. Thermal efficiency
C. Backwork ratio
D. Network
If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the
compressor power then the backwork
ratio is

A. Wt/Wc
B. Wc/Wt
C. Wt-Wc/Wt
D. Wt-Wc/Wc
If Wt is the turbine power and Wc is the
compressor power then the network is:

A. Wt x Wc
B. Wc / Wt
C. Wt – Wc
D. Wt + Wc
Physical limitations usually preclude more
than how many stages of intercooling and
reheating?

A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Which of the following factors does bursting
pressure of boiler doesn’t depend?

A. Tensile strength of the shell

B. Thickness of the shell
C. Diameter of the shell
D. Shear strength of shell material
Which of the following factors does
working pressure boiler doesn’t depend?

A. Tensile strength of the shell

B. Thickness of the shell
C. factor of safety
D. type of fuel being fired
Total solid impurities in feed water for a
boiler depend upon

A. Boiler pressure
B. Quantity of steam to be generated
C. Type of fuel available
D. Quantity of steam
A high pressure chamber or a device in which
the paths of rapidly moving particles can be
observed and photographed

A. Cloud chamber
B. Combustion chamber
C. Fission chamber
D. Air chamber
The formation of gas bubbles in a liquid is
called

A. Bubbling
B. Foaming
C. Priming
D. Carryover
How many check valves should be provided
between any feed pump and boiler?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
The water level inside the boiler is indicated
by the

A. Baffles
B. Fusible plug
C. Water walls
D. Water column
What is the highest pressure under which
distinguishable liquid and vapor phases can
exist in equilibrium?

A. Maximum pressure
B. Atmosphere
C. Critical pressure
D. Peak pressure
What is the average fuel- oil temperature range
of the oil in the discharge line to the boiler?

A. 180 – 200 F
B. 240 – 260 F
C. 160 – 180 F
D. 140 – 160 F
The lowest permissible water level of a boiler
without internal furnace is __ the height of the
shell.

A. ½
B. 1/3
C. ¼
D. 1/5
In case of steam engine cut off ratio is the ratio
of

A. Pressure at cut off to supply pressure

B. Pressure at cut off to exhaust pressure
C. Pressure at cut off to mean effective
pressure
D. Fraction of piston stroke which the piston
has traveled when cut of occurs
In a condensing steam engine

A. Condensed steam is supplied

B. Steam condenses inside cylinder
C. Steam condenses as soon as it leaves the
cylinder
D. Exhaust steam is condensed in a condenser
Flows through the nozzles and diffusers with
increasing fluid velocity will create and
equivalent

A. Decrease in the static enthalpy of fluid

B. Increase in the static enthalpy of fluid
C. Decrease in the internal energy of fluid
D. Decrease in the dynamic enthalpy of fluid
The term v2/2Cp responds to the
temperature rise during a process and is
called the

A. Kinetic temperature
B. High temperature
C. Dynamic temperature
D. Elevation temperature
All of the following mechanism can
supply heat to a thermodynamic system
except

A. Conduction
B. Natural convection
C. Adiabatic expansion
D. Radiation
The flow through the nozzle is

A. Isentropic
B. Polytropic
C. Isobaric
D. Isovolumic
If the reservoir is sufficiently large , the nozzle
inlet velocity is:

A. Maximum
B. Negative
C. Positive
D. Zero
Which of the following is the pressure
applied at the nozzle discharge section?

A. Stagnant pressure
B. Critical pressure
C. Back pressure
D. Atmospheric pressure
When the back pressure is reduced to
lowest exit pressure, the mass flow reaches
a maximum value and the flow is said to be:

A. Stacked
B. Choked
C. Stuck-up
D. Clog-up
An increase in stagnation pressure will
increase the mass flux through the :

A. Diverging nozzle
B. Converging nozzle
C. Converging-diverging nozzle
D. None of these
A converging – diverging nozzle is the
standard equipment in:

A. Subsonic aircraft
B. Supersonic aircraft
C. Hypersonic aircraft
D. Trisonic aircraft
For back pressure valves, abrupt changes in
fluid properties occur in a very thin section of
converging – diverging nozzle under
supersonic flow conditions , creating

A. Sound wave
B. Tidal wave
C. Shock wave
D. None of these
Is the locus states which have the same value
of stagnation enthalpy and mass flux are
called :

A. Fanno line
B. Straight line
C. Willan’s line
D. Cross cut line
Combination of mass and momentum
equations into a single equation and
plotted in h-s plane yield a curve called:

A. Fair line
B. Freh line
C. Cutting line
D. Rayleigh line
Generally steam turbines in power station
operate at

A. 3000 rpm
B. 1000 rpm
C. 4000 rpm
D. 575 rpm
Which of the following shows the
relationships of the steam consumption and
load of the steam turbine – generator ?

A. Dalton’s line
B. Willan’s line
C. Jonval’s line
D. Rankine line
An inventor proposes to develop electrical power by
withdrawing heat from the geyser fields of northern
California and converting it all to work in power
turbines. This scheme will not work because:

A. The geyser fields have only a limited lifetime

B. The salinity of the steam is to great
C. It violates the 1st law of thermodynamics
D. It violates the 2nd law of thermodynamics
The isentropic efficiency of a turbine is given by

A. The ratio of actual to ideal energy extracted

B. The ratio of actual of ideal energy inputted
C. The ratio of ideal to actual energy extracted
D. None of the above
Which of the following is not a main part of
a typical coal burner?

A. Air registers
B. Nozzle
C. Atomizer
D. Ignitor
Measure of ability of a boiler to transfer the
heat given by the furnace to the water and
steam is:

A. Grate efficiency
B. Stroke efficiency
C. Furnace efficiency
D. Boiler efficiency
A goose neck is installed in the line connecting
a steam gauge to a boiler to:

A. Maintain constant steam flow

B. Protect the gauge element
C. Prevent steam knocking
D. Maintain steam pressure
Which of the following is a great advantage of a
fire tube boiler?

A. Steam pressure is not ready

B. Contains a large volume of water and
requires long interval of time raise steam and
not so flexible as to changes in steam demand
C. Cannot use impure water
D. Radiation losses are higher because fire is
inside the boiler and surrounded by water
One of the following tasks which is an example of
preventive maintenance is

A. Cleaning the cup on a rotary cup burner

B. Cleaning a completely clog oil strainer
C. Replacing a leaking valve
D. Replacing a blown fuse
The carbon dioxide (CO2) percentage in a
flue gas of an efficiency fired boiler should
be approximately

A. 1%
B. 12 %
C. 18 %
D. 20 %
When droplets of water are carried by steam
in the boiler

A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Embrittlement
The process in which heat energy is
transferred to a thermal energy storage
device is known as:

A. Adiabatic
B. Regeneration
C. Intercooling
D. Isentropic
When the boiler pressure increases or
when the exhaust pressure decreases, the
amount of moisture.

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. Zero
When the number of reheat stages in a
reheat cycle is increased, the average
temperature

A. Increases
B. Decreases
C. Constant
D. Zero
A heat transfer device that reduces a
thermodynamic fluid from its vapor phase to
its liquid phase such as in vapor compression
refrigeration plant or in a condensing steam
power plant.

A. Flash vessel
B. Cooling tower
C. Condenser
D. Steam separator
A simultaneous generation of electricity and
steam ( or heat ) in a single power plant

A. Gas turbine
B. Steam turbine
C. Waste heat recovery
D. Cogeneration
Is one whose pressure is higher than the
saturation pressure corresponding to its
temperature.

A. Compressed liquid
B. Saturated liquid
C. Saturated vapor
D. Superheated vapor
In a steam generator with good combustion control,
what occurs if the load is increased?

A. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases

B. Air temperature entering air heater increases
C. Furnace pressure is approximately constant
D. Economizer gas outlet temperature decreases
Total solid impurities in feed water for a boiler
depend upon

A. Boiler pressure
B. Type of fuel available
C. Quantity of steam to be generated
D. Quantity of steam
The gaseous state of water.

A. Water gas
B. Blue gas
C. Water vapor
D. Yellow gas
A liquid boils when its vapor pressure
equals

A. The gage pressure

B. The critical pressure
C. The ambient pressure
D. One standard atmosphere
What are the main components in a combine
cycle power plant?

A. Diesel engine and air compressor

B. Gas engine and waste heat boiler
C. Steam boiler and turbine
D. Nuclear reactor and steam boiler
A change in the efficiency of combustion in
boiler can usually be determined by comparing
the previously recorded readings with the
current reading of the ____

A. Stack temperature and CO

B. Over the fire draft and CO
C. Ringleman chart and CO2
D. Stack temperature and CO2
A boiler steam gauge should have a range of at
least

A. One half the working steam pressure

B. 1 and ½ times the maximum allowable
working pressure
C. The working steam pressure
D. Twice the maximum allowable working
pressure
In a water tube boiler, heat and gases of
combustion passed :

A. Through the combustion chamber only

B. Through the tubes
C. Away from tubes
D. Around the tubes
A chemical method of feedwater treatment
which uses calcium hydroxide and sodium
carbonate as reagents.

A. Thermal treatment
B. Lime soda treatment
C. Demineralization process
D. Ion exchange treatment
The thermal efficiency of gas-vapor cycle as
compared to steam turbine or gas turbine
is

A. Greater than
B. Less than
C. Lower than
D. Equal to
A rapid increase in boiler pressure occurs
when there is:

A. Moderate drop in steam load

B. Constant drop in steam load
C. Abrupt drop in steam load
D. Gradual drop in steam load
The most economical and low maintenance
cost condenser.

A. Water-cooled
B. Air-cooled
C. Evaporative
D. Sub-cooled
What is commonly used done to system
when the turbine has excessive moisture?

A. Frosting
B. Diffusing
C. Reheating
D. Dehumidifying
What is the result when the fluid’s kinetic energy
during a stagnation process is transformed to
enthalpy?

A. Decreases in fluid volume

B. Rise in the temp. and pressure the fluid
C. Rise in fluid’s volume
D. Decrease in the temp. and pressure of fluid
How can the average temperature during heat
rejection process of a rankine cycle be
decreased?

A. Increase boiler pressure

B. Increase turbine pressure
C. Increase condenser pressure
D. Reduce turbine exit pressure
Which of the following ascertains the
effectiveness and the size of a condenser?

A. Number of passes
B. Thickness of the shell
C. Tube sizes
D. Heat transfer
A boiler has a bursing pressure, BP, of 600 kPa and
a factor of safety, FS, of 8 employed in design. As
an engineer, would you advice to have a working
pressure, WP, of 500 kPa?

A. No, WP must be higher than 500 kPa

B. No ,WP is only 75 kPa at a FS of 8
C. Yes, since BP is 600 Pa
D. Yes, to attain better efficiency
What cycle is used in vapor cycle of steam
power plant?

A. Brayton cycle
B. Diesel cycle
C. Ericsson cycle
D. Rankine cycle
Gauge cock in the boiler is designed to
determine:

A. Level of steam
B. Specific heat
C. Level of water
D. pressure
1. Refers to the internal heat from the earth.

a. Molten heat
b. Geothermal
c. Thermal energy
d. Tectonic heat
2. A rock – forming crystalline mixed silicate which
constitute about 60% of the earth’s surface.

a. Soil
b. Flux
c. Feldspar
d. Flint
3. A compound rock, a crypto – crystalline form of
silica, which is dens, tough, breaking with a
conchoidal fracture.

a. Gravel
b. Flint
c. Stalactite
d. Flux
4. Is the process of using injection wells to bubble
air through groundwater.

a. Air stopping
b. Sparging
c. Staged combustion
d. Soil washing
5. A popular term used by utilities to mean
upgrading existing plant.

a. Replanting
b. Recharging
c. Repowering
d. Reorganizing
6. A dense, fine grained, light colored igneous rock
which is rich in silica.

a. Felsite
b. Flint
c. Feldspar
d. Flux
7. An opening in lava or in volcanic area through
which steam and other hot gases are escaping into
the air is called:

a. Fumarole
b. Seismic outlets
c. Volcanic leaks
d. Seismic leaks
8. Tidal power is the power generated from:

a. Waves of the ocean

b. Thermal energy of the ocean water
c. Rise and fall tides
d. Raw sea water
9. Converts chemical energy directly into electrical
energy.

a. Fuel cell
b. Battery
c. Magneto hydrodynamic generator
d. Thermoelectric generator
10. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually
light in the visible region.

a. Photovoltaic cell
b. Dry cell
c. Solar cell
d. Photovoltaic cell and Solar cell
11. All of the following terms are synonymous with
quanta of electromagnetic theory except:

a. Packets
b. Corpuscles
c. X-rays
d. Photons
12. In geothermal power plants waste water is:

a. Recirculated after cooling in cooling towers

b. Evaporated in ponds
c. Discharged into sea
d. Discharged back to earth
13. In a liquid-dominated geothermal plant, what
process occurs when the saturated steam passes
through the turbine?

a. Polytropic
b. Isobaric
c. Isometric
d. Isentropic
14. What do you call a conversion technology that
yields electricity straight from sunlight without the
aid of a working substance like gas or steam
without the use of any mechanical cycle?

a. Power conversion
b. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
c. Stirling cycle conversion
d. Solar thermal conversion
15. Tidal power plant is attractive because it has:

a. Low head and intermittent power

b. Cheap energy source
c. High head
d. Expensive energy source
16. What do you call a conversion technology that
yields electricity straight from sunlight without the
aid of a working substance like gas or steam
without the use of any mechanical cycle?

a. Photovoltaic-energy conversion
b. Power conversion
c. Solar thermal conversion
d. Stirling cycle conversion
17. Tidal power plant is attractive because it has:

a. Cheap energy source

b. Low head and intermittent power
c. High head
d. Expensive energy source
18. Tidal power is the power generated from:

a. Waves of the ocean

b. Thermal energy of the ocean water
c. Rise and fall tides
d. Raw sea water
19. Converts chemical energy directly into electrical
energy.

a. Magneto hydrodynamic generator

b. Thermoelectric generator
c. Battery
d. Fuel cell
20. Generates a voltage from incident light, usually
light in the visible region.

a. Photovoltaic cell
b. Dry cell
c. Solar cell
d. Photovoltaic cell & Solar cell
21. The statement that the product of the error in
the measured determination of a particle’s position
and its momentum is of the order of Planck’s
constant h is known as:

a. D’Alembert’s paradox
b. Bohr’s theory
c. The Heisenberg uncertainty principle
d. Planck’s law
22. The flow process through shock wave is highly
irreversible and cannot be approximated as being:

a. Polytropic
b. Isentropic
c. Hyperbolic
d. Isometric
23. Beaufort scale is used for measuring what?

a. Wind speed
b. Insolation
c. Beta and gamma radiations
d. Depth of sea
24. Betz law is widely used in:

a. MHD systems
b. Solar cells
c. Geothermal power plants
d. Wind mills
25. Rocks having excessive internal stresses may
produces spalling. This rocks are called as _____.

a. Popping rocks
b. Stratified rocks
c. Crushed rocks
d. Swelling rocks
26. Solar energy arrives at the outside of the
earth’s atmosphere at an average rate of ________.

a. 1.543 kW/m2
b. 1.354 kW/m2
c. 2.354 kW/m2
d. 2.543 kW/m2
27. How many percent of solar energy survives
absorption and reflection?

a. 40 to 70%
b. 30 to 60%
c. 50 to 80%
d. 20 to 50%
28. Solar energy is captured in:

a. Solar collector
b. Sun collector
c. Sun capturer
d. Greenhouse capturer
29. Which of the following solar collectors are
essentially wide, flat boxes with clear plastic or
glass coverings known as the glazing.

a. Flat plate collectors

b. Evacuated tube collectors
c. Concentrating collectors
d. Focusing collectors
30. Which of the following collectors use mirrors
and/or lenses to focus the suns energy on a small
absorber area.

a. Flat plate collectors

b. Concentrating collectors
c. Evacuated tube collectors
d. Non focusing collectors
31. Which of the following collectors are more
complex, but their efficiencies are higher?

a. Flat plate collectors

b. Focusing collectors
c. Concentrating collectors
d. Evacuated tube collectors
32. Which of the following collectors are useful
when extremely hot transfer fluid is needed and
are generally limited to commercial projects?

a. Evacuated tube collectors

b. Focusing collectors
c. Concentrating collectors
d. Flat plate collectors
33. The shading factor in calculating the heat
absorbed by the solar collector has a value of
approximately:

a. 0.95 to 0.97
b. 0.85 to 0.87
c. 0.75 to 0.77
d. 0.65 to 0.67
34. The ratio of energy absorbed by the transfer
fluid to the original incident energy striking the
collector.

a. Collector efficiency
b. Sun efficiency
c. Shading factor
d. Absorptance
35. As the difference between the ambient air and
average plate (or inlet) temperatures increases,
what happens to the collector efficiency?

a. Increases
b. Constant
c. Decreases
d. No effect
36. Distributed collector system is also known as:

a. Dish/Stirling system
b. Power tower system
c. Trough electric system
d. Central receiver system
37. Central receiver system is also known as:

a. Trough electric system

b. Power tower system
c. Distributed collector system
d. Dish/Stirling system
38. Which of the following main approaches to
solar energy generating systems describes that
parabolic tracking tough concentrators focus
sunlight on evacuated glass tubes that run along
the collectors focal lines.

a. Trough electric system

b. Central receiver system
c. Power tower system
d. Dish/Stirling system
39. Trough electric technology is relatively mature
but due to the low temperatures, average annual
thermal efficiencies are only:

a. 5 to 10%
b. 10 to 15%
c. 15 to 20%
d. 25 to 30%
40. A field of heliostats or tracking mirrors
concentrates solar energy onto a receiver on a
central tower.

a. Distributed collector system

b. Trough electric system
c. Power tower system
d. Dish/Stirling system
41. In a power tower system typical thermal
efficiencies is in the range:

a. 5 to 10%
b. 10 to 15%
c. 15 to 20%
d. 25 to 30%
42. A dish engine system has an efficiency of

a. 14 to 19%
b. 24 to 28%
c. 5 to 10%
d. 10 to 15%
43. Practical and economic issues limit trough
electric systems to about:

a. 100 MW
b. 300 MW
c. 200 MW
d. 400 MW
44. Practical and economic issues limit tower
electric systems to approximately:

a. 100 to 200 MW
b. 100 to 300 MW
c. 150 to 250 MW
d. 150 to 400 MW
45. Thermal efficiency of a geothermal power plant
is approximately:

a. 30%
b. 15%
c. 22%
d. 35%
46. A flash steam cycle can be used if the hot water
temperature is approximately:

a. 150 C or higher
b. 145 C to 200 C
c. 165 C or higher
d. Below 200 C
47. A binary cycle using a separate heat transfer
fluid if the temperature of the hot water is
between approximately _______.

a. 165 C and 200 C

b. 200 C and 150 C
c. 225 C and 175 C
d. 300 C and higher
48. For every kilometer of depth, the temperature
of the earth’s crust increase by:

a. 20 F
b. 40 F
c. 30 F
d. 50 F
49. Multiple wells produce steam at 690 to 820 kPa
and temperature of ___________.

a. 205 C
b. 155 C
c. 250 C
d. 175 C
50. In hot rock systems, water is injected through
injection wells into artificially made fractured rock
beds of how many kilometers below the surface?

a. 4 to 10 km
b. 6 to 11 km
c. 1 to 6 km
d. 3 to 9 km
What is the suggested maximum permissible
dose (MPD) of gamma ray exposure for
general individual not working in a nuclear
setting, by choice, in rem/year?

1. 1
2. 5
3. ½
4. 3
The number of protons in the nucleus of an
atom of the number of electrons in the
orbit of an atom

A. Atomic volume
B. Atomic number
C. Atomic weight
D. Atomic mass
The process in which a nucleus splits into
smaller fragments.

A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Compton’s effect
The ability of a substance to absorb
neurons is dependent upon which
parameter?

A. Absorption cross section

B. Scattering cross section
C. Total cross section
D. Atomic number
What kind of bonding do common gases
that exist in free diatomic molecules
experiences?

A. Ionic bonds
B. Covalent bonds
C. Metallic bonds
D. Nuclear bonds
Which of the following is NOT a unit of a
energy?

A. Atomic unit
B. MeV
C. Dynes
D. Ergs
The process in which a nucleus splits into
smaller fragments.

A. Fusion
B. Fission
C. Photoelectric effect
D. Compton’s effect
Which of the following is NOT a unit of
energy?

A. Calories
B. Joules
C. Pascals
D. meV
the ability of a substance to absorb
neurons is dependent upon which
parameter?

A. Absorption cross section

B. Scattering cross section
C. Total cross section
D. Atomic number
Which of the following is NOT a unit of
energy?

A. Atomic unit
B. MeV
C. Dynes
D. Ergs
An electrically charged atom or radical
which carries electricity through an
electrolyte is called:

A. Ion
B. Isotope
C. Molecule
D. Hole
What is the smallest particle of an element
that can enter into a chemical reaction?

A. Molecule
B. Ion
C. Atom
D. Isotope
Beryllium, magnesium, and calcium all
belong to which elemental grouping?

A. Nobles elements
B. Halogens
C. Lanthanons
D. Alkaline earth metals
The thickness of material required to
attenuate radiation to a particular levels
depends on

A. The particle
B. The particle energy
C. The shielding material
D. The particle, its energy, and the shielding
material
Particles that are easily stopped within a few
millimeter because their double charges
generate path ionization and because they
are susceptible to electrostatic interaction
are:

A. Alpha neurons
B. Alpha radiations
C. Beta radiations
D. Gamma radiations
Radiation consisting of singly charged particles
that generate to intermediate distances are
called:

A. Fast neurons
B. Alpha radiations
C. Beta radiations
D. Gamma radiations
Radiation with no charge, which produces no
ionization, and which is difficult to attenuate
thus posing a major health threat is

A. Slow neurons
B. Alpha radiations
C. Beta radiations
D. Gamma radiations
The property of fluid at a location where
the mach number is unity(at the throat) are
called:

A. Critical properties
B. Sonic properties
C. Dynamic properties
D. Stagnation properties
Gamma attenuation is affected by:

A. Their photoelectric effect

B. Pair production
C. Compton scattering
D. The photo effect, pair production , and
Compton scattering
The amount of a radiation shield’s
dimensional geometry that reduces radiation
to half of its original value is called the ____

A. Half-value mass
B. Half-value thickness
C. Semi-cross section
D. Logarithmic decrement
The amount of a radiation shield’s density that
reduces radiation to half of its original value is
called the ____

A. Half-value mass
B. Half-value thickness
C. Semi-cross section
D. Logarithmic decrement
Radiation exposure, the measure of gamma
radiation at the surface of an object, is
measured in:

A. Rems
B. Rads
C. Roentegens
D. Roentegen per second
Radiation exposure rate, the rate of
gamma radiation at the surface of an
object, is measured in:

A. Rems
B. Rads
C. Roentegens
D. Roentegen per second
Exposure is a measure of ionization
surrounding a person, but biological damage
is dependent on the amount of energy.

A. Striking the surface

B. Passing through the body
C. Absorbed
D. Reflected by the surface
All of the following are practical
applications of Einstein’s principle of
special relativity except

A. Mass increase
B. Length contraction
C. Time dilation
D. Space warping
The postulate that no signal or energy can be
transmitted with a speed greater than speed
of light is consistent with ____

A. The heisenburg uncertainty principle

B. The Compton effect
C. Einstein’s law
D. Newton’s 2nd law
The total energy of an electron in the same
shell is defined by the__

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Hund rule
The direction of an electron’s angular
momentum vector is defined by the

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Electron spin quantum number
The electron’s spin angular momentum vector
defined by the

A. Principal quantum number

B. Magnetic quantum number
C. Electron spin quantum number
D. Hund rule
The magnitude of an electron’s angular
momentum vector is defined by the

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Electron spin quantum number
D. Hund rule
The fact that each orbital of a set of equal-
energy orbitals must be occupied with an
electron before any orbitals has two electrons
is specified by which of the following?

A. Principal quantum number

B. Azimuthal quantum number
C. Magnetic quantum number
D. Hund rule
The statement that no two electrons can have
same set of four quantum numbers is known
as the

A. Hund rule
B. Heisenburg uncertainty principle
C. Pauli exclusion principle
D. Schrodinger equation
All of the following terms describe radiation
lines from transitions of electrons in an atom
except

A. Sharp
B. Principal
C. Obtuse
D. Fundamental
When electrons are not shared equally
between elements, and electrons spend more
time with one element than with the other, the
bonding is called:

A. Ionic bonding
B. Polar covalent bonding
C. Non-polar covalent bonding
D. Metallic bonding
When electrons are shared equally(e.g.,
when the atoms are the same as in diatomic
gases), the bonding is called:

A. Ionic bonding
B. Polar covalent bonding
C. Non-polar covalent bonding
D. Resonance bonding
All of the following are units of energy except:

A. Atomic units
B. MeV
C. Dynes
D. Ergs
Einstein reasoned there was a discrete amount
of energy needed to remove an electron from a
surface , with the rest of incident photon’s
energy contributing to the kinetic energy of the
photon., the amount of energy is called:

A. Binding energy
B. Work function
C. Coulomb energy
D. Fermi energy
Which of the following is not a postulate of Bohr’
theory of the hydrogen atom?

A. Electrons orbits are discrete and non-

radiating and an electron may not remain
between these orbits
B. The energy change experienced by an
electron changing from one orbit to another is
quantized
C. Light waves exist simultaneously as high
frequency electrical and magnetic waves
D. Angular momentum is quantized
Which of the following is necessary to
generate steam in a boiler?

A. A container
B. Heat
C. Water
D. All of the above
It is the part of the boiler with water on
one side and heat on the other side.

A. Furnace volume
B. Fire side
C. Heating surface
D. Water side
A ____ boiler has heat and gases of
combustion that pass through tubes
surrounded by water

A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
C. Water tube
D. Straight-tube
A ____ boiler has water in the tubes and
heat gases of combustion passing through
the tubes.

A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
C. Water tube
D. Fire box
Which of the following are used in boilers
to direct the gases of combustion over the
boiler heating surface?

A. Combustion control
B. Baffles
C. Fire tubes
D. Zone controls
The three-basic type of low pressure heating
boilers are:

A. Firebox; vertical; locomotive

B. Scotch marine; wet-top; dry-top
C. Straight-tube; bent tube; multiple pass
D. fire-tube; water tube; cast iron sectional
In a low pressure gas system, the gas
regulator reduces that city gas pressure to
___ psi

A. 0
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3
In the ____ air mixes with the fuel and
burns

A. Fire tubes
B. Combustion chamber
C. Water tubes
D. Breeching
The function of the steam boiler is to ______

A. Produce condensate
B. Create heat
C. Produce steam
D. Burn fuel
Which of the following is the most common
type of water tube boiler?

A. Firebox
B. Scotch marine
C. Vertical
D. Straight-tube multiple pass
Excess fuel oil in the fuel oil system returns to
the:

A. Combustion chamber
B. Fuel oil tank
C. Burner
D. Suction line
It is the system that provides the air necessary
for combustion

A. Feedwater
B. Steam
C. Draft
D. Fuel
The gases if combustion leave the boiler
through the:

A. Chimney
B. Blower
C. Air vent
D. Breeching
Which of the following boiler does not use
tubes?

A. Cast iron sectional

B. Water tube
C. Scotch marine
D. Firebox
Which of the following will make a boiler
work more efficiently?

A. More fuel is added

B. Fire tubes are decrease in size
C. The heating surface is increased
D. All of the above
What are the four systems necessary to
operate boiler?

A. Combustion; draft; steam; boiler water

B. Water; steam; combustion; stoker
C. Boiler water; fuel; draft; condense
D. Feedwater; fuel; draft; steam
The _____ forms a vacuum that draws out the
condensate return line and into the vacuum
tank.

A. Suction line
B. Main header
C. Vacuum pump
D. Heating equipment
Which of the following can be a function of the
container in a boiler?

A. Hold the water

B. Collects the steam that is produced
C. Transfers heat to the water to produce steam
D. All of the above
At what temperature will water normally
turns to steam?

A. 100 F
B. 200 F
C. 150 F
D. 212 F
Which of the following statements is true for cast
iron sectional boilers?

A. Cast iron sectional boilers have fire tubes

B. These boilers do not require water
C. Can be expanded in size
D. None of the above
Which of the following is the most important
valve on a boiler?

A. Main steam stop valve

B. Automatic nonreturn valve
C. Safety valve
D. Feedwater stop valve
The MAWP on a low pressure
steam boiler is ____ psi

A. 10
B. 20
C. 15
D. 30
Which of the following best defines a
total force acting on a boiler?

A. Area times diameter

B. Area times pressure
C. Area times distance
D. The MAWP times pressure
The ASME code states that boilers with
over _____ square feet heating surface
must have two or more safety valve

A. 200
B. 400
C. 400
D. 500
The area of a safety valve 4” in diameter is
how many square inches

A. 2.3562
B. 6.2832
C. 3.1416
D. 12.5664
Which of the following is the only valve
permitted between the safety valve and the
boiler?

A. Os&y gate
B. Os&y globe
C. Automatic nonreturn
D. No valves are permitted between the
boiler and the safety valve
The range of the pressure gauge
should be ____ times the MAWP of
the boiler

A. 1 to 2
B. 2 to 3
C. 1 ½ to 2
D. 2 ½ to 3
The ASME code only allows _____
safety valve on boiler

A. Deadweight
B. Spring-loaded pop-type
C. Lever
D. None of the above
How much is the total force on a safety
valve 2 ½ in diameter and with a steam
pressure of 15 psi?

A. 19.5413
B. 73.63125
C. 29.4525
D. 93.7512
The steam pressure gauge on the boiler is
calibrated to read in:

A. Inches of vacuum
B. Absolute pressure
C. Pounds per square inch
D. Pressure below atmospheric pressure
Live steam is prevented from entering
the bourdon tube of the pressure
gauge by which of the following

A. Automatic nenreturn valve

B. Os&y valve
C. Inspector’s test cock
D. Siphon
What pressure gauge that can read
whether vacuum pressure or not.

A. Compound
B. Suction
C. Duplex
D. Vacuum
Which of the following best defines a
vacuum?

A. A pressure above gauge

B. A pressure below atmospheric
C. A pressure below gauge
D. A pressure equal to gauge
Safety valves are designed to pop open
and stay un there is a ____ psi drop in
pressure

A. 0 to 1
B. 5 to 15
C. 2 to 4
D. Over 15
What type of boiler that uses safety valves?

A. Fire tube
B. Cast iron sectional
C. Water tube
D. All of the above
The water column is located at the NOWL
so the lowest visible part of the gauge
glass is _____ above the highest surface

A. 2” to 3”
B. Just
C. 4” to 5”
D. Never
Blowback of a safety valve is to prevent:

A. Burner cycling
B. Premature popping
C. Chattering
D. Feathering
The boiler bottom blowdown line should
discharge to a(n) _____.

A. Sewer
B. Atmospheric tank
C. Blowdown tank
D. Return tank or open sump
If the desired cut-in pressure of the boiler
is 6 psi and the desired cut-out pressure is
10 psi. the differential pressure setting
must be ____ psi

A. 2
B. 6
C. 4
D. 8
Impurities that build up on the surface of
the water in the boiler prevent ____ from
breaking through the surface of the water.

A. Air
B. CO2
C. Oxygen
D. Steam
To prevent air pressure from building up in the
boiler when filling the boiler with water, the
___ must be open

A. Safety valve
B. Boiler vent
C. Main steam stop valve
D. Manhole cover
To prevent a vacuum from forming when
taking the boiler off-line, which of the
following must be opened when pressure is
still on the boiler?

A. Safety valve
B. Boiler vent
C. Main steam stop valve
D. Manhole cover
The operating range of the boiler is
controlled by:

A. aquastat
B. Pressure control
C. Vaporstat
D. Modulating pressure control
The _____ regulates the high and low fire of
the burner .

A. Aquastat
B. Pressure control
C. Vaporstat
D. Modulating pressure control
The best time to blow down the boiler to
remove sludge and sediment is when the
boiler is at:

A. Its highest load

B. Half its load
C. Its lightest load
D. Anytime
The level of the water in the ____ indicates
the water level in the boiler

A. Condensate return tank

B. Gauge glass
C. Try cocks
D. Blowdown tank
When blowing down a boiler, the quick-
opening valve should always be opened
______ and closed _____.

A. First; first
B. Last; first
C. First; last
D. Last; last
Which of the following is added to boiler so
that water changes scale-forming salts into
non-adhering sludge?

A. Oxygen
B. Slag
C. Minerals
D. Chemicals
A _____ valve is installed before the _____ to
allow the steam pressure gauge to be changed if
a malfunction occurs.

A. Globe; safety valve

B. Globe; u-tube siphon
C. Gate; siphon
D. Globe; pigtail siphon
What pressure gauge that reads more
pressure than is actually in the boiler

A. Broken
B. Uncalibrated
C. Slow
D. Fast
According to ASME code, safety valves on low
pressure boilers should be tested by hand at
least

A. Once a month
B. Once a year
C. Once a shift
D. Twice a year
The purpose of the safety valve is prevent
the pressure in the boiler from:

A. Exceeding its MAWP

B. Causing a boiler explosion
C. Dropping below its MAWP
D. Relieving water pressure
The term applied when a safety valve opens
and closes rapidly.

A. Feathering
B. Chattering
C. Pressuring
D. Huddling
The safety valve on a low pressure boiler opens
when pressure in the boiler exceeds how many
psi?

A. 5
B. 15
C. 10
D. 30
After the total force of the steam has lifted
the safety valve off its seat, the steam enters
the _____

A. Huddling chamber
B. Steam holding tank
C. Combustion chamber
D. Main steam line
What causes false water level reading in the
gauge glass?

A. Priming
B. Foaming
C. Carryover
D. Blowing down
Fusible plugs are required on _____ boilers by
the ASME code

A. Coat-fired
B. Gas-fired
C. Fuel oil-fired
D. All of the above
On a pressure control, ____ pressure plus
_____ pressure equals ______ pressure.

A. Differential; cut-out; cut-in

B. Cut-in; cut-out; differential
C. Cut-in ; differential; cut-in
D. Cut-in pressure equals cut-out pressure
A burner should always start up in ____ fire and
shut down in ____ fire

A. Low;low
B. High; low
C. Low;high
D. High; high
The water in the boiler is heated, turns to
steam, and leaves the boiler through the:

A. Feed water
B. Main steam line
C. Main header
D. Main branch line
When steams gives up its heat in a heat
exchanger it turns to:

A. Low pressure steam

B. Makeup water
C. Condensate
D. Exhaust steam
A ____ pump discharges the return water
back to the boiler

A. Feed
B. Gear
C. Return
D. Vacuum
How do you call a valve that controls the
flow of water one direction only?

A. Gate
B. Os&y
C. Glove
D. Check
The feed water ____ valve should be located
as close to the shell of the boiler as practical

A. Check
B. Nonreturn
C. Stop
D. Regulating
A _____ after each radiator allows _____
to pass through to the return line

A. Steam trap; steam

B. Water trap; steam
C. Steam trap; condensate
D. Water trap; condensate
A _____ valve should be located between
the boiler and the valve on the feedwater
line

A. Stop; check
B. Stop; regulator
C. Check; stop
D. Check; regulator
The feedwater _____ valve opens and closes
automatically

A. Return
B. Check
C. Bypass
D. Equalizing
The vacuum pump pumps water and
discharges air to the:

A. Expansion tank
B. Return tank
C. Compression tank
D. Atmosphere
The range of pressure on the vacuum switch
is usually:

A. 2 to 6 psi
B. 2” to 8”
C. 6 to 12 psi
D. 8” to 12”
Top test the vacuum pump, the operator puts
the selector switch in the___ position

A. Float
B. Float or vacuum
C. Vacuum
D. Continuous
Water added to the boiler to replace water
lost due to leaks and blowing down is known
as _____ water

A. Extra
B. Boiler
C. Makeup
D. Feed
Excessive use of cold city water makeup
reduces overall efficiency because the water
must be ____ before use in the boiler

A. Vented
B. Filtered
C. Heated
D. Recirculated
The vacuum pump selector switch is normally
in the position during the heating season

A. Float or vacuum
B. Vacuum only
C. Float only
D. Continuous
The ____ shuts off the burner in the event
of low water

A. Low water alarm

B. Low water fuel cut-off
C. Feedwater regulator
D. Automatic low water feeder
Water is supplied to the condensate return
tank by the ____ pump

A. Vacuum
B. Feedwater
C. Condensate
D. Return
The feedwater regulator is located at the
____ and is connected to the boiler in the
same manner as the

A. Rightside; gauge glass

B. NOWL; water column
C. Bottom; blowdown
D. NOWL; safety valve
What maintains a constant water level in
the boiler?

A. Gauge glass
B. Automatic city water makeup feeder
C. Water column
D. Feedwater regulator
The low water fuel cut-off should be
tested:

A. Daily
B. Semiannually
C. Monthly
D. Annually
The burner should be ____ when the low
water fuel cut-off is blown down

A. Off
B. Tagged out
C. Firing
D. Tested
Which of the following valves must be used as
boiler main steam stop valve?

A. Globe
B. Check
C. Gate
D. Os&y gate
Gate valves should always be ____ or ____
closed.

A. Partially open; completely

B. Completely open, completely
C. Wide open; partly
D. Throttled; completely
Steam header valves should
be ____ valves

A. Globe
B. Check
C. Gate
D. Os&y gate
When open the os&y valve offers ___ to
the flow of steam

A. No resistance
B. Velocity
C. Throttling action
D. Full resistance
Steam traps are ____ devices

A. Manual
B. Automatic
C. Electrical
D. Semiautomatic
What valve should be used for throttling
flow of material?

A. Gate
B. Check
C. Globe
D. Non-return
Steam traps removed___ and ____ from
the steam lines

A. Air; water
B. Water; oil
C. Air; oil
D. Air; steam
Condensate in the steam lines can result in:

A. Carryover
B. Foaming
C. Priming
D. Water hammer
Two types of steam traps are the ____
steam trap and the ____ steam trap

A. Return; float
B. Nonreturn; thermostatic
C. Return; nonreturn
D. Nonreturn; float
The ____ steam trap is the most common
steam trap used.

A. Thermostatic
B. Inverted bucket
C. Return
D. Nonreturn; float
Condensate from the non return steam trap
is pumped from the condensate return tank
of the:

A. Return tank
B. Feedwater heater
C. Vacuum tank
D. Boiler
Steam returning to the vacuum tank could
cause the condensate pump to become:

A. Waterbound
B. Waterlogged
C. Steambound
D. Steamlogged
Steam strainer should be located on the line
____ the steam trap

A. In front of
B. Above
C. After
D. Along sides of
As the steam pressure increases the steam
temperature:

A. Decreased
B. Remains the same
C. Increases
D. Fluctuates
When the os&y is open the stem is in the
_____ position

A. Floating
B. Up
C. Locked
D. Down
The thermostatic steam trap opens and closes
by a(an):

A. Float
B. Electric sensor
C. Inverted bucket
D. Flexible bellows
In the float the thermostatic trap the float
rises to discharge:

A. Condensate
B. Feedwater chemicals
C. Steam
D. Water and steam
A steam trap that failed to open would cause
the heating unit to become:

A. Steambound
B. Very hot
C. Waterlogged
D. All of the above
Which of the following whose main
function is to remove dirt and impurities
that may cause the steam trap to
malfunction?

A. Vacuum pumps
B. Steam strainers
C. Globe valves
D. Steam separators
When a steam trap is functioning properly
there is a _____ difference in temperature
between the trap inlet and discharge

A. 5 F to 10 F
B. 20 F to 30 F
C. 10 F to 20 F
D. No
When burning no.6 fuel oil strainer should
be cleaned at least once every ___ hours

A. 8
B. 12
C. 10
D. 24
When cleaning the fuel oil strainer the
_____ must be carefully replaced to prevent
___ from getting into the system

A. Gaskets; fuel oil

B. Cover; water
C. Gaskets; air
D. Cover; fuel oil
The _____ pump draws fuel oil from the
fuel oil tank

A. Transfer
B. Condensate
C. Fuel oil
D. Circulating
The ____ valve protects the fuel line and
pump from excessive pressure

A. Safety
B. Relief
C. Bypass
D. Stop
A high vacuum on the fuel oil suction gauge
normally indicates either ____ or ____

A. Low viscocity; a clogged vent

B. A closed discharged valve; hot fuel oil
C. Cold fuel oil; a dirty suction strainer
D. Water in the fuel oil; a warm pump
Fuel oil burners deliver the fuel oil to the
furnace in a:

A. Steady steam
B. Half spray; half steam
C. Fine spray
D. None of the above
The rotary cup burner uses ____ and ____
to atomize the fuel oil

A. High temperature; pressure

B. High temperature; air
C. High pressure; steam
D. A spinning cup; high velocity air
In a low pressure gas burner gas is mixed with air in
the ____

A. Burner register
B. Combustion chamber
C. Mixing chamber before the burner register
D. Boiler furnace
In a high pressure gas mixes with the air on the
inside of the:

A. Burner register
B. Combustion chamber
C. Mixing chamber before the burner register
D. Boiler furnace
Regardless of the type of fuel oil used the fuel
oil must be ____ before it enters the boilers
furnace

A. Pressurized
B. Treated
C. Atomized
D. Measure
On the low pressure gas system the manual
reset cannot be opened until the:

A. Vaporstat proves pressure

B. Pilot is lighted
C. Boiler is vented
D. All of the above
Before any repair work is attempted on any gas-
fired boiler the :

A. Insurance inspector must be notified

B. Main gas cock must be secured
C. State inspector must be notified
D. Main solenoid valve should be secured
In a low pressure gas system when the
vaporstat proves gas pressure up to the
zero- reducing governor the _____ starts up

A. Induced draft fan

B. Pressure
C. Forced draft blower
D. Gas pump
The butterfly on the low pressure gas system is
a ____ valve

A. Slow-opening
B. Screw
C. Quick-opening
D. Globe
The amount of gas supplied to the chamber
burner in the low pressure gas system is
controlled by:

A. Gas pressure
B. Steam pressure
C. The boiler operator
D. The amount of air passing through the
butterfly valve
If low water develops in the boiler having a
low pressure gas system the ____ will secure
the gas to the burner

A. Whistle valve
B. Manual reset valve
C. Vaporstat
D. Main gas solenoid
Combination gas/fuel oil burners permit the
operator to switch from one fuel to ____

A. For economy
B. Because of a shortage of fuel being used
C. Because of a failure in the fuel system being
used
D. All of the above
Hard coal, known as ____, has a
____ content

A. Bituminous; high carbon

B. Anthracite; high volatile
C. Bituminous; high volatile
D. Anthracite; high carbon
Soft coal, known as ____, has a ____ content

A. Bituminous; high carbon

B. Anthracite; high volatile
C. Bituminous; high volatile
D. Anthracite; high carbon
Boilers using soft coal must have ____ furnace
volume to reduce the danger of ____

A. Small; overfiring
B. Large; smoking
C. Small; smoking
D. Large; overfiring
When burning soft coal, if the volatile gases
reach the surface before they have burned
completely _____ and _____ develop

A. Smoke; soot
B. Clinkers; ash
C. Uneven heat; ash
D. High temperature; smoke
The ______ of fuels oil is the lowest
temperature at which it will flow as a liquid

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Viscocity
The ____ is the temperature at which fuel oil
gives off vapor that flashes when exposed to
an open flame

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Viscocity
The ______ is the temperature at which fuel
oil will burn continuously when exposed to an
open flame

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Viscocity
It is define as the internal resistance of fuel
oil flow?

A. Fire point
B. Pour point
C. Flash point
D. Viscocity
What must be done in order to lower the
viscocity of the fuel oil?

A. Lower its temperature

B. Increase its temperature
C. Lower its pour point
D. Increase its pour point
A leak on the fuel oil suction line between the
tank and the suction side of the fuel oil pump
would result in:

A. the suction gauge pulsating

B. air entering the suction line
C. pulsating of the fire in the boiler
D. all of the above
Stokers were developed to:

A. increase efficiency of burning coal

B. keep furnace temperature constant to
protect brickwork
C. allow for development of larger coal-fired
boiler
D. all of the above
Any foreign matter in the coal feed mechanism of
the screw-feed stoker is best removed by:

A. Emptying the coal hopper

B. Reversing the stroker
C. Forcing it through with a heaver shear pin
D. Using the cutoff gate at the bottom of the
hopper
In the event of an obstruction clogging the
feed screw a _____ is used to prevent
damage to transmission

A. Slip clutch
B. Shear pin or key
C. Fuse
D. None of the above
In order to bank the stoker it is necessary to
secure the _____ while the _____ continues to
operate

A. Combination fan; coal feeder

B. Coal feeder, forced draft fan
C. Feed water; induced draft fan
D. Boiler stop valve; coal feeder
In a screw- feed stoker, what draft fan
supplies air for combustion?

A. Induced
B. Forced
C. Combination
D. Natural
To prevent smoke and to aid in complete
combustion in the screw-feed stoker, _____ is
provide using a separate damper control

A. Underfire air
B. Retort air
C. Overfire air
D. Grate zone air
The ram-feed stoker is a(an) _____ stoker

A. Overfeed
B. Side feed
C. Travelling gate
D. Underfeed
The ram-feed stoker provides:

A. Uniform feed
B. Quick ash discharge
C. Even coal distribution
D. All of the above
Combustion is the rapid burning of fuel and
oxygen resulting in:

A. Release of heat
B. Oxidation
C. Release of steam
D. Nitrogen and oxygen
What combustion occurs when all the fuel is
burned using the theoretical amount of air?

A. Incomplete
B. Perfect
C. Complete
D. Imperfect
It is the burning of all the fuel using the
minimum amount of excess air

A. Incomplete
B. Complete
C. Perfect
D. Imperfect
_____ combustion occurs when all the fuel Is
not burned resulting in formation of soot and
smoke.

A. Incomplete
B. Perfect
C. Complete
D. Imperfect
Which of the following is required to achieve
complete combustion?

A. Proper atomization
B. Proper temperature of fuel
C. Time of complete combustion
D. All of the above
The combustion process must be complete
before the gases combustion come in
contact with the:

A. Atmosphere
B. Superheater
C. Heating surface
D. Main steam outlet
Soot buildup on heating surface:

A. Acts as an insulation
B. Prevents heat transfer
C. Increases temperature of gases of
combustion
D. All of the above
The purpose of automatic combustion
controls is to control _____ and _____

A. High fire; low fire

B. Stoker firing; fuel rate
C. Overfire air; fuel mixture
D. Proper air to fuel mixture; firing rate
At 0 psig, how many BTU necessary to change 1
lb of water at 212 F of steam?

A. 144
B. 970
C. 180
D. 1190
Radiation is:

A. The movement of liquids or gases created

by a temperature difference
B. The transfer of heat by direct molecular
contact
C. The weight of the substance compared to
unity
D. A form of heat transfer
Steam at 100 psi and 400 F is :

A. Saturated
B. Superheated
C. Wet
D. None of the above
Which of the ff most closely defines sensible heat?

A. An established relationship comparing any

substance to the heat content of water
B. Heat quantity can be felt or measured by a
thermometer
C. Heat quantity above the point of saturation
D. Measure of heat intensity
What is required to raise the temperature
of 1lb of water from 32 to 212 F

A. 144 BTU
B. 970.3 BTU
C. 180 BTU
D. Saturated heat
Increasing the pressure has what effect of the
boiling point of water?

A. No change
B. Temperature will be raised
C. Temperature will be lowered
D. Temperature will increase 2 F for every psi
Heat absorbed by water when it changes
from liquid to steam at the boiling point is
called:

A. Sensible heat
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Superheat
Heat may be transferred in how many ways?

A. One
B. Three
C. Two
D. Four
In turbine installation, the air
is removed from condenser
by

A. Air pump
B. Air injector
C. Air ejector
D. Air jet
The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid is
to:

A. Add energy to the flow

B. Add mass to the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. None of the above
A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing
through a hole in a plate is located
approximately:

A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole

B. At jet’s minimum diameter
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
D. At the orifice maximum diameter
The ff are all examples of inderect (secondary)
miscellaneous methods to measure flow
except:

A. turbine and proppeler meters

B. magnetic flow meters
C. positive displacement meters
D. hot-wire anemometers
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the ff cases except:

A. Pumps
B. Fans
C. Turbines
D. Weirs
One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the ff cases except:

A. Surface ships
B. Surface wave motion
C. Flow over weirs
D. Closed –pipe turbulent pipe flow
One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the ff cases
except:

A. Motion of a fluid jet

B. Flow over spillways
C. Surge and flood waves
D. Subsonic airfoils
In fluid, linear momentum is:

A. A vector quantity equal to the product of

mass and velocity
B. A scalar quantity equal to the product of
mass and velocity
C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of
force and length of time applied
D. The change in impulse
All of the ff fluid phenomena are based on
the force momentum principle of a flowing
fluid except:

A. Turbines
B. Pelton wheels
C. Diesel automobile engines
D. Jet engines
The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the
cross sectional area of the pipe through which
it flow decrease is due to:

A. Bernoull’s equation
B. The continuity equation
C. The momentum equation
D. The perfect gas law
In the absence of any heat and work
interactions and any changes in potential
energy, the stagnation enthalpy of a fluid
remains constant during

A. Unsteady flow
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. Variable flow
When a falling object reaches a speed at which
the drag force equals its weight, it has achieved:

A. Mach one
B. A laminar boundary layer
C. A turbulent boundary layer
D. Terminal velocity
The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the :

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the:

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:

A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and the

coefficient of contraction
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical
velocity
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the
coefficient of contraction
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and
the coefficient of contraction
Which of the ff is not a similarity between a
submerged culvert and a siphon?

A. They both operate full

B. Torricelli’s equation holds
C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses
D. In both, the water flows downhill
In parallel pipe system originating and terminating
in common junctions,

A. Mass flows through each branch are equal

B. Pressure drops through each branch are equal
C. Lengths of each branch are equal
D. Flow areas of each branch are equal
Flows through multi-loop systems may be
computed by:

A. Any closed- form solution of simultaneous

equations
B. The hardy-cross method
C. Trial and error
D. All of the above
Flow measuring devices include all of the ff
except:

A. Venturi meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Turbine and propeller meters
D. Magnetic dynamometers
Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:

A. Orifice plate meters

B. Hot-wire anemometers
C. Magnetic flow meters
D. Mercury barometers
Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:

A. Flow nozzles
B. Venture area meters
C. Pitot tubes
D. Precision tachometers
The ff are examples of indirect ( secondary)
measurements to measure flow rates using
obstruction meters except:

A. Variable are meters

B. Venture meters
C. Volume tanks
D. Flow nozzles
The ff are examples of indirect ( secondary)
measurements to measure flow rates using
obstruction meters except:

A. Pitot static meters

B. Static pressure probes
C. Weight and mass scales
D. Direction-sensing probes
In series pipe systems, all of the ff
parameters vary from section to section
except

A. Pressure drop
B. Friction loss
C. Head loss
D. Mass flow
Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice
meters, flow nozzles, and differential
manometers all depend upon the
relationship between:

A. Flow velocity and friction

B. Flow velocity and pressure
C. Friction and pressure
D. Pressure and mass flow
The combination of enthalpy and kinetic
energy of fluid is termed as:

A. Latent enthalpy
B. Heat enthalpy
C. Throttling enthalpy
D. Stagnation enthalpy
The coefficient of the velocity ,Cv accounts for
the:

A. Effects on the flow area of contraction,

friction, and turbulence
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of converging pipe
D. Effects of compressibility
Expansion factors take into account the:

A. Area of the vena contracta

B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of converging pipe
D. Effects of compressibility
The matching of scale model and full-scale
results for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a
free surface requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
The matching of scale and full-scale results for
a fluid dynamic phenomena involving
compressible fluids requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number
The matching model and full-scale prototype
results a fluid dynamic phenomena involving
surface tension requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Foude number
D. Cauchy number
The matching model and full-scale prototype
results a fluid dynamic phenomena involving
a fully submerged body requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
The water hammer phenomenon is primarily
what kind of fluid mechanisms?

A. Static( a phenomena independent of time)

B. Dynamic( a time- dependent phenomena)
C. Compressible
D. Incompressible
All of the following are forms of drag on
a body moving through a fluid except:

A. Skin friction
B. Wake drag
C. Profile drag
D. D’alembert’s paradox drag
The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a
sphere in water is dependent upon all of the
ff except:

A. Fluid density
B. Fluid velocity
C. Units of measure (SI or English
engineering system)
D. Drag force
The fact that there is no resistance bodies
moving through an ideal(non-viscous) fluid
is known as:

A. Reynold’s analogy
B. D’alembert’s paradox
C. Newton’s 2nd law
D. The 2nd law of thermodynamics
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the ff cases except:

A. Submarines
B. Torpedoes
C. Seaplane hulls
D. Supersonic aircraft
The function of a turbine is to:

A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another

B. Increase the total energy content of the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
Pitot tube is use to measure the :

A. Velocity of mass
B. Velocity of pipe
C. Flow
D. Velocity of flow
Orifice coefficients are used to
determine:

A. Energy losses
B. Energy gains
C. Mass losses
D. Energy losses mass gains
The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the:

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
The volume flow passes through a
venturimeter is:

A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Constant
D. Varying
What must be done to change the direction of
rotation of a 440-volt, 3-phase induction motor?

A. Reverse lines to start winding

B. Interchange any two power leads
C. Replace any two wires to the rotor
D. Remove any power leads
A draft tube is a part of which power plants?

A. Diesel engine power plant

B. Gas turbine power plant
C. Steam power plant
D. Hydro-electric power plant
In the hydro-electric power plant having a
medium head and using a Francis turbine, the
turbine speed may be regulated through:

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. forebay
A Francis turbine has what flow?

A. Inward flow reaction

B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse
Which of the following is a type of water
turbine?

A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Bankl
What is the use of a hydraulic jump?

A. Increase the flow rate

B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow
A Kaplan turbine is:

A. A high head mixed flow turbine

B. An inward flow impulse turbine
C. An outward flow reaction turbine
D. Low head axial flow turbine
The locus of elevation is:

A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. friction
The locus of elevations to which water will rise
in the piezometer tube is termed:

A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path
The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a
dam is:

A. Tailrace
B. Spiral casing
C. Surge tank
D. penstock
A type of water turbine where a jet of water is
made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to
the impulse of water, the turbine starts to
move.

A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
The lowest portion to storage basin from where
the water is not drawn is:

A. Bottom storage
B. Sub-soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage
In a hydro – electric plant using a Francis turbine
with medium head, the speed can be regulated
using the

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir
In the deep well installation or operation, the
difference between static water level and
operating water level is known as:

A. Suction lift
B. Drawdown
C. Priming level
D. Clogging
Which of the following is a characteristic of an
impulse turbine?

A. Steam striking blades on angle

B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reversing direction
What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube
in a turbine?

A. Below atmospheric
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric
D. Gage
An impulse turbine are used for:

A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head
Which of the following is used as high head
turbine?

A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller
In pumped storage plant

A. Power is produced by pumps

B. Water is stored by pumping to high pressures
C. Pressure accumulators are used
D. Downstream water is pumped upstream during
offload periods
What is the pressure at the exit of a draft tube
in a turbine?

A. Below atmospheric
B. Vacuum
C. Atmospheric
D. Gage
An impulse turbine are used for:

A. Low head
B. Medium head
C. High head
D. Very low head
High head turbine is a/an:

A. Impulse
B. Francis
C. Reaction
D. Propeller
The lowest portion to storage basin from where
the water is not drawn is:

A. Bottom storage
B. Sub-soil storage
C. Spring reserve
D. Dead storage
In a hydro – electric plant using a francis turbine
with medium head, the speed can be regulated
using the

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir
In the deep well installation or operation, the
difference between static water level and
operating water level is known as:

A. Suction lift
B. Drawdown
C. Priming level
D. Clogging
Which of the following is a characteristic of an
impulse turbine?

A. Steam striking blades on angle

B. No steam reaction to velocity
C. Steam striking blades at zero angle
D. Steam reversing direction
A type of water turbine where a jet of water is
made to fall on the blades or buckets and due to
the impulse of water, the turbine starts to
move.

A. Pelton wheel
B. Steam turbine
C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
The intake pipe to a hydraulic turbine from a
dam is:

A. Tailrace
B. Spiral casing
C. Surge tank
D. penstock
In a hydro – electric plant using a Francis turbine
with medium head, the speed can be regulated
using the

A. Deflector gate
B. Nozzle
C. Wicket gate
D. Weir
A Francis turbine has what flow?

A. Inward flow reaction

B. Outward flow impulse
C. Outward flow reaction
D. Inward flow impulse
Which of the following is a type of water
turbine?

A. Parson
B. Hero
C. Pelton
D. Bankl
Hydraulic jump is used to:

A. Increase the flow rate

B. Reduce the flow rate
C. Reduce the velocity of flow
D. Reduce the energy of flow
A Kaplan turbine is:

A. A high head mixed flow turbine

B. An inward flow impulse turbine
C. An outward flow reaction turbine
D. Low head axial flow turbine
The locus of elevation is:

A. Critical point
B. Hydraulic gradient
C. Energy gradient
D. friction
The locus of elevation to which water will rise in
the piezometer tube is termed:

A. Energy gradient
B. Friction head
C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Critical path
In turbine installation, the air
is removed from condenser
by

A. Air pump
B. Air injector
C. Air ejector
D. Air jet
The primary purpose of a turbine in a fluid is
to:

A. Add energy to the flow

B. Add mass to the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. None of the above
A vena contracta in a fluid jet issuing
through a hole in a plate is located
approximately:

A. 10 diameters downstream of the hole

B. At jet’s minimum diameter
C. At the orifice minimum diameter
D. At the orifice maximum diameter
The ff are all examples of inderect (secondary)
miscellaneous methods to measure flow
except:

A. turbine and proppeler meters

B. magnetic flow meters
C. positive displacement meters
D. hot-wire anemometers
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the ff cases except:

A. Pumps
B. Fans
C. Turbines
D. Weirs
One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the ff cases except:

A. Surface ships
B. Surface wave motion
C. Flow over weirs
D. Closed –pipe turbulent pipe flow
One could expect the possibility of Froude
number similarity in all of the ff cases
except:

A. Motion of a fluid jet

B. Flow over spillways
C. Surge and flood waves
D. Subsonic airfoils
In fluid, linear momentum is:

A. A vector quantity equal to the product of

mass and velocity
B. A scalar quantity equal to the product of
mass and velocity
C. A scalar quantity equal to the product of
force and length of time applied
D. The change in impulse
All of the ff fluid phenomena are based on
the force momentum principle of a flowing
fluid except:

A. Turbines
B. Pelton wheels
C. Diesel automobile engines
D. Jet engines
The fact that a fluid’s velocity increases as the
cross sectional area of the pipe through which
it flow decrease is due to:

A. Bernoull’s equation
B. The continuity equation
C. The momentum equation
D. The perfect gas law
In the absence of any heat and work
interactions and any changes in potential
energy, the stagnation enthalpy of a fluid
remains constant during

A. Unsteady flow
B. Steady flow
C. Turbulent flow
D. Variable flow
When a falling object reaches a speed at which
the drag force equals its weight, it has achieved:

A. Mach one
B. A laminar boundary layer
C. A turbulent boundary layer
D. Terminal velocity
The coefficient of contraction is the ratio of the :

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
The coefficient of discharge is the ratio of the:

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
The coefficient of velocity is equal to the:

A. Product of the coefficient of discharge and the

coefficient of contraction
B. Actual velocity divided by the theoretical
velocity
C. Sum of the coefficient of discharge and the
coefficient of contraction
D. Difference of the coefficient of discharge and
the coefficient of contraction
Which of the ff is not a similarity between a
submerged culvert and a siphon?

A. They both operate full

B. Torricelli’s equation holds
C. Both can experience entrance and exit losses
D. In both, the water flows downhill
In parallel pipe system originating and terminating
in common junctions,

A. Mass flows through each branch are equal

B. Pressure drops through each branch are equal
C. Lengths of each branch are equal
D. Flow areas of each branch are equal
Flows through multi-loop systems may be
computed by:

A. Any closed- form solution of simultaneous

equations
B. The hardy-cross method
C. Trial and error
D. All of the above
Flow measuring devices include all of the ff
except:

A. Venturi meters
B. Static pressure probes
C. Turbine and propeller meters
D. Magnetic dynamometers
Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:

A. Orifice plate meters

B. Hot-wire anemometers
C. Magnetic flow meters
D. Mercury barometers
Flow measuring devices include all of the
following except:

A. Flow nozzles
B. Venture area meters
C. Pitot tubes
D. Precision tachometers
The ff are examples of indirect ( secondary)
measurements to measure flow rates using
obstruction meters except:

A. Variable are meters

B. Venture meters
C. Volume tanks
D. Flow nozzles
The ff are examples of indirect ( secondary)
measurements to measure flow rates using
obstruction meters except:

A. Pitot static meters

B. Static pressure probes
C. Weight and mass scales
D. Direction-sensing probes
In series pipe systems, all of the ff
parameters vary from section to section
except

A. Pressure drop
B. Friction loss
C. Head loss
D. Mass flow
Venturi meters, pitot static gauges, orifice
meters, flow nozzles, and differential
manometers all depend upon the
relationship between:

A. Flow velocity and friction

B. Flow velocity and pressure
C. Friction and pressure
D. Pressure and mass flow
The combination of enthalpy and kinetic
energy of fluid is termed as:

A. Latent enthalpy
B. Heat enthalpy
C. Throttling enthalpy
D. Stagnation enthalpy
The coefficient of the velocity ,Cv accounts for
the:

A. Effects on the flow area of contraction,

friction, and turbulence
B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of converging pipe
D. Effects of compressibility
Expansion factors take into account the:

A. Area of the vena contracta

B. Small effect of friction and turbulence of
the orifice
C. Changes in diameters of converging pipe
D. Effects of compressibility
The matching of scale model and full-scale
results for a fluid dynamic phenomena with a
free surface requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
The matching of scale and full-scale results for
a fluid dynamic phenomena involving
compressible fluids requires equality of:

A. Reynolds number
B. Froude number
C. Cauchy number
D. Mach number
The matching model and full-scale prototype
results a fluid dynamic phenomena involving
surface tension requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Foude number
D. Cauchy number
The matching model and full-scale prototype
results a fluid dynamic phenomena involving
a fully submerged body requires equality of :

A. Reynolds number
B. Weber number
C. Froude number
D. Cauchy number
The water hammer phenomenon is primarily
what kind of fluid mechanisms?

A. Static( a phenomena independent of time)

B. Dynamic( a time- dependent phenomena)
C. Compressible
D. Incompressible
All of the following are forms of drag on
a body moving through a fluid except:

A. Skin friction
B. Wake drag
C. Profile drag
D. D’alembert’s paradox drag
The magnitude of the drag coefficient of a
sphere in water is dependent upon all of the
ff except:

A. Fluid density
B. Fluid velocity
C. Units of measure (SI or English
engineering system)
D. Drag force
The fact that there is no resistance bodies
moving through an ideal(non-viscous) fluid
is known as:

A. Reynold’s analogy
B. D’alembert’s paradox
C. Newton’s 2nd law
D. The 2nd law of thermodynamics
One could expect the possibility of Reynolds
number similarity in all of the ff cases except:

A. Submarines
B. Torpedoes
C. Seaplane hulls
D. Supersonic aircraft
The function of a turbine is to:

A. Transfer heat from one fluid to another

B. Increase the total energy content of the flow
C. Extract energy from the flow
D. Exchange heat to increase energy to the flow
Pitot tube is use to measure the :

A. Velocity of mass
B. Velocity of pipe
C. Flow
D. Velocity of flow
Orifice coefficients are used to
determine:

A. Energy losses
B. Energy gains
C. Mass losses
D. Energy losses mass gains
The coefficient of velocity is the ratio of the:

A. Area of vena contracta to the orifice area

B. Actual discharge to the theoretical discharge
C. Actual velocity to the theoretical velocity
D. Effective head to the actual head
The volume flow passes through a
venturimeter is:

A. Increasing
B. Decreasing
C. Constant
D. Varying
Which of the following devices used to
measure the discharge of outflow from a
vessel?

A. Pitot tube
B. Orifice
C. Pump head
D. Obstruction meter
The maximum continuous
power available from a
hydro-electric plant under
the most adverse hydraulic
conditions is called

A. Base power
B. Firm power
C. Primary power
D. Secondary power
The area under load curve
divided by the maximum
demand represents:

A. Load factor
B. Connected factor
C. Average load
D. Diversity factor
What is the reserve capacity of a plant?

A. Maximum demand-average demand

B. Plant capacity - maximum demand
C. Plant capacity- average demand
D. Plant capacity x (1-load factor)
Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. Load versus generating capacity

B. Load versus current
C. Load versus time
D. Load versus cost of power
The ratio of maximum load to the
rated plant capacity is called

A. Load factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum load factor
D. Capacity
Peak load for a period of time
divided by installed capacity
is

A. Capacity factor
B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor
 
The ratio of the sum individual
maximum demands of the system to
the maximum demand of the whole
system is:

A. Diversity factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Power factor
D. Demand factor
The ratio between the actual power
and the apparent power in any circuit
known as the _____ of that circuit

A. Measured power
B. Capacity
C. Power factor
D. KVAR
The ratio of maximum load to
the rated plant capacity

A. Load factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum factor
D. Capacity factor
The ratio of the average load to the peak
load over a designated period of time is
called

A. Load factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Diversity factor
D. Plant use factor
The ratio of the sum of individual
maximum demands of the system to the
overall maximum demand of the whole
system

A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor
Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. Load versus generating capacity

B. Load versus current
C. Load versus time
D. Load versus cost of power
Load curve refers to the plot of:

A. Load versus generating capacity

B. Load versus current
C. Load versus time
D. Load versus cost of power
The ratio of maximum load to
the rated plant capacity

A. Load factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Maximum factor
D. Capacity factor
The ratio of the average load to the peak
load over a designated period of time is
called

A. Load factor
B. Reactive factor
C. Diversity factor
D. Plant use factor
Peak load for a period of time divided
by installed capacity is

A. Capacity factor
B. Demand factor
C. Utilization factor
D. Load factor
The area under load curve divided by the
maximum demand represents:

A. Load factor
B. Connected factor
C. Average load
D. Diversity factor
The ratio of the sum of individual
maximum demands of the system to the
overall maximum demand of the whole
system

A. Demand factor
B. Diversity factor
C. Power factor
D. Utilization factor
The ratio of the sum of individual
maximum demands of the system to the
maximum demand of the whole system is
known as

A. Diversity factor
B. Utilization factor
C. Power factor
D. Demand factor
The ratio between the actual power and
the apparent power in any circuit known
as the _____ of that circuit

A. Measured power
B. Capacity
C. Power factor
D. KVAR
Yeast as raw material for beer making is
added to the equipment called:

A. Fermenters
B. Brew kettle
C. Cooler
D. Starting tube
A major cause of air pollution resulting
from the burning of fuel oil is:

A. Nitrous
B. Hydrogen
C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Silicon
Heavy water is:

A. B 2O
B. H2O
C. W2O
D. D2O
Scintillation counter are used
to detect:

A. Beta rays
B. X-ray
C. Gamma rays
D. All of the above
All of the ff are common types of chemical
reaction except

A. Direct combination
B. Fission
C. Decomposition
D. Double replacement
Redox reactions can often be
type of:

A. Direct combination
B. Fission
C. Decomposition
D. Double replacement
The fact that the amount of slightly
soluble gas absorbed in a liquid is
proportional to the partial pressure of
the gas is known as:

A. Dalton’s law
B. Henry’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Boyle’s law
All of the ff pollutants are produced
because of decaying organic matter
except:

A. Ammonia
B. Sulfur dioxide
C. Methane
D. Hydrogen sulfide
The velocity of radiation (v) and the
frequency of radiations (f) are related
to the wavelength of radiations by:

A. v/f
B. f/v
C. vf
D. v2f
Swimming pool water needs

A. pre-chlorination
B. super-chlorination
C. dual-chlorination
D. de-chlorination
Aeration of water is done for all of the ff purposes
except for:

A. Removal of CO2
B. Removal of bad taste
C. Increasing the amount of oxygen in water
D. Removal of temporary hardness
Which of the ff area of work
requires lowest noise level?

A. Gymnasiums
B. Library
C. Lecture halls
D. Kitchens
Mycotoxins are poisonous chemicals
produced by:

A. Bacteria
B. Molds
C. Virus
D. Algae
Turbidity in water is due to:

A. Algae
B. Fungi
C. Organic salts
D. Finally divided particles of clay, silt and
organic matter
Per capita consumption of water is
generally taken as:

A. 50-100 liters
B. 150-300 liters
C. 400-500 liters
D. 750-1000 liters
Which of the following industries have
the highest consumption of water for
processing?

A. Foundry
B. Automobile industry
C. Paper mill
D. Aluminum industry
The ratio activity of water because of
strontium can be removed by:

A. Aeration
B. Alum coagulation
C. Phosphate coagulation
D. Lime
Chemical used for checking the growth of
algae in reservoir is

A. Copper sulphate
B. Alum
C. Bleaching powder
D. Brine
Which of the ff is not pollutant from a
sulfuric acid plants?

A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Sulfur trioxide
C. Acid moist
D. Hydrogen sulfide
Which of the ff is a cold cathode lamp?

A. Sodium vapor lamp

B. High pressure mercury vapor lamp
C. Low pressure mercury vapor lamp
D. Neon lamp
Which has an octane rating of
more than 100?

A. Gobar gas
B. Methyl alcohol
C. Benzol
D. Ethyl alcohol
The part per million is identical to:

A. Grains per gallon

B. Pounds per cubic foot
C. Milligrams per kg
D. Tones per acre foot
In power plant electrostatic precipitators is
installed between:

A. Forced draft fan and induced draft fan

B. Furnace and chimney
C. Primary air and secondary air
D. Furnace and forced draft fan
At present, the number of true elementary
particles, which include leptons and quarks
is thought to be

A. 4
B. 8
C. 10
D. 12
The effective size of a target atom that
interacts with a moving particle is called its
_____

A. Length
B. Width
C. Cross section
D. Pseudo-area
Most nuclear particles can react with atoms
in several different ways including

A. Absorption
B. Scattering
C. Absorption and scattering
D. Reflection and absorption
The operation that produces highest noise
level is:

A. Wielding
B. Riveting
C. Machining
D. Pressing
The ratio absorbed by the transfer fluid to
the original incident energy striking the
collector

A. Shading factor
B. Collector efficiency
C. Betz coefficient
D. Transmittance
A swinging support constructed as part of
the vessel and that supports the manway
cover when it is unbolted and moved
aside.

A. Davit
B. Handhole
C. Nozzle neck
D. Manway arm
Is the subjective method in which the
smoke density is visually compared to five
standardized white-black grids.

A. Ringelman scale
B. Dalton scale
C. Smoke spot scale
D. Dew point scale
The ratio of fugacity of actual conditions
to the fugacity at some reference state is
known as:

A. Compressibility
B. Activity
C. Gravimetric coefficient
D. Saturation
A type of polymer used for detergents, milk
bottles, oil containers and toys

A. Polyvinyl chloride(PVC)
B. Polystyrene(PS)
C. High density polyethelene (HDPE)
D. Polypropylene(PP)
A type of polymer used for grocery bags
and food wraps

A. Polyvinyl chloride(PVC)
B. Polystyrene(PS)
C. Low density polyethelene(LDPE)
D. Polypropylene(PP)
A radioactive gas produce from the decay of
radium within the rocks beneath a building

A. Spills
B. Radon
C. Smoke
D. Smog
Consists of ground-level ozone and
peroxyacyl nitrates (PAN)

A. Smog
B. Spills
C. Sulfur oxide
D. Smoke
A term used to mean the corrective
steps taken to return the environment
to its original condition

A. Stabilization
B. Remediation
C. Greenhouse effect
D. Opacity
The burning of low- sulfur fuel is known
as:

A. Fuel switching
B. Fuel adding
C. Fuel binding
D. Fuel swapping
The removal of particulate matter from a
gas flow by exposing the flow to a liquid
or slurry is known as:

A. Stripping
B. Spraying
C. Scrubbing
D. Absorption
The drop in a solvent’s vapor pressure and
the increase in mole fraction as solute is
added is describe by:

A. Dalton’s law
B. Henry’s law
C. Raoult’s law
D. Boyle’s law
All of the ff statements are characteristics of bases
except

A. They conduct electricity in aqueous solutions

B. They turn red litmus paper blue
C. They have a pH between 0 and 7
D. They neutralize acids forming salts and water
All of the ff statements about conjugate acids
and bases are true except

A. A conjugate acids results when a base

accept a proton
B. A conjugate base results when a base
accepts a proton
C. Strong acids tend to give weak conjugate
bases
D. The bronsted- lowry theory defines bases
as proton accepetors
Are any solid particulate matter that becomes
airborne, with the exception of particulate
matter emitted from the exhaust stack of a
combustion process

A. Dusts or fugitive dusts

B. Dioxins
C. Fugitive emission
D. CFCs
Equipment leaks from plant equipments are
known as

A. Fugitive leaks
B. Fugitive dusts
C. Fugitive exhausts
D. Fugitive emissions
What is a substance that absorbs or retains
moisture?

A. Surface acting agent

B. Dry ultra-fine coal
C. Fossil fuel
D. Humectant
Is a soluble compound that reduces a
liquid’s surface tension or reduces the
interfacial tension between a liquid and a
solid

A. Surface – acting agent or surfactant

B. Humectant
C. Oxygenated fuel
D. CFC
A material or substance that is accidentally
or intentionally introduce to the
environment in a quantity that exceeds what
occurs naturally

A. Waste
B. Sludge
C. Pollutant
D. Biosolids
Refers to organic waste produced from
biological water waste treatment
processes

A. Toxic waste
B. Biosolids
C. Extrinsic waste
D. Process waste
A rule which states that any solid waste
mixed with hazardous waste becomes
harazdous

A. The mixture rule

B. The derived from rule
C. The environmental rule
D. The hazard rule
A rule which states that any waste derived
from the treatment of a hazardous waste
remains a hazardous waste

A. The mixture rule

B. The treatment rule
C. The derived from rule
D. The hazard rule
Generally refers to sulfur trioxide SO3 in the
flue gas

A. Acid rain
B. Acid gas
C. Hydrochloric acids
D. Stack gas
What consists of weak solutions of sulfuric,
hydrochloric, and to a lesser extent, nitric
acids?

A. Stack gas
B. Acid rain
C. Acid compound
D. pollutant
A fibrous silicate mineral material that is
inert, strong and incombustible

A. Fiberglass
B. Plastic
C. Rubber
D. Asbestos
An insulator with superior tensile strength
but low heat resistance

A. Rubber
B. Plastic
C. Fiberglass
D. Asbestos
Are highly concentrated liquid wasted
produced in landfills

A. Aerosols
B. Leachates
C. Nitrogen dioxide
D. Urea
What is the primary cause of smog
formation?

A. Toxins
B. Dioxins
C. Oxidants
D. Nitrogen oxides
Is a water soluble organic compound
prepared from ammonia. It has significant
biological and industrial usefulness

A. Urea or carbamide urea

B. Nitrite
C. Chlorinated organics
D. Oxidants
Are by products of reaction between
combustion products

A. Photochemicals
B. Oxidants
C. Organics
D. Sediments
“Particulate matter” is defined as all
particles that are emitted by a combustion
source. What is another term for particulate
matter?

A. Dust
B. Aerosol
C. Biosolids
D. Sediments
Are organic compounds manufactured in oily
liquid and solid forms through the late 1970s
and subsequently prohibited

A. Polychlorinated biphenyls (PCBs)

B. Polyvinyl chloride (PVC)
C. Trihalomethanes
D. Plastic
A type of polymer used for Styrofoam cups
and clam shell food containers

A. Polyvinyl chloride(PVC
B. Polystyrene(PS)
C. Low density polyethylene (LDPE)
D. Polypropylene(PP)
A type of polymer used for labels, bottles,
housewares

A. Polyvinyl chloride(PVC)
B. Polystyrene(PS)
C. Low density polyethylene (LDPE)
D. Polypropylene(PP)
A type of polymer used for clear bottles.

A. Polyvinyl chloride(PVC)
B. Polystyrene(PS)
C. Low density polyethylene (LDPE)
D. Polypropylene(PP)
Refers to the high – temperature removal
of tarry substances from the interior of
the carbon granule, leaving a highly
porous structure

A. Absorbent
B. Activated
C. Breakthrough
D. Adsorbent
A substance with surface area per unit of
weight, and intricate pore structure, and a
hydrophobic surface

A. Adsorbent substance
B. Adsorbent substance
C. Homogeneous substance
D. Activated substance
Is a high- temperature process that turns
incinerator ash into a safe, glass –like
material

A. Advance oxidation
B. Biofitration
C. Vitrification
D. Bioventing
Refers to the use of composting and soil beds

A. Biofiltration
B. Biomediation
C. Bioventing
D. Bioreactros
Are open or closed tanks containing dozens
or hundreds of slowly rotating disks covered
with a biological film of microorganisms

A. Biofilter
B. Bioreactor
C. Biomediator
D. Bioinvetor
Refers to the treatment of contaminated soil
in a large plastic-covered tank

A. Bioventing
B. Biological recycling
C. Biocycle
D. Bioremendiation
All of the ff occur during oxidation of a
substance except

A. Oxidation state increases

B. Loss of electrons
C. The substance becomes less negative
D. Oxidation of the oxidizing agent
All of the ff occur during reduction of a
substance except

A. An increase in negative charge

B. Loss of electrons
C. An oxidation state decrease
D. Reduction of the oxidizing agent
All of the ff are units of energy except

A. Calories
B. Joules
C. Pascals
D. MeV
What do you call the mixture if the solute
particles of a solid suspended in a liquid are
larger than molecules?

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
What do you call the mixture when a
solvent has dissolve as much solute as it
can?

A. Solution
B. Mild solution
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
The equilibrium constant for weak solution
is known as

A. Ionization constant
B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Solubility product
D. La chatelier’s constant
What do you call the mixture if the solute
particles of a solid suspended in a liquid are
larger than molecules?

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
What do you call the mixture when a
solvent has dissolve as much solute as it
can?

A. Solution
B. Mild solution
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
The equilibrium constant for weak solution
is known as

A. Ionization constant
B. Arrhenius exponent
C. Solubility product
D. La chatelier’s constant
If the solute particles of a solid suspended
in a liquid are larger than molecules the
mixture is known as?

A. Solution
B. Suspension
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
when a solvent has dissolve as much solute
as it can, the mixture is called:

A. Solution
B. Mild solution
C. Hydration
D. Saturated solution
When excess solute in a solution settles to
the bottom of the container, the process is
called:

A. Salvation
B. Deemulsification
C. Precipitation
D. Equation
All of the ff express units of
concentration except

A. Normality
B. Molarity
C. Formality
D. Isotropy
The desirable temperature inside an air
conditioned auditorium is:

A. 0C
B. 5C
C. 10 C
D. 20 C
Which of the following acts as ignition
accelerator for internal combustion engine
fuels?

A. Acetone peroxide
B. Hydrogen peroxide
C. Aromatic compounds
D. N-heptane
Which of the ff does not use
ambient air for propulsion?

A. Turbo jet
B. Turbo- prop
C. Pulse jet
D. Rocket
Most observe properties of light and other
radiant energy are consistent with waves in
nature, but in interaction with matter,
electromagnetic energy behaves as though it
consists of discrete pieces or

A. Blocks
B. Balls
C. Quanta
D. Atomic masses
The amount of energy absorbed when a
substance enters a solution is called the:

A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat of sublimation
C. Endothermic heat of solution
D. Exothermic heat of solution
The absorption of water by a dessicant often
demonstrates:

A. Heat of fusion
B. Heat of vaporization
C. Endothermic heat of solution
D. Exothermic heat of solution
A substance that absorbs moisture from
the air is

A. Deliquescent
B. Efflorescent
C. Effervescent
D. A precipitant
The removal of dissolved gas or other
volatile component from liquid by
exposing the liquid to air or steam is
known as:

A. Stripping
B. Gas absorption
C. Spraying
D. Scrubbing
Which of the ff contribute to the
deterioration of the earth’s ozone layer?

A. Carbon monoxide
B. Chlorofluorocarbons
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Refrigerants
Ozone filters out what type of radiation
that damages crops and causes skin
cancer?

A. Tropospheric radiation
B. Atmospheric radiation
C. X-rays
D. Ultraviolet radiation
All of the ff factors affect rates of reaction
except

A. Exposed surface area

B. Concentration
C. Temperature
D. Pressure
Le Chatelier’s principle predicts the
direction of a state of chemical
equilibrium bases on all of the ff factors
except:

A. Temperature
B. Specific volume
C. Pressure
D. Concentration
The amount of energy necessary to cause a
reaction to occur is called the

A. Heat of formation
B. Heat of solution
C. Activation of energy
D. Heat of fusion
The equilibrium constant for weak
solutions is known as

A. The ionization constant

B. The Arrhenius exponent
C. The solubility product
D. Le chatelier’s principle
The speed at which a reaction proceeds to
equilibrium is the purview of

A. Reaction kinetics
B. Le chatelier’s principle
C. Neutralization
D. Ionization
The color of water is measured

A. In terms of pH value
B. In terms of degree of hardness
C. In terms of platinum cobalt scale
D. Ppm of dissolved solids
What turbidimeter that gives direct reading
in ppm?

A. Jackson turbidimeter
B. Hellige turbidimeter
C. Baylis turbidimeter
D. All of the above
Which of the ff is not a sound
absorptive material?

A. Rugs
B. Mirrors
C. Carpets
D. Heavey drapes
The total cross section of a target atom is made up
of

A. The absorption cross section

B. The scattering cross section
C. The absorption and scattering cross sections
D. The reflection and absorption cross sections
Which of the ff cannot be phenomenon of
neutrons interactions?

A. Inelastic scattering
B. Elastic scattering
C. Fission
D. Fusion
Which of the ff cannot be used to describe
neutron kinetic energy levels?

A. Cold
B. Thermal
C. Slow
D. Freezing
All of the ff are words used to describe
neutron kinetic energy levels except:

A. Slow(resonant)
B. Fast
C. Supersonic
D. Relativistic
The reduction of nuclear radiation intensity
(called attenuation) is accomplished by:

A. Matter
B. Antimatter
C. Shielding
D. Neurons
The ability of substance to absorb neurons
depends upon its

A. Absorption cross section

B. Scattering cross section
C. Total cross section
D. Atomic number