3210AFE Week 2
3210AFE Week 2
3210AFE Week 2
compute the covariance and correlation between two returns given historical data.
identify a mean-standard deviation diagram and be familiar with its basic elements.
use means and covariances for individual asset returns to calculate the mean and
variance of the returns on a portfolio of assets.
Revision
Last week we examined the simple investment-consumption model
that underlies much of finance theory and, in turn, financial
decision-making.
This model is based on certainty; that is, the firm’s shareholders
could accurately forecast the firm’s cash flows and the returns from
investment (and the capital market) were set.
Under these conditions, the utility of shareholders was based solely
on their own subjective tradeoff between current and future
consumption.
As long as the firm objectively optimized the selection of projects,
the shareholders were always in an optimal position in the presence
of a capital market.
However, in reality we are faced with uncertainty. This includes
uncertainty regarding future investment returns (risk) and our own-
subjective requirements for consumption.
We then need a model of optimal decision-making in the presence of
uncertainty: this is where portfolio theory can help.
C1 Slope = MRS
C0C1
Increasing utility
C0
What we call utility theory underlies our understanding of the theory of
investor choice.
The notions of utility we develop underlie the asset pricing models we will
examine later along with the principles of portfolio theory.
They are also important because the utility theory that underlies modern
finance has been relatively recently called into question.
If true, then much of the investor and market behavior that we take for
granted is not the result of rational utility-maximizing behavior rather
irrational and subjective decision-making.
In this instance, the asset pricing, portfolio and other models upon which
we rely are invalid.
How then would we make and understand financial decisions?
We need to examine more closely the axioms that underlie utility theory
when individuals are faced with the task of choosing risk alternatives
combined with the assumption of non-satiation (i.e. greed).
Axioms of choice under uncertainty
Axiom 1 Comparability (or completeness)
This axiom says that for entire set of uncertain alternatives, S, the individual
can say that they prefer outcome x to y, y to x, or are indifferent between x
and y.
Axiom 4 Measurability
This axiom says that if outcome y is preferred less than x but more than
z, then there is some unique probability and residual probability that
will make the individual indifferent between y and a gamble between x
and z respectively.
Axiom 5 Ranking
If alternatives y and u lie between x and z and we can construct a
gamble between y and x and z and a second between u and x and z (as
above), then if the probability of the first gamble is greater than the
second, then the y is preferred to u.
What do these axioms imply?
These axioms, along with the assumption of non-satiation of wealth, combine
together to mean that individuals seek to maximise the expected utility of wealth.
In this, all individuals always make completely rational decisions.
They make these decisions from amongst an infinite number of alternatives.
Importantly, there are any number of utility functions that can satisfy these
conditions and still have positive marginal utility.
The trouble is there are many examples around us in the real world that could be
regarded as inconsistent with these concepts.
Consider a lotto game where the odds of winning are 1 in 6,991,908 with a
jackpot of $1.6 mil.
The expected return from a gamble on this jackpot is just $0.22.
And yet most of us would be willing to pay say $0.50 to gamble even
through we are paying more than the expected return.
Is it because we irrational or do we overestimate the probability of
success? Either way we usually violate the axioms of utility theory…
A fair game
However, finance theory relies on the concept that individuals are risk averse.
What does this mean?
Consider an investor with a legitimate square root utility function such that
U(w) = w0.5, i.e. if w = $1, U = 1; if w = $4, U = 2; if w = $9, U = 3 and so on.
We assume that the investor’s current wealth is $5.
To make things simple, we assume that there is only one investment available.
In this investment a fair coin is flipped. If it comes up heads, the investor wins
$4, increasing his wealth to $9.
If it comes up tails, the investor loses $4, decreasing his wealth to $1.
Note that the expected gain is 0.5 × ($4) + 0.5 × (−$4) = $0.
Because the utility of expected wealth is greater than the expected utility of
wealth the individual is risk-averse.
If the expected return is greater than 0%, the investor may or may not choose
to play the game, depending on his utility function and initial wealth.
For example, if the probability of the good outcome in our example was 75%
instead of 50%, the expected outcome would be $7 (0.25 × $1 + 0.75 × $9).
The expected gain would then be $2 ($7 - $5), the expected return would be
40%, and the expected utility would be 2.5 (0.25 × 1 + 0.75 × 3).
Fair game cont…
Because 2.5 is greater than 2.24, the investor would be willing to make the
investment.
The expected return of 40% is a ‘risk premium’ which compensates him for
undertaking the risk of the investment.
Another way of looking at this property of risk aversion is that investors attach
greater weight to losses than they do to gains of equal magnitude (we call this loss
aversion).
In the example, the loss of $4 is a decrease in utility of 1.24, while the gain of $4 is
an increase in utility of only 0.76.
Now, at what level of wealth would our investor be indifferent between the
investment and doing nothing?
In our example, the expected utility of the outcome is 2.
The wealth value which has the same utility is $4 (2 2).
This value of $4 is called the certainty equivalent (CE).
As the investor is willing to accept a lower level of wealth but with the same utility,
he is risk-averse.
If the investor has current wealth less than the CE ($4), he will consider the
investment attractive (although some other investment may be even more
attractive).
Fair game cont…
If his current wealth is greater than CE ($4), he will consider the investment
unattractive, because doing nothing has greater expected utility than the
investment.
If his current wealth is exactly CE ($4), he will be indifferent between
undertaking the investment and doing nothing.
Given this information, what would our investor be willing to give up to
avoid the investment, that is, what is the risk premium?
Well, the risk premium is defined as the difference between the expected
wealth ($5) and the certainty equivalent ($4).
This $1 is the risk premium or compensation the investor requires for assuming
risk over certainty.
As an alternative view, what would the investor be willing to pay to undertake
the risky investment.
This is defined as the difference between current wealth ($5) and the certainty
equivalent wealth ($4).
Because this is positive, the investor would need to be paid $1 to undertake the
investment.
Note that the risk premium is always + (for risk averse investors) but the cost of
the gamble can be + or – depending on the risk and wealth impact of the
investment.
Fair game cont…
Risk averse investors are always willing to have a lower level of certain
income over a risky investment with the same level of wealth.
For example, in the CAPM I am only willing to invest in the market portfolio
of risky assets (equity, etc.) if I receive a premium over the risk-free return
(T-bonds).
Risk averse investors are not risk avoiders, they just need a premium to take
on risk.
But individuals do vary. Some of us are very risk averse, some less so.
The cost of the gamble for our investment would have been negative (willing
to pay) if our CE was higher.
This would occur if we had a greater likelihood of higher, positive outcomes.
Risk neutral investors are entirely indifferent between the certainty equivalent
and the fair game investment since they have the same utility.
Risk seekers will always prefer the risky investment over a certainty
equivalent with the same level of wealth…if you offered them $100 they
would say “I’ll flip you for it, double or nothing!”. Their expected wealth is
the same but in terms of utility they would favor the gamble.
Definition of Risk
Aversion
A risk averse individual will refuse to accept a fair gamble versus the sure thing.
The utility function for a risk averse individual is must be concave (from below)
such that the chord lies below the utility function.
The chord or linear locus represents a risk neutral investor that is indifferent
between the fair gamble and the sure thing.
For the risk neutral investor the expected utility of the gamble equals the
expected value of the gamble.
A risk loving individual is represented by a utility function which is convex
(from below) such that the chord lies above the utility function.
A risk loving individual will prefer the fair gamble over the sure thing.
Assumptions :
Investors consider each investment alternative as being
represented by a probability distribution of expected returns
over some holding period.
Investors maximise one-period expected utility, and their utility
curves demonstrate diminishing marginal utility of wealth.
Investors estimate the risk of the portfolio on the basis of the
variability of expected returns.
Investors base decisions solely on expected return and risk, so
their utility curves are a function of expected return and the
expected variance (or standard deviation) of returns only.
Assumptions cont…
For a given risk level, investors prefer higher returns to lower
returns.
Similarly, for a given level of expected return, investors prefer less
risk to more risk.
Under these assumptions, the Markowitz model aims to establish
an efficient portfolio.
This is either a portfolio that maximises return for a given level of
risk, or one which minimises risk for a given level of return.
The notion of ‘efficiency’ also came from Markowitz’s studies in
linear programming: it was all about maximising outputs from a
given set of inputs.
Inputs into Portfolio Theory
One important feature of portfolio theory is that it is extremely parsimonious.
That is, only a small number of statistics are used to cover a wide range of
outcomes.
If we use Markowitz Portfolio Theory so as to construct an efficient portfolio,
what information do we need?
1. Portfolio weights
This tells us how much we have invested in the assets/securities in our portfolio.
Answer:
The portfolio has a total value of $4 million. The weight on
WBC is:
$1,000,000/$4,000,000 = .25 or 25 percent,
Stock 1 2 3 4
Amount €20,000 -€5,000 €0 €25,000
1,100,000 3,150,000
1 0.0625 6.25%
1,000,000 3,000,000
--------------------------------------------------------------------------------
Answer:
The mean return is 0.8 x 20% 0.1 x(10%) 0.1 x(40%) 11 %
Subtract the mean return from each of the return outcomes to obtain the
demeaned returns.
20% 11% 9% 0.09
10% 11% 21% 0.21
40% 11% 51% 0.51
The variance is the probability-weighted average of the square of these
three numbers
Estimate the variance of the return of the FT 100. Recall from Example 4.5 that
the annual returns of the FT 100 from 2003 to 2006 were 12.49 percent, 15.92
percent, 7.47 percent, and 10.71 percent, respectively, and that the average of
these four numbers was 11.65 percent.
Answer:
Subtracting the average return of 11.65 percent from each of these four
returns results in demeaned returns of -0.94 percent for 2003, 4.27 percent for
2004, -4.18 percent for 2005, and 0.84 percent for 2006. Thus, the average
squared demeaned return is:
(0.0094) 2 (0.0427) 2 (0.0418) 2 (0.0084) 2
0.0009
4
Covariance
The covariance between two securities i and j can be:
Positive, indicating that the returns on the two securities tend to move in the
same direction at the same time; when one increases (decreases), the other
tends to do the same.
Negative, indicating that the returns on the two securities tend to move
inversely; when one increases (decreases), the other tends to decrease
(increase).
Zero, indicating that the returns on two securities are independent and have no
tendency to move in the same or opposite directions together.
Remember that covariance (like variance) is an absolute or unit specific
measure.
The size of the covariance will depend on the variances of the security itself,
and its relationship with the other security.
Computing the Covariance from a Joint
Distribution
1 1/6 = .166 .1 0
2 1/6 = .166 .1 .5
3 ½ = .5 .2 0
4 0 .2 .5
5 1/12=.083 .3 0
6 1/12=.083 .3 .5
Covariance cont…
Answer:
The covariance calculation sums the probability-weighted
product of the demeaned outcomes. The mean return for
stock A is .183, and the mean return for stock B is .125,
implying
cov .166 0.1 .183 0 .125 .166 0.1 .183 0.5 .125 .5 0.2 .183 0 .125
0 .083 0.3 .083 0 .125 .083 0.3 .183 0.5 .125
.002083
Computing the Covariance from Historical
Returns
x x 2 x1 x 2 12
2
p
2
1
2
1
2
2
2
2
For example, in a portfolio of one security the only component of risk will be
the individual securities own risk.
As we increase the number of securities the weighting given to this individual
risk will fall, whilst the risk attributable to the covariance between our security
and all other securities will increase.
Eventually as n (the number of securities) becomes large, the portfolio risk
reduces to the sum of the weighted covariances.
Such a portfolio will consist of N variance terms (one for each security) and N 2-
N covariance terms.
For example, to calculate the portfolio risk of a set of just ten securities will
require ten variances and ninety covariances!
In practice, there are many software packages available that assist us in the
rather mundane act of calculating the minimum variance set and its components.
The linear programming tool in Excel can also help for a small number of
assets.
The efficient set with two risky assets
(and no risk-free asset)
Let us assume that there is no-risk free asset (i.e. zero variance) in which we can
invest, just two risky assets.
By altering the percentage of invested assets in each we eventually attain some
minimum variance set.
The minimum variance set is the locus of risk and return combinations offered by
portfolios of risky assets that yields the minimum variance for a given rate of
return.
As long as the assets included are less than perfectly correlated, this minimum
variance set must be convex.
Obviously, we are not interested in interior solutions: these will always be
dominated by those on the frontier (i.e. less risk for the same return, more return
for the same risk).
Note that in a two asset portfolio there are never any inefficient (or interior)
combinations.
Two risky assets
How does the investor decide in which portfolio combination to optimally
invest?
The answer is given by adding the utility curves discussed last week.
Clearly, the investor will wish to lie on their highest attainable utility curve, but
these must be attainable.
Eventually, we will pick a point of tangency between a utility curve and the
minimum variance set. This will be point C where the subjective MRS is
equated with the objective MRT.
At point A the MRS is steeper that the MRT indicating that we would be
willing to give up a lot of return just to reduce risk a little.
By moving along the frontier (to the left) this can be achieved by substituting
to a less-risky portfolio combination.
This is in the direction of portfolio E which offers identical utility, but with
lower risk and return.
At the optimal point, my subjective rate of tradeoff is equated with the
portfolio's capacity to tradeoff and I can be no better off.
Note that a rational investor will, in fact, never prefer a point below the
minimum variance point, as all portfolios below this are dominated by those
above (i.e. same risk, more return).
The efficient set with one risky asset
and one risk-free asset
The most important characteristics of the risk-free asset is that it has zero
variance (of course) and that its covariance with the risk asset is zero.
Accordingly, portfolio variance is the variance of the risk asset and the
opportunity set is linear.
That is, the slope of the minimum variance set is independent of the
proportion of investment in the risk-free asset.
In order to attain portfolio combinations along the interval XV it is
necessary to borrow (sell-short) the risk-free asset (leverage) and invest
in the risky asset.
Between Y and X we are investing some proportion in the risk-free asset.
The decrease in risk and return is constant as this increases.
If we decide to invest more than 100% in the risk-free asset we must sell
short the risky asset. Assuming no restrictions on short sales the segment
YZ represents the various payoffs.
In general, the availability of short-selling shifts the minimum variance
set to the left.
A worked example via Excel
Microsoft Office
Excel 97-2003 Worksheet
Portfolio analysis
Two-asset portfolio
Month Firm A Firm B w1 1-w1 St. Dev Mean
But to move to this point, we need some general conditions that imply that
all investors will hold identical portfolios of risky assets, otherwise the
optimal portfolio will vary subjectively.
This is the essence of two-fund separation.
Theory in Practice…
While some professional managers do better than the market in any given year, some do
worse, and the outcomes look very much like luck.
Funds that do well in one year are not more likely to do better than average the next year.
The average actively managed fund performs about 1 percent worse than the market
index.
The more actively a fund trades the lower the returns to investors.
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For next week
Read Chapter 4 and take appropriate notes.