Series EF1GH/C SET~2

Q.P. Code 57/C/2

Roll No. narjmWu àíZ-nÌ H$moS> >H$mo CÎma-nwpñVH$m Ho$
_wI-n¥ð >na Adí` {bIo§ &
Candidates must write the Q.P. Code on
the title page of the answer-book.

Ord {dkmZ (g¡ÕmpÝVH$)

BIOLOGY (Theory)
*
:3 : 70
Time allowed : 3 hours Maximum Marks : 70

NOTE :
(i) - 19
Please check that this question paper contains 19 printed pages.
(ii) - - -
-
Q.P. Code given on the right hand side of the question paper should be written on the title
page of the answer-book by the candidate.
(iii) - 33
Please check that this question paper contains 33 questions.
(iv) -

Please write down the serial number of the question in the answer-book before
attempting it.
(v) - 15 -
10.15 10.15 10.30 -
-
15 minute time has been allotted to read this question paper. The question paper will be
distributed at 10.15 a.m. From 10.15 a.m. to 10.30 a.m., the students will read the
question paper only and will not write any answer on the answer-book during this period.

57/C/2 JJJJ ^ Page 1 P.T.O.

 :
:
(i) 33
(ii)
(iii) 1 16 (MCQ)
(iv) 17 21 (VSA)

(v) 22 28 (SA)
(vi) 29 30

(vii) 31 33 (LA)
(viii) 1 1
2 3

(ix)

IÊS> H$
1 16 (MCQ) - 16 1=16

1. - ?
(a) . . . (b)
(c) . . . . (d)
2.
(a) (b)
(c) (d)
3. ,

(a) 2, 1, 2 (b) 2, 2, 2
(c) 1, 2, 1 (d) 1, 1, 2
4. ?
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
57/C/2 JJJJ Page 2
General Instructions :
Read the following instructions carefully and strictly follow them :
(i) This question paper contains 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(ii) This question paper is divided into five sections Section A, B, C, D and E.
(iii) In Section A Questions no. 1 to 16 are multiple choice (MCQ) type questions,
carrying 1 mark each.
(iv) In Section B Questions no. 17 to 21 are very short answer (VSA) type
questions, carrying 2 marks each.
(v) In Section C Questions no. 22 to 28 are short answer (SA) type questions,
carrying 3 marks each.
(vi) In Section D Questions no. 29 and 30 are case-based questions, carrying
4 marks each. Each question has subparts with internal choice in one subpart.
(vii) In Section E Questions no. 31 to 33 are long answer (LA) type questions,
carrying 5 marks each.
(viii) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in
1 question in Section B, 1 question in Section C, 2 questions in Section D and
3 questions in Section E. A candidate has to attempt only one of the
alternatives in such questions.
(ix) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.

SECTION A
Questions no. 1 to 16 are Multiple Choice (MCQ) type Questions, carrying
1 mark each. 16 1=16
1. Which of the following hormone controls the function of Sertoli cells in
humans ?
(a) FSH (b) Estrogen
(c) ACTH (d) Testosterone
2. The source organism of Taq polymerase is :
(a) Escherichia coli (b) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
(c) Thermus aquaticus (d) Bacillus thuringiensis
3. Among the seven pairs of contrasting traits in pea plant studied by
Mendel, number of traits related to flower, pod and seed were respectively :
(a) 2, 1, 2 (b) 2, 2, 2
(c) 1, 2, 1 (d) 1, 1, 2
4. Which one of the following techniques is employed in test tube baby
programme ?
(a) Intra Cytoplasmic Sperm Injection
(b) Intra Uterine Insemination
(c) Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer
(d) Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer
57/C/2 JJJJ Page 3 P.T.O.
5. ?
(a)
(b) ,
(c)
(d) ( )
6.
(a) Lt = L0 + rt (b) W1 = W0 ert
(c) W1 = W0 ert (d) W1 = W0 + ert
7. B-
O ,
AB ABO
(a) A, IAIO (b) AB, IAIB
(c) B, IBIO (d) O, IOIO
8.
(a) (b) ( )
(c) (d)
9.
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)
10.

(a) ( ) (b)
(c) (d) ( )
57/C/2 JJJJ Page 4
5. What forms the basis of DNA fingerprinting ?
(a) Relative proportions of purines and pyrimidines in DNA
(b) Relative difference in the DNA occurrence in blood, skin and saliva
(c) Relative amount of DNA in ridges and grooves of fingerprints
(d) Satellite DNA (repetitive sequences of DNA) that show high degree
of polymorphism
6. Exponential growth in plants can be expressed as :
(a) Lt = L0 + rt (b) W1 = W0 ert
(c) W1 = W0 ert (d) W1 = W0 + ert
7. A woman whose blood group is unknown marries a man with blood group
whereas their
. The possible
blood group of the woman and its genotype on the basis of ABO blood
grouping is :
(a) Blood group A, IAIO (b) Blood group AB, IAIB
(c) Blood group B, IBIO (d) Blood group O, IOIO
8. In asymptote state, population is :
(a) Increasing (b) Decreasing
(c) Stabilized (d) Changing
9. Choose the pair that is incorrectly matched.
(a) Khasi and Jaintia Hills Meghalaya
(b) Aravalli Hills Karnataka
(c) Western Ghats Maharashtra
(d) Chanda and Bastar areas Madhya Pradesh
10. Choose the correct option in which the diagram of the flowering plant
shown below is correctly matched with the drug obtained from it :

(a) Datura Hallucinogen (b) Cannabis Stimulant

(c) Datura Depressant (d) Poppy Depressant
57/C/2 JJJJ Page 5 P.T.O.
11.
(a) ( )

(b)
(c)
(d)

12.
(a) ( )
(b) ( - )
(c)
(d)

13 16 (A)
(R) (a), (b), (c) (d)

(a) (A) (R) (R), (A)

(b) (A) (R) , (R), (A)

(c) (A) , (R)

(d) (A) , (R)

13. (A) : ( )
(R) : ( )

14. (A) :

(R) :

15. (A) :
(R) :

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 6

11. Plasmids are suitable vectors for gene cloning because :
(a) They are small circular DNA molecules which can integrate with
the host chromosomal DNA.
(b) They are small circular DNA molecules with their own origin of
replication site.
(c) They can shuttle between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
(d) They carry antibiotic resistance genes.

12. :
(a) Biotechnology
(b) Biotoxin
(c) Toxin released by Bacillus thuringiensis
(d) Toxin released by insect

For Questions number 13 to 16, two statements are given one labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other labelled as Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason (R) is the
correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, but Reason (R) is not
the correct explanation of the Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false, but Reason (R) is true.

13. Assertion (A) : Cocaine produces a sense of euphoria and energy.

Reason (R) : It interferes with the transport of neurotransmitter
dopamine.

14. Assertion (A) : Cervical caps and vaults are barrier methods of
contraception used by human females.
Reason (R) : They prevent conception by phagocytosis of sperms.

15. Assertion (A) : Banana is a parthenocarpic fruit.

Reason (R) : It develops only from the ovary.

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 7 P.T.O.

16. (A) :
( )
(R) :

IÊS> I

17.
2

18. ûm¥§Ibm
2

19. (a) ( )
: 2
(i)
(ii)

(b)
2

20.
2
(a)
(b)
(c)
(d)

21. (a)

(b)

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 8

16. Assertion (A) : Most evolutionary trees place information about pattern
of relationship on horizontal axis and time on vertical
axis.
Reason (R) : An evolutionary tree depicts pattern of relationship
among parents and offsprings.

SECTION B

17. s even when not rewarded with nectar and

. 2

18. Draw a schematic diagram of a part of double stranded dinucleotide DNA

chain with all the four nitrogenous bases and showing correct polarity. 2

19. (a) How have transgenic animals proved to be beneficial in the study of : 2
(i) Normal physiology and development ?
(ii) Chemical safety testing ?

OR

(b) Mention four applications of plants whose genes have been altered
by manipulation. 2

20. Differentiate between Follicular phase and Luteal phase of the Menstrual
cycle in human females on the basis of the following criteria : 2
(a) Days of their occurrence in the cycle
(b) Stage of the follicle
(c) Hormones influencing the phases
(d) State of endometrium

21. (a) Name the lymphoid organ in humans that produces different types
of cells.
(b) Mention the name of the blood cells that migrate from this
lymphoid organ to another lymphoid organ, and state the changes
it undergoes so as to provide immunity. 2

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 9 P.T.O.

 IÊS> J
22. ( )
, 2

23. (a) ? ( )
2
(b) ( ) ? 1

24.

(a)

(b)
(i)
(ii) 3

25. (a) ( )

(b) 3

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 10

 SECTION C

22. Name the antibiotic that was used to treat wounded soldiers in World
War II. Explain its chance discovery. 2
Name the scientists who were awarded the Nobel Prize for this discovery. 1

23. (a) Why is thalassemia categorised as a Mendelian disorder ? Write

the symptom and the cause of the disease. 2
(b) How is it different from Sickle cell anaemia ? 1

24. A restriction enzyme digests a certain DNA into fragments. The

fragments are subjected to a technique, the result obtained is in the
illustration given below. Observe and answer the questions that follow.

Wells

(a) Name the technique and its purpose.

(b) Explain the procedure carried out under the following steps :
(i) Matrix used and its role
(ii) Staining and extraction of the DNA 3

25. (a) Draw a neat diagram of a mature angiospermic embryo sac and
label any four cellular components.

(b) Write the function of filiform apparatus. 3

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 11 P.T.O.

26. (a) (i)
2

(ii) ,
1

(b) (i)
1

(ii) ( )
2

27. (a)
(b)
3

28.
3

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 12

26. (a) (i) Identify the kind of pyramid given below and explain with
the help of an example how it is formed. 2

(ii) A given species may occupy more than one trophic level in
the same ecosystem. Justify. 1
OR
(b) (i) Name and explain the kind of interaction in the following
figure. 1

(ii) Explain two other examples where the same type of

interaction among organisms is commercially useful in
agriculture. 2
27. (a)
Streptococcus pneumoniae.
(b) Write the steps followed by Griffith during the course of his
experiment and the conclusion he arrived at, at the end of his
experiment. 3

28. Explain with the help of a diagrammatic representation, how natural

selection operates on different traits in a population. 3

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 13 P.T.O.

 IÊS> K

29 30 -

29. ,

B
(i) (a) A ( ) 1

(b) B ( ) X Y
1
(ii) A 3

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 14

 SECTION D

Questions number 29 and 30 are case-based questions. Each question has

subparts with internal choice in one subpart.

29. The diversity of plants and animals is not uniform throughout the world
but shows a rather uneven distribution. Study carefully the illustrations
based on them.
Deciduous
Coniferous Forest Rainforest
Forest
Ice Tundra

Arctic
Figure A Tropics

Figure B

(i) (a) Mention the pattern of biodiversity that you observe in

Figure A. 1
OR
(b) Figure B shows number of bird species. Identify the
1

(ii) Explain the three reasons for the pattern of biodiversity that is
observed in Figure A. 3

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 15 P.T.O.

30.

(i) (a) 1

(b)
1

(ii)

IÊS> L>
31. (a)
(i) ( ) 1
(ii) - ( - ) 1
(iii) 1
(iv) ( ) ( ) 2

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 16

30. An illustration given below was on the display board in the class. Study
the illustration and answer the questions that follow.

DNA isolated

Human Cell
Gene of interest
or passenger DNA

Plasmid Vector

(i) (a) Name the particular technique shown. 1

OR

(b) Name the enzymes needed to isolate the DNA from bacterial
and fungal cells respectively. 1

(ii) Taking the help of the illustration, explain the steps used by the
scientists at Eli Lilly Company to produce a drug that proved to be
highly beneficial to diabetic patients. 3

SECTION E
31. (a) Explain the follo
(i) Contact Inhibition 1
(ii) All normal cells have proto-oncogenes 1
(iii) Name of carcinogens and their role 1
(iv) Difference between benign and malignant tumours 2
OR
57/C/2 JJJJ Page 17 P.T.O.
 (b) (i) ( )
?
4
(ii)
1
32. (a) (i) (tRNA) ? 1
(ii) ( )
( ) 1
(iii)
2
(iv) . . . ? 1

(b) (i) ( ) ?
(ii)
5
33. (a) (i)

( ) 4
(ii)
1

(b) (i) ( )
2
(ii)
,
P

Y
Z
X

A B
(1)

(2) 3

57/C/2 JJJJ Page 18

 (b) (i) Why is it necessary to treat sewage water before it can be
discharged into rivers and streams ? Explain different steps
carried out in the treatment of sewage water and the
production of fuel during this process. 4
(ii) Mention the initiative taken by the Ministry of Environment
and Forests to save the major rivers of our country from
pollution. 1
32. (a) (i) Why is tRNA called an adapter molecule ? 1
(ii) Draw the clover-leaf structure of initiator tRNA with the
anticodon at the correct place. 1
(iii) Name and explain the first step in formation of polypeptide
and mention its significance. 2
(iv) What are UTRs ? Mention their location and importance. 1
OR
(b) (i) ?
(ii) Draw a schematic self-explanatory diagram of a lac operon
- ion. Give the correct labelling at the
respective positions. 5
33. (a) (i) Draw a labelled diagram of a matured human ovum ready
for fertilization. Explain the events thereafter, leading to
zygote formation. 4
(ii) It is said that the sex of the baby is decided as soon as the
process of fertilization begins. Justify the statement. 1
OR
(b) (i) Write any four steps that you would recommend to improve
the human reproductive health standards in India. 2
(ii) Re
sterilization in humans and answer the questions.
P

Y
Z
X

A B
(1) Identify the labellings in the diagrams
where the procedure is carried out.
(2) Write the technical terms, and the procedures
followed in the above-mentioned techniques. 3
57/C/2 JJJJ Page 19 P.T.O.
 Marking Scheme
Strictly Confidential
(For Internal and Restricted use only)
Senior School Certificate Supplementary Examination,2023
SUBJECT NAME: BIOLOGY (SUBJECT CODE 044) (PAPER CODE 57/C/2)
General Instructions: -
1 You are aware that evaluation is the most important process in the actual and correct
assessment of the candidates. A small mistake in evaluation may lead to serious
problems which may affect the future of the candidates, education system and
teaching profession. To avoid mistakes, it is requested that before starting
evaluation, you must read and understand the spot evaluation guidelines carefully.

2 “Evaluation policy is a confidential policy as it is related to the

confidentiality of the examinations conducted, Evaluation done and several
other aspects. Its’ leakage to public in any manner could lead to derailment
of the examination system and affect the life and future of millions of
candidates. Sharing this policy/document to anyone, publishing in any
magazine and printing in News Paper/Website etc may invite action under
various rules of the Board and IPC.”

3 Evaluation is to be done as per instructions provided in the Marking Scheme. It

should not be done according to one’s own interpretation or any other
consideration. Marking Scheme should be strictly adhered to and religiously
followed. However, while evaluating, answers which are based on latest
information or knowledge and/or are innovative, they may be assessed for
their correctness otherwise and due marks be awarded to them. In class-XII,
while evaluating two competency-based questions, please try to understand
given answer and even if reply is not from marking scheme but correct
competency is enumerated by the candidate, due marks should be awarded.

4 The Marking scheme carries only suggested value points for the answers
These are in the nature of Guidelines only and do not constitute the complete
answer. The students can have their own expression and if the expression is
correct, the due marks should be awarded accordingly.

5 The Head-Examiner must go through the first five answer books evaluated by
each evaluator on the first day, to ensure that evaluation has been carried out as
per the instructions given in the Marking Scheme. If there is any variation, the
same should be zero after delibration and discussion. The remaining answer
books meant for evaluation shall be given only after ensuring that there is no
significant variation in the marking of individual evaluators.

6 Evaluators will mark( √ ) wherever answer is correct. For wrong answer CROSS
‘X” be marked. Evaluators will not put right (✓)while evaluating which gives an
impression that answer is correct and no marks are awarded. This is most
common mistake which evaluators are committing.

7 If a question has parts, please award marks on the right-hand side for each part.
Marks awarded for different parts of the question should then be totaled up and
written in the left-hand margin and encircled. This may be followed strictly.

8 If a question does not have any parts, marks must be awarded in the left-hand
margin and encircled. This may also be followed strictly.

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-1

9 If a student has attempted an extra question, answer of the question deserving
more marks should be retained and the other answer scored out with a note
“Extra Question”.

10 No marks to be deducted for the cumulative effect of an error. It should be

penalized only once.

11 A full scale of marks 0-70 has to be used. Please do not hesitate to award full
marks if the answer deserves it.

12 Every examiner has to necessarily do evaluation work for full working hours i.e., 8
hours every day and evaluate 20 answer books per day in main subjects and 25
answer books per day in other subjects (Details are given in Spot Guidelines).

13 Ensure that you do not make the following common types of errors committed by
the Examiner in the past:-
● Leaving answer or part thereof unassessed in an answer book.
● Giving more marks for an answer than assigned to it.
● Wrong totalling of marks awarded on an answer.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the inside pages of the answer book to the title page.
● Wrong question wise totalling on the title page.
● Wrong totalling of marks of the two columns on the title page.
● Wrong grand total.
● Marks in words and figures not tallying/not same.
● Wrong transfer of marks from the answer book to online award list.
● Answers marked as correct, but marks not awarded. (Ensure that the right tick mark
is correctly and clearly indicated. It should merely be a line. Same is with the X for
incorrect answer.)
● Half or a part of answer marked correct and the rest as wrong, but no marks
awarded.
14 While evaluating the answer books if the answer is found to be totally incorrect, it
should be marked as cross (X) and awarded zero (0)Marks.

15 Any un assessed portion, non-carrying over of marks to the title page, or totalling
error detected by the candidate shall damage the prestige of all the personnel
engaged in the evaluation work as also of the Board. Hence, in order to uphold the
prestige of all concerned, it is again reiterated that the instructions be followed
meticulously and judiciously.

16 The Examiners should acquaint themselves with the guidelines given in the
“Guidelines for spot Evaluation” before starting the actual evaluation.

17 Every Examiner shall also ensure that all the answers are evaluated, marks
carried over to the title page, correctly totalled and written in figures and words.

18 The candidates are entitled to obtain photocopy of the Answer Book on request on
payment of the prescribed processing fee. All Examiners/Additional Head
Examiners/Head Examiners are once again reminded that they must ensure that
evaluation is carried out strictly as per value points for each answer as given in the
Marking Scheme.

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-2

 MARKING SCHEME
Senior Secondary School Supplementary Examination, 2023
BIOLOGY (Subject Code–044)
[Paper Code: 57/C/2]
Maximum Marks: 70
Q. Marks Total
EXPECTED ANSWER / VALUE POINTS
No. Marks

SECTION—A

1. (a) / FSH 1 1

2. (c) / Thermus aquaticus 1 1

3. (b) / 2,2,2 1 1

4. (a) / Intra Cytoplasmic sperm injection 1

// //
(d) / Zygote Intra Fallopian Transfer 1 1
5. (d) / Satellite DNA(repetitive sequences of DNA) that show high degree of 1 1
polymorphism.
6. (c) / W1=Wo ert 1 1

7. (a) / Blood group A, IAIO 1 1

8. (c) / Stabilized. 1 1

9. (b) /Aravalli Hills- Karnataka. 1 1

10. (a) / Dhatura – Hallucinogen. 1 1

11. (b) / They are small circular DNA molecules with their own origin of 1 1
replication site.
12. (c) / Toxin released by Bacillus thuringiensis 1 1

13. (a) / Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A). 1 1
14. (c) / (A) is true, but(R) is false. 1 1
15. (b) / Both (A) and (R) are true, but(R) is not the correct explanation of (A). 1 1
16. (c) / (A) is true, but(R)is false. 1 1
SECTION B

Amorphophallus or Yucca plant and insect (moth), Floral rewards to 1+1

17. pollinator by providing safe place to lay eggs / The Mediterranean orchid
Ophrys and insects (bees and bumble bees), employs ‘sexual deceit’ to get
pollination done by a species of bee same bee ‘pseudocopulates’ with another
flower it transfers pollen to it and thus pollinates the flower.

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-3

 ( 1 mark for example and 1 mark for its correct explaination)
2
18.

½x4

( ½ mark for A=T , ½ mark for G =C , ½ mark for correct polarity, ½ mark
for correct backbone of dsDNA) 2
19 (a)

(i) Transgenic animals are designed to allow the study of gene regulation and
effects of gene on the normal functions of the body / The result obtained by 1
introducing gene from other species that alter the formation of any growth
like factors( such as insulin like growth factor) is used to know its biological
role.

(ii) Transgenic animals are made more sensitive to toxic substances and when 1
exposed to these substances the effect is studied to get results in lesser time.

OR
(b)

-Made crops more tolerant to abiotic stresses (cold, drought, salt,

heat).
-Reduced reliance on chemical pesticides (pest-resistant crops). ½ x4
-Helped to reduce post-harvest losses.
-Increased efficiency of mineral usage by plants (this prevents early
exhaustion of fertility of soil).
-Enhanced nutritional value of food, e.g., golden rice, i.e., Vitamin ‘A’
enriched rice.
-In addition to these uses, GM has been used to create tailor-made
plants to supply alternative resources to industries, in the form of
starches, fuels and pharmaceuticals.
2
(Any Four applications)

20. Follicular phase Luteal Phase

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-4

 (a) Days of 6th -13th /6th -14th day 15th -28th/15th -29th
their day
occurrence in
the cycle ½

(b) Stage of Development of Primary Transformation of

the follicle follicle into Graafian Graafian follicle into
follicle Corpus Luteum ½
(c) Hormones LH / FSH/ Estrogen Progesterone
influencing the
phases ½

(d) State of Regeneration of Endometrium further

endometrium endometrium through proliferate and
proliferation. thickens.

(½ mark to be awarded for every correct difference) 2

21 (a) Bone marrow 1

(b) T- Lymphocytes, Maturation/ Proliferation / become antigen sensitive / 2
become effector cells. ½ +½

SECTION-C
22 • Penicillin ½

• Alexander Fleming while working on Staphylococci bacteria, once

observed a mould growing in one of his unwashed culture plates ½×3
around which Staphylococci could not grow, He found out that it was
due to a chemical produced by the mould and he named it Penicillin
after the mould Penicillium notatum.

• Alexander Fleming, Ernest Chain, Howard Florey. ½ +½

(1/2 mark each for any two correct names) 3

23 (a)
• As it is determined by alteration or mutation in a single gene and follow 1
Mendelian principle of inheritance.
• Anaemia. ½
• The defect is due to either mutation or deletion of genes synthesising
the globin chains ( α and β chains of Hb) located on chromosome ½
number 16 or 11.

(b) Thalassemia is quantitative problem of synthesising reduced globin

molecules whereas sickle cell anaemia is qualitative problem of synthesising 1
3
incorrectly functioning globin.

24
(a) Gel electrophoresis, to separate DNA fragments. ½+½

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-5

 (b)
(i) Agarose gel, to separate DNA fragments according to their size through
sieving effect. ½ +½

(ii) Stained with Ethidium bromide followed by exposure to UV light which

can be seen as orange coloured DNA band, Separated DNA bands are cut out
from the gel and extracted from gel piece. (by the process of elution) ½+½

3
25 (a)

½ ×4

(½ mark each for any 4 correct labellings)

(b) Guide pollen tube into synergids. 1 3

26 (a)
(i)
1
• Pyramid of number
• One big tree supports large number of insects which support 1
smaller number of birds which support still smaller number of
bigger birds,
(Any other correct explanation with example)
(ii) Given species may occupy more than one trophic level in the same
1
ecosystem at the same time-for example a sparrow is a primary

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-6

 consumer when it eats seeds fruits peas and a secondary consumer
when it eats insects and worms.
(Any other correct explanation with example)
OR
(b) (i)
• Mutualism ½
• Wasp laying eggs in a fig fruit The wasp pollinates the fig
inflorescence while searching for suitable egg-laying sites and ½
developing seeds used as food for the developing wasp larvae. Both
the interacting species are benefitted.
(ii) Examples Rhizobium in root nodules of leguminous plants fix
atmospheric nitrogen and in turn gets food, Cyanobacteria in paddy fields fix
atmospheric nitrogen and in turn gets food ,Pollination in plants by insects 1+1 3
and the insects get nectar while plants get pollinated
(Any two example with correct explanations)
27 (a)
‘R’ Strain ‘S’ Strain
Non-Virulent Virulent
No polysaccharide coat Have polysaccharide coat ½
(½ mark for any one difference)
(b)

S strain Inject into mice Mice die

½×4
R strain Inject into mice Mice live

S strain (heat killed) Inject into mice Mice live

3
S strain (heat killed)+ R stain Inject into mice Mice die

Conclusion: He concluded that the R strain bacteria had somehow been

transformed by the heat-killed S strain bacteria / Some ‘transforming ½
principle’ transferred from heat killed S strain and transform R strain into S
strain.

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-7

28

½ x6

( ½ mark for each figure with correct labelling)

3
SECTION-D
29 (i)

(a) Biodiversity increases as we move from arctic towards tropics/ 1

biodiversity decreases as we move from tropics towards arctic

OR

(b) X- Columbia ½×2

Y- India/ South America
(Or any other correct name)

(ii) Tropics harbor more biological diversity:

-Speciation is generally a function of time unlike temperate regions
subjected to frequent glaciations in the past tropical latitudes have
remained relatively undisturbed for millions of years and thus had a long 1×3
evolutionary time for species diversification.
-Tropical environments are less seasonal relatively more constant and
predictable which promote niche specialization and lead to a greater
species diversity.

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-8

 -There is more solar energy available in the tropics which
contributes to higher productivity that contributes indirectly to
4
greater diversity.
30 (i)
(a) Recombinant DNA technology 1

OR

(b) Bacterial- Lysozyme, Fungal- Chitinase ½+½

(ii)
Eli Lilly scientist at company prepared two DNA sequences , corresponding
to A and B peptide chains of human insulin, and introduced them in plasmids
of E. coli to produce insulin chains ,Chains A and B were produced ½×6
separately, extracted , and combined by creating disulfide bonds to form
human insulin. 4
SECTION-E
31 (a)
(i) Cancer cells appears to have lost the property of contact inhibition as a
result they continue to divide to form mass of cells(tumor). 1

(ii) When proto-oncogenes are activated under certain conditions it could

1
lead to oncogenic transformation of the cells .

(iii)
• X-rays/ UV rays/ Nicotine / Caffeine/ Tobacco smoke/ Oncogenic ½
viruses
• Damage DNA which causes neoplastic transformation. ½

(iv)
Benign tumors Malignant tumors
Remain confined to their Not remain confined to their
original location original location/ Show
property of metastasis 1+1
Cause little damage Damage surrounding tissue and
starve normal cells by
competing for vital nutrients

( 1 mark for each correct difference)

OR

(b) (i)
• To make it less polluting
1

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-9

 • Primary treatment- physical removal of floating debris through
sequential filtration and sedimentation, secondary treatment /
biological treatment, primary effluent is passed to large aeration
tank where it is constantly agitated and air is pumped into it, ½×6
This allow vigorous growth of aerobic microbes into floc which
significantly reduces organic matter or BOD, flocs are allowed
to settle in settling tank this sediment is called activated sludge,
major part of sludge is pumped into anaerobic sludge digestor to
produce biogas

(ii) Ganga Action plan, Yamuna action plan ,to build a large number of
sewage treatment plants so that only treated sewage may be ½ +½
discharged into the rivers.
(Any two points to be considered) 5

32 (a)
(i) tRNA has anticodon loop that has bases complimentary to the codon on
mRNA and has amino acid acceptor end to bind specific amino acid / tRNA on 1
one hand read the code on mRNA and on other hand would bind to specific
amino acids.

(ii)

(iii)
1
• Charging of tRNA / aminoacylation of tRNA

• Amino acids are activated in the presence of ATP and linked to their
cognate t RNA, When two charged tRNA are close enough they form ½+½
peptide bond between them energetically

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-10

 (iv)
• Untranslated regions are some additional sequences present on mRNA ½
that are not translated
• At both 5’-end (before start codon) and at 3’-end (after stop codon) ½
required for efficient translation

OR

(b) (i) Operon is an arrangement of polycistronic structural gene which is

regulated by common promoter and regulatory genes with operator region. 1

(ii)

½ x8

( Any 8 correct labelling)

5
33
(a)

(i)
½×3

( ½ mark each for any three correct labelling)

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-11

 During fertilisation a sperm comes in contact with the zona pellucida layer of the
ovum and induces changes in the membrane that block the entry of additional
sperms , The secretions of the acrosome help the sperm enter into the cytoplasm
½×5
of the ovum through the zona pellucida and the plasma membrane , This induces
the completion of the meiotic division of the secondary oocyte , and results in the
formation of a second polar body and a haploid ovum (ootid) , the haploid
nucleus of the sperms and that of the ovum fuse together to form a diploid zygote.

(ii)

If sperm carrying X chromosomes fertilize egg child born will be a female baby, If ½ +½
sperm carrying Y chromosome fertilize the egg child born will be a male baby.

OR
(b)
(i)

-Educating them about safe and hygienic sexual practices and sexually
transmitted diseases.
½×4
-Educating people in marriageable age group about the birth control
measures pre-natal and post-natal care of the mother and significance of
breastfeeding.

-Sex education should be provided to the school going children so as to

discourage myths and misconceptions about sex related aspects.

-A legal ban on the checking of the gender of the foetus.

-Create awareness about sex-abuse and drawbacks of population explosion.

-Proper infrastructural and professional facilities to attain reproductive

health standards (Any other correct recommendation)

(Any Four Points)

(ii)

(1) ‘A’-X, ‘B’-P ½+½

(2)

• ‘A’- Vasectomy , small part of vas deferens is removed or tied up ½+½

• ‘B’-Tubectomy, small part of fallopian tube is removed or tied up ½+½

XII_044_57/C /2 Biology # Page-12