1.

An inflammatory response characterised by chills, tachycardia, syncope and flushing of the face and trunk following rapid bolus administration of vancomycin is termed as: Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz A. Red neck syndrome B. Anaphylactic reaction C. Rabit syndrome D. Idiosyncrasy Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz Answer Key 2. Cyclobenzaprine is a: A. Anticancer drug B. Skeletal muscle relaxant C. Antithyroid drug D. Antiepileptic drug Answer Key 3. Therapeutic serum drug level of theophylline is: A. 0.8 to 2 ng/mL Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. 0.8 to 1.2 meq/dL C. 5 to 20 g/mL D. 50 to 100 g/mL Answer Key 4. Aspirin should not be given to children or adolescents with viral diseases specially in varicella and influenza because of its association with : A. Reyes syndromeCopyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. Retts Syndrme C. Anphylactic reaction D. Hepatotoxicity Answer Key 5. Which one of the following listed drugs has the highest potential for postural hypotension:

A. Haloperidol B. Loxapine C. Trifluoperazine D. Chlorpromazine Answer Key 6. What is the usual antidepressant dose of fluoxetine: A. 50-300 mg B. 75 to 200 mg Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz C. 20-80 mg D. 150-600 mg Answer Key 7. The basic pharmacologic action of nitrates is to: A. Decrease venous tone B. Reducing blood return C. Dilation of normal and stenotic epicardial coronary arteries D. All of the above Answer Key 8. Which one of the following listed drugs is not a calcium channel blocking drug: A. Diltiazem B. Nifidipine C. Propranolol Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz D. Verapramil Answer Key 9. The major difference between cardiovascular effects dopamine and those of dobutamine are related to: A. Dopamines ability to elicit systemic vasoconstriction owing to more potent activation of -

receptors B. Dobutamines ineffective for stimulation of -receptors C. Dopamines ability to stimulate -receptors D. None of the above Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz Answer Key 10. Lidocaine is given either intravenously or intramuscularly because: A. The drug undergoes 90% first-pass hepatic metabolism B. The drug causes severe gastric irritation C. The drug is inactivated by gastric acid D. The drug causes severe nausea and vomiting Answer Key 11. Flecainide is a A. Class III antiarrythmic drug B. Antiplatelet aggregator C. Class IC Antiarrythmic drug D. Antihypertensive drug Answer Key 12. Hemodynamically stable patients with supraventricular tachycardia, who are not responding to vagal manoeuvres can be treated with: A. Amiadorone 800-1200 mg/day B. Adenosine 3-13 mg C. Lidocaine D. Betablockers Answer Key 13. Edrophonium chloride (Tensilon) is an: A. Anticholinergic drug

B. Antihistaminic drug C. Short-acting cholinesterase inhibitor D. Antiparkinsonism drug Answer Key 14. Adenosine has a elimination half life of A. 1-2 days Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. 1-6 seconds C. 4-6 hours D. 8-12 hours Answer Key 15. The drug of choice in torsades de pointes is: A. Lignocaine B. Procainamide C. Bretlium Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz D. Magnesium Sulphate Answer Key 16. The goal of the heparin therapy in a patient with pulmonary embolism is to prolong the activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) to; A. 2 to 3 times the control B. 1 -2 times the control C. To keep same as control D. To keep 1 times below the control Answer Key 17. Over dosage of heparin is treated with: A. Warfarin B. Protamine sulphate 50 mg given IV over 10 minutes

C. Ethamsylate D. Vitamin K1 Answer Key 18. Aspirin, NSAIDs, and acetaminophen can act by: A. inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins. B. increasing the production of prostaglandins. C. activating the cyclooxygenase enzymes. D. releasing histaine from the mast cells and basophils. Answer Key 19. Contraindications to aspirin include: A. peptic ulcer disease and GI bleeding B. history of hypersensitivity reactions C. impaired renal function. D. All of the above Answer Key 20. Which of the following NSAIDs is a propionic acid derivative: A. ibuprofen Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. diclofenac C. mephanamic acid D. indomethacin Answer Key Answer Key 1. A 11. C 2. B 12.B 3. C 13. C 4. A 14. B 5.D 15.D 6. C 16. B 7. D 17. B 8. C 18. A 9.A 10. A 19. D 20. A Back to Top

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About Us l Privacy Policy l Ad Policy l Disclaimer Hosted with support from AIPPG Copyright 2011@Current Anaphylactic shock or IgE-mediated hypersensitivity reactions are: A. Type I reactions Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. Type II reactions. C. Type III reactions. D. Type IV reactions.

Answer Key 2. Among the listed drugs, which has the shortest biological half-life; A. Adenosine B. Dobutamine C. Benzylpenicillin D. Amoxycillin

Answer Key 3. Which of the following listed drug has the longest biological half-life; A. Diazepam B. Lorazepam C. Midazolam D. Clonazepam Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz

Answer Key 4. When a drug is given at a constant rate, the generally accepted time to reach steady state (plateau) is: A. 1 plasma half-life B. 2 plasma half-life C. 3 plasma half-life

D. 5 plasma half-life

Answer Key 5. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD) activity is important to the integrity of the: A. red blood cells B. white blood cells C. platelets D. mast cells

Answer Key 6. Drugs that carry a possible risk of hemolysis in some G6PD deficient individuals include: A. aspirin B. menadione C. quinidine D. all of the above

Answer Key 7. Asthmatic attacks can be precipitated by: A. sympathomimetics. B. digitalis glycosides C. beta-adrenoceptor blockers. D. aminoglycoside antibiotics.

Answer Key 8. Lithium toxicity may result when: A. a thiazide diuretic is co-administered. B. there is sodium depletion. C. there is dehydration D. in all of the above situations.

Answer Key 9. A type A adverse reaction is also called:

A. Augmented reactions B. Bizarre reactions C. Chronic reactions D. Delayed effects

Answer Key 10. Type II allergic/hypersensitivity reactions are also called: A. immediate or anaphylactic type. B. antibody-dependent cytotoxic type. C. immune complex-mediated type. D. lymphocyte-mediated type.

Answer Key 11. Zero-order kinetics refers to: A. The rates at which absorption, distribution, metabolism and excretion of a drug occur are directly proportional to its concentration in the body. B. Processes by which a constant amount of drug is transported/ metabolized in unit time irrespective of its concentration in the body. C. The time in which the biological effect of a drug declines by one half. Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz D. Presystemic elimination of the drug.

Answer Key 12. Salivation, lacrimation, abdominal cramps, urinary and fecal incontinence, vomiting, sweating, miosis and muscle fasciculation are characteristics of: A. Antimuscarinic syndromes B. Cholinergic (muscarinic) syndromes C. Sympathomimetic syndromes D. None of the above .

Answer Key 13. Which is a gram negative bacteria:

A. Staphylococcus aureus B. Streptococcus pyogenes C. Streptococcus pneumoniae D. Neisseria gonorrhoeae

Answer Key 14. Which is an anerobic bacteria: A. Haemophilus influenzae B. Neisseria meningitidis C. Clostridium perfringens D. Streptococcus pneumoniae

Answer Key 15. Ziehl-Neelsen staining is used to diagnose: A. methicillinresistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) infection. B. acid-fast tubercle bacilli infection. C. Neisseria meningitidis infection. D. Clostridium perfringens infection.

Answer Key ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz 1. A 6. D 11. B 2. A 7. C 12. B 3. A 8. D 13. D 4.D 9. A 14. C 5. A 10. B 15. B

. Aspirin, NSAIDs and acetaminophen act by A. Inhibiting impulses to brain. B. Inhibiting the synthesis of prostaglandins. C. Competitively blocking the neuronal terminal D. Releasing endorphin

Answer Key 2. Salicylate intoxication (salicylism) is characterized by the following symptoms, except A. Nausea, vomiting, fever B. Tinnitus, decreased hearing, visual changes C. Fluid and electrolyte deficiencies D. Hypoventilation Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz Answer Key 3. Which of the following statements about Aspirin is TRUE? A. Aspirin has no ototoxic characteristics B. Aspirin is least likely to cause gastric irritation. C. Aspirin should generally be avoided for 1 to 2 weeks before and after surgery D. enteric-coated Aspirin (Ecospirin) should be chewed or crushed before swallowing. Answer Key 4. Which of the following statements is WRONG about NSAIDs? A. NSAIDs decrease effects of ACE inhibitors. B. NSAIDs decrease antihypertensive effects C. NSAIDs increase the risk of bleeding by prolonging the prothrombin time. D. NSAIDs decrease the serum lithium levels Answer Key 5. Which of the following drugs on overdose is known to cause liver failure; A. Acetaminophen B. Ibuprofen

C. Piroxicam D. Ketorelac Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz Answer Key 6. Drugs that increase effects of indomethacin are all, EXCEPT: A. Corticosteroids B. Salicylates C. Heparin D. Antacids Answer Key 7. Intravenous (IV) indomethacin is approved for treatment of: A. Cardiogenic pain B. Pain associated with gastritis C. Patent ductus arteriosus in premature infants D. Trigeminal neuralgia Answer Key 8. The enzyme involved in the therapeutic action of NSAIDs is A. Cyclo-oxygenase B. Monoamine oxidase C. Cytochrome D. Lipocortin-1 Answer Key 9. A commonly used NSAID, Ibuprofen belongs to the subclass of A. Salicylates B. Pyrazolone derivatives

C, Indole derivatives D. Prpionic acid derivatives E. Oxicam derivatives Answer Key 10. Which of the following agents is associated with high incidence of agrnulocytosis? A. Phenylbutazone Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz B. Phenylbutazone C. Indomethacin D. Mephanamic acid Answer Key ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz 1. C 6. D 2. D 7. C 3. C 8. A 4. D 9. D 5. A 10. A

The drug used in acetaminophen overdose is: A. Physostigmine B. Flumazenil C. Acetyl salicylic acid D. Acetylcysteine Answer Key 2). The drug used as an antodote of anticholinergic poisoning is: A. Atropine B. Pyridoxine C. Physostigmine D. Deferoxamine Answer Key 3). Protamine sulfate is administerd in overdose of: A. Warfarin B. Heparin C. Anticholinergica D. Insulin Answer Key 4). Severe lead poisoning is treated with: A. Succimer B. Naloxone C. Pyridoxine D. Atropine Answer Key 5). Vitamin K1 is administerd as an antidote for poisoning with: A. Heparin

B. Warfarin C. Diphenoxalate D. Aminocaproic acid Answer Key 6). Adult dose of naloxone in opioid posoning is: A. IM 1 g q8h PRN B. IV 50150 mcg/kg C. PO 140 mg/kg D. IV 0.42 mg PRN Answer Key 7. Overdose of Benzodiazepines is treated wtih: A. Flumazenil B. N-Acetylcysteine C. Physostigmine D. Protamine Answer Key 8). Deferoxamine is administered in overdose of: A. Iron B. Calcium gluconate C. Digoxin D. Beta blockers Answer Key 9). Digibind is used as an antidote for poisoning due to: A. Cholinergics B. Atropine C. Benzodiazepines

D. Digoxin Answer Key 10). Isoniazid (INH) toxicity is treated with: A. Pyridoxine B. Atropine C. Diphenhydramine D. Aminocaproic acid Answer Key 11). Lithum toxicity happens at serum lithium level of: A. 0.8 mEq/L B. >2 mEq/L C. 0.6 mEq/L D. >0.1 mEq/L Answer Key 12). A therapeutic agent which is some times called the universal antidote: A. Protamine sulphate B. Glucose C. Activated charcoal D. Physostigmine Answer Key 13). Idiosyncrasy refers to: A. a fever associated with administration of a medication. B. the ability of a substance to cause abnormal fetal development when taken by pregnant women. C. the ability of a substance to cause cancer. D. an unexpected reaction to a drug that occurs the first time it is given. Answer Key

14). Drug-induced movement disorders may be treated with: A. benzatropine B. calcium gluconate C. atropine D. acetylcysteine Answer Key 15). Penicillamine is administered as an antidote for poisoning with: A. opioids B. antimuscarinic drugs C. carbon monoxide D. copper, gold, lead and mercury Answer Key

ANSWER KEY 1. D 2. C 3. B 4. A 5. B

6. D 11. B

7. A 12. C

8. A 13. D Back to Quiz Corner Home

9. D 14. A

10. A 15. D BACK TO TOP

. The penicillins act by : Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz A. inhibition of protien synthesis B. interfering with bacterial cell wall synthesis. C. inhibition of neuclic acid synthesis D. phagocytic action. Answer Key 2. The most important side-effect of the penicillins is A. gastrointestinal disturbances. B. ototoxicity. C. hypersensitivity reactions D. hepatotoxicity. Answer Key 3. A penicillin preparation which is suitable for oral administration is A. Benzathine Penicillin B. Benzylpenicillin C. Procaine benzylpenicillin D. Phenoxymethylpenicillin Answer Key 4. Penicillinase-resistant penicillins include A. benzylpenicillin B. phenoxymethylpenicillin C. cloxacillin

D. ampicillin Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz Answer Key 5. Co-amoxiclav is a: Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz A. penicillin-beta-lactamase inhibitor combinations B. penicillin active against gram negative bacteria. C. carbapenem group of antibiotic. D. narrow spectrum penicillin. Answer Key 6. Which statement about penicillins is FALSE A. Penicillins cross CSF if the meninges are inflamed. B. Benzylpenicillin is highly active against Streptococcus pneumoniae . C. Procaine penicillin, given i.m. only. D. penicillins do not cause neutropenia in high does given for longer than 10 days. Answer Key 7. Which statement abot penicillins is TRUE A. Penicillins on high doses cause convulsions. B. Benzylpenicillin is not effective for infections due to normal strains of Neisseria meningitidis C. Phenoxymethylpenicillin is not resistant to gastric acid. D. Penicillins are not effective against normal strains of gram positive bacteria. Answer Key 8. Identification of methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) in patients indicates: A. the organisms are sensitive to flucloxacillin and cloxacillin B. the organisms are sensitive to beta-lactam antibiotics C. the organisns are resistant to flucloxacillin, cloxacillin, and other beta-lactam antibiotics D. usual infection-control measures are satisfactory to manage the infections.

Answer Key 9. Which statement about ampicillin is FALSE: A. Ampicillin cause diarrhoea on oral administration. B. Ampicillin may cause maculopapular rashes C. Amoxycillin is better absorbed from gut than ampicillin. D. Ampicillin is a cephalosporin group of antibiotic. Answer Key 10. Ureidopenicillins are: Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz A. adapted from the ampicillin molecule, and effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa B. carboxypenicillins . C. monobactam antibiotics. D. beta-lactamase resistant penicillins. Answer Key ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz 1. B 6. D 2. C 7. A 3. D 8. C 4. C 9. D 5. A. 10. A

1. A 10-year-old boy with generalized tonic seizures is seen by his dentist at a routine checkup. The dentist observes that the patient has an overgrowth of gum tissue.The patient was most likely receiving which of the following agents? A. ethosuximide B. clonazepam C. primidone D. phenytoin Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz E. zonisamide Answer Key 2. The metabolism of which AED frequently displays zero-order kinetics following moderate to high therapeutic doses?

A. Carbamazepine B. Phenytoin C. Valproic acid D. Ethosuximide E. Zonisamide Answer Key 3. A 14-year-old patient is diagnosed with absence epilepsy. Any of the following drugs could be considered a reasonable choice to prescribe EXCEPT A. Ethosuximide B. Phenobarbital C. Carbamazepine D. Valproic acid Answer Key 4. Which of the following agent was first introduced for treatment of epilepsy? A. Phenobarbital B. Phenytoin C. Carbamazepine D. Valproic acid E. Tiagabin Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz Answer Key 5. Sodium Channel Blocking antiepileptic agents include, all EXCEPT A. Phenytoin B. Ccarbamazepine C. Topiramate D. Valproic acid E. Diazepam

Answer Key 6. Adverse effects of carbamazepine include, all EXCEPT A. Skin rashes B. Drowsiness C. Diplopia D. Hair loss Answer Key 7. The most serious adverse effect associated with valproic acid is: A. Fatal hepatic failure B. Gingival hyperplasia C. Drowsiness Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz D. Mood disorder E. Dementia Answer Key 8. Which AED is related to an increased incidence of neural tube defects in the fetus of mothers who received the drug during the first trimester of pregnancy? A. Diazepam B. Phenytoin C. Valproic acid D. Gabapentin E. Topiramate Answer Key 9. Sodium valproate is contraindicated in A. Tonic-clonic seizures B. Partial sezures C. Bipolar affective disorders

D. Hepatic dysfunction Answer Key 10. Which of the following toxic side effect is related to use of topiramate? A. Aplastic anemia B. Stevens-Johnson syndrome C. Nephrolithiasis D. Hepatotoxicity Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz Answer Key 11. All are side effects of phenytoin, except: A. Ataxia B. Hypoglycemia= C. Hirsuitism D. Gum hypertrophy

ANSWER KEY Copyright@ www.nursingplanet.com/Quiz 1. D 6. D 11. B References 1. Psychiatry, Third Edition. Edrs. Allan Tasman, Jerald Kay, Jeffrey A. Lieberman, Michael B. First and Mario Maj.John Wiley & Sons, Ltd, 2008. 2. B 7. A 3. C 8. C 4. A 9. D 5. E 10. C

The factors associated with a high likelihood of success with PTCA are all, EXCEPT: A. Age less than 65 years B. Single-vessel disease C. Absence of calcification

D. All of the above

Answer K 2. The serum creatine kinase (CK) rises in a patient with myocardial infarction with in the first: A. 4-6 hours B. 2-4 days C. 12-18 hours D. 3-6 days

Answer K

3. A type of AV block characterised by progressive lengthening of the PR interval until the P wave fails conduct is: A. Second degree AV-Block : Mobiz Type II B. Second degree AV block: Mobiz Type I C. First degree AV block D. Third degree block

Answer K 4. Rhythms require permanent pacing in patients with cardiac disorders include: A. Supraventricular tachycardia B. Second-degree Av block : Mobiz Type I C. Complete heart block D. Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome

Answer K

5. The American Heart Association recommended energy dose for defibrillation in ventricular fibrillat using a biphasic defibrillator is; A. 200 J B. 400 J C. 150 J D. 100 J

Answer K 6. Multifocal atrial tachycardia are more frequently seen in patients with: A. Cardiac myopathy B. Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease C. Diabetic mellitus D. Chronic kidney disease

Answer K 7. A form of ventricular tachycardia usually occurs in the setting of QT prolongation is: A. Monomorphic VT B. Torsade de points C. Wolf-Parkinson White syndrome D. Sick sinus syndrome

Answer K 8). A condition characterised by a prolonged PR interval more than 0.2 secs in ECG is called: A. Second degree AV block B. Mobiz Type II AV block C. First degree Av block D. Complete block

Answer K 11). Which procedure regarding the treatment of varicose veins with slerotherapy is correct: A. The procedure involves tying off the veins to prevent slugginess of blood from occluding B. The procedure involves tying off the veins so that circulation is redirected to another area C. The procedure involves surgically removing the varicosity D. The procedure involves injecting an agent in to the vein to damage the vein wall and close it off.

Answer K 9). The type of ulcer which is deep, pale and surrounded by a tissue which is cool to touch is :

A. Venous stasis ulcer B. Arterial ulcer C. Stage 1 ulcer D. Vascular ulcer

Answer K 10). Standard management for a patient with deep vein thrombosis includes: A. Maintain affected limb in the dependent position B. Apply cool packs to the affected leg for 20 minutes every 4 hours C. Administer narcotic analgesic every 4 hours around the clock D. Maintain bed rest

Answer K 12). Which of tthe following listed assessment finding is typical of cardiac tamponade? A. A pulse rate of 60 per minute B. Flat neck veins C. Muffed or distant heart sounds D. A pulse pressure of 18/82 mmHg

Answer K 13). A patient who is sheduled to begin treatment with acetazolamide for the management of glucoma should be evaluated for allergy to : A. Glucocorticosteroids B. NSAIDs C. Penicillin D. Sulfa drugs

Answer K 14) In a patient on mechanical prosthetic heart valve, the recoomended international normalized ratio anticoagulant therapy with warfarin sodium is : A. 2

B. 2.3 C. 3 D. 5

Answer K 15). Intraaortic baloon pump therapy is most often used in the management of: A. Congestive cardiac failure B. Cardiogenic shock C. Pulmonary edema D. Aortic insufficiency

Answer K . Fibrous cords called ______________ connect the free valve margins and ventricular surfaces of the valve cusps to papillary muscles and ventricular walls. A. chordae tendineae B. lunulae C. bundle of His D. Kent bundles

Answer K 2. Intraaortic baloon pump theerapy is used for treatment of: A. Congestive heart failure B. Cardiogenic shock C. Pulmonary dema D. Aortic insufficiency

Answer K 3. Cardiac troponin T or cardiac troponin I is a protein marker in the detection of: A. Myocardial infarction B. Congestive cardiac failure

C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation

Answer K 4. Which of the following assessment finding would elicit specific information regarding the left ventricular function of a patient with left ventricular failure? A. Assessing peripheral and sacral edema. B. Assessing jugular vein distention. C. Monitoring for organomegaly. D. Listening to lung sounds.

Answer K 5. Which of the following ECG findings indicate the presence of hypokalemia? A. Tall, peak T wave B. ST segment depression C. Widening of QRS complex D. Prolonged PR interval

Answer K

6. _________________ are slightly raised, yellowish plaques of cholesterol in the skin that appear along the nasal side of one or both eyelids A. Corneal arcus B. Roth's spots C. Xanthelasmas D. Cotton wool patches

Answer K 7. ____________ is the reduction in strength of the arterial pulse that can be felt during abnormal inspiratory decline of left ventricular filling. A. Pulsus bisferiens B. Pulsus alternans

C. Bigeminal pulses D. Pulsus paradoxus

Answer K 8. _________ should be performed before radial arterial cannulation to evaluate radial and ulnar arterial patency. A. Valsalva maneuver B. Allen test C. Angiography D. Capillary refilling test

Answer K 9. _______________ is a paradoxical elevation of jugular venous pressure during inspiration and may occur in patients with chronic constrictive pericarditis, heart failure, or tricuspid stenosis. A. Kussmaul's sign B. Homan's sign C. Kernig's sign D. Brudzinski's sign

Answer K 10. When measuring blood pressure,diastolic blood pressure is equated with disappearance of: A. Premature ectopic beats B. Muffling of sounds C. Auscultatory gap D. Korotkoff sounds

Answer K 11. Which assessment finding is a more specific information regarding left ventricular function in a patient with left ventricular failure? A. Listening to heart sounds B. assessment of peripheral and sacral edema

C. Assessment of jugular and vein distention D. Monitoring for organomegaly

Answer K 12. Which one of the assessment findings in a patient who has been taking spirinolactone for hypertension is sugestive of side effect of the medication? A. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L B. a potassium level of 5.8mEq/L C. Constipation D. Dry skin

Answer K 13. The normal left atraial pressure is: A. 8 mmHg B. 15 mmHg C. 25 mmhg D. 32 mmHg

Answer K 14. Normal fibrinogen level in a female client is: A. 180 to 340 mg/dL B. 190 to 420 mg/dL C. 420 to 500 mg/mL D. 500 to 560 mg/dL

Answer K

15. Which of the following listed finding more specifically indicate the presence of myocardial infarctio A. increased creatinine kinase MB B. Increased creatinine kinase MM C. Increased blood urea nitrogen

D. Decreased white blood cell count

Answer K ANSWER KEY 1. A 6. C 12. A Bruce protocol is related to: A. CABG B. Echocardiaogram C. Angiogram D. Exercise ECG test 2. B 7. D 12. B 3. C 8. B 13. A 4. D 9. A 14. B 5. B 10.D 15. A

Answer K 2. Cardiac Toponin level helps in the diagnosis of A. Myocardial infarction B. Congestive heart failure C. Ventricular tachycardia D. Atrial fibrillation

Answer K 3. A patient has developed atrial fibrillation and his ventricular rate is 150 beats per minute. What should the patient be asssessed for next? A. Flat neck veins B. Complaints of nausea C. Complaints of headache D. Hypotension

Answer K

4. Which of the following assessment would elicit specific information regarding left ventricular functi of a patient with CHF?

A. Listening to lung sounds B. Assessing for peripheral and sacral edema C. Assessing for jugular venous distention D. Monitoring for organomegaly

Answer K

5. A patient is treated with spirinolactone for hypertension. Which of the following indicates the patien is experiencing side effect of the drug? A. A potassium level of 3.2 mEq/L B. A potassium level of 5.2 mEq/L C. A sodium level of 140.2 mEq/L D. A calcium level of 12 mg/dL

Answer K 6. Which of the following finding would indicate the presence of myocardial infarction? A. Increased creatinine kinase MB B. Increased creatinine kinase MM C. Increased blood urea nitrogen level D. Decreased WBC level

Answer K

7. Which of the following beverages can be included in the menu of a patient with myocardial infarctio A. Coffee B. Tea C. Cola D. Lemonade

Answer K 8. A patient is undergoing cardiac catheterization. Which of the following sensations reported by the patient during the procedure has the highest priority?

A. Pressure at the insertion site B. Urge to cough C. Warm, flushed feeling D. Chest pain

Answer K 9. A patient recovering from cardiac surgery has a pleural effusion on the left side and is having thoracentesis. The patient should be placed in which position for the procedure? A. Upright and leaning forward with the arms on the over-the-bed table B. Right-side lying with legs curled up into a fetal position C. Left-lateral with the right arm supported by a pillow. D. Dorsal decumbant

Answer K 10. Which of the following statements about Prinzmetal's (variant) angina is correct? A. Managed most effectively with beta-blocking drugs B. Drug of choice in variant angina is nitrates. C. Generally treated with calcium channel blockers D. Improves with low-sodium, high potassium diet

Answer K 11. Electrocariaogram strip of a patient shows: P wave and QRS complexes -regular PR-Interval - 0.14 seconds QRS complexes measure- 0.08 seconds overall hert beat rate- 82beats per minutes. The cardiac rhythm is A. Sinus bradycardia B. Sinus tachycardia

C. Normal sinus rhythm D. First-degree heart block

Answer K 12. EEG rhythm strip of a patient shows Atrial and ventricular rate- 70 beats per minute PR-Interval - 0.14 seconds QRS complexes - 0.08 seconds P-P interval - slightly irregular What is the rhythm? A. Sinus bradycardia B. Normal sinus rhythm C. Sinus tachycardia D. Sinus arrythmia

Answer K

13. A patient with myocardial infarction experiencing new multiform, premature contractions. The patient is allergic to lidocaine hydrochloride. What is the next drug of choice for immediate use? A. Digoxin B. Metoprolol C. Verapramil D. Procainamide

Answer K 14. Which of the following indicates that antidysrhythmic therapy for a patient with premature ventricular contractions (PVC) is effective? If the PVCs continued to: A. be multifocal in appearance.

B. occure in pairs. C. decrease in frequency to less than 6 per minute. D. fall on the second half of the T wave.

Answer K 15. A patient with complete heart block has had a permanant demand pace maker inserted. The pacemaker function is considered to be proper, if ECG rhythm strip shows presence of pacemaker spikes A. Just after each T wave B. Before each QRS complex C. Just after each P wave D. Before each P wave

Answer K ANSWER KEY 1. D 6. A 11.C 2. A 7. D 12. D 3. D 8. D 13. D 4. A 9. A 14. C 5. B 10.C 15.C

Which of the following intervention is contraindicated in a patient with deep vein thrombosis of the rig leg? A. Elevation of the limb B. Ambulation in the hall every 4 hours C. Application of moist heat to the right leg D. Administration of analgesics

Answer K 2. The cercumflex artery is a branch of A. Right coronory artery B. Anterior descending artery C. Left coronory artery

D. Descending aorta

Answer K 3. Apical pulse is is taken by placing the diaphragm of the stethescope at the area of A. Right atrium B. Right ventricle C. Pulmonic valve D. Mitral area

Answer K 4. Which of the following statements about coronory arteries is wrong? A. Right coronory artery supplies the right side of the heart. B. Left anterior descending artery supplies the anterior wall of the left ventricle C. Circumflex artery supplies the left atrium and lateral wall of the left ventricle. D. Right coronory artery supplies the left ventricle.

Answer K

5. A female patient who has had a myocardial infarction asks the nurse why she should not bear down strain to ensure having a bowel movement. The informs the that this would trigger A. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility. B. Vagus nerve stimulation, causing and increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility. C. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing an increase in heart rate and cardiac contractility. D. Sympathetic nerve stimulation, causing a decrease in heart rate and cardiac contractility.

Answer K

6. Which of the following intervention is NOT indicated in a patient with stable ventricular tachycardi A. Assess airway, breathing, and circulation B. Administer oxygen C. Obtain an ECG D. Contact physician

E. Difibrillate the patient

Answer K 7. Which of the following manifestations differentiates pericarditis from other cardiopulmonary problems? A. Chest pain that worsens on expiration B. Pericardial friction rub C. Anterior chest pain D. Weakness and irritability

Answer K 8. Premature ventricular contractions are charecterised by A. Premature beats followed by a compensatory pause B. QRS complexes, which are short and narrow C. Inverted P waves before the QRS complexes D. A P-wave preceding every QRS complexes

Answer K 9. Which of the following is NOT associated with cardiac tamponade? A. Pulses paradoxus B. Distant heart sounds C. Distended jugular veins D. Bradycardia

Answer K 10. Digitalis functions to improve congestive heart failure by A. Induction of emesis B. Activation of -adrenergic receptors C. Improving survival in patients of heart failure D. Binding to and inhibiting the NaK ATPase enzyme in cardiac myocytes

E. Deactivation of the angiotensin receptor

Answer K ANSWER KEY 1. B 6. E 2. C 7. B 3. d 8. A 4. D 9. D 5. A 10.D

. Which of the following is a charecteristic of benign tumors? A. Invasive growth B. Immature, poorly differentiated tissue C. Presence of metastasis D. Fully differentiated tissue

Answer K 2. Human papilloma virus is known to be associate with: A. cervical cancer B. lymphoma C. hepatocellular cancer D. gastric cancer

Answer K 3. Fine-needle aspiration (FNA) is used most commonly to differentiate between: A. solid and cystic masses. B. primary and secondary tumors. C. stage I and II of metastasis. D. connective and epithelial tissue cancers.

Answer K

4. Which of the following is NOT a phase in the cell cycle? A. G1 (gap one) phase B. S (synthesis) phase C. G2 (gap two) phase D. M (mitosis) phase E. P (Proein) Phase

Answer K 5. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agent is a plant alkaloid? A. Mitomycin B. Vinblastine C. Melphalan D. Cisplatin

Answer K 6. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agent has least known mylosuppression? A. Actinomycin D B. Cyclophosphamide C. Bleomycin D. Docetaxel

Answer K 7. Which of the following is NOT a anti-metabolite group of chemotherapeutic agents? A. 6-Mercaptopurine B. Methotrexate C. 5-Fluorouracil D. Vindesine

Answer K

8. ____________ is not an antineoplastic agent, which binds to reactive metabolite of IFEX or Cytoxan without affecting antitumor activity. A. Fluorouracil B. Tamoxifen C. L-Asparaginase D. Mesna

Answer K 9. Filgrastim (Neupogen) is a: A. synthetic antiestrogen used in the treatment of breast cancer. B. anti-metabolite chemotherapeutic agent. C. human recombinant granulocyte colonystimulating factor (G-CSF) D. nitrogen mustard.

Answer K 10. ___________ is a therapeutic agent used to promote recovery of neutrophils after chemotherapy. A. Filgrastim B. L-Asparaginase C. Levamisole D. Hydroxyurea

Answer K 11. Levamisole is used as a anticancer drug in the treatment of: A. Breast cancer B. Colorectal cancer C. Hodgkins disease D. Leukemia

Answer K 12. Which of the following drugs is most specific in the management of breast cancer?

A. L-Asparaginase B. Chlorambucil C. Tamoxifen D. Fludarabine

Answer K 13. The nitrogen mustard with the broadest spectrum of antitumor activity in its class is: A. Ifosfamide B. Cyclophosphamide C. Mechlorethamine D. Chlorambucil

Answer K 14. Which of the following chemotherapeutic agent is a folate antagonist group of antimetabolite? A. Thioguanine B. Fluorouracil C. Mercaptopurine D. Methotrexate

Answer K 15. Which of the following is a hormonal agent used as a chemotherapy of breast cancer? A. Tamoxifen citrate B. Ifosfamide C. Carmustine D. Methotrexate

Answer K ANSWER KEY 1. D 6. C 2. A 7. D 3. A 8. D 4. E 9. C 5. B 10. A

11. B

12. C

13. B

14. D

15. A

If an extravasation of chemotherapeutic agent is suspected, the first thing to do is: A. Irrigate the site with normal saline B. Stop the infusion of the chemotherapy. C. Call the physician D. Give antidote for the medicine if available.

Answer K 2. Human chorionic gonadotropin as a tumor marker is found elevated in: A. Gestational trophoblastic disease, gonadal germ cell tumor B. Medullary cancer of the thyroid C. Pheochromocytoma D. Prostate cancer

Answer K 3. Monoclonal immunoglobulin is found to be high in: A. Prostate cancer B. Hepatocellular carcinoma C. Myeloma D. Ovarian cancer

Answer K 4. Helicobacter pylori is believed to be associated with: A. Prostate cancer B. Lung cancer C. Vaginal cancer D. Gastric cancer

Answer K

5. Kaposi's sarcoma is associated with: A. Human papilloma virus B. Human T cell lymphotropic virus type I (HTLV-I) C. Human immunodeficiency virus D. Epstein-Barr virus

Answer K 6. _______________ is used for chemoprevention of breast cancer. A. Estrogens B. Tamoxifen C. Diethylstilbestrol D. Androgens

Answer K 7. American Cancer Society (ACS) recommends breast self-examination as a screening measure for every women of _________ age group. A. >20, monthly B. > 35 years, yearly C. > 50 years, yearly D. >55 years, weekly

Answer K 8. Colorectal Cancer screening include all the following, EXCEPT: A. Fecal occult blood testing (FOBT) B. Digital rectal examination (DRE) c. Radiographic barium contrast studies D. Papanicolaou smears test

Answer K 9. 11q22-q23 gene is associated with:

A. Lymphomas B. Breast cancer c. Stomach cancers D. Prostate carcinoma

Answer K 10. Epstein-Barr virus is known to be associated with: A. hepatocellular carcinoma B. cervical cancer C. Burkitt's lymphoma D. T cell leukemia

Answer K 11. Phenotypic characteristics of malignant cells include all, EXCEPT: A. Deregulated cell proliferation B. Loss of normal apoptosis pathways C. Metastasis D. High level of differentiation

Answer K 12. _____________ is a monoclonal antibodies group of drug, indicated in breast cancer . A. Trastuzumab B. Bortezomib c. Cyclophosphamide D. Mechlorethamine

Answer K 13. Brachytherapy is a type of therapeutic radiation of cancer tissue in which: A. beams of radiation generated at a distance and aimed at the tumor within the patient.

B. radioactive substances are injected in the blood stream. c. encapsulated sources of radiation implanted directly into or adjacent to tumor tissues. D. radionuclides targeted in some fashion to a site of tumor.

Answer K

14. ____________ is a syndrome charecterised by rapid tumor cell death which releases intracellular contents and causes hyperkalemia, hyperphosphatemia, and hyperuricemia in patients who are on chemotherapy. A. inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) B. Tumor lysis syndrome C. Gitelman's syndrome D. Liddle syndrome

Answer K 15. Ondansetron, 8 mg IV given before chemotherapy is to prevent: A. pain B. dyspnea c. nausea and vomiting D. weakness

Answer K Answer Key 1. C 6. B 11. D 2. A 7. A 12. A 3. C 8. D 13. C 4.D 9. B 14. B 5. C 10. C 15. C

. Criteria for the diagnosis of diabetes mellitus (World Health Organization) include all the following, EXCEPT: A. Symptoms of diabetes plus random blood glucose concentration >200 mg/dL B. Fasting plasma glucose >126 mg/dL C. Two-hour plasma glucose> 200 mg/dL during an oral glucose tolerance testc D. Fasting Plasma Glucose (FPG) < 5.6 mmol/L

Answer K 2. ______________ is contraindicated in patients with serum creatinine >1.5 mg/dL (men) >1.4 mg/dL (women), CHF, radiographic contrast studies, seriously ill patients, acidosis. A. Metformin B. Rosiglitazone C. Pioglitazone D. Insulin

Answer K 3. Insulim is a: A. Protein B. Fat C. Mineral D. Carbohydrate

Answer K

4. Which is the most reliable indicator of therapeutic compliance of a diabetic client with a normal seru hemoglobin? A. Fasting serum glucose B. Glycosylated hemoglobin C. Urine glucose and ketone levels D. Routine serum chemistry profile

Answer K

5. A client with type 2 diabetes complains of nausea, vomiting, diaphoresis and headache. Which of the following nursing interventions should the nurse carry out first? A. Withhold the clients next insulin injection. B. Test the clients blood glucose level. C. Administer Tylenol (acetaminophen) as ordered.

D. Offer fruit juice, gelatin and chicken bouillon.

Answer K 6. Glipizide acts by: A. enhance GLP-1 action. B. increase insulin sensitivity c. stimulating insulin secretion by the beta cells D. reducing glucose production

Answer K 7. The most serious complication of therapy for DM is; A. weight gain B. delayed wound healing C. hypoglycemia D. kidney failure

Answer K 8._______________, a polypeptide hormone produced by the alpha cells of the islets of Langerhans, increases plasma-glucose concentration by mobilising glycogen stored in the liver. A. Insulin B. C. D. Glucagon

Answer K 9. Diazoxide is indicated in the management of: A. chronic hypoglycaemia B. acute hypoglycaemia. C. hyper-osmolar non-ketotic hyperglycemia D. diabetic ketoacidosis

Answer K

10. ________ is indicated for the treatment of diabetic neuropathic pain. A. Paroxetine B. Duloxetine C. Pethidine D. Meperidine

Answer Key 1. D 6. C 2. D 7. C 3. A 8. D 4. B 9. A 5. B 10. C

Which of the follwoing is the most effective benzodiazepine for treating status epilepticus and is the treatment of choice for controlling seizures acutely? A. Midazolam B. Oxazepam C. Flurazepam D. Lorazepam Answer Key 2. Subdiaphragmatic abdominal thrust performed to clear airway obstruction in the awake patient without ventilation is termed as: A. Leopold's maneuvers B. Pallach's maneuver C. Heimlich maneuver D. Valsalva maneuver Answer Key 3. A slight bluish discoloration around the navel, is a sign of hemoperitoneum, A. Cullen's sign B. Kernigs sign

C. Brudzinskis signs D. Kehr's sign Answer Key 4. Signs of meningeal irritation include all the following, EXCEPT: A. Neck stiffness B. Brudzinski's sign C. Kernigs sign D. Kehr's sign Answer Key 5. The APACHE II system is a: A. Quality assurance system B. Severity-of-illness scoring system C. Computerized vital signsmonitoring system D. Neborn hydration monitoring system Answer Key 6. A client is admitted to the emergency department following an automobile accident. The client has four fractured ribs and a right sided pneumothorax. Which of the following respiratory assessment findings would the nurse expect to find? A. Crackles on the right chest and a respiratory rate of 8 breaths/minute. B. Diminished breath sounds on the right and pain on inspiration. C. Bilateral rhonchi and pink frothy sputum. D. Dry cough and wheezing on the right side of the chest. Answer Key 7. Clinical evidence of diminished Cardiac Output includes: A. a narrow pulse pressure B. rapid capillary refill C. widened pulse pressure

D. bounding pulses Answer Key 8. The most common cause of high cardiac output hypotension is: A. hemorrhage B. cardiac failure C. sepsis D. neurogenic shock Answer Key 9. Intermediate Syndrome is observed in: A. cardiac arrest B. respiratory failure C. renal failure D. organophosphorous poisoning Answer Key 10. The procedure of compressing cricothyroid cartilage posteriorly against vertebral bodies during endotracheal intubation is called: A. Valsalva maneuver B. Sellick maneuver C. Heimlich maneuver D. Leopold's maneuvers Answer Key 11. Which of the following pairing about Glasgow Coma Score is wrong? A. 6 Spontaneous Eye Opening B. 1No Verbal Response C. 5Localizes to pain (Motor Activity) D. 3Eye Opening to Verbal stimuli Answer Key

Answer Key 1.D 6. A 11. A 2. C 7. A 3. A 8. C 4. D 9. D 5. B 10. B BACK TO TOP

1. D 6. B 11. D

2. A 7. B 12. C.

3. B 8. C 13.D

4. C 9. B 14.C

5. A. 10. D 15. B Back to Top

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