Aviation Maintenance - Disassembly, Inspection, Repair and Assembly

Techniques

1. What is the primary concern when inspecting metal parts in aircraft systems?
A) Weight distribution only
B) Evidence of cracks, wear, distortion, and corrosion
C) Color consistency across surfaces
2. When inspecting rubber, fabric, glass fiber and plastic parts, which defect is NOT
typically looked for?
A) Electrical conductivity issues
B) Cracks, cuts, chafing, and kinking
C) Deterioration and loss of flexibility
3. What should be checked first when investigating a lower-than-expected fluid level in
liquid systems?
A) The consumption rate during normal operation
B) The gauge calibration settings
C) The ambient temperature effects
4. External damage to airframes most commonly occurs due to:
A) Being struck by ground equipment or severe hail
B) Manufacturing defects during assembly
C) Normal operational stress fatigue
5. Why is a leak from an oxygen system considered extremely dangerous?
A) It can cause rapid decompression
B) It increases the risk of explosion when in contact with oil or grease
C) It depletes the emergency oxygen supply
6. What does “creep” refer to in tire maintenance?
A) Gradual loss of tire pressure over time
B) Movement of tire cover around the rim due to heavy braking
C) Slow deterioration of tire rubber compounds
7. How is tire creep typically detected on aircraft?
A) By white marks painted across wheel rim and tire sidewall
B) Through pressure monitoring systems
C) Using infrared temperature measurements
8. What is the acceptable overnight pressure drop for aircraft tires?
A) Less than 10% of recommended pressure
B) No pressure drop is acceptable
C) Up to 25% pressure loss is normal
9. When should brake units typically be inspected most thoroughly?
A) During tire replacement procedures
B) Only during scheduled maintenance intervals
C) After every third flight cycle
10. What happens to brake components during normal braking operation that requires
monitoring?
A) They expand due to thermal stress
B) They absorb energy as heat, causing wear
C) They contract and become brittle
11. Landing gear locks serve what primary safety function?
A) To prevent inadvertent gear collapse when aircraft is on ground
B) To lock gear in extended position during flight
C) To prevent gear retraction during taxi operations
12. What indicates that a high-pressure gas bottle has discharged its contents?
A) A blown-out disc from its flush housing
B) Pressure gauge reading zero
C) Audible hissing sound from the system
13. External probes can become overheated when:
A) Flying at high altitudes in cold conditions
B) Left switched on with faulty weight-on-wheels switch
C) Exposed to direct sunlight during ground operations
14. What visual indication shows that external probes have overheated?
A) Discoloration of the probe surface
B) Formation of ice crystals
C) Electrical arcing at connection points
15. Why might emergency system protective covers use frangible devices?
A) To reduce manufacturing costs
B) To indicate when the system has been operated
C) To prevent corrosion of internal components
16. In propeller inspection, why are nicks on the leading edge particularly important?
A) They affect aerodynamic efficiency significantly
B) They produce stress concentrations that can cause blade separation
C) They indicate improper maintenance procedures
17. What type of corrosion prevention involves keeping drain holes clear?
A) Chemical treatment methods
B) Preventative maintenance procedures
C) Material substitution techniques
18. Which aircraft surfaces are particularly susceptible to corrosion?
A) Magnesium and aluminum alloy surfaces along rivet lines
B) Composite material joints and bonds
C) Steel framework and support structures
19. What is the first step in general corrosion removal treatment?
A) Neutralization of remaining residue
B) Cleaning and stripping protective coating in corroded area
C) Application of temporary protective coatings
20. Control system components should be inspected for correct alignment to ensure:
A) No fouling occurs during operation
B) Proper weight distribution
C) Adequate electrical conductivity
21. When inspecting electrical components like motors and relays, what indicates
overheating has occurred?
A) Evidence of overheating and fluid ingress
B) Reduced electrical resistance readings
C) Increased vibration during operation
22. What makes internal leaks in liquid systems more difficult to diagnose than external
leaks?
A) They require specialized equipment to detect
B) The problem is more difficult to find and locate
C) They only occur during specific flight phases
23. Nitrogen leaking into the liquid part of a hydraulic system will cause:
A) Complete system failure immediately
B) The system to feel spongy with reduced actuator response
C) Increased pressure throughout the system
24. What should be investigated when pneumatic system pressure is low at flight end?
A) The compressor operation and efficiency
B) The pilot’s operating procedures
C) The ambient temperature variations
25. How is landing gear oleo shock strut serviceability typically checked?
A) By measuring their extension dimensions
B) Through hydraulic pressure testing only
C) Using ultrasonic thickness measurements
26. What defect in aircraft wheels commonly results from heavy landings?
A) Impact damage to wheel rims
B) Electrical bonding failures
C) Thermal expansion cracks
27. After a rejected takeoff at maximum weight, what is the usual procedure?
A) Replace all brake units and main wheels
B) Perform detailed inspection only
C) Continue normal operations after cooling
28. What prevents wildlife from nesting in aircraft inlets and exhausts?
A) Careful inspection during maintenance checks
B) Installation of permanent screening systems
C) Use of chemical deterrent applications
29. Why are fire warning lights and undercarriage indication lights typically duplicated?
A) To ensure serviceability at all times
B) To meet international regulations only
C) To reduce maintenance workload
30. What can result from blocked ducts in aircraft systems?
A) Overheating of equipment or engine damage
B) Reduced fuel efficiency only
C) Minor performance degradation
31. Windscreen de-icer fluid leaks are typically identified by:
A) Distinctive odor in the enclosed flight deck space
B) Visual inspection of spray patterns
C) Electronic monitoring system alerts
32. What indicates that an emergency system protective cover has been operated?
A) Color change in the cover material
B) Broken frangible device like thin copper wire
C) Electronic logging system records
33. During ground runs, what engine parameters should be monitored?
A) Fuel consumption rates only
B) Temperatures, pressures, static RPM, and magneto drop
C) Vibration levels exclusively
34. What makes tubeless tire covers advantageous over tube-type tires regarding creep?
A) The valve is permanently fitted to the wheel
B) They have stronger sidewall construction
C) They operate at higher pressures
35. Separation of adhesive bonding in metal parts indicates:
A) Normal aging of materials
B) Structural integrity compromise requiring attention
C) Cosmetic issue with no safety impact
36. What is the purpose of electrical bonding in control system components?
A) To provide structural reinforcement
B) To ensure proper electrical continuity and prevent static buildup
C) To reduce component weight
37. When should protective covers and blanks be used in corrosion prevention?
A) During foul weather and for ventilation on sunny days
B) Only during winter months
C) Exclusively for long-term storage
38. What determines the selection of cleaning materials for corrosion removal?
A) Cost and availability factors
B) The type of matter to be removed
C) Environmental regulations only
39. Why is prompt treatment of corrosion emphasized in preventative maintenance?
A) To maintain aircraft appearance standards
B) To prevent further deterioration and structural damage
C) To comply with insurance requirements
40. What should be verified after corrosion removal before applying protective coatings?
A) That damage is within acceptable limits
B) That all personnel are properly trained
C) That environmental conditions are optimal