NFAT Prep Academy

Exam Mock Test for B.Sc. - M.Sc. Forensic Science

Duration: 90 Minutes
Total Questions: 100
Instructions:

• The test covers Physics, Chemistry, and Biology at the 10+2 level.
• Each question carries 1 mark.
• 0.25 Negative Markings for each Wrong Answer

1. A body is projected vertically upwards with a velocity of 20 m/s. What is the

maximum height reached? (Take g = 10 m/s²)
A) 10 m
B) 20 m
C) 30 m
D) 40 m
2. The dimensional formula for impulse is:
A) [MLT⁻¹]
B) [MLT⁻²]
C) [ML²T⁻²]
D) [ML²T⁻¹]
3. A car accelerates uniformly from rest to 72 km/h in 10 seconds. What is its
acceleration?
A) 1 m/s²
B) 2 m/s²
C) 3 m/s²
D) 4 m/s²
4. The work done by a force of 10 N acting on a body moving 5 m along its direction is:
A) 20 J
B) 30 J
C) 40 J
D) 50 J
5. A simple pendulum has a time period of 2 s on Earth. What will be its time period
on a planet where the acceleration due to gravity is 1/4th that of Earth?
A) 1 s
B) 2 s
C) 4 s
D) 8 s
6. The focal length of a convex lens is 20 cm. An object is placed 30 cm from the lens.
The image distance is:
A) 60 cm
B) 12 cm
C) 15 cm
D) 30 cm
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7. The resistance of a wire of length 1 m and cross-sectional area 1 mm² is 2 Ω. What
will be the resistance if the length is doubled and the area is halved?
A) 2 Ω
B) 4 Ω
C) 8 Ω
D) 16 Ω
8. A particle moves in a circular path of radius 5 m with a constant speed of 10 m/s. Its
centripetal acceleration is:
A) 10 m/s²
B) 20 m/s²
C) 50 m/s²
D) 100 m/s²
9. The specific heat capacity of a substance is 400 J/kg·K. How much heat is required
to raise the temperature of 2 kg of the substance by 10°C?
A) 4000 J
B) 8000 J
C) 12000 J
D) 16000 J
10. A sound wave has a frequency of 500 Hz and a wavelength of 0.68 m. What is the
speed of the wave?
A) 170 m/s
B) 340 m/s
C) 500 m/s
D) 680 m/s
11. The potential difference across a resistor is 12 V, and the current through it is 2 A.
The resistance is:
A) 4 Ω
B) 6 Ω
C) 8 Ω
D) 10 Ω
12. A convex mirror has a focal length of 15 cm. If an object is placed 10 cm from the
mirror, the image is:
A) Real and inverted
B) Virtual and erect
C) Real and erect
D) Virtual and inverted
13. The half-life of a radioactive substance is 5 hours. What fraction of the substance
remains after 15 hours?
A) 1/2
B) 1/4
C) 1/8
D) 1/16
14. A body of mass 5 kg is moving with a velocity of 10 m/s. Its kinetic energy is:
A) 125 J
B) 250 J
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C) 375 J
D) 500 J
15. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. What is the speed of light in glass? (Speed of
light in vacuum = 3 × 10⁸ m/s)
A) 1.5 × 10⁸ m/s
B) 2 × 10⁸ m/s
C) 3 × 10⁸ m/s
D) 4.5 × 10⁸ m/s
16. A capacitor of 10 µF is charged to 100 V. The energy stored in it is:
A) 0.05 J
B) 0.5 J
C) 5 J
D) 50 J
17. The moment of inertia of a solid sphere about its diameter is (M = mass, R =
radius):
A) (2/5)MR²
B) (2/3)MR²
C) MR²
D) (5/2)MR²
18. A wave is described by the equation y = 0.1 sin(2πx – 4πt). The wavelength is:
A) 0.5 m
B) 1 m
C) 2 m
D) 4 m
19. A transformer has 100 turns in the primary coil and 200 turns in the secondary coil.
If the primary voltage is 220 V, the secondary voltage is:
A) 110 V
B) 220 V
C) 440 V
D) 880 V
20. A particle is executing simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 0.2 m and a
frequency of 5 Hz. The maximum velocity is:
A) 2π m/s
B) 4π m/s
C) 6π m/s
D) 8π m/s
21. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated through a potential difference
of 100 V is (h = 6.626 × 10⁻³⁴ J·s, m = 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ kg, e = 1.6 × 10⁻¹⁹ C):
A) 0.123 nm
B) 1.23 nm
C) 12.3 nm
D) 123 nm
22. A Carnot engine operates between 400 K and 300 K. Its efficiency is:
A) 25%
B) 33.33%
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C) 50%
D) 75%
23. A wire carries a current of 5 A. The magnetic field at a point 2 m away from the
wire is (μ₀ = 4π × 10⁻⁷ T·m/A):
A) 5 × 10⁻⁷ T
B) 10⁻⁶ T
C) 2 × 10⁻⁶ T
D) 5 × 10⁻⁶ T
24. A body is projected at an angle of 30° with a velocity of 40 m/s. The horizontal range
is (g = 10 m/s²):
A) 80 m
B) 120 m
C) 160 m
D) 200 m
25. The electric field due to a point charge of 2 µC at a distance of 1 m is (k = 9 × 10⁹
N·m²/C²):
A) 1.8 × 10⁴ N/C
B) 3.6 × 10⁴ N/C
C) 9 × 10⁴ N/C
D) 18 × 10⁴ N/C
26. A particle of mass 1 kg is attached to a spring with a spring constant of 100 N/m.
The time period of oscillation is:
A) 0.2π s
B) 0.4π s
C) 0.6π s
D) 0.8π s
27. The critical angle for a medium with a refractive index of 1.414 is:
A) 30°
B) 45°
C) 60°
D) 90°
28. A satellite is orbiting at a height of 3600 km above the Earth’s surface (R_E = 6400
km, g = 10 m/s²). The orbital velocity is:
A) 4 km/s
B) 5 km/s
C) 6 km/s
D) 7 km/s
29. The binding energy per nucleon of a nucleus is 8 MeV, and the nucleus has 50
nucleons. The total binding energy is:
A) 200 MeV
B) 400 MeV
C) 600 MeV
D) 800 MeV
30. A lens forms an image that is twice the size of the object. If the object is 10 cm from
the lens, the focal length of the lens is:
A) 10 cm
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B) 15 cm
C) 20 cm
D) 30 cm
31. A particle moves in a straight line with an acceleration given by a = 3t² m/s². If the
initial velocity is 2 m/s, the velocity after 2 seconds is:
A) 6 m/s
B) 8 m/s
C) 10 m/s
D) 12 m/s
32. The magnetic moment of a current-carrying loop of area 0.1 m² and current 2 A is:
A) 0.02 A·m²
B) 0.2 A·m²
C) 2 A·m²
D) 20 A·m²
33. A gas undergoes an adiabatic process. The relation between pressure and volume is
P ∝ V⁻γ, where γ is:
A) 1
B) 1.4
C) 2
D) 2.4
34. A photon has an energy of 4 eV. Its wavelength is (h = 4.14 × 10⁻¹⁵ eV·s, c = 3 × 10⁸
m/s):
A) 310 nm
B) 620 nm
C) 930 nm
D) 1240 nm
35. A body of mass 2 kg is dropped from a height of 20 m. The velocity just before it hits
the ground is (g = 10 m/s², neglect air resistance):
A) 10 m/s
B) 20 m/s
C) 30 m/s
D) 40 m/s

36. The atomic number of an element is 17. Its electronic configuration is:
A) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁴
B) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁵
C) 1s² 2s² 2p⁵ 3s² 3p⁶
D) 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s¹ 3p⁶
37. The molar mass of Na₂CO₃ is:
A) 83 g/mol
B) 94 g/mol
C) 106 g/mol
D) 118 g/mol
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38. The oxidation number of sulfur in H₂SO₄ is:
A) +2
B) +4
C) +6
D) +8
39. A gas occupies 2 L at 1 atm and 300 K. What will be its volume at 2 atm and 600 K?
A) 1 L
B) 2 L
C) 4 L
D) 8 L
40. The pH of a 0.01 M HCl solution is:
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
41. The IUPAC name of CH₃CH₂CHO is:
A) Propanal
B) Propanone
C) Ethanol
D) Ethanal
42. The number of moles in 16 g of methane (CH₄) is:
A) 0.5
B) 1
C) 2
D) 4
43. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?
A) NH₃
B) BF₃
C) H₂O
D) OH⁻
44. The bond order of O₂ is:
A) 1
B) 1.5
C) 2
D) 2.5
45. The hybridization of carbon in ethene (C₂H₄) is:
A) sp
B) sp²
C) sp³
D) dsp²
46. The heat of combustion of methane is -890 kJ/mol. The heat evolved when 8 g of
methane is burnt is:
A) 445 kJ
B) 890 kJ
C) 1780 kJ
D) 3560 kJ
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47. Which of the following is an electrophile?
A) NH₃
B) CN⁻
C) NO₂⁺
D) OH⁻
48. The rate constant of a first-order reaction is 0.0693 min⁻¹. The half-life is:
A) 5 min
B) 10 min
C) 15 min
D) 20 min
49. The shape of the XeF₄ molecule is:
A) Tetrahedral
B) Square planar
C) Trigonal bipyramidal
D) Octahedral
50. The standard electrode potential of Zn²⁺/Zn is -0.76 V, and that of Cu²⁺/Cu is +0.34
V. The EMF of the cell Zn|Zn²⁺||Cu²⁺|Cu is:
A) 0.42 V
B) 0.76 V
C) 1.10 V
D) 1.52 V
51. The product of the reaction between ethanol and concentrated H₂SO₄ at 140°C is:
A) Ethene
B) Diethyl ether
C) Ethanal
D) Ethanoic acid
52. The number of sigma and pi bonds in benzene (C₆H₆) is:
A) 6 σ, 3 π
B) 12 σ, 3 π
C) 12 σ, 6 π
D) 6 σ, 6 π
53. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of dimethyl ether due to:
A) Hydrogen bonding
B) Dipole-dipole interaction
C) London forces
D) Covalent bonding
54. The solubility product of AgCl is 1.8 × 10⁻¹⁰. The solubility of AgCl in water is:
A) 1.34 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L
B) 1.8 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L
C) 3.6 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L
D) 9 × 10⁻⁵ mol/L
55. Which of the following is a primary alcohol?
A) Propan-2-ol
B) Butan-2-ol
C) Ethanol
D) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
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56. The enthalpy change for the reaction 2H₂(g) + O₂(g) → 2H₂O(l) is -572 kJ. The
enthalpy of formation of H₂O(l) is:
A) -143 kJ/mol
B) -286 kJ/mol
C) -572 kJ/mol
D) -1144 kJ/mol
57. The molecular formula of a hydrocarbon with a molecular mass of 78 g/mol and
7.7% hydrogen by mass is:
A) C₅H₆
B) C₆H₆
C) C₇H₈
D) C₈H₁₀
58. The rate of a reaction doubles when the temperature increases from 300 K to 310 K.
The activation energy is (R = 8.314 J/mol·K):
A) 50 kJ/mol
B) 52.9 kJ/mol
C) 55 kJ/mol
D) 60 kJ/mol
59. The geometry of [Ni(CN)₄]²⁻ is:
A) Tetrahedral
B) Square planar
C) Octahedral
D) Linear
60. The osmotic pressure of a 0.1 M glucose solution at 300 K is (R = 0.0821
L·atm/mol·K):
A) 2.46 atm
B) 4.92 atm
C) 7.38 atm
D) 9.84 atm
61. Which of the following is a chain-growth polymer?
A) Nylon-6,6
B) Polyethylene
C) Terylene
D) Bakelite
62. The reaction 2NO(g) + O₂(g) → 2NO₂(g) is second order with respect to NO and first
order with respect to O₂. The rate law is:
A) Rate = k[NO][O₂]
B) Rate = k[NO]²[O₂]
C) Rate = k[NO][O₂]²
D) Rate = k[NO]²[O₂]²
63. The coordination number of Fe in [Fe(C₂O₄)₃]³⁻ is:
A) 4
B) 6
C) 8
D) 12
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64. The product of the reaction of toluene with Cl₂ in the presence of FeCl₃ is:
A) Chlorobenzene
B) Benzyl chloride
C) o-Chlorotoluene
D) m-Chlorotoluene
65. The equilibrium constant Kc for the reaction N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ⇌ 2NH₃(g) is 4 at 400 K.
The Kc for 2NH₃(g) ⇌ N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) is:
A) 0.25
B) 0.5
C) 2
D) 4
66. The number of unpaired electrons in [CoF₆]³⁻ is (Co atomic number = 27):
A) 0
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
67. The major product of the reaction of 1-butene with HBr in the presence of peroxide
is:
A) 1-Bromobutane
B) 2-Bromobutane
C) 1,2-Dibromobutane
D) 2,2-Dibromobutane
68. The depression in freezing point of a 0.1 m aqueous solution of a non-electrolyte is
(Kf = 1.86 K·kg/mol):
A) 0.186 K
B) 0.372 K
C) 1.86 K
D) 3.72 K
69. The hybridization of nitrogen in the nitrate ion (NO₃⁻) is:
A) sp
B) sp²
C) sp³
D) dsp²
70. The equivalent weight of KMnO₄ in an acidic medium is (molar mass = 158 g/mol):
A) 31.6 g
B) 52.67 g
C) 79 g
D) 158 g

71. The primary source of energy for Earth’s climate system is:
A) Geothermal energy
B) Solar energy
C) Biomass energy
D) Tidal energy
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72. The site of protein synthesis in a cell is:
A) Nucleus
B) Mitochondria
C) Ribosomes
D) Golgi apparatus
73. The blood group known as the universal donor is:
A) A
B) B
C) AB
D) O
74. The process by which plants lose water through stomata is called:
A) Transpiration
B) Guttation
C) Respiration
D) Photosynthesis
75. The enzyme that breaks down starch into maltose is:
A) Pepsin
B) Amylase
C) Lipase
D) Trypsin
76. The genetic material in bacteria is primarily:
A) Single-stranded DNA
B) Double-stranded DNA
C) Single-stranded RNA
D) Double-stranded RNA
77. The hormone responsible for regulating blood sugar levels is:
A) Adrenaline
B) Insulin
C) Thyroxine
D) Cortisol
78. The part of the brain responsible for balance and coordination is:
A) Cerebrum
B) Cerebellum
C) Medulla oblongata
D) Hypothalamus
79. The process of conversion of nitrates into nitrogen gas is called:
A) Nitrification
B) Denitrification
C) Ammonification
D) Nitrogen fixation
80. The structural unit of a kidney is:
A) Neuron
B) Nephron
C) Alveolus
D) Villus
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81. Which of the following is a monocotyledonous plant?
A) Pea
B) Maize
C) Mango
D) Bean
82. The causative agent of malaria is:
A) Plasmodium
B) Trypanosoma
C) Leishmania
D) Entamoeba
83. The number of chromosomes in a human somatic cell is:
A) 23
B) 46
C) 69
D) 92
84. The process by which mRNA is synthesized from DNA is:
A) Translation
B) Transcription
C) Replication
D) Translocation
85. The deficiency of vitamin D leads to:
A) Scurvy
B) Rickets
C) Beriberi
D) Night blindness
86. The type of respiration that occurs in the absence of oxygen is:
A) Aerobic respiration
B) Anaerobic respiration
C) Cellular respiration
D) Oxidative phosphorylation
87. The pigment responsible for photosynthesis is:
A) Hemoglobin
B) Chlorophyll
C) Melanin
D) Carotene
88. The largest gland in the human body is:
A) Pancreas
B) Liver
C) Thyroid
D) Pituitary
89. The process of cell division in somatic cells is called:
A) Meiosis
B) Mitosis
C) Cytokinesis
D) Karyokinesis
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90. The nitrogenous base absent in DNA but present in RNA is:
A) Adenine
B) Guanine
C) Thymine
D) Uracil
91. The enzyme that joins DNA fragments during replication is:
A) DNA polymerase
B) DNA ligase
C) Helicase
D) Topoisomerase
92. The part of the flower that develops into a fruit is:
A) Ovary
B) Ovule
C) Stamen
D) Petal
93. The Hardy-Weinberg principle is related to:
A) Genetic drift
B) Population genetics
C) Natural selection
D) Speciation
94. The causative organism of AIDS is:
A) HIV
B) HBV
C) HPV
D) HSV
95. The type of tissue that conducts water in plants is:
A) Xylem
B) Phloem
C) Parenchyma
D) Collenchyma
96. The human heart has how many chambers?
A) 2
B) 3
C) 4
D) 5
97. The process by which homologous chromosomes exchange genetic material is:
A) Crossing over
B) Mutation
C) Gene flow
D) Genetic drift
98. The respiratory quotient (RQ) for carbohydrates is:
A) 0.7
B) 0.9
C) 1.0
D) 1.2
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99. The enzyme that converts glucose to ethanol in anaerobic respiration is:
A) Zymase
B) Invertase
C) Maltase
D) Lactase
100. The theory of evolution proposed by Charles Darwin is based on:
A) Genetic drift
B) Natural selection
C) Lamarckism
D) Punctuated equilibrium