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GENERAL APTITUDE
Q. No. 1 – 5 Carry One Mark Each

1. The perimeters of a circle, a square and an equilateral triangle are equal. Which one of the following
statements is true?
(A) The circle has the largest area
(B) The square has the largest area
(C) The equilateral triangle has the largest area
(D) All the three shapes have the same area.
Answer: (A)

2. Find the missing group of letters in the following series:

BC, FGH, LMNO, ________
(A) UVWXY (B) TUVWX (C) STUVW (D) RSTUV
Answer: (B)

3. “The judge’s standing in the legal community, though shaken by false allegations of wrongdoing,
remained _______.”
The world that best fills the blank in the above sentence is
(A) Undiminished (B) damaged
(C) illegal (D) uncertain
Answer: (A)

1 1 1
4. The value of the expression + + is ______
1 + log u vw 1 + log v wu 1 + log w uv
(A) –1 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D) 3
Answer: (C)

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5. “The dress ______ her so well that they all immediately ______ her on her appearance.”
The words that best fill the blanks in the above sentence are
(A) complemented, complemented (B) complimented, complemented
(C) complimented, complimented (D) complemented, complimented
Answer: (D)

Q. No. 6 – 10 Carry Two Marks Each

6. Forty students watched films A, B and C over a week. Each student watched either only one film or all
three. Thirteen students watched film A, sixteen students watched film B and nineteen students watched
film C. How many students watched all three films?
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 8
Answer: (A)

7. A house has a number which needs to be identified. The following three statements are given that can
help in identifying the house number.
(i) If the house number is a multiple of 3, then it is a number from 50 to 59.
(ii) If the house number is NOT a multiple of 4, then it is a number from 60 to 69.
(iii) If the house number is NOT a multiple of 6, then it is a number from 70 to 79.
What is the house number?
(A) 54 (B) 65 (C) 66 (D) 76
Answer: (D)

8. A contract is to be completed in 52 days and 125 identical robots were employed, each operational for 7
hours a day. After 39 days, five-seventh of the work was completed. How many additional robots would
be required to complete the work on time, if each robot is now operational for 8 hours a day?
(A) 50 (B) 89 (C) 146 (D) 175
Answer: (0)

9. An unbiased coin is tossed six times in a row and four different such trials are conducted. One trial
implies six tosses of the coin. If H stands for head and T stands for tail, the following are the
observations from the four trials:
(1) HTHTHT (2) TTHHHT (3) HTTHHT (4) HHHT __ __.

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Which statement describing the last two coin tosses of the fourth trial has the highest probability of
being correct?
(A) Two T will occur (B) One H and one T will occur
(C) Two H will occur (D) One H will be followed by one T
Answer: (B)

10. A wire would enclose an area of 1936 m2, if it is bent into a square. The wire is cut into two pieces. The
longer piece is thrice as long as the shorter piece. The long and the short pieces are bent into a square
and a circle, respectively. Which of the following choices is closest to the sum of the areas enclosed by
the two pieces in square meters?
(A) 1096 (B) 1111 (C) 1243 (D) 2486
Answer: (C)

PRODUCTION ENGINEERING
Q.No.1-25 Carry One Mark Each

1. Vector triple product a × (b × c) of three vectors a, b and c is given by

(A) (a c) b − (a b) c (B) ( b c) a − (a c) b
(C) (a b) c − (a c) b (D) ( b c) a − (a b) c
Answer: (A)

2. A real-valued function y of real variable x is such that y = 5 x . At x = 0, the function is

(A) discontinuous but differentiable

(B) both continuous and differentiable
(C) discontinuous and not differentiable
(D) continuous but not differentiable
Answer: (D)

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3. Considering the coordinate system shown in the figure, a force of magnitude 10 kN has x-component of
–6 kN. Possible y-component (s) of the force is/are

O
x

(A) +8 kN only (B) +5 kN only

(C) +8 kN and –8 kN (D) +5 kN and –5 kN
Answer: (C)

4. When austenite decomposes upon cooling into two phases— ferrite and cementite, the reaction is called
(A) Eutectic (B) Eutectoid (C) Peritectic (D) Peritectoid
Answer: (B)

5. Match the geometric tolerances with their correct symbols:

P. Flatness 1.

Q. Perpendicularity 2.

R. Concentricity 3.

S. Roundness (Circularity) 4.

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(A) P – 1, Q – 3, R – 4, S – 2 (B) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 4, S – 2
(C) P – 3, Q – 1, R – 2, S – 4 (D) P – 3, Q – 2, R – 1, S – 4
Answer: (B)

6. Which one of the following instruments makes use of the principle of interference of light?
(A) Optical flat (B) Auto-collimator
(C) Optical projector (D) Coordinate measuring machine
Answer: (A)

7. In ASME process chart, the symbol represents

(A) operation (B) inspection (C) delay (D) transport
Answer: (B)

8. Which one of the following is the most appropriate control chart for measuring the variability of
individual readings within a sample?
(A) X − chart (B) R-chart (C) p-chart (D) c-chart
Answer: (B)

9. The machines and auxiliary facilities are located according to processing sequence of the product
(produced in very large quantities) in
(A) Process Layout (B) Fixed Position Layout
(C) Product Layout (D) Cellular Layout
Answer: (C)

10. Which one of the following defects is NOT associated with the casting process?
(A) Hot tear (B) Porosity (C) Blister (D Central burst
Answer: (D)

11. In an oxy-acetylene gas welding process, oxygen and acetylene are mixed in a ratio of 1.5:1 (by
volume). The flame is
(A) neutral (B) carburizing (C) reducing (D) oxidizing
Answer: (D)

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12. Each of three firms P, Q and R manufactures 100 lakhs components. The number of defective
components produced by P, Q and R are 30, 42 and 47, respectively. The firm(s) in conformance with
Six Sigma standard is/are
(A) only P (B) P and Q (C) P, Q and R (D) Q and R
Answer: (A)

13. To make holes of 0.5 mm diameter and 30 mm depth in a mild steel component, the most suitable
process is
(A) chemical machining (B) electrochemical machining
(C) abrasive jet machining (D) plasma arc machining
Answer: (B)

14. Which one of the following processes is NOT used for producing powders?
(A) Atomization (B) Ball milling
(C) Sintering (D) Electrolysis
Answer: (C)

15. The process in which molten thermoplastic is forced between rolls to produce thin sheets is called
(A) blow moulding (B) compression moulding
(C) calendering (D) extrusion
Answer: (C)

16. The diagonal elements of a 3-by-3 matrix are -10, 5 and 0, respectively. If two of its eigenvalues are
–15 each, the third eigenvalue is _______
Answer: (24.5to 25.5)

17. Weights (in kg) of six products are 3, 7, 6, 2, 3 and 4. The median weight (in kg, up to one decimal
place) is _______
Answer: (3.49 to 0.51)

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18. The probabilities of occurrence of events F and G are P(F) = 0.3 and P(G) = 0.4, respectively. The
probability that both events occur simultaneously is P ( F  G ) = 0.2 . The probability of occurrence of at
least one event P ( F  G ) is _______

Answer: (0.48 to 0.51)

19. A flywheel in the form of a solid circular disc of radius 100 mm and uniform thickness has a mass of 10
kg. If it is rotating at a uniform angular velocity of 20 rad/s, the kinetic energy (in J) of the flywheel is
_______
Answer: (9.9 to 10.1)

20. A cylindrical wooden block of length 50 cm is floating in water in such a way that its axis is vertical.
The densities of wood and water are 800 kg/m3 and 1000 kg/m3, respectively. The submerged depth, i.e.,
depth of immersion (in cm) of the cylinder is _______
Answer: (39 to 41)

21. A machine consists of three components P, Q and R connected serially. The reliabilities of P, Q and R
are 0.97, 0.86 and 0.93, respectively. To increase the reliability of the machine, two additional stand-by
units of Q are attached. The overall reliability (up to two decimal places) of the machine is _______
Answer: (0.88 to 0.91)

22. The mean time between failures of a machine is 400 hour. If the availability of the machine is 80%, the
mean time to repair (in hour) is _______
Answer: (79 to 81)

23. Processing times on a single machine for 3 jobs are given below. All the jobs are available at time t = 0.
Job 1 2 3
Processing time (minute) 15 3 6
The mean flow time (in minute) as per the shortest processing time (SPT) sequence is _______
Answer: (11.8 to 12.2)

24. In a two-pass wire drawing process, there is a 40% reduction in wire cross-sectional area in 1st pass and
further 30% reduction in 2nd pass. The overall reduction (in percentage) is ______
Answer: (57 to 59)

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25. A double-start thread with a pitch of 2 mm is to be cut using a lathe machine. The pitch of the leadscrew
of the lathe is 6 mm. The job rotates at 60 revolution per minute (RPM). The RPM of the leadscrew is
______
Answer: (39 to 41)

Q.No.26-55 Carry Two Marks Each

26. Consider the analytic function f ( z ) = x 2 − y 2 + i2xy of the complex variable z = x+ iy, where i = −1.
The derivative f ' ( z ) is

(A) 2x + i2y (B) x 2 + iy2 (C) x + iy (D) 2x − i2y

Answer: (A)

27. In order to evaluate the integral  e x dx with Simpson’s 1/3rd rule, values of the function ex are used at
0

x = 0.0, 0.5 and 1.0. The absolute value of the error of numerical integration is
(A) 0.000171 (B) 0.000440 (C) 0.000579 (D) 0.002718
Answer: (C)

28. A rigid link PQ of length 1.0 m is pinned at P. It rotates about P in a vertical plane with a uniform
angular acceleration of 1.0 rad/s2. At an instant when the angular velocity of the link is 1.0 rad/s, the
magnitude of total acceleration (in m/s2) of point Q relative to point P is
(A) 1.41 (B) 1.73 (C) 2 (D) 2.83
Answer: (A)

29. In a shaft-hole system, the dimensions with tolerances (in mm) are as follows:
Shaft : 20+− xx
Hole : 20−−0.03
y

where both x and y are positive real numbers. Which one of the following will provide an interference
fit?
(A) x = 0.05, y = 0.040 (B) x = 0.04, y = 0.035
(C) x = 0.04, y = 0.032 (D) x = 0.02, y = 0.035
Answer: (D)

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30. A machine is procured at a price of Rs. 47000 with a 2-year warranty. After two years, the annual
maintenance cost (AMC) in Rs. is given by the following formula:
AMC = ( i − 2 )  2000, for i  2
where i is the number of years elapsed since the machine was purchased. Neglect the scrap value of the
machine, inflation, interest, etc. For minimizing the average cost, the machine should be replaced at the
end of the year
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 7 (D) 10
Answer: (C)

31. In a service centre, cars arrive according to Poisson distribution with a mean of 2 cars per hour. The time
for servicing a car is exponential with a mean of 15 minutes. The expected waiting time (in minute) in
the queue is
(A) 10 (B) 15 (C) 25 (D) 30
Answer: (B)

32. Actual and forecasted demands of a product are as follows:

Period 1 2 3 4 5
Actual demand 180 170 165 170 200
Forecasted 190 190 190 190 190
demand
The forecast error measured in terms of mean absolute deviation (MAD) and mean absolute percentage
error (MAPE), respectively, are
(A) 13 and 7.84% (B) 13 and 9.85%
(C) 17 and 7.84% (D) 17 and 9.85%
Answer: (D)

33. In a mass production firm, measurements are carried out on 10000 pairs of shaft and hole. The mean
diameters of the shaft and hole are 37.53mm and 37.59mm, respectively. The corresponding standard
deviations are 0.03mm and 0.04mm. The mean clearance and its standard deviation (both in mm),
respectively, are
(A) 0.06 and 0.07 (B) 0.06 and 0.06 (C) 0.06 and 0.05 (D) 0.07 and 0.01
Answer: (C)

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34. A pressure die casting set-up was tested by injecting water (density 1000 kg/m3) at a pressure of 200 bar.
Mould-filling time was found to be 0.05 s. Afterwards, the actual casting is made by injecting the liquid
metal (density 2000 kg/m3) at an injection pressure of 400 bar. Neglect all losses (friction, viscous-
effect, etc.). The approximate mould-filling time (in s) is
(A) 0.05 (B) 0.075 (C) 0.1 (D) 0.2
Answer: (A)

35. The value of the surface integral  (9xi − 2yj − zk ) • ndS

S
over the surface S of the sphere

x 2 + y2 + z2 = 9, where n is the unit outward normal to the surface element dS, is _________.
Answer: (675 to 681)

d2 y
36. Consider the differential equation 2 + 8y = 0
dt 2
with initial conditions:
dy
At t = 0, y = 0 and = 10
dt
The value of y (up to two decimal places) at t = 1 is _______.
Answer: (4.52 to 4.56)

37. One kg of air (that can be considered a calorically perfect gas with characteristic gas constant R = 287
J/kg-K and specific heat ratio  = 1.4 ) undergoes a constant-volume process from an initial static
pressure of 1 bar to a final static pressure of 4 bar. The increase in entropy (in J/kg-K) of air is ______
Answer: (990 to 1000)

38. If u = 2 ( x 2 − y2 ) and v = –axy represent the x-and y-components of the two-dimensional velocity field
of an incompressible flow, the value of the constant a is ________.
Answer: (3.9 to 4.1)

39. A spherical pressure vessel (made of mild steel) of internal diameter 500 mm and thickness 10 mm is
subjected to an internal gauge pressure of 4000 kPa. If the yield stress of mild steel is 200 MPa, the
factor of safety (up to one decimal place) is ______
Answer: (3.6 to 4.4)

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40. A square cross-section wooden column of length 3140 mm is pinned at both ends. For the wood,
Young’s modulus of elasticity is 12 GPa and allowable compressive stress is 12 MPa. The column needs
to support an axial compressive load of 200 kN. Using a factor of safety of 2.0 in the computation of
Euler’s buckling load, the minimum cross-sectional area (in mm2) of the column is ______
Answer: (19800 to 20200)

41. Length, width and thickness of a plate are 400 mm, 400 mm and 30 mm, respectively. For the material
of the plate, Young’s modulus of elasticity is 70 GPa, yield stress is 80 MPa and Poisson’s ratio is 0.33.
When the plate is subjected to a longitudinal tensile stress of 70 MPa, the increase in the volume (in
mm3) of the plate is ______
Answer: (1575 to 1650)

42. In a V-thread, a wire is fitted such that it makes contact with the flank of the thread on the pitch line as
shown in the figure. If the pitch p of the thread is 3 mm and the included angle is 60°, the diameter (in
mm, up to one decimal place) of the wire is ______

O
Pitch line

60

0.25p
Answer: (1.6 to 1.8)

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43. A project consists of three activities P, Q and R. The durations of activities follow Beta distribution. The
predecessors and durations of activities are as per the following table:
Activity Predecessors Optimistic time Most likely time Pessimistic
(month) (month) time (month)
P – 2 3 10
Q P 3 5 13
R Q 3 4 5
The expected project completion time (in month) is ______
Answer: (13.9 to 14.1)

44. A company has two manufacturing plants (C1 and C2) and two distribution centres (D1 and D2). The
capacities of C1 and C2 are 100 and 200 units, respectively. The demand for D1 and D2 are 190 and 110
units, respectively. The costs per unit (in Rs.) of transportation at different routes are as per the
following matrix:
D1 D2

C1 22 21

C2 20 27

The minimum total cost (in Rs.) of transportation is ______

Answer: (6165 to 6175)

45. The annual demand of an item is 19845 units and the production rate is 100 units per day. The per-unit
production cost (excluding setup cost) is Rs. 50, the per-unit holding cost is Rs. 10 per year and setup
cost is Rs. 520 per setup. To minimize the total annual cost, the optimum quantity to be produced per
setup is ______
Answer: (2100 to 2155)

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46. A production line operates 7 hours a day in a 5-day week. The processing times for various job elements
are as follows:
Job element p q r s t
Processing time (s) 5 10 12 3 15
If the line is designed for an output of 8400 units per week, the theoretical minimum number of work
stations required is ______
Answer: (2.8 to 3.2)

47. In a work sampling study of a worker, the information available are as follows: total time of study: 30
hour, number of items produced: 320, total number of observations: 1000, number of observations when
worker is found working: 850 and average performance rating: 105%. Company policy is to give
allowance of 10% of total time on the job. The standard time (in minute per item, up to one decimal
place) for manufacturing the item is ______
Answer: (5.2 to 5.8)

48. The breakeven point of a manufacturing company is 50000 units. The fixed cost is Rs. 200000 and the
variable cost per unit is Rs. 20. The selling price per unit (in Rs.) of the product at this breakeven point is
______
Answer: (23.8 to 24.2)

49. A 10 mm thick plate is rolled to 7 mm thickness in a rolling mill using 1000 mm diameter rigid rolls.
The neutral point is located at an angle of 0.3 times the bite angle from the exit. The thickness (in mm,
up to two decimal places) of the plate at the neutral point is ______
Answer: (7.1 to 7.4)

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50. A cylindrical workpiece is turned at a feed of 0.1 mm/rev with a perfectly sharp tool. In ASA system, the
side and end cutting edge angles are 15° and 5°, respectively, as shown in the figure. The peak-to-valley
roughness (in µm, up to one decimal place) of the machined surface is ______

5
15

Feed = 0.1mm rev

Answer: (8.4 to 8.7)

51. The worktable in a CNC machine is driven by a leadscrew with a pitch of 2 mm. The leadscrew is
directly coupled to a stepper motor of step angle 1.8°. The number of pulses required to move the
worktable by 50 mm is ______
Answer: (4999 to 5001)

52. During orthogonal machining of a job at a cutting speed of 90 m/min with a tool of 10° rake angle, the
cutting force and thrust force are 750 N and 390 N, respectively. Assume a shear angle of 35°. The
power (in W) expended for shearing along the shear plane is ______
Answer: (630 to 641)

53. In an electrochemical machining of aluminium with plane parallel electrodes, the current density is 70
A/cm2. Cross-sectional area of each electrode is 3 cm2. The current efficiency (i.e., the fraction of
current used for dissolution of metal) is 80%. Gram atomic weight, valency and density of aluminium
are 27 gram, 3 and 2700 kg/m3, respectively. Take Faraday’s constant as 96500 Coulomb. The
volumetric material removal rate (in mm3/min) is ______
Answer: (345 to 551)

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54. Two metallic sheets are spot welded by passing a current of 8000 A for 0.2 s. Assume that a cylindrical
nugget of 8 mm diameter and 3 mm depth is formed. The density of the nugget is 7500 kg/m 3, effective
resistance of the total system is 222 micro-Ohm and heat required to produce 1.0 gram of nugget is
1400 J. The percentage of heat actually utilized in producing the nugget is ______
Answer: (53 to 58)

55. In a planar 2-degree-of-freedom robot, Link 1 of 30 cm length is connected to base by a revolute joint
and Link 2 of length 20 cm is connected to Link 1 with a revolute joint as shown in the figure. The
work-envelope area (in cm2), covered by point P, is ______

•P

Joint 2 Link 2

Link1
Joint 1

Base

Answer: (3760 to 7600)

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