ASSIGNMENT 09/04/2025

MCQ (1-120)

1. One cause of after firing in an aircraft engine is….

A) Use of fuel with low octane rating
B) Sticking intake valves
C) An excessively lean mixture
D) An excessively rich mixture
2. An increase in humidity in the incoming air to a piston engine will normally result in which
of the following .
A) Decreased in engine power at constant RPM and manifold pressure
B) Increased power out put due to increased volumetric efficiency.
C) A leaning effect on engines which use non automatic carburettors
D) increased in engine power at constant RPM and manifold pressure.
3. The economiser system in a float carburettor ………
A) Keeps the fuel /air ratio constant
B) Increases the fuel/air ratio at high power settings.
C) Functions only at cruise and idle speeds
D) Helps keep idling of an engine constant.
4. The purpose of the back suction mixture control in a float type carburettor adjusts the
mixture by ……
A) Regulating the pressure drop at the venturi.
B) Regulating the pressure on the fuel in the float chamber.
C) Regulating the suction on the mixture from behind the throttle valve.
D) Regulating the pressure of the air at the air duct .
5. The device that controls the ratio of the charge to the cylinders is called …….
A) Throttle valve
B) Mixture control
C) Metering jet
D) Discharge nozzle
6. A leak in the intake manifold of a naturally aspirated engine would tend to ……
A) Cause a lean mixture
B) Cause a rich mixture
C) Decrease volumetric efficiency
D) Reduce the manifold pressure .
7. The ignition switch of the aircraft is connected to:-
A) Magneto primary circuit
B) Magneto secondary circuit
C) Magneto distributor segment
 D) The CB points
8. The average coming-in speed of magneto is:
A) 100-200 rmp
B) 500-1000 rmp
C) 1000-1500 rmp
D) 1500-2000 rmp
9. The practical way to clean a starter commutator is to
A) Turn down while using a grinding stone or double O sandpaper.
B) Use a standard wire brush and fuel.
C) Use water at high temperature
D) Use emery paper
10. When a starter is excessively noisy is likely caused by:-
A) Out of ignition timing
B) Worn out or broken gears on crankshaft and pinion.
C) Battery is damaged
D) Defective master switch

11. The likely effect failure of starter completely would be the following, but Not.
A) Low voltage from source
B) Engine back firing
C) Master switch defective
D) Defective electrical wiring

12. The brushes on a starter motor are replaced ….

A) After a C of A inspection
B) If the size reduces by half
C) At every C of M inspection
D) Until the starter goes for overhaul

13. The metallic covering or Sheaths on electrical wiring and ignition

equipment for purposes of eliminating radio interference is known as: -
A) Radio Shielding
B) Frequency control
C) Oscillation control
D) High tension

14. On a magneto distributor cap of a four-cylinder engine with firing order 1-3-2-4,
the position marked '4' is connected to: -
A) Cylinder Number 1
B) Cylinder Number 2
C) Cylinder Number 3
D) Cylinder Number 4

15. The secondary coil of a magneto is grounded through the :-

A) Ignition switch
B) Primary coil
 C) Grounded side of the breaker points
D) The secondary circuit.

16. A starter motor is a device used to.

A) Provide electrical power to the engine
B) Crank the engine.
C) Generate electrical power from the engine
D) Provide spark for ignition.

17. Which one is not a piston engine starting system of an engine

A) Electric starting system
B) Inertia starting system
C) Hand starting system
D) Turbo starting system

18. In inertia starting systems a fly wheel is incorporated to:

A) Aid store energy
B) Provide direct cranking means
C) Change direction or engine rotation
D) Provide support for the starter motor

19. On a magneto distributor cap of a four-cylinder engine with firing order 1-3-2-4,
the position marked '2' is connected to: -
A) Cylinder Number 1
B) Cylinder Number 2
C) Cylinder Number 3
D) Cylinder Number 4

14. The electrical wiring that connects the ignition switch to the magneto is known as :-
A) P lead
B) Ground lead
C) HT lead
D) Starter cable

15. When removing a battery from an aircraft, which connection should be removed first?

A) The ground connection must be disconnected first and connected last.

B) Ground lead

C) HT lead

D) Starter cable
16. What is the danger of operating an aircraft reciprocating engine with too high a
carburetor air temperature?

A) The battery may lose its charge

B) Ground lead may overheat and cause a fire

C) HT lead may burn

D) Too high a carburetor air inlet temperature can cause the fuel-air mixture to reach
its critical temperature and detonate

17. The cylinder inlet of a reciprocating engine is connected to the:

A) oil cooler.

B) fuel reservoir.

C) carburetor diffusor.

D) exhaust collector.

18. Compared to the crankshaft speed the camshaft of a reciprocating

four-stroke engine rotates:

A) at half speed.

B) at the same speed.

C) two times faster.

D) four times faster.

19. If the alternator fails in flight, the aircraft engine:

A) keeps running normally.

B) keeps running however unevenly and roughly.

C) keeps running provided the magnetos receive electrical power from the Battery.

D) stops running, because the magnetos receive no electrical power from the Battery.
20. Compared to the current flow through the starter circuit that

connects the battery to the starter motor, the current flow through the

ignition switch in the START position is:

A) low.

B) high.

C) the same.

D) zero

21.The battery master switch should be turned to OFF after the engine

is stopped to avoid the battery discharging through the:

A) magnetos.

B) alternator or generator.

C) electrical services connected to it.

D) ignition switch.

22. What would be the effect of a faulty or broken magneto ground wiring during a flight?

A) The engine would stop instantaneously.

B) The engine speed would drop approximately 100 RPM.

C) The alternator output would decrease.

D) No effect on engine operation.

23. An abnormally high oil temperature indication in case of a four stroke engine may

because by:

A) the oil level being too low.

 B) operating with a too high viscosity oil.

C) excessively rich mixture.

D) the oil level being too high.

24. As the throttle is advanced, what happens to the constant-speed

propeller of an aircraft?

A) Angle of attack will increase.

B) Angle of attack will not change.

C) RPM will increase.

D) Angle of attack will decrease

25. What is the purpose of the safety circlet installed on some valve stems?

A) To hold the valve guide in position.

B) To hold the valve spring retaining washer in position.

C)To prevent valves from falling into the combustion chamber.

D) To absorb shock of vibrating spring

26. Valve overlap is defined as the number of degrees of crankshaft travel

A) during which both valves are off their seats.

B) between the closing of the intake valve and the opening of the exhaust valve.

C) during which both valves are on their seats.

D) Between the piston is at TDC and BDC

27. The valve clearance of an engine using hydraulic lifters, when the lifters are
completely flat, or empty, should not exceed

A) a specified amount below zero.

B) a specified amount above zero.

C) 0.00 inch.

D) 10.00 inch
28. If the exhaust valve of a four-stroke cycle engine is closed and the intake valve is just
closed, the piston is on the

A) intake stroke.

B) power stroke.

C) compression stroke.

D) Exhaust stroke

29. Of what material are most reciprocating engine exhaust components made?

A) Corrosion-resistant steel.

B) Carbon fiber

C) Copper

D) Aluminum

30. The actuator is used to control the position of the turbocharger waste gate is

A). A hydraulic actuator that uses engine oil pressure to move the piston.

B) A hydraulic actuator that uses electrical pumps to move the piston.

C) A hydraulic actuator that uses manual mode to move the piston.

D) A hydraulic actuator that uses hydraulic fluid to move the piston.

31. Normalizer turbocharger on light small aircraft operate

A) Only below 5000 ft

B) Above 5000 ft

C) At critical attitude

D) At critical altitude

32. Some ground-boosted turbo super charged systems are designed to operate

A) At landing of the aircraft

 B) At only take off of the aircraft

C) From sea level up to their critical altitude.

D) From cruise to the Ceiling altitude

33.Cold cylinder check determines the operating characteristics of: -

A). The tendency for any cylinder, or cylinders, to overheat, or to be hotter than normal.

B) The tendency for any cylinder, or cylinders, at normal, operating temperatures.

C) The tendency for any cylinder, or cylinders, to produce a hissing during inspection.

D)The tendency for any cylinder, or cylinders, to be cold, or to be only slightly warm.

34. The cylinder compression test determines

A) if the cams, crankcase studs, and oil are adequately sealing the crankcase.

B) if the valves, piston rings, and pistons are adequately sealing the combustion
chamber.

C) if the sparkplug threads, and rocker arm covers are adequately sealing the cylinder.

D) if the camshaft, gears, and crankshaft are correctly installed on the engine.

35. Recommended interval for overhauling an aircraft piston engine;

A) Every 500 hours of operation

B) Every 1,000 hours of operation

C) Every 2,000 hours of operation

D) Every 5,000 hours of operation

36. The purpose of a piston in an aircraft piston engine:

A) To compress the fuel-air mixture

B) To generate an electrical spark to ignite the fuel-air mixture

C) To provide thrust to the aircraft

D) To convert the energy from the fuel-air mixture into mechanical energy
37. The function of the crankshaft in an aircraft piston engine;

A) To regulate fuel flow

B) To generate an electrical spark to ignite the fuel-air mixture

C) To lubricate the engine's moving parts

D) To convert the energy from the fuel-air mixture into rotational energy

38.The purpose of a propeller in an aircraft piston engine:

A) To generate lift for the aircraft

B) To provide thrust to the aircraft

C) To cool the engine's cylinders

D) To provide electrical power to the aircraft

39.The recommended maximum RPM for an aircraft piston engine:

A) 2,000 RPM

B) 2,500 RPM

C) 3,000 RPM

D) 3,500 RPM

40.What is the recommended maximum manifold pressure for an aircraft piston engine?

A) 25 inHg

B) 30 inHg

C) 35 inHg

D) 40 inHg:

41. In radial engines, the function of the rocker arms is to:

 A) Open and close the exhaust and intake valves

B) Transmit force from the pistons

C) Drive the camshaft

D) Control cylinder lubrication

42. The purpose of a scavenging valve in a radial engine is to:

A) Optimize fuel mixture intake

B) Increase engine temperature

C) Improve exhaust flow

D) Minimize vibration

43. Thermal efficiency in an engine improves with:

A) Decrease in air density

B) Increase in compression ratio

C) Use of heavier fuels

D) Higher crankshaft speed

44. The primary advantage of using fuel injection in aircraft engines is:

A) Easier engine start-ups

B) Better air-fuel mixture control

C) Increased vibration absorption

D) Improved lubrication efficiency

45. The power stroke in a four-stroke cycle occurs when:

A) Both valves are closed, and the piston moves downward

B) The intake valve is open, and the piston moves upward

C) The exhaust valve opens, and the piston moves downward

D) The piston is at top dead center

46. A turbocharger improves engine performance by:

A) Reducing exhaust backpressure

B) Increasing incoming air pressure

C) Optimizing fuel injection timing

D) Decreasing piston travel

47. The function of oil in aircraft engines includes:

A) Cooling engine components

B) Sealing the cylinder chambers

C) Cleaning the internal parts

D) All of the above

48. The crankshaft in a reciprocating engine is primarily responsible for:

A) Driving the camshaft

B) Converting linear motion into rotational motion

C) Timing the ignition system

D) Distributing the fuel mixture

49. Cylinder arrangement in an opposed engine serves the purpose of:

A) Reducing vibration

B) Increasing engine size

C) Improving fuel flow

D) Enhancing exhaust gas cooling

50. A supercharger differs from a turbocharger by:

A) Being mechanically driven

B) Compressing air using exhaust gases

C) Reducing manifold pressure

D) Using fuel injection for cooling

51. The function of piston rings in an engine includes:

A) Providing a seal between the piston and the cylinder wall

B) Reducing fuel consumption

C) Improving engine compression

D) Both A and C

52. Valve guides serve to:

A) Stabilize the camshaft

B) Ensure precise valve movement

C) Improve engine lubrication

D) Synchronize valve timing

53. The governor in an aircraft engine is used to:

A) Control ignition timing

B) Regulate fuel flow

C) Maintain constant engine RPM

D) Increase manifold pressure

54. Engine detonation occurs when:

A) Fuel ignites before the spark plug fires

B) Combustion happens irregularly in the cylinders

C) Excessive valve timing is used

D) Air mixture becomes overly rich

55. Pre-ignition is usually caused by:

A) Deposits on cylinder walls

B) Lean fuel mixture

C) Spark plugs firing too early

D) High humidity in intake air

56. The compression ratio in a piston engine is limited by:

A) Detonation characteristics of the fuel

B) Temperature of incoming air

C) The thickness of the piston head

D) Valve overlap timing

57. A reciprocating engine’s ignition system is responsible for:

A) Controlling fuel injection

B) Producing sparks to ignite the air-fuel mixture

C) Regulating exhaust flow

D) Adjusting cylinder pressure

58. Increasing manifold pressure in an aircraft engine will:

A) Improve fuel economy

B) Increase engine power output

C) Reduce detonation risks

D) Lower engine temperature

59. The purpose of a carburetor in a piston engine is to:

A) Regulate oil pressure

B) Mix air and fuel in the correct ratio

C) Control engine temperature

D) Adjust spark timing

60. During the compression stroke in a four-stroke cycle, the valves are:

A) Both closed

B) Intake valve open and exhaust valve closed

C) Exhaust valve open and intake valve closed

 D) Both open

61. A radial engine’s pistons move in:

A) Opposing directions

B) Circular motion

C) Parallel motion

D) A star-like configuration

62. One advantage of an opposed-piston engine is:

A) Reduced vibration levels

B) Increased engine weight

C) Greater manifold pressure

D) Larger cylinder capacity

63. The exhaust stroke in a four-stroke cycle is characterized by:

A) The piston moving upward and the exhaust valve opening

B) The piston moving downward and both valves closing

C) Intake valve opening and exhaust valve closing

D) Increased compression in the cylinder

64. The intake stroke in a four-stroke cycle involves:

A) Both valves being closed

B) Intake valve open and piston moving downward

 C) Exhaust valve open and piston moving upward

D) Rapid compression of the air-fuel mixture

65. Engine volumetric efficiency is affected by:

A) Air density

B) Valve timing

C) Compression ratio

D) All of the above

66. Oil temperature in an aircraft engine is usually measured:

A) At the sump inlet

B) At the oil filter outlet

C) At the engine exhaust manifold

D) After it passes through the radiator

67. Cylinder firing order in a radial engine is determined by:

A) Crankshaft position

B) Camshaft rotation direction

C) Valve clearance settings

D) Cylinder arrangement
68. Fuel consumption in aircraft engines is improved by:

A) Increasing manifold pressure

B) Using leaner air-fuel mixtures

C) Reducing cylinder compression

D) Enhancing spark plug performance

69. Detonation in an engine can cause:

A) Increased fuel efficiency

B) Damage to pistons and cylinder heads

C) Higher engine speed

D) Lower cylinder temperatures

70. A magneto functions independently of:

A) The aircraft battery

B) The exhaust manifold pressure

C) The engine cylinder arrangement

D) Oil lubrication systems

71. The primary purpose of an intake manifold is to:

A) Control exhaust gas temperatures

 B) Distribute the air-fuel mixture evenly to the cylinders

C) Increase engine power output

D) Reduce detonation risks

72. A lean fuel mixture in an aircraft engine might cause:

A) Higher engine temperatures

B) Lower exhaust gas emissions

C) Reduced engine power

D) Longer valve timing

73. Ignition timing affects:

A) Cylinder compression ratio

B) Spark plug performance

C) Engine power and efficiency

D) Manifold pressure levels

74. Cylinder overheating in a radial engine could be caused by:

A) Excessive valve overlap

B) Low oil pressure

C) Incorrect ignition timing

D) All of the above

75. A propeller governor is used to:

A) Control fuel flow to the cylinders

B) Adjust the propeller blade angle

C) Increase manifold pressure

D) Regulate oil temperature

76. The primary function of piston rings is to:

A) Minimize cylinder wear

B) Seal the combustion chamber

C) Improve fuel efficiency

D) Reduce engine noise

77. Spark plugs in aircraft engines are replaced periodically to:

A) Prevent detonation risks

B) Maintain engine efficiency

C) Reduce cylinder head temperatures

D) Improve valve overlap timing

78. Exhaust gas temperatures are monitored to:

A) Detect lean or rich fuel mixtures

B) Control ignition timing

C) Improve fuel injection performance

 D) Reduce detonation

79. A radial engine’s crankshaft is connected to the propeller via:

A) A reduction gear mechanism

B) A timing gear assembly

C) Hydraulic lifters

D) Oil lubrication system

80. Increasing cylinder compression ratio enhances:

A) Engine thermal efficiency

B) Exhaust gas temperatures

C) Air-fuel mixture quality

D) Piston speed

81.Which of the following statements is correct about exhaust back pressure?

A) It impedes the flow of exhaust gases from the cylinders.

B) It accelerates the flow of exhaust gases.

C) It accelerates the cooling airflow through the cylinders.

D) It improves volumetric efficiency.

82.The purpose of having a short exhaust stack is to:

A) Increase exhaust back pressure.

B) Decrease exhaust back pressure.

C) Decrease volumetric efficiency.

 D) Increase engine operating temperature.

83. A ring made of thin corrosion-resistant steel tubing that encircles a radial engine and
collects exhaust gases from each cylinder is called:

A) Augmenter tube.

B) Muffler.

C) Tailpipe.

D) Collector ring.

84.The name of the exhaust system component through which the exhaust gases leave
the aircraft is the:

A) Augmenter tube.

B) Muffler.

C) Tailpipe.

D) Collector ring.

85.Which of the following devices is NOT used to recover some of the energy from the
exhaust gases?

A) Augmenter tube.

B) Turbochargers.

C) Power recovery turbines.

D) Augmenter tube and turbochargers only.

86. Which of the following is true concerning the air which flows into the engine when the
carburettor heat control is in the HOT position?
 A) The air is not filtered.

B) The air is filtered.

C) The air is more dense.

D) The air contains ice.

87. An internal supercharger compresses the air:

A) Before it passes through the carburetor.

B) After it passes through the carburetor.

C) Before it enters the air scoop.

D) After it passes through the air sacs before it enters the carburetor.

88. When the turbocharger waste gate is open, the manifold pressure is:

A) Maximum.

B) Minimum.

C) Will increase up to a certain value then drop slightly.

D) Remains unaffected.

89. The reading on a manifold gauge at sea level when the engine is not running will be:

A) 0 in Hg.

B) 10 to 15 in Hg.

C) About 29.92 in Hg.

D) 35.2 in Hg.

90. As engine RPM increases, manifold pressure:

 A) Increases.

B) Remains the same.

C) Decreases.

D) Fluctuates.

91. To drive the propeller at high speeds:

A) Less power is needed.

B) More power is needed.

C) Power requirement to drive the propeller at low speeds is the same even at high
speeds.

D) Very little power is needed.

92. As altitude increases for a given throttle setting:

A) Manifold pressure increases.

B) Engine power output increases.

C) Air density increases.

D) Manifold pressure reduces.

93. Excessive manifold pressure can lead to:

A) Higher thermal efficiency.

B) Detonation.

C) Longer engine service life.

D) Complete combustion of fuel/air mixtures.

94. The actual power delivered to the propeller of an aircraft engine is called:
 A) Friction horsepower.

B) Brake horsepower.

C) Indicated horsepower.

D) Total horsepower.

95. Propeller blade angle is the angle between:

A) Chord of the blade and the relative wind.

B) Relative wind and the rotational plane of the propeller.

C) Chord of the blade and the rotational plane of the propeller.

D) Chord of the blade and the longitudinal axis of the aircraft.

96. The primary purpose of a feathering propeller is to:

A) Prevent further engine damage when an engine fails in flight.

B) Prevent propeller damage when an engine fails in flight.

C) Eliminate the drag caused by a windmilling propeller when an engine fails in flight.

D) Lubricate the engine when it fails in flight.

97. Proper operation of electric de-icing boots on individual propeller blades may best be
determined by:

A) Waiting for ice to form on them and see if it will melt.

B) Feeling the boots to see if they are heating.

C) Observing the ammeter or load meter for current flow.

D) Feeling the sequence of boot heating and having an assistant observe the load
meter indications.
98. What is a function of the automatic propeller synchronizing system on multi-engine
aircraft?

A) To enable the magnetos to fire at the same time.

B) To control the power output of all the engines.

C) To control the tip speed of all propellers.

D) To control engine RPM and reduce vibrations.

99. Maximum taper contact between the crankshaft and propeller hub is determined by
using:

A) Bearing blue color transfer.

B) A micrometer.

C) A surface gauge.

D) A feeler gauge.

100.The propeller governor controls:

A) Oil to and from the pitch-changing mechanism.

B) Spring tension on the boost pump speeder spring.

C) Linkage and counterweights from moving in and out.

D) The position of the waste gate valve.

101. When the centrifugal force acting on the propeller governor flyweights overcomes
the tension on the speeder spring, a propeller is said to be in what position?

A) On-speed position.

B) Underspeed position.
 C) Overspeed position.

D) Feathered position.

102. It is important that nicks in aluminum alloy propellers be reported as soon as possible
in order to:

A) Maintain equal aerodynamic characteristics between the blades.

B) Eliminate stress concentration points.

C) Equalize the centrifugal loads between the blades.

D) Reduce vibrations.

103. The force which tends to bend the blade forward as the aircraft is moved through the
air is termed:

A) Thrust bending force.

B) Centrifugal force.

C) Aerodynamic twisting moment.

D) Centrifugal twisting moment.

104. Serious failure of rotating and reciprocating parts may sometimes be avoided by:

A) Mixing mild abrasive with the oil to remove carbon deposits.

B) Running the engine with cleaning fluid instead of oil occasionally.

C) Examining deposits on the oil screen prior to periodic cleaning.

D) Replenishing the engine with more oil than specified on the filler cap.

105. The right tool to use when removing spark plugs from the cylinders is:

A) A torque wrench.
 B) A deep socket.

C) Lever jaw wrench.

D) Combination spanner.

106. After spark plugs from an opposed engine have been serviced, in what position
should they be reinstalled?

A) Next in the firing order to the one from which they were removed.

B) Swapped bottom to top.

C) Next in firing order to the one from which they were removed and swapped bottom
to top.

D) In the exact position from which they were removed.

107. Mandatory replacement parts during overhaul should be:

A) Replaced on condition.

B) Replaced regardless of their condition.

C) Not replaced.

D) Given a detailed inspection before re-using.

108. The activities required to conserve as nearly, and as long as possible, the original
condition of a machine or component while compensating for normal wear and tear is
called:

A) A repair.

B) Maintenance.

C) Overhaul.

D) An inspection.

109. Grinding the valves of a reciprocating engine to a feather edge is likely to result in:
 A) Normal engine operation and long life.

B) Excessive valve clearance.

C) Pre-ignition and burned valves.

D) Detonation.

110. What is the purpose of a power check on a reciprocating engine?

A) To determine satisfactory performance.

B) To determine if the fuel/air mixture is adequate.

C) It is a requirement after C of A renewal.

D) It is a prerequisite to overhauling an engine.

111. In an engine overhaul, the efficiency of the valve springs is determined by:

A) Run out test.

B) Magnaflux NDT.

C) Microscopic examination.

D) Compression test.

112. If ignition is set to occur at the advance firing position when starting, the likely
thing to happen is:

A) Improved starting and operation efficiency.

B) Kick-back.

C) Detonation.

D) Backfiring.

113. The process by which high voltage is generated in a magneto is:

 A) Electromotive force.

B) Electromagnetic induction.

C) Precipitation.

D) Excitation.

114. The distributor rotor is contained in:

A) The distributor circuit of HT magnets system.

B) The primary circuit of HT magneto system.

C) The magneto circuit system of HT magneto system.

D) The secondary circuit of HT magneto system.

115. The symbol ‘F’ as applied to magnets code designation stands for:

A) Fast rotation.

B) Free rotation.

C) Free rotor.

D) Flange mounted.

116. A spark plug has a code REM 40 E. The figure 40 stands for:

A) A hot spark plug.

B) The cold spark plug.

C) The serial number of the spark plug.

D) Torque applied to a spark plug in ft.lbs.

117. Spark plugs whose gaps have been reduced during re-gapping are:

A) Re-opened using a screwdriver.

B) Usable even if the gap is too small.

C) Supposed to be discarded.

D) Filed to reduce the gap.

118. An impulse coupling is a unit installed on a magneto and is categorized as:

A) An ignitron booster.

B) Starter vibration.

C) Booster coil.

D) Induction vibration.

119. The ignition switch of the aircraft is connected to:

A) Magneto primary circuit.

B) Magneto circuit.

C) Magneto secondary circuit.

D) The C-B points.

120. On a magneto primary distributor cap of a SIX-cylinder engine with the firing order
1-3-5-6-2-4, the point marked ‘3’ is connected to:

A) Cylinder number 1.

B) Cylinder number 5.

C) Cylinder number 3.

D) Cylinder number 6.