H11- Engineering Mathematics-I
Solution - Tutorial Sheet No. 2
1. Can Rolle’s Theorem be applied to the following functions? Explain.
(a) tan(x) in [0, π]
Ans:
π
We know that tan = ∞.
2
π
∴tan(x) in not continuous in the given interval [0, π]as ∈ [0, π ]
2
∴ Rolle’s Theorem can not be applied to tan(x) in [0, π]
(b) sec(x) in [0, 2π]
Ans:
π 3π
We know that sec =∞ and sec =∞.
2 2
π 3π
∴ sec(x) in not continuous in the given interval [0, 2π] as and ∈ [0, 2π ]
2 2
∴ Rolle’s Theorem can not be applied to sec(x) in [0, 2π]
2 + ( x − 1)
2
(c) 3
in [0, 2]
Ans:
Let f(x)= 2 + ( x − 1)
2
3
Clearly f(x) is continuous in [0,2]
2 −1
2 2
( x − 1) 3 = ( x − 1) 3
−1
f ′( x) =
3 3
2
= 1
3 ( x − 1) 3
Clearly f′(1)=∞
∴ f′(x) does not exist for all x∈(0,2) as 1∈(0, 2)
∴Rolle’s Theorem can not be applied to 2 + ( x − 1)
2
3
in [0, 2]
2. Verify Rolle’ s theorem for the following functions:
(a) x2-5x+8 in [1,4]
Ans:
Let f(x) = x2-5x+8
f′(x)= 2x-5
∴ f(x) and f′(x) both are continuous in [1,4] {since all the polynomial s are continuous function}
f(1)= 1 – 5 + 8 = 4
f(4)= 16 – 20 + 8 = 4
∴f(1) = f(4)
Therefore f(x) satisfies all the conditions of Rolle’s Theorem
f′(x)=0⇒ 2x-5=0
5
⇒x=
2
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5 5
∴ ∈(1,4) such that f ′ =
0
2 2
Hence Rolle’s theorem is verified
(b) e-x sin(x) in [0, π]
Ans:
Let f(x) = e-x sin(x)
Since e-x and sin(x) are continuous functions in any interval, their product e-x sin(x) is also continuous in
any interval
∴ f(x) = e-x sin(x) is continuous in [0, π]
sin x
f (x)
= −x
e= sin(x)
ex
e x cos( x) − sin( x) e x
∴ f ′( x) =
e2 x
e x [ cos( x) − sin( x) ]
=
e2 x
cos( x) − sin( x)
=
ex
Since ex ≠0, f′(x) exist for all x∈(0, π)
Also f(0)= 0 and f(π)=0
Therefore f(x) satisfies all the three conditions of Rolle’s Theorem
f ′(x) =
0
cos( x) − sin( x)
⇒ =0
ex
⇒ cos( x) − sin( x) =0
⇒ cos( x) = sin( x)
sin( x)
⇒ = 1
cos( x)
⇒ tan( x) = 1
−1 π
=
∴ x tan= (1)
4
π π
clearly ∈ (0, π ) such that f ′ =0
4 4
Hence Rolle’s Theorem is verified
x 2 + ab
(c) log in [a, b] where a>0
( a + b ) x
Ans:
x 2 + ab
Let f ( x= = log ( x + ab ) − log ( a + b ) x
2
) log
(a + b) x
= log ( x 2 + ab ) − log ( a + b ) − log ( x )
Since x>0, f(x) is continuous in [a, b]
1 2 x − ( x + ab )
2 2
2x x 2 − ab
f=
′( x) − =
0 − =
x 2 + ab x x ( x 2 + ab ) x ( x 2 + ab )
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Since x>0 , a>0 and b>0, f′(x) exist for all x∈(a,b)
a 2 + ab
=
f (a ) log = = 0
log(1)
(a + b) a
b 2 + ab
=
f (b) log = = 0
log(1)
( a + b ) b
∴f(a)=f(b)
Therefore f(x) satisfies all the three conditions of Rolle’s Theorem
f ′(x) =
0
x 2 − ab
⇒
x ( x 2 + ab )
⇒ x 2 − ab = 0 ⇒ x 2 = ab ⇒ x = ab
Clearly ab ∈(a,b) such that f ′ ( )
ab =
0
Hence Rolle’s Theorem is verified
x
−
(d) x ( x + 3) e 2
in [−3, 0]
Ans:
−x
x) x ( x + 3) e
Let f (= 2
−x
= ( x 2 + 3x ) e 2
x −x
S in ce ( x 2 + 3 x ) and e are continuous their product ( x 2 + 3x ) e 2 is also continuous
−
2
⇒f(x) is continuous in [-3,0]
−x
−1
−x −x
( x 2 + 3x )
f ′( x)= (x 2
+ 3x ) e 2
× + e ( 2 x + 3)= e 2 x + 3 −
2 2
2 2
−x
−x −x
4 x + 6 − x 2 − 3x x + 6 − x2 e 2
= e 2
= e 2
= 6 + x − x 2
2 2 2
−x
S in ce e 2 and 6 + x − x 2 exist for all x ∈ (−3, 0), their product also exists for all x ∈ (−3, 0)
∴f′(x) exists for all x∈(-3,0)
Also f(-3) = 0 and f(0) = 0
∴f(-3) = f(0)
∴f(x) satisfies all the three conditions of Rolle’s Theorem
−x
e2
f ′( x) = 0 ⇒ 6 + x − x 2 = 0
2
−2x
= ⇒ 6+ x− x 2
0 e ≠ 0
⇒ x − x − 6 = 0 ⇒ ( x − 3)( x + 2) = 0
2
⇒x= 3 or x =−2
Clearly –2 ∈(-3, 0) such that f′(-2)=0
Hence Rolle’s Theorem is verified
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(e) (x-a)m (x-b)n in [a, b]
Ans:
Let f(x)= (x-a)m (x-b)n
Since (x-a)m and (x-b)n are continuous functions their product (x-a)m (x-b)n is also continuous in [a, b]
f′(x) = (x-a)m n (x-b)n-1 +(x-b)n m (x-a)m-1
=(x-a)m-1 (x-b)n-1[n(x-a)+m(x-b)]
=(x-a)m-1 (x-b)n-1[(m+n)x – (na+mb)]
Clearly f′(x) exists for all x∈(a, b)
Also f(a)=0 and f(b)=0
∴f(a) = f(b)
∴f(x) satisfies all the three conditions of Rolle’s Theorem
f′(x)=0
⇒(x-a)m-1 (x-b)n-1[(m+n)x – (na+mb)] =0
⇒x-a = 0 or x-b = 0 or (m+n)x – (na+mb)]
na + mb
⇒x= a, or x= b or x =
m+n
na + mb na + mb
Clearly ∈ (a, b) such that f ′ =0
m+n m+n
Hence Rolle’s Theorem is verified.
3. Verify Mean Value theorem for the following functions:
(a) x 2 − 4 in [2, 4]
Ans:
f ( x) =
x 2 − 4 where a =
2 and b =
4
Since x>2, x2-4>0(positive)
∴f(x) is continuous in [2, 4]
1 x
=
f ′( x) =
× 2x
2 x2 − 4 x2 − 4
Clearly f′(x) exists for all x∈(2, 4)
f(0)=0 and f (4) = 12
f (4) − f (2) 12 − 0
∴ = = 3
4−2 2
f (4) − f (2)
=Let f ′( x) 3 = 3
4−2
x
ie. = 3
x2 − 4
=
∴x 3 x2 − 4
⇒ x2= 3( x2 − 4)
⇒ 2 x2 =12 ⇒ x 2 =6⇒ x=± 6
f (4) − f (2)
Clearly 6 ∈ (2, 4) such that f ′ ( 6) = 4−2
Hence Mean Value theorem is verified.
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(b) x3 – 5x2 – 3x in [1,3]
Ans:
Let f(x) = x3 – 5x2 – 3x where a =1 and b = 3
Clearly f(x) is continuous in [1, 3]
f′(x)=3x2 – 10x – 3
Clearly f′(x) exists for all x∈(1,3)
f(1)= – 7 and f(3) = – 27
f (3) − f (1) −27 + 7
∴ = =
−10
3 −1 2
f (3) − f (1)
Let f ′( x) = −10 =
−10
3 −1
ie. 3x − 10 x − 3 =−10
2
⇒ 3 x 2 − 10 x + 7 =0
⇒ 3x 2 − 3x − 7 x + 7 =0
⇒ 3 x( x − 1) − 7( x − 1) =0
⇒ ( x − 1)( 3 x − 7 ) =
0
7
⇒=
x 1 or=
x
3
7 7 f (3) − f (1)
Clearly ∈ (1,3) such that f ′ =
3 3 3 −1
Hence Mean Value theorem is verified
4. In the alternate form of the mean value theorem, if f(x)= lx2 +mx + n, show that θ=½
f(x)= lx2 + mx + n in [ a, a+h]
f′(x)= 2lx + m
By Mean value Theorem, f(a+h) = f(a) + h f′(a+θh)----------(1)
f(a+h)=l(a+h)2 +m(a+h) +n=l(a2+2ah+h2) + ma + mh + n
ie. f(a+h) = la2 + 2alh + lh2 + ma + mh + n
f(a)= la2 + ma + n
f′(a+θh) =2l(a+θh)+m=2al + 2lhθ + m
∴h f′(a+θh)=2alh+2lh2θ + mh
Substituting the values of f(a+h) , f(a) and h f′(a+θh) in (1), we get,
la2 + 2alh + lh2 + ma + mh + n= la2 + ma + n + 2alh+2lh2θ+mh
∴lh2=2lh2θ
lh 2 1
θ
∴= =2
2lh 2
5. Verify Cauchy’s Mean Value theorem for the following functions:
(a) sin (x) and cos(x) in [a, b]
Let f(x) = sin(x) and φ(x)= cos(x)
f′(x) = cos(x) and φ′(x) = - sin(x)
Clearly f(x) and φ(x) are continuous in [a, b]
Also f′(x) and φ′(x) exist for all x∈(a, b)
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f (b) − f (a ) f ′(c)
By Cauchy’s mean value theorem = , where c ∉ (a, b)
φ (b) − φ (a ) φ ′(c)
f (b) − f (a ) f ′(c)
=
φ (b) − φ (a ) φ ′(c)
sin b − sin a cos c
⇒ =
cos b − cos a − sin c
b+a b−a
2 cos sin
⇒ 2 2
=
− cot(c)
b+a b−a
−2sin sin
2 2
b+a
⇒ − cot = −cot (c)
2
b+a
⇒c=
2
b+a
=
clearly c ∈ ( a, b)
2
Hence Cauchy’s mean value theorem is verified.
(c) ex and e-x in [a, b]
Let f(x) = ex and φ(x)= e-x
f′(x) = ex and φ′(x) = - e-x
Clearly f(x) and φ(x) are continuous in [a, b]
Also f′(x) and φ′(x) exist for all x∈(a, b)
f (b) − f (a ) f ′(c)
By Cauch’s mean value theorem= , where c ∉ (a, b)
φ (b) − φ (a) φ ′(c)
f (b) − f (a ) f ′(c) eb − e a ec eb − e a
= ⇒ −b = ⇒ = −e 2 c
φ (b) − φ (a) φ ′(c) e −e −a
−e −c
1 1
−
eb e a
eb − e a eb − e a a b − ( e a − eb ) a b
⇒ a =−e 2c
⇒ a e e =−e ⇒2c
e e = −e 2 c
e − eb e − eb e a − eb
e a eb
⇒ −e a eb = −e 2 c ⇒ −e a + b = −e 2 c
b+a
⇒ a + b= 2c ⇒ c=
2
b+a
=
clearly c ∈ ( a, b)
2
Hence Cauchy’s mean value theorem is verified.
x 2 x3 x 4 x n −1 xn
6. Show that e x = 1 + x + + + +−−−−−−+ + eθ x
2! 3! 4! (n − 1)! n !
Ans:
Let f(x) = ex
f(x)= ex ∴f(0)=e0=1
f′(x)= ex ∴f′(0)=e0=1
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f′′(x)= ex ∴f′′(0)=e0=1
f′′′(x)= ex ∴f′′′(0)=e0=1
-------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------
-------------------------------------------------
fn-1(x)= ex ∴fn-1(0)=e0=1
fn(x)= ex ∴fn(θx)=eθx
Maclaurin’s Theorem with Langrange’s form of reminder is,
x2 x3 x n −1 xn n
f=
( x) f (0) + x f ′(0) + f ′′(0) + f ′′′(0) + − − − − − − + f n −1 (0) + f (θ x)
2! 3! (n − 1)! n!
x2 x3 x n −1 xn
∴ e x = 1 + x .1 + 1+ 1+ − − − − − − + 1 + eθ x
2! 3! (n − 1)! n!
x 2 x3 x n −1 xn
∴ ex = 1 + x + + +−−−−−−+ + eθ x
2! 3! (n − 1)! n !
x 2 x3 x 4 x n −1 xn
+ ( −1)
n −1
7. Show that log(1 + x) = x − + − +−−−−−−+
2 3 4 n −1 n(1 + θ x) n
Ans:
Let f(x) = log(1+x)
f (x) = log (1 + x ) ∴ f (0)= log(1 + 0)= log(1)= 0
1 1
f ′( =
x) ∴ f ′(0)
= = 1
1+ x 1+ 0
−1 −1
f ′′( x) = ∴ f ′′(0) = = −1
(1 + x ) (1 + 0 )
2 2
−1 × −2 2!
=
f ′′′( x) ∴=
f ′′′(0) = 2!
(1 + x ) (1 + 0 )
3 3
−1 × −2 × −3 − ( 3!)
f ′′′′( x) = ∴ f ′′′′(0) = = − ( 3!)
(1 + x ) (1 + 0 )
4 4
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−−
( −1) (n − 2)! ( −1) (n − 2)!
n−2 n−2
( −1) (n − 2)!
n −1 n −1 n−2
f ( x) = ∴ f (0) = =
(1 + x ) (1 + 0 )
n −1 n −1
( −1) (n − 1)! ( −1) (n − 1)!
n −1 n −1
n
f ( x) =∴ f (θ x)
n
(1 + x ) (1 + θ x )
n n
Maclaurin’s Theorem with Langrange’s form of reminder is,
x2 x3 x n −1 xn n
f=
( x) f (0) + x f ′(0) + f ′′(0) + f ′′′(0) + − − − − − − + f n −1 (0) + f (θ x)
2! 3! (n − 1)! n!
x n ( −1) (n − 1)!
n −1
x2 x3 x n −1
( −1) (n − 2)!+
n−2
∴ log(1 + x) = 0 + x .1 + × −1 + 2!+ − − − +
2! 3! (n − 1)! n ! (1 + θ x )n
( −1) x n−1 ( −1) x n
n−2 n −1
x 2 x3
∴ log(1 + x) = x − + −−−−−−−+ +
n −1 n (1 + θ x )
n
2 3
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