Solution 8
Solution 8
Exercise Sheet 8
e 3 = Blx ,x A3 is contained in
Solution. The ideal of the line L is generated by x1 , x2 , so A 1 2
e 3 ⊆ Y = V (x1 y2 − x2 y1 ) ⊆ A3 × P1 .
A
As in [Gathmann, Example 9.15] we see that Y has one open patch
{((x1 , x2 , x3 ), (y1 : y2 )) ∈ Y : y1 ̸= 0} ∼
= {((x1 , x1 y2 , x3 ), (1 : y2 )) : (x1 , y2 , x3 ) ∈ A3 } ∼
= A3
and similarly another patch A3 for y2 ̸= 0. Thus Y is irreducible of dimension 3 and thus
for dimension reasons, the containment A e 3 ⊆ Y must be an equality.
To get the exceptional divisor, i.e. the preimage of L = V (x1 , x2 ) we set x1 , x2 to zero
and obtain
E = V (x1 , x2 , x1 y2 − x2 y1 ) = V (x1 , x2 ) = {(0, 0)} × A1 × P1 ⊆ A3 × P1 .
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ETH Zurich, Algebraic Geometry, Spring 2024 Lecturer: Johannes Schmitt
Solution. The basic idea to get the birational map Q 99K Pn−1 is to project from a point
p0 ∈ Q to some hyperplane H ∼ = Pn−1 ⊆ Pn .
To make our life easier, we can use a projective automorphism of Pn to move some
point of Q to p0 = (1 : 0 : . . . : 0), so without loss of generality we can assume that the
above p0 is contained in Q. Then we project to the hyperplane H = V (x0 ). The resulting
morphism
f : Q \ {p0 } → Pn−1 , (x0 : x1 : . . . , xn ) 7→ (x1 : . . . , xn )
is defined away from p0 . To write down the inverse, let
F = a0 x20 + a1 x0 + a2 ∈ K[x0 , x1 , . . . , xn ]2
is a birational map. Since P1 × Pn−2 is birational to Pn−1 , this finishes the proof.
Case 2: a1 ̸= 0
Then on the locus U = Pn−1 \ V (a1 ) ⊆ Pn−1 the inverse of the projection f is given by
a2 (x)
U → Q, (x1 , . . . , xn ) 7→ − : x1 : . . . : xn = (−a2 (x) : x1 a1 (x) : . . . : xn a1 (x)) .
a1 (x)
All the components of this map are homogeneous polynomials of degree 2, which don’t
vanish simultaneously (since (x1 , . . . , xn ) ̸= 0 and a1 (x) ̸= 0 on its domain). Hence by
[Gathmann, Lemma 7.4] this indeed defines a morphism, and by a short calculation it is
the inverse of f . Hence f is birational, as claimed.
For an example of Q which is not isomorphic to Pn−1 take Q = V (x0 x3 − x1 x2 ) ⊆ P3 .
Then we have seen in [Gathmann, Example 7.11] that Q ∼ = P1 × P1 , and on Sheet 6,
Exercise 1, we proved that P1 × P1 ∼ ̸ = P2 .
Exercise 3. Let X ⊆ An be an affine variety, and let Y1 , Y2 ⊆ X be irreducible, closed
subsets, none contained in the other. Moreover, let X e be the blow-up of X at the ideal
I(Y1 ) + I(Y2 ). Show that the strict transforms of Y1 and Y2 in X
e are disjoint.
Solution. Let I(Y1 ) = ⟨f1 , . . . , fr ⟩ and I(Y2 ) = ⟨fr+1 , . . . , fr+s ⟩, then of course
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ETH Zurich, Algebraic Geometry, Spring 2024 Lecturer: Johannes Schmitt
since not all coordinates of the point y ∈ Pr+s−1 can vanish simultaneously. Thus Ye1 and
Ye2 are indeed disjoint.
Proof of claim: We prove the statement for Ye1 , with Ye2 working similarly. By the
assumption that Y1 is not contained in Y2 , we have that U = Y1 \ Y2 ⊆ Y1 is open, and
thus dense since Y1 is irreducible. Let i = 1, . . . , r, then we claim that yi vanishes at any
point x ∈ U (and thus also on the closure Ye1 of U in Ye1 , finishing the proof of the claim).
Since x ∈ U is disjoint from Y2 = V (fr+1 , . . . fr+s ) we find an index j ∈ {r + 1, . . . , r + s}
such that fj (x) ̸= 0. But then the equation
yi fj (x) = yj fi (x)
| {z } | {z }
̸=0 =0 as x∈Y1
implies yi = 0 as claimed.
Exercise 4. Let J ⊴ K[x1 , . . . , xn ] be an ideal, and assume that the corresponding affine
variety X = V (J) ⊆ An contains the origin. Consider the blow-up X e ⊆A e n ⊆ An × Pn−1
at x1 , . . . , xn , and denote the homogeneous coordinates of Pn−1 by y1 , . . . , yn .
e n can be covered by affine spaces, with one coordinate patch
a) We know already that A
being
i : U = An → A e n ⊆ An × Pn−1 ,
(x1 , y2 , . . . , yn ) 7→ ((x1 , x1 y2 , . . . , x1 yn ), (1 : y2 : · · · : yn )).
Prove that on this coordinate patch the blow-up X e is given as the zero locus of the
polynomials
f (x1 , x1 y2 , . . . , x1 yn )
xmin
1
deg f
for all non-zero f ∈ J, where min deg f denotes the smallest degree of a monomial
in f .
Hint: You can use without proof the following variant of [Gathmann, Exercise 2.23]:
(I : J ∞ ) = {f ∈ K[x1 , . . . , xn ] : ∃m ∈ N, g ∈ J m with f g ∈ I} .
Vp f in (y) : f ∈ J ⊆ Pn−1 ∼
= {0} × Pn−1 ,
where f in is the initial term of f , i.e. the sum of all monomials in f of smallest
degree. Consequently, the tangent cone of X at the origin is
C0 X = Va (f in : f ∈ J) ⊆ An .
Solution.
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ETH Zurich, Algebraic Geometry, Spring 2024 Lecturer: Johannes Schmitt
so
To take the Zariski closure i−1 (X \ {0}), we just apply the hint given above, and
we see that this closure is cut out by the ideal
f (x1 , x1 y2 , . . . , x1 yn )
(⟨f (x1 , x1 y2 , . . . , x1 yn ) : 0 ̸= f ∈ J⟩ : ⟨x1 ⟩∞ ) = ⟨ : 0 ̸= f ∈ J⟩ .
xmin
1
deg f
b) We check the equality on the open subset U above. To get the exceptional set, we
impose the additional condition x1 = 0. Given 0 ̸= f ∈ J with minimal degree d and
total degree e we write its homogeneous decomposition as f = f in + fd+1 + . . . + fe .
Then we have
Dividing by xmin
1
deg f
= xd1 and setting x1 = 0, all the terms except the first vanish,
and we have
f (x1 , x1 y2 , . . . , x1 yn )
min deg f
|x1 =0 = f in (1, y2 , . . . , yn ) .
x1
This is exactly the initial term of f in the affine coordinates U0 ⊆ Pn−1 , which
proves the first statement.
The second is then just an application of this result to the definition of the tangent
cone at the origin.
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