Question 1

Which is a set of procedures that uses representational

language to conclude new facts from the existing ones?
• a. Knowledge base
• b. Explanatory facility
• c. Interface

• d. Inference engine

Correct: The inference engine applies logical rules to the

knowledge base to deduce new information.
a: The knowledge base stores facts but doesn’t perform
reasoning.
b: The explanatory facility explains reasoning but doesn’t
infer.
c: The interface allows user interaction, not inference.

Question 2
In contrast to the traditional file-based approach, in the
database approach:
 • a. Don't care about the definition of programs and data
• b. Store data item in multiple copies
• c. Programs define and access their own data

• d. Data and programs are defined independently

Correct: DBMS separates data from programs, enabling

data abstraction.
a: DBMS requires structured definitions.
b: DBMS avoids redundancy.
c: This is true for file-based systems, not DBMS.

Question 3
Which one of the following is not a wireless attack?
• a. Bluejacking
• b. Rogue access point
• c. Bluesnarfing

• d. Phishing

Correct: Phishing is a social engineering attack, not

specific to wireless.
 a: Bluejacking sends unsolicited Bluetooth messages.

b: Rogue APs are fake wireless access points.

c: Bluesnarfing steals data via Bluetooth.

Question 4
In which phase of the two-phase locking protocol does a
transaction start releasing locks and may not obtain locks
back?
• a. Release phase

• b. Shrinking phase

• c. Rollback phase
• d. Growing phase

Correct: In the shrinking phase, locks are released and no

new ones can be acquired.
a: Not a standard term in 2PL.
c: Rollback is for failed transactions.
d: Growing phase is when locks are acquired.
Question 5
Which one of the following is false about divide and
conquer or modularization process?
• a. Each individual component is smaller, and therefore
easier to understand
• b. Separate people can work on each sub-divided part
• c. Opportunities arise for making the component reusable
• d. Replacing or changing a component is difficult because
it affects other parts extremely

Correct: Modularization reduces interdependencies,

making replacement easier.
a: Smaller components are easier to understand.

b: Modularization supports parallel development.

c: Modular code is reusable.

Question 6
Which characteristic of requirements specifies that the
requirement should be phrased so that there is one and
only one interpretation for it?

• a. Unambiguous

• b. Correct
• c. Feasible
• d. Verifiable

Correct: Unambiguous means only one interpretation.

b: Correct means the requirement is accurate.

c: Feasible means it can be implemented.

d: Verifiable means it can be tested.

Question 7
Which one of the following is wrongly coupled about
passive (offline) and active (online) attacks?
• a. Active attack → add or delete messages

• b. Active attack → traffic analysis

• c. Passive attack → monitoring traffic

 • d. Passive attack → obtain message contents

Correct: Traffic analysis is a passive attack, not active.

a: Active attacks modify data.

c: Monitoring is passive.
d: Reading message contents is passive.

Question 8
Which one of software testing is the most time-consuming
test phase?
• a. Unit testing
• b. Acceptance testing

• c. System testing

• d. Integration testing

Correct: System testing covers the entire system and is

time-consuming.
a: Unit testing is fast and isolated.

b: Acceptance testing is usually brief.

d: Integration testing is less extensive than system testing.
Question 9
Which one of the following is a false reason for why we use
HTML?
• a. Because it is quickly transferred over a network
• b. Because HTML files are flat text and very small
• c. Because it works with all platforms, all browsers and all
web servers

• d. Because it is proprietary technology

Correct: HTML is not proprietary; it’s open and

standardized.
a: True; HTML is lightweight.

b: True; HTML is plain text.

c: True; HTML is platform-independent.

Question 10
When a process executes code that possibly changes the
value of shared data, its execution has to be mutually
exclusive. Therefore, the process is in:
• a. Blocked

• b. Critical section

• c. Deadlock
• d. Terminated

Correct: The critical section is where shared data is

accessed.
a: Blocked means waiting.

c: Deadlock is a state of waiting forever.

d: Terminated means the process has ended.

Continuing with the detailed explanations for Questions 11 to
20:

Question 11
Which Java keyword is used to declare constants?
• a. constant
 • b. fixed
• c. const

• d. final

Correct: final is used in Java to declare constants or

prevent method overriding.
a: constant is not a valid Java keyword.
b: fixed is not used in Java.
c: const is reserved but not implemented in Java.

Question 12
If you want to make methods and data fields of classes
accessible from any class in any package, which access
modifier is appropriate?

• a. public

• b. private
• c. protected
• d. default
 Correct: public allows access from any class in any
package.
b: private restricts access to the same class.
c: protected allows access within the same package and
subclasses.
d: default (no modifier) restricts access to the same
package.

Question 13
Which one of the following is not correct about Von
Neumann's architecture?
• a. Memory content is located by its address
• b. Modern computers are based on Von Neumann's
architecture

• c. Data and instructions are stored separately

• d. Instruction execution is sequential

Correct: In Von Neumann architecture, data and

instructions share the same memory.
 a: True; memory is addressable.

b: True; most modern computers follow this model.

d: True; instructions are executed sequentially.

Question 14
Which one of the following statements is not correct about
threads and processes?
• a. Both can create children

• b. Threads within a process execute sequentially

• c. Processes are not independent of one another

• d. If one thread is blocked, another thread can run

Correct: Threads can execute concurrently, not

necessarily sequentially.
a: True; both can spawn children.
c: False; processes are independent.
d: True; threads can run independently.

Question 15
If power went off while processing a transaction, what
should the DBMS do to reverse any changes made to the
database?
• a. Read_transaction
• b. Fail_transaction
• c. Commit_transaction

• d. Rollback

Correct: Rollback undoes changes made during a failed

transaction.
a: Not a valid DBMS command.

b: Not a standard DBMS term.

c: Commit saves changes permanently.

Question 16
Writing comments in between our C++ program makes
our program:

• a. Maintainable

• b. Efficient
 • c. Reliable
• d. Portable

Correct: Comments improve maintainability by making

code easier to understand.
b: Comments don’t affect runtime efficiency.
c: Reliability is about correctness, not comments.
d: Portability relates to platform independence.

Question 17
(Question text missing in original document)
Assuming it relates to process communication or system
behavior.

Question 18
Which one of the following is not true about process
communication?
• a. Processes can communicate using shared memory
 • b. Cooperating process neither affects nor affected by
another process

• c. Processes can communicate using message passing

• d. Cooperating process can both affect and be affected by
another process

Correct: Cooperating processes do affect each other;

that’s what makes them cooperating.
a: True; shared memory is a method.
c: True; message passing is another method.
d: True; this defines cooperation.

Question 19
Which notation is the most comfortable for human
programmers?

• a. Infix

• b. Postfix
• c. Infix, prefix and postfix are equally comfortable
• d. Prefix
 Correct: Infix notation (e.g., a + b) is most natural for
humans.
b: Postfix (e.g., ab+) is used in compilers.
c: Not true; infix is preferred.
d: Prefix (e.g., +ab) is less intuitive.

Question 20
Which is not correct about computers' evolution?
• a. Increasing memory size
• b. Increasing I/O capacity

• c. Increasing component size

• d. Increasing processor speed

Correct: Component size has decreased over time

(miniaturization).
a: True; memory has increased.

b: True; I/O has improved.

d: True; processors are faster.
Question 21
Which one of the following is a type of compiler which
compiles only the changed lines from the source code and
updates the object code accordingly?
• a. One pass compiler
• b. Parallelizing compiler

• c. Incremental compiler

• d. Retargetable compiler

Correct: An incremental compiler recompiles only the

modified parts of the code, improving efficiency.
a: One pass compiler processes code in a single pass but
doesn’t focus on changes.
b: Parallelizing compiler optimizes code for parallel
execution.
d: Retargetable compiler generates code for different
architectures.

Question 22
Identifying and describing the fundamental software
system abstractions and their relationships. Establishing
the overall system architecture. In which phase are these
activities done?
• a. Implementation
• b. Requirement Analysis and definition

• c. System design

• d. System testing

Correct: System design defines architecture and

abstractions.
a: Implementation is coding.

b: Requirement analysis defines what the system should

do.
d: System testing verifies the complete system.

Question 23
Which one is true about Minimum Spanning Trees of
graphs?
 • a. Minimum spanning trees are graphs
• b. We can have only one unique minimum spanning tree
for a graph
• c. Minimum spanning trees form cycle
• d. Minimum spanning tree contains all vertices from an
input graph

Correct: A minimum spanning tree connects all vertices

with minimum total edge weight.
a: It’s a tree, a special kind of graph.
b: Not always unique; depends on edge weights.
c: Trees are acyclic.

Question 24
Which one of the following is not true about the web?

• a. HTML pages are dynamic

• b. PHP is a web scripting language used to make web

pages dynamic
• c. XHTML pages are static
 • d. JavaScript is a web scripting language used to make
web pages dynamic

Correct: HTML pages are static by default; scripting

makes them dynamic.
b: PHP is used for server-side scripting.
c: XHTML is a stricter version of HTML, typically static.
d: JavaScript adds interactivity to web pages.

Question 25
If a transaction ends successfully and any changes executed
by the transaction will be saved permanently and will not
be undone, which database command can be used?
• a. Fail_transaction
• b. Rollback
• c. Read_transaction

• d. Commit_transaction

Correct: Commit saves all changes made during the

transaction.
 a: Not a valid command.

b: Rollback undoes changes.

c: Not a standard DBMS command.

Question 26
In an array implementation of binary heap tree, if a node is
stored at index i, then its parent will be stored at index:
• a. floor(2*i)

• b. floor(i/2)

• c. ceiling((i+1)/2)
• d. ceiling(2*i+1)

Correct: In a binary heap, parent of node at index i is at

floor(i/2).
a: This gives the left child, not parent.
c: Incorrect formula.
d: This gives the right child.

Question 27
In which transmission impairment does the effect of one
transmission wire affect the other wire?

• a. Crosstalk

• b. Impulse
• c. Thermal
• d. Induced

Correct: Crosstalk is interference caused by signal leakage

between adjacent wires.
b: Impulse noise is sudden and irregular.

c: Thermal noise is due to heat.

d: Induced noise is general electromagnetic interference.

Question 28
Which one doesn't describe loopback address?
• a. It helps to refer to the host itself

• b. It is an external pseudo address

• c. It is denoted by an IP address: 127.0.0.1

 • d. It allows programs to access network protocols for local
services

Correct: Loopback is internal, not external.

a: True; it refers to the local machine.

c: 127.0.0.1 is the standard loopback address.
d: True; used for local testing.

Question 29
What is the time complexity order of push() operation of
Stack data structure implemented using array?
• a. O(n)
• b. O(log n)

• c. O(1)

• d. O(n²)

Correct: Push in an array-based stack is constant time,

O(1).
a: O(n) is for operations like shifting in queues.
 b: O(log n) is for binary search.
d: O(n²) is for nested loops.

Question 30
Which performance metric can be used to measure the
time taken to perform a read or write operation?

• a. Access time

• b. Transfer rate
• c. Memory cycle time
• d. Fetching time

Correct: Access time measures the delay to read/write

data.
b: Transfer rate is data per second.
c: Memory cycle time is for RAM operations.
d: Not a standard metric.
Continuing with the detailed explanations for Questions 31 to
40:
Question 31
Which instruction type is used to test the value of a data
word or status of computation?
• a. Branch instruction
• b. Data processing instruction

• c. Test instruction

• d. Data movement instruction

Correct: Test instructions evaluate conditions or flags

without changing data.
a: Branch instructions alter control flow based on
conditions.
b: Data processing instructions perform arithmetic/logical
operations.
d: Data movement instructions transfer data between
locations.

Question 32
Which one of the following is a type of compiler which
converts the code into assembly code only?
• a. Just-in-time compiler
• b. Stage compiler

• c. One pass compiler

• d. Incremental compiler

Correct: One pass compilers can generate assembly code

in a single scan.
a: JIT compiles at runtime.

b: Not a standard compiler type.

d: Incremental compiles only changed parts.

Question 33
Which one of the following is a uniformed searching
method?

• a. Breadth first search

• b. Greedy search
• c. Iterative improvement
 • d. A* search

Correct: Breadth-first search is uninformed—it doesn’t

use heuristics.
b: Greedy search is informed; uses heuristics.
c: Iterative improvement is heuristic-based.
d: A* is informed; uses cost and heuristic.

Question 34
Assume you are using a hash table of size 6 and the hash
function is h(key) = key % m. Where will key 38 be stored?
• a. At index 0

• b. At index 2

• c. At index 6
• d. At index 35

Correct: 38 % 6 = 2 → Index 2

a: 38 % 6 ≠ 0
c: Index 6 is out of bounds for size 6 (0–5).
d: 35 is not a valid index.
Question 35
Which one of the following is true about the client-server
model?
• a. JavaScript is for server-side programming
• b. Clients connect with servers only through the Internet
• c. PHP is for client-side programming

• d. Client refers to end-user's computer

Correct: The client is the user’s device that requests

services.
a: JavaScript is primarily client-side.

b: Clients can connect via LAN, not just the Internet.

c: PHP is server-side.

Question 36
What is the output of the following Java fragment?
double a = 9.5, b = 27.9, c;
c = (a > b) ? a : b;
System.out.print((int)c);

• a. 9
• b. 27.3
• c. 9.5

• d. 27

Correct: a > b is false, so c = b = 27.9, and (int)c truncates

to 27.
a: 9 is incorrect; a is not selected.

b: 27.3 is not the value of b.

c: 9.5 is a, not selected.

Question 37
Which type of software must act immediately?
• a. Data processing

• b. Real-time

• c. Custom
• d. Generic
 Correct: Real-time software responds instantly to inputs
(e.g., embedded systems).
a: Data processing can be delayed.
c: Custom refers to tailored software.
d: Generic is off-the-shelf software.

Question 38
Which value of form's METHOD attribute causes a form's
contents to be parsed one element at a time?
• a. ACTION
• b. POST
• c. INPUT

• d. GET

Correct: GET sends form data as URL parameters, parsed

element by element.
a: ACTION specifies the target URL.

b: POST sends data in the body.

c: INPUT is an HTML tag, not a method.
Question 39
Given input Alphabet E = {a, b, c, d} and empty string λ.
Which one of the following is false about λ?
• a. λab = ab
• b. For any string Z, Zλ = Z

• c. λ is an element of Σ+

• d. λ = ε

Correct: λ (empty string) is in Σ*, not Σ+ (which excludes

empty string).
a: Concatenating λ doesn’t change the string.

b: True by definition.
d: λ and ε are equivalent.

Question 40
What will be the value of Z⁻¹ if it is given that string Z =
caddba?

• a. abddac
 • b. cad
• c. abd
• d. caddba

Correct:a Z⁻¹ is the reverse of Z → "abddac"

b, c, d: These are substrings, not reverses.

Question 41
Which one of the following is correct about depth-first
search?
• a. Uses queue data structure for implementation
• b. Expands the shallowest node

• c. Uses stack data structure for implementation

• d. Pops nodes from the front of the queue

Correct: DFS uses a stack (explicit or via recursion) to

explore as deep as possible before backtracking.
a: Queue is used in BFS, not DFS.

b: Expanding the shallowest node is BFS behavior.

d: Again, queue behavior, not stack.
Question 42
As compared to IPv4, IPv6 can:
• a. Route slower and memory intensive
• b. Support encryptions

• c. Handle more addresses

• d. Use 128-bits

Correct: IPv6 supports a vastly larger address space than

IPv4.
a: IPv6 is designed to be efficient.

b: While it supports security, this is not the main

distinguishing feature.
d: True, but not the best answer compared to address
capacity.

Question 43
Which one of the following is not correct about function
overloading in C++?
 • a. Two or more overloaded functions may differ only in
their return types

• b. Two or more overloaded functions may differ in data

types of their parameters
• c. Two or more overloaded functions should have the
same function name
• d. Two or more overloaded functions may differ in their
number of parameters

Correct: Overloading cannot be based solely on return

type.
b: Valid overloading criterion.
c: True; overloading uses the same function name.
d: Also valid for overloading.

Question 44
Which one of the following is not a component of a human-
computer system?
• a. Humans
 • b. Network hardware
• c. Host computers

• d. Security guards

Correct: Security guards are not part of the HCI system.

a, b, c: All are integral to HCI systems.

Question 45
Which phase of the software development process refers to
modification of software to reflect changing customer and
market requirements?

• a. Evolution

• b. Development
• c. Validation
• d. Specification

Correct: Evolution involves adapting software post-

deployment.
b: Development is initial creation.
 c: Validation checks correctness.
d: Specification defines requirements.

Question 46
If you develop software that can be easily made to work in
different hardware and operating system environments,
the quality your software has is:
• a. Correctness
• b. Usability

• c. Portability

• d. Reusability

Correct: Portability is the ability to run on various

platforms.
a: Correctness is about functionality.
b: Usability is about user experience.
d: Reusability is about using components in other systems.

Question 47
Which tag is used to show program listing?
• a. <sub>
• b. <p>

• c. <pre>

• d. <head>

Correct: <pre> preserves formatting, ideal for code.

a: <sub> is for subscript text.

b: <p> is for paragraphs.

d: <head> contains metadata.

Question 48
Which method can resolve collision in hashed files by
checking subsequent positions until an empty one is found?
• a. Cluster indexing
• b. Multiple hashing
• c. Chaining

• d. Open addressing
 Correct: Open addressing probes for the next available
slot.
a: Not a standard collision resolution method.
b: Uses multiple hash functions.
c: Uses linked lists at each index.

Question 49
Given input Alphabet E = {a, b, c, d}, which one of the
following is an element of set Σ²?
• a. b
• b. c

• c. ac

• d. aabbccdd

Correct: Σ² contains all strings of length 2, like "ac".

a, b: Length 1 → in Σ¹.
d: Length 8 → in Σ⁸.

Question 50
If a company enforces mechanisms that protect
information and systems from unauthorized access, use,
modification, and destruction, what best describes this?
• a. Network security

• b. Information security

• c. Hardware security
• d. Campus security

Correct: Information security covers confidentiality,

integrity, and availability.
a: Network security is a subset.

c: Hardware security is physical.

d: Campus security is unrelated.

Question 51

Which is a set of procedures that uses representational

language to conclude new facts from the existing ones?
• a. Knowledge base
• b. Explanatory facility
• c. Interface
 • d. Inference engine

Inference engine: Applies logical rules to the knowledge

base to deduce new information.
a. Knowledge base: Stores facts and rules but does not
perform reasoning.
b. Explanatory facility: Explains the reasoning process
but does not infer new facts.
c. Interface: Allows user interaction but does not perform
reasoning.

Question 52

Which component of an expert system provides reasoning

capabilities?
• a. User interface

• b. Inference engine

• c. Knowledge base
• d. Explanation facility
 Inference engine: Performs logical reasoning using rules
and facts to reach conclusions.
a. User interface: Facilitates communication between the
user and the system.
c. Knowledge base: Contains domain-specific knowledge
but does not reason.
d. Explanation facility: Justifies the system’s conclusions
but does not reason.

Question 53

What is the main function of the knowledge base in an

expert system?
• a. To explain decisions

• b. To store facts and rules

• c. To interact with users

• d. To apply logic

Knowledge base: Stores domain-specific facts and rules

used by the inference engine.
 a. Explanation facility: Explains how decisions are made.

c. User interface: Manages user interaction.

d. Inference engine: Applies logic to the knowledge base.

Question 54

Which of the following best describes an expert system?

• a. A system that learns from data

• b. A system that mimics human expertise

• c. A system that stores large amounts of data

• d. A system that performs calculations only

Expert system: Simulates the decision-making ability of a

human expert using rules and logic.
a. Machine learning system: Learns from data, unlike
traditional expert systems.
c. Database system: Stores data but does not reason.
d. Calculator: Performs computations but lacks reasoning.
Question 55

What is the role of the user interface in an expert system?

• a. To store rules
• b. To apply logic

• c. To interact with users

• d. To explain reasoning

User interface: Enables communication between the user

and the expert system.
a. Knowledge base: Stores rules.
b. Inference engine: Applies logic.
d. Explanation facility: Explains reasoning.

Question 56

Which component of an expert system explains how a

conclusion was reached?
• a. Inference engine
• b. Knowledge base

• c. Explanation facility
 • d. User interface

Explanation facility: Provides justifications for the

system’s conclusions.
a. Inference engine: Performs reasoning but does not
explain it.
b. Knowledge base: Stores facts and rules.
d. User interface: Manages interaction.

Question 57

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of an expert

system?
• a. High performance
• b. Human-like decision making

• c. Learning from experience

• d. Explanation capability

Learning from experience: Is a feature of machine

learning, not expert systems.
a. High performance: Expert systems aim to perform at
expert level.
b. Human-like decision making: They simulate expert
reasoning.
d. Explanation capability: They can explain their
conclusions.

Question 58

Which of the following is used to represent knowledge in

expert systems?
• a. Decision trees

• b. Production rules

• c. Neural networks
• d. Genetic algorithms

Production rules: IF-THEN rules used to encode expert

knowledge.
a. Decision trees: Used in machine learning.

c. Neural networks: Used in deep learning.

d. Genetic algorithms: Used for optimization.
Continuing from Question 59 with full explanations (as
definitions) for each option:

Question 59

Which of the following is a limitation of expert systems?

• a. Consistency

• b. Lack of creativity

• c. Speed
• d. Accuracy

Lack of creativity: Expert systems cannot generate new

ideas or think outside the predefined rules—they follow
programmed logic without innovation.
a. Consistency: Expert systems provide consistent outputs
for the same inputs.
c. Speed: They process information quickly and
efficiently.
 d. Accuracy: Within their domain, they can be highly
accurate.
Question 60

Which of the following is an advantage of expert systems?

• a. Emotional intelligence
• b. Learning ability

• c. Availability

• d. Creativity

Availability: Expert systems can operate continuously

without fatigue, making them available 24/7.
a. Emotional intelligence: They cannot understand or
respond to human emotions.
b. Learning ability: They do not learn from experience
unless manually updated.
d. Creativity: They cannot create new ideas or solutions
beyond their programming.
Question 61

Which of the following is a real-world application of expert

systems?
• a. Image recognition
• b. Speech synthesis

• c. Medical diagnosis

• d. Language translation

Medical diagnosis: Expert systems are used to assist

doctors by suggesting diagnoses based on symptoms and
medical knowledge.
a. Image recognition: Typically handled by machine
learning and neural networks.
b. Speech synthesis: Managed by natural language
processing systems.
d. Language translation: Performed by NLP and AI
models, not expert systems.
Question 62

Which of the following is NOT a component of an expert

system?
• a. Knowledge base
• b. Inference engine

• c. Compiler

• d. User interface

Compiler: A tool that translates code into executable

programs, not part of an expert system.
a. Knowledge base: Stores facts and rules.
b. Inference engine: Applies logic to derive conclusions.
d. User interface: Facilitates interaction with users.

Question 63

Which of the following is used to handle uncertainty in

expert systems?
• a. Boolean logic

• b. Fuzzy logic
 • c. Binary trees
• d. Sorting algorithms

Fuzzy logic: Allows reasoning with degrees of truth,

useful for handling vague or uncertain information.
a. Boolean logic: Only handles true/false values.
b. Binary trees: Data structures, not reasoning tools.

d. Sorting algorithms: Used for ordering data, not

reasoning.

Question 64

Which of the following is a backward chaining example?

• a. Starting from known facts to reach a conclusion

• b. Starting from a goal and working backward

• c. Randomly selecting rules

• d. Using only forward rules

Backward chaining: A reasoning method that starts with

a goal and works backward to find supporting facts.
a. Forward chaining: Starts from facts and moves
forward.
c. Random selection: Not a valid reasoning method.

d. Forward rules: Used in forward chaining, not

backward.

Question 65

Which of the following is a forward chaining example?

• a. Starting from a goal
• b. Working backward from conclusion

• c. Starting from facts and applying rules

• d. Ignoring rules

Forward chaining: Begins with known facts and applies

rules to infer new facts.
a, b: Describe backward chaining.
d: Rules are essential in expert systems.

Question 66

Which of the following is a goal-driven reasoning method?

 • a. Forward chaining

• b. Backward chaining

• c. Random search
• d. Brute force

Backward chaining: Starts with a goal and searches for

facts to support it.
a. Forward chaining: Data-driven, not goal-driven.
c. Random search: Not a structured reasoning method.

d. Brute force: Tries all possibilities without intelligent

reasoning.

Question 67

Which of the following is data-driven reasoning?

• a. Backward chaining

• b. Forward chaining

• c. Brute force
• d. Heuristic search
 Forward chaining: Starts from known data and applies
rules to reach conclusions.
a. Backward chaining: Goal-driven.
c. Brute force: Tries all options without logic.

d. Heuristic search: Uses rules of thumb, not strictly data-

driven.

Question 68

Which of the following is NOT a benefit of expert systems?

• a. Consistency
• b. Availability

• c. Creativity

• d. Speed

Creativity: Expert systems cannot generate novel ideas or

solutions.
a. Consistency: They provide uniform results.
b. Availability: Operate continuously.
d. Speed: Process information quickly.
Question 69

Which of the following is used to handle imprecise

knowledge?
• a. Boolean logic

• b. Fuzzy logic

• c. Binary logic
• d. Classical logic

Fuzzy logic: Allows reasoning with partial truths and

uncertainty.
a, c, d: Only handle binary true/false values.

Here is the continuation from Question 71 to 100, with each question including:

• Correct answer marked and explained

• Incorrect options explained
• Each explanation serves as a definition

Question 71

Which of the following is NOT a typical domain for expert systems?

• a. Medical diagnosis
• b. Legal reasoning
• c. Weather forecasting
 • d. Equipment repair

Weather forecasting: Relies more on statistical models and simulations, and complex real-time data
analysis, rather than purely rule-based reasoning, making it less typical for traditional expert systems.
a. Medical diagnosis: A common domain where expert systems assist in decision-making by
applying rules to symptoms and patient data.
b. Legal reasoning: Expert systems can help interpret laws, analyze case facts, and suggest legal
outcomes based on predefined legal rules.
d. Equipment repair: Used for troubleshooting and maintenance guidance, where rules can be
formulated to diagnose issues based on observed symptoms.

Question 72

Which of the following is a key feature of expert systems?

• a. Random decision making

• b. Rule-based reasoning
• c. Data mining
• d. Pattern recognition

Rule-based reasoning: Expert systems primarily use a collection of IF-THEN rules to simulate the
thought process and decision-making of a human expert.
a. Random decision making: Expert systems follow logical, deterministic rules and do not make
random decisions.
c. Data mining: Involves discovering patterns and insights from large datasets, which is a broader
field of analytics and not a core feature of traditional expert systems.
d. Pattern recognition: More associated with machine learning and cognitive computing, where
systems identify recurring structures or features in data, rather than the explicit rule-based approach of
expert systems.

Question 73

Which of the following is used to explain the reasoning process in expert systems?

• a. Explanation facility
• b. Inference engine
• c. Knowledge base
• d. User interface

Explanation facility: A component of an expert system that provides justifications for the system’s
conclusions, allowing users to understand how a decision was reached.
b. Inference engine: The component that applies rules and performs the reasoning process to derive
conclusions.
c. Knowledge base: The repository that stores the domain-specific facts and rules used by the expert
system.
d. User interface: The means by which users interact with the expert system, inputting information
and receiving outputs.

Question 74

Which of the following is NOT a component of an expert system?

• a. Knowledge base
• b. Inference engine
• c. Compiler
• d. Explanation facility

Compiler: A software tool that translates source code written in a high-level programming language
into machine code or lower-level code; it is not a functional component within the architecture of an
expert system itself.
a. Knowledge base: Stores domain-specific facts and rules.
b. Inference engine: Performs reasoning by applying rules to the knowledge base.
d. Explanation facility: Explains the system's reasoning process and conclusions.

Question 75

Which of the following is a limitation of expert systems?

• a. Consistency
• b. Lack of common sense
• c. Speed
• d. Accuracy

Lack of common sense: Expert systems operate strictly based on their programmed knowledge and
rules, and cannot perform reasoning or make judgments outside of that specific domain or infer things
based on general human understanding.
a. Consistency: Expert systems provide highly consistent outputs for the same inputs, as they follow
deterministic rules.
c. Speed: They process information and apply rules much faster than a human expert.
d. Accuracy: Within their defined domain and with a well-built knowledge base, they can be highly
accurate in their conclusions.

Question 76

Which of the following is a characteristic of expert systems?

 • a. Emotional intelligence
• b. Learning from experience
• c. Rule-based reasoning
• d. Random behavior

Rule-based reasoning: The fundamental operational principle of expert systems, where decisions
are made by applying a set of explicit IF-THEN rules to known facts.
a. Emotional intelligence: Expert systems cannot understand, interpret, or express human emotions.
b. Learning from experience: Traditional expert systems do not inherently learn or improve from
experience; their knowledge base must be manually updated by a knowledge engineer.
d. Random behavior: Expert systems operate deterministically; their behavior is predictable based
on their rules and input, not random.

Question 77

Which of the following is used to represent uncertainty in expert systems?

• a. Boolean logic
• b. Fuzzy logic
• c. Classical logic
• d. Deterministic logic

Fuzzy logic: A form of multi-valued logic that allows for reasoning with approximate or imprecise
information, enabling the system to deal with degrees of truth (e.g., "partially true" or "somewhat likely")
rather than just strict true/false values.
a. Boolean logic: Deals only with binary true/false values, unsuitable for uncertainty.
c. Classical logic: Refers to traditional formal logical systems like propositional or predicate logic,
which are typically binary and deterministic.
d. Deterministic logic: Implies that conclusions are always certain and predictable from the inputs,
which doesn't handle uncertainty.

Question 78

Which of the following is a component of an expert system?

• a. Compiler
• b. Interpreter
• c. Inference engine
• d. Debugger

Inference engine: The core processing unit of an expert system that applies the rules in the
knowledge base to the input data to derive new facts or conclusions.
a. Compiler: A software tool used for programming, not an intrinsic component of an expert
system's runtime architecture.
 b. Interpreter: A program that directly executes instructions written in a programming language,
typically line by line, not a component of expert systems.
d. Debugger: A tool used by programmers to test and debug software; it's a development tool, not a
component of the deployed expert system itself.

Question 79

Which of the following is NOT a function of the inference engine?

• a. Applying rules
• b. Drawing conclusions
• c. Storing facts
• d. Reasoning

Storing facts: The function of the knowledge base, which acts as the repository for all facts and rules
the system knows.
a. Applying rules: The primary role of the inference engine is to execute and apply the IF-THEN
rules.
b. Drawing conclusions: The ultimate goal of the inference engine's reasoning process is to arrive at
conclusions or diagnoses.
d. Reasoning: The overarching process performed by the inference engine, involving the logical
manipulation of facts and rules.

Question 80

Which of the following is a common method for acquiring knowledge for an expert system?

• a. Automated machine learning

• b. Data scraping
• c. Interviewing domain experts
• d. Random data generation

Interviewing domain experts: A primary method in expert system development where knowledge
engineers extract, structure, and formalize the expertise of human experts through interviews,
observations, and protocol analysis.
a. Automated machine learning: A paradigm where AI systems learn patterns and make predictions
from data without explicit programming, which is distinct from traditional expert system knowledge
acquisition.
b. Data scraping: Involves extracting large amounts of data from websites or other unstructured
sources, primarily for data analysis rather than direct expert knowledge representation.
d. Random data generation: Creates synthetic data, which is useful for testing or simulation but not
for acquiring real-world expert knowledge.
Question 81

What is the primary purpose of an expert system shell?

• a. To replace the knowledge base entirely

• b. To provide a ready-made framework for building expert systems
• c. To connect to external databases
• d. To automatically update rules

To provide a ready-made framework for building expert systems: An expert system shell is a
software environment that contains the inference engine, user interface, and explanation facility, allowing
developers to focus on adding domain-specific knowledge (the knowledge base) without building the
entire system from scratch.
a. To replace the knowledge base entirely: The shell provides the infrastructure for an expert
system, but the knowledge base containing the domain-specific facts and rules must still be populated.
c. To connect to external databases: While expert systems may integrate with databases,
connecting to them is not the primary defining purpose of an expert system shell itself.
d. To automatically update rules: Traditional expert system shells do not inherently possess the
capability to automatically learn and update rules; rule updates typically require manual intervention or
integration with learning components.

Question 82

Which of the following describes the process of "knowledge acquisition" in expert systems?

• a. The process of generating new rules automatically

• b. The process of extracting, structuring, and organizing expert knowledge for the knowledge
base
• c. The process of the system learning from its own decisions
• d. The process of translating code into an executable program

The process of extracting, structuring, and organizing expert knowledge for the knowledge
base: Knowledge acquisition is the laborious task of eliciting human expertise and converting it into a
machine-readable format (like rules or frames) for the expert system's knowledge base.
a. The process of generating new rules automatically: This is more aligned with machine learning
techniques like rule induction or automated knowledge discovery.
c. The process of the system learning from its own decisions: This describes machine learning's
self-improvement or adaptation, not the initial knowledge acquisition phase for a traditional expert
system.
d. The process of translating code into an executable program: This describes compilation or
interpretation in software development.

Question 83
Which term refers to the pieces of information or data that an expert system uses as input for its
reasoning process?

• a. Rules
• b. Facts
• c. Queries
• d. Hypotheses

Facts: These are specific data points, observations, or assertions about a situation that the expert
system considers to be true and uses as a basis for its reasoning.
a. Rules: Rules are the logical statements (e.g., IF-THEN) that define how the system processes facts
and infers new information.
c. Queries: Queries are requests for information, typically made by a user to the system or by the
system to a database.
d. Hypotheses: Hypotheses are potential conclusions or states that the system might attempt to prove
or disprove during its reasoning process.

Question 84

Which of the following is a component of an expert system?

• a. Compiler
• b. Debugger
• c. Knowledge base
• d. Interpreter

Knowledge base: The component that stores the domain-specific facts, rules, and structured
knowledge that the expert system uses for reasoning.
a. Compiler: A software tool that translates code into executable programs; not an operational
component of an expert system.
b. Debugger: A tool used by programmers to find and fix errors in code; not a component of the
deployed expert system.
d. Interpreter: Executes code line by line; like a compiler, it's a development tool rather than a core
expert system component.

Question 85

Which of the following is used to simulate expert-level decision-making?

• a. Production rules
• b. HTML
• c. SQL
• d. CSS
 Production rules: A common and effective way to represent expert knowledge in the form of IF-
THEN statements, directly simulating the decision-making logic of a human expert.
b. HTML: HyperText Markup Language, used for structuring content on web pages.
c. SQL: Structured Query Language, used for managing and querying relational databases.
d. CSS: Cascading Style Sheets, used for styling the presentation of web pages.

Question 86

Which of the following is NOT a reasoning method in expert systems?

• a. Forward chaining
• b. Backward chaining
• c. Random chaining
• d. Rule-based reasoning

Random chaining: Not a valid or structured reasoning method employed in expert systems; expert
systems use systematic logical processes.
a. Forward chaining: A data-driven reasoning method that starts with known facts and applies rules
to infer new facts until a conclusion is reached.
b. Backward chaining: A goal-driven reasoning method that starts with a desired goal and works
backward to find the facts and rules that support that goal.
d. Rule-based reasoning: The foundational approach for expert systems, where knowledge is
represented as rules and conclusions are derived by applying these rules.

Question 87

Which of the following is a limitation of expert systems?

• a. Creativity
• b. Consistency
• c. Speed
• d. Accuracy

Creativity: Expert systems operate based on predefined rules and knowledge; they cannot generate
novel ideas, solutions, or think outside the scope of their programming.
b. Consistency: Expert systems provide consistent outputs for the same inputs, which is a strength.
c. Speed: They process information and apply rules much faster than humans, which is an advantage.
d. Accuracy: Within their programmed domain, expert systems can be highly accurate, matching or
exceeding human expert performance.

Question 88
Which of the following best describes the inference engine in an expert system?

• a. Stores knowledge
• b. Explains decisions
• c. Applies rules to derive conclusions
• d. Interfaces with users

Applies rules to derive conclusions: The inference engine is the active component that processes
the facts in the knowledge base and applies the logical rules to deduce new information or reach a
specific conclusion.
a. Stores knowledge: This is the primary function of the knowledge base.
b. Explains decisions: This is the role of the explanation facility.
d. Interfaces with users: This is the function of the user interface.

Question 89

Which of the following is NOT a limitation of expert systems?

• a. Lack of creativity
• b. Inability to learn
• c. Consistency
• d. Lack of common sense

Consistency: This is a significant advantage of expert systems, as they provide uniform and
repeatable results for identical inputs, unlike human experts who might vary in their decisions.
a. Lack of creativity: A limitation as expert systems cannot invent new solutions.
b. Inability to learn: Traditional expert systems do not learn from experience or new data unless
their knowledge base is manually updated, which is a limitation.
d. Lack of common sense: A limitation, as expert systems cannot reason outside their specific
domain or apply general knowledge.

Question 90

Which of the following is a real-world use of expert systems?

• a. Playing music
• b. Diagnosing diseases
• c. Drawing pictures
• d. Translating languages

Diagnosing diseases: Expert systems are effectively used in medicine (e.g., MYCIN) to assist
doctors by analyzing patient symptoms and medical data, then suggesting potential diagnoses and
treatment plans based on a vast medical knowledge base.
a. Playing music: While AI can compose music, it's typically done by generative models or neural
networks, not traditional expert systems.
c. Drawing pictures: More related to generative adversarial networks (GANs) or other creative AI
models.
d. Translating languages: Primarily handled by natural language processing (NLP) and machine
translation systems, often employing statistical or neural network models.

Question 91

Which of the following is used to explain how a conclusion was reached in an expert system?

• a. Explanation facility
• b. Inference engine
• c. Knowledge base
• d. User interface

Explanation facility: A crucial component that provides transparency by detailing the chain of
reasoning, rules fired, and facts used, leading to the system's final conclusion.
b. Inference engine: Performs the reasoning but doesn't explain its steps in a user-friendly manner.
c. Knowledge base: Stores the raw knowledge but doesn't explain how it's used.
d. User interface: Manages communication, not explanation of reasoning.

Question 92

Which of the following is NOT a feature of expert systems?

• a. Rule-based reasoning
• b. Learning from experience
• c. Explanation capability
• d. Consistency

Learning from experience: Traditional expert systems do not inherently learn or adapt from new
data or past outcomes; their knowledge is static unless explicitly updated by a human expert.
a. Rule-based reasoning: The core method by which expert systems operate.
c. Explanation capability: Expert systems can explain their reasoning, which is a distinguishing
feature.
d. Consistency: They provide highly consistent results, eliminating human variability.

Question 93

Which of the following is used to handle vague or imprecise information?

• a. Boolean logic
 • b. Fuzzy logic
• c. Classical logic
• d. Binary logic

Fuzzy logic: An extension of traditional Boolean logic that allows for degrees of truth, enabling
expert systems to deal with concepts like "somewhat hot" or "moderately severe" where precise true/false
values are insufficient.
a. Boolean logic: Operates strictly on true (1) or false (0) values, not suitable for vagueness.
c. Classical logic: Refers to logical systems that generally adhere to the law of the excluded middle
(a statement is either true or false).
d. Binary logic: Synonymous with Boolean logic in this context, dealing with two discrete states.

Question 94

Which of the following is NOT a valid knowledge representation method in expert systems?

• a. Semantic networks
• b. Frames
• c. IF-THEN rules
• d. SQL queries

SQL queries: Statements used to retrieve or manipulate data in relational databases; they are not a
method for representing domain knowledge within an expert system's knowledge base.
a. Semantic networks: Graphical representations where nodes represent concepts and links represent
relationships between them, used for knowledge representation.
b. Frames: A knowledge representation technique that structures knowledge into slots and fillers,
often used to represent objects, concepts, or situations.
c. IF-THEN rules: Also known as production rules, these are the most common form of knowledge
representation in rule-based expert systems.

Question 95

Which of the following is a benefit of expert systems?

• a. Fatigue
• b. Inconsistency
• c. 24/7 operation
• d. Emotional reasoning

24/7 operation: Expert systems can operate continuously without breaks, fatigue, or human
emotional biases, providing round-the-clock availability for decision support.
a. Fatigue: Expert systems do not experience fatigue; this is a human limitation.
b. Inconsistency: Expert systems are designed for consistency, providing uniform responses.
 d. Emotional reasoning: Expert systems lack emotional intelligence and cannot engage in emotional
reasoning; this is a human characteristic.

Question 96

Which of the following is a component that stores domain knowledge?

• a. Inference engine
• b. Explanation facility
• c. Knowledge base
• d. User interface

Knowledge base: The central repository within an expert system where domain-specific facts,
heuristic knowledge, and rules are stored, representing the expertise of human specialists.
a. Inference engine: Processes the knowledge, it doesn't store it.
b. Explanation facility: Explains the reasoning process, but doesn't store the primary knowledge.
d. User interface: Facilitates interaction but does not store the core knowledge.

Question 97

Which of the following is used to simulate expert-level decision-making?

• a. Production rules
• b. HTML
• c. SQL
• d. CSS

Production rules: These IF-THEN rules are the core mechanism in many expert systems for
encoding and applying the decision-making logic and heuristics of human experts.
b. HTML: A markup language for web pages.
c. SQL: A language for database management.
d. CSS: A stylesheet language for web page design.

Question 98

Which of the following is NOT a reasoning method in expert systems?

• a. Forward chaining
• b. Backward chaining
• c. Random chaining
• d. Rule-based reasoning
 Random chaining: This is not a recognized or logical reasoning method in expert systems, which
rely on structured and systematic inferencing processes.
a. Forward chaining: A data-driven method that moves from known facts to conclusions.
b. Backward chaining: A goal-driven method that works backward from a hypothesis to find
supporting evidence.
d. Rule-based reasoning: The overarching paradigm encompassing both forward and backward
chaining, where rules are applied to infer conclusions.

Question 99

Which of the following is a limitation of expert systems?

• a. Creativity
• b. Consistency
• c. Speed
• d. Accuracy

Creativity: Expert systems lack the ability to spontaneously generate new ideas, innovative
solutions, or apply intuition like human experts, as they are confined to their predefined knowledge.
b. Consistency: A benefit, as they provide uniform results.
c. Speed: An advantage, as they process information quickly.
d. Accuracy: A strength within their specific domain.

Question 100

Which of the following best describes the inference engine in an expert system?

• a. Stores knowledge
• b. Explains decisions
• c. Applies rules to derive conclusions
• d. Interfaces with users

Applies rules to derive conclusions: The inference engine acts as the "brain" of the expert system,
taking the input facts and rules from the knowledge base, and using logical methods (like forward or
backward chaining) to reason and draw new conclusions.
a. Stores knowledge: This is the function of the knowledge base.
b. Explains decisions: This is the function of the explanation facility.
d. Interfaces with users: This is the function of the user interface.