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(A Complete Book on General Studies)

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Objective

~ Contents ~

1 History 2

2 Polity 140

3 Geography 276

4 Economy 396
 Objective + Subjective General Studies

Objective

PART - 1
History
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
3
History

History 01
The history of India includes the prehistoric settlements
and societies in the Indian subcontinent; the FEATURE • Rough • Stone • Small
advancement of civilisation from the Indus Valley S OF tools stone tools
Civilisation to the eventual blending of the Indo-Aryan TOOLS were which were
culture, to form the Vedic Civilisation. The rise of sharp and finely flaked
Hinduism, Jainism and Buddhism, the onset of pointed. and were
succession of powerful dynasties and empires for more known as
than three millennia throughout various geographical blades and
areas of the Indian subcontinent, including the growth burins.
of Muslim dominions during the Medieval period
intertwined with Hindu powers, the advent of European
traders and privateers, resulting in the establishment of
British rule in India and the subsequent independence
movement that led to Partition of India and the creation • Crude • Stone • They had
of the Republic of India. tools tools smooth
made by attached surface and
THE PRE HISTORIC PERIOD flaking to thick cutting
The pre-historic period in the history of mankind can sides of a branches edges.
be roughly dated from 20000 BC to 2500 BC, when the stone with and tied
first civilisations began to take shape. a heavier with rope
The age when the pre-historic man began to use stones stone. made of
for utilitarian purpose is termed as the Stone Age. The animal
Stone Age is divided into the following broad divisions skin.
based on the specialization of stone tools made at that HIGH- • Human • Bhim • This age
time. LIGHTS s had betka saw
come to caves domesticatio
CHALCOLITHIC PHASE (1800 BC-1000 BC) make and near n of cattle
Also known as the eneolithic period, this period saw the use fire. Bhopal farm
use of copper and bronze to make utilitarian tools famous animals.
Chalcolithic cultures extended from chotanagpur for cave Which were
plateau to upper Gangetic basin. paintings used for
belong to dairy and
Period Age this age. meat
Paleolithi Mesolithi Neolithic products.
c (Old c (Middle (New Stone • Important
Stone Stone Age) invention
Age) Age) was making
Unknow 8000 BC- 4000 BC- of wheel.
n - 8000 4000 BC 2500 BC
BC
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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INDUS VALLEY CIVILISATION (2500 BC-1750 • Tin and precious stones were imported from Iran
BC) and Afghanistan.
• Indus Valley Civilisation was an ancient • Gold imported from Karnataka
Civilisation that thrived along the course of Indus • Copper from Rajasthan and Oman
river in north-western part of Indian subcontinent.
• The civilisation was primarily urban. DECLINE OF THE INDUS VALLEY
• It is also referred to as 'Harappan Civilisation' CIVILISATION
owing to the fact that this Civilisation was first • By 1800 BC, the Indus Valley Civilisation saw the
discovered by excavator Daya Ram Sahni in 1921. beginning of its decline.
• Mohenjo-Daro was discovered by RD Banerji in • Writings started to disappear, standardized weights
1922. and measures used for trade and taxation purposes
fell out of use.
Geographical Extent • Main causes were Aryan invasion, ecological
• The Indus Valley Civilisation covered parts of disturbance, change in Indus river’s course, low
Punjab, Sindh, Baluchistan, Gujarat, Rajasthan and rainfall, drying of Ghaggar river etc.
fringes of western Uttar Pradesh
• It extended from Jammu in the north to mouth of Important Indus Valley Civilisation Sites have
the river Narmada in the south and from the been provided in following table:
Makran Coast of Baluchistan in the west to Meerut City River Curren Starting Lead
in the east. Bank t Day of Excava
Locatio Excavat tor
Town Plan n ion
• Indus Valley Civilisation had a much planned way Harappa Ravi Punjab, 1921 Daya
of constructing their cities following a grid pattern. Pakista Ram
• Main roads were in north-south direction while the n Sahni
alleys were in east-west direction. Mohejo- Indus Sindh, 1922 R. D.
• Underground covered drains were present with daro Pakista Banerji
manholes. n
• Houses were one to two storeys high, made of burnt Chanhu- Indus Sindh, 1930 N. G.
bricks and size of brick was in ratio 1:2:4 . daro Pakista Majumd
n ar
Agriculture and Domestication Lothal Bhoga Gujarat, 1955 S. R.
• Wheat and barley were the main crops. va India Rao
• They also produced rai, peas, sesame and mustard. Kaliban Ghagg Rajasth 1960 Amlana
• Evidence of use of rice has been found only at gan ar an, nd
Lothal. India Ghosh -
• They were the earliest people to produce cotton. Marker,
• Oxen, buffaloes, goats, sheep and pigs were B.B.
domesticated. However, humped bulls were Lal-
favoured. Excavat
• Dogs and cats were regarded as pets. or
• Asses and camels were used as beasts of burden. Banawal Sarasw Haryan 1973 R. S.
i ati a, India Bisht
Religious beliefs
• Chief male deity was Pashupati Shiva. Archaelogical discoveries at various sites
• Chief female deity was Mother Goddess.
Sites Discoveries
Trade and Commerce Harappa Six granaries in a row, Virgin
• Trade and commercial activities were carried out Goddess (seal), cemetry, symbols of
through sea as well as land routes.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
5

Lungiar and Yoni, clay figure of seven rivers encompassing the present East
Mother Goddess, copper scale, mirror Afghanistan, Punjab and Western UP.
Mohenjo- Great bath, granary, Pashupati Shiva • They lived here for many centuries and later shifted
Daro (seal), bronze dancing girl. to the fertile valleys of Ganga and Yamuna.
Chanhu- City without a citadel, inkpot, Rig-Vedic Name Modern Name
Daro terracotta bullock cart. Sindhu Indus
Lothal Dockyard, metal workers, bead Vitasta Jhelum
maker's shops, fire alter, double Askini Chenab
burial, model of ship. Purushni Ravi
Kalibangar Ploughed field surface, Vipasa Beas
Mesopotamian seal, wheals of toy Sutudri Sutlej
cart. Gomal Gomati
Banawali Lack of grid pattern, town planning. Krumu Kurram
Dholavira Water harnessing system, storm water Drishdvati Ghagghar
drainage system, a large well and a Suwastu Swat
bath, stadium.
Political Organisation
EARLY VEDIC AGE : ANCIENT HISTORY • The basic unit of political organization was kula or
• The Vedic Civilisation is named after the Vedas, family and Kulapa was the head of the family.
especially the Rig Veda, which is the earliest • Several families joined together on the basis of
specimen of the Indo-European language and the their kinship to form a village or grama.
chief source of information on the history of this • Villages were headed by Gramini who used to
period. represent village in Sabha and Samiti.
• The Vedic Civilisation flourished along the river • A group of villages constituted a larger unit called
Saraswati, in a region that now consists of the Vish. It was headed by Vishapati.
modern Indian states of Haryana and Punjab. • The highest political unit was called jana or tribe.
• Later, they moved to Indo-Gangetic plains. • The head of the kingdom was called Rajan or king.
• They were mainly cattle-rearing people, and were He was the leader in battle and protector of tribe.
in search of pasture lands. • The Rig Vedic polity was normally monarchical
• By 6th century BC, they occupied the whole of and the succession was hereditary.
North India, which was referred to as Aryavarta. • There were two popular bodies (tribal
• The period between 1500 BC and 600 BC is organizations) called the Sabha and Samiti. The
divided into the Early Vedic Period or Rig Vedic former was a council of elders and the latter, a
Period (1500 BC -1000 BC) and the Later Vedic general assembly of the entire people.
Period (1000 BC – 600 BC). • The Rigveda did not mention any officer for
• The holy book of Iran ‘Zend Avesta’ indicates administering justice.
entry of Aryans to India via Iran. • The officer of pasture ground was called
• A section of Aryans reached the frontiers of the ‘prajapati”, who led the heads of the families called
Indian subcontinent around 1500 BC and first ‘kulapas’ or the heads of the fighting horses called
settled in Punjab and it is here, in this land, where ‘gramanis’ to battle.
the hymns of Rigveda were composed.
• The Aryans lived in tribes and spoke Sanskrit, Social Life
which belonged to the Indo-European group of • The Rig Vedic society was patriarchal.
languages. • The basic unit of society was family or graham.
• The head of the family was known as grahapathi.
Area of Settlement • Marriage was usually monogamous and
• Aryans entered India through the Khyber Pass (in indissoluble, but there are few instances of
Hindukush mountains around 1500 BC). polyandry, levirate and widow-marriage.
• According to Rig Veda, early Aryans first settled
in the region called 'Sapta-Sindhu' or the land of
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
6

• Polygamy was prevalent among the royal and LATER VEDIC AGE
noble families. There was no child marriage and • The Aryans further moved towards east in the Later
the practice of sati was absent. Vedic Period.
• Women were given equal opportunities as men for • The Satapatha Brahmana refers to the expansion of
their spiritual and intellectual development. Aryans to the eastern Gangetic plains.
• There were women poets like Apala, Viswavara, • Kuru and Panchala kingdoms flourished in the
Ghosa and Lopamudra during the Rig Vedic beginning.
period. Women could even attend the popular • After the fall of Kurus and Panchalas, other
assemblies. kingdoms like Kosala, Kasi and Videha came into
• Wheat and Barley, milk and its products like curd prominence.
and ghee, vegetables and fruits were the chief • The later Vedic texts also refer to the three
articles of food. divisions of India – Aryavarta (northern India),
• The staple crop was ‘yava’, which meant Barley. Madhyadesa (central India) and Dakshinapatha
• Chariot racing, horse racing, dicing, music and (southern India).
dance were the favourite pastimes.
• Gradually, the tribal society got divided into three Geographical Expansion
groups warriors, priests and commoners. Later, the • The later Vedic works show a wider knowledge of
fourth division called dasas or shudra was also Indian geography that is found in the Rigveda.
added. • They mention the ‘two seas’ – the Arabian Sea and
• The fourth division appeared towards the end of the the Indian Ocean.
Rig Vedic period because it is mentioned for the • Several Himalayan peaks are also mentioned.
first time in the tenth book of the Rig Veda. • The Vindhya mountains indirectly referred in the
• The term varna was used for color, the Aryans text and archaeology, shows that the Aryans
being fair and the dasas being dark. expanded from Punjab over the whole of Western
Uttar Pradesh covered by the Ganga – Yamuna
Economic Condition doab and even to the borders of Bengal in the east.
• The Aryans came to India as semi-nomadic people • The Aryans cleared the land mainly by means of
with a mixed pastoral and agricultural economy, in fire.
which cattle-rearing played an important role. • Burning may have been supplemented by the use
• The cow was, in fact, a sort of currency and values of the iron axe for cutting the forests in some areas
were reckoned in heads of cattle. towards the end of the Vedic period when this
• Importance of the cow can be measured from the metal is referred to as Shyama Ayas (dark or black
fact that many early linguistic expressions were metal).
associated with cattle.
• The cow is described in one or two places in Society
Rigveda as 'aghnya', not to be killed; but this may • Male ancestor worship began to be practiced and
imply only its economic importance. the position of women started to decline.
• Whenever gifts were given to priests, it was in • They could not attend the Sabha and were excluded
terms of cows and never in terms of measurement from immolation by the widow at the death of her
of land. husband. Inheritance right were taken.
• Gavyuti was used as a measure of distance and • A reference to self-immolate, the origin of the later
Godhuli, as a measure of time. practice of Sati, may be traced to this period. But it
• Of the other animals reared by the Aryans, the is certain that this practice did not prevail on any
horse was the most important of them. considerable scale.
• Among other domestic animals, the early Aryans • Brahmanas claimed both social and political
knew goat and sheep which provided wool, their privileges.
chief textile. • With the emergence of caste system certain social
norms developed.
• Marriage between the members of the same Gotra
was not permitted.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
7

• The term ‘Gotra’ first appeared in Rigaveda with Vrajapati Officer-in-Charge of pasture land
the meaning of ‘a clan’. Later, it came to signify
descent from a common ancestor. Gotra was Jivagribha Police Officer
primarily a Brahmanical institution adopted rather
half-heartedly by other twice-born classes and Spasas/Dutas Spies who sometimes worked as
hardly affecting the lower orders. messengers
• Marriage monogamy remained the general rule. Gramini Head of the village
Eight types of marriages were listed for the first
time. Kulapati Head of the family
Brahma Marriage of a girl with the boy of the Madhyamasi Mediator on disputes
same Varna with Vedic rite and rituals.
Bhagaduha Revenue collector
Daiva The father gives a daughter to a
sacrificial priest as a part of Dakshina. Sangrahitr Treasurer of taxes
Arsha A token bride price of a cow and a bull Mahishi Chief Queen
is given in the place of dowry.
Suta Charioteer and court ministerial
Prajapatya The father gives the girl without dowry
and without demanding bride price. Govikartana Keeper of games and forests

Gandharva Marriage by the consent of the two Palagala Messenger

parties (love marriage). Kshatri Chamberlain
Asura Marriage in which the bride was bought Akshavapa Accountant
from her father.
Athapati Chief Justice
Rakshasha Marriage by capture, practiced
especially by warriors.
Economy
Paishacha Marriage by seduction. • With the discovery of iron, agriculture became the
chief means of livelihood, but largely remained
Polity primitive.
• The material and social developments of the later • People continued to produce barley, but, rice and
vedic age were amply reflected in the wheat became their chief crop.
contemporary political system. • Rice was called ‘Vrihi’ and its use was
• The expression like ‘kingdom for ten generations’ recommended in rituals.
suggests strengthening of hereditary succession of • The term for wheat was ‘Godhume’.
the king with increasing royal power. • Plough became large and heavy and sometimes
• Formation of wider territory-based kingdoms required as many as 24 oxen to draw it. Manure was
increased the royal power. Sabha and Samiti lost its known.
importance and Vidatha completely disappeared. • In this period, the Vaishyas engaged in trade.
• The king’s influence was strengthened by the Reference to moneylending first occurred in the
rituals like Rajasuya, Ashvamedha, Vajepeya, etc. Shatapatha Brahmana, which describes a user as
• A rudimentary taxation system began with ‘Kusidin’, though definite evidence of the use of
‘Sangrahitri’ as treasurer of taxes and ‘Bhagaduha’ money is wanting.
as tax collector. • The term 'Niska' occurring in contemporary
Imp Ratnas/Officials in Later Vedic Period literature has often been taken as coin. But so far
no actual specimen of the coins of the vedic period
Purohita Chief Priest, also sometimes referred have come to light.
to as Rashtragopa Bali, Sulka, Bhaga were the main heads of taxation
•
Senani Supreme commander of army to be paid to the king.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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• Knowledge of metals advanced, in addition to gold SIX SYSTEMS OF PHILOSOPHY

and ayas. Nyaya Darshan Gautam
THE VEDAS Vaisesika Kanada
The Rig-Veda
• “Knowledge of the Hymns of Praise”, for Sankhya (Enumeration) Kapil
recitation. Yoga (Application) Patanjali
• The most important and, according to scholars,
oldest of the Vedas. Purva Mimamsa (Enquiry) Jaimini
• It is divided into ten books (called mandalas) and
has 1028 hymns in praise of various deities. Uttar Mimamsa (Vedanta) Badarayana
• These include Indra, Agni, Vishnu, Rudra, Varuna, In the narrowest of senses, only the Samhitas comprise
and other early 'Vedic gods'. the true Vedas. The first two divisions relate to the
• It also contains the famous Gayatri mantra and the performance of sacrificial rituals (the karma-kanda
prayer called the Purusha Shukta (the story of section), whereas the second pair consists of
Primal Man). philosophy (and belong to the jnana-kanda section).
There are also two important bodies of supplementary
The Yajur-Veda literature, related closely to the Vedas themselves.
• “Knowledge of the Melodies”, for chanting The Vedangas, which expound the sciences required to
• The Yajur-Veda is divided into the 'Shukl and understand and apply the Vedas.
Krishna' Yajur-Veda and contains explanatory The Upavedas (usually considered smriti) which deal
prose commentaries on how to perform religious with the four traditional arts and sciences.
rituals and sacrifices.
The Six Vedangas (limbs of the Vedas)
Sama-Veda • Kalpa (ritual detail)
• “Knowledge of the Sacrificial formulas”, for • Siksha (pronunciation)
liturgy. • Vyakarana (grammar)
• The Sama-Veda has verses that are almost entirely • Nirukti (etymology)
from the Rig-Veda, but are arranged in a different • Chandas (metre)
way since they are meant to be chanted. • Jyotisha (astronomy/astrology)

Atharva-Veda The Four Upavedas (following the Vedas) explain

• “Knowledge of the Magic formulas”, named after arts and sciences
a kind of group of priests. • Ayur-veda (medicine)
• The Atharva-Veda contains charms and magical • Gandharva-veda (music and dance)
incantations and has a more folkloristic style. • Dhanur-veda (warfare)
• Shilpa-veda (architecture)
Each Veda consists of four parts
• The Samhitas – literary "collections," in this case THE ORIGIN OF BUDDHISM AND JAINISM
of hymns and mantras. They form the proper veda. • During Later Vedic period, the society was divided
• The Brahmanas – prose manuals of rituals and into four Varnas namely, Brahmins, Kshatriyas,
prayers for the guiding priests. They tend to explain Vaishyas and Shudras. Brahmins and Kshatriyas,
the Samhitas. They also contain early versions of who were the two dominating Varnas at that time,
some stories. competed for supremacy. Kshatriyas were the
• The Aranyakas – literary "forest books" for hermits rulers who disliked the domination of the Brahmin
and saints. They are philosophical treatises. priests. Both Gautam Buddha and Mahavira Jain
• The Upanishads – books on philosophy, also called challenged the hegemony of Brahmins. Moreover,
"Vedanta," the end or conclusion of the Vedas. the importance of Vaishyas grew as the importance
of trade increased.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
9

• The Vaishyas were placed at third position after the ● Bhagwati Sutra – It contains thousands of
Brahmins and Kshatriyas. They looked for new questions and answers on various topics from four
religions to advance their status and position in the Anuyogas such as soul, entities, matter, ultimate
society. That’s why they gave support to both particles and universe.
Jainism and Buddhism. ● Three gems of Jainism i.e. Ratnatraya are as
follows:
Jainism Ratnatraya Meaning
● Jainism was founded by Aadinath and Rishabha Samyak Darshana (Right Knowledge of the Jain
Dev. Faith) Creed
● Vardhamana Mahavira was a contemporary of Samyak Gyana (Right Belief in
Buddha. Knowledge) Tirathankaras
● He was born in 540 BC at Kundagram in Vaishali Samyak Charitra (Right Practice of five Vows
(Bihar). Action/Conduct) of Jainism
● He was a kshatriya prince of the Lichchhavis, a ● The following table shows the five Vows of
group that was part of the Vajji sangha. Jainism, out of them, first four were given by
● Parents of Mahavira were Siddhartha and Trishala. Parshwanath and the fifth was added by Mahavira.
His childhood name was Vardhmana. These are also known as Pancha Mahavaratas.
● Mahavira married a princess named Yashoda. Vows Meaning
● Priyadarshna was the daughter of Mahavira who Ahimsa Non-violence
was married to Jamali, who later became the first Satya Non-lying
disciple of Mahavira. Asteya or Non-stealing
● At the age of 30, Mahavira took permission from Achaurya
his elder brother Nandi Vardhan and left his home. Aparigraha Non-possession/Non-
● At the age of 42, under Sal tree on the bank of river attachment
Rijupalika, he attained the highest spiritual Brahmacharya Chastity
knowledge. ● The principles of Jainism as preached by Mahavira:
● He died in 468 BC because of self-starvation at ▪ He rejected authority of Vedas and Vedic
Pava, near Rajgriha. rituals.
● Mahavir gave his first sermon at Pava to 11 ▪ He did not believe in the existence of God
Brahmans. ▪ He believed in Karma and transmigration of
● Jains believe that by following the three-fold path the soul.
of ▪ He laid great emphasis on equality.
▪ Right belief
▪ Right knowledge Buddhism
▪ Right conduct ● Buddhism, the fourth greatest religion in the world,
Souls will be released from transmigration and originated in India and it spread to neighbouring
reach the pure and blissful abode. countries like - Nepal, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, Japan,
● First Jain Council was held at Patliputra under the China, Vietnam and Thailand.
chairmanship of Sthulabhadra in 367 BC. It ● The founder of Buddhism Gautam Buddha was
resulted in the compilation of 12 Angas replacing born as Siddhartha.
the lost 14 Purvas. ● Siddhartha was born in 566 BC at Lumbini (now
● The Second Jain Council was held at Vallabhi falls in territory of Nepal) in the Shakya clan of
under the chairmanship of Devardhi in 526 AD. Kshatriya. That is why Buddha is also known as
Jainism literature: Shakyamuni.
They were written in Prakrit language. ● The mother of Siddhartha was Maha Maya who
● Aachrang Sutra – Tells about meditation of died days after giving birth to him. Thereafter, he
Mahavir for 12 years. was brought up by Prajapati Gautami, his maternal
● Kalpa-sutra – Biographies of Jain Tirthankaras aunt. Therefore, he was also called Gautam.
mainly Parshvanatha and Mahavira. ● The name of his father was Suddhodana. He was
the only son of his father.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
10

● Siddhartha was married to Yashodhara. He also ● Sutta Pitaka – Sermons on matter of doctrines and
had a son named Rahul. But neither his wife nor his ethics, Buddha's teachings
son were able to tie him to the worldly life. ● Abhidhamma Pitaka – On metaphysics and
● He left his home and became an ascetic at the age philosophy.
of 29 in search of truth and end of sorrows . This
event in Buddha’s life is known as Buddhist Councils
"Mahabhinishkramana". There were four councils/Sangeethis of Buddhism
● Buddha’s teachers were – Alar and Udyak. organised under different regimes:
● After seven years of roaming around, at the age of First Council
35, Siddhartha got enlightenment at Uruvela while ● It was held under the patronage of Ajatashatru
meditating on the bank of river Niranjana under a (Haryak Dynasty) in 483 BC.
Peepal(Banyan) tree. This tree is called the Bodhi ● Monk Mahakasapa presided over the first council.
Tree. The place is known as Bodh gaya. ● It was held at Sattapani caves in Rajgriha just after
● Buddha attained the knowledge on the Poornima of the death of Buddha.
Vaishakha month. ● Compilation of Vinaya Pitaka and Sutta Pitaka was
● He then gave his first sermon at Sarnath (Varanasi). accomplished here.
This historic event in buddha’s life is known as Second Council
"Dhammachakra Pravartan". ● In 383 BC. under the patronage of Kalashoka
● Buddha passed away in 486 BC at the age of 80 (Shishunaga Dynasty).
under a Sal tree in Kushinagar (Kushinagar was ● It was held at Vaishali after one century of
under Licchhavi Kingdom). Buddha’s death(parinirvana).
● Various notable rulers of his time were Buddha’s ● The second council was presided over by
disciples such as Prasenjit, Bimbisara and Sabbakami.
Ajatsatru. ● First division in Sangha took place. Theravedin and
● Some famous Bikshuks of Budhdhism were Mahasamghika split up here.
Sariputra, Ananda, Mahakassapa, Annuradha, Third Council
Upali, and Rahul. ● In 250 BC; under the patronage of King Ashoka.
● Vardhman Mahavir(Jainism) was a contemporary ● It was held at Pataliputra
of Gautam Buddha(Buddhism). ● It was presided by Mogaliputta Tissa.
● Compilation of Abhidhamma Pitaka was done.
The events in Buddha’s life are depicted by various Fourth Council
symbols in Buddhism: ● In the 1st century AD, under patronage of King
Event in Life of Buddha Symbolised Kanishka(Kushan dynasty).
By ● It was held in Kundalvana of Kashmir.
Buddha’s Birth Lotus and Bull ● Under the presidency of Vasumitra along with his
The Great Departure Horse deputy Asvaghosha.
(Mahabhinishkramana) ● Buddhism was divided into two sects namely,
Enlightment Bodhi Tree Hinayana and Mahayana.
First Sermon Wheel
(Dhammachakraparivartan) The Doctrine of Buddha
Death (Nirvana or Stupa The four noble truths are:
Mahaparinirvana) ● The world is full of sorrow and misery.
Buddhist Sects ● The cause of all pain and misery is desire
● The Theravada ● Pain and misery can be ended by controlling the
● The Mahayana desire.
● The Vajrayana ● Desire can be controlled by following Eight-Fold
Buddhist Literature path.
● Vinaya Pitaka – Rules of the order or Buddha's The Eight-Fold Path (Ashtang Marga):
disciplinary code ● Samyak Dristi: Right Understanding
● Samyak Sankalpa: Right Resolve
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
11

● Samyak Vachan: Right Speech ● When the admiral achieved his aim he invited his
● Samyak Karma: Right Action master, who at once responded to his call and
● Samyak Jivika: Right Living invaded the north-western India sometime after
● Samyak Prayas: Right Efforts 518 BC and before 486 BC.
● Samyak Smriti: Right Mindfulness/thought ● He conquered a large territory including the north-
● Samyak Samadhi: Right Self-Concentration west Frontier Province and certain portions of Sind
There are three base Pillars known as Tri-ratnas in and Punjab.
Buddhism: Buddha, Dhamma, Sangha.
● Buddha means the highest spiritual potential in Effects of the Invasion
every human being. ● The conquest and later on occupation of north-west
● Dhamma refers to the teachings of Buddha. India by the Persians left far reaching effects on the
● Sangha is the organization of the monks practicing history of India.
Buddhism. ▪ Indian traders now began to sell their goods
SIXTEEN MAHAJANAPADAS throughout the Persian Empire without the
India was divided into sixteen states called least hitch and thus Indian trade got a great
'Mahajanapadas' just before the rise of Buddhism in impetus.
India. A list of these states is given in the Buddhist text ▪ The Indians learnt a new script - the Kharosthi
(the Anguttara Nikaya). These sixteen states and their script -from the Persians, which remained in
capitals are the following: use in Northern India up to the third century
● Anga - Champa AD.
● Magadha - (Rajgriha) Giriraj ▪ The Indian art was also greatly influenced
● Kashi - Varanasi during this period. Some scholars are of the
● Kosala - Shravasti, Kushavati opinion that the style of Ashoka's edicts as well
● Vajji - Vaishali as the construction of his pillars especially their
● Malla - Kushinagar, Pawa capitals (where animals like the lion, the bull
● Chedi - Sothivat or Suktimati and the horse etc., and different birds are made)
● Vatsa - Kausambi are borrowed from the Persians.
● Kuru - Indraprastha (Hastinapur)
● Panchala - Ahicchatra (Western Panchala), Alexander's Invasion
Kampilya (Eastern Panchala) ● Alexander ascended the throne at the age of twenty
● Matsya - Viratnagar (Bairat) and at once embarked upon the policy of conquests.
● Surasena - Mathura ● Within a very short time he over-ran many
● Asmaka - Potan or Potali or Poudanva countries of the world including Asia Minor, Syria,
● Avanti - Mahismati, Ujjain Egypt, Turkistan, Persian Gulf, Afghanistan and
● Gandhara - Taxila Bactria, etc.
● Kamboja - Haatak ● After conquering Kabul in 328 BC Alexander also
During the lifetime of Buddha, all the above-mentioned thought of conquering India and consequently
sixteen states were reduced to only four. These four invaded India in 326 BC.
important kingdoms were those of Vatsa, Avanti, ● Alexander marched forward and crossed the river
Kosala and Magadha. Ultimately, in the fourth century Indus by constructing a bridge of boats near Ohind.
BC, the Magadha state became all powerful and under Here at Ohind, he met the representatives of king
the Mauryas all these four states were welded together Ambhi of Taxila, who offered his services to him
into one thereby giving rise to the mighty Mauryan against Porus and other Indian chiefs.
empire. ● Alexander at once marched forward and reached
Taxila where king Ambhi was already prepared to
Persian Invasion of India help him with all his forces and resources. Here a
● In the sixth century BC Persian King Darius or message was sent to king Porus to submit, but he
Dara I (522 - 486 BC) tried to conquer India. flatly refused and got ready for a fight.
● He first sent his admiral Skylax to explore the ● Then he made a sudden attack on the Indian forces.
Indus River. Porus and his forces gave a heroic fight but
Alexander came out to be victorious. To
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12

commemorate this victory, Alexander is said to Vajji (a Lichchavi princess) and third from the
have laid the foundation of two cities Bucephala chief of Madra clan of Punjab.
and Nicaea at the site of the battle. ● Magadha's most serious rival was Avanti with its
● Alexander had proceeded up to the Beas with a capital at Ujjain. Its king Chanaprodyata Mahasena
view to conquer the Magadh Empire, but here his fought Bimbisara. But ultimately the two became
fatigued army refused to cross the river. Alexander friends and Bimbisara sent royal physician (Jivaka)
tried his best to rouse the morale of his soldiers but to Ujjain.
to no avail. ● The earliest capital of Magadha was at Rajgriha.
● Ajatashatru (493-460 BC) seized the throne after
Effects of Invasion killing his father Bimbisara and pursued an
● Although Alexander's invasion failed to Hellenize aggressive policy of expansion.
India and did not leave any direct effect of great ● He subdued the Kosal king and enlarged his
importance yet it produced many indirect kingdom by conquering Kashi and Vaishali.
consequences, some of which are the following: ● Udayin (460-444 BC) succeeded Ajatashatru and is
▪ Alexander's invasion brought India in close remembered for building the fort upon the
contact with the European countries. Now four confluence of the Ganga and the Son at Patna. The
new routes (three by land and one by sea) were famous city of Pataliputra was founded in this way.
found by which Indian scholars, merchants and
religious leaders began to go to European Shishunaga Dynasty (412 BC-344 BC)
countries. ● It is said that Udayin was among the five successor
▪ The date of Alexander's invasion of India (i.e., kings who had acquired throne by patricides; the
326 BC) has helped us a lot in solving the people of Magadha finally outraged by this,
Indian chronology. deposed the last of the five in 412 BC and
▪ The Indians learnt a good deal from the Greeks appointed Shishunaga, a Viceroy of Banaras, as
in the field of coinage, astronomy, architecture king.
and sculpture. ● The most famous event was the shifting of capital
▪ In the religious field, the Hindu religion and to Vaishali. Their greatest achievement was the
philosophy affected the Greek a lot and many destruction of the power of Avanti and its
Greeks adopted the Hindu religion and Hindu incorporation into the Magadha empire.
names.
Nanda Dynasty (344 BC-321 BC)
MAGADHA ● The founder of the dynasty was Mahapadmananda.
Magadha Empire He added to the Magadha kingdom, Kalinga, from
● Of all the kingdoms that flourished in the sixth where he brought an image of the Jina as a victory
century BC, the kingdom of Magadha was the first trophy.
to make a successful bid for supremacy and ● Mahapadmananda claimed to be 'ekarat', the sole
establish its suzerainty. sovereign who destroyed all the ruling princes.
● With Rajgriha as its capital, this kingdom was ● The Nandas were fabulously rich and enormously
situated in the Patna and Gaya districts of Bihar. powerful. They had developed an effective taxation
● Its political power and prosperity reached its zenith system, built canals and carried out irrigation
in the reign of Bimbisara and Ajatashatru who one- projects and had a strong army.
by-one conquered all the neighbouring states and ● The Nandas were overthrown by the Maurya
extended/their empires. dynasty, under whom the Magadha empire reached
the apex of its glory.
Haryak Dynasty (544 BC-413 BC)
● The first important ruler of Magadha was Causes of the Rise of Magadha
Bimbisara of Haryak Dynasty, a contemporary of ● Advantageous strategic geographical location both
Buddha and patronised Buddhism. at Rajgriha and Pataliputra. Rajgriha was
● He conquered Anga and strengthened his position surrounded by a group of five hills rendering it
by marriage alliances, keeping three wives - first impregnable. Pataliputra was a water fort
from Kosala (sister of Prasenajit), second from (Jaladurga). Besides, it occupied a pivotal position
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
13

commanding river communications from all sides ● Chandragupta was brought to limelight in the
for movement of the army. Mauryan empire by Chanakya who had a grudge
● Closeness to the source of natural resources like against Dhanananda, became he had insulted him
iron ores enabled the Magadha princes to equip in the court.
themselves with effective weapons. Agricultural ● The Nanda dynasty had lost all its capability owing
tools of iron, which increased production and to the extravagant life led by the rulers.
added to royal taxation. ● According to Mudra Rakshasa, Buddhist and
● The alluvium soil of the Gangetic plains and puranic accounts, Chandragupta defeated the
sufficient rainfall was very conducive for Nanda army after invoking a revolution against the
agricultural practices. Nanda rulers in Patliaputra.
● Use of elephants on a large scale in its war, ● He acceded to the throne in 322 BC. His empire
supplied by the eastern part of the country, added included Magadha and Punjab.
to the military power. ● The Junagarh rock inscription of Rudradaman
proves the inclusion of Saurashtra in his empire.
The Mauryan Empire (322 BC-185 BC) ● The Jain tradition also establishes Chandraguta 's
● The period of the Mauryan Empire marks a new connection with North Mysore. It also said to
epoch in the history of India. include the Hindukush in the west.
● It was a period when politics, art, trade and ● The four satrapies also became part of the Mauryan
commerce elevated India to a glorious height. A empire during Chandragupta Maurya.
period of unification of the territories which lay as ● In course of 18 years, Chandragupta consolidated
fragmented kingdoms. Moreover, Indian contact his empire. After which he is said to have abdicated
with the outside world was established effectively the throne and became disciple of the Jain Saint
during this period. Bhadrabahu, and settled in Shravanabelagola
● Arthashastra by Chanakya or Kautilya is a treatise (Mysore).
on statecraft. It gives us a picture of administration, ● After a reign of 24 years he died in about 298 BC.
society and the economy of the country.
● Mudra Rakshasa is a sanskrit play by Visakha Bindusara (298 BC-273 BC)
Dutta. It is said to be a political literature revealing ● Bindusara, also called Amitraghata meaning slayer
the struggle unleashed by Chandragupta Maurya of enemies, by the Greeks, succeeded the throne of
with the help of Chanakya to overthrow the the Mauryan empire after Chandragupta's
Nandas. It is also an insight into Chandragupta's abdication.
life. ● He also had the opportunity of having the guidance
● The Jatakas by Buddhists give us an idea about that of Chanakya who continued as a minister.
period. Indica written by Megasthenes gives an ● The period of his accession to the Mauryan throne
account of the Mauryan capital, administrative witnessed a series of revolt by the people of Taxila.
system and social life. ● The first revolt broke out owing to the improper
● The Ceylonese Chronicles, the Dipavamsa and administration of prince Susima.
Mahavamsa gives the accounts of the conversion of
Ceylon. They also have helped in reconstructing Ashoka (273 BC-232 BC)
the history of Ashoka. ● Ashoka had served as governor of Taxila and
Ujjain previously.
Chandragupta Maurya (322 BC-298 BC) ● He fought the Kalinga war in 261 BC. The 8th year
● The Mudra Rakshasa describes Chandragupta as of his reign, proved to be a turning point in his life
Vrishal. as he became a Buddhist upasaka and undertook
● According to the Jain tradition, Chandragupta was Dharmayatras.
the son of the daughter of the chief of a village of ● He inaugurated his Dharma yatras from the 10th
peacock -tamers (Mayur Posakh). year of his reign by visiting Bodhgaya.
● The peacock figures that appear in the emblem of ● In the 14th year of his reign, he started the
the Mauryas in some punch marked coins and institution of 'Dhamma Mahamatra' (the officer of
sculptures testify this. righteousness) to spread the message of Dhamma.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
14

● During his reign, the policy of Bherighosa ● He was killed by his commander-in-chief
(physical conquest) was replaced by that of Pushyamitra, who ascended the throne in 187 BC.
Dhammaghosa (cultural conquest). The royal dynasty founded by him is known as
● In the course of his second tour in the 20 th year of Sunga dynasty.
his reign, he visited Lumbini, the birth place of
Buddha and exempted the village from Bali Administration
(tribute) and Bhaga (the royal share of the ● Kautilya called the king 'Dharmapravartaka' or
produce), which were reduced to one eighth. promulgator of social order.
● Ashoka's Hellenistic contemporaries were ● The highest functionaries at the centre were called
Antiochus II of Suria, Ptolemy of Egypt, Magas of tirthas. They were 18 in number: Mantri (Chief
Cyrene, Antigonus Gonatas of Macedonia and Minister), Purohita (Chief Priest), Senapati
Alexander of Epirus. These are mentioned in his (Commander-in-chief), and Yuvaraja (Crown
thirteenth Rock Edict. prince) were the highest functionaries among the
Ashoka's Dhamma: Ashoka was careful enough to tirthas.
make a distinction between his personal belief and his
support for Buddhism and sectarian conflicts and to Mantriparishad
promote a harmonious relationship between the diverse Kautilya mentions 27 superintendent (adhyakshas)
elements of the vast empire. His Dhamma was an mostly to regulate economic activities. The famous
ethical code aimed at building up an attitude of social were as follows:
responsibility among the people. It was not ● Panyadhyaksha: Commerce.
synonymous with Buddhism; it was aimed at building ● Samsthadhyaksha: Markets, checking wrong
up an attitude of mind of social responsibility based on practices.
man's dignity and humanistic approach. It was not a ● Pautavadhyaksha: Weights and measures.
sectarian faith. It emphasized truth, non-violence, ● Navadhyaksha: State Boats.
toleration, compassion; obedience etc., which were ● Shulkdhyaksha : Tolls/Customs.
common to almost all religions prevailing in India and ● Aakradhyaksha : Mines.
none could object its basic tenets. ● Sitadhyaksha : Crown lands.
Ashokan Edicts: There were 14 major rock edicts, two ● Akshapataladhyaksha : Accounts.
separate Kalinga edicts, 7 pillar edicts, and many other ● Manadhyaksha : Measurement.
inscriptions engraved separately in areas such as ● Pattanadhyaksha : Ports.
Maski, Bhabru, Samapa etc. In the northwest, the ● Ganikadhyaksha : Courtesan.
Ashokan scripts were bi-lingual i.e., Greek and ● Devatadhyaksha : Religious institutions.
Aramaic. Generally, most of the edicts within Indian ● Lakshanadhyaksha : Mint.
sub-continental boundaries have been composed in the
Brahmi script. Army
● According to Pliny, Chandragupta maintained
Kunal And Samprati (232 BC-187 BC) 600,000- foot soldiers, 30,000 cavalry and 900
● Ashoka died in 232 BC and with him departed the elephants.
glory of Mauryan empire. Vishnu Puran gives the ● According to Megasthenes, the army was
names of his seven successors but with no details, administered by six committees consisting of five
probably because the empire was divided into two members each taken from a board of 30 members.
parts of eastern and western. ● The six committees or the wings of the army were:
● The western being ruled by Kunal and later for the army, the cavalry, the elephants, the chariots,
sometime by Samprati where Indo-Greeks began to the navy and the transport.
make early inroads and until 180 BC had virtually
supplanted the later Mauryas. Provincial Administration
● The eastern part being ruled by Brihadratha from Except the capital Pataliputra, the whole empire was
Pataliputra. divided into four provinces controlled by a viceroy-
● He was the seventh king in succession from either a prince or a member of the royal family.
Ashoka.
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15

District Administration: Provinces were sub-divided ● Kautilya recommends the recruitment of Vaishyas
into districts and had three main officers: and Shudras in the army, but their actual
▪ Pradesika: Responsible for the overall enrollment is extremely doubtful.
administration of the district.
▪ Rajuka: Revenue administration and later DECLINE OF THE MAUYARAS
judiciary particularly in rural areas was under ● Brahmanical Reaction: Har Prasad Shastri holds
Pradesika. that Ashoka's pro-Buddhist policy annoyed
▪ Yukta: Probably accountant. Brahmans culminating in the killing of the last
Sub-District and Village Administration: Sub Mauryan ruler Brihadratha by his Brahman army
district consisted of a group of villages numbering 5 to general Pushyamitra Sunga.
10 and was administered by 'Gopa' (accountant) and ● Ashoka's Pacifist Policy: which resulted in the
'Sthanika' (Tax collector). The villages were emasculation of the army, but we have no evidence
administered by the village headmen who were of his disbanding the army or even reducing their
answerable to the Gopas and Sthanikas. number. (H.C. Raichoudhary).
City Administration: The administration of capital ● Economic Weakness: D.D. Koshambi draws our
Pataliputra has been described by Megasthenes, which attention to the debased coins of later Mauryans
according to him, was administered by six boards and maintains that the heavy economic pressure
consisting of five members each, being entrusted with caused due to a vast army and bureaucracy was the
matters relating to industrial arts, care of foreigners, chief cause for the downfall.
registration of births and deaths, regulation of weights ● Administrative Weakness: Romila Thapar
and measures, public sale of manufactured goods and attributes decline to the top heavily centralized
the last with collecting toll on the articles sold-this bureaucracy; no competitive requirement system,
being one tenth of the purchase price. Head of the city no means of gauging public opinion, lack of
administration was Nagarika. Nagarika was assisted by nationalism among people, but all these were
two subordinate officials namely: Sthanika and Gopa. remote possibilities in those days.
Revenue Administration: Land revenue was the main ● Ashoka's weak successors: Ashoka's weak
source of income of the state. Peasants paid sixth of the successors and division of the empire into the parts
produce as 'Bhaga' and an extra tax 'Bali' as tribute. might have adversely affected the strength and
According to the Arthashastra since the land belonged resources of the empire in resisting Indo-Greeks
to king, irrigation tax was also levied by the who were the first to invade.
government.
KINGDOM AFTER THE MAURYAN EMPIRE
Economic Condition
● Both agricultural and industrial sector made much The Sungas (187 BC-73 BC)
headway. ● After the Mauryan rule, Pushyamitra, the founder
● Industrial arts and crafts proliferated as a result of of the Sunga dynasty, established his rule.
swift communication through a network of good ● The Sungas ruled for over a hundred years. The
and long roads and incentives given by the extent of the Sunga kingdom under Pushyamitra
government. extended from Punjab to the southern regions of the
● It seems that the punch-marked silver coins, which Narmada.
carry the symbols of peacock and hill and regent, ● The Sunga dynasty had a line of ten rulers. The last
formed the imperial currency of the Mauryas. of the Sunga king was Devabhuti. The Sunga
period though is less reflected as a great role in
Social Condition Indian history, yet it is significant in the matter of
● Megasthenes divided Mauryan society into seven its administration, religion, art and literature.
castes-philosophers, farmers, soldiers, herdsman, ● The Sungas administrated the kingdom with the
artisans, magistrate and councilors, Certainly, he help of a mantriparishad. This council existed in
confused caste with profession. Again, he notices the centre and the provinces. The provinces were
the absence of slavery, but it is contradicted by governed by viceroys.
Indian sources. ● During the Sunga rule, Brahmanism revived its
vigour. The Bhagavata form of religion was
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16

prevalent. The Bharbat stupa and the ivory works Some important facts related to Kanishka are as
in its exquisite manner proves the promotion of art. following:
● Patanjali's Mahabhashya is an example of the ● It was during Kanishka’s reign that Buddhism was
flourishing literature of the Sunga. divided into Mahayana and Hinayana.
● He was the founder of the Shaka Era in 78 AD.
The Kanvas (73 BC-28 BC) ● He had invaded Patliputra and had taken the
● The Kanva dynasty was a Brahman dynasty Buddhist monk Asvaghosa to Purushpura.
founded by Vasudeva Kanva, the minister of ● Charaka and Sushruta were in the court of
Devabhuti, the last Sunga king. Kanishka.
● This period is said to have witnessed the rule of ● Kanishka was a patron of Buddhism and he called
four kings extending to a period of about 45 years. the 4th Buddhist council in the Kundalvana of
● The extent of Kanva territory was confined to the Kashmir in 78 AD.
areas of Sunga rule. ● The council was chaired by Vasumitra and during
● Susarman was the last ruler of the Kanva dynasty. this council the collection of Buddhist texts took
● The Kanvas were overthrown by the Satavahanas. place and the commentaries were engraved on
copper sheets.
Satavahanas (60 BC-225 AD) ● The scholars who resided in Kanishka’s court were
● Simuka was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty. Asvaghosa (the Buddhist poet), Nagarjuna (the
He was succeeded by his brother Kanha. Scholars philosopher), Samgharaksha (the chaplain),
are of the opinion that the original home of the Mathara (the politician), Vasumitra (the Buddhist
Andhras - Andhra bhrityas was the Bellary district. scholar), Charak (the physician) and Agisala (the
● The capital of satavahanas was located at engineer).
Dharanikota (Amaravati) and Pratishthana ● Kanishka had fought against King Han Ho-ti who
(Paithan). was the king of Han dynasty of China. Kanishka
● Satakarni was the successor after Kanha, and is a defeated the Chinese king in the second attempt.
considerable figure, known for his performance of
two asvamedha sacrifices. SANGAM AGE
● His reign was followed by the rule of Gautamiputra ● The land south of Krishna river was divided into
satakarni. He is said to have defeated the Yavanas, three kingdoms: Cheras, Cholas and Pandyas.
Sakas and Phalanas and re-established the ancient ● These three kingdoms together with Satyaputra are
glory of the Satavahanas. referred to as independent states by Ashoka in his
● Gautamiputra satkarni was succeeded by his son inscription with which he maintained friendly
Vasisthiputra Pulumavi in about 130 AD. He relations.
extended his rule towards the Andhra country.
● Yajna Sri Satakarni was the last great ruler of the Cholas
Satavahanas. After him, the weak successors ● The Chola dominion was known as
resulted in the contraction of the territory of the 'Tondaimandalam' or 'Cholamandalam'. Their chief
Satavahanas. centre of political power (capital) was at 'Uraiyur',
a place famous for cotton trade.
Kushana Dynasty (1st century AD - 3rd century ● The Cholas were the most powerful of all three
AD) kingdoms.
● Kanishka was the founder and the most powerful ● The Chola maintained an efficient navy.
ruler of the Kushana Empire. ● In the middle of the second century BC a Chola
● The capital of his empire was Purushpura king named Elara conquered Srilanka and ruled
(Peshawar). over it for nearly 50 years.
● Under his rule, Kushana Empire extended from ● Kasikala was the greatest of Chola kings. His name
Uzbekistan, Tajikistan to Mathura and Kashmir. meant 'Man with charred leg'.
● Kanishka was the successor of Vima Kadphises, as ● He fought the Battle of Venni against Pandyas and
demonstrated by an impressive genealogy of the Cheras defeating 11 kings.
Kushan kings, known as the Rabatak inscription.
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17

● He also founded the port city of Puhar ● The first Sangam, held at Madurai, was attended by
(Kaveripattinam) and constructed 160 km long gods and legendary sages but no literary work of
embankment along the Kaveri. this Sangam is available.
● The second Sangam was held at Kapadapuram but
Cheras all literary works perished except Tolkappiyam.
● The history of the Cheras was marked by ● The whole literature has been divided into two
continuous fighting with the Cholas and the groups narrative and didactic, the former is called
Pandyas. Melkannakku or Eighteen Major Works and the
● The capital of the Cheras was Vanji or Karur. latter Kilkannakku or Eighteen Minor Works.
● Nedun-jeral Adan is the first known Chera king. He
is said to have fed the armies of Kurukshetra war Important Sangam Works
and so had earned the title of 'Udiyan-jeral'. ● According to tradition, the father of Tamil
● Senguttuvan, the Red chera or Good Chera, literature is Agastaya.
according to the Chera poets, was the greatest ● Tolkappiyam by Talkappiyar is a work on Tamil
Chera king. grammar, literary tradition (poetics) and sociology.
● Senguttuvan invaded the north and crossed the It is the foundation of all literary conventions of
Ganga. He is remembered for building the temple Tamil literature.
of 'Kannagi', the goddess of chastity. ● Tirukkaral by Thiruvalluvar is sometimes called
● The worship of Kannagi known as 'Pattini cult', the 'fifth Veda or 'Bible of the Tamil land'. It is a
was established by him. compound of dharma, artha, kama and moksha.
● Silappadikaram meaning 'The Jewelled Anklet' by
Pandyas Ilango Adigal is an epic, dealing with love story of
● The Pandyan kingdom occupied the southern most Kovalan and Madhavi.
portion of Indian peninsula, with Madurai as its ● Manimekalai is one of the two greatest epics and a
capital. sequel to Silappadikaram; written by Seethalai
● Legendary and traditional accounts mention the Saathanar, considered as the 'Odyssey of Tamil
loss of many Sangam texts on the occasion of a poetry'.
deluge, which compelled the Pandyan king to shift ● Civaka Chintamani is a third epic by
their capital first from then Madurai to Tiruttakkatevar.
Kapadapuram and then back to Madurai. ● Aggatiyam, a magnum opus and grammar of letters
● Madurai seems to be the Tamil word of Mathura. and life in three parts was written by Saint
The Pandyan profited from trade with Roman Agatiyar.
Empire.
● Nedujeliyan was the most important king of the THE GUPTA PERIOD (319 BC–550 BC)
Pandyas. ● After the downfall of the Kushana empire in about
● Another king was Madaranjeral Inunporai, who the third century AD and at the beginning of the 4th
sent ambassador to Roman emperor Augustus and century AD, many independent states emerged in
performed vedic sacrifices. North India.
● One of these states was of the Lichchavis of
Sangam Literature Vaishali who dominated portions of North Bengal
● The word 'Sangam' is associated with a college or and South Bihar. This clan obtained possession of
assembly of Tamil scholars and poets who Pataliputra, the Capital of the Kushanas.
flourished under the royal patronage of the
Pandyan kings at Madurai. Sri Gupta
● The Sangam Age extends roughly between 300 BC ● Sri Gupta was the first ruler of this dominion.
- 300 AD. Three Sangams are supposed to have ● After him, his son Ghototkacha ruled under the title
been held. of Maharaja.
● The whole Sangam Age is also called Golden or
Augustan Age in Tamil literature.
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18

Chandragupta I ● Samudragupta was succeeded by his elder son

● In the fourth century AD, a Lichchavi princess got Ramagupta who was said to have been murdered
married to a king of Magadha namely by Chandragupta II, who did so owing to his
Chandragupta I. brother Ramagupta's uncouth act of surrendering
● The importance of the rule of Chandragupta I his queen Dhruvadevi to the Shaka ruler who
centres around the influence of Kumaradevi, the subdued him.
Lichchavi princess. Coins bearing the figures of the ● Thus Chandragupta II ascended the throne of
princess speaks of the extent of her influence. Patilaputra in about 380 AD. On assuming the
● Chandragupta I became the king of Pataliputra and throne of the Gupta empire, he took the title
established a kingdom along the Ganges. Vikramaditya.
● Chandragupta II was a conquerer like his father
Samudragupta Samudragupta.
● Chandragupta I was succeeded by Samudragupta in ● His diplomatic tactic was giving his daughter in
about 335 AD. marriage to Rudrasena II.
● He reigned for about fifty years. Inscriptions on a ● Chandragupta Vikramaditya's miltary conquests
pillar erected by Ashoka gives an account of includes the conquest of Malwa, Gujarat and
Samudragupta. Saurashtra which were under the Shaka rule.
● He is said to have commanded a military campaign ● He defeated Rudrasimha III, the last of the western
across the Deccan, and also subdued the forest satrap ruler and annexed his territories. This
tribes of the Vindhya region. provided exceptional wealth which added to the
● He performed the Ashvamedha sacrifice to prosperity of the Guptas.
establish and proclaim his supremacy. ● The Guptas at his period had sea trade with the
● His kingdom also included lower Bengal, upper countries of the west.
Assam and Nepal. Tributes and homage were paid ● Broach, Sopara, Cambay were ports that facilitated
by the rulers and clans including the Malwas, the trade.
Yaudheyas, the Arjunayansas, Madras, the Abhiras ● During this period, Ujjain appears to have been the
in Punjab and Rajasthan and others in Madhya inland centre upon which most of the trade routes
Pradesh. converged.
● He is also said to have intruded into Kanchipuram ● Chandragupta occupied the throne for nearly forty
the capital of the Pallavas. years.
● His friendly relation with Ceylon is proved by the ● Raja Bikram was also a patron of the nine gems
fact that King Mohendra of Ceylon sent an including Kalidsa and Varahamihira.
ambassador to Samudragupta.
● Samudragupta's personal skills were exceptional Kumaragupta I
especially in music and songs. ● Kumaragupta I was successor of Chandragupta II
● He was also well known for his poetry and had and was known as Mahendraditya Kumargupta I.
composed many works and had a reputation of a He ruled from 415 AD to 454 AD.
professional author. ● He reigned for about forty years. His empire
● He was a devotee of Vishnu and thus can be called extended from North Bengal to Kathiawar and
a Brahmanical Hindu. All these and his role as a from the Himalayas to the Narmada.
monarch qualified him to be called a 'Hero of ● To the south, his kingdom extended as far as the
hundred battles' by a court poet in the Allahabad Satara district of the Deccan.
inscriptions. ● He also performed the Ashvamedha sacrifice.
● Vincet Smith has elevated Samudragupta in Indian
history as the Napoleon of India. Skandagupta
● His rule is presumed to have been till about 380 ● During this period, the Huns from Central Asia led
AD. continuous attacks on the Guptas.
● These attacks were repulsed by Skandagupta who
Chandragupta II is considered as the last great Gupta ruler.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
19

● During his campaign against the Huns, period are the best examples of metal
Skandagupta had to meet great expenses which workmanships.
resulted in the reduction in the issue of gold coins.
● The Gupta dynasty continued its existence after the Art And Architecture
death of Skandagupta. ● The manuals on the construction of stone temples
● Kumaragupta II was succeeded by Budhagupta. were written during this period.
● His territory extended from Bengal to central India. ● Caves continued to be excavated during the Gupta
● The Gupta period in Indian history is termed as the and the post-Gupta period.
Golden Age of India. ● There are nine caves at Udaygiri near Vidisha.
● This period extends from 320 to 480 AD. These are partly rock-cut and partly stone built.
● It extends through the reigns of Chandragupta I, ● The famous Mehrauli iron pillar at Delhi near
Samudragupta, Chandragupta II Vikramaditya, Qutub Minar is a marvel in metallurgical skill and
Kumaragupta and Skandagupta. technology.
● The art of casting copper statues, coins and copper
Language And Literature seals etc. on a large scale shows the handling of
● Music, architecture, sculpture and painting was at metal work at its best.
its best during the period of Gupta rule. ● A copper image of Buddha about 80 feet high was
● The compilation of the two great epics, Ramayana erected at Nalanda in Bihar and a fine Sultangunj
and Mahabharata was completed in the fourth Buddha, 71 feet high can still be seen in
century AD. Birmingham Museum in Britain.
● In the field of Kavya or poetical works, the name ● The best examples of paintings in India are Ajanta
of Kalidasa stands foremost in the history of Indian and Bagh caves that were done between the first
literature. His kavyas such as Meghaduta, and seventh centuries AD. At Ajanta, of the 29
Raghuvamsa and Kumarasambhavam and dramas caves, traces of paintings can be seen in sixteen
such as Abhijnana Shakuntalam are considered to caves.
be among the best literary works in the world and
have been translated into many languages. Astronomy
● Kalidas graced the court of Vikramaditya, the king ● Varahamihira, who flourished in the court of
of Ujjaini who has been identified as Chandragupta Chandragupta II, has preserved in his
II. Panchasiddhantika written in 505 AD, the accounts
● The Allahabad pillar inscription by Harisena, of five astronomical works which were evidently
Mandsor inscription composed by Vatsabhatti, regarded as authority in his own time.
Junagarh rock inscription, Mehraulli pillar ● Aryabhata was the first to utilize sign functions in
inscription, Aihole inscription by Ravikriti etc. are astronomy.
fine examples of literary expression. In the field of ● He discovered an accurate formula to measure the
drama, Bhasa, Sudraka, Kalidas and Bhavabhuti decrease or increase in the duration of two
are the most noteworthy. Sudraka is the author of consecutive days.
Mricchakatika - 'Little clay cart'.
● Three great Chinese pilgrims Fa-Hien, Hiuen POST GUPTA PERIOD
Tsang and I-tsing visited India in search of During the end of 5th century AD the Gupta Empire
knowledge, manuscripts and relics between the began to disintegrate. Along with this breakdown
fifth and seventh centuries AD. Imperial Guptas, Magadha and its capital Patliputra
● Fa-Hien with four other monks came to India also lost their importance. Therefore, Post Gupta Period
during the reign of Chandragupta. was very turbulent in nature. Five major powers
● Hiuen-Tsang visited India during Harsha's reign. emerged in North India after the fall of the Guptas.
● According to Hiuen-Tsang's testimony, brass, gold These powers were as following:-
and silver were produced in abundance.
● The Gupta period's gold and silver coins, seals, the The Hunas
Mehrauli iron pillar, a few statues belonging to this
● The Hunas were a rare race of Central Asia who
came to India.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
20

● During the reign of Kumargupta, Hunas invaded ● He was a Hindu who later embraced Mahayana
India for the first time. They could not succeed in Buddhism.
India under the dynasty of Kumargupta and ● He was married to Durgavati.
Skandagupta, though they could penetrate into ● He had a daughter and two sons. His daughter
India. married a king of Vallabhi whereas his sons were
● Hunas occupied India for a very short period of killed by his own minister.
thirty years. Hunas’ supremacy was established in
North India. Rise to the throne
● Toramana was their best ruler and Mihirakula the ● After Prabhakaravardhana died, his elder son
most powerful and cultured one. Rajyavardhana ascended the throne of Thaneswar.
● Harsha had a sister, Rajyashri who was married to
The Maukharis king Grahavarman of Kannauj. Shashanka, the
● The region of Western Uttar Pradesh around Gauda king killed Grahavarman and kept Rajyashri
Kanauj was held by the Maukharis. prisoner. This prompted Rajyavardhana to fight
● They also conquered some part of Magadha. against Shashanka. But Shashanka killed
● Gradually they overthrew the later Guptas and Rajyavardhana.
made them move to Malwa. ● This led the 16-year old Harshavardhana to ascend
the throne of Thaneswar in 606 AD.
The Maitrakas ● He vowed to avenge his brother’s murder and also
● Most probably the Maitrakas were Iranian in origin rescue his sister.
and ruled in Saurashtra region of Gujarat with ● For this, he forged an alliance with
Valabhi as its capital. Bhaskaravarman, the Kamarupa king. Harsha and
● Valabhi became the centre for learning, culture and Bhaskaravarman marched against Shashanka.
trade and commerce under the guidance of Ultimately, Shashanka left for Bengal and Harsha
Bhatarka. It survived the longest Arab attacks. became the king of Kannauj also.

The Gaudas Empire of Harsha

● They ruled over a territory in Bengal and were ● On acquiring Kannauj, Harsha united the two
lesser-known of the four kingdoms. Its most kingdoms of Thaneswar and Kannauj.
powerful and ambitious ruler was Shashanka. ● He moved his capital to Kannauj.
● He invaded Makhauris, killed Grahavarman and ● After the fall of the Guptas, North India was
detained Rajyashri. divided into many small kingdoms.
● Harsha was able to unite many of them under his
The Pushyabhutis command. He had, under his control, Punjab and
central India. After Shashanka’s death, he annexed
● Thaneswar (north of Delhi) was the capital of Bengal, Bihar and Odisha.
Pushyabhutis. Prabhakarvardhan was the most ● He also defeated the Vallabhi king in Gujarat. (The
important ruler of the dynasty who assumed the Vallabhi king and Harsha came to a truce by
title of Parambhattaraka and Maharajadhiraja. marriage between Harsha’s daughter and the
● They had a marriage alliance with the Maukharis. Vallabhi king Dhruvsena II.)
The marriage alliance strengthened the two However, Harsha’s plans to conquer lands of the
●
empires. south were hampered when the Chalukya king,
● Harshavardhana belonged to this clan. Pulakeshin II defeated Harsha in 618-619 AD. This
sealed Harsha’s southern territorial limit till the
HARSHAVARDHANA’S DYNASTY (606 AD - Narmada River.
647AD) ● There were two types of territories under Harsha.
● Harshavardhana was born in 591 AD to King One was directly under him and the other type were
Prabhakaravardhana of Sthaneshvara (Thaneswar, under feudatories.
Haryana). Direct territories: Central Provinces, Bengal,
●
Kalinga, Rajputana, Gujarat
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
21

● Feudatories: Jalandhar, Kashmir, Kamarupa, Sind, ● Hiuen Tsang visited his kingdom. He has praised
Nepal Pulakesin II as a good and authoritative king.
● Even the feudatories were under the tight command ● Though a Hindu, he was tolerant of Buddhism and
of Harsha. Harsha’s reign marked the beginning of Jainism.
feudalism in India. ● He conquered almost entire south-central India.
● Hiuen Tsang visited India during Harsha’s reign. ● He is famous for stopping Northern king Harsha in
He has given a very favourable account of king his tracks while he was trying to conquer southern
Harsha and his empire. He praises his generosity parts of the country.
and justice. ● He had defeated the Pallava king Mahendravarman
● Harsha was a great patron of arts. He himself was I but he was defeated and killed by
an accomplished writer. He is credited with the Mahendravarman’s son and successor
Sanskrit works Ratnavali, Priyadarshika and Narasimhavarman I in a series of battles he had
Nagananda. with the Pallavas.
● Banabhatta was his court poet and he composed ● For the next 13 years, Badami remained under
'Harshacharita' which gives an account of Harsha’s Pallava control.
life and deeds. ● Pulakesin II received a Persian mission as depicted
● Harsha generously supported the Nalanda in an Ajanta cave painting. He maintained
University. diplomatic relations with the King of Persia Khusru
● He had a good tax structure. 1/4th of all the taxes II.
collected were used for charity and for cultural ● His death saw a lapse in Chalukya power.
purposes.
● Harsha was the last king to rule over a vast empire The Pallavas
in India before the invasions by the Muslims. ● Capital of this kingdom was Kanchipuram and
● Harsha died in 647 AD after ruling for 41 years which was spread around Kaveri delta.
● Since he died without any heirs, his empire ● The Pallavas established a powerful kingdom in
disintegrated very soon after his death. South India after the fall of Satvahanas and ruled
from sixth century to late eighth century.
The Chalukyas ● They moved into Andhra and then to Kanchi where
● Pulakesin I was the first ruler of the Chalukyas. they established the mighty Pallava Empire.
● The Chalukya dynasty reached its peak during the
reign of Pulakesin II. Origin of Pallavas
● His grandfather Pulakeshin I had created an empire ● There are controversies with regard to the origin of
around Vatapi and performed Ashvamedha. the Pallavas. Important among them are as follows
● Pulakeshin II subjugated the Kadambas, the ▪ Possibly they were the descendents of the
Ganges of Mysore, the Mauravas of North Konkan, Greek Parthians who came to India after
the Latas of Gujarat, the Malavas and the Gurjars. Alexander's invasion.
● He also succeeded in getting submission from the ▪ They might have belonged to a local tribal clan
Chola, Chera and Pandya kings. who established their authority in
● He had also defeated King Harsha of Kannauj and 'Tondainnadu' or the land of creepers.
the Pallava king Mahendravarman. ▪ They originated from Chola –Naga’s marriage.
▪ They were orthodox Brahmans of the North
Pulakesin II (610 AD-642 AD) and their capital was Kanchi.
● The greatest of the Chalukya kings.
● Extended the Chalukya rule to most parts of the IMPORTANT RULERS OF PALLAVA
Deccan. DYNASTY
● His birth name was Eraya. Information about him Simhavishnu: was the first important ruler of this
is obtained from the Aihole citation dated 634 AD. dynasty. Simhavishnu captured the territory of the
This poetic inscription was written by his court Cholas and later humiliated other southern regions
poet Ravikirti in Sanskrit language using the including Ceylon.
Kannada script.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
22

Mahendravarman I: Pulakeshin II defeated him. Saint he died in 1014 AD, he was beyond dispute the
Appar and scholar Bharavi were patronised by him. Lord Paramount of Southern India.
Mahendravarman I composed ‘Mattavilasa Prahasana’ a ● The Rajrajeshwaram temple at Thanjavur, which is
satirical play. now a UNESCO World Heritage Site was built by
Narasimhavarman I: He was famous for his victory Rajraja Chola I.
over Pulakeshin II and capturing his empire. He assumed ● It is also known as Brihadisvara Temple or
the title of Vatapikond (the conquerer of Vatapi). Later Peruvudaiyar Koyil , devoted to lord Shiva.
Cholas, Cheras and Pandyas were defeated by
Narasimhavarman I. Hiuen Tsang visited Kanchipuram THE TURKISH INVASION IN INDIA
during his rule. Narasimhavarman I established the city ● In the 8th and 9th centuries, the Turks dominated
of Mahabalipuram (Mamallapuram) famous monolithic the Caliphs of Baghdad.
tomb (made up of single stone) and rock-cut temples. ● They extended their dominion beyond Sind and
Two naval expeditions were sent to Ceylon. Multan into India and finished the work begun by
Mahendravarman II: He was killed by Vikramaditya the Arabs.
I.
Other Pallava kings included Paramesvarvarman I, Mahmud Ghazni (971 AD-1030 AD)
Narasimhavarman II, Paramesvaravarman II and ● Mahmud Ghazni was the king of Ghazni who ruled
Nandivarman II. from 971 to 1030 AD.
● He was the son of Sabuktigin.
MEDIEVAL CHOLAS ● Attracted by India’s wealth Ghazni attacked India
Vijayalaya Chola 17 times. The main objective of his attacks was to
● The first medieval Chola ruler was Vijayalaya plunder the wealth of Ghaznavi.
Chola who in 850 AD re-established the Chola
rule. His capital was Thanjavur. The invasions of Mahmud Ghazni in 1000 AD
● Vijayalaya was a Pallava feudatory. Because of this ● Mahmud Ghazni attacked modern Afghanistan and
victory, the Cholas became powerful and Pakistan in 1000 AD.
Vijayalaya wiped out both the Pandyas and ● He defeated Hindu ruler Jaipal, who committed
Pallavas from the Thanjavur area. suicide later and was succeeded by his son
● Vijayalaya renovated Thanjavur and built Anandpal.
solesvara temple at Pudukkottai. ● Ghazni invaded Bhatia in 1005 AD.
● Ghazni invaded Multan in 1006 AD. During this
Aditya Chola I time, Anandpal attacked him.
● Aditya Chola I was son of Vijayalaya and he ● Mahmud Ghazni attacked and crushed Sukhpal,
succeeded him after his death. ruler of Bhatinda in 1007 AD.
● He was a great Shiva devotee and built a number of ● Ghazni attacked Nagarkot in the Punjab hills in
Shiva Temples on the banks of river Kaveri. 1011 AD.
● Mahmud attacked the Hindushahi kingdom under
Parantaka Chola I Anandapal and defeated him in the Battle of
● His reign was from 907 AD to 953 AD. Waihind, the Hind shahi capital near Peshawar in
● Just after three years of ascending the throne, he 1013 AD.
attacked the Pandyas and captured Madurai, and ● Mahmud of Ghazni captured Thanesar in 1014 AD.
assumed the title Madurai Kond. ● Mahmud of Ghazni attacked Kashmir in 1015 AD.
● He attacked Mathura in 1018 AD and defeated a
Rajaraj Chola I coalition of rulers, including a ruler called
Chandrapal.
● The birth name of Rajaraja Chola-I was Arilmoli
● Mahmud conquered Kannauj in 1021 AD by
varman.
defeating Kannauj King Chandella Gauda.
● He was such an able King that for the period of next
● Gwalior was invaded and conquered by Mahmud
20 years, he achieved so many victories that when
Ghazni in 1023 AD.
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23

● Mahmud Ghazni attacked the Somnath temple in Death of Muhammad Ghori

1027 AD to loot the wealth amassed inside the ● He was assassinated on 25th March 1206 AD in
temple. Central Asia by some Shia rebels and Khokhars.
● Mahmud Ghaznavi died in 1030 AD due to Malaria ● He is considered to be the real founder of the
during his last invasion. Turkish Empire in India because of his various
invasions and subjugations of the Rajput territories
Muhammad Ghori (1149 AD-1206 AD) in North India.
● He was the third Muslim ruler who invaded India. DELHI SULTANATE
● He became the ruler of Ghori. ● The Delhi Sultanate refers to five Muslim
● He first invaded India in 1175 AD. kingdoms or dynasties that ruled over the territory
of Delhi between the years 1206 to 1526 AD.
First Battle of Tarain (1191 AD) The five dynasties of the Delhi Sultanate include:
● He seized the fortress of Bhatinda in 1189 AD and ▪ The Mamluk Dynasty/Slave Dynasty (1206-
then progressed into the kingdom of Prithviraj 1290 AD)
Chauhan. ▪ The Khilji Dynasty (1290-1320 AD)
● Muhammad Ghori was defeated by Prithviraj in the ▪ The Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1413 AD)
first Battle of Tarain in 1191 AD and had to ▪ The Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1451 AD)
surrender in Bhatinda. ▪ The Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526 AD)

Second Battle of Tarain (1192 AD) The Slave Dynasty (1206-1290 AD)
● In the second battle of Tarain, the joint forces of the Qutb-ud-din Aibak (1206-1210 AD)
Rajput rulers under Prithviraj were defeated by Aram Shah (1210-1211 AD)
Muhammad Ghori. Shams-ud-din Iltutmish (1211-1236 AD)
● Prithviraj was held as a prisoner and later put to Rukn-ud-din Firuz (Apr. 1236-Nov. 1236)
death. Razia-ud-din Sultana (1236-1240 AD)
● The Muslim rule began for the first time in Indian Muiz-ud-din Bahram (1240-1242 AD)
history with the end of Second Battle of Tarain. Ala-ud-din Masud (1242-1245 AD)
Nasir-ud-din Mahmud (1245-1266 AD)
● Qutb-ud-din Aibak was appointed as the
Ghiyas-ud-din Balban (1266-1287 AD)
commander by Muhammad Ghori.
Muiz-ud-din Qaiqabad (1287-1290 AD)
Shams-ud-din Kayumars (1290 AD)
Rajput Uprisings
● Slave Dynasty was also called Ilbari Dynasty,
● There were many Rajput mutinies between 1193 Yamini Dynasty or Mamluk Dynasty.
and 1198 AD. ● Qutb-ud-din Aibak was a slave of Muhammad
● Qutb-ud-din-Aibak defeated them all and brought Ghori and he founded the Slave Dynasty in 1206
many regions under his control. AD.
● Muhammad Ghori made Delhi as his capital. ● Aibak was the first Muslim ruler of India.
● The capital city of Qutb-ud-din Aibak was Lahore.
Battle of Chandawar (1194 AD) ● He was known as ‘Lakh Baksh’ or ‘giver of lakhs’
● Muhammad Ghori defeated Jaichand, the greatest or ‘giver of favours’ for his magnanimity.
Rajput ruler of Kanauj and killed him in the battle. ● Hasan Nizami was a famous historian in the court
of the Aibak.
Conquest of Bengal and Bihar ● Qutb-ud-din Aibak started the construction of
● Muhammad-bin-Bakhtiyar Khilji, one of the Qutub Minar in 1199 in Delhi in memory of the
commanders of Muhammad Ghori, destroyed Sufi saint Khwaja Qutb-ud-din Bakhtiyar Kaki.
Vikramasila in 1202 and Nalanda University in ● Its construction was completed by Iltutmish. It is a
1203 AD. five storied building.
● Qutb-ud-din Aibak died in 1210 by falling from
horseback while playing Polo.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
24

● After the death of Qutb-ud-din, Aram Shah ● Balban’s Tomb is situated in Delhi. It was
ascended the throne but he was deposed by constructed by Balban himself.
Iltutmish who crowned himself the Sultan. ● Qaiqabad was the last slave Sultan. (Kayumars
● During the period of Iltutmish (1210-1236 AD) who ruled for a term of three months was actually
Chengiz Khan, the Mongol conqueror attacked the last slave Sultan. He was killed by Jalal-ud-din
India (1221). Khilji) who founded the Khilji Dynasty.
● Iltutmish is considered to be the real founder of
Delhi Sultanate. Khilji Dynasty (1290-1320 AD)
● He was the first Sultan of Delhi to get recognition Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khilji (1290-1296 AD)
from the Khalifa of Bagdad. Ala-ud-din Khilji (1296-1316 AD)
● He was also the first Sultan to make Delhi his ● Khilji dynasty was founded by Malik Firoz in 1290
capital. who assumed the title Jalal-ud-din Khilji.
● He issued a purely Arabic coinage of Silver and ● In 1292, the Mongols under Abdulla, accepted
was the first to do so. defeat from Jalal-ud-din Khilji.
● Coins introduced by him, ‘Silver Tanka’ and ● Ala-ud-din Khilji, the nephew of Jalal-ud-din
‘Copper Jittal’ were the two basic coins of the Khilji, killed him after his victory over Devagiri in
Sultanate period. 1296.
● He organised the Turkan-i-chahalgani or ‘Chalisa’ ● Ala-ud-din Khilji’s early name was Ali Gurshasp.
or the famous Turkish forty to help him in the ● He became the Sultan in 1296 AD and ruled till
administration. 1316 AD.
● The revenue system of the Sultanate ‘Iqta System’, ● In 1303 Ala-ud-din Khilji attacked Chittor, the
was introduced by him. capital of Mewar, to marry Padmini the wife of
● He was succeeded by his son Rukn-ud-din Firuz. Chittor king Ratna Singh.
But he was later executed and Razia became the ● But Padmini and other Rajput women committed
sultan (daughter of Iltutmish). Juhar (Juhar is a mass suicide by jumping into fire,
● Sultana Razia, the only woman ruler of the committed by Rajput women to escape from being
Sultanate came to power in 1236 AD and reigned polluted by others)
till 1240 AD. Sultana Razia rejected the Pardah, ● Padmavat is a historical kavya about Padmini
she adorned the male dress and held open courts. episode written by Malik Muhammad Jayasi.
● On October 14, 1240 both Razia and Altunia, who ● Malik Muhammed Jayasi was the court poet of
earlier raised arms against Razia but later joined Sher shah suri.
with her were, beheaded at Kaithal. ● Ala-ud-din Khilji was the first Muslim ruler to at -
● Ghiyas-ud-din Balban ‘a slave water carrier, tack South India.
huntsman, noble, statesman' became the Sultan of ● He was the most famous ruler of the Khilji
Delhi in 1266 AD and continued in power till 1286 Dynasty.
AD. ● He was the Sultan of Delhi who banned the use of
● Balban is considered to be the founder of Second liquor.
Ilbari Dynasty. ● Ala-ud-din had a dream of World Conquest so he
● Balban described himself as ‘shadow of God’ or assumed the title ‘Sikandar-i-sani’ or Second
the ‘vice-regent of God on Earth’ (Zil-i-illahi). Alexander.
● The Chalisa or forty established by Iltutmish was ● Ala-ud-din abolished the Zamindari System and
abolished by Balban. imposed tax on cattle.
● He started the Iranian system of Sijda and Paibos. ● He was the first Muslim ruler of Delhi to introduce
● He showed special favour to the poet Amir measurement of land for tax assessment.
Khusrau. ● His market regulations were to provide goods at
● After Balban’s death in 1286 AD, Qaiqabad (1287 controlled prices to the people of Delhi.
-90) became the Sulthan. ● Ala-ud-din Khilji was the first Sultan of Delhi who
● Madhavacharya of the Dwaita Philosophy got help separated religion from politics.
from Balban. ● He constructed Alai Darwaza the gate way to
Qutub Minar.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
25

● He built the city of Siri, the second of the seven ● Edward Thanas described him as ‘prince of
cities of Delhi, near Qutub Minar. moneyers’.
● The first marriage between a Muslim ruler and a ● Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was succeeded by his
Hindu princess was between Ala-ud-din and elderly cousin, Firoz Shah Tughlaq.
Kamala Devi, the widow of the ruler of Gujarat. ● Firoz Shah Tughlaq was the first Sultan of Delhi to
● Ala-ud-din Khilji was killed by his commander impose Jizya. It was a religious tax for the freedom
Malik Kafur by poisoning. of worship. He imposed it only upon Brahmins.
● Amir Khusrau was the court poet of Ala-ud-din. ● He built the city of Firozabad in Delhi. Firoz Shah
● Amir Khusrau is known as the ‘Parrot of India’. Kotla was also built by him. The gate way of
● He is considered as the Father of Urdu language Firozshah Kotla is known as Khooni Darwaza, or
and the inventor of Sitar. blood stained gate. It was constructed by Sher Shah
● Laila Majnu and Tughlaq Nama are the famous Suri.
works of Amir Khusrau. ● He transplanted two Ashokan Pillars to Firozabad.
● Ala-ud-din khilji was the first Sultan to maintain a ● He is the author of Futuhat-i-Firoz Shahi
permanent standing army. ● After Firozshah Tughlaq, Muhammad Shah
● He was responsible for the introduction of postal Tughlaq or Nasir-ud-din Muhammad came to the
system in medieval India. throne.
● It was during the period of his reign that Timur, the
Tughlaq Dynasty (1320-1412 AD) Lame or Tanerlane a Turkish conqueror of Tartar
Ghiyath-al-din Tughlaq (1320–1325 AD) tribe from Samarkhand attacked India in 1398 AD.
Muhammad bin Tughlaq (1325–1351 AD) ● Timur appointed Khizr Khan as the governor of
Firoz Shah Tughlaq (1351–1388 AD) Multan.
Ghiyas-ud-in Tughlaq II (1388–1389 AD)
Abu Bakr Shah (1389–1390 AD) Sayyid Dynasty (1414-1450 AD)
Nasir ud din Muhammad Shah III (1390–1393 AD) Khizar Khan (1414–1421 AD)
Ala-ud-Din Sikandar Shah I (1393 AD) Mubarak Shah (1421–1434 AD)
● Tughlaq Dynasty was founded by Ghiyas-ud-din Muhammad Shah (1434–1445 AD)
Tughlaq. His real name was Ghazi Malik. Ala-ud-din Alam Shah (1445–1451 AD)
● He founded the dynasty after killing Khusrau Khan ● Sayyid Dynasty was founded by Khizr Khan in
in 1320 and died during collapse of a pavilion. 1414.
● He built the Tughlaqabad Fort in Delhi, the third ● Last Sayyid Sultan was Ala-ud-din Alamshah or
city of Delhi to the east of Qutub complex. Shah Alam I. He was killed by Bahlol Lodi in 1451.
● He was the first Sultan to start irrigation works.
● He was succeeded by his son Jauna Khan, Lodi Dynasty (1451-1526 AD)
popularly known as Muhammad Bin Tughlaq. Bahlol Lodi (1451-1489 AD)
● Muhammed Bin Tughlaq is considered as the Sikandar Lodi (1489-1517 AD)
single most responsible person for the decline of Ibrahim Lodi (1517-1526 AD)
Delhi Sultanate. Bahlol Lodi (1451-1489 AD)
● Muhammad Bin Tughlaq was known as a mixture ● Bahlol Lodi founded the Lodi dynasty by usurping
of opposites, wisest fool, Pagal Badshah, the throne from the last of the Sayyid rulers.
unfortunate idealogue and the predecessor of ● Bahlol belonged to the Shahu Khel clan of the Lodi
Akbar in intellectual and religious matters. Pashtun tribe.
● He shifted his capital from Delhi to Devagiri Sikandar Lodhi (1489-1517 AD)
(Daulatabad) in 1327 AD. ● He was the son of Bahlol Lodi.
● In 1330, he introduced token currency of bronze ● In 1504, he founded the city of Agra and made it
and copper. his capital.
● Moroccan Traveller Ibn Batuta visited India during ● He introduced the Gaz-i-Sikandari
his period. (Sikandar’s yard) of 32 digits for measuring cultivated
● Ibn Batuta called him an "illstared idealist". fields.
Ibrahim Lodhi (1517-1526 AD)
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● He was the last king of Lodi dynasty and the last Guru Ram Das (1574-1581 AD)
Sultan of Delhi. ● Guru Ram Das, fourth of the ten gurus, founded the
● He was the son of Sikandar Lodi. city of Amritsar.
● He was defeated and killed by Babur in the first ● He started the construction of the famous Golden
Battle of panipat in 1526 AD. Temple at Amritsar, the holy city of the Sikhs.
BHAKTI MOVEMENTS
Guru Arjan Dev (1581-1606 AD)
Sikh Gurus
● He compiled the Adi Granth, the scriptures of the
● The era of the ten gurus of Sikhism spans from the Sikhs.
birth of Nanak Dev in 1469 AD to the life of Guru ● He requested the Muslim Sufi, Mian Mir to lay the
Gobind Singh. cornerstone of the Harmandir Sahib.
● At the time of Guru Gobind Singh’s death in 1708 ● He completed construction of Sri Darbar Sahib also
AD, he passed the title of Guru to the Sikh known as Golden Temple in Amritsar.
scripture, Guru Granth. ● He founded the town of Tarn Taran Sahib near
Goindwal Sahib.
Guru Nanak Dev (1469-1539 AD) ● He became the first great martyr in Sikh history
● Guru Nanak Dev, first of the ten gurus, founded the when Emperor Jahangir ordered his execution.
Sikh faith, introducing the concept of one God. Thus, he was hailed as Shaheedan-de-Sartaj (The
● He started the institution of Guru Ka Langar. crown of martyrs).
Langar is the term in the Sikh religion that refers to
the common kitchen where food is served to Guru Har Gobind Sahib (1606-1644 AD)
everyone without any discrimination. ● He was the son of Guru Arjan Dev and was known
● He emphasized on the equality of women and as a "soldier saint”.
rejected the path of renunciation and the authority ● He organised a small army and became the first
of the Vedas. Guru to take up arms to defend the faith.
● He was the contemporary of Mughal emperor - ● He waged wars against Mughal rulers Jahangir and
Babur. Shah Jahan.
● He assumed the title 'Sachcha Padshah'.
Guru Angad Dev (1539-1552 AD)
● Guru Angad Dev, second of the ten gurus, invented Guru Har Rai Sahib (1644-1661 AD)
and introduced the Gurmukhi (written form of ● Though he was a man of peace, he never disbanded
Punjabi) script. the armed sikh warriors who were earlier
● He compiled the writings of Nanak Dev in Guru maintained by Guru Har Gobind.
Granth Sahib in Gurmukhi Script. ● He gave shelter to Dara Shikoh, the eldest son of
● Popularized and expanded the institution of Guru Mughal Ruler Shah Jahan, who was later
ka Langar which was started by Guru Nanak Dev. persecuted by Aurangzeb.
● He cautiously avoided conflict with Emperor
Guru Amardas Sahib (1552-1574 AD) Aurangzeb and devoted his efforts to missionary
● Guru Amardas introduced the Anand Karaj work.
marriage ceremony for the Sikhs, replacing the
Hindu form. Guru Har Krishan Sahib (1661-1664 AD)
● He established Manji and Piri system of religious ● Guru Har Krishan was the youngest of the Gurus.
missions for men and women respectively. He was installed as Guru at the age of five.
● He strengthened the tradition of Guru Ka Langar. ● He was contemporary of Aurangzeb and was
● He also completely abolished amongst the Sikhs, summoned to Delhi by him under framed charges
the custom of Sati and purdah system. of anti-Islamic blasphemy.
● He was the contemporary of Mughal emperor -
Akbar. Guru Tegh Bahadur Sahib (1665-1675 AD)
● He established the town of Anandpur.
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27

● He opposed the forced conversion of the Hindu ● Later he founded his own sect and preached his
Kashmiri Pandits by Mughal ruler Aurangzeb and principles in Hindi at Banaras and Agra.
was consequently persecuted for this. ● Ramananda was the first to employ the vernacular
medium to spread his ideas.
Guru Gobind Singh Sahib (1675-1708 AD) ● He opposed the caste system and chose his
● He became Guru after the martyrdom of his father disciples from all sections of society irrespective of
Guru Tegh Bahadur. caste.
● He created 'Khalsa' in 1699, changing the Sikhs Ramananda’s disciples were:
into a saint-soldier order for protecting themselves. ● Kabir
● He was the last Sikh Guru in human form as he ● Ravidas, he was a cobbler
passed the Guruship of the Sikhs to the Guru ● Sena, he was a barber
Granth Sahib. ● Sursurananda
● Sursuri
Guru Granth Sahib ● Padyawati
● Anantananda
● Guru Granth Sahib (also known as the Adi Granth)
● Sukhanand
is the scripture of the Sikhs.
● Bhavanand
● The Granth was written in Gurmukhi script and it
● Dhanna, he was a Jat farmer
contains the actual words and verses as uttered by
● Naraharai, he was a goldsmith
the Sikh Gurus.
● Pipa, he was a Rajput prince
SOME OTHER SAINTS/GURUS
Kabir
Ramanuja
● Kabir was the most famous disciple of Ramananda.
● He was born in Sriperumbudur near modern
● He was brought up by a Muslim couple who were
Chennai.
weavers by profession.
● He preached Visishtadvaita in the 12th century.
● He had a curious mind in learning new things and
● According to him God is Saguna Brahman.
he learnt much about Hinduism in Banaras.
● He encouraged Prapatti marga or path of self-
● Kabir’s aim was to reunite Hindus and Muslims
surrender to God.
and establish harmony between them.
● He invited the downtrodden to Vaishnavism
● He is regarded as the greatest of the mystic saints.
● His followers are called Kabirpanthis.
Surdas
● He was the disciple of Vallabhacharya Chaitanya
● He popularized Krishna cult in the Northern part of
● Chaitanya was another renowned saint and
India
reformer of Bengal who popularised the Krishna
cult.
Mirabai
● He believed that a devotee can feel the presence of
● She was a great devotee of Krishna. God through song, dance, love and devotion.
● She became popular in Rajasthan for her bhajans.
Jnanadeva
Tulsidas
● He was the founder of the Bhakti Movement in
● He was a worshipper of Rama. Maharashtra in the 13th century.
● He composed the famous Ramcharitmanas, the ● It was called Maharashtra dharma.
Hindi version of Ramayana. ● He wrote Jnanesvari, a commentary of Bhagvad
Gita.
Ramananda
● He was born in Allahabad. Namdeva
● Initially he was a follower of Ramanuja. ● In the 16th Century, Namdeva preached the gospel
of love.
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28

● He opposed idol worship and dominance of priests. ● He was buried at Arambagh in Agra for sometime
● He criticized the caste system. and later shifted to Kabul according to his wish.
● He wrote his own biography 'Tuzuk-i-Baburi' in
Eknath Turkish. It was translated into Persian by Abdur
● He was a prominent Marathi Saint, a scholar and Rahim Khan-i-Khanan and is known as
religious poet of the Varkari Sampradaya. Baburnama.
● He opposed caste differences and was kind towards
the lower castes. Humayun (1530-1540 AD)
● He is known as a bridge between his predecessors ● Humayun was the eldest son of Babur.
Dnyaneshwar and Namdev and the later Tukaram ● Humayun had to march against the fort of Kalinjar
and Ramdas. in Bundelkhand just after six months of his
coronation in 1531 AD.
Tukaram ● In 1532, at a place called Dadhra, he defeated the
● Tukaram was another Bhakti saint of Maharashtra Afghan forces.
and was a contemporary of Sivaji. ● On 26th June 1539, 'Battle of Chausa' was fought
● Tukaram is also referred to as Saint Tukaram, between Sher Shah and Humayun's army.
Bhakta Tukaram, Tukaram Maharaj, Tukoba and ● Humayun was defeated badly. He barely escaped
Tukobaraya. his life from the battle field, swimming, across the
● He was a 17th century poet-saint of the Bhakti Karamnasa river with the help of a water carrier.
movement. ● Humayun reached Agra to negotiate with his
● Tukaram is best known for his Abhanga- brothers. But as they were not cooperative,
devotional poetry and kirtans – community- Humayun was forced to fight with Sher Shah alone
oriented worship with spiritual songs. in the Battle of Bilgram in 1540.
● His poetry was devoted to Vitthala or Vithoba, an ● This battle was also known as 'Battle of Kanauj'.
avatar of Hindu god Vishnu. Humayun was thoroughly defeated by Sher Shah.
● Responsible for creating a background for Maratha ● After losing his kingdom, Humayun went to exile
nationalism. for the next fifteen years.
THE MUGHAL EMPIRE
Sher Shah Suri (1540-1545 AD)
Babur (1526-1530 AD) ● The founder of the Suri dynasty was Sher Shah,
● Babur was the founder of Mughal Empire in India. whose original name was Farid. He was the son of
His real name was Zahir-ud-din Muhammad Hasan Khan, a jagirdar of Sasaram in Bihar
Babur. ● Sher Shah waged extensive wars with the Rajputs
● Babur's first invasion of India was directed against and expanded his empire.
the Yusufzai tribe in 1519 AD. He captured Bhira ● His empire consisted of the whole of North India
during this expedition and used gun-powder for the except Assam, Nepal, Kashmir and Gujarat.
first time. ● The king was assisted by four important people
● On 21st April 1526, the first Battle of Panipat took ▪ Diwan-i-Wizarat – Department of Revenue
place between Babur and Ibrahim Lodi, who was and Finance.
killed in the battle. ▪ Diwan-i-Ariz – Department of Army.
● In 1527, he also defeated Rana Sanga, who ▪ Diwan-i-Rasalat – Department of Foreign
considered Babur as a foreign invader, in the Battle affairs.
of Khanwa. ▪ Diwan-i-Insha – Royal secretariat.
● In 1528, Babur followed up his successes at ● Sher Shah’s empire was divided into forty seven
Khanwa and led a campaign against Medini Rai of sarkars. Chief Shiqdar (law and order) and Chief
Chanderi in Malwa. Munsif (judge) were the two officers in charge of
● In May 1529 AD Battle of Ghagra took place the administration in each sarkar.
between Babur and the Afghans. ● Each sarkar was divided into several parganas.
● Babur died on 26 December 1530 at the age of 48. Shiqdar (military officer), Amin (land revenue),
Fotedar (treasurer) and Karkuns (accountants)
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29

were in charge of the administration of each ● In the second Battle of Panipat in 1556, Hemu was
pargana. almost at the point of victory. But an arrow pierced
● There were also many administrative units called his eye and he became unconscious.
iqtas. ● His army fled and the fortune favoured Akbar. The
● The land revenue administration was well Mughal victory was decisive.
organized under Sher Shah. Land survey was ● During the first five years of Akbar’s reign, Bairam
carefully done. All cultivable lands were classified Khan acted as his regent. He consolidated the
into three classes – good, middle and bad. Mughals.
● The state’s share was one third of the average ● After five years he was removed by Akbar due to
produce and it was paid in cash or crop. court intrigues and sent to Mecca. But on his way,
● Sher Shah introduced new silver coins called Bairam was killed by an Afghan.
“Dam” and they were in circulation till 1835. ● He conquered northern India from Agra to Gujarat
● He had also improved the communications by and then from Agra to Bengal. He strengthened the
laying four important highways. northwest frontier. Later, he went to the Deccan.
● Generally tolerant towards other religions, he ● He married the Rajput princess, the daughter of
employed Hindus in important offices. Raja Bharmal. It was a turning point in the history
● Malik Muhammad Jayasi wrote the famous Hindi of Mughals. Rajputs served the Mughals for four
work Padmavat during his reign. generations.
● After Sher Shah’s death in 1545, his successors ● Raja Bhagwan Das and Raja Man Singh were given
ruled till 1555 when Humayun reconquered India. senior positions in the administration by Akbar.
● He abolished the pilgrim tax and later the Jizya in
Humayun (1555-1556 AD) 1562.
● Humayun considered that the time was ripe to ● In the Battle of Haldighati, Rana Pratap Singh was
make a come back to India. severely defeated by the Mughal army led by Man
● He reached Peshawar in December 1554 where Singh in 1576.
Bairam Khan met him after crossing the Indus ● Akbar rose to fame in the pages of history due to
river. his religious policy. Various factors were
● On 15th May, 1555, the Mughals fought a responsible for his religious ideas.
successive battle against the Afghans at ● He allowed his Hindu wives to worship their own
Machhiwara. gods.
● One more battle was fought at Sirhind against ● In 1575, he ordered the construction of Ibadat
Sikandar Suri. Khana (House of worship) at his new capital
● On 23rd July, his coronation was organized for the Fatepur Sikri.
second time. ● Akbar invited learned scholars from all religions
● On 27th January, 1556, he fell from the stairs of like Hinduism, Jainism, Christianity and
Sher Mandal, a Library at Dinpanah and died. Zoroastrianism.
● His wife, Haji Begum, constructed a beautiful tomb ● In 1579, he issued the “Infallibility Decree” by
near the fort of Dinpanah. which he asserted his religious powers
● Architect of this tomb was Mirak Mirza Ghiyath. ● In 1582, he promulgated a new religion called Din-
● He constructed two mosques, one at Agra and the i-Ilahi or Divine Faith. It believes in one God. It
other at Fatehabad in Hissar. contained good points of all religions. Its basis was
rational. It upholds no dogma. It was aimed at
Akbar (1556-1605 AD) bridging the gulf that separated different religions.
● The land revenue system of Akbar was called Zabti
● Akbar was one of the greatest monarchs of India. or Bandobast system
He succeeded the throne after his father ● It was known as Dahsala System which was
Humayun’s death. But his position was dangerous completed in 1580. By this system, Todar Mal
because Delhi was seized by the Afghans. introduced a uniform system of land measurement.
● Their commander-in-Chief, Hemu, was in charge
of it.
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30

● Akbar introduced the Mansabdari system in his Bengal), Aurangzeb (governor of Deccan) and
administration. Under this system, every officer Murad Baksh (governor of Malwa and Gujarat).
was assigned a rank (mansab). ● Aurangzeb emerged victorious in this struggle. He
entered the Agra fort after defeating Dara. He
Jahangir (1605-1627 AD) forced Shah Jahan to surrender.
● Prince Salim who assumed the title of Noor-ud-din ● Shah Jahan was confined to the female apartments
Muhammad Jahangir was born in 1569 AD at in the Agra fort and strictly put under vigil. But he
Fatehpur Sikri near Agra. was not ill-treated.
● Rahim Khan-i-Khana was appointed his tutor ● Shah Jahan lived for eight long years lovingly
● His son Khusrau revolted but was defeated and nursed by his daughter Jahanara. He died in 1666
imprisoned. and buried beside his wife’s grave in the Taj Mahal.
● One of his supporters, Guru Arjan Dev, the fifth
Sikh Guru, was beheaded. Aurangzeb (1658-1707)
● Jahangir occupied Kangra fort in 1620. ● Aurangzeb became victorious after the brutal war
of succession among his brother Dara, Shuja and
Nur Jahan Murad.
● In 1611, Jahangir married Mehr-Un-Nisa who was ● Rebellions during his rule – Jat Peasantry at
known as Nur Jahan (Light of World). Mathura, Satnami peasantry in Punjab and
● Nur Jahan’s elder brother Asaf Khan was Bundelas in Bundelkhand.
appointed as Khan-i-Saman, a post reserved for the ● The annexation of Marwar in AD 1658 led to a
nobles. In 1612, Asaf Khan’s daughter, Arjumand serious rift between Rajputs and Mughals after the
Banu Begum (later known as Mumtaj), married death of Raja Jaswant Singh.
Jahangir’s third son, prince Khurram (later Shah ● Ninth Sikh Guru, Guru Tegh Bahadur was
Jahan). executed by him in AD 1675.
● It is clear that Nur Jahan dominated the royal ● Mughal conquests reached territorial climax during
household and set new fashions based on Persian his reign.
traditions ● It stretched from Kashmir in North to Jinji in South,
● She was a constant companion of Jahangir and from the Hindukush in West to Chittagong in East.
even joined him in his hunting ● He was called Zinda Pir or a living saint. He
● The rise of Shah Jahan was due to his personal forbade Sati. Conquered Bijapur (AD 1686) and
ambitions. He rose in revolt against his father who Golconda (AD 1687) and reimposed Jizya in AD
ordered him to go to Kandahar. 1679.
● He built Bibi ka Maqbara on the tomb of his queen
Shah Jahan (1627-1658 AD) Rabia-ud-Daurani at Aurangabad; Moti Masjid
within Red Fort, Delhi; and the Jami or Badshahi
● He was born in Lahore in 1592. Mosque at Lahore.
● In 1612, he got married to Arjumand Bano Begum,
daughter of Asaf Khan. Mughal Nobility
● She was given the title of Mumtaz Mahal and
Mallika-i-Zamani. ● The nobles of the Mughal period formed a
● She died while giving birth to their child and Shah privileged class. Most of them were foreigners such
Jahan constructed Tajmahal in her memory. as Turks and Afghans Many of them settled down
● Shah Jahan ordered Qasim Khan in 1632 to drive in India and made it their permanent home.
Portuguese out of Hughli.
● In 1636, the Ahom king was defeated and Agriculture
Guwahati came under Mughal king along with ● An estimate claims that the population of India at
Kamrup. the beginning of the seventeenth century was about
● The last years of Shah Jahan’s reign were clouded 125 million.
by a bitter war of succession among his four sons – ● During the seventeenth century two new crops,
Dara Shikoh (crown prince), Shuja (governor of namely, tobacco and maize were added. Potato and
red chillies came later in the eighteenth century.
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31

But, no new agricultural technique was introduced ● The foundation for the Mughal painting was laid by
during this period. Humayun when he was staying in Persia. He
● However,India was able to export food items like brought with him two painters – Mir Sayyid Ali
rice and sugar to the neighbouring countries. and Abdus Samad to India.
● Baswan, Miskina and Daswant attained great
Art and Architecture positions as Akbar’s court artists
● Some of the Mughal gardens such as the Nishat ● Historical works such as Akbarnama also remained
Bagh in Kashmir, the Shalimar Bagh at Lahore and the main themes of Mughal paintings. The most
the Pinjore garden in Punjab have survived even important work is Hamzanama, which consisted of
today. 1200 paintings. Indian colours such as peacock
● During the reign of Sher Shah, the mausoleum at blue,Indian red began to be used
Sasaram in Bihar and the Purana Qila near Delhi ● Mughal paintings reached its climax during the
were built reign of Jahangir. He employed a number of
● Large scale construction of buildings started with painters like Abul Hasan, Bishan Das, Madhu,
the advent of Akbar. He built many forts . Anant, Manohar, Govardhan and Ustad Mansur
● The most famous one was the Agra Fort. It was ● Akbar patronized Tansen of Gwalior. Tansen
built in red sandstone. His other forts are at Lahore composed many ragas. Jahangir and Shah Jahan
and Allahabad. were also fond of music.
● The climax of fort-building reached its peak during
the reign of Shah Jahan. The famous Red Fort at Language and Literature
Delhi with its Rang Mahal, Diwan-i-Aam and ● Persian language became widespread in the
Diwan-i-Khas were his creations. Mughal Empire by the time of Akbar’s reign. Abul
● Akbar also built a palace cum-fort complex at Fazl was a great scholar and historian of his period.
Fatepur Sikri (City of Victory), 36 kilometres from ● Many historical works were written during this
Agra. Many buildings in Gujarati and Bengali period. They include Ain-i-Akbari and Akbarnama
styles are found in this complex. authored by Abul Fazl.
● The Jama Masjid is a magnificent building and the ● The leading poet of that period was his brother
gateway to it is called Buland Darwaza or the Lofty Abul Faizi. The translation of Mahabharata into the
Gate. The height of the gateway is 176 feet. It was Persian language was done under his supervision.
built to commemorate Akbar’s victory over ● Utbi and Naziri were the two other leading Persian
Gujarat. poets.
● Other important buildings at Fatepur Sikri are Jodh ● Jahangir’s autobiography, Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri was
Bai’s palace and Panch Mahal with five storeys. famous for its style. He also patronized many
● During Akbar’s reign, the Humayun’s tomb was scholars like Ghiyas Beg, Naqib Khan and
built at Delhi and it had a massive dome of marble. Niamatullah.
It can be considered the precursor of the Taj Mahal. ● Shah Jahan also patronized many writers and
Akbar’s tomb at Sikandara near Agra was historians like Abdul Hamid Lahori, author of
completed by Jahangir. Padshahnama and Inayat Khan who wrote
● Nur Jahan built the tomb of Itimad-ud-Daulah at Shahjahannama.
Agra. It was constructed wholly of white marble ● His son Dara Shikoh translated the Bhagvad Gita
with floral designs made of semi-precious stones and Upanishads into the Persian language.
on the walls. This type of decoration was called ● The most influential Hindi poet was Tulsidas, who
pietra dura. wrote the Hindi version of the Ramayana, the
● The Moti Masjid at Agra was built entirely in white Ramcharitmanas.
marble. The Jama Masjid at Delhi was built in red
stone. Features of Mughal tradition can be seen in SUCCESSORS OF MUGHAL EMPIRE
the Golden Temple at Amritsar.
Muazzam 'Bahadur Shah I' (AD 1707-1712)
Paintings and Music
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● He was popularly known as Shah Alam I and called Rafi-ud-Darajat (AD 1719)
Shahi-i- Bekhabar by Khafi Khan due to his ● He was one of the Mughal rulers who ruled for a
appeasement parties by grants of title and rewards. very short period of merely a few months.
● He ascended himself on the throne in 1707 after ● During the course of Revolt of Nikusiyyar, he
killing his two brothers, and defeating Kam Baksh captured the fort of Agra and declared himself the
in the Battle of Jajau. He was the last Mughal who ruler.
enjoyed all the authority in real term.
● He tried to create affinity between Sikhs and Rafi-ud-Daula (AD 1719)
Marathas. He granted the right to collect Sardesh
Mukhi of Deccan but not Chauth to the Marathas. ● He was popularly known as ‘Shah Jahan II’.
● A fresh war of succession had started after the ● During his reign, Ajit Singh took back his widowed
death of Muazzam between his sons- Jahander daughter from Mughal haram and later she
Shah, Azim-ush Shan, Rafi-ush Shan and Jahan converted to Hindu.
Shah.
Muhammad Shah (AD 1719-48)
Jahandar Shah (AD 1712-1713) ● His birth name was Roshan Akhtar. He was
● He ascended himself on the throne after killing his ineffective, pleasure-seeking Mughal emperor of
three brothers with the help of Zulfikar Khan who India. Due to his pleasure loving attitude, he was
was the leader of Irani Party in Mughals Court. also called Rangila.
● He was puppet of Zulfikar Khan who acted as the ● During his reign, Marathas under Baji Rao, raided
defacto ruler which led to the foundation of the Delhi for the first time in Mughal history.
concept of king makers. He was also under the ● Nadir Shah of Persia invaded, with the help of
influence of his mistress Lal Kunwar which Sadat Khan and defeated Mughal army at the Battle
reminded the style of Nur Jahan. of Karnal during reign in 1739.
● He gave the title of ‘Mirza Raja’ to Jai Singh of
Malwa and ‘Maharaja’ to Ajit Singh of Marwar. Ahmad Shah (AD 1748- 1754)
● His step of giving grants of Chauth and ● Ahmed Shah Abdali, the former general of Nadir
Sardeshmukhi to Marathas led to the foundation of Shah invaded India five times during his reign.
weakening of Mughal domination. ● He was overthrown by his wazir Imad-ul Mulk who
● He encouraged Ijara System (the revenue farming/ placed Alamgir II as ruler.
contract farming and abolished Jizya).
● He was the first Mughal ruler who was killed by Alamgir II (AD 1754-1759)
Sayyid brothers- Abdullah Khan and Hassan Ali ● He was called ‘Aziz-ud-Din’.
(were the Hindustani Party leaders) in captivity. ● During his reign, the Battle of Plassey took place.
● He was killed by his wazir Imad-ul Mulk who
Farrukhsiyar (AD 1713-1719) placed Shah Alam II as ruler.
● He was known as ‘Shahid-i-Mazlum’ and was son
of Azim-ush-Shan. Shah Alam II (AD 1759-1806)
● He ascended himself on the throne with help of ● He was popularly known as ‘Ali Gauhar’ who was
Sayyid brothers- Abdullah Khan and Hassan Ali defeated in the Battle of Buxar in 1764.
(were the Hindustani Party leaders). ● During his reign, the third Battle of Panipat took
● He assigned the duty of Deccan’s governor to Chin place in 1761.
Qilich Khan who was better known as ‘Nizam-ul- ● Till 1772, he gave all his Diwani rights of Bihar,
Mulk’, who later laid the foundation of Bengal and Orissa but after 1772 with the help of
independent state of Hyderabad. Mahaji Scindia, he got back all his Diwani rights.
● Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath visited in his court to ● He was the first Mughal ruler who became East
take grant for collecting Chauth and Sardeshmukhi India Company Pensioner.
on Maratha land.
● Banda Bahadur was captured and put to death in Akbar II (AD 1806-1837)
1715 during his reign.
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33

● He was the first Mughal ruler who was under the ● The Treaty of Purandar was signed in 1665,
British protection. according to which, Shivaji had to surrender 23
● During his tenure, Mughal Empire shrunk to Red forts out of 35 forts held by him to Mughals.
Fort only. ● The remaining forts were to be left to Shivaji on
condition of service and loyalty to Mughal
Bahadur Shah (AD 1837-1862) emperor. When Shivaji visited Agra, he was
● He was the son of Akbar II and Rajput princess Lal imprisoned there.
Bai and was the last ruler of Mughal Empire. ● Shivaji escaped from Agra and began military
● During his reign, 1857 revolt took place; he was preparations. He then captured all his lost
sent to Rangoon as captive where he died in 1862. territories from the Mughals.
● He was a very good Urdu poet and his pen name ● In 1674, he assumed the title of Chhatrapati. He
was Zafar. conquered Karnataka during 1677-80 before his
death.
CAUSES OF MUGHAL’S DECLINE
The Vastness of the Empire: It was not possible to Administration under Shivaji
rule over the entire area without any cooperative ● He was a great administrator. He had a council of
federalism. Hence, the Empire began to sink due to ministers called Asthapradhan. Each minister was
its own reason. directly responsible to Shivaji.
Centralized Administration: The vast Empire cannot ● He divided the Maratha territory into three
rule without decentralization and their provinces under a viceroy. Provinces were then
coordination. divided into prants, further subdivided into
Responsibility of Aurangzeb: His religious policy, Paraganas.
Rajput Policy, and Deccan Policy led ● The lowest unit was village, headed by Patel.
disappointments to his subjects who made way to The ministers in Shivaji’s council of ministers:
disintegration. ● Peshwa: Initially finance and general
Wars of Succession: Prolong war of succession administration. Later became Prime Minister.
fractured the administrative unit of Mughals. ● Sar-i-Naubat or Senapati: Military commander.
Weakness of the Nobility: Mughal’s nobles were well ● Majumdar(Amatya): Revenue and accounts
known for their loyalty but war of succession ● Waqia-Nawis(Mantri): Intelligence, postand home
degenerated the nobility. affairs.
THE MARATHAS (1649-1748 AD) ● Sur Nawis(Sachiv): Head of Royal corresponsence
● The Marathas rose to power under Shivaji. He was ● Sumant(Dabir): foreign affairs
born at Shivneri Fort in 1627. ● Nyayadhish: justice
● His father was Shahji Bhonsle and mother was ● Pandit Rao(Sadar): Religious administration
Jijabai. He inherited the Jagir of Poona from his
father. THE PESHWAS
● He conquered many forts like Torna, Rajgarh and Balaji Vishwanath (1713-1720 AD)
Panhala. ● He was the first Peshwa. He made the post of
● The Bijapur Sultan sent Afzal Khan against Peshwa hereditary.
Shivaji, but he was murdered by Shivaji in 1659. Balaji Vishwanath gained certain rights from the
●
● Shaista Khan, was sent by Aurangzeb against Mughal emperor Farrukhsiyar.
Shivaji. Shaista Khan defeated Shivaji and Firstly the Mughal emperor recognized Shahu as
●
captured Poona. But Shivaji made a bold attack on the Maratha king.
Shaista Khan and plundered Surat and
● Secondly, he allowed Shahu to collect Chauth
Ahmednagar.
(regularly tax) and Sardeshmukhi from six Mughal
● Raja Jai Singh of Amer was sent by Aurangzeb to
provinces in Deccan.
put down Shivaji in 1665. He succeeded in
besieging the Fort of Purandar and opened
Balaji Rao I (1720-1740 AD)
negotiations with Shivaji.
● He was the eldest son of Balaji Vishwanath. The
Maratha power reached its zenith under him.
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34

● He started the Confederacy among Maratha chiefs. ● In return for the ruler accepting its conditions, the
● Under the system of confederacy, each Maratha Company undertook to protect the state from
chief was assigned a territory which was external dangers and internal disorders.
administered autonomously. Hence, many Maratha ● If the Indian rulers failed to make the payments
families gained prominence. They were: required by the alliance, then part of their territory
▪ Gaekwad at Baroda was to be taken away as a penalty.
▪ Bhonsle at Nagpur
▪ Holkars at Indore ANGLO MARATHA WARS
▪ Scindias at Gwalior
▪ Peshwas at Poona First Anglo-Maratha War (1776-1782 AD)
● The British fought in favour of Peshwaship to
Balaji Baji Rao (1740-1761 AD) Madhav Narayan Rao. The English (under
● Balaji Baji Rao succeeded his father as Peshwa Hastings) were defeated by the Marathas.
Baji Rao I. ● They had to sign the Convention of Wadgaon in
● He entered into an agreement with the Mughal 1779, which was humiliating for the British.
emperor Ahmad Shah in 1752, according to which, ● In desperation of becoming Peshva Raghunath Rao
the Peshwas would protect the Mughal empire sought help from British by signing 'TREATY OF
from external and internal threats. SURAT'.
● For this, the Marathas would collect Chauth from ● The English later signed the Treaty of Salbai in
northwest provinces along with the total revenue 1782 where they renounced their cause of
coming from Ajmer and Agra. Peshwaship for Raghunath.
● Therefore, when Ahmad Shah Abdali invaded
India, Marathas fought third Battle of Panipat in Second Anglo – Maratha War (1803- 1805)
1761. ● British (under Wellesley) and Marathas (under
● Though Marathas fought bravely, they were Daulat Rao Scindia and Raghiyi Bhonsle) fought
defeated. This marked the decline of Maratha against each other.
power in India. ● The Maratha Peshwa Baji Rao II signed the
SUBSIDIARY ALLIANCE Subsidiary Alliance "Treaty of Bassein" in 1802.
Subsidiary Alliance is a system developed by the East ● Other Maratha chiefs who were part of Maratha
India Company mainly by Lord Wellesley. It solved the confederacy, were not happy due to this
problem of ruling a nation which is under the rule of a arrangement.
king. ● The Scindias of Gwalior began the war against the
Some Subsidiary Alliance were: British but they were defeated by the British.
● An Indian ruler entering into a subsidiary alliance
with the British had to accept British forces in his Third Anglo – Maratha War (1817-1818)
territory and also agreed to pay for their
maintenance. ● It is also known as Pindari war. Lord Hastings was
● Such a ruler would not form an alliance with any determined to proclaim British paramountcy in
other power, nor would he declare war against any India.
power without the permission of the British. ● Hastings moved against Pindaris which
● The ruler would not employ any Europeans other transgressed the sovereignty of the Maratha chiefs
than the British, and if he were already doing so, he and the war began.
would dismiss them. ● The Marathas were defeated.
● In case of a conflict with any other state, the British ESTABLISHMENT OF THE PORTUGAL
would decide what to do, and he would accept their DOMINION
solution. ● Portuguese were the first European who discovered
● The ruler would acknowledge the East India a direct sea route to India.
Company as the power in India. ● Portuguese sailor Vasco da Gama arrived at
Calicut, an important sea port located in South-
West India on May 20, 1498 AD.
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35

● King Zamorin, the local ruler received him and ● Subsequently they established trading centres in
bestowed on him certain privileges. After staying various parts of India. Dutch Suratte and Dutch
in India for a period of three months Vasco da Bengal were established in 1616 AD and 1627 AD
Gama returned respectively.
● Vasco da Gama came back to India for the second ● The Dutch conquered Ceylon from the Portuguese
time in 1501 AD. in 1656 AD. They also took over the Portuguese
● In 1505 AD, Francisco de Almeida was appointed forts on the Malabar Coast in 1671 AD.
as the first Portuguese governor in India. ● The Dutch, during their stay in India, tried their
● His policy being centric to controlling the Indian hands on the minting of coins. As their trade
Ocean was known as the Blue Water Policy. flourished, they established mints at Cochin,
● Alfonso de Albuquerque who replaced Almeida as Masulipattnam, Nagapattam, Pondicherry and
the governor in 1509 AD, and captured Goa from Pulicat.
the Sultan of Bijapur in 1510 AD is considered to ● Even more, Gold pagoda with an image of Lord
be the real founder of the Portuguese power in Venkateswara, (god Vishnu) was issued at Pulicat
India. mint.
● Goa subsequently became the headquarters of the ● The coins issued by the Dutch were all modelled
Portuguese settlements in India. on the local coinages.
● By the end of the 16th century, the Portuguese ● Amidst the saga of Dutch -Anglo -rivalry
captured not only Goa, Daman, Diu, and Salsette Travancore king Marthanda Varma gave a fatal
but also vast stretches along the Indian coast. blow to the Dutch East India Company in the Battle
● Ironically the Portuguese, who were the first to of Colachel in 1741 AD leading to complete rot of
arrive in India, were the last to withdraw from here Dutch power in Malabar region.
in 1961 AD when the Government of India ● The Battle of Bedara (25 November 1759) was
recaptured Goa, Daman and Diu from them. fought between the British Army and the Dutch
Army, in Bengal, India.
Portuguese contribution to India ● In this battle, the latter force was decisively
● They brought tobacco cultivation in India. defeated by the British forces. After defeat Dutch
● They spread Catholicism in western and eastern left India and went to Indonesia.
coasts of India. ● Dutch presence on the Indian subcontinent lasted
● They established first printing press in India in Goa from 1605 AD to 1825 AD.
in AD 1556. ‘The Indian Medicinal Plants’ was the ESTABLISHMENT OF BRITISH EAST INDIA
first scientific work which was published at Goa in COMPANY
1563. ● In 1600, the English East India Company was
● They were the first to define ‘How to establish established through a charter signed by Queen
maritime trade and supremacy over Sea’ through Elizabeth I.
Cartaz System (under this system anyone who ● In 1608, King James I of England sent Captain
passes through the Portugal territories must buy William Hawkins to the court of the Mughal
permit otherwise they are supposed to be captured.) Emperor Jahangir to obtain permission to establish
● They were the first Europeans who were a factory in Surat, but was denied any trading
responsible to spread Christianity in India and rights.
Asia. ● After defeating the Portuguese in the Battle of
ESTABLISHMENT OF THE DUTCH Swally in 1612, the East India Company gained a
DOMINION foothold in India.
● In 1602, the United East India Company of the ● They were allowed to start a trading post in Surat
Netherlands was formed and given permission by in 1613 by Emperor Jahangir whom they
the Dutch government to trade in the East Indies approached with an appeal to start a factory in Surat
including India. in 1608.
● The Dutch founded their first factory in ● In 1619, when Sir Thomas Roe visited the court,
Masulipattnam in Andhra Pradesh in 1605. they were allowed to set up their first factory in
Surat.
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36

● They founded the city of Kolkata which included ● In 1673 AD, the Mughal Subedar of Bengal
the regions of Sutanuti, Kalikota and Govindpur. allowed the French to set up a township at
● In 1640, the English built Fort St. George to protect Chandernagore.
their trade. ● The French came to India mainly with a purpose of
● In 1651, the East India Company established a trade and commerce.
factory in Bengal and slowly the conflicts between ● The French East India Company took hold of
Nawab of Bengal and the Company increased and Yanam in 1723 AD, Mahe on Malabar Coast in
resulted in the Battle of Plassey in 1757. 1725 AD and Karaikal in 1739 AD.
● The victory in the Battle of Plassey helped the ● Battle of Wandiwash, (January 22, 1760), a
Company gain power and authority and the confrontation between the French, under Count de
Nawabs of Bengal had to obey them. Lally's army, and the British, under Sir Eyre Coote,
● After the victory in the Battle of Buxar in 1764 was the 3rd carnatic war.
between the Company and the combined forces of ● The de jure union of French India with India was
Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, Mir Qasim firmed up in 1962 AD, when the French Parliament
(Nawab of Bengal) and Shuja-ud-daula (Nawab of ratified the Treaty with India to this effect.
Awadh), the Company extended its reign and
started to interfere with the internal affairs of SOME IMPORTANT ACTS
Indian princely states mainly by introducing Key Features of the Regulating Act of 1773
subsidiary alliance. ● It designated the Governor-General of Bengal and
● In 1700, they fortified the factory at Sutanati and created an Executive Council of four members to
named it Fort William. assist him. Lord Warren Hastings was the first
● Charles II, the king of England married Catherine, Governor-General of Bengal.
the daughter of the King of Portugal and got ● It provided for the establishment of a Supreme
Bombay, as a part of dowry. Court at Calcutta (1774) with one Chief Justice and
ESTABLISHMENT OF DANISH TRADE three other Judges.
MONOPOLY ● It prohibited the servants of the Company from
● Danish refers to something from or related to engaging in any private trade or accepting presents
Denmark. Denmark held colonial possessions in or bribes from the natives.
India for 225 years.
● The Danish colonies in India included the towns of Key Features of Pitt's India Act, 1784
Tranquebar (Tamil Nadu), Serampore (West
Bengal) and the Nicobar Islands ● This act made a distinction between the
● During the Napoleonic Wars (1803 AD–1815 AD),
commercial and political activities of the East India
the British invaded Danish shipping, and Company.
devastated the Danish East India Company's India ● For the first time, the term ‘British possessions in
trade and ultimately captured Danish colonies, India’ was used.
making them part of British India. ● This act gave the British government direct control
● The last Danish colonial post Serampore was ceded
over Indian administration.
to Britain by Denmark in 1845 AD. ● The Company became subordinate to the British
ESTABLISHMENT OF FRENCH EAST INDIA government unlike as in the previous Regulating
COMPANY Act of 1773, where the government only sought to
● The last European people to arrive in India were the
‘regulate’ matters and not take over.
French. ● This act established the British Crown’s authority
● The French East India Company was formed in
in civil and military administration of its Indian
1664 AD during the reign of King Louis XIV to territories. Commercial activities were still a
trade with India. monopoly of the Company.
● In 1668 AD, the French established their first
factory at Surat and in 1669 AD established another Key Features of Charter Act of 1793
French factory at Masulipattnam. ● Act provided exclusive trade privileges and further
renewed trade license for twenty years.
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37

● The realm of Governance of Governor-General ● Company’s influence was further reduced by this
increased over the Governors of Bombay and act. The Board of Directors now had 6 members
Madras. who were Crown-nominated.
● A ‘Regular code’ of all regulations that could be ● It gave birth to the Indian civil services and was
enacted for the internal Government of British open to all including Indians. This ended the
territory in Bengal was framed. The regulation was system of appointments by recommendation and
applied to the rights, persons and property of the started a system of open and fair competition.
Indian people and bounded the courts to regulate ● For the first time, local representation was
their decisions by the code itself. introduced into the legislative council in the form
of four members from the local governments of
Key Features of the Charter Act of 1813 Bengal, Bombay, Madras and North Western
● This asserted the Crown’s sovereignty over British Provinces.
India by defining the constitutional position of
British in India. Key Features of Government of India Act, 1858
● This act also empowered the local governments to ● It provided that India, henceforth was to be
impose taxes on the persons subject to the governed by, and in the name of, Her Majesty. It
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court. changed the designation of the Governor-General
● Financial provision was made to encourage a of India to that of Viceroy of India. He (viceroy)
revival in Indian literature and for the promotion of was the direct representative of the British Crown
science. in India. Lord Canning thus became the first
● This act also envisages that missionaries can go and Viceroy of India.
spread Christianity in India. ● It ended the system of dual government by
abolishing the Board of Control and Court of
Key Features of Charter Act of 1833 Directors.
● It made the Governor-General of Bengal, the ● The secretary of state was a member of the British
Governor-General of India and vested in him all cabinet and was responsible ultimately to the
civil and military powers. Thus, the act created, for British Parliament.
the first time, a Government of India having ● It established a 15-member Council of India to
authority over the entire territorial area possessed assist the secretary of state for India. The council
by the British in India. Lord William Bentinck was was an advisory body. The secretary of state was
the first Governor General of India. made the chairman of the council.
● It deprived the Governor of Bombay and Madras of
their legislative powers. The Governor-General of Government of India Act, 1861
India was given exclusive legislative powers for ● For the executive functions of the Council, a fifth
the entire British India. member was added. Now there were five members
for home, military, law, revenue and finance. (A
Key Features of Charter Act of 1853 sixth member for public works was added in 1874.)
● For the first time, the legislative and executive ● Lord Canning, who was the Governor-General and
functions of the Governor-General’s council were Viceroy at the time, introduced the portfolio
separated. system. In this system, each member was assigned
● This act served as the foundation of the modern a portfolio of a particular department.
parliamentary form of government. The legislative ● For legislative purposes, the Governor-General’s
wing of the Governor-General’s Council acted as a Council was enlarged. Now, there were to be
parliament on the model of the British Parliament. between 6 and 12 additional members (nominated
● It extended the company’s rule for an indefinite by the Governor-General).
period unlike the previous charter acts. Thus, it ● There were appointed for a period of 2 years. Out
could be taken over by the British government any of these, at least half of the additional members
time. were to be non-official (British or Indian).
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
38

● Lord Canning nominated three Indians to the ● He inspired them “to struggle unto life and death,
Council in 1862 namely, the Raja of Benares, the to bring about a new state of things -sympathy for
Maharaja of Patiala and Sir Dinkar Rao. the poor, and bread to their hungry mouths,
enlightenment to the people at large”.
Key Features of Indian Council Act, 1892 ● Vivekananda, in 1893, participated in the All
● It increased the number of additional (non-official) World Religions Conference (Parliament of
members in the Central and provincial legislative Religions) at Chicago in the U.S.A. His address
councils, but maintained the official majority in there made a deep impression on the people of
them. other countries and thus helped to raise the prestige
● It increased the functions of legislative councils of Indian culture in the eyes of the world.
and gave them the power of discussing the budget
and addressing questions to the executive. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar (AD 1820-1891)
● He introduced the study of modern western thought
SUFI MOVEMENT in the Sanskrit college.
● He played an important role in the upliftment of
Ramakrishna Mission (AD 1836-1886) widow’s and girls education.
● In order to propagate the teachings of Ramakrishna ● He was one of the contributors in passing the law
and put them into practice, Ramakrishna Mission which made widow marriage legal.
was founded in 1897 by his favourite disciple ● He started the school for girls education in Calcutta
Vivekananda. in 1849.
● The mission stood for social service. 'The best way ● He was closely associated with many journals and
to serve God is to serve mankind' was its motto. newspapers and wrote powerful articles advocating
Ramakrishna Mission, since its beginning, has social reforms.
grown into a very powerful centre of numerous ● He was a great contributor of Bengali language,
public activities. and was considered to be the originator of Modern
● These include organizing relief during floods, Bengali Language.
famines and epidemics, establishing hospitals and
running educational institutions. Raja Ram Mohan Roy| Brahmo Samaj (AD
1772-1833)
Vivekananda (AD 1863-1902) ● Raja Ram Mohan Roy was born in a well-to-do
family in Bengal, probably in 1772.
● Narendra Nath Datta who later came to be known
● His greatest achievement in the field of religious
as Swami Vivekananda.
reform was the setting up of Brahmo Samaj in
● Vivekananda had a character altogether different
1828. It was the first important organization of
from that of his master.
religious reforms. It forbade idol-worship and
● He studied Indian and Western philosophies but
discarded meaningless rites and rituals.
could not find peace of mind until he met
● The greatest achievement in the field of social
Ramakrishna. He was, however, not content with
reform was the abolition of Sati in 1829. His
just spirituality.
campaign against Sati aroused opposition from the
● The question that constantly agitated him was the
orthodox Hindus who bitterly attacked him.
degenerated condition of his motherland. After an
● Ram Mohan Roy realized that the practice of sati
all-India tour he found that “poverty, squalor, loss
was due to the extremely low position of Hindu
of mental vigour and no hope for the future were
women. He advocated the abolition of polygamy,
prevalent everywhere".
and wanted women to be educated and given the
● Vivekananda frankly stated, “It is we who are
right to inherit property.
responsible for all our misery and all our
● The two most prominent leaders of the Brahmo
degradation”.
Samaj were Debendranath Tagore and Keshab
● He urged his countrymen to work for their own
Chandra Sen.
salvation. So he took upon himself the task of
awakening his countrymen and reminding them of
their weaknesses.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
39

● To spread the message of Brahmo Samaj, Keshab ▪ To liberate the Shudras and Ati Shudras
Chandra Sen travelled throughout Madras and ▪ To prevent their exploitation by the upper caste
Bombay presidencies and later, the northern India. like Brahmins
● In 1866, there was a split in the Brahmo Samaj ▪ To spread rational thinking
when Keshab Chandra Sen and his group held ▪ To reject the need for a Brahmin priestly class
views which were more radical than those of the as educational and religious leaders
original Brahmo Samajists.
● They proclaimed freedom from the bondage of Arya Samaj
caste and customs, and from the authority of ● In 1875, Dayanand Saraswati founded the Arya
scriptures. Samaj in Bombay. Later head quarters of the samaj
● They advocated and performed inter-caste was established at Lahore.
marriage and widow remarriage, opposed the ● The members of the Arya Samaj were guided by 10
custom of purdah and condemned caste divisions. principles of which the most important one was
studying the Vedas.
Prarthana Samaj ● The rest were tenets on virtue and morality.
● The Prarthana Samaj is one of the prominent Dayanand framed for them a code of social
reform movements in western India which was conduct, in which there was no room for caste
founded in 1867 by Dr. Atmaram Pandurang, distinction and social inequality.
Mahadev Govind Ranade joined in 1870 and other ● The Arya Samajists opposed child marriage and
heads are Ramakrishna Bhandarkar and N. encouraged remarriage of widows.
Chandavarkar were against the caste system and ● A network of schools and colleges for boys and
the practice of untouchability. girls was established throughout northern India to
● The leaders of the Pararthana Samaj were promote the spread of education.
influenced by the Brahmo Samaj. They worked for ● The establishment of Dayanand Anglo-Vedic
improving the status of women and advocated (D.A.V) School of Lahore in 1886, which soon
widow remarriage. developed into a premier college of Punjab, set the
● Two other great reformers in western India were pattern for such institutions.
Gopal Hari Deshmukh 'Lokahitwadi' and Jyotirao ● The influence of Dayanand and Arya Samaj, in the
Govindrao Phule, popularly known as Jyotiba or promotion of education, upliftment of women and
Mahatma Phule. weakening the hold of the caste system was deeper
● Social Services Programmes of Pararthana Samaj than that of other reform movements.
▪ Spread female education
▪ Opening orphan homes MUSLIM SOCIO-RELIGIOUS MOVEMENTS
▪ Widow’s homes IN INDIA (1817-1898)
▪ Night schools
▪ Free clinicals Syed Ahmad Khan | Aligarh Movement
● The most important movement for the spread of
Satyashodhak Samaj modern education and social reform among
● In 1873, Mahatma Jyotiba Phule founded the Muslims was started by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan.
Satyashodhak Samaj which was open to everyone ● Syed Ahmad Khan was deeply concerned about the
without any distinction of caste and religion.Its aim depressing situation of the Muslims and raising
was to work towards winning equal rights for the them from their backwardness became his life-long
people of the oppressed castes. passion and aim.
● Mahatma Jyotiba Phule opposed the supremacy of ● In 1864, he founded the Translation Society which
the Brahmins and started the practice of arranging was later renamed ‘The Scientific Society’.
marriage ceremonies without Brahmin priests. ● His greatest achievement was the establishment of
● Jyotiba was given the title of ‘Mahatma’ in the Muhammadan Anglo Oriental College(Also
recognition of his work for the cause of the known as Aligarh Muslim University) at Aligarh in
oppressed. 1875.
● Objectives of Satyashodhak Samaj
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
40

● He interpreted Quran in the light of modern Economic Causes:

rationalism and science. ● British rule led to breakdown of the village self-
sufficiency, commercialisation of agriculture
Wahabi Movement which burdened the peasantry, adoption of free
● It was also known as ‘Waliullah Movement’ which trade imperialism from 1800, de-industrialization
started in response to the western influences and and drain of wealth all of which led to an overall
was inspired by the teachings of Abdul Wahab of decline of the economy.
Shah Waliullah who was regarded as the Indian Military Grievances:
Muslim leader. ● The extension of British dominion in India had
● The entire movement was moving around the adversely affected the service condition of the
legacy of Islam- ‘Quran and Hadis’. Sepoys. They were required to serve in areas away
from their homes without the payment of extra
Ahmadiyya Movement bhatta.
● An important cause of Military discontent was the
● This movement was started by Mirza Ghulam General Service Enlistment Act, 1856, which made
Ahmed in 1889 in order to spread western it compulsory for the sepoys to cross the seas,
education among Indian Muslims. whenever required. The Post Office Act of 1854
● The movement was based on liberal principles, just withdrew the free postage facility for them.
like Brahma Samaj. Political Causes:
● The last major extension of the British Indian
The Deoband School territory took place during the time of Dalhousie.
● This movement was started against the liberal ● Dalhousie announced in 1849, that the successor of
movement by the orthodox Muslim Ulema to teach Bahadur Shah II would have to leave the Red Fort.
the real essence of Islam on the basis of Quran and ● The annexation of Baghat and Udaipur were
Hadis, and also to preach the concept of Jihad however, cancelled and they were restored to their
against the foreign rule. ruling houses.
● The Deoband Movement was begun at the Darul ● When Dalhousie wanted to apply the Doctrine of
Uloom, Deoband in Saharanpur, District (United Lapse to Karauli (Rajputana), he was overruled by
Provinces) in 1856 by Muhammad Qasim Nanotavi the court of Directors.
and Rashid Ahmed Gangoli to train religious Different leaders associated with the Revolt of 1857
leaders for the Muslim community.
Barrackpore Mangal Pandey
THE REVOLT OF 1857
The Revolt of 1857 was a prolonged period of armed Delhi Bahadur Shah II, General Bakht
uprising as well as rebellions in Northern and Central Khan and Hakim Ahsanullah
India against British occupation of that part of the (Chief advisor to Bahadur Shah
subcontinent. II)

Causes of 1857 Revolt Lucknow Begum Hazrat Mahal, Birjis

Qadir, Ahmadullah (advisor of
Social and Religious Causes:
the ex-Nawab of Awadh)
● The British had abandoned its policy of non-
interference in the socio-religious life of the Kanpur Nana Sahib, Rao Sahib (nephew
Indians. of Nana), Tantia Tope,
● Abolition of Sati (1829), Hindu Widow Azimullah Khan (advisor of
Remarriage Act (1856). Christian missionaries Nana Sahib)
were allowed to enter India and carry on with their
mission of proselytizing. Jhansi Rani Laxmibai
● The Religious Disabilities Act of 1850 modified
the traditional Hindu law of property. According to Bihar Kunwar Singh, Amar Singh
it, the change in religion would not debar a son (Jagdishpur)
from inheriting the property of his heathen father.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
41

Allahabad and Maulvi Liyakat Ali ● The army was carefully reorganised to prevent the
Banaras recurrence of such an event.

Faizabad Maulvi Ahmadullah (He declared Governors of Bengal (1757-1774)

the Revolt as Jihad against
English) Names Year Involvement
Farrukhabad Tufzal Hasan Khan Robert 1757-1760 He established Dual
Clive & Government in
Bijnaur Mohammad Khan 1765-1767 Bengal
Vansittart 1760-1765 The Battle of Buxar
Muradabad Abdul Ali Khan Cartier 1769-1772 Great Bengal Famine
Warren 1772-1774 Abolished Dual
Bareilly Khan Bahadur Khan Hastings Government

Mandsor Firoz Shah GOVERNOR GENERALS OF BENGAL (1774-

1834)
Gwalior/Kanpur Tantia Tope
Warren Hastings (1774-1785)
Assam Kandapareshwar Singh, ● Founded the “Asiatic Society of Bengal” with
Manirama Datta William Jones in 1784.
● Deprived Zamindars of their judicial powers and
Orissa Surendra Shahi, Ujjwal Shahi civil and criminal courts were established.
● He appointed collectors and other revenue officials
Kullu Raja Pratap Singh to collect land revenue.
● He engaged Marathas with the Treaty of Salbai in
Rajasthan Jaidayal Singh and Hardayal 1782.
Singh He was involved in second Anglo-Mysore war.
●
Gorakhpur Gajadhar Singh
Sir John Macpherson (1785-1786)
Mathura Sevi Singh, Kadam Singh ● He was the acting Governor General during this
period.
Causes of Failure Lord Cornwallis (1786-1793)
● Some of the local rulers like Scindia of Gwalior, ● He was the first person to codify laws. The code
the Holkar of Indore, the Nizam of Hyderabad, the separated the revenue administration from the
Raja of Jodhpur, the Nawab of Bhopal, the rulers administration of Justice.
of Patiala, Sindh and Kashmir and the Rana of ● He also introduced permanent settlement in
Nepal provided active support to the British. Bengal.
● The military equipment of the rebels was inferior. ● Lord Cornwallis was involved in the third Anglo-
Comparative lack of efficient leadership. Mysore war (defeated Tipu Sultan). He introduced
● The modern intelligent Indians also didn't support ‘Civil Services‘ in India.
the cause.
Sir John Shore (1793-1798)
Impact of the Revolt
● He introduced the first Charter Act in 1793.
● The revolt was mainly feudal in character carrying
with it some nationalist elements. Lord Wellesley (1798-1805)
● The control of Indian administration was passed on
to the British Crown by the Government of India ● He started the Subsidiary Alliance Policy. He is
Act, 1858. also known as ‘Lord Mornington‘.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
42

● During his tenure, Madras Presidency was formed. ● He brought an end to Afghan war and abolished
● Fourth Anglo-Mysore war (Tipu Sultan Died), slavery.
Second Anglo-Maratha war; Treaty of Bassein
(1802). Lord Hardings I (1844 – 1848)
● He was in involved in first Anglo-Sikh war.
Lord George Barlow (1805-1807)
● Vellore Mutiny (1806) Lord Dalhousie (1848-1856)
● He is famous for his Widow Remarriage Act which
Lord Minto I (1807-1813) was passed in 1856.
● Treaty of Amritsar signed with Ranjit Singh in ● He opened the first Indian Railway in 1853 from
1809. Bombay to Thane. Introduced Centralized Control
● Passed Charter Act 1813. Policy.
● He started electric telegraph service from Calcutta
Lord Hastings (1813-1823) to Agra. He started the work on Grand Trunk road.
● Adopted the policy of intervention and war. War: He made Simla the summer capital. He also passed
Anglo-Nepal War and Third Anglo-Maratha war ‘Wood’s Dispatch’.
(1816-1818). ● He introduced Doctrine of Lapse.
● He established Ryotwari system in Madras and the
Mahalwari system in Central India, Punjab and Lord Canning (1856-1858)
western UP. ● He was the last Governor General of India. He
withdrew the Doctrine of Lapse. Revolt of 1857
Lord Amherst (1823-1828) broke out during his tenure.
● The First Anglo-Burmese war (1824) was fought. VICEROYS OF INDIA (1858-1947)

Lord William Bentinck (1828-1833) Lord Canning (1858-1862)

● He was the most liberal and enlightened Governor ● He was the first Viceroy of India.
General of India. ● He passed the 'Indian Council Act' of 1861. This
● He abolished Sati rites in 1829 and eliminated Act proved to be the landmark in the Constitutional
Thugs in 1830. history of India.
● He passed the Charter Act of 1833. ● He established the High Courts in Calcutta,
GOVERNOR GENERALS OF INDIA (1833-1858) Bombay and Madras in 1862.
● He also established three Universities: The
Lord William Bentinck (1833-1835) University of Calcutta, Bombay and Madras.
● He was the first Governor General of India and was Lord Elgin I (1862-1863)
regarded as the 'Father of Modern Western
Education in India' for introducing English as the ● Involved in Wahabi Movement and tried to
medium of instruction. suppress this movement.

Sir Charles Metcalfe (1835-1836) Sir John Lawrence (1864-1869)

● Abolished all restrictions on vernacular press and ● He opened telegraphic communication between
was called Liberator of the press. India and Europe.
● He also expanded railways canal works in India.
Lord Auckland (1836-1842) “Indian Forest Department” was also created
during his tenure.
● First Afghan war, which proved to be a disaster for
the English.
Lord Mayo (1869-1872)
Lord Ellenborough (1842-1844)
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
43

● He started the process of financial decentralization ● Appointed Police Commission. He passed

in India. Established Mayo College at Ajmer and ‘Ancient Monuments Protection Act’ in 1904.
Rajkot college at Kathiawar.
● First census in India was held in 1871 during his Lord Minto II (1905-1910)
tenure. ● Morley-Minto Reforms or the 'Indian Council Act'
● He was killed in office by a Pathan convict in the of 1909 was passed during his tenure.
Andamans in 1872.
Lord Hardinge (1910-1916)
Lord Northbrook (1872-1876)
● Annulment of Partition of Bengal in 1911.
● Involved in Kuka Movement of Punjab. ● He transferred the capital from Calcutta to Delhi in
1911.
Lord Lytton (1876-1880) ● Third Delhi Durbar was held to celebrate
● He was the most infamous Viceroy in India. He coronation of King George V.
arranged the ‘Grand Delhi Durbar’ in Delhi in 1877 ● Mahatma Gandhi came back to India (in 1915)
and Queen Victoria was declared as ‘Kaiser-i- from South Africa during his tenure.
Hind’. ● Annie Besant announced the Home Rule
● He passed ‘Royal Title Act in 1876, Arms Act, in Movement.
1878 and 'Vernacular Press Act' in 1878.
Lord Chelmsford (1916-1921)
Lord Ripon (1880-1884) ● Montague-Chelmsford reforms or the Government
● He was the first Viceroy of India who repealed the of India Act, 1919 was passed.
Vernacular Press Act (1882) and sympathized with ● Jallianwalla Bagh massacre took place on April 13,
the Indian people. 1919.
● He passed the local 'Self-Government Act', 'Land ● Rowlatt Act passed in 1919.
Revenue Policy' resolution in 1882 and the 'First ● August Declaration of 1917 was passed wherein
Factory Act' in 1881 aimed at prohibiting child control over the Indian Government would be
labour. gradually transferred to the Indian people.

Lord Dufferin (1884-1888) Lord Reading (1921-1926)

● He was involved in the third Burmese War in 1885. ● Rowlatt Act was repealed along with Press Act of
● Indian National Congress was established during 1910, cotton excise, Criminal law Amendment Act
his tenure. etc.
● Swaraj Party was formed in India.
Lord Lansdowne (1888-1894) ● Vishwabharati University opened.
● He passed the Second Factory Act in 1891, 'Indian
Council Act' of 1892. Lord Irwin (1926-1931)
● Appointment of Durand Commission took place ● First Round Table conference held in England in
during his tenure to define the boundary between 1930.
British India and Afghanistan. ● Simon Commission (1928) was imposed on
Indians and Gandhi-Irwin pact was signed in 1930
Lord Elgin II (1894-1899) to withdraw Civil Disobedience movement.
● During his regime, the boundaries of China and
Siam were demarcated. Lord Willingdon (1931-1936)
● Second (1931) and Third (1932) Round Table
Lord Curzon (1899-1905) Conference were held in London. Communal
● Indian University Act, 1904 was passed and Awards (1932) were announced.
partition of Bengal into two provinces (Bengal and ● Government of India Act of 1935 was passed and
East Bengal) took place in 1905 during his tenure. Poona Pact was signed during his tenure.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
44

Lord Linlithgow (1936-1944) Partition of Bengal

● Cripps Mission; Quit India Movement took place ● It was carried out by the British viceroy of India,
in 1942. Lord Curzon in AD 1905. Bengal was partitioned
due to the following reasons:
Lord Wavell (1944-1947) ● To break the growing strength of Bengali
● Cabinet Mission Plan (1946); Election to the nationalism since Bengal was the base of Indian
Constituent Assembly; Simla Conference (1945) nationalism.
were held during his interim. ● To divide the Hindus and Muslims in Bengal.
● To show enormous power of the British
Lord Mountbatten (March to August 1947) Government in doing whatever it liked.
● The partition of Bengal led to the rise of extremism
● He declared the Partition of India into two in INC.
countries, India and Pakistan on 3rd June 1947.
● Indian Independence Act passed in the British
Prominent Extremists
Parliament and India got independence on 15th
August 1947. Bal Gangadhar Tilak
● Lord Mountbatten was the last viceroy of British ● The British colonial authorities called him "The
India and first Governor General of Free India. Father of Indian Unrest".
● He retired in June 1948 and was succeeded by C. ● He was also conferred with the title of 'Lokmanya'.
Rajagopalachari (the first and last Indian His weeklies the 'Maratha' (written in English) and
Governor-General of Free India). the 'Kesari' (written in Maratha) were revolutionary
INDIAN NATIONAL CONGRESS weapons to attack the rule of British.
● The Indian National congress was formed in 1885. ● In 1916, he set up Home Rule League at Poona and
It was in fact the first all India organization. gave slogan- "Swaraj is my birthright and I shall
● The foundation of Indian National Congress was have it".
laid by A.O. Hume, a former civil servant. Lala Lajpat Rai
● Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee, a Bengali lawyer, ● He is also called the ‘Lion of Punjab’. He played
was made its first President. an important role in the Swadeshi Movement.
● The first meeting of the Indian National congress ● His famous slogan was ‘Simon Go back’.
was held at Bombay in December 1885. Its Bipan Chandra Pal
principal aim was political and economic progress ● He turned extremist from being a moderate. He
of the country. played an important role in the Swadeshi
● The fact that the Indian National congress was an Movement.
all-India organization was proven by the fact that ● He spread his ideas of nationalism throughout the
over 400 delegates from different regions of the nook and corner of India by his powerful speeches
country were elected for its second session in 1886 and writings.
which was held in Calcutta. With the founding of Aurobindo Ghosh
the Indian National Congress, India’s national ● He was another extremist leader and actively
struggle took a new turn. participated in the Swadeshi Movement.
● Some of the important leaders, who attended the
first session of the INC which was held at the Swadeshi Movement
Gokuldas Tejpal Sanskrit College, were Dadabhai ● Swadeshi Movement was started against the
Naoroji, Kashinath Trimbak Telang, Pherozeshah partition and got formal proclamation of the
Mehta, S.Subramaniam Iyer, P. Ananda movement on August 7, 1905 in a meeting held at
Charlu,Dinshaw Edalji Wacha, Gopal Ganesh the Calcutta Town hall.
Agarkar, G. Subramaniam Iyer, M. ● It was suggested by Krishan Kumar Mitra’s journal
Veeraraghavarchariar, N.G. Chandravarkar, Sanjivani in AD 1905.
Rahim-tullah M. Sayani and Womesh Chandra ● In this movement, Swadeshi leaders appealed to
Bonnerjee. Indians to boycott government services, courts,
schools and colleges, foreign goods and promote
Swadeshi goods. Promotion of National Education
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
45

through the establishment of national schools and ● It introduced separate and discriminatory electoral
colleges was emphasized. Hence, it was not only system. The electorate was decided on the basis of
political but an economical movement as well. class and community.
● Many leaders were imprisoned and deported like
Bal Gangadhar Tilak, Lala Lajpat Rai, Bipin Formation of The Ghadar Party at San
Chandra Pal and Aurobindo Ghosh. Francisco (1914)
● The Ghadar Party was an organization founded by
All India Muslim League Punjabis, principally Sikhs in the United States and
● On December 31, 1906, Muslim league was Canada with the aim of securing India's
formed under the leadership of Aga Khan, the independence from British rule.
Nawab of Dhaka, Nawab Mohsin-ul-Mulk and ● Sohan Singh Bhakna, Lala Hardayal and Kartar
Sali-mulla to the notion to safeguard the rights of Singh Sarabha were the co-founders of this party.
Indian Muslims.
● Initially, it gets great support from the British but Indian Home Rule League (1916)
when it adopted the notion of Self-rule, then they ● The Indian Home Rule movement was a movement
get destitution from them. in British India on the lines of Irish Home Rule
● The Amritsar session of the League, held in 1908, movement and other home rule movements.
under the presidentship of Sir Syed Ali Imam, ● The movement lasted around two years between
demanding a separate electorate for the Muslims, 1916–1918 and is believed to have set the stage for
was conceded by Morley-Minto Reforms 1909. the independence movement under the leadership
● Maulana Mohammad Ali started an English of Annie Besant all over India whereas B. G.
Journal ‘Comrade’ and an Urdu Paper ‘Hamdard’ Tilak's participation was limited to Western India
to propagate his anti-league views. only.
● He also started 'Al-Hilal' which served as a ● Indian Home Rule League of Tilak was launched
mouthpiece of his Nationalist views. in April 1916, while the Home Rule League of
Annie Besant came into existence in September
Surat Split (1907) that year.
● The Indian National Congress(INC) was divided
into two groups(in the year 1907) into extremists Lucknow Pact (1916)
and moderates at the Surat Session. ● Lucknow Pact, (December 1916), was an
● In 1907, the INC meeting was to be held in Pune agreement made by the Indian National Congress
and the extremists wanted Lala Lajpat Rai or Bal and the All-India Muslim League. It was adopted
Gangadhar Tilak as president. But the moderates by the Congress at its Lucknow session on
wanted Rash Behari Ghosh to be the president. December 29 and by the league on December 31,
● Gopal Krishna Gokhale changed the meeting place 1916.
from Pune to Surat fearing that if Pune was to be ● The meeting in Lucknow marked the reunion of the
held as meeting place then Bal Gangadhar Tilak moderate and extremist wings of the Congress.
would become President.
Champaran Satyagraha (1917)
Morley-Minto Reforms (1909) ● The Champaran Satyagraha of 1917, in the
● The Indian Councils Act 1909 or Morley-Minto Champaran district of Bihar during the period of
Reforms was passed by British Parliament in 1909 the British Raj, was the first Satyagraha movement
in an attempt to widen the scope of legislative inspired by Mohandas Karam Chand Gandhi and a
councils, pacify the demands of moderates in major revolt in the Indian Independence
Indian National Congress and to increase the Movement.
participation of Indians in governance. ● This movement was against the Tinkathia system.
● The act enlarged the size of the legislative Council, Under the tinkathia system, the peasants were
both Central and Provincial. bound to plant 3/20th part of their land with indigo
for their landlord.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
46

Kheda Satyagraha (1918) Jallianwala Bagh Massacre at Amritsar (1919)

● It was started by Gandhiji as the peasants of Kheda ● On April 13, 1919, which happened to be
(in Gujarat) were not able to pay high taxes due to 'Baisakhi', one of Punjab's largest religious
crop failure and epidemic. festivals, fifty British Indian Army soldiers,
commanded by Reginald Dyer, began shooting at
Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (1919) an unarmed gathering of men, women, and children
● The Montague–Chelmsford Reforms or more without warning.
briefly known as Mont-Ford Reforms were reforms
introduced by the British colonial government in Non-cooperation movement (1920)
India to introduce self-governing institutions in ● It was led by Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi after
India. The reforms take their name from Edwin the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre.
Samuel Montague, the Secretary of State for India ● It aimed to resist British rule in India through non-
during the later parts of World War I and Lord violence meaning; 'Ahimsa'.
Chelmsford, Viceroy of India between 1916 and ● The idea of Ahinsa and Gandhi's ability to rally
1921 hundred thousands of common citizens towards the
● The important features of this act were as follows. cause of Indian independence, were first seen on a
▪ The Central Legislative Council now consisted large scale in this movement.
of two houses, namely Imperial Legislative and
the Council of States. Khilafat Movement (1920)
▪ The provinces were to follow the Dual ● The Khilafat movement was an agitation by Indian
Government System or Dyarchy. Muslims allied with Indian nationalism in the years
▪ The Secretary of State and the Governor- following World War I.
General could interfere in matters of ● Its purpose was to pressure the British government
“reserved” subjects while in matters of the to preserve the authority of the Sultan of Ottoman
“transferred” subjects, the scope for their empire as Caliph of Islam following the breakup of
interference was restricted. the Ottoman Empire at the end of the war.
Rowlatt Act (1919) Moplah rebellion in Malabar (1921)
● British government in 1918 constituted a ● The Moplah Rebellion or the Malabar Rebellion
committee known as Sedition Committee or was an extended version of the Khilafat Movement
Revolutionary Conspiracies Enquiry in Kerala in 1921.
Committee with a task to present a report to ● The 1921 rebellion began as a reaction against a
government what need to be done to keep heavy handed crack down on the khilafat
check on Revolutionary Terrorist. movement by the British authorities in the eranad
● This act allowed certain political cases to be and valluvanad Taluks of Malabar.
tried without juries and permitted internment
of suspects without trial. Chauri-Chaura incident (1922)
● The act is also known as Black Act.
● The Chauri Chaura incident occurred at Chauri
Rowlatt Satyagraha (1919) Chaura in the Gorakhpur district of the United
Province, (modern Uttar Pradesh) in British India
● In the wake of this regressive act Gandhiji called a on 5 February 1922, when a large group of
satyagraha. protesters, participating in the Non-cooperation
● April 6th 1919, was observed as a day opposing the movement, clashed with police, who opened fire.
act. It was a non-violent opposition. ● The incident led to the deaths of three civilians and
● Satyagraha Sabhas were set up all over India 22 or 23 policemen. Mahatma Gandhi, who was
against the Rowlatt Act. strictly against violence, halted the Non-
● It was the first all India Satyagraha against the cooperation Movement on the national level on 12
British government. February 1922, as a direct result of this incident.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
47

Swaraj party formed (1923) ● The 1929 Lahore session under the presidency of
● The Swaraj Party or the Congress-Khilafat Jawaharlal Nehru holds special significance as in
Swarajya Party was formed on 1 January 1923 by this session "Purna Swaraj" (complete
C R Das and Motilal Nehru after the Gaya annual independence) was declared as the goal of the INC.
conference in December 1922 of the Indian ● 26 January, 1930 was declared as "Purna Swaraj
National Congress. Diwas"(Independence Day).
● Prominent leaders of the Swaraj Party included N
C Kelkar, Huseyn Shaheed Suhrawardy. Civil Disobedience Movement/Salt Satyagraha
(1930)
Simon Commission (1927) ● Salt March, also called Dandi March or Salt
Satyagraha, was a major nonviolent protest action
● The Indian Statutory Commission, commonly
in India led by Mohandas Gandhi in March–April
referred to as the Simon Commission was a group
1930.
of seven British Members of Parliament of the
● The march was the first act on an even-larger scale
United Kingdom under the chairmanship of Sir
of Civil Disobedience (satyagraha) that Gandhi had
John Allsebrook Simon.
waged against British rule in India. It extended into
● The commission arrived in British India in 1928
early 1931 and garnered Gandhi widespread
● The commission was boycotted by the Indian
support among the Indian populace and
National Congress and most other Indian political
considerable worldwide attention.
parties because Indians were excluded from the
commission.
First Round Table Conference (1930)
Bardoli Satyagraha (1928) ● The first Round Table Conference convened from
12 November 1930 to 19 January 1931.
● The Bardoli Satyagraha, 1928 was a movement in
● The Round Table Conference was officially
the independence struggle led by Sardar Vallabhai
inaugurated by His Majesty George V on
Patel for the farmers of Bardoli against the unjust
November 12, 1930 in Royal Gallery House of
raising of taxes.
Lords at London and chaired by the British Prime
Minister, Ramsay MacDonald.
Nehru Report (1928) Congress did not participate in the first conference,
●
● Demand for Dominion status (autonomous but representatives from all other Indian parties and
communities) within British Empire. a number of Princes did. (B.R Ambedkar and M.A
● Separate electorate was rejected. Seats should be Jinnah participated).
reserved for Muslims but in joint electorate.
● Universal adult franchise Gandhi–Irwin Pact (1931)
● Secular state
● Gandhi-Irwin Pact was the agreement signed on
● Freedom of workers to form unions. March 5, 1931, between Gandhi, leader of the
● Parity between men and women. Indian nationalist movement, and Lord Irwin,
▪ M. A Jinnah rejected the report. British viceroy (1926–31) of India.
● It marked the end of a period of Civil Disobedience
Central Assembly bombed by Bhagat (satyagraha) in India against British rule that
Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt (1929) Gandhi and his followers had initiated with the Salt
● Bhagat Singh and Batukeshwar Dutt threw political March (March-April 1930).
handouts and smoke bombs at the Delhi Central
Legislative Assembly Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev
● The aim behind the bombing was not to cause harm Martyred (1931)
but protest against the passing of two repressive ● On March 23, 1931, Bhagat Singh along with his
bills, the Public Safety Bill and the Trade Dispute associates Sukhdev and Shivaram Rajguru were
Bill hanged to death for the assassination of 21-year-old
British police officer John Saunders.
Lahore session (1929)
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
48

● The day they were executed is celebrated as ▪ Abolition of provincial dyarchy and
Martyrs' Day throughout the country. introduction of dyarchy at centre.
▪ Abolition of Indian Council and introduction
Second Round Table Conference (1931) of an advisory body in its place.
● The second session (September–December 1931) ▪ Provision for an All India Federation with
was attended by Mahatma Gandhi as the Congress British India territories and princely states.
representative. ▪ Elaboration of safeguards and protective
● It failed to reach an agreement, either instruments for minorities.
constitutionally or on communal representation (B. ▪ Increase in size of legislatures, extension of
R. Ambedkar and M. A. Jinnah participated here). franchise, division of subjects into three lists
and retention of communal electorate.
Communal Award (1935) ▪ Separation of Burma from India.
● On August 16, 1935, the British Prime Minister All India Forward Bloc Established by
McDonald announced the Communal Awards. Subhas Chandra Bose (1939)
Thus it is also known as McDonald Award. The All India Forward Bloc (AIFB) is a left-wing
●
● The Communal Award was basically a proposal for nationalist political party of India.
separate electorate for minority.
● It emerged as a faction within the Indian National
Congress in 1939, led by Subhas Chandra Bose.
Poona Pact (1932)
● The Poona Pact refers to an agreement between B. Lahore Resolution (1940)
R. Ambedkar and M. K. Gandhi on the reservation The All India Muslim League met in Lahore in
●
of electoral seats for the depressed classes in the March 1940. The League adopted a resolution that
legislature of British India government. is known as the Lahore Resolution.
● The agreement was signed by Pt Madan Mohan March 23, the date on which this Resolution was
●
Malviya and Dr. B. R. Ambedkar and some Dalit adopted, is celebrated in Pakistan every year.
leaders at Yerwada Central Jail in Pune, to break
● The resolution was presented at Minto Park (now
Mahatma Gandhi's fast unto death.
renamed 'Iqbal Park'), in Lahore, by Maulvi A.K.
Fazlul Huq on the instructions of the Working
Third Round Table Conference (1932) Committee.
● Third Round Table Conference was held in London
on November 17, 1932. This was just a nominal Individual Satyagraha (Oct, 1940)
conference, Congress refused to attend it.
● Gandhiji decided to launch a unique movement
● The recommendations of this conference were where he would be choosing individual leaders
published in a White Paper in 1933 and later who would appear at public places and would
discussed in the British Parliament. The deliver anti British speech.
recommendations were analysed and the
● The first leader Vinoba Bhave, and Second was J.
Government of India Act of 1935 was passed on its
L Nehru.
basis (B.R Ambedkar participated in it).
August Offer (1940)
Government of India Act 1935
● On 8 August 1940, early in the Battle of Britain,
● The Government of India Act, 1935 was passed by the Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, made the
British Parliament in August 1935. With 321 so-called "August Offer", a fresh proposal
sections and 10 schedules, this was the longest act promising the expansion of the Executive Council
passed by British Parliament so far and was later
to include more Indians, the establishment of an
split into two parts viz. Government of India Act, advisory war council, giving full weight to
1935 and Government of Burma Act, 1935.
minority opinion, and the recognition of Indians'
● Salient Features of the Government of India Act right to frame their own constitution (after the end
1935 were as follows: of the war).
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
49

● In return, it was hoped that all parties and ● This plan would come into force only after British
communities in India would cooperate in Britain's departure from India.
war effort.
Wavell Plan/Shimla Conference (1945)
Cripps Mission (1942) ● Lord Wavell who had succeeded Lord Linlithgow
● The mission was headed by a senior minister Sir as Governor-General in October 1943, made a way
Stafford Cripps, Lord Privy Seal and leader of the out from the existing stalemate deadlock in India.
House of Commons. ● He broadcasted to the people of India the proposals
● The Cripps Mission was a failed attempt in late of the British Government to resolve the deadlock
March 1942 by the British government to secure in India on 14th June which is called Wavell Plan.
full Indian cooperation and support for their efforts It is also known as Breakdown Plan.
in World War II. ● Lord Wavell invited a conference of 21 Indian
political leaders at the Summer Capital of British
Quit India Movement (1942) Government Shimla to discuss the provision of
● The Quit India Movement or the August Wavell Plan.
Movement, was a movement launched at the ● Discussion was stuck at a point of selection of
Bombay session of the All-India Congress Muslim representatives.
Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 8 August 1942,
during World War II, demanding an end to British Ina Trial (Nov. 1946)
Rule of India. ● After 2nd world war almost 20,000 INA soldiers
● On August 8th 1942, Gandhi made a call to 'Do or were arrested and brought to India for their Court
Die' in his Quit India speech delivered in Bombay Martial.
at the Gowalia Tank Maidan. ● Officers produced in the court are
▪ Prem Sehgal
Indian National Army (1942) ▪ Shah Nawaz
● The Indian National Army (INA) was originally ▪ Gurbaksh Singh Dhillon
founded by Capt Mohan Singh in Singapore in ● All political parties including the Muslim league
September 1942 with Japan's Indian POWs came to protest against the trial.
● The idea of a liberation army was revived with the ● Several lawyers came together and formed a
arrival of Subhas Chandra Bose in the Far East in defence team headed by BHULABHAI DESAI to
1943. In July, at a meeting in Singapore, Rash defend these Heroes.
Behari Bose handed over control of the ● Other members of team were
organisation to Subhas Chandra Bose. ▪ J. L Nehru
● At its height, it consisted of some 85,000 regular ▪ T. B Sapru
troops, including a separate women's unit, the Rani ▪ K. N Katju
of Jhansi Regiment (named after Rani Lakshmi ▪ Asaf Ali
Bai), which was seen as a first of its kind in Asia.
● Azad Hind Radio was a propaganda radio service Royal Indian Navy (RIN) Mutiny (Feb. 1946)
started by Subhash Chandra Bose in Germany in ● The reason of the Revolt was poor food quality,
1942 to encourage Indians to fight for freedom. racial discrimination and low salary of non
commission personnel of HMIS Talwar.
Rajaji Formula (1944) ● (HMIS TALWAR was a shore establishment of
● Post war (world war II) a commission would be British Royal Indian Navy during world war II).
established to demarcate contiguous Muslim ● This is also known as Ratings Revolt as non
Majority District and a plebiscite would be held in commission personnel were known as Ratings.
these districts to know what the people wanted.
● In case of separation of India and Pakistan certain Cabinet Mission Plan (1946)
essential services would jointly be administered. ● The United Kingdom Cabinet Mission of 1946 to
India aimed to discuss the transfer of power from
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
50

the British government to the Indian leadership, ● Plan Prapose for a referendum in a district Slyhet
with the aim of preserving India's unity and (Assam) and the province of NWFP.
granting it independence. ● Paramountey would lapse over the princely state
● Formulated at the initiative of Clement Attlee, the and it would be left to them to decide their relations
Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, the mission with successor govt.
had involvement of Lord Pethick-Lawrence, the ● A boundary commission was to be formed to
Secretary of State for India, Sir Stafford Cripps, demarcate the boundaries in case partition was
President of the Board of Trade, and A. V. effected.
Alexander, the First Lord of the Admiralty.
Indian Independence Act 1947
Direct Action Day (1946) ● The Indian Independence Act 1947 is an Act of the
● On 16 August 1946 also known as the Great Parliament of the United Kingdom that partitioned
Calcutta Killings, was a day of widespread British India into two new independent dominions
communal riots between Muslims and Hindus in of India and Pakistan.
the city of Calcutta (now known as Kolkata) in the ● The legislation was formulated by the government
Bengal province of British India. of Prime Minister Clement Attlee and the Governor
General of India, Lord Mountbatten, after
Mountbatten Plan OR 3rd June Plan representatives of the Indian National Congress,the
● The legislative assembly of Bengal and Punjab Muslim League,and the Sikh community came to
would meet in two separate parts one comprising an agreement with Lord Mountbatten on what has
Muslim majority areas and other Hindu majority come to be known as the third June Plan or
areas. They would decide by a simple majority Mountbatten Plan.
regarding partition. ● This plan was the last plan paving the way to
● The legislative assembly of Sindh would decide in independence.
special meeting regarding separation.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
51

History
Practice Exercise
1. On imprisonment in 1908 by the British, Bal Persian) is regarded as the founder of
Gangadhar Tilak was sent to - Zoroastrianism, which is arguably the world's
(A) Andaman and Nicobar oldest monotheistic faith.
(B) Rangoon
(C) Singapore 5. Who was the founder of the Sayyid dynasty?
(D) Mandalay (A) Khizr Khan (B) Mubarak shah
(C) Mohammad shah (D) Alam shah
Ans.1(D) Tilak was sentenced to a jail term
from 1908 to 1914 in Mandalay in Burma. Ans.5(A) The Sayyid Dynasty was founded
While in prison, Tilak read and wrote by Khizr Khan, who was the governor of
extensively and developed his ideas on the Multan and Timur's deputy in India. This
Indian nationalism movement. dynasty ruled for 37 years from 1414 to 1451
AD by four rulers- Khizr Khan, Mubarak,
2. Who said,"A living thing is born" after the Muhammad Shah, Alam Shah.
League of Nation's Covenant was drafted?
(A) Winston Churchill 6. Mahatma Gandhi advocated a ____ economy.
(B) Woodrow Wilson (A) Local (B) Centralized
(C) Napoleon Bonaparte (C) Decentralized (D) Global
(D) Benito Mussolini
Ans.6(C) Gandhi strongly advocated
Ans.2(B) Woodrow Wilson said, “A living decentralization of economic system. liberal
thing is born” after the League of nation’s socialists emphasized the concept of
Covenant was drafted. Woodrow Wilson (28 decentralization of economic and political.
December 1856 – 3 February 1924) was an
American 28th President of the United States 7. Which one of the following was the first
from 1913 to 1921. English ship that came to India?
(A) Elizabeth (B) Bengal
3. Which among the following Mughal Emperor (C) Red Dragon (D) Mayflower
was illiterate?
(A) Shah Jahan (B) Aurangzeb Ans.7(C) The first English ship or east india
(C) Akbar (D) Babur company was 'MALICE SCOURGE' which
was constructed in the yeat 1595. Its owner
Ans.3(C) Mohammad Akbar, (born October was Earl of Cumberland.
15, 1542, Umarkot [now in Sindh province, In the year 1601 its name got changed
Pakistan]—died c. October 25, 1605, Agra, as 'RED DRAGON'. East India company used
India), the greatest of the Mughal emperors of this ship for nearly five voyages to east Indies.
India and he remained illiterate.
8. Which of the following statements is incorrect
4. The founder of the Parsi religion- about Buddhism?
(A) Laotse (B) Kung-fu-su (A) Initially it was atheistic.
(C) Joroster (D) Mikado (B) It upheld the belief in rebirth.
(C) It denied the doctrine of the Law of
Ans.4(C) The Parsi religion is the ancient Karma.
Indo-European religion of Zarathushta the (D) Many of its principles are also found in
prophet Zoroaster (Zarathrustra in ancient Upanishads.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
52

Ans.8(A) Buddhist philosophy is believed to of Hindus to Persian (Ain-i-Akbari). As per

be based on three basic principles - 1. Badauni,
Unrealism 2. Spiritualism 3. Figurativeism.
This philosophy teaches us to live fully in 11. Who was the first French governor of
reality. Pondicherry?
Atheism: Buddha does not believe in the (A) Fraco martin (B) Francis Day
authority of God because the world follows (C) Charles Eyre (D) Job Charnock
the law of metaphysics. Pratyatamasutpad i.e.
chain of causal action. There are several Ans.11(A) François Martin was the first
cycles of this series which are divided into Governor General of Pondicherry. In 1673,
twelve organs. Therefore, there is no one to Sher Khan Lodi, the governor of
run this universe. Nor any originator, because Valokondapuranam under the sultan of
saying Genesis is the end of the end. Bijapur granted Francois martin, director of
Anatomism: Anatomism does not mean that the Masulipatnam, a site for a settlement. He
there is not really a 'soul'. What people founded Pondicherry, the future capital of
consider to be a soul is an uninterrupted flow French India in 1674.
of consciousness. This flow can be
disintegrated at any time and can be absorbed 12. The followers of Gorakhnath were called
in darkness. (A) Yogis (B) Nath-Panthis
Transientism: Everything in this universe is (C) Tantriks (D) Sanyasis
transient and mortal. Nothing permanent.
Everything is variable. Ans.12(A) Gorakhnath is considered as one of
the two notable disciples of Matsyendranath.
9. What was the main goal of the Wahabi His followers are found in India at the place
movement? known as Garbhagiri which is in Ahmednagar
(A) Re-establishment of Muslim power in in the state of Maharashtra. These followers
India are called yogis,
(B) Strengthening Hindu Muslim Unity in
India 13. Who was the revolutionary who shot and
(C) Encourage modern education in India's killed Nashik Magistrate Jackson in 1909?
Muslims (A) Ganesh Chapekar (B) vinayak savarkar
(D) All of the above (C) Anant Kanhere (D) Ganesh Pingale

Ans.9(A) The main objective of the Wahabi Ans.13(C) Nasik conspiracy case. Anant
movement which during 1852-70 was Kanhere, a 17-year-old student of
particularly active in the Punjab, Bengal, Aurangabad, shot Jackson on 21 December
Bihar and the NWFP was to overthrow the 1909 at a theater where a drama was to stage
Sikhs in the Punjab and the British in Bengal in his honor on the eve of his transfer.
and to restore Muslim power in India.
14. Who was the son of Chandragupta Maurya?
10. Who among the following had translated the (A) Bindusara (B) Chandragupta II
Atharvaveda into Persian in the Mughal (C) Ashoka (D) Bimbisara
period?
(A) Abdul Hamid Lahori Ans.14(A) Bindusara was the second
(B) Hazi Ibrahim Sarhindi Mauryan emperor of India. He was the son of
(C) Khafi Khan the dynasty's founder Chandragupta, and the
(D) Malik Muhammad Jayasi father of its most famous ruler Ashoka.

Ans.10(B) Haji Ibrahim Sirhindi translated 15. The Translation of which of the following text
Atharva Veda, one of the four divines books is known as Razmnamah?
(A) Ramayana (B) Lilavati
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
53

(C) Atharvaveda (D) Mahabharata (A) Razia Sultana (B) Noor Jahan
(C) Maham anga (D) Rukkiya begum
Ans.15(D) The Razmnāma (Book of War) a
Persian translation of the Mahabharata. In Ans.19(A) Razia Sultan was born in year
Persian, “Razm” means “war” and "nama" 1205 and her ruled the country from 1236-
means “tale” or “epic”; the name Razmnamah, 1240. Razia Sultan was the first Muslim
therefore, means a tale of war. woman who was involved in the throne of
Delhi. She succeeded her father Shams-ud-din
16. The Vijaynagar ruler Krishna Dev Raya's Iltutmish and turned into the Sultanate of
work 'Amuktamalayada' was written in which Delhi in 1236.
language?
(A) Marathi (B) Malayalam 20. Who among the following received both
(C) Kanada (D) Telugu Bharat Ratna and Nishane-Pakistan?
(A) JawaharLal Nehru
Ans.16(D) Krishna Dev Raya was the third (B) Morarji Desai
ruler of the Tuluva Dynasty, and presided (C) Maulana Abdul Kalam Azad
over the Vijaynagar empire at its zenith. He (D) Ayub Khan
wrote famous book Amuktamalayada in
Telugu language. He earned the title of Ans.20(A) Morarji Desai (29 February, 1896
'Kanvada Rajya Rama Ramana, Andhra – 10 April, 1995) was an Indian independence
bhoj'.'' activist and the fourth Prime Minister of India
from 1977 to 1979. He was also the Prime
17. In terms of India's art and archaeological Minister to head the first non-Congress
history, which one of the following was first Government of India. he was conferred with
created? Bharat Ratan and Nishaan-e-Pakistan (Order
(A) Lingraj temple located in Bhubaneswar of Pakistan), the highest civilian award in
(B) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli Pakistan.
(C) Rock-cut monuments at Mahabalipuram
(D) Varaha statue at The Udayagiri 21. Who was the founder of Slave dynasty?
(A) Iltutamish
Ans.17(B) Rock-cut Elephant at Dhauli was (B) QutubuddinAibak
created during Ashoka’s reign (272-231 BC). (C) BakhtiyarKhilji
This is the oldest among the four. (D) Balban

18. The magnificent temples of Khujarahas were Ans.21(B) The Indian slave dynasty lasted
constructed during which empire? from 1206 to 1290. The slave dynasty was the
(A) Chandela first Muslim dynasty to rule India. It was
(B) Pal founded by Sultan Qutbuddin Aibak.
(C) Chola
(D) Aallava 22. The ruins of the Vijayanagara at Hampi were
brought to light in 1800 by
Ans.18(A) The temple of Khajurahas, located (A) Colonel Colin Mackenzie
near Chhatarpur in Madhya Pradesh, is (B) Sir John Shore
famous worldwide for its wonderful artwork (C) Andrew Fraser
and erotic sculptures. The magnificent (D) John Marshall
temples of the Khujarahas were constructed
during the time of the Chandela kingdom. Ans.22(A) The ruins at Hampi were brought
Raja Chandravarman, son of Lord Chandra, to light in 1800 by an engineer and
established most of the temples of Khajurahas. antiquarian named Colonel Colin Mackenzie.
An employee of the English East India
19. Who was the first female emperor of India?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
54

Company, he prepared the first survey map of weekly news magazine Samachar Darpan
the site. which was one of the two first Bengali
newspapers (the other being Bengal Gazeti,
23. With reference to the cultural history of India, published by Ganga Kishore Bhattacharya, in
the term 'Panchayatan' refers to? the first half of 1818).
(A) An assembly of village elders
(B) Religious sect 27. Which of the following papers was essentially
(C) A style of temple construction the mouthpiece of the policies of liberals?
(D) An administrative functionary (A) New India
(B) Leader
Ans.23(C) Panchayatan is a temple that has a (C) Young India
central shrine surrounded by four other (D) Free Press Journa
shrines. A Panchayatan temple has four
subordinate shrines on four corners and the Ans.27(B) The Leader (24 October 1909 – 6
main shrine in the center of the podium, which September 1967) was one of the most
comprises their base. influential English-language newspapers in
India during British Raj founded by Madan
24. Kattaiikkattu is the famous folk drama of Mohan Malviya.
which state?
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Bihar 28. Which of the following was the only
(C) Rajasthan (D) Tamil Nadu organization of Indian labors in 1938?
(A) Indian National Trade Union Congress
Ans.24(D) Kattaikkuttu, a folk theatre form in (B) All India Red Trade Union Congress
Tamil Nadu, gains new ground, new (C) All India Trade Union Congress
spectators. Kattaikkuttu, a form of high- (D) All of the above
energy folk theatre, is rooted in the vast oral
performance tradition of rural Tamil Nadu. Ans.28(C) The All India Trade Union
Congress is the oldest trade union federations
in India. Founded: 31 October 1920.
25. India's first national news agency was- 29. After establishing political power in India,
(A) The Indian Review which of the following method/methods did
(B) The Free Press of India England adopt for the destruction of Indian
(C) The Hindustan Review industries?
(D) The Associated Press of India (A) Free British business in India
(B) Exporting raw materials in India
Ans.25(B) The Free Press of India (FPI) was (C) Building Indian Railways
the first news agency in the country to be both (D) All of the above
owned and managed by Indians. Sadanand
said that he had planned its creation in 1923 Ans.29(D) After establishing political power
and that it was actually established in 1925. in India, use methods free British business,
exporting raw materials, building Indian
26. Which of the following news paper was Railways etc.
published by Marshman?
(A) Statesman (B) Bengal Knight 30. What was the purpose with which Sir William
(C) Digdarshan (D) the Hindu Wedderburn and W.S. Caine had set up the
Indian Parliamentary Committee in 1893?
Ans.26(C) In April 1818, Marshman, together (A) To agitate for Indian political reforms in
with his father Joshua, launched the first the House of Commons
monthly magazine in Bengali, Digdarshan, (B) To campaign for the entry of Indians into
which focused on educative information for the Imperial Judiciary
the youth, and very shortly thereafter the (C) To facilitate a discussion on India's
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
55

Independence in the British Parliament

(D) To agitate for the entry of eminent Indians 34. Which of the following is not matched
into the British Parliament correctly?
(A) Champaran Satyagraha -1917
Ans.30(A) To agitate for Indian political (B) Mill Ahmedabad strike -1918
reforms in the house of commons. (C) Kheda Satyagraha -1919
(D) Rowlatt act -1919
31. Operation Rubicon was the code word
proposed to be adopted by British Ans.34(C) The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, in
Government in India with reference to which the Kheda district of Gujarat, India during the
of the following? period of the British Raj, was a Satyagraha
(A) Gandhi's fast unto death in Jail movement organised by Mohandas Gandhi. It
(B) Activities of Jai Prakash Narayan was a major revolt in the Indian independence
(C) Gandhi's participation in Round Table movement.
Conference
(D) None of the above 35. "Bagh-e Babur" where Babur is buried is
located at?
Ans.31(C) Gandhiji was getting popular with (A) Tashkent (B) Karachi
each passing day. It was a headache which (C) Lahore (D) Kabul
British had to deal with. The British wanted to
prevent Gandhiji from active participation in Ans.35(D) Bagh-e Babur is located on the
general affairs. The Code word Rubicon was slopes of Kuh-e Sher Darwaza, southwest of
given to prevent Gandhiji from meeting Irwin the old city of Kabul.
that actually led to the signing of pact.
36. In the third war of Panipat, the Maratha army
32. The battle of Khanwa in 1527 was fought was conducted by-
between- (A) Dattaji Scindia (B) Vishwas rao
(A) Babur and Rana Sanga (C) Sadashiv Rao
(B) Ibrahim Lodi and Rana Sanga (D) Malhar rao Holkar
(C) Humayun and Sher Shah Ans.36(C) The Maratha army was led by
(D) Humayun and Nusrat Shah Sadashivrao Bhau who was third in authority
after the Chhatrapati (Maratha King) and the
Ans.32(A) The Battle of Khanwa was fought Peshwa (Maratha Prime Minister). The main
near the village of Khanwa, in Bharatpur Maratha army was stationed in Deccan with
District of Rajasthan, on March 16, 1527. It the Peshwa.
was fought between first Mughal Emperor
Babur and Rana Sanga. 37. Prince Salim was later called Emperor _____.
(A) Babur (B) Humayun
33. Which of the following is not matched (C) Jahangir (D) Akbar
correctly?
(A) August Offer -1940 Ans.37(C) Prince Salim, later Jahangir, was
(B) Quit India Movement-1942 born on 31 August 1569, in Fatehpur Sikri, to
(C) Individual Satyagraha - 1940-41 Akbar and one of his wives Mariam-uz-
(D) Cripps-Proposal – 1943 Zamani.

Ans.33(D) The Cripps Mission was a failed 38. According to the categories of land mentioned
attempt in late March 1942 by the British in the Chola inscriptions _______ was known
government to secure full Indian cooperation as the land for the maintenance of schools?
and support for their efforts in World War II. (A) Vellanvagai (B) Brahmadeya
The mission was headed by a senior minister (C) Shalabhoga (D) Devadana
Sir Stafford Cripps.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
56

Ans.38(C) According to the categories of land (B) Ashwaghosh Nagarjun, Nagesin

mentioned in the Chola inscriptions was Vasumitra
known as shalabhoga was land for the (C) Ashwaghosh, Parsav, Hemchandra,
maintenance of a school. Nagarjuna
(D) Ashwaghosh, Vasumitra, Asang,
39. Who has built the Vijay Stambha (Tower of Hemachandra
Victory) in Chittorgarh?
(A) Maharana Pratap (B) Rana Kumbha Ans.42(A) Some scholars are of the view that
(C) Rana Sanga the Abhidhama Mahavishasa was prepared in
(D) Kunwar Durjan Singh the 4th Buddhist council. Some of the scholars
in the Court of Kanishka were Parsva,
Ans.39(B) The Vijaya Stambha is an Vasumitra, Asvaghosa, Nagarjuna, Charaka
imposing victory monument located within and Mathara. Charaka has been called the
Chittor Fort in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan, India. Court Physician of Kanishka
The tower was constructed by the Mewar
king, Rana Kumbha, in 1448 to commemorate 43. Which one of the following power
his victory over the combined armies of combinations conspired to loot money from
Malwa and Gujarat led by Mahmud Khilji. the Begums of Oudh?
The tower is dedicated to Vishnu. (A) Warren Hastings & Chet Singh
(B) Hastings & Nawab Wazir
40. In 1920, which of the following changed its (C) Hastings, Nawab Wazir and Chet Singh
name to "Swarajya Sabha"? (D) Hastings, Chet Singh and Mir Jafar
(A) All India Home Rule League
(B) Hindu Mahasabha Ans.43(A) Warren Hastings & Chet Singh
(C) South Indian Liberal Federation combinations conspired to loot money from
(D) The Servants of India Society the Begums of Oudh.

Ans.40(A) “All India Home Rule League” is 44. Who promoted between the public of the
the name which was changed to “Swarajya Gurmukhi script?
Sabha” at the year 1920. The “Swarajya (A) Guru Angad (B) Guru Amar Das
Sabha” was under a leadership of the (C) Guru Ramdas (D) Guru Arjun Dev
“Freedom Fighters” like “Annie Besant” and
“Bal Gangadhar Tilak" Ans.44(A) Guru Angad invented the present
form of the Gurmukhi script. It became the
41. During the reign of Farrukhsiyar, what was medium of writing the Punjabi language in
the real name of the famous King Maker which the hymns of the Gurus are expressed.
Sayyid Brother?
(A) Abdullah Khan-Hussain Khan 45. Where was the second Buddhist music held?
(B) Abdullah Khan- Sayyid Khan (A) Rajgir (B) Vaishali
(C) Hussein Khan-Mushrif Khan (C) Pataliputra (D) Kundalvan
(D) Zulfiqar Khan-Atga Khan
Ans.45(B) The Second Buddhist Council was
Ans.41(A) The term Sayyid brothers refers to held at Vaisali (or Vaishali), an ancient city in
Syed Abdullah Khan and Syed Hassan Khan what is now the state of Bihar in northern
Barha, who were powerful in the Mughal India, bordering Nepal under the patronage of
Empire during the early 18th century. King Kalasoka while it was presided by
Sabakami.
42. Kushan king was a great patron of art and
literature, which of the following were 46. "God could not be everywhere and therefore
members of his Rajya Sabha? he made mothers"- This is a famous saying by
(A) Ashwagosh, Parsav, Vasumitra Charak which of the following personalities?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
57

(A) Swami Vivekananda

(B) Rudyard Kipling Ans.50(D) Buddhism first appeared in China
(C) Ralph Waldo Emerson in the 2nd century ce. As a patron of
(D) Bob Marley Buddhism, Kaniska is chiefly noted for having
convened the fourth great Buddhist council in
Ans.46(B) Rudyard Kipling Quotes. If history Kashmir, which marked the beginnings of
were taught in the form of stories, it would Mahayana Buddhism.
never be forgotten. God could not be
everywhere, and therefore he made mothers. 51. The first Muslim invasion of India was led by
(A) Mahmud of Ghazni
47. Which of the following is linked to 'Kapha' (B) Mohammad Ghori
energy as per Ayurveda? (C) Mohammad-bin-Qasim
(A) Fire (B) Earth and water (D) Timur
(C) Air and space (D) Moon and Stars
Ans.51(C) Muhammad bin Qasim (672 CE) at
Ans.47(B) Kapha derives from the elements the age of 17 was the first Muslim general to
of Earth and Water and translates as “that invade the Indian subcontinent, managing to
which sticks.” It is the energy of building and reach Sindh.
lubrication that provides the body with
physical form, structure, and the smooth 52. After the capture of Delhi and Ajmer by
functioning of all its parts. Mohammed Ghori the successor of Prathviraj
Chauhan founded a new kingdom with its
48. Who among the following invaded India 17 capital at-
times? (A) Mewar (B) Ranthambhore
(A) Muhammad Ghori (B) Mahmud Ghazni (C) Chittor (D) Ajmer
(C) Qutubuddin Aibak (D) Iltutmish
Ans.52(B) After the capture of Delhi and
Ans.48(B) Mahmud Ghaznavi was the king of Ajmer by Mohammed Ghori the successor of
Ghazni who ruled from 971 to 1030 AD He Prathviraj Chauhan founded a new kingdom
was the son of Subuktgeen. Attracted by with its capital at Ranthambhore
India's wealth, Gahznavi attacked India
several times. In fact, Ghaznavi attacked India 53. Who built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri?
17 times. (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir
(C) Sahjahan (D) Aurangzeb
49. Who took the leadership of the movement
after the arrest of Gandhi during the Salt Ans.53(A) The Ibādat Khāna (House of
Satyagraha? Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575
(A) Sardar Patel CE by the Mughal Emperor Akbar (1556–
(B) Jawahar Lal Nehru 1605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual
(C) Abul kalam azad leaders of different religious grounds so as to
(D) Abbas Tyyab Ji conduct a discussion on the teachings of
religious.
Ans.49(D) Mahatma Gandhi appointed
Tyabji, at age seventy-six, to replace him as 54. Who among the following Sultans of the
leader of the Salt Satyagraha in May 1930 Slave dynasty reign for the longest period?
after Gandhi's arrest. (A) Balban (B) Firoz Tughlaq
(C) Iltutmish (D) Alauddin Khiliji
50. The ruler of Kushan dynasty Kanishka was
the follower of- Ans.54(C) After this inglorious period of
(A) Jainism (B) Hinayanism eight months rule of Aram Shah, there started
(C) Hinduism (D) Mahayanism a glorious period of Iltutmish in 1211 AD
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
58

which continued for a long period till he died Dayal, Sohan Singh Bhakna, Kartar Singh
on 1236. Sarabha, and Rashbehari Bose.It had its
headquarters at San Francisco.
55. Who gave the slogan 'Back to the Vedas
(Vedo ki aur lauto)'? 59. Who, after the death of Ranjit Singh, had
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak taken power in succession?
(B) Dayanand Saraswati (A) Dhyan Singh (B) Nunihal singh
(C) Swami Vivekananda (C) Sher Singh (D) Kharag Singh
(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Ans.59(D) Kharak Singh (1801-1840) was a
Ans.55(B) Dayanand Saraswati gave the Sikh ruler of the sovereign country of Punjab
slogan 'Back to the Vedas (Vedo ki aur lauto)' and the Sikh Empire. He was the eldest
legitimate son of Ranjit Singh and Maharani
56. Todarmal was the famous revenue minister of Datar Kaur. He succeeded his father in June
which Mughal Emperor? 1839.
(A) Shah Jahan (B) Babur
(C) Akbar (D) Aurangzeb 60. Who among the following led the British
army in the Battle of Buxar?
Ans.56(C) Raja Todar Mal, as finance (A) Colonel Kailend (B) Sir Eyre Coote
minister of Akbar, introduced a new system of (C) Hactor Munro (D) Major York
revenue known as zabt and a system of
taxation called dahshala. He took a careful Ans.60(C) The Battle of Buxar was fought on
survey of crop yields and prices cultivated for 22 October 1764 between the forces under the
a 10-year period 1570-1580. command of the British East India Company,
led by Hector Munro, and the combined
57. Who built the Konark''s Sun Temple? armies of Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal till
(A) Anantavarman Chodaganga Deva 1763.
(B) Narasimha deva I
(C) Kapilendra Deva 61. Who among of the following started Marathi
(D) Purushottam Dev fortnightly newspaper 'Bahishkrit Bharat'?
(A) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar (B) Vir Savarkar
Ans.57(B) Frequently referred to as the Black (C) Vinobha Bhave (D) Lokmanya Tilak
Pagoda, the Konark Temple was constructed
in the mid-13th century by Raja Narasinghs Ans.61(A) Bahishkrit Bharat' was started by
Deva-I of the Ganga Dynasty. Dr.B R. Ambedkar in 1927, his other
newspapers are - Mooknayak (1920), Janata
58. The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a- (1930) and Prabuddha Bharat (An awakenned
(A) Revolutionary association of Indians with India- 1956).
headquarters at San Francisco.
(B) Nationalist organization operating from 62. Who among the following did not ruled the
Japan. Delhi Sultanate?
(C) Militant organization with headquarters at (A) Slave dynasty (B) Sayyid dynasty
London. (C) Khilji dynasty (D) Ghori dynasty
(D) Communist movement for India's freedom
with headquarters at Delhi. Ans.62(D) After Mahmud of Ghazni the next
invader in India was Muhammad Ghori. He
Ans.58(A) The Ghadar Party was a belonged to the Ghori dynasty which replaced
revolutionary association founded by Punjabi the Ghaznavids in Afghanistan. After the
Indians, in the United States and Canada with death of Mahmood Ghaznovi, he was the first
the aim to gaining India’s independence from Turkish who invaded India; ghori dynesty not
British rule. Key members included Lala Har ruled on delhi saltanat.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
59

Ans.66(C) Rash Behari Bose convened a

63. Where is the tomb of Bahadur Shah Jafar (II), conference in Tokyo on 28–30 March 1942,
the last Mughal emperor of India? which decided to establish the Indian
(A) Rangoon (Yangon), Myanmar Independence League. At the conference, he
(B) Delhi, India moved a motion to raise an army for Indian
(C) Aurangabad, India independence.
(D) Kabul, Pakistan
67. Who was the translated a book Leelavati (a
Ans.63(A) The location of the grave of treatise in Mathematics) in Farsi?
Bahadur Shah Zafar (or Mirza Abu Zafar (A) Azizul Haque (B) Huseyn Javid
Sirajuddin Muhammad Bahadur Shah Zafar), (C) Abul Faizi (D) Abdur Rahman
the last Mughal emperor, at Rangoon in
Burma (now Yangon, Myanmar) is in dispute. Ans.67(C) The first foreign language
translation is thought to have been by Abul
64. Among the following, which Mughal Emperor Faizi who rendered the Leelavati into Persian
introduced the policy of Sulah-i-kul? in 1587.
(A) Akbar
(B) Nizamuddin Auliya 68. 24th tirthankaras are in _________ Religion.
(C) Jainul Abidin (A) Jainism (B) Buddhism
(D) Nasiruddin Chiragh (C) Hinduism (D) Sikhism

Ans.64(A) Sulh-i kul is an Arabic term Ans.68(A) 24th tirthankaras are related in
literally meaning “peace with all,” “universal jainism Religion.
peace,” or “absolute peace,” drawn from a
Sufi mystic principle. As applied by the third 69. Who was the Governor-General when Indian
Mughal Emperor of India, Akbar (who national Congress was founded in 1885?
reigned 1556-1605), it described a peaceful (A) Lord Linlithgow (B) Lord Wellesley
and harmonious relationship among different (C) Lord dufferin (D) Lord Salisbury
religions.
Ans.69(C) Hume organised the first meeting
65. What are the main sources of our knowledge in Bombay with the approval of the Viceroy
about the Indus Valley Civilization? Lord Dufferin. Womesh Chandra Bonnerjee
(A) Rigveda was the first president of Congress; the first
(B) Archaeological excavations session was attended by 72 delegates,
(C) Samaveda representing each province of India.
(D) Atharvaveda
70. Mahamastakabhisheka, a great religious event
Ans.65(B) The Indus Valley Civilization was is associated with and done for who of the
an ancient civilization located in what is following?
Pakistan and northwest India today, (A) Bahubali (B) Buddha
Archaeological excavations is the main (C) Mahavir (D) Nataraja
sources of our knowledge about the Indus
Valley Civilization. Ans.70(A) Mahamastakabhisheka, a great
religious event is associated with Bahubali.
66. Who founded the Indian Independence
League? 71. During the Maratha period, who was the
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai officer responsible for the village
(B) Aurobindo Ghosh administration?
(C) Rasbehari Bose (A) Havaladar (B) Patil
(D) Subhash Chandra Bose (C) Chaudhary (D) Sardeshmukh
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60

Ans.71(B) Maratha empire, the Patil was the skull of an extinct human species (genus
village headman and the most important Homo) found near the town of Kabwe,
Vatandar of the village. His main duties were Zambia (formerly Broken Hill, Northern
to be the collector of revenue, as well as being Rhodesia), in 1921.
the head of police and justice. In Konkan, a
Patil was called "Khot". 76. Which of the following was obtained from the
remains of the Cro-Magnon human?
72. Which of the following movement is related (A) Australia (B) France
to the Teenkathiya system? (C) Germany (D) Britain
(A) Quit India Movement
(B) Kheda Satyagraha Ans.76(B) Discovered in 1868, Cro-Magnon
(C) Champaran Satyagraha 1 was among the first fossils to be recognized
(D) Non-cooperation Movement as belonging to our own species—Homo
sapiens. This famous fossil skull is from one
Ans.72(C) Champaran tenant was bound by of several modern human skeletons found at
law to plants three crops on every parts of the famous rock shelter site at Cro-Magnon,
their land. Explanation: Tinkathia was the near the village of Les Eyzies, France.
system under which the native peasants of
Champaran (Bihar) were forced to cultivate 77. The relic of Homo sapiens human beings find
three kathaa Indigo out of every 20 kathaa from which place?
(Bigha) of land. (A) Central Asia (B) Eastern Europe
73. What was the main food of the inhabitants of (C) Australia (D) East Africa
the Indus Valley?
(A) Wheat (B) Rice Ans.77(D) Homo sapiens arose in a cradle of
(C) Barley (D) Both A and B humankind in East Africa 200,000 years ago.

Ans.73(D) The Indus Valley civilization grew 78. Which mughal ruler is known to have
wheat and barley as their staple food. Besides installed a ‘Bell of Justice’ to facilitate his
this, they also grew peas, sesamum, lentils and subjects in getting their cries for justice to be
other pulses. In some places, particularly heard?
Gujarat, they also grew millets. (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir
(C) Aurangzeb (D) Humayun
74. Indus Civilization Site Lothat is situated in
which state? Ans.78(B) The Mughal Emperor Jehangir was
(A) Punjab (B) Kashmir order to have installed a bell outside his
(C) Gujarat (D) Rajasthan palace that anyone could ring when they
required justice.
Ans.74(C) Lothal, one of the most prominent
cities of the ancient Indus Valley Civilization, 79. Whose reign was called the Golden age of
located the Lothal is situated near the village Mughal Era?
of Saragwala in the Dholka Taluka of (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir
Ahmedabad district (Gujarat). (C) Shahjahan (D) Humayun

75. When were archaeologists found bones of Ans.79(C) Shah Jahan’s period is called
Primates on Broken Hill of Rhodesia, located ‘Golden Era of the Mughals’. He was fifth
in Africa? Emperor of Mughal dynasty. He ruled in India
(A) 1921 (B) 1922 from 1628 to 1658.
(C) 1923 (D) 1924
80. Who wrote Panchatantra?
Ans.75(A) Kabwe cranium. Kabwe cranium, (A) Sudraka (B) Vishnu Gupta
also called Broken Hill cranium, fossilized (C) Vishnu Sharma (D) Bharata Muni
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61

85. What was the capital of Gandhar

Ans.80(C) Vishnu Sharma is said to be an Mahajanapadas?
Indian scholar and author who is believed to (A) Kushawati (B) Kaushambi
have written the Panchatantra collection of (C) Takshashila (D) Hatak
fables.
Ans.85(C) The primary cities of Gandhara
81. The Cellular Jail built by Britishers in the were Puruvapura (Peshawar), Taxila. The
Andaman and Nicobar Islands is known by latter remained the capital of Gandhara down
which of the following name? to the 2nd century AD, when the capital was
(A) Maut Ka Kuan (B) Kala Pani moved to Peshawar
(C) Antim Yatra (D) Band Darwaja
86. Ibn Battuta came to India during reign of the
Ans.81(B) The Cellular Jail, also known as following?
kale pani was a colonial prison in the (A) Devaraya I
Andaman and Nicobar Islands, India. The (B) Jalaluddin
prison was used by the British specially to (C) Muhammad Tughlaq
exile political prisoners to the remote (D) Krishnadevaraya
archipelago.
Ans.86(C) A Moroccan traveller, Ibn Batuta
82. How was the Gomati River known In the (1333-1347 AD) visited India during the reign
Vedic period? of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq. His book Rehla
(A) Kabul River (B) Kurram (the Travelogue) throws a lot of light on the
(C) Gomal (D) Swat reign of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq and the
geographical, economic and social conditions
Ans.82(C) Gomati River known as Gomal in in India.
the Vedic period.
87. Ralph Fisch came to India during whose
83. What was the capital of the Anga reign?
Mahajanapada? (A) Jahangir (B) Akbar
(A) Varanasi (B) Shravasti (C) Humayun (D) Shah jahan
(C) Champa (D) Rajgir
Ans.87(B) Ralph Fitch,. began their journey
Ans.83(C) The capital of Anga was Champa across India. They visited the court of the
(formerly known as Malini), one of the Mughal emperor Akbar at Fatehpur Sīkri,
greatest cities of the 6th century BCE. It was
situated at the confluence of the Ganga and 88. Peter Mundy came to India during whose
the Champa rivers. reign?
(A) Jahangir (B) Akbar
84. What was the capital of the Shurasen (C) Humayun (D) Shah jahan
Mahajanapadas?
(A) Virat Nagar (B) Takshashila Ans.88(D) Peter Mundy (1630-34 AD) : He
(C) Ujjain (D) Mathura was an Italian traveller to the Mughal empire
in the reign of Shahjahan, he gives valuable
Ans.84(D) Surasena and other Mahajanapadas information about the living standard of the
in the Post Vedic period. Kingdom of common people in the Mughal Empire.
Surasena was an ancient Indian region
corresponding to the present-day Braj region 89. People who discover historical facts by
in Uttar Pradesh, with Mathura as its capital Excavation is called -
city. (A) Scientist (B) Historian
(C) Archaeologist (D) Geologist
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62

Ans.89(C) Archaeology is the study of human his kingdom was conquered by the Ummayad
hist006Fry using material remains. Caliphate led by General Muhammad bin
Archaeologists excavate and study features Qasim.
and artifacts, like this clay sculpture unearthed
in Cerro de las Mesas, Veracruz, Mexico. 95. Which Muslims invaded India first?
(A) Turk (B) Arab
90. Mesopotamian civilization was flourished on- (C) Khurasani (D) Mamaluk
(A) Along the banks of the river Nile
(B) Along the bank of river Indus Ans.95(B) Arab Muslims first invaded India.
(C) Along the bank of dajla farat river
(D) The edge of Yangtisiviyang river valley 96. Who got the title of Jahansoz?
(A) Mahmud Ghazni (B) Sabuktagin
Ans.90(C) The civilization of Ancient (C) Sultan alauddin (D) khwarezm shah
Mesopotamia grew up along the banks of two
great rivers, the Euphrates and the Tigris. Ans.96(C) Sultan alauddin got the title of
Jahansoz.
91. The number of Vedas is-
(A) One (B) Two 97. Jaypal fought the war against whom?
(C) Three (D) Four (A) Mahmud Ghazni (B) alpatgin
(C) Sabuktagin
Ans.91(D) Vyasa is the compiler of the (D) Muhammad Ghori
Vedas, who arranged the four kinds of
mantras into four Samhitas (Collections). Ans.97(C) Battle of Peshawar, was fought on
There are four Vedas: the Rigveda, the 27 November 1001 between the Ghaznavid
Yajurveda, the Samaveda and the army of Sultan Mahmud bin Sebuktigin
Atharvaveda. (Mahmud of Ghazni) and the Hindu Shahi
army of Jayapala, near Peshawar.
92. Kalibanga is located in the site related to the
Harappan civilization- 98. When was the second battle of tarain fought?
(A) In Gujarat (B) In Rajasthan (A) 1192 (B) 1526
(C) In Uttar Pradesh (D) In Bengal (C) 1556 (D) 1761

Ans.92(B) Kalibangan is a part of the ancient Ans.98(A) Second Battle of Tarain. The
Indus Valley Civilization, located in present Second Battle of Tarian (Taraori) was again
Hanumangarh district Rajasthan fought between Ghurid army of Mohammed
Ghori and Rajput army of Prithviraj Chauhan.
93. Who was the 24th Tirthankar of Jainism- The battle took place in 1192 (A)D near
(A) Rishabh dev (B) Mahavir Swami Tarain. In this battle, Prithviraj Chauhan was
(C) Parshvanath (D) Aristhenemi defeated by Mohammed Ghori.

Ans.93(B) The 24th and last tirthankara of 99. The Gandhara art - a style of Buddhist visual
present half-cycle was Mahavira swami (599– art that developed between 1st century BCE
527 BC). and the 7th century CE, flourished largely
during the ____ dynasty.
94. Dahir was the ruler of which of the following? (A) Kushan (B) Gupta
(A) Multan (B) Kabul (C) Pallava (D) Maurya
(C) Sindh (D) Balochistan
Ans.99(A) The Gandhāran style flourished
Ans.94(C) Raja Dahar (663 – 712 CE) was and achieved its peak during the Kushan
the last Hindu ruler of the Brahmin Dynasty period Gandhara art developed very rapidly
of Sindh (present-day Pakistan). In 711 CE, during the time of Kanishka. Stupas made by
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
63

Kanishka in Bharhut and Sanchi are examples temples dating back from the 11th to the 13th
of Gandhara art. century AD are world famous for their
stunning use of marble. The five legendary
100. Which ruler of Bengal had relations with marble temples of Dilwara are a sacred
China? pilgrimage of the Jains.
(A) Ghiyasuddin Azamshah
(B) Sikandar Shah 104. Which dynasty was ruling in Vijaynagar
(C) Nusrat Shah empire at the time of the Battle of Talikota?
(D) Hussein Shah (A) Sangam (B) Aniridu
(C) Tuluva (D) Saluva
Ans.100(A) Ghiyasuddin Azam Shah was the
third Sultan of Bengal and the Ilyas Shahi Ans.104(C) The Battle of Talikota was fought
dynasty. He was one of the most prominent between the Deccan Sultanates and
medieval Bengali sultans. He established Vijaynagar Kingdom. Sadasiva Raya of
diplomatic relations with the Ming Empire of Tuluva dynasty was the emperor of
China. Vijaynagar at the time of the Battle of
Talikota.
101. The Kathopanishad captures the conversation
between a young boy named Nachiketas and a 105. Ustad Mansur was a famous painter of which
god. Which of the following gods is talking to Mughal ruler's regime?
Nachiketas? (A) Akbar (B) Jahangir
(A) Lord Yama (B) Lord Karthikeya (C) Shah Jahan (D) Aurangzeb
(C) Lord Indra (D) Lord Shiva Ans.105(B) Ustad Mansur (flourished 1590-
1624) was a seventeenth-century Mughal
Ans.101(A) The Kathopanishad captures the painter and court artist. He grew up during the
conversation between a young boy named reign of Jahangir (1605 - 1627) during which
Nachiketas and Lord Yama. period he excelled at depicting plants and
animals.
102. The earliest reference to sati custom is made
in which of the following inscriptions? 106. In which year, Akbar built a hall called the
(A) Allahabad Pillar inscription Ibadat Khana ("House of Worship") at
(B) Eran inscription of Bhanugupta Fatehpur Sikri.
(C) Aihole inscription of Pulkesin II (A) 1562 (B) 1580
(D) Bhitan inscription of Skandgupta (C) 1582 (D) 1575

Ans.102(B) Although the emergence of the Ans.106(D) In 1575, he built a hall called the
practice of Sati in Indian (predominantly Ibadat Khana ("House of Worship") at
Hindu) society is considered since ancient Fatehpur Sikri, to which he invited
times, its horrific form can be seen even in theologians, mystics and selected courtiers
modern times. The first archival evidence of renowned for their intellectual achievements
sati practice is found in 510AD Eran and discussed matters of spirituality with them
inscription.
107. Which of the following is the religious text of
103. The famous Dilwara temples of Mount Abu the Jews?
are a sacred pilgrimage place for the ______. (A) Dhammapada (B) Torah
(A) Buddhists (B) Jains (C) Sahib (D) Tripatika
(C) Sikhs (D) Parsis
Ans.107(B) The Torah is part of the larger
Ans.103(B) The Jain Dilwara temples of India text known as the Tanakh or the Hebrew
are located about 2½ kilometers from Mount Bible, and supplemental oral tradition
Abu, Rajasthan's only hill station. These represented by later texts such as the Midrash
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64

and the Talmud. With between 14.5 and 17.4 112. Who gave the slogan Inquilab Zindabad?
million adherents worldwide, Judaism is the (A) Hasrat Mohani
tenth largest religion in the world. (B) Ashfaqulla Khan
(C) Bhagat Singh
108. Who among the following pioneered Khilafat (D) Chandrashekhar Azad
Movement?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi Ans.112(A) This slogan was coined by the
(B) Ali Brothers Urdu poet, Indian freedom fighter and a
(C) M.(A) Jinnah Leader of Indian National Congress Maulana
(D) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan Hasrat Mohani in 1921. It was popularized by
Bhagat Singh (1907 - 1931) during the late
Ans.108(B) The Khilafat movement, also 1920s through his speeches and writings.
known as the Indian Muslim movement, was a
pan-Islamist political protest campaign 113. The Sarvodaya Movement was started by
launched by Muslims of British India led by (A) Vinoba Bhave
Shaukat Ali, Mohammad Ali Jauhar and Abul (B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Kalam. (C) Mahatma Gandhi
(D) Vivekananda
109. The National song of India, Vande Mataram
was composed in ____ language. Ans.113(A) The Sarvodaya Movement was
(A) Pali (B) Urdu started by Vinoba Bhave on 18 April 1951 at
(C) Bengali (D) Sanskrit Pochampally village in Nalgonda district who
Ans.109(D) The song Vande Mataram, was directly influenced by Gandhi.
composed in Sanskrit by Bankimchandra
Chatterji, was a source of inspiration to the 114. Who conquered Sind in 712 AD?
people in their struggle for freedom. The first (A) Arabs (B) French
political occasion when it was sung was the (C) Greeks (D) Mongols
1896 session of the Indian National Congress.
Ans.114(A) Muhammad Bin Qasim first
110. Who was the viceroy at the time of captured Debal, At Rohri he was met by
Jallianwala Bagh Massacre? Dahir's forces. Dahir died in the battle, his
(A) Lord Curzon (B) Lord Ripon forces were defeated and Muhammad bin
(C) Lord Chelmsford (D) Lord Canning Qasim took control of Sind. Mohammad Bin
Qasim entered Daibul in 712 AD.
Ans.110(C) Lord Chelmsford was the
Viceroy of India when Jallianwala Bagh 115. The Shiites believed that the Umayyad
Massacre took place on April 13, 1919. (A) Should pray more
(B) Should not be in power
111. All India Kisan Sabha was founded in which (C) Got special treatment
year? (D) Should rule
(A) 1936 (B) 1946
(C) 1956 (D) 1966 Ans.115(A) The Shiites believed that the
Umayyads: should not be in power the shiites
Ans.111(A) All these radical developments on believed that those should be in power should
the peasant front culminated in the formation came from the lineagae of the phropet (Arabic
of the All India Kisan Sabha (AIKS) at the ethnicity is a must)
Lucknow session of the Indian National
Congress in April 1936 with Swami 116. Which of the following was not a feature of
Sahajanand Saraswati elected as its first Indus Valley Civilization?
President. (A) Use of Iron (B) Town Planning
(C) Drainage system (D) Use of Bronze
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65

non-Congress government and Abhay Ghat is

Ans.116(A) Town planning, Drainage system resting place of Morarji Desai.
and Use of Bronze are the features of Indus
Valley Civilization. Use of Iron was not the 121. The ancient goal of astrology was to-
feature of this. (A) Make a more accurate model of the
universe
117. Who started Shudhi Movement? (B) Predict human events
(A) Dayananda Saraswathy (C) Understand the origin of Earth
(B) Sri Aurobindo (D) Predict the passing of the seasons
(C) Swami Vivekananda
(D) Yashoda Bhai Ans.121(B) The ancient goal of astrology was
to predict human events.
Ans.117(A) The socio-political movement,
derived from ancient rite of shuddhikaran, or 122. Who among the following was a
purification was started by the Arya Samaj, Brahmavadini who composed some hymns of
and its founder Swami Dayanand Saraswati the Vedas?
and his followers like Swami Shraddhanand, (A) Gargi (B) Lopamudra
who also worked on the Sangathan (C) Savitri (D) Leelavati
consolidation aspect of Hinduism, in North
India. Ans.122(B) Brahmavadini or "an expounder
of the Veda" are those women who composed
118. What literary period is the beat generation any hymns of the Vedas the prominent among
aligned with? them were Lopamudra,
(A) Postmodernism (B) Naturalism
(C) Modernism (D) Realism 123. Who has been described as the "destroyer of
the Sakas, the Yavanas and the Pallavas"?
Ans.118(A) The Beat Generation was a (A) Skanda Gupta
literary movement during the late 1940's and (B) Gautamiputra Satakarni
the 1950's. The movement was started by a (C) Simuka
group of authors who explored American (D) Satakarni I
culture and politics in the works during the
post-war era. It was aligned with the Ans.123(B) Gautamiputra Satakarni has been
postmodern movement. described as the "destroyer of the Sakas, the
Yavanas and the Pallavas".
119. Who attended all the three-round table
conferences? 124. Which among the following kings was also
(A) M K Gandhi (B) M M Malviya known as Mamallan (great wrestler)?
(C) B R Ambedkar (D) Annie Besant (A) Pulakeshin II
(B) Mahendravarman I
Ans.119(C) B.R. Ambedkar and Tej Bahadur (C) Narasimhavarman I
Sapru took part in all the three round table (D) Harshavardhan
conferences. Mahatma Gandhi took part in
Second Round Table Conference. Ans.124(C) Narasimhavarman I was a king of
South India who belonged to the Pallava
120. Which among the following is the resting Dynasty. He ruled South India in the years
place of Morarji Desai? between 630–668 AD. He was the one who is
(A) Abhay Ghat (B) Ekta Sthal recognised as Mamallan (great wrestler). The
(C) Shakti Sthal (D) Vijay Ghat city of Mamallapuram was named after him.

Ans.120(A) Morarji Desai was the Prime 125. Which was capital of Harshavardhana?
Minister of India who led the country's first (A) Kanheri (B) Kusinagar
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66

(C) Belur (D) Kannauj

130. Which among the following events was a
Ans.125(D) Harshvardhan his Empire covered major set back to Khilafat Movement?
much of North and Northwestern India, (A) Announcements of concession to Muslims
extended East till Kamarupa, and South until by British Government
Narmada River; and eventually made Kannauj (B) Pact signed between Indian National
(in present Uttar Pradesh state) his capital, and Congress and Muslim League
ruled till 647 CE. (C) Revolution in Turkey
(D) Violence in Chauri Chaura
126. The portion of the actual produce fixed as
state’s share under the Zabti System of Ans.130(C) It was a protest against the
Mughals was ______? sanctions placed on the caliph and the
(A) One-half (B) One-third Ottoman Empire after the First World War by
(C) One-fourth (D) One-fifth the Treaty of Sèvres. The movement collapsed
by late 1922 when Turkey gained a more
Ans.126(B) The portion of the actual produce favourable diplomatic position and moved
fixed as state’s share under the Zabti System towards secularism. By 1924 Turkey simply
of Mughals was One-third. abolished the role of caliph.

127. Who among the following introduced the 131. Kabuliyat and Patta as instruments of
subsidiary alliance system in India? settlement were introduced during the reign of
(A) Lord Clive (B) Lord Wellesley ______.
(C) Lord Cunningham (D) Lord Canning (A) Ghiyasuddin Mahmud Shah
(B) Sikandar Lodi
Ans.127(B) The doctrine of subsidiary (C) Pathan Sultan Sher Shah Suri
alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley, (D) Shah Jahan
British Governor-General of India from 1798
to 1805. The Nizam of Hyderabad was the Ans.131(C) Kabuliyat and Patta as
first to enter into such an alliance in 1798 instruments of settlement were introduced
during the reign of Pathan Sultan Sher Shah
128. Who among the following succeeded Suri (1540 – 1545) measured and classified
Samudragupta as the next ruler of Gupta the land in terms of the produce and
Dynasty? introduced Kabuliyat and Patta as instruments
(A) Chandragupta II (B) Budhagupta of settlement.
(C) Vishnugupta (D) Kumaragupta II
132. Which among the following is the correct set
Ans.128(A) Chandragupta ll (380-412 AD) of the plays written by Harshavardhan in
succeededSamundragupta as the next ruler of Sanskrit?
Gupta dynasty. (A) Malavikagnimitram, Vikramorvashiiyam
and Abhijñanasakuntalam
129. Who among the following signed the Treaty (B) Svapna Vasavadattam, Pancharatra and
of Bassein in 1802 with the British East India Pratijna Yaugandharayaanam
Company? (C) Nagananda, Priyadarshika and Ratnavali.
(A) Baji Rao II (B) Baji Rao I (D) Malavikagnimitram and Priyadarshika
(C) Sultan Bahadur (D) Shiva ji
Ans.132(C) Emperor Harshvardhana wrote
Ans.129(A) He Treaty of Bassein (now called three plays in the Sanskrit Language namely
Vasai) was a pact signed on 31 December Nagananda, Priyadarshika and Ratnavali.
1802 between the British East India Company
and Baji Rao II, the Maratha Peshwa of Pune
(Poona) in India after the Battle of Poona.
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67

133. Which among the following events took place (A) Karl Marx
immediately before the massacre at (B) Dadabhai Naoroji
Jallianwalla Bagh? (C) R. C. Mazumdar
(A) Partition of Bengal (D)Sayed Ahmad Khan
(B) llbert Bill
(C) Passage of the Rowlatt Act Ans.137(D) Syed Ahmed Khan was one of
(D) Minto-Morley Reforms the leading figures of Muslim India, he wrote
Book "Causes of Indian revolt.
Ans.133(C) Passage of the Rowlatt Act
immediately before the massacre at 138. Who among the following was appointed as
Jallianwalla Bagh. the supreme authority in justice during the era
of Mughal Emperors?
134. In which of the following languages was the (A) Qazi-ul-Quzat (B) Qazi-ul-Hazat
Ghadar Journal was first published ? (C) Qazi-Faiz-ul-Islam (D) Qazi-ul-Mulk
(A) Urdu (B) English
(C) Farshi (D) Punjabi Ans.138(A) Besides Mughal rulers, Qazi-ul-
Quzat was the supreme authority in justice.
Ans.134(A) Ghadar journal was published in Since it was difficult for the emperor to do-
Urdu in 1913. After this, it was published in away with justice in all the cases, he
English, Punjabi, Marathi and Pushtu also. appointed Qazi-ul-Quzat to do the justice in
accordance with Muslim Law.
135. Who among the following rulers had stamped 139. Who was elected the President of Indian
the figure of Goddess Lakshmi on his coins National Congress in the famous Tripuri
and had his name inscribed in Nagari Session of 1939?
Characters? (A) Dadabhai Naoroji
(A) Muhammad Ghazni (B) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Muhammad Ghori (C) Subhash Chandra Bose
(C) Muhammad Bin Tughlaq (D) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Iltutmish
Ans.139(C) Subhash Chandra Bose was a
Ans.135(B) Muhammad Ghori is known to member of the Working Committee of the
have adopted the seated goddess Lakshmi Congress for a number of years and the
type of the coins of Gahadavalas for President of Andhra Provincial Congress
circulation in the Gahadavala territories. He Committee in 1937–40. He ran for the
got stamped the figure of Goddess Lakshmi presidency of the Indian National Congress
on his coins and had his name inscribed in as the candidate closest to Mohandas
Nagari Characters. Gandhi, against Netaji Subash Chandra Bose
in Tripuri Session of 1939.'
136. As per Asoka’s inscriptions, which among the
following place was declared tax free and 140. Who among the following introduced the
proclaimed only 1/8th part as taxable? Vernacular Press Act?
(A) Kushinagar (B) Lumbini (A) Lord William Bentinck
(C) Kathmandu (D) Sarnath (B) Robert Clive
(C) Lord Lytton
Ans.136(B) At the 20th anniversary of his (D) Lord Ripon
enthronement, Asoka announced Lumbini as
tax-free and proclaimed only 1/8th part as Ans.140(C) In 1878, Lord Lytton introduced
taxable. Description of this fact is found in the the Vernacular Press Act to ban the press in
inscriptions of Nigliva and Rumindei. India. The first victim was nationalist
Newspaper 'Soma Prakash'.
137. Book "Causes of Indian revolt" is written by?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
68

141. The most important source of information 145. The author of Tabqat-i-Akbari was___.
about the agrarian conditions during Mughals (A) Badauni
is ______? (B) Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad
(A) Ain-i-Akbari (B) Akbarnama (C) Abul Fazl
(C) Baburnama (D) Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana
(D) Tarikh-i-Ferishta
Ans.145(B) Khwaja Nizamuddin Ahmad was
Ans.141(A) Ain-i-Akbari by Abul Fazal is the a Muslim historian of late medieval India, is
main source for today's historians to know the writer of ‘Tabqat-i-Akbari’. The work is a
about the structure of agrarian relations from general history of India covering the time
the time of Akbar onwards. from the Ghaznavids up to 1593-94.

142. The British East India Company ceased to be 146. Who among the following edited and
a trading Company via which among the published the newspaper Indian Mirror in
following legislation? 1861?
(A) Pitts India Act of 1784 (A) Amitava Ghosh
(B) Charter Act of 1833 (B) Ravindranath Tagore
(C) Charter Act of 1813 (C) Sumit Ganguly
(D) Government of India Act 1858 (D) Manmohan Ghosh and Devendranath
Tagore
Ans.142(B) The charter act 1833: It is Ans.146(D) In 1861, the newspaper, Indian
considered to be an Mirror, was edited and published by
attempt to codify all Indian Laws. The Manmohan Ghosh and Devendranath Tagore
Governor General of Bengal now became from Calcutta.
the The Governor General of India. One of
the provisions of this act – “the East India 147. Which one of the following was the port city
Company now lost its trading privilege like of the Indus Valley Civilisation?
tea and monopoly in China, henceforth it (A) Harappa (B) Kalibangan
became a purely administrative body under (C) Lothal (D) Mohenjodara
the crown.”
Ans.147(C) Lothal and Dhaulavira located in
143. Who among the following was the 23rd Jain Gujarat are the port cities of the Indus Valley
Tirthankara? Civilization.
(A) Nemi Natha (B) Mahavira
(C) Parshvanath (D) Rishabhanatha 148. Who among the following preached the
doctrine of “One religion, one caste and one
Ans.143(C) Parshvanath was the twenty third God for mankind”?
Jain Tirthankara. He was a Kshatriya and son (A) Jyotiba Phule (B) Vivekananda
of Ashvasena, King of Banaras (Varanasi). (C) Sri Narayan Guru (D) B. R. Ambedkar

144. The first victim of the British policy of Ans.148(C) Sri Narayana Guru preached the
Subsidiary Alliance was _____. doctrine of ‘One caste, One religion, One
(A) Avadh (B) Mewar God.’ Its worth note that one of his athiest
(C) Mysore (D) Hyderabad disciples, Sahadaran Ayyapan, changed into
‘no religion, no caste and no God for
Ans.144(D) A subsidiary alliance is an mankind.
alliance between a dominant nation and a
nation that it dominates. The 1st victim of the 149. Which king established most of the temples of
policy of subsidiary alliance of Lord Khajurahas?
Wellesley was the Hyderabad. (A) Raja Yashovarman
(B) Raja Chandravarman
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
69

(C) Raja Bhagwan Chandra Khilji along with the other major centres of
(D) Pulakeshin I Buddhism in India around 1193.

Ans.149(B) The magnificent temples of the 153. Which of the following Act, ensured the
Khujarahas were constructed during the time establishment of the supreme court in India?
of the Chandela kingdom. Raja (A) Pitt’s India Act, AD 1784
Chandravarman, son of Bhagwan Chandra, (B) The Regulating Act, AD 1773
established most of the temples of Khajurahas. (C) Charter Act, 1793 AD
Many temples of Khujarahas were built under (D) Charter Act, 1813 AD
the rule of Hindu king Yashovarman and
Dhanga, of which Vishwanath ji's temple Ans.153(B) Regulating Act of 1773 was the
dedicated to Lakshmana and Shiva is very first landmark in the constitutional
famous. At the same time, the temple of development of India. Via this act, the British
Kandariya Mahadev, built during the reign of Parliament for the first time interfered into
Ganda Raja in 1017 to 1029 BC, is one of the affairs of India. and Act, ensured the
famous temples of Khajurahas. establishment of the supreme court in India

150. Which of following king started the 154. Elephanta Caves are located in the Indian state
organization of Kumbh fair at Allahabad? of Maharashtra and on which island is it about
(A) Harshavardhana (B) Dhruvasena Ii 11 kilometers from the city of Mumbai?
(C) Narshimhvarman (D) Akabar (A) Salsette Island
(B) Khandheri Island
Ans.150(A) Harshavardhana king started the (C) Gharpuri Island
organization of Kumbh fair at Allahabad. The (D) Elephanta Island
Allahabad Kumbh Mela is a mela held every
12 years at Allahabad, India. The exact date is Ans.154(C) Elephanta Cave was then known
determined according to Hindu astrology: the as Puri or Purika and the place was the capital
Mela is held when Jupiter is in Taurus and the of the Konkan Mauryas. Elephanta Caves are
sun and the moon are in Capricorn. located in the Maharashtra state of India and
are located on the island of Gharapuri, about
151. Who was the first Indian ruler who had 11 kilometers from the city of Mumbai.
territory outside India? Elephanta caves have been included in the list
(A) Ashoka of UNESCO World Heritage Sites in the year
(B) Chandragupta Maurya 1987. Elephanta Caves are also originally
(C) Kanishka known as Gharapurichi Leni.
(D) Harshavardhana
155. Which of the following is not correctly?
Ans.151(C) Kanishka was the first Indian (A) Akbar's Gold Mohur bore the figures of
ruler who had territory outside India. Sita and Ram.
Kanishka, was the great ruler of Kunshan (B) The judiciary was a separate organisation
dynasty in second century (127-150). headed by a chief qazi, who was also
responsible for religious beliefs and practices
152. Which Pala ruler founded the famous (C) The head of the military was called the
Vikramashila University for the Buddhists’? mir bakshi, appointed by among the leading
(A) Mahipala (B) Devapala nobles of the court.
(C) Gopala (D) Dharmapala (D) None of these

Ans.152(D) Vikramashila was founded by Ans.155(D) None of these

Pāla king Dharmapala in the late 8th or early
9th century. It prospered for about four 156. Ramayana was translated into Persian at
centuries before it was destroyed by Bakhtiyar Akbar's court by whom?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
70

(A) Faizi secular side of the Brahmo Samaj and

(B) Abul Fazl included many who did not belong to the
(C) Badayuni Brahmo Samaj. The objective was to put into
(D) Haji Ibrahim Sirhindi practice some of the ideas Sen was exposed to
during his visit to Great Britain.
Ans.156(C) Ramayana was translated by
Mulla Abdul Qadir Badayuni. Badayuni also 160. Which of the following event was probe by
took up the task of Singhasan Batisi into the Hunter Commission?
Persian, which was later titled Khurd (A) Chauri Chaura incident
(B) Demolition of Kanpur mosque
157. Which of these is not one of the titles adopted (C) Jalianwalla Bagh massacre
by Aurangzeb? (D) Kakori train dacoity incident
(A) Alamgir (B) Padshah
(C) Sultan Sulaiman (D) Ghazi Ans.160(C) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre,
also known as the Amritsar massacre, took
Ans.157(C) 4 November 1618 Muhi- ud-Din place on 13 April 1919, when Acting
Muhammad also known as Aurangzeb or Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered
by his title Alamgir was the sixth emperor of troops of the British Indian Army to fire their
the Mughal Empire. he not adopted titles of rifles into a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians
Sultan Sulaiman. in Jallianwala Bagh. Event was probe by the
Hunter Commission.
158. The chariot temple of Mahabalipuram was
built by. 161. Who among the following leader presided the
(A) Narasimha Burman I historic 1916 Lucknow Session of the
(B) Narasimha Burman II Congress?
(C) Raja Raj I (A) Annie Besant
(D) Krishna Dev I (B) Madan Mohan Malviya
(C) Ambika Charan Majumdar
Ans.158(B) The temple town Mahabalipuram (D) Subhas Chandra Bose
is located on the banks of the Bay of Bengal,
55 km from Chennai, the capital of Tamil Ans.161(C) Ambika Charan Majumdar was
Nadu. It is also called the Rath Temple of the president of the Indian National Congress
Mahabalipuram. It was built by Narasimha for the Lucknow session 1916.
Burman I. In the beginning this city was
called Mamallapuram. The city was the 162. Which of the following statement is not
capital of the Pallava kings in the seventh correct about Raja Ram Mohan Roy?
century. The city occupies the leading position (A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy was born in a well-
in terms of Dravid architecture. Here the to-do family in Bengal, probably in 1772.
temple was built by cutting stones. The (B) He died in Indian in 1832.
Kailash temple of Kanchi was built by (C) He was given the title of Raja by the
Narasimha Burman II. Mughal Emperor.
(D) He started the newspaper named “Sambad
159. Who started the Indian Reforms Association? Kaumudi”
(A) Narayan Guru
(B) Swami Vivekananda Ans.162(B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (22 May
(C) Krishna swami Aiyar 1772 – 27 September 1833) was one of the
(D) Keshav Chandra Sen founders of the Brahmo Sabha, the precursor
of the Brahmo Samaj, a social-religious
Ans.159(D) The Indian Reform Association reform movement in the Indian subcontinent.
was formed on 29 October 1870 with Keshub He was given the title of Raja by Akbar II, the
Chunder Sen as president. It represented the Mughal emperor.
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71

(B) The Regulating Act, AD 1773

163. The Iron Pillar at Mehrauli in Delhi is (C) Charter Act, 1793 AD
believed to record the achievements of- (D) Charter Act, 1813 AD
(A) Ashoka
(B) Chandragupta Maurya Ans.166(A) Pitt's India Act 1784 or the East
(C) Samudragupta India Company Act 1784 was passed in the
(D) Chandragupta II British Parliament to rectify the defects of the
Regulating Act 1773. It resulted in dual
Ans.163(D) The iron pillar of Delhi is a control or joint government in India by Crown
structure 23 feet 8 inches (7.2 metres) high in Great Britain and the British East India
with 16 inches diameter that was constructed Company.
by Chandragupta II (reigned c. 375-415 CE),
and now stands in the Qutb complex at 167. Which of the following is not a holy book of
Mehrauli in Delhi. Jainism?
(A) Anga sahitya (B) Upang sahitya
164. Who of the following leaders is not associated (C) Sutta pitaka (D) Kalpasutra
with the Brahma Samaj?
(A) Debendranath Tagore Ans.167(C) Sutta Pitak tripitak or Pali Canon
(B) Keshab Chandra Sen is not a (sacred) book of Jainism.
(C) Raaja ram Mohan Rai
(D) Atma Ram Pandurang 168. Who was established the Hindu College,
Calcutta?
Ans.164(D) Atmaram Pandurang (A) Dada bhai naroji
Turkhadekar (1823-1898) was an Indian (B) Captain mohan singh
physician and social reformer who founded (C) Raaja ram Mohan Rai
the Prarthana Samaj and was one of the two (D) Bal gangadhar tilak
Indian co-founders (the other being Sakharam
Arjun) of the Bombay Natural History Society Ans.168(C) Hindu College was established in
and he is not associated with the Brahma 1817 by Raja Ram Mohan Roy, Radhakanta
Samaj. Deb, David Hare, Sir Edward Hyde East,
Baidyanath Mukhopadhya and Rasamay Dutt.
165. Who among the following Kushan Emperors
was the first to introduce the gold coinage in 169. Who started the English weekly 'New India'?
India? (A) Lala Lajpat Rai
(A) Vima Kadphises (B) Bipin Chandra Pal
(B) Vima Taktu (C) Dada Bhai Naoroji
(C) Vasishka (D) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(D) Kujula Kadphises
Ans.169(D) Madan Mohan Malaviya (25
Ans.165(A) Vima Kadphises added to the December 1861 - 12 November 1946) was an
Kushan territory by his conquests in Indian educationist and politician notable for
Afghanistan and north-west Pakistan. He his role in the Indian independence movement
issued an extensive series of coins and and as the four times president of Indian
inscriptions. He was the first to introduce gold National Congress. He was respectfully
coinage in India, in addition to the existing addressed as Pandit Madan Mohan Malaviya
copper and silver coinage. and also addressed as 'Mahamana'. Madan
Mohan Malviya started the English weekly
166. Which of the following act led to the 'New India'
introduction of dual system of government in
India? 170. When was congress split?
(A) Pitt’s India Act, AD 1784 (A) At Surat session in 1907
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
72

(B) At Benares session in 1905 (C) Punjab

(C) At Madras in1908 (D) Khyber Pakhtunkhwa
(D) At Lahore in1909
Ans.174(A) Mohenjo-daro is located west of
Ans.170(A) The Congress split at Surat came the Indus River in Larkana District, Sindh,
in December 1907, around the time when Pakistan, in a central position between the
revolutionary terrorism had gained Indus River and the Ghaggar-Hakra River. It
momentum. is situated on a Pleistocene ridge in the middle
of the flood plain of the Indus River Valley,
171. Which of the following books is not written around 28 kilometres (17 mi) from the town
by Harshavardhan? of Larkana.
(A) Harshacharita (B) Nagananda
(C) Ratnavali (D) Priyadarshika 175. Which of these Chinese travellers was came
India in during the Gupta rule.
Ans.171(A) The Harshacharita, is the (A) Yijing (B)Hiuen Tsang
biography of Indian emperor Harsha written (C) Faxian (D) None of these
by Banabhatta, also known as Bana, who was
a Sanskrit writer of seventh-century CE India. Ans.175(C) Fahiyan was one of the pilgrims
He was the Asthana Kavi, meaning Court visiting India during the reign of
Poet, of Harsha. Chandragupta II, a Chinese Buddhist, gupta
emperor. He started his journey from China in
172. Arrange the following in chronological order: 399 and arrived in India in 405.
1. Warren Hastings 2. Clive
3. Lord Cornwallis 4. Lord Wellesley 176. During the reign of which Gupta ruler, a large
(A) 4, 3, 2, 1 (B) 1, 2, 3, 4 number of gold coins were minted.
(C) 3,1,4,2 (D) 2,1,3,4 (A) Chandragupta (B) Samudragupta
(C) Skandagupta (D) Chandragupta
Ans.172(D) chronological order:
1. Clive 2. Warren Hastings Ans.176(B) Samudra Gupta produced some
3. Lord Cornwallis 4. Lord Wellesley high quality of gold coins and laid the
foundation of the Golden Age of India. He is
173. Who has appointed to the newly created post credited to have issued only gold coins
of Archaeological Survey of Government of (Dinar).
India?
(A) Alexander Cunningham 177. The main capital of the Kanishka Empire was
(B) Lord Curzon located at _________.
(C) John Marshall (A) Patilaputra (B) Rajagriha
(D) Allan Cunningham (C) Vaishali (D) Puruṣapura
Ans.173(A) The Archaeological Survey of Ans.177(D) The main capital of his empire
India is an Indian government agency attached was located at Puruṣapura in Gandhara, with
to the Ministry of Culture that is responsible another major capital at Kapisa.
for archaeological research and the
conservation of cultural monuments in the 178. Which ruler assumed the title of Vatapikonda?
country. It was founded in 1861 by Alexander (A) Simhavarman
Cunningham who also became its first (B) Narasimhavarman
Director-General. (C) Paramesvaravarman
(D) Narasimhavarman
174. Mohenjo-Daro (Mound of the Dead Men) is
located in which province of Pakistan? Ans.178(B) Narasimhavarman I avenged his
(A) Sindh father's defeat at the hands of the Chalukya
(B) Balochistan king, Pulakeshin II in the year 642 AD. He
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
73

was also known as Mahamalla (great (C) Kirtivarman I (D) Pulakeshin II

wrestler), and adopt the title Vatapikonda.
Ans.182(D) Kirtivarman's son Pulakeshin II
179. The Kailashnath Temple at Kanchipuram and was the most famous ruler of the Chalukya
the Mamallapuram Temple were built by dynasty. He was a contemporary of
which ruler of the Pallava dynasty? Harshavardhana.
(A) Simhavarman
(B) Narasimhavarman 183. Which governor made the 'Sunset Law' in
(C) Paramesvaravarman 1794 AD.
(D) Rajasimha (A) Cornwallis
(B) Lord Clive
Ans.179(D) Narasimhavarman II popularly (C) Lord William Bentick
known as Rajasimha Pallava. He is credited (D) Thomas Monroe
with the construction of the Shore Temple,
Isvara and Mukunda Temples in Ans.183(A) Based on the Bengal Regulation
Mahabalipuram, the Panamalai Temple in of 1793 AD, 'Sunset Law' was brought in
South Arcot, plus the Kailasanathar Temple. 1794 AD, according to which if the zamindar
does not deposit the amount of land revenue
180. In the inscriptions, who is mentioned as with the District Collector till sunset on a
Satyashree, Vallabha and Dharmamaharaj? certain date, then his entire Zamindari used to
(A) Pulakeshin II (B) Pulakeshin I be auctioned. Cornwallis made the 'Sunset
(C) Vikramaditya I (D) Kirtivarman II Law' in 1794 AD.

Ans.180(B) Pulakesin I established the 184. Ryotwari was the second system of land
Chalukya dynasty in the western Deccan and revenue management after the permanent
his descendants ruled over an empire that settlement implemented in British India, was
comprised the entire state of Karnataka and introduced by whom?
most of Andhra Pradesh. Pulakesi overthrew (A) Thomas Monroe (B) Captain Reid
the Kadambas to establish the Chalukya (C) Lord Clive (D) Both A and B
kingdom. He had the titles "Satyashraya",
"Vallabha" and "Dharmamaharaja" Ans.184(D) Ryotwari System was introduced
by Thomas Munro and Captain Reid in 1820.
181. Which ruler's period is known as the golden Major areas of introduction include Madras,
age of Kannada literature? Bombay, parts of Assam and Coorgh
(A) Pulakeshin provinces of British India. In Ryotwari
(B) Krishna Deva Raya System the ownership rights were handed
(C) Vikramaditya over to the peasants.
(D) Kirtivarman
Ans.181(B) The rule of Krishna Deva Raya 185. Second Buddhist Council was conducted
was an age of prolific literature in many under the patronage of Which King?
languages, although it is also known as a (A) Ajatasatru (B) Kanishka
golden age of Kannada literature. Many (C) Kalasoka (D) Ashoka
Telugu, Kannada, Sanskrit, and Tamil poets
the patronage of the emperor. Emperor Ans.185(C) The Second Buddhist Council
Krishna Deva Raya was fluent in many was held at Vaisali (or Vaishali), an ancient
languages. city in what is now the state of Bihar in
northern India, bordering Nepal under the
182. Harshavardhana (ruler of the Pushyabhuti patronage of King Kalasoka while it was
dynasty) was a contemporary of the ruler of presided by Sabakami. This Council probably
which Chalukya dynasty? was held about a century after the first one, or
(A) Pulakeshin I (B) Vikramaditya I about 383 BCE.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
74

190. Who had invited all the Muslim leaders to

186. Who is known as the ‘Father of Modern India’ Shimla for establishment of the Muslim
or ‘Father of the Bengal Renaissance’? league in 1906?
(A) Dayananda Saraswati (A) Lord Minto (B) Lord Curzon
(B) Dhondo Keshav Karve (C) Lord Hardinge II (D) Lord Wellesley
(C) Raja Ram Mohan
(D) Dadabhai Naoroji Ans.190(A) Lord Minto invited all the
Muslim leaders to Shimla and proposed the
Ans.186(C) Raja Ram Mohan roy is known as establishment of the Muslim league. Nawab
the ‘Father of Modern India’ or ‘Father of the Salimullah who played a very important role
Bengal Renaissance’. Widely known for his in the partition of Bengal. He also played an
role in the abolition of the practice of Sati. important role in the establishment of Muslim
league.
187. Who has founded the East India Association
in 1857 with the purpose of putting across 191. Who composed the famous song ‘Amar Sonar
Indian viewpoints across to the British public? Bangla’ which later became the national
(A) Dadabhai Naoroji (B) Jyotiba Phule anthem of Bangladesh?
(C) Swami Vivekananda (D) None of these (A) Rabindranath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
Ans.187(A) Dadabhai Naoroji formed the (C) Bhikaiji Cama
London India Society in 1865 to put forth (D) Rash Behari Bose
views on Indian political, social and literary
subjects. He also founded the East India Ans.191(A) In the Bengal division,
Association in 1867. Rabindranath Tagore composed the famous
song ' Amar Sonar Bangla ', which later
188. Which of the following statements about the became the national anthem of Bangladesh.
Ilbert Bill is correct?
(A) To establish High Court in each province 192. In 1610, the first company factory of East
(B) For promotion of Indian judges India Company in south India was set up in
(C) Indian judges also have powers to __.
consider cases of British accused (A) Machilipatnam (B) Surat
(D) To improve education (C) Mumbai (D) Kozhikode

Ans.188(C) The purpose of the Ilbert bill was Ans.192(A) The first company factory in
to remove ethnic discrimination between south India was set up in Machilipatnam (in
government officials and the Indian subjects. modern-day Andhra Pradesh) along the
The bill also proposed to empower Indian Coromandel Coast.
judges and magistrates to consider the cases of 193. Poona Pact was an agreement between Dr.
the British Accused. Bhimrao Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
signed on _______ .
189. Who has repealed the Vernacular Press Act (A) Sep 24, 1931 (B) Oct 24, 1930
passed by Lord Lytton? (C) Sep 24, 1932 (D) Oct 24, 1932
(A) Lord Ripon (B) Lord Mayo
(C) Lord Dalhousie (D) Lord Wellesley Ans.193(C) Poona pact Babasaheb Ambedkar
and Mahatma Gandhi was signed on
Ans.189(A) Lord Ripon repeal the Vernacular September 24, 1932. The agreement was
Press Act passed by Lord Lytton, in order to signed by Pt Madan Mohan Malviya and Dr.
provide freedom to the newspapers published B. R. Ambedkar and some Dalit leaders at
in vernacular languages. Yerwada Central Jail in Pune, to break
Mahathma Gandhi's fast unto death.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
75

194. Which of these books did not written by

Mahatma Gandhi? 198. In which year the ‘Deliverance Day’ was
(A) Hind Swaraj (B) Indian Opinion celebrated by the Muslim League?
(C) Young India (D) None of these (A) 22 Dec 1940 (B) 22 Dec 1939
(C) 22 Oct 1939 (D) 22 Sep 1940
Ans.194(D) Gandhi ji edited several
newspapers which included Harijan in Ans.198(B) Day of Deliverance was a
Gujarati, in Hindi and in the English language, celebration day marked by the All-India
Indian Opinion, Young India, in English, and Muslim League and others on 22 December
Navajivan, a Gujarati monthly. Hind Swaraj 1939 during the Indian independence
was published in Gujarati in 1909. movement.

195. The Quit India Movement was a movement 199. Which of these Nanda dynasty's rulers was
launched at the which session of the All-India highly unpopular due to his oppressive tax
Congress Committee on 8 August 1942? regime?
(A) Kolkata (B) Bombay (A) Dhana Nanda
(C) Allahabad (D) Surat (B) Shaishu naga
(C) Kalashoka
Ans.195(B) The Quit India Movement, or the (D) Mahapadma Nanda
August Movement, was a movement launched
at the Bombay session of the All-India Ans.199(A) The last of the Nanda rulers,
Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on Dhana Nanda was highly unpopular due to his
8 August 1942, during World War II, oppressive tax regime.
demanding an end to British Rule of India.
200. The Mudrarakshasa, a Sanskrit play that
196. Where did Mahatma Gandhiji die on 30 narrates the ascent of the king Chandragupta
January 1948? Maurya to power in India, is written by
(A) Birla House (B) Tata House whom?
(C) Gujarat (D) Kolkata (A) Kalidasa (B) Harishena
(C) Vishakhadatta (D) Bharavi
Ans.196(A) Mahatma Gandhi die At 5:17 pm
on 30 January 1948, Gandhi was with his Ans.200(C) The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit-
grandnieces in the garden of Birla House (now language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates
Gandhi Smriti), on his way to address a prayer the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya
meeting, when Nathuram Godse, a Hindu to power in India.
nationalist, fired three bullets into his chest
from a pistol . 201. In 1888, who became the first English
197. Who has established the All India Home Rule President of Indian National Congress?
League, a political association aimed at self- (A) Sir John Shore
government or “Home Rule” on 1 August (B) Annie Besant
1916? (C) Sir William Wedderburn
(A) Annie Besant (D) George Yule
(B) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(C) Mahatma Gandhi Ans.201(D) George Yule was a Scottish
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai merchant in England and India who served as
the fourth President of the Indian National
Ans.197(A) On 1 August 1916, Annie Besant Congress in 1888 at Allahabad, the first non-
launched the Home Rule League. Annie Indian to hold that office.
Besant was a British theosophist; he was
women's right's activist, writer and orator who
supported Indian and Irish home rule.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
76

202. Who authored the book ‘The Indian Struggle’ 206. Chauri Chaura incident took place on 5
which covers the Indian independence February 1922 in which province of British
movement from 1920 to 1942? India?
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (A) West Bengal (B) Bihar
(B) Lala Lajpat Rai (C) United Provinces (D)Bombay
(C) Subhas Chandra Bose
(D) Rajendra Prasad Ans.206(C) The Chauri Chaura incident took
place at Chauri Chaura in the Gorakhpur
Ans.202(C) Bose authored the book ‘The district of the United Province, (modern Uttar
Indian Struggle’ which covers the Indian Pradesh) in British India on 5 February 1922.
independence movement from 1920 to 1942.
The book was banned by the British 207. Who had led non-violent march in protest
government against Simon Commission visited Lahore?
(A) Bhagat Singh
203. In which year, Non-cooperation movement (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
was endorsed at the Nagpur session of the (C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Indian National Congress? (D) Bipin Chandra Pal
(A) 1918 (B) 1919
(C) 1921 (D) 1920 Ans.207(B) When the Simon Commission
visited Lahore on 30 October 1928, Lajpat Rai
Ans.203(D) In December 1920 at the Nagpur led non-violent march in protest against it.
session of the Indian National Congress took The protesters slogen "Simon go back".
significant decisions like endorsing the
programme of non-cooperation. 208. Who was the founder of the Khilji dynasty?
(A) Jalal-ud-din Firuz Khilji
204. In whose reign was the dam built on the (B) Alauddin Khilji
Sudarshan lake near Girnar in Kathiawar? (C) Ghiyath al-Din Khilji
(A) Pushya gupta (D) Mahmud Shah Khilji
(B) Chandragupta Maurya
(C) Skandgupta Ans.208(A) The Khalji or Khilji dynasty was
(D) Chandragupta-II a Muslim dynasty that ruled large parts of the
Indian subcontinent between 1290 and 1320.
Ans.204(B) Junagarh Rock inscription It was founded by Jalal-Ud-din Firuz Khalji
mentions that one of Chandragupta Maurya’s and became the second dynasty to rule the
governors, Pushyagupta, was responsible for Delhi Sultanate of India.
building a dam on Sudarshana Lake near
Girnar in Kathiawar. 209. Who was the a former slave (Mamluk) of
Muhammad Ghori and the first Sultan of
205. Allahabad Pillar Inscription (Prayag Prasasti) Delhi?
was issued by Samudragupta and was (A) Aram Shah
composed by _______. (B) Qutb al-Din Aibak
(A) Harisena (B) Kalidasa (C) Iltutmish
(C) Bharavi (D) Vishnugupta (D) Sultan Ghari

Ans.205(A) Samudragupta court poet and Ans.209(B) Qutbu l-Din Aibak, a former
minister Harisena composed the Allahabad slave (Mamluk) of Muhammad Ghori, was the
pillar Inscription or Prayag Prasasti. The Pillar first Sultan of Delhi.
was an Asokan Pillar erected by Asoka six
century before him. 210. Which battle fought between Muhammad-bin-
Qasim and Dahir (the ruler of Sind)?
(A) Battle of Rewar (B) Battle of Aror
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
77

(C) Battle of Sindh (D) None of these

Ans.214(B) For his exemplary service to
Ans.210(B) Battle of Aror Fought between Chhatrapati Shahu in consolidating an empire
Muhammad-bin-Qasim and Dahir the ruler of and setting right many things in the kingdom,
Sind. Balaji Vishwanath is called the ‘Second
founder of the Maratha State’.
211. Who was the most prominent ruler of the Lodi
Dynasty, founded Agra city? 215. In which year Shivaji Maharaj was crowned in
(A) Sikander Lodi (B) Ibrahim Lodi Raigad and became "Chhatrapati"?
(C) Bahlul Lodi (A) 1672 (B) 1656
(D) Nasaruddin Lodi (C) 1680 (D) 1674

Ans.211(A) Sikandar Lodi (Nizam Khan) was Ans.215(D) In 1674, he was formally
the Sultan of Delhi between 1489 and 1517 crowned as the chhatrapati (emperor) of his
and he founded Agra city. He became the next realm at Raigad.
ruler of the Lodi dynasty after the death of his
father Bahlul Lodi in July 1489. 216. What was the capital of Gurjara Pratihara
dynasty?
212. Akbar’s biography Akbarnama was written by (A) Kannauj (B) Meerut
______ in Persian. (C) Awantika (D) Kashi
(A) Abul Fazl
(B) Akbar Ans.216(A) With the power of the
(C) Abdul Rahim Khan-I-Khana Rastrakutas weakened, Nagabhata II
(D) Birbal (Pratihara dynasty) became the most powerful
ruler of northern India and established his new
Ans.212(A) Akbar’s biography is called capital at Kannauj.
Akbarnama and was written by Abul Fazl in
Persian. 217. Which ancient Buddhist texts make refer to
sixteen great Mahajanapadas?
213. The Battle of Hydaspes was fought between (A) Matsya Purana (B) Bhagavati Sutra
whom in 326 BC? (C) Anguttara Nikaya (D) Vishnu Puran
(A) Alexander the Great and King Porus
(B) Alexander the Great and Chandragupta Ans.217(C) Most of the historical details
Maurya about the Mahajanapadas are culled from
(C) Alexander the Great and Bindusara Sanskrit literature. The list of sixteen great
(D)Ashoka and Alexander the Great countries (solasa-maha janapada) to be found
in the early Buddhist texts of the Anguttara
Ans.213(A) The Battle of the Hydaspes was Nikaya and the Mahdvastu.
fought in 326 BC between Alexander the
Great and King Porus of the Paurava kingdom 218. Who has convened the First Buddhist Council
on the banks of the Jhelum River (known to at Rajagriha just after the death of Buddha in
the Greeks as Hydaspes) in the Punjab region 483 BC?
of the Indian subcontinent (modern-day (A) Bimbisara (B) Ajatasatru
Punjab, Pakistan). (C) Kalasoka (D) Dhana Nanda

214. Who is known as the Second founder of the Ans.218(B) The council was held in the
Maratha State? Sattapani cave at Rajgriha. The council was
(A) Balaji Baji Rao II held with the purpose of preserving Buddha's
(B) Balaji Vishwanath teachings (Sutta) and rules for disciples.
(C) Balaji Baji Rao During this council, the teachings of Buddha
(D) Raghunathrao were divided into three Pitakas. under the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
78

patronage of the king Ajatashatru with the (C) 325 - 380 AD (D) 315 - 380 AD
Mahakasyapa presiding it was held.
Ans.223(A) Samudragupta (reigned 335-380)
219. The Hindustan Republican Association was is the second ruler of the Gupta Dynasty, who
founded in October 1924 in ______. ushered in the Golden Age in India. He was a
(A) Kanpur (B) Lucknow benevolent ruler, a great warrior and a patron
(C) Delhi (D) Punjab of arts. Samudragupta, son of Chandragupta,
was the greatest king of Gupta dynasty.
Ans.219(A) The Hindustan Republican Samudragupta also known as the 'Napoleon of
Association was founded in Kanpur in India' for his conquests, he was also a man of
October 1924 by Ramprasad Bismil, Yogesh many talents.
Chandra Chatterjee, Chandrashekhar Azad
and Shachindranath Sanyal etc. 224. Bimbisara belongs to which dynasty?
(A) Magadha (B) Kamboja
220. Which Rashtrakuta ruler built a rock-cut (C) Avadh (D) Gandhara
Kailash temple in Ellora?
(A) Krishna I (B) Amoghavarsha Ans.224(A) The Haryanka dynasty is the
(C) Krishna II (D) Dantidurga second ruling dynasty of Magadha, an empire
of ancient India, which succeeded in the
Ans.220(A) Many Rashtrakuta kings were mythological Barhadratha dynasty. Initially,
devoted to studies and art. The second king, the capital was Rajagriha. Later, it was shifted
Krishna I (circa 756 to 773), built the Kailash to Pataliputra, near the present-day Patna in
temple by cutting the rock at Ellora. India during the reign of Udayin. Thus
Bimbisara is considered the main founder of
221. Who was appointed as Governor General of the dynasty.
India in 1772 AD to 1785 AD?
(A) Warren Hastings 225. Which one of the following began with the
(B) Robert Clive Dandi March?
(C) Lord William Bentinck (A) Home rule Movement
(D) Charles Canning (B) Non-Cooperation Movement
(C) Civil disobedience Movement
Ans.221(A) Warren Hasting was appointed as (D) Quit India Movement
Governor General of India in 1772 AD to
1785 AD India's first newspaper 'The Bengal Ans.225(C) The Civil Disobedience
Gazette' was published in his reign. Movement was launched by Mahatma Gandhi
when British Government not given positive
222 . Who wrote the book The First Indian War of response on Gandhi's eleven demands. Hence,
Independence? Mahatma Gandhi had decided to make salt the
central formula for Civil Disobedience
(A) Annie Besant (B) Ashok Mehta Movement.
(C) W C Bonnerjee (D) V. D Savarkar
226. Which monk influenced Ashoka to embrace
Ans.222(D) In India, the term First War of Buddhism?
Independence was first popularized by (A) Vishnu Gupta (B) Upa Gupta
Vinayak Damodar Savarkar in his 1909 book (C) Brahma Gupta (D) Brihadratha
The History of the War of Indian
Independence, which was originally written in Ans.226(B) Upagupta was a Buddhist saint
Marathi. and dharma master from Northwest India. He
was the spiritual teacher of the Mauryan
223. Samudragupta period was. emperor Ashoka. In Myanmar he is known as
(A) 335 - 380 AD (B) 330 - 380 AD Shin Upagutta.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
79

230. Maurya Period was from:

227. Who founded the Lodi dynasty? (A) 320 BC - 185 BC
(A) Ibrahim Lodi (B) Sikandar Lodi (B) 322 BC - 187 BC
(C) Bahlol Lodi (D) Khizr Khan (C) 315 BC - 185 BC
(D) 310 BC - 185 BC
Ans.227(C) Lodi dynasty, (1451–1526) was
the last ruling family of the Delhi sultanate of Ans.230(B) Chandragupta Maurya is the
India. The first Lodī ruler was Bahlol Lodi founder of Maurya empire. Art, Culture and
(reigned 1451–89), the most powerful of the Religiously flourished in this empire. Maurya
Punjab chiefs, who replaced the last king of Period from 322 BCE to 187 BCE. Iron Age
the Sayyid dynasty in 1451. Bahlol ‘s second was the start of this great empire and covered
son, Sikandar (reigned 1489–1517), continued the almost whole Indian subcontinent
his father’s expansion policy. Bahlol Khan geographically. Chanakya was the renowned
Lodi (r. 1451–1489) was the nephew and son- guru at Takshashila hence wrote the famous
in-law of Malik Sultan Shah Lodi. Arthshastra. Chandragupta’s successor was
king Bindusara and his Grandson was King
228. Which Governor General is associated with Ashoka.
Doctrine of Lapse?
(A) Lord Ripon (B) Lord Dalhousie 231. In which year Swaraj Party formed?
(C) Lord Bentinck (D) Lord Curzon (A) 1920 (B) 1921
(C) 1922 (D) 1923
Ans.228(B) The doctrine of lapse was an
annexation policy applied by the British East Ans.231(D) Swaraj Party, Indian political
India Company in India until 1859 by Lord party established in late 1922–early 1923 by
Dalhousie, governor-general of India (1848– members of the Indian National Congress
56), to deal with questions of succession to (Congress Party), notably Motilal Nehru, one
Hindu Indian states. According to Hindu law, of the most prominent lawyers in northern
an individual or a ruler without natural heirs India (and the father of political leader
could adopt a person who would then have all Jawaharlal Nehru), and Chitta Ranjan Das a
the personal and political rights of a son. nationalist politician from Bengal. The party’s
Dalhousie asserted the paramount power’s name is taken from the term swaraj, meaning
right of approving such adoptions and of “self-rule,” which was broadly applied to the
acting at discretion in their absence in the case movement to gain independence from British
of dependent states. rule.

229. Who among the following British persons 232. "Jatakas" are text associated with which
admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national Religion?
revolt? (A) Hinduism (B) Jainism
(A) Lord Dalhousie (C) Buddhism (D) Jews
(B) Lord Canning
(C) Lord Ellenborough Ans.232(C) The Jatakas are an important part
(D) Benziman Disraeli of Buddhist art and literature. They describe
the previous existences or births of the
Ans.229(D) Benjamin Disraeli was a British Buddha (the Enlightened One) when he
politician of the Conservative Party who twice appeared as Bodhisattvas (beings who are yet
served as Prime Minister of the United to attain enlightenment or moksha), in both
Kingdom. Benjamin Disraeli was leader of human and non-human forms. The literary
Conservative Party and opposition leader in text called the Jataka contains more than 500
the House of Commons. He described the tales.
revolt of 1857 as ‘a national rising’.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
80

233. The Chalukya dynasty was a Classical Indian

royal dynasty that ruled large parts of southern Ans.235(D) Nellore district located in Coastal
and central India between the 6th and the 12th Andhra region is one of the 13 districts of
centuries. So, who was the most famous ruler Andhra Pradesh districts with
of Chalukya dynasty? Vikramasimhapuri (modern Nellore) as their
(A) Pulakesin II (B) Pulakesin I head capital. Nellore is also famous for
(C) Adityavarman (D) Kirtivarman I quality rice production and aqua (prawn and
fish) culture. Nellore district is called the
Ans.233(A) The Chalukya dynasty reached its "Shrimp capital of India" due to its high
peak during the reign of Pulakesin II. he production of cultured shrimp. About 70
wasThe greatest of the Chalukya kings and percent of the total work force is dependent
extended the Chalukya rule to most parts of upon agriculture either as farmers or as
the Deccan. His birth name was Eraya. agricultural labour.
Xuanzang visited Pulakesin II's kingdom. He
has praised Pulakesin II as a good and 236. Bodh Gaya is a religious site and place of
authoritative king. Though a Hindu, he was pilgrimage associated with the Mahabodhi
tolerant of Buddhism and Jainism. He Temple Complex in Gaya district in the Indian
conquered almost entire south-central India. state of Bihar. It is famous as it is the place
He had defeated the Pallava king where Gautama Buddha is said to have
Mahendravarman I but was defeated and attained Enlightenment. Bodh Gaya is the
killed by Mahendravarman’s son and most important of the main four pilgrimage
successor Narasimhavarman I in a series of sites related to the life of Gautama Buddha,
battles he had with the Pallavas. For the next then name the other site?
13 years, Badami remained under Pallava (A) Kushinagar (B) Lumbini
control. (C) Both A & B (D) None

234. Mohenjo-daro meaning 'Mound of the Dead Ans.236(C) Kushinagar is a pilgrimage town
Men' and is an archaeological site in the in the Kushinagar district of the Indian state of
province of Sindh, Pakistan. Built around Uttar Pradesh. It is an important Buddhist
2500 BCE. Which was designated a UNESCO pilgrimage site, where Buddhists believe
World Heritage Site in 1980. It was one of the Gautama Buddha attained Parinirvana after
largest cities of which civilization? his death. Lumbini is a Buddhist pilgrimage
(A) Persian Civilization site in the Rupandehi District of Province No.
(B) Incan civilization 5 in Nepal. It is the place where, according to
(C) Indus Valley Civilization Buddhist tradition, Queen Mahamayadevi
(D) Egyptian gave birth to Siddhartha Gautama in 563
BCE.
Ans.234(C) The civilization was first
identified in 1921 at Harappa in the Punjab 237. Who was the Editor of 'Young India' and
region and then in 1922. The Indus 'Harijan'?
Civilization had a writing system which today (A) Nehru
still remains a mystery: all attempts to (B) Ambedkar
decipher it have failed. Examples of this (C) Mahatma Gandhi
writing system have been found in pottery, (D) Subash Chandra Bose
amulets, carved stamp seals, and even in
weights and copper tablets. Ans.237(C) Young India was a weekly paper
or journal in English published by Mohandas
235. Which of the following is called the 'Shrimp Karamchand Gandhi from 1919 to 1931. In
capital of India'? 1933 Gandhiji started publishing a weekly
(A) Mangalore (B) Nagapatnam newspaper, Harijan, in English. Harijan,
(C) Kochi (D) Nellore which means "People of God", which is lasted
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
81

until 1948. During this time Gandhi also delegates in total took part in this conference.
published Harijan Bandu in Gujarati, and The INC and the Labour Party decided not to
Harijan Sevak in Hindi. attend it. (The INC wasn’t invited). Indian
princely states were represented by princes
238. Nanda dynasty, family that ruled Magadha, in and divans. British Indians were represented
northern India, between c 343 - 321 BCE. The by the Aga Khan (Muslims), Depressed
Nanda dynasty preceded by the dynasty of the classes women, Europeans, Anglo-Indians and
Mauryas, what was the name of last Nanda labour groups. B. R. Ambedkar attended all
rular? the Three Round Table Conferences.
(A) Govishanaka (B) Pandugati
(C) Dhananand (D) Kaivarta
241. Which army was defeated by Mahmud of
Ghazni to conquer Peshawar and Punjab?
Ans.238(C) The conquest of the Nanda
(A) Ghurids (B) Arabs
Empire under Dhana Nanda by a force under
(C) Karkotakas (D) Hindushahis
Chandragupta Maurya in the 4th century won.
Dhana Nanda (died c 321 BCE) was the last
Ans.241(D) Battle of Peshawar, was fought
ruler of the Nanda dynasty. Chanakya, a
on 27 November 1001 between the Ghaznavid
Brahmin who was insulted by him, vowed to
army of Sultan Mahmud bin Sebuktigin
overthrow him, and raised an army that
(Mahmud of Ghazni) and the Hindu Shahi
invaded the Nanda capital Pataliputra and
army of Jayapala, near Peshawar. Jayapala
killed him. Chanakya then installed his own
was defeated and captured, and as a result of
protege Chandragupta Maurya on the throne.
the humiliation of the defeat, he later
immolated himself in a funeral pyre.
239. The Treaty of Seringapatam (also called
Srirangapatinam or Srirangapatna), signed 18
242. The Mongol Empire existed during the 13th
March 1792, ended the Third Anglo-Mysore
and 14th centuries, and was the largest
War. The treaty of Srirangapatna was signed
contiguous land empire in history the Mongol
between Tipu Sultan and who?
Empire eventually stretched from Eastern
(A) Robert Clive (B) Cornwallis
Europe and parts of Central Europe to the Sea
(C) Warren Hastings (D) Dalhousie
of Japan, who was the founder of Mongol
Empire?
Ans.239(B) There was the third Indo Mysore
(A) Kublai Khan (B) Genghis Khan
war which was fought between the Nizams of
(C) Mongke Khan (D) None
Hyderabad, Tipu Sultan of Hyderabad and the
East India Company headed by Lord
Ans.242(B) The Mongol Empire was a vast
Cornwallis. The East India Company was
empire during the 13th and 14th centuries.
empowered to rule upon Mysore and
This empire began with the unification of the
Hyderabad after the defeat in the third Indo
nomadic tribes of Mongolia by Genghis Khan.
Mysore war. According to Srirangapatna
Beginning in Central Asia, this state
treaty, Tupu had given the entire land which
eventually spread from Europe in the east to
belongs to them and some of the land was
the Sea of Japan in the west and from Siberia
surrendered to the East India Company under
in the north to the Indian subcontinent in the
the leadership of Lord Cornwallis.
south. The Mongol rulers were Buddhists at
first, but later gradually came into contact
240. Which of the following attended all the Three
with the Turks and embraced Islam.
Round Table Conferences?
(A) B. R. Ambedkar (B) M.M. Malavia
243. Which king is referred to as Devanampiya
(C) Vallabhbhai Patel (D) Gandhiji
Piyadassi (Beloved of the Gods) in the
inscriptions?
Ans.240(A) The third and last session
(A) Asoka (B) Harsha
assembled on November 17, 1932. Only 46
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
82

(C) Bindusara (D) None of the above

(D) Chandragupta Maurya
Ans.245(C) Pala dynasty, ruling dynasty in
Ans.243(A) Ashoka, also known as Ashoka Bihar and Bengal, India, from the 8th to the
the Great, was an Indian emperor of the 12th century. Its founder, Gopala, was a local
Maurya Dynasty, who ruled almost all of the chieftain who rose to power in the mid-8th
Indian subcontinent from c. 268 to 232 BCE. century during a period of anarchy. His
The grandson of the founder of the Maurya successor, Dharmapala (reigned c 770–810),
Dynasty, Chandragupta Maurya, Ashoka greatly expanded the kingdom and for a while
promoted the spread of Buddhism across was in control of Kannauj. Ramapala (reigned
ancient Asia. Considered by many to be one c. 1077–1120), the last important Pala king,
of India's greatest emperors, Ashoka expanded did much to strengthen the dynasty in Bengal
Chandragupta's empire to reign over a realm and expanded its power in Assam and Orissa.
stretching from present-day Afghanistan in the
west to Bangladesh in the east.
246. Members of the Arya Samaj believe in one
God and reject the worship of idols. Who
244. The Edicts of Ashoka are a collection of more
started Arya Samaj?
than thirty inscriptions on the pillars, as well
(A) Swami Vivekananda
as boulders and cave walls, attributed to
(B) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
Emperor Ashoka of the Mauryan Empire who
(C) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
reigned from 268 BCE to 232 BCE. The
(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati
Asoka Edicts were deciphering first by:
(A) Sir John Marshall
Ans.246(D) Arya Samaj is a Hindu reform
(B) Sir William Jones
movement founded by Swami Dayanand
(C) Charles Wilkins
Saraswati in 1875 in Bombay with the
(D) James Princep
inspiration of Swami Virjanand of Mathura.
This movement was started to reform
Ans.244(D) James Prinsep antiquary and
Hinduism in response to Western influences.
colonial administrator in India, the first
The Aryans believed in pure Vedic tradition
European scholar to decipher the edicts of the
and rejected idol worship, avatarism, sacrifice,
ancient Indian emperor Ashoka. Prinsep was
false rituals and superstitions. In this,
appointed to the Calcutta (Kolkata) mint in
untouchability and caste discrimination were
1819 but he left the post to become assay
opposed and women and Shudras were also
master (1820–30) at the Benares (Varanasi)
given the right to wear Yagyopaveet and read
mint. He was the founding editor of the
the Vedas. The book titled Satyarth Prakash
Journal of the Asiatic Society of Bengal and is
composed by Swami Dayanand Saraswati is
best remembered for deciphering the
the original book of Arya Samaj. The motto of
Kharosthi and Brahmi scripts of ancient India.
the Arya Samaj is: Krishnamanto
Vishvamaryam, which means - Make the
245. The Pala Empire was an imperial power
world Arya.
during the Late Classical period on the Indian
subcontinent, which originated in the region
247. The Second Battle of Panipat was fought on 5
of Bengal. It is named after its ruling dynasty;
November 1556 and it was fought between?
whose rulers bore names ending with the
(A) Babur and Lodi
suffix of Pala ("protector" in Sanskrit). They
(B) Akbar and Hemu
were followers of the Mahayana and Tantric
(C) Mughal and British
schools of Buddhism. The first ruler of Pala
(D) Akbar and Lodi
dynasty was?
(A) Bhaskaravarman
Ans.247(B) Akbar the Great, was the third
(B) Dharmapala
Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1556 to
(C) Gopala
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
83

1605. Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun, Ans.249(C) Harijan Sewak Sangh, born out of
under a regent, Bairam Khan, who helped the the historic Poona Pact between Mahatma
young emperor expand and consolidate Gandhi and Babasaheb Ambedkar in 1932,
Mughal domains in India. Hemu known as was founded by the Father of the Nation the
Hemu Vikramaditya and Hemchandra same year, to lend a conducive environment
Vikramaditya (died 5 November 1556) was a for the upliftment of the oppressed classes or
Hindu king. He fought Afghan rebels across 'Harijans' as he called them. But the place that
North India from the Punjab to Bengal and the Gandhi personally nurtured to "bring light"
Mughal forces of Humayun and Akbar in into the lives of the people living on the lower
Agra and Delhi, winning 22 battles for Adil strata of the society, has itself, literally "fallen
Shah. Hemu was wounded by a arrow and into darkness".
captured unconscious during the Second
Battle of Panipat. 250. The title ‘Punjab Kesari’ was conferred to?
(A) Lala Lajpat Rai
248. Sarvodaya is a Sanskrit term meaning (B) Sardar Baldev Singh
'universal uplift' or 'progress of all'. The term (C) Bhagat Singh
was used by Mahatma Gandhi as the title of (D) Ranjit Singh
his 1908 translation of John Ruskin's tract on
political economy, and Gandhi came to use Ans.250(A) Lala Lajpat Rai was an Indian
the term for the ideal of his own political freedom fighter. He played a pivotal role in
philosophy. The Sarvodaya Movement was the Indian Independence movement. He was
initiated by? popularly known as Punjab Kesari. He was
(A) Mahatma Gandhi also associated with activities of Punjab
(B) J P Narayan National Bank and Lakshmi Insurance
(C) Vinoba Bhave Company in their early stages in 1894. Lajpat
(D) Bhagat Singh Rai was a veteran leader of the Indian
Nationalist Movement, Indian independence
Ans.248(C) Vinayak Narahari "Vinoba" movement led by the Indian National
Bhave was an Indian advocate of nonviolence Congress, Hindu reform movements and Arya
and human rights. Sarvodaya means “the Samaj.
welfare of all.” Sarvodaya movement is the
movement which aims at rural reconstruction 251. Mangal Pandey was a sepoy at which
and uplifting the people of rural India by infantry?
peaceful and co-operative means. Sarvodaya (A) Royal Gorkha Rifle
stresses on coexistence and mutual love. After (B) 34th Bengal Native Infantary
Gandhi, It was subsequently adopted by (C) Sikh Regiment
Achaiya Vinoba Bhave. He developed it (D) None of above
taking into consideration of Indian social
systems and conditions. Ans.251(B) He was a sepoy (sipahi) in the
34th Bengal Native Infantry (BNI) regiment
249. Harijan Sevak Sangh is a non-profit of the British East India Company. In 1984,
organisation founded by Mahatma Gandhi to the Indian government issued a postage stamp
eradicate untouchability in India, working for to remember him. His life and actions have
Harijan or Dalit people and upliftment of also been portrayed in several cinematic
scheduled castes of India. It is headquartered productions. Pandey was born in a town near
at Kingsway Camp in Delhi, with branches in Faizabad in what is now eastern Uttar Pradesh
26 states across India. All India Harijan state in northern India, although some give his
Sangha established in which year? birth place as a small village near Lalitpur (in
(A) 1930 (B) 1931 present-day southwestern Uttar Pradesh). He
(C) 1932 (D) 1933 was from a high-caste Brahman landowning
family that professed strong Hindu beliefs.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
84

Government of India during Prime Minister

252. Who was the founder of Madras? Indira Gandhi's tenure. Kailash Sankhala was
(A) Francis Day (B) Lord Dalhousie the first director of Project Tiger.
(C) Sir John Child (D) Robert Clive (A) 1982 (B) 1992
(C) 1979 (D) 1973
Ans.252(A) Francis Day was an
administrator associated with the East India Ans.255(D) Project Tiger was first initiated in
Company. He served as a factor of the the year April 1, 1973, by GOI and is still
Company's factory at Masulipatnam from going on.
1632 to 1639. In 1639, he negotiated the During the tiger census of 2006, a new
purchase of a strip of land south of the Dutch methodology was used extrapolating
factory at Pulicat from the Raja of sitespecific densities of tigers, their
Chandragiri, where the town of Madras was copredators and prey derived from camera
built. He served as the second Agent of trap and sign surveys using GIS.
Madras from 1643 to 1644. Along with The government has set up a Tiger Protection
Andrew Cogan, he is regarded as the founder Force to combat poachers and funded
of Madras. relocation of villagers to minimize human-
tiger conflicts.
253. How many great powers (Mahajanapada) 256. Name the state of the following which
existed in the seventh and sixth centuries BCE Chandragupta I had got in the dowry from
during the life of Lord Gautama Buddha? Lichhavi.
(A) 11 (B) 13 (A) Pataliputra (B) Prayag
(C) 17 (D) 16 (C) Saket (D) Ujjain

Ans.253(D) During the time of 6-7th century Ans.256(A) Chandragupta I got Pataliputra in
BC there were total 16 janpads were existing dowry from the Lichhavis. It is not certain
throughout the country. how he turned his small ancestral kingdom
These were Kasi, Kosala, Anga, Magadha, into an empire, although a widely accepted
Vajji, Malla, Chedi, Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, theory among modern historians is that his
Machcha, Surasena, Assaka, Avanti, marriage to the Lichchhavi princess
Gandhara and Kamboja. Kumaradevi helped him extend his political
In the Budhist traditions these kingdoms came power. Their son Samudragupta further
to be known as 'Mahajanapadas' expanded the Gupta empire.

254. Which of the following is not one of the 257. The earliest dynasty, known as the "Badami
monarchy states that existed in India in the Chalukyas”. Who was the founder of the
seventh and early sixth centuries BC?
Chalukya dynasty?
(A) Magadha (B) Vaishali
(A) Pulaksen First (B) Kirtivarman
(C) Avanti (D) Kosala
(C) Narasimhavarman (D) Mangalsa
Ans.254(B) Vaishali was not among the 16
Ans.257(A) Jayasimha was the first ruler of
janpadas present during 7th century (B)(C)
the Chalukyas. Pulakesin was Founded the
During the time of 6-7th century (B)C there
Badami Chalukyaswith his capital at Vatapi.
were total 16 janpads were existing
Performed Ashwamedha. Kirtivarman I was
throughout the country. These were Kasi,
Son of Pulakesin I.
Kosala, Anga, Magadha, Vajji, Malla, Chedi,
Vatsa, Kuru, Panchala, Machcha, Surasena,
258. Encouraged by his early successes, the Sultan
Assaka, Avanti, Gandhara and Kamboja.
of which Delhi Sultanate assumed the title of
'Sikandar II' (mash) and mentioned it on his
255. Project Tiger is a tiger conservation
coins?
programme launched in which year by the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
85

(A) Allaudin Khilji 261. The Indian slave dynasty lasted from 1206 to
(B) Jalal-ud-din Khilji 1290. The slave dynasty was the first Muslim
(C) Ghiyas ud din Balban dynasty to rule India. who founded the slave
(D) Firoz shah Tughlaq dynasty?
(A) Sultan Qutbuddin Aibak
Ans.258(A) Jalal-ud-din Khalji was the (B) Tughlaq dynasty
founder and first Sultan of the Khalji dynasty (C) Lodhi dynasty
that ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1290 to (D) Khilji dynasty
1320. Encouraged by his early successes,
Alauddin assumed the title of 'Sikandar II' Ans.261(A) It is said that Muhammad Ghori
(mash) and mentioned it on his coins. did not have a natural heir to the throne and he
Alauddin accepted the title of 'Yamin-ul- the habit of loving his slaves like his own
Khilafat-Nasiri-Amir-ul-Mominin', children. Thus, after the death of Ghori, one of
recognizing the authority of the Caliphate, but the ablest slaves by the name of Qutub-ud-
he did not consider it necessary to take his din Aibak descended the throne. The history
post from the Caliph. The Ulema class was of the slave dynasty begins with the rule of
also not allowed to interfere in its governance. Qutub-ud-din Aibak. Qutb-ud-din Aibak,
Shams-ud-din Iltutmush and Ghiyas-ud-din
259. The Bagh Caves are a group of nine rock-cut Balban were the three great Sultans of the era.
monuments, situated among the southern
slopes of the Vindhyas in Bagh town of Dhar 262. Vikramashila University was founded by
district in which state? which Pala king?
(A) Madhya Pradesh (A) Dharmapala (B) Mihira Bhoja
(B) Himachal Pradesh (C) Rajendra Chola (D) Pulakeshin I
(C) Sikkim
(D) Odisha Ans.262(A) Vikramashila was founded by
Pala king Dharmapala in the late 8th or early
Ans.259(A) Bagh caves are situated in state of 9th century.
Madhya Pradesh, Dhar District. Bagh caves It is one of the top center of education not
are known for rock cut architecture. Mainly only for Indians but also for foreigners.
inspired from Buddhism. It prospered for about four centuries before it
All of the 9 caves are viharas- the caves used was destroyed by Bakhtiyar Khilji along with
for residence by Buddhist Monks. the other major centres of Buddhism in India
around 119.
260. The Badami Chalukyas first had their capital
at where before they moved it to Badami? 263. The Gurjara-Pratihara dynasty was ruled
(A) Pattadakal (B) Aihole much of Northern India from the mid-8th to
(C) Hubli (D) Bijapur the 11th century. They ruled first at Ujjain and
later at Kannauj. who was the ruler of this
Ans.260(B) Aihole, also referred to as Aivalli, dynasty?
Ahivolal or Aryapura, is a historic site of (A) Chola (B) Rashtrakuta
ancient and medieval era Buddhist, Hindu and (C) Bappa rawal (D) Mihira Bhoja
Jain monuments in north Karnataka. Aihole is
an important archaeological site and Ans.263(D) Mihira Bhoja (836–885 CE) or
recognized as UNESCO World heritage site. Bhoja I was a ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara
The Chalukya dynasty was established by dynasty of India. He was succeeded his father
Pulakeshin I in 543. Pulakeshin I took Vatapi Ramabhadra. Bhoja was a devotee of Vishnu
(modern Badami in Bagalkot district, and adopted the title of adivaraha which is
Karnataka) under his control and made it his inscribed on some of his coins. One of the
capital. outstanding political figures of India in ninth
century, he ranks with Dhruva Dharavarsha
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
86

and Dharmapala as a great general and empire

builder. 267. In 1564 during the defending the Garh
Kantaga while fighting with Mughal forces
264. The period between __________ in India’s who died what is the name of the queen?
history is known as the Delhi Sultanate (A) Rani Avantibai (B) Rani Durgavati
period. (C) Rani Rudrabara (D) Rani Ahilyabai
(A) 1206 AD and 1526 AD
(B) 745 AD and 1245 AD Ans.267(B) Rani Durgavati was the ruling
(C) 1105 AD and 1445 AD Queen of Gondwana from 1550 until 1564. In
(D) 1456 AD and 1675 AD 1542, she was married to Dalpat Shah, the
eldest son of king Sangram Shah of
Ans.264(A) Period between 1206-1526 is Gondwana kingdom.
considered as Delhi Sultanate. The kingdoms
of Delhi Sultanate are as follow 268. The Somnath temple located in Prabhas Patan
(a) Slave dynasty 1206 – 1290 near Junagadh in Saurashtra on the western
(b) Khilji dynasty 1290 – 1320 coast of Gujarat, India is believed to be the
(c) Tughlaq dynasty 1321 - 1413 first among the twelve jyotirlinga shrines of
(d) Sayyid dynasty 1414 - 1450 Shiva. In 1026 AD, who attacked and looted
(e) Lodhi dynasty 1451 - 1526 the famous Somnath temple?
(A) Muhammad Ghauri
265. Veer Kunwar Singh Jayanti is celebrated in (B) Mahmood Ghazni
which state in order to recognise the (C) Genghis Khan
achievements of Kunwar Singh during the (D) Nadir Shah
Indian rebellion of 1857.
(A) Uttarakhand Ans.268(B) Mahmud of Ghazni was the first
(B) Bihar independent ruler of the Ghaznavid dynasty,
(C) Uttar Pradesh ruling from 999 to 1030. In 1025 Mahmud
(D) Himachal Pradesh raided Gujarat, plundering the Somnath
temple and breaking its jyotirlinga. He took
Ans.265(B) Kunwar Singh was a notable away a booty of 2 million dinars.
leader during the Indian Rebellion of 1857.
He belonged to a royal house of Jagdispur, 269. The Indian National Association also known
Bihar. At the age of 80, he led a select band of as Indian Association was the first avowed
armed soldiers against the troops under the nationalist organization founded in British
command of the British East India Company. India by Surendranath Banerjee and who?
(A) V. K. Chiplunkar
266. In which of the following places was the rule (B) Anand Mohan Bose
of the Wadiyar dynasty? (C) Shishir Kumar Ghosh
(A) Patna (B) Mysore (D) Badruddin Tyabji
(C) Jabalpur (D) Guwahati
Ans.269(B) The objectives of this Association
Ans.266(B) The Wadiyar dynasty is an Indian were "promoting by every legitimate means
Hindu dynasty that ruled the Kingdom of the political, intellectual and material
Mysore from 1399 to 1947. The dynasty was advancement of the people". The Association
established in 1399 by Yaduraya Wodeyar. He attracted educated Indians and civic leaders
ruled Mysore under the Vijayanagara Empire from all parts of the country, and became an
until 1423.After Yaduraya Wodeyar, the important forum for India's aspirations for
Mysore kingdom was succeeded by the independence. It later merged with the Indian
Wadiyar rulers. The kingdom remained fairly National Congress. Indian National
small during this early period and was a part Association was the first declared Nationalist
of the Vijayanagara Empire. Organization founded in British India by
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87

Surendranath Banerjee and Anand Mohan (D) Nasiruddin Mahmud

Bose in 1876. It was originally established as
Bharat Sabha and held its first annual Ans.272(B) In the court of Alauddin, eminent
conference in Calcutta. It merged in INC in
Khusras and high-class scholars such as
1885.
Hasan Nizami were patronized. In the field of
architecture, Alauddin Khilji built the circular
270. Which two Indus sites found in Afghanistan?
'Alai Darwaza' or 'Kushka-e-Shikar'. The 'Alai
(A) Lothal and Daimabad
Darwaza' made by him is considered to be a
(B) Shatughai and Dainabad
masterpiece of early Turkish art. It built the
(C) Shatughai and Mundigaq
fort of Siri, the Thousand Pillar Palace.
(D) Mundigaq and Daimabad
273. The Partition of Bengal made by who in 1905.
Ans.270(C) Shortugai (Shortughai) was an
(A) Lord Curzon (B) Lord Hardinge
Indus Valley Civilization trading colony
(C) Richard Wellesley (D) Warren Hastings
established around 2000 BC on the Oxus river
(Amu Darya) near the lapis lazuli mines in
Ans.273(A) Partition of Bengal, (1905),
northern Afghanistan. It is considered to be
division of Bengal carried out by the British
the northernmost settlement of the Indus
viceroy in India, Lord Curzon, despite strong
Valley Civilization. Mundigaq is an
Indian nationalist opposition. It began a
archaeological site in Kandahar province in
transformation of the Indian National
Afghanistan. It is situated approximately 55
Congress from a middle-class pressure group
km northwest of Kandahar near Shāh Maqsūd,
into a nationwide mass movement. Bengal,
on the upper drainage of the Kushk-i Nakhud
Bihar, and Orissa had formed a single
River.
province of British India since 1765. By 1900
the province had grown too large to handle
271. The invasion of Delhi by Timur marks the end
under a single administration.
of the Tughlaq Empire in which year?
(A) 1645 (B) 1398
274. The Harappan civilization was located in
(C) 1452 (D) 1215
which river valley.
(A) Krishna (B) Indus
Ans.271(B) In 1398, Timur invaded northern
(C) Godavari (D) Ganga
India, attacking the Delhi Sultanate ruled by
Sultan Nasir-ud-Din Mahmud Shah Tughluq
Ans.274(B) The Harappan civilization was
of the Tughlaq dynasty. After crossing the
located in the Indus River valley. Its two large
Indus River on 30 September 1398, he sacked
cities, Harappa and Mohenjo-daro, were
Tulamba (It is a small Town in Punjab) and
located in present-day Pakistan’s Punjab and
massacred its inhabitants. He conquered one
Sindh provinces, respectively. Its extent
kingdom after another. In course of a fight, his
reached as far south as the Gulf of Khambhat
one leg was wounded and his leg remain limp
and as Far East as the Yamuna (Jumna) River.
for the rest of his life. Timur has stated, “My
Harappa is an archaeological site in Punjab,
object in the invasion of Hindustan is to lead
Pakistan, about 24 km (15 mi) west of
an expedition against the infidels, to convert
Sahiwal.
them to the true faith of Islam and purify the
land itself from the filth, infidelity and
275. “Go back to Vedas.” This slogan given by
polytheism.
(A) Ramakrishna Paramah-amsa
(B) Vivekananda
272. Who built 'Alai Darwaza' or 'Kushk-e-
(C) Jyotiba Phule
Shikar'?
(D) Daynand Saraswati
(A) Jalal-ud-din Khilji
(B) Allauddin Khilji
(C) Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq
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88

Ans.275(D) Swami Dayanand Saraswati gave day Pakistan's Punjab and Sindh provinces,
the slogan 'Go back to Vedas'. He was the respectively. The ruins of Mohenjo-daro were
founder of Arya Samaj, a Hindu reform designated a UNESCO World Heritage site in
movement of the Vedic tradition. 1980. It was discovered by Rai Bahadur Daya
Ram Sahni.
276. Who introduced the Pitts Bill in India?
(A) Clive (B) Hastings 279. In the Western India which dynasty came after
(C) Wellesley (D) Cornwallis The Chalukya dynasty?
(A) Cholas (B) Kakatiyas
Ans.276(B) The East India Company Act, (C) Pallavas (D) Rashtrakutas
also known as Pitt's India Act, was an Act of
the Parliament of Great Britain intended to Ans.279(C) The Pallava dynasty was a South
address the shortcomings of the Regulating Indian dynasty that existed from 275 CE to
Act of 1773 by bringing the East India 897 CE. Throughout their reign they were in
Company's rule in India under the control of constant conflict with both Chalukyas of
the British Government. Named for British Badami. Pallava King Narsimhavaraman-I
prime minister William Pitt the Younger, the invaded the Chalukya kingdom and defeated
act provided for the appointment of a Board of Pulkeshin-II (Chalukya Dynasty).
Control, and provided for a joint government
of British India by the Company and the 280. What name did the Arabs give Multan?
Crown with the government holding the (A) City of beauty
ultimate authority. A six-member board of (B) City of wealth
controllers was set up for political activities (C) City of gold
and Court of directors for financial/ (D) Pink city
commercial activities.
Ans.280(C)Multan is a city in Punjab,
277. The first Indian selected for Indian Civil Pakistan. Multan is also known as the city of
Service was: Saints. Located on the banks of the Chenab
(A) Surendra Nath Banerji River, Multan is Pakistan's 7th largest city,
(B) Satyendranath Tagore and is the major cultural and economic centre
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai of southern Punjab. Multan was one of the
(D) (C) R. Das most important trading centres of medieval
Islamic India, and attracted a multitude of Sufi
Ans.277(B) Satyendranath Tagore was the mystics in the 11th and 12th centuries, earning
first Indian to join the Indian Civil Service. He the city the nickname City of Saints. The
was an author, song composer, and linguist, Arabs named Multan the city of gold.
and made a significant contribution towards
the emancipation of women in Indian society 281. Construction of the Qutb Minar was
during the British Raj. He was the second completed by which famous ruler?
eldest brother of Rabindranath Tagore, the (A) Qutub-ud-din Aibak (B) Iltutmish
only Indian to get a Nobel Prize in Literature. (C) Babur (D) Alauddin Khilji
278. The Harappan Civilisation was discovered in Ans.281(B) Khwaja Qutbuddin Bakhtiar Kaki
which year? was a sufi saint after whom this minaret was
(A) 1935 (B) 1942 named. Qutubuddin Aibak started
(C) 1901 (D) 1921 construction of the Qutb Minar's first storey in
1199. Aibak's successor and son-in-law
Ans.278(D) The civilization was first Shamsuddin Iltutmish completed a further
identified in 1921 at Harappa in the Punjab three storeys. Firoz Shah Tughlaq replaced the
region and then in 1922 at Mohenjo-daro damaged storey, and added one more.
(Mohenjodaro), near the Indus River in the
Sindh (Sind) region. Both sites are in present-
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
89

282. Which one of the following was the book Ashram), the great social reformer and
written by Amoghvarsha, the Rashtrakuta campaigner.
King?
(A) Adipurana 285. The Swadeshi Movement was launched.
(B) Ganitasara Samgraha (A) as a protest against division of Bengal.
(C) Saktayana (B) with a view to improve the economic
(D) Kavirajamarga condition of the people by encouraging
consumption of Indian goods.
Ans.282(D) Kavirajamarga is the earliest (C) as a protest against the massacre of Indian
available work on rhetoric, poetics and people at Jallianwala Bagh.
grammar in the Kannada language. It was (D) due to the failure of the British
inspired by or written in part by the famous Government to introduce responsible
Rashtrakuta King Amoghavarsha I, and some Government in India.
historians claim it is based partly on the
Sanskrit text Kavyadarsha. Some historians Ans.285(A) The Swadeshi movement started
believe Kavirajamarga may have been co- with the partition of Bengal by the Viceroy of
authored by a poet in the king's court, the India, Lord Curzon in 1905 and continued up
Kannada language theorist Sri Vijaya. to 1911.Swadeshi, as a strategy, was a key
focus of Mahatma Gandhi, who described it as
283. Who built the Kailasanatha Temple at Ellora? the soul of Swaraj (self rule).
(A) Rajendra I
(B) Mahendra Varman I 286. The land measures of the Second Pandyan
(C) Krishna I Empire was mentioned in:
(D) Govinda I (A) Thalavaipuram Copper Plates
(B) Uttirameru Inscription
Ans.283(C) The Kailash temple was built by (C) Kudumiyammalai Inscription
Rashtrakuta ruler Krishna I. This temple is (D) Kasakudi Copper Plates
famous worldwide for the largest statue made
of a single stone rock. The temple is located in Ans.286(A) The Thalavaipuram copper plate
cave 16 of Ellora. brought out during 1018 and 1054 AD by the
Ellora has three types of caves - Pandyan kings, describes land system, giant
1. Mahayani Buddhist Caves waves, etc. For example, it mentions six
2. Mythological Hindu Caves qualifications for a Brahmin to get land as a
3. Digambar Jain Caves gift from the king. Kasakudi plates and
Only one of these caves is 12 storeyed, which Uthiramerur inscription are related to the
is called 'Kailash Temple'. Pallava and Chola dynasties respectively.

284. Acharya Vinoba Bhave started the Individual 287. Who was the greatest ruler of the
Satyagraha in 1940 from? Satavahanas?
(A) Nadiad in Gujarat (A) Satkarni I
(B) Pavnar in Maharashtra (B) Gautamiputra Satkarni
(C) Adyar in Tamil Nadu (C) Simuka
(D) Guntur in Andhra Pradesh (D) Hala

Ans.284(B) The historical village Pavnar, Ans.287(B) Gautamiputra Satakarni was a

situated 70 km south-west of Nagpur and ruler of the Satavahana Empire in present-day
10kms north-east of Wardha, on the banks of Deccan region of India. The Satavahana
Dham River was named after the legendary power was revived by Gautamiputra
Rajput ruler Pavan. Major attractions of Satakarni, who is considered the greatest of
Pavnar are Gandhi Kuti and the Paramdham the Satavahana rulers.
Ashram of Acharya Vinoba Bhave (Vinoba
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
90

288. The greatest king of the Pratihara dynasty activities against the British Empire in India
was: with the objective of achieving independence.
(A) Bhoj (Mihir-Bhoj) (B) Dantidurga
(C) Nagbhatta II (D) Vatsaraj 291. In 1939 Subhash Chandra Bose was elected as
President of the Congress Party defeating:
Ans.288(A) Mihira Bhoja (836–885 CE) or (A) Jawaharlal Nehru
Bhoja I was a ruler of the Gurjara-Pratihara (B) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
dynasty of India. He succeeded his father (C) V.(B) Patel
Ramabhadra. Bhoja was a devotee of Vishnu (D) Pattabhi Sitharamayya
and adopted the title of Ādivarāha which is
inscribed on some of his coins. One of the Ans.291(D) 52nd Session : Subhash Chandra
outstanding political figures of India in ninth Bose was re-elected the President of INC at
century, he ranks with Dhruva Dharavarsha the Tripuri Session in 1939 by defeating the
and Dharmapala as a great general and empire Gandhi ji's Candidate Pattabhai Sitaramaiyya.
builder.
At its height, Bhoja's empire extended to 292. Jallianwala incident took place at______ .
Narmada River in the South, Sutlej River in (A) Lucknow (B) Surat
the northwest, and up to Bengal in the east. (C) Amritsar (D) Allahabad

289. When was the first passenger train run in Ans.292(C) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre,
India? also known as the Amritsar massacre, took
(A) January 1848 (B) April 1853 place on 13 April 1919, when Acting
(C) May 1857 (D) April 1852 Brigadier-General Reginald Dyer ordered
troops of the British Indian Army to fire their
Ans.289(B) The first train in the country ran rifles into a crowd of unarmed Indian civilians
between Thane to Bori Bandar Station (now in Jallianwala Bagh, Amritsar, Punjab, killing
Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminal) in Bombay on at least 400 people including men and women.
16 April 1853. About 400 passengers traveled Over 1,000 people were injured.
in this train. The first train traveled on the 34-
kilometer long railway section. 293. The Cape of Good Hope was discovered by?
(A) Vasco-da-Gama
290. The Name of Ram Prasad Bismil is associated (B) Almeida
with? (C) Albuquerque Diaz
(A) Kanpur Conspiracy Case (D) Bartolomeu Dias
(B) Alipore Conspiracy Case
(C) Kakori Conspiracy Case Ans.293(D) It was originally named the Cape
(D) Meerut Conspiracy Case of Storms by Portuguese explorer Bartolomeu
Dias who discover it in 1488. It was later
Ans.290(C) The Kakori Conspiracy (or renamed, by King John II of Portugal, the
Kakori train robbery or Kakori Case) was a Cape of Good Hope.
train robbery that took place between Kakori
and, near Lucknow, on 9 August 1925 during 294. Who was the last emperor of Lodhi dynasty?
the Indian Independence Movement against (A) Sikandar Lodhi
the British Indian Government. The robbery (B) Bahlol Lodhi
was organised by Hindustan Republican (C) Ibrahim Lodhi
Association (HRA). The robbery was (D) Daulat Khan Lodhi
conceived by Ram Prasad Bismil and
Ashfaqullah Khan who belonged to the HRA, Ans.294(B) The last ruler of the Lodi dynasty
which later became the Hindustan Socialist was Ibrahim Lodi. The Lodi dynasty (or
Republican Association. This organisation Lodhi) was an Afghan dynasty that ruled the
was established to carry out revolutionary Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to 1526. This was
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
91

the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate. Shah Jahan, was the fifth Mughal emperor,
Ibrahim Lodi was the youngest son of who reigned from 1628 to 1658. The Mughal
Sikandar who became the ruler of the Lodi emperor Shah Jahan ended the Iranian court
dynasty after Alexander's death in 1517, custom 'Sijda' started by Balban. Sijda system
which Babur defeated in 1526 AD before was abolished in 1636–37.
Panipat and laid the foundation of the Mughal
Empire. was. Ibrahim Lodi was the first and 298. During the Rigvedic period, ‘Niska’ was an
last sultan to be killed on the battlefield. ornament of?
(A) Ear (B) Neck
295. The Granth Sahib was edited by Guru (C) Arm (D) Wrist
__________ in 1604 with the help of Bhai
Gurdas. Ans.298(B) In Rigvedic period, Niska was a
(A) Arjuna Dev gold necklace in the beginning but later it was
(B) Guru Ram Das also used as a coin for giving as a reward to a
(C) Guru Nanak Dev poet.
(D) Guru govind singh
299. Who has the title of ‘Kaviraja’?
Ans.295(C) Arjuna Dev or Guru Arjun Dev (A) Samudra Gupta
was the 5th Guru of the Sikhs. The Granth (B) Chandra Gupta II
Sahib was edited by Guru Arjun Dev in 1604 (C) Kumara Gupta
with the help of Bhai Gurdas. Arjun Dev Ji (D) ChandraGupta I
was the son of Guru Ram Das. His mother's
name was Biwi Bhani. Ans.299(A) Samudragupta was a ruler of the
Gupta Empire of Ancient India. As a son of
296. What is ‘Reformation’? the Gupta emperor Chandragupta I and the
(A) Revival of classical learning Licchavi princess Kumaradevi, he greatly
(B) The revolt against authority of pope expanded his dynasty's political power.
(C) Rise of absolute monarchy The Allahabad Pillar inscription, a prashasti
(D) Change in attitude of man (eulogy) composed by his courtier Harishena,
credits him with extensive military conquests.
Ans.296(B) The Reformation (alternatively Samudragupta performed the Ashvamedha
named the Protestant Reformation or the sacrifice to prove his imperial sovereignty,
European Reformation) was a movement and according to his coins, remained
within Western Christianity in 16th-century undefeated. His gold coins and inscriptions
Europe that posed a religious and political suggest that he was an accomplished poet, and
challenge to the Roman Catholic Church and also played music. His expansionist policy
papal authority in particular. Although the was continued by his son Chandragupta II.
Reformation is usually considered to have
started with the publication of the Ninety-five 300. Swaraj is my Birth Right and I shall have it.
Theses by Martin Luther in 1517, there was who gave this slogan?
no schism between the Catholic Church and (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) Lala Lajpat Rai
the nascent Luther until the 1521 Edict of (C) Sardar Patel (D) Lokmanya Tilak
Worms.
Ans.300(D) Bal Gangadhar Tilak (23 July
297. Which Mughal emperor abolished the old 1856 – 1 August 1920), born as Keshav
custom of Sizda? Gangadhar Tilak, was an Indian nationalist,
(A) Akbar (B) ShahJahan teacher, and an independence activist. He was
(C) Aurangzeb (D) Bahadurshah one third of the Lal Bal Pal triumvirate. Tilak
was the first leader of the Indian
Ans.297(B) Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Independence Movement. The British colonial
Khurram better known by his regnal name authorities called him "The father of the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
92

Indian unrest." He was also conferred with the August 1942, Gandhi made a call to Do or Die
title of "Lokmanya", which means "accepted in his Quit India speech delivered in Bombay
by the people (as their leader)". Mahatma at the Gowalia Tank Maidan.
Gandhi called him "The Maker of Modern
India". 304. Bangladesh was created in which year?
(A) 1973 (B) 1970
301. In which session of Congress, the demand of (C) 1972 (D) 1971
“Poorna Swaraj” was accepted as the aim of
the Congress? Ans.304(D) Modern Bangladesh emerged as
(A) Calcutta (B) Madras an independent nation in 1971 after breaking
(C) Nagpur (D) Lahore away and achieving independence from
Pakistan in the Bangladesh Liberation War.
Ans.301(D) The Indian National Congress The country's borders corresponded with the
passed the Purna Swaraj resolution in its major portion of the ancient and historic
Lahore session on 26th December 1929. The region of Bengal in the eastern part of the
resolution demanded 'Purna Swaraj' or the Indian subcontinent, where civilization dates
complete freedom from the British. back over four millennia, to the Chalcolithic.

302. Gandhiji strives to bridge economic 305. Raja Ram Mohan Roy was the founder of:
inequalities through which principle? (A) Brahmo Samaj
(A) Abolition of machinery (B) Prathna Samaj
(B) Establishment of village industries (C) Ram Krishna Mission
(C) Trusteeship theory (D) Arya Samaj
(D) None of the above
Ans.305(A) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (22 May
Ans.302(C) Trusteeship is a socio-economic 1772 – 27 September 1833) was an Indian
philosophy that was propounded by Mahatma religious, social, and educational reformer
Gandhi. It provides a means by which the who was one of the founders of the Brahmo
wealthy people would be the trustees of trusts Sabha, the precursor of the Brahmo Samaj, a
that looked after the welfare of the people in social-religious reform movement in the
general. This concept was condemned by Indian subcontinent.
socialists as being in favour of the landlords,
feudal princes and the capitalists, opposed to 306. Who initiated the movement to form the
socialist theories. Gandhi believed that the Indian National Congress:
wealthy people could be persuaded to part (A) Annie Besant (B) A.O. Hume
with their wealth to help the poor. (C) W.(C) Banerjee (D) Gandhi ji

303. Gandhiji’s Famous Quit India Movement call Ans.306(B) Allan Octavian Hume, was a
to the British was given in: British member of the Imperial Civil Service,
(A) 1940 (B) 1942 a political reformer, ornithologist and botanist
(C) 1941 (D) 1943 who worked in British India. He was one of
the founders of the Indian National Congress.
Ans.303(B) The Quit India Movement A notable ornithologist, Hume has been called
(translated into several Indian languages as "the Father of Indian Ornithology" and, by
the Leave India Movement), also known as those who found him dogmatic, "the Pope of
the August Movement, was a movement Indian ornithology".
launched at the Bombay session of the All-
India Congress Committee by Mahatma 307. The person who represented Indian women in
Gandhi on 8 August 1942, during World War the Second Round Table Conference?
II, demanding an end to British Rule of India. (A) Aruna Asaf Ali
The Cripps Mission had failed, and on 8 (B) Sucheta Kripalani
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
93

(C) Sarojini Naidu country during that time. However, "Kamrup"

(D) Kalpana Joshi became a more predominant name in the later
part of the history..
Ans.307(C) The purpose of these conferences
was to discuss the constitutional reforms in 311. Which battle led to the downfall of the
India. The Second Round Conference opened Vijayanagar empire?
on September 7, 1931. None other than (A) Battle of Takkolam
Mahatma Gandhi represented the Indian (B) Battle of Talikota
National Congress and Sarojini Naidu (C) Battle of Kanwah
represented Indian women in the second (D) Battle of Panipat
round table conferences.
Ans.311(B) The Battle of Talikota (23
308. The British Govt when started ruling India January 1565) was a watershed battle fought
directly? between the Vijayanagara Empire and an
(A) After the Battle of Plassey alliance of the Deccan sultanates who united
(B) After the Battle of Panipat in order to defeat Aliya Rama Raya.
(C) After the War of Mysore
(D) After Sepoy Mutiny 312. Who introduced Mansabdari system in India?
(A) Babur (B) Humayun
Ans.308(D) After Sepoy Mutiny rule (C) Akbar (D) Jahangir
established in 1857, British govt. started
ruling over India, Governor general became Ans.312(C) Mansabdari System was
the Viceroy and Lord Canning became the last introduced by Mughal emperor Akbar as new
Governor General and first Viceroy. administrative machinery and revenue system.
The term mansab literally means position,
309. “Akbarnama” the official chronicle of the status or rank, but in context of the structure
reign of Akbar written by? of the Mughal administration it indicated the
(A) Akbar (B) Birbal rank of mansabdar- that is holder of mansab -
(C) Abul Fazal (D) Bhagavan Das in the official hierarchy.

Ans.309(C) The Akbarnama which translates 313. The ‘Cabinet Mission’ of 1946 was led by
to Book of Akbar, is the official chronicle of (A) Lord Linlithgow
the reign of Akbar, the third Mughal Emperor (B) Lord Mountbatten
(r 1556–1605), commissioned by Akbar (C) Sir Pethick Lawrence
himself by his court historian and biographer, (D) Sir Mountford
Abu'l-Fazl ibn Mubarak, called one of the
"nine jewels in Akbar's court" by Mughal Ans.313(C) On 22nd January 1946, the
writers. It was written in Persian, the literary decision to send Cabinet Mission was taken
language of the Mughals, and includes vivid and on 19th February 1946, the British PM
and detailed descriptions of his life and times. C.R Attlee Government announced in the
House of Lords about the mission and the plan
310. Kamarup is an ancient name of which region to quit India. A high-powered mission of three
of India? British Cabinet members- Lord Pethick-
(A) Bihar (B) Rajasthan Lawrence, the Secretary of State for India, Sir
(C) Karnataka (D) Assam Stafford Cripps, President of the Board of
Trade, and A. V. Alexander, the First Lord of
Ans.310(D) The Present Assam was referred the Admiralty reached Delhi on 24th March
to as Kamrup in many of the ancient Indian 1946.
literature. It was also known as Pragjyotishpur
due to the astrology (Jyotish Shashtra) 314. What did Gandhiji meant by ‘Sarvodaya’?
practices that prevailed in this part of the (A) Non-violence
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
94

(B) Upliftment of untouchables or Dalits Agama with treatment. It consists of eleven

(C) The birth of a new society based on limbs and fourteen ante.
ethical values
(D) Satyagraha 317. Who propounded the “Doctrine of Passive
Resistance”?
Ans.314(C) Sarvodaya is a Sanskrit term (A) Balgangadhar Tilak
meaning ‘universal uplift’ or ‘progress of all’. (B) Aurobindo Ghosh
The term was used by Gandhi as the title of (C) Lala Lajpat Rai
his 1908 translation of John Ruskin’s tract on (D) Bipin Chandra Pal
political economy, Unto This Last, and
Gandhi came to use the term for the ideal of Ans.317(B) The concept of passive resistance
his own political philosophy. In the Gandhian was highlighted by Arubindo Ghosh.
philosophy, Sarvodaya is the true panacea for Arubindo was against the Moderates’ theory
all types of social or political problems of “politics of petition” and along with Tilak
experienced by Indian society. It represents belonged to the Extremist section. In place of
the ideal social orderby bringing about a prayer, petition, protest and “please”, he
countrywide decentralization of both political advocated the more radical policy of boycott.
and economic powers and providing Arubindo visualized that other nations had
opportunity for the all-round development of won the precious prize of liberty by ‘intense
the individual and the society. suffering, humiliations and martyrdom.
315. Harsha moved his capital from where to
318. The first Muslim to be elected President of
where.?
‘Indian National Congress’ was?
(A) Thanesar, Kanauj (B) Delhi, Deogiri
(A) Maulana Azad (B) Mohammed Ali
(C) Kamboj, Kanauj (D) Valabhi, Delhi
(C) Badruddin Tyabji (D) Shah Wali-Ullah
Ans.315(A) Harsha’s shifting of his capital
Ans.318(C) Badruddin Tyabji (10 October
from Thanesar to Kannauj probably
1844 – 19 August 1906) was an Indian
demonstrates the fact that he undertook his
lawyer, activist and politician during British
eastern campaign(s) towards Bengal first.
Raj. Tyabji was the first Indian to practice as a
Making Kannauj his capital would have
barrister of the High Court of Bombay who
afforded him a greater capability to direct his
served as the third President of the Indian
forces to the east. Harsha is also known to
National Congress. He was one of the
have declared himself king of Magadha and
founding members and first Muslim president
taken up the epithet of Śilāditya, in the style
of Indian National Congress.
of his illustrious forebears — the imperial
Guptas. Harsha’s grandmother was a Gupta
319. Who has built the Vijay Stambha (Tower of
princess.
Victory) in Chittorgarh?
(A) Maharana Pratap
316. A collective term used by the Jains for their
(B) Rana Kumbha
sacred books is.
(C) Rana Sanga
(A) Prabandhas (B) Angas
(D) Kunwar Durjan Singh
(C) Nibandhas (D) Charitas
Ans.319(B) The Vijaya Stambha is an
Ans.316(B) The word Agam is used for the
imposing victory monument located within
basic texts of Jainism. Only the knowledge,
Chittor Fort in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan, India.
the period knowledgeer, the holder of
The tower was constructed by the Mewar
Chaturdasha and the monks holding the tenth
king, Rana Kumbha, in 1448 to commemorate
are called Agam. Somewhere the holder of the
his victory over the combined armies of
new east has also been considered as a
forward. His words have also been called
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
95

Malwa and Gujarat led by Mahmud Khilji. from 1795 to 1818. He was installed as a
The tower is dedicated to Vishnu. puppet ruler by the Maratha nobles, whose
While Vijaya Stambha is its common name, it growing power prompted him to flee his
is technically a Kirttistambha or Kirti capital Poona and sign the Treaty of Bassein
Stambha, a "tower of fame". (1802) with the British. This resulted in the
Second Anglo-Maratha War (1803–1805), in
320. Who raised the slogan “Swaraj is my birth- which the British emerged victorious and re-
right and I shall have it”? installed him as the titular Peshwa.
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
(B) Subhash Chandra Bose 323. Which of the following pairs is not correctly
(C) Bal Gangadhar Tilak matched?
(D) Lala Lajpat Rai (A) Hector Munro - Battle of Buxar
(B) Lord Hastings – Anglo – Nepal War
Ans.320(C) "Swaraj is my birth right and I (C) Lord Wellesley - Third Anglo- Mysore
shall have it." This was advocated by Bal War
Gangadhar Tilak. The slogan popularised by (D) Lord Cornwallis - Third Anglo – Maratha
Bal Gangadhar Tilak, the fiery freedom War
fighter of India, is one of the most potent war
cries of the pre-independence days. This Ans.323(C) Lord Wellesley remained
simple sentence is loaded with meaning, Governor General of Fort Williams from 1798
emotion, conviction and a strong sense of to 1805. During his tenure, the Fourth and
action. last Anglo- Mysore war was fought and Tipu
was killed in this war. The Second Anglo
321. The Bardoli Satyagraha was held in? Maratha war also happened in which Bhonsle,
(A) Bihar (B) Rajasthan Scindia and Holkar were.
(C) Gujarat (D) Madhya Pradesh
324. Which one of the following pair is correctly
Ans.321(C) The Bardoli Satyagraha of 1928, matched?
in the state of Gujarat, India during the period (A) Zia-ud-din Barni : Tarikh-i-Mohammedi
of the British Raj, was a major episode of civil (B) Shams-i- Siraj Afif : Tarikh-i-Firozshahi
disobedience and revolt in the Indian (C) Ibn Batuta : Fatwa-i-Jahandari
Independence Movement. The movement was (D) Amir Khusrau : Tabaqat-i-Nasiri
eventually led by Vallabhbhai Patel, and its
success gave rise to Patel becoming one of the Ans.324(B) Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi1 written by
main leaders of the independence movement. Shams Siraj Afif, gives a detailed account of.
In 1925, the taluka of Bardoli in Gujarat did In Afif's Tarikh-i-Firuzshahi one also gets the
not suffer financial troubles. However, the information that Firuzshahi.
government of the Bombay Presidency had
raised the tax rate by 30% that year, and 325. Which of the following is matched correctly?
despite petitions from civic groups, refused to (A) Nibandhamala - Vishushastri Chiplunkar
cancel the rise in the face of the calamities. (B) Sudharak - Shishir Kumar Ghosh
(C) Rast Goftar – G.G. Agarkar
322. The Treaty of Bassein (1802) was a pact (D) Sambad Prabhakar - Bal Gangadhar Tilak
signed between the British East India
Company and? Ans.325(A) Nibandhamala – Vishushastri
(A) Baji Rao I (B) Shivaji Chiplunkar Amrita Bazar Patrika - Shishir
(C) Sambhaji (D) Baji Rao II Kumar Ghosh Bhagavad Gita and The Arctic
Home in the Vedas - Bal Gangadhar Tilak
Ans.322(D) Baji Rao II (10 January 1775 – 28
January 1851) was the 12th and the last 326. Which of the following is not matched
Peshwa of the Maratha Empire. He governed correctly?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
96

(A) Madhubani Painting- Bihar

(B) Picwal Painting - Gujarat Ans.329(B) After the Act of 1813, the empire
(C) Phulkari Art- Haryana of the company in India increased
(D) Kalamkari Art - Andhra Pradesh considerably and the dominion of the British
was established in Maharashtra, Central India,
Ans.326(B) Pichwai paintings also known as Punjab, Sindh, Gwalior, Indore etc. The
"Pichvai" is a traditional Indian art having its Charter Act of 1833 was passed to provide
origins in Rajasthan, India. stability to this dominion. Its main provisions
were:
327. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
Dynasty Founded (1) The company's monopoly of tea and trade
(A) Sena dynasty — Vijaya Sena with China was abolished into a fully
(B) Pala dynasty — Gopala administrative and political institution.
(C) Prathihara dynasty — Bhoja (2) The Governor General of Bengal was
(D) Rastrakuta dynasty — Amogavarsha declared the Governor General of the whole of
India. Lord William Bentinck became the first
Ans.327(D) Dantidurga (also known as Governor General of entire India.
Dantivarman or Dantidurga II) founded (5) In India, slavery was outlawed. As a result,
Rashtrakuta empire in Deccan by in 1843, the abolition of slavery was
overthrowing Kirtivarman II (the ruler of announced in India.
Chalukyas of Badami). (6) It has been made clear by this Act that no
Indian residing in the territories of the
328. Which of the following is paired correctly? company shall be deprived of any post of the
List-I List-II company for which he is eligible only on the
(A) Battle of Chousa 1. 1540 AD basis of religion, descent, color or place of
(B) Battle of Ghaghra 2. 1539 AD birth etc.
(C) Battle of Kannauj 3. 1576 AD (7) The Council Governor General was given
(D) Battle of Haldighati 4. 1529 AD the right to make laws for the whole of India
A B C D and the powers to make laws of the Councils
(A) 4 3 2 1 of Madras-Bombay were abolished.
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 1 3 330. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(D) 2 1 4 3 (A) Udayin - Founder of Patliputra
(B) Sikandar Lodhi - Founder of Allahabad
Ans.328(C) (C) Anangpal - Founder of Delhi
Correct pair (D) Feroz Shah Tughlaq - Founder of Jaunpur
Battle of Chousa - 1539 AD
Battle of Ghaghra-1529 AD Ans.330(B) Agra was founded by Sikandar
Battle of Kannauj- 1540 AD Lodhi (Lodhi dynasty; Delhi Sultanate) in
Battle of Haldighati - 1576 AD the 16th century.

329. Which of the following is wrongly matched? 331. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(A) Supreme Court established in Calcutta - (A) Champaran Satyagraha - 1917
Regulating Act 1773 (B) Khilafat Movement - 1918
(B) Discontinued all business activities of the (C) Non-Cooperation Movement - 1920
company - Pitts India Act 1784 (D) Civil-Disobedience Movement - 1930
(C) Establishment of bicameral legislature at
the center - Government of India Act 1919 Ans.331(B) Khilafat movement. The agitation
(C) Lord William Bentinck became the first lasted from 1919 to 1924. This movement had
Governor General of entire India - Charter no direct connection with India. The main
Act, 1833
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
97

objective of the Caliphate movement was to (B) 1 4 2 3

re-establish the post of Turkish caliph (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
332. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: Ans.333(B)
List-I List-II Chandragupta Maurya (reign: 321–298 BCE)
a. Pancha Rathas 1. Ellora was the founder of the Maurya Empire in
b. Kailasa Temple 2. Mahabalipuram ancient India.
c. Brihadisvara Temple 3. Khajuraho Group The Gupta Empire was an ancient Indian
of Monuments empire existing from the mid-to-late 3rd
d. Parvati Temple 4. Thanjavur century CE to 543 CE. At its zenith, from
Codes: approximately 319 to 543 CE, it covered
A B C D much of the Indian subcontinent. This period
(A) 1 2 4 3 is considered as the Golden Age of India by
(B) 1 4 2 3 some historians. The ruling dynasty of the
(C) 2 1 3 1 empire was founded by the king Sri Gupta.
(D) 2 1 4 3 The Kushan Empire as a syncretic empire
formed by the Yuezhi in the Bactrian
Ans.332(D) Pancha Rathas (also known as territories in the early 1st century. Vima
Five Rathas or Pandava Rathas) is a Kadphises was a Kushan emperor from
monument complex at Mahabalipuram, on the around 95–127 CE, the son of Sadashkana and
Coromandel Coast of the Bay of Bengal, in the grandson of Kujula Kadphises, and the
the Kancheepuram district of the state of father of Kanishka I, as detailed by the
Tamil Nadu, India. Rabatak inscription.
The Kailasha temple is the largest of the rock- The Lodi dynasty was an Afghan dynasty that
cut Hindu temples at the Ellora Caves, ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to 1526.
Maharashtra, India. A megalith carved from a It was the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate,
rock cliff face, it is considered one of the most and was founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi when
remarkable cave temples in the world because he replaced the Sayyid dynasty.
of its size, architecture and sculptural
treatment, and "the climax of the rock-cut 334. Which one of following pairs is not correctly
phase of Indian architecture". matched?
Brihadishvara Temple, is a Hindu temple (A) Samaveda Samhita - Origins of Indian
dedicated to Shiva located in South bank of music
Kaveri river in Thanjavur, Tamil Nadu, India. (B) Atharvaveda Samhita - Origins of Indian
Parvati Temple is a temple dedicated to the medicine
goddess Parvati, consort of Shiva. This (C) Rigveda Samhita - Latest prose
structure is one of the monuments among (D) Yajurveda Samhita - Origins of rituals
Khajuraho Group of Monuments, a World
Heritage Site in India. Ans.334(C) The Samaveda, is the Veda of
melodies and chants. It is an ancient Vedic
333. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Sanskrit text, and part of the scriptures of
answer using the codes given below the lists: Hinduism. The Atharva Veda is the
List- I List-II "knowledge storehouse of atharvāṇas, the
a. Maurya Empire 1. Chandragupta Maurya procedures for everyday life". The text is the
b. Gupta dynasty 2. Vima Kadphises fourth Veda, but has been a late addition to
c. Kushan Dynasty 3. Bahlul Khan Lodi the Vedic scriptures of Hinduism. The
d. Lodi dynasty 4. Sri Gupta Rigveda is an ancient Indian collection of
Codes: Vedic Sanskrit hymns. It is one of the four
A B C D sacred canonical texts of Hinduism known as
(A) 1 2 4 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
98

the Vedas. The Yajurveda, and is the Veda

primarily of prose mantras for worship rituals. Ans.336(C) Padmavat (or Padmawat) is an
epic poem written in 1540 by Sufi poet Malik
335. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Muhammad Jayasi, who wrote it in the
answer using the codes given below the lists: Hindustani language of Awadhi.The Ain-i-
List- I List-II Akbari or the "Administration of Akbar", is a
a. Ajatasatru 1. Humayun 16th-century detailed document recording the
b. Akbar 2. Bimisara administration of the Mughal Empire under
c. Ashoka 3. Shahaji Bhosle Emperor Akbar, written by his court historian,
d. Shijavi 4. Bindusara Abu'l Fazl in the Persian language. Ramayana
Codes: is one of the two major Sanskrit epics of
A B C D ancient India, the other being the
(A) 1 2 4 3 Mahābhārata. Along with the Mahābhārata, it
(B) 1 4 2 3 forms the Hindu Itihasa. The Mahābhārata is
(C) 2 4 3 1 one of the two major Sanskrit epics of ancient
(D) 2 1 4 3 India, Traditionally, the authorship of the
Mahābhārata is attributed to Vyāsa.
Ans.335(D) Ajatashatru was a king of the Ramayana, traditionally ascribed to the
Haryanka dynasty of Magadha in East India. Maharishi Valmiki, narrates the life of Lord
He was the son of King Bimbisara and was a Rama, the legendary prince of the Kosala
contemporary of both Mahavira (Nigantha Kingdom.
Nataputta) and Gautama Buddha. Abu'l-Fath
Jalal-ud-din Muhammad Akbar popularly 337. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
known as Akbar the Great, and also as Akbar answer using the codes given below the lists:
I was the third Mughal emperor, who reigned List- I List-II
from 1556 to 1605. Akbar succeeded his a. Alexander Cunningham 1. Founded the
father, Humayun. Bindusara, also Amitraghāta Archaeological Survey of India.
or Amitrochates was the second Mauryan b. Richard Wellesley 2. Irish and British
emperor of India. He was the son of the politician
dynasty's founder Chandragupta, and the c. Lord Canning 3. first British Governor
father of its most famous ruler Ashoka. of the Bengal Presidency
Shahaji Bhosle (1602–1664) was a military d. Lord Clive 4. Governor-General of India
leader of 17th century India, who served the Codes:
Ahmadnagar Sultanate, the Bijapur Sultanate, A B C D
and the Mughal Empire at various points in (A) 1 2 4 3
his career and he was the father of Shivaji (B) 1 4 2 3
Bhosale I. (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
336. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: Ans.337(A) Major General Sir Alexander
List- I List-II Cunningham KCIE CSI (23 January 1814 –
a. Padmavat 1. Vyasa 28 November 1893) was a British army
b. Ain-i-Akbari 2. Malik Muhammad Jayasi engineer with the Bengal Engineer Group who
c. Ramayana 3. Maharishi Valmiki later took an interest in the history and
d. Mahabharata 4. Abu'l Fazl archaeology of India. In 1861, he was
Codes: appointed to the newly created position of
A B C D archaeological surveyor to the government of
(A) 1 2 4 3 India; and he founded and organized what
(B) 1 4 2 3 later became the Archaeological Survey of
(C) 2 4 3 1 India. Richard Colley Wellesley, 1st Marquess
(D) 2 1 4 3 Wellesley, was an Irish and British politician
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
99

and colonial administrator. He was styled as Indian National Congress. Sir Chettur
Viscount Wellesley until 1781, when he Sankaran Nair, (11 July 1857 – 24 April 1934)
succeeded his father as 2nd Earl of was the President of the Indian National
Mornington. Charles John Canning, also Congress in 1897 held at Amravati. Until
known as The Viscount Canning and present he is the only Keralite to hold the post.
Clemency Canning was an English statesman Badruddin Tyabji (10 October 1844 – 19
and Governor-General of India during the August 1906) was an Indian lawyer, activist
Indian Rebellion of 1857. Major-General and politician during British Raj. Tyabji was
Robert Clive, 1st Baron Clive, KB, FRS (29 the first Indian to practice as a barrister of the
September 1725 – 22 November 1774), was High Court of Bombay who served as the
the first British Governor of the Bengal third President of the Indian National
Presidency. Congress. Sir Dadabhai Naoroji Dordi (4
September 1825 – 30 June 1917) also known
338. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct as the "Grand Old Man of India" and
answer using the codes given below the lists: "Unofficial Ambassador of India" was an
List-I List-II Indian Parsi scholar, trader and politician who
a. Nike 1. “Just Do it” was a Liberal Party member of Parliament.
b. Apple 2. “Because you're worth it”
c. L'Oreal 3. “It's finger lickin' good” 340. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
d. KFC 4. “Think Different” answer using the codes given below the lists:
Codes: List-I List-II
A B C D a. Bankim Chandra Chatterjee 1. Indian
(A) 1 2 4 3 novelist, poet and journalist
(B) 1 4 2 3 b. Raja Ram Mohan Roy 2. Born as Keshav
(C) 2 4 3 1 Gangadhar Tilak
(D) 2 1 4 3 c. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 3. A polymath, poet,
musician
Ans.338(B) This is the correct matching. d. Ravindranath Tagore 4. A social-religious
reform movement
339. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer using the codes given below the lists: A B C D
a. Vyomesh Chandra Banerjee 1. Indian (A) 1 2 4 3
barrister (B) 1 4 2 3
b. Sir C. Sankaran Nair 2. President of the (C) 2 4 3 1
Indian National Congress (D) 2 1 4 3
c. Badruddin Tyabji 3. "Grand Old Man
of India" Ans.340(B) Bankimchandra Chatterjee or
d. Dadabhai Naoroji 4. Third President of t Bankimchandra Chattopadhyay, was an Indian
he Indian National Congress novelist, poet and journalist. He was the
Codes: composer of Vande Mataram, originally in
A B C D Sanskrit stotra personifying India as a mother
(A) 1 2 4 3 goddess and inspiring activists during the
(B) 1 4 2 3 Indian Independence Movement. Raja Ram
(C) 2 4 3 1 Mohan Roy (22 May 1772 – 27 September
(D) 2 1 4 3 1833) was one of the founders of the Brahmo
Sabha, the precursor of the Brahmo Samaj, a
Ans.339(A) Womesh Chunder Bonnerjee (or social-religious reform movement in the
Umesh Chandra Banerjee by current English Indian subcontinent. Bal Gangadhar Tilak (or
orthography of Bengali names) (29 December Lokmanya Tilak, (about this
1844 – 21 July 1906) was an Indian barrister soundpronunciation), born as Keshav
and was the co-founder and first president of Gangadhar Tilak, was an Indian nationalist,
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
100

teacher, and an independence activist. lawyer, an activist of the Indian National

Rabindranath Tagore born Robindronath Movement and founder-leader of the Swaraj
Thakur, (7 May 1861 – 7 August 1941), also (Independence) Party in Bengal during British
known by his pen name Bhanu Singha Thakur occupation in India.He was also a poet and
(Bhonita), and also known by his sobriquets author.
Gurudev, Kabiguru, and Biswakabi, was a
polymath, poet, musician, and artist from the 342. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Indian subcontinent. answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
341. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. Treaty of Asurar Ali 1. 1792
answer using the codes given below the lists: b. Treaty of Purandar 2. 1639
List-I List-II c. Treaty of Alinagar 3. 1757
a. Jawahar Lal Nehru 1. Deshbandhu d. Treaty of Seringapatam 4. 1665
(Friend of the Nation) Codes:
b. Motilal Nehru 2. First Prime Minister A B C D
of India (A) 1 2 4 3
c. Mahatma Gandhi 3. Was an Indian (B) 1 4 2 3
lawyer, anti-colonial nationalist and political (C) 2 4 3 1
ethicist (D) 2 1 4 3
d. C. R. Das 4. Indian lawyer, activist
and politician Ans.342(C) The Treaty of Asurar Ali (early
Codes: February 1639) was signed between the
A B C D Mughal faujdar Allah Yar Khan and the
(A) 1 2 4 3 Ahom general Momai Tamuli Borbarua.
(B) 1 4 2 3 The Treaty of Purandar was signed on June
(C) 2 4 3 1 11, 1665, between the Rajput ruler Jai Singh I,
(D) 2 1 4 3 who was commander of the Mughal Empire,
and Maratha Shivaji. Shivaji was required to
Ans.341(C) Jawaharlal Nehru, (14 November help the Mughals whenever and wherever
1889 – 27 May 1964) was an Indian required.
independence activist, and subsequently, the The Treaty of Alinagar was signed on 2nd
first Prime Minister of India and a central January 1757 between Robert Clive of the
figure in Indian politics before and after British East India Company and the Nawab of
independence. Bengal, Mirza Muhammad Siraj Ud Daula.
Motilal Nehru (6 May 1861 – 6 February The Treaty of Seringapatam (also called
1931) was an Indian lawyer, activist and Srirangapatinam or Srirangapatna), signed 18
politician belonging to the Indian National March 1792, ended the Third Anglo-Mysore
Congress. He also served as the Congress War.
President twice, 1919–1920 and 1928–1929.
Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi was an Indian 343. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
lawyer, anti-colonial nationalist and political answer using the codes given below the lists:
ethicist, who employed nonviolent resistance List-I List-II
to lead the successful campaign for India's a. Megasthenes 1. Chinese Buddhist monk
independence from British Rule, and in turn b. Fahien 2. the ambassador of
inspired movements for civil rights and Seleucus
freedom across the world. c. Huien Tsang 3. Moroccon traveller
Chittaranjan Das About this d. Ibn Batuta 4. Chinese traveller
soundpronunciation (C. R. Das), popularly Codes:
called Deshbandhu (Friend of the Nation), (5 A B C D
November 1870 – 16 June 1925), was an (A) 1 2 4 3
Indian leading Bengali politician, a prominent (B) 1 4 2 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
101

(C) 2 4 3 1 Prithviraj Chauhan (1166-1192). It is

(D) 2 1 4 3 attributed to Chand Bardai, who according to
the text, was a court poet of the king.
Ans.343(D) Megasthenes was the ambassador Gulbadan Begum (c. 1523 – 7 February 1603)
of Seleucus in the court of Chandragupta was a Mughal princess and the daughter of
Maurya known to the Greek as Sandrocottus. Emperor Babur, the founder of the Mughal
He was also the author of a book 'Indica'. Empire. She is best known as the author of
Fahien was a Chinese Buddhist monk who Humayun-Nama, the account of the life of her
visited India during the reign of Vikramaditya half-brother, Emperor Humayun, which she
(Chandragupta II). He is known for its visit to wrote on the request of her nephew, Emperor
Lumbini, the birthplace of the Buddha. His Akbar.
journey is described in his travelogue "Record
of Buddhist Kingdoms. 345. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Huien Tsang was a Chinese traveller who answer using the codes given below the lists:
visited India during the time of Harsha (Book, Author & Facts to remember)
Vardhana. His book is called Si-yu-ki or 'The List-I List-II
Records of the Western World'. a. Mudra Rakshasa by Vishakha Datta
Ibn Batuta was a Moroccon traveller who 1. Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the power
visited India during the time of Mohammed of the Nandas
Bin Tughlaq. His account of travels is known b. Padmavat by Malik Mohd Jayasi 2. based
as the Rihla. on the life of Padmini, Queen of Chittor
c. Malavikagnimitra by Kalidasa 3. Indian
344. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct treatise on Economics as well as politics
answer using the codes given below the lists. d. Arthashastra by Kautilya 4. based on the
(Biographies of Kings & Author) life of Agnimitra son of Pushyamitra Sunga.
List-I List-II Codes:
a. Harsha Charita 1. Bana Bhatt A B C D
b. Akbar-Nama 2. Chand Bardai (A) 1 2 4 3
c. Prithviraj Raso 3. Gulbadan Begum (B) 1 4 2 3
d. Humayun Namah 4. Abul Fazl (C) 2 4 3 1
Codes: (D) 2 1 4 3
A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3 Ans.345(A) Mudra Rakshasa by Vishakha
(B) 1 4 2 3 Datta. The book which gives an account of
(C) 2 4 3 1 how Chandragupta Maurya overthrew the
(D) 2 1 4 3 power of the Nandas with the help of
Kautilya.
Ans.344(B) The Harshacharita (Sanskrit:, Padmavat by Malik Mohd Jayasi the book
Harṣacarita) (The deeds of Harsha), is the based on the life of Padmini, Queen of
biography of Indian emperor Harsha by Bana Chittor. Allauddin Khilji, the ruler of Delhi,
bhatta, also known as Bana, who was a laid siege to the fort of Chittor in order to take
Sanskrit writer of seventh-century CE India. Padmini as his wife. When the soldiers died
The Akbarnama which translates to Book of fighting, Queen Padmini committed Jauhar
Akbar, is the official chronicle of the reign of alongwith other women of the fort.
Akbar, the third Mughal Emperor (1556– Malavikagnimitra by Kalidasa the book which
1605), commissioned by Akbar himself by his is based on the life of Agnimitra son of
court historian and biographer, Abu'l-Fazl ibn Pushyamitra Sunga. The latter founded the
Mubarak, called one of the "nine jewels in Sunga dynasty after killing the last Mauryan
Akbar's court" by Mughal writers. King Brihadratha.
The Prithviraj Raso is a Brajbhasha epic poem Arthashastra by Kautilya the ancient Indian
about the life of the 12th century Indian king treatise on Economics as well as politics
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
102

written by Kautilya (Chanakya) who had In 1529, the battle of Ghaghra was fought
helped Chandragupta overthrow the power of between Muhammad Lodi and Babur.
the Nandas. Muhammad Lodi was aided by the sultan of
Bengal Nusrat Shah. Babur again turned
346. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct victorious and it consolidated his power in
answer using the codes given below the India.
lists:(Battle & its Importance)
List-I List-II 347. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
a. 1st battle of Tarain 1. Babar defeated answer using the codes given below the lists:
Ibrahim Lodi (Foreign Invaders)
b. 1st battle of Panipat 2. Prithviraj Chauhan List-I List-II
defeated Ghurid king Mu'izz al-Din a. Alexander 1. first to invade
c. Battle of Khanwa 3. Babur defeated India in 326 B. C. He defeated King Porus
Mahmud Lodi and Sultan Nusrat Shah thus b. Chengiz Khan 2. first muslim to
establishing Mughal rule in India. invade India in 712 A. D
d. Battle of Ghaghra 4. Babur defeated c. Mohammed Bin Qasim 3. was a muslim
Rana Sunga further strengthening his foothold conqueror who invaded India in 1398.
in India. d. Timur 4. Mongolian who
Codes: conquered some kingdoms on the banks of
A B C D River Indus
(A) 1 2 4 3 Codes:
(B) 1 4 2 3 A B C D
(C) 2 4 3 1 (A) 1 2 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3 (B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
Ans.346(D) The First Battle of Tarain took (D) 2 1 4 3
place in 1191 CE. The battle was fought
between the Indian ruler Prithviraj Chauhan Ans.347(B) Alexander was the first to invade
on one hand and Muhammad Ghori on the India in 326 B. C. He defeated King Porus on
other hand. Prithviraj Chauhan was defeated the banks of River Jhelum. The battle is
by Muhammad Ghori in the First Battle of known as the Battle of Hydaspes. Dhana
Tarain. The Second Battle of Tarain took Nanda of the Nanda dynasty was in power in
place in the year 1192 CE. Prithviraj Chauhan, northern and eastern India at the time of his
the Rajput ruler of India was defeated by invasion. Alexander's army mutinied, possibly
Muhammad Ghori in the Second Battle of at the prospect of facing a strong army of the
Tarain. the Second Battle of Tarain laid the Nandas and Alexander decided to return to
foundation of Turkish rule in North India. Macedonia.
The First Battle of Panipat, on 21 April 1526, Chengiz Khan was a Mongolian who
was fought between the invading forces of conquered some kingdoms on the banks of
Babur and the Lodi dynasty. It took place in River Indus in 1221 A. D. The ruler of Delhi
north India and marked the beginning of the at that time was Iltutmish.
Mughal Empire and the end of the Delhi Mohammed Bin Qasim was first muslim to
Sultanate. invade India in 712 A. D. He conquered
The Battle of Khanwa was fought near the Sindh and Punjab regions along the Indus
village of Khanwa, in Bharatpur District of river but did not advance further.
Rajasthan, on March 16, 1527. It was fought Timur Lang or Timur the Lame, was a muslim
between the invading forces of the first conqueror who invaded India in 1398. The
Mughal Emperor Babur and the Rajput forces ruler of Delhi at the time was Nasiruddin
led by Rana Sanga of Mewar after the Battle Mahmud Shah.
of Panipat.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
103

348. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans.349(C) The Chola dynasty was a Tamil
answer using the codes given below the dynasty of southern India, one of the longest-
lists:(Court Poet of Indian king) ruling dynasties in the world's history.
List-I List-II Thanjavur became the capital of the Imperial
a. Kalidasa 1. Vikramaditya Chola Dynasty.
b. Bana Bhatt 2. Harshavardhana Comprising the majority of South Asia, the
c. Chand Bardai 3. King Yashovarman Maurya Empire was centralized by the
of Kannauj conquest of the Indo-Gangetic Plain, and its
d. Bhavabhuti 4. Prithviraj Chauhan capital city was located at Pataliputra (modern
Codes: Patna).
A B C D Thereafter the Tamil country was divided
(A) 1 2 4 3 between the Pallavas in the north with
(B) 1 4 2 3 Kanchipuram as their capital, and Pandyas in
(C) 2 4 3 1 the south with Madurai as their capital.
(D) 2 1 4 3

Ans.348(A) Several ancient and medieval 350. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
books state that Kalidasa was a court poet of a answer using the codes given below the lists:
king named Vikramaditya. List-I List-II
Banabhatta (Sanskrit) was a 7th-century a. Discovery of India 1. Adolf Hitler
Sanskrit prose writer and poet of India. He b. Mein Kampf 2. Pandit Jawaharlal
was the Asthana Kavi in the court of King c. Hind Swaraj 3. Khushwant Singh
Harsha Vardhana, who reigned 606–647 CE d. Train to Pakistan 4.Gandhi Ji
in north India first from Sthanvishvara Codes:
(Thanesar), and later Kannauj. A B C D
Chand Bardai was an Indian poet, who (A) 1 2 4 3
composed Prithviraj Raso, an epic poem in (B) 1 4 2 3
Brajbhasa about the life of the Chahamana (C) 2 4 3 1
king Prithviraj Chauhan. The poem presents (D) 2 1 4 3
him as a court poet of Prithviraj.
Bhavbhuti was the court poet of famous Ans.350(D) The Discovery of India was
Maukhari king Yashovarma ( of Kannauj) written by India's first Prime Minister Pandit
who ruled around 730 AD. Jawaharlal Nehru during his imprisonment in
1942–1946 at Ahmednagar fort in
349. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Maharashtra, India by the British during the
answer using the codes given below the lists: British Raj before the independence of India.
(Dynasties/Kings and their Capitals Mein Kampf is a 1925 autobiographical
List-I List-II manifesto by Nazi Party leader Adolf Hitler.
a. Cholas 1. Madurai Hind Swaraj or Indian Home Rule is a book
b. Mauryan 2. Thanjavur and written by Mohandas K. Gandhi in 1909. In it
Gangaikonda Cholapuram he expresses his views on Swaraj, modern
c. Pallavas 3. Kanchi civilization, mechanisation etc. The book was
d. Pandyas 4. Patliputra banned in 1910 by the British government in
Codes: India as a seditious text.
A B C D Khushwant Singh humanizes Partition by not
(A) 1 2 4 3 going much into its political aspect. It’s a
(B) 1 4 2 3 relatively short book where every character
(C) 2 4 3 1 has been sketched to bring out the fatal
(D) 2 1 4 3 consequences of Partition.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
104

351. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (A) 1 2 4 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (B) 1 4 2 3
List-I List-II (C) 2 4 3 1
a. Arab invasion of Sind 1. 712 AD (D) 2 1 4 3
b. Accession of Raja Chola I
2. 321 BC Ans.352(C) Daulat Khan Lodi was the
c. Accession of Chandragupta Maurya governor of Lahore during the reign of
3.1526 AD Ibrahim Lodi, the last ruler of the Lodi
d. First Battle of Panipat 4. 985 AD dynasty. Due to disaffection with Ibrahim,
Codes: Daulat invited Babur to invade the kingdom.
A B C D The Swaraj Party was formed by Motilal
(A) 1 2 4 3 Nehru and Chittaranjan Das in order to fight
(B) 1 4 2 3 British colonialism from within and give the
(C) 2 4 3 1 people of India a responsible and responsive
(D) 2 1 4 3 government by making the colonial state
accountable. The Non-cooperation movement
Ans.351(B) Muhammad-bin-Qasim was an was launched on 5th September, 1920 by
Umayyad general who conquered the Sindh Mahatma Gandhi with the aim of self-
and Punjab regions at a very young age of 17. governance.
The real greatness of the Chola Empire begins World War I, also called First World War or
with the accession of the son of Parantaka II Great War, an international conflict that in
Sundara Chola, Arumolivarman who crowned 1914–18 embroiled most of the nations of
himself as Rajaraja in 985 A.D. Europe along with Russia, the United States,
The date of the accession of Chandragupta the Middle East, and other regions.
Maurya is generally 321 BC. Is determined. In
Visakhadatta's play Mudrarakshas, 353. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Chandragupta is called Mauryaputra, not answer using the codes given below the lists:
Nandaputra. Yet he is called the 'child of the List-I List-II
Nandavansha', as he was the son of Maurya, a. Foundation of Arya Samaj
the son of SarvarthaSiddhi and 1. Dayanand Saraswathi
SarvarthaSiddhi was the father of nine Nandas b. Name Pakistan was coined by
and himself the child of Nandavansha. 2. Choudhry Rahmat Ali
The First Battle of Panipat, on 21 April 1526, c. Author of Vande Mataram
was fought between the invading forces of 3. Dadabhai Naoroji
Babur and the Lodi dynasty. It took place in d. The theory of economic drain
north India and marked the beginning of the 4. Bankin Chandra Chatterjee
Mughal Empire and the end of the Delhi Codes:
Sultanate. A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3
352. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (B) 1 4 2 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (C) 2 4 3 1
List-I List-II (D) 2 1 4 3
a. Who invited Babar to invade India
1. 1914–18 Ans.353(A) Arya Samaj unit was formally set
b. The swaraj party was formed by up by him at Bombay in 1875 by dayanand
2. Daulat Khan Lodi saraswathi and later the headquarters of the
c. Noncooperation movement Arya Samaj were established at Lahore.
3. 1920–22 The name of Pakstan was coined in 1933 as
d. World War I 4. C. R. Das by Choudhry Rahmat Ali.
Codes: Vande Mataram is a Sanskrit poem written by
A B C D Bankim Chandra Chatterjee in 1870s, which
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
105

he included in his 1882 Bengali novel a. Muslim League 1. 1906

Anandamath. The poem was first sung by b. Jinnah returned to Karachi in 2. 1947-64
Rabindranath Tagore in 1896. c. The Nehru era 3. 1885
Dadabhai Naoroji's work focused on the drain d. Indian National Congress 4. 1896
of wealth from India to England during Codes:
colonial rule of British in India. One of the A B C D
reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to (A) 1 2 4 3
Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net (B) 1 4 2 3
national profit of India, and by extension, the (C) 2 4 3 1
effect that colonisation has on the country. (D) 2 1 4 3

354. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans.355(B) The Muslim League was founded
answer using the codes given below the lists: in 1906 to safeguard the rights of Indian
List-I List-II Muslims.
a. Alipur Bomb case 1. Dr. B. R. Mohammed Ali Jinnah was first travelled to
Ambedkar Britain when just seventeen years old to take
b. Independent Labour Party up an apprenticeship with the British
2. Aurobindo Ghosh managing agency Douglas Graham. Jinnah
c. Punjab Kesari 3. Raja Ram Mohan Roy worked in accounts at the firm’s head office in
d. Father of Indian Renaissance the City of London. He was called to the Bar
4. Lala Lajpat Rai in 1895 and returned to Bombay, India, the
Codes: following year.
A B C D Jawaharlal Nehruemerged as an eminent
(A) 1 2 4 3 leader of the Indian independence movement
(B) 1 4 2 3 and served India as Prime Minister from its
(C) 2 4 3 1 establishment as an independent nation in
(D) 2 1 4 3 1947 until his death in 1964.
Indian National Congress, byname Congress
Ans.354(D) Aurobindo Ghosh, was involved Party, broadly based political party of India.
in the Alipore Bomb case. Formed in 1885, the Indian National Congress
In 1936, Ambedkar founded the Independent dominated the Indian movement for
Labour Party, which contested the 1937 independence from Great Britain.
Bombay election to the Central Legislative
Assembly for the 13 reserved and 4 general 356. Which of the following pairs is correctly
seats, and secured 11 and 3 seats respectively. matched?
Ambedkar published his book Annihilation of (A) Nakal-bihar
Caste on 15 May 1936. (B) Tamasha – Odisha
Aurobindo Ghosh, was involved in the (C) Ankia Naat-assam
Alipore Bomb case. (D) Vadhya- Punjab
Lala Lajpat Rai was an Indian freedom
fighter. He played a pivotal role in the Indian Ans.356(C) Ankia Nat is a folk play of
Independence movement. He was popularly Assam. This art form makes use of large
known as Punjab Kesari. He was one of the masks of gods, goddesses, demons and
threeLal Bal Pal triumvirate. animals
Raja Ram Mohan Roy is known as the 'Maker
of Modern India' and 'Father of Indian 357. Which one of the following pairs is not
Renaissance'. correctly matched?
(A) Akbar – Todarmal
355. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (B) Chanakya – Chandragupta
answer using the codes given below the lists: (C) Vikramaditya – Chaitanya
List-I List-II (D) Harshvardhan – Hiuen Tsang
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
106

Ans.357(C) Chaitanya was a Hindu monk and 359. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
social reformer from 16th century India who answer using the codes given below the lists:
founded Gaudiya Vaish- navism, a Vaishnava List-I List-II
religious movement. Vikrama- ditya was a a. Agnikula 1. known as Lokayata and
legendary first-century BC emperor of Ujjain, Bṛhaspatya
India, famed for his wisdom, valour and mag- b. Ajivika 2. group of Rajput
nanimity. c. Bodhisattva 3. ndividual who attains
nirvan
358. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct d. Charvaka 4. heterodox sect closer to
answer using the codes given below the lists: Jainism
List-I List-II
a. Mudrarakasam 1. king Chandragupta Codes:
Maurya A B C D
b. Ratnavali 2. King Harsha (A) 1 2 4 3
c. Harshacharita 3. King Chandragupta (B) 1 4 2 3
Maurya (C) 2 4 3 1
d. Arthashastra 4. King Udayana (D) 2 1 4 3
Codes:
A B C D Ans.359(C) The Agnivanshi are people who
(A) 1 2 4 3 claim descent from Agni, the Vedic god of
(B) 1 4 2 3 fire. The Agnivanshi lineage (Agnivansha or
(C) 2 4 3 1 Agnikula) is one of the three lineages into
(D) 2 1 4 3 which the Rajput clans are divided, the others
being the Suryavanshi (descended from Surya,
Ans.358(B) The Mudrarakshasa is a Sanskrit- the sun god) and the Chandravanshi
language play by Vishakhadatta that narrates (descended from Chandra, the moon god).
the ascent of the king Chandragupta Maurya Ajivik was the first atheist or materialist sect
to power in India. The play is an example of to develop on Indian soil in the ancient
creative writing, but not entirely fictional. It is philosophical tradition of the world.
dated variously from the late 4th century to According to the scholars of Indian
the 8th century CE. philosophy and history, the Ajivak sect was
Ratnavali (Precious Garland) is a Sanskrit founded by Makkhali Gosal (Goshalak).
drama about a beautiful princess named Before the rise of the 24th Jain Tirthankara
Ratnavali, and a great king named Udayana. It Mahavir and Mahatma Buddha in the 5th
is attributed to the Indian emperor Harsha century, it was the most influential philosophy
(606–648). It is a Natika in four acts. One of prevalent on Indian territory.
the first textual references to the celebration of Bodhisattva, in Buddhism, one who seeks
Holi, the festival of Colours have been found awakening (bodhi)—hence, an individual on
in this text. the path to becoming a buddha.
The Harshacharita, is the biography of Indian The word 'Lokayat' is used in Buddhist Pitas
emperor Harsha by Banabhatta, also known as for Charvaka doctrines which means 'the
Bana, who was a Sanskrit writer of seventh- system of philosophy which believes in this
century CE India. folk and does not believe in the concept of
The Arthashastra is an ancient Indian Sanskrit heaven, hell or liberation'. Charvak or Lokayat
treatise on statecraft, economic policy and philosophy is also mentioned in Mahabharata,
military strategy. Kautilya, also identified as but no original text is available. Ajit
Vishnugupta and Chanakya, is traditionally Keshakambali is credited as the precursor of
credited as the author of the text. The latter Charvaka, while Jupiter is commonly referred
was a scholar at Takshashila, the teacher and to as the founder of Charvaka or Lokayat
guardian of Emperor Chandragupta Maurya. philosophy.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
107

Ans.361(A) Correct match

360. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. Swami Vivekananda - January 12, 1863
answer using the codes given below the lists: b. Raja Rammohan Roy - May 22, 1772
List-I List-II c. Swami Dayananda - 12 February 1824
a. Warren Hastings 1. first British d. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar - 26 Sep 1820
governors-general of
India 362. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
b. Robert Clive 2. British governor- answer using the codes given below the lists:
general of Bengal List-I List-II
c. Lord William Bentinck 3. viceroy of a. Chandragupta 1. Founder of the
Ireland Mauryan dynasty
d. Charles Cornwallis 4. first British b. Kanishka 2. emperor of the
administrator of Kushan dynasty
Bengal c. Pulakeshin II 3. member of the
Codes: Vardhana dynasty
A B C D d. Harshavardhana 4. Chalukya
(A) 1 2 4 3 dynasty
(B) 1 4 2 3 Codes:
(C) 2 4 3 1 A B C D
(D) 2 1 4 3 (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
Ans.360(B) The first governor-general in (C) 2 4 3 1
India was Warren Hastings, the first official (D) 2 1 4 3
governor-general of British India was Lord
William Bentinck, and the first governor- Ans.362(A) Chandragupta, also called
general of the Dominion of India was Lord Chandragupta Maurya and it was founder of
Mountbatten. the Mauryan dynasty and the first emperor to
Robert Clive was a soldier and first British unify most of India under one administration.
administrator of Bengal, who was one of the Kanishka I, an emperor of the Kushan dynasty
creators of British power in India. in the second century is famous for his
Cornwallis was British governor-general of military, political, and spiritual achievements.
India and viceroy of Ireland (1798–1801). Harsha, also known as Harshavardhana, was
361. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct an Indian emperor who ruled North India from
answer using the codes given below the lists: 606 to 647 CE. He was a member of the
(Great Man and his date of birth) Vardhana dynasty; and was the son of
List-I List-II Prabhakarvardhana who defeated the Alchon
a. Swami Vivekananda 1. born January 12, Huna invaders.
1863 Pulakeshin II was the most famous ruler of the
b. Raja Rammohan Roy 2. born May 22, Chalukya dynasty of Vatapi (present-day
1772 Badami in Karnataka, India). During his reign,
c. Swami Dayananda 3. 26 September the Chalukya kingdom expanded to cover
1820 most of the Deccan region in peninsular India.
d. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar
4. 12 February 1824 363. Which among historical monuments the
Codes: following is not a correct pair?
A B C D (A) Ellora Caves – Rastrakuta Rulers
(A) 1 2 4 3 (B) Mahabalipuram – Pallava Rulers
(B) 1 4 2 3 (C) Khajuraho – Chandellas
(C) 2 4 3 1 (D) Elephanta Caves – Mauyra Era
(D) 2 1 4 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
108

Ans.363(D) Elephanta caves were built during the fifth Mughal emperor, who reigned from
the later Gupta Era. 1628 to 1658.
Nasir-ud-Din Muḥammad, better known by
364. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct his regnal name, Humayun, was the second
answer using the codes given below the lists: emperor of the Mughal Empire, who ruled
List-I List-II over territory in what is now Afghanistan,
a. Treaty of Asurar Ali 1. 1769 Pakistan, Northern India, and Bangladesh
b. Treaty of Purandar 2. 1639 from 1530–1540 and again from 1555 1556.
c. Treaty of Alinagar 3. 1757
d. Treaty of Madras 4. 1665 366. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer using the codes given below the lists:
A B C D List-I List-II
(A) 1 2 4 3 a. Battle of Samugarh 1. Deccan Sultanates
(B) 1 4 2 3 defeated the glorious Vijayanagar empire
(C) 2 4 3 1 b. Battle of Buxar 2. Aurangzeb
(D) 2 1 4 3 defeated Dara Shikoh.
c. Battle of Karnal 3. Nadir Shah
Ans.364(C) Right match defeated Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah
(A) Treaty of Asuar Ali-1639 d. Battle of Talikota 4. British defeated
(B) Treaty of Purandar - 1665 the combined forces of Mir Qasim
(C) Treaty of Alinagar - 1757 Codes:
(D) Treaty of Madras - 1769 A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3
365. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (B) 1 4 2 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (C) 2 4 3 1
(real names of Emperors) (D) 2 1 4 3
List-I List-II
a. Babur 1. Naseeruddin Ans.366(C) The Samugarh war took place on
Mohammed May 29, 1658 AD over Mughal succession.
b. Humayun 2. Zaheeruddin The battle was fought between Dara Shikoh,
Mohammed the elder boy of Shah Jahan, and the combined
c. Akbar 3. Shahbuddin forces of Aurangzeb and Murad Baksh. As a
Muhammed Khurram result of defeat in this battle, Dara Shikoh
d. Shahjahan 4. Jalal-ud-din escaped from the battlefield, but was chased
Muhammad and killed.
Codes: The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October
A B C D 1764, between the forces under the command
(A) 1 2 4 3 of the British East India Company, led by
(B) 1 4 2 3 Hector Munro, and the combined armies of
(C) 2 4 3 1 Mir Qasim, the Nawab of Bengal.
(D) 2 1 4 3 The Battle of Karnal (24 February 1739), was
a decisive victory for Nader Shah, the founder
Ans.365(D) Jalal-ud-din Muhammad Akbar, of the Afsharid dynasty of Persia, during his
popularly known as Akbar the Great, and also invasion of India. The battle was the
as Akbar I was the third Mughal emperor, culminating point of Nader Shah's invasion of
who reigned from 1556 to 1605. Babur, the Mughal Empire.
Zahīr ud-Dīn Muhammad, wasthe founder of The Battle of Talikota (23 January 1565) was
the Mughal Empire and first Emperor of the a watershed battle fought between the
Mughal dynasty in the Indian subcontinent. Vijayanagara Empire and an alliance of the
Shahab-ud-din Muhammad Khurram better Deccan sultanates who united in order to
known by his regnal name Shah Jahan, was defeat Aliya Rama Raya.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
109

A B C D
367. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (A) 1 2 4 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (B) 1 4 2 3
List-I List-II (C) 2 4 3 1
a. Balban 1. He is considered (D) 2 1 4 3
the greatest Sultan of slave dynasty.
b. Ala-ud-din Khilji 2. His original Ans.368(A) Rani Rudrama Devi or
name was Ghazi Malik. Rudradeva Maharaja, sometimes spelled
c. Ghiyas ud-Din Tughluq 3. the founder of Rudramadevi or Rudrama-devi, was a
the Sayyid dynasty dynasty monarch of the Kakatiya dynasty in the
d. Khizr Khan 4. the most Deccan Plateau from 1263 until her death. She
powerful emperor of the Khalji dynasty was one of the very few women to rule as
Codes: monarchs in India and promoted a male image
A B C D in order to do so.
(A) 1 2 4 3 Rani Durgavati was the ruling Queen of
(B) 1 4 2 3 Gondwana from 1550 until 1564. She was
(C) 2 4 3 1 born in the family of Chandel king Keerat Rai.
(D) 2 1 4 3 She was born at the fort of Kalinjar (Banda,
Uttar Pradesh). Rani Durgavati's
Ans.367(B) Ghiyas ud din Balban was the achievements further enhanced the glory of
ninth sultan of the Mamluk dynasty of Delhi. her ancestral tradition of courage and
Alauddin Khalji born as AliGurshasp, was patronage.
the most powerful emperor of the Khalji Chand Bibi was an Indian Muslim regent and
dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate in the warrior. She acted as the Regent of Bijapur
Indian subcontinent. Alauddin instituted a (1580–90) and Regent of Ahmednagar (in
number of significant administrative changes, current day Maharashtra) (1596–99). Chand
related to revenues, price controls, and Bibi is best known for defending
society. He is noted for repulsing the Ahmednagar against the Mughal forces of
Mongol invasions of India. Emperor Akbar in 1595.
Ghiasuddin Tughlaq, or Ghazi Malik, was the Maharani Ahilyabai Holkar was the Holkar
founder of the Tughluq dynasty in India, who Queen of the Maratha Malwa kingdom, India.
reigned over the Sultanate of Delhi from 1320 Rajmata Ahilyabai was born in the village of
to 1325. He founded the city of Tughluqabad. Chondi in Jamkhed, Ahmednagar,
The Sayyid dynasty was the fourth dynasty of Maharashtra. She moved the capital to
the Delhi Sultanate, with four rulers ruling Maheshwar south of Indore on the Narmada
from 1414 to 1451. This dynasty founded by River.
Khizr Khan who was a former governor of
Multan. 369. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
368. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (Book and Author)
answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
List-I List-II a. Ratnavali 1. Bāṇabhaṭṭa
a. Rani Rudramma 1. was a monarch of b. Harshacharita 2. Harshavardhana
the Kakatiya dynasty c. Amuktamalayada 3. Jahangir
b. Rani Durgawati 2. ruling Queen of d. Tuzk-I-Jahangir 4. Sri Krishna Deva
Gondwana Raya
c. Chand Bibi 3. was the Holkar Codes:
Queen of the Maratha Malwa A B C D
d. Devi Ahilya Bai Holkar 4. was an Indian (A) 1 2 4 3
Muslim regent and warrior (B) 1 4 2 3
Codes: (C) 2 4 3 1
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
110

(D) 2 1 4 3 the court of Bindusara, the son of

Chandragupta Maurya.
Ans.369(D) Harsha is author of three Fahien was a Chinese Buddhist monk who
Sanskrit plays Ratnavali, Nagananda and visited India during the reign of Vikramaditya
Priyadarsika. (Chandragupta II). He is known for his visit to
The Harshacharita, is the biography of Indian Lumbini, the birthplace of the Buddha. His
emperor Harsha written by Banabhatta, also journey is described in his travelogue "Record
known as Bana, who was a Sanskrit writer of of Buddhist Kingdoms.
seventh-century CE India. He was the Court Francois Bernier was a French physician and
poet of Harsha. traveller who visited India during 1658 and
Amuktamalyada is an epic poem in Telugu 1671. He was the personal physician of the
composed by Krishnadevaraya of the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb for around 12
Vijayanagar Dynasty. Amuktamalyada years during his stay in India.
translates to A garland of pearls. Considered Abdul Raza was a Persian scholar and
as a masterpiece, Amuktamalyada describes ambassador of the ruler of Persia to Calicut
the story of wedding of the Hindu Lord who visited India during the rule of Deva
Vishnu and Andal (or Goda Devithe) the Raya II of Vijayanagar during 1442 to 1445.
Tamil Alvar poet and daughter of Periyalvar,
at Srirangam. 371. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Tuzuk-e-Jahangiri or Tuzuk-i-Jahangiri is the answer using the codes given below the lists:
autobiography of Mughal Emperor Nur-ud- List-I List-II
din Muhammad Jahangir (1569-1627). Also a. Smt Indira Gandhi 1. first woman to be
referred to as Jahangirnama, Tuzk-e-Jahangiri awarded the Bharat Ratna
is written in Persian, and follows the tradition b. Smt Sarojini Naidu 2. first lady
of his great-grandfather, Babur (1487-1530), Governor
who had written the Baburnama. c. Smt Sucheta Kripalani 3. first lady Central
minister of the country
370. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct d. Smt Rajkumari Amrit Kaur 4. first lady
answer using the codes given below the lists: Chief Minister of State
(Foreign Visitors) Codes:
List-I List-II A B C D
a. Megasthenes 1. Persian cholar and (A) 1 2 4 3
ambassador (B) 1 4 2 3
b. Fahien 2. the ambassador (C) 2 4 3 1
of Seleucus (D) 2 1 4 3
c. Francois Bernier 3. physician and
traveller Ans.371(A) Indira Priyadarshini Gandhi 19
d. Abdul Raza 4. Chinese Buddhist November 1917 – 31 October 1984) was an
monk Indian politician and a central figure of the
Codes: Indian National Congress. She was the first
and, to date, only female Prime Minister of
A B C D India. Indira Gandhi was the daughter of
(A) 1 2 4 3 Jawaharlal Nehru, the first prime minister of
(B) 1 4 2 3 India.
(C) 2 4 3 1 Sarojini Naidu was the first female to become
(D) 2 1 4 3 the governor of an Indian state. She governed
Uttar Pradesh from 15 August 1947 to 2
Ans.370(C) Megasthenes was the March 1949. Her daughter, Padmaja Naidu, is
Ambassador of the Greek Emperor Seleucus I the longest-serving female governor with 11-
Nikator in the court of Chandragupta Maurya. year tenure in West Bengal.
Megasthenes was replaced by Deimachus in
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
111

Sucheta Kripalani was an Indian freedom

fighter and politician. She was India's first Ans.374(B)
woman Chief Minister, serving as the head of
the Uttar Pradesh government from 1963 to 375. Which one of the following is wrongly
1967. matched regarding 1857 revolt?
Rajkumari Bibiji Amrit Kaur DStJ (2 (A) Delhi Bahadur Shah
February 1889 – 6 February 1964) was an (B) Jagdispur Kunwar Singh
Indian activist and politician. Following her (C) Faizabad Liaquat Ali
long-lasting association with the Indian (D) Lucknow Begum Hazrat Mahal
independence movement, she was appointed
the first Health Minister of India in 1947 and Ans.375(C) Maulvi Liaquat Ali was a Muslim
remained in office religious leader from Allahabad, in the state of
Uttar Pradesh in present-day India. He was
372. Match the following one of the leaders in the revolt against the
Mahajanapada Capital British in 1857, in what is now known as the
1. Anga a. Shravasti Indian Mutiny, or the Sepoy Mutiny.
2. Magadha b. Champa
3. kasi c. Rajagriha 376. Match the following Sessions of Indian
4. Kosala d. Kasi National Congress
(A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d (B) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d Year President
(C) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a (D) 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c 1. Whitley Commission a. The Jallianwala
Bagh massacre
Ans.372(C) 1. Anga a. Champa 2. Butler Commission b. Labour
2. Magadha b. Rajgriha 3. Hunter Commission c. Education
3. Kashi c. Kashi 4. Sadler Commission d. Indian States
4. Kosal d. Anga (A) 1-b, 2-c, 3-a, 4-d (B) 1-b, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a
(C) 1-b, 2-a, 3-d, 4-c (D) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
373. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched? Ans.376(D) The Royal Commission on
(A) Bal Gangadhar Tilak Kesari Labour or the Whitley Commission on Labour
(B) Mahatma Gandhi Young India was set up in 1929 to inquire into the existing
(C) Jawaharlal Nehru National Herald conditions of labour in industrial undertakings
(D) B. R. Ambedkar Harijan and plantations in India. The Commission was
chaired by John Henry Whitley.
Ans.373(D) Gandhi started publishing a The Indian states committee appointed a
weekly journal called "Harijan" on 11 committee under the Chairmanship of Sir
February 1933 from Yerwada Jail during Harcourt Butler which was popularly known
British rule. He created three publications: as 'the Butler Committee' to investigate and
Harijan in English (from 1933 to 1948), clarify the relationship between the paramount
Harijan Bandu in Gujarati, and Harijan Sevak power and the Princes of Princely States in
in Hindi.
1927 AD.
374. Match the following Sessions of Indian Hunter Commission was appointed by Lord
National Congress. Ripon in 1882 For Indian Education.
Year President In 1917 the Government appointed the
1. 1924 a. Acharya J.B Kriplani Calcutta University Commission to study and
2. 1888 b. George Yule report on the problem of university education.
3. 1917 c. M.K Gandhi The commission is also known as the Sadler
4. 1946 d. Annie Besant Commission after the name of its chairman
(A) 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d (B) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
(C) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a (D) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
112

Dr. Michael E. Sadler, the Vice Chancellor of (D) Kalibanga Ghaggar River
the university of Leeds.
Ans.380(B) Chanhudaro is Situated on the
377. Which one of the following is wrongly Bank of river Indus in Sindh, Pakistan.
matched. Chanhudaro is an archaeological site related
(A) First Anglo-Maratha War Warren to the urban phase of the Indus Valley
Hastings Civilization. The area is located 130
(B) Introduction of Civil Services in India kilometers (81 mi) south of Mohenjodaro in
Lord Lytton Sindh province of Pakistan.
(C) Charles Wood Despatch Lord Dalhousie
(D) Started the Census Lord Mayo 381. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched?
Ans.377(B) Lord Cornwallis had been the (A) Nanda Dynasty - Mahapadmananda
Governor General of the Fort William (B) Mauryan Dynasty - Chandragupta Maurya
Presidency. He was the Governor General of (C) Sunga Dynasty - Pushyamitra Sunga
Bengal. He introduced a new revenue system (D) Kanva Dynasty - Nagabhata
in 1793 AD as a permanent settlement in
Bengal. During this time all the authority of Ans.381(D) Nagabhata (730-760) was an
the district was given to the Collector and it is Indian king who founded the imperial Gurjara
considered the father of the Indian Civil Pratihara dynasty. He ruled the Avanti region
Service. in present-day Madhya Pradesh, from his
capital at Ujjain. The founder of Kanva
378. Which one of the following is wrongly dynasty was Vasudeva. Vasudeva 75 BC
matched. Founded the Kanva dynasty by killing
(A) Chauri Chaura incident 1925 Devabhuti (the last ruler of the Sunga
(B) Jallianwala Bagh massacre 1919 dynasty).
(C) Gandhi-Irwin Pact 1931
(D) Quit India movement 1942 382. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched?
Ans.378(B) The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, Dynasty/King Capital
also known as the Amritsar massacre, took (A) Cholas Anhilwara
place on 13 April 1919 (B) Mauryan Patliputra
(C) Pallavas Kanchi
379. Which one of the following is wrongly (D) Pandyas Madurai
matched.
King Title Ans.382(A) Thanjavur became the most
(A) Chandragupta I Maharaja important city in the Chola Empire and
(B) Chandragupta II Vikramaditya remained its capital till the emergence of
(C) Kumargupta Mahendraditya Gangaikonda Cholapuram in about 1025.
(D) Samundragupta Param Bhagavat
383. Which one of the following is wrongly
Ans.379(A) Chandragupta I was a king of the matched?
Gupta dynasty. His title Maharajadhiraja (A) Khilji dynasty (1290-1320)
("king of great kings") suggests that he was (B) Tughlaq dynasty (1320-1413)
the first emperor of the dynasty. (C) Sayyid dynasty (1414-42)
(D) Lodhi dynasty (1451-1526)
380. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched. Ans.383(C) The Sayyid Dynasty was founded by
(A) Harappa Ravi River Khizr Khan, who was the governor of Multan
(B) Chanhudaro Satlaj River and Timur's deputy in India. This dynasty
(C) Lothal Bhogava River
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
113

ruled for 37 years from 1414 to 1451 AD by

four rulers- Khizr Khan, Mubarak, 388. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
Muhammad Shah, Alam Shah. (A) British rule in Burma: 1828–1948
(B) British Raj: 1858–1947
384. Which one of the following is wrongly (C) Company rule in India: 1757–1858
matched? (D) Portuguese East India Company: 1628
(A) Luni-Sagarmati 1633
(B) Gandak-Sadanira
(C) Ghaghara-Vipasa Ans.388(A) British rule in Burma lasted from
(D) Kabul-Kubha 1824 to 1948, from the successive three
Anglo-Burmese wars through the creation of
Ans.384(C) Ghaghara, also called Karnali is a Burma as a Province of British India to the
perennial trans-boundary river originating on establishment of an independently
the Tibetan Plateau near Lake Manasarovar. administered colony, and finally
independence. The region under British
385. Which one of the following is wrongly control was known as British Burma.
matched?
(A) Charminar Telangana 389. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(B) Konark Sun Temple-Odisha (A) The Battle of Buxar - 22 October 1764
(C) Ajanta Caves Maharashtra (B) Battle of Plassey - 23 June 1759
(D) Iron pillar Madhya Pradesh (C) Swadeshi Movement - 1905
(D) Cabinet Mission Plan - 1946
Ans.385(D) The iron pillar of Delhi is a
structure 23 feet 8 inches (7.2 metres) high Ans.389(B) On 23 June 1757, the Battle of
with 16 inches’ diameter that was constructed Plassey was fought between the forces of Siraj
by probably Chandragupta II. Ud Daulah, and his French support troops and
the troops of the British East India Company,
386. Which one of the following is wrongly led by Robert Clive.
matched?
(A) Swaraj Party-Motilal Nehru and 390. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
Chittaranjan Das (A) Vernacular Press Act - Lord Lytton
(B) Ghadar Party-Sohan Singh Bhakna (B) Formation of Indian National Congress -
(C) Forward Bloc party-Subhas Chandra Bose Lord Dufferin
(D) Independent Labour Party-Mahatma (C) Ilbert Bill - Lord Ripon
gandhi (D) 1st Delhi Durbar - Lord Northbrook

Ans.386(D) Ambedkar had founded the Ans.390(D) 1st Delhi Durbar known as the
Depressed Classes Federation (DCF) in 1930 Imperial Durbar, it was held three times, in
and the Independent Labour Party (ILP) in 1877, 1903, and 1911, at the height of the
1935. British Empire. It was organized during Lord
Litton's time.
387. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(A) Jiziya tax abolished -1564 391. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(B) Establishment of Ibadat Khana-1575 (A) Benaras Hindu Girl's School - Lord
(C) Establishment of Din-e-Ilahi-1582 Hardinge
(D) Beginning of Ilahi Samvat-1580 (B) Muslim League - Aga Khan III
(C) Imperial Bank of India - Lord Chelmsford
Ans.387(D) Akbar adopted the policy of Sulh- (D) Chauri Chaura incident - Lord Reading
i-Kul (peace for all) to unite the by Todarmal
1584 Ilahi Samvat was introduced 1587 Ilahi Ans.391(A) Benaras Hindu Girl's School was
Gaz was introduced. established in 1904 by Dr. Annie Besant.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
114

flourished in the area of Ghaggar river from

392. Which of the following is not correctly the present Sandhav civilization. It was first
matched? discovered in 1952 by Amalanand Ghosh. BK
(A) Bhagat Singh : Meerut Conspiracy Case Thapar and VV Lal did excavation work here
(B) Ram Prasad Bismil : Kakori Conspiracy in 1961-69.
Case
(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad : New Delhi 395. Consider the following statements:
Conspiracy 1. The interpretation of the glory of Brahma in
(D) Surya Sen : Chittagong Armoury Raid Kenopanishad is explained.
2. There is a dialogue between Yama Raj and
Ans.392(C) Chandra Shekhar Azad. The Nachiketa in kathopanishad.
Kakori Conspiracy, also known as Kakori Which of the statements given above is/are
Conspiracy Case or Kakori Train Robbery, correct?
was carried out by the Hindustan Republic (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Association in the Kakori town of the United (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Provinces (now Uttar Pradesh) on 9 August
1925 during the Indian Independence Ans.395(C) Kenopanishad is notable in its
Movement against the British. discussion of Brahman and for being a
treatise on "purely conceptual knowledge and
393. Which of the following is not matched Famos dialogue between Yama Raj and
correctly? Nachiketa in kathopanishad.
(A) Butler commission: 1927
(B) Nehru report: 1930 396. Consider the following statements:
(C) 14 points of Jinnah: 1928 1. Information about 16 Mahajanapadas
(D) Gandhi- Irvin pact: 1931 comes from Buddhist and Jain literature and
from Panini's Ashtadhyayi.
Ans.393(B) correctly matched 2. The Gandhara Mahajanapadas were around
(A) Butler commission - 1927 modern Rawalpindi and Peshawar city.
(B) Nehru report - 1928 Which of the statements given above is/are
(C) 14 points of Jinnah - 1928 NOT correct?
(D) Gandhi- Irvin pact - 1931 (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
394. Consider the following statements:
1. Kalibanga is situated on the left bank of Ans.396(C) Information about 16
Ghagghar river in Ganganagar district of Mahajanapadas comes from Buddhist and Jain
Rajasthan. literature and from Panini's Ashtadhyayi. The
2. Excavation in 1953 was done by B. B. Lal primary cities of Gandhara were Puruṣapura
and B. K. Thapar. (Peshawar), Taxila.
Which of the statements given above is/are
NOT correct? 397. Consider the following statements:
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 1. The capital of Anga Mahajanapada was
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Champa.
2. Shravasti was the capital of the Kaushal
Ans.394(C) Kalibanga is an ancient and Mahajanapada.
historical site in Hanumangarh district of 3. Kaushambi was the capital of the Kuru
Rajasthan. Very interesting and important Mahajanapada.
relics of Harappan civilization have been Which of the statements given above is/are
found here. Kali Banga was a small town. A correct?
fort has been found here. Ancient Drishadvati (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
and Saraswati river basins The ancient (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Kalibanga civilization also flourished and
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
115

Ans.397(B) Kosala (Kosala) was one of the 2. The famous scholar in the court of Mahmud
16 Mahajanapadas of ancient India. Its area Gaznavi was the Utabi.
was near modern Gorakhpur. Its first capital Which of the statements given above is/are
capital was Shravasti. correct?
In ancient times, there were 16 (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Mahajanapadas in India. One of those 16 was (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Kuru district. This Kuru district was ruled by
the descendants of Yayati's son Kuru, who Ans.400(C) Mahmud of Ghazni (998–1030),
was known as the Kauravas. The district of who had succeeded in gaining power over
Kuru is mentioned from the later Vedic era. eastern Iran and modern-day Afghanistan by
Its capital was Hastinapur, which was situated the end of the tenth century. Firdausi
on the banks of the Ganges near composed Shahnama. The famous scholar in
Garhmukteshwar. Most of the Upanishads and the court of Mahmud Gaznavi was the Utabi.
Brahmins were composed in the Kuru Panchal
regions. 401. Consider the following statements:
1. The famous Ganesh temple of
398. Consider the following statements: Mamallapuram was constructed by Pulakeshin
1. Rajpur was the capital of the Kamboja II.
Mahajanapada. 2. The 15 types of slaves alleged by Narada
2. Kushavati/Kushinagar was the capital of the have been mentioned by Vigyaneshwara in
Malla Mahajanapada. Mitakshara.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? NOT correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.398(C) The capital of malla was Ans.401(B) Ganesh Ratha Temple is a

Kushinagar, Pawa. It covered the modern beautiful temple in Mahabalipuram
districts of Deoria, Basti, Gorakhpur in constructed by the Pallavas
Eastern Uttar Pradesh. and Rajpura was the
capital of the Kamboja Mahajanapada. 402. Consider the following statements:
1. Shahjahan transferred the Mughal Capital
399. Consider the following statements: from Agra to Delhi.
1. Matsya Mahajanapada was the area around 2. The Taj-Mahal was built by Jahangir.
modern Jaipur. 3. Shahjahan went to Kabul with fifty
2. Chedi Mahajanapada was the area around thousand army for the purpose of suppressing
modern Allahabad. Afghans.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.399(C) Matsya Mahajanapada was the Ans.402(C) An immense mausoleum of white

area around modern Jaipur. Chedi marble, built in Agra between 1631 and 1648
Mahajanapada was the area around modern- by order of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan in
day Bundelkhand province. Its capital was memory of his favourite wife, the Taj Mahal
Suktimati. is the jewel of Muslim art in India and one of
the universally admired masterpieces of the
400. Consider the following statements: world's heritage.
1. During the period of Mahmud Ghaznavi,
Firdausi composed Shahnama. 403. Consider the following statements:
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
116

1. Akbar had imposed ban on sati tradition on 406. Consider the following statements:
the funeral pyre of her husband burned the 1. The founder of Satyashodhak Samaj was
widow. Jyotiba Phule.
2. Akbar discouraged child marriage and 2. Vedanta Sabha was founded by Swami
encouraged widow marriage in Hindus. Vivekananda.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.403(C) Akbar had imposed ban on sati Ans.406(A) Vedanta Sabha was founded by
tradition on the funeral pyre of her husband Raja Ram Mohan Ray in 1816 at Kolkata.
burned the widow. Akbar discouraged child
marriage and encouraged widow marriage in 407. Consider the following statements:
Hindus. 1. A book titled ‘The Sepoy Mutiny and the
revolt of 1857’ was written by Ashok Mehta.
404. Consider the following statements: 2. Rebellion 1857 book was written by P. C.
1. In 1917, Mahatma Gandhi organised a Joshi.
satyagraha to support the peasants of the Which of the statements given above is/are
Kheda district of Gujarat. correct?
2. Sanchi Stupa was built by Ashoka. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Ans.407(B) The Sepoy Mutiny and the revolt
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 of 1857 by Ramesh Chandra Majumdar

Ans.404(B) The Kheda Satyagraha of 1918, 408. Consider the following statements:
in the Kheda district of Gujarat, India during 1. Sayyids dynasty came to power in India
the period of the British Raj, was a Satyagraha after the Tughlaq dynasty.
movement organised by Mohandas 2. The son of Chandragupta Maurya was
karamchand Gandhi. Bindusara.
3. The son of Bindusara was Ashoka.
405. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Mahatma Gandhi raised the slogan “Swaraj correct?
is my birthright and I shall have it”. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
2. Rana Sanga has built the Vijay Stambha (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(Tower of Victory) in Chittorgarh.
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.408(C) Sayyids dynasty came to power
correct? in India after the Tughlaq dynasty. The son of
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Chandragupta Maurya was Bindusara. The
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 son of Bindusara was Ashoka.
Ans.405(D) The slogan 'Swaraj is my
birthright and I shall have it' was given by Bal 409. Consider the following statements:
Gangadhar Tilak.The Vijaya Stambha is an 1. Babur succeeded to the throne of Ferghana
imposing victory monument located within
Chittor Fort in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan, India. in 8 June, 1494 when he was only 12 years
The tower was constructed by the Mewar old.
king, Rana Kumbha, in 1448 to commemorate 2. He was the founder of Mughal dynasty in
his victory over the combined armies of India.
Malwa and Gujarat led by Mahmud Khilji. Which of the statements given above is/are
NOT correct?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
117

(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) 1 only (B) 2 only

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor

Ans.409(C) Babur succeeded to the throne of Ans.412(C) Raj Singh, vish viriksh was
Ferghana in 1494 when he was only 12 years written by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee.Sarat
old. However, he had to leave his ancestral Chandra wrote novel Srikanta, Devdas.
throne due to the invasion of the uzbegs, a
Mongol group. He was the founder of Mughal 413. Consider the following statements:
dynasty in India. (reigned 1526–1530), 1. Sikandar Lodi established the Agra city.
2. The founder of the Lodi dynasty was Bahlol
410. Consider the following statements: Lodi.
1. Gona Reddy is called Tulsidas of Telugu. Which of the statements given above is/are
He composed Ranganath Ramayana. correct?
2. Haridas, the court poet of Krishnadevaraya (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
of Vijayanagara wrote the Iasumaya- (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Valkakkam.
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.413(C) The Lodi dynasty was an Afghan
correct? dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate from
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 1451 to 1526. It was the last dynasty of the
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Delhi Sultanate, and was founded by Bahlul
Khan Lodi when he replaced the Sayyid
Ans.410(C) Gona Reddy is called Tulsidas of dynasty. and Sikandar Lodi established the
Telugu. He composed Ranganath Ramayana. Agra city.
Haridas, the court poet of Krishnadevaraya of
Vijayanagara wrote the Iasumaya-Valkakkam. 414. Consider the following statements:
1. The founder of the Tughlaq dynasty was
411. Consider the following statements: Muhammad bin Tughlu
1. Dyer was responsible for the Jallianwalla 2. Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq had a tense
Bagh massacre. relationship with Sheikh Nizamuddin Auliya.
2. The Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known Which of the statements given above is/are
as the Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 correct?
April 1919. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Ans.414(B) Ghiyath al-Din Tughluq was the
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 one who founded the Tughlaq dynasty in
India. The founders' real name was Ghazi
Ans.411(C) Brigadier-general Dyer was Malik and he ruled from 1320 - 1325. He
responsible for the Jallianwala Bagh massacre founded the city of Tughlaqabad outside
in Amritsar (in the province of Punjab). The Delhi. (1320 to 1414)
Jallianwala Bagh massacre, also known as the
Amritsar massacre, took place on 13 April 415. Consider the following statements:
1919. 1. The Gupta Empire stretched across
northern, central and parts of southern India
412. Consider the following statements: between CE 210 and 305 CE.
1. Raj Singh, vish viriksh was written by 2. The Gupta period is known as the "Golden
Bankim Chandra Chatterjee. Age" in the history of India.
2. Sarat Chandra wrote novel Srikanta, Which of the statements given above is/are
Devdas. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
NOT correct? (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
118

Mamallapuram (Mahabalipuram) was named

Ans.415(B) The Gupta Empire stretched after Narasimhavarman I. In 640 AD, that the
across northern, central and parts of southern Chinese traveller Hiuen Tsang visited
India between CE 320 and 550 CE. The Kanchipuram. Narasimhavarman I was a
period is noted for its achievements in the arts, devotee of Shiva.
architecture, sciences, religion, and
philosophy. It began a period of overall 418. Consider the following statements regarding
prosperity and growth which came to be to Permanent settlement system:
known as a “Golden Age” in India’s history. 1. This arrangement was on 19% of British
India. Applicable in Bengal, Bihar, Orissa,
416. Consider the following statements: Varanasi in Uttar Pradesh and North
1. Kanishka organized the fourth Buddhist Karnataka.
Sangti in Kashmir, presided over by 2. Under this, the zamindar retained 10 / 11th
Vasumitra and Ashwaghosh. part of the realization of land revenue from his
2. In the second Buddhist music, Buddhism areas and deposited the remaining part (1 /
was divided into two - Hinayana and 11th) with the company.
Mahayana. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.418(A) In the permanent settlement
Ans.416(A) During the reign of Kanishka, the system, landlords were recognized as
fourth Buddhist council was held at landlords. Under this, the zamindar retained
Kundalvana in Kashmir to settle the disputes 1/11 th part of the realization of land revenue
among different sects. After the discussions from his areas and deposited the remaining
Buddhism was divided into two major sects part (10 / 11th) with the company.
named as Hinayana and Mahayana. Hinayana
- It was an old form of Buddhism. Followers 419. Consider the following statements regarding
of this sect were against idol worship. to Ryotwari System:
Mahayana - Its followers considered Buddha 1. In this method, the farmer had to pay
as God. This sect was in favour of idol between 20% and 30% to the renting
worship. company.
2. In 1792 AD, Captain Reid introduced the
417. Consider the following statements: Ryotwari System first in Baramhal district of
1. During Mahendravarman I reign famous Tamil Nadu.
Panch Pandava Rath Temple was constructed Which of the statements given above is/are
which is Rock Cut Temple, a UNESCO not correct?
World Heritage site. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
2. In 640 AD, the Chinese traveller Hiuen (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Tsang visited Kanchipuram in during
Narasimhavarman I reign. Ans.419(D) In Ryotwari System, the farmer
Which of the statements given above is/are had to pay between 33% and 55% to the
correct? renting company. This system was reformed
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only after 1836 AD by Winger and Goldsmith.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
420. Consider the following statements:
Ans.417(B) The incredible Ratha cave 1. The Rashtrakutas considered themselves
temples of Mahabalipuram were constructed descendants of Satyaki.
by the Pallava king Narasimhavarman I 2. The Kailash Temple at Ellora was built by
during the 7th and 8th centuries. the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
119

Which of the statements given above is/are 1. Suddhodhana was the chief of the Sakya
correct? clan. Due to this, Buddha was also known as
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only ‘Sakyamuni’.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Gautama Buddha left his home at the age of
29 to become an ascetic. This event is called
Ans.420(C) Krishna I also defeated Nirvana.
Vishnuvardhana of Vengi and the Ganga king Which of the statements given above is/are
of Mysore. The Kailash Temple at Ellora was correct?
built by the Rashtrakuta King Krishna I. The (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Rashtrakutas considered themselves (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
descendants of Satyaki.
Ans.423(A) Buddha was the son of
421. Consider the following statements: Suddhodhana and Mahamaya. Suddhodhana
1. The Harappan culture was distinguished by was the chief of the Sakya clan. Due to this,
its system of town planning. Buddha was also known as ‘Sakyamuni’. He
2. The Indus people were the earliest people to left his home at the age of 29 to become an
produce cotton. ascetic. This event is called
Which of the statements given above is/are Mahabhishkramana.
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 424. Consider the following statements Regarding
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 to Raja Ram Mohan Roy:
1. Roy was employed in the East Indian
Ans.421(C) The Harappa villages, mostly Company from 1803 to 1815.
situated near the flood plains, produced 2. He founded the Brahmo Samaj in 1828
sufficient foodgrains. The Indus people were along with Debendranath Tagore.
the earliest people to produce cotton. The Which of the statements given above is/are
Harappan culture was distinguished by its not correct?
system of town planning. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
422. Consider the following statements:
1. Rigveda is the oldest religious text in the Ans.424(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy founded
world. It contains 1028 hymns and is the Brahmo Samaj in 1828 along with
classified into 10 mandalas. Debendranath Tagore. Brahmoism began as a
2. Yajur Veda deals with charms, spells and monotheistic reformist movement of
magic and is a good source to study the Hinduism.
Kingdom of Magadha.
Which of the statements given above is/are 425. Consider the following statements:
not correct? 1. Wood's Dispatch is called Magna Carta of
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only English Education in India.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 2. Wood's Dispatch came in July 1850, when
Sir Charles Wood was the President of the
Ans.422(B) Rig Veda was composed during Board of Control.
the Early Vedic Age. The other three were Which of the statements given above is/are
written in the Later Vedic Age. Atharva Veda correct?
deals with charms, spells and magic and is a (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
good source to study the Kingdom of (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Magadha.
Ans.425(A) Wood's Dispatch is called Magna
423. Consider the following statements: Carta of English Education in India. It came in
July 1854, when Sir Charles Wood was the
President of the Board of Control.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
120

426. Consider the following statements: Ans.428(C) In 1930, Gandhi was named the
1. The Hunter Commission was appointed by Man of the Year by the Time Magazine and In
the then Governor-General of India on 3 2011, Time magazine named Gandhi as one of
February 1882. the top 25 political icons of all time.
2. In 1917 to 1919, Sadler led the "Sadler The Story of My Experiments with Truth is
Commission" which looked at the state of the autobiography of Mohandas K. Gandhi,
Indian Education. covering his life from early childhood through
Which of the statements given above is/are to 1921.
not correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 429. Consider the following statements regarding
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Home Rule League:
1. Annie Besant started the Home Rule
Ans.426(D) Lord Ripon appointed the Indian League in September, 1916, and Tilak started
Education Commission on 3rd February 1882, it in April 1916.
with Sir Willium Hunter as its Chairman. It is 2. Tilak’s movement was confined to
known as Hunter Commission of 1882. Maharashtra and Karnataka. And Annie
In 1917 the Government appointed the Besant movement spread to other parts of
Calcutta University Commission to study and India.
report on the problem of university education. Which of the statements given above is/are
The commission was also known as the Sadler correct?
Commission after the name of its chairman (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Dr. Michael E. Sadler, the Vice Chancellor of (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
the university of Leeds.
Ans.429(C) Besant launched the All India
427. Consider the following statements Regarding Home Rule League in 1916 along with Bal
to Dadabhai Naoroji: Gangadhar Tilak. The League was the first
1. He became a member of the Legislative Indian political party which advocated self-
Council of Mumbai during 1885 – 88. rule as its motto. And in contrast to the INC
2. He was the President of the Congress Party which met once a year, the League worked
in 1886, 1893 and 1906. throughout the year.
Which of the statements given above is/are
not correct? 430. Consider the following statements:
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 1. Megasthenes was the Greek ambassador at
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Chandragupta’s court.
2. Chanakya was teacher of Chandragupta
Ans.427(D) Dadabhai Naoroji became a Maurya, who was also his Chief Minister.
member of the Legislative Council of Mumbai Which of the statements given above is/are
during 1885 – 88 and He was the President of correct?
the Congress Party in 1886, 1893 and 1906. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
428. Consider the following statements regarding
Mahatma Gandhi: Ans.430(C) Megasthenes was the Greek
1. In 1930, Gandhi ji was named the Man of ambassador at Chandragupta’s court. The
the Year by the Time Magazine. hellenistic king Seleucus I sent him as an
2. Gandhi ji wrote his autobiography, The ambassador to the court of King
Story of My Experiments with Truth. Chandragupta Maurya in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are Chanakya is credited to be the master
correct? strategist behind the usurping of the Nanda
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only throne and the rise of the Mauryan Empire
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 through his student, Chandragupta.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
121

431. Consider the following statements regarding (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Subhash Chandra Bose: (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Bose formed the All India Forward Bloc in
1939. Ans.433(B) Harsha biography Harshacharita
2. Bose was sent to prison in Mandalay for ("Deeds of Harsha") written by Sanskrit poet
nationalist activities in 1925. Banabhatta, describes his association with
Which of the statements given above is/are Thanesar.
not correct? Harsha is the author of three Sanskrit plays
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Ratnavali, Nagananda and Priyadarsika while
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Panchatantra is written by Vishnu Sharma.

Ans.431(D) The All India Forward Bloc 434. Consider the following statements regarding:
(AIFB) is a left-wing nationalist political 1. Muhammad-bin-Qasim called Multan as
party in India. It emerged as a faction within ‘The City of Gold’.
the Indian National Congress in 1939, led by 2. Mahmud Ghazni made his 16th attack on
Subhas Chandra Bose. the Somnath temple in 1025 just to plunder
Bose was sent to prison in Mandalay for the gold.
nationalist activities in 1925. He was released Which of the statements given above is/are
in 1927 and became the INC's general not correct?
secretary. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
432. Consider the following statements:
1. The Junagarh Rock inscription of Ans.434(D) Mahmud Ghazni commonly
Rudradaman is considered as an early known as Mahmud of Ghazni, who ruled
example of chaste Sanskrit. Ghazni from 971 to 1030 AD. He attacked
2. Mahrauli pillar was established by India 17 times on India. He made his 16th
Chandragupta-II of Gupta dynasty as attack on the Somnath temple in 1025 just to
Vishnupada in the honor of Lord Vishnu. plunder the gold.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 435. Consider the following statements:
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 1. In 1611, Jahangir married Mehrunnisa who
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 was known as Nur Jahan (Light of World).
2. In 1610, Prince Salim succeeded with the
Ans.432(C) The Junagarh Rock inscription of title Jahangir (Conqueror of World) after the
Rudradaman is considered as an early death of Akbar.
example of chaste Sanskrit, written in mid Which of the statements given above is/are
second century AD. not correct?
Mahrauli is pillar credits Chandragupta with (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
conquest of the Vanga Countries by his (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
battling alone against the confederacy of the
enemies united against him. Ans.435(B) In 1605, Prince Salim succeeded
with the title Jahangir (Conqueror of World)
433. Consider the following statements regarding after the death of Akbar and In 1611, Jahangir
Harsh verdhan: married Mehrunnisa who was known as Nur
1. His biography Harshacharita ("Deeds of Jahan (Light of World).
Harsha") written by Sanskrit poet Banabhatta.
2. Harsha is widely believed to be the author 436. Consider the following statements regarding
of three Sanskrit plays Ratnavali, Akbar:
Panchatantra and Priyadarsika. 1. Akbar built a new capital Allahabad after
Which of the statements given above is/are his victory over the Rajputs.
not correct?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
122

2. In 1582, Akbar propagated a new religion (A) 1 only (B) 2 only

called Din Ilahi or Divine Faith. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Ans.439(D) The Battle of Talikota (23
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only January 1565) was battle fought between the
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Vijayanagara Empire. After the battle of
Talikota, the prominence of the Vijayanagara
Ans.436(B) In 1582, Akbar propagated a new state in South Indian politics came to an end.
religion called Din Ilahi or Divine Faith. He The Portuguese knew the Vijayanagara
built a new capital Fatehpur Sikri after his Empire as the Bisnaga kingdom.
victory over the Rajputs.
440. Which of the following statements is/are true?
437. Consider the following statements: I. Henry Vivian Dorozev inspired the young
1. Jains are divided into two major sects; the Bengal Movement in the 19th century.
Digambara sect and the Svetambara sect. Henry Louis Vivian Derozio (1809 –1831)
2. Mahavira was the first Tirthankara of was assistant headmaster of Hindu College,
Jainism. He was born at Ayodhya in the Kolkata.
Ikshwaku Kula or clan. Select the correct option
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) Only I (B) Only II
correct? (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans.440(C) Henry Louis Vivian Derozio
(1809 –1831) was assistant headmaster of
Ans.437(B) Lord Rishabhdev was the first Hindu College, Kolkata, a radical thinker and
Tirthankara of Jainism. He was born at one of the first Indian educators to
Ayodhya in the Ikshwaku Kula or clan. disseminate Western learning and science
438. Consider the following statements: among the young men of Bengal. He
1. The Third Battle of Panipat was fought on constantly encouraged them to think freely, to
14 January 1756 between the Maratha Empire question and not to accept anything blindly.
and the Durrani Empire of Afghanistan. His teachings inspired the development of the
2. The third Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao was died spirit of liberty, equality and freedom. His
after his defeat at the Third Battle of Panipat. activities brought about intellectual revoution
Which of the statements given above is/are in Bengal. It was called the Young Bengal
correct? Movement and his students, also known as
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Derozians, were fiery patriots.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
441. Which of the following statements is true?
Ans.438(B) The Maratha army was decisively I. Razia Sultan was the first Muslim female
defeated on January 14, 1761, at the Third ruler of the Delhi Sultanate, Razia Sultan
Battle of Panipat and due to defeat the third ruled Delhi from 1236 to 1240.
Peshwa Balaji Baji Rao was died. II. During her reign, she ordered coins be
minted with her title as “Pillar of Women,
439. Consider the following statements reagarding Queen of the Times, Sultan Razia, daughter of
The Vijayanagara Empire: Shamsuddin Iltumish.”
1. After the battle of Talikota, the prominence Select the correct option
of the Vijayanagara state in South Indian (A) Only I (B) Only II
politics came to an end. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
2. The Portuguese knew the Vijayanagara
Empire as the Bisnaga kingdom.
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.441(C) Raziya al-Din, popularly known
not correct? as Razia Sultana, was a ruler of the Delhi
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
123

Sultanate in the northern part of the Indian (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
subcontinent. She is notable for being the first
female Muslim ruler of South Asia. A Ans.443(C) The Vernacular Press Act (1878)
daughter of Mamluk Sultan Shamsuddin was enacted to curtail the freedom of the
Iltutmish, Razia administered Delhi during Indian press and prevent the expression of
1231-1232 when her father was busy in the criticism toward British policies—notably, the
Gwalior campaign. According to a possibly opposition that had grown with the outset of
apocryphal legend, impressed by her the Second Anglo-Afghan War (1878–80).
performance during this period, Iltutmish The Act was proposed by Lord Lytton, then
nominated Razia as his heir apparent after Viceroy of India, and was unanimously passed
returning to Delhi. by the Viceroy's Council on 14 March 1878.
The act excluded English-language
442. Which of the following statements is true? publications as it was meant to control
I. P.C. Mahalanobis founded the Indian seditious writing in 'publications in Oriental
Statistical Institute on 17 December 1932. languages' everywhere in the country, except
II. Gandhi Irwin Pact was signed in 1931 in for the South. Thus, the British totally
order to achieve negotiations between discriminated against the (non-English
Gandhiji and Britishers. Select the correct language) Indian Press.
option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II 444. Which of the following statements is/are true?
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II I. The Salt March, also known as the Salt
Satyagraha, Dandi March and the Dandi
Ans.442(B) The Indian Statistical Institute Satyagraha, it was an act of nonviolent civil
(ISI), a unique institution devoted to research disobedience.
and teaching, and the applications of Statistics II. Gandhi Ji started Salt Satyagraha march
in the Natural and Social Sciences. Founded with 80 people of his trusted volunteers.
by Professor P.C. Mahalanobis in Kolkata on Select the correct option
17th December, 1931, the institute gained the (A) Only I (B) Only II
status of an Institution of National Importance (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
by an act of the Indian Parliament in 1959.
The Headquarters of ISI is located in Kolkata Ans.444(C) The Salt March, also known as
and additionally, there are four centres located the Salt Satyagraha, Dandi March and the
in Delhi, Bangalore, Chennai and Tezpur. Dandi Satyagraha, was an act of nonviolent
The 'Gandhi-Irwin Pact' was a political civil disobedience in colonial India led by
agreement signed by Mohandas Karamchand Mohandas Karamchand Gandhi. The 24-day
Gandhi and Lord Irwin, the then Viceroy of march lasted from 12 March 1930 to 6 April
India, on 5 March 1931 before the second 1930 as a direct-action campaign of tax
Round Table Conference in London. Before resistance and nonviolent protest against the
this, Lord Irwin, the Viceroy, had announced British salt monopoly. Mahatma Gandhi
in October 1929 a vague offer of 'dominion started. this march with 80 of his trusted
status' for British-occupied India in an volunteers. Walking ten miles a day for 24
unspecified future and a Round Table days, the march spanned over 240 miles (384
Conference to discuss a future constitution. km), from Sabarmati Ashram to Dandi.

443. Which of the following statements is true? 445. Which of the following statements is/are true?
I. Lord Lytton served as Viceroy of India I. There were nine scholars in Akbar's court
between 1876 and 1880. specializing in various subjects, who were
II. Lord Lytton passed the Vernacular Press called 'Navratna'.
Act and the Arms Act of 1878. II. Humayun died in 1556 and Akbar was next
Select the correct option to succeeded the Mughal Throne in 1556.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Select the correct option
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
124

(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.447(C) Mirza Muhammad Siraj ud-
Ans.445(C) There were nine scholars in Daulah (1733 – 2 July 1757), commonly
Akbar's court specializing in various subjects, known as Siraj ud-Daulah, was the last
who were called 'Navratna'. Jalal-ud-din independent Nawab of Bengal. The end of his
Muhammad Akbar (October 1542– 27 reign marked the start of British East India
October 1605), popularly known as Akbar the Company rule over Bengal and later almost all
Great, and also as Akbar, was the third of India.
Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1556 to Siraj succeeded his maternal grandfather
1605. Akbar succeeded his father, Humayun, Alivardi Khan as the Nawab of Bengal in
under a regent, Bairam Khan, who helped the April 1756 at the age of 23, but he was soon
young emperor expand and consolidate betrayed by his commander in chief, Mir
Mughal domains in India. A strong Jafar, in the Battle of Plassey against the
personality and a successful general, Akbar British. After his death, his kingdom was
gradually enlarged the Mughal Empire to annexed by the British and Mir Jafar was
include much of the Indian subcontinent. made the ruler.

446. Regarding Simon commission Which of the 448. Which of the following statements is/are true?
following statements is/are true? I. The National Development Council (NDC)
I. Simon commission was a group of seven was set up on 6 August 1992.
White members of Parliament of United II. The National Development Council (NDC)
Kingdom. or Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is the apex body
II. It was constituted in 1937 and it reached for decision creating and deliberations on
India in 1939. It was criticised by national development matters in India
leaders and welcomed with black flags Select the correct option
Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II
(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.448(B) The National Development
Ans.446(A) The Simon Commission was a Council (NDC) or Rashtriya Vikas Parishad is
group of 7 MPs from Britain who was sent to the apex body for decision creating and
India in 1928 to study constitutional reforms deliberations on development matters in India,
and make recommendations to the presided over by the Prime Minister. It was set
government. The Commission was originally up on 6 August 1952 to strengthen and
named the Indian Statutory Commission. It mobilize the effort and resources of the nation
came to be known as the Simon Commission in support of the Five-Year Plans made by
after its chairman Sir John Simon. Indians Planning Commission, to promote common
were outraged at their exclusion from the economic policies in all vital spheres and to
Commission. The Congress Party decided to ensure the balanced and rapid development in
boycott the Commission at their session at all parts of the country. The Council
Madras in 1927. comprises the Prime Minister, the Union
Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers of all
447. Which of the following statements is/are true? States or their substitutes, representatives of
I. Siraj ud Daula is considered to be the last the Union Territories and the members of the
Independent Nawab of Bengal. NITI Aayog (erstwhile Planning
II. Siraj was succeeded his maternal Commission).
grandfather, Alivardi Khan as the Nawab of
Bengal in April 1776. 449. Which of the following statements is/are true?
Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
125

I. Rajendra Prasad (3 December 1884 – 28 Select the correct option

February 1963) was the first President of (A) Only I (B) Only II
India. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
II. Prasad was imprisoned by British
authorities during the Salt Satyagraha of 1932 Ans.451(A) In 1615, Thomas Roe arrived at
and the Quit India movement of 1932. the Surat port as the ambassador of the
Select the correct option English King, James I to Mughal Emperor
(A) Only I (B) Only II Jahangir's court.The first factory of british
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II east india company was established in
Masulipatnam, East coast of India in 1611 and
Ans.449(A) Rajendra Prasad (3 December a second at Surat in 1612.
1884 – 28 February 1963) was the first
President of India, in office from 1950 to 452. Which of the following statements is true?
1962. He was an Indian political leader and I. Ramanand went to many religious places in
lawyer by training. Prasad joined the Indian Puri and South India and preached Rambhakti.
National Congress during the Indian II. Bhakti movement was a revolution started
Independence Movement and became a major by the Hindu saints.
leader from the region of Bihar. A supporter Select the correct option
of Mahatma Gandhi, Prasad was imprisoned (A) Only I (B) Only II
by British authorities during the Salt (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Satyagraha of 1931 and the Quit India
movement of 1942. After the 1946 elections, Ans.452(B) Ramanand went to many
Prasad served as Minister of Food and religious places in Puri and South India and
Agriculture in the central government. preached Rambhakti. Bhakti movement was a
revolution started by the Hindu saints.
450. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The word Ramcharitmanas literally means 453. Which of the following statements is true?
"Lake of the deeds of Rama". I. The Mansabdari system was the
II. Tulsidas was a great scholar of Sanskrit. administrative system of the Mughal Empire
Select the correct option introduced by Akbar.
(A) Only I (B) Only II II. Mansabdari system was the base of civil
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II and military administration.
Select the correct option
Ans.450(C) Ramcharitmanas, is an epic poem (A) Only I (B) Only II
in the Awadhi language, composed by the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
16th century Indian bhakti poet Goswami
Tulsidas (1532–1623). The word Ans.453(C) The Mansabdari system was the
Ramcharitmanas literally means "Lake of the administrative system of the Mughal Empire
deeds of Rama. It is considered one of the introduced by Akbar. It was the base of civil
greatest works of Hindi literature. Tulsidas and military administration. The mansabdar
(the Sanskrit name of Tulsidas can be had to maintain out of his salary a stipulated
transliterated in two ways. Tulsidas was a quota of horses, elephants and beasts of
great scholar of Sanskrit. burden. The salary was in the form of jagir or
cash. The term manasabadar means a person
451. Which of the following statements is true? who has a positioning or ranking of a
I. In 1615, Thomas Roe arrived at the Surat government can give power. During later
port as the ambassador of the English King, years of his reign, Akbar introduced the rank
James I to Mughal Emperor Jahangir's court. of ‘Zat’ and ‘Sawar’ in the Mansabdari
II. The first factory of british east india system.
company was established in Masulipatnam,
East coast of India in 1611. 454. Which of the following statements is true?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
126

I. The Taj Mahal in Agra, often cited as one Ans.456(D) Raja Ram Mohan Roy (22 May
of the Wonders of the World. 1772 – 27 September 1833) was one of the
II. The Taj Mahal is an ivory-white marble founders of the Brahmo Sabha, the precursor
mausoleum on the north bank of the Yamuna of the Brahmo Samaj, a social-religious
river in the Indian city of Agra. reform movement in the Indian subcontinent.
Select the correct option He was given the title of Raja by Akbar II, the
(A) Only I (B) Only II Mughal emperor. His influence was apparent
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II in the fields of politics, public administration,
education and religion. He was known for his
Ans.454(A) The Taj Mahal is an ivory-white efforts to abolish the practices of sati and
marble mausoleum on the south bank of the child marriage. Raja Ram Mohan Roy is
Yamuna river in the Indian city of Agra. It considered to be the "Father of the Indian
was commissioned in 1632 by the Mughal Renaissance" by many historians.
emperor Shah Jahan (reigned from 1628 to
1658) to house the tomb of his favourite wife, 457. Which of the following statements is true?
Mumtaz Mahal; it also houses the tomb of I. Tuzuk-i-Baburi (Baburanamah) is the
Shah Jahan himself. The tomb is the autobiography of Zahiruddin Muhammad
centrepiece of a 17-hectare (42-acre) complex, babur, the founder of the Mughal empire in
which includes a mosque and a guest house, India.
and is set in formal gardens bounded on three II. Babur wrote it in Turkish language;
sides by a crenellated wall. Pitradeura style of Mughal imperial officer, Abdur Rahim Khan
architecture is used in Taj Mahal. Khan-i-Khanan, son of Bairam Khan Khan-i-
Khanan, translated it into Persian. Well
455. Which of the following statements is true? received by European scholars, the book has
I. Akbar was succeeded by his son Salim. been translated into various European
II. Salim took the title of Jahangir, meaning languages.
Conqueror of the World. Select the correct option
Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II
(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.457(C) Tuzuk-i-Baburi (Baburanamah) is
Ans.455(C) Jahangir was son of Akbar and he the autobiography of Zahiruddin Muhammad
succeeded Mughal dynasty after Akbar. babur, the founder of the Mughal empire in
Jahangir was son of Mariam uz Zamani, who India. Babur wrote it in Turkish language;
was daughter of Raja Bharmal of Amer. Mughal imperial officer, Abdur Rahim Khan
Jahangir (31 August 1569 – 28 October 1627), Khan-i-Khanan, son of Bairam Khan Khan-i-
was the fourth Mughal Emperor, who ruled Khanan, translated it into Persian. Well
from 1605 until his death in 1627. His received by European scholars, the book has
imperial name, means 'conqueror of the been translated into various European
world', 'world-conqueror' or 'world-seizer'. languages.

456. Which of the following statements is true? 458. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Lala Lajpat Rai is considered to be the I. Lord Lytton is known as father of Local
"Father of the Indian Renaissance" by many Self-government.
historians. II. Ripon was born at London, the second son
II. Lala Lajpat Rai was given the title of Raja of Prime Minister F. J. Robinson.
by Akbar II, the Mughal emperor. Select the correct option
Select the correct option (A) Only I (B) Only II
(A) Only I (B) Only II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
127

Ans.458(B) Lord Ripon was the second son of annex Peshawar and Punjab, Mahmud of
Prime Minister F.J. Robinson, born on Ghazni defeated Hindushahis.
October 24, 1827, and died on July 9, 1909.
Lord Ripon is known as father of Local Self- 461. Which of the following statements is true?
government. I. The smallest unit of administration of the
Vedic civilization was the clan and a village
459. Which of the following statements is true? consisted of several clans and the organization
I. Buddhism is the world's third-largest of villages was called Vish.
religion. II. In the Vedic civilization, the assembly was
II. Buddhism is a faith that was founded by also called the Upper House and it was an
Siddhartha Gautama (“the Buddha”) more institution of intelligent and experienced
than 2,500 years ago in India. persons from the society.
Select the correct option Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

Ans.459(B) Buddhism is a faith that was Ans.461(A) The smallest unit of

founded by Siddhartha Gautama (“the administration was the "Kul". One family
Buddha”) more than 2,500 years ago in India. consisted of people living under one roof in
With about 470 million followers, scholars one house. The head of the family was called
consider Buddhism one of the major world Kulup. A village consisted of several "Kuls".
religions. Its practice has historically been The organization of villages was called Vish
most prominent in East and Southeast Asia, and the organization of Vish was called "Jan".
but its influence is growing in the West. Many "Jans" used to form nations. The head
Buddhism is the world's fourth-largest of the village was called the gramini, the head
religion. The religion’s founder, Buddha, is of Vishu was called "Vishpati", the ruler of
considered an extraordinary man, but not a the people, Rajan (king) and the head of the
god. The word Buddha means “enlightened.” nation was called the emperor. "Sabha" - It
can also be called the Upper House. It was an
460. Which of the following statements is true? institution of intelligent and experienced
I. Mahmud of Ghazni (2 November 971 – 30 persons from the society. The members of the
April 1030) was the first independent ruler of assembly were called sabhayas or sabhayasad
the Ghaznavid dynasty. and the Speaker of the sabha was called the
II. Mahmud was the son of Sebuktigin, a Chairman.
Turkish slave.
Select the correct option 462. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The Kanvas were Kshatriya and considered
(A) Only I (B) Only II themselves as descendents from Rishi Kanva.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II II. Kanva dynasty was founded by Vasudeva
Kanva.
Ans.460(C) Mahmud of Ghazni (Nov. 2, 971– Select the correct option
April 30, 1030), the first ruler in history to (A) Only I (B) Only II
assume the title of "sultan," founded the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ghaznavid Empire. His title signified that the
Muslim Caliph remained the religious leader Ans.462(B) The Kanvas were Brahmins and
of the empire despite being the political leader considered themselves as descendents from
of a vast swath of land, encompassing much Rishi Kanva.This dynasty was founded by
of what is now Iran, Turkmenistan, Vasudeva Kanva. He ruled for a short period
Uzbekistan, Kyrgyzstan, Afghanistan, and he was succeeded by Bhumimitra. The
Pakistan, and northern India. To conquer and empire was extended into parts of eastern
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
128

India and central India. The Kanva dynasty (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
had claimed Vidisa as their capital.
Ans.465(C) “Golden age” in Indian history is
463. Which of the following statements is true? referred to Gupta empire. These era witnesses
I. C. Rajagopalachari was last Governor the great advancements made by historical
General of free India. academic’s scholars such as Kalidasa,
II. Chakravarti Rajagopalachari nformally Aryabhata, Varahamihra, Vishnu Sharma and
called Rajaji or C. R., was an Indian lawyer. Vatsyayana. This dynasty ruled for 500 years
Select the correct option over the most northern parts of India. Gupta
(A) Only I (B) Only II Empire was strong and long ruled empire of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II northern Indian. Chola, Chera, Rashtrakuta
and Hoysala were the peek dynasties of
Ans.463(C) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari (10 southern India. Buddhism and Jainism were
December 1878 – 25 December 1972), spreading across the empire.
informally called Rajaji or C. R., was an
Indian lawyer, Indian independence activist, 466. Which of the following statements is true.
politician, writer, politician and leader of the I. Harappan civilization or the Indus valley
Indian National Congress who served as the civilization is one of the best excavations of
last Governor-General of India. He served as 19th centuries.
the Chief Minister or Premier of the Madras II. The Indus Valley Civilization or the
Presidency, Governor of West Bengal, Harappan Civilization was a Bronze Age
Minister for Home Affairs of the Indian Union civilization alongside the Egyptian
and Chief Minister of Madras state. civilization.
Select the correct option
464. Which of the following statements is true. (A) Only I (B) Only II
I. Maurya Period from 334 BCE to 187 BCE. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
II. Chandragupta Maurya is the founder of
Maurya empire. Ans.466(B) Harappan civilization or the Indus
Select the correct option valley civilization is one of the best
(A) Only I (B) Only II excavations of 20th centuries. The northern
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II parts of ancient India were the location of this
great civilization. The Indus Valley
Ans.464(B) Chandragupta Maurya is the Civilization or the Harappan Civilization was
founder of Maurya empire. Art, Culture and a Bronze Age civilization alongside the
Religiously flourished in this empire. Maurya Egyptian civilization. River Ravi was running
Period from 322 BCE to 187 BCE. Iron Age along the Harappan civilization that's the
was the start of this great empire and covered civilians always had a water supply.
the almost whole Indian subcontinent
geographically. The founder of this great 467. Which of the following statements is true?
dynasty is Chandragupta Maurya and his Guru I. The Shaishunaga dynasty is believed to
Chanakya. Chanakya was the renowned guru have been the third ruling dynasty of
at Takshashila hence wrote the famous Magadha, an empire of ancient India.
Arthshastra. II. The capital of this dynasty initially was
Patliputra.
465. Which of the following statements is true? Select the correct option
I. Gupta Empire was strong and long ruled (A) Only I (B) Only II
empire of northern Indian. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
II. “Golden age” in Indian history is referred
to Gupta empire. Ans.467(A) The Shaishunaga dynasty is
Select the correct option believed to have been the third ruling dynasty
(A) Only I (B) Only II of Magadha, an empire of ancient India.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
129

According to the Hindu Puranas, this dynasty II. These mantras are sung at the time of
was the second ruling dynasty of Magadha, Yajna, Ritual and Havan. It has a compilation
succeeding Nagadashaka of Haryanka of useful mantras of the inauguration of
dynasty. Shishunaga, the founder of the Yagyanushthan.
dynasty, was initially an amatya or "minister" Select the correct option
of the last Haryanka dynasty ruler Nagadasaka (A) Only I (B) Only II
and ascended to the throne after a popular (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
rebellion in 421 BCE. The capital of this
dynasty initially was Rajgir, but later shifted Ans.470(A) The Rigveda is an ancient Indian
to Pataliputra, near the present-day Patna, collection of Vedic Sanskrit hymns. It is one
during the reign of Kakavarna. of the four sacred canonical texts of Hinduism
known as the Vedas. The Rigveda is the oldest
468. Which of the following statements is true? known Vedic Sanskrit text. Its early layers are
I. Fatehpur Sikri is a town in the Agra one of the oldest extant texts in any Indo-
District of Uttar Pradesh, India. European language. These mantras are sung at
II. Jahagir built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur the time of Yajna, Ritual and Havan. It has a
Sikri. compilation of useful mantras of the
Select the correct option inauguration of Yagyanushthan. Most of its
(A) Only I (B) Only II mantras are available in Agveda, some
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II mantras are also free. There are basically 75
mantras in the Samaveda and the rest are
Ans.468(A) Fatehpur Sikri is a town in the taken from the Aged.
Agra District of Uttar Pradesh, India. The city
itself was founded as the capital of Mughal 471. Which of the following statements is true?
Empire in 1571 by Emperor Akbar, serving I. Charyapadas Assamese literature is
this role from 1571 to 1585, when Akbar Buddhist songs composed in the 8th to 12th
abandoned it due to a campaign in Punjab and centuries.
was later completely abandoned in 1610. II. Quit India Movement was launched in
Akbar built the Ibadatkhana at Fatehpur Sikri. response to cripps Proposals.
Select the correct option
469. Which of the following statements is true? (A) Only I (B) Only II
I. Ajatashatru in Sanskrit means 'victor over (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
enemy'.
II. Ajatashatru, the famous Indian king Ans.471(C) The Charyapada is a collection of
belonged to Harayanka dynasty of Magadha. mystical poems, songs of realization in the
Select the correct option Vajrayana tradition of Buddhism from the
(A) Only I (B) Only II tantric tradition in Assam, Bengal, Bihar and
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Odisha.
It was written in an Abahatta that was the
Ans.469(C) Ajatashatru, the famous Indian ancestor of Assamese language, Bengali
king belonged to Harayanka dynasty of language, Bhojpuri language, Sylheti
Magadha. His father was Bimbisara and a language, Odia language, Magahi language,
contemporary of Lord Buddha and Mahaveer. Maithili language and many other Eastern
He forcefully imprisoned his father Bimbisara Indo-Aryan languages between the 8th and
and enthroned to the kingdom of Magadha. 12th centuries and it is said to be the oldest
He succeeded his father around 492 BCE and collection of verses written in those
ruled for approximately 32 years. languages. A palm-leaf manuscript of the
Charyapada was rediscovered in the early
470. Which of the following statements is true? 20th century by Haraprasad Shastri at the
I. Indian literature is the earliest known works Nepal Royal Court Library. The Charyapada
Rig Vedas.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
130

was also preserved in the Tibetan Buddhist all workers. Working hour9 for women were
canon. fixed at 11 per day while daily hours of work
The Quit India Movement, also known as the for children were reduced to 7. Hours of work
August Movement, was a movement launched for men were still left unregulated.
at the Bombay session of the All-India
Congress Committee by Mahatma Gandhi on 473. Which of the following statements is true?
8 August 1942, during World War II, I. Vernacular Press Act was passed in 1878
demanding an end to British Rule of India. II. Lucknow Pact, 1916 the ‘Dominion Status’
The Cripps Mission had failed, and on 8 for the country was demanded
August 1942, Gandhi made a call to Do or Die Select the correct option
in his Quit India speech delivered in Bombay (A) Only I (B) Only II
at the Gowalia Tank Maidan. The All-India (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Congress Committee launched a mass protest
demanding what Gandhi called "An Orderly Ans.473(C) The Indian press was freed from
British Withdrawal" from India. Even though restrictions by Charles Metcalfe in 1835. This
it was at war, the British were prepared to act. step had been welcomed enthusiastically by
Almost the entire leadership of the Indian the educated Indians. It was one of the reasons
National Congress was imprisoned without why they had for some time supported British
trial within hours of Gandhi's speech. rule in India. But the nationalists gradually
began to use the press to arouse national
472. Which of the following statements is true? consciousness among the people and to
I. The first Indian factories act was in year sharply criticise the reactionary policies of the
1881. Government. This turned the officials against
II. Second Indian Factories Act it provided for the Indian press and they decided to curb its
two-week holiday for all workers. freedom. This was attempted by passing the
Select the correct option Vernacular Press Act in 1878. This Act put
(A) Only I (B) Only II serious restrictions on the freedom of the
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Indian language newspapers. Indian public
opinion was now fully aroused and it
Ans.472(A) The Government of India, which protested loudly against the passage of this
was generally pro-capitalist, took some half- Act. This protest had immediate effect and the
hearted and totally inadequate steps to Act was repealed in 1882. For nearly 25 years
mitigate the sorry state of affairs in the thereafter the Indian press enjoyed
modern factories, many of which were owned considerable freedom. But the rise of the
by Indians. In this it was only in part moved militant Swadeshi and Boycott movement
by humanitarian considerations. The after 1905 once again led to the enactment of
manufacturers of Britain put constant pressure repressive press flaws in 1908 and 1910.
on it to pass factory laws. They were afraid The Lucknow Pact is known for it’s achieved
that cheap labour would enable Indian the goal of Hindu-Muslim unity and generate
manufacturers to outsell them in the Indian the anti-British feelings among the Muslims.
market. The first Indian Factory Act was In this pact, Congress with Muslim League
passed in 1881. The Act dealt primarily with jointly demanded the ‘Dominion Status’ of the
the problem of child labour. It laid down that country.
children below 7 could not work in factories,
while children between 7 and 12 would not 474. Which of the following statements is true?
work for more than 9 hours a day. Children I. Manusmriti dealt with the performance of
would also get four holidays in a month. The duties, customs and laws prescribed according
Act also provided for the proper fencing off of to Dharma.
dangerous machinery. II. Manusmriti consists mainly of dialogues
The second Indian Factories Act was passed between the Buddha and his followers.
in 1891. It provided for a weekly holiday for Select the correct option
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
131

(A) Only I (B) Only II They are the part of the oldest scriptures of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Hinduism, the Vedas, that deal with
meditation, philosophy, and spiritual
Ans.474(A) The Manusmṛiti, also spelled as knowledge; other parts of the Vedas deal with
Manusmruti, is an ancient legal text among mantras, benedictions, rituals, ceremonies,
the many Dharmaśāstras of Hinduism. It was and sacrifices. Among the most important
one of the first Sanskrit texts to have been literature in the history of Indian religions and
translated into English in 1794, by Sir culture, the Upanishads played an important
William Jones, and was used to formulate the role in the development of spiritual ideas in
Hindu law by the British colonial government. ancient India, marking a transition from Vedic
Over fifty manuscripts of the Manusmriti are ritualism to new ideas and institutions. Of all
now known, but the earliest discovered, most Vedic literature, the Upanishads alone are
translated and presumed authentic version widely known, and their central ideas are at
since the 18th century has been the "Calcutta the spiritual core of Hinduism.
manuscript with Kulluka Bhatta
commentary". The text's fame spread outside 476. Which of the following statements is true?
India, long before the colonial era. The I. Atharva Veda basically consists of charms
medieval era Buddhistic law of Myanmar and and spells that were prevalent at that time in
Thailand are also ascribed to Manu, and the the society.
text influenced past Hindu kingdoms in II. The Atharva Veda presents a portrait of the
Cambodia and Indonesia. Manusmriti is also Vedic society. One can find an independent
called the Mānava-Dharmaśāstra or Laws of and parallel stream of knowledge and thought
Manu. in the Atharva Veda.
Select the correct option
475. Which of the following statements is true? (A) Only I (B) Only II
I. Hitopdesha ancient literature contains short (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
stories that have the priceless treasure of
morality and knowledge Ans.476(C) The Atharva Veda is the
II. Upanishad philosophy indicates learning "knowledge storehouse of atharvāṇas, the
from a spiritual teacher. procedures for everyday life". The text is the
Select the correct option fourth Veda, but has been a late addition to
(A) Only I (B) Only II the Vedic scriptures of Hinduism.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II The Atharvaveda is composed in Vedic
Sanskrit, and it is a collection of 730 hymns
Ans.475(C) Hitopadesha is an Indian text in with about 6,000 mantras, divided into 20
the Sanskrit language consisting of fables with books. About a sixth of the Atharvaveda texts
both animal and human characters. It adapts verses from the Rigveda, and except
incorporates maxims, worldly wisdom and for Books 15 and 16, the text is in poem form
advice on political affairs in simple, elegant deploying a diversity of Vedic matters. The
language, and the work has been widely Atharvaveda is sometimes called the"Vedaof
translated. magical formulas"
Little is known about its origin. The surviving
text is believed to be from the 12th-century, 477. Which of the following statements is true
but was probably composed by Narayana regarding Indus Valley Civilisation?
between 800 and 950 CE. The oldest I. By far the most famous site of Mohenjodaro
manuscript found in Nepal has been dated to is the huge public bath, whose reservoir is in
the 14th century, and its content and style has the mound of the fort.
been traced to the ancient Sanskrit treatises II. Lothal is also known as Mini Hadappa.
called the Panchatantra from much earlier. Select the correct option
The Upanishads are ancient Sanskrit texts of (A) Only I (B) Only II
spiritual teaching and ideas of Hinduism. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
132

forces of communalism were strengthened.

Ans.477(C) By far the most famous site of This is true to some extent. There was, of
Mohenjodaro is the huge public bath, whose course, nothing wrong in the nationalist
reservoir is in the mound of the fort. Lothal is movement taking up a demand that affected
also known as Mini Hadappa. Lothal is one of Muslims only. It was inevitable that different
the most important cities of the ancient Indus sections of society would come to understand
Valley Civilization. This old city, located the need for freedom through their particular
around 2400 BC, is located in the Bhal region demands and experiences. The nationalist
of the Indian state of Gujarat and was leadership, however, failed to some extent in
discovered in 1954. raising the religious political consciousness of
the Muslims to the higher plane of secular
478. Which of the following statements is true? political consciousness. At the same time, it
I. After acquiring the royal charter, the East should also be kept in view that the Khilafat
India Company could buy goods at a cheap agitation represented much wider feelings of
price and sell at higher price. the Muslims than their concern for the Caliph.
II. After acquiring the royal charter, the East It was, in reality, an aspect of the general
India Company could carry their business to spread of anti-imperialist feelings among the
European countries. Muslims. These feelings found concrete
Select the correct option expression on the Khilafat question. After all,
(A) Only I (B) Only II there was no protest in India when Kamal
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Pasha abolished the Caliphate in 1924.

Ans.478(C) The royal charter that granted by 480. Which of the following statements is true?
Queen Elizabeth I to the East India Company, I. Swaraj Party was a political party formed in
permitted them to do their business of buying India in January 1917.
cheaper goods from the east and sell them to II. The Congress- Khilafat Swaraj Party was
the European countries. founded by Motilal Nehru.
Select the correct option
479. Which of the following statements is true? (A) Only I (B) Only II
I. In Khilafat agitation it was inevitable that (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
different sections of society would come to
understand the need for freedom through their Ans.480(B) The Swaraj Party was established
particular demands and experiences. as the Congress-Khilafat Swaraj Party.It was
II. The Khilafat agitation represented much established by Motilal Nehru and
wider feelings of the Muslims than their Chittaranjandas. It was a political party
concern for the Caliph. formed in India in January 1923 after the
Select the correct option Gaya annual conference in December 1922 of
(A) Only I (B) Only II the National Congress.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Das and Nehru thought of contesting elections
to enter the legislative council with a view to
Ans.479(C) The Khilafat agitation had made obstructing a foreign government. Many
an important contribution to the non- candidates of the Swaraj Party got elected to
cooperation movement. It had brought urban the central legislative assembly and provincial
Muslims into the nationalist movement and legislative council in the 1923 elections. In
had been, thus, responsible in part for the these legislatures, they strongly opposed the
feeling of nationalist enthusiasm and unjust government policies.
exhilaration that prevailed in the country in As a result of the Bengal Partition, the Swaraj
those days. Some historians have criticised it Party won the most seats during elections to
for having mixed politics with religion. As a the Bengal Legislative Council in 1923. The
result, they say, religious consciousness party disintegrated after the death of C. R. Das
spread to politics, end in the long run, the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
133

481. Which of the following statements is true? allowed certain political cases to be tried
I. In feudal system creation of the lord-vassal without juries and permitted internment of
relationship between the feudal lord and his suspects without trial.
overlord. In organizing his satyagraha Gandhi tried to
II. Feudal system very strong centralized utilize three types of political networks - The
political authority and a very weak provincial Home Rule Leagues, Certain pan islamist
or local political authority. groups and a satyagraha sabha which he
Select the correct option himself started in Bombay on 24 February.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 483. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Congress Socialist Party, it advocated the
Ans.481(B) Indian feudalism refers to the boycott of British goods and the evasion of
feudal society that made up India's social taxes.
structure until The Mughal Dynasty in the II. Congress Socialist Party it wanted to
1500s. The Guptas and the Kushans played a establish the dictatorship of the proletariat.
major role in the introduction and practice of Select the correct option
feudalism in India, and are examples of the (A) Only I (B) Only II
decline of an empire caused by feudalism. Use (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
of the term feudalism to describe India applies
a concept of medieval European origin, Ans.483(D) The Congress Socialist Party
according to which the landed nobility held (CSP) was a socialist caucus within the Indian
lands from the Crown in exchange for military National Congress. It was founded in 1934 by
service, and vassals were in turn tenants of the Congress members who rejected what they
nobles, while the peasants (villeins or serfs) saw as the anti-rational mysticism of Gandhi
were obliged to live on their lord's land and as well as the sectarian attitude of the
give him homage, labor, and a share of the Communist Party of India towards the
produce, notionally in exchange for military Congress. Influenced by Fabianism as well as
protection. Feudalism is most likely Marxism-Leninism, the CSP included
introduced to India when the Kushan Dynasty advocates of armed struggle or sabotage (such
from Central Asia invaded India and as Yusuf Meherally, Jai Prakash Narayan, and
introduced new policies of their own. The Basawon Singh (Sinha) as well as those who
term Indian feudalism is used to describe insisted upon ahimsa or nonviolent resistance
taluqdar, zamindar, jagirdar, ghatwals, (such as Acharya Narendra Deva). The CSP
mulraiyats, sardar, mankari, deshmukh, advocated decentralized socialism in which
chaudhary and samanta. co-operatives, trade unions, independent
farmers, and local authorities would hold a
482. Which of the following statements is true? substantial share of the economic power. JP
I. The Rowlatt Act was based on the Narayan and Minoo Masani were released
recommendations of the 'Sedition Committee'. from jail in 1934. JP Narayan convened a
II. In Rowlatt Satyagraha, Gandhiji tried to meeting in Patna on 17 May 1934, which
utilize the Home Rule League. founded the Bihar Congress Socialist Party.
Select the correct option He was a Gandhian Socialist. Narayan became
(A) Only I (B) Only II general secretary of the party and Acharya
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Narendra Deva became president.

Ans.482(C) This act was passed on the 484. Which of the following statements is true?
recommendations of Sedition Committee I. The Government of India Act of 1919
chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt. This act had clearly defined the jurisdiction of the central
been hurriedly passed in the Imperial and provincial governments.
Legislative Council despite the united
opposition of the Indian members. The acts
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
134

II. The arrival of Babur into India led to the grain on their bullocks from different areas
introduction of the arch and dome in the and sold it in towns. They transported food
region's architecture. grain for the Mughal army during military
Select the correct option campaigns.
(A) Only I (B) Only II James Prinsep was an English scholar,
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II orientalist and antiquary. He was the founding
editor of the Journal of the Asiatic Society of
Ans.484(A) The Government of India Act Bengal and is best remembered for
1919 was an Act of the Parliament of the deciphering the Kharosthi and Brahmi scripts
United Kingdom. It was passed to expand of ancient India. James Prinsep had first
participation of Indians in the government of deciphered the edicts of Emperor Ashoka.
India. The Act embodied the reforms
recommended in the report of the Secretary of 487. Which of the following statements is true?
State for India, Edwin Montagu, and the I. The `Swadeshi' and 'Boycott' were adopted
Viceroy, Lord Chelmsford. as methods of struggle for the first time during
the agitation against the Partition of Bengal.
485. Which of the following statements is true? II. The concept of Bodhisattva is central to the
I. Harihara I founded Vijayanagara empire on Hinayana sect of Buddhism.
the south bank of a tributary to river Krishna. Select the correct option
II. The first Muslim President of the Indian (A) Only I (B) Only II
National Congress was Badruddin Tyabji. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II Ans.487(A) Partition of Bengal, (1905),
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II division of Bengal carried out by the British
viceroy in India, Lord Curzon, despite strong
Ans.485(C) Harihara I was the founder of the Indian nationalist opposition. The `Swadeshi'
Vijayanagara empire, which he ruled from and 'Boycott' were adopted as methods of
1336 to 1356 CE. He and his successors struggle for the first time during the agitation
formed the Sangama dynasty, the first of four against the Partition of Bengal.
dynasties to rule the empire. In Buddhism, a bodhisattva is any person who
Badruddin Tyabji was the first Indian to is on the path towards Buddhahood. In
practice as a barrister of the High Court of Mahayana Buddhism, a bodhisattva refers to
Bombay who served as the third President of anyone who has generated bodhicitta, a
the Indian National Congress. He was one of spontaneous wish and compassionate mind to
the founding members and first Muslim attain Buddhahood for the benefit of all
president of Indian National Congress. sentient beings.

486. Which of the following statements is true? 488. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Banjaras during the medieval period of I. The term Araghatta' refers to waterwheel
Indian history were generally traders. used in the irrigation of land.
II. James Prinsep had first deciphered the II. In January 1917, Mohandas Karamchand
edicts of Emperor Ashoka. Gandhi returned to his homeland after two
Select the correct option decades of residence abroad.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Select the correct option
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.486(C) Banjaras during the medieval
period of Indian history were generally Ans.488(A) Araghatta is a Persian wheel used
traders. The Banjaras were the most in irrigation in medieval India.It is a
important trader-nomads. Emperor Jahangir mechanical device used to life water. It uses
wrote in his memoirs that the Banjaras carried animal power to lift water from sources,
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
135

especially from open wells. The animals used 1918 to 1947: Swadeshi thought shaped by
here are cattle, bullocks, etc. Araghatta is Gandhi, accompanied by the rise of Indian
made of ara + ghatta, ara means spoke and industrialists.
ghatta means pot. 1948 to 1991: Widespread curbs on
In January 1915, Mohandas Karamchand international and inter-state trade. India
Gandhi returned to his homeland after two became a bastion of obsolete technology
decades of residence abroad. These years had during the licence-permit raj.
been spent for the most part in South Africa,
where he went as a lawyer, and in time 490. Which of the following statements is true?
became a leader of the Indian community in I. The Vedic literature includes the four Vedas
that territory. As the historian Chandran and their codes, Brahmins, Aranyakas,
Devanesan has remarked, South Africa was Upanishads and Vedangas.
“the making of the Mahatma”. It was in South II. The Vedas have been called Apaurusheya.
Africa that Mahatma Gandhi first forged the The Vedas have been dubbed "Shruti"
distinctive techniques of non-violent protest because of the verbal verbal memorization of
known as satyagraha, first promoted harmony the disciples by the Guru.
between religions, and first alerted upper- Select the correct option
caste Indians to their discriminatory treatment (A) Only I (B) Only II
of low castes and women. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

489. Which of the following statements is true? Ans.490(C) The Vedic literature includes the
I. The Swadeshi movement leaders advocated four Vedas and their codes, Brahmins,
militant opposition to colonial rule, there was Aranyakas, Upanishads and Vedangas. The
a group of “Moderates” who preferred a more number of Vedas is four - Rigveda,
gradual and persuasive approach. Samaveda, Yajurveda and Atharvaveda.
II. The Swadeshi movement of 1905-07 had Rigveda, Samaveda, Yajurveda and
greatly broadened its appeal among the Atharvaveda are the first authentic texts in the
middle classes. world. The Vedas have been called
Select the correct option Apaurusheya. The Vedas have been dubbed
(A) Only I (B) Only II "Shruti" because of the verbal verbal
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II memorization of the disciples by the Guru.

Ans.489(C) The Swadeshi movement, part of 491. Which of the following statements is true?
the Indian independence movement and the I. The Portuguese established their first
developing Indian nationalism, was an fortification in Cochin in 1503 with the aim of
economic strategy aimed at removing the gaining a monopoly on the pepper and spice
British Empire from power and improving trade of the Eastern world.
economic conditions in India by following the II. Albuquerque is considered the first real
principles of swadeshi which had some founder of the Portuguese Empire in India.
success. Strategies of the Swadeshi movement Select the correct option
involved boycotting British products and the (A) Only I (B) Only II
revival of domestic products and production (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
processes B.C Bhole identifies five phases of
the Swadeshi movement. Ans.491(C) The Portuguese established their
1850 to 1904: developed by leaders like first fortification in Cochin in 1503 with the
Dadabhai Naoroji, Gokhale, Ranade, Tilak, G. aim of gaining a monopoly on the pepper and
V. Joshi and Bhaswat K. Nigoni. This was spice trade of the Eastern world. Alphonso de
also known as First Swadeshi Movement. Albuquerque came to India in 1503 as a
1905 to 1917: Began in 1905, because of the squadron commander. In 1509, he was
partition of Bengal ordered by Lord Curzon. appointed Viceroy in India. Albuquerque is
considered the first real founder of the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
136

Portuguese Empire in India. Albuquerque (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
annexed Goa in 1510 from Bijapur ruler
Adilshah Yusuf, which later became the Ans.493(C) Towns were often defined in
capital of Portuguese trading centers in India. opposition to rural areas. They came to
represent specific forms of economic activities
492. Which of the following statements is true? and cultures. In the countryside people
I. The 1857 mutiny when reached Delhi the subsisted by cultivating land, foraging in the
sepoys from Meerut arrived at the gates of the forest, or rearing animals. Towns by contrast
Red Fort early in the morning on 11 May. were peopled with artisans, traders,
II. The cultural history of India, the administrators and rulers. Towns dominated
memorizing of chronicles, dynastic histories over the rural population, thriving on the
and Epictales was the profession of surplus and taxes derived from agriculture.
Maagadha.
Select the correct option 494. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Only I (B) Only II I. The Delhi became a capital of British India
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 1912.
II. The Delhi College was established 1795.
Ans.492(A) The Indian Rebellion of 1857 was Select the correct option.
a major, but ultimately unsuccessful, uprising
(A) Only I (B) Only II
in India in 1857–58 against the rule of the
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
British East India Company, which functioned
as a sovereign power on behalf of the British
Ans.494(A) The foundation stone of New
Crown. The rebellion began on 10 May 1857
Delhi was laid by Emperor George V during
in the form of a mutiny of sepoys of the
the Delhi Durbar of 1911. It became a capital
Company's army in the garrison town of
of British India 1912.It was designed by
Meerut, 40 mi (64 km) northeast of Delhi
British Architects Sir Edwin Lutyens and Sir
(now Old Delhi). The 1857 mutiny when
Herbert Baker. The new capital was
reached Delhi the sepoys from Meerut arrived
inaugurated on 13 February 1931, by Viceroy
at the gates of the Red Fort early in the
and Governor-General of India Lord Irwin.
morning on 11 May.
Although colloquially Delhi and New Delhi
Magadha is supposed to be a courtier with
are used interchangeably to refer to the
these roles to perform. The memorising of
National Capital Territory of Delhi (NCT),
chromicles, dynastic histories or epic tales
these are two distinct entities, with New Delhi
was the work of a different group of people,
forming a small part of the city of Delhi. The
the Sutas and Magadhas. During the first stage
National Capital Region is a much larger
(from 4th century BC to the 4th century AD),
entity comprising the entire NCT along with
the task of collecting information and
adjoining districts in neighbouring states.
presenting it in literary form was the special
The Delhi college was established in the year,
task assigned to the Sutas and Magadhas
1792, which is presently known as a Zakir
(bards and chroniders), who were the
Husain Delhi College. It was initially founded
descendants of priestly families of the Vedic
as the Madrasa.
period.
495. Which of the following statements is true?
493. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The Brihadeeswarar Temple is a splendid
I. Pre-colonial cities towns were often
example of Chola architecture, built by the
defined in opposition to rural areas.
Chola ruler Maharaja Rajaraja I.
II. Pre-colonial cities they came to represent
II. Brihadeeswarar Temple is a famous Hindu
specific forms of economic activities and
temple located in the Tanjore district of Tamil
cultures.
Nadu.
Select the correct option
Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
137

(A) Only I (B) Only II bloody climax in Amritsar in April 1919,

(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II when a British Brigadier ordered his troops to
open fire on a nationalist meeting.
Ans.495(C) The Brihadeeswarar Temple is a
splendid example of the Chola architecture, 497. Which of the following statements is true?
which was constructed in a span of only 5 I. Colonial cities of India became important
years during the reign of the Chola ruler centres of trade due to the economic activities
Maharaja Rajaraja I. It is also named of the English East India Company.
Rajarajeshwar temple after his name. Rajaraja II. Colonial cities of India company agents
was the first devotee of Lord Shiva, due to settled in Madras in 1639 and in Calcutta in
which he built many Shiva temples, one of 1690.
which is the Brihadeeswarar Temple. Select the correct option
Brihadeeswara A is one of the major granite (A) Only I (B) Only II
temples in the world. The temple is a famous (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Hindu temple located in the Tanjore district of
Tamil Nadu. This temple has been the center Ans.497(C) The three big colonial cities
of great art of the Chola rulers. Madras (Chennai), Calcutta (Kolkata) and
Bombay (Mumbai), all three were originally
496. Which of the following statements is true fishing and weaving villages. Bombay was
reagarding Rowlatt Act? given to the Company in 1661 by the English
I. “Rowlatt Act” in towns across North and king, who had got it as part of his wife’s
West India, life came to a standstill, as shops dowry from the king of Portugal. The
shut down and schools closed in response to Company established trading and
the bandh call. administrative offices in each of these
II. “Rowlatt Act” the protests were settlements.
particularly intense in the Punjab, where many
men had served on the British side in the War 498. Which of the following statements is true
– expecting to be rewarded for their service. reagarding Mahajanpadas?
Select the correct option I. The Mahajanapadas of the sixth century
(A) Only I (B) Only II BCE early Buddhist and Jaina texts mention,
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II amongst other things, sixteen states known as
mahajanapadas.
Ans.496(C) During the Great War of 1914- II. Each mahajanapada had a capital city,
18, the British had instituted censorship of the which was often fortified. Maintaining these
press and permitted detention without trial. fortified cities as well as providing for
Now, on the recommendation of a committee incipient armies and bureaucracies required
chaired by Sir Sidney Rowlatt, these tough resources.
measures were continued. In response, (A) Only I (B) Only II
Gandhiji called for a countrywide campaign (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
against the “Rowlatt Act”. In towns across
North and West India, life came to a standstill, Ans.498(C) Early Buddhist and Jaina texts
as shops shut down and schools closed in mention, amongst other things, sixteen states
response to the bandh call. The protests were known as mahajanapadas. Although the lists
particularly intense in the Punjab, where many vary, some names such as Vajji, Magadha,
men had served on the British side in the War Koshala, Kuru, Panchala, Gandhara and
– expecting to be rewarded for their service. Avanti occur frequently. Clearly, these were
Instead they were given the Rowlatt Act. amongst the most important mahajanapadas.
Gandhiji was detained while proceeding to the While most mahajanapadas were ruled by
Punjab, even as prominent local Congressmen kings, some, known as ganas or sanghas, were
were arrested. The situation in the province oligarchies, where power was shared by a
grew progressively more tense, reaching a number of men, often collectively called rajas.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
138

Both Mahavira and the Buddha belonged to

such ganas. 500. Consider the following statements regarding
Ropar:
499. Consider the following statements: 1. Ropar is located on the left bank of Satluj
1. Kasi got its name from rivers Varuna and river in Ropar district of Punjab state.
Asi as cited in the Matsya Purana. 2. Here after the independence, the excavation
2. Vatsa is located around the present-day was first done.
Allahabad. 3. In 1950, it was discovered by B. B. Lal.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? correct?
(A)1 only (B) 2 only (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

Ans.499(C) kashi is located in Varanasi. This Ans.500(B) Ropar is a city and a municipal
city got its name from rivers Varuna and Asi council in Rupnagar district in the Indian state
as cited in the Matsya Purana. Vatsa is also of Punjab.The town lies on the Sutlej River
known as Vamsa and This was a central city near the head of the great Sirhind Canal, about
for economic activities. Vatsa is located 20 miles (32 km) northwest of Chandigarh. It
around the present-day Allahabad and his the first to be excavated after India achieved
capital was Kaushambi. independence.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
140

Objective

PART - 2
Polity
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
141

Indian polity

Polity 02
Indian Polity is a discipline that includes a wide range • The Draft Constitution was published in January,
of topics such as the development of the Constitution, 1948. The people of India were given 8 months to
Citizenship, Fundamental Rights, Fundamental Duties, discuss the draft and propose amendments. As
Directive Principles of state policy, the executive and many as 7,635 amendments were proposed and
legislative power of the President, the Prime Minister 2,473 were actually discussed.
and Council of Ministers, Judiciary, Executive and • The Constituent Assembly held 11 sessions.
legislative powers of Governor, State Governments, • The Draft Constitution was considered for 114
Local Government, Election system, and many more. days. In all, the Constitutional Assembly sat for 2
Indian Polity is one of the essential disciplines of Social years, 11 months and 18 days to draft the
Science that makes us understand our democratic constitution.
governance as well as our rights. • The New Constitution of India was adopted by the
Constituent Assembly on 26th November, 1949
THE CABINET MISSION and signed by the President, Dr. Rajendra Prasad.
World War II in Europe came to an end on May 9,1945. 15 Articles (5,6,7,8,9,60,324,366,367,372, 380,
Three British cabinet ministers were sent to find a 388, 391,392 and 393) came into force at once.
solution to the question of India's Independence. This • The remaining provisions of the Constitution came
team of ministers (Lord Pethick Lawrence, Stafford into force on 26th January, 1950 which is the date
Cripps, A V Alexander) was called the Cabinet of the commencement of the Constitution and is
Mission. The Mission was in India from March 1946 to also celebrated as 'Republic day'.
May 1946. The Cabinet Mission discussed the • On January 26, 1950, the Indian Government also
framework of the constitution and laid down in detail adopted National Emblem of India depicting
the procedure to be followed by the constitution wheel, bull and horse. Currently it can be seen at
drafting body. The constituent Assembly began work sarnath, which is also lion capital of Ashoka.
on 9 December 1946. • The design of the National Flag was adopted by the
Constituent Assembly of India on 22 July 1947.
INDIAN POLITY: FRAMING THE • The National Calendar based on the Saka Era, with
CONSITITUTION (1946-1950) Chaitra as its first month and a normal year of 365
• The Constitution of India was drawn up by the days was adopted from 22 March 1957
Constituent Assembly. • Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali
• The Assembly met for the first time on December by Rabindranath Tagore, was adopted in its Hindi
9, 1946. version by the Constituent Assembly as the
• The Assembly constituted a Drafting Committee, National Anthem of India on 24 January 1950. It
under the chairmanship of Dr.B.R.Ambedkar, to was first sung on 27 December 1911 at the Calcuta
frame a Constitution for India. (Kolkata) Session of the Indian National Congress.
• Indian Constitution was adopted on November 26,
1949 and came into effect on January 26, 1950. SOURCES OF INDIAN CONSITITUTION
• It is the longest written Constitution in the world The Indian Constitution is borrowed from almost all the
containing 395 Articles, 22 Parts and 12 Schedules. major countries of the world at that time but has its own
• Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected its Permanent unique features too. Major sources are:
Chairman on December 11,1946 Government of Federal Scheme, office of
India Act, 1935 Governor, Judiciary, Public
Service Commission, Emergency
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
142

Provisions and administrative Part I The Union and its territoryArt. 1 to 4

details. Part II Citizenship Art. 5 to 11
British Parliamentary System, Rule of Part III Fundamental Rights Art. 12 to
Constitution law, Legislative Procedure, 35
Single Part IV Directive Principles of State Art. 36 to
Citizenship, Cabinet Policy 51
System, Prerogative Part Fundamental Duties Art. 51A
Writs, Parliamentary IVA
Privileges and Part V The Union Government Art. 52 to
Bicameralism. 151
US Constitution Fundamental rights, Part VI The State Government Art. 152 to
independence of judiciary, 237
judicial review, impeachment of Part Repealed by Constitution (7th
President, removal of Supreme VII Amendment) Act, 1956 Art. 238
court and high court judges and Part The Union Territories Art. 239 to
parts of Vice President. VIII 242
Irish Directive Principles of State Part IX The Panchayats Art. 243 to
Constitution Policy, nomination of members 243O
to Rajya Sabha and method of Part The Municipalities Art. 243P
election of President IXA to 243ZG
Canadian Federation with a strong Centre, Part The Co-operative Societies Art.
Constitution vesting of residuary powers in IXB 243ZH to
the centre, appointment of State 243ZT
Governor by the Centre and Part X The Scheduled and Tribal Art. 244 to
advisory jurisdiction of Supreme Areas 244A
Court. Part XI Relations between the Art. 245 to
Australian Concurrent list, joint sitting of Union and the States 263
Constitution two Houses of Parliament, Part Finance, Property, Contracts Art. 264 to
Freedom of trade commerce and XII and Suits 300A
intercourse. Part Trade, Commerce and Art. 301 to
Wiemar Suspension of Fundamental XIII Intercourse within the 307
Constitution Rights during Emergency. Territory of India
of Germany Part Services under the Union Art. 308 to
French Ideals of liberty, equality and XIV and the States 323
Constitution fraternity in the Preamble and Part Tribunals Art. 323A
republic. XIVA to 323B
South Procedure Part Elections Art. 324 to
African for amendment of the XV 329A
Constitution constitution and election of
Part Special provisions relating Art. 330 to
members of Rajya Sabha.
XVI to certain classes 342
Japanese Procedure established by Law. Part Official Language Art. 343 to
Constitution
XVII 351
Constitution of Fundamental duties, ideals of Part Emergency Art. 352 to
former USSR justice (social, economic and XVIII Provisions 360
(now Russia) political) in Preamble.
Part Miscellaneous Art. 361 to
XIX 367
PARTS DESCRIBED IN THE CONSTITUTION
Part Amendment of the Art. 368
There are 395 articles in Indian Constitution with 22
XX Constitution
parts and 12 Schedules.
Part Temporary, Transitional Art. 369 to
Part Subject Articles
XXI and Special Provisions 392
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
143

Part Short title, Art. 393 to Schedule Panchayati Raj Institutions (rural local
XXII commencement, 395 11 government)
authoritative text in Hindi Schedule Municipalities (urban local
and repeals 12 government).

IMPORTANT SCHEDULES IN THE UNION AND THE TERRITORY: ART. 1 TO

CONSITITUTION ART. 4
Schedule States, Union Territories and their • India i.e., Bharat shall be union of states. (Article 1)
1 Territorial Jurisdiction • Article 2 empowers the parliament by law to admit
Schedule Emoluments, allowances, privileges into the union of India, or establish, new states on
2 and son on of: such terms and conditions as it thinks fit.
• President and Governor of a state. • Formation of New states and alteration of their
• Speaker, deputy speaker of house areas, boundaries or names is done after the
of people and legislative assembly recommendation of President to Parliament.
and chairman and deputy chairman (Article 3)
of council of states and legislative • Such laws (Article 2 and 3) can be passed by a
councils of states (wherever it simple majority and by the ordinary legislative
exists) process.(article 4).
• Judges of SC and HC
• Comptroller and auditor general of CITIZENSHIP ART. 5 TO ART. 1
India. • A citizen is a person who enjoys full membership
Schedule Forms of Oaths or Affirmations for: of the community or State in which he lives or
3 • Union Ministers ordinarily lives.
• Candidates for election to the • The State demands extra duties from its citizen
Parliament which cannot be asked from non-citizens.
• Members of Parliament • 42nd Constitution (Amendment) Act, 1976 has
• Judges of Supreme Court inserted 10 Fundamental Duties in Article 51-A.
• Comptroller and Auditor-General • Citizenship (Amendment) Act, 1986 provides five
of India ways to acquire citizenship of India. These five
• State Ministers ways are:
• Candidates for election to state I. Citizenship by Birth
legislature II. Citizenship by Descent
• Members of State legislature III. Citizenship by Registration
• Judges of High Courts IV. Citizenship by Naturalization
Schedule Allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha to V. Citizenship by Incorporation of Territory
4 States and Union territories. • Citizenship Act, 1955, prescribes three ways of
Schedule Provisions for the administration and losing citizenship. They are:
5 control of scheduled area and ST's. I. By renunciation
Schedule Provisions for the administration of II. By termination
6 tribal areas in states of Assam, III. By deprivation
Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram
Schedule Union List(97), State List(66), FUNDAMENTAL RIGHTS (ART. 12 TO ART.
7 Concurrent List(47) 35)
Schedule Languages • They are justiciable, allowing persons to move the
8 courts for their enforcement, if and when they are
Schedule Land Reforms violated.
9 • They are defended and guaranteed by the Supreme
Schedule Anti Law Defection Court. Hence, the aggrieved person can directly go
10 to the Supreme Court.
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• They can be suspended during the operation of a  speech and expression

National Emergency except the rights guaranteed [Article 19(1)a],
by Articles 20 and 21.
• Further, the six rights guaranteed by Article 19 can  assemble, peacefully
be suspended only when emergency is declared on without arms [Article
the grounds of war or external aggression. 19(1)b]
• Originally the Constitution provided for seven  association, [Article
fundamental rights, viz,
19(1)c]
I. Right to equality [Art. 14-18]
II. Right to freedom [Article. 19-22]  movement, [Article
III. Right against exploitation [Article.. 23-24]. 19(1)d]
IV. Right to freedom of religion [Article.. 25-28]
V. Cultural and educational rights [Article.. 29-30]  residence, [Article
VI. Right to property [Article.. 31] 19(1)e] and
VII. Right to constitutional remedies [Article.. 32]  profession. [Article
• However, the ‘Right to property’ was deleted from 19(1)g]
the list of fundamental rights by the 44th
Constitutional Amendment Act, 1978. It has been • Protection in respect of
made a legal right under Article 300- A in part XII conviction for offences.
of the Constitution. So at present, there are only six (Article 20)
fundamental rights. • Protection in respect of
Category consists of life and personal liberty
(Article 21)
1. Right to • Equality before law
Equality and equal protection of • Rights to elementry
(Articles 14-18) laws. (Article 14) education (Article 21 A)

• Prohibition of • Protection against

discrimination on grounds arrest and detention in
of religion, race, caste, certain cases (Article 22)
sex or place of birth 3 Right against • Prohibition of traffic in
(Article 15) exploitation human beings and forced
(Articles 23-24) labour (Article 23)
• Equality of opportunity
in matters of public • Prohibition of
employment (Article 16). employment of children
in factories, etc (Article
• abolition of 24).
untouchability and
prohibition of its practice. 4. Right to • Freedom of conscience
(Article 17) fredom of and free profession,
religion practice and propagation
• abolition of titles. (Article25-28) of religion (Article 25).
(Article 18).
• Freedom to manage
2. Right to • Protection of six rights religious affairs (Article
Freedom (Article regarding freedom of: 26).
19-22)
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145

• Freedom as to payment  Prohibition: 'to forbid'

of taxes for promotion of (issue primarily to
any religion (Article 27). prevent an inferior court
from exceeding its
• Freedom from
jurisdiction)
attending religious
instruction or religious  Certiorari: 'to be
worship in certain certified' (Orders the
educational institutions removal of suit from an
(Article 28) inferior court to a superior
5. Cultural and • Protection of language, court)
educational script and culture of
rights (Article minorities (Article 29).  Quo warranto: 'By
29-30) what authority or warrant'
• Right of minorities to
establish and administer (Restrains a person from
educational institutions acting in a office to which
(Article 30) he is not entitled.)
• Article 33 empowers
6. Right to • A declaration of the Parliament to restrict
constitutional fundamental rights is or abrogate the
remedies (Article meaningless unless there fundamental rights of the
32) is an effective machinery members of armed forces,
for the enforcement of the para-military forces,
rights. Hence the police forces, intelligence
provision of the agency and analogous
Constitutional remedies. forces discharge of their
• This Fundamental duties and the
Right is called the "Heart maintenance of discipline
and soul of the Indian among them.
Constitution "by Dr. B. R. • Article 34 empowers the
Ambedkar. Parliament to identify any
• Under this Article, government servant or
Supreme Court can issue any other person for any
following writs: act done by him in
connection with the
 Habeas Corpus:'You to maintenance or
have the body' (a person restoration of order in any
unlawfully detained is area where martial law
sought to be set at was in force.
liberty) • Article 35 lays
down that the power to
 Mandamus: 'We
make laws, to give effect
command' (a person or
to certain specified
body to do that which it is
fundamental rights shall
his, or its duty)
vest only in the
Parliament and not in the
state legislatures.
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DIRECTIVE PRINCIPLES OF STATE POLICY • Protection of Monuments and places and objects of
(ART. 36 TO 51) national importance. (Article 49).
The phrase ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ • Separation of judiciary from executive (Article 50)
denotes the ideals that the State should keep in mind • Promotion of international peace and security
while formulating policies and enacting laws. It (Article 51)
includes the legislative and executive organs of the
Central and State governments, all local authorities and FUNDAMENTAL DUTIES
all other public authorities in the country. The Directive A list of ten fundamental duties was included in the
Principles are non-justiciable in nature, that is, they are Indian Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976
not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation. in the form of Article 51 A. They are:
Therefore, the government cannot be compelled to • To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals
implement them. They aim at providing social and and instructions, the National Flag and the National
economic justice to the people. Anthem.
• To cherish and follow the noble ideals that inspired
Some Important Points the national struggle for freedom.
• Definition of state (Article 36) • To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and
• Application of the principles contained in this part. integrity of India.
(Article 37) • To defend the country and render national service
• State to secure a social order for the promotion of when called upon to do so.
welfare of the people. (Article 38) • To promote harmony and the spirit of common
• Citizens, men and women equally, have the right to brotherhood amongst all the people of India
an adequate means of livelihood (Article39 ) transcending religious, linguistic and regional or
• Equal justice and free legal aid (Article 39A) sectional diversities and to renounce practices
• Organization of village panchayats (Article 40). derogatory to the dignity of women.
• Right to work, to education and to public assistance • To value and preserve the rich heritage of the
in certain cases: in cases of unemployment, old age, country's composite culture.
sickness and disablement. (Article 41) • To protect and improve the natural environment
• Provision for just and humane conditions of work including forests, lakes, rivers and wildlife and to
and maternity relief. (Article 42) have compassion for living creatures.
• To secure a living wage, a decent standard of life • To develop scientific temper, humanism and the
social and cultural opportunities for all workers. spirit of inquiry and reform.
(Article 43) • To safeguard public property and to abjure
• Participation of workers in management of violence.
industries. (Article 43 A) • To strive towards excellence in all spheres of
• Promotion of co-operative societies. (Article 43 B) individual and collective activity so that the nation
• Uniform civil code for the citizens. (Article 44). constantly rises to higher levels of endeavour and
• Provision for early childhood care and free achievement.
education for all the children below the age of six • To provide opportunities for education to his child
years. ( Article 45) or ward between the age of six and fourteen years.
• Promotion of educational and economic interests of This duty was added by the 86th constitutional
Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and other Amendment Act, 2002.
weaker sections. (Article 46)
• Duty of the State to raise the level of nutrition and THE UNION EXECUTIVE
the standard of living and to improve public health THE PRESIDENT (ART. 52-ART. 62)
(Article 47). President of India (Article 52)
• Organization of agriculture and animal husbandry • There shall be a President of India.
(Article 48)
• Protection and Improvement of Environment and Executive power of the Union (Article 53)
safeguarding of forests and wildlife. (Article 48A) • The executive power of the Union shall be vested
in the President and shall be exercised by him
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either directly or through officers subordinate to • A sitting President or Vice-President of

him in accordance with this constitution. India/Governor of any state/A minister of the
• The supreme command of the defence forces of Union or of any State is not deemed to hold any
Union shall be vested in the President and the office of profit and hence qualified for Presidential
exercise thereof shall be regulated by law. election.
• Nothing in this article shall
▪ be deemed to transfer to the President any Term of office of President (Article 56)
functions conferred by an existing law on the • The President holds office for a term of five years
Government of any State or other authority; or from the date on which he enters upon his office.
▪ prevent Parliament from conferring by law • He can resign at any time by addressing the letter
functions on authorities other than the to the Vice-President.
President. • He can be impeached from office before
completion of his term by process provided under
Election of the President ( Article 54) Article 61.
• The President of India is elected by indirect • He can hold his office beyond his term of five years
election. until his successor assumes charge.
• The provisions dealing with the manner of election • He is also eligible for re-election to that office and
of the President of India are provided in Article 55. can be elected any number of times.
• The Electoral College consists of:
▪ The elected members of both Houses of Eligibility for re-election (Article 57)
Parliament (nominated members are not the • A person, who holds or who has held office as
members of electoral college) President shall, subject to other provisions of
▪ The elected members of the Legislative constitution be eligible for re-election to that office.
Assemblies of the States (including National
Capital Territory of Delhi and the Union Condition of President office (Article 59)
Territory of Pondicherry)
The Constitution lays down the following conditions of
Manner of Election of the President (Article 55) the President's office:
• He should not be a member of either House of
• He is elected by an electoral college in accordance Parliament or a House of the state legislature. If any
with the system of proportional representation by such person is elected as President, he shall be
means of the single transferable vote and the voting deemed to have vacated his seat in that House on
at such election shall be big secret ballot. the date on which he enters upon his office as
• Article 62 of the Constitution provides that an President.
election to fill a vacancy in the office of President • He should not hold any office of profit.
shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no • He is entitled, without payment of rent, to the use
case later than six months from, the date of of his official residence (the Rashtrapathi Bhavan).
occurrence of the vacancy (if such occurrence of • He is entitled to such emoluments, allowance and
vacancy is caused by resignation or death or privileges as any be determined by Parliament by
impeachment or otherwise). law.
• His emoluments and allowances cannot be
Qualification for election as President (Article 58) diminished during his term of office.
• He must be a citizen of India.
• He must have completed the age of 35 years. Oath or affirmation by the President (Article 60)
• He must be qualified for election as a Member of • Before entering upon his office, the President has
the House of the People. to make and subscribe to an oath or affirmation.
• He must not hold any office of Profit under In his oath the President swears:
Government of India or the Government of any ▪ to faithfully execute the office
State or under any local or other authority subject ▪ to preserve, protect and defend the constitution
to the control of any of the said Govt. and the law
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▪ to devote himself to the service and well-being resignation or removal, or otherwise shall be held
of the people of India. as soon as possible and in no case occurance of the
• The oath of office to the President is administered vacancy; and the person elected to fill the vacancy
by the Chief Justice of India and in his absence, the shall, subject to the provision of Article 56,be
senior most judge of the Supreme Court available. entitled to hold office for the full term of five years
from the date on which he enters upon his office.
Impeachment of the President (Article 61)
• The President can be removed from his office Legislative powers of President
before the expiry of his term by the process of The legislative Powers of President are as follows:
impeachment. • The President can summon and prorogue the
• The President can be impeached only for the Parliament and can dissolve the Lok Sabha.
violation of the Constitution. • President inaugurates the Parliament by addressing
• It is a quasi-judicial procedure. it after the general elections and also at the
• The impeachment procedure can be initiated in beginning of the first session each year.
either House of the Parliament. The resolution must • All bills passed by the Parliament can become laws
be signed by at least 1/4th of the total membership only after receiving the assent of the President. The
of the House. Before the resolution could be President can return a bill to the Parliament, if it is
passed, a 14-days notice must be given to the not a money bill or a constitutional amendment bill,
President. Such a resolution must be passed by a for reconsideration. When after reconsideration,
majority of not less than 2/3rd of the total the bill is passed and presented to the President,
membership of the House. with or without amendments; President is obliged
• Then, the other House of Parliament called the to give assent.
“Investigating House” investigates the charges by • The President can also withhold his assent to the
itself or cause the charge to be investigated. bill thereby exercising Pocket veto.
• The President has the right to appear and to be • When both Houses of the Parliament are not in
represented at such investigation to defend himself. session and if government feels the need for
• If, as a result of the investigation the other House immediate action, President can promulgate
also passes a resolution supported by not less than ordinances which have the same force and effect as
2/3rd of the total membership of House, the laws passed by Parliament.
President stands removed from his office from the
date on which the investigating House passed the Executive powers of President
resolution. The executive powers of President are as follows:
Note: • The President appoints the PM, the President then
▪ The elected members of the legislative appoints the other members of the Council of
assemblies of States have no role in the Ministers, distributing portfolios to them on the
impeachment proceedings, while they elect the advice of the PM.
President. • The President is responsible for making a wide
▪ The nominated members of the Parliament variety of appointments. These include:
have the right to deliberate and vote when the ▪ Governors of States/The Chief Justice, other
resolution of impeachment is under judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts
consideration while they have no role to play in of India/The Attorney General/The
the election of the President. Comptroller and Auditor General/The Chief
Election Commissioner and other Election
Time of holding election to fill vacancy in the Commissioners/ The Chairman and other
office of President (article 62) Members of the Union Public Service
• An election to fill a vacancy caused by the Commission/ Ambassadors and High
expiration of the term of office of President shall Commissioners to other countries.
be completed before the expiration of the term. • The President is the "Commander in Chief" of the
• An election to fill a vacancy in the office of Indian Armed Forces.
President occurring by reason of his death,
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Financial powers Emergency powers

• All money bills can be introduced in the The President can declare three types of emergencies:
Parliament, but only if the President recommends National Emergency Art. 352
it.
• He or she causes to be laid the Union Budget before State Emergency or Presidents rule Art. 356
Parliament and can make advances out of the
contingency fund to meet any unforeseen Financial Emergency Art. 360
expenditure. VETO POWER OF THE PRESIDENT
• The President constitutes a finance commission A bill passed by the Parliament can become an act only
every five years to recommend distribution of if it receives the assent of the President. However, the
revenues between the Centre and the States. President has the veto power over the bills passed by
• No demand for grant can be made except on his the Parliament, i.e. he can withhold his assent to the
recommendation. bills.

Judicial powers Absolute Veto

• The President appoints the Chief Justice and the It refers to the power of the President to withhold his
other judges of Supreme Court and High Courts. assent to a bill passed by the Parliament. The bill then
The President dismisses the judges if and only if ends and does not become an act. Usually, this veto is
the two Houses of the Parliament pass resolutions exercised in the following two cases:
to that effect by two-thirds majority of the members • With respect to private members bills; and
present. • With respect to the government bills when the
• He/she has the right to grant pardon, reprieve, cabinet resigns (after the passage of the bills but
respite and remission of punishments. The before the assent by the President) and the new
President can suspend, remit or commute the cabinet advises the President not to give his assent
sentence of any person convicted of any offence. to such bills.
Pardon - completely absolves the offender
Reprieve - temporary suspension of the sentence Suspensive Veto
Commutation - substitution of one form of The President exercises this veto when he returns a bill
punishment for another form which is of a lighter for reconsideration of the Parliament. However, if the
character bill is passed again by the Parliament with or without
Respite - awarding a lesser sentence on special ground amendments and again presented to the President, it is
Remission - reducing the amount of sentence without obligatory for the President to give his assent to the bill.
changing its character The President does not possess this veto in the case of
money bills.
Diplomatic powers
• All international treaties and agreements are Pocket Veto
negotiated and concluded on behalf of the In this case, the President neither ratifies nor rejects nor
President. returns the bill, but simply keeps the bill pending for an
• He represents India in international forum and indefinite period. This power of the President to not
affairs and send and receives diplomats like take any action (either positive or negative) on the bill
ambassadors, high commissioners, so on. is known as pocket veto. There is no time limit for the
President to give comment on bills under this veto.
Military powers
• The President is the supreme commander of the VICE PRESIDENT OF INDIA (ART. 63 TO ART.
defence forces of India. 71)
• The President can declare war or conclude peace, • The Vice-President is elected by an electoral
subject to the approval of Parliament. college consisting of members of both Houses of
• He appoints the chiefs of the Army, the Navy and Parliament, in accordance with the system of
the Airforce. proportional representation by means of the single
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transferable vote and the voting in such election is • During this period, those duties are performed by
by secret ballot. the Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
• The Electoral College to elect a person to the office • If the offices of both the President and the Vice-
of the Vice-President consists of all members of President fall vacant by reason of death,
both Houses of Parliament. He is ex-officio resignation, removal etc. the Chief Justice of India
chairman of Rajya Sabha. or in his absence the senior most judge of the
• The Vice-President should not be a member of Supreme Court acts as President.
either House of Parliament or of a House of a • For the first time, during the 15-day visit of Dr.
Legislature of any state. Rajendra Prasad to the Soviet Union in June 1960,
• If a member of either House of Parliament or of a the then Vice- President Dr. Radhakrishnan acted
House of a Legislature of any state is elected as as the President.
Vice-President, he is deemed to have vacated his • For the first time, in 1969, when the President Dr.
seat in that House on the date he/she enters his Zakir Hussain died and the Vice-President V.V.
office as Vice-President. Giri resigned, the Chief Justice Md. Hidayatullah
A person cannot be elected as Vice-President unless acted as President.
she/he:
• is a citizen of India and has completed the age of PRIME MINISTER (ART. 74 TO ART. 78)
35 years. • In the scheme of parliamentary system of
• is qualified for election as a member of the Council government provided by the Constitution, the
of States (Rajya Sabha). President is the nominal executive (de Jure)
• Does not hold any office of profit under the Union authority and PM is the real executive (de facto)
Government of India or a State Government or any authority.
local authority, or any public authority. • The President is the head of the State while PM is
the head of the government.
Removal of Vice President
The Constitution states that the Vice President can be Appointment of the PM
removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by • Article 75 says that the PM shall be appointed only
an absolute majority (more than 50% of total by the President. The President appoints the leader
membership) and agreed to by a simple majority (50% of the majority party in the Lok Sabha as the PM.
of voting members) of the Lok Sabha [Article 67(b)]. • But, when no party has a clear majority in the Lok
Sabha, then the President may exercise his personal
Powers and functions of a Vice President discretion in the selection and appointment of the
The functions of Vice-President are two fold: PM.
• He acts as the ex-officio Chairman of Rajya Sabha.
In this capacity, his powers and functions are Term
similar to those of the Speaker of Lok Sabha. • The term of the PM is not fixed and he holds office
• He acts as President when a vacancy occurs in the during the pleasure of the President.
office of the President due to his resignation, • So, as long as the PM enjoys the majority support
removal, death or otherwise. He can act as in the Lok Sabha, he cannot be dismissed by the
President only for a maximum period of six President.
months, within which a new President has to be • However, if he loses the confidence of the Lok
elected. Further, when the sitting President is Sabha, he must resign or the President can dismiss
unable to discharge his functions due to absence, him.
illness or any other cause, the Vice-President
discharges his functions until the President resumes Powers and Functions of PM
his office. • He recommends persons who can be appointed as
• While acting as President or discharging the ministers by the President.
functions of President, the Vice-President does not • He can recommend dissolution of the Lok Sabha to
perform the duties of the office of the chairman of the President at any time.
Rajya Sabha.
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• He is the chairman of the NITI Aayog, National proceedings of the other House but cannot vote in
Development Council, National Integration the House of which he is not member. [Art. 88]
Council, Inter-State Council and National Water
Resources Council. THE HOUSE OF PEOPLE (LOK SABHA)
• He guides, directs, controls and coordinate the • The Lok Sabha is the popular chamber of the
activities of all the ministers. Indian Parliament with a maximum strength of 552
• He plays a significant role in shaping the foreign members and this is so from the Thirty -first
policy of the country. Amendment onwards when it was increased from
525 members to 552 members body.
THE UNION COUNCIL OF MINISTERS • But out of 552, 545 seats are filled every year. Of
• As the Constitution of India provides for a the total members, not more than 530 represent
parliamentary system of government modelled on states and 20 is the number of seats reserved for
the British pattern, the council of ministers headed Union Territories. Another provision is of two
by the PM is the real executive authority. members to be nominated by the President from
• Article 74 deals with the status of the council of Anglo-Indian communities, if in the President’s
ministers while Article 75 deals with the opinion, it does not have a fair representation in the
appointment, tenure, responsibility, qualification, Lok Sabha.
oath and salaries and allowances of the ministers. • The forty-second Amendment has laid down that
• The total number of ministers, including the PM, in 1971 census will serve as the basis of allocation of
the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of seats to each State and this will remain so till 2000.
the total strength of the Lok Sabha. [91st Lately, the Union Cabinet has extended this cap
Constitutional Amendment Act, 2003] upto 2026.
• The council of ministers shall be collectively • The convention of Lok Sabha meeting is not less
responsible to the Lok Sabha. A person who is not than twice every year and there must not be a gap
a member of either House can also become a between two meeting exceeding six months.
minister but he cannot continue as minister for • The time of meeting is decided by the President,
more than six months unless he secures a seat in who also has the choice of venue where the
either House of Parliament (by meeting will be held. The President also enjoys the
election/nomination). [Art. 75(5)] power to dissolve or prorogue the House. The
quorum of meeting to be held is in one-tenth of the
The council of ministers consists of three total strength of the House.
categories: • A person to contest election for the membership of
Cabinet Ministers Lok Sabha, must not be less than 25 years of age
• The cabinet ministers head the important ministries and should not hold any office of profit.
of the Central government like home, defence,
finance and external affairs. Special Powers of the Lok Sabha
Ministers of State • Money and Financial Bills can only originate in the
• The ministers of state can either be given Lok Sabha.
independent charge of ministries/departments or • In case of a Money Bill, the Rajya Sabha has only
can be attached to cabinet ministers. the right to make recommendation and the Lok
Deputy Ministers Sabha may or may not accept the recommendation.
Lok Sabha enjoys exclusive legislative jurisdiction
• The deputy ministers are not given independent over the passage of the Money Bills.
charge of ministries/departments and always assist • The Council of Ministers shall be collectively
the Cabinet or State Minister or both. They are not responsible to Lok Sabha and hence the
members of the cabinet and do not attend cabinet Confidence and No-confidence motions can be
meetings. introduced in this House only.
• Minister may be taken from members of either • Under Article 352, the Lok Sabha in a special
House and minister who is member of one House sitting can disapprove the continuance of a
has the right to speak and take part in the
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152

National Emergency proclaimed by the President, Special position of the Speaker

even if the Rajya Sabha rejects such a resolution. • Though he is an elected member of the Lok Sabha,
he continues to hold his office even after the
Tenure of the Lok Sabha dissolution of the House till a new Lok Sabha is
• The normal tenure of the Lok Sabha is five years. constituted. This is because he not only presides
But the House can be dissolved by the President and conducts the parliamentary proceedings but
even before the end of the normal tenure. also acts as the Head of the Lok Sabha Secretariat
• Also, the life of the Lok Sabha can be extended by which continues to function even after the House is
the Parliament beyond the five-year term during dissolved.
the period of National Emergency proclaimed • The Speaker presides over the joint sitting of the
under Article 352. two Houses of the Parliament
• Speaker certifies a Bill as Money Bill and his
Qualifications for the membership of Lok Sabha decision is final in this regard.
• She/he must be a citizen of India. • The Speaker is ex-officio Chairman of Indian
• She/he should be not less than 25 years of age. Parliamentary Group which is a link between
• She/he must be a registered voter in any of the Parliament of India and Various Parliaments of
Parliamentary constituencies in India. world.
• She/he should not hold any office of profit
• She/he should not be insolvent Protem Speaker
• She/he should not be mentally unsound. • As provided by the Constitution, the Speaker of the
last Lok Sabha vacates his office immediately
SPEAKER & DEPUTY SPEAKER OF LOK before the first meeting of the newly elected Lok
SABHA Sabha.
• Chief presiding officer of the Lok Sabha. • Therefore, the President appoints a member of the
• The Speaker presides over the meetings of the Lok Sabha as the Pro tem Speaker. The President
House and his rulings on the proceedings of the himself administers oath to the Pro tem Speaker.
House are final. • The Protem Speaker has all the powers of the
• The Speaker and Deputy Speaker may be removed Speaker.
from their offices by a resolution passed by the • He presides over the first sitting of the newly
House by an effective majority of the House after a elected Lok Sabha. His main duty is to administer
prior notice of 14 days to them. oath to the new members.
• The Speaker, to maintain impartiality of his office, •
votes only in case of a tie i.e to remove a deadlock RAJYA SABHA
and this is known as the Casting Vote. • The Rajya Sabha consists of a maximum of 250
members including members nominated as well as
Special powers of the Speaker elected.
• Whether a Bill is Money Bill or not is certified only • The number of elected members is not to exceed
by the Speaker and his decision in this regard is 238 representing the States and the Union
final and binding. Territories.
• The Speaker, or in his absence, the Deputy • The President nominates 12 members having
Speaker, presides over the joint-sittings of the exceptional qualities and experiences in diverse
parliament. fields like art, literature, science, and social service.
• The committees of parliament function essentially • The Rajya Sabha is a permanent body with a tenure
under the Speaker and their chairpersons are also of each member for six years and it cannot be
appointed or nominated by him. Members of the dissolved. However, one-third of the members
Rajya Sabha are also present in some of these retire at the end of every second year.
committees. • If a member remains absent from the House for
• If the Speaker is a member of any committee, he is more than 60 days, the seat may be declared vacant.
the ex-officio chairman of such a committee.
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Leader of the House The President from time to time summons each House
• Besides the Chairman (Vice-President of India) of Parliament to meet. But, the maximum gap between
and the Deputy Chairman, there is also a function two sessions of Parliament cannot be more than six
called Leader of the House. months. In other words, the Parliament should meet at
• He is a cabinet minister - the PM if he is a member least twice a year. There are usually three sessions in a
of the House, or another nominated minister. year:
• The Leader has a seat next to the Chairman, in the • the Budget Session (February to May);
front row. • the Monsoon Session (July to September); and
• the Winter Session (November to December).
Qualifications for the membership of Rajya The period between the prorogation of a House & its
Sabha reassembly in a new session is called ‘recess’.
• She/he must be a citizen of India,
• She/he should be 30 years of age or more, Joint Sitting
• She/he should not be holding any office of profit Under Article 108, there is a Provision of Joint sitting
under the central or state Government. or local of both the Houses of the Parliament.
body, The Lok Sabha speaker presides over the joint sitting
• She/he should possess all other qualification [Art. 118(4)].
prescribed by the act of Parliament from time to There are only three occasions in the history of Indian
time. Parliament that the joint sessions of the Parliament took
place. They are as follows:
Powers of Rajya Sabha • In May 1961, for Dowry Prohibition Bill, 1959.
• It enjoys co-equal power with the Lok Sabha in • In May 1978 for Banking Services Commission.
respect of all bills other than money bill. In case of • In 2002 for POTA (Prevention of Terrorism Act).
Money Bills, Rajya Sabha has no powers. Joint sitting of both Houses can be convened on two
occasions:
Exclusive Functions of Rajya Sabha • For resolving any deadlock over the passage of a
Bill.
• The Rajya Sabha, under Article 249, may by a • Special address by the President at the
special majority of two-thirds of members present commencement of the first session after each
and voting adopt a resolution asking the Parliament general election of the Lok Sabha; First Session of
to make laws on subjects of the State list, in the each year (the Budget Session).
national interest. • Joint sitting cannot be called for resolving deadlock
• This resolution gets due attention from the regarding “Money Bill” & “Constitution
Parliament. The resolution remains valid for one Amendment Bill”.
year only which however can be extended further
in terms of another one year. Prorogation
• Secondly, Rajya Sabha can take steps to create All
India Services by adopting resolutions supported The presiding officer (Speaker or Chairman) declares
by special majority in the national interest. the House adjourned sine die, when the business of a
Thirdly, Rajya Sabha has the exclusive right to session is completed. Within the next few days, the
•
initiate a resolution for the removal of the Vice- President issues a notification for prorogation of the
President. session. However, the President can also prorogue the
House while in session.
• This becomes the exclusive right of the Rajya
Sabha because the Vice-President happens to be its
Chairman and draws his salary as such. Adjournment
This is a short recess within a session of the Parliament,
IMPORTANT TERMS RELATED TO called by the presiding officer of the House. Its duration
PARLIAMENT may be from a few minutes to days together.
Summoning
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Grounds for disqualification of members • Unicameral: Government with one House of

of Parliament legislature. Like in Punjab there is only legislative
There are five grounds for disqualification of Member Assembly. So it is Unicameral.
of Parliament. • Crossing the floor: An MP crossing the floor of
• Article 102(1) (a): A Member of Parliament shall Parliament means to vote with his/her opposition.
be disqualified from being a member of House, if • Adjournment Sine Die: When House is
he holds any office of profit under state other than suspended without fixing any time period.
an office declared by Parliament by law not to • Prorogation: End of the whole session of the
disqualify its holder. house.
• Article 102(1) (b): If the Member of Parliament is • Question Hour: First hour of every sitting of the
of unsound mind and stands so declared by the house. This hour is devoted to asking questions by
court of law the members of House.
• Article 102(1) (c): If he is a discharged insolvent • Adjournment Motion: If a House wanted to
declared by court of law. discuss very important topic then adjournment
• Article 102(1) (d): If he is not a citizen of India or motion is moved to discuss that topic
has acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is • Zero Hour: Immediately starts after the Question
under any acknowledgment of allegiance to a hour. It is used to raise matters without any prior
foreign state. notice.
• Article 102(2): If a person is disqualified from • Censure Motion: Moved by House to stop any
being a Member of Parliament under anti- minister for specific policies and actions.
Defection Law (Tenth Schedule). • No Confidence Motion: Moved against the entire
council of minister in Lok Sabha. This is moved to
Constitutional Glossary ask government to prove their majority.
• Secret ballot: A system of voting in which one’s
choice of candidate is kept secret. Legislative procedures in Parliament
• Rule of law: It is a doctrine that holds that no The legislative procedure is identical in both the
individual is above the law and every one Houses of Parliament. Every bill has to pass through
regardless of their social status is equal before law. the same stages in each House. A bill is a proposal for
• Republic: A state in which power is held by the legislation and it becomes an act or law when duly
people and their elected representatives and which enacted.
has an elected President as head of state rather than Bills introduced in the Parliament are of two kinds:
a monarch. public bills and private bills (also known as
• Quorum: The minimum number of members of an government bills and private member's bills
organization (e.g. Parliament) needed to conduct respectively). Though both are governed by the same
business. general procedure and pass through the same stages in
• Oligarchy: A form of government where political the House, they differ in various respects.
power effectively rests with a small elite segment BILLS IN PARLIAMENT
of society The four kinds of bills mentioned in the Constitution
• First-Past-the-Post system: An electoral system are:
in which the one who receives more votes than any • Ordinary Bill
other candidate gets elected. • Money Bill
• Ballot paper: A paper handed to each voter on • Financial Bill
election day to be marked, showing the names of • Constitutional Amendment Bill
the candidates (and sometimes the parties) who are
standing for election. Ordinary Bill (Art. 107)
• Bicameral: Government with two House of • A bill other than money or financial bill is termed
legislature. Like in India we have Lok Sabha and as ordinary bill
Rajya Sabha. • This bill may originate in either House of
Parliament.
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• This bill is firstly passed by both the Houses of Constitutional Amendment Bill
Parliament and if there is any deadlock, President • The bill introduced (under Article 368) to amend
may call for the Joint Session. Joint session is one or more provisions of the Constitution is called
presided by Speaker of Lok sabha. a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
• President may: • It can be introduced in either House of the
▪ Pass the bill. Parliament.
▪ With hold the Bill (Pocket Veto). • It does not require the recommendation of
▪ Return the bill (Suspensive Veto) President for its introduction.
▪ Cancel the bill (Absolute Veto), Bill which are • It shall be passed by both the House of the
presented by ministers cannot be cancelled by Parliament sitting separately by majority of not less
the President. than 2/3rd of members present and voting and
majority of total strength of the House.
Money Bill (Article 110) • The Constitution does not provide for a joint sitting
Bill is money bill if contains: of both the Houses of the Parliament if a deadlock
• the imposition, abolition, remission, alteration or develop between the two Houses over the passage
regulation of any tax of a Constitutional Amendment Bill.
• the regulation of borrowing by government, money
required from consolidated fund of India or any Articles Related to Bills
other money related matter
▪ Articles 109 and 110 deal with Money Bills. • Article 107: Provisions as to introduction and
passing of Bills
▪ A Money Bill can only be introduced in the
Lok Sabha. It can not be introduced in Rajya • Article 108: Joint sitting of both Houses in certain
Sabha. cases
▪ The Money Bill can be introduced after the • Article 109: Special procedure in respect of
recommendation of the President only. Money Bills
▪ No dead lock occurs. • Article 110: Definition of “Money Bills”
▪ No Joint Session of House necessary. • Article 111: Assent to Bills
▪ A Money Bill is passed by Lok Sabha. • Article 112: Annual financial statement
Thereafter it is sent to Rajya Sabha for • Article 113: Procedure in Parliament with respect
recommendations. Rajya Sabha must return it to estimates
within 14 days, with or without • Article 114: Appropriation Bills
recommendations. • Article 115: Supplementary, additional or excess
▪ Lok Sabha may consider or may not consider grants
the recommendations of the Rajya Sabha • Article 116: Votes on account, votes of credit and
pertaining to Money Bills. exceptional grants
▪ Whether it is a Money Bill or not, the decision • Article 117: Special provisions as to financial Bills
of Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be final [Article • Article 118: Rules of procedure
110(3)]. EMERGENCY PROVISIONS IN INDIA
Emergency provisions are adopted in India from
Financial Bill (Article 117) Weimar Constitution of Germany.
In Indian constitution, there are three kinds of
• A financial bill includes two or more than two emergency provisions:
money matters or one money matter and other
• Article 352 – National Emergency
ordinary matters.
• Article 356 – President’s Rule
• All Money bills are Financial bills but all Financial
• Article 360 – Financial Emergency
bills are not Money bills.
• This bill always originate in Lok sabha and then
National Emergency (Article 352)
passed to Rajya Sabha.
• After passing from Lok Sabha this bill behaves like • If the President is satisfied that there exists a grave
ordinary bill. emergency on security of India whether due to war
or external aggression or armed rebellion, then
President can proclaim emergency to that effect.
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Such a proclamation can be made for the whole of enforced for not more than 6 months from the date of
India or any part thereof. The President can proclamation by the President.
proclaim National Emergency only on the written Such an approval by the Parliament needs only Simple
recommendation from the Cabinet. Majority. If Lok Sabha stands dissolved then Rajya
• The President has power to revoke or modify the Sabha shall have to approve it within 2 months and Lok
National Emergency. All such proclamations of Sabha shall approve it within 1 month of its
Emergency shall have to be sent to Parliament for reconstitution. However, Parliament can extend it for a
approval and it ceases to be operational if not maximum period of 3 years with the approval of
approved within 1 month of the proclamation of Parliament every six months. If it has to approve
Emergency. Such approval by Parliament is to be beyond 1 year then two conditions shall have to be
on the basis of Special Majority of not less than satisfied.
2/3rd of members present and voting and the • There shall be National Emergency in force either
majority of the House. in whole of the State concerned or in a part thereof.
• If approved by both houses of Parliament the • Election Commission is satisfied that under
emergency continues for six months, and can be prevailing conditions general elections to State
extended for indefinite period with an approval of Legislative Assembly of the State concerned
Parliament for every six months. cannot be held.
• If Lok Sabha is dissolved then proclamation of But under no circumstances, State Emergency cannot
Emergency, must be approved by the Rajya Sabha be extended beyond 3 years. To extend it further,
within 1 month and reconstituted Lok Sabha must constitutional amendment is required.
approve within 1 month of its reconstitution.
• Lok Sabha enjoys powers to disapprove Financial Emergency (Article 360)
continuation of Emergency at any stage. In such Under Article 360 the President enjoys the power to
case if not less than 1/10th of members (55) of Lok proclaim the Financial Emergency. If he is satisfied that
Sabha give a written notice to the Speaker, if Lok a situation has arisen that financial stability and credit
Sabha is in session or to the President if Lok Sabha of India or any part thereof is threatened he may
is not in the session, expressing intention to move proclaim emergency to that effect.
a resolution for the disapproval of National All such proclamations:
Emergency, then special session of Lok Sabha shall • Can be varied or revoked by the President.
be convened within 14 days. If Lok Sabha • Financial Emergency must be approved by the
disapproves continuance of National Emergency Parliament within 2 months after its proclamation.
then President shall have to revoke National Once it is approved, it will remain till the President
Emergency. revokes it.

Emergency in States on President’s Rule (Art. 356) Effects of Financial Emergency

Under Article 356 if the President is satisfied on the • President is empowered to suspend the distribution
report of Governor or otherwise too that there exists a of financial resources with States.
grave situation in a State where the administration of • President can issue directions to States to follow
the State cannot be carried out in accordance with canons of financial propriety.
provisions of Constitution, then he can: • He can direct State Government to decrease
• Takeover the administration of the State himself salaries allowances of Civil Servants and other
and notify that the Parliament shall exercise Constitutional dignitaries.
jurisdiction over State subject for the State • President can direct the Government to resume all
concerned, the President cannot take over the the financial and Money Bills passed by State
powers conferred on the High Courts of State legislature for his consideration. The President can
concerned. issue directions for the reduction of salaries and
Every proclamation made under Article 356 ceases to allowances of Judges of the Supreme Court and the
be in operation unless approved by both Houses of the High Courts.
Parliament within 2 months after its proclamation. ▪ Insert what is the effect of National
Once, approved by Parliament, Emergency shall be Emergency.
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Consequences of President's Rule constitutional position, status, powers and functions of

The President acquires the following extraordinary the concerned state High Court remain same even
powers when the President's Rule is imposed in a state: during the President's Rule.
• He can take up the functions of the state
government and powers vested in the governor or STATE LEGISLATURE (ART. 168 to ART. 177)
any other executive authority in the state. Legislative Assembly (Article 170)
• He can declare that the powers of the state Under the Constitution of India, the Legislative
legislature are to be exercised by the Parliament. Assembly of a State shall consist of not more than 500
• He can take all other necessary steps including the and not less than 40 members chosen by direct election
suspension of the constitutional provisions relating from territorial constituencies(some states have
to any body or authority in the state. exceptions)
Therefore, when the President's Rule is imposed in a • The bigger states like Uttar Pradesh has 403
state, the President dismisses the state council of members in its Assembly. Puducherry has 30
ministers headed by the chief minister. The state members. Mizoram, Goa have only 40 members
governor, on behalf of the President, carries on the state each. Sikkim has 32 members.
administration with the help of the chief secretary of • Governor of the State has the power to nominate 1
the state or the advisors appointed by the President. member from Anglo Indian community, if the
This is the reason why a proclamation under Article community is not adequately represented in the
356 is popularly known as the imposition of 'President's Legislative Assembly.
Rule' in a state. Further, the President either suspends • Term: 5 years
or dissolves the state legislative assembly. The • The House or each House of the State Legislature
Parliament passes the state legislative bills and the state in India is from time to time summoned by the
budget. Governor who may also prorogue the House or
When the state legislature is thus suspended or either House and dissolve the Legislative
dissolved: Assembly. The period for which the house should
• the Parliament can delegate the power to make laws meet or the required duration of the sessions is not
for the state to the President or to any other laid down in the Constitution but the gap between
authority specified by him in this regard, two sessions must be less than six months.
• the Parliament or in case of delegation, the • The assembly has a Speaker and a Deputy Speaker
President or any other specified authority can make elected by the House.
laws conferring powers and imposing duties on the
Centre or its officers and authorities, Qualification to be a member of Vidhan Sabha
• the President can authorise, when the Lok Sabha is To become a member of a Vidhan Sabha:
not in session, expenditure from the state • A person must be a citizen of India
consolidated fund pending its sanction by the • She/he must have attained 25 years of age.
Parliament, and • He must make and subscribe to an oath or
• the President can promulgate, when the Parliament affirmation before the person authorised by the
is not in session, ordinances for the governance of Election Commission for this purpose. In his oath
the state. or affirmation, he swears
A law made by the Parliament or President or any other ▪ To bear true faith and allegiance to the
specified authority continues to be operative even after Constitution of India
the President's Rule. This means that the period for ▪ To uphold the sovereignty and integrity of
which such a law remains in force is not co-terminous India
with the duration of the proclamation. But it can be
repealed or altered or re-enacted by the state legislature. Vidhan Sabha via-a-vis Lok Sabha
It should be noted here that the President cannot assume
to himself the powers vested in the concerned state • The position of Vidhan Sabha is relatively stronger
High Court or suspend the provisions of the than Lok Sabha when it comes to the relation with
Constitution relating to it. In other words, the the respective upper houses. The following are
constitution relating to it. In other words, the differences in the legislative procedures:
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158

• While disagreement between the two Houses of the • One-twelfth are elected by persons engaged for at
Parliament over ordinary and financial bills is least three years in teaching in educational
resolved by “Joint Sitting”, there is no such institutions within the state not lower than
provision of solving the deadlock at the state level. secondary schools, including colleges and
The upper house at the state level can just delay the universities.
bill for the maximum period of 4 months i.e. 3 • One-sixth are nominated by the governor from
months in first journey and 1 month in second persons having knowledge or practical experience
journey. in fields such as literature, science, arts, the co-
• While the period for passing a Bill (other than operative movement and social service.
money Bill) from Rajya Sabha is six months in the GOVERNOR
case of Legislative Councils it is just three months. The Governor is appointed by the President. The
Governor holds office during the pleasure of the
Legislative council (Article 169) President. There is no security of his tenure. He can be
The Vidhan Parishad (or Legislative Council) is the removed by the President at any time. There is no
upper house in those states of India that have a impeachment process for removal of Governors as
bicameral legislature. As of 2019, Six states have a prescribed in the Constitution in the case of President.
Legislative Council: Andhra Pradesh, Bihar,
Karnataka, Maharashtra, Telangana and Uttar Pradesh Powers of Governors
• Legislative councils are formed, if the legislative Executive Powers
assembly of the concerned state passes a resolution • The Governor appoints the Chief Minister who
by special majority, that is a majority of total enjoys the support of the majority in the Legislative
membership of the assembly and a majority of not Assembly (Vidhan Sabha).
less than two-thirds of the members of assembly • The Governor also appoints other members of the
present and voting. Council of Ministers and distributes portfolios to
• After this Parliament approves this resolution by them on the advice of the Chief Minister.
simple majority. This Act of Parliament is not to be • He/she also appoints the Advocate General and the
deemed as an amendment of the constitution. chairman and members of the State Public Service
• The maximum strength of the council is fixed at Commission.
1/3rd of total strength of assembly and minimum • The Governor appoints the judges of the District
strength is fixed at 40. Courts.
• The Council shall be a continuing House and it is Legislative Powers
not subject to dissolution but one third of its • Summons the sessions of both Houses of the State
members shall retire every two years legislature and prorogues them.
• The Council has a Chairman and Deputy Chairman • Inaugurates the State Legislature by addressing it
elected by the Council. after the assembly elections and also at the
Qualification to be a member of Vidhan Parishad beginning of the first session every year.
• She/he must be citizen of India • Can even dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. These powers
• She/he must have attained at least 30 years of age are formal and the Governor while using these
• She/he must be listed in the voters list of the state powers must act according to the advice of the
for which he or she is contesting an election. Council of Ministers headed by the Chief Minister.
Election of members of Legislative Council • The Governor's address on these occasions
• One-third of the members are elected by members generally outlines new policies of the state
of local bodies such as corporations, Government.
municipalities, and Zila Parishads. • A bill that the state legislature has passed can
• One-third of the members are elected by members become a law only after the Governor gives his
of Legislative Assembly from among the persons assent.
who are not members of the Assembly. • He can return a bill to the State Legislature, if it is
• One-twelfth of the members are elected by the not a money bill, for reconsideration
persons who are graduates of three years' standing • He has the power to reserve certain bills for the
residing with in that state. consideration of President.
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• When the State Legislature is not in session and the • In the case of Bills other than Money Bill, the
Governor considers it necessary to have a law, then President apart from declaring his assent or
the Governor can promulgate ordinances. refusing it, directs the Governor to return the Bill
Financial Powers to the Legislature for reconsideration.
• Money bills can be introduced in the State PANCHAYATI RAJ
Legislative Assembly only on the prior • The Panchayati Raj System is the first tier or level
recommendation of the Governor. of democratic government.
• Governor also causes to be laid before the State • The term Panchayati Raj in India signifies the
Legislature the annual financial statement i.e., system of rural local self-government. It was
State Budget. constitutionalized through the 73rd Constitutional
• Further no demand for grant shall be made except Amendment Act of 1992.
on his/her recommendation. • The development of the village was the immediate
• He can also make advances out of the Contingency problem faced by our country after independence.
Fund of the State to meet any unforeseen Hence the Community Development Programme
expenditure. was launched in 1952 with a view to carry out the
• Governor constitutes the State Finance integral rural development work.
Commission to review financial positions of • Rajasthan was the first state to set up Panchayati
Panchayats and Municipalities. Raj System in 1959 followed by Andhra Pradesh.
Discretionary Powers
There are situations when the Governor has to act as Main Provisions of 73rd Amendment Act
per his/her own judgment and take decisions on his • This act has added a new Part-IX to the
own. Such powers are called discretionary Powers: Constitution of India.
• When no party gets a majority in the Vidhan Sabha, • It is entitled as ‘The Panchayats’ and consists of
the Governor can either ask the leader of the single provisions from Articles 243(A) to 243(O). In
largest party or the consensus leader of two or more addition, the act has also added a new Eleventh
to form the Government. The Governor then Schedule to the Constitution. It contains 29
appoints the leader of the largest party as Chief functional items of the panchayats.
Minister. • Fixing tenure of five years for Panchayats at all
• The Governor can send a report to the President levels and holding fresh elections with in six
informing him or her that the State's constitutional months in the event of supersession of any
functioning has been compromised and Panchayat.
recommending the President to impose "President's • Reservation of 1/3 seats (both members and
rule" (state emergency) upon the state. chaizrpersons) for women in Panchayats at all the
• Governor can reserve any Bill for the President. levels.
• The Act provides for a three-tier systerm of the
Veto Power of Governor Panchayati Raj in the states namely:
When a Bill is presented before the Governor after its ▪ Gram Panchayat at the Village level.
passage by the House(s) of the State Legislature, the ▪ Panchayat Samiti at the Block level.
Governor may take any of the following steps: ▪ Zila Parishad at the District level.
• He may gives his assent to the Bill
• He may withholds his assent to the Bill Compulsory Provisions for Panchayati Raj
• He may (in case of a Bill other than money Bill), Institutions
return the Bill for reconsideration. • Organisation of Gram Sabha in a village or group
• The Governor may also reserve a Bill for the of villages.
consideration of President. • Establishment of Panchayats at the village,
The President enjoys absolute veto in the case of Bills intermediate and district levels.
reserved for him by the Governors. The president may • 21 years to be the minimum age for contesting
act in the following manner: elections to Panchayats.
• In case of Money Bill, President may either declare
his assent or withhold his assent.
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• Reservation of seats (both members & Article 243Q to Article 243ZG (Municipality
chairpersons) for SCs and STs in Panchayats at all System in India)
the three levels. • Municipality system in India consists of Nagar
• Reservation of one-third seats (both members and panchayat (which is in transition from rural to
chairpersons) for women in Panchayats at all the urban area), Municipal Council (Small urban area)
three levels. and Municipal Corporation (Large Urban Area).
• Fixing tenure of five years for Panchayats at all • There shall be constituted Ward Committees,
levels and holding fresh elections within six consisting of one or more wards, within the
months in the event of supersession of any territorial area of a Municipality having a
Panchayat. population of three lakh or more.
• Establishment of a State Election Commission for • Every Municipality, unless sooner dissolved under
conducting elections to the Panchayats. any law for the time being in force, shall continue
• Constitution of a State Finance Commission after for five years from the date appointed for its first
every five years to review the financial position of meeting and no longer.
the panchayats. • Power to impose taxes.
SUPREME COURT OF INDIA
Organisational Struture Supreme Court of India is the highest judicial forum
I. Gram Panchayat at the Village level and final court of appeal. According to the Constitution
The members of the Gram Panchayat are elected by the of India, the role of the Supreme Court is that of a
Gram Sabha. The Pradhans (Presidents) of the Gram federal court and guardian of the Constitution.
Sabha are the ex-officio members of the Gram
Panchayat. Composition of Supreme Court
Note: Gram Sabha means a body consisting of persons • Under Article 124(1), the Constitution originally
registered in the electoral roles relating to a village provided for 1 Chief Justice of India and not more
comprised within the area of Panchayat at the village than six other judges.
level. • The constitution authorizes the Parliament to
II. Panchayat Samiti at the Block level provide by law in fixing the Strength of the judges
The Panchayat Samiti has many Gram Panchayats of the Supreme Court.
under it. All the Sarpanch of the Panchayats within the • The Parliament passed the Supreme Court
Block are the ex officio members of the ‘Panchayat (Number of Judges), a Constitutional Amendment
Samitis’. Act in 2008, It has increased the strength of
III. Zila Parishad at the District level Supreme Court to 31 (1 Chief Justice + 30 other
• Zila Parishad is an apex body under the Panchayati judges).
Raj. It co-ordinates the activities of the various
Panchayat Samitis. Qualification to be a judge of Supreme Court
• Zila Parishad actually makes developmental plans • A person must be a citizen of India
at the district level. He/she must have been, for at least five years, a
•
• With the help of Panchayat Samitis, it also Judge of a High Court or of two or more such
regulates the money distribution among all the Courts in succession
Gram Panchayats. Or an Advocate of a High Court or of two or more
•
MUNICIPALITY such Courts in succession for at least ten years
The Narsimha Rao Government introduced a Or the person must be, in the opinion of the
•
Constitution Amendment Bill pertaining to urban local President, a distinguished jurist.
bodies in the Lok Sabha on September 16, 1991.The
Bill was passed by both the Houses in December 1992.
Removal of judges of Supreme Court
It received the assent of the President on April 20, 1993
and was published in the gazette on the same day as the • Article 124(4) provides for the removal of a judge
Constitution 74th Amendment Act, 1992. of the Supreme Court.
• He is removed by the President upon an address by
both the Houses of the Parliament supported by a
majority of not less than 2/3rd of members present
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161

and voting and a majority of total strength of the salary, other allowances, leave of absence, pension,
House on the ground of misbehaviour or etc. of the Supreme Court judges.
incapacity. • However, the Parliament cannot alter any of these
• The President shall pass the order of removal in the privileges and rights to the judge's disadvantage
same session in which the Parliament passed the after his appointment.
resolution.
• Article 124(5) confers the power on the Parliament Some Important Points on Supreme Court
to provide by law for the procedure for the • The first woman judge of the Supreme Court was
presentation of an address and for the investigation Justice Fatima Beevi in 1987. However, there has
for proof of misbehavior or incapacity of a judge. been no female Chief Justice
Accordingly the Parliament passed Judges • Ad hoc Judges:
(Inquiry) Act 1968 which states that a resolution ▪ Ad hoc Judges are non-Supreme Court judges
seeking the removal of a judge of Supreme Court who sit in the Supreme Court when there is
can be introduced in either House of Parliament. lack of quorum to perform the judicial duties.
• It should be supported by not less than 100 ▪ Ad hoc Judges are appointed by the Chief
members of Lok Sabha. Justice after obtaining consent from the
• If it is to be introduced in Rajya Sabha it should be President.
supported by not less than 50 members of Rajya ▪ Only such persons can be appointed as ad hoc
Sabha. Judges who are qualified to be appointed as a
• Once the resolution is initiated in either House of regular Judge of the Supreme Court.
the Parliament, the presiding officer of that House • The Chief Justice administers the oath infront of
shall appoint a three members Judicial Committee the President.
to investigate into charges and provide proof of • The first Chief Justice of India was H J Kania (1950
misbehavior or incapacity. – 1951).
• The judicial committee shall be headed by a CJI or • The shortest tenure was for K N Singh (Nov 1991
serving judge of the Supreme Court. Second – Dec 1991, UP)
member can be a serving judge of the High Court • The longest tenure was for Y V Chandrachud (1978
and the third member can be an eminent jurist. – 1985, Bombay)
SUPREME COURT IN INDIA (JURISDICTION) JURISDICTION OF THE SUPREME COURT
• It is the highest judicial forum and final court of A writ is a formal written order issued by a body with
appeal as established by Part V, Chapter IV of the administrative or judicial jurisdiction, this body is
Constitution of India. Articles 124 to 147 of the generally a court for enforcement of any of the
Constitution of India lay down the composition and Fundamental Rights conferred by Part III of Indian
jurisdiction of the Supreme Court of India. Constitution under Article 32 the Constitution of India
• The Supreme Court has Original jurisdiction, empowers the Supreme Court to Issue writs.
Appellate jurisdiction and Advisory jurisdiction. WRIT Jurisdiction
• The Supreme Court is the highest appellate court
which takes up appeals against the verdicts of the • For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
High Courts and other courts of the states and Original Jurisdiction
territories. • Original Jurisdiction means that certain types of
• The Supreme Court has the power to transfer the cases can originate with (i.e. exclusive Jurisdiction
cases from one High Court to another and even of SC only) the Supreme Court only.
from one District Court of a particular state to • The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in
another District Court of the other state. ▪ Disputes between the Centre and one or more
• The Supreme Court has the power of Constitutional states.
review. The Supreme Court of India held its ▪ Disputes between the Centre and any state(s)
inaugural sitting on 28 January 1950. on one side and one or more states on the other
• Salary-Article 125 of the Indian Constitution side.
leaves it to the Indian Parliament to determine the ▪ Disputes between two or more states.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
162

Appellate Jurisdiction Removal of judges

• Appellate Jurisdiction means that appeals against • A judge of the High Court shall hold office until he
judgments of lower courts can be referred to SC as attains the age of 62 years.
the Supreme Court is the highest court of appeal in • A judge may resign from his office by writing
the country. under his hand to the President of India.
Advisory Jurisdiction • He can also be removed by the President of India
• Advisory Jurisdiction refers to the process where on the grounds of proved misbehavior or
the President seeks the Court’s advice on legal inefficiency if a resolution to that effect is passed
matters. by both the Houses of Parliament by a two-thirds
• If the President asks for advice from the Supreme majority of the total members present and voting,
Court, the Court is duty-bound to give it. However, supported by a majority of the total membership of
it is not binding on the President to accept the each house.
advice.
Jurisdiction of a High Court
HIGH COURT • The High Court has Original Jurisdiction, Writ
• The High Court is at the apex of the judicial Jurisdiction, Appellate Jurisdiction and
administration of the state. Supervisory Jurisdiction.
• Article 214 of the Constitution provides that there • Original Jurisdiction means the power of HC to
shall be a High Court for each state of India. But hear disputes in the first instance, not by way of
the Indian Parliament is empowered to establish a appeal.
common High Court for two or more states and to • Every High court has the power to issue to any
extend the jurisdiction of a High Court to a union person or authority including any Government
territory. Similarly, Parliament can also reduce the within its jurisdiction, direction, or orders
area of jurisdiction of a High Court. including writs which are in the nature as habeas
• The High Court consists of a Chief Justice and corpus, mandamus, prohibition, quo-warranto and
some other Judges. The number of judges is to be certiorari or any of them for enforcement of
determined by the President of India from time to Fundamental Rights conferred by Part-III of the
time. constitution and for any other purpose. High Court
• The Chief Justice of a High Court is appointed by can issue writs for purpose other than enforcement
the President in consultation with the Chief Justice of Fundamental Rights.
of the Supreme Court and the Governor of the state • Election petitions challenging the elections of
concerned. The procedure for appointing other Members of Parliament or member of State
judges is the same except that the Chief Justice of Legislative Assembly or other local bodies can be
the High Court concerned is also consulted. HC filed in the concerned High Court.
judge hold office until they attain the age of 62 • The High Courts have Appellate jurisdiction in
years and are removed from office in the same both civil and criminal cases against the decisions
manner as a judge of the Supreme Court. of lower courts.
• Under Supervisory jurisdiction, the High Court is
Qualification empowered to call for the records of any court to
A person shall be qualified for appointment as a judge satisfy itself about the correctness of the legality of
of the High Court if the orders passed.
• he is a citizen of India, • This power may be exercised on the petition of the
• has for atleast ten years held a judicial office in the interested party or it can suo moto call for the
territory of India, or records and pass necessary orders.
• has for atleast ten years been an advocate of a High • All Courts except tribunals dealing with the Armed
Court, or of two or more such courts in succession. forces, are under the supervision of the High Court.
Every judge of the High Court before entering upon his Tribunals dealing with the Armed forces are not
office shall make and subscribe before the Governor of under the supervision of High Courts.
the state, an oath of affirmation in the form prescribed • This power is enjoyed under Article 227 of the
by the Constitution. Constitution.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
163

• Thus, administration of the state's judiciary is the • Prohibition:

essential function of the High Court. ▪ Literally, it means 'to forbid'. It is issued by a
higher court to a lower court or tribunal to
Writs in Indian Constitution prevent the latter from exceeding its
• As per the Right to Constitutional Remedies- jurisdiction or usurping a jurisdiction that it
Articles 32-35, a citizen has right to move to the does not possess. Thus, unlike mandamus that
courts for securing the fundamental rights. directs activity, the prohibition directs
• Citizens can go to the Supreme Court or the High inactivity.
Courts for getting their fundamental rights ▪ The writ of prohibition can be issued only
enforced. against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
• It empowers the Courts to issue directions or orders It is not available against administrative
or writs for this purpose. authorities, legislative bodies, and private
• Writs are issued for enforcement of Fundamental individuals or bodies.
Rights by either Supreme Court or High Court.
UNION TERRITORIES
Types of Writs ▪ Articles 239 to 241 in Part VIII of the Constitution
deals with the Union Territories. Even though all
• Habeas Corpus the union territories belong to one category, there
▪ Habeas Corpus means to have the body of is no uniformity in their administrative system.
▪ This ensures that a prisoner can be released ▪ Every Union Territory is administered by the
from unlawful detention—that is, detention President acting through an administrator
lacking sufficient cause or evidence. appointed by him. An Administrator of a Union
• Quo Warranto Territory is an agent of the President and not
▪ The meaning of the term Quo Warranto is ‘by executive head of state like a governor.
what authority’. ▪ The President can specify the designation of an
▪ The writ shall be issued only when the public administrator; it is Lieutenant Governor in the case
office is held by a particular person in an illegal of Delhi, Puducherry and Andaman and Nicobar
manner. Islands and Administrator in the case of
▪ If a person has usurped a public office, the Chandigarh, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Daman and
Court may direct him not to carry out any Diu and Lakshadweep.
activities in the office or may announce the ▪ The Parliament can make laws on any subject of
office to be vacant. the three lists (including the State List) for the
• Mandamus: It means 'we command'. union territories. This power of Parliament also
▪ A writ of mandamus is an order issued by a extends to Puducherry and Delhi, which have their
superior court to a lower court or other entity own local legislatures but the legislative assembly
commanding the lower court, corporation or of both (Delhi and Puducherry) can also make laws
public authority to perform or not perform on any subject of the State List and Concurrent
specific acts. List, barring
▪ It cannot be issued to compel an authority to do ▪ land
something against statutory provision. ▪ police
• Certiorari: It means 'to be certified or to be ▪ law and order in case of Delhi
informed'. This means that the legislative power of Parliament
▪ It is a writ (order) of a higher court to a lower for the union territories on subjects of the State List
court to send all the documents in a case to it remain unaffected even after establishing a local
so the higher court can review the lower court’s legislature for them.
decision.
▪ It is a writ seeking judicial review. GOVERNMENT BODIES
▪ Granting a writ of certiorari merely in ears that Election Commission
atleast four of the justices have determined that
the circumstances described in the petition are • The Election Commission is a permanent,
sufficient to warrant review by the Court. independent body established by the Constitution
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
164

of India directly to ensure free and fair elections in • To determine the territorial areas of the electoral
the country. Article 324 of the Constitution constituencies throughout the country on the basis
provides that the power of superintendence, of the Delimitation Commission Act of Parliament.
direction and control of elections to Parliament, • To prepare and periodically revise electoral rolls
state legislatures, the office of President of India and to register all eligible voters.
and the office of Vice-President of India shall be • To notify the dates and schedules of elections and
vested in the election commission. to scrutinies nomination papers.
• Elections are conducted according to the • To grant recognition to political parties and allot
constitutional provisions supplemented by laws election symbols to them.
made by Parliament. • To act as a court for settling disputes related to
• The major laws are Representation of the People granting of recognition to political parties and
Act, 1950, which mainly deals with the preparation allotment of election symbols to them.
and revision of electoral rolls, and the • To determine the code of conduct to be observed
Representation of the People Act, 1951, which by the parties & the candidates at the time of
deals in detail with all aspects of conduct of elections.
elections and past election disputes. • To advise the President on matters relating to the
• The electoral system in India is borrowed from the disqualification of the members of Parliament.
one operating in Great Britain. Presently, the • To advise the Governor on matters relating to the
Election Commission consists of one Chief disqualification of the members of state legislature.
Election Commissioner (CEC) and two Election • To cancel polls in the event of rigging, booth
Commissioners. capturing, violence and other irregularities.
• The Commission works under the overall • To register political parties for the purpose of
supervision of the Chief Election Commissioner. elections and grant them the status of national or
• The tenure of the CEC and the Election state parties on the basis of their poll performance.
Commissioners has been fixed as six years, subject
to the maximum age limit of 65 years (whichever Union Public Service Commission
is earlier). With the promulgation of the new Constitution for
•
• The Chief Election Commissioner and the Election independent India on 26th January, 1950, the
Commissioners are placed at par in matters of Federal Public Service Commission was accorded
salary and allowances and they are the same as a constitutional status as an autonomous entity and
those of a judge of Supreme Court. given the title – Union Public Service Commission.
• The Chief Election Commissioner is not eligible • The UPSC has been established under Article 315
for reappointment. of the Constitution of India. The Commission
• The Election Commission is not concerned with consists of a Chairman and ten Members.
the elections to Panchayats and municipalities in The Chairman and members of the commission
•
the states. hold office for a term of six years or until they
• The elections to the Panchayats and the attain the age of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
municipalities in the states are conducted by ‘State It is an independent constitutional body.
•
Election Commissions’. The main function of UPSC is Recruitment to
•
Independence of CEC services and posts under the Union through
Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following conduct of competitive examinations.
provisions to safeguard and ensure the independent and
impartial functioning of the Election Commission:
State Public Service Commission
• The Chief Election Commissioner is provided with
the security of tenure. He cannot be removed from • A state public service commission consists of a
his office except in same manner and on the same chairman and other members appointed by the
grounds as a judge of the Supreme Court. Governor of the state. But they can be removed
• The Election Commissioner cannot be removed only by the President.
from office except on the recommendation of the • It is an independent constitutional body.
Chief Election Commissioner.
Powers and Functions
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
165

• The Chairman and members of the commission Attorney General of India

hold office for a term of six years or until they • Article 76 states that the President shall appoint a
attain the age of 62 years, whichever is earlier. person who is qualified to be appointed as a judge
• The main function of SPSC is to conduct of the Supreme Court to be the Attorney General
examinations for appointments to the services of for India.
the state. • He is the first legal officer of the Government of
India.
Joint State Public Service • The term of office of the AGI is not fixed by the
Commission Constitution of India.
• The Constitution makes a provision for the • He holds office during the pleasure of the President
establishment of a Joint State Public Service and receives remuneration as the President may
Commission (JSPSC) for two or more states. determine. Although, he is not a member of either
• A JSPSC can be created by an act of Parliament on House of Parliament, he enjoys the right to attend
the request of the state legislatures concerned. and speak in the Parliamentary deliberations and
Thus, a JSPSC is a statutory and not a meeting (of both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya
constitutional body. Sabha), without a right to vote.
• The Chairman of JSPSC is appointed by the • He advises the Government of India on any legal
President. matter.
• He performs any legal duties assigned by the
Comptroller and Auditor General President of India.
• The Constitution of India (Article 148) provides for • He discharges any functions conferred on him by
an independent office of the Comptroller and the Constitution or the President.
Auditor General of India (CAG). • In the performance of his official duties, the
• It is the supreme audit institution of India. Attorney General has the right of audience in all
• He is the head of the Indian Audit and Accounts courts in the territory of India.
Department and the guardian of the public purse • He is entitled to all the privileges and immunities
and controls the entire financial system of the as a Member of Parliament.
country at both the levels—the Centre and the state. • The Constitution (Article 165) has provided for the
Appointment and term office of the advocate general for the states. He is
• The CAG is appointed by the President of India. He the highest law officer in the state. Thus he
holds office for a period of six years or up to the corresponds to the Attorney General of India. He is
age of 65 years, whichever is earlier. appointed by the Governor of the state.
• He can resign any time from his office by
addressing the resignation letter to the President. PARLIAMENTARY FUNDS
He can also be removed by the President on same Consolidated Fund of India
grounds and in the same manner as a judge of the • Article 266 has established Consolidated Fund of
Supreme Court. India.
Main function of the CAG • It is a constitutional fund.
• He audits the accounts related to all expenditure • All the receipts received, loans raised and the
from the Consolidated Fund of India and income of the Government of India are deposited
Consolidated Fund of each state. into a Fund called the Consolidated Fund of India.
• He audits all expenditure from the Contingency • It is the largest fund of the Government of India and
Fund of India and the Public Account of India as any amount of money can be deposited into this
well as the contingency fund of each state and the account.
public account of each state. • It is a regular fund of Government of India.
• He audits the accounts of any other authority when • All expenditures of the Government of India are
requested by the President or Governor. spent out of the Consolidated Fund of India.
• He submits his audit reports relating to the • It has been placed at the disposal of the Parliament.
accounts of the Centre to President and relating No money can be withdrawn or appropriated out of
to the accounts of a state to governor. the Consolidated Fund of India without the prior
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
166

sanction of the Parliament. Article 266 has also • If it secures 6% of valid votes polled in any four or
created a separate Consolidated Fund for each more states at a general election to the Lok Sabha
State. or to the Legislative Assembly; and in addition, it
wins four seats in the Lok Sabha from any state or
Public Account of India states; or
• Under Article 266 any money other than the • If it is recognized as state party in atleast four
receipts, loans and the income received by the states.
Government of India is deposited into an account
called the Public Account of India. Some Important Points
• The Public Account of India is placed at the Demand for grant
disposal of the President Article 266 has also • The estimate of expenditure in respect of a
created public account for each states. Ministry/Department not charged upon the
Consolidated Fund of India, placed for approval
Contingency Fund of India before the House on the recommendations of the
• Article 267 empowers the Parliament to provide by President -appropriation bill.
law for the establishment of a public fund called the • A Bill passed annually (or at various times of the
Contingency Fund of India. year) providing for the withdrawal or appropriation
• Accordingly, the Parliament enacted the from and out of the Consolidated Fund of India of
Contingency Fund of India (Misc. Provisions Act) money by Lok Sabha moneys charged on the
1950, which has created the Contingency Fund of Consolidated Fund for the services of a financial
India with an upper limit of ` 500 Cr. year or a part thereof-.
• It is not a regular fund of Government of India and Cut motion
it is used to meet the unforeseen expenditures of the • A motion for reduction of a demand for grant by or
Government of India. to a specified amount.
• It is placed at the disposal of President who can • Cut motion can be of three types - Disapproval of
provide the sanction for meeting an emergency policy cut, Economy cut and Token cut
expenditure out of Contingency Fund of India. Vote on Account
• The Fund is used when the Parliament is not in a • A grant made by Lok Sabha in advance in respect
position to sanction money out of Consolidated of the estimated expenditure of the Government of
Fund of India to meet an unforeseen expenditure. India for a part of a financial year pending the
• The money so sanctioned out of Contingency Fund voting of Demands for Grants for the financial
of India by the President is placed before the year. A Motion for Vote on Account is dealt with
Parliament for its approval subsequently. in the same way as if it were a demand for grant.-
• Thus the Contingency Fund is replenished by the Question hour
Consolidated Fund. • The first hour of a sitting of the House normally
• The Parliament by law may increase the upper limit allotted for asking and answering of questions-
of Contingency Fund either permanently or
temporarily. Motions in Parliament
POLITICAL PARTIES • Private Member’s business
A recognised political party has been classified either Every member who is not a Minister is called a Private
as a “national party” or a “state party”. Recognition to Member. The Private Member’s business includes
a party is granted by the “Election Commission of Private Member’s Bills and Private Member’s
India”. Resolutions. The period of notice for introduction of
Bill is one month unless the Presiding officer allows
Conditions for Recognition as a National Party introduction at a shorter notice.
A party is recognized as a national party if any of the • Question Hour
following conditions is fulfilled: Normally, the first hour of the business of a House
• If it wins 2% of seats in Lok Sabha at a general everyday is devoted to questions & is called Question
election; and these candidates are elected from Hour (11:00 AM to 12:00 Noon).
three states; or • Starred and Unstarred Questions
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
167

A starred question is one to which a member desires an like VAT and entertainment tax, this will lead to
oral answer in the House. Answer to such a question one market with one tax rate.
may be followed by supplementary questions by other • France was the first country to implement the GST
members. An unstarred question is one to which written in 1954.
answer is desired by the Member. No supplementary • GST Council finalised tax rates on goods and
questions can be asked thereon. services under the eight-slab structure with
• Short Notice Questions essential items of daily use being kept in the lowest
These are related to matter of urgent public importance bracket of 5 percent.
and can be asked by members with notice shorter than
the 10 days prescribed for an ordinary question. It is for KEY POINT ON UNION BUDGET
the Speaker to determine whether the matter is of real • (In a Parliamentary Democracy like India, where
urgent nature or not. the Constitution is the supreme document with
• Adjournment Motions: It is answered orally. defined roles for the government to function
An adjournment motion is an extra-ordinary procedure effectively, it is imperative for the government to
which if admitted leads to setting aside the normal work for the welfare of the state and its citizens.
business of the House for discussing a definite matter • To discharge these functions effectively and
of Urgent Public importance and needs support of 50 upgrade the country’s economic and social
members to be admitted. structure, the government requires adequate
• Calling Attention: Need support of 50 members to resources.
be admissible.
It is a notice by which a member with the prior Article 112
permission of the Speaker, calls the attention of a A statement of estimated receipts and expenditure of
Minister of any matter of urgent public importance and Government of India has to be laid before the
the Minister may make a brief statement or ask for time parliament.
to make a statement at a later hour or date it is an Indian
Innovation. Article 77 (3)
There is no Calling Attention Notice in the Rajya
Sabha. Instead there exists a motion called ‘Motion for The Union Finance Minister of India has been made
Papers.’ responsible by the President of India to prepare the
annual Financial Statement and present it in
• Privilege Motion
This motion is moved by a member if in his opinion any Parliament.
minister or any of the members commits a breach of
privilege of the House by withholding any fact. Article 114
A BRIEF ON GST The government can withdraw money from the
• GST is one indirect tax for the whole nation, which Consolidated Fund of India only on approval from
will make India one unified common market. Parliament.
• GST is a single tax on the supply of goods and • There are three major categories of government
services, right from the manufacturer to the accounts:
consumer. ▪ Consolidated Fund
• Credits of input taxes paid at each stage will be ▪ Contingency Fund
available in the subsequent stage of value addition, ▪ Public Account
which makes GST essentially a tax only on value • Nodal agency responsible for producing the
addition at each stage. Union Budget: The department of economic
• The final consumer will thus bear only the GST affairs under the Ministry of Finance.
charged by the last dealer in the supply chain, with
set-off benefits at all the previous stages. The Annual Financial Statement or The Budget
• It will be a national sales tax that will be levied on contains
either consumption of goods or use of services. • Estimates of expenditure.
• It will replace 16 current levies -seven central taxes • Ways and means to raise the revenue.
like excise duty and service tax and nine state taxes • Actual figures for preceding year.
• Budget and revised figures for the current year.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
168

• Budget estimates for the following year. Cut Motion

• A veto power given to the members of the Lok Sabha
In parliament, the budget goes through 5 stages to oppose a demand in the financial bill discussed by
• Presentation of budget with Finance Minister’s the government.
speech. • There are Three types of Cut Motions:
• General discussion of the budget. ▪ Disapproval of Policy Cut: The amount of the
• Scrutiny by Departmental Committees. demand be reduced to Re. 1.
• Voting on demand for grants in Lok Sabha. ▪ Economy Cut: the amount of the demand be
• Passing of appropriation bills. reduced by a specified amount to affect
• Passing of Finance bills. economy in the expenditure.
▪ Token Cut: The amount of the demand be
The Parts of Budget reduced by Rs. 100.
Revenue Budget: All ‘current receipts’ such as The bills are forwarded to the Rajya Sabha for
•
taxation, surplus of public enterprises, and comment. Rajya Sabha is bounded to return the bill
‘expenditures’ of the Government. within 14 days. The Lok Sabha, however, is not
obligated to accept the comments and the Rajya Sabha
• Capital Budget: All ‘Capital receipts’ and
‘expenditure’ such as domestic and foreign loans, cannot delay passage of these bills.
loan repayments, foreign aid etc.
Important Facts related to Budget
The inspection of budget proposals • The first Union Budget of Independent India was
presented by the first Finance Minister of
• Committee on Estimates
Independent India, Sir R. K. Shanmukham Chetty,
• Constituted for the first time in 1950, on the
on November 26, 1947.
recommendation of John Mathai, then the Finance
minister is a Parliamentary Committee consisting • Indira Gandhi, the then prime minister who also
of 30 Members. (all from Lok Sabha) held the finance portfolio, became the first woman
finance minister of India to present a Budget in
• Term of office of the Committee is one year.
Parliament.
• In 2001, Yashwant Sinha, broke the colonial
The functions of the Estimates Committee are:
practice of announcing the Union Budget at 5 in the
▪ to report what economies, improvements in
evening. Instead, he delivered his Budget speech at
organisation, efficiency and administrative
reform, consistent with the policy underlying 11 am on the last working day of February.
the estimates can be effected; • Former Prime Minister of India Morarji Desai, who
presented 10 Union Budgets in his role as finance
▪ to suggest alternative policies in order to bring
about efficiency and economy in minister, is credited with presenting the highest
administration; number of Union Budgets in the history of
Independent India.
▪ to examine whether the money is well laid out
within the limits of the policy implied in the ● The Budget presented by Finance Minister Arun
estimates; Jaitley for the financial year 2017-18 was
▪ to suggest the form in which the estimates shall unprecedented in that, for the first time ever, a
be presented to Parliament. Railway Budget was not presented separately. This
practice was discontinued and both Union Budget
and Railway Budget were merged and presented
together.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
169

Polity

Practice Exercise
1. ‘Rule of Law’ concept has been taken in the (B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
Indian Constitution from? (C) The Parliament
(A) USA (B) England (D) The Chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(C) Switzerland (D) Ireland
Ans.4(A) The joint sitting of the Parliament is
Ans.1(B) Rule of law was adopted from called by the President (Article 108) and is
England by our constitutional fathers and presided over by the Speaker or, in his
many provisions were incorporated in the absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok
Indian Constitution. Indian Constitution is Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman
considered to be supreme and no one is above of the Rajya Sabha.
Indian Constitution.
5. Who carries out notification for the election of
2. 74th Amendment of the Constitution is related the Lok Sabha?
to- (A) Election Commission of India
(A) Rural Local Self-Government (B) The President
(B) Urban Local Self-Government (C) Home Ministry
(C) Powers of the President (D) Lok Sabha Secretariat
(D) Powers of the Parliament
Ans.5(A) The Election Commission of India
Ans.2(B) 74th Amendment and Municipalities carries out both the notification for elections to
in India. Constitution (Seventy Forth Lok Sabha, conducts elections and counting
Amendment) Act, 1992 has introduced a new and also declares results. Thereafter when all
Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with the results are declared, the President of India
Municipalities in an article 243 P to 243 ZG. notifies formation of Lok Sabha and invites
This amendment, also known as Nagar palika the representative of majority party to form
Act, came into force on 1st June 1993. ministry.

3. Which Part of the Constitution has the 6. Who among the following is the present
provisions for Panchayai Raj System? Chairperson of the National Commission for
(A) IX (B) VI women?
(C) III (D) IV (A) Girija Vyas (B) Rekha Sharma
(C) Malini Bhattacharya (D) Yasmeen Abrar
Ans.3(A) Constitution 73rd Amendment and
Panchayati Raj in India. The 73rd Amendment Ans.6(B) Rekha Sharma (54) was appointed
1992 added a new Part IX to the constitution as chairperson of the National Commission for
titled “The Panchayats” covering provisions Women (NCW). Prior to this appointment, she
from Article 243 to 243(O); and a new was member of the Commission and was
Eleventh Schedule introduced covering 29 holding the additional charge of chairperson
subjects within the functions of the after Lalitha Kumaramangalam had demitted
Panchayats. office in September 2017.

4. The joint sitting of the Lok Sabha and the 7. The first hour of business of the Lok Sabha is
Rajya Sabha of states is summoned by? known as-
(A) The President (A) Public hour (B) Privileges hour
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
170

(C) Zero-hour (D) Question hour Concurrent. The Union List has a range of
subjects under which the Parliament may
Ans.7(D) The first hour of every sitting is make laws. This includes defence, foreign
called Question Hour. Asking questions in affairs, railways, banking, among others.
Parliament is the free and unfettered right of
members, and during Question Hour they may 11. When was the Panchayati Raj System
ask questions of ministers on different aspects introduced in India?
of administration and government policy in (A) 1950 A. D. (B) 1945 A. D.
the national and international spheres. (C) 1949 A. D. (D) 1959 A. D.

8. The first law commission was established in Ans.11(D) The Panchayat Raj system was first
1834 by the British Government under the adopted by the state of Rajasthan in Nagaur
chairmanship of — district on 2 Oct 1959. During the 1950s and
(A) Lord Macaulay (B) Lord Dalhousie 60s, other state governments adopted this
(C) Lord canning system as laws were passed to establish
(D) Lord North Brook panchayats in various states.

Ans.8(A) India's first Law Commission was 12. What is the literal meaning of 'Certiorari'?
established in 1834 via Charter Act of 1833 (A) We command
under the Chairmanship of Lord Macaulay. (B) To have the body of
This law commission had recommended (C) To forbid
codification of the Penal Code, the Criminal (D) To be certified (or) to be informed
Procedure Code and a few other matters.
Ans.12(D) Certiorari is a Latin word meaning
9. Under which one of the following constitution "to be informed of, or to be made certain in
amendment Acts, four languages were aided regard to". It is also the name given to certain
under the eighth schedule of the Constitution appellate proceedings for re-examination of
of India, thereby raising their number to 22? actions of a trial court, or inferior appeals
(A) 90th Constitutional Amendment Act court.
(B) 92th Constitutional Amendment Act
(C) 93rd Constitutional Amendment Act 13. Lokayukta was first introducing in which
(D) 94th Constitutional Amendment Act state?
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Punjab
Ans.9(B) The Ninety-second Amendment of (C) Maharashtra (D) Tamil Nadu
the Constitution of India, officially known as
The Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) Ans.13(C) Maharashtra was the first state to
Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to introduce Lokayukta through The Maharashtra
the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, Lokayukta and Upa-Lokayuktas Act in 1971.
Maithili and Santali languages, thereby raising Presently, there are no Lokayuktas in the
the total number of languages listed in the states of Andhra Pradesh, Arunachal Pradesh,
schedule to 22. Jammu and Kashmir, Manipur, Meghalaya,
Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim, Tamil Nadu,
10. _________ makes laws on matters included Tripura.
in Union List and Concurrent List.
(A) Parliament 14. Which of the following is not a constitutional
(B) Ministry of Defense body?
(C) Prime Minister's Office (A) Election Commission
(D) Securities and Exchange Board of India (B) Finance Commission
(C) National Advisory Council
Ans.10(A) Under the Seventh Schedule, there (D) Inter State Council
are three lists – the Union, State and
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
171

Ans.14(B) The Inter-State Council is a non- (B) The American Constitution

permanent constitutional body set up by a (C) The British Constitution
presidential order on the basis of provisions in (D) Both the Irish Constitution and the
Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The American Constitution
body was formed by a presidential order dated
28 May 1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria Ans.18(B) The Preamble of the Indian
Commission. Constitution provides philosophy and values
of the Constitution and it was borrowed from
15. The right of property was deleted from the list the US.
of fundamental rights by the 44th amendment
act, 1978. It is made a ____________. 19. In the Government of India Table of
(A) Legal act under -300A precedence which of the following comes
(B) Legal act under -30A above the Chief Justice of India?
(C) Legal act under -302A (A) Attorney General of India
(D) Legal act under -304A (B) Former Presidents
(C) Former prime ministers
Ans.15(A) The 44th Amendment of 1978 (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
removed the right to property from the list of
fundamental rights. A new provision, Article Ans.19(B) The position of former President in
300-A, was added to the constitution, which the preference table of the Government of
provided that "no person shall be deprived of India comes above that of the Chief Justice of
his property save by authority of law". India.

16. Under the constitution of India who are the 20. In the Government of India Table of
ultimate Sovereign? precedence which of the following comes
(A) Indian People below the Chief Justice of India? Repeated
(B) Prime Minister of India (A) Deputy prime minister
(C) President of India (B) Former prime ministers
(D) All elected leaders of India (C) Prime minister
(D) Vice president
Ans.16(A) The constitution of India
announced the ultimate sovereign to the Indian Ans.20(B) Order of precedence of India:
People. Indian Constitution gives the liberty to 1. President
its residents to choose their representatives by 2. Vice President
the method of polling in every Five years. 3. Prime Minister
4. Governors of states (within their respective
17. "Prevention of cruelty to animals" is listed in states)
the ______ list given in the Seventh Schedule 5.Former Presidents
in the Constitution of India. 5(A) Deputy Prime Minister
(A) Union (B) State 6. Chief Justice, speaker of the Lok Sabha
(C) Global (D) Concurrent 7. Cabinet ministers of the Government of
India
Ans.17(D) Concurrent list includes matters of
local importance such as education, forests, 21. Which one of the following in not an element
economic and social planning, civil procedure of the State?
and many more such laws which helps the (A) Population (B) Land
state authority to run smoothly. (C) Army (D) Government

18. The philosophical part of the Indian Ans.21(C) The state has four essential
Constitution is derived from: elements. These are: (1) population, (2)
(A) The Irish Constitution territory, (3) government, (4) sovereignty (or
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
172

independence). The first two elements citizen on grounds only of race, religion, caste,
constitute the physical or material basis of the sex and place of birth.
state while the last two form its political and
spiritual basis. 25. Recently Supreme Court ordered that national
anthem should be played in all cinema halls
22. Which of the following grants is raised, when across the country before the screening of a
the amount authorized by Appropriation Act movie. The court's directions came on a PIL
to be expended for a particular service in the filed by.
current financial year is found to be (A) Kesavananda (B) Nutan Thakur
insufficient? (C) Shyam Narayan Chouksey
(A) Exceptional Grant (D) Archana Masse
(B) Supplementary Grant
(C) Vote of credit Ans.25(C) Whenever the Anthem is sung or
(D) Vote on account played, the audience will stand to attention.
This Court remarks came on the PIL filed by
Ans.22(B) Supplementary Grant is granted if Shyam Narayan Chouksey.
the amount authorized by the parliament
through the appropriation act to be expended 26. Who among the following is not a member of
for a particular service for the current financial any of the two houses of our country?
year is found to be insufficient for the purpose (A) Prime Minister
of that year. (B) Finance Minister
(C) President
23. The term ‘secular state’ in the context of (D) Defense minister
Indian Constitution refers to:
(A) The state is anti-religious Ans.26(C) President is indirectly elected by
(B) The state has a religion an electoral college comprising the Parliament
(C) The state is irreligious of India (both houses) and the legislative
(D) The state avoids preferential treatment for assemblies of each of India's states and
any particular religion. territories. He is not a mamber of parliament.

Ans.23(D) The word Secular has not been 27. Who selects the Social Audit Committee
defined or explained under the Constitution in under MGNREGA scheme?
1950 or in 1976 when it was made part of the (A) Chief Minister (B) Gram Sabha
preamble. A Secular State means that the one (C) Mayor (D) B.D.O.
that protects all religions equally and does not
uphold any religion as the State religion. Ans.27(B) The Social Audit Gram Sabha is a
special forum and not included in the 6
24. There is one important ground on which mandatory Gram Sabhas. The Social Audit
discrimination can be made in Article 16 that Gram Sabha is mandated under Section 17 of
does not exist under Article15.What is that the MGNREG Act.
ground?
(A) Place of birth (B) Residence 28. The Judge of the high Courts in India is
(C) Religion (D) Caste administered oath of office by.
(A) The chief Justice of the high Court
Ans.24(B) Article 16 assures equality of (B) The Governor of the State
opportunity in matters of public employment (C) The President of India
and prevents the State from any sort of (D) The chief Justice of India
discrimination on the grounds of religion,
race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, Ans.28(B) According to Article 219, every
residence or any of them. The Article 15 states person (Judge) appointed to be a Judge of the
that the state shall not discriminate against any High Court, before assuming his office, shall
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
173

take an oath or affirmation before the 3. Independent Labor Party.

Governor of that State or any person appointed Which of the statements given above is / are
by him for this work and upon him Will sign correct?
your. (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
29. Which one among the following is not a
constitutional body in India? Ans.32(C) Ambedkar founded the Depressed
(A) Comptroller and auditor general of India Classes Federation (DCF) in 1930 and the
(B) National Commissioner for religious and Independent Labor Party (ILP) in 1935. The
linguistic Minorities Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF) was an
(C) National Commission for Scheduled organization in India founded by B. R.
Castes Ambedkar in 1942 to campaign for the rights
(D) National Human Rights Commission of the Dalit community.

Ans.29(D) The National Human Rights 33. Which of the following Acts gives the power
Commission (NHRC) and State Human Rights to the Indian Legislative Council to debate on
Commission (SHRCs) are statutory, non- the budget?
constitutional bodies, established in 1993 (A) Indian council act 1861
under an act of Parliament, the Protection of (B) Indian council act 1862
Human Rights Act, 1993. (C) Indian council act 1892
(D) Indian council act, 1909
30. The post of Vice President is described in
which article of the Constitution? Ans.33(C) Indian council act 1892
(A) Article 65 (B) Article 64 1. It increased the number of additional (non-
(C) Article 63 (D) Article 62 official) members in the Central and
provincial legislative councils, but maintained
Ans.30(C) Article 63 of Indian Constitution the official majority in them.
states that "There shall be a Vice President of 2. It increased the functions of legislative
India." The Vice President acts as President in councils and gave them the power of
the absence of the president due to death, discussing the budget and addressing
resignation, impeachment, or other situations. questions to the executive.
The Vice President of India is also ex officio
Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. 34. Which of the following Country does have a
written Constitution?
31. Who is the author of a book named ‘Pakistan (A) Israel (B) UK
or the Partition of India’? (C) The U.S.A. (D) Saudi Arabia
(A) B.R. Ambedkar Ans.34(C) Some of the countries with
(B) Pattabhi Sitaramaiya uncodified constitutions include Israel, New
(C) Sarojini Naidu Zealand, Saudi Arabia, the United Kingdom,
(D) Jai Prakash Narayan and Canada. The Constitution of the United
States of America is the supreme law of the
Ans.31(A) Dr Babasaheb Ambedkar, the United States of America.
father of India’s Constitution, a lawyer, an
anti-caste leader and an intellectual, wrote 35. In the Indian Parliamentary System, 'Vote on
several books. It is the author of a book named Account' is valid for how many months
‘Pakistan or the Partition of India’. (except the year of elections)?
(A) 2 months (B) 3 months
32. Which of the following parties was established (C) 6 months (D) 9 months
Ambedkar did Bhimrao?
1. Peasants and Works Party of India Ans.35(A) This helped the executive to use
2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation almost 2 months time to get the full-budget
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
174

passed in the same financial year. So, since Ans.39(D) The Constitution of India provides
2017, Vote on Account is not usually used as Fundamental Rights under Chapter III. Article
part of the government budgeting process. 21. Protection of Life and Personal Liberty:
No person shall be deprived of his life or
36. Which one of the following articles/Schedules personal liberty except according to procedure
in the Constitution of India deals with established by law.
Autonomous District Councils?
(A) Eighth Schedule (B) Article 370 40. Which among the following article states that
(C) Sixth Schedule (D) Article 250 there should be no discrimination on grounds
of caste, religion, race, sex, place of birth?
Ans.36(C) Autonomous District Councils (A) Article 15 (B) Article 21
incorporated into Sixth Schedule article 244 (C) Article 25 (D) Article 30
(2) & Article 275(1) of the Indian
Ans.40(A) Article 15(1) of the Constitution
37. Quorum for the meeting of Rajya Sabha is- stipulates that “The State shall not
(A) One tenths of the total members of Lok discriminate against any citizen on grounds
sabha. only of religion, race, caste, sex, place of birth
(B) One tenth of the total members of the or any of them.” The underlined terms
house. highlight the fact that Article 15(1) is
(C) 50 members of Rajyasabha. susceptible to a multiplicity of interpretations.
(D) 30 members of Rajyasabha.
41. In __ government each adult citizen must have
Ans.37(B) Article 100 of the Constitution of one vote and each vote must have one value.
India stipulates that at least 10% of total (A) Democratic (B) Autocratic
number of members of the House must be (C) Monarchic (D) Authoritarian
present to constitute the quorum to constitute a
meeting of either House of Parliament. Ans.41(A) "In a democracy each adult citizen
must have one vote and each vote must have
38. Which Article provides that all the Panchayats one value" this statement means in a
seat would be reserved for scheduled casted democratic country all are treated equally with
and scheduled tribes in proportion to their same value given to each individual.
population?
(A) 243 -E (B) 243 -D 42. Who among the following gave the concept of
(C) 243 -C (D) 243 -B 'Distributive Justice'?
(A) Aristole (B) Plate
Ans.38(B) Art. 243 –D The Scheduled Tribes, (C) Hegel (D) Ritchie
in every Panchayat and the number of seats so
reserved shall bear, as nearly as may be, the Ans.42(B) Plato was the legend philosopher,
same proportion to the, total number of seats who propagated the concept of social justice.
to be filled by direct election in that Panchayat Distributive justice is related to the ownership
as the population of the Scheduled Castes in of the goods in the society. It also relates to
that Panchayat area or of the Scheduled Tribes the distribution of common advantages and
in that Panchayat area bears to the total disadvantages among all the people of society.
population of that area and such seats may be
allotted by rotation to different constituencies 43. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian
in a Panchayat. Constitution includes equal access to shops,
bathing, ghats, hotels etc.?
39. Which of the following fundamental right is (A) Right to Liberty and Personal Freedom
given in Article 21? (B) Right to Freedom of Religion
(A) Right to property (B) Right to equality (C) Right to Equality
(C) Right to speech (D) Right to life (D) Cultural and Educational Rights
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
175

Ans.43(C) Right to equality is one of the six 48. In which of the following years the
fundamental rights in the Indian constitution. fundamental duties have been added to the
It includes equality before law, prohibition of existent fundamental rights in the Constitution
discrimination on grounds of race, religion, of India?
gender, and caste or birth place. (A) 1965 (B) 1976
(C) 1949 (D) 1992
44. Controller and Auditor General of India is
appointed for how many years? Ans.48(B) The fundamental duties of citizens
(A) 2 (B) 3 were added to the constitution by the 42nd
(C) 5 (D) 6 Amendment in 1976, upon the
recommendations of the Swaran Singh
Ans.44(D) Controller and Auditor General of Committee that was constituted by the
India is appointed by the President by warrant government earlier that year.
under his hand and seal and provided with
tenure of 6 years or 65 years of age, whichever 49. With reference to the Parliamentary system of
is earlier. Government, the ministers of the government
are collectively responsible to:
45. Who is the custodian of Contingency Fund of (A) The President
India? (B) The Prime Minister
(A) The Prime Minister (B) The President (C) Supreme Court
(C) The Finance Minister (D) All of the above (D) Lok Sabha

Ans.45(B) The Contingency fund is held by Ans.49(D) The Council of Ministers is

the Finance Secretary on behalf of the collectively responsible to the House of the
President of India and it can be operated by People (Lok Sabha). Every State has a
executive action. Legislative Assembly. Certain States have an
upper House also called State Legislative
46. Who was the first Governor General of India? Council.
(A) Lord William Bentick
(B) Lord Dalhousie 50. Which part of the constitution is related to
(C) Lord Cornwallis president post?
(D) None of these (A) Part-4 (B) Part-5
(C) Part-6 (D) Part-7
Ans.46(A) Lord William Bentick was the first
governor general of British-occupied India. Ans.50(B) Part V of the Constitution (The
Bentinck served in the House of Commons for Union) under Chapter I (The Executive) lists
some years before being appointed Governor- out the qualification, election and
General of Bengal in 1828. impeachment of the President of India.

47. Which one of the following states does not 51. In which article of the Constitution is the
have the legislative council? process of amendment of the constitution
(A) Bihar (B) Maharashtra mentioned?
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Telangana (A) Article-352 (B) Article-356
(C) Article -368 (D) Article-355
Ans.47(C) Seven states have Legislative
Councils. These are Jammu and Kashmir, Ans.51(C) Amendment of the Constitution of
Bihar, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Karnataka, India. Amending the Constitution of India is
Andhra Pradesh and Telangana. Andhra the process of making changes to the nation's
Pradesh had a Legislative Council from 1958, fundamental law or supreme law. The
abolished it in 1985, and reconstituted it in procedure of amendment in the constitution is
2007.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
176

laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the 56. In whose prime ministership was the
Constitution of India. Municipality Bill passed?
(A) Morarji Desai (B) Indira Gandhi
52. President declares the financial emergency (C) Rajiv Gandhi
under which Article of the Constitution? (D) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(A) Article-352 (B) Article-356
(C) Article -360 (D) Article-361 Ans.56(C) Nagar palikas are also a form of
local self-government, entrusted with some
Ans.52(C) The president under Article 360 of duties and responsibilities, as enshrined and
the constitution has the power to declare guided upon by the Constitutional (74th
financial emergency. Amendment) Act,1992.

53. Under which article of Indian Constitution is 57. When did the Right to Information Act came
the provision of the formation of the Finance into force in India formally?
Commission? (A) 8 October 2005 (B) 12 October 2005
(A) Article-249 (B) Article-280 (C) 8 November 2005
(C) Article-368 (D) Article -370 (D) 12 November 2005

Ans.53(B) The Finance Commission was Ans.57(B) 2005 was a momentous year for
established by the President of India in 1951 right to information in India because it saw the
under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution. It enactment of a national right to information
was formed to define the financial relations law. The Central Act was passed by the Indian
between the central government of India and Parliament on 12 May 2005 and received
the individual state governments. Presidential assent on 15 June 2005. It came
into force on 12 October 2005.
54. Which Prime Minister was able to return to
power after completing a full five-year term, 58. How many members are there in the Vidhan
after Jawaharlal Nehru? Parishad of Uttar Pradesh?
(A) Indira Gandhi (A) 540 (B) 100
(B) Lal Bahadur Shastri (C) 210 (D) 404
(C) Rajiv Gandhi
(D) Manmohan Singh Ans.58(B) Uttar Pradesh is one of the six
states in India, where the state legislature is
Ans.54(D) Manmohan Singh was also the first bicameral, comprising two houses: the Vidhan
prime minister since Jawaharlal Nehru to be Sabha (Legislative Assembly) and the Vidhan
re-elected after completing a full five-year Parishad (Legislative Council). The Vidhan
term. Parishad is a permanent House, consisting of
100 members.
55. In Lal bahadur Shastri's cabinet, at what
position was Indira Gandhi first appointed? 59. Part-II of constitution of India deals with
(A) Railway which of the following?
(B) Defence (A) The Union (B) Citizenship
(C) Information and broadcasting (C) Fundamental Rights
(D) Finance (D) Directive Principles of State Policy

Ans.55(C) Indira gandhi was appointed as a Ans.59(B) Part II of the Constitution of India
member of the Rajya Sabha (upper house) and (Articles 5-11) deals with the Citizenship of
latter she became a member of Lal Bahadur India. Article 5 speaks about citizenship of
Shastri's cabinet as Minister of Information India at the commencement of the
and Broadcasting. Constitution. Article 11 gave powers to the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
177

Parliament of India to regulate the right of lower house of the Parliament of India. The
citizenship by law. members are elected every year from amongst
its members of the Lok Sabha, according to
60. The first Speaker against whom a motion of the principle of proportional representation by
no-confidence was moved in the Lok Sabha means of single transferable vote. The
was- chairperson is appointed by the Lok Sabha
(A) Balram Jhakhar speaker.
(B) G.V. Mavalankar
(C) Hukum Sing 63. What is ‘zero hour’?
(D) K.S. Hegde (A) When the proposals of the opposition are
raised.
Ans.60(B) The first speaker against whom a (B) When matters of utmost importance are
motion of non-confidence was moved in the raised.
Lok Sabha was G.V. Mavalankar. (C) Interval between the morning and
afternoon sessions.
61. Who among the following was the first Tribal (D) When a Money Bill is introduced in Lok
Speaker of Lok Sabha? sabha.
(A) G. V. Mavalankar
(B) G.M.C. Balayogi Ans.63(B) Zero Hour, the time of a sitting
(C) Manohar Joshi session of India's Lok Sabha immediately
(D) P.A. Sangama following the Question Hour. When matters of
utmost importance are raised
Ans.61(D) Purno Agitok Sangma was an
Indian politician who served as the First Tribal 64. After the general elections, the Protem
Speaker of the Lok Sabha from 1996 to 1998 Speaker is-
and Chief Minister of Meghalaya from 1988 to (A) Elected by the Lok Sabha.
1990. (B) Appointed by the President of India.
(C) Appointed by the Chief Justice of the
62. Who among the following forms the Supreme Court.
following committee of the parliament? (D) The Seniormost member of the Lok
1. Public Accounts Committee Sabha.
2. Estimates Committee
(A) Speaker of the Lok Sabha Ans.64(B) After a general election and the
(B) Vice-President of India formation of a new government, a list of
(C) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs senior Lok Sabha members prepared by the
(D) President of India Legislative Section is submitted to the
Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, who selects
Ans.62(A) The Public Accounts Committee a protem speaker. The appointment has to be
consists of not more than twenty-two approved by the President.
members, fifteen elected by Lok Sabha, the
lower house of the Parliament, and not more 65. Which Article empowers the President to
than seven members of Rajya Sabha, the upper impose Financial Emergency?
house of the Parliament. The members are (A) Article 356 (B) Article 364
elected every year from amongst its members (C) Article 352 (D) Article 360
of respective houses according to the principle
of proportional representation by means of Ans.65(D) Article 360 empowers the
single transferable vote. The chairperson is president to impose financial emergency in the
appointed by the Lok Sabha speaker. The term country. If the president thinks that there is an
of office of the members is one year. economic situation with the financial stability
The Estimates committee consists of thirty or the credit of India is threatened, he can
members, all elected from Lok Sabha, the declare a financial emergency. Financial
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
178

emergency must be approved by the Ans.69(B) The Directive Principles of State

Parliament within two months. Policy, enshrined in Part IV of the Indian
Constitution reflects that India is a welfare
66. Which of the following is not the fundamental state. Seats are reserved for scheduled castes
duty under the Indian Constitution? and scheduled tribes in government jobs,
(A) Voting in Lok Sabha elections. educational institutions, Lok Sabha and
(B) Developing a scientific trend. Vidhan Sabha.
(C) Public property protection.
(D)To remain loyal to the Constitution and 70. The State Public Service Commission is
respect its ideals. appointed by whom?
(A) President.
Ans.66(A) Voting in Lok Sabha elections is (B) Governor.
not the fundamental duty under the Indian (C) Chairman of Public Service Commission.
Constitution (D) Chairman of the state Public Service
Commission.
67. Article 16 of Constitution provides every
citizen of India, Right to equality of Ans.70(B) A State Public Service
opportunity in the matter of _______? Commission (SPSC) comprises of a chairman
(A) Private employment and other members appointed by the governor
(B)Public employment of the state. One half of the appointed
(C) Education members of the commission should have held
(D) Matters related to free education office for at least ten years either under the
government of India or under the government
Ans.67(B) Article 16 assures equality of of a state.
opportunity in matters of public employment
and prevents the State from any sort of 71. According to which article, Governor can
discrimination on the grounds of religion, nominate only one member of the Anglo-
race, caste, sex, descent, place of birth, Indian community?
residence or any of them. (A) Article 330 (B) Article 331
(C) Article 332 (D) Article 333
68. In the constitution of India, which of the
following has been mentioned the Promotion Ans.71(D) Article 333 Governor can nominate
of international peace and security? only one member of the Anglo-Indian
(A) Fundamental Rights community.
(B) Policy Directive Principles of State Nothing contained in sub-section (1) shall
(C) Fundamental duty affect any representation of the Anglo-Indian
(D) None of the above community in the Legislative Assembly of any
State existing at the commencement of this
Ans.68(B) Article 51 ensure that the State Act until the dissolution of that Assembly.
shall strive for the promotion and maintenance
of international peace and security, just and 72. One of the important attributes of
honourable relations between nations, respect Parliamentary form of government is:
for international law and treaty obligations, as (A) Fixed tenure for the executive.
well as settlement of international disputes by (B) Executive is answerable to the people.
arbitration. (C) Executive is separate from the legislative.
(D) Collective responsibility of Council of
69. Where is the idea of a welfare state given in Ministers to the Parliament.
the constitution of India?
(A) Fundamental Rights Ans.72(D) Collective responsibility of
(B) Policy Directive Principles of State Council of Ministers to the Parliament One of
(C) Fundamental duty the important attributes of Parliamentary form
(D) None of the above of government is.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
179

73. Who of the following is the governor of 77. The Balwant Rai Mehta Committee was
Maharashtra? associated with-
(A) Shiv Shankar Menon (A) Industrial Policy
(B) K. Sankaranarayanan (B) Banking Reforms
(C) B.K. Sinha (C) Panchayati Raj
(D) Bhagat Singh Koshyari (D) Centre-State relations

Ans.73(D) Bhagat Singh Koshyari is a Ans.77(C) The Balwant Rai Mehta

member of the Bharatiya Janata Party from Committee was a committee originally
Uttarakhand serving as the Governor of appointed by the Government of India in
Maharashtra. Koshyari served as National January 16, 1957 to examine the working of
Vice President of BJP and party's 1st State the Community Development Programme
president for Uttarakhand (1952, Oct 2nd) and the National Extension
Service (1953 Oct 2nd) and to suggest
74. From which fund can the unanticipated measures for their better working. Main
expenditure be met without the prior approval Recommendations of the Balwantrai Mehta.
of the Parliament? was Panchayati Raj Institutions.
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
(B) Contingency Fund of India 78. Who among the following was the first Indian
(C) Vote-on-Account to get selected in ICS (Indian Civil Services)?
(D) From the Treasury (A) Ravindra nath Tagore
(B) SatyendraNath Tagore
Ans.74(B) Unexpected expenditure can be (C) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
met from India's Contingency Fund without (D) Surendranath Banerjee
prior approval of Parliament
Ans.78(B) Satyendranath Tagore was selected
75. A person of full age and capacity who has for the Indian Civil Service in June, 1863. He
been registered as an overseas citizen of India completed his probationary training and
for five years, and residing in India for one returned to India in November 1864.
year before making an application for Indian
Citizenship, shall acquire Indian Citizenship 79. Prevention of cruelty to animals" is listed in
by- the ______ list given in the Seventh Schedule
(A) Registration (B) Naturalization in the Constitution of India.
(C) Birth (D) None of the above (A) Union (B) State
(C) Global (D) Concurrent
Ans.75(A) (Section 5(1)) Indian Citizenship
by registration can be acquired (not illegal Ans.79(D) Prevention of cruelty to animals" is
migrant) listed in the Concurrent list given in the
Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of India.
76. Protection of Monuments and places and
objects of National Importance deals in which 80. ________ makes laws on matters included in
article of constitution? Union List and Concurrent List.
(A) 48 (B) 48 (A) Parliament
(C) 49 (D) 50 (B) Ministry of Defense
(C) Prime Minister's Office
Ans.76(C) article 49 of the constitution casts (D) High court of India
an obligation on the state to protect every
monument or place of object of artistic or Ans.80(A) Parliament makes laws on matters
historic interest declared by or under law made included in Union List and Concurrent List.
by parliament to be of national importance.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
180

81. "Cultivation, manufacture, and sale for export, 85. Which of the following Constitutional
of opium" is listed in the _________ list given Amendment acts was said to be a ‘Mini
in the Seventh Schedule in the Constitution of Constitution’?
India. (A) 42nd (B) 44th
(A) Union (B) State (C) 46th (D) 50th
(C) Globa (D) Concurrent
Ans.85(A) 42nd amendment, 1976: It was
Ans.81(B) "Cultivation, manufacture, and sale called as Mini constitution of India and was
for export, of opium" is listed in the State list brought during national emergency.
given in the Seventh Schedule in the
Constitution of India 86. The authorization for the withdrawal of funds
from the consolidated fund of India must
82. There are total _________ parliamentary seats come from?
(Lok Sabha constituency) in West Bengal. (A) President of India
(A) 42 (B) 2 (B) Parliament of India
(C) 14 (D) 40 (C) Prime minister of India
(D) Union finance minister
Ans.82(A) The Lok Sabha, the lower house of
the Parliament of India, is made up of Ans.86(B) The authorization for the
Members of Parliament (MPs). Each MP, withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated
represents a single geographic constituency. Fund of India must come from The Parliament
There are currently 543 constituencies. There of India.
are total 42 parliamentary seats (Lok Sabha
constituency) in West Bengal. 87. The 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act
amended the Preamble for the first time in
83. Whose recommendation is mandatory to 1976 and added some terms to it. Select the
impeach the President of India from his office correct sequence of the terms introduced in
before the completion of his/her term? the Preamble by this Amendment:
(A) The Governor of states (A) Secular, Socialist and Integrity
(B) The Speaker of the Rajya Sabha (B) Integrity, Socialist and Secular
(C) The Chief Justice of India (C) Socialist, Secular and Integrity
(D) The two houses of the parliament (D) Secular, Integrity and Socialist

Ans.83(D) The president may also be removed Ans.87(C) In 1976, the Preamble was
before the expiry of the term through amended (only once till date) by the 42nd
impeachment for violating the Constitution of Constitutional Amendment Act. Three new
India by the Parliament of India. The process terms, Socialist, Secular, and Integrity were
may start in either of the two houses of the added to the Preamble. The Supreme Court
parliament. held this amendment valid.

84. International Day of Democracy is celebrated 88. The 79th Amendment of the Indian
on? Constitution is related to:
(A) 12 September (B) 13 September (A) Centre-State relations.
(C) 14 September (D) 15 September (B) Establishment of two political parties.
(C) Fundamental Rights.
Ans.84(D) The United Nations' (UN) (D) Reservation of SCs and STs in the Lok
International Day of Democracy is annually Sabha and State Assemblies.
held on September 15 to raise public
awareness about democracy. Various activities Ans.88(D) Seventy-ninth Amendment of the
and events are held around the world to Constitution of India. Extended the period of
promote democracy on this date reservation of seats for the Scheduled Castes
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and Scheduled Tribes and Anglo-Indians in (A) Uniform civil code for the citizens.
the Lok Sabha and the State Legislative (B) Organization of village panchayats.
Assemblies till 2010 (C) Parliament has powers to enact laws on
citizenship.
89. According to the Constitution of the National (D) Protection against arrest and detention in
Human Rights Commission of India, how certain cases.
many full-time Members does the
Commission consist of? Ans.92(C) It shall not detract from the power
(A) Four (B) Eleven of Parliament to make any provision with
(C) Nine (D) Seven respect to the acquisition and termination of
citizenship and all other matters relating to
Ans.89(A) The National Human Rights citizenship.
Commission (NHRC) is consisting of a
chairperson and seven other members. Out of 93. In which year did Ranchi city become the
the seven members, three are ex-officio capital of the state of Jharkhand?
members and four others are appointed by the (A) 2002 (B) 1999
President on the recommendation of a (C) 2000 (D) 2001
Selection Committee.
Ans.93(C) Ranchi, in its modern form, is the
90. Who among the following is collectively capital city of the Indian state of Jharkhand.
responsible to the Lok Sabha and is obliged to The city has a moderate climate and was the
resign on losing the confidence of the Lok summer capital of Bihar until Jharkhand was
Sabha? separated in the year 2000.
(A) Chief Ministers of different states
(B) Council of Ministers 94. The Prime Minister of India is__________.
(C) Cabinet Ministers (A) Elected by the Lok Sabha.
(D) MP's of Rajya Sabha (B) Elected by the Parliament.
(C) Appointed by the President.
Ans.90(B) Articles 74 & 75 of the constitution (D) Nominated by the party who has the
of India deal with the Council of Ministers. majority in Lok Sabha.
Council of Ministers is collectively
responsible to “Lok Sabha”. This means that if Ans.94(C) The Prime Minister is appointed by
the Ministry loses the confidence of the “Lok the President, who also appoints other
Sabha”, The entire ministry is obliged to ministers on the advice of Prime Minister. The
resign. Council is collectively responsible to the Lok
Sabha.
91. In how many years, may a person be legally
declared dead in absentia or legal presumption 95. Who has been sworn in as the Chief Minister
of death despite the absence of direct proof of of Madhya Pradesh on the 17th of December
the person's death? 2018?
(A) 5 years (B) 7 years (A) Kamal Nat
(C) 4 years (D) 6 years (B) Bhupesh Baghel
(C) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
Ans.91(B) People who disappear are typically (D) Digvijaya Singh
called missing, or sometimes absent. Several
criteria are evaluated to determine whether a Ans.95(A) KamalNath was elected president
person may be declared legally dead: of the Madhya Pradesh Congress Committee
commonly after seven years. in May 2018, leading the party in the
November–December 2018 assembly election.
92. Which of the following is the subject matter of He assumed the office of Chief Minister on 17
Article 11 of the Indian Constitution? December 2018.
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182

96. Under Section 66 of the Information responsibility with respect to law and order of
Technology Act 2000, what is the penalty for the State?
"computer related offences" (that is, (A) Assam (B) Manipur
penetrating a computer system by exploiting (C) Nagaland (D) Andhra Pradesh
security vulnerability)?
(A) Imprisonment up to one year or/and fine Ans.99(C) Article 371 (A) is a special
up to Rs.300,000. provision granted to the state of Nagaland as a
(B) Imprisonment up to three years or/and fine partial fulfilment of the 1960 agreement that
up to Rs.500,000. later created the State in 1963. In this regard
(C) Imprisonment up to one year or/and fine not only the customary law, social practice
up to Rs.100,000. and belief of the people of Nagaland but also
(D) Imprisonment up to six months or/and the resources of the state is verdantly remain
fine up to Rs.300,000. safeguarded from the intervention of the union
government and its various policies unless the
Ans.96(B) If any person, dishonestly, or State Assembly so decides by resolution.
fraudulently, does any act referred to in
section 43, he shall be punishable with 100. The post of Vice President is described in
imprisonment for a term which may extend to which article of the Constitution?
two three years or with fine which may extend (A) Article 65 (B) Article 64
to five lakh rupees or with both. (C) Article 63 (D) Article 62

97. Which among the following article states that Ans.100(C) Article 63 of Indian Constitution
there should be no discrimination on grounds states that "There shall be a Vice President of
of caste, religion, race, sex, place of birth? India." The Vice President acts as President in
(A) Article 15 (B) Article 21 the absence of the president due to death,
(C) Article 25 (D) Article 30 resignation, impeachment, or other situations

Ans.97(A) The Article 15 states that the state 101. In which of the following Union Territories
shall not discriminate against any citizen on there are administrators, where there is no
grounds only of race, religion, caste, sex and post of Lieutenant Governor?
place of birth (A) Delhi (B) Puducherry
(C) Lakshadweep
98. Who among the following is constitutionally (D) Andaman Nicobar
empowered to alter Scheduled Area?
(A) Supreme Court of India Ans.101(C) There are 8 Union Territories in
(B) High Court of State India, out of which 3 Union Territories have
(C) Prime Minister of India the post of Deputy Governor. The following 3
(D) President of India Union Territories are Andaman and Nicobar
Islands, Delhi and Puducherry. It is 5 union
Ans.98(D) The constitution empowers the territories. Chandigarh, Daman and Diu /
President to declare any areas as scheduled Dadra and Nagar Haveli, Lakshdeep, Jammu
area. The president can increase or decrease its and Kashmir, Ladakh.
area or alter its boundaries. He can cancel such
designation after consultation with the 102. 74th Amendment Act (1992) is related to
governor or can make fresh orders redefining _________.
the schedule areas. (A) Function of the Kaveri water Authority
(B) The function of the state Finance
99. With respect of Article 371A of the commission.
constitution of India, the Governor of which (C) Structure of the NITI aayog of India
one of the following states has special (D) Nagarpalika
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Ans.102(D) Constitution (Seventy Forth 106. Indian Constitution contains how many Parts?
Amendment) Act, 1992 has introduced a new (A) Twelve Parts
Part IXA in the Constitution, which deals with (B) Twenty-two Parts
Municipalities in an article 243 P to 243 ZG. (C) Eight Parts
This amendment, also known as Nagarpalika (D) Twenty-Four Parts
Act, came into force on 1st June 1993.
Ans.106(B) The world's longest written
103. By which among the following amendments constitution had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8
of the constitution, the territories of Goa, schedules at the time of commencement. Now
Daman and Diu were incorporated in the the Constitution of India has 4 articles in 25
Indian constitution? parts and 12 schedules.
(A) 10th Constitution Amendment Act, 1961
(B) 12th Constitution Amendment Act, 1962 107. Money bill can be introduced first in which
(C) 14th Constitution Amendment Act, 1962 house of Parliament?
(D) All of the above (A) Only in Lok Sabha
(B) Only in Rajya Sabha
Ans.103(B) The Twelfth Amendment of the (C) Both in Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
Constitution of India, officially known as The (D) Either in Lok Sabha or in Rajya Sabha
Constitution (Twelfth Amendment) Act, 1962,
incorporated Goa, Daman and Diu as the Ans.107(A) Money Bills can be introduced
eighth Union territory of India, by amending only in Lok Sabha Money bills passed by the
the First Schedule to the Constitution. Lok Sabha are sent to the Rajya Sabha

104. The Partition of Bengal made by Lord Curzon 108. By which constitution amendment the elected
in 1905 lasted until members of Delhi and Pondicherry
(A) The Second World War Legislatures were included in the President's
(B) King George V abrogated Curzon's Act at Electoral College?
the Royal Durbar in Delhi in 1911 (A) 42nd Constitution Amendments Act,
(C) Gandhiji launched his Quit India 1976.
Movement (B) 70th Constitution Amendments Act, 1992.
(D) the Partition of India in 1947 (C) 86th Constitution Amendment Act, 2002.
(D) 124th Constitution Amendments Act,
Ans.104(B) The Partition of Bengal made by 2019.
Lord Curzon in 1905 lasted until King George
V abrogated Curzon's Act at the Royal Darbar Ans.108(B) The Constitution (Seventeenth
in Delhi in 1911. Amendment) Act, 1992. Explanation. -In this
article and in article 55, "State" includes the
105. Who is the second-highest rank for a law National Capital Territory of Delhi and the
officer In India? Union territory of Pondicherry.
(A) Solicitor General
(B) Attorney General 109. Which among the following is also known as
(C) Advocate General chief law officer of Government of India?
(D) Law Minister (A) Chief Justice of India
(B) Comptroller and Auditor General
Ans.105(A) The Solicitor General of India is (C) Attorney General of India
subordinate to the Attorney General for India. (D) Judge of Supreme Court of India
He/She is the second law officer of the
country, assists the Attorney General, and is Ans.109(C) The Attorney General of India is
himself/herself assisted by Additional the highest law officer of the country. He is
Solicitors General for India. Currently, the responsible for assisting the government in all
Solicitor General of India is Tushar Mehta. its legal matters.
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110. Lakshadweep's High Court is located in which Principles of State Policy lays down that the
state of India? State shall take steps to organise village
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala panchayats and endow them with such powers
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Karnataka and authority as may be necessary to enable
them to function as units of self-government.
Ans.110(B) The High Court of Kerala is the
high court in the Indian state of Kerala and in 115. President of India can dissolve the Lok Sabha
the Union Territory of Lakshadweep. It is under which Article of the Constitution?
located in Kochi. (A) Article-85 (B) Article-95
(C) Article-356 (D) Article-365
111. Under the direct rule of the British
Government, the first law for the rule of India Ans.115(A) Article 85(2)(b) empowers the
was. President to dissolve the Lok Sabha before the
(A) Government of India Act, 1935 expiry of its term.
(B) Government of India Act, 1952
(C) Government of India Act, 1892 116. Which of the following is associated with
(D) Government of India Act, 1915 Article 356?
(A) Financial Emergency
Ans.111(D) (B) National emergency
(C) President's rule
112. Under which article of the Constitution, can (D) Constitution amendment
each state introduce the spread and instruction
of the mother tongue in primary education? Ans.116(C) In India, president's rule is the
(A) Article-349 (B) Article -350 suspension of state government and imposition
(C) Article -350A (D) Article-351 of direct central government rule in a state.
Under Article 356 of the Constitution of India,
Ans.112(C) Article 350 A: It shall he in the event that a state.
endeavour of every state and every local
authority to provide adequate facilities for 117. Under which article is the work of the Union
instruction in the mother-tongue at the primary Public Service Commission describe?
stage of education to children belonging to (A) Article 320 (B) Article 322
linguistic minority groups.” (C) Article 324 (D) Article 325
Ans.117(A) Functions As per Art. 320, it shall
113. In which article of the Constitution, the be the duty of the Union Public Service
instructions for the development of Hindi Commissions to conduct examinations for
language have been given? appointments to the services of the Union. It
(A) Article 330 (B) Article -336 shall also assist two or more States, if
(C) Article-343(1) (D) Article-351 requested so, in framing and operating
schemes of joint recruitment for any services.
Ans.113(C) Article 343(1) of the Constitution
provides that Hindi in Devanagari script shall 118. On the basis of which article of the
be the Official Language of the Union. constitution does the President proclaim the
financial emergency?
114. In which article of Indian Constitution, the (A) Article-352 (B) Article-356
state government directs the organization of (C) Article -360 (D) Article-355
Gram Panchayat?
(A) Article-32 (B) Article-40 Ans.118(C) The president under Article 360
(C) Article -48 (D) Article -78 of the constitution has the power to declare
financial emergency if he is satisfied that the
Ans.114(B) Article 40 of the Constitution financial stability or the credit of India or any
which enshrines one of the Directive part of its territory is threatened.
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185

119. Constitution of India was adopted by ➢ VI - The State Governments

constituent assembly on? ➢ VII - (Deleted by 7th Amendment)
(A) 25 January, 1950 ➢ VIII- The Union Territories
(B) 25 October, 1949 ➢ IX- The Panchayats
(C) 26 November, 1950 ➢ IX A- The Municipalities
(D) 26 November, 1949 ➢ IX B- The Co-operative Societies
➢ X - The Scheduled and Tribal areas
Ans.119(D) The Republic is governed in ➢ XI - Relations between the Union and
terms of the Constitution of India which was States
adopted by the Constituent Assembly on 26th ➢ XII - Finance, Property, Contracts, and
November, 1949 and came into force on 26th Suits
January, 1950. ➢ XIII- Trade, Commerce, and Intercourse
within the territory of India
120. Under which article of the Constitution, Hindi ➢ XIV - Services under the Union and States
has been given the status of official language? ➢ XIV A- Tribunals
(A) Article 243 (B) Article 345 ➢ XV - Elections
(C) Article 346 (D) Article 348 ➢ XVI - Special provisions relating to
certain classes
Ans.120(C) Article 346 of the Indian ➢ XVII - Official language
Constitution recognizes Hindi in Devanagari ➢ XVIII - Emergency provisions
script as the official language of central ➢ XIX - Miscellaneous
government India. ➢ XX - Amendment of the Constitution
➢ XXI - Temporary, transitional and Special
121. In which article of Indian Constitution there is provisions
a specific provision related to different states? ➢ XXII - Short Title and Commencement
(A) Article-369 (B) Article -370
(C) Article -371 (D) Article -372 123. In which Amendment act Sindhi language was
included as 15th regional language in the
Ans.121(C) Most of the states for which Eight Schedule?
special provisions have been made under (A) 1st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956
Article 371 are of and special status is focused (B) 7th Constitutional Amendment Act, 1956
on providing protection to their democratic (C) 15th Constitutional Amendment Act,
culture. 1963
(D) 21st Constitutional Amendment Act, 1967
122. How many parts were there in the original
Indian constitution? Ans.123(D) The 21th Amendment of the
(A) 21 (B) 22 Constitution of India, officially known as The
(C) 23 (D) 24 Constitution (21th Amendment) Act, 1967,
amended the Eighth Schedule to the
Ans.122(B) The Indian constitution is the Constitution so as to include Sindhi as one of
world's longest for a sovereign nation. At its the languages, thereby raising the total number
enactment, it had 395 articles in 22 parts and 8 of languages listed in the schedule to fifteen.
schedules.
22 Parts of Indian Constitution are listed 124. In which part did the provision of the
below: formation of Gram Panchayat?
➢ I.- The Union and States, their borders (A) Part -4 (B) Part -3
➢ II - Citizenship (C) Part -2 (D) Part -5
➢ III - Fundamental Rights
➢ IV- Directive Principles of State policy Ans.124(A) These provisions, contained in
➢ IV (A) - Fundamental duties. Part IV (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of
➢ V - The Union Government India, are not enforceable by any court, but the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
186

principles laid down therein are considered in as previously Nagar Palikas were constituted
the governance of the country. Parts 3 and 4 of in urban centers with populations.
the Indian constitution together are called the
soul and consciousness of the constitution. 128. In India, all the union Minister are appointed
These elements contain the real elements of by __________.
the constitution and the philosophy of social (A) The home Minister (B) The president
justice. Article 40 of the Constitution which (C) Governor
enshrines one of the Directive Principles of (D) The Prime Minister
State Policy lays down that the State shall take
steps to organise village panchayats and Ans.128(B) The Prime Minister is appointed
endow them with such powers and authority as by the President, who also appoints other
may be necessary to enable them to function ministers on the advice of Prime Minister. The
as units of self-government. Council is collectively responsible to the Lok
Sabha.
125. What is the main function of the Nagar
Panchayat? 129. What is the full form of IAS?
(A) Public road (A) Indian Airport Safety
(B) Cleaning of places and drains (B) Indian Administrative Service
(C) Illumination of lights (C) Intelligence Association for safety
(D) All of the above (D) None of these

Ans.125(D) Services and facilities required Ans.129(B) The Indian Administrative

for the urban area. cleanliness program. Service is the top and most prestigious
Providing street lighting and street in wards administrative civil service of Government of
and main streets of the city. India.

126. If a Gram Panchayat is dissolved or 130. In India, a full-term member of Rajya Sabha is
disintegrated, then within what period of time elected for how many years?
the next elections are done? (A) 4 (B) 5
(A) One year (B) 9 months (C) 6 (D) None of these
(C) 6 months (D) 3 months
Ans.130(C) Rajya Sabha (Council of States)
Ans.126(C) In case of dissolution of a or the upper house is a permanent body not
panchayat, a fresh election was to be subject to dissolution. One third of the
completed within a period of six months from members retire every second year, and are
the date of dissolution and the newly elected replaced by newly elected members. Each
members should hold office only for the member is elected for a term of six years.
remaining part of the term and not for the full
term of five years. 131. Election Commissioner of India is related to
which part of the constitution?
127. At how many populations constitute the (A) Part XV (B) Part XVII
Municipality Council? (C) Part XIV (D) Part XVI
(A) 100 (B) 10000
(C) 50000 (D) 100000 Ans.131(A) Part XV of the Constitution of
India consists of Articles on Elections. Article
Ans.127(D) In India, a municipal council, 324 of the Constitution provides that the
municipality, Nagar Palika, Nagar Palika power of superintendence, direction and
Parishad is an urban local body that control of elections to parliament, state
administers a city of population 100,000 or legislatures, the office of president of India
more. However, there are exceptions to that, and the office of vice-president of India shall
be vested in the election commission.
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132. According to Article 157, which of the ➢ (4) It gave Parliament the authority to
following qualifications is not mandatory in a enact laws to deal with anti-national
person to be appointed to the post of activities and established supremacy.
Governor? ➢ The term of the Lok Sabha and the Vidhan
(A) He has completed the age of 35 years. Sabhas was reduced from five to six years.
(B) He should not hold a post of profit in the ➢ It has been determined that the validity of
State Government or Central Government or any central law shall be examined by the
any public undertaking under the control of Supreme Court and the High Court on the
these States. validity of the state law. Also, it was
(C) He should be eligible to be elected a determined that no more than five judges
member of the State Legislative Assembly. shall be asked on the question of any
(D) He is eligible to be elected a member of constitutional validity. Decision should be
the State Legislative Council. given by a third majority given by the
bench and if the number of judges is up to
Ans.132(D) According to Article 157, the five, then the decision should be
following qualifications are mandatory for a unanimous.
person to be appointed as Governor. ➢ By this, the subjects of forest wealth,
1. He should be a citizen of India. education, population-control etc. were
2. He has completed the age of 35 years. reduced from the state list to the
3. He should not hold a post of profit in the concurrent list.
State Government or Central Government or ➢ It was determined that the President would
any public undertaking under the control of act according to the advice of the Council
these States. of Ministers and its head, the Prime
4. He should be eligible to be elected a Minister.
member of the State Legislative Assembly.
5. He has not been declared insane or 134. In the State Legislative Assembly, with which
insolvent. the money bill is introduced?
(A) Speaker of the Assembly
133. By which constitutional amendment, the (B) Governor
words "secular" and "socialist" were added to (C) State finance minister
the preamble and the words "and integrity" (D) Chief Minister of the state
were added to the unity of the state?
(A) 40th (B) 44th Ans.134(B) A money bill is introduced first
(C) 42th (D) 52th only in the Vidhan Sabha. The money bill
includes authorisation of the expenditure to be
Ans.133(C) 42nd Amendment (1976): It incurred by the government, imposition or
brought about major changes in the abolition of taxes, borrowing, etc. The bill is
constitution, the main of which were the introduced by a Minister on the
following. recommendations of the Governor.
➢ The words 'socialist', 'secular' and 'unity
and integrity' were added to the Preamble 135. Can the Constitution Amendment Bill be
of the Constitution. introduced in any state legislature?
➢ All the Directive Principles were ensured (A) Yes
supremacy over fundamental rights. (B) No
➢ Under this, ten fundamental duties were (C) Only when related to the state
added to the Constitution under Article 51 (D) With the permission of the President
(a), (Part-iva).
➢ The number of seats of all the Legislative Ans.135(B) A constitution amendment bill
Assemblies and Lok Sabha were fixed till can be introduced in any house of the
the end of this century. parliament. A bill for the purpose of
amendment of constitution can not be
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introduced in any state legislature. The 140. Who was the first chairperson of the National
Ordinance making power of the President can Commission for Women?
NOT be used to amend the Constitution. (A) Jayanti Patnaik (B) Mamta Sharma
(C) Rekha Sharma (D) Girija Vyas
136. What is the tenure of members of the
Legislative Council? Ans.140(A) It was established in 31 January
(A) 3 years (B) 4 years 1992 under the provisions of the Indian
(C) 5 year (D) 6 years Constitution, as defined in the 1990 National
Commission for Women Act. The first head of
Ans.136(D) Each Member of the State the commission was Jayanti Patnaik. As of 30
Legislative Council (MLC) serves for a six- November 2018, Rekha Sharma is the
year term, with terms staggered so that the chairperson.
terms of one third of a State Legislative
Council's membership expire every two years. 141. The salary of the Judge of High Court are
This arrangement parallels that for the Rajya charged from which among the following:
Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament of (A) Consolidated Fund of India
India. (B) Consolidated Fund of the State
(C) Contingency Fund of India
137. What is tenure of the members of the (D) All of the above
municipal Corporation
(A) Two years (B) Three year Ans.141(A) The salaries and allowances of the
(C) Four years (D) Five years judges of a high court are charged on the
consolidated fund of the state. The pension of
Ans.137(D) The members of the Nagar palika a high court judge is charged on the
are elected representatives for a term of five consolidated fund of India and not the state.
years. The town is divided into wards
according to its population, and 142. Which of the following is the right to appoint
representatives are elected from each ward. and discharged from office to Chief Election
Commissioner?
138. Who is the highest authority of the district? (A) Prime minister (B) President
(A) Chief Minister (B) Governor (C) Parliament (D) Vice President
(C) Mayor
(D) District magistrate Ans.142(C) Chief Election Commissioner of
India can be removed from his office by the
Ans.138(D) The District Magistrate or the Parliament with a two-thirds majority in both
Collector is the chief executive of a district. the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha on the
He is responsible for running the grounds of proved misbehavior or incapacity.
administration of the district smoothly and
properly. 143. Provision of financial Emergency in India
describe in which part of constitution?
139. When was the Electronic Voting Machine first (A) Part -18 (B) Part -17
introduced in elections (on experimental (C) Part -15 (D) Part -16
basis)?
(A) 1982 (B) 1991-92 Ans.143(A) Emergency provisions have been
(C) 1997-98 (D) 2002-03 taken from the Government of India Act-1935.
Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution lays
Ans.139(A) The Electronic Voting Machines down the provisions relating to emergency
(EVMs) were used for the first time in part of from Articles 352 to 360. Emergency
Parur Assembly Constituency in Kerala in provisions in the Indian Constitution are
1982, on experimental basis. Later, the divided into three parts - National Emergency
extensive use of EVMs started in 1998. (Article-352), Failure of Constitutional
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
189

Mechanism in States / President's Rule Ans.147(C) The first meeting of the

(Article-356) and Financial Emergency Constituent Assembly of India took place in
(Article-360). Constitutional Hall, New Delhi, on 9th
December 1946.
144. All bills passed by the parliament can became
laws only after receiving the assent of the 148. Which of the following word was added into
president according to which article. the Preamble of the Constitution by the 42nd
(A) Article -112 (B) Article -111 Amendment Act, 1976?
(C) Article -117 (D) Article -118 (A) Socialist (B) Liberty
(C) Equality (D) Fraternity
Ans.144(B) Article 111 in India's Constitution Ans.148(C) The 42nd Amendment amended
provides for assent generally: “When a Bill Preamble and changed the description of India
has been passed by the Houses of Parliament, from "sovereign democratic republic" to a
it shall be presented to the President, and the "sovereign, socialist secular democratic
President shall declare either that he assents to republic", and also changed the words "unity
the Bill, or that he withholds assent of the nation" to "unity and integrity of the
therefrom”. nation".

145. Who elected the Chairman of the Drafting 149. An idea for a Constituent Assembly was
Committee of the Constituent Assembly? proposed in 1934 by whom?
(A) C. Rajagopalachari (A) B. N. Rau (B) M. N. Roy
(B) Rajendra Prashad (C) B. R. Ambedkar
(C) B. R. Ambedkar (D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha
(D) Jawahar lal Neharu
Ans.149(B) An idea for a Constituent
Ans.145(C) The Drafting Committee had Assembly was proposed in 1934 by M. N.
seven members: Alladi Krishnaswami Ayyar, Roy, a pioneer of the Communist movement
N. Gopalaswami, B.R. Ambedkar, K.M in India and an advocate of radical democracy.
Munshi, Mohammad Saadulla, B.L. Mitter and
D.P. Khaitan. At its first meeting on 30th 150. What are the qualifications of President?
August 1947, the Drafting Committee elected (A) His age should be a minimum of 35 years
B.R Ambedkar as its Chairman. (B) He should qualify the conditions to be
elected as a member of the Lok Sabha
146. Who was appointed constitutional adviser to (C) He should be an Indian Citizen
the Constituent assembly? (D) All of these
(A) B. N. Rau (B) M. N. Roy
(C) B. R. Ambedkar Ans.150(D) The President must be a citizen of
(D) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha India, not less than 35 years of age, and
qualified for election as member of the Lok
Ans.146(A) Jurist B. N. Rau was appointed Sabha.
constitutional adviser to the assembly. Rau
prepared the original draft of the constitution, 151. Who was the shortest working president who
and was later appointed a judge in the died during his tenure?
Permanent Court of International Justice in (A) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
The Hague. (B) Zakir Hussain
(C) Varahagiri Venkata Giri
147. When was the first meeting of Constituent (D) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
Assembly held?
(A) 13 Dec 1946 (B) 11 Dec 1946 Ans.151(B) Zakir Husain was vice-chancellor
(C) 9 Dec 1946 (D) 26 Jan 1946 of the Aligarh Muslim University and a
recipient of Padma Vibhushan and Bharat
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
190

Ratna. He died during his tenure. He was also India by the Parliament of India. The process
the shortest-serving President. He was also the may start in either of the two houses of the
first Muslim President. parliament.

152. Which of these presidents has also served as 156. Which one of the following was elected
India's ambassador to Thailand, Turkey and President of India unopposed?
China? (A) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(A) R. Venkataraman (B) K. R. Narayanan (B) Neelam Sanjiva Reddy
(C) Varahagiri Venkata Giri (C) Giani Zail Singh
(D) A. P. J. Abdul Kalam (D) Shankar Dayal Sharma
Ans.152(B) Shri Narayanan served as India's Ans.156(B) Elected to Parliament in 1977 as a
Ambassador to Thailand (1967-69), Turkey candidate of the Janata Party, Reddy was
(1973-75), the People's Republic of China unanimously elected Speaker of the Sixth Lok
(1976-78). He also served as Secretary, Sabha and three months later was elected
Ministry of External Affairs (1976). unopposed as President of India. As president,
Reddy worked with Prime Ministers Morarji
153. Who was the President of the “Flag Desai, Charan Singh and Indira Gandhi.
Committee” and "Staff and Finance
Committee"? 157. The idea of a single citizenship is borrowed
(A) A.K. Ayyar (B) Rajendra Prasad from which country's constitution?
(C) J.L. Nehru (D) Sardar Patel (A) USA (B) Ireland
(C) France (D) Britain
Ans.153(B) Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was
the first chairman (temporary) of Constituent Ans.157(D) The idea of a single citizenship is
Assembly. Later Dr. Rajendra Prasad was borrowed from Britain constitution.
elected as the president and Its vice-president
was Harendra Coomar Mookerjee, a Christian 158. Who described the Directive Principles of
from Bengal and former vice-chancellor of State Policy (DPSP)as the ‘Novel Feature of
Calcutta University. the Indian Constitution’?
(A) Mahatma Gandhi
154. Which one of the following Act exercised the (B) Jawahar Lal Nehru
most profound influence on the Indian (C) B R Ambedkar
Constitution? (D) Jayaprakash Narayan
(A) The GoI Act, 1935
(B) The GoI Act, 1919 Ans.158(C) Directive Principles of State
(C) The GoI Act, 1909 Policy (DPSP) are mentioned in the Part 4 of
(D) The GoI Act, 1858 the Indian constitution from article 36 to 51.
DPSPs are taken from the Constitution of the
Ans.154(A) The Government of India Ireland. Dr. B R Ambedkar described these
Act,1935, exercised the most profound principles as 'novel features' of the
influence in framing the Indian Constitution. Constitution.

155. Impeachment proceedings against the 159. Which Article Empower for the separation of
President of India can be initiated ________. Judiciary from the Executive?
(A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha (A) Article 51 (B) Article 48
(C) Suprem Court (C) Article 47 (D) Article 50
(D) In either of the Parliament
Ans.159(D) Article 50: This article puts an
Ans.155(D) The president may also be obligation over the State to separate the
removed before the expiry of the term through judiciary from the executive. But, since this
impeachment for violating the Constitution of
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
191

falls under the Directive Principles of State 164. Who said in the Constituent Assembly that
Policy, it is not enforceable. The Directive Principles of State Policy are
like a ‘Cheque on a bank payable at the
160. Under which Ministry of the Government of convenience of the bank’?
India does the Food and Nutrition Board (A) Mahatma Gandhi (B) K. T. Shah
work? (C) B R Ambedkar
(A) Ministry of Corporate Affairs. (D) Jayaprakash Narayan
(B) Ministry of Home Affairs.
(C) Ministry of Women & Child Ans.164(B) K.T. Shah was an Indian
Development. economist, advocate and socialist best known
(D) Ministry of Food Processing Industries. for his active role as a member of the
Ans.160(C) The Food & Nutrition Board Constituent Assembly of India that was
(FNB), set up in 1964, is an attached office of responsible for framing of the Indian
the Ministry of Women & Child Development Constitution.
and has a countrywide setup.
165. Who appoints the Chief Minister who has
161. Who is the Chairman of Council of Scientific majority support in the State Legislative
and Industrial Research? Assembly?
(A) Prime minister (B) President (A) Governor
(C) Home Minister (B) Chief justice of High Court
(D) Minister of Science and Technology (C) President
(D) Prime minister
Ans.161(A) The Council of Scientific and
Industrial Research abbreviated as CSIR was Ans.165(A) The governor appoints and
established by the Government of India in swears in the chief minister and his Council of
September 1942 as an autonomous body. Ministers are collectively responsible to the
Prime Minister of India is the chairman of the assembly.
Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.
166. Who has the right to participate in
162. Under which Article of the Constitution does proceedings of the Parliament even though he
the Central Government gives Plan assistance is not a Member of Parliament?
to the State Government? (A) Solicitor General
(A) Art 277 (B) Art 285 (B) Attorney General
(C) Art 275 (D) Art 270 (C) Chief Election Commissioner
(D) Advocate General
Ans.162(C) The 22nd Amendment amended
article 275 in regard to sums and grants Ans.166(B) The Attorney General has the
payable to the autonomous State on and from right of audience in all Courts in India as well
its formation under article 244A. as the right to participate in the proceedings of
the Parliament, though not to vote.
163. Emergency Provisions were borrowed from
the Constitution of which country? 167. Article 21A was inserted under our
(A) Germany (B) Britain Constitution by way of ____ Constitutional
(C) USA (D) South Africa Amendment.
(A) 83th (B) 82th
Ans.163(A) The Emergency provisions of the (C) 85th (D) 86th
Indian constitution has been borrowed from
the German constitution. The Emergency Ans.167(D) The Constitution (86th
provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the Amendment) Act, 2002 inserted Article 21-A
Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360. in the Constitution of India to provide free and
compulsory education of all children in the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
192

age group of six to fourteen years as a

Fundamental Right in such a manner as the Ans.171(C) Discharging the functions of the
State may, by law, determine. Governor shall, before entering upon his
office, make and subscribe in the presence of
168. The idea of social, economic and political the Chief Justice of the High Court exercising
justice has been taken from _____ Revolution. jurisdiction in relation to the State, or, in his
(A) Russian (B) French absence, the senior most Judge of that Court.
(C) German (D) American
172. Which Constitutional Amendment is
Ans.168(B) Following were the social, associated with the linguistic reorganization of
economic, political and intellectual causes of a State.
the French Revolution: The clergy and the (A) 1st Amendment (B) 7th Amendment
nobility formed the first two Estates and were (C) 9th Amendment
the most privileged classes in the French (D) 11th Amendment
society. They were exempt from payment of
taxes to the State. Ans.172(B) The 7th Amendment of Indian
Constitution was needed to implement the
169. The Office of the Governor General of India recommendations of the States Reorganisation
was for the first time created under which act. Commission regarding the reorganization of
(A) Regulating Act, 1773 the states on a linguistic basis. It paved way
(B) Pitt’s India Act -1784 for doing away with classification of states in
(C) Charter Act of 1793. A, B, C and D categories and introduced of
(D) Charter Act of 1813. Union Territories.

Ans.169(A) As per the act, Office of the 173. The National Commission for SCs and STs
Governor-General of the Presidency of Fort has to submit an Annual to the _____.
William was created in 1773, and on 20 (A) Prime Minister (B) President
October 1773, Warren Hastings became the (C) Parliament (D) Chief Justice
first Governor General of India.
Ans.173(B) Commission annual report that
170. Which Article gives the Election Commission the Commission submits to the President is to
the power to hold elections under the be placed before each House of Parliament,
Constitution? along with the Action Taken Report on the
(A) Art- 312 (B) Art- 315 recommendations relating to the Union, and
(C) Art- 321 (D) Art- 324 the reasons for not accepting the
recommendations in case of non-compliance.
Ans.170(D) Article 324 of the Constitution As such, the Commission is a formal
provides for the Election Commission, its watchdog for the legislative wing of the state
powers and functions for maintenance of the on the executive wing,
Electoral Roll and conduct of elections in a
free and fair manner. Article 325 provides that 174. When the Emergency is proclaimed, the
no person shall be ineligible for inclusion in Parliament has special powers to make laws
the electoral roll on the grounds only of under the -----------
religion, race, caste, sex or anyone of these. (A) State List (B) Union List
(C) Concurrent List (D) All of the above
171. Who discharges the duties of Governor if it
falls vacant due to death or resignation? Ans.174(D) A national emergency modifies
(A) President the federal system of government to a unitary
(B) Chief Minister of State one by granting Parliament the power to make
(C) Chief Justice of High Court laws on the 66 subjects of the State List
(D) Advocate General (which contains subjects on which the state
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
193

governments can make laws). Also, all state grounds of proved misbehaviour or
money bills are referred to the Parliament for incapacity.
its approval.
178. Which of the following cannot be removed by
175. Who is the competent to prescribe conditions impeachment passed by a majority in
for acquisition of citizenship ___? Parliament?
(A) Chief Justice (B) President (A) State Governor
(C) Parliament (D) Prime Minister (B) Chief Justice of SC
(C) CAG
Ans.175(C) Indian Parliament is empowered (D) Chief Election Commissioner
to prescribe conditions for India Citizenship
which is governed by Article 5 to 11 of Indian Ans.178(A) The term of governor's office is
Constitution. In exercise of its power the normally 5 years but it can be terminated
Parliament has enacted the Indian Citizenship earlier by: Dismissal by the president (usually
Act, 1955. This Act provides for the on the advice of the prime minister of the
acquisition and loss of Indian citizenship after country) at whose pleasure the governor holds
the commencement of the Constitution. This office. Dismissal of Governors without valid
Act has been amended four times so far by the reason is not permitted.
Citizenship (Amendment) Acts of 1986, 1992,
2003 and 2005. 179. How is Article 53 related to the President?
(A) Election of president.
176. Under which Articles, the Supreme Court has (B) Term of office of president.
been given the powers to review any judgment (C) Executive power of the president.
pronounced or order made it previously? (D) Procedure for impeachment of the
(A) Article 131 (B) Article 132 president.
(C) Article 137 (D) Article 139
Ans.179(C) Article 53, the executive power
Ans.176(C) Article 137 of the Constitution of of the country is vested in the president and is
India, provides that subject to provisions of exercised by president either directly or
any law and rules made under Article 145, the through officer’s subordinate to him in
Supreme Court has the power to review any accordance with the constitution. Union
judgment pronounced or order made by it. cabinet with prime minister as its head, aid
Under Supreme Court Rules, 1966 such a and advice the president in performing his
petition is to be filed within thirty days from functions.
the date of judgment or order and as far as
practicable; it is to be circulated, without oral 180. Which of the following bill shall not be
arguments, to the same Bench of Judges who introduced in the Rajya Sabha?
delivered the judgment or order sought to be (A) Amendment Bill (B) Money Bills
reviewed. (C) Impeachment Bills (D) None of these

177. The Chief Election Commissioner of India Ans.180(B) Except Money Bills and Financial
may be removed from his post by a ------- Bills, Category A, which can be introduced
majority passed by Parliament. only in the Lok Sabha, a Bill may originate in
(A) one-thirds (B) two-thirds either House of Parliament. As per the
(C) one -fourth (D) two-fourth provisions of article 109 of the Constitution,
the Rajya Sabha has limited powers with
Ans.177(B) Chief Election Commissioner of respect to Money Bills.
India can be removed from his office by the
Parliament with a two-thirds majority in both 181. The provisions of Emergency are contained in
the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha on the which part of the Constitution?
(A) XVII (B) XVIII
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
194

(C) XV (D) XX 185. Under which Article has the State been
directed to secure for the citizens a Uniform
Ans.181(B) Emergency Provisions are Civil Code throughout the territory of India?
contained in Part Eighteen of the Constitution (A) Art 45 (B) Art 44
of India. The President of India has the power (C) Art 40 (D) Art 48
to impose emergency rule in any or all the
Indian states if the security of part or all of Ans.185(B) Uniform Civil Code (UCC) is
India is threatened by "war or external defined in our Constitution under Article 44 of
aggression or armed rebellion". Directive Principles of State Policy. It states
that it is the duty of the state to secure for the
182. Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added in citizens a Uniform Civil Code throughout the
1992 by which amendment in constitution of territory of India.
India?
(A) 71st (B) 92nd 186. Which Committee recommended for the
(C) 21st (D) 72nd inclusion of The Fundamental Duties into the
Constitution?
Ans.182(A) 71th constitution amendment, in (A) Hanumant Rao Committee
which the eighth schedule of the constitution (B) Goiporia Committee
was amended to include Konkani, Mithi (C) Bimal Jalan committee
(Manipuri) and Nepali languages. (D) Sardar Swaran Singh

183. The prime minister who called father of Ans.186(D) Fundamental duties of citizens
economic reforms in India? were added to the Constitution by the 42nd
(A) Manmohan Singh (B) Indira Gandhi Amendment in 1976 on the recommendations
(C) I. K. Gujral (D) Narasimha Rao of the Swarn Singh Committee.

Ans.183(D) Rao, who held the Industries 187. The Chief Minister shall be appointed by the
portfolio, was personally responsible for the Governor and the other Ministers shall be
dismantling of the Licence Raj, as this came appointed by the Governor on the advice of
under the purview of the Ministry of the ______________.
Commerce and Industry. He is often referred (A) President
to as the "Father of Indian Economic (B) Prime Minister
Reforms". (C) Chief justice of High Court
(D) Chief Minister
184. With which constitutional amendment were
the members of the legislative assemblies of Ans.187(D) The Chief Minister shall be
the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry appointed by the Governor and the other
included in the Electoral College for the Ministers shall be appointed by the Governor
President? on the advice of the Chief Minster.
(A) 84th Amendment (2001)
(B) 55th Amendment (1986) 188. To whom will the State Council of Ministers
(C) 70th Amendment (1992) collectively be responsible?
(D) 91st Amendment (2003) (A) Legislative Assembly of the State
(B) Vidhan Parishad
Ans.184(C) With the 70th Amendment (C) Governor
(1992), the National Capital Territory of Delhi (D) Chief Minister
and Union Territory of Pondicherry were
included in the electoral college for the Ans.188(A) The state Council of Ministers is
presidential election. collectively responsible to Legislative
Assembly of the State. Every State has a
Legislative Assembly and certain States have
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
195

an upper House also called State Legislative Ans.192(D) Right to Information was passed
Council. by Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came fully
into force on 12 October 2005. Every day,
189. To whom can the Governor address his over 4800 RTI applications are filed.
resignation?
(A) Chief Minister 193. Which of these are not appointed by President
(B) Prime Minister of India?
(C) President (A) Solicitor General
(D) Chief justice of High Court (B) Advocate General
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabah
Ans.189(C) The Governor shall hold office (D) Chief Justice of High court
during the President's Offering. The Governor
may relinquish his post by writing with his Ans.193(C) The Vice President of India is the
signature addressed to the President. Subject ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who
to the foregoing provisions of this article, the presides over its sessions. It is elected
Governor shall hold office for a period of five indirectly by members of an electoral college
years from the date of his accession. consisting of the members of both Houses of
Parliament in accordance with the system of
190. The maximum gap between two sessions of Proportional Representation by means of the
Parliament cannot be more than _________. Single transferable vote and the voting is by
(A) Four months (B) Six months secret ballot conducted by the election
(C) Three months (D) Five months commission.

Ans.190(B) Maximum gap cannot more than 194. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian
six months between two parliamentary Constitution states that every person has the
sessions. right to practice, profess and propagate the
religion of their choice?
191. President inaugurates Parliament by (A) Right to Equality
addressing it after the general elections and (B) Right to Freedom
also at the beginning of the first session every (C) Right against Exploitation
year according to which article? (D) Right to Freedom of Religion
(A) Art 82(2) (B) Art 90(2)
(C) Art 87(1) (D) Art 85(1) Ans.194(D) Article 12 to 35 contained in Part
III of the Constitution deal with Fundamental
Ans.191(C) Article 87(1) in The Constitution Rights. These are guaranteed in the
of India 1949: At the commencement of the Constitution in the form of six broad
first session after each general election to the categories of Fundamental Rights.
House of the People and at the 1. Right to equality, including equality before
commencement of the first session of each law, prohibition of discrimination on grounds
year the President shall address both Houses of religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth,
of Parliament assembled together and inform and equality of opportunity in matters of
Parliament of the causes of its summons. The employment.
presidential address on these occasions is 2. Right to freedom of speech and expression,
generally meant to outline the new policies of assembly, association or union, movement,
the government. residence, and right to practice any profession
or occupation (some of these rights are subject
192. Right to Information was passed by to security of the State, friendly relations with
Parliament on ________. foreign countries, public order, decency or
(A) 12 June 2005 (B) 15 Sep 2005 morality).
(C) 12 Oct 2005 (D) 15 June 2005
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
196

3. Right against exploitation, prohibiting all impeached and is deemed to have vacated
forms of forced labour, child labour and their office from the date when such a
traffic in human beings. resolution stands passed. No president has
4. Right to freedom of conscience and free faced impeachment proceedings so the above
profession, practice, and propagation of provisions have never been used.
religion.
5. Right of any section of citizens to conserve 196. The Constitution of India is the supreme law
their culture, language or script, and right of of India. How many types of writ are there in
minorities to establish and administer the Indian Constitution?
educational institutions of their choice; and (A) 5 (B) 4
6. Right to constitutional remedies for (C) 3 (D) 2
enforcement of Fundamental Rights.
Ans.196(A) Fundamentally, a writ is a formal
195. Whose recommendation is mandatory for written order issued by anybody, executive or
impeachment of the President of India before judicial, authorised to do so. In modern times,
his term is over? this body is generally judicial. Therefore, a
(A) The Prime Minister writ can be understood as a formal written
(B) The Speaker of the Lok Sabha order issued by a Court having authority to
(C) The Chief Justice of India issue such an order. Orders, warrants,
(D) Two houses of the parliament directions, summons etc. are all essentially
writs. Articles 32 and 226 specifically provide
Ans.195(D) Although the Article 53 of the for five kinds of writs.
Constitution of India states that the president 1. ‘Habeas Corpus’ literally means “to have a
can exercise his powers directly or by body of”. This writ is used to release a person
subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all who has been unlawfully detained or
of the executive powers vested in the imprisoned.
president are, in practice, exercised by the 2. ‘Mandaamus’ means ‘we command’. It is
prime minister (a subordinate authority) with issued by the Court to direct a public authority
the help of the Council of Ministers. to perform the legal duties which it has not or
The president may also be removed before the refused to perform.
expiry of the term through impeachment for 3. ‘Quo Warranto’ means ‘by what warrant’.
violating the Constitution of India by the Through this writ, the Court calls upon a
Parliament of India. The process may start in person holding a public office to show under
either of the two houses of the parliament. The what authority he holds that office.
house initiates the process by levelling the 4. ‘Certiorari’ means to ‘certify’. Certiorari is
charges against the president. The charges are a curative writ. When the Court is of the
contained in a notice that has to be signed by opinion that a lower court or a tribunal has
at least one-quarter of the total members of passed an order which is beyond its powers or
that house. The notice is sent up to the committed an error of law then, through the
president and 14 days later, it is taken up for writ of certiorari, it may transfer the case to
consideration. itself or quash the order passed by the lower
A resolution to impeach the president has to court or tribunal.
be passed by a two-thirds majority of the total 5. A writ of prohibition is issued by a Court to
number of members of the originating house. prohibit the lower courts, tribunals and other
It is then sent to the other house. The other quasi-judicial authorities from doing
house investigates the charges that have been something beyond their authority.
made. During this process, the president has
the right to defend oneself through an 197. Who was the first Deputy Speaker of Lok
authorised counsel. If the second house also Sabha?
approves the charges made by special (A) G. V. Mavalankar
majority again, the president stands (B) Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
197

(C) M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar 2. Persons born outside India on or after 26

(D) Dr P V Cherian January 1950 but before 10 December 1992
are citizens of India by descent if their father
Ans.197(C) Madabhushi Ananthasayanam was a citizen of India at the time of their birth.
Ayyangarwas the first Deputy Speaker and 3. The Central Government may, on an
then Speaker of Lok Sabha in the Indian application, register as a citizen of India under
Parliament. He was Governor of Bihar also. section 5 of the Citizenship Act 1955 any
He was elected as member of Central person (not being an illegal migrant) if s/he
Legislative Assembly in 1934. He was elected belongs to any of the following categories:
to the first Lok Sabha from Tirupathi and to a person of Indian origin who is ordinarily
the second Lok Sabha from Chittoor resident in India for seven years before
constituencies in 1952 and 1956 respectively. making application under Section 5(1)(a)
198. In the presence of which of the following, (throughout the period of twelve months
does the Vice President takes Oath? immediately before making application and
(A) President for six years in the aggregate in the eight years
(B) Lok Sabha Speaker preceding the 12 months).
(C) Chief Justice of India 4. Citizenship of India by naturalization can
(D) Attorney General be acquired by a foreigner who is ordinarily
resident in India for 12 years (throughout the
Ans.198(A) The President administers the period of 12 months immediately preceding
oath of office and secrecy to the Vice- the date of application and for 11 years in the
President. The Vice President holds office for aggregate of 14 years preceding the 12
five years. The Vice President of India is the months) and other qualifications as specified
second-highest constitutional office in India in Section 6 (1) of the Citizen Act,1955.
after the President. Article 63 of Indian
Constitution states that "There shall be a Vice 200. Who among the following is the Chairman of
President of India." The Vice President acts as the National Integration Council?
President in the absence of the president due (A) The President
to death, resignation, impeachment, or other (B) The Vice President
situations. The Vice President of India is also (C) The Prime Minister
ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. (D) The Chief Justice of India
When a bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha, the
vice president decides whether it is a financial Ans.200(C) National Integration Council set
bill or not. up in June 1962 by the then Prime Minister
Jawaharlal Nehru to address the problems of
199. Indian Citizenship is granted by_______ . communalism and regionalism in India.It is
(A) The President of India chaired by Prime Minister of India. The
(B) The Prime Minister members of the NIC include union ministers,
(C) The Ministry of Home Affairs leaders of the opposition in the Lok Sabha and
(D) The Ministry of External Affairs the Rajya Sabha, chief ministers of all states
and Union Territories, leaders of national and
Ans.199(C) According to the Ministry of regional political parties, chairpersons of
Home Affairs, there are four ways in which national commissions eminent journalists and
Indian citizenship can be acquired birth, other public figures India.
descent, registration and naturalisation.
1. Any person born in India on or after 26 201. Within what period, the Parliament has to
January 1950, but prior to the commencement approve Financial emergency declared by the
of the 1986 Act on 1 July 1987, is a citizen of President?
India by birth. (A) Six Months (B) Two Months
(C) Three Months (D) Four Months
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
198

republic. The Governor is the nominal head of

Ans.201(B) The proclamation of Emergency a state, while the Chief Minister is the
must be approved by both the Houses of executive head. According to an amendment
Parliament within one month from the date of in the Constitution of India, brought about in
its issue. Initially, the period allowed for 1956, the same person can be the Governor of
approval by the Parliament was two months, two or more states. Apart from the governors
but was reduced by the 44th Amendment Act in the states, Lieutenant governors are
of 1978. appointed in Union Territories of Delhi,
Andaman Nicobar Island and Pudducherry.
202. To become a member of the Legislative The only exception is Chandigarh. The
Assembly, a person must be a citizen of India, governor of Punjab is also the lieutenant
how many years has he completed his age? governor of Chandigarh.
(A) 21 (B) 30
(C) 25 (D) 35 205. What makes the Judiciary the guardian of the
Constitution?
Ans.202(C) To become a member of the (A) Independence
Legislative Assembly, a person must be a (B) Service conditions
citizen of India, must have completed 25 years (C) Salary
of age. He should not be mentally sound and (D) Judicial Review
bankrupt. He also has to give a certificate of
not having any criminal case against him. Ans.205(D) Judicial review is a process under
which executive or legislative actions are
203. The Governors and Lieutenant Governors/ subject to review by the judiciary. A court
Administrators of the states and union with authority for judicial review may
territories of India have similar powers and invalidate laws, acts and governmental actions
functions at the state level as that of the that are incompatible with a higher authority:
President of India at Union level. The salary an executive decision may be invalidated for
and allowances of the Governor are charged to being unlawful or a statute may be invalidated
(A) the Consolidated Fund of India for violating the terms of a constitution.
(B) the Consolidated Fund of the State Judicial review is one of the checks and
(C) the Contingency Fund of India balances in the separation of powers: the
(D) none of the above power of the judiciary to supervise the
legislative and executive branches when the
Ans.203(B) He is entitled to such latter exceed their authority. The doctrine
emoluments, allowances and privileges as varies between jurisdictions, so the procedure
may be determined by Parliament by the and scope of judicial review may differ
consolidated fund of state. When the same between and within countries.
person is appointed as the governor of two or
more states, the emoluments and allowances 206. In the Supreme Court of India the number of
payable to him are shared by the states in such Judges including the Chief Justice is now
proportion as determined by the president. (A) 20 (B) 21
(C) 25 (D) 31
204. Can a person act as Governor of more than
one state? Ans.206(D) At present, the Supreme Court
(A) yes consists of thirty-one judges. The Supreme
(B) no Court of India is the highest judicial court
(C) only for a period of six months under the Constitution of India, the highest
(D) only for a period of one year constitutional court, with the power of judicial
review. Consisting of the Chief Justice of
Ans.204(A) The Governor is the head of a India and a maximum of 34 judges, it has
state just like the President is the head of the extensive powers in the form of original,
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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appellate and advisory jurisdictions. It is weakened the Panchayati Raj institutions

regarded as the most powerful public resulting in what is aptly called as ‘grass
institution in India. As the constitutional court without roots’.
of the country, it takes up appeals primarily
against verdicts of the high courts of various 209. The person who is appointed as Chief
states of the Union and other courts and Minister -
tribunals. (A) Should not be a member of either house of
state legislature.
207. In India, the Panchayati Raj generally refers to (B) Should be a member of either house of
the local self-government of villages in rural state legislature.
India as opposed to urban and suburban (C) must possess the qualifications to be
municipalities, this system was introduced by elected as member of state legislature but not
a constitutional amendment in 1992.What are be a member of the legislature.
the Panchayats in the three-tier Panchayati (D) should be a member of the legislative
Raj System? council only.
(A) Gram Panchayat
(B) Janpad Panchayat Ans.209(B) There are no limits to the number
(C) Jila Parishads of terms that the chief minister can serve. A
(D) all of the above chief minister heads a state government's
council of ministers and can be deputed in that
Ans.207(D) A gram panchayat or village role by a deputy chief minister. Qualifications
panchayat is the only grassroots-level of of a chief minister are:
panchayati raj formalised local self- 1. He should be the citizen of India.
governance system in India at the village or 2. His minimum age should more than 25
small-town level, and has a sarpanch as its years.
elected head. 3. He should be the member of legislative
The Zila Panchayat or District Council or Zila assembly (MLA).
Parishad or District Panchayat, is the third 4. He should not hold any government profit
tier of the Panchayati Raj system. Zila or job.
Parishad is an elected body. Block Pramukh
of Block Panchayat are also represented in 210. Who of the following is regarded as the head
Zila Parishad. The members of the State of the state council of ministers?
Legislature and the members of the (A) the Chief Minister
Parliament of India are members of the Zila (B) the Governor
Parishad. (C) the Speaker
(D) none of the above
208. G V K Rao committee on Panchayat raj is
constituted on – Ans.210(A) In the Republic of India, a chief
(A) 1980 (B) 1982 minister is the elected head of government of
(C) 1981 (D) 1985 each state out of 28 states and sometimes a
union territory (currently, only the UTs of
Ans.208(D) GVK Rao Committee – GVK Delhi and Puducherry have serving Chief
Rao committee was appointed by Planning Ministers). According to the Constitution of
Commission in 1985. The Committee on India, the Governor is a state's head, but de
Administrative Arrangement for Rural facto executive authority rests with the chief
Development and Poverty Alleviation minister.
Programmes under the chairmanship of
G.V.K. Rao was appointed by the Planning 211. A member of the council of ministers can hold
Commission in 1985.This phenomenon of office without being a member of the state
bureaucratisation of development legislature for a maximum period of-
administration as against the democratisation (A) three months (B) six months
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
200

(C) one year (D) two years Ans.213(D) The primary function of the
governor is to preserve, protect and defend the
Ans.211(B) A person who is not a member of constitution and the law as incorporated in
either House of the state legislature can also his/her oath of office under Article 159 of the
be appointed as a minister. But, within six Indian constitution in the administration of the
months, he must become a member (either by State affairs. All his/her actions,
election or by nomination) of either House of recommendations and supervisory powers
the state legislature; otherwise, he ceases to be (Article 167c, Article 200, Article 213, Article
a minister. 355, etc.) over the executive and legislative
entities of a State shall be used to implement
212. In Parliament, the chief spokesman of the the provisions of the Constitution. In this
government on matters of general policy is respect, the governor has many different types
the: of powers:
(A) Speaker (B) Prime Minister 1. Executive powers related to administration,
(C) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs appointments and removals,
(D) Home Minister 2. Legislative powers related to law-making
and the state legislature, that is State
Ans.212(B) The Prime Minister of India, as Legislative Assembly (Vidhan Sabha) or State
addressed in the Constitution of India, is the Legislative Council (Vidhan Parishad),
chief of the government, chief adviser to the 3. Discretionary powers to be carried out
president, head of the council of ministers and according to the discretion of the governor
the leader of the majority party in the 4. Financial Powers: He causes to be laid
parliament. The prime minister leads the before the State Legislature the annual
executive of the Government of India. The financial statement which is the State Budget.
prime minister is the senior member of cabinet Further no demand for grant shall be made
in the executive of government in a except on his recommendation. They can also
parliamentary system. The Prime Minister is make advances out of the Contingency Fund
responsible for the real administration of the of the State to meet any unforeseen
country. He is regarded as the chief expenditure. Moreover, he constitutes the
administrator in India. He is the chief Finance Commission of state.
spokesman of the Government of India. It is
the duty of the Prime Minister to keep the 214. 'Education' which was initially a state subject
President informed of all the decisions of the was moved by which amendment in the
Council of Ministers from time to time. concurrent list?
(A) 24th Amendment
213. Which one of the following financial power is (B) 25th Amendment
not enjoyed by the Governor? (C) 42nd Amendment
(A) all the demands for grants are presented (D) 44th, Amendment
before the State Legislature on the
recommendation of the Governor Ans.214(C) Through the 42nd Amendment
(B) he is incharge of the Contingency Fund of Act of 1976 Five subjects were transferred
the State and can make advances out of it to from State to Concurrent List. They are:
meet unforeseen expenditure Education
(C) the supplementary grants, if any, are Forests
presented before the State Legislature on the Weights & Measures
recommendation of the Governor Protection of Wild Animals and Birds
(D) he can order the reduction of salaries and Administration of Justice:
allowances of the State civil servants during
the President’s rule in the State 215. In which year was Nationalist Congress Party
(NCP) founded?
(A) 1949 (B) 1999
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201

(C) 1972 (D) 1997

Ans.217(C) Quo warranto means “by what
Ans.215(B) The NCP was formed on 25 May warrant”? This writ is issued to enquire into
1999, by Sharad Pawar, P. A. Sangma, and legality of the claim of a person or public
Tariq Anwar after they were expelled from the office. It restrains the person or authority to
Indian National Congress (INC) on 20 May act in an office which he / she is not entitled
1999, for disputing the right of Italian-born to; and thus stops usurpation of public office
Sonia Gandhi to lead the party. At the time of by anyone. This writ is applicable to the
formation of the NCP, the Indian Congress public offices only and not to private offices.
(Socialist) party merged with the new party.
Despite the NCP being founded on opposition 218. Part IV of constitution of India deals with
to the leadership of Sonia Gandhi, the party which of the following?
joined the Congress led UPA to form (A) The Union
government of Maharashtra in 1999. In 2004, (B) The States
the party joined UPA to form the Indian (C) Fundamental Rights
Government led by Manmohan Singh. (D) Directive Principles of State Policy

216. The Directive Principles of State Policy of Ans.218(D) The Directive Principles of State
India (DPSP) are the guidelines or 15 Policy of India (DPSP) are the guidelines or
principles given to the federal institutes 15 principles given to the federal institutes
governing the state of India to be kept in governing the state of India, to be kept in
citation while framing laws and policies. citation while framing laws and policies.
Which of the following is not included in These provisions, contained in Part IV
the Directive Principles of State Policy? (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India,
(A) Prohibition of Liquor are not enforceable by any court, but the
(B) Right to Work principles laid down there in are considered in
(C) Equal Wage for Equal Work the governance of the country, making it the
(D) Right to Information duty of the State to apply these principles in
making laws to establish a just society in the
Ans.216(D) Right to Information Act 2005 country.
mandates timely response to citizen requests
for government information. It is an initiative 219. Who among the following gave monistic
taken by Department of Personnel and theory of sovereignty?
Training, Ministry of Personnel, Public (A) Austin (B) Darwin
Grievances and Pensions to provide a– RTI (C) Aristotle (D) Marx
Portal Gateway to the citizens for quick search
of information on the details of first Appellate Ans.219(A) The monistic theory of
Authorities, PIOs etc. amongst others, besides Sovereignty is synonymous with Juristic/
access to RTI related information disclosures Legal or Austin’s theory of Sovereignty. It
published on the web by various Public considers Sovereignty as absolute, universal,
Authorities under the government of India as inalienable and indivisible. It ordains the state
well as the State Governments. to be one and indivisible. The main outlines of
this theory are as follows: -
217. In common law, a writ is a formal written In every independent political community
order issued by a body with administrative or there are some persons or a body of persons
judicial jurisdiction. What is the literal who exercise sovereign power.
meaning of the term “Quo-Warranto”? The sovereign is a determinate body or a body
(A) We command of persons. This determinate authority is the
(B) To forbid source of the supreme and he exercises it.
(C) By what authority (or) warrant The will of the determinate human is supreme
(D) None of these and is not subject to any kind of control.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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Therefore, he does not obey any other 223. Which Fundamental Right in the Indian
authority. Constitution prohibits trafficking, forced
labour, and children working under 14 years
220. Anti-defection law is given in which schedule of age?
of Indian constitution? (A) Right to Equality
(A) Second Schedule (B) Tenth Schedule (B) Right to Freedom
(C) Third Schedule (D) Fourth Schedule (C) Right against Exploitation
(D) Right to Freedom of Religion
Ans.220(B) The anti-defection law was
passed by parliament in 1985. The 52nd Ans.223(C) The Right against Exploitation
amendment to the Constitution added the enshrined in the Indian Constitution
Tenth Schedule which laid down the process guarantees dignity of the individual. It also
by which legislators may be disqualified on prohibits the exploitation or misuse of service
grounds of defection i.e. Anti-defection law. by force or inducement in the following ways:
It prohibits human trafficking i.e. it
221. The Constitution of India establishes a federal criminalises buying and selling of human
structure to the Indian government, declaring beings like a commodity. Articles 23 and 24
it to be a "Union of States”. Which of the under Right against Exploitation of the Indian
following is a feature of federal Government? Constitution safeguard women and children
(A) Supremacy of Parliament and others against exploitation of various
(B) Supremacy of Judiciary forms. Right against Exploitation is the
(C) Division of powers between federal and Fundamental Right which prohibits
state Government trafficking, forced labour (beggar) and child
(D) Single citizenship employment under 14 years of age.

Ans.221(C) Part XI of the Indian constitution 224. In Indian constitution, the method of election
specifies the distribution of legislative, of President has been taken from which
administrative and executive powers between country?
the union government and the States of India. (A) Britain (B) USA
Federalism is a division of power between the (C) Ireland (D) Australia
federal government and the individual state
governments. Federalism is established Ans.224(C) The method of election of
through the Constitution's Supremacy Clause. President has been taken from Irish
Constitution.
222. NITI Aayog has been formed to replace which Ireland's Constitution.
of the following institution? 1. Concept of Directive Principles of State
(A) Planning Commission Policy (Ireland had borrowed it from Spain).
(B) IRDA 2. Nomination of members to Rajya Sabhaby
(C) Department of Telecommunications the President.
(DoT). 3. Method of election of President.
(D) Department of Information Technology.
Ans.222(A) The Planning Commission was 225. In the Parliament, what is the meaning of
an institution in the Government of India, the Government Bill—
which formulated India's Five-Year Plans, (A) Bill presented by Ruling Party member.
among other functions. In his first (B) Bill approved by the Government.
Independence Day speech in 2014, Prime (C) Only the Prime Minister presents the Bill.
Minister Narendra Modi announced his (D) A Bill introduced by any Minister in
intention to dissolve the Planning either of the Houses of the Parliament.
Commission. It has since been replaced by a
new institution named NITI Aayog. Ans.225(D) Legislative proposals are brought
before either house of the Parliament in the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
203

form of a bill. A bill is the draft of a Deputy Speaker acts as Speaker and in the
legislative proposal, which, when passed by absence of both a committee of six members
both houses of Parliament and assented to by selected by the Speaker will act as Speaker
the President, becomes an Act of Parliament. according to their seniority.

226. Which was the princely state whose 228. The Vice President of India is also ex officio
representatives did not attend the Constituent Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. The Vice-
Assembly? President of India can be removed from his
(A) Hyderabad office before the expiry of his term if:
(B) Jammu and Kashmir (A) the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by a
(C) Rampur State majority of its members and the Lok Sabha
(D) Travancore State agrees with the resolution.
(B) if the Supreme Court of India
Ans.226(A) Based on the recommendations of recommends his removal.
the Cabinet Mission, the Constituent (C) the President so desires.
Assembly, which framed the Constitution of (D) none of the above.
India, was formed in July, 1946. The total
number of members of the Constituent Ans.228(A) The Constitution states that the
Assembly was fixed at 389, of which 292 Vice-President can be removed by a resolution
were representatives of the British provinces, of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective
4 were representatives of the Chief majority (50% of effective strength of house,
Commissioner's territories and 93 were here effective strength equals the total number
representative of the princely states. strength minus the number of vacancies) and a
Hyderabad was a princely state whose simple majority (50% of total members who
representatives did not attend the Constituent are present and voting) of the Lok Sabha
Assembly. (Article 67(b)).But no such resolution may be
moved unless at least 14 days’ advance notice
227. The Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the presiding has been given. Notably, the Constitution does
officer of the Lok Sabha (House of the not list grounds for removal. No Vice-
People), the lower house of the Parliament of President or ex officio Vice-President has ever
India. The function of Protem Speaker is to faced removal proceedings.
(A) check if the election certificates of
members are in order. 229. The value of votes of the MLAs for the
(B) conduct the proceedings of the house in election of the President is different in order
the absence of the speaker. to:
(C) swearing in members and hold change till (A) give greater weight to highly populated
a regular speaker is elected. states.
(D) officiate as speaker when a speaker is (B) safeguard the interests of smaller states.
unlikely to be elected. (C) keep the total value of the MLAs votes
less than the total value of MPs votes.
Ans.227(C) After a general election and the (D) maintain uniformity in the scale of
formation of a new government, a list of representation of the different states.
senior Lok Sabha members prepared by the
Legislative Section is submitted to the Ans.229(D) The value of votes cast by elected
Minister of Parliamentary Affairs, who selects members of the state legislative assemblies
a protem speaker. The appointment has to be and both houses of parliament are determined
approved by the President. The first meeting by the provisions of article 55(2) of the
after the election when the Speaker and the Constitution of India. As Per the 84th
Deputy Speaker are selected by members of Amendment, the 1971 census is used, and will
the Parliament is held under the protem continue to be used until 2026.
Speaker. In absence of the Speaker, the
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204

230. Which parts of the Indian constitution together (A) Prime Minister
is called the soul and consciousness of the (B) Speaker of the Lok Sabha
constitution, in which the real elements of the (C) Chief Justice of India
constitution and philosophy of social justice (D) Senior most Governor of a State
are contained?
(A) Part 2 and part 3 Ans.232(C) The Indian Parliament has
(B) Part 1 and Part 2 enacted the law (The President (Discharge of
(C) Part 4 and Part 5 Functions) Act, 1969) for the discharge of the
(D) Part 3 and Part 4 functions of the President when vacancies
occur in the offices of the President and of the
Ans.230(D) The Directive Principles of State Vice-President simultaneously, like removal,
Policy are included from Articles 36 to 51 of death, resignation of the incumbent or
the Indian Constitution. Parts 3 and 4 of the otherwise. In such an eventuality, the Chief
Indian constitution together are called the soul Justice, or in his absence, the senior most
and consciousness of the constitution, these Judge of the Supreme Court of India available
elements contain the real elements of the discharges the functions of the President until
constitution and the philosophy of social a newly elected President enters upon his
justice. Directors are the elements of office or a newly elected Vice-President
executive and legislature according to which begins to act as President under Article 65 of
they have to exercise their rights. the Constitution, whichever is the earlier. For
example, in 1969, when President Zakir
231. Who appoints Ad hoc Committee on Husain died in Office, Vice-President V. V.
Parliament— Giri served as the acting President of India.
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha However, later, V.V Giri resigned from both
(B) Chairman of Rajya Sabha posts (Acting President of India and Vice-
(C) Both A & B President of India) as he became a candidate
(D) None of the above in the 1969 Presidential election in India. In
this event, the then Chief Justice of India,
Ans.231(C) Parliamentary Committee can Justice Mohammad Hidayatullah served as the
either be a Standing Committees or an Ad hoc acting President of India until the next
Committee. Standing Committees are President was elected.
permanent committees and are constituted for
a fixed tenure. Ad hoc Committees are 233. The Chief Justice of India is the head of the
appointed for a specific purpose and they judiciary of India and the Supreme Court of
cease to exist when they finish the task India. The salary of the Chief Justice and
assigned to them after submitting the report. other judges of the Supreme Court:
These committees include Advisory (A) cannot be reduced under any
Committees and Inquiry Committees. circumstances.
Advisory Committees include committees on (B) can be reduced by Parliament by a two-
Select and Joint Committees on Bills which thirds majority.
are appointed to consider and report on a (C) can be reduced during the national
particular bill. The Inquiry Committees are emergency.
constituted to inquire into a specific issue and (D) can be reduced during the financial
report on that, for example, Committee on 2G emergency.
Scam, Joint committee on Bofors Contract,
etc. Ans.233(D) Article 125 of the Indian
constitution leaves it to the Indian parliament
232. In the event of the President and the Vice- to determine the salary, other allowances,
President not being available, who among the leave of absence, pension, etc. of the supreme
following will perform the functions of the court judges. However, the parliament cannot
President? alter any of these privileges and rights to the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
205

judge’s disadvantage after his/her formal and the governor while using these
appointment. The Financial Emergency powers must act according to the advice of the
provided under Article 360. It provides that if Council of Ministers headed by the Chief
the President is satisfied that the financial Minister.
stability or credit of India or any of its part is The functions of parliament are divided based
threatened; he may declare a state of Financial on the powers it has. These are
Emergency. The President may ask the States ➢ Executive powers
to reduce the salaries and allowances of all or ➢ Legislative powers
any class of persons in government service. ➢ Constituent powers
➢ Judicial powers
234. The Central Government can legislate on a ➢ Financial powers
subject in the State List: ➢ Electoral powers
(A) if the Parliament passes a resolution.
(B) if the President issues an ordinance to this. 236. The subjects on which both the Centre and
(C) the Supreme Court grants necessary State Governments can legislate are contained
authority to the Parliament. in _____.
(D) the Rajya Sabha passes a resolution by (A) the Union List (B) the State List
two-thirds majority declaring that particular (C) Concurrent List (D) Residuary List
subject in the State list to be of national
importance. Ans.236(C) The Concurrent List or List-III
(Seventh Schedule) is a list of 52 items
Ans.234(D) Though under ordinary (though the last item is numbered 47) given in
circumstances the Central Government does the Seventh Schedule to the Constitution of
not possess power to legislate on subjects India. It includes the power to be considered
enumerated in the State List, but under certain by both the union and state government. The
special conditions the Union Parliament can legislative section is divided into three lists:
make laws even on these subjects. Union List, State List and Concurrent List.
a) In the National Interest (Art.249), Unlike the federal governments of the United
b) Under Proclamation of National States, Switzerland or Australia, residual
Emergency (Art.250), powers remain with the Union Government,
c) By Agreement between States (Art.252), as with the Canadian federal government.
d) To Implement Treaties (Art.253),e) Under
Proclamation of President’s Rule (Art.356) 237. Name the first judge of the Supreme Court,
against which the proposal of impeachment
235. Which one of the following legislative powers was presented in the Parliament of
of the State Council of Ministers has been independent India.
wrongly listed? (A) Justice Ramswami (B) Justice Mahajan
(A) it summons and prorogues the session of (C) Justice Veerswamy
either or both the Houses of the State (D) Justice Subba Rao
Legislature.
(B) it determines the business and time-table Ans.237(A) Veeraswami Ramaswami was a
of the State Legislature. judge of the Supreme Court of India and the
(C) most of the important bills are introduced first judge against whom removal proceedings
in the State Legislature by the Council of were initiated in independent India. Another
Ministers. judge to face removal proceedings is Soumitra
(D) none of the above. Sen of Calcutta High Court, proceedings
against whom were initiated in Rajya Sabha
Ans.235(A) The governor summons the on 17 August 2011. Another such motion was
sessions of both houses of the state legislature initiated against Chief Justice Dinakaran of
and prorogues them. The governor can even Sikkim High Court who then resigned from
dissolve the Vidhan Sabha. These powers are
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206

his post. Of 401 members present in the Lok The Constitution gave the citizens of India the
Sabha that day, there were 196 votes for power to choose their own government and
impeachment and no votes against and 205 paved the way for democracy. Dr. Rajendra
abstentions by ruling Congress and its allies. Prasad took oath as the first President of India
at the Durbar Hall in Government House and
238. In March 2019, Social Media Platforms and this was followed by the Presidential drive
Internet and Mobile Association of India along a five-mile route to the Irwin Stadium,
(IAMI) introduced what to the Election where he unfurled the National Flag.
Commission of India for the general elections
2019. 240. Separation of the judiciary from the executive
(A) Voluntary Code of Conduct has been provided in which of the following
(B) Precautionary Code Article of the Indian Constitution:
(C) List of jobs to be done (A) Article 48 (B) Article 52
(D) Polling List Centre (C) Article 50 (D) Article 49

Ans.238(A) Internet & Mobile Association of Ans.240(C) Article 50 puts an obligation over
India (IAMAI) on behalf of its members has the state to separate the judiciary from the
agreed to observe the “Voluntary Code of executive. However, Article 50 falls under the
Ethics” during all future elections including Directive Principles of State policy (DPSP)
the ongoing General Elections to the Haryana and hence is not enforceable.
& Maharashtra legislative assemblies and
various bye elections being held 241. Article 110 of Constitution of India deals
simultaneously. IAMAI and social media with?
platforms Facebook, Whatsapp, Twitter, (A) Ordinary Bill (B) Financial Bills
Google, Sharechat and TikTok had presented (C) Money Bill
and observed this “Voluntary Code of Ethics” (D) Constitution Amendment Bill
during the General Election to 17thLok Sabha
2019. IAMAI has assured the Commission Ans.241(C) There are four types of Bills,
that the platforms will cooperate in ensuring namely (i) Constitution Amendment Bills; (ii)
the conduct of free and fair elections. Money Bills; (iii) Financial Bills; and (iv)
Ordinary Bills.
239. India became a _______ after its constitution Money Bills: A Bill is said to be a Money Bill
came into effect on 26 January 1950. if it only contains provisions related to
(A) Democratic Republic. taxation, borrowing of money by the
(B) Sovereign Democratic Republic. government, expenditure from or receipt to
(C) Sovereign Secular Democratic Republic. the Consolidated Fund of India. Bills that only
(D) Sovereign Secular Socialist Democratic contain provisions that are incidental to these
Republic. matters would also be regarded as Money
Bills.
Ans.239(B) Though India became a free Financial Bills: A Bill that contains some
nation on August 15, 1947, it declared itself a provisions related to taxation and expenditure,
Sovereign, Democratic and Republic state and additionally contains provisions related to
with the adoption of the Constitution on any other matter is called a Financial Bill.
January 26, 1950. A salute of 21 guns and the Therefore, if a Bill merely involves
unfurling of the Indian National Flag by Dr. expenditure by the government, and addresses
Rajendra Prasad heralded the historic birth of other issues, it will be a financial bill.
the Indian Republic on that day. Thereafter Constitution Amendment Bills: These are
26th of January was decreed a national Bills which seek to amend the Constitution.
holiday and was recognised as the Republic Ordinary Bills: All other Bills are called
Day of India. ordinary bills.
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207

242. Liberty and Equality are two most valuable Constitution of India that prescribe the
rights of the people. These constitute two fundamental obligations of the states to its
basic pillars of democracy. Civil equality citizens and the duties and the rights of the
implies. citizens to the State. Part IVA of the Indian
(A) equality before law Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
(B) equality of opportunity As of now, there are 11 Fundamental duties.
(C) equal distribution of wealth Originally, the Constitution of India did not
(D) None of these contain these duties. Fundamental duties were
added by 42nd and 86th Constitutional
Ans.242(B) The civil equality means the Amendment acts. It shall be the duty of every
people who are within a specific society have citizen of India –
a same status with respect to civil rights, (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its
freedom of speech, equal access to everyone. ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
Article 15 of the constitution states that no the National Anthem;
person shall be discriminated on the basis of (b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals
religion, race, caste, sex or place of birth. which inspired our national struggle for
freedom;
243. Which of the following Articles of the (c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty,
Constitution of India is related to the Uniform unity and integrity of India;
Civil Code? (d) to defend the country and render national
(A) Article 44 (B) Article 46 service when called upon to do so.
(C) Article 45 (D) Article 43
245. Which article of Indian constitution deals with
Ans.243(A) Article 44 of the Directive constitutional amendments?
Principles expects the state to apply these (A) Article 332 (B) Article 386
while formulating policies for the country. (C) Article 368
Apart from being an important issue regarding (D) None of the above
secularism in India & fundamental right to
practice religion contained in Article 25, it Ans.245(C) Article 368 mentions the
became one of the most controversial topics in Procedure for amendment and the types of
contemporary politics during the Shah Bano amendments.
case in 1985. Although Article 44 of the Article 368 mentions about amendment by
Indian Constitution guarantees UCC to all Special Majority and amendment by Special
citizens, the debate arose when the question of Majority with consent of States.
making certain laws applicable to all citizens There are 3 types of amendments in the Indian
without abridging the fundamental right of Constitution.
right to practice religious functions. The 1. Simple Majority 2. Special Majority
debate then focused on the Muslim Personal 3. Special Majority of Parliament and Consent
Law, which is partially based on the Sharia of States.
law, permitting unilateral divorce, polygamy
and putting it among the legally applying the 246. In which Constitutional Amendment Act, Goa
Sharia law. was made a full-fledged State with a State
assembly?
244. In which part of the Indian Constitution, the (A) 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act,
fundamental duties are enshrined? 1977.
(A) IV (B) IV A (B) 44th Constitutional Amendment Act,
(C) IV B (D) V 1978.
(C) 56th Constitutional Amendment Act,
Ans.244(B) The Fundamental Rights, 1987.
Directive Principles of State Policy and (D) 57th Constitutional Amendment Act,
Fundamental Duties are sections of the 1987.
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208

(B) Grants of the Central Government

Ans.246(C) The Government of India have (C) Aid from the Union Government
proposed to constitute the territories (D) Contingency Fund
comprised in the Goa District of the Union
territory of Goa, Daman and Diu as the State Ans.248(D) A contingencies fund or
of Goa and the territories comprised in the contingency fund is a fund for emergencies or
Daman and Diu districts of that Union unexpected outflows, mainly economic crises.
territory as a new Union territory of Daman The Constitution of India authorized the
and Diu. In this context, it is proposed that the parliament to establish a contingency fund of
Legislative Assembly of the new State of Goa India. The Contingency Fund of India is
shall consist of forty members. The existing established under Article 267 of the Indian
Legislative Assembly of the Union territory of Constitution. It is in the nature of an impress
Goa, Daman and Diu has thirty elected (money maintained for a specific purpose).
members and three nominated members. It is Accordingly, Parliament enacted the
intended to make this Assembly with the contingency fund of India Act 1950. The fund
exclusion of two members representing is held by the Finance Secretary (Department
Daman and Diu Districts, the provisional of Economic Affairs) on behalf of the
Legislative Assembly for the new State of President of India and it can be operated by
Goa until elections are held on the expiry of executive action. The Contingency Fund of
the five-year term of the existing Assembly. It India exists for disasters and related
is, therefore, proposed to provide that the unforeseen expenditures.
Legislative Assembly of the new State of Goa
shall consist of not less than 30 members. 249. Which one of the following was established
with a definite provision under an Article of
247. The President of India has the discretionary the Constitution of India?
power to- (A) Union Public Service Commission.
(A) impose the president rule (B) National Human Rights Commission.
(B) appoint the prime minister (C) Election Commission.
(C) appoint the chief election commissioner (D) Central Vigilance Commission.
(D) declare financial emergency
Ans.249(C) The Election Commission of
Ans.247(B) The President of India, is the India is an autonomous constitutional
ceremonial head of state of India and the authority responsible for administering
commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed election processes in India at national, state
Forces. The president is indirectly elected by and district level. The body administers
an electoral college comprising the Parliament elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha, state
of India (both houses) and the legislative Legislative Assemblies, state legislative
assemblies of each of India's states and Councils, and the offices of the President and
territories, who themselves are all directly Vice President of the country. The Election
elected. Although the Article 53 of the Commission operates under the authority of
Constitution of India states that the president Constitution per Article 324, and subsequently
can exercise his powers directly or by enacted Representation of the People Act.
subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all Being a constitutional authority, Election
of the executive powers vested in the Commission is amongst the few institutions
president are, in practice, exercised by the which function with both autonomy and
prime minister (a subordinate authority) with freedom, along with the country’s higher
the help of the Council of Ministers. judiciary, the Union Public Service
Commission and the Comptroller and Auditor
248. The President can advance money to meet General of India.
unforeseen expenses from the-
(A) Consolidated Fund of India
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209

250. Which article empowers the President to provided against abuse of freedom of speech
impose Financial Emergency? and expression, validation of zamindari
(A) Article 356 (B) Article 360 abolition laws, and clarified that the right to
(C) Article 364 (D) Article 352 equality does not bar the enactment of laws
which provide "special consideration" for
Ans.250(B) According to Article 360. if the weaker sections of society. Once a law is
President is satisfied “that there is an enacted and included in the Ninth Schedule, it
economic situation in which the financial gets protection under Article 31-B (validation
stability or credit of India is threatened, he or of certain Acts and Regulations) and is not
she can declare financial emergency. Such an subject to judicial scrutiny.
emergency must be approved by the The Ninth Schedule (Article 31-B) was
Parliament within two months. introduced by the former Prime Minister
Article 356: President Rule. Jawaharlal Nehru to keep certain laws
Article 364: Empowers the President issue a particularly those on land reforms beyond the
public notice specifying, “Any law made by scope of judicial review. Over the years 284
Parliament or by the state legislature of a state laws were included in it and about 30 of them
shall not apply to any major port or aerodrome are under challenge.
or shall apply thereto subject to such
exceptions or modifications as may be 253. Who is the first law officer of the country?
specified in the notification. (A) Chief Justice of India
Article 352: National Emergency. Such an (B) Attorney General
emergency was declared in India in 1962 (C) Law Minister
(China war), 1971 (Pakistan war), and 1975 (D) Solicitor General
(declared by Indira Gandhi).
Ans.253(B) The Attorney General for India is
251. The Attorney General of India has the right of the Indian government's chief legal advisor,
audience in. and is primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of
(A) Supreme Court India. He can be said to be the advocate from
(B) Any Session Court government's side. He is appointed by the
(C) Any Court law within India President of India on advice of Union Cabinet
(D) Any High Court under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and
Ans.251(C) The Attorney General has the holds office during the pleasure of the
right of audience in all Courts in India as well President.
as the right to participate in the proceedings of
the Parliament, though not to vote. He is the 254. Which article of the Indian Constitution
Indian government’s chief legal advisor, and directs the state government to organize
its primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of village Panchayat
India. (A) Article 51 A (B) Article 40
(C) Article 37 (D) Article 31
252. The Ninth Schedule to the Indian Constitution
was added by- Ans.254(B) Article 40 of the Constitution,
(A) First Amendment which establishes one of the Directive
(B) Eighth Amendment Principles of State Policy, stipulates that the
(C) Ninth Amendment granting of necessary powers and authority to
(D) Forty Second Amendment enable the Gram Panchayat to be organized
and to act as units of self-government States
Ans.252(A) The Constitution (First will take steps for
Amendment) Act, 1951, enacted in 1951,
made several changes to the Fundamental 255. Comptroller auditor general of India appointed
Rights provisions of the Indian constitution. It by which of these?
(A) Prime Minister (B) Lok Sabha
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210

(C) President 258. The Directive Principles of State Policy has

(D) Finance Minister been adopted from which Constitution?
(A) U.S. Constitution
Ans.255(C) The Comptroller and Auditor- (B) British Constitution
General of India is appointed by the President (C) Irish Constitution
of India following a recommendation by the (D) French Constitution
Prime Minister. On appointment, he has to
make an oath or affirmation before the Ans.258(C) Directive principles are the
President of India. prominent and unique characteristic of Indian
constitution influenced by the Irish
256. The discretionary powers of a Governor are Constitution of 1937; the Constitutional
limited in- fathers of the Indian Constitution incorporated
(A) Appointment of Chief Minister these Principles from Articles 36-51 in
(B) Dismissal of the Ministry Chapter IV of the Constitution. These
(C) Dissolution of the Legislative Assembly Principles are like the instrument of
(D) Assent to Bills instructions or directions to the future
legislature and executives to show in what
Ans.256(D) The Governors and Lieutenant manner they are to exercise their powers.
Governors/Administrators of the states and
union territories of India have similar powers 259. Voting is:
and functions at the state level as that of the (A) The unit of area who constitute a unit for
President of India at Union level. Governors electing representative.
exist in the states while lieutenant governors (B) The process by which voters exercise their
exist in union territories and in the National right to vote.
Capital Territory of Delhi. When no party gets (C) The process of selecting representatives.
a clear majority, the governor has discretion to (D) Universal adult franchise.
choose a candidate for chief minister who will
put together a majority coalition as soon as Ans.259(C) The 2019 Indian general election
possible. He can impose president's rule. He was held in seven phases from 11 April to 19
can withhold his assent to a bill and send it to May 2019 to constitute the 17th Lok Sabha.
the president for his approval. The votes were counted and the result
declared on 23 May. About 911 million
257. Which type of democracy do we follow in people were eligible to vote, and voter turnout
India? was over 67 per cent – the highest ever, as
(A) Direct (B) Presidential well as the highest ever participation by
(C) Representative (D) Dictatorship women voters.

Ans.257(C) Representative We have a Quasi 260. Which of the following amendment Act
Federal Parliamentary Republic Democracy in makes the right to education as the
India. Quasi Federal means a system with fundamental right to all the children under the
federal government but unitary spirit. age of 6-14 years by inserting Article 21A to
Examples of countries with Quasi Federal the constitution.
system are Canada, Germany. This means the (A) 87th amendment, 2003
power on different subjects are distributed (B) 86th amendment, 2002
between Centre (Defense) and State (C) 88th Amendment, 2003
(Forests) governments. The unique feature (D) 89th Amendment, 2003
being that some subjects are both in Ans.260(B) The 86th amendment to
jurisdiction of State and Centre and are a part constitution of India in 2002, provided right to
of concurrent list. (Eg: Tax, Roads). education as a fundamental right in part-III of
the Constitution.
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A new article 21A was inserted which made three states in India where the population is
right to education a fundamental right for mostly Christian.
children between 6-14 years.
No child is liable to pay any kind of fee/ 263. Where do we find the ideas of Indian
Capitation fee/ Charges. Democracy?
Change in DPSP (A) Part II (B) Part I
Substitution of new article gor art 45: “The (C) The Preamble (D) Part IV
state shall endeavour to provide early
childhood care and education to children Ans.263(C) The Preamble to the Constitution
below the age of 6 years”. of India is ‘Declaration of Independence’
statement & a brief introductory that sets out
261. What is the plural voting system? the guiding principles &purpose of the
(A) All the citizen’s caste three votes each. document as well as Indian democracy. It
(B) Eligible voter exercises one vote and some describes the state as a “sovereign democratic
voters with specific qualifications cast more republic”. The first part of the preamble “We,
than one vote. the people of India” and, its last part “give to
(C) Only the higher official’s caste more than ourselves this Constitution” clearly indicate
one votes. the democratic spirit.
(D) Candidates themselves caste more than
one vote. 264. Chairman of the PAC (Public Accounts
Committee) of Parliament is appointed by
Ans.261(D) Plural voting is the practice which of these?
whereby one person might be able to vote (A) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
multiple times in an election. This was a (B) President
common aspect of the franchise for elections (C) Prime Minister of India
held in the 1800s where the right to vote was (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha
linked to the ownership of property; an elector
could vote in as many districts as the elector Ans.264(D) The Public Accounts Committee
owned property. This was the prevalent (PAC) is a committee of selected members of
system in Britain before 1948 when certain parliament, constituted by the Parliament of
electors could vote in more than one India, for the purpose of auditing the revenue
constituency. and the expenditure of the Government of
India. They check that parliament exercises
262. Which of the following is not a Union over the executive stems from the basic
Territory? principle that parliament embodies the will of
(A) Lakshadweep the people. This committee along with the
(B) Puducherry Estimates committee (EC) and Committee on
(C) Nagaland Public Undertakings (COPU) are the three
(D) Dadra and Nagar Haveli financial standing committees of the
Parliament of India. The Chairman of the
Ans.262(C) Nagaland is a state in north Public Accounts Committee is appointed by
eastern India. It is bordered by the state of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
Assam to the west, Arunachal Pradesh and
Assam to the north, Myanmar to the east, and 265. Where the Presiding officer is not the member
Manipur to the south. The state capital is of that house?
Kohima, and the largest city is Dimapur. It has (A) Lok Sabha (B) Rajya Sabha
an area of 16,579 square kilometres (6,401 sq (C) Vidhan Sabha (D) Vidhan Parishad
mi) with a population of 1,980,602 per the
2011 Census of India, making it one of the Ans.265(B) Rajya Sabha, is the presiding
smallest states of India. Nagaland is one of officer, not a member of that house.
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The Rajya Sabha or Council of States is the (C) For nine months (D) Indefinitely
upper house of the Parliament of India.
Membership of Rajya Sabha is limited by the Ans.268(B) Ordinances are laws that are
Constitution to a maximum of 250 members, promulgated by the President of India (Indian
and current laws have provision for 245 Parliament) on the recommendation of the
members. The Vice-President of India Union Cabinet, which will have the same
(currently, Hamid Ansari) is the ex-officio effect as an Act of Parliament. They can only
Chairman of the Rajya Sabha, who presides be issued when Parliament is not in session.
over its sessions.
269. The speaker of the Lok-Sabha has to address
266. “Residuary powers” under the Indian his/her letter of resignation to.
(A) Prime Minister of India
Constitution means: (B) President of India
(A) the powers relating to International (C) Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha
Affairs. (D) Minister of Parliamentary Affairs
(B) the powers, which have not been
specifically enumerated in the Union List. Ans.269(C) The Deputy Speaker of the Lok
(C) the powers relating to Internal Sabha is the vice-presiding officer of the Lok
Emergency. Sabha, the lower house of the Parliament of
(D) the powers, which can be exercised both India. S/He acts as the presiding officer in
by the Union Government and the States. case of leave or absence caused by death or
illness of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha. It is
Ans.266(D) Residuary powers are those by convention that position of Deputy Speaker
powers which can be made by the parliament is offered to opposition party in India. He
only. It is different from 3 lists, union list, decides whether a bill is a money bill or a
state list, and concurrent list. These powers non-money bill. S/He maintains discipline and
are neither under the legislative powers of the decorum in the house and can punish a
State nor the Union. Parliament has exclusive member for unruly behaviour by suspending
power to make any law with respect to any him/her.
matter not enumerated in the Concurrent List
or State List. Such power shall include the 270. Supreme Court of India was established on the
power of making any law imposing a tax not recommendation of-
mentioned in either of those Lists. (A) Pits India Act of 1784
(B) Regulating act of 1773
267. How many total members can be nominated (C) Charter act of 1793
by president in both houses of parliament. (D) Charter act of 1813
(A) 14 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 16 Ans.270(B) The Regulating Act of 1773
recognized the political functions of the
Ans.267(A) The President of India can company, as it first emphasized the order of
nominate no more than two members from Parliament as a government. This was the
Anglo-Indian community to the Lok Sabha if British government's first attempt to centralize
he or she feels that the community is not the administrative system in India.
adequately represented. The President can The four main salient features or provisions of
nominate 12 members to the Rajya Sabha who the Regulating Act of 1773 are as follows:
have special knowledge or practical • The Act nominated the Governor General of
experience in respect of literature, science, art Bengal and formed an executive council of 4
and social service. members to assist him. And thus, Lord
Warren Hastings became the first Governor-
268. A Presidential Ordinance can remain in force General of Bengal.
(A) For Three months (B) For six months
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213

• The act prohibited the servants or workers of

the East India Company from engaging in any Ans.273(B) The Indian Councils Act 1909,
kind of private trade or offering bribes to the commonly known as the Morley-Minto or
natives. Minto-Morley Reforms, was an Act of the
• It was under this Act, that a Supreme Court Parliament of the United Kingdom that
at Fort William was established with British brought about a limited increase in the
judges using the British legal system. involvement of Indians in the governance of
• The Act limited the company's dividend to 6 British India. It was in force for 10 years and
percent until it repaid a loan of £ 1.5 million the shortest time.
and limited the Court of Directors to a 4-year
term. 274. On whose advice does the President of the
United States appoint judges of the Supreme
271. Judicial review in the Indian Constitution is Court?
based on: (A) with Senate's consent
(A) Rule of Law (B) at his discretion
(B) Due process of Law (C) with consent of the House of
(C) Procedure established by Law Representatives.
(D) Precedents and Conventions (D) None of these

Ans.271(C) Judicial Review refers to the Ans.274(A) Article II, Section 2, Clause 2 of
power of the judiciary to interpret the the United States Constitution, known as the
constitution and to declare any such law or Appointments Clause, empowers the president
order of the legislature and executive void, if to nominate and, with the confirmation
it finds them in conflict the Constitution of (advice and consent) of the United States
India. It has the power to reject any law or any Senate, to appoint public officials, including
of its part which is found to be justices of the Supreme Court.
unconstitutional.
275. The design of the National Flag was adopted
272. The main characteristic of the traditional by the Constituent Assembly of India in:
approach of Political Science was- (A) July, 1948 (B) July, 1950
(A) The Value Free Study (C) July, 1947 (D) August, 1947
(B) Institutional Study
(C) Comparative Study Ans.275(C) The National Flag of India is a
(D) Emphasis on Scientific Methodology horizontal rectangular tricolour of India
saffron, white and India green; with the
Ans.272(B) Traditional approaches are value Ashoka Chakra, a 24-spoke wheel, in navy
based. These approaches put emphasis on blue at its centre. It was adopted in its present
values more that facts. Advocates of this form during a meeting of the Constituent
approaches believe that the study of political Assembly held on 22 July 1947, and it became
science cannot and should not be purely the official flag of the Dominion of India on
scientific. They stated that in social science 15 August 1947. The flag was subsequently
such as facts values are closely related with retained as that of the Republic of India. In
each other. India, the term "tricolour" almost always
refers to the Indian national flag.
273. The most-short time of all the British
constitutional experiments in India is which 276. By which act, the rule of the company in India
Act? was abolished and the Government of England
(A) Government of India Act, 1919 took over the management of Indian territories
(B) Indian Council Act, 1909 directly?
(C) Pitt’s India Act, 1784 (A) Charter Act, 1833
(D) Government of India Act, 1935 (B) Government of India Act, 1858
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(C) Indian Council Act, 1861 (C) To obey all the women.
(D) Government of India Act, 1935 (D) To develop the scientific temper and spirit
of enquiry.
Ans.276(B) The 'Revolt of 1857 AD' was an
inauspicious and important event in Indian Ans.279 (C) It shall be the duty of every
history. Although some foreign historians citizen of India –
have termed this revolution as a military (a) to abide by the Constitution and respect its
rebellion, it was the 'first freedom struggle' ideals and institutions, the National Flag and
from the Indian point of view. Therefore, the the National Anthem;
British Government passed an Act in 1858 (b) to cherish and follow the noble ideals
AD, which is called 'Indian Administrative which inspired our national struggle for
Reforms Act'. Through this act, the rule of the freedom;
company in India was ended and the (c) to uphold and protect the sovereignty,
Government of England took over the unity and integrity of India;
management of Indian territories directly. (d) to defend the country and render national
service when called upon to do so;
277. The most important feature of Cabinet system (e) to promote harmony and the spirit of
of Government is- common brotherhood amongst all the people
(A) Individual responsibility of India transcending religious, linguistic and
(B) Collective responsibility regional or sectional diversities; to renounce
(C) Responsibility to none practices derogatory to the dignity of women.
(D) Non-responsibility
280. Which of the following was adopted from the
Ans.277(B) A key feature of Cabinet is the Maurya dynasty in the emblem of
concept of collective responsibility, which Government of India?
means that the Prime Minister and the Council (A) Four lions
of Ministers are collectively responsible to the (B) Chariot wheel
House of People. It is because of collective (C) Horse
responsibility; the cabinet government is also (D) Words ‘Satyameva Jayate’
known as the responsible government.
Ans.280(A) The State Emblem of India, as the
278. If there is a deadlock between Rajya Sabha national emblem of the Republic of India is
and Lok Sabha over an ordinary bill, it will be called, is an adaptation of the Lion Capital of
resolved by- Ashoka from 250 BCE at Sarnath, preserved
(A) The President in the Sarnath Museum near Varanasi, India.
(B) The Council of Ministers It has 4 lions which face 4 different directions,
(C) The Joint Session of Parliament namely North, east, south, west.
(D) The Supreme Court
281. When did Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of
Ans.278(C) The joint sitting of the Parliament England, announce the transfer of power to
is called by the President (Article 108) and is the Indians?
presided over by the Speaker or, in his (A) February, 1947 (B) August, 1947
absence, by the Deputy Speaker of the Lok (C) June, 1948 (D) June, 1949
Sabha or in his absence, the Deputy-Chairman
of the Rajya Sabha. Ans.281(C) Mr. Attlee, Prime Minister of
England, announce the transfer of power to
279. Which of the following is not the fundamental the Indians in June, 1948.
duty for Indian citizens?
(A) To safe guard public property. 282. The basic feature of a unitary system is
(B) To protect and improve the natural (A) Centralization of powers
environment. (B) Decentralization of powers
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(C) Dual citizenship vice-president was Joseph Baptista and

(D) Unstability General Secretary Dewan Chamanlal.

Ans.282(A) Centralization of power occurs in 285. Which one of the following is an example of
governments in which power or legal direct democracy in India?
authority is exerted or coordinated by a de (A) Zila Panchayat
facto political executive to which federal (B) Gram Sabha
states, local authorities, and smaller units are (C) Kshetra Panchayat
considered subject. In a national context, (D) Nagar Panchayat
centralization occurs in the transfer of power
to a typically sovereign nation state. Ans.285(B) The Gram Sabha is the fulcrum of
the Panchayati Raj and village development.
283. In which year was zero hour introduced for People use the forum of the Gram Sabha to
the parliamentary affairs in India? discuss local governance and development,
(A) 1951 (B) 1962 and make need- based plans for the village.
(C) 1947 (D) 1949 The term Gram Sabha is defined in the
Constitution of India under Article 243(b).
Ans.283(B) Zero Hour in Parliament starts at Gram Sabha is the primary body of the
12 noon during which members raise matters Panchayati Raj system and by far the largest.
of importance, especially those that cannot be It is a permanent body.
delayed. Zero Hour is the Indian innovation in Gram Sabha is the Sabha of the electorate. All
the field of parliamentary procedures and has other institutions of the Panchayati Raj like
been in existence since 1962. However, it the Gram Panchayat, Block Panchayat and
does not find mention in the rules of Zilla Parishad are constituted by elected
procedure. During zero hour, questions are representatives. The decisions taken by the
asked about issues of public importance Gram Sabha cannot be annulled by any other
without prior permission. These questions are body. The power to annul a decision of the
usually directed against individual ministers. Gram Sabha rests with the Gram Sabha only.

284. Who was the first President of the All India 286. How many seats should a political party have
Trade Union Congress (AITUC)? in order to be recognised as an official
(A) C.R. Das (B) V.V. Giri opposition Group in the Parliament?
(C) Lala Lajpat Rai (D) Sarojini Naidu (A) 1/6th of the total strength
(B) 1/10th of the total strength
Ans.284(C) 'Lala Lajpat Rai' is counted (C) 1/4th of the total strength
among the great revolutionaries of India. Lala (D) 1/3rd of the total strength
Lajpat Rai, who does not care for his life
while facing the British power for life, is also Ans.286(B) Official Opposition is a term used
called 'Punjab Kesari'. When VP Wadia in Parliament of India and State Legislatures
established the 'Madras Shramik Sangh' in to designate the political party which has
India, it was only with the efforts of Lalaji that secured the second largest number of seats in
the 'Workers Union Act' was passed in 1926. either upper or lower houses. In order to get
The 'All India Trade Union Congress' formal recognition in either upper or lower
(AITUC), established in 1920 AD, then joined houses, the concerned party must have at least
about 64 labor unions. With the efforts of M. 10% of the total strength of the house.[1] A
N. Joshi, Lala Lajpat Rai and Joseph Baptista, single party has to meet the 10% seat
the influence of the Left began to increase on criterion, not an alliance. Many of the Indian
the 'All India Trade Union Congress' state legislatures also follows this 10% rule
established in 1920 AD. The first president of while the rest of them prefer single largest
AITUC (AITUC) was Lala Lajpat Rai. This opposition party according to the rules of their
conference was held in 1920 in Bombay. Its respective houses.
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(1) There shall be equality of opportunity for

287. Article 14 of the Indian Constitution all citizens in matters relating to employment
guarantees Indian citizens: or appointment to any office under the State
(A) Equality before law. (2) No citizen shall, on grounds only of
(B) Equal distribution of economic resources. religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of
(C) Equality before law and equal protection birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible
of the laws. for, or discriminated against in respect or, any
(D) Equal protection of laws. employment or office under the State
(3) Nothing in this article shall prevent
Ans.287(C) Article 14 of the Constitution of Parliament from making any law prescribing,
India. Article 14 of the Constitution of India in regard to a class or classes of employment
provides for equality before the law or equal or appointment to an office under the
protection of the laws within the territory of Government of, or any local or other authority
India. "The State shall not deny to any person within, a State or Union territory, any
equality before the law or the equal protection requirement as to residence within that State
of the laws within the territory of India." or Union territory prior to such employment
or appointment.
288. Which of the following is not true regarding
the Chief Election Commissioner of India? 290. The Estimates Committee consists of member
(A) President appoints the Chief Election from which of the following?
Commissioner of India. (A) Parliament (B) LokSbaha
(B) Chief Election Commissioner of India can (C) Union Territories (D) State Asmeblies
be by the same process as applicable to judge
of Supreme Court. Ans.290(B) The Estimates Committee is a
(C) Other election commissioners can be committee of selected members of parliament,
removed by the president on the constituted by the Parliament of India (the
recommendation of Chief Election Lok Sabha), for the purpose of scrutinising the
Commission of India. functioning of government ministries and
(D) T. Swaminathan was the first Chief departments in terms of expenditure and
Election Commissioner of India. utilisation of funds. It also suggests alternative
policies in order to bring about efficiency and
Ans.288(D) Election Commissioners of India economy in administration. This committee
are members of Election Commission of along with the Public Accounts committee
India, a body constitutionally empowered to (PAC) and Committee on Public Undertakings
conduct free and fair elections in India to the (COPU) are the three financial standing
national and state legislatures. The Election committees of the Parliament of India.
Commissioners are usually retired IAS or IRS
officers.
291. Supreme Court is the guardian for?
289. The Central Government gets the power to (A) Fundamental Rights
provide reservations in jobs and educational (B) Directive Principles
institutions for the weaker sections of the (C) Center and State Disputes
society due to which of the following (D) Permeable
Constitutional provision?
(A) Article 51 (B) Article 16 Ans.291(A) The Constitution has assigned to
(C) Article 14 (D) Article 41 the Supreme Court as the Guardian of
Fundamental Rights and also responsibility
Ans.289(B) Equality of opportunity in matters for the protection. The Supreme Court as the
of public employment. Guardian of Fundamental Rights can declare
any law null and void if it violates. These
writs can also be issued by the High Court.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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4. Union Powers – Dr. K. M. Munshi

292. Who is a non-member but can participate in Committee
the proceedings of Parliament? Which of the pairs given above is/are
(A) Solicitor General (B) President correctly matched?
(C) Vice President (A) 1 only (B) 3 only
(D) Attorney General (C) 1 and 4 only
(D) None of the above
Ans.292(D) The Attorney General for India is
the Indian government's chief legal advisor, Ans.294(B) Drafting Committee – Dr. B. R.
and is primary lawyer in the Supreme Court of Ambedkar
India. He can be said to be the advocate from Advisory Committee on Fundamental rights
government's side. He is appointed by the – Vallabhbhai Patel
President of India on advice of Union Cabinet States Committee – Sardar Patel
under Article 76(1) of the Constitution and Union Powers – Jawaharlal Nehru
holds office during the pleasure of the
President. The 15th and current Attorney 295. Select the correct match using the code given
General is K. K. Venugopal. He was below:
appointed by Pranab Mukherjee, the President Column-I Column-II
of India at that time. He was formally (Features of the Indian (Borrowed from
appointed as with effect from 30 June 2017 Constitution)
and shall have a tenure of 3 years. (A) Fundamental Rights 1. UK
(B) Parliamentary System 2. USA of
293. In terms of the order of precedence, the rank Government
of Lok Sabha speaker is.? (C) Emergency Provisions 3. Ireland
(A) 1st (B) 3rd (D) Directive Principle of State Policy 4.
(C) 4 th
(D) 7th Germany
ABCD
Ans.293(D) The order of precedence of the (A) 1 2 3 4 (B) 2 1 4 3
Republic of India is the protocol list (C) 3 2 1 4 (D) 2 1 3 4
(hierarchy of important positions) in which the
functionaries, dignitaries and officials are Ans.295(B) Fundamental Rights - USA
listed according to their rank and office in the Parliamentary System - UK
Government of India. The order is established Emergency Provisions - Germany
by the President of India, through the Directive Principle of State Policy – Ireland
President's Secretariat and is maintained by
the Ministry of Home Affairs. It is only used 296. Which of the following pairs is correctly
to indicate ceremonial protocol and has no matched?
legal standing and does not reflect the Indian (A) Amendment Procedure: Article 268
presidential line of succession or the co-equal (B) Duties of Prime Minister: Article 74
status of the separation of powers under the (C) President’s Rule: Article 365
constitution. It is not applicable for the day-to- (D) Inter-State Council: Article 263
day functioning of the Government of India.
Ans.296(D) The Inter-State Council is a non-
294. Consider the following pairs: permanent constitutional body set up by a
Committees of the Chairman Constituent presidential order on the basis of provisions in
Assembly Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The
1. Drafting Committee – B.N. Rao body was formed by a Presidential Order
2. Advisory Committee on Fundamental rights dated 28 May 1990 on recommendation of
– Dr. Rajendra Prasad Sarkaria Commission.
3. States Committee – Sardar Patel
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
218

297. Which of the following pairs is/are correctly Ans.300(B) Fourth Schedule contains
matched? provisions as to the allocation of seats in the
Provisions Schedules Rajya sabha and while second schedule
(A) Anti-defection – Twelfth Schedule contains provisions of salary of President,
(B) Oaths or Affirmations – Second Schedule Governor and judges etc.
(C) Languages recognized by the Constitution
– Tenth schedule 301. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(D) Allocation of seats in the Rajya Sabha – (A) Article 79 Parliament
fourth Schedule (B) Article 80 Rajya Sabha
(C) Article 81 Lok Sabha
Ans.297(D) Allocation of seats in the Rajya (D) Article 84 Duration of Houses of
Sabha – fourth Schedule Parliament.

298. Which of the following matches is incorrect? Ans.301(D) Article 83 : Duration of Houses of
(A) US - Independence of the judiciary Parliament.
(B) Australian - List of concurrent powers
(C) Canada - Name of the Union of India 302. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(D) South African - Parliamentary system (A) Article-315 - Public Service Commissions
(B) Article 320 - Election Commission
Ans.298(D) Executive functions are exercised (C) Article 148 - Comptroller and Auditor-
by members of Parliament appointed by the General of India
Prime Minister to the Cabinet. The (D) Article 76 - Attorney General of India
parliamentary system originated in Britain and
has been adopted in many previously Ans.302(B) Article 324 empowers the
colonized countries such as India. Election Commission of India to issue rules
and guidelines for conducting elections of
299. Which of the following matches is incorrect? Parliament, President, Vice President and
(A) Article 14 - Equality before law State Legislature Assemblies in the country.
(B) Article 17 - Abolition of untouchability
(C) Article 20 - Protection of life and personal 303. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
liberty Designation Appointed by
(D) Article 16 - Equality of opportunity in (A) Chief Justice of India - President
matters of public employment (B) Advocate General - Governor
(C) Chief Justice of High Court - Governor
Ans.299(C) Article 21 guarantees the (D) Attorney General - President
protection of life and personal liberty to every
individual and states that, "No person shall be Ans.303(C) The Chief Justice of a High Court
deprived of his life and personal liberty except is appointed by the President with the
according to procedure established by law." consultation of the Chief Justice of the
Supreme Court and the Governor of the State.
300. Which of the following matches is incorrect? The other judges are appointed by the will of
(A) Third Schedule - Forms of Oaths and President, Governor and the Chief Justice of
affirmations High Court.
(B) Fourth Schedule - Salary of President,
Governors etc. 304. Which of the following matches is incorrect?
(C) Fifth Schedule - Administration and Committee Chairman
control of scheduled areas and tribes (A) Steering Committee - Rajendra Prasad
(D) Eleventh Schedule - Provisions of (B) Union powers committee - Jawaharlal
Panchayati Raj. Nehru
(C) The committee on Fundamental Rights -
Sardar Patel
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
219

(D) The committee on Union constitution - B.

R. Ambedkar 308. Which of the following is not matched?
(A) Article 54- Presidential election
Ans.304(D) The committee on Union (B) Article 55: manner of presidential election
constitution: Jawaharlal Nehru (Chairman). (C) Article 61- Procedure for impeachment of
the President
305. Which of the following matches is incorrect? (D) Article 122 - Power of the President to
Member of interim government Designation promulgate ordinance
(A) Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru - Deputy
Chairman of the Executive Council Ans.308(D) Article 123 of the Constitution of
(B) Vallabhbhai Patel - Minister of India, which allows ordinances was originally
Information and Broadcasting intended to allow the Government to pass
(C) C. Rajagopalachari - Health Minister critical laws when the Parliament was not in
(D) Asaf Ali - Railway Minister session or to deal with extraordinary,
unforeseen or emergency circumstances.
Ans.305(C) Abdur Rab Nishtar and Jogendra Promulgation of an ordinance has to be
Nath Mandal was the Health Minister of India ratified by the President.
(interim government). After the Partition of
India, Khan became Pakistan's Minister for 309. Match the following.
Food, Agriculture and Health. i) 6th schedule a) Administration and
control of scheduled areas
306. Which of the following matches is incorrect? ii) 2nd schedule b) Administration of
State Their High Court tribal areas of Assam, Mizoram Meghalaya
(A) Andhra Pradesh High Court - Amaravati and Tripura
(B) Assam High Court - Guwahati iii) 12th schedule c) Provisions to speaker
(C) Gujarat High Court - Gandhi Nagar and deputy speaker of the Legislative
(D) Himachal Pradesh High Court - Shimla assembly
iv) 5th schedule d) Power and authority
Ans.306(C) Gujarat High Court is the High of municipalities
Court of the state of Gujarat. It was (A) i- b, ii-c, iii-d, iv-a
established on 1 May 1960 after the (B) i-a, ii-b, iii-c, iv-d
bifurcation of Gujarat from the Bombay State (C) i-c, ii-d, iii-b, iv-a
under the Bombay Re-Organization Act, 1960. (D) i- c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
The Court is located in Ahmedabad City.
Ans.309(A) The second schedule includes
307. Which of the following matches is incorrect? provisions for the President, the Governors of
(A) Dadra, Nagar and Haveli included in the States, the Speaker and the Deputy
Indian Union - 10th amendment Speaker of the Lok Sabha and the Speaker and
(B) Sindhi added as language in the 8th Deputy Speaker of the Legislative Council and
schedule - 8th amendment the Speaker and Deputy Speaker of the
(C) Sikkim included as an Indian state - 36th Legislative Assembly.
amendment
(D) Right to Property deleted from the list of 310. Find the incorrect match.
fundamental rights - 42nd amendment (A) 61th Amendment Act - to reduce the
voting age from 21 years to 18 years
Ans.307(D) The 44th Amendment of 1978 (B) 69st Amendment Act – Delhi made
removed the right to property from the list of National Capital
fundamental rights. A new provision, Article (C) 86nd Amendment Act - 6-14 years. No
300-A, was added to the constitution, which child is liable to pay any kind of
provided that "no person shall be deprived of fee/Capitation fee/ Charges.
his property save by authority of law".
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
220

(D) 93rd Amendment Act -to include Bodo, certain areas designated as 'scheduled areas
Dogri, Maithili and Santali languages and 'tribal areas'.

Ans.310(D) The 92nd Amendment of the 314. Find the incorrect match.
Constitution of India, officially known as the (A) Constitution of USA-Independence of
Constitution Act, 2003, by this amendment judiciary USA.
included Bodo, Dogri, Maithili and Santhali (B) Constitution of Germany-Method of
languages in the Eighth Schedule. presidential elections.
(C) Constitution of Australia-Idea of the
311. Match List - I with List - II and select the Concurrent list.
correct answer using the code given below the (D) Constitution of Canada-Federation with
lists. strong Centre.
List - I List - II
F. President 1. ELected by an Ans.314(B) The method of presidential
electroal college election is derived from the Ireland.
G. Vice-Preside 2. Elected by the
members of Rajya Sabha and Lok Sabha 315. Find the incorrect match.
H. Speaker 3. Elected by the Act Year
members of Lok Sabha (A) The Regulating Act - 1773
J. Member Parliament 4. ELected by adult (B) Government of India Act - 1920
voting (C) Indian Independence Act- 1947
Code (D) Indian Councils Acts of -1861
F G H J
(A) 1 2 3 4 Ans.315(B) The Government of India Act,
(B) 2 1 3 4 1935 was passed by British Parliament in
(C) 2 1 4 3 August 1935. This act ended the system of
(D) 1 2 4 3 dyarchy introduced by the Government of
India Act, 1919 and provided for
Ans 311(A) establishment of a Federation of India to be
made up of provinces of British India.
312. Which of the following features and their
source is wrongly matched. 316. Find the incorrect match.
(A) Judicial Review : British practice (A) Articale41- Right to work, to education
(B) Concurrent List : Australian Constitution and to public assistance in certain cases.
(C) Directive Principles : Irish Constitution (B) Articale56 -Term of office of President
(D) Fundamental Rights : US Constitution (C) Articale52- Election of President
(D) Articale101- Vacation of seats
Ans.312(A) India has borrowed certain
features like fundamental rights, judicial Ans.316(C) According to Article 52 of
review, independence of judiciary, functions Constitution of India, the President is the head
of president and vice-president and of state of the Republic of India. The President
impeachment of the President from the USA. is the formal head of the executive, legislature
and judiciary of India and also the
313. Find the incorrect match. commander-in-chief of the Indian Armed
(A) Part 4-Government at the State level Forces.
(B) Part17- Official languages
(C) Part7-A Scheduled and tribal areas 317. Find the incorrect match.
(D) Part9-The Panchayats State Formation
(A) Andhra Pradesh -1 October 1953
Ans.313(C) Part X of the Constitution en (B) Arunachal Pradesh - 20 February 1987
visages a special system of administration for (C) Gujarat - 01 May 1962
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
221

(D) Haryana - 01 November 1966 Legal Services Authorities Act was enacted by
the Parliament which came into force on 9th
Ans.317(C) The Mahagujarat Movement, November, 1995 to establish a nationwide
locally known as Mahagurat Andolan, was a uniform network for providing free and
political movement in 1956 from the bilingual competent legal services to the weaker
Bombay state of India to the Gujarati-speaking sections of the society on the basis of equal
peoples of Gujarat. It succeeded in the opportunity.
construction of Gujarat, which was formed on Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the
1 May 1960. right to individuals to move to the Supreme
Court to seek justice when they feel that their
318. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct right has been ‘unduly deprived’. The apex
answer using the codes given below the lists: court is given the authority to issue directions
List-I List-II or orders for the execution of any of the rights
a. Article 49 1. Participation of bestowed by the constitution as it is
workers in considered ‘the protector and guarantor of
management of Fundamental Rights’. '
industries Article 43A: Participation of workers in
b. Article 39A 2. Protection of management of industries The State shall take
monuments and steps, by suitable legislation or in any other
places and object way, to secure the participation of workers in
c. Article 32 3. Regarding the management of undertakings,
constitutional establishments or other organisations engaged
remedies in any industry.
d. Article 43A 4. Promotes equal
justice and free 319. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
legal aid for all the answer using the codes given below the lists:
citizens. List-I List-II
Codes: a. The 61st Amendment 1. Reduces the
A B C D voting age from 21
(A) 1 2 4 3 years to 18
(B) 1 4 2 3 b. The 69th Amendment 2. Delhi as ‘National
(C) 2 4 3 1 Capital'
(D) 2 1 4 3 c. The 99th Amendment 3. Goods and
Services Tax
Ans.318(C) Article 49: Protection of d. The 101 Amendment 4. The National
monuments and places and objects of national Judicial Appointments
importance It shall be the obligation of the Commission (NJAC)
State to protect every monument or place or Codes:
object of artistic or historic interests, declared A B C D
by or under law made by Parliament to be of (A) 1 2 4 3
national importance, from spoliation, (B) 1 4 2 3
disfigurement, destruction, removal, disposal (C) 2 4 3 1
or export, as the case may be. (D) 2 1 4 3
Article 39A of the Constitution of India
provides for free legal aid to the poor and Ans.319(A) The 61st Amendment reduces the
weaker sections of the society and ensures voting age from 21 years to 18 years for the
justice for all. Articles 14 and 22(1) of the Lok Sabha and Assembly election.
Constitution also make it obligatory for the The 69th Amendment Act was to grant
State to ensure equality before law and a legal Statehood to Delhi as ‘National Capital
system which promotes justice on the basis of Territory of Delhi’.
equal opportunity to all. In the year 1987, the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
222

The National Judicial Appointments (2) Without prejudice to the generality of the
Commission (NJAC) was established by the foregoing provisions, the High Court may.
Union government of India by amending the (a) call for returns from such courts;
constitution of India through the 99th (b) make and issue general rules and prescribe
Constitutional Amendment Act, 201 forms for regulating the practice and
The Constitution (101st Amendment) Act, proceedings of such courts; and
2017 Introduced the Goods and Services Tax. (c) prescribe forms in which books, entries
and accounts shall be kept by the officers of
320. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct any such courts.
answer using the codes given below the lists: Part X (Article 234 to 240) Recruitment of
List-I List-II persons other than district judges to the
a. Part XI (Article 245 to 255) 1. Different judicial service Appointment of persons other
aspects of legislative relations between centre than district judges to the judicial service of a
and states. State shall be made by the Governor of the
b. Part IV (Article 227 to 234) 2. Recruitment State in accordance with rules made by him in
of persons other than district judges. that behalf after consultation with the State
c. Part X (Article 234 to 240) 3. Taxes not to Public Service Commission and with the High
be imposed save by authority of law. Court exercising jurisdiction in relation to
d. Part XII (Article 265 to 277) 4. Power of such state.
superintendence over all courts by the High Part XII (Article 265 to 277)
Court. 265. Taxes not to be imposed save by
Codes: authority of law.
A B C D No tax shall be levied or collected except by
(A) 1 2 4 3 authority of law.
(B) 1 4 2 3 266. Consolidated Funds and public accounts
(C) 2 4 3 1 of India and of the States.
(D) 2 1 4 3 (1) Subject to the provisions of article 267 and
to the provisions of this Chapter with respect
Ans.320(B) Articles 245 to 255 in Part XI to the assignment of the whole or part of the
deals with different aspects of legislative net proceeds of certain taxes and duties to
relations between centre and states. These States, all revenues received by the
include: Government of India, all loans raised by that
(1) Territorial jurisdiction of laws made by the Government by the issue of treasury bills,
Parliament and by the Legislatures of States. loans or ways and means advances and all
(2) Distribution of legislative subjects. moneys received by that Government in
(3) Power of parliament to legislate with repayment of loans shall form one
respect to a matter in the State List. consolidated fund to be entitled “the
(4) Centre's control state legislation. Consolidated Fund of India”, and all revenues
However, Seventh Schedule of the received by the Government of a State, all
Constitution provides for the distribution of loans raised by that Government by the issue
legislative powers between the centre and the of treasury bills, loans or ways and means
states. The legislative subjects are divided into advances and all moneys received by that
List I (the Union List), List II (the Concurrent Government in repayment of loans shall form
List) and List III (the State List). one consolidated fund to be entitled “the
Part IV (Article 227 to 234) Power of Consolidated Fund of the State”.
superintendence over all courts by the High
Court. 321. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(1) Every High Court shall have answer using the codes given below the lists:
superintendence over all courts and tribunals List-I List-II
throughout the territories interrelation to a. Uttarakhand came into existence on 1.
which it exercises jurisdiction. 2 June 2014
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
223

b. Nagaland came into existence on 2. 9th (A) 1 2 4 3

November, 2000 (B) 1 4 2 3
c. Uttar pradesh came into existence on 3. 1 (C) 2 4 3 1
April 1937 (D) 2 1 4 3
d. Telangana came into existence 4. 1st
December 1963 Ans.322(D) Article 39 - states that the state
Codes: government should ensure that such a justice
A B C D system can be implemented so that everyone
(A) 1 2 4 3 gets equal justice and provide free legal
(B) 1 4 2 3 services by appropriate laws and schemes or
(C) 2 4 3 1 by any other means. It should have special
(D) 2 1 4 3 purpose, so that all citizens can get an
opportunity to get justice.
Ans.321(C) Uttarakhand movement is termed Article 50 - Promotion of international peace
to the events of statehood activism within the and security.
state Uttar Pradesh which ultimately resulted Article 54 - The President is elected by an
in a separate state Uttarakhand of the Republic electoral college consisting of the elected
of India. Uttarakhand became a separate state members of both the Houses of Parliament
off Uttar Pradesh at 9 November 2000. and the Legislative Assemblies of the States
The beautiful north-eastern mountainous state as well as the elected members of the National
of Nagaland came into being on December 1, Capital, Delhi Region and Union Territory of
1963. Puducherry.
Uttar Pradesh is a state in northern India. It Article 61 - Procedure for impeachment of the
was created on 1 April 1937 as the United President.
Provinces of Agra and Oudh during British
rule, and was renamed Uttar Pradesh in 1950.
323. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
The state is divided into 18 divisions and 75
answer using the codes given below the lists:
districts with the capital being Lucknow. On 9
List-I List-II
November 2000, a new state, Uttarakhand,
a. Article 112 1. Annual financial
was carved out from the state's Himalayan hill
statement
region.
b. Article 125 2. Judges salaries
Telangana is a state in India situated on the
c. Article 129 3. Speaker and
centre-south stretch of the Indian peninsula on
Deputy Speaker of
the high Deccan Plateau. On 2 June 2014,
Lok Sabha
the area was separated from the north-western
d. Article 93 4. Supreme court to
part of Andhra Pradesh as the newly formed
be a court of record
29th state with Hyderabad as its historic
Codes:
permanent capital.
A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3
322. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(B) 1 4 2 3
answer using the codes given below the lists:
(C) 2 4 3 1
List-I List-II
(D) 2 1 4 3
a. Article promotes equal justice and free legal
aid for all the citizens. 1. Article 54
Ans.323(A) Article 112 - Annual Financial
b. Election of President. 2. Article39
Statement
c. Promotion of international peace and
Article 125 - Salary of Judges
security. 3. Article 61
Article 129 - Record of Supreme Court to be
d. Procedure for impeachment of the
court
President. 4. Article 51
Article 93 - Speaker and Deputy Speaker of
Codes:
Lok Sabha
A B C D
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324. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. Money Bill 1. Contains
answer using the codes given below the lists: provisions related to taxation,
List-I List-II b. Financial Bills 2. All other Bills
a. Right to Constitutional Remedies comes c. Ordinary Bills 3. These are Bills
under 1. Certiorari which seek to amend the Constitution.
b. Right to adequate means of livelihood for d. Constitution Amendment Bills 4. some
all citizens comes under 2. Fundamental provisions related to taxation and expenditure,
rights Codes:
c. a judicial writ issued as a command to an A B C D
inferior court or ordering a person to perform (A) 1 2 4 3
a public or statutory duty known as (B) 1 4 2 3
3. mandamus (C) 2 4 3 1
d. a writ or order by which a higher court (D) 2 1 4 3
reviews a case tried in a lower court
4. Directive Principles of State Policy Ans.325(B) Definition of Money Bill is given
Codes: under Article 110. Under this, a bill will be
A B C D deemed to be a money bill if it only has
(A) 1 2 4 3 provisions related to subjects for all of the
(B) 1 4 2 3 following.
(C) 2 4 3 1 1. To tax, reduce or increase, regularize it,
(D) 2 1 4 3 make any changes in it.
2. To take loan, regularize or change any
Ans.324(C) Fundamental Rights – Right to surcharge on behalf of Government of India.
Constitutional Remedies. ... This right comes 3. To put or withdraw some money in the
under article 32 for Supreme court an article Consolidated Fund or Contingency Fund of
226 for the high court. It is known as the right India.
to constitutional remedies. In this right, the 4. The decision of a bill to be a money bill or
Supreme court, as well as high court, is given not is made by the Speaker of Lok Sabha and
the power to instil the fundamental rights. its decision is final.
Certiorari is a court process to seek judicial 5. Money Bills can be introduced only in Lok
review of a decision of a lower court or Sabha, after passing from Lok Sabha, Money
administrative agency. Certiorari comes from Bill is sent to Rajya Sabha and Rajya Sabha
the name of an English prerogative writ, can neither reject nor amend any money bill.
issued by a superior court to direct that the Can send with recommendations.
record of the lower court be sent to the 6. If the Money Bill is not returned by the
superior court for review. Rajya Sabha to the Lok Sabha within 14 days,
Mandamus is a judicial remedy in the form of it is deemed to have been passed by both the
an order from a court to any government, Houses (Article 109).
subordinate court, corporation, or public Finance Bill: The Finance Bill is mentioned
authority, to do (or forbear from doing) some in Articles 117 (1) and 117 (2) of the Indian
specific act which that body is obliged under Constitution. All such Bills which are related
law to do (or refrain from doing), and which is to financial matters are called Finance Bills.
in the nature of public duty, and in certain The bill is introduced in the Lok Sabha after
cases one of a statutory duty. Mandamus may the assent of the President. In this, the Rajya
be a command to do an administrative action Sabha also gets sufficient power.
or not to take a particular action, and it is Ordinary Bill: When a proposal is made to
supplemented by legal rights. make a law in Parliament, it is called a Bill. A
bill is also of two types - ordinary bill and
325. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct money bill. The difference between the two
answer using the codes given below the lists: Bills is that except Bills, other Bills are called
List-I List-II Ordinary Bills.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
225

Constitution Amendment: Article 368 of (A) 1 2 4 3

Part 20 of the Constitution provides the (B) 1 4 2 3
Parliament with powers to amend the (C) 2 4 3 1
Constitution and its procedures. According to (D) 2 1 4 3
the procedure described in Article 368,
Parliament can amend the Constitution by Ans.327(D) Article 98 - Secretariat of
adding new provisions or removing or Parliament
replacing any of the provisions. However, Article 114 – Appropriation Bills
Parliament cannot amend the provisions Article 117 – Special provisions regarding
related to the basic structure of the Finance Bills
Constitution. This principle related to the Article 267 – contingency fund
basic structure was formulated by the
Supreme Court in the Kesavananda Bharati 328. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
suit (year 1973). answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
326. Which of the following is not matched a. Inter state council was constituted in
correctly? 1. 1990
(A) Casting Vote - The vote cast by the b. Union Public Service Commission 2. 1950
Speaker c. Election Commission of India 3. 1858
(B) Leader of the House - The Prime Minister d. Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
(C) Quorum - It is one-fifth of the total 4. 1926
number of members of the House. Codes:
(D) Question Hour - The first hour of a sitting A B C D
of the House (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
Ans.326(C) The quorum of the Lok Sabha (C) 2 4 3 1
and the Rajya Sabha is One-tenth of the total (D) 2 1 4 3
membership of each house. The quorum to
constitute a sitting of the House is one-tenth Ans.328(B) The Inter-State Council is a non-
of the total number of members of the House, permanent constitutional body set up by a
for both Lok Sabha as well as Rajya Sabha. If presidential order on the basis of provisions in
there is no quorum, it shall be the duty of the Article 263 of the Constitution of India. The
chairman or speaker to adjourn the house or body was formed by a presidential order dated
suspend the meeting. Constitution has fixed 28 May 1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria
one-tenth strength as a quorum for both Lok Commission.
Sabha and Rajya Sabha. The term of on 1 October 1926 as Public Service
individual members is six years. Casual Commission, it was later reconstituted as
vacancies whenever occurring, are filled Federal Public Service Commission by the
through bye-elections for the remaining term Government of India Act 1935.
only. The Election Commission operates under the
authority of Constitution per Article 324, and
327. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct subsequently enacted Representation of the
answer using the codes given below the lists: People Act. The commission was established
List-I List-II in 1950 and originally only had a Chief
a. Special provisions regarding Finance Bills Election Commissioner.
1. Article 98 The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG)
b. Secretariat of Parliament 2. Article 117 of India is an authority, established by Article
c. contingency fund 3. Article 114 148 of the Constitution of India, which audits
d. Appropriation Bills 4. Article 267 all receipts and expenditure of the
Codes: Government of India and the state
A B C D governments.
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226

330. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct

329. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
List-I List-II a. Pitts India Act of 1784 1. the appointment
a. Abolition of Untouchability 1. Article 17 of a Board of Control
b. Abolition of titles No title 2. Article 18 b. Charter Act of 1813 2. company’s trade
c. Equality of opportunity in matters of public links with China were also closed down.
employment 3. Article 20 c. Charter Act of 1833 3. last charter act
d. pillars of fundamental rights 4. Article 16 passed for East India Company.
Codes: d. Charter Act of 1853 4. Company's
A B C D commercial monopoly was ended, except the
(A) 1 2 4 3 trade with China.
(B) 1 4 2 3 Codes:
(C) 2 4 3 1 A B C D
(D) 2 1 4 3 (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
Ans.329(A) Article 18: Abolition of (C) 2 4 3 1
Untouchability Untouchability is abolished (D) 2 1 4 3
and its practice in any form is forbidden.
Article 18: Abolition of titles No title Ans.330(B) The East India Company Act
Article 16: Equality of opportunity in matters (EIC Act 1784), also known as Pitt's India
of public employment. Act, was an Act of the Parliament of Great
(1) There shall be equality of opportunity for Britain intended to address the shortcomings
all citizens in matters relating to employment of the Regulating Act of 1773 by bringing the
or appointment to any office under the State. East India Company's rule in India under the
(2) No citizen shall, on grounds only of control of the British Government. Named for
religion, race, caste, sex, descent, place of British prime minister William Pitt the
birth, residence or any of them, be ineligible Younger, the act provided for the appointment
for, or discriminated against in respect or, any of a Board of Control, and provided for a joint
employment or office under the State. government of British India by the Company
(3) Nothing in this article shall prevent and the Crown with the government holding
Parliament from making any law prescribing, the ultimate authority.
in regard to a class or classes of employment The East India Company Act 1813, also
or appointment to an office under the known as the Charter Act 1813, was an Act of
Government of, or any local or other authority the Parliament of the United Kingdom which
within, a State or Union territory, any renewed the charter issued to the British East
requirement as to residence within that State India Company, and continued the Company's
or Union territory prior to such employment rule in India. However, the Company's
or appointment. commercial monopoly was ended, except for
The Article 20 is one of the pillars of the tea and opium trade and the trade with
fundamental rights guaranteed by the China.
Constitution of India. It mainly deals with Features of the Charter Act of 1833:
protection of certain rights in case of The company’s commercial activities were
conviction for offences. When an individual closed down. It was made into an
as well as corporations are accused of crimes, administrative body for British Indian
the provisions of Article 20 safeguard their possessions. The company’s trade links with
rights. The striking feature of the Article 20 is China were also closed down.
that it can’t be suspended during an Charter Act of 1853
emergency period. Charter Act of 1853 was the last charter act
passed for East India Company. It was passed
on expiry of charter act of 1833.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
227

Codes:
331. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer using the codes given below the lists: (A) 1 2 4 3
List-I List-II (B) 1 4 2 3
a. Mihir Sen 1. Was one of the (C) 2 4 3 1
pioneers of modern Indian art. (D) 2 1 4 3
b. S.N. Banerjee 2. First Indian to swim
the English Channel. Ans.332(B) Chapter I (Executive) of Part V of
c. Byomkesh Bakshi 3. First Hindi the Constitution (Union) deals with President,
Television series. Vice-President, Council of Ministers (COM)
d. Nandalal Bose 4. Indian political headed by Prime Minister and Attorney
leaders during the British Raj. General. Having already discussed about
Codes: President and Vice-President, let’s concentrate
A B C D now on COM, Prime Minister and Attorney
(A) 1 2 4 3 General.
(B) 1 4 2 3 PART VI of the Constitution deals with the
(C) 2 4 3 1 other half of Indian federalism, ie the States.
(D) 2 1 4 3 Article from 152-237 deals with various
provisions related to States. It covers the
Ans.331(C) Mihir Sen was an Indian long- executive, legislature and judiciary wings of
distance swimmer and businessman. He was the states. Article 152 clarifies about the
the first Indian to swim the English Channel definition of state, while the next set of
from Dover to Calais in 1958, and did so in articles lists the roles and responsibilities of
the fourth fastest time (14 hrs & 45 mins). the Governors of states.
Sir Surendranath Banerjee was one of the For every State there shall be a Legislature
earliest Indian political leaders during the which shall consist of the Governor, and
British Raj. He founded the Indian National (a) in the States of Andhra Pradesh,
Association, through which he led two Telengana, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Maharashtra,
sessions of the Indian National Conference in Karnataka and Jammu and Kashmir, two
1883 and 1885, along with Anandamohan Houses;
Bose. (b) in other States, one House.
Byomkesh Bakshi is the first Hindi Television Part I of Indian Constitution is titled The
series based on the Byomkesh Bakshi Union and its Territory. It includes articles
character created by Sharadindu from 1- 4. Part I is a compilation of laws
Bandyopadhyay. pertaining to the constitution of India as a
Nandalal Bose was one of the pioneers of country and the union of states that it is made
modern Indian art and a key figure of of. This part of the constitution contains the
Contextual Modernism. A pupil of law in the establishment, renaming, merging
Abanindranath Tagore, Bose was known for or altering the borders of the states.
his "Indian style" of painting.
333. Which of these are incorrectly matched.
332. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists. (A) First lok sabha speaker - G. V.
List-I List-II Mavalankar
a. COM, Prime Minister and Attorney (B) First woman speaker of Lok Sabha - Mira
General 1. (Articles 74-78) kumar
b. Governor of States 2. (Article 168-177) (C) First deputy speaker of lok sabha - Violet
c. The State Legislature 3. Part I (Articles 1- Alva
4) (D) First deputy speaker of rajya sabha - S. V.
d. The Union and its Territory 4. (Article 152- Krishnamoorthy Rao
162)
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
228

Ans.333(C) Shri G. V. Mavalankar was the Mountbatten Plan. This plan was the last plan
first Speaker of Lok Sabha (15 May 1952 – 27 for independence.
February 1956) and Shri M. Ananthasayanam
Ayyangar was the first Deputy Speaker (30 335. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
May 1952 – 7 March 1956). answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
334. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. "Article 21" 1. Traffic in human
answer using the codes given below the lists: beings
List-I List-II b. "Article 23" 2. Right to Life and
a. Cabinet Mission Plan 1. 1946 Personal Liberty
b. Simon Commision 2. 1942 c. Article 24" 3. Protection against
c. Cripps Mission 3. 1947 arrest and detention in certain cases
d. The Mountbatten Plan 4. 1928 d. Article 22 4. Prohibition of
Codes: employment of children in factories etc.
A B C D Codes:
(A) 1 2 4 3 A B C D
(B) 1 4 2 3 (A) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 4 3 1 (B) 1 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 4 3 (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans.334(B) Cabinet Mission was composed
of three Cabinet Ministers of England. Ans.335(D) Article 21 secures two rights:
Sir Pethick Lawrence, Secretary of State for 1) Right to life, and
India. Sir Stafford Cripps, President of the 2) Right to personal liberty.
Board of Trade, Alexander, the First Lord of Article 22: Protection against arrest and
the Admiralty. The mission arrived on March detention in certain cases
24, 1946. The objective of this mission was Article 23: Traffic in human beings
to: Article 24: Prohibition of
Devise a machinery to draw up the employment of children in factories etc.
constitution of Independent India. Make Codes:
arrangements for interim Government. Thus
the mission was like a declaration of India’s 336. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
independence. answer using the codes given below the lists:
The Indian Statutory Commission, commonly List-I List-II
referred to as the Simon Commission, was a a. 43rd Constitutional Amendment Act
group of seven English, male British Members 1. 1987
of Parliament under the chairmanship of Sir b. 44th Constitutional Amendment Act
John Simon The commission arrived in 2. 1977
British India in 1928 to study constitutional c. 56th Constitutional Amendment Act
reform in Britain's largest and the most 3.1987
important possession. d. 57th Constitutional Amendment Act
The Cripps Mission was a failed attempt in 4. 1978
late March 1942 by the British government to Codes:
secure full Indian cooperation and support for A B C D
their efforts in World War II. (A) 1 2 4 3
The legislature representatives of the Indian (B) 1 4 2 3
National Congress, the Muslim League, and (C) 2 4 3 1
the Sikh community came to an agreement (D) 2 1 4 3
with Lord Mountbatten on what has come to
be known as the 3 June 1947 Plan or Ans.336(C) The Forty-third Amendment of
the Constitution of India, officially known as
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
229

the Constitution (Forty-third Amendment) Ans.337(A) In India, a motion of no

Act, 1977, repealed six articles that had been confidence can be introduced only in the Lok
inserted into the Constitution by the 42nd Sabha. The motion is admitted for discussion
Amendment. when a minimum of 50 members of the house
The Forty-fourth Amendment of the support the motion.
Constitution of India, officially known as the The Public Accounts Committee (PAC) is a
Constitution (Forty-fourth Amendment) Act, committee of selected members of Parliament,
1978, was enacted by the Janata Party which constituted by the Parliament of India, for the
had won the 1977 general elections auditing of the revenue and the expenditure of
campaigning on a promise to "restore the the Government of India. The PAC is formed
Constitution to the condition it was in before every year with a strength of not more than 22
the Emergency". The Amendment aimed to members of which 15 are from Lok Sabha, the
undo several changes that had been made to lower house of the Parliament, and 7 from
the Constitution by the 42nd Amendment Rajya Sabha, the upper house of the
which had been enacted by the Indira Gandhi- Parliament. The term of office of the members
led Indian National Congress during the is one year. The Chairman is appointed by the
Emergency. Speaker of Lok Sabha. Since 1967, the
The Constitution (56th Amendment) Act, chairman of the committee is selected from
1987. It confers Statehood on Goa and forms the opposition.
a new Union Territory of Daman and Diu. The Estimates Committee is a committee of
Goa thus became the 25th State of the Indian selected members of parliament, constituted
Republic by the Parliament of India (the Lok Sabha),
The Constitution (57th Amendment) Act, for the purpose of scrutinising the functioning
1987. It made a special provision for the of government ministries and departments in
setting up of the new State of Goa. terms of expenditure and utilisation of funds.
Consequently, Daman and Diu were separated It also suggests alternative policies in order to
from the former to form a Union Territory. bring about efficiency and economy in
administration. It also examines whether the
337. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct finances are laid out within the limits of the
answer using the codes given below the lists: policy implied in the estimates and also to
List-I List-II suggest the form in which the estimates shall
a. No-confidence Motion, to be admitted in be presented to Parliament. This committee
the Lok Sabha, needs the support of along with the Public Accounts committee
1. 50 member (PAC) and Committee on Public Undertakings
b. The maximum number of Anglo Indians (COPU) are the three financial standing
who can be nominated to the Lok Sabha are committees of the Parliament of India.
2. 2 member
c. Which parliamentary committee in India is 338. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
normally chaired by a prominent member of answer using the codes given below the lists.
the Opposition? 3. Estimates Committee List-I List-II
d. Purpose of scrutinising the functioning of a. 7th Schedule 1. comes into
government ministries 4. Public Accounts picture when there is a conflict
Committee b. Harmonious Construction 2. deals with the
Codes: division of powers between Union
A B C D government and State governments.
(A) 1 2 4 3 c. Doctrine of Eclipse 3. law becomes
(B) 1 4 2 3 contradictory.
(C) 2 4 3 1 d. Doctrine of Pith and Substance 4. a
(D) 2 1 4 3 principle of statutory interpretation.
Codes:
A B C D
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
230

(A) 1 2 4 3 deny to any person equality before the law or

(B) 1 4 2 3 the equal protection of the laws within the
(C) 2 4 3 1 territory of India. The equality before the law
(D) 2 1 4 3 is guaranteed to all without regard to race,
colour, or nationality.
Ans.338(C) The constitutional provisions in Article 15 states that the state shall not
India on the subject of distribution of discriminate against any citizen on grounds
legislative powers between the Union and the only of religion, caste, sex, place of birth, or
States are defined under several articles; the any of them and would not be subject to any
most important in this regard being disability, liability, restriction, or condition.
specifically under articles 245 & 246 of the Nothing in this article shall prevent the state
Constitution of India. The Seventh Schedule from making any special provisions for
to the Constitution of India defines and women and children.
specifies allocation of powers and functions Article 16 states that no citizen shall on
between Union & States. It contains three grounds only of religion, race, caste, sex,
lists; i.e. 1) Union List, 2) State List and 3) descent, place of birth, residence, or any of
Concurrent List. them, be ineligible for or discriminated
Harmonious construction is a principle of against in respect of any employment or office
statutory interpretation used in the Indian legal under the state.
system. It holds that when two provisions of a Article 17 abolishes Untouchability and
legal text seem to conflict, they should be forbids its practice in any form.
interpreted so that each has a separate effect Untouchability refers to a social practice that
and neither is redundant or nullified. looks down upon certain oppressed classes
The doctrine states that if any law becomes solely on account of their birth and makes any
contradictory to the fundamental rights, then it discrimination against them on this ground.
does not permanently die but becomes
inactive. 340. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
This doctrine comes into picture when there is answer using the codes given below the lists.
a conflict between the different subjects in List-I List-II
different lists. There is an interpretation of a. Right against Exploitation
List 1 and List 2 of the Constitution of India. 1. (Articles 23-24)
b. Right to Freedom of Religion
339. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 2. (Articles 29-30)
answer using the codes given below the lists. c. Rights to minorities 3. (Articles 32-35)
List-I List-II d. Right to Constitutional Remedies
a. Right to Equality 1. states that the 4. (Articles 25-28)
state shall not discriminate. Codes:
b. Article 15 2. (Art. 14-18) A B C D
c. Article 16 3. abolishes Untouchability (A) 1 2 4 3
and forbids its practice in any form. (B) 1 4 2 3
d. Article 17 4. states that no citizen shall (C) 2 4 3 1
on grounds only of religion. (D) 2 1 4 3
Codes: Ans.340(B) Article 23 prohibits traffic in
A B C D human beings, women, children, beggars or
(A) 1 2 4 3 other forced labour militate against human
(B) 1 4 2 3 dignity. Article 24 prohibits employing
(C) 2 4 3 1 children below the age of 14 years in any
(D) 2 1 4 3 hazardous profession. This right followed the
human rights concepts and United Nations
Ans.339(D) Article 14 represents the idea of norms.
equality, which states that the state shall not
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
231

Articles 25 and 26 embody the principles of Montagu-Chelmsford Reforms, called the

religious tolerance and serve to emphasize the Government of India Act, 1919.
secular nature of Indian democracy, i.e. equal Government of India Act 1935 was passed by
respect to all religions. Article 25 offers British Parliament in August 1935. With 321
freedom of Conscience and Free Profession, sections and 10 schedules, this was the longest
Practice and Propagation of Religion whereas act passed by British Parliament so far and
Article 26 helps to manage religious affairs, was later split into two parts viz. Government
which is subject to public order, morality and of India Act 1935 and Government of Burma
health, every religious denomination or any Act 1935.
section. The Indian Independence Act was based upon
Article 29 provides protection of the interests the Mountbatten plan of 3rd June 1947 and
of minorities. A minority community can was passed by the British parliament on July
effectively conserve its language, script, or 5, 1947. It received royal assent on July 18,
culture by and through an educational 1947.
institution. Article 30 states the rights of
minorities whether based on religion or 342. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
language to establish and administer answer using the codes given below the lists.
educational institutions. List-I List-II
Rights, in order to be meaningful, must be a. Second Schedule 1. relating to the
enforceable and backed by remedies in case of emoluments.
violation. b. Fifth Schedule 2. Provisions
relating to the administration.
341. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct c. Sixth Schedule 3. Languages
answer using the codes given below the lists. recognized by the Constitution
List-I List-II d. Eighth Schedule 4. Provisions
a. Morley-Minto Reforms, 1909 1. Named relating to the administration of tribal areas
after the secretary of state and the Viceroy. Codes:
b. Montagu-Chelmsford Act, 1919 2. was A B C D
passed by British Parliament in August. (A) 1 2 4 3
c. Government of India Act, 1935 3. was (B) 1 4 2 3
passed by the British parliament. (C) 2 4 3 1
d. Indian Independence Act, 1947 4. called the (D) 2 1 4 3
Government of India Act, 1919.
Codes: Ans.342(A) Provisions relating to the
A B C D emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on
(A) 1 2 4 3 of:
(B) 1 4 2 3 1. The President of India
(C) 2 4 3 1 2. The Governors of States
(D) 2 1 4 3 3. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the
Lok Sabha
Ans.341(B) A Morley-Minto Reform was 4. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of
another name of Indian Council Act of 1909, the Rajya Sabha
AD which was named after the secretary of 5. The Speaker and the Deputy Speaker of the
state and the Viceroy. It was instituted to Legislative Assembly in the states.
placate the moderates. According to this act, Provisions relating to the administration and
the membership of the central and provincial control of scheduled areas and scheduled
legislative councils was enlarged. tribes.
The British government however had no Provisions relating to the administration of
intention of conceding the demands of the tribal areas in the states of Assam, Meghalaya,
Indian people. Changes were introduced in the Tripura, and Mizoram.
administrative system as a result of the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
232

Languages recognized by the Constitution. This is applied when the legislature enacting
Originally, it had 14 languages but presently the law has transgressed its power as is
there are 22 languages. They are: Assamese, mentioned in the Constitution.
Bengali, Bodo, Dogri (Dongri), Gujarati, The expression “colourable legislation”
Hindi, Kannada, Kashmiri, Konkani, Mathili simply means what cannot be done directly,
(Maithili), Malayalam, Manipuri, Marathi, cannot be done indirectly too.
Nepali, Oriya, Punjabi, Sanskrit, Santhali,
Sindhi, Tamil, Telugu and Urdu. Sindhi was 344. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
added by the 21st Amendment Act of 1967; answer using the codes given below the lists.
Konkani, Manipuri and Nepali were added by List-I List-II
the 71 st Amendment Act of 1992; and Bodo, a. Anti-defection law 1. Original constitution
Dongri, Maithili and Santhali were added by had no such provisions
the 92nd Amendment Act of 2003. b. SC/ST Prevention of Atrocities Act 2. has
emerged into India’s political discourse.
343. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct c. Uniform Civil Code (UCC) 3. is a law
answer using the codes given below the lists. enacted by the Government of India in 2003.
List-I List-II d. FRBM Act 4. the most marginalized
a. Doctrine of Severability 1. if there is any sections of Indian society
offending part in a statute. Codes:
b. Doctrine of Territorial Nexus 2. applied A B C D
when the legislature enacting. (A) 1 2 4 3
c. Doctrine of Laches 3. Laches means delay. (B) 1 4 2 3
d. Doctrine of Colourable Legislation 4. a (C) 2 4 3 1
state legislature can make laws. (D) 2 1 4 3
Codes:
A B C D Ans.344(B) The Tenth Schedule of Indian
(A) 1 2 4 3 Constitution is popularly known as the Anti-
(B) 1 4 2 3 Defection Act. Original constitution had no
(C) 2 4 3 1 such provisions. It was included in the
(D) 2 1 4 3 Constitution in 1985 by the Rajiv Gandhi
government. The main intent of the law was to
Ans.343(C) According to this doctrine, if deter “the evil of political defections” by
there is any offending part in a statute, then, legislators motivated by the lure of office or
only the offending part is declared void and other similar considerations.
not the entire statute. Article 13 states that the Dalits (SC) and Tribals (ST) are the most
portion that is invalid should be struck off and marginalized sections of Indian society. Many
not the entire one. The valid part can be kept. atrocities have been committed against them
Article 245 states that a state legislature can since time immemorial. The SC/ST
make laws on the territory of the state and not Prevention of Atrocities Act protects them
on extraterritorial laws provided there is nexus against discrimination and atrocities.
or connection between the sate and the object The issue of the Uniform Civil Code has
of the legislation. emerged into India’s political discourse
Article 245(1) states that the Parliament of recently mainly because many Muslim
India can make laws for the whole or any women, affected adversely by the personal
territory of India. laws, have begun knocking on the doors of the
Laches means delay. The doctrine of laches is Supreme Court to uphold their fundamental
based on the maxim that “equity aids the rights to equality and liberty in keeping with
vigilant and not those who slumber on their constitutional provisions.
rights.” (Black’s Law Dictionary). The FRBM Act is a law enacted by the
Government of India in 2003 to ensure fiscal
discipline – by setting targets including
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
233

reduction of fiscal deficits and elimination of a. Finance Commission 1. is a defunct

revenue deficit. constitutional body under Australian law.
b. Inter State Commission 2. was established
345. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct by the President of India in 1951.
answer using the codes given below the lists. c. Inter State Council 3. are advisory councils
List-I List-II and are made up of the states.
a. Ninetieth Amendment Act 1. To promote d. Zonal Council 4. a non-permanent
the educational advancement. constitutional body set up by a presidential
b. Ninety-first Amendment 2. article 332 order.
of the Constitution of Ind. Codes:
c. Ninety-second Amendment 3. to include A B C D
Bodo, Dogri, Maithili. (A) 1 2 4 3
d. Ninety-third Amendment 4. anti-defection (B) 1 4 2 3
law in India. (C) 2 4 3 1
Codes: (D) 2 1 4 3
A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3 Ans.346(D) The Finance Commission was
(B) 1 4 2 3 established by the President of India in 1951
(C) 2 4 3 1 under Article 280 of the Indian Constitution.
(D) 2 1 4 3 It was formed to define the financial relations
between the central government of India and
Ans.345(C) "Provided that for elections to the the individual state governments.
Legislative Assembly of the State of Assam, The Inter-State Commission, or Interstate
the representation of the Scheduled Tribes and Commission, is a defunct constitutional body
non-Scheduled Tribes in the constituencies under Australian law. The envisaged chief
included in the Bodoland Territorial Areas functions of the Inter-State Commission were
District, so notified, and existing prior to the to administer and adjudicate matters relating
constitution of the Bodoland Territorial Areas to interstate trade. The Commission was
District, shall be maintained." established in 1912, became dormant in 1920,
The anti-defection law in India, also known as was abolished in 1950, re-established in 1983,
the Tenth Schedule to the Indian Constitution, and absorbed into the Industry Commission in
was enacted to address the perceived problem 1989.
of instability caused by democratically elected The Inter-State Council is a non-permanent
legislators in India's federal system of constitutional body set up by a presidential
government shifting allegiance from the order on the basis of provisions in Article 263
parties they supported at the time of election of the Constitution of India. The body was
or disobeying their parties' decisions at critical formed by a presidential order dated 28 May
times, such as voting on an important 1990 on recommendation of Sarkaria
resolution. Commission.
The Ninety-second Amendment of the Zonal Councils are advisory councils and are
Constitution of India, officially known as The made up of the states of India that have been
Constitution (Ninety-second Amendment) grouped into five zones to foster cooperation
Act, 2003, amended the Eighth Schedule to among them. These were set up vide Part-III
the Constitution so as to include Bodo, Dogri, of the States Reorganisation Act, 1956.
Maithili and Santali languages, thereby raising 347. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
the total number of languages listed in the answer using the codes given below the lists.
schedule to 22. List-I List-II
a. Atmanirbhar bharat abhiyan 1. Was
346. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct launched on 21 January 2015
answer using the codes given below the lists. b. PM-KISAN 2. The intended objective of
List-I List-II this plan is two-fold
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
234

c. Jal Shakti 3. formed in May 2019 A B C D

d. Hridaya Plan 4. a Central Sector scheme (A) 1 2 4 3
with (B) 1 4 2 3
Codes: (C) 2 4 3 1
A B C D (D) 2 1 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 Ans.348(A) The Sikkim was a kingdom led
(C) 2 4 3 1 by Chogyal dyansty and it remained as a
(D) 2 1 4 3 protectorate of India in Pre-Independence and
Independent India both. It was made an
Ans.347(C) The intended objective of this associate state of India through 35th
plan is two-fold. First, interim measures such Amendment Act of September 1974 as this act
as liquidity infusion and direct cash transfers added Article 2A to the Indian Constitution.
for the poor will work as shock absorbers for He President shall, at the expiration of five
those in acute stress. years from the commencement of this
The second, long-term reforms in growth- Constitution and thereafter at the expiration of
critical sectors to make them globally ten years from such commencement, by order
competitive and attractive. constitute a Commission which shall consist
Pradhan Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM- of a Chairman and such other members
KISAN) is a Central Sector scheme with representing the different languages specified
100% funding from Government of India. in the English Schedule as the President may
The Scheme is effective from 1.12.2018. appoint, and the order shall define the
Ministry of Jal Shakti is a ministry under procedure to be followed by the Commission.
Government of India which was formed in Notwithstanding anything in this Constitution,
May 2019 under the second Modi ministry. Parliament may in exercise of its constituent
This was formed by merging of two power amend by way of addition, variation or
ministries; Ministry of Water Resources, repeal any provision of this Constitution in
River Development & Ganga Rejuvenation accordance with the procedure laid down in
and Ministry of Drinking Water and this article.
Sanitation. The President, or the Governor or Rajpramukh
National Heritage City Development and of a State, shall not be answerable to any court
Augmentation Yojana (HRIDAY) was for the exercise and performance of the
launched on 21 January 2015 with the aim of powers and duties of his office or for any act
bringing together urban planning, economic done or purporting to be done by him in the
growth and heritage conservation in an exercise and performance of those powers and
inclusive manner to preserve the heritage duties.
character of each Heritage City.
349. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
348. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists.
answer using the codes given below the lists. List-I List-II
List-I List-II a. Habeas Corpus 1. in common-law
a. 35th Amendment Act 1. Sikkim was a jurisdictions.
kingdom led by Chogyal. b. Prohibition 2. a writ requiring a
b. Article 344 2. The President person under arrest.
shall, at the expiration of five years from the c. Mandamus 3. writ of mandamus
commencement. is a court order issued.
c. Article 368 3. Rights and d. Certiorari 4. the act or practice
privileges of Rulers of Indian. of forbidding something by law.
d. Article 362 4. Notwithstanding Codes:
anything in this Constitution. A B C D
Codes: (A) 1 2 4 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
235

(B) 1 4 2 3 The family of Henry and William Golaknath

(C) 2 4 3 1 held over 500 acres of farmland in Jalandar,
(D) 2 1 4 3 Punjab. In the face of 1953 Punjab Security
and Land Tenures Act, the state government
Ans.349(C) Habeas corpus, an ancient held that the brothers could keep only thirty
common-law writ, issued by a court or judge acres each, a few acres would go to tenants
directing one who holds another in custody to and the rest was declared surplus.
produce the person before the court for some The Kesavananda Bharati judgement is a
specified purpose. landmark decision of the Supreme Court of
Prohibition is the act or practice of forbidding India that outlined the basic structure doctrine
something by law; more particularly the term of the Constitution. Justice Hans Raj Khanna
refers to the banning of the manufacture, asserted through this doctrine that the
storage (whether in barrels or in bottles), constitution possesses a basic structure of
transportation, sale, possession, and constitutional principles and values.
consumption of alcoholic beverages. The preamble to the Constitution of India is a
A writ of mandamus is a court order issued by brief introductory statement that sets out
a judge at a petitioner’s request compelling guidelines, which guide the people of the
someone to execute a duty that they are nation, and to present the principles of the
legally obligated to complete. Constitution, and to indicate the source from
Certiorari, also called cert, in common-law which the document derives its authority, and
jurisdictions, a writ issued by a superior court meaning The hopes and aspirations of the
for the re-examination of an action of a lower people are described in it.
court. Certiorari also is issued by an appellate
court to obtain information on a case pending 351. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
before it. answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
350. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. The Parliament 1. is a legislative
answer using the codes given below the lists. body of government.
List-I List-II b. The Council of Ministers 2. name given
a. Minerva Mills Case 1. strengthened the to the supreme executive organ.
‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’. c. The Prime Minister 3. is the second-
b. Golaknath Case 2. over 500 acres of highest constitutional office.
farmland in Jalandar. d. The Vice President 4. is the leader of
c. Keshvananda Bharti Case 3. a brief the executive of the Government of India.
introductory statement that sets out guidelines. Codes:
d. Preamble to the Constitution of India A B C D
4. is a landmark decision of the Supreme (A) 1 2 4 3
court. (B) 1 4 2 3
Codes: (C) 2 4 3 1
A B C D (D) 2 1 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 Ans.351(A) A parliament is a legislative body
(C) 2 4 3 1 of government. Generally, a modern
(D) 2 1 4 3 parliament has three functions: representing
the electorate, making laws, and overseeing
Ans.350(A) Minerva Mills case 1980 was a the government via hearings and inquiries.
one of the landmark judgments of the Council of Ministers is the name given to the
Supreme Court of India. It strengthened the supreme executive organ in some
‘Doctrine of Basic Structure’ which was governments. Councils of Ministers are
propounded by the court in the historic. usually composed of those ministers who are
responsible for a ministry, and are usually led
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
236

by a President of the Council of Ministers, a discuss local governance and development,

term that is usually translated as Prime and make need- based plans for the village.
Minister or Premier. The Panchayat implements development
The Prime Minister of India is the leader of programs under the overarching mandate,
the executive of the Government of India. The supervision and monitoring of the Gram
prime minister is also the chief adviser to the Sabha. All decisions of the Panchayat are
president of India and head of the Council of taken through the Gram Sabha and no
Ministers. decision is official and valid without the
The Vice President of India is the second- consent of the Gram Sabha.
highest constitutional office in India after the
President. Article 63 of Indian Constitution 353. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
states that "There shall be a Vice President of answer using the codes given below the lists.
India. List-I List-II
a. Contingency Fund of India 1. Non-votable
352. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct charges.
answer using the codes given below the lists. b. Public Account 2. is established under
List-I List-II Article 267.
a. Nagar panchayat 1. is the fulcrum of c. Consolidated Fund of India 3. is a term
the Panchayati Raj. used in many states with political systems.
b. Municipal council 2. in India is a d. Charged Expenditures 4. accounts for
settlement in transition. flows for those transactions.
c. Municipal corporation 3. is the legal term Codes:
for a local governing body. A B C D
d. Gram Sabha 4. the legislative (A) 1 2 4 3
body of a municipality. (B) 1 4 2 3
Codes: (C) 2 4 3 1
A B C D (D) 2 1 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 Ans.353(C) The Contingency Fund of India is
(C) 2 4 3 1 established under Article 267 of the Indian
(D) 2 1 4 3 Constitution. It is in the nature of an imprest
(money maintained for a specific purpose).
Ans.352(C) A Nagar Panchayat or Notified The Contingency Fund of India exists for
Area Council (NAC) in India is a settlement in disasters and related unforeseen expenditures.
transition from rural to urban and therefore a Public Account of India accounts for flows for
form of an urban political unit comparable to a those transactions where the government is
municipality. An urban centre with more than merely acting as a banker.
11,000 and less than 25,000 inhabitants is This fund was constituted under Article 266
classified as a Nagar Panchayat. (2) of the Constitution. It accounts for flows
A municipal council is the legislative body of for those transactions where the government is
a municipality such as a city council or a town merely acting as a banker.
council. "Consolidated fund" or "consolidated revenue
A municipal corporation is the legal term for a fund" is a term used in many states with
local governing body, including cities, political systems derived from the
counties, towns, townships, charter townships, Westminster system to describe the main bank
villages, and boroughs. The term can also be account of the government.
used to describe municipally owned Non-votable charges are called charged
corporations. expenditures.
The Gram Sabha is the fulcrum of the No voting takes place for this amount which is
Panchayati Raj and village development. spent from the Consolidated Fund of India.
People use the forum of the Gram Sabha to Parliamentary approval is not needed.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
237

These are paid whether or not the budget is connections to women of BPL families. A
passed. budgetary allocation of ₹80 billion was made
Emoluments, allowances and expenditure of for the scheme.
the President and his office, salary and
allowances of chairman, Deputy chairman of 355. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Rajya Sabha, Speaker, Supreme Court judges, answer using the codes given below the lists.
CAG and Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha List-I List-II
come under this expenditure. a. National LED Programme (UJALA)
1. Ministry of Water Resources.
354. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct b. Green Corridor Project 2. Ministry of
answer using the codes given below the lists. Power.
List-I List-II c. Green Highway Policy 3. Ministry of Road
a. National Population Register 1. is a register Transport and Highway.
of the usual residents of the country. d. Namami Gange 4. Ministry of New &
b. Citizenship Amendment Bill (CAB) Renewable Energy.
2. Ministry of Petroleum Codes:
c. PAHAL (DBT) 3. Ministry of Petroleum A B C D
and Natural Gas (A) 1 2 4 3
d. Pradhan Mantri UJJAWALA Yojana 4. is (B) 1 4 2 3
a bill introduced by the Central Government. (C) 2 4 3 1
Codes: (D) 2 1 4 3
A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3 Ans.355(C) The scheme is being named
(B) 1 4 2 3 "UJALA" - an acronym for Unnat Jyoti by
(C) 2 4 3 1 Affordable LEDs for All. Under the scheme,
(D) 2 1 4 3 20W LED tube lights and BEE 5-star rated
energy efficient fans are also distributed to the
Ans.354(B) The National Population Register consumers.
(NPR) is a register of the usual residents of The progress of the government’s four-year-
the country. old ‘Green Corridor’ project for installing a
A usual resident is defined for the purposes of 19,000 MVA intra-state transmission system
NPR as a person who has resided in a local for renewable energy across eight states.
area for the past 6 months or more or a person The Rs 10,141-crore project is being
who intends to reside in that area for the next implemented by the state transmission utilities
6 months or more. of Tamil Nadu, Rajasthan, Karnataka, Andhra,
The Citizenship Amendment Bill (CAB) is a Maharashtra, Gujarat, Himachal and Madhya
bill introduced by the Central Government in Pradesh.
the Parliament of India in 2019 to primarily Green Highway Policy. Green highway is a
amend the Citizenship Act of 1955. new concept that includes a roadway design
The PAHAL (DBTL) scheme was earlier integrating the functionalities of transport and
launched on 1st June 2013 and finally covered ecological sustainability. The aim of which is
291 districts. It required the consumer to to help the environment, help local
mandatorily have an Aadhaar number for communities, and generate employment by
availing LPG Subsidy. The government has planting trees along all the highways in the
comprehensively reviewed the scheme and country.
after examining the difficulties faced by the ‘Namami Gange Programme’, is an Integrated
consumer substantively modified the scheme Conservation Mission, approved as ‘Flagship
prior to launch. Programme’ by the Union Government in
Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana was launched June 2014 with budget outlay of Rs.20,000
by Prime Minister of India Narendra Modi on Crore to accomplish the twin objectives of
1 May 2016 to distribute 50 million LPG
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
238

effective abatement of pollution, conservation only include the Ministers in charge of

and rejuvenation of National River Ganga. subjects covered by them but also include
other senior Ministers.
356. Which of these are incorrectly matched. They are mostly headed by the Prime
(A) Art 214 - High Court for States Minister. Sometimes other Cabinet Ministers,
(B) Art 233 - Appointment of District Judges particularly the Home Minister or the Finance
(C) Art 240- Administration of Union Minister, also acts as their Chairman. But, in
Territories case the Prime Minister is a member of a
(D) Article 243 - Build Panchayats committee, he invariably presides over it.
They not only sort out issues and consulate
Ans.356(C) Articles 239 to 242 lays down the proposals for the consideration of the Cabinet,
process of administration and provisions in but also take decisions. However, the Cabinet
the union territories and the special character can review their decisions.
of Delhi as the National Capital Region. It 358. Consider the following statements-
details the power of lieutenant governor. 1. There is no power to reject or amend the
Article 242 was repealed by the Constitution Money Bill in the Rajya Sabha.
(Seventh Amendment) Act, 1956. 2. Rajya Sabha cannot vote on the demands of
grants.
357. Which of the following statement (s) is/are 3. Annual financial statements cannot be
true? discussed in Rajya Sabha
I. The Cabinet Committees are not mentioned Which of the statements given below is / are
in the Indian Constitution but such true?
committees are extra-constitutional in (A) 1 and 2 (B) 2 and 3
emergence. (C) 1 and 3 (D) 1, 2 and 3
II. The ad hoc committees are constituted
from time to time to deal with special Ans.358(D) Rajya Sabha has no power either
problems. They are disbanded after their task to reject or amend a Money Bill. Rajya Sabha
is completed. may discuss the Annual Financial Statement.
Select the correct option. It has no power to vote on the Demands for
(A) Only I (B) Only II Grants. Also, Rajya Sabha has no power to
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II pass a vote of no- confidence in the Council of
Ministers.
Ans.357(C) The Cabinet Committees are
extra-constitutional in emergence. In other 359. Consider the following statements:
words, they are not mentioned in the 1. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar have their
Constitution. However, the Rules of Business Legislative Council.
provide for their establishment. They are of 2. Delhi and Puducherry, also have their
two types- standing and ad hoe. The former Legislative Assemblies.
are of a permanent nature while the latter are Which of the statements given above is/are
of a temporary nature. The ad hoc committees correct?
are constituted from time to time to deal with (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
special problems. They are disbanded after (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
their task is completed. They are set up by the
Prime Minister according to the exigencies of Ans.359(C) The Legislative Council (Hindi:
the time aid requirements of the situation. Vidhan Parishad) is the upper house in those
Hence, their number, nomenclature, and states of India that have a bicameral
composition vary from time to time. Their legislature; the lower house being the State
membership varies from three to eight. They Legislative Assembly. Its establishment is
usually include only Cabinet Ministers. defined in Article 169 of the Constitution of
However, the non-cabinet Ministers are not India. Uttar Pradesh and Bihar have their
debarred from their membership. They not
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
239

Legislative Council. Delhi and Puducherry Which of the statements given above is/are
have an elected legislative assembly. correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
360. Consider the following statements: (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Sunil Arora is the chief election
commissioner of India. Ans.362(B) The Balwant Rai Mehta
2. The tenure of chief election commissioner Committee was a committee appointed by the
is 6 years or up to 65 years of age. Government of India in January 16, 1957 to
Which of the statements given above is/are examine the working of the Community
NOT correct? Development Programme(1952,Oct 2nd) and
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only the National Extension Service(1953 Oct 2nd)
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 and to suggest measures for their better
working.
Ans.360(D) Sunil Arora is the current 23rd Sarkaria Commission was set up in June 1983
Chief Election Commissioner and the two by the central government of India. The
Election Commissioners are Ashok Lavasa Sarkaria Commission's charter was to examine
and Sushil Chandra. the relationship and balance of power between
The President appoints Chief Election state and central governments in the country
Commissioner and Election Commissioners. and suggest changes within the framework of
They have tenure of six years, or up to the age Constitution of India.
of 65 years, whichever is earlier.
363. Consider the following statements regard
361. Regarding the governor's qualification, Advocate general:
consider the following statements: 1. According to Article 165 each state will
1. He is a citizen of India and has completed have a Advocate general.
30 years of age. 2. Who will work in the state same as the
2. He is not in the position of any government Attorney General of India.
benefit that is considered unfit for the Which of the statements given above is/are
presidential post. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
NOT correct? (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans.363(C) Article 165 {Advocate-General
for the State} The Governor of each State shall
Ans.361(A) Article 157 and Article 158 of the appoint a person who is qualified to be
Constitution of India specify eligibility appointed a Judge of a High Court to be
requirements for the post of governor. They Advocate-General for the State.
are as follows:
A governor must: 364. Consider the following statements:
➢ be a citizen of India. 1. The president may also be removed before
➢ be at least 35 years of age. the expiry of the term through impeachment
➢ not be a member of the either house of the for violating the Constitution of India by the
parliament or house of the state legislature. Lok Sabha.
➢ not hold any office of profit. 2. 4 types of writ are there in the Indian
Constitution.
362. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. In the year 1977, an official committee was correct?
appointed to examine Panchayat Raj under the (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Chairmanship of Balwant Rai Mehta. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Sarkaria Commission examined the Centre Ans.364(D) The president may also be
and State relationships. removed before the expiry of the term through
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
240

impeachment for violating the Constitution of office. In India, a person must be aged 35 or
India by the Parliament of India. The process over for President or Vice President.
may start in either of the two houses of the
parliament. The house initiates the process by 367. Consider the following statements regard
levelling the charges against the president. The Article 17:
charges are contained in a notice that has to be 1. Right to Equality in the Indian Constitution
signed by at least one-quarter of the total includes the abolition of untouchability.
members of that house. The notice is sent up 2. Abolition of untouchability is including in
to the president and 14 days later, it is taken article 17.
up for consideration. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
365. With reference to the Comptroller and (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Auditor-General of India, consider the (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
following statements:
1. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of Ans.367(C) Article 17 of the constitution
India audit the account of the States also. abolishes the practice of untouchability. The
2. He holds responsibility to the President. practice of untouchability is an offence and
3. He is the guardian of public purse. anyone doing so is punishable by law.
Which of the statements given above are
correct? 368. When the judge of the Supreme Court can be
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only removed from his post during his tenure?
(C) 1, 2 and 3 1. On the recommendation of the Parliament
(D) None of the above by the President
2. On the recommendation of the Prime
Ans.365(C) The Comptroller and Auditor- Minister by the President
General is responsible for the audit of the 3. The President can dismiss him at any time
financial transactions of the union and state according to his discretion.
governments and union territories. The CAG Select the correct answer using the codes
appointed by the President and the duties and given below:
power are bound by an Act of the parliament (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
called the Comptroller and Auditor General's (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 2 and 3 only
(Duties, Powers and Conditions of service)
Act, W71. Ans.368(A) On the recommendation of the
Parliament by the President the judge of the
366. Consider the following statements: Supreme Court can be removed from his post
1. Quo Warranto" writ" of the High Court or during his tenure.
the Supreme Court is issued to restrain a
person from holding a public office to which 369. Consider the following statements:
he is not entitled to. 1. The minimum age prescribed for any
2. Minimum age required to become president person to be a member of Panchayat is 25
vice-president of India is 35 years. years.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature
correct? dissolution continues only for the remainder
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only period.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
Ans.366(C) Quo-Warranto is a writ issued (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
with a view to restrain a person from holding a (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
public office to which he is not entitled. The
writ requires the concerned person to explain Ans.369(B) Minimum age for election as a
to the Court by what authority he holds the member of a Panchayat should be 21 years. A
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
241

Panchayat reconstituted after premature 372. Consider the following statements:

dissolution (before the expiry of the full period 1. The chairman of the steering committee
of five years) shall continue only for the was Dr. Rajandra Prasad.
remainder of the period. 2. The provision of anti-defection was first
used immediately after the first election of
370. Consider the following statements regarding Lok Sabha.
Lok sabha : Which of the statements given above is/are
1. The maximum number of elected members correct?
from the states in the Lok Sabha is 530. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
2. The maximum number of members of the (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Union Territory of the state can be 18.
3. The President can nominate up to 2 Ans.372(A) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was the
members. chairman of steering committee of constituent
Which of the statements given above is/are assembly.
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only 373. Consider the following statements:
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 1. 44th Amendments is also known as the
'Mini Constitution' of India.
Ans.370(C) The maximum strength of the 2. The Criminal Law (Amendment) Act 2013
House allotted by the Constitution of India is provides for amendment of Indian Penal
552. Currently, the house has 545 seats which Code, Indian Evidence Act and Code of
is made up by the election of up to 543 elected Criminal Procedure 1973 on laws related to
members and at a maximum, 2 nominated sexual offences.
members of the Anglo-Indian Community by Which of the statements given above is/are
the President of India. A total of 131 seats correct?
(24.03%) are reserved for representatives of (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Scheduled Castes (84) and Scheduled Tribes (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(47).
Ans.373(C) The Criminal Law (Amendment)
371. Consider the following statements: Act, 2013 (Nirbhaya Act) is an Indian
1. The first Lok Sabha speaker was Ganesh legislation passed by the Lok Sabha on 19
Vasudev Mawalankar. March 2013, and by the Rajya Sabha on 21
2. After the death of Ganesh Vasudev March 2013, which provides for amendment
Mawalankar, M. Ananthasayanam Ayyangar of Indian Penal Code, Indian Evidence Act,
was elected the second president of the first and Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 on
Lok Sabha. laws related to sexual offences.
Which of the statements given above is/are 42nd amendment, 1976: It was called as Mini
correct? constitution of India and was brought during
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only national emergency.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
374. Consider the following statements:
Ans.371(C) Ganesh Vasudev Mavalankar 1. In the Article 54 of the Indian Constitution
popularly known as Dadasaheb was an the process of presidential election has been
independence activist, the President (from described.
1946 to 1947) of the Central Legislative 2. The procedure for the election of Vice
Assembly, then Speaker of the Constituent President in Article 66 of the Indian
Assembly of India, and later the first Speaker Constitution has been described.
of the Lok Sabha. M. Ananthasayanam Which of the statements given above is/are
Ayyangar was the second speaker of the Lok NOT correct?
sabha. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
242

1. The number of assembly seats in Madhya

Ans.374(A) The manner of election of Pradesh is 231.
President is provided by Article 55 of the 2. The number of assembly seats in Rajasthan
constitution. According to Article 66 of the is 200.
constitution, no person shall be eligible for Which of the statements given above is/are
election as Vice-President unless he is a correct?
citizen of India, has completed the age of (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
thirty-five years and is qualified for election as (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
a member of the Council of States.
Ans.377(C) The number of assembly seats in
375. Which among the following are constitutional Madhya Pradesh is 231. The number of
bodies in India? assembly seats in Rajasthan is 200.
1. Comptroller and Auditor General
2. Union Public Service Commission 378. Consider the following statements:
3. National Advisory Council 1. Article 244 deals with the administration of
Choose the correct answer from the codes scheduled areas and tribal areas.
given below: 2. Article 280 deals with the Finance
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only Commission.
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Which of the statements given above is/are
NOT correct?
Ans.375(A) Comptroller and Auditor General (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
and Union Public Service Commission are (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
constitutional bodies in India.
Ans.378(D) Article 244 deals with the
376. With reference to the Equality before Law and administration of Scheduled areas and Tribal
Equal Protection of Law, consider the areas. The provisions of the Fifth Schedule of
following statements: the constitution apply to the administration
1. Article 14 denies any discrimination to and control of the scheduled areas and
anyone in any situation, because it deals with scheduled tribes in any state other than the
Equality before Law and Equal Protection of states of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and
Law. Mizoram.
2. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is of Article 280 of the Indian Constitution defines
British origin while the concept of ‘equal the scope of the commission.
protection of laws’ has been taken from the
American Constitution. 379. With reference to Article 17 of the Indian
Which of the statements given above is/are Constitution, consider the following
not correct? statements:
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 1. A person convicted of the offence of
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 ‘untouchability’ cannot contest for the
election in the Parliament or state legislature.
Ans.376(C) Article 14 of the constitution 2. The Protection of Civil Rights Act (1955)
states that, the State shall not deny to any deems the social boycott of individuals or
person equality before the law or the equal their exclusion from religious services as
protection of the laws within the territory of ‘offence under untouchability’.
India. The concept of ‘equality before law’ is Which of the statements given above is/are
of British origin while the concept of ‘equal correct?
protection of laws’ has been taken from the
American Constitution. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
377. Consider the following statements:
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
243

Ans.379(C) Untouchability is abolished and Ans.381(B) The Attorney General has the
its practice in any form is forbidden the right of audience in all Courts in India as well
enforcement of any disability arising out of as the right to participate in the proceedings of
Untouchability shall be an offence punishable the Parliament, though not to vote.
in accordance with law. Note: Article 17 of the
constitution abolishes the practice of 382. Which of the following parties were
untouchability. established by Dr. Bhimrao Ambedkar?
Protection of Civil Rights Act, 1955 which 1. Peasants and Workers Party of India
provides for preaching and practice of 2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation
untouchability. 3. Independent Labor Party
Which of the statements given above is/are
380. With reference to the Freedom of Expression, correct?
consider the following statements: (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
1. Article 19 confers the citizens the right to (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
strike but not the right to demonstration or
picketing. Ans.382(C) Ambedkar had founded the
2. Freedom of expression empowers a citizen Depressed Classes Federation (DCF) in 1930
not only to express one’s own view but also to and the Independent Labour Party (ILP) in
express the views of others. 1935. Scheduled Castes Federation (SCF) was
3. It gives right against bundh called by a an organisation in India founded by B. R.
political party or organization. Ambedkar in 1942 to campaign for the rights
Which of the statements given above is/are of the Dalit community.
NOT correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only 382. Consider the following statements about the
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 President of India.
1. The President has the right to address and
Ans.380(A) Article 19(1)(a) of Indian send a message to the Council of ministers to
Constitution says that all citizens have the elicit specific information.
right to freedom of speech and expression. 2. The President can call for information
Freedom of Speech and expression means the relating to proposals for legislation.
right to express one's own convictions and 3. All decisions of the Council of Ministers
opinions freely by words of mouth, writing, relating to the administration of the Union
printing, pictures or any other mode. must be communicated to the president.
Article 19(1)(b) specifically confers a right to Which of the statement(s) given above is/are
assembly and, thus, guarantees that all citizens correct?
have right to assemble peacefully and without (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
arms. Constitution. (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3

381. Attorney-General of India- Ans.382(D) There shall be a Council of

1. Participate in the proceedings of the Lok Ministers with the Prime Minister at the head
Sabha. to aid and advise the President who shall, in
2. Can be a member of any committee of the the exercise of his functions, act in accordance
Lok Sabha. with such advice.
3. Speak in the Lok Sabha. However, the President may require the
4. Can vote in the Lok Sabha. Council of Ministers to reconsider such advice
Select the correct answer using the codes and the President shall act in accordance with
given below: the advice tendered after such reconsideration.
The advice tendered by Ministers to the
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 1 and 3 only President shall not be inquired into in any
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 only court.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
244

383. Which of the following statement(s) regarding

Rajya Sabha is/are correct? Ans.385(C) The preamble of the constitution
1. The maximum permissible strength of of India assures to every citizen in the very
Rajya Sabha is 250. first class, social, economic and political
2. It shares legislative powers equally with justice, liberty of thought expression, belief
Lok Sabha in matters such as creation of All and faith, equality of opportunity and equal
India Services. status assuring the dignity of Individual to all
Which of the statements given above is/are citizen for fraternity, integration and unity.
correct? Chamling's 25-year stint (1994-2019) as CM
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only is the longest ever by a chief minister of any
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Indian state. Prior to establishing the Sikkim
Democratic Front, Chamling served as
Ans.383(A) The Rajya Sabha should consist Minister for Industries, Information and Public
of not more than 250 members - 238 members Relations from 1989 to 1992 in Nar Bahadur
representing the States and Union Territories, Bhandari's cabinet.
and 12 members nominated by the President.
Rajya Sabha is a permanent body. 386. With reference to the writs, consider the
following statements:
384. Consider the following statements: 1. The writ of Certiorari can be issued against
1. Forming a cooperative society is a administrative authorities affecting rights of
fundamental Right in India. individuals.
2. Cooperative societies do not fall within the 2. The writ of Quo-Warranto can be sought
ambit of the Right to information act, 2005. only by the aggrieved person.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. The writ of Prohibition can be issued
NOT correct? against judicial and quasi-judicial authorities.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 NOT correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Ans.384(D) Cooperative Societies is a state (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
subject under entry 32 state list of the Seventh
schedule of the Indian Constitution. According Ans.386(B) The Supreme Court exercising the
to the Constitutional (97th Amendment) Act, powers issued the writ of Certiorari for
2011 forming a Cooperative Society is a quashing the action. Certiorari is corrective in
fundamental right under article 19(1)(i). nature. This writ can be issued to any
'Co-operative societies don't fall within ambit constitutional, statutory or non-statutory body
of RTI Act' Co-operative societies do not fall or any person who exercise powers affecting
within the ambit of Right to Information Act, the rights of citizens.
the Supreme Court has said while quashing a The writ of Quo Warranto is in the nature of
Kerala government circular to bring all such judicial remedy by which, any person who has
societies within the scope of the transparency occupied the office unlawfully or illegally is
law. asked to show by what authority he holds such
office.
385. Consider the following statements: A writ of prohibition is issued by a Court to
1. The constitution of India assures economic prohibit the lower courts, tribunals and other
Justice to citizens through preamble. quasi-judicial authorities from doing
2. Pawan Chamling has become the India’s something beyond their authority.
longest serving Chief Minister of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 387. Consider the following statements:
correct? 1. Ministry of Women and Child
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Development set up the Justice Rajesh Bindal
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Committee to presented its report on ‘Inter
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
245

Country Parental Child Removal Disputes 1. Three-year times the Presidents Rule can be
Resolution Authority’. extended in India with the approval of
2. Judiciary interprets the constitution. Parliament in every six months.
Which of the statements given above is/are 2. Speaker of Lok Sabha presides over a joint
NOT correct? sitting of both the houses summoned by the
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only President of India.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Which of the statements given above is/are
NOT correct?
Ans.387(D) The review power extends to the (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
laws passed by State legislatures also. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Together, the writ powers and the review
power of the Court make judiciary very Ans.389(D) It can be extended for a maximum
powerful. In particular, the review power of 3 years with the approval of the Parliament
means that the judiciary can interpret the done every 6 months. If the Lok Sabha is
Constitution and the laws passed by the dissolved during this time, the rule is valid for
legislature. 30 days from the first sitting of the Lok Sabha
provided that this continuance has already
388. Consider the following statements: been approved by R ajya Sabha.
1. Since Independence, three times National The joint sitting of the Parliament is called by
Emergency has been declared in India. the President (Article 108) and is presided
2. There is no financial emergency declared over by the Speaker or, in his absence, by the
till now in India. Deputy Speaker of the Lok Sabha or in his
Which of the statements given above is/are absence, the Deputy-Chairman of the Rajya
correct? Sabha.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 390. With reference to the writ of Habeas Corpus,
consider the following statements:
Ans.388(C) In the history of independent 1. It cannot be issued for releasing a person
India, a state of emergency has been declared imprisoned by a court of law on a criminal
thrice. The first instance was between 26 charge.
October 1962 to 10 January 1968 during the 2. The writ of Habeas Corpus protects right to
India-China war, when "the security of India" life or personal liberty.
was declared as being "threatened by external Which of the statements given above is/are
aggression". The second instance was between NOT correct?
3 December 1971 to 21 March 1977, which (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
was originally proclaimed during the Indo- (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Pakistan war. It was later extended along with
the third proclamation between 25 June 1975 Ans.390(C) A remedy equivalent to habeas
to 21 March 1977 under controversial corpus is also guaranteed by Article 40 of the
circumstances of political instability under 1937 constitution. The article guarantees that
Indira Gandhi's prime ministership. "no citizen shall be deprived of his personal
Financial emergency has never been declared. liberty save in accordance with law" and
A state of financial emergency remains in outlines a specific procedure for the High
force indefinitely until revoked by the Court to enquire into the lawfulness of any
president. The president can reduce the person's detention.
salaries of all government officials, including
judges of the supreme court and high courts, in
cases of a financial emergency. 391. Consider the following statements:
1. High Court of Andaman and Nicobar
389. Consider the following statements: Islands is located in West Bengal.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
246

2. The deaths of three prime ministers of India 2. The human right Chairman is appointed by
took place during their tenure. the Prime Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? NOT correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

Ans.391(C) The Calcutta High Court is the Ans.394(A) The International Court is
oldest High Court in India. It has jurisdiction composed of 15 judges, who are elected for
over the state of West Bengal and the Union terms of office of nine years by the United
Territory of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands. Nations General Assembly and the Security
Council.
392. Consider the following statements: The Chairperson and members of the NHRC
1. According to Article 63, there is a Vice are appointed by the President of India, on the
President of India in the Constitution. recommendation of a committee consisting of:
2. According to Article 64, he is also the ex- The Prime Minister (Chairperson) The Home
officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Minister.
Which of the statements given above is/are
NOT correct? 395. With reference to Article 18 – ‘The Abolition
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only of Titles’, consider the following statements:
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 1. It prohibits only the citizen of India holding
any office of profit under the State from
Ans.392(D) Article 63 of the Constitution of accepting title from any foreign state without
India provides that there shall be a Vice- the consent of the President.
President of India Articles 64 and 89 (1) 2. It prohibits the state from conferring any
provide that the Vice-President of India shall title to anyone except the hereditary titles of
be ex-officio Chairman of Rajysabha. nobility.
Which of the statements given above is/ are
393. Consider the following statements correct?
1. Criminal law and criminal legal process in (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
India are a matter of concurrent list of the (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
constitution.
2. There is no law in India for witness Ans.395(C) Article 18 abolishes titles. (a) It
protection outside the courts so far. prohibits the state from conferring any title
Which of the above statements is / is true? (except a military or academic distinction) on
(A) Only 1 (B) only 2 anybody, whether a citizen or a foreigner. It
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) neither 1 nor 2 said that these awards do not amount to 'titles'
within the meaning of Article 18 that prohibits
Ans.393(C) The Constitution of India has only hereditary titles of nobility.
provided for a division of powers between the
Central and state governments. Under the 396. With reference to the imposition of Martial
Seventh Schedule, there are three lists – the Law, consider the following statements:
Union, State and Concurrent. 1. It affects Fundamental Rights only.
Criminal law and criminal legal process in 2. It is imposed only in some specific area of
India are a matter of concurrent list of the the country.
constitution. Which of the statements given above is/are
India does not have a witness protection law correct?
as of now.
394. Consider the following statements: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
1. The tenure of the judges in the International (C) Both 1 and (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Court of Justice is 5 years.
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247

Ans.396(A) Martial law CAN be declared in

any area under the territories of India. It is 399. Consider the following statements:
generally imposed under situations like 1. Indian citizenship can be acquired by birth,
insurgency, war, invasion, rebellion, riots or descent, registration, and naturalization.
any other violent activities. 2. The conditions and procedure for
acquisition of Indian citizenship as per the
397. With reference to the Fundamental Rights, provision of the Citizenship Act, 1955.
consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Fundamental Rights are a limitation to the correct?
state and hence available only against the (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
state. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
2. Article 13 empowers the Supreme Court
and the High Courts to declare a law Ans.399(C) There are four ways in which
unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of Indian citizenship can be acquired: birth,
contravention of any of the Fundamental descent, registration and naturalisation. The
Rights. provisions are listed under the Citizenship Act,
Which of the statements given above is/are 1955.
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 400. Consider the following statements:
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 1. There are 21 high courts at present in India.
2. The three new high court are Meghalaya,
Ans.397(C) Restrictions or suspension of Manipur and Tirpura.
fundamental rights. Which of the statements given above is/are
Thus, absolute and unrestricted individual NOT correct?
rights do not, and cannot exist in any modern (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
state. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Article - 13 : Laws inconsistent with
Fundamental Rights Ans.400(A) The Centre has constituted three
Supreme Court (Article 32), High Court new High Courts in the northeast —
(Article 226) can declare a law Meghalaya, Manipur and Tripura — taking the
unconstitutional and invalid on the ground of total number of High Courts in the country
contravention of any of the Fundamental from 21 to 24.
Rights.
401. Consider the following statements:
398. Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India was
1. The directive principle is meant to establish established on 25 January 1950.
Political Democracy. 2. The President of India appoints the Chief
2. The directive principle is meant to establish Election Commissioner and other Election
Social Democracy. Commissioners.
3. The directive principle is meant to establish Which of the statements given above is/are
Economic Democracy. NOT correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
correct? (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Ans.401(C) The Election Commission of
India is an autonomous and quasi-judicial
Ans.398(C) Directive Principles of State institution that was formed to elect
Policy aim to create social and economic representatives from various and independent
conditions under which the citizens can lead a institutions in India, independently and
good life. They also aim to establish social and impartially in India. The Election Commission
economic democracy through a welfare state. of India was established on 25 January 1950.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
248

The Commission currently consists of a Chief (A) 1 only (B) 2 only

Election Commissioner and two Election (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Commissioners. It was a single-member body
with only the Chief Election Commissioner Ans.404(C) Both 1 and 2
from when it first formed in 1950 and until
October 15, 1989. 405. Consider the following statements:
1. The parliamentary government is also
402. Consider the following statements: called the cabinet government or responsible
1. The idea of incorporation of the Concurrent government or government of Westminster.
List in the Indian Constitution has been 2. It is popular in UK, Japan, and Canada etc.
borrowed from the Constitution of Australia. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. The first country to introduce the institution correct?
of Ombudsman (Lokpal) was Sweden. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Ans.405(C) The Parliamentary Government is
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 also known as cabinet government or
Responsible Government responsible and
Ans.402(C)The idea of incorporation of the Westminster forms of government and is
Concurrent List in the Indian Constitution has prevalent in Britain, Japan Canada, India and
been borrowed from the Constitution of other countries.
Australia. Sweden was the first country to set
the institution of ombudsman in 1809. 406. Consider the following languages:
1. Sanskrit
403. Consider the following statements: 2. Tamil
1. The Chief Justice of Hon'ble Supreme 3. Telugu
Court acts as President of India in absence of Which of the above has/have been declared as
both President and Vice president. 'Classical Language / Languages' by the
2. In case of absence of chief justice, the Government?
senior-most judge of Supreme Court acts as (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
President. (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Ans.406(D) Classical Languages declared by
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only the government are: Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu,
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia.

Ans.403(C) The President (Discharge of 407. Consider the following languages:

Functions) Act, 1969 of India provides that the 1. Kannada
Chief Justice of India (CJI) (or senior most 2. Malayalam
judge of SC in absence of CJI) shall act as the 3. Odia
President of India in the event of the offices of Which of the above has/have been declared as
both the President and the Vice President 'Classical Language / Languages' by the
being vacant. Government?
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
404. Consider the following statements: (C) 2 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
1. The number of Legislative Assembly seats
in Madhya Pradesh is 231. Ans.407(D) Classical Languages declared by
2. The number of Legislative Assembly seats the government are: Sanskrit, Tamil, Telugu,
in Uttar Pradesh is 404. Kannada, Malayalam, and Odia.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 408. Consider the following statements:
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249

1. T.N. Seshan made it clear that no elections

will be held without the voter ID after January Ans.410(D) As per Article 55(3) of the
1, 1995. Constitution of India, the election of the
2. The age of voting has been reduced from 21 President shall be held in accordance with the
to 18 years by the 61st Constitution system of proportional representation by
Amendments Act, 1989. means of single transferable vote and the
Which of the statements given above is/are voting at such election shall be by secret
correct? ballot.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only The Vice President is elected indirectly by
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 members of an electoral college consisting of
the members of both Houses of Parliament in
Ans.408(C) Seshan announced that if voter accordance with the system of Proportional
identity cards were not issued, no elections Representation by means of the Single
would be held after January 1, 1995. A transferable vote and the voting is by secret
The Sixty-first Amendment of the Constitution ballot conducted by election commission.
of India, officially known as The Constitution
(Sixty-first Amendment) Act, 1988, lowered 411. Consider the following statements:
the voting age of elections to the Lok Sabha 1. Planning in India derives its objectives
and to the Legislative Assemblies of States from the Directive Principles of State Policy
from 21 years to 18 years. (DPSP).
2. Article 45 mandates the State to provide for
409. Consider the following statements: early childhood care and education for all
1. The provisions of emergency are contained children until they complete the age of 10
under XVII Part of the Constitution. years. Which of the statements given above
2. In an emergency, the president cannot is/are correct?
suspend certain fundamental rights. They are (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
20 and 21. Which of the statements given (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
above is / are correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Ans.411(C) Article 45 in the Constitution of
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 India was set up as an act. The state shall
endeavour to provide, within a period of ten
Ans.409(B) The Emergency provisions of the years from commencement of this
Indian constitution has been borrowed from Constitution, for free and compulsory
the German constitution. The Emergency education for all children until they complete
provisions are contained in Part XVIII of the the age of fourteen years.
Constitution, from Articles 352 to 360. In
Emergency, the President cannot suspend 412. Consider the following statements:
certain Fundamental Rights. They are 20 and 1. The Comptroller and Auditor General can
21. be removed from his Office before the expiry
of his term by the President on the
410. Consider the following statements: recommendation of the Parliament.
1. The President of India is elected on the 2. The salary and allowances of the
basis of Proportional representation by single- Comptroller and Auditor General are
transferable vote. determined by the Parliament.
2. The Vice President of India is Elected by Which of the statements given above is/are
MPs correct?
(Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha) ata joint sitting. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor
not correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Ans.412(C) The Comptroller and Auditor
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 General can be removed from his Office
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
250

before the expiry of his term by the President 2. Under the Indian Constitution, the subjects
on the recommendation of the Parliament and of administration have been divided into three
salary and allowances of the Comptroller and lists.
Auditor General are determined by the Which of the statements given above is/are
Parliament. correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
413. Consider the following statements: (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. Solicitor General of India is the Highest
Legal Officer of Union Government. Ans.415(B) The Indian Constitution closely
2. The Finance Commission consists of five follows the constitutional system of the United
number of Members and his term is also 5 Kingdom. This can be seen by the fact that the
years. Indian Constitution has borrowed following
Which of the statements given above is/are not features from the British Constitution. 1. The
correct? office of the president of India is based upon
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only the British Queen who is a ceremonial head of
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 the state.

Ans.413(A) The Attorney General is the chief 416. Consider the following statements:
legal advisor to Government of India. He is a 1. The Chief Justice and other Judges of the
primary lawyer in the Supreme Court. He is High Court are appointed by the President.
appointed by the President of India on the 2. Sarkaria Commission was appointed by the
advice of Union Cabinet. Government to report on Center-State
Relations.
414. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. Article 15 (3) confers a special provisions correct?
to Women and Children. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
2. The prohibition imposed by the Article 20 (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
is applicable to criminal cases.
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.416(C) The Chief Justice of a High Court
correct? is appointed by the President with the
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only consultation of the Chief Justice of the
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Supreme Court and the Governor of the State.
The other judges are appointed by the will of
Ans.414(C) Article 15(3) provides for special President, Governor and the Chief Justice of
protective discrimination in favour of women High Court.
and child relieving them from the moribund of Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by
formal equality. the central government of India. The Sarkaria
Article 20 of Indian Constitution provides for Commission's charter was to examine the
protection in respect of conviction of offences. central-state relationship on various portfolios
In other words, it lays down certain safeguards and suggest changes within the framework of
to the person accused of crimes as stated Constitution of India.
below:
1. Ex post facto law (Article 20(1)) 417. Consider the following statements:
2. Double Jeopardy (Article20(2)) 1. The first session of the Parliament is called
3. Self-incrimination (Article 20(3) as Budget Session.
2. The usual expenditure of the Government
415. Consider the following statements: of India is charged from contingency Fund.
1. The President of Indian Union has the Which of the statements given above is/are
similar Constitutional authority as the USA not correct?
President. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
251

Ans.417(D) In India, the Parliament conducts Ans.419(A) The salaries and allowances of the
three sessions each year: Budget session: Speaker of Legislative Assembly and
February to May. Monsoon session: July to Chairman of Legislative Council shall be
September. Winter session: November to determined by the State Legislature.
December. The Governor shall be entitled to the use of
Consolidated Fund of India is the most his official residence without payment of rent
important of all government accounts. All and shall also be entitled to such emoluments,
revenues received by the government by way allowances and privileges as may be
of direct taxes and indirect taxes, money prescribed by Parliament.
borrowed and receipts from loans given by the
government flow into the Consolidated Fund 420. Consider the following statements:
of India. 1. The District Judges and Magistrate of the
Civil Courts shall be appointed by the
418. Consider the following statements: Governor.
1. Question Hour is the first hour of a sitting 2. The Guwahati High Court has territorial
session of India's Lok Sabha devoted to jurisdiction over five number of States.
questions. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Zero Hour is the period immediately not correct?
following the Question Hour when the (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Members voice their concerns on various (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
matters of public importance.
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.420(B) Magistrates of district judges and
correct? civil courts are appointed by the governor on
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only the advice of the Chief Justice of the state.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 The Guwahati High Court has territorial
authority over 4 states such as Assam,
Ans.418(C) Generally, the first hour of a Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland.
sitting of Lok Sabha is devoted to Questions
and that hour is called the Question Hour. It 421. Consider the following statements:
has a special significance in the proceedings of 1. The Constitution of 1950 envisaged a
Parliament. Supreme Court with one Chief Justice and 7
Zero hour denotes the time immediately puisne Judges.
following the Question Hour in both Houses 2. The number of SC judges was increased by
of Parliament. This is about 12 noon which is the Parliament and currently, there are 34
why it is called Zero Hour. During this hour, judges including the Chief Justice of India
members can raise matters of great importance (CJI).
without prior notice. Which of the statements given above is/are not
correct?
419. Consider the following statements: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
1. The salaries and allowances of the Speaker (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
of Legislative Assembly and Chairman of
Legislative Council shall be determined by Ans.421(D) As the work of the Court
the State Legislature. increased and cases began to accumulate,
2. The emoluments, allowances and privileges Parliament increased the number of judges
of the Governor shall be determined by the (including the Chief Justice) from the original
State Legislature. 8 in 1950 to 11 in 1956, 14 in 1960, 18 in
Which of the statements given above is/are 1978, 26 in 1986, 31 in 2009, to 34 in 2019.
correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 422. Consider the following statements:
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
252

1. Supreme Court and high court judges are 1. Financial Emergency can be proclaimed
not appointed to various posts in tribunals and under the Article 356.
commissions, after their retirement. 2. Salary and allowances of employees of any
2. President can remove a judge when class can be reduced when a financial
parliament approves with a majority of the emergency is declared.
total membership of each house in favour of Which of the statements given above is/are
impeachment. correct?
Which of the statements given above is/are (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
not correct? (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans.424(B) If the President is satisfied that
there is an economic situation in which the
Ans.422(A) A Person who has retired as a financial stability or credit of India is
judge of the supreme court is debarred from threatened, he or she can declare financial
practicing in any court of law or before any emergency. Such an emergency must be
other authority in India. However, Supreme approved by the Parliament within two
Court and high court judges are appointed to months. It has never been declared.
various posts in tribunals and commissions,
after their retirement. Article 124(4) of the 425. Consider the following statements:
constitution, President can remove a judge on 1. Local self-government is elected by the
proved misbehaviour or incapacity when State Election Commission.
parliament approves with a majority of the 2. Election Commission does not conduct
total membership of each house in favour of election to Speaker of Lok Sabha.
impeachment and not less than two thirds of Which of the statements given above is/are
the members of each house present. correct?
423. Consider the following statements: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
1. Parliament or State Legislature can declare (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
a seat vacant if the member is absent from the
session for a period of 120 days without Ans.425(C) The Commission’s functions and
permission. powers with respect to elections to the offices
2. The total members in the Legislative of the President, the Vice President, the state
Council should not be less than (According legislators and the Parliament is divided under
Article 171). three headings:
Which of the statements given above is/are Administrative
correct? Advisory
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Quasi-judicial
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 In details, these powers and functions are:
Determining the Electoral Constituencies’
Ans.423(C) Parliament or State Legislature territorial areas throughout the country on the
can declare a seat vacant if the member is basis of the Delimitation Commission Act of
absent from the session for a period of 60 days Parliament.
without permission. Preparing and periodically revising electoral
The size of the State Legislative Council rolls and registering all eligible voters.
cannot be more than one third of the Notifying the schedules and dates of elections
membership of the State Legislative and scrutinising nomination papers.
Assembly. However, its size cannot be less Advising the President on matters concerning
than 40 members the disqualification of MPs.
Cancelling polls in case of booth capturing,
424. Consider the following statements: rigging, violence and other irregularities.

426. Consider the following statements:

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253

1. Article 243 D provides that seats shall be Ans.428(D) The speaker of the Lok Sabha can
reserved for the Scheduled Castes and the ask a member of the house to stop speaking
Scheduled Tribes. and let another member speak is called
2. The aim of Panchayati Raj is to develop yielding the floor.
local self-governments in districts, zones and The Tenth Schedule was inserted in the
villages. Constitution in 1985. It lays down the process
Which of the statements given above is/are by which legislators may be disqualified on
correct? grounds of defection by the Presiding Officer
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only of a legislature based on a petition by any
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 other member of the House.

Ans.426(C) Article 243 D provides that seats 429. Consider the following statements:
shall be reserved for the Scheduled Castes and 1. The resolution for removing the vice
the Scheduled Tribes. The aim of Panchayati President of India can be moved in the Rajya
Raj is to develop local self-governments in Sabha alone.
districts, zones and villages. 2. A Money Bill can only be introduced in
Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha has no power to
427. Consider the following statements: make a change in it against the will of Lok
1. President has powers to nominated 2 Sabha.
members from Anglo-Indian community if the Which of the statements given above is/are
President feels that their community is not correct?
adequately represented. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
2. According to Article 80, there will be a (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Parliament for the Union, consisting of the
President and two Houses - Rajya Sabha, Lok Ans.429(C) According the constitution the
Sabha. Vice President can be removed by a resolution
Which of the statements given above is/are not of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective
correct? majority.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Money Bill can be introduced only in the Lok
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Sabha the bill is placed in Rajya Sabha
Ans.427(B) According to Article 71, the thereafter and Rajya Sabha can return the Bill
Parliament shall be constituted for the Union with or without its recommendations.
in which the President and the two Houses
shall be known as the Council of States (Rajya 430. Consider the following statements:
Sabha) and the Lok Sabha respectively. 1. The Administrator appointed under the
Article 239 to the Union Territory of Delhi is
428. Consider the following statements: called Lieutenant Governor.
1. The Speaker can ask a member of the 2. Article 315 to 323 in Part XIV of the
House to stop speaking and let another Constitution of India provides for the
member speak. This phenomenon is known as establishment of Public Service Commission
Yielding the floor. for the Union and a Public Service
2. Anti-Defection Act relating to Commission for each State.
disqualification of Members of Parliament and Which of the statements given above is/are
State Legislatures does not covers Chairman not correct?
of Rajya Sabha. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
not correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Ans.430(B) Articles 315 to 323 in Part XIV of
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 the Constitution of India provides for the
establishment of Public Service Commission
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
254

for the Union and a Public Service Which of the statements given above is/are
Commission for each State. not correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
431. Consider the following statements: (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. V Narhari Rao was the first Comptroller
and Auditor General of India. Ans.433(D) In India, an advocate general is a
2. The Comptroller and Auditor-General of legal advisor to a state government. The post
India is appointed by the President of India is created by the Constitution of India and
following a recommendation by the Prime corresponds to that of Attorney General of
Minister. Which of the statements given above India at the central-level. The Governor of
is/are not correct? each state shall appoint a person who is
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only qualified to be appointed judges in high court.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
434. Consider the following statements regarding
Ans.431(D) V Narhari Rao was the first power of President:
Comptroller and Auditor General of India. 1. The President is always the first to address
The Comptroller and Auditor-General of India the Parliament during the budget session.
is appointed by the President of India 2. All bills passed by Parliament need the
following a recommendation by the Prime President’s consent before becoming law.
Minister. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
432. Consider the following statements regarding (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
Constitution amendments: (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
1. The process of amending the Constitution is
contained in Part XIX (Article 368) of the Ans.434(C) A Bill is a statute in draft and
Constitution. cannot become law unless it has received the
2. An amendment of the Constitution can be approval of both the Houses of Parliament and
initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the assent of the President of India.
the purpose in either House of Parliament and
not in the state legislatures. 435. Consider the following statements regarding
Which of the statements given above is/are State Legislative Council:
not correct? 1. Articles 169,171 (1) and 171 (2) of the
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Constitution provide for the constitution of the
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Legislative Council.
2. Its members have a term of six years but
Ans.432(A) The procedure of amendment in one third of the members are removed every
the constitution is laid down in Part XX two years.
(Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This Which of the statements given above is/are
procedure ensures the sanctity of the correct?
Constitution of India and keeps a check on (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

433. Consider the following statements regarding Ans.435(C) Each Member of the State
Advocate general: Legislative Council (MLC) serves for a six-
1. The Governor of each state shall appoint a year term, with terms staggered so that the
person who is qualified to be appointed judges terms of one third of a State Legislative
in high court. Council's membership expire every two years.
2. According to Article 165, there shall be an This arrangement parallels that for the Rajya
Advocate General of the State who will also Sabha, the upper house of the Parliament of
be the first law officer of the State India.
Government.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
255

436. Consider the following statements regarding Article 63 of Indian Constitution states that
Indira gandhi: "There shall be a Vice President of India."
1. Indira gandhi also called "priyadarshini". The Vice President acts as President in the
This name was given to her by Rabindranath absence of the president due to death,
tagore. resignation, impeachment, or other situations.
2. Indira gandhi was the first person who When the Vice-President serves as the
belonged to Rajya Sabha during nomination President, he shall not perform the duties of
as prime minister. the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? 439. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only I. Article 39A- Promotes equal justice and
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 free legal aid for all the citizens.
II. Article 32- Regarding constitutional
Ans.436(C) Indira Gandhi, Shri H. D. Deve remedies.
Gowda, Shri Inder Kumar Gujral and Dr. Select the correct option
Manmohan Singh are mambers of Rajya (A) Only I (B) Only II
Sabha who became of the Prime minister. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

437. Consider the following statements: Ans.439(C) Article 39A of Constitution OF

1. The total number of ministers in the council India deals with EQUAL JUSTICE AND
of ministers must not exceed 15% of the total FREE LEGAL AID.
number of members of the Lok Sabha. It says the State shall secure that the operation
2. The Legislative Assembly of each state of the legal system promotes justice, on a
should not have more than 500 members and basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in
not less than 100 members. particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable
Which of the statements given above is/are legislation schemes or in any other way, to
correct? ensure that opportunities for securing justice
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only are not denied to any citizen by reason of
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 economic or other disabilities.
Ans.437(A) Subject to the provisions of Article 32 of the Indian Constitution gives the
article 333, the Legislative Assembly of each right to individuals to move to the Supreme
State shall consist of not more than five Court to seek justice when they feel that their
hundred, and not less than 60, members right has been ‘unduly deprived’. The apex
chosen by direct election from territorial court is given the authority to issue directions
constituencies in the State. or orders for the execution of any of the rights
bestowed by the constitution as it is
438. Consider the following statements: considered ‘the protector and guarantor of
1. The Governor cannot pardon a death Fundamental Rights’.
sentence while he has the power to pardon. Under Article 32, the parliament can also
2. When the Vice-President serves as the entrust any other court to exercise the power
President, he shall not perform the duties of of the Supreme Court, provided that it is
the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. within its Jurisdiction. And unless there is
Which of the statements given above is/are some Constitutional amendment, the rights
correct? guaranteed by this Article cannot be
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only suspended. Therefore, we can say that an
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 assured right is guaranteed to individuals for
enforcement of fundamental rights by this
Ans.438(C) The President can grant pardon in article as the law provides the right to an
all cases where the sentence given is sentence individual to directly approach the Supreme
of death but pardoning power of Governor Court without following a lengthier process of
does not extend to death sentence cases. moving to the lower courts first as the main
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
256

purpose of Writ Jurisdiction under Article 32 Article 246 states that the Parliament has
is the enforcement of Fundamental Rights. exclusive power to make laws with respect to
any of the matters enumerated in List I (i.e.
440. Which of the following statement (s) is true? Union List) and List III (i.e. Concurrent List)
I. Article 324 says -Superintendence, direction of the Seventh Schedule.
and control of elections to be vested in an Article 248 states that the Parliament has
Election Commission. exclusive power to make any law with respect
II. In Part XI (Article 250 to 255) of the to any matter not enumerated in the
Indian Constitution are centre-state relations Concurrent List or State List.
mentioned. Further, Article 250 states that
Select the correct option. notwithstanding anything in this Chapter,
(A) Only I (B) Only II Parliament shall, while a Proclamation of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Emergency is in operation, have power to
make laws for the whole or any part of the
Ans.440(A) 324. Superintendence, direction territory of India with respect to any of the
and control of elections to be vested in an matters enumerated in the State List.
Election Commission
(1) The superintendence, direction and control 441. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
of the preparation of the electoral rolls for, I. The maximum number of nominated
and the conduct of, all elections to Parliament members to Lok Sabha is 2.
and to the Legislature of every State and of II. Prime minister decides on the issue related
elections to the offices of President and Vice to the disqualification of a Member of Lok
President held under this Constitution shall be Sabha under tenth schedule.
vested in a Commission (referred to in this Select the correct option.
Constitution as the Election Commission) (A) Only I (B) Only II
The Election Commission shall consist of the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Chief Election Commissioner and such
number of other Election Commissioners, if Ans.441(A) The Lok Sabha is composed of
any, as the President may from time to time representatives of people chosen by direct
fix and the appointment of the Chief Election election on the basis of Universal Adult
Commissioner and other Election Suffrage. Maximum strength of the House is
Commissioners shall, subject to the provisions 552 members - 530 members to represent the
of any law made in that behalf by Parliament, States, 20 members to represent the Union
be made by the President. Territories, and 2 members to be nominated
Articles 245 to 263 of Part XI and Articles by the President from the Anglo-Indian
268 to 293 of Part XII describe three types of Community. At present, the strength of the
Center-State relations i.e. Legislative, House is 545. The term of the Lok Sabha,
Administrative, and Financial. unless dissolved, is five years from the date
Articles 245 to 255 describe Legislative appointed for its first meeting.
relations. The question whether a member is subject to
Article 245 (1) states that Subject to the disqualification in all other matters except
provisions of this Constitution, Parliament under 10th schedule is decided by President.
may make laws for the whole or any part of However, President should obtain the opinion
the territory of India, and the Legislature of a of the election commission before taking such
State may make laws for the whole or any part decision. The question of disqualification
of the State. under Anti-defection or Tenth Schedule is
Article 245 (2) states that no law made by decided by the Chairman in the case of Rajya
Parliament shall be deemed to be invalid on Sabha and Speaker in the case of Lok Sabha.
the ground that it would have extra-territorial The decision of Chairman or Speaker in this
operation. condition is subject to judicial review.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
257

442. Which of the following statement (s) is true? amendment added article 15(4) and article
I. 6 year is the term of the elected 19(6) and brought changes in the right to
representatives of a gram Panchayat. property in pursuance with the decision of
II. The Panchayati Raj system was introduced Supreme Court concerning fundamental
countrywide through 73rd and 74th right. Ninth schedule to the constitution was
constitutional Amendments, 1992. also added in this amendment.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II 444. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II I. The Office of the Accountant General was
established in the year 1858, the same year
Ans.442(B) The gram panchayat is divided when the British took administrative control
into wards and each ward is represented by a of India from the East India Company.
Ward Member or Commissioner, also referred II. The Government of India Act, 1935 gave
to as a Panch or Panchayat Member, who is further power to the post of Auditor General
directly elected by the villagers. The by making provisions for Provincial Auditors
panchayat is chaired by the president of the in the federal structure.
village, known as a Sarpanch. The term of the Select the correct option.
elected representatives is five years. The (A) Only I (B) Only II
Secretary of the panchayat is a non-elected (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
representative, appointed by the state
government, to oversee panchayat activities. Ans.444(C) The Office of the Accountant
In India, the Panchayati Raj now functions as General was established in the year 1858, the
a system of governance in which gram same year when the British took
panchayats are the basic units of local administrative control of India from the East
administration. The system has three levels: India Company. The Government of India
Gram Panchayat (village level), Mandal Act, 1935 gave further power to the post of
Parishad or Block Samiti or Panchayat Samiti Auditor General by making provisions for
(block level), and Zila Parishad (district level). Provincial Auditors in the federal structure.
It was formalized in 1992 by the 73rd
amendment to the Indian Constitution. 445. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
Currently, the Panchayati Raj system exists in I. In the context of Indian parliament Time
all states except Nagaland, Meghalaya, and immediately after Question Hour is ‘Zero
Mizoram, and in all Union Territories except Hour.’
Delhi. II. President takes the final decision on
whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not.
443. Which of the following statement (s) is true? Select the correct option.
I. Article 61 of the Constitution of India talks (A) Only I (B) Only II
about the provisions for impeachment of the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
President of India.
II. The Constitution of India was amended for Ans.445(A) The time immediately following
the first time in 1952. the Question Hour has come to be known as
Select the correct option. "Zero Hour". It starts at around 12 noon
(A) Only I (B) Only II (hence the name) and members can, with prior
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II notice to the Speaker, raise issues of
importance during this time. Typically,
Ans.443(A) According to Article 61 of the discussions on important Bills, the Budget,
Constitution, when a President is to be and other issues of national importance take
impeached for violation of the Constitution, place from 2 p.m. Money Bills can be
the charge shall be preferred by either House introduced only in Lok Sabha (the directly
of Parliament. The First Amendment to the elected 'people's house' of the Indian
constitution was made in 1951, this Parliament). The Speaker of the Lok Sabha
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
258

certifies if a financial bill is a Money Bill or A.D. V. Alexander (First Lord or Admiralty
not. Minister of Admiralty). The last meeting of
the Constituent Assembly was held on 24
446. Which of the following statement (s) is true? January 1950 and Dr. Rajendra Prasad was
I. Four types of writ are there in the Indian elected the first President of India on the same
Constitution. day by the Constituent Assembly.
II. Part IV of constitution of India deals with
Directive Principles of State Policy. 448. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
Select the correct option. I. Ten Fundamental Duties are mentioned in
(A) Only I (B) Only II Indian constitution.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II II. Apart from constitution amendment or
money bill, any bill sent to the President can
Ans.446(B) Such directions, orders or writ to be sent back to the Parliament for
the Supreme Court under Article 32 and to the reconsideration.
High Court under Article 226 to enforce the Select the correct option
Fundamental Rights as provided in the Third (A) Only I (B) Only II
Part of the Constitution of India under which (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
the Habeas Corpus, Mandate, Prohibition,
Right to Quit and Insolvency Writ. There are Ans.448(B) Part IVA of the Indian
5 types of writ. Constitution deals with Fundamental Duties.
The Directive Principles of State Policy of As of now, there are 11 Fundamental duties.
India (DPSP) are the guidelines or 15 Originally, the Constitution of India did not
principles given to the federal institutes contain these duties. Fundamental duties were
governing the state of India, to be kept in added by 42nd and 86th Constitutional
citation while framing laws and policies. Amendment acts. Apart from constitution
These provisions, contained in Part IV amendment or money bill, any bill sent to the
(Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India, President can be sent back to the Parliament
are not enforceable by any court, but the for reconsideration but if Parliament passes
principles laid down there in are considered in this bill again and has no option except to
the governance of the country, making it the approve that bill. Give.
duty of the State to apply these principles in
making laws to establish a just society in the 449. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
country. I. According to Article 155, each state in the
country will have a governor. Also a person
447. Which of the following statement (s) is true? can be appointed as the Governor of two or
I. The members of the Cabinet Mission were more states.
Sir Stafford Cripps, Lord Panthic Lawrence II. The governor has the right to call the state
and AB Alexander. assembly in any emergency and adjourn it at
II. The last meeting of the Constituent any time.
Assembly was held on 24 January 1950 and Select the correct option.
Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected the first (A) Only I (B) Only II
President of India on the same day by the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Constituent Assembly.
Select the correct option. Ans.449(B) According to Article 153, each
(A) Only I (B) Only II state in the country will have a governor. Also
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II a person can be appointed as the Governor of
two or more states. The governor has the right
Ans.447(C) In the Cabinet Mission, three to call the state assembly in any emergency
members of the British Cabinet - Lord Pethick and adjourn it at any time. He also has the
Laurence (Secretary of India), Sir Stafford right to call a joint sitting of the two houses.
Cripps (Chairman of the Board of Trade) and He has the right to repeal any bill to be passed
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
259

in the State Legislative Assembly, sent back Ans.451(B) The Governor of each state is
for review and sent to the President. This appointed by the President on the
means that no bill in the state assembly can be recommendation of the Union Cabinet of the
passed without the permission of the country and it functions on the advice of the
governor. The Governor also has the task of Chief Minister of the state. The Governor of
issuing any ordinance during emergency in the each state is appointed by the President on the
state. recommendation of the Union Cabinet of the
country and it functions on the advice of the
450. Which of the following statement (s) is true? Chief Minister of the state.
I. President is the executive head of India
II. President of India has the supreme 452. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
command of the Indian Defence Forces. I. Article 352 of Indian constitution has the
Select the correct option. provision for National Emergency.
(A) Only I (B) Only II II. The Right to Freedom is covered in
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Articles 16 to article 22.
Select the correct option.
Ans.450(C)The president is indirectly elected (A) Only I (B) Only II
by an electoral college comprising the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Parliament of India (both houses) and the Ans.452(A) National emergency could be
legislative assemblies of each of India's states declared on the basis of "external aggression
and territories, who themselves are all directly or war" and "internal disturbance" in the
elected. Although the Article 53 of the whole of India or a part of its territory under
Constitution of India states that the president Article 352. Such an emergency was declared
can exercise his powers directly or by in India in 1962 war (China war), 1971 war
subordinate authority, with few exceptions, all (Pakistan war), and 1975 internal disturbance
of the executive powers vested in the (declared by Indira Gandhi). But after 44th
president are, in practice, exercised by the amendment act 1978, National Emergency can
prime minister (a subordinate authority) with only be declared on grounds of "External
the help of the Council of Ministers. aggression or war", also called as External
The president is the Supreme Commander of Emergency & on the ground of "armed
the Indian Armed Forces. The president can rebellion", also called as Internal Emergency.
declare war or conclude peace, on the advice The Right to Freedom is covered in Articles
of the Union Council of Ministers headed by 19 to article 22, with the view of guaranteeing
the prime minister. All-important treaties and individual rights that were considered vital by
contracts are made in the president's name the framers of the Constitution, and these
Articles also include certain restrictions that
451. Which of the following statement (s) is true? may be imposed by the State on individual
I. The Governor of each state is appointed by liberty under specified conditions.
the President on the recommendation of the Article 19 guarantees six freedoms in the
Union Cabinet of the country and it functions nature of civil rights, which are available only
on the advice of the Chief Minister of the to citizens of India. These include the freedom
state. of speech and expression, freedom of
II. The Governor of each state is appointed by assembly without arms, freedom of
the Prime Minister on the recommendation of association, freedom of movement throughout
the Union Cabinet of the country and it the territory of our country, freedom to reside
functions on the advice of the Chief Minister and settle in any part of the country of India
of the state. and the freedom to practice any profession.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II 453. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
260

I. Article 369, President of India can proclaim (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
constitutional emergency.
II. 12 members of upper house (Rajya Sabha) Ans.454(C) When the posts of both the
can be nominated by President of India. Speaker and the Deputy Speaker are vacant,
Select the correct option. the responsibility of the office of the Speaker
(A) Only I (B) Only II by such member is discharged by a member of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the Lok Sabha appointed by the President for
this purpose. The person thus appointed is
Ans.453(B) 356. Provisions in case of failure known as the Speaker of the times. The
of constitutional machinery in State. Member of Parliament has another tool
(1) If the President, on receipt of report from available in the form of a half-hour discussion
the Governor of the State or otherwise, is to raise issues of public importance. If any
satisfied that a situation has arisen in which matter requires clarification in relation to the
the government of the State cannot be carried answer to a starred or unstarred question, then
on in accordance with he provisions of this any member can give notice for a half-hour
Constitution, the President may be discussion on it.
Proclamation
(a) assume to himself all or any of the 455. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
functions of the Government of the State and I. United Kingdom doesn't have a written
all or any of the powers vested in or Constitution.
exercisable by the Governor or anybody or II. The International Labour Organization
authority in the State other than the (ILO) is a United Nations agency.
Legislature of the State. Select the correct option.
Under article 80 of the Constitution, the (A) Only I (B) Only II
Council of States (Rajya Sabha) is composed (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
of not more than 250 members, of whom 12
are nominated by the President of India from Ans.455(C) The constitution of the United
amongst persons who have special knowledge Kingdom is the system of rules that shapes the
or practical experience in respect of such political governance of the United Kingdom
matters as literature, science, art and social of Great Britain and Northern Ireland. The UK
service. By adopting the principle of constitution is not contained in a single code,
nomination in Rajya Sabha, the Constitution but principles have emerged over the centuries
has ensured that the nation must also receive from statute, case law, political conventions
services of the most distinguished persons of and social consensus. In this sense, it can be
the country who have earned distinction in said that the United Kingdom does not have a
their field of activity, many of whom may not constitution or a basic law.
like to face the rough and tumble of the The International Labour Organization (ILO)
election. is a United Nations agency whose mandate is
to advance social justice and promote decent
454. Which of the following statement (s) is true? work by setting international labour standards.
I. When the posts of both the Speaker and the It was the first specialised agency of the UN.
Deputy Speaker are vacant, the responsibility The ILO has 187 member states: 186 of the
of the office of the Speaker by such member is 193 UN member states plus the Cook Islands
discharged by a member of the Lok Sabha are members of the ILO. The tripartite
appointed by the President for this purpose. structure is unique to the ILO where
II. The Member of Parliament has another representatives from the government,
tool available in the form of a half-hour employers and employees openly debate and
discussion to raise issues of public create labour standards.
importance.
Select the correct option. 456. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
(A) Only I (B) Only II
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261

I. Two times a person can be elected as the November 1939 based on adult franchise, and
President of India. was accepted by the British in August 1940.
II. Article 32 was referred to as the 'the heart
and soul' of the constitution by Dr. B. R. 458. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
Ambedkar. I. The members of the Panchayat are the
Select the correct option. electorates of the respective territorial
(A) Only I (B) Only II constituencies.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II II. Nagaland was created as a separate state in
the year 1963.
Ans.456(C) There is no bar on the number of Select the correct option.
times a person can hold the high office of the (A) Only I (B) Only II
President of India. In the United States (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
though, a person can only become President
twice (4 years each), that too only Ans.458(C) The Members of Gram
consecutively. Panchayats, Panch of Gram Kutchahry,
Dr. B. R. Ambedkar called 'Article 32' of the Members of Panchayat Samiti and Zila
Indian Constitution i.e. Right to Constitutional Parishad are elected directly by the electorates
remedies as 'the heart and soul of the of the respective territorial constituencies
Constitution'. It was acknowledged because through universal adult franchise.
mere declaration of the fundamental right Nagaland is one of three states in India where
without an effective machinery for the population is mostly Christian. Nagaland
enforcement of the fundamental rights would became the 16th state of India on 1 December
have been meaningless. 1963.

457. Which of the following statement (s) is true? 459. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
I. There are total 7 parliamentary seats (Rajya I. One fourth of the total number of members
Sabha constituency) in Punjab. of the House is considered quorum for the
II. Constituent Assembly of India was meeting of the House under Article 100 (3).
founded in the year 1946. II. The Speaker holds office till the first
Select the correct option. sitting of the next Lok Sabha after the
(A) Only I (B) Only II dissolution of the Parliament in which he was
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II elected from the date of his election.
Select the correct option.
Ans.457(C) Rajya Sabha is Council of states (A) Only I (B) Only II
and it is also known as the upper house of the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Parliament of India. It have members from all
states known as member of Parliament. Ans.459(B) One third of the total number of
Punjab have Seven members in Rajya Sabha. members of the House is considered quorum
The Constituent Assembly of India was for the meeting of the House under Article
elected to write the Constitution of India. 100 (3).The Speaker holds office till the first
Following India's independence from British sitting of the next Lok Sabha after the
Government in 1947, its members served as dissolution of the Parliament in which he was
the nation's first Parliament. elected from the date of his election.
An idea for a Constituent Assembly was
proposed in 1934 by M. N. Roy, a pioneer of 460. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
the Communist movement in India and an I. Article 39 is related to "Equal Justice and
advocate of radical democracy. It became an free legal aid."
official demand of the Indian National II. Setting a supreme court was Calcutta is a
Congress in 1935, C. Rajagopalachari voiced part of Regulating Act of 1773.
the demand for a Constituent Assembly on 15 Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
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262

(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II address both Houses of Parliament assembled
together and inform Parliament of the causes
Ans.460(C) Article 39A: The State shall of its summons.
secure that the operation of the legal system (2) Provision shall be made by rules
promotes justice, on a basis of equal regulating the procedure of either House for
opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide the allotment of time for discussion of the
free legal aid, by suitable legislation or matters referred to in such address.
schemes or in any other way, to ensure that
opportunities for securing justice are not 462. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
denied to any citizen by reason of economic or I. Charter Act of 1793 is associated with the
other disabilities. Courts can interpret the rules and regulations.
The Regulating Act of 1773 was an Act of the II. Government of India Act, 1919 For the
Parliament of Great Britain intended to first time Indian Legislature was made "Bi-
overhaul the management of the East India cameral."
Company's rule in India. The Company was Select the correct option.
important to the British Empire because it was (A) Only I (B) Only II
a monopoly trading company in India and in (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
the east and many influential people were
shareholders. Ans.462(C) The East India Company Act
1793, also known as the Charter Act 1793,
461. Which of the following statement (s) is true? was an Act of the Parliament of Great Britain
I. High Court is head of Judiciary in the State. which renewed the charter issued to the
II. Article 86 is related to Special Address by British East India Company.
the president. The Government of India Act 1919 was an
Select the correct option. Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom.
(A) Only I (B) Only II It was passed to expand participation of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Indians in the government of India. The Act
embodied the reforms recommended in the
Ans.461(A) Supreme Court of India also report of the Secretary of State for India,
known as Apex Court is the top and Chief Edwin Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord
Justice of India is top authority & last Chelmsford. The Act covered ten years, from
appellate court in India followed by High 1919 to 1929. This Act represented the end of
Courts as top judicial authority in states benevolent despotism and began genesis of
controlled and managed by Chief Justice of responsible government in India. It was set to
States with similar power as of SC at some be reviewed by the Simon Commission in 10
extent and last is District Courts also known years.
as subordinate court controlled and managed
by District & Session Judge under the full 463. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
supervision and direction of High Court. The I. A Supreme Court judge must have been a
Subordinate court further classified into two- High Court judge for at least for 5 years.
Civil Court in which Sub-Judge is the head II. Uniform civil code is in article 45.
followed by Munsif at lower, another is Select the correct option.
criminal court functioned by Chief Judicial/ (A) Only I (B) Only II
Metropolitan Magistrate at top assisted by (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
ACJM /ACMM & JM/MM at lower level.
Article 87 in the Indian Constitution Ans.463(A) The Supreme Court of India is
Special address by the President. the highest judicial court under the
(1) At the commencement of the first session Constitution of India, the highest
after each general election to the House of the constitutional court, with the power of judicial
People and at the commencement of the first review. Consisting of the Chief Justice of
session of each year the President shall India and a maximum of 34 judges, it has
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
263

extensive powers in the form of original, I. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the chairman of
appellate and advisory jurisdictions. It is Drafting Committee.
regarded as the most powerful public II. The constitution declares India a sovereign,
institution in India. Supreme Court judges socialist, secular, democratic republic.
retire at the age of 65. However, there have Select the correct option.
been suggestions from the judges of the (A) Only I (B) Only II
Supreme Court of India to provide for a fixed (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
term for the judges including the Chief Justice
of India. Ans.465(C) The Constitution of India is the
Article 44 of the Directive Principles in the supreme law of India. B. R. Ambedkar,
Constitution says the “State shall endeavour to chairman of the drafting committee, is widely
provide for its citizens a uniform civil code considered to be its chief architect. It imparts
(UCC) throughout the territory of India.” The constitutional supremacy (not parliamentary
objective of this endeavour should be to supremacy, since it was created by a
address the discrimination against vulnerable constituent assembly rather than Parliament)
groups and harmonise diverse cultural and was adopted by its people with a
practices. declaration in its preamble.
It was adopted by the Constituent Assembly
464. Which of the following statement (s) is true? of India on 26 November 1949 and became
I. 12th October 2006 Right to Information Act effective on 26 January 1950. The constitution
came into force in India. replaced the Government of India Act 1935 as
II. Article 17 is related with "Abolition of the country's fundamental governing
Untouchability." document, and the Dominion of India became
Select the correct option. the Republic of India.
(A) Only I (B) Only II The constitution declares India a sovereign,
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II socialist, secular, democratic republic,
assuring its citizens justice, equality and
Ans.464(B) Right to Information (RTI) is an liberty, and endeavours to promote fraternity.
act of the Parliament of India which sets out The original 1950 constitution is preserved in
the rules and procedures regarding citizens' a helium-filled case at the Parliament House
right to information. It replaced the former in New Delhi. The words "secular" and
Freedom of Information Act, 2002. Under the "socialist" were added to the preamble in 1976
provisions of RTI Act, any citizen of India during the Emergency.
may request information from a "public
authority" (a body of Government or 466. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
"instrumentality of State") which is required I. Advisory Jurisdiction means that the
to reply expeditiously or within thirty days. In President of India can refer any matter that is
case of matter involving a petitioner's life and of public importance or that which involves
liberty, the information has to be provided interpretation of Constitution to Supreme
within 48 hours. This law was passed by Court for advice.
Parliament on 15 June 2005 and came fully II. Writ Jurisdiction Means cases that can be
into force on 12 October 2005. directly considered by the Supreme Court
Article 17 of the Constitution of India, in Part without going to the lower courts before that.
III, made an epoch-making declaration that Select the correct option.
'Untouchability' is abolished and its practice in (A) Only I (B) Only II
any form is forbidden. The enforcement of (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
any disability arising out of “Untouchability”
shall be an offence punishable in accordance Ans.466(A) Article 143 of the Constitution
with the law. confers Advisory Jurisdiction to the Supreme
Court of India. This provision finds its origin
465. Which of the following statement (s) is true? in Section 213 of the Government of India
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
264

Act, 1935, which conferred upon the Tamil Nadu on several occasions. The party
Governor-General the discretion to pose has won majorities in the Tamil Nadu
questions of public importance to the Federal Legislative Assembly seven times, making it
Court. Similarly, as per Article 143, the the most successful political outfit in the
President has the power to address questions state's history. J. Jayalalithaa was known as
to the Supreme Court, which he deems the "Mother of AIADMK" and was highly
important for public welfare. The Supreme popular among the Tamil populace until her
Court “advises” the President by answering death in 2016.
the query put before it. Till date, this The Concurrent List or List-III is a list of 52
mechanism has been put to use only twelve items (though the last item is numbered 47)
times. However, it is pertinent to note that this given in the Seventh Schedule to the
is not binding on the President, nor is it “law Constitution of India. It includes the power to
declared by the Supreme Court”, hence not be considered by both the union and state
binding on subordinate courts. government.
In common law legal systems original
jurisdiction of a court is the power to hear a 468. Which of the following statement (s) is true?
case for the first time, as opposed to appellate I. Appellate jurisdiction is the power of an
jurisdiction, when a higher court has the appellate court to review.
power to review a lower court's decision. II. Uttarakhand came into existence on 9th
Original jurisdiction refers to the right of the November, 2000.
Supreme Court to hear a case for the first Select the correct option.
time. It has the exclusive right to hear all cases (A) Only I (B) Only II
that deal with disputes between states, or (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
between states and the union government. It Ans.468(C) Appellate jurisdiction is the
also has original jurisdiction over cases power of an appellate court to review, amend
brought to the court by ordinary people and overrule decisions of a trial court or other
regarding issues to the importance of society lower tribunal.
at large. Uttarakhand movement is termed to the events
of statehood activism within the state Uttar
467. Which of the following statement (s) is true? Pradesh which ultimately resulted in a
I. All India Anna Dravida Munnetra separate state Uttarakhand of the Republic of
Kazhagam (AIADMK) founded in 1999. India. Uttarakhand became a separate state of
II. "Trade unions" is listed in the concurrent Uttar Pradesh at 9 November 2000. The first
list given in the Seventh Schedule of the demand of Uttarakhand arose in 1897 and
Constitution of India. there had gradually been rising demand for a
Select the correct option. separate state several times. In 1994, the
(A) Only I (B) Only II demand for statehood eventually took the
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II form of mass movement that resulted in the
forming of the country's 27th state by 2000.
Ans.467(B) All India Anna Dravida Munnetra
Kazhagam (AIADMK) (transl. All India Anna 469. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
Dravidian Progressive Federation) is an Indian true?
regional political party in the state of Tamil I. In the election for Lok Sabha or State
Nadu and in the union territory of Puducherry. Assembly, the winning candidate must get at
AIADMK is a Dravidian party founded by M. least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be
G. Ramachandran (M.G.R) on 17 October declared elected.
1972 as a breakaway faction of the Dravida II. According to the provisions laid down in
Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK). the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the
From February 1989 to 5 December 2016, Speaker's post goes to the majority party and
AIADMK was led by J. Jayalalithaa, who the Deputy Speaker's to the Opposition.
served six times as the Chief Minister of
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
265

Select the correct option. Ans.470(B) Vote on Account is a grant in

(A) Only I (B) Only II advance to enable the government to carry on
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II until the voting of demands for grants and the
passing of the Appropriation Bill and Finance
Ans.469(D) The Lok Sabha, or House of the Bill. This enables the government to fund its
People, is the lower house of India's bicameral expenses for a short period of time or until a
Parliament, with the upper house being the full-budget is passed. As a convention, a vote-
Rajya Sabha. Members of the Lok Sabha are on-account is treated as a formal matter and
elected by adult universal suffrage and a first- passed by Lok Sabha without discussion.
past-the-post system to represent their Vote on Account was frequently used until
respective constituencies, and they hold their 2016 when the Budget was presented on the
seats for five years or until the body is last working day of February. However, since
dissolved by the President on the advice of the 2017, the budget presentation date was
council of ministers. The house meets in the advanced to February 1. This helped the
Lok Sabha Chambers of the Sansad Bhavan, executive to use almost 2 months’ time to get
New Delhi. the full-budget passed in the same financial
All 543 elected MPs are elected from single- year. So, since 2017, Vote on Account is not
member constituencies using first-past-the- usually used as part of the government
post voting. The President of India appoints budgeting process, unless in special cases like
an additional two members from the Anglo- an election year.
Indian community if he believes that
community is under-represented. 471. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
In the Lok Sabha, the lower House of the true?
Indian Parliament, both Presiding Officers— I. The authorization for the withdrawal of
the Speaker and the Deputy Speaker- are funds from the- Consolidated Fund of India
elected from among its members by a simple must come from The Parliament of India.
majority of members present and voting in the II. Government by way of taxes and other
House. As such, no specific qualifications are receipts for the conduct of Government
prescribed for being elected the Speaker. The business are credited to the Public Account.
Constitution only requires that Speaker should Select the correct option.
be a member of the House. But an (A) Only I (B) Only II
understanding of the Constitution and the laws (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
of the country and the rules of procedure and
conventions of Parliament is considered a Ans.471(A) The Parliament of India is the
major asset for the holder of the office of the supreme legislative body of the Republic of
Speaker. India. It is a bicameral legislature composed
of the President of India and the two houses:
470. Which of the following statement (s) is/are the Rajya Sabha (Council of States) and the
true? Lok Sabha (House of the People).
I. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is Consolidated Fund of India is the most
used by a regular Government, while an important of all government accounts.
“interim budget” is a provision used by a Revenues received by the government and
caretaker Government. expenses made by it, excluding the
II. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the exceptional items, are part of the Consolidated
expenditure in Government’s budget, while an Fund. This fund was constituted under Article
“interim budget” includes both expenditure 266 (1) of the Constitution of India. All
and receipts. revenues received by the government by way
Select the correct option. of direct taxes and indirect taxes, money
(A) Only I (B) Only II borrowed and receipts from loans given by the
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II government flow into the Consolidated Fund
of India.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
266

All government expenditure is made from this constitutional authority responsible for
fund, except exceptional items which are met administering election processes in India at
from the Contingency Fund or the Public national, state and district level. The body
Account. Importantly, no money can be administers elections to the Lok Sabha, Rajya
withdrawn from this fund without the Sabha, state Legislative Assemblies, state
Parliament’s approval. legislative Councils, and the offices of the
472. Which of the following statement (s) is/are President and Vice President of the country.
true? The Election Commission operates under the
I. When the annual Union Budget is not authority of Constitution per Article 324, and
passed by the LokSabha the Prime Minister subsequently enacted Representation of the
submits the resignation of Council of People Act.
Ministers. "The Election Commissioner Amendment
II. Under the Constitution of India, to develop Act, 1989" was adopted on 1 January 1990
the scientific temperng is not a fundamental which turned the commission into a multi-
duty. member body: a 3-member Commission has
Select the correct option. been in operation since then and the decisions
(A) Only I (B) Only II by the commission are made by a majority
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II vote. The Chief Election Commissioner and
the two Election Commissioners who are
Ans.472(C) When the annual Union Budget is usually retired IAS officers draw salaries and
not passed by the Lok Sabha, the Prime allowances at par with those of the Judges of
Minister submits the resignation of Council of the Supreme Court of India as per the Chief
Ministers. If the budget is not passed under Election Commissioner and other Election
any condition in parliament then it can be Commissioners (Conditions of Service) Rules,
understood that the ruling party is in minority. 1992.
Technically it means the government has lost
the confidence vote in the Lok Sabha and it 474. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
has to resign. In Indian history, this has not true?
happened so far. I. CAG exercises exchequer control on behalf
The Constitution of India is the supreme law of the Parliament when the President of India
of India. The document lays down the declares national emergency/financial
framework demarcating fundamental political emergency.
code, structure, procedures, powers, and II. Judicial Review implies the power of the
duties of government institutions and sets out Judiciary to pronounce upon the
fundamental rights, directive principles, and constitutionality of laws and executive orders.
the duties of citizens. It is the longest written Select the correct option.
constitution of any country on earth. (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
473. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true? Ans.474(B) Judicial Review refers to the
I. Right to vote and to be elected in India is a power of the judiciary to interpret the
Constitutional Right. constitution and to declare any such law or
II. The Election Commission of India is a order of the legislature and executive void, if
five-member body. it finds them in conflict the Constitution of
Select the correct option. India.
(A) Only I (B) Only II The Constitution of India is the supreme law
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II of the land. The Supreme Court of India has
the supreme responsibility of interpreting and
Ans.473(A) Right to vote and to be elected in protecting it. It also acts as the guardian-
India is a Constitutional Right. The Election protector of the Fundamental Rights of the
Commission of India is an autonomous people. For this purpose, the Supreme Court
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
267

exercises the power of determining the government rule in a state. Under Article 356
constitutional validity of all laws. of the Constitution of India, in the event that a
The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) state government is unable to function
of India is an authority, established by Article according to constitutional provisions, the
148 of the Constitution of India, which audits Central government can take direct control of
all receipts and expenditure of the the state machinery. Subsequently, executive
Government of India and the state authority is exercised through the centrally
governments, including those of bodies and appointed governor, who has the authority to
authorities substantially financed by the appoint other administrators to assist them.
government. The CAG is also the external The administrators are usually nonpartisan
auditor of Government-owned corporations retired civil servants.
and conducts supplementary audit of When a state government is functioning
government companies, i.e., any non-banking/ correctly, it is run by an elected Council of
non-insurance company in which Union Ministers responsible to the state's legislative
Government has an equity share of at least 51 assembly (Vidhan Sabha). The council is led
per cent or subsidiary companies of existing by the chief minister, who is the de facto chief
government companies. executive of the state; the Governor is only a
de jure constitutional head. However, during
475. Which of the following statement (s) is/are president's rule, the Council of Ministers is
true? dissolved, vacating the office of Chief
I. The consequences of the proclamation of Minister.
the President's rule in a State removal of the
Council of Ministers in the State. 476. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
II. The Prime Minister of India, at the time of true?
his/her appointment need not necessarily be a I. The orders of the Delimitation Commission
member of one of the Houses of the cannot be challenged in a Court of Law.
Parliament but must become a member of one II. When the orders of the Delimitation
of the” Houses within six months. Commission are laid before the LokSabha or
Select the correct option. State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect
(A) Only I (B) Only II any modifications in the orders.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
Ans.475(B) The Prime Minister of India is the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
leader of the executive of the Government of
India. The prime minister is also the chief Ans.476(C) The Delimitation commission or
adviser to the president of India and head of Boundary commission of India is a
the Council of Ministers. They can be a commission established by the Government of
member of any of the two houses of the India under the provisions of the Delimitation
Parliament of India—the Lok Sabha (House of Commission Act. The main task of the
the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of commission is redrawing the boundaries of
the States)—but has to be a member of the the various assembly and Lok Sabha
political party or coalition, having a majority constituencies based on a recent census. The
in the Lok Sabha. The Union Cabinet headed representation from each State is not changed
by the prime minister is appointed by the during this exercise. However, the number of
president of India to assist the latter in the SC and ST seats in a state are changed in
administration of the affairs of the executive. accordance with the census. The present
Union cabinet is collectively responsible to delimitation of constituencies has been done
the Lok Sabha as per article 75(3) of the on the basis of 2001 census under the
Constitution of India. provisions of Delimitation Act, 2002.
President's rule is the suspension of state The Commission is a powerful and
government and imposition of direct central independent body whose orders cannot be
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
268

challenged in any court of law. The orders are II. President should ascertain the views of
laid before the Lok Sabha and the respective concerned legislature to this effect.
State Legislative Assemblies. However, Select the correct option.
modifications are not permitted. (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
477. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true? Ans.478(D) Bill to this effect may be
I. A deadlock between the LokSabha and the introduced in either house of Parliament only
RajyaSabha calls for a joint sitting of the on the recommendation of president. Bill
Parliament during the passage of Ordinary should be referred by the president to the
Legislation. legislatures of state for expressing views
II. A Bill is said to be a ordinary Bill if it only within period specified. Opinion of legislature
contains provisions related to taxation. is not binding on the president. The bill needs
Select the correct option. to be passed by parliament by simple
(A) Only I (B) Only II majority.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
479. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
Ans.477(A) An ordinary law is a normal law, true? (the Right against Exploitation in the
generally distinguished from a constitutional Constitution of India).
law, organic law, or other similar law. I. Protection of the interests of minorities.
Typically, ordinary laws are subordinate to II. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and
constitutional and organic laws, and are more forced labour.
easily changed than constitutional or organic Select the correct option.
laws, though that should not be assumed to be (A) Only I (B) Only II
the case in all jurisdictions. (For example, the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Constitutional Court of Spain has ruled that
Spain's Organic Laws are not hierarchically Ans.479(B) Prohibition of traffic in human
superior to ordinary laws, but simply apply to beings and forced labour.
different matters. Ordinary laws often govern (1) Traffic in human beings and begar and
areas beyond the scope of constitutional or other similar forms of forced labour are
organic laws. prohibited and any contravention of this
Normally, in a democracy, an ordinary law provision shall be an offence punishable in
must first obtain a simple majority of a accordance with law.
congress, parliament, or other legislature, and (2) Nothing in this article shall prevent the
then be signed into law by the representative State from imposing compulsory service for
of executive power. public purpose, and in imposing such service
A Bill is said to be a Money Bill if it only the State shall not make any discrimination on
contains provisions related to taxation, grounds only of religion, race, caste or class or
borrowing of money by the government, any of them.
expenditure from or receipt to the
Consolidated Fund of India. Bills that only 480. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
contain provisions that are incidental to these true?
matters would also be regarded as Money I. The provision to safeguard the autonomy of
Bills. the Supreme Court of India While appointing
the Supreme Court Judges, the President of
478. Which of the following statement (s) is/are India has to consult the Chief Justice of India.
true regarding the procedure for formation/ II. The salaries of the Judges are charged on
establishment of states. the Consolidated Fund of India to which the
I. Special majority of parliament is required legislature does not have to vote.
for the purpose. Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
269

(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II The Government of India Act, 1935, having
321 sections and 10 schedules.
Ans.480(C) Consolidated Fund of India is the The Government of Burma Act, 1935 having
most important of all government accounts. 159 sections and 6 schedules.
Revenues received by the government and Adjournment motion is the procedure for
expenses made by it, excluding the adjournment of the business of the House for
exceptional items, are part of the Consolidated the purpose of discussing a definite matter of
Fund. urgent public importance, which can be
This fund was constituted under Article 266 moved with the consent of the speaker.
(1) of the Constitution of India. All revenues Primary object of an adjournment motion is to
received by the government by way of direct draw the attention of Lok Sabha to a recent
taxes and indirect taxes, money borrowed and matter of urgent public importance having
receipts from loans given by the government serious consequences and in regard to which a
flow into the Consolidated Fund of India. motion or a resolution with proper notice will
A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed be too late.
under the Constitution only on grounds of
proven misconduct or incapacity and by an 482. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
order of the President of India, after a notice true? The Directive Principles of State Policy.
signed by at least 100 members of the Lok I. Securing for all the workers reasonable
Sabha or 50 members of the Rajya Sabha is leisure and cultural opportunities.
passed by a two-third majority in each House II. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas.
of the Parliament. Select the correct option.
The Union Cabinet and Parliament have (A) Only I (B) Only II
almost no role to play in the appointment of (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
judges to the Supreme Court or High Courts.
Ans.482(B) The Directive Principles of State
481. Which of the following statement (s) is/are Policy of India (DPSP) are the guidelines or
true? 15 principles given to the federal institutes
I. The distribution of powers between the governing the State of India, to be kept in
Centre and the States in the Indian citation while framing laws and policies.
Constitution is based on the scheme provided These provisions, contained in Part IV
in the Government of India Act, 1935. (Article 36–51) of the Constitution of India,
II. In the Parliament of India, the purpose of are not enforceable by any court, but the
an adjournment motion is to allow a principles laid down there in are considered in
discussion on a definite matter of urgent the governance of the country, making it the
public importance. duty of the State to apply these principles in
Select the correct option. making laws to establish a just society in the
(A) Only I (B) Only II country. The principles have been inspired by
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the Directive Principles given in the
Constitution of Ireland which are related to
Ans.481(C) The Government of India Act social justice, economic welfare, foreign
1935 was an Act of the Parliament of the policy, and legal and administrative matters.
United Kingdom. It originally received Royal
assent in August 1935. Until 1999, it was the 483. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
longest Act of (British) Parliament ever true?
enacted. The Greater London Authority Act I. The President of India addresses the joint
1999 surpassed it in length. Because of its sitting of both the Houses of Parliament at the
length, the Act was retroactively split by the beginning of the first session after the
Government of India Act, 1935 into two formation of the new Lok Sabha and at the
separate Acts: beginning of the first session of each year.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
270

II. The members of the Rajya Sabha are II. The Supreme Court decides such cases, if
elected by the elected members of the there is a dispute between two or more States.
Legislative Assembly of the States and Union Select the correct option.
Territories by a single transferable vote (A) Only I (B) Only II
according to the proportional representation (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
method.
Select the correct option. Ans.485(C) Original jurisdiction of a court
(A) Only I (B) Only II refers to a matter for which the particular
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II court is approached first. In the case of the
Supreme Court in India, its original
Ans.483(C) The President of India addresses jurisdiction is covered under Article 131. It
the joint sitting of both the Houses of involves the following cases:
Parliament at the beginning of the first session ➢ Any dispute between the Indian
after the formation of the new Lok Sabha and Government and one or more States.
at the beginning of the first session of each ➢ Any dispute between the Indian
year. The matters mentioned in the President's Government and one or more States on one
address addressed to both the Houses are side and one or more States on the other side.
discussed in a Motion of Thanks moved by a ➢ Any dispute between two or more States.
Member and supported by another Member. ➢ Article 32 of the Constitution provides
The members of the Rajya Sabha are elected original jurisdiction to the SC for matters
by the elected members of the Legislative regarding the enforcement of Fundamental
Assembly of the States and Union Territories Rights.
by a single transferable vote according to the ➢ The SC can issue writs, directions, or
proportional representation method. orders including writs in the nature of
mandamus, habeas corpus, quo warranto,
484. Which of the following statement (s) is/are prohibition and certiorari.
true? ➢ The SC also has the power to direct the
I. The office of the LokSabha Speaker, he transfer of a criminal or civil case from the
intends to resign, the letter of his/her High Court in one State to the High Court in
resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy another State.
Speaker. ➢ It can also transfer cases from one
II. LokSabha Speaker holds the office during subordinate court to another State High Court
the pleasure of the President. ➢ If the SC deems that cases involving the
Select the correct option. same questions of law are pending before it
(A) Only I (B) Only II and one or more High Courts, and that these
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II are significant questions of law, it can
withdraw the cases before the High Court or
Ans.484(A) On the dissolution of the Lok Courts and dispose off all these cases itself.
Sabha, although the Speaker ceases to be a ➢ The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
member of the House, she does not vacate her gives the SC the authority to initiate
office. The Speaker may, at any time, resign international commercial arbitration.
from office by writing under her hand to the
Deputy Speaker. 486. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
true regarding The Government of India Act
485. Which of the following statement (s) is/are 1919?
true regarding the original jurisdiction of the I. Diarchy system was a system of double
Supreme Court of India? government that was introduced by this act.
I. The Supreme Court decides such cases, if II. This act introduced separate communal
there is a dispute between the Government of electorates for Muslims.
India and one or more States. Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
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271

(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II I. The result of an agreement among the
federating units is a feature of Indian
Ans.486(A) In the Government of India Act federalism.
1919, Diarchy was introduced at the II. The Fundamental Duties of an Indian
Provincial Level. Diarchy means a dual set of citizen a legislative process has been provided
governments; one is accountable, the other is to enforce these duties.
not accountable. Subjects of the provincial Select the correct option.
government were divided into two groups. (A) Only I (B) Only II
One group was reserved, and the other group (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
was transferred. The reserved subjects were
controlled by the British Governor of the Ans.488(A) The salient features of federalism
province; the transferred subjects were given include the existence of dual government at
to the Indian ministers of the province. the central and state level, separation of
In the Indian Councils Act 1909, a powers, rigid and written constitution,
momentous introduction in the reforms was supremacy of the constitution, independence
the separate electorates where seats were of judiciary, etc. Provide for a comparison
reserved for Muslims and in which only between Indian federalism and the USA
Muslims would be polled. The implication federalism.
that Muslims and their interests could only be The Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles
protected by Muslims would influence Indian of State Policy and Fundamental Duties are
politics in the ensuing decades. sections of the Constitution of India that
prescribe the fundamental obligations of the
487. Which of the following statement (s) is/are states to its citizens and the duties and the
true? rights of the citizens to the State. These
I. A Minister who is a member of the Lok sections comprise a constitutional bill of
Sabha has the right to speak and otherwise rights for government policy-making and the
participate in the proceedings of the Rajya behaviour and conduct of citizens. These
Sabha, but he does not have the right to vote sections are considered vital elements of the
in the Rajya Sabha. constitution, which was developed between
II. Four methods are generally adopted for 1947 and 1949 by the Constituent Assembly
voting in the Rajya Sabha: voice vote, of India.
counting of votes, voting by automatic vote
recorders and division of votes in lobbies. 489. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
Select the correct option. true?
(A) Only I (B) Only II I. Preamble to the Constitution of India is
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II economic liberty.
II. Democracy's superior virtue lies in the fact
Ans.487(C) A Minister who is a member of that it calls into activity a band of dedicated
the Lok Sabha has the right to speak and party workers.
otherwise participate in the proceedings of the Select the correct option.
Rajya Sabha, but he does not have the right to (A) Only I (B) Only II
vote in the Rajya Sabha. Four methods are (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
generally adopted for voting in the Rajya
Sabha: voice vote, counting of votes, voting Ans.489(A) The preamble of the Indian
by automatic vote recorders and division of Constitution serves as a brief introductory
votes in lobbies. statement of the Constitution that sets out the
guiding purpose, principles and philosophy of
488. Which of the following statement (s) is/are the Indian Constitution. By 42nd
true? Constitutional Amendment, 1976, it was
amended which determined to constitute India
into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular and
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272

Democratic Republic. It secures justice,

liberty, equality to all citizens of India and Ans.491(C) Rajya Sabha being a federal
promotes fraternity amongst the people. chamber enjoys certain special powers under
the Constitution. All the subjects/areas
490. Which of the following statement (s) is/are regarding legislation have been divided into
true? three Lists – Union List, State List and
I. The main advantage of the parliamentary concurrent List. Union and State Lists are
form of government is that the executive mutually exclusive – one cannot legislate on a
remains responsible to the legislature. matter placed in the sphere of the other.
II. The writ habeas corpus can be issued in However, if Rajya Sabha passes a resolution
when procedure established by law is by a majority of not less than two-thirds of
contravened. members present and voting saying that it is
Select the correct option. “necessary or expedient in the national
(A) Only I (B) Only II interest” that Parliament should make a law on
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II a matter enumerated in the State List,
Parliament becomes empowered to make a
Ans.490(C) The Constitution of India states law on the subject specified in the resolution,
that the Executive branch of the State for the whole or any part of the territory of
(Council of Ministers) shall be collectively India. Such a resolution remains in force for a
responsible to the Legislature (House of the maximum period of one year but this period
People). This implies that Parliament should can be extended by one year at a time by
oversee the work of the government and hold passing a similar resolution further.
it responsible for its actions and omissions. The Directive Principles of State Policy of
A writ of habeas corpus is a court order India (DPSP) are the guidelines principles
demanding that a public official (such as a given to the federal institutes governing the
warden) deliver an imprisoned individual to State of India, to be kept in citation while
the court and show a valid reason for that framing laws and policies. These provisions,
person's detention. The procedure provides a contained in Part IV (Article 36–51) of the
means for prison inmates, or others acting on Constitution of India, are not enforceable by
their behalf, to dispute the legal basis for any court, but the principles laid down there in
confinement. are considered in the governance of the
Often, the court holds a hearing on the matter, country, making it the duty of the State to
during which the inmate and the government apply these principles in making laws to
can both present evidence about whether there establish a just society in the country. The
is a lawful basis for jailing the person. The principles have been inspired by the Directive
court may also issue and enforce subpoenas in Principles given in the Constitution of Ireland
order to obtain additional evidence. which are related to social justice, economic
welfare, foreign policy, and legal and
491. Which of the following statement (s) is/are administrative matters.
true?
I. Special powers have been conferred on the 492. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
RajyaSabha by the Constitution of India to true? (The Parliament of India exercises
pass a resolution empowering the Parliament control over the functions of the Council of
to make laws in the State List and to create Ministers through).
one or more All India Services. I. Adjournment motion
II. Directive Principles of State Policy the II. Question hour
Constitution of India have a bearing on Select the correct option.
Education. (A) Only I (B) Only II
Select the correct option. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
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Ans.492(C) Question Hour is the first hour of (A) Only I (B) Only II
a sitting session of India's Lok Sabha devoted (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
to questions that Members of Parliament raise
about any aspect of administrative activity. Ans.494(A) The Thirteenth Finance
The concerned Minister is obliged to answer Commission of India was constituted by the
to the Parliament, either orally or in writing, President of India under the chairmanship of
depending on the type of question raised. Vijay L. Kelkar on 13 November 2007.
It could be done using a motion to adjourn. The Finance Commission was established by
A time for another meeting could be set using the President of India in 1951 under Article
the motion to fix the time to which to adjourn. 280 of the Indian Constitution. It was formed
This motion establishes an adjourned meeting. to define the financial relations between the
To adjourn to another time or place defines central government of India and the individual
suspended proceedings until a later stated time state governments. This Commission design
or place. for the Goods and Services Tax, and a
compensation package linked to adherence to
493. Which of the following statement (s) is/are the proposed design.
true?
I. Writ of Habeas Corpus is very powerful 495. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
safeguard against executive only. true?
II. Writ of Habeas Corpus is nature of calling I. Writ mandamus is available against
concerned authority to produce the imprisoned Government.
before the executive. II. Writ mandamus is available against
Select the correct option. inferior courts.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Select the correct option.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.493(D) A writ of habeas corpus is a
court order demanding that a public official Ans.495(C) A writ of mandamus is a court
(such as a warden) deliver an imprisoned order issued by a judge at a petitioner’s
individual to the court and show a valid reason request compelling someone to execute a duty
for that person's detention. The procedure that they are legally obligated to complete. A
provides a means for prison inmates, or others writ can also be issued when the authority of a
acting on their behalf, to dispute the legal higher court is required to order a lower court
basis for confinement. Habeas corpus has or government agency to complete a duty to
deep roots in English common law. uphold the law or to correct an abuse of
Often, the court holds a hearing on the matter, discretion. The writ of mandamus can be used
during which the inmate and the government to order a task to be completed, or in other
can both present evidence about whether there cases, it may require an activity to be ceased.
is a lawful basis for jailing the person. The
court may also issue and enforce subpoenas in 496. Which of the following statement (s) is/are
order to obtain additional evidence. true? (if a Money Bill is substantially
494. Which of the following statement (s) is/are amended by the RajyaSabha)
true? (the Thirteenth Finance Commission) I. The LokSabha cannot consider the Bill
I. A design for the Goods and Services Tax, further.
and a compensation package linked to II. The LokSabha may still proceed with the
adherence to the proposed design. Bill, accepting or not accepting the
II. A design for the creation of lakhs of jobs in recommendations of the RajyaSabha.
the next ten years in consonance with India’s Select the correct option.
demographic dividend. (A) Only I (B) Only II
Select the correct option. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
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274

Ans.496(B) Money Bill is defined in Article and functions at the state level as that of the
110 of the Indian Constitution. Money bills President of India at Union level. Governors
are concerned with financial matters like exist in the states while lieutenant governors
taxation, public expenditure, etc. May accept exist in union territories and in the National
or reject any or all of the recommendations of Capital Territory of Delhi. The governor acts
the Rajya Sabha relating to the Money Bill. as the nominal head whereas the real power
lies with the Chief ministers of the states and
497. Which of the following statement (s) is/are his/her councils of ministers.
true? In India, a lieutenant governor is in charge of
I. In India, the same person cannot be a union territory. However, the rank is present
appointed as Governor for two or more States only in the union territories of Andaman and
at the same time Nicobar Islands, Ladakh, Jammu and
II. In the case of a Union Territory having a Kashmir, Delhi and Puducherry (the other
legislative setup, the Chief Minister is territories have an administrator appointed,
appointed by the Lt. Governor on the basis of who is an IAS officer or a retired judge of a
majority support. court). However, the governor of Punjab acts
Select the correct option. as the administrator of Chandigarh. Although
(A) Only I (B) Only II lieutenant governors do not hold the same
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II rank as a governor of a state in the list of
precedence.
Ans.497(D) The Governors and Lieutenant The governors and lieutenant governors are
Governors/Administrators of the states and appointed by the president for a term of five
union territories of India have similar powers years.
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Objective

PART - 3
Geography
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Geography

Geography 03
Planets
Geography is a systematic study of the Universe and its
features. Traditionally, geography has been associated • Mercury: It is nearest planet to the Sun. It is the
with cartography and place names. Although many smallest planet of our solar system. It can be
geographers are trained in topography and cartography, observed just before sunrise or just after sunset,
this is not their main occupation. Geographers study the near the horizon. It takes only about 88 days
space and the temporal database distribution of (approximately) to revolve around Sun along its
phenomena, processes, and features as well as the orbit. Mercury has no satellite of its own.
interaction of humans with their environment. Because • Venus: It is the brightest planet in the night sky. It
space and time affect a variety of topics, such as is often called a morning or an evening star
economics, health, climate, plants and animals, although it is not a star. Venus is considered as
geography is a highly interdisciplinary subject. The ‘Earth’s-twin’ because its size and shape are very
interdisciplinary nature of the geography depends upon much similar to that of the earth. Venus has no
the relationship between physical phenomena and its moon or satellite of its own. It rotates from east to
interaction with human beings. west while the Earth rotates from west to east. It is
EARTH SOLAR SYSTEM also the hottest planet in the solar system.
• Our solar system consists of the Sun (the star), 8 • The Earth: The Earth is the third nearest planet
planets, 63 moons, millions of smaller bodies like from the Sun, it is the fifth largest planet. It is
asteroids and comets and a huge quantity of dust- slightly flattened at the poles. That is why its shape
grains and gases. Some celestial bodies do not have is described as a Geoid. From space, the Earth
their own heat and light. appears blue-green due to the reflection of light
• In order of their distance from the Sun, the eight from water and landmass on its surface. The Earth
planets are Mercury, Venus, Earth, Mars, Jupiter, has only one natural satellite called Moon.
Saturn, Uranus, and Neptune. • Mars: It appears slightly reddish and, therefore, it
• Out of the eight planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth, is called the Red Planet. Mars has two small natural
and Mars are called the inner planets as they lie satellites.
between the Sun and the belt of asteroids. They are • Jupiter: It is the largest planet of the solar system.
called Terrestrial planets. It is so large that about 1300 earths can be placed
• The other four planets are called outer planets. inside this giant planet. However, the mass of
They are also called Jovian or Gas Giant planets. Jupiter is about 318 times that of our Earth. It
Jovian means Jupiter-like. Most of them are much rotates very rapidly on its axis. Jupiter has a large
larger than the terrestrial planets and have a thick number of natural satellites. It also has faint rings
atmosphere, mostly of helium and hydrogen. around it.
• The two outermost planets, Uranus and Neptune • Saturn: It appears yellowish in colour. It looks
are ice-giants being composed mostly of beautiful because of rings. Saturn also has a large
substances with relatively high melting points number of natural satellites. It is the least dense
compared with Hydrogen and Helium. among all the planets. Its density is less than that of
water.
The Sun • Uranus: Like Venus, Uranus also rotates from east
to west. It has highly tilted rotational axis in its
• The Sun is about 150 million km away from the
orbital motion and thus it appears to roll on its side.
earth. It is huge and made up of extremely hot
• Neptune: It is the planet forthest from the Sun and
gases.
like Uranus, it is an ice giant.
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• Jupiter, Saturn, and Uranus have rings around Coldest Planet Neptune
them. These are belts of small debris.
• Pluto: It was also considered a planet. However, in Hottest Planet Venus
a meeting of the International Astronomical Union,
a decision was taken that Pluto, like other celestial Heaviest Planet Jupiter
objects (Ceres, 2003 UB313) discovered in recent Red Planet Mars
past may be called ‘dwarf planet'.
Biggest Satellite Ganymede
The Moon
Smallest Satellite Deimos
• The Moon is the only natural satellite of the Earth.
It is now generally believed that the formation of Blue Planet Earth
the Moon, as a satellite of the earth, is an outcome
of ‘giant impact’ or what is described as “the big Morning/Evening Star Venus
splat”.
Earth's Twin Venus
• A body of the size of one to three times that of Mars
collided into the Earth sometime shortly after the Green Planet Uranus
Earth was formed. It blasted a large part of the earth
into space. This portion of blasted material then Planet with a big red spot Jupiter
continued to orbit the earth and eventually formed
into the present Moon about 4.44 billion years ago. Lord of the Heavens Jupiter
Asteroids Greatest Diurnal Temperature variation Mercury
These are celestial bodies that revolve around the Sun.
Comets
Two famous known comets, are as follows: EARTH’S LATITUDE AND LONGITUDE
• Halley's comet: Discovered by British astronomer Earth's Latitudes Earth's Longitudes
Edmond Halley, takes 76.1 years to orbit the Sun. The equator On the globe the lines of
It was last seen on February 9, 1986. represents 0° longitude are drawn as a
• Swift-Tuttle comet: It's a huge comet heading on a latitude, while the series of semicircles that
collision course to Earth on August 17, 2126. North Pole is 90° N extend from the North Pole to
Satellites and the South Pole the South Pole through the
These are the bodies which revolve around the planets. 90° S equator. They are also called
Mercury and Venus have no satellites. Earth has only meridians.
one satellite (natural), i.e. Moon. Jupiter has the 23½°N represents The distance between any
maximum number (63) of satellites. Tropic of Cancer two meridians is not equal.
SOME FACTS ABOUT SOLAR SYSTEM while 23½°S
represents Tropic of
Biggest Planet Jupiter Capricorn.
Smallest Planet Mercury 66½°N represents At the equator, distance
Arctic Circle while between two meridians is
Nearest Planet to Sun Mercury 66½°S represents 111 km. At 30°N or 30°S, it
Antarctic Circle. is 96.5 km. so, it goes on
Farthest Planet from Sun Neptune decreasing this way until it is
Nearest Planet to Earth Venus zero at the poles.
There are total 181 Prime Meridian is taken by
Brightest Planet Venus latitudes including geographers to divide the
the equator. Each earth into the eastern and the
Brightest star after Sun Sirius parallel of latitude is western hemispheres.
Planet with maximum number of Jupiter a circle, but they are
satellites not equal.
The distance The earth is divided into 24
between any two longitudinal zones, each
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parallels of latitude being 15° or 1 hour apart in • The shape of the earth is oblate spheroid or oblate
is always equal. time (4 minutes / degree). ellipsoid (i.e. almost spherical, flattened a little at
the poles with a slight bulge at the centre).
Summer Solstice
The day of 21st June when the sun is directly above the Movements of Earth
Tropic of Cancer (23°30’N). Longest day in Northern • Earth's Revolution: The Earth revolves around
Hemisphere. the Sun in an elliptical orbit. One complete
Winter Solstice revolution is called a year and this revolution of
The day of 22nd December when the sun is directly Earth causes change of seasons and Variation in the
above the Tropic of Capricorn (23°30’S). Shortest Day lengths of days and nights at different times of the
in Northern Hemisphere. year.
Earth's Rotation
International Date Line • Earth rotates on its own imaginary axis while,
• It is the 180° meridian running over the Pacific simultaneously revolving around the Sun.
Ocean, deviating at Aleutian Islands, Fiji, Samoa • It rotates from west to east.
and Gilbert Islands. It is a zig-zag line. • Rotation causes day and night.
Local Time: Local time of any place is 12 noon when • A difference of one hour between two meridians
the sun is exactly overhead. It will vary from the which are 15° apart;
Greenwich time at the rate of four minutes for each • The longest day in Northern Hemisphere is June
degree of longitude. 21, while shortest day is on 22 Dec (Vice-versa in
Greenwich Mean Time: The time at 0° longitude is Southern. Hemisphere).
called Greenwich Mean Time. It is based on local time • Days and nights are almost equal at the equator.
of the meridian passing through Greenwich near
London. Eclipses
Indian Standard Time: It is fixed on the mean of • Solar eclipse: It occurs when the Moon comes
82.5oE Meridian, a place near Allahabad. It is 5 between the Sun and the Earth, and causes
1/2hours ahead of Greenwich Mean Time. hindrance in Sun's light, when viewed from the
• Travellers crossing the Date Line from west to east Earth. It happens on a new Moon day.
(i.e., from Japan to USA) gains a day and • Lunar eclipse: When the Earth comes between the
Travellers crossing it from east to west (i.e., from Moon and the Sun, the shadow cast by the Earth on
USA to Japan) lose a day. the Moon causes lunar eclipse. It happens on a full
IMPORTANT FACTS ABOUT EARTH Moon day.
• The Earth is also called the Blue Planet. It is the The Arctic and Antarctic circles are located at 66½°N
densest of all planets. and 66½°S latitudes respectivley. Also, 66.5° + 23.5° =
• Earth's Circumference: 40,075 Kilometers. 90°. This means that on December 21, when the sun is
• Earth's Area: 510.1 million Square Kilometers directly over the Tropic of Capricorn at noon, it will
• Average distance from Sun: 149.6 million not be visible from below the Arctic circle, similarly on
Kilometers. June 21st when from the Sun is directly over the Tropic
• Time taken by Earth to revolve around the Sun: 365 of cancer at noon, it is not visible from below the
days, 5 hours, 48 minutes and 45.51 seconds. Antarctic circle.
• Time taken by Earth for rotating on its own axis: INTERIOR STRUCTURE OF THE EARTH
23 hours 56 minutes and 4.09 seconds. The layering of Earth is categorized as Lithosphere,
• Earth is covered 70% by water and 30% by land. Asthenosphere, Upper mantle, Lower mantle, Outer
• Earth Perihelion: Nearest position of Earth to Sun. core, and the Inner core.
The earth reaches its perihelion on January 3 every The asthenosphere separates the strong, solid rock of
year and is at a distance of about 147 million- the uppermost mantle and crust above, from the
Kilometers. remainder of the strong, liquid mantle below. The
• Aphelion: Farthest position of earth from sun. The combination of uppermost mantle and crust above the
earth reaches its aphelion on July 4, when the earth asthenosphere is called the lithosphere. The lithosphere
is at a distance of 152 million Kilometers.
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is free to move (glide) over the weak asthenosphere. on Richter’s scale. For measurement of the
The tectonic plates are, in fact, lithospheric plates. intensity of the earthquake (damage caused), the
The earth's interior has three different layers; they are Modified Mercalli Intensity Scale is used. This
▪ the crust scale is not useful for comparisons because besides
▪ mantle intensity there are many other factor such as
▪ the core population density etc, that determines damage and
• Earth's Crust: All of the Earth's landforms loss caused by an earthquake. Now a days
(mountains, plains, and plateaus) are contained Geologist prefer moment magnitude scale for
within it, along with the oceans, seas, lakes and describing earthquake.
rivers. There are two different types of crust: thin • There are two types of seismic waves: body waves
oceanic crust thicker continental crust. These two and surface waves.
different types of crust are made up of different
types of rock. The boundary between the crust and Body
the upper mantle is Mohorovicic Discontinuity. Waves
• Earth's Mantle: It is the thick, dense rocky matter • Body waves travel through the interior of the Earth.
that surrounds the core with a radius of about 2885 Their changes as they reflect or refract when
km. The mantle covers the majority of the Earth's coming across materials with different densities.
volume. This is basically composed of silicate rock Body waves are divided as
rich in iron and magnesium. This layer is separated P-waves S-waves
from the outer core by Gutenberg-Wiechert
• (Primary Waves) • (Secondary Waves)
Discontinuity. The outer and the inner mantle are
are compression are shear waves that
separated by another discontinuity named Repetti
waves that are are transverse in
discontinuity.
longitudinal in nature.
• Earth's Core: Earth's Core is thought to be
nature. • These waves
composed mainly of an iron and nickel alloy. The
• These waves can typically follow P
core is earth's source of internal heat because it
travel through any waves during an
contains radioactive materials which release heat as
type of material earthquake and
they break down into more stable substances. The
(solid, liquid, and displace the ground
core is divided into two different zones. The outer
gas) and can travel perpendicular to the
core is a liquid because the temperature there is
at nearly twice the direction of
adequate to melt the iron-nickel alloy. However,
speed of S waves. propagation.
the inner core is a solid even though its temperature
• S waves can travel
is higher than the outer core. Here, tremendous
only through solids,
pressure, produced by the weight of the overlying
as fluids (liquids and
rocks is strong enough to crowd the atoms tightly
gases) do not support
together and prevents changing it to the liquid state.
shear stresses.
EARTHQUAKES
• S waves are slower
• Earthquake is any sudden shaking of the ground
than P waves, and
caused by the passage of seismic waves through
speeds are typically
rocks.
around 60% of that
• Underwater earthquakes sometimes produce
of P waves in any
gigantic waves called Tsunami.
given material.
• The magnitude of an earthquake, and the intensity
of shaking, is measured on a numerical scale. On
the scale, 3 or less is scarcely noticeable, and Surface waves
magnitude 7 (or more) causes damage over a wide • Surface waves are analogous to water waves and
area. The point of origin of earthquake is called travel along the Earth's surface. They travel slower
hypocentre. The point on the earth’s surface than body waves.
vertically above the hypocentre is called Epicentre. Rayleigh waves Love waves
• Sesmograph records the waves reaching the surface • Rayleigh waves, • Love waves are
of the earth. The magnitude of waves is measured also called ground surface waves that
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281

rolls, are surface cause circular Mt. Etna Italy

waves that travel shearing of the
as ripples with ground. Mt. Stromboli Italy
motions that are • They are named after
similar to those of A.E.H. Love, a Barren Island India (Andaman &
waves on the British mathematician Nicobar) Islands
surface of water. who created a
mathematical model Mt. Kilimanjaro Tanzania
of the waves in 1911.
• They usually travel Mt. Krakatoa Indonesia
slightly faster than
Rayleigh waves, Mt. Pintuto Philippines
about 90% of the S
wave velocity, and Lighthouse of Mt. Izalco
have the largest the Pacific
amplitude.
Lighthouse of the Mt. Stromboli
VOLCANOES Mediterranean
About 95% of active volcanoes occur at the plate Ring of fire is a major area in the basin of the Pacific
subduction zones and at the mid-oceanic ridges. ocean where many earthquakes and volcanic eruptions
Subduction is the process that takes place at convergent occur.
plate boundaries by which one tectonic plate moves IMPORTANT MOUNTAIN RANGES AND
under another tectonic plate as the plates converge. MOUNTAIN PEAKS OF THE WORLD
Regions where this process occurs are known as sub- Mountain ranges
duction zones. The other 5% occur in areas associated Name Continent
with lithospheric hot spots. It is believed that hot spots Himalaya-Karakoram Asia
are caused by plumes of rising magma that have their
origin within the asthenosphere. Rockies North America
Classification On The Basis Of Periodicity Of Alps Europe
Eruptions
Andes South America
Active Volcano Dormant Volcano
Volcanoes which erupt Volcanoes which have Atlas Africa
periodically. been quiet for a long Kilimanjaro Africa
time but in which there
Appalachian North America
is a possibility of
eruption. Ural Europe
E.g. Mauna Loa in Hawaii, E.g. Fujiyama in Japan, Carpathian Europe
Mt. Etna in Sicily, Mt. Mt. Krakatoa in
Vesuvius in Italy, Mt. Indonesia, Barren Transantartic Antarctic
Stromboli in Mediterranean island Volcano in
Sea, etc. Andamans, etc. Mountain peaks
Name Continent Height
Distribution of Volcanoes in the World (in cm)
About 15% of world’s active volcanoes are found along Mt. Everest Asia 8848
the ‘constructive or divergent’ plate margins, whereas K2 (Godwin Austen) Asia 8611
80% volcanoes are associated with the ‘destructive or Kanchenjunga Asia 8590
convergent’ plate boundaries. Lhatse Asia 8586
Important Volcanoes Makalu Asia 8485
Mt. Vesuvius Italy Dhaulagiri Asia 8167
Nanga Parbat Asia 8126
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Nanda Devi Asia 7816 • Limestone being changed into marble

• Mt. Everest is the highest mountain peak of the • Clay turning into slate
world, situated in Nepal and extended to Tibet. K2 • Granite being changed into gneiss
is India's highest mountain peak, but it Is situated • Sandstone turning into quartzite
in POK. Therefore, Kanchanjunga is the highest ATMOSPHERE
peak within India. The Earth is surrounded by a gaseous cover called the
ROCKS AND MINERALS atmosphere. There are many gases in the atmosphere
About 98 per cent of the total crust of the earth is like Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon Dioxide, Helium,
composed of eight elements like oxygen, silicon, Argon, Xenon, etc. The maximum percentage of gas
aluminium, iron, calcium, sodium, potassium and present in the atmosphere is Nitrogen (77%).
magnesium, and the rest is constituted by titanium,
hydrogen, phosphorous, manganese, sulphur, carbon, Structure of the Atmosphere
nickel and other. The atmosphere consists of almost concentric layers of
air with varying density and temperature.
The three types of rocks are Troposphere
• Igneous Rocks: Igneous rocks are formed by • Lowest layer of the atmosphere.
solidification of liquid magma as it cools. When • The height of troposphere is 16 km thick over the
magma cools rapidly, mineral crystals do not have equator and 10 km thick at the poles.
time to grow very large. On the other hand when • All weather phenomena are confined to
magma cools slowly, crystals grow to several troposphere (e.g. fog, cloud, frost, rainfall, storms,
millimeters or more in size. etc.)
• Granite and basalt are the examples of igneous • Temperature decreases with height in this layer
rocks. roughly at the rate of 6.5° per 1000 metres, which
Extrusive Rocks Intrusive Rocks is called normal lapse rate.
Extrusive igneous rocks Intrusive rocks form from • Upper limit of the troposphere is called tropopause
solidify from molten molten material (magma) which is about 1.5 km in thickness.
material that flows over that flows and solidifies Stratosphere
the earth’s surface underground. • The stratosphere is more or less devoid of major
(lava). weather phenomenon but there is circulation of
Common extrusive Common rock types feeble winds and cirrus cloud in the lower
rocks are basalt, within the intrusive stratosphere.
andesite and rhyolite category are granite and • Jet aircrafts fly through the lower stratosphere
diorite because it provides perfect flying conditions.
• Sedimentary Rocks: These are types of rocks • Ozone layer lies within the stratosphere mostly at
created from deposition of layers upon layers of the altitude of 15 to 35 km above earth's surface.
sediments over time. These types of rocks are • Ozone layer acts as a protective cover as it absorbs
formed on the Earth's surface, as well as ultra-voilet rays of solar radiation.
underwater. • Temperature rises from -60°C at the base of the
• Examples – Sandstone, limestone, stromatolites, stratosphere to its upper boundary as it absorbs
oil shale and coal shale, gypsum, shale, and ultra-voilet rays.
conglomerate. • Upper limit of the Stratosphere is called
• Metamorphic Rocks: Metamorphic rocks are any stratopause.
rock type that has been altered by heat, pressure, Mesosphere
and/or the chemical action of fluids and gases. • Mesosphere extends to the height of 50-90 km.
When igneous rocks, or sedimentary rocks, or even • Temperature decreases with height. It reaches a
metamorphic rocks get buried very deep under the minimum of -80°C at an altitude of 80-90 km
earth's surface for millions of years, they are • The upper limit is called mesopause.
modified due to enormous heat and pressure inside Ionosphere/Thermosphere
the earth. • It lies at 80 km to 640 km above the Earth's surface.
Some examples of metamorphic rocks are:
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• Temperature increases rapidly with increasing also called Doldrums. It extends 5° N and S to the
height. equator.
• It is an electrically charged layer. This layer is Sub-tropical High Pressure Belt
produced due to interaction of solar radiation and The warm air risen up at the equator due to heating
the chemicals present, thus disappears with the reaches the troposphere and bends towards the pole.
sunset. Due to coriolis force the air descends at 30-35º N and
• There are a number of layers in thermosphere e.g. S latitude thus creating the belt of sub-tropical high
D-layer, E-layer, F-layer & G-layer. pressure. The pressure belt is dynamically induced as it
• Radio waves transmitted from earth are reflected owes its origin to the rotation of the earth and sinking
back to the earth by these layers. and settling of winds. This zone is characterized by
Exosphere anticyclonic conditions which cause atmospheric
• This is the uppermost layer of the atmosphere stability and aridity.
extending beyond the ionosphere. Sub-Polar Low Pressure Belt
• The density is very low and temperature becomes
This belt is located between 60-65° N and S latitudes in
5568°C.
both the hemispheres. This pressure belt is also
• This layer merges with the outer space.
dynamically induced. The belt is more developed and
Ozone Layer
regular in the southern hemisphere than the northern
• The ozone layer is situated in the stratosphere belt
due to over dominance of water in the former.
of earth's atmosphere.
Polar High Pressure Belt
• The basic ozone gas structure consists of three
oxygen atoms. Ozone gas is present in the High pressure persists at the pole due to low
stratosphere in the form of a layer, which extends temperature. Thus the Polar High Pressure Belt is
from 12 km to 30 km above the earth's surface. thermally induced.
• The main function of Ozone is that it protects Coriolis Force
mankind from harmful radiations which comes • The rotation of the Earth creates force, termed
from outer space i.e., Ultra Violet radiations (UV- Coriolis force, which acts upon wind. Instead of
radiations) from the Sun. wind blowing directly from high to low pressure,
• Now-a-days this ozone layer is getting depleted, the rotation of the Earth causes wind to be deflected
which can cause skin cancer and damage off course.
vegetation. • In the Northern Hemisphere, wind is deflected to
• The main reason behind the depletion of ozone the right of its path, while in the Southern
layer is pollution and pollutants present in the Hemisphere it is deflected to the left.
atmosphere like Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs, also • Coriolis force is absent at the equator, and its
known as Freons), which comes from refrigeration strength increases as one approaches either pole.
systems, aerosols, air conditioners and solvents. • Furthermore, an increase in wind speed also results
• To minimize the ozone layer depletion, the in a stronger Coriolis force, and thus in greater
governments of many countries are now replacing deflection of the wind.
the CFCs with simpler hydrocarbons. WINDS
PRESSURE BELTS When the movement of the air in the atmosphere is in
Equatorial Low Pressure a horizontal direction over the surface of the Earth, it is
Belt known as the wind. Movement of the wind is directly
At the Equator, heated air rises leaving a low-pressure controlled by pressure. Horizontally, at the Earth's
area at the surface. This low pressure area is known as surface wind always blows from areas of high pressure
equatorial low pressure. The zone shifts along with the to areas of low pressure, usually at speeds determined
northward or southward movement of sun during by the rate of air pressure change between the pressure
summer solstice and winter solstice respectively. The centres.
pressure belt is thermally induced because the ground Types of winds
surface gets heated during the day. Thus warm air Planetary winds Periodic winds Local
expands, rises up and creates low pressure. They are winds
Trade winds, Monsoonal Khamsin
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Westerlies and winds, Bora, During the day, the land gets heated up much faster
Polar winds Lands, Sea Barran than the sea. Warm air rises forming a region of local
Breeze, etc. low pressure. The sea remains comparatively cool with
Mountain and a higher pressure, so a sea breeze blows from sea to
Valley winds land.
Planetary winds Sea breeze is generally stronger in tropical than
Planetary winds are major component of the general temperate regions. It is most deeply felt when one
global circulation of air. These are known as planetary stands facing the sea in a coastal resort.
winds because of their prevalence in the global scale At night the reverse takes place. As the land cools down
throughout the year. Planetary winds occur due to much faster than the sea, the cold and heavy air
temperature and pressure variance throughout the produces a region of local high pressure. The sea
world. conserves its heat and remains quite warm. It's pressure
Trade wind is comparatively low. A land breeze thus blows out
• Winds blowing from the Subtropical High Pressure form land to sea.
Belt towards the Equatorial Low Pressure Belt or Fishermen in the tropics take advantage of the out-
the ITCZ are the trade winds. going land breeze and sail out with it. They return the
Westerly Winds next morning with the in-coming sea breeze, complete
with their catch.
• The Westerlies are the prevailing winds in the
middle latitudes between 35º and 65º latitude, Mountain and Valley winds
blowing from the high pressure area in the Sub • Mountain-valley breezes are formed by the daily
Tropical High Pressure Belt towards the sub polar difference of the thermo effects between peaks and
low pressure belt. valleys.
• The winds are predominantly from the south-west • During the day, the sun heats up the mountains
to north-east in the Northern Hemisphere and from rapidly while valleys remain relatively cooler. The
the north-west to south-east in the Southern sun warms the air along the mountain slopes, this
Hemisphere. warm air rises up the mountain slopes, creating
Polar Winds valley breeze. At night, the process is reversed, the
slopes get cooled and the air descends into the
• The winds blowing in the Arctic and the Antarctic
latitudes are known as the Polar Winds. valley as the mountain wind.
• They have been termed the 'Polar Easterlies', as • Katabatic winds carries high density air from a
they blow from the Polar High Pressure belt higher elevation down to a slope under the force of
towards the Sub-Polar Low-Pressure Belts. gravity. Sometimes, these winds are also called fall
winds.
• As these winds blow from the ice-capped
landmass, they are extremely cold. • Anabatic is a warm wind which blows up a steep
slope or mountain side, driven by heating of the
• They are more regular in the Southern Hemisphere
than in the Northern Hemisphere. slope through insolation.
Periodic Winds Local Winds
They change their direction periodically with change in These local winds blow in the various regions of the
season. world.
Land and sea breezes and monsoon winds are winds of Hot Winds Country
a periodic type. Land and sea breezes occur daily, Sirocco Sahara Desert
whereas the occurrence of monsoon winds is seasonal. Leveche Spain
Monsoon Winds Khamsin Egypt
• Monsoons are regional wind systems that Harmattan Sahara Desert
periodically change direction with the passing of Santa Ana USA
the seasons. Zonda Argentina
• Like land and sea breezes, these wind systems are Brickfielder Australia
created by the temperature contrasts that exist Loo India
between the surfaces of land and ocean.
Land and Sea Breezes
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Cold Country • Extra tropical cyclones form along the polar front.
Winds • Two air masses of contrasting physical properties:
Mistral Spain & France one air mass is polar in character and is cold, denser
Bora Eastern Europe and North Eastern and north-easterly in direction while the other air
Italy mass is tropical in origin and is warm, moist,
Pampero Argentina lighter and south westerly in direction.
Buran Siberia • An anticyclone is a region of high atmospheric
pressure related to the surrounding air, generally
Jet Streams thousands of kilometres in diameter and also
known as a high or high-pressure system.
These are a narrow belt of high attitude (above 12,000
m) westerly winds in the upper troposphere. Their • Winds in an anticyclone form a clockwise out-
spiral in the Northern Hemisphere; whereas they
speed varies from about 110 km/hr in summer to about
form an anti-clockwise out-spiral in the Southern
184 km/hr in winter.
Hemisphere.
In the Northern and Southern hemispheres, these are
OCEANOGRAPHY
two jet stream.
The study of sea floor by echo method of sound waves
• Subtropical Jet Stream: Centered at about 30° reveals that the sea floor is not a flat area. It consists of
latitude.
mountains, plateaus, plains & trenches etc. Some major
• Polar Front Jet Stream: Whose position varies submarine features are described below.
with the boundary between polar and temperate air.
Continental Shelf
A reverse jet stream blows towards the west in tropical
high altitudes during northern hemisphere summer. It • The portion of the land which is submerged under
is associated with the heating of the asian continent and sea water is continental shelf.
may help bring summer monsoon to the Indian Ocean. • The continental shelf is shallow and its depth is not
CYCLONE more than 200 metres.
Cyclones are well developed low-pressure systems • In all about 7.5 percent of total area of the oceans
surrounded by closed isobars having increasing is covered by the continental shelves.
pressure outside and closed air circulation towards the The shelves are of great use to man because:
centre such that the air blows inward in anticlockwise • Marine food comes almost entirely from them.
direction in the northern hemisphere and clockwise in • About 20 percent of oil and gas of the world is
the southern hemisphere. extracted from them.
Tropical cyclones • They serve as sites for productive fishing grounds.
Tropical cyclones are intense cyclonic storms that Continental Slope
develop over the warm oceans of the tropics. Surface • It is an area of steep slope extending just after the
atmospheric pressure in the centre of tropical cyclones continental shelf up to a considerable depth from
tends to be extremely low. where a gentle sea plain takes its form.
The main characteristics of tropical cyclones are: • The extent of the slope area is usually between 200-
• They have winds that exceed 34 knots (39 2000 m. But sometimes it may extend to 3660
miles/hr). metres from the mean sea level.
• They are clockwise in the Southern Hemisphere • The continental slope along many coasts of the
and Counter-clockwise about their centres in the world is followed by deep canyon like trenches
Northern Hemisphere. terminating as fan shaped deposits at the base.
• They are known as Cyclones in the Indian Ocean, • Continental slope covers 8.5 percent of the total
Hurricanes in the Atlantic, Typhoons in the ocean area.
Western Pacific and South China Sea, and Willy- Continental Rise
Willies in the Western Australia. • The gently sloping surface at the base of the
Temperate cyclones continental slope is called continental rise.
• The systems developing in the mid and high • It may extend to hundreds of Kilometers into the
latitude, beyond the tropics are called the middle deep ocean basin.
latitude or temperate cyclones. Deep Ocean Basins
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• It is the portion of sea floor that lies between the • The North-East Trade Winds blow the North
continental margin and the oceanic ridge system. Equatorial Current off the coasts of the Philippines
• It contains deep-ocean trenches, abyssal plains, and and Formosa into the East China Sea as the
broad volcanic peaks called seamounts. Kuroshio or Japan current.
Submarine Canyons • The cold Bering Current or Alaska Current creeps
• These are depressions with walls of steep slopes southwards from the narrow Bering Strait and is
and have a V shape. joined by Okhotsk Current to meet the warm Japan
• They exist on the continental slopes and the Current as the Oyashio (cold current), off
shelves. Hokkaido.
• They are found to have a length of 16 km at • The South Equatorial Current, driven by the South-
maximum. East Trade winds, flows southwards along the coast
OCEAN CURRENTS of Queensland as the East Australian Current.
Ocean currents are large masses of surface water that • Obstructed by the tip of southern Chile, the current
circulate in regular patterns around the world. Those turns northwards along the western coast of South
that flow from equatorial regions towards poles have a America as the cold Humboldt or Peruvian Current.
higher surface temperature and are warm currents. The Circulation (Indian Ocean)
Those that flow from polar regions to equator have a • The currents of South Indian Ocean form a circuit.
lower surface temperature and are cold currents. • The Equatorial Current, turning southwards past
Factors that lead to Ocean Currents Madagascar as the Agulhas or Mozambique
• Planetary winds Current merges with the West Wind Drift, flowing
• Temperature eastwards and turns equator-wards as the West
• Salinity Australian Current.
• Earth’s rotation • In the North Indian Ocean, there is a complete
The Circulation (The Atlantic Ocean) reversal of the direction of currents between
summer and winter, due to the changes of monsoon
• At the ‘shoulder’ of North-East Brazil, the winds.
protruding landmass splits the South Equatorial • In summer from June to October, when the
Current into the Cayenne Current which flows dominant wind is the South-West Monsoon, the
along the Guiana coast, and the Brazilian Current currents are blown from a south-westerly direction
which flows southwards along the east coast of as the South- West Monsoon Drift.
Brazil. • This is reversed in winter. Monsoon blows the
• Part of the cayenne current enters the Gulf of currents from the north-east as the North-East
Mexico, emerges from the Florida Strait between Monsoon Drift.
Florida Cuba as the Florida Current. • The currents of the North Indian Ocean,
• The rest of the equatorial water flows northwards demonstrate most convincingly the dominant
east of the Antilles to join the Gulf Stream off the effects of winds on the circulation of ocean
south-eastern U.S.A. The Gulf Stream Drift is one currents.
of the strongest ocean currents and hugs the coast SALINITY OCEANS
of America as far as Cape Hatteras (latitude 35oN), Arctic Ocean
where it is deflected eastwards under the combined
influence of the Westerlies and the rotation of the • The Arctic Ocean is the smallest of the world's five
earth. It reaches Europe as the North Atlantic Drift. oceans.
• The cold Labrador Current drift southeastwards • The Northwest Passage (US and Canada) and
between West Greenland and Baffin Island to meet Northern Sea Route (Norway & Russia) are two
the warm Gulf Stream off Newfoundland. important seasonal waterways.
• On reaching the west coast of Africa, the Brazilian • It is a body of water between Europe, Asia, and
current is diverted northwards as the cold Benguela North America, mostly north of the Arctic Circle.
Current (the counterpart of the Canaries Current). • Deepest point: Litke deep.
The Circulation (Pacific Ocean) Atlantic Ocean
• The Atlantic Ocean is the second largest of the
world's five oceans.
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• The Kiel Canal (Germany), Qresund (Denmark- tide), but some locations experience only one high
Sweden), Bosporus (Turkey), Strait of Gibraltar and one low tide each day (diurnal tide).
(Morocco-Spain), and the Saint Lawrence Seaway • The times and amplitude of the tides at the coast
(Canada-US) are important strategic access are influenced by the alignment of the Sun and
waterways. Moon, the depth of the ocean, and the shape of the
• It is a body of water between Africa, Europe, the coastline and near-shore bathymetry.
Southern Ocean in the Western Hemisphere. • When the moon exerts gravitational force on the
• It includes Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Caribbean Sea, earth the tidal bulge moves out and causes high
part of the Drake Passage, Gulf of Mexico, tide.
Mediterranean Sea, and other tributary water • Simultaneously on the side opposite to that place
bodies. on the earth i.e. just at 180° to it, also experiences
• Panama Canal connects the Atlantic and Pacific the tidal bulge due to reactionary force
oceans (centrifugal) of the gravitational (centripetal) force.
• Deepest point: Milwaukee Deep in the Puerto • Thus two tides are experienced twice at every place
Rico Trench. on the earth's water surface within 24 hours.
Indian Ocean • Due to the cyclic rotation of the Earth and Moon,
• The Indian Ocean is the third largest of the world's the tidal cycle is 24 hours and 52 minutes long.
five oceans. Causes of Tides
• Four critically important access waterways are the • Gravitational attraction between Moon and the
Suez Canal (Egypt), Bab-el Mandeb (Djibouti- Earth.
Yemen), Strait of Hormuz (Iran-Oman), and Strait • Gravitational attraction between sun and the Earth.
of Malacca (Indonesia-Malaysia). • Attraction force of the Earth towards Earth centre.
• It is a body of water between Africa, the Southern • Moon is mainly responsible for the tides.
Ocean, Asia, and Australia. Types of Tides
• It includes Andaman Sea, Arabian Sea, Bay of Tides Recurring Time
Bengal, Flores Sea, Gulf of Aden, Gulf of Oman, Semi Recur at the intervals of 12½ hours.
Java Sea, Red Sea, Strait of Malacca, Timor Sea, diurnal tides
and other tributary water bodies. Diurnal Recur at the intervals of 24½ hours.
• Deepest point: Java Trench Tides
Pacific Ocean Spring Once a fortnight, due to the
• The Pacific Ocean is the largest of the world's five Tides revolution of the moon and its
oceans. declination.
• Torres Strait (Australia – New Guinea), La Perouse Neap tides Once a fortnight due to the revolution
Strait (Japan), Tsugaru Strait (Korea-Japan), and declination of moon.
Jaiwan Strait (Jaiwan-Mainland China). Monthly Due to the revolution of the moon and
• It is body of water between the Southern Ocean, tides its position at Perigee and Apogee.
Asia, Australia, and the Western Hemisphere. It
includes Bali Sea, Bering Sea, Coral Sea, East Spring Tides
China Sea, Gulf of Alaska, Philippines Sea, Sea of
• Spring tides are especially strong tides or high
Japan, Sea of Okhotsk, Tasman Sea, and other
tides.
tributary water bodies.
• They occur when the Earth, the Sun, and the Moon
• Deepest point: Challenger Deep in the Mariana
are in a line.
Trench.
• The gravitational forces of the Moon and the Sun
SOUTHERN OCEAN TIDES
both contribute to the tides.
• The tide is the periodic rise and fall of the sea levels
• Spring tides occur during the full moon and the
caused by the combined effects of the gravitational
new moon.
forces exerted by the Moon and Sun and rotation of
the Earth. Neap Tides
• Most places in the ocean usually experience two • Neap tides are especially weak tides.
high tides and two low tides each day (semidiurnal
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288

• They occur when the gravitational forces of the • Mountains: Rockies, Appalachian, Brooks,
Moon and the Sun are perpendicular to one another Kuskolkwim, Alaska Range, Cascade Range,
(with respect to the Earth). Coastal Range, Sierra Nevada, Sierra Madre
• Neap tides occur seven or eight days after the • Highest Point: Mckinley (6,194 m.)
spring tide. • Lowest Point: Death Valley (-85.9 m)
• The Bay of Fundy between Nova Scotia and New • Islands: Greenland, Baffin, Victoria,
Brunswick in Canada experiences the world's Newfoundland, Cuba, Jamaica, Haiti
greatest tidal range of 50 feet (15.25 meters). • Rivers: Mississippi, Missourie, St. Lawrence,
Mackenzie, Colorado, Hudson, Potomac, Ohio
CONTINENTS OF THE WORLD • Plateaus: Columbia Plateau, Colorado Plateau,
Mexican Plateau, Canadian Shield.
Asia • Deserts: Chihuahuan, Colorado, Mojave, Sonoran
South America
• Area: 44,579,900 sq Kms
• Straits Strait of Malacca, Bering Strait. • Area: 17,840,000 sq Kms
• Mountains: Pamir Knot, Himalayas, Karakoram, • Straits: Straits of Magellan
Kunlun, Jian Shan, Altai, Hindu Kush, Elburz • Mountains: Andes
(Alborz), Pontic, Sulaiman, Zagros, Taurus, Urals, • Highest Point: Aconcagua (6,960 m)
Stanovoi. • Lowest: Point Valdes Penin (-39.9 m)
• Highest Point: Mt. Everest (8,848 m) • Islands: Galapagos, Falkland, Tierra del Fuego.
• Lowest Point Dead Sea (396.8 m) • Rivers: Amazon, Orinoco, Paraguay, Parana,
• Islands: Kuril, Sakhalin, Honshu, Hokkaido, Uruguay
Taiwan, Borneo, Sumatra, Java, Celebes, New • Plateaus: Plateau of Bolivia, Plateau of Equador
Guinea, Philippines, Sri Lanka, Bahrain, Cyprus. • Deserts: Atacama, Pantagonia
• Rivers: Eupharates, Tigris, Indus, Ganga, Europe
Brahmaputra, Hwang-Ho, Yang-tse, Si-kiang, • Area: 10,180,000 sq Kms
Amur, Lena-Yenisei, Ob, Irrawady, Salween, • Straits: Straits of Gibraltar
Mekong. • Mountains: Alps, Pyrenees, Apennine, Dinaric
• Plateaus: Anatolia Plateau, Plateau of Iran, Plateau Alps, Carpathians, Transylvanian Mountains,
of Arabia, Plateau of Tibet, Tarim Basin, Plateau Balkans, Caucasus, Urals
of Mongolia, Plateau of Yunnan, Deccan Plateau. • Highest Point: Elbrus (5,663 M.)
• Peninsulas: Kamchatka Peninsula, Peninsula of • Lowest Point: Caspian Sea (-28.0 m)
Korea, Peninsula of Indo-China, Malay Peninsula, • Islands: British Isles, Iceland, Sardinia, Aeolian,
Indian Peninsula, Arabian Peninsula. Crete.
• Deserts: Arab, Thar, Ladakh • Rivers: Volga, Danube, Rhine, Po, Dnieper, Don,
Africa Vistula, Elbe, Oder, Seine, Loire, Garrone, Douro,
• Area: 30,370,000 sq Kms Tagus, Ural
• Straits: Strait of Bab-el-Mandeb, Straits of • Plateaus: Plateau of Bohemia, Plateau of Spain,
Gibraltar Central Massif
• Mountains: Atlas, Drakensberg, Kilimanjaro Australia
• Highest Point: Kilimanjaro (5,894 m) • Area: 7,830,682 sq Kms
• Lowest Point-Lake Assal (-156.1 m.) • Straits: Bass Strait
• Islands: Madagascar, Cape Verde Islands, The • Mountains: Great Dividing Range
Comoros, Mauritius, Seychelles • Highest Point: Kosciuszko (2,228 m.)
• Plateaus: The whole continent is a plateau • Lowest Point: Lake Eyre (-15.8 m.)
• Deserts: Kalahari, Sahara Namib • Islands: Tasmania
North America • Plateaus: Western Plateau
• Area: 24,709,000 sq Kms • Deserts: Gibson Desert, Great Sandy Desert, Great
• Straits: Bering Strait Victoria Desert, Simpson Desert.
Antarctica
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• Antarctica is Earth’s southernmost continent, • Island of the Sailors – Samoa

underlying the South Pole. • Island of the inspiration – Tasmania
• It is situated in the Antarctica region of the • Pearl of the Antilles – Cuba
southern hemisphere, almost entirely south of the • Friendly island – Tonga
Antarctic Circle, and is surrounded by the Southern • Spring island – Jamaica
Ocean. • Birthplace of Napolean – Corsica Island
Highest point: Vinson Massif, (4,897 m) • Biggest island – Greenland
Lowest point: Bentley Subglacial Trench, (-2,555 m) • Smallest island nation – Navru
Longest river: Onyx River, 25 km Folkland islands, Canary islands, Kozhzikka, St.
FACTS Helena, Bahamas Bermuda islands situated in Atlantic
• Largest total area - Russia, 17,098,242 km² Ocean.
• Largest land area - Russia, 17,075,200 km² INDIAN GEOGRAPHY
• Largest water area - Canada, 891,163 km² Geographical Location
• Longest coastline - Canada, 243,792 km • India lies in the Asian continent and Northern
• Highest coastline to area ratio - Micronesia, Hemisphere between parallels of latitude' 8° 4' and
8,706.553 m/km² 37° 6' North and between the meridians of
• Most countries bordered-Russia and China longitude 68° 7' and 97° 25' East.
• Largest forest area - Russia, 8,087,900 km² • In the west, India shares its boundary with
Hottest, Coldest, Driest, Wettest Pakistan.
• Hottest Place: Death valley, California, USA. • In the south, Sri Lanka is India's neighbouring
Average temperature (47°C). country.
• Coldest Place: Dome fuji, Antarctica, annual • In the north, Nepal, China, Afghanistan are the
average temperature (-93°C) neighbouring countries.
• Wettest Place: Mawsynram, Assam, India, annual • In the east, Bangladesh, Myanmar, Bhutan are the
average rainfall (11,873 mm, 467.4") major countries which surround India.
• Driest Place: Atacama Desert, Chile, • There is Bay of Bengal in the south-east, Arabian
imperceptible rainfall on a yearly basis. sea in the south-west and Indian ocean in the south
DESERTS of India. India has Himalayas in the north.
• Fozil desert – Kalahari Important dimensions of India
• Little Sahara – Australia • India covers 2.4 per cent of the Earth's surface.
• Death desert – Taklamakan • Total land area of India is 32,87,263 sq. km.
• Painted desert – North America • Distance from east to west is 2,933 km.
• Coldest desert – Gobi • Distance from north to south is 3,214 km.
• Warmest desert – Sahara • The total length of the coastline of the mainland,
• Driest desert – Atacama Lakshadweep Islands and Andaman and Nicobar
• Great Indian desert – Thar Islands, is 7,516.6 km. The coastline of only
Important Deserts mainland is about 6100 km.
• Roob Asavali – Asia • In India, of the total land mass:
• Atacama – South America ▪ Plains Geography: 43.3%
• Sahara – Africa ▪ Plateaus: 27.7%
• Kalahari – Africa ▪ Hills: 18.6%
• namib – Namibia ▪ Mountains Geography: 10.7%
• Great Sandy – Australia Other Facts
• Great Victoria – Australia • UP borders the maximum number of States-8
• Taklamakan – China (Uttarakhand, HP, Haryana, Rajasthan, MP,
• Sahel – China Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, Bihar). After UP is
• Thar – India Assam, which touches the border of 7 States.
ISLANDS • Tropic of Cancer passes through 8 States: Gujarat,
• Island of the volcanoes – Iceland Rajasthan, MP, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West
• Island of the tortoise – Galapagos bengal, Tripura, Mizoram.
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• Indian Standard Meridian passes through 5 States: Mt. Nanga Parbat 8126 m (in India)
UP, MP, Chhattisgarh, Orissa, Andra pradesh.
• 9 States form the coast of India. They are: Gujarat, Mt. Annapurna 8078 m (in Nepal)
Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu,
Andhra Pradesh, Orissa and West Bengal. Mt. Nanda Devi 7817 m (in India)
• 2 Union Territories, viz. Daman and Diu and
Pondicherry are also on the coast. Lesser Himalayas Or The Himachal
• The Union Territories of Andaman and Nicobar • Average height of the mountains is 3700 – 4500 m.
Islands and Lakshadweep are made up of islands • Mountains & valleys are disposed in all direction
only. (mountains rising to 5000 m & the valleys touching
MOUNTAINS OF INDIA 1000 m).
There are Himalayas (highest mountains in the world • Its important ranges are: Dhauladhar, Pir Panjal,
and one of the youngest moutain ranges), Vindhyas, Nag Tibba, Mussoorie.
Satpura, Sahyadri, Aravallis (one of the oldest Outer Himalayas or The Shiwaliks
mountain ranges of the world), Patkai (Purvanchal or
Eastern mountains) and the Eastern Ghats. • Lowest range (average elevation is 900-1200 m).
THE HIMALAYAS • Forms the foothills and lies between the Lesser
• Means ‘Abode of Snow’. Himalayas & the plains. It is the newest range.
• They are one of the youngest fold mountain ranges Trans – Himalayan Zone
in the world and comprise mainly sedimentary • This range lies to the north of the Great Himalayas.
rocks. It has some important ranges like Karakoram,
• They stretch from the Indus river in the west to the Ladakh, Zanskar, etc.
Brahmaputra river in the east. • The highest peak in this region is K2 or Godwin
• The Eastern Himalayas consisting of Naga Hills, Austen (8611m, in Pak occupied Kashmir).
Mizo Hills and Manipur Hills are also known as • Other high peaks are Hidden Peak or K5 (8068 m),
Purvanchal. Broad Peak (8047 m) & Gasherbrum II (8035 m).
• The Pamir knot popularly known as the Roof of the • The longest glacier is Siachin in the Nubra valley,
World, is the connecting link between the which is more than 72 km long (biggest glacier in
Himalayas & the high ranges of Central Asia. the world).
• Can be divided into 3 parallel or longitudinal • Biafo, Baltoro, Hispar are the other important
zones, each with separate features. glaciers in this region.
The Great Himalayas Or The Himadri • This area is the largest snow-field outside the Polar
• There are few passes and almost all of them have a Regions.
height above 4,500 m. THE PLAINS OF INDIA
• They include Shipki La and Bara Lacha La in • To the south of the Himalayas and to the north of
Himachal Pradesh, Burzil and Zoji La in Kashmir, the Peninsula lies the great plains of North India.
Niti, Lipulekh in Uttarakhand, Jelep La & Nathu • They are formed by the depositional works of three
La in Sikkim. major river systems, Indus, Ganga and
• Average elevation extends upto 6000 m. Some of Brahmaputra.
the world’s highest peaks are: • The vast plains of north India are alluvial in nature
and the western most portion is occupied by the
Mt. Everest (or Sagarmatha 8848 m (in Nepal) Thar Desert.
or Chomolungma) • The thickness of the alluvium is maximum in the
Mt. Kanchenjunga 8598 m (in India) Ganga plains & minimum in the Western Plains.
The plains consist of four divisions: Physiographic
Mt. Makalu 8481 m (in Nepal) Bhabar: Along the foothills of Shiwaliks. Highly
porous – (Smaller Streams disappear)
Mt. Dhaulagiri 8172 m (in Nepal) Terai: Re-emergence of streams. Zone of excessive
Mt. Cho Oyu 8153 m (in Nepal) dampness – South of Bhabar
Bhangar: Older alluvial plains, contain calcareous
formations called ‘kankar’
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Khadar: New alluvium and forms the flood plains Eight Degree Channel separates Lakshdweep
along the river banks. (India) from Maldives.
Peninsular Plateau of India RIVERS OF INDIA
• Spreads south of the Indo-Gangetic plains flanked In India, the rivers can be divided into two main groups:
by sea on three sides. Himalayan Rivers Peninsular Rivers
• This plateau is shaped like a triangle with its base • Indus • East flowing
in the north. • Ganga • West flowing
• The Eastern Ghats & the Western Ghats constitute • Brahmaputra
its eastern & western boundaries, respectively. HIMALAYAN RIVER OF INDIA
• Narmada, which flows through a rift valley, divides The Indus System
the region into two parts: The Malwa Plateau in the • It has a total length of 2880 km (709 km in India).
north & the Deccan Plateau in the south. • It rises in Tibet (China) near Mansarovar Lake. In
• Vindhya Plateau is situated south of Malwa Jammu and Kashmir, its Himalayan tributaries are:
plateau. Zanskar, Dras, Shyok, Shigar, Nubra, Gilgit, etc.
• Chota Nagpur Plateau lies to the west of Bengal • Its most important tributaries, which joins Indus at
basin, the largest & most typical part of which is various places, are: Jhelum, Chenab (1800 km),
the Ranchi plateau. Ravi, Beas and Sutlej.
• The Deccan Plateau is the largest plateau in India. • Sources: Jhelum from Verinag (SE Kashmir), Ravi
It is made up of lava flown in the Cretaceous- from Kullu Hills near Rohtang Pass in Himachal
Eocene era through the fissure eruptions. Pradesh, Beas from a place near Rohtang Pass in
ISLANDS OF INDIA Himachal Pradesh and Sutlej from Mansarovar –
Total coastline of India: 7517 km. Longest coastline: Rakas lakes in Western. Tibet, Chenab-near Bara
Gujarat (Second longest is of Andhra Pradesh). Lacha Pass, Himachal Pradesh.
Indian territorial limits include 248 islands. The Ganga System
The Andaman & Nicobar Group
• It is 2525 km long of which 1450 km is in
• Andamans is a group of 204 islands of which the Uttarakhand and UP, 445 km in Bihar and 520 km
largest is Middle Andaman. in West Bengal.
• The Andamans are believed to be extensions of • The Ganga, the head stream is constituted of two
mountains system in the North Eastern. part of the main rivers – Bhagirathi and Alaknanda, which
country. combine at Devprayag to form Ganga.
• Saddle Peak (737 m) in North. Andaman is the • Sources: Bhagirthi from Gaumukh, Alaknanda
highest peak. from Badrinath, Mandakini from Kedarnath (all
• The Nicobars is a group of 19 islands of which the from Uttarakhand).
largest is Great Nicobar. • Yamuna (1375 km) is its most important tributary
• Most of them are volcanic in nature. (on right bank).
• Great Nicobar is the southernmost island & is only • It rises at the Yamunotri glacier in Uttarakhand.
147 km away from Sumatra island of Indonesia. • It runs parallel to Ganga for 800 km & joins it at
• Volcanic Islands: Barren and Narcondom Islands. Allahabad.
The Arabian Sea Group • Important tributaries of Yamuna are Chambal,
• All the islands in the Arabian Sea (Total 25) are Betwa (480 km) & Ken (all from south).
coral islands and are surrounded by Fringing Reefs • Apart from Yamuna, other tributaries of Ganga are
(North: Lakshadweep, South: Minicoy). Ghaghra (1080 km), Son (780 km), Gandak (425
DO YOU KNOW? km), Kosi (730 km), Gomti (805 km), Damodar
Ten Degree Channel separates Andamans from (541 km).
Nicobars (Little Andaman from Car Nicobar) • Kosi is infamous as ‘Sorrow of Bihar’, while
Duncan Passage lies between South Andaman & Damodar gets the name ‘Sorrow of Bengal’ as
Little Andaman. these cause floods in these regions.
Nine Degree Channel separates Laccadive islands • Hoogly is a distributary of Ganga flowing through
of Kalpeni and Suheli par and Maliku Atole. Kolkata.
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The Brahmaputra System • Narmada River (1312 km): Rises in Amarkantak

• It has a total length of 2900 km. It rises in Tibet Plateau and flows into Gulf of Khambat. It forms
(from Chemayungdung glacier), where it is called the famous Dhuan Dhar Falls near Jabalpur. Main
Tsangpo, and enters the Indian territory (in tributaries: Hiran, Burhner, Banjar, Shar, Shakkar,
Arunachal Pradesh) under the name Dihang. Tawa, etc.
• Important Tributaries: Subansiri, Kameng, • Sabarmati River (416 km): Rises from Aravallis
Dhansiri, Manas, Teesta. in Rajasthan.
• In Bangladesh, Brahmaputra is known by the name • Sharavati is a west flowing river of the Sahyadris.
of Jamuna while Ganga gets the name Padma. It forms the famous Jog or Gersoppa or Mahatma
• Their combined stream is known as Padma only. Gandhi Falls (289 m), which is the one of the
• Meghna is the most important distributary before it highest waterfall in India.
enters the Bay of Bengal. • Tapti River (724 km): Rises from Betul district in
• The combined stream of Ganga and Brahmaputra Maharashtra. Also known as twin or handmaid of
forms the biggest delta in the world, the Narmada. Main tributaries: Purna, Betul,
Sundarbans, covering an area of 58,752 sq. km. Its Arunavati, Ganjal, etc.
major part is in Bangladesh. Important lakes in India
• The river island, Majuli on Brahamaputra in • Chilka Lake (Odisha) is the largest brackish water
Assam, is the biggest river island in the world. lake of India. Otherwise also, it is the largest lake
• Brahmaputra, or the Red River, is navigable for a of India.
distance of 1384 km up to Dibrugarh and serves as • Dal Lake is in Jammu and kashmir.
an excellent inland water transport route. • From Sambhar and Didwana Lake (Rajasthan), salt
RIVER OF PENINSULAR IN INDIA is produced.
East Flowing Rivers of India (or Delta Forming • Other important lakes are Vembanad in Kerala,
Rivers) Kolleru lake in Andhra Pradesh and Pulicat lake in
• Cauvery River (805 km): It is the largest Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu.
peninsular river (maximum amount of water). • Wular Lake (Jammu and Kashmir) is the largest
Infact, it is the only peninsular river which flows fresh water lake of India.
almost throughout the year. It rises from the • The largest man-made lake in India is Indira Sagar
Brahmagir range of Western Ghats. Main Lake, which is the reservoir on Indira Sagar Dam
tributaries: Hemavati, Lokpawni, Shimsa. on Narmada Sardar Sarovar Project, Onkareshwar
• Godavari River (1465 km): Also called Vriddha Project and Maheshwar Project in Gujarat-MP.
Ganga or Dakshina Ganga. It is the longest Important Gulfs in the Indian Territory
peninsular river. Rises in Nasik. Main tributaries: Gulf of Kutch (west of Gujarat): Region with highest
Manjra, Penganga, Wardha, Indravati, Wainganga, potential of tidal energy generation.
etc. Gulf of Cambay or Gulf of Khambat (Gujarat):
• Krishna River (1327 km): Rises in Western Ghats Narmada, Tapti, Mahi and Sabarmati drain into it.
near Mahabaleshwar. Main tributaries: Koyna, Gulf of Mannar (south east of Tamil Nadu): Asia’s
Dudhganga, Panchganga, Malprabha, Bhima, first marine biosphere reserve.
Tungabhadra, etc. Important River Valley Projects in India
• Mahanadi River (858 km): Rises in Raipur
disttrict in Chhatisgarh. • Bhakhra Nangal Project: On Sutlej in Himachal
Pradesh. Highest in India. Height 226 m. Reservoir
• Subarnarekha River (395 km) and Brahmani
is called Gobind Sagar Lake.
(705 km): Rises from Ranchi Plateau.
• Chambal Valley Project: On Chambal in M.P and
West Flowing Rivers in India
Rajasthan. Three dams are there: Gandhi Sagar
• Luni River (450 km): Rises from Aravallis. Also Dam, Rana Pratap sagar Dam and Jawahar Sagar
called Salt River. It is finally lost in the marshy dam
grounds at the head of the Rann of Kutch. • Damodar Valley Project: On Damodar in
• Mahi River (560 km): Rises from Vindhyas in Jharkhand.
Maharashtra. • Hirakud: On Mahanadi in Orissa. World's longest
dam: 4801 m
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• Farakka Project: On Ganga in West Bengal. CLIMATIC REGIONS OF INDIA

Apart from power and irrigation it helps to remove India can be divided into a number of climatic
silt for easy navigation. regions.
• Kakrapara Project: On Tapi in Gujarat Tropical Rain Forests in India
• Idduki-Periyar: Kerala • Found in the Western coastal plains, the Western
• Kundah and Periyar Project: In Tamil Nadu Ghats, North-East India and Andaman & Nicobar
• Mayurakashi Project: On Mayurakshi in West Islands.
Bengal • Characterised by high temperatures throughout the
• Mandi Project: On Beas in Himachal Pradesh year.
• Mata Tila Multipurpose Project: On Betwa in • Rainfall, though seasonal, is heavy- about 200 cm
U.P and M.P annually during May-November.
• Nizamsagar Project: On Manjira in Andhra Tropical Savanna Climate
Pradesh
• In most of the peninsula region except the semi-
• Nagarjuna Sagar Project: On Krishna in Andhra
arid zone on the leeward side of the Western Ghats.
Pradesh
• It is characterized by long dry weather throughout
• Pong Dam: On Beas, Punjab
winter and early summer and high temperature
• Rihand: On Son(river) in Mirzapur. Reservoir is
(above 18.2 Deg.C); annual rainfall varies from 76
called Govind Vallabh Pant reservoir
cm in the west to 150 cm in the east.
• Salal Project: On Chenab in Jammu and Kashmir
Tropical Semi-Arid Steppe Climate
• Sharavati Hydel Project: On Jog Falls in
Karnataka • It prevails in the rain-shadow belt running
• Shivasamudram Project: On Cauvery in southward from Central Maharashtra to Tamil
Karnataka Nadu on the leeward side of the Western Ghats and
• Tata Hydel Scheme: On Bhima in Maharashtra the Cardamom Hills.
• Thein Project: On Ravi, Punjab • It is characterized by low rainfall which varies from
• Ukai Project: On Tapti in Gujarat 38 cm to 80 cm, high temperature between 20 and
IMPORTANT LAGOONS AND LAKES 30.
• VEMBANAD LAKE – Kerala – Large sized Tropical and Subtropical Steppes
lagoons • Large areas in Punjab, Haryana and Kutch region.
• KAYALS: Kerala-Popularly called backwaters in Temperature varies from 12-35 degree Celsius.
Kerala. Peaty soils of backwaters are called Kari in • The maximum temperature reaches up to 49 degree
Kerala. Celsius. The annual rainfall, varying from 30.5-
• CHILKA LAKE – Orissa – south west of the 63.5 cm, is also highly erratic.
Mahanadi Delta. Tropical desert
• WULAR LAKE – Jammu and Kashmir – Largest • This climate extends over the western parts of
fresh water lake of India Barmer, Jaisalmer and Bikaner districts of
• KOLLERU LAKE – Andhra Pradesh Rajasthan and parts of Kutch.
• PULICAT LAKE – Andhra Pradesh & Tamil • It is characterized by scanty rainfall (30.5 cm),
Nadu which is highly erratic. Rains are mostly in the
• JAISAMAND LAKE – Rajasthan – Largest fresh form of cloud-burst.
water lake of Rajasthan • Mean monthly temperature is uniformly high
• NAKKI LAKE – Rajasthan – small natural lake (about 35°C).
near Mt. Abu surrounded by hills, important as Humid Subtropical Climate with Dry Winters
tourist place.
• LOKTAK LAKE – Manipur • This area includes south of the Himalayas, east of
Saline Water Lakes the tropical and subtropical steppes and north of
tropical Savannah.
• SAMBHAR LAKE – Rajasthan – Largest Lake of • Winters are mild to severe while summers are
Rajasthan lies on the border of Jaipur and Nagaur extremely hot.
districts.
• DIDWANA LAKE – Rajasthan
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• The annual rainfall varies from 63.5 cm to more ▪ Old alluvium, called bangar
than 254 cm, most of it received during the south ▪ New alluvium, called khadar.
west monsoon season. • Alluvial soil is most suited for irrigation and can
produce bumper crops of rice, wheat, maize,
Mountain Climate sugarcane, tobacco, cotton, jute, oilseeds, etc.
• Such type of climate is seen in mountainous
regions which is above 6,000 m or more such as the Black Soil
Himalayas and the Karakoram Range. • The black soil is locally called regur, a word
derived from Telugu word ‘reguda’.
FACTORS AFFECTING INDIA’S CLIMATE • It is also called the Black Cotton Soil, as cotton is
Latitude the most important crop grown in this soil.
• The Indian landmass is equally divided into two by • The black soil is mostly found in the Deccan Lava,
the Tropic of Cancer. tract covering large areas of Maharashtra, Gujarat
• Hence, half of India has tropical climate and and western Madhya Pradesh. The black soil is
another half has subtropical climate. well-known for its capacity to hold moisture.
• Black soil is widely used for producing cotton,
Altitude wheat, linseed, millets, tobacco and oilseeds.
• While the average elevation in the coastal areas is
Red Soil
about 30 metres, the average elevation in the north
is about 6,000 metres. • The red soil occupies about 10 per cent area of
• The Himalayas prevent the cold winds from India, mostly in the south-eastern part of the
Central Asia from entering the Indian subcontinent. Peninsular India.
• Due to this, the subcontinent gets comparatively • The red soil is found in Tamil Nadu, parts of
milder winters as compared to Central Asia. Karnataka, southeast Maharashtra, eastern parts of
Andhra Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Orissa and
Pressure and Winds Jharkhand.
• The red colour is due to the high percentage of iron
• The Indian subcontinent lies in the region of north- contents. This soil is rich in potash, but poor in
easterly winds. lime, phosphate, nitrogen and humus.
• These winds originate from the subtropical high- Red soils can give excellent yields of cotton,
•
pressure belt of the Northern Hemisphere. wheat, rice, pulses, millets, tobacco, oilseeds, etc.
• After that, these winds blow towards south.
• They get deflected to the right due to the Coriolis Laterite Soil
force and then move towards the low pressure area
near the equator. • The word ‘laterite’ has been derived from a Latin
word meaning ‘brick’.
LOW PRESSURE • It is mainly found on the summits of the Western
Alluvial Soil Ghats, Eastern Ghats, Rajmahal Hills, Vindhyas,
Satpuras and Malwa plateau.
• In India it covers about 40 per cent of the total land It is well- developed in southern Maharashtra, and
•
area. parts of Odissa, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh,
• It is very fertile and contributes the largest share of Kerala, Assam and Meghalaya, Tamil Nadu.
agricultural wealth. Such climatic conditions promote leaching of soil.
•
• Found mostly in the Northern Plains, starting from Leaching is a process in which heavy rains wash
Punjab in the west to West Bengal and Assam in away the fertile part of the soil.
the east. The laterite soil is red in colour and composed of
•
• The northern parts and the coastal areas of Gujarat little clay and much gravel of red sandstones.
also have some deposits of alluvial soil. Due to intensive leaching, the laterite soil generally
•
• The fine particles of sand, silt and clay are called lacks fertility and is of low value for crop
alluvium. production.
• The alluvial soil can be divided into
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• But when manured and timely irrigated, the soil is The type of trees depends upon the height of the
suitable for producing plantation crops like tea, mountain: Sal and Bamboo below 1000 m; Oaks,
coffee, rubber, coconut, area nut, etc. Chestnuts and other fruit trees, and Chir forests
between 1000 and 2000 m; Pine, Deodar, Silver
Mountain Soil Fern and spruce between 1600 and 3300 m; above
• The mountain soil is generally found on the hill 3600 m are Alpine forests with trees like Silver Fir,
slopes covered with forests. Pines, Birches, etc. Alpine forests give way to
• This soil is also found in the Western and Eastern Alpine grasslands and shrubs as we move up
Ghats and in some parts of the Peninsular India. further.
• This soil is rich in humus, but poor in potash, • Tidal or Mangrove Forests: Also known as
phosphorus and lime. Littoral or Swamp Forests. Occur along the sea
• In the Himalayan region wheat, maize, barley and coast and in the estuaries of rivers, especially in
temperate fruits are grown on this soil. Sunderbans and the Andamans. Most important
This soil is especially suitable for producing tree of Sunderban mangroove forest is Sundari. It
•
plantation crops, such as tea, coffee, spices and provides hard and durable timber which is used for
tropical fruits in Karnataka, Tamil Nadu & Kerala. construction and building purposes as well as for
making boats.
Desert Soil
Important Points
• The desert soil is found mostly in the arid and semi-
arid regions, receiving less than 50 cm of annual • Madhya Pradesh has the largest area under forests
rainfall. (approximately 77,000 sq km).
• Such regions are mostly found in Rajasthan and the • As per percentage of forest area to total area, first
adjoining areas of Haryana and Punjab. is Andaman and Nicobar Islands, followed by
The Rann of Kutch in Gujarat is an extension of Mizoram.
•
this region. • In Mangrove forests, West Bengal holds the first
The desert soil has sand (90 to 95 per cent) and clay position, followed by Gujarat and Andaman and
•
(5 to 10 per cent). Nicobar Islands.
Desert soil can produce a variety of crops, such as • The lowest forest percentage is in Haryana and
•
millets, barley, maize, pulses, cotton, etc. Punjab, because of the extensive agriculture.

NATURAL VEGETATION IN INDIA Biosphere Reserves in India

• Tropical Wet Evergreen Forests: Areas water In India, the first biosphere reserve – Nilgiri biosphere
over 250 cm rainfall. In Western Ghats, hilly areas reserve – came into being in 1986. So far, 18 biosphere
in North-East India and Andaman and Nicobar reserves have been set up in the country.
Islands. Trees are rosewood, shisham, ebony,
ironwood, etc. NATIONAL PARKS AND WILDLIFE
• Tropical Moist Deciduous Forests: In areas SANCTUARIES
having rainfall between 100 – 200 cm. In There are 104 National Parks and 543 Wildlife
peninsular region and along the foothills of Sanctuaries in India.
Himalayas in Shiwaliks, Bhabhar and Terai. The Madhya Pradesh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands
trees of these forests drop their leaves for about 6- have the maximum number of National Parks (9 each)
8 weeks during the spring and early summer when while Andaman and Nicobar Islands has 96 and
sufficient moisture isn’t available. Maharashtra has 36 Wildlife Sanctuaries (maximum in
• Trees are teak, sal, bamboo, sandalwood, India).
rosewood, etc. Important National Parks and Wildlife
• Thorn Forests: In areas having rainfall between Sanctuaries
25 and 80 cm. In arid regions of Rajasthan, Punjab,
Haryana and Gujarat. Trees are palm, acacia, etc. Name Location
• Hill Forests: In hills of Southern India and the Bandipur National Chamarajanagar,
Himalayas. Park Karnataka
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Jim Corbett National Nainital, Utarakhand Silk In Karnataka, Jammu and Kashmir,
Park Andhra Pradesh. In India all four
Dachigam Sanctuary Dachigam, Kashmir varieties of silk are available:
Ghana Bird Sanctuary Bharatpur, Rajasthan Mulberry, tasar, eri and muga.
Gir National Park Junagadh, Gujarat Mulberry is the main variety, while
Kanha National Park Madhya Pradesh tasar is mainly found in Bihar.
Kaziranga National Golaghat and Nagaon, Sugarcane In UP, Maharashtra, Karnataka
Park Assam Tobacco In gujarat, Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka
Periyar Sanctuary Idukki, Kerala
Ranthambore Tiger Sawai Madhopur, Jhumming
Sanctuary Rajasthan Type of shifting cultivation practiced on the hill slopes
Sariska Sanctuary Alwar, Rajasthan of Assam, Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram and Nagaland.
Sharavati Sanctuary Shimoga, Karnataka In this, the trees are felled and set on fire. The ash of
Similipal Tiger Mayurbhanj, Odisha the burnt trees and the other vegetation adds to the
Sanctuary fertility of soil. This land is used for 2-3 years till the
Sonai Rupai Tezpur, Assam soil gets exhausted and the jhum is abandoned.
Sanctuary • Green Revolution was launched in India in 1967-
Sunderbans National South 24 Parganas, 68 for improving agricultural productivity.
Park West Bengal • Operation Flood was initiated in 1970 and mainly
Tungabhadra Bellary, Karnataka aimed at improving the milk production in India.
Sanctuary • Yellow Revolution for improving oil seed
Wild Ass Sanctuary Little Rann of Kutch, production.
Gujarat • Blue Revolution for fisheries.

Cropping Seasons in India RAILWAYS IN INDIA

• Indian railway system is the largest in Asia and the
• Kharif Crops of India: Sown in summers between
May and July, and harvested after the rains, in fourth largest in the world. It is the biggest
September and October. departmental public undertaking in the country.
The first train ran in India between Bombay and
• E.g.: Rice, Jowar, Bajra, Maize, Cotton, Jute,
Thane, a stretch of 34 km. on April 16th 1853.
Sugarcane, Tobacco, Groundnut, Pulses, etc.
• The second train ran between Howrah and Hooghly
• Rabi Crops of India: Sown at the beginning of
in 1854.
winter and harvested before the onset of the
summer season, between Feb and April. • The headquarters of Indian Railway is in New
Delhi.
• E.g.: Wheat, barley, oilseeds, gram, potatoes, etc.
• The first electric train in India with the
• Zaid Crops: They are raised between March and
July. inauguration of services between Bombay VT and
Kurla Harbour on 3rd Feb 1925 on ex-GIP Railway
• E.g.: Melon, watermelon, cucumber, torus, leafy
system. The section was electrified on 1500 volt
and other vegetables.
DC.
• Cash Crops of India (Commercial Crops):
• Indian Railways has the second biggest electrified
Grown mainly for the market, only a small portion
system in the world after Russia.
of the product is consumed by the farmers
themselves (cotton, sugarcane etc.) • The fastest train in India is the VandeBharat
Express (T-18) whose maximum speed is 180
CASH CROPS
km/hr.
Cotton In Maharashtra, Gujarat, Andhra
• The total route covered is approx 67,312 km.
Pradesh
• The total number of railway stations in India is
Coffee In Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu
8000.
Jute & In Bihar, West bengal, Assam,
• The longest railway platforms is: Gorakpur railway
Mesta Himachal Pradesh
station, Uttar Pradesh, India – 1,366.33 m (4,483
Rubber In Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka ft) (longest in the world).
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297

• Mumbai is the destination where maximum • NW 4: Kakinada to Punducherry (Along Godawari

number of trains in India head for. and Krishna river) – 1095 kms
• The first Metro Rail was introduced in Kolkata
(West Bengal) on October 24, 1984. The two PORTS IN INDIA AND BOUNDARY LINES
stations connected were Dumdum and Belgachia. The Inland Waterways Authority in India divides
• Konkan Railways India: It is a project to shorten Indian ports into three categories – major, minor and
the distance between Maharashtra, Goa and intermediate. India has about 12 major ports, 187
Karnataka. The total route length is 786 km notified minor and intermediate ports.
between Apta (Maharashtra) and Mangalore
(Karnataka). The 12 Major Ports are:
Port State
List of the Major Railways zone in India Chennai Tamil Nadu
Cochin Kerala
Railways zone Zone Headquaters Ennore Tamil Nadu
Jawaharlal Nehru Maharashtra
Central Mumbai (Nhava Sheva)
Eastern Kolkata Kandla Gujarat
East Central Hajipur Manmagoa Goa
Mumbai Maharashtra
East Coast Bhuvneshwar
New Mangalore Karnataka
Northern New Delhi Paradip Odisha
North Central Allahabad State Kolkata (including Haldia) West Bengal
Tuticorin Tamil Nadu
North Eastern Gorakhpur
Vishakhapatnam Andhra Pradesh
North Frontier Guwahati
North Western Jaipur Lines Country
38th Parallel North and South Korea
Southern Chennai
49th Parallel USA and Canada
South Central Secundarabad Durand Line Pakistan and Afghanistan
South Eastern Kolkata Hindenberg Line Poland and Germany (at the time
of First World War)
South East Central Bilaspur MacMohan Line India and China
South Western Hugli Radcliffe Line India and Pakistan
Western Mumbai CST
West Central Jabalpur MINERALS IN INDIA
Iron
West Central Kolkata
• India has huge deposits of iron-ore in Orissa,
Madhya Pradesh, Karnataka and Maharashtra,
WATER TRANSPORT IN INDIA Chhattisgarh.
• The total length of navigable waterways in India • Iron-ore is found in the mines at Singhbhum in
comprising of rivers, canals, backwaters, etc, is Bihar and Mayurbhanj in Orissa.
14,500 km out of which 3700 km is navigable by • Big steel plants are at Jamshedpur, Bhilai, Bokaro,
mechanised boats. Durgapur, Rourkela & Bhadravati.
The government has recognised the following
National Waterways of India: Coal
• NW 1: Allahabad to Haldia – 1620 kms, It is known as ‘black diamond‘. Products like
•
• NW 2: Sadia to Dhubari (on Brahmaputra river) – nylon, chemicals, dyes, drugs and perfumes are
891 kms
obtained from the distillation of coal.
• NW 3: Kollam to Kottapuram – 205 kms
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• Coal is found in West Bengal, Damodar Valley, Diamond

Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Chhattisgarh. • Diamonds are found in the mines at Panna in
• Jharia in Jharkhand and Raniganj in West Bengal Madhya Pradesh and koller in Andhra Pradesh
are the largest coal mines in India.
• Other coal mines are located at Suhagpur (Madhya IMPORTANT FACTS
Pradesh) Dhanbad (Bihar) Neyveli (Tamil Nadu)
and Singareni (Andhra Pradesh). Longest Tributary river Yamuna
of India
Petroleum Largest Lake Wular Lake, Kashmir
• Petroleum is known as ‘black gold’. Petroleum is (Fresh Water)
found at Digboi in Assam, Ankleshwar and Kalol
in Gujarat and Bombay High off the shore of Largest Lake Chilka Lake, Odisha
Bombay. (Saline Water)
Largest Man-Made Govind Ballabh Pant Sagar
Manganese
Lake
• Manganese is used in the manufacture of steel.
• India is one of the largest producers of manganese Highest Lake Devtal Lake, Gadhwal
in the world. (Uttarakhand)
• It is found in Orissa, Karnataka, Madhya Pradesh
and Maharashtra. Highest Peak Karakoran-2 of K-2 (8,611
meters) (India)
Mica Largest State (Area) Rajasthan
• India is the largest producer of mica in the world.
Its huge deposits are found in Gaya, Nellore and Largest State Uttar Pradesh
•
Hazaribagh districts of Bihar. (Population)
• Mica is also found in large quantities in Andhra Highest rainfall Cherrapunji (426 inches per
Pradesh and Rajasthan. annum) Mawsynram
• A large quantity of mica is exported to other
countries. State wise largest area Madhya Pradesh
under forest
Aluminium
Largest Delta Sunderbans Delta
• It is a light but hard metal. The ore from which
aluminium is produced is known as bauxite. Longest River Bridge Bhupen Hazarika Setu
• Huge deposits of bauxite are found in Bihar,
Orissa, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra Pradesh, Biggest Cave temple Ellora (Kailasha)
Karnataka, Tamil Nadu and Maharashtra. Longest Road Grand Trunk Road

Copper Longest Canal Indira Gandhi Canal or

It is a good conductor of electricity. It alloys with Rajasthan Canal
•
zinc to form brass and with tin to form bronze. (Rajasthan)
• It occurs in small quantities in India. It is found at Largest Museum India Museum at Kolkata
Khetri in Rajasthan. (Imperial meuseum)
• Some copper has been found in Andhra Pradesh,
Uttar Pradesh and Tamil Nadu. Longest Dam Hirakud Dam (Orrisa)
Highest Dam Tehri Dam
Gold
(260 meters, 850 ft)
• Gold is produced from the mines at Kolar, Gadag
and Hutti in Karnataka. Largest District Kutch district (Area wise)
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Longest Highway NH-44 (NH-7) which turns Largest Cave Temple Kailash Temple, Ellora
from Varanasi to (Maharastra)
Kanyakumari
Largest Port Mumbai (Jawahar Lal
Smallest Sikkim Nehru)
State (Population) Largest Church Saint Cathedral (Goa)
Smallest State (Area) Goa Longest Beach Marina Beach, Chennai
Largest State (Area) Rajasthan Highest Airport Leh (Ladakh)
Largest State Uttar Pradesh
(Population)
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Geography
Practice Exercise
1. The countries that are members of the (B) Black Sea and Mediterranean Sea
European Union, but not members of the euro (C) Gulf of Suez and Mediterranean Sea
zone are. (D) Gulf of Aqaba and Dead Sea
(A) Luxembourg, Netherlands and Albania
(B) Armenia, Belarus and Portugal Ans.4(B) Turkey is situated in Western Asia
(C) Czech Republic, Malta and Finland (Anatolian and Armenian highlands) and the
(D) Romania, Sweden and Bulgaria Balkans, between Mediterranean Sea and the
Black Sea.
Ans.1(D) Nine countries (Bulgaria, Croatia,
Czech Republic, Denmark, Hungary, Poland, 5. Where India is located of the following?
Romania, Sweden, and the United Kingdom) (A) Southwest Asia (B) South Asia
are EU members but do not use the euro. (C) Southeast Asia (D) Central Asia
Before joining the eurozone, a state must
spend two years in the European Exchange Ans.5(C) India is situatied in South- East Asia
Rate Mechanism (ERM II). and is bordered by Afghanistan and Pakistan
to the north-west; China, Bhutan and Nepal to
2. The map originated from word ‘Mappa’, the north; Myanmar to the east; and
which language is it? Bangladesh to the east of West Bengal.
(A) German (B) English
(C) Latin (D) Hindi 6. Equator represents___________ .
(A) Imaginary line passing round the Earth
Ans.2(C) The word "map" comes from the midway between North and South poles.
medieval Latin Mappa mundi, wherein mappa (B) Line joining North and South poles
meant napkin or cloth and mundi the world. (C) A belt (ring) around the planet Saturn
Thus, "map" became the shortened term (D) Axis of rotation of Earth
referring to a two-dimensional representation
of the surface of the world. Ans.6(A) An equator is an imaginary line
around the middle of a planet or other celestial
3. Which one of the following countries of body. It is halfway between the North Pole
South-West Asia has not spread to the and the South Pole, at 0 degrees latitude. An
Mediterranean Sea? equator divides the planet into a Northern
(A) Syria (B) Jordan Hemisphere and a Southern Hemisphere. The
(C) Lebanon (D) Israel Earth is widest at its Equator.

Ans.3(B) The countries surrounding the 7. From the point of view of river and canal
Mediterranean in clockwise order are Spain, length, who is the first place in all the states of
France, Monaco, Italy, Slovenia, Croatia, India?
Bosnia and Herzegovina, Montenegro, (A) Madhya Pradesh (B) Uttar Pradesh
Albania, Greece, Turkey, Syria, Lebanon, (C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Kerala
Israel, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, and
Morocco; Malta and Cyprus are island Ans.7(C) Andhra Pradesh ranks first among
countries in the sea. all states of India from the point of view of
length of rivers and canals
4. Turkey is located in which of the following?
(A) Black Sea and Caspian Sea
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301

8. Which state is the first place in storage of salt Ans.12(C) The Adriatic Sea seperates the
water in the states of India? continents of Europe and Africa. Tyrrhenian
(A) Odisha (B) Gujarat Sea is found between Italy and Sardinia and
(C) Kerala (D) West Bengal Aegean Sea lies between Greece and Turkey.

Ans.8(A) The brackish water lagoon in Odisha 13. Hussain Sagar Lake is located?
state is the largest coastal lagoon in India and (A) Bangalore (B) Hyderabad
Asia's biggest salt water lake. Chilika Lake is (C) Bhubaneswar (D) Murshidabad
home to a number of migratory birds coming
to India and first Indian wetland of Ans.13(B) Hussain Sagar is a heart-shaped
international importance. lake in Hyderabad, Telangana, built by
Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah in 1563. It is spread
9. Which of the following draining system is not across an area of 5.7 square kilometers and is
of Indus system? fed by the River Musi. A large monolithic
(A) Sutlej (B) Rapti statue of the Gautama Buddha, erected in
(C) Chenab (D) Jhelum 1992, stands on Gibraltar Rock in the middle
of the lake.
Ans.9(B) Indus river left bank tributary is the
Panjnad which itself has five major tributaries, 14. Which of the following wind given is cold?
namely, the Chenab, Jhelum, the Ravi, the (A) Mistral (B) Sirocco
Beas, and the Sutlej. Its principal right bank (C) Chinook (D) Loo
tributaries are the Shyok, the Gilgit, the Kabul,
the Gomal, and the Kurram. Ans.14(A) The mistral takes place each time
there is an anticyclone, or area of high
10. Indian standard time line passes through pressure, in the Bay of Biscay, and an area of
which of the following city? low pressure around the Gulf of Genoa. When
(A) Ahmadabad (B) Bhopal this happens, the flow of air between the high
(C) Allahabad (D) Kolkata and low pressure areas draws in a current of
cold air from the north which accelerates
Ans.10(C) Indian Standard Time is calculated through the lower elevations between the
on the basis of 82.5 longitude in the city of foothills of the Alps and the Cevennes
Mirzapur (Allahabad), Uttar Pradesh
15. Which of the following country does not pass
11. The method of soil conservation in the coastal from the Tropic of Capricorn?
and dry regions where rows of trees are (A) Chile (B) Poland
planted to check the wind movement to (C) Namibia (D) South Africa
protect soil cover is called?
(A) Mulching (B) Contour barriers Ans.15(B) The Tropic of Capricorn passes
(C) Rock Dam (D) Shelterbelts through a number of countries including
Argentina, Australia, Botswana, Brazil, Chile,
Ans.11(D) Shelter belts are arrangement of Madagascar, Mozambique, Namibia, and
trees in coastal, dry region to prevent soil Paraguay.
erosion. The roots of trees bind the soil and If you consider its starting place to be the
prevent the removal of top layer of soil from Prime Meridian, it first makes landfall on the
action of water or wind. coast of Namibia.

12. The sea that separates Greece and Italy is 16. Which of the following country passes from
(A) Labrador Sea (B) The Balearic the Tropic of Capricorn?
(C) The Adriatic (D) The Aegean (A) India (B) China
(C) Australia (D) England
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Ans.16(C) The Tropic of Capricorn runs Karnataka. They are also found in hills of
through 10 countries: Namibia, Botswana, Jaintia and Khasi. Some of the trees found in
South Africa, Mozambique, Madagascar, Indian Tropical Forests are rosewood,
Australia, Chile, Argentina, Paraguay, and mahagony and ebony.
Brazil.
21. The final boundary between the Earth and the
17. Canterbury grasslands are found in which of outer space is called _____.
the following countries? (A) Magnetosphere (B) Ionosphere
(A) New Zealand (B) Argentina (C) Mesopause (D) Magnetopause
(C) U.S.A. (D) South Africa
Ans.21(D) Magnetopause is a boundary line
Ans.17(A) Canterbury - Otago tussock between Earth's magnetic field and solar wind.
grasslands. The Canterbury-Otago tussock Solar winds forms the part of outer space
grasslands are an ecoregion of South Island, whereas Earth's atmosphere exists up to
New Zealand. magnetic field of Earth.

18. Amazon River flows through which of the 22. In which city is the Forest Research Institute
following country? of India located?
(A) USA (B) Chile (A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata
(C) Brazil (D) Argentina (C) Dehradun (D) Shimla

Ans.18(C) The Amazon and its tributaries Ans.22(C) The Forest Research Institute
flow through the countries of Peru, Bolivia, (FRI) is an institute of the Indian Council of
Venezuela, Colombia, Ecuador, and Brazil Forestry Research and Education and is a
before emptying into the Atlantic Ocean 6, premier institution in the field of forestry
437 kilometers (4,000 miles) from the research in India. It is located at Dehradun in
Amazon's headwaters high in the Andes Uttarakhand, and is among the oldest
mountains of Peru. institutions of its kind.

19. Which is the correct sequence of Godavari, 23. Which one among the following cities never
Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapti in descending get the vertical rays of the Sun all through the
order of length of rivers? year?
(A) Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada, Tapti (A) Chennai (B) Mumbai
(B) Godavari, Narmada Mahanadi, Tapti (C) Shimla (D) Srinagar
(C) Narmada, Godavari, Tapti, Mahanadi
(D) Narmada, Tapti, Godavari, Mahanadi Ans.23(D) Since Srinagar lies to the north of
the Tropic of Cancer, it never gets the vertical
Ans.19(B) The correct sequence of the river in rays of the sun.
descending order of their lengths are Godavari
(1465 km), Narmada (1312 km), Mahanadi 24. Which Indian state has the largest share of the
(858 km) and Tapti (724 km). Wastelands in India?
(A) Rajasthan (B) Bihar
20. Which of the following region is covered by (C) Karnataka (D) Uttar Pradesh
tropical evergreen forest?
(A) Eastern Ghat (B) Vindhyanchal Ans.24(A) Rajasthan has the largest share of
(C) Aravalli (D) Western Ghat the Wastelands in India with 25% of its
geographical area being wasteland, accounting
Ans.20(D) Western Ghat is covered by for 18% of the wasteland nationally.
tropical evergreen forest. In India, evergreen
forests are found in the western slopes of the 25. Which is the highest peak in Andaman and
Western Ghats in States such as Kerala and Nicobar is lands?
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(A) Mount Koya (B) Mount Diavolo (C) Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Andhra
(C) Saddle Peak (D) Mount Thuiller Pradesh, Uttar Pradesh
(D) Himanchal Pradesh, Bihar, Kerala,
Ans.25(C) Saddle Peak or Saddle Hill is Rajasthan
located on North Andaman Island in India's
Andaman and Nicobar Islands. At 731 m, it is Ans.29(B) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Madhya
the highest point of the archipelago in the Bay Pradesh
of Bengal. It is surrounded by Saddle Peak
National Park. 30. The mahatma Gandhi National Marine Park is
located in.
26. Jallikattu practiced in Tamil Nadu is a part of (A) Pirotan Island (B) Rameswaram
which festival? (C) Ganga Sagar Island (D) Wandoor
(A) Onam (B) Pongal
(C) Natuanjali (D) Hampi Ans.30(D) Mahatma Gandhi Marine National
Park is a national park of India near Wandoor
Ans.26(B) Jallikattu is typically practised in on the Andaman Islands. It belongs to the
the Indian state of Tamil Nadu as a part of South Andaman administrative district, part of
Pongal celebrations on Mattu Pongal day, the Indian union territory of Andaman and
which occurs annually in January. Nicobar Islands.

27. Which of the following neighbouring country 31. Tropic of Cancer does not pass through which
of India is not a landlocked country? region:
(A) Nepal (B) Myanmar (A) Indore (B) Ujjain
(C) Bhutan (D) Afghanistan (C) Jabalpur (D) Bhopal

Ans.27(B) The India–Myanmar barrier that Ans.31(A) The Tropic of Cancer, also known
India is constructing to seal its 1624- as Kark (Cancer) Rekha (=Line) passes
kilometre-long border with Myanmar. Four through 14 districts of Madhya prades namely
Northeast Indian states share the border with Ratlam, Ujjain, Shajapur, Rajgarh, Sehore,
Myanmar: Arunachal Pradesh, Nagaland, Bhopal, Vidisha, Raisen, Sagar, Damoh,
Mizoram, and Manipur. It is not a landlocked Katni, Jabalpur, Umariya and Shahdol.
country in India.
32. Which of the following imaginary lines join
28. Veliconda hills, which is a part of Eastern places with same level of rainfalls?
Ghats, is situated in (A) Contour lines (B) Isobaths lines
(A) Goa (B) Kerala (C) sohyets lines (D) Isobar lines
(C) Maharashtra (D) Andhra Pradesh
Ans.32(C) An isohyet or isohyetal line is a
Ans.28(D) The Velikonda Range or line joining points of equal rainfall on a map
Velikonda Hills is a low mountain range, that in a given period. A map with isohyets is
form part of the Eastern Ghats mountain range called an isohyetal map.
system, in eastern India. The Velikonda Range
is located in the south-eastern part of Andhra 33. How many Indian states share their
Pradesh state. boundaries with Nepal?
(A) 3 (B) 4
29. Arrange the following states from north to (C) 5 (D) 6
south?
(A) Srinagar, Kerala, Madhya Pradesh, Ans.33(C) The five Indian states that share a
Maharashtra land border with Nepal are Uttarakhand, Uttar
(B) Punjab, Haryana, Delhi, Madhya Pradesh Pradesh, Bihar, West Bengal, and Sikkim.
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34. Which of the following has maximum bio- (D) Amnesty International
diversity?
(A) Desert (B) River Ans.38(C) The Institute for Economics and
(C) Polar Region (D) Tropical Region Peace has released the 2019 Global Peace
Index (GPI), which ranks the level of
Ans.34(D) Biodiversity is not distributed peacefulness for over 160 independent states
evenly on Earth, and is richest in the tropics. and territories around the world.
These tropical forest ecosystems cover less
than 10 percent of earth's surface, and contain 39. Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose International
about 90 percent of the world's species. Airport located at?
(A) New Delhi (B) Kolkata
35. Which mountain range separates France from (C) Chennai (D) Mumbai
Spain?
(A) Rocky Mountain (B) Andes Mountain Ans.39(B) Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose
(C) Pyrenees Mountain (D) alps Mountains International Airport is an international airport
located in Dum Dum, West Bengal, India,
Ans.35(C) The Pyrenees fall in the countries serving the Kolkata metropolitan area.
of France and Spain and create a natural
border between the two. The mountain range 40. Which states in India are the largest producers
is separated into three sections; the western, of sugarcane?
eastern and central Pyrenees. (A) Bihar and Uttar Pradesh
(B)Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan
36. Which one of the following pairs is not (C) Andhra Pradesh and Jammu and Kashmir
correctly matched? (D) Punjab and Himanchal Pradesh
(A) Berlin: Avon (B) Ankara: Kizil
(C) Amsterdam: Amstel Ans.40(A) As per 2015-16 estimates, Uttar
(D) Adelaide: Torrens Pradesh is the largest producer of sugarcane as
it produces an estimated 145.39 million tonnes
Ans.36(B) The Kizil Caves are a set of of sugarcane, which is 41.28% of the all-India
Buddhist rock-cut caves located near Kizil production.
Township in Baicheng County, Xinjiang,
China. 41. Bhakra Nangal Project is a joint venture of the
Panjab, Haryana and
37. From which state Krishna River originated? (A) Uttar Pradesh
(A) UP (B) Himachal Pradesh
(B) Madhya Pradesh (C) Rajasthan
(C) Kerala (D) Uttarakhand
(D) Maharashtra
Ans.41(C) Bhakra nangal is a joint venture of
Ans.37(D) The river's source is at the Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan states
Mahabaleshwar near Jor village in the extreme designed to harness the precious water of the
north of Wai Taluka, Satara District, Satluj for the benefit of the concerned states.
Maharashtra.
42. The Sirhind Project is situated on which river?
38. The average level of global peacefulness has (A) River Krishna (B) River Ganga
declined for the fourth consecutive year in (C) River satluj (D) River Ghagra
2018. Which of the following institute
releases the Global Peace Index? Ans.42(C) The Sirhind Canal is a large
(A) International Peace Institute irrigation canal that carries water from the
(B) Legacy International Sutlej River in Punjab state, India.
(C) Institute for Economics and Peace
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43. What are The Lakshadweep and Andaman 47. Which of the following rivers does not flow
and Nicobar Islands classified as in India? into the Arabian Sea?
(A) Desert (B) State (A) Tungabhadra (B) Sabarmati
(C) Union territories (D) All of the above (C) Mandovi (D) Narmada

Ans.43(C) The Lakshadweep and Andaman Ans.47(A) Tungabhadra river does not flow
and Nicobar islands are two major into the Arabian Sea
archipelagos of India. They are classified as
Union Territories (UTs). The Lakshadweep 48. Most of the fresh water on Earth's planet
islands lie in the Arabian Sea off the Kerala exists in the form of ice, caps and glacier. Out
Coast and have a total area of 32 km making of the remaining freshwater the largest
them the smallest UT in India. proportion-
(A) is found in the atmosphere as moisture
44. Which environmental phenomenon is causing and clouds
the meltdown of Tibetan plateau that may (B) is found in freshwater lakes and rivers
affect the Indus River in the future? (C) exists as ground water
(A) Climate Change (B) Drought (D) exist as soil moisture
(C) Ozone depletion
(D) Greenhouse gas effect Ans.48(C) Nearly 69 percent is held in
glaciers and ice caps. Another 30 percent is
Ans.44(A) Climate change will have severe groundwater that is held in underground soil
impacts on the Asian monsoon and the and rock crevices, while the remaining one
Himalayan glaciers. Increased glacial melting percent is surface water and other sources. Of
in the Himalayas, accompanied by that water considered to be surface water, 87
increasingly unpredictable rainfall patterns, percent exists in lakes, 11 percent in swamps,
will have dire consequences, not only for food and 2 percent in rivers.
and water security, but also for the future of
energy supplies in the Tibetan Plateau region. 49. Name the state of India, where the
Brahmaputra River enters first?
45. To which of the following State the folk- (A) Sikkim
dance ‘Yakshagaan’ is related? (B) Arunachal Pradesh
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Karnataka (C) Assam
(C) Kerala (D) Tamilnadu (D) Manipur

Ans.45(B) Yakshagana is related to other Ans.49(B) The Yarlung Tsangpo

performance art forms prevalent in other parts (Brahmaputra) enters the state of Arunachal
of Karnataka and the neighbouring states of Pradesh in India, where it is called Siang. It
Andhra Pradesh, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and makes a very rapid descent from its original
Maharashtra. height in Tibet and finally appears in the
plains, where it is called Dihang.
46. On which of the following rivers the Nizam
sagar project is located in Telangana? 50. _____ is the breaking up of the rocks on the
(A) Godavari (B) Krishna earth's surface.
(C) Tungabhadra (D) Manjira (A) Erosion (B) Weathering
(C) Attrition (D) Abrasion
Ans.46(D) Nizam Sagar Dam is an Indian
dam named after the Nizamof Hyderabad. It is Ans.50(B) Weathering is the breaking down
a reservoir constructed across the Manjira or dissolving of rocks and minerals on Earths
River, a tributary of the Godavari River, surface. Once a rock has been broken down, a
between Achampet and BanjePally villages of process called erosion transports the bits of
the Kamareddy district in Telangana, India. rock and minerals away.
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51. Three shapes of galaxies are __ 55. The mass of a star is two times the mass of the
(A) Spiral, regular and irregular Sun. How it will come to an end?
(B) Spiral, elliptical and regular (A)Neutron Star (B)Black hole
(C) Spiral, elliptical and irregular (C)White Dwarf (D)Red Giant
(D) Elliptical, regular and irregular
Ans.55(A) It has a rapidly spinning neutron
Ans.51(C) Most galaxies are spiral (milky star. If the star's remaining mass is between 1
way), elliptical, lenticular and irregular shape. (1/2) to 3 times the mass of the Sun, it will
The first shape to be known was spiral collapse into a small, dense neutron star.
because milky way is a spiral galaxy. Spiral
galaxies look like pinwheel. Elliptical galaxies 56. What is the minimum escape velocity of
are generally smooth and oval. rocket to be launched into space?
(A) 5.3 Km/Sec. (B) 6.2 Km/Sec.
52. If untreated waste water will be directly spill (C) 11.2 Km/Sec. (D) 15.2 Km/Sec.
in to rivers, sea and lakes it may ___
(A) Contaminate (B) Polluted Ans.56(C) It follows from the laws of orbital
(C) Spread diseases (D) All of the above mechanics that the escape velocity (11.2 km/s)
is equal to the orbital speed (7.9 km/s)
Ans.52(D) It can be contamination, polluted, multiplied by 1.414.
infection if untreated wastewater will spread
directly to rivers, seas and lakes. 57. Name the largest gold producing country in
the world-
53. Which of the following is not a Kharif crop? (A) South Africa (B) China
(A) Rice (B) Wheat (C) United States of America
(C) Sugarcane (D) Cotton (D) Australia

Ans.53(B) The kharif crops include rice, Ans.57(B) China produces 440 metric tons of
maize, pearl millet/bajra, finger millet/ragi gold each year which is only 14% of the
(cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, groundnut worlds 3150 tonnes of gold produced each
(oilseeds), cotton etc. The rabi crops include year. The USA is the number 4 producers with
gram, wheat, mustard (oilseeds), barley. 245 metric tons.

54. The presence of ozone in the stratosphere is 58. Based on Census 2011, which of the
responsible for ____. following states or union territories of India
(A) Increasing the average global temperature has the lowest population?
in recent years (A) Chandigarh (B) Sikkim
(B) Higher rate of photosynthesis (C) Lakshadweep
(C) Checking the penetration of ultraviolet (D) Arunachal Pradesh
rays to the earth
(D) Supplying oxygen for people travelling in Ans.58(C) Lakshadweep is the least populates
jets union territory in India. It has population of
just 64,473 which accounts the 0.01% of the
Ans.54(C) Stratospheric ozone is considered total Indian population.
good for hum ans. and other life forms
because it absorbs ultraviolet- B (UV-B) 59. According to 2011 Census, approximately
radiation from the Sun. If not absorbed, UV-B what percent of total urban population of
radiation would reach Earth's surface in India resides in Uttar Pradesh?
amounts that are harmful to a variety of life (A) 4.5 (B) 11.8
forms. (C) 16.9 (D) 21.5
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307

Ans.59(B) There has been a net addition of 64. Identify the correct decreasing order of river
about 1.09 crore persons in the urban areas basins area in India.
between 2001-2011. Thus, about 16.50% of (A) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Indus, Godavari
the total population and 11.80% of the urban (B) Ganga, Indus, Brahmaputra, Krishna
population of India reside in Uttar Pradesh. (C) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Godavari, Indus
(D) Ganga, Indus, Godavari, Krishna
60. Which drainage basins are connected to Indus
Waters Treaty? Ans.64(C) Ganga, Brahmaputra, Godavari,
(A) Fazilka, Hudiara, Kasur, Seleimanske Indus.
(B) Fazilka, Hudiara, Kasur, Salimshah
(C) Fazilka, Harike, Kasur, Salimshah 65. The greatest potential for the generation of
(D) Fazilka, Hudiara, Kasur, Sutlez tidal power in India is available in the
(A) Malabar Coast (B) Konkan Coast
Ans.60(B) Fazilka, Hudiara, Kasur, Salimshah (C) Gujarat Coast
drainage basins are connected to Indus Waters (D) Coromandel Coast
Treaty.
Ans.65(C) According to the estimates of the
61. Which of the following group of states does Indian government, the country has a potential
Malwa Plateau spread across? of 8,000 MW of tidal energy. This includes
(A) Jammu and Kashmir, Himachal Pradesh about 7,000 MW in the Gulf of Cambay in
and Punjab Gujarat, 1,200 MW in the Gulf of Kutch and
(B) Gujarat, Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh 100 MW in the Gangetic deltas in the Sunderb
(C) Sikkim, Bihar and West Bengal ans. region of West Bengal.
(D) Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu
66. The monsoon responsible for rains in
Ans.61(B) The Malwa Plateau is spread across Jharkhand is.
Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat. The (A) North-east monsoon
average elevation of the Malwa plateau is 500 (B) South-west monsoon
metres. Most of the region is drained by the (C) Northwester
Chambal River and its tributaries; the western (D) None of the above
part is drained by the upper reaches of the
Mahi River. Ans.66(B) Southwest Monsoon season the
period June to September is referred to as the
62. What is the capital of Manipur? 'Southwest Monsoon' period. Southwest
(A) Agartala (B) Imphal Monsoon period is the principal rainy season
(C) Shillong (D) Aizwal for the Indian subcontinent. This is the
summer monsoon period where the southwest
Ans.62(B) Imphal is the most beautiful capital monsoon holds away over the country.
city in Manipur.
67. Which of the following is not part of
63. Which country is famous for maple syrup Chotanagpur plateau?
(A) USA 1. Hazaribagh Plateau 2. Parasnath Hills
(B) Canada 3. Ranchi Plateau 4. Rajmahal hills
(C) China Select the correct answer using the codes
(D) Japan given below:
(A) None (B) 1 and 3 only
Ans.63(B) Today, after rapid growth in the (C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only
1990s, Canada produces more than 80 percent
of the world's maple syrup, Ans.67(B) Chota Nagpur is the collective
name for the Ranchi, Hazaribagh, and
Kodarma plateaus, which collectively have an
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308

area of 25,293 square miles (65,509 square 72. Omkareshwar Dam is situated on which river?
km). Its largest division is the Ranchi Plateau, (A) Narmada (B) Betwa
which has an average elevation of about 2,300 (C) Chambal (D) Tungabhadra
feet (700 metres).
Ans.72(A) The Omkareshwar Dam is a
68. According to the 2011 census, which of the gravity dam on the Narmada River just
following states has the highest proportion of upstream of Mandhata in Khandwa district,
urban population? Madhya Pradesh, India. It is named after the
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala Omkareshwar temple located just downstream.
(C) Maharashtra (D) Goa
73. The continent which is spread in both the
Ans.68(A) Tamil Nadu tops the list of hemispheres (northern hemisphere and the
urbanised states with 48.45% of its population southern hemisphere) of the Earth-
living in urban areas, followed by Kerala, (A) Asia (B) South America
Maharashtra and Gujarat. In the last 20 years, (C) Africa (D) North America
the rate of urbanization in Tamil Nadu has
been rapid. Ans.73(C) While the hemispheres separate the
majority of the continents, Africa lies in all
69. Which of the following groups is the largest four hemispheres of the earth, which are the
linguistic group in India? Northern, Southern, Eastern, and Western
(A) Chinese-Tibetan (B) Astric Hemisphere. Therefore, Africa can be
(C) Indo-Arya (D) Dravid described as the only continent that has its
land crossed by both the Prime Meridian and
Ans.69(C) According to the Linguistic Survey the Equator.
of India, the Indo-European (Aryan) group is
the largest linguistic group of India which 74. Which of the following grasslands are found
accounts 73% of the total. in Africa?
(A) Pampas (B) Veld
70. Which of the following is the highest of the (C) Savanna (D) Lanos
following states of India in the Human
Development Index? Ans.74(C) Grasslands go by many names. In
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Kerala the U.S. Midwest, they're often called prairies.
(C) Punjab (D) Haryana In South America, they're known as pampas.
Central Eurasian grasslands are referred to as
Ans.70(B) India has a HDI value (using steppes, while African grasslands are
international goalposts) of 0.504 (. The HDI is savannas.
the highest for Kerala (0.625) followed by
Punjab (0.569) and the lowest for Orissa 75. The world's most shallow ocean?
(0.442), Bihar (0.447) and Chhattisgarh (A) Arctic Ocean (B) Indian Ocean
(0.449). (C) Pacific Ocean (D) Atlantic Ocean

71. Koteshwar Dam is situated on which river? Ans.75(A) The most shallow ocean is the
(A) Yamuna (B) Bhagirathi Arctic Ocean. The landscape of the Arctic
(C) Krishna (D) Godavari Ocean. Of the five major oceans. of the world,
the Arctic Ocean ranks as the smallest and
Ans.71(B) The Koteshwar Dam is a gravity shallowest.
dam on the Bhagirathi River, located 22 km
(14 mi) downstream of the Tehri Dam in Tehri 76. Which three continents of the world are called
District, Uttarakhand, India. new worlds?
(A) Australia (B) South America
(C) Europe (D) North America
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309

Ans.76(D) North America was named after carried to the Moon by China's recent
the explorer Americo Vespucci and is also Chang'e-4 probe has sprouted, the first for any
known as the "New World". biological matter to grow on the Moon.

77. Which of the following ocean is triangular in 82. Where is the International Rice Research
shape? Institute located?
(A) Indian Ocean (B) Pacific Ocean (A) Brazil (B) India
(C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Arctic Ocean (C) Philippines (D) Kenya
Ans.77(B) Pacific Ocean shape is roughly Ans.82(C) The International Rice Research
triangular with its apex in the north at the Institute (IRRI) is an international agricultural
Bering Strait. Many marginal seas and gulfs research and training organization with
occur along its boundaries. headquarters in Los Banos, Laguna in the
Philippines.
78. The world's busiest ocean is which of the
following? 83. Which of the following regions receives
(A) Pacific Ocean (B) Atlantic Ocean rainfall throughout the year?
(C) Indian Ocean (D) Arctic Ocean (A) Tundra (B) Monsoon
Ans.78(B) The Atlantic Ocean is the second (C) Mediterranean (D) Equatorial
largest ocean basin only behind the Pacific
Ocean. Its bounded by North and South Ans.83(D) The ITCZ (The Inter Tropical
Americas in the west and Africa and Europe in Convergence Zone) changes its position
the east. It also boasts of being the busiest during the year but for most part of the year it
ocean in the world. remains near the equator, hence heavy rainfall
is experienced through the year.
79. Which of the following is not a Rabi crop?
(A) Mustard (B) Gram 84. How long does the sun's light reach the earth?
(C) Wheat (D) Peanut (A) 8 seconds (B) 8 minutes
(C) 9 minutes (D) 80 seconds
Ans.79(D) The Rabi crops include wheat,
barley, oats (cereals), chickpea/gram (pulses), Ans.84(B) Sunlight travels at the speed of
linseed, mustard (oilseeds) etc. Peanut is light. Photons emitted from the surface of the
kharif crop. Sun need to travel across the vacuum of space
to reach our eyes. The short answer is that
80. Which of the following is not a kharif crop? sunlight takes an average of 8 minutes and 20
(A) Grain (B) Barley seconds to travel from the Sun to the Earth.
(C) Maize (D) Cotton
85. Which asteroids are found between the orbits
Ans.80(B) The kharif crops include rice, of the planets?
maize, sorghum, pearl millet/bajra, finger (A) Earth, Mars (B) Uranus, Neptune
millet/ragi (cereals), arhar (pulses), soyabean, (C) Mercury, Venus (D) Mars, Jupiter
groundnut (oilseeds), cotton etc. Barley is a
rabi crops. Ans.85(D) Scattered in orbits around the sun
are bits and pieces of rock left over from the
81. Which country has first cultivated cotton dawn of the solar system. Most of these
seeds on the moon? objects, called planetoids or asteroids —
(A) USA (B) Germany meaning "star-like" — orbit between Mars and
(C) China (D) India Jupiter in a grouping known as the Main
Asteroid Belt.
Ans.81(C) China sent several seeds to Moon
in its spacecraft Chang'e-4, and cotton was the
only seed to germinate so far. A cotton seed
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310

86. Who is the head of the solar system? April, Kongali or Kati Bihu observed in
(A) Earth (B) Saturn October, and Bhogali or Magh Bihu observed
(C) Moon (D) The sun in January.

Ans.86(D) The sun is the head of the solar 91. Baghdad is the capital of which country?
system as it provides the light and the energy (A) Thailand (B) Mongolia
to all the planets. (C) Iraq (D) Somalia

87. What is the latitude of the tropic of cancer Ans.91(C) Baghdad (Arabic: “City of Peace”)
line? city, capital of Iraq and capital of Baghdad
(A) 00 latitude governorate.
(B) 23 1/20 South latitude
(C) 23 1/20 northern latitude 92. Which one of the following gases in our
(D) 66 1/20 Northern latitude atmosphere absorbs the harmful UV rays of
the Sun?
Ans.87(C) The Tropic of Cancer is the circle (A) Methane (B) Ozone
marking the latitude 23.5 degrees north, where (C) Helium (D) Neon
the sun is directly overhead at noon on June
21, the beginning of summer in the northern Ans.92(B) The ozone layer or ozone shield is
hemisphere. a region of Earth's stratosphere that absorbs
most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation.
88. What is the shape of the earth? stratosphere contains high concentration of
(A) Oval (B) Sphere ozone (O3) in relation to other parts of the
(C) Geoids (D) None of these atmosphere.

Ans.88(B) The overall shape of Earth is called 93. Which of the following animal sanctuaries is
the geoid. Its shape is created by the effects of home of Asiatic Lions?
an invisible force called gravity. Sphere (A) Kaziranga (B) Corbett
Gravity would pull Earth into the shape of a (C) Gir (D) Bharatpur
sphere, but because Earth rotates on its axis.
Ans.93(C) Asiatic lions were once distributed
89. “Incredible India” is the tagline of which upto the state of West Bengal in east and
organization? Rewa in Madhya Pradesh, in central India. At
(A) Indian Railways present Gir National Park and Wildlife
(B) Swachh Bharat Abhiyan Sanctuary is the only abode of the Asiatic lion.
(C) Indian Tourism
(D) Air India 94. Kaziranga National Park is famous for which
of these animal species?
Ans.89(C) In 1972, Sunil Dutt launched a (A) Asiatic Lion (B) Rhinoceros
campaign to promote India as a popular tourist (C) Panda (D) Hippopotamus
destination. The phrase "Incredible India" was
adopted as a slogan by the Tourism ministry. Ans.94(B) The park covers a vast
geographical area of 859 sq km. Kaziranga
90. The festival of ‘Bihu’ is traditionally National Park is famous for its profound
celebrated in which state? wildlife including one horn rhinoceros, tiger,
(A) Bihar (B) Panjab swamp deer, water buffalo, elephant and a
(C) Keral (D) None of these large number of bird species.

Ans.90(D) Bihu is a set of three important 95. Perihelion which is the earth’s position closest
non-religious festivals in the Indian state of to the sun takes place on________.
Assam—Rongali or Bohag Bihu observed in (A) 3 January (B) 21 December
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311

(C) 4 July (D) 23 May (C) Playwright (D) Archaeologist

Ans.95(A) At its closest point, Earth swings to Ans.100(A) Aryabhata I was the first of the
within 91,398,199 miles (147,091,144 km) of major mathematician-astronomers from the
the sun. Earth is at perihelion, closest to the classical age of Indian mathematics and Indian
Sun around January 4, and at aphelion, farthest astronomy.
from the Sun, around July 4.
101. Tehri Dam is situated at which river, and in
96. Which of the following cities is not situated which state?
on the river bank? (A) Ganga, Uttar Pradesh
(A) Agra (B) Patna (B) Bhagirathi, Uttarakhand
(C) Bhopal (D) Kolkata (C) Krishna, Maharashtra
(D) Jhelum, Jammu and Kashmir
Ans.96(C) Agra - Yamuna River
Patna - Ganga River Ans.101(B) The Tehri Dam is the highest dam
Kolkata - Hugli River in India and one of the highest in the world. It
is a multi-purpose rock and earth-fill
97. The planet is closest to the Sun- embankment dam on the Bhagirathi River near
(A) Earth (B) Mars Tehri in Uttarakhand, India.
(C) Mercury (D) Venus
102. Bhakra Nangal Dam is situated at which river,
Ans.97(C) Mercury is the closest planet to the and in which state?
Sun. And then Venus is the second closest (A) Sutlej, Himachal Pradesh
planet to the Sun, and Earth is the third closest (B) Ramganga, Uttarakhand
planet to the Sun. (C) Yamuna, Uttar Pradesh
(D) Kaveri, Andhra Pradesh
98. What is the international date line-
(A) 180-degree longitude line Ans.102(A) Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity
(B) 0 degrees longitude line dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal
(C) The part of 0 degrees to 180 degrees east Pradesh in northern India. The dam forms the
longitude Gobind Sagar reservoir.
(D) The part of 0 degrees to 180 degrees west
longitude 103. Sardar sarovar dam is situated at which river,
and in which state?
Ans.98(B) The International Date Line is (A) Chambal, Rajasthan
located halfway around the world from the (B) Shipra, Maharashtra
prime meridian (0° longitude) or about 180° (C) Gomti, Uttar Pradesh
east (or west) of Greenwich, London, UK, the (D) Narmada, Gujarat
reference point of time zones.
Ans.103(D) The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a
99. Which planet is called blue planet - gravity dam on the Narmada river near
(A) Sun (B) Earth Navagam, Gujarat in India. Four Indian states,
(C) Moon (D) Venus Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharastra and
Rajasthan, receive water and electricity
Ans.99(B) Earth has been called the "Blue supplied from the dam.
Planet" due to the abundant water on its
surface. However, liquid water is a rare 104. Hirakud dam is situated at which river, and in
commodity in our solar system. which state?
(A) Mahanadi, Orissa
100. Aryabhata was- (B) Beas, Jammu and Kashmir
(A) Astronomer (B) historian (C) Godavari, Maharashtra
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312

(D) Periyar, Kerala Ans.108(A) The oldest identifiable peneplain

in a region is known as a primary peneplain
Ans.104(A) Hirakud Dam is built across the An example of a peneplain is the Sub-
Mahanadi River, about 15 kilometres (9.3 mi) Cambrian peneplain in Central Russia, Paris
from Sambalpur in the state of Odisha in Basin
India.
109. The oldest oil field in India is
105. Nagarjuna sagar dam is situated at which (A) Bombay High, Maharashtra
river, and in which state? (B) Ankleshwar, Gujarat
(A) Beas, Jammu and Kashmir (C) Navagam, Gujarat
(B) Godavari, Maharashtra (D) Digboi, Assam
(C) Krishna, Telangana
(D) Kaveri, Tamilnadu Ans.109(D) Today, though the crude
production is not high, Digboi has the
Ans.105(C) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a distinction of being India's oldest continuously
masonry dam across the Krishna river at producing oilfield.
Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border
between Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh and 110. Dalmianagar of Bihar is famous for-
Nalgonda district, Telangana. (A) Silk (B) Cement
(C) Leather (D) Jute
106. In which of the following landforms are
‘Mushroom rocks’ found? Ans.110(B) Shanti Prasad Jain took over
(A) Desert (B) Delta Rohtas Industries Ltd. from his father-in-law,
(C) Glacial moraine (D) Sea cave and under his stewardship, Dalmianagar
developed into a massive industrial town from
Ans.106(A) Mushroom rocks are found in the 1940s till the 1980s with factories
desert land forms. Explanation: Mushroom producing sugar, cement, paper, chemicals,
rocks are also called as pedestal rocks or some vanaspati, etc.
times rock pedestals.
111. Koderma in Jharkhand is the leading producer
107. Taklamakan Desert is situated in of-
(A) Western Asia (A) Bauxite (B) Mica
(B) Southern fringe of Sahara in Africa (C) Iron ore (D) Copper
(C) North America
(D) Central Asia Ans.111(B) Koderma is the leading producer
of Mica. It is located in Hazaribagh belt of
Ans.107(D) Takla Makan Desert is China's Jharkhand.
largest desert, situated in the middle of the
largest Basin, Tarim in Xinjiang Province.The 112. Kakrapar atomic power plant is situated at?
Taklamakan Desert is situated in Central Asia. (A) Rajasthan (B) West Bengal
(C) Gujarat (D) Karnataka
108. Which of the following are examples of Ans.112(C) Kakrapar Atomic Power Station
peneplains? is a nuclear power station in India, which lies
1. Central Russia 2. Paris Basin in the proximity of the city of Vyara in the
3. Eastern England state of Gujarat.
4. Upper Mississippi Basin
Select the correct answer using the codes 113. The Shivanasamudra waterfall form in which
given below: of these rivers?
(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only (A) Narmada (B) Vaigai
(C) 1 and 4 only (D) 1, 3 and 4 only (C) Damodar (D) Kauvery
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313

Ans.113(D) The Shivanasamudra Falls is on 118. What is the name of southernmost hill ranges
the Kaveri River after the river has found its in India?
way through the rocks and ravines of the (A) Nilgiri Hills (B) Annamalai Hills
Deccan Plateau and drops off to form (C) Nallamalai Hills (D) Cardamom Hills
waterfalls.
Ans.118(D) The Cardamom Hills or Yela
114. Kaziranga wildlife sanctuary is in which Mala are mountain range of southern India and
state? part of the southern Western Ghats located in
(A) Assam (B) Bihar southeast Kerala and southwest Tamil Nadu in
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Uttar Pradesh India.
Ans.114(A) Kaziranga National Park is a 119. Son river originates from which of the
protected area in the northeast Indian state of following place?
Assam. Spread across the floodplains of the (A) Amarkantak (B) Gomat Tal
Brahmaputra River, its forests, wetlands and (C) Mapchachungo (D) Gomukh
grasslands are home to tigers, elephants and
the world’s largest population of Indian one- Ans.119(A) Son River originates near
horned rhinoceroses. Amarkantak in Madhya Pradesh (Madhya
Prades) and joins the Ganga River, after a
115. What makes the Ankleshwar famous? course of 784 km west of Patna. The Son is
(A) Coal mining the second largest southern tributary of Ganga
(B) Exploration of oil and natural gas River.
(C) Iron and steel industries
(D) Cotton textile industries 120. Which of the following states has the highest
irrigation coverage?
Ans.115(B) Ankleshwar has an office of the (A) Punjab (B) Karnataka
ONGC (Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Uttarakhand
Limited). Ankleshwar has over 1500 chemical
plants, producing products such as pesticides, Ans.120(A) Punjab and Haryana are by far the
pharmaceuticals, chemicals and paints. most agriculturally productive states in the
country and also with the highest irrigation
116. Where is the India's permanent research state in India.
station Dakshin Gangotri?
(A) Great Himalayas (B) Indian Ocean 121. The soil which cracks and shrinks most as it
(C) Antarctica (D) Arabian Sea dries is.
(A) Black clay soil (B) Red porous soil
Ans.116(C) South Gangotri was India's first (C) Sandy soil (D) Loamy soil
scientific base centre located in Antarctica,
which was part of the Indian Antarctic Ans.121(A) The soil which cracks and shrinks
programme. most as it dries is Black clay soil
117. Which of the following cities are called the 122. Which of following is the only perennial river
twin cities? of the state, which enters Rajasthan at
(A) Delhi and Faridabad Chaurasigarh?
(B) Mumbai and Pune (A) Loni (B) Ghaggar
(C) Hyderabad and Secunderabad (C) Hakra (D) Chambal
(D) Bangalore and Mysore
Ans.122(D) Chambal and Luni are the two
Ans.117(C) Hyderabad and Secunderabad are main rivers of Rajasthan. Chambal is the only
the "twin cities of India". perennial river of the state, which enters
Rajasthan at Chaurasigarh, after originating
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314

from the northern slopes of the Vindhya Ans.126(D) According to the 2011 census, the
Range. This river flows along the eastern largest concentration of Buddhism is in
border between Rajasthan and Madhya Maharashtra (6,530,000), where (77%) of the
Pradesh. total Buddhists in India reside.

123. Which of the following himalayan mountain 127. Which of the following are the two volcanic
range where the Kashmir Valley lies? Islands in the Indian Territory?
(A) Siwalik and Pir Panjal (A) Kavaratti and New Moore
(B) Pir Panjal and Dhauladhar (B) Bitra and Kavaratti
(C) Zaskar and Pir Panjal (C) Pamban and Barren
(D) Dhauladhar and Zaskar (D) Nacondam and Barren

Ans.123(C) The Kashmir Valley, also known Ans.127(D) The two volcanic islands in the
as the Vale of Kashmir, is an intermontane Indian territory are Narcondam and Barren.
valley in the portion of the Kashmir region Narcondam is a small volcanic island located
administered by India. The valley is bounded in the Andaman Sea.
on the southwest by the Pir Panjal Range and
on the northeast by the main Himalayas range. 128. Which among the following states is building
the Bharat Bangladesh Moitree Udyan?
124. Which of the following river systems form the (A) Nagaland (B) Tripura
delta? (C) Meghalaya (D) West Bengal
(A) Godavari, Narmada, Mahanadi
(B) Narmada, Kaveri, Mahanadi Ans.128(B) Tripura is set to inaugurate the
(C) Godavari, Kaveri, Mahanadi Indo-Bangla Friendship Park or Bharat Bangla
(D) Narmada, Krishna, Kaveri Maitree Udyan at Chottakhola in Belonia
subdivision of South Tripura, 130km from
Ans.124(C) Most of the major rivers of the Agartala, on December 16
Indian subcontinent such as the Indus, Ganga
and Brahmaputra, Kaveri, Krishna, Godavari 129. The Gandhi Sagar Dam is built on which river
and Mahanadi flow eastwards and empties in Madhya Pradesh?
into the Bay of Bengal after forming deltas. (A) Narmada (B) Chambal
The west flowing rivers of the Peninsular (C) Son (D) Tapti
India make estuaries and the east flowing
rivers make deltas. Ans.129(B) The Gandhi Sagar Dam is one of
the four major dams built on India's Chambal
125. The Asia's largest fresh water lake "Wular River. The dam is located in the Mandsaur,
lake" is located in which state? Neemuch districts of the state of Madhya
(A) Rajasthan Pradesh.
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) Punjab 130. Tuirial Hydro Electric Project is located in
(D) Jammu and Kashmir which state?
(A) Manipur (B) Mizoram
Ans.125(D) Wular Lake (also spelt Wullar) is (C) Sikkim
one of the largest fresh water lakes in Asia. It (D) Arunachal Pradesh
is sited in Bandipora district in Jammu and
Kashmir. Ans.130(B) Tuirial dam is an earthfill and
gravity dam on the River Sonai near Kolasib
126. The Indian State having largest Buddhist in the state of Mizoram in India. The primary
population is ________. purpose of the dam is hydroelectric power
(A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Haryana production.
(C) Gujarat (D) Maharashtra
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131. “National Seed Research and Training Centre” 136. Which country known as The Land of the
is located at? Morning Calm is?
(A) Pune (B) Varanasi (A) Japan (B) Malaysia
(C) Delhi (D) Bhopal (C) Indonesia (D) South Korea

Ans.131(B) National Seed Research and Ans.136(D) The old name of Korea is land of
Training Centre (NSRTC) is located at morning calm (literal translation is morning
Varanasi. This institute has been has been brightness).
notified as a Central Seed Testing and Referral
Laboratory (CSTL), with effect from 1 April 137. Dogger Bank, Rockfall Bank, Wales Bank and
2007. Sand Bank are located in which Ocean?
(A) North West Atlantic
132. Which of these states primarily depends upon (B) North East Pacific
the thermal power? (C) North East Atlantic
(A) Karnataka (B) Kerala (D) North West Pacific
(C) West Bengal (D) Tamil Nadu
Ans.137(C) Dogger bank, rockfall bank,
Ans.132(C) 98% of its come from coal based wales bank and sand bank are located in North
thermal power stations. Thermal power East Atlantic.
generation accounts for the highest proportion
of coal consumption in West Bengal. 138. Cod, haddock, halibut, sole, group a and
snapper are type of __________.
133. The K2 Peak is located in which among the (A) Major species of Tropical Forests
following ranges? (B) Cattle breeds
(A) Karakoram range (C) Fish
(B) Trans-Himalayas (D) Pacific Islands
(C) Central Himalayas
(D) Kumaun Himalayas Ans.138(C) Cod, haddock, halibut, sole,
Ans.133(A) K2 (Mount Godwin Austen), in garoupa and snapper are types of Fish.
the Karakoram Range, situated in the Gilgit-
Bluchistan district of the Pakistani- 139. Botswana was formerly known as_______.
administered portion of the Kashmir region. (A) Bechuanaland (B) Bahamas
(C) Barbados (D) Cameroon
134. “Indira Gandhi super thermal power project”
is located in which state? Ans.139(A) Formerly the British protectorate
(A) Panjab (B) Rajasthan of Bechuanaland, Botswana adopted its name
(C) Haryana (D) Gujarat after becoming independent within the
Commonwealth on 30 September 1966.
Ans.134(C) Indira Gandhi Super Thermal
Power Project is located between Khanpur 140. The 'land of eternal spring' are certain parts of
Khurd (to south of the plant) and Jharli village which region?
(to the north of the plant) in Jhajjar district of (A) Tundra region
Haryana. (B) Highland region
(C) Mediterranean region
135. Which among the following is the most (D) Hot Wet Equatorial region
optimum place to source Geothermal Energy?
(A) Himalaya (B) Konkan coast Ans.140(D) In high plateaus of the Hot Wet
(C) Coromandel Cost (D) Ladakh district Equatorial Region the temperature is very
much lower and so the "Ecuador type' of
Ans.135(D) Ladakh district the most optimal climate develops typically on the high plateau
place to source Geothermal Energy. of Ecuador at an elevation of about 2430 to
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3050 meter. Because of the pleasant average Ans.145(A) The dwarf camels, known as
temperature of, 13 o C. This is described as Alpacas, Vicunas and Llamas are found in
the "Land of eternal spring". Tibet region

141. Trincomalee is a port situated on the_______. 146. The difference between the diameter of the
(A) East Coast, Tamil Nadu Earth at the poles and at equator is how many
(B) North Coast of Sri Lanka miles?
(C) East Coast, Andhra Pradesh (A) 27 miles (B) 35 miles
(D) West Coast of Sri Lanka (C) 40 miles (D) 55 miles

Ans.141(B) Trincomalee Harbour is a seaport Ans.146(A) Because of this, the diameter of

in Trincomalee Bay or Koddiyar Bay, a large the Earth at the equator is about 43 kilometers
natural harbour situated on the north-eastern (27 mi) larger than the pole-to-pole diameter.
coast of Sri Lanka. As a result, the latest measurements indicate
that the Earth has an equatorial diameter of
142. Which of the following countries has got its 12,756 km (7926 mi), and a polar diameter of
map on its flag? 12713.6 km (7899.86 mi).
(A) Ghana (B) Cyprus
(C) Jordan (D) Libya 147. "Limnology" is a study of ___________.
(A) Limestone
Ans.142(B) Cyprus is the third largest island (B) Lignite of brown coal
in the Mediterranean Sea, and it's one of only (C) Lakes and ponds
two countries in the world that displays its (D) Laterites
own map on its national flag
Ans.147(C) “Fish in the Zone” introduces
143. The Asian and North American continents readers to limnology, a branch of science that
almost meet at the narrow and shallow Bering studies freshwater bodies, such as lakes,
Strait, only ____ kilometres across. rivers, and wetlands.
(A) 4 (B) 12
(C) 22 (D) 45 148. The wettest place in the world is Cherrapunji
(Assam). The Hottest place is….?
Ans.143(A) The Asian and North American (A) Azizia (Libya)
continents almost meet at the narrow and (B) Ramagundam (India)
shallow Bering Strait, only 4 kilometres (C) Stwart Island (New Zealand)
across. (D) Kandy (Sri Lanka)

144. "Haneda" is the name of the international Ans.148(A) The title of "world's hottest place"
airport in _____. is bestowed El Azizia, Libya.
(A) Malesia (B) Dacca
(C) Tokyo (D) Singapore 149. The term 'transhumance' means
(A) The practice of moving to a new clearing
Ans.144(C) Haneda International Airport is in the forest every few years
located in the city of Tokyo. (B) The seasonal movement of people along
with their cattle in the mountains
145. The dwarf camels, known as Alpacas, Vicunas (C) Moving over to another neighboring
and Llamas are found in which region? country
(A) Tibet (B) Qatar (D) Moving from place to place in search of
(C) Myanmar (D) Cyprus work
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317

Ans.149(B) Seasonal movement of livestock 154. The Andaman and Nicobar Islands are
(such as sheep) between mountain and submerged parts of mountain range called:
lowland pastures either under the care of (A) Arakan Yoma (B) Pegu Yoma
herders or in company with the owners. (C) Askai Chin (D) Tien Shan

150. World's largest solar power plant is located in Ans.154(A) Andaman and Nicobar Islands are
_________. submerged parts of mountain range called
(A) Kalahari Desert, Africa arakan yoma.
(B) Sahara Desert, Libya
(C) Thar Desert India 155. The desert regions of the world occupy about
(D) Mojava Desert USA _______ part of the land surface of the earth.
(A) 1/3 (B) 1.6
Ans.150(D) Solar Energy Generating Systems (C) 1/5
is currently the largest operational solar power (D) None of the above
plant in the world. It is located in the Mojave
Desert of California, US। Ans.155(A) Deserts cover 20 to 33% of the
Earth's land surface, and can be found in the
tropics, at the poles, and in between.
151. The shipping canal that connects the North
Sea and the Baltic Sea is called the______.
156. The north flowing rivers of Siberia are not of
(A) Panama Canal (B) Suez Canal
much use for navigation mainly because.
(C) Kiel Canal
(A) They are too shallow in the dry season
(D) Buckingham Canal
(B) The lower courses remain frozen for many
Ans.151(C) The Kiel Canal is located at the months
root of the Jutland Peninsula near the border (C) They flow through uninhabited areas
between Germany and Denmark. It is formally (D) They lack navigation facilities to ensure
called the North Sea-Baltic Sea Canal and is safety
ranked among the world's three major canals
with the Suez and Panama Canals. Ans.156(B) The lower courses remain frozen
for many months
152. The strait that separates Tasmania from the
mainland of Australia is. 157. Which among these is an intermontane
(A) Cook Strait (B) Bass Strait plateau?
(C) Torres Strait (D) Palk Strait (A) Deccan (B) Anatolia
(C) Columbia (D) Tibet
Ans.152(B) Bass Strait is a sea strait
separating Tasmania from the Australian Ans.157(B) A plateau which is enclosed by
mainland, specifically the state of Victoria. mountain ranges is known as an intermontane
plateau. The Plateau of Tibet and the Plateau
153. Milan, Turin and Genoa industrial triangle is of Mongolia are the two intermontane plateaus
in _________. in Asia.
(A) Japan (B) France
(C) Former USSR (D) Italy 158. European Turkey is separated from its Asian
part by ________.
Ans.153(D) The industrial triangle is located (A) Straits of Bosporus (B) Sea of Marmara
at the western end of Italy's largest area of (C) Straits of Dardanelles (D) All the above
lowland, the North Italian Plain. The region is
the richest area in Italy. The cities of Milan, Ans.158(A) Istanbul's European part is
Turin and Genoa are at the three corners of the separated from its Asian part by the Bosphorus
triangle. strait, a 31-km-long waterway that connects
the Black Sea with the Sea of Marmara, and
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318

forms a natural boundary between the two 163. Which one of the following countries does not
continents. border with Caspian Sea?
(A) Russia (B) Azerbaijan
159. Death Valley is situated in_____. (C) Iraq (D) Turkmenistan
(A) The USA (B) Jordan
(C) Israel (D) Peru Ans.163(C) The Caspian Sea is a landlocked
body of water between Europe and Asia. Five
Ans.159(A) Death Valley National Park is an countries—Russia, Kazakhstan, Turkmenistan,
American national park that straddles the Iran and Azerbaijan — border the inland sea.
California—Nevada border, east of the Sierra The Caspian Sea is the world's largest inland
Nevada. body of water, variously classed as the world's
largest lake or a full-fledged sea.
160. Which is the only Indus river tributary which
flows entirely in India? 164. Nanga Parbat is situated at which point of the
(A) Chenab (B) Sutlej Himalayas.
(C) Beas (D) Jhelum (A) Eastern Point (B) Southern Point
(C) Western Point (D) Northern Point
Ans.160(C) The Beas River is a river in north
India. The river rises in the Himalayas in Ans.164(C) Nanga Parbat, also called Diamir,
central Himachal Pradesh, India, and flows for one of the facing tallest mountains, 26,660 feet
some 470 kilometres to the Sutlej River in the (8,126 meters) high, located in the western
Indian state of Punjab. Its total length is 470 Himalayas 17 miles (27 km) west-southwest
kilo metres and its drainage basin is 20,303 of Astor, in the Pakistani-administered sector
square kilometres large. and it's tributary of of the Kashmir region.
Indus river which flows entirely in India
165. Which of the following rivers flows between
161. Which planet is the farthest from the Sun in the Vindhya and Satpura ranges?
the Solar System? (A) Mahanadi (B) Godavari
(A) Uranus (B) Venus (C) Narmada (D) Kosi
(C) Saturn (D) Neptune
Ans.165(C) The Narmada and the Tapti are
Ans.161(D) Neptune is the eighth and farthest major rivers that drain into the Arabian Sea.
known planet from the Sun in the Solar The Narmada originates from eastern Madhya
System. In the Solar System, it is the fourth- Pradesh (India) and flows west across the
largest planet by diameter, the third-most- state, through a narrow valley between the
massive planet, and the densest giant planet. Vindhya Range and the Satpura Range.
Neptune is 17 times the mass of Earth,
166. Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam also known as
162. Which of the following states of India receives Almaty Dam is a multipurpose project on
rainfall during the winter from the which of the following rivers?
Mediterranean disturbances? (A) Mahanadi (B) Krishna
(A) Jharkhand (B) Punjab (C) Ganga (D) Tungabhadra
(C) Sikkim (D) Kerala
Ans.166(B) The Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam is
Ans.162(B) Punjab receives rainfall from also known as Almatti Dam is hydroelectric
three different sources- southwest monsoon, project on the Krishna River in North
southeast monsoon, western disturbances. A Karnataka. The target annual electric output
Western Disturbance is an extratropical storm of the dam is 560 MU.
originating in the Mediterranean region that
brings sudden winter rain to the north western
parts of the Indian subcontinent.
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167. The Bharat Oman Refineries Ltd operates 171. Which type of forests occupies the highest
which of the following refineries? percentage of area in India?
(A) Numaligarh Refinery (B) Bina Refinery (A) Equatorial Moist Evergreen
(C) Jamnagar Refinery (D) Kochi Refinery (B) Mediterranean Forests
(C) Tropical Deciduous Forest
Ans.167(B) Bina Refinery is an oil refinery (D) Warm Temperate Deciduous Forest
located at Bina in Bina of district sagar of
Madhya Pradesh state. The refinery is owned Ans.171(C) In India, Tropical Moist
and operated by Bharat Oman Refineries Deciduous Forest occupies the largest area.
Limited (BORL). The tropical monsoon deciduous forests are
found in areas receiving annual rainfall of 100
168. Amarkantak is the place from where Narmada to 200 cms in India.
originates, in which state it is located.
(A) Sikkim (B) Madhya Pradesh 172. Sardar sarovar dam The foundation stone of
(C) Maharashtra (D) Jharkhand the project was laid out by Prime Minister
Jawaharlal Nehru on 5 April 1961, is
Ans.168(B) Amarkantak is the place from constructed on which river___
where the Narmada river originates. It rises (A) Bramhapurta (B) Godavari
from the Maikal ranges at the height of 1057 (C) Kaveri (D) Narmada
meter above the sea level. Amarkantak is
located in the Shahdol district of Madhya Ans.172(D) The Sardar Sarovar Dam is a
Pradesh in India. gravity dam on the Narmada river near
Navagam, Gujarat in India. Four Indian states,
169. Which channel separates Minicoy island from Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra and
the main Lakshadweep? Rajasthan, receive water and electricity
(A) 8 Degree Channel supplied from the dam.
(B) 9 Degree Channel
(C) 10 Degree Channel 173. Where are the Naharkatiya petroleum deposits
(D) Grand Channel and Digboi mines located in the which state?
(A) Jharkhand (B) Assam
Ans.169(B) Minicoy Island, located to the (C) Rajasthan (D) Chhattisgarh
south of nine-degree channel is the largest
island among the Lakshadweep group. 8 Ans.173(B) The famous Digboi, Naharkatiya
Degree Channel ( 8 degrees north latitude) petroleum deposits are in the state of Assam.
separates islands of Minicoy and Maldives. 9 First oil refinery in India was set up in Digboi
Degree Channel ( 9 degrees north latitude) a town in Tinsukia district of assam state.
separates the island of Minicoy from the main Digboi is also known as oil city. Naharkatiya
Lakshadweep archipelago. is a town in Dibrugarh district in Assam. It is
well known for petroleum and gas reserves.
170. Which river of Africa crosses the Tropic of
Capricorn twice? 174. Which coastal plains are locally called
(A) Congo River (B) Limpopo River Kayles?
(C) Mahi River (D) None of these (A) Konkan coast
(B) Coromandel Coast
Ans.170(B) The Limpopo River rises in South (C) Malabar Coast
Africa, and flows generally eastwards through (D) Kanara Coast
Mozambique to the Indian Ocean. The river
Limpopo in Southern Africa crosses the Ans.174(C) The Malabar coast has
Tropic of Capricorn twice. submerged the land due to the movement of
the earth and has risen above sea level many
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320

times. This causes the formation of several Ans.178(B) Barren Island is an island located
lower artificial in the Andaman Sea. It is the only confirmed
zones that are submerged in sea water. This is active volcano in South Asia, and the only
called kayal. active volcano along a chain of volcanoes
from Sumatra to Myanmar.
175. The concept of differential heating was
mainly given to explain which geographical 179. Luni River, which originates in the Pushkar
phenomenon in India Valley of Aravalli range ends in which among
(A) Cyclones (B) Monsoon the following?
(C) storms (D) streams (A) In Bay of Bengal
(B) In Arabian Sea
Ans.175(B) There is a disparity in the (C) In Rann of Kutch
temperature of air over water over the (D) As a tributary to Ganga
differential heat. The movement of the sea
occurs when the land is warmer than water, Ans.179(C) Luni (also known as Lonari,
and creates a low pressure system at night, Lavanavari, Lavanavati, Salt river) is a river
when warm air moves over the ocean and cool in Rajasthan. It originates in the Pushkar
air from the land flows towards the sea. valley of the Aravalli Range, near Ajmer,
passes through the southeastern portion of the
176. Which planet has the longest day in our solar Thar Desert, and ends in the marshy lands of
system? Rann of Kutch in Gujarat, after travelling a
(A) Mars (B) Jupiter distance of 495 km.
(C) Saturn (D) Venus
180. The Great Barrier Reef is the world's largest
Ans.176(D) Venus has the longest day of any coral reef system is located in which country?
planet in our solar system. It completes one (A) Africa (B) USA
rotation every 243 Earth days. Its day lasts (C) Japan (D) Australia
longer than its orbit. It orbits the Sun every
224.65 Earth days, so a day is nearly 20 Earth Ans.180(D) The Great Barrier Reef is the
days longer than its year. world's largest coral reef system composed of
over 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands
177. The hill ranges which geographically divide stretching for over 2,300 kilometres over an
northern India from the Deccan Plateau? area of approximately 344,400 square
(A) Vindhyas (B) Satpura kilometres. The reef is located in the Coral
(C) Aravalli Range (D) Eastern ghats Sea, off the coast of Queensland, Australia.

Ans.177(A) The Vindhya Range is considered 181. ......A warm northeasterly ocean current of the
as the traditional boundary between North coast of Japan. This current is also called the
India and South India. It is a complex, gulf stream of the Pacific ocean
discontinuous chain of mountain ridges, hill (A) kuroshio (B) Irminger
ranges, and plateau escarpments in west- (C) El Nino (D) California
central India.
Ans.181(A) THE kuroshio is A warm
178. Which among the following Island of the northeasterly ocean current of the coast of
Andaman & Nicobar Islands contains the only Japan. This current is also called the gulf
known examples of volcanoes in India, called stream of the Pacific or Japan Current.
locally as “jalki Kuroshio meAns.“the black stream” in
(A) Car Nicobar (B) Barren Island Japanese, named after the deep ultramarine
(C) Havelock Island (D) Baratang Island color of the high salinity water, which is
found flowing north of the current's axis.
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182. The Farakka Barrage issue is between India complex mountain system, and the parts of the
and Bangladesh, related to distribution of mountain ranges inside the Indian state of
water of which among the following rivers? Nagaland and the Myanmar region of Sagaing
(A) Bramhaputra (B) Ganga are called the Naga Hills.
(C) Hooghly (D) Damodar
186. Hussain Sagar Lake is Asia's largest artificial
Ans.182(B) The Farakka Barrage was created lake in which state it's located?
by India in 1975 to divert water from the (A) Tamil Nadu (B) Telangana
Ganges River to the Bhagirathi-Hoogly river (C) Karnataka (D) Meghalaya
system. The barrage diverts water from one of
the most populated basins in the world. There Ans.186(B) Hussain Sagar is a heart-shaped
are 54 transboundary rivers between India and lake in Hyderabad, Telangana, built by
Bangladesh. Ibrahim Quli Qutb Shah in 1563. It is spread
across an area of 5.7 square kilometers and is
183. Tungabhadra Multipurpose project is an fed by the River Musi. A large monolithic
interstate project between which among the statue of the Gautama Buddha, erected in
following states? 1992, stands on Gibraltar Rock in the middle
(A) Tamilnadu - Karnataka of the lake.
(B) Kerala - Andhra Pradesh
(C) Andhra Pradesh - Karnataka 187. Which of the following mountain is a part of
(D) Tamilnadu - Goa UNESCO World Heritage Sites?
(A) Aravalli Range (B) Himalaya
Ans.183(C) The Tungabhadra River is a river (C) Western Ghats (D) Eastern ghats
in India that starts and flows through the state
of Karnataka during most of its course, before Ans.187(C) The Western Ghats, also known
flowing along the border between Telangana, as the Sahyadri Mountains, a mountain range
Andhra Pradesh and ultimately joining the along the western side of India and one of the
Krishna River near Sangameswaram village in world's ten "Hottest biodiversity hotspots" A
Kurnool district of Andhra Pradesh. total of thirty nine properties (including
national parks, wildlife sanctuaries and
184. Which types of crop is mainly grown in reserve forests) were designated as World
Laterite soils? Heritage Sites – twenty in the state of Kerala,
(A) Tobacco (B) Sugarcane ten in Karnataka, five in Tamil Nadu and four
(C) Cotton (D) tea in Maharashtra.

Ans.184(D) Laterite soils lack fertility due to 188. The Brahmaputra, also called Tsangpo in
intensive leaching. When manured and Tibet, is one of the main rivers in Asia. in
irrigated, some laterites are suitable for which country does not flows
growing plantation crops like tea, coffee, (A) India (B) China
rubber, cinchona, coconut, arecanut, etc. In (C) Bhutan (D) Bangladesh
some areas, these soils support grazing
grounds and scrub forests. Ans.188(C) The Brahmaputra is a trans-
boundary river which flows through China,
185. The Naga Hills are the watershed between India and Bangladesh. It is the ninth largest
India and which country. river in the world by discharge, and the 15th
(A) China (B) Bhutan longest
(C) Nepal (D) Myanmar
189. Which of the following peninsular rivers does
Ans.185(D) The Naga Hills, reaching a height not flow into the Arabian Sea?
of around 3,825 metres, lie on the border of (A) Tapi and kavery
India and Myanmar. They are part of a (B) Narmada and kavery
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(C) Godavari and Krishna Ans.193(B) Uttar Pradesh comes at the fourth
(D) Narmada and Tapi place in terms of area, the state shares its
borders Maximum with as many as 9
Ans.189(C) East flowing rivers such as states/Union Territories, apart from sharing
Godavari, Krishna, Kaveri, Mahanadi drained International border with Nepal.
into Bay of Bengal and West flowing rivers
such as the Narmada, the Tapi drained into the 194. ‘Shifting cultivation’ is also known as____ in
Arabian Sea. north-east India.
(A) Jhuming (B) Logan
190. On the coastal area of which state is Varkala, (C) Chalak (D) Sarkana
Chavara, Chavakkad and Natika etc. beachs
are situated. Ans.194(A) Shifting cultivation in the north
(A) Maharashtra (B) Kerala eastern region of India is called Jhuming.
(C) Goa (D) Gujarat Jhumia adopt mixed crops. The mixture of
crops varies from one tribe to another within a
Ans.190(B) There are many beaches on the region.
Kerala coastline. Some popular tourist
destinations are beaches such as Kovalam, 195. Which of the following Himalaya's peak is not
Varkala, Chavara, Chavakkad, Natika, Cherai, located in India?
Kizhuna, Poovar etc. (A) Kanchenjunga (B) Nanda Devi
(C) Annapurna (D) Kamet
191. Which river passes through maximum number
of countries? Ans.195(C) Annapurna is the tenth tallest
(A) Nile (B) Denube mountain in the world, but it ranks as one of
(C) Amazon (D) Missouri the most dangerous. The mountain is located
in Nepal along a 55-kilometer (34-mile) ridge
Ans.191(B) The Danube is Europe's second just east of the Gandaki River, The gorge
longest river, after the Volga. It is located in separates Annapurna from Dhaulagiri, the
Central and Eastern Europe. it is passes seventh tallest mountain in the world.
through the maximum number of countries.
like Germany, Austria, Hungary, Romania, 196. Which one of the following states is the
Bulgaria, Croatia, Serbia, Slovakia. etc. largest producer of black pepper in india?
(A) Kerala (B) Assam
192. The Nagarjunasagar Project is an (C) Tamil Nadu (D) Andhra Pradesh
multipurpose project on the river ______ in
the______ district of Andhra Pradesh. Ans.196(A) Kerala and Karnataka are the
(A) Mahanadi, Guntur major pepper producing states in India. Kerala
(B) Tungabhadra, Anantapur is the largest producer of pepper, accounting
(C) Krishna, Visakhapatnam. over 50 per cent of India's total output
(D) Krishna, Nalgonda followed by Karnataka and Tamilnadu.

Ans.192(D) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a 197. Daringbadi hill station is located in which
masonry dam on the Krishna River near state of India?
Nalgonda district. (A) Sikkim (B) Assam
(C) Medhalaya (D) Tamil Nadu
193. Maximum length of border of which of the
following states is adjacent to that of other Ans.197(A) Daringbadi is a hill station in
States ? Kandhmal district of Odisha state in eastern
(A) Rajasthan (B) Uttar Pradesh India. Widely known as "Kashmir of Odisha",
(C) Tamil Nadu (D) Andhra Pradesh (for its climatic similarity), it is situated at a
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height of 3000 ft and is a popular tourist Ans.201(B) Silicon is the most easily
destination. available semiconductor metal which is
present in large amount in rocks and minerals.
198. Which one of the following indian states is the Silicon is also the basic component of sand
largest producer of natural rubber? ,and sand is the basic component of almost
(A) Sikkim (B) Kerala every rocks and impure minerals.
(C) Assam (D) Tamil Nadu
202. Which among the sea ports is the largest
Ans.198(B) Kerala accounts for more than 90 exporter of iron ore from India?
percent of the total rubber production in the (A) Kandla Port
country. The total area under rubber (B) Jawaharlal Nehru Port
cultivation in the state is 5.45 lakh hectares. (C) Visakhapatnam Port
Rest of the natural rubber is produced in (D) Port Blair Port
Tamil Nadu and North East states. Kerala is
the highest producer of Natural Rubber in Ans.202(C) Visakhapatnam Port is one of 13
India. major ports in India and the only major port of
Andhra Pradesh. It is India's second largest
199. Which one of the following statements in not port by volume of cargo handled. and it is
correct? largest exporter of iron ore from India
(A) Godavari River rises in Maharashtra
(B) Tapti River rises in Madhya Pradesh 203. The equator does not pass through which
(C) Cauvery River rises in Andhra Pradesh country?
(D) Mahanadi River rises in Chattisgarh (A) Colombia (B) Brazil
(C) Gabon (D) Malaysia
Ans.199(C) Kaveri (also known as Cauvery,),
is an Indian river flowing through the states of Ans.203(D) The equator passes through 13
Karnataka and Tamil Nadu. It is the third countries: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao
largest river – after Godavari and Krishna in Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of the
South India and the largest in Tamil Nadu Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo,
which, on its course, bisects the state into Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia
North and South. and Kiribati.

200. The second-highest waterfall of India, Jog 204. The iron and steel industries of which of the
Falls is a major tourist attraction in Karnataka following countries are almost fully
Which river is it on. dependent on imported raw materials?
(A) Amaravathi (B) Penna (A) Japan (B) Brazil
(C) Krishna (D) Sharavati (C) America (D) Malaysia

Ans.200(D) Jog Falls is formed by the Ans.204(A) Japan iron and steel industries
Sharavathi River, gushing down from a height almost fully dependent on imported raw
of 253 meters. The river originates at materials
Ambuthirtha in Thirthahalli taluk, flows
north-west through the Western Ghats 205. Which State of India has the largest reserves
forming the Jog Falls before joining the of monazite, with a high thorium content?
Arabian Sea at Honavar. (A) Jharkhand (B) Rajasthan
(C) Kerala (D) Odisha
201. The element present in the largest amount in
rocks and minerals is- Ans.205(C) Kerala has the largest reserves of
(A) Corbon (B) Silicon monazite, with a high thorium content.
(C) Hydrozen (D) Iron Monazite is a reddish-brown phosphate
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mineral . It occurs usually in small isolated trade winds cause which of the following in
crystals. India?
(A) Winter rains in north western India
206. The smallest Union Territory of India (area (B) Winter Rains in Chennai
wise) is (C) Dust storm in the Thar Desert
(A) Andaman and Nicobar (D) Inclement conditions in the Indian
(B) Dadra and Nagar Haveli Himalayas
(C) Lakshadweep
(D) Puducherry Ans.209(B) The winter rain in Chennai is
caused by North-East Monsoons. Tamil Nadu
Ans.206(C) India's smallest Union Territory receives winter rainfall because of the
Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of retreating monsoon and the North-east
36 islands with an area of 32 sq km. Monsoon winds which pass over the Bay of
Bengal, they get moisture and when they
207. Meenakshi Temple, is a historic Hindu temple reach the Tamil Nadu coasts they cause
located on the southern bank of the rainfall there.
____________ in the temple city of Madurai,
Tamil Nadu, India. 210. The Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam is also known
(A) Kaveri (B) Pennar as Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric project on
(C) Vaigai (D) Amaravathi the Krishna River in North Karnataka, India
which was completed in which year.
Ans.207(C) Meenakshi Temple, is a historic (A) 2007 (B) 2005
Hindu temple located on the southern bank of (C) 2008 (D) None
the Vaigai River in the temple city of
Madurai, Tamil Nadu, India. It is dedicated to Ans.210(B) The Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam is
Meenakshi, a form of Parvati, and her consort, also known as Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric
Sundareshwar, a form of Shiva. project on the Krishna River in North
Karnataka, India which was completed in July
208. Sundarban in India is a fine example of which 2005. During the initial stages of the project,
among the following kind of forests? estimated costs were projected as Rs.14.70
(A) Dry Forests billion, but following the transfer of project's
(B) Tidal Forests management to the Karnataka Power
(C) Wet Deciduous Forests Corporation Limited (KPCL), the estimated
(D) Deciduous Forests cost was reduced by over fifty percent to Rs.
6.74 billion.
Ans.208(B) Tidal forests grows mainly in the
deltaic regions of the Ganga, Mahanadi, 211. Sundri is a small or medium-sized evergreen
Godavari and Krishna which are flooded by tree which is found in the inland zone. The
tides and high sea waves. Mangrove is the Botanical name of Sundri is Heritiera littoralis
representative of this type of vegetation. Ait. The famous species of tree 'Sundari' is
found in?
209. The trade winds or easterlies are the (A) Mangrove forest
permanent east-to-west prevailing winds that (B) Tropical deciduous forests
flow in the Earth's equatorial region (between (C) Himalaya Mountains
30°N and 30°S latitudes). The trade winds (D) Tropical Rainforest
blow predominantly from the northeast in the
Northern Hemisphere and from the southeast Ans.211(A) Heritiera fomes is a species of
in the Southern Hemisphere, strengthening mangrove tree in the family Malvaceae. Its
during the winter and when the Arctic common names include sunder, sundri,
oscillation is in its warm phase. The north-east jekanazo and pinlekanazo. It is the dominant
mangrove tree species of the Sundarbans. of
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325

Bangladesh and India, and comprises about over a short time, structural support for the
70% of the trees in the area. rock above the magma chamber is lost.
(A) Caldera (B) Crater
212. Which of the following substances is mined in (C) Vent (D) Crust
Odisha's Badamphad mines?
(A) Hematite (B) Aurite Ans.214(A) The ground surface then
(C) Dolomite (D) Bauxite collapses downward into the emptied or
partially emptied magma chamber, leaving a
Ans.212(A) The Iron ore deposits are found in massive depression at the surface (from one to
Badampahar mines of Odisha and Kudremukh dozens of kilometers in diameter). Although
deposits of Karnataka. In Badampahar high sometimes described as a crater, the feature is
grade hematite ores are found. Hematite is a actually a type of sinkhole, as it is formed
common iron oxide with a formula called through subsidence and collapse rather than
Fe2O3 and has been widespread in rocks and an explosion or impact. Only seven caldera-
soils. Hematite forms in the shape of crystals forming collapses are known to have occurred
through the rhombohedral lattice system, and since 1900, most recently at Bárðarbunga
it has the same crystal structure as ilmenite volcano, Iceland in 2014.
and corundum.
215. Hyderabad stands on the banks of Musi river,
213. Although surface waves travel more slowly which divides the historic old city and the new
than S-waves, there are two basic kinds of city. Himayat Sagar and Osman Sagar are
surface waves: Rayleigh waves, also called dams built on it which used to act as source of
ground roll, travel as ripples similar to those water for Hyderabad. The river was known as
on the surface of water. So, the most Nerva during Qutub Shahi period. The Bhima
destructive earthquake waves are? River is a major river in Western India and
(A) primary (B) Secondary South India. It flows southeast for 861
(C) Surface wave (D) None kilometres (535 mi) through Maharashtra,
Karnataka, and Telangana states, Musi and
Ans.213(C) During an earthquake, surface Bhima are tributaries of which river?
waves are the seismic waves that cause the (A) Brahmaputra (B) Mahanadi
most damage. Unlike other seismic waves that (C) Kaveri (D) Krishna
move deep inside the Earth, surface waves
move along just under the surface of the Earth Ans.215(D) Major tributaries of Krishana are
like waves in water. Surface waves are the Bhima River, Tungabhadra River, Koyna,
slowest seismic waves and are the final waves River, Musi River, Malaprabha River,
to hit an area after an earthquake. First, P- Kundali River, Ghataprabha River, Yerla
waves move through compression through the River and Warna River. Krishna River
deep layers of the Earth. They result in originates in the Western Ghats and conjoins
minimal damage. The second group of waves the sea in the Bay of Bengal at Hamasaledevi
is S-waves. They move up and down starting in Andhra Pradesh. It flows through the states
deeper in the Earth. Stronger S-waves do of Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra
some damage when they reach the surface. Pradesh.
Surface waves move in last. Their slow roll
just under the surface provides the greatest 216. Which of the following biosphere reserves
risk for damage to man-made structures and was first established by the Government of
changes to natural landforms. India?
(A) Sundarban Biosphere Reserve
214. A .......... is a large cauldron-like hollow that (B) Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve
forms shortly after the emptying of a magma (C) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
chamber/reservoir in a volcanic eruption. (D) Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve
When large volumes of magma are erupted
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Ans.216(D) The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is considered the highest mountain in the world
an International Biosphere Reserve in the before computations in 1808 proved
Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of Dhaulagiri to be higher.
South India. The Nilgiri Sub-Cluster is a part (A) Sikkim (B) Uttarakhand
of the Western Ghats, which was declared a (C) Jammu and Kashmir (D) Assam
World Heritage Site by UNESCO in 2012. It
includes the Aralam, Mudumalai, Mukurthi, Ans.218(B) It was also the highest mountain
Nagarhole, Bandipur and Silent Valley in India until 1975 when Sikkim, The state in
national parks, as well as the Wayanad and which Kangchenjunga is located, joined the
Sathyamangalam wildlife sanctuaries. The Republic of India. It is part of the Garhwal
given biosphere Reserves are formed in Himalayas, and is located in Chamoli district
the following years- of Uttarakhand, between the Rishiganga
* Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve - 1986 valley on the west and the Goriganga valley
* Sunderb ans.- 1989 on the east.
* Nanda Devi National Park & Biosphere
Reserve- 1988 219. Baglihar Dam, also known as Baglihar
* Gulf of Mannar - 1989 Hydroelectric Power Project, is a run-of-the-
river power project on the which River in the
217. Nathu La Pass is located in the state of Doda district of the Indian state of Jammu and
Sikkim. This famous pass is located in the Kashmir. The first phase of the Baglihar Dam
India- China border was reopened in 2006. It was completed in 2004.
forms a part of an offshoot of the ancient silk (A) Indus (B) Chenab
route. It is one of the trading borders posts (C) Sutlej (D) Ravi
between India and China. Shipki La Pass is
located through Sutlej Gorge. It connects Ans.219(B) Baglihar Dam (Hindi: Baglihār
Himachal Pradesh with Tibet. It is India’s Bāndh), also known as Baglihar Hydroelectric
third border post for trade with China after Power Project, is a run-of-the-river power
Lipu Lekh and Nathula Pass. Name the project on the Chenab River in the Doda
passage which is used by pilgrims in district of the Indian state of Jammu and
Uttarakhand for Kailash Mansarovar Yatra? Kashmir. With the completion of the second
(A) Pensy La (B) Kurdung phase on 10 October 2008, then Prime
(C) Banihal Pass (D) Lipu Lekh Minister Manmohan Singh of India dedicated
the 900-MW Baglihar hydroelectric power
Ans.217(D) Lipulekh (elevation 5,200 m or project to the nation.
17,060 ft) is a Himalayan pass on the border
between India's Uttarakhand state and the 220. Mājuli or Majoli is a river island in the
Tibet region of China, near their trijunction Brahmaputra River,in which state and in 2016
with Nepal. Nepal has ongoing claims to the it became the first island to be made a district
southern side of the pass, called Kalapani in India. In which state is it?
territory, which is controlled by India. The (A) Arunachal Pradesh (B) Assam
pass is near the Chinese trading town of (C) Nagaland (D) Uttar Pradesh
Taklakot (Purang) in Tibet and used since
ancient times by traders, mendicants and Ans.220(B) Mājuli or Majoli is a river island
pilgrims transiting between India and Tibet. It in the Brahmaputra River, Assam and in 2016
is also used by pilgrims to Kailas and it became the first island to be made a district
Mansarovar. in India. It had an area of 880 square
kilometres at the beginning of the 20th
218. Nanda Devi is the second highest mountain in century, but having lost significantly to
India after Kangchenjunga and the highest erosion it covers 352 square kilometres as at
located entirely within the country. It is the 2014.
23rd-highest peak in the world. It was
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221. Which of the following passes is known as the southern Indian states. This form of
gateway connecting Jammu and Srinagar? agriculture is being practised by the tribals,
(A) Lanak-La Pass (B) Chang-La Pass and it is one of the controversial farming
(C) Banihal Pass (D) Aghil Pass systems because of opinions about its impact
on the environment. In this system, a patch of
Ans.221(C) Banihal Pass- connects the forest land is cleared by cutting trees, shrubs,
Kashmir Valley in the Indian state Jammu and bushes. During May and June, the entire field
Kashmir to the outer Himalaya and plains to is set on fire, allowing the dried trees, shrubs
the south. Lanak La Pass- The Lanak La or and bushes to burn and the land is ploughed
Lanak Pass is a mountain pass in Tibet. immediately after the first shower.
Chang-La Pass- situated in Ladhak, J&K
Aghil Pass- situated in Karakoram range. 224. Which is an important road link between
Srinagar on the side and Kargil and Leh on
222. The ............ known by various names in other the other side.
languages is Europe's second longest river, (A) Muling La (B) Shipki La
after the Volga. It is located in Central and (C) Zoji La (D) Qara Tag La
Eastern Europe. so which river passes through
maximum number of countries?/........... Ans.224(C) Zoji La is a high mountain pass
(A) Volga (B) Danube in the Himalayas in the Indian union territory
(C) Amazon (D) Rhine of Ladakh. Located in the Drass, the pass
connects the Kashmir Valley to its west with
Ans.222(B) The Danube is Europe's second the Drass and Suru valleys to its northeast and
longest river, after the Volga. It is located in the Indus valley further east. The National
Central and Eastern Europe. Highway 1 between Srinagar and Leh in the
The Danube was once a long-standing frontier western section of the Himalayan mountain
of the Roman Empire, and today flows range traverses the pass. Since vehicle flow
through 10 countries, more than any other stops during winter every year due to heavy
river in the world. Originating in Germany, snowfall, the all weather Zoji-la Tunnel is
the Danube flows southeast for 2,850 km being constructed to mitigate this. Zoji La
(1,770 mi), passing through or bordering maens the "mountain pass of blizzards".
Austria, Slovakia, Hungary, Croatia, Serbia,
Romania, Bulgaria, Moldova and Ukraine 225. The Jorwe culture was a Chalcolithic
before draining into the Black Sea. Its archaeological culture which existed in large
drainage basin extends into nine more areas. In which state is it located.
countries. (A) Gujarat (B) Assam
(C) Maharashtra (D) Bihar
223. Shifting Cultivation A form of agriculture,
used especially in tropical Africa, in which an Ans.225(C) The Jorwe culture was a
area of ground is cleared of vegetation and Chalcolithic archaeological culture which
cultivated for a few years and then abandoned existed in large areas of what is now in
for a new area until its fertility has been Maharastra state in Western India, and also
naturally restored. ‘Shifting cultivation’ is reached north into the Malwa region of
also known as ____ in north-east India. Madhya Pradesh. Over 200 settlements of the
(A) Ladang (B) Chena Jorwe culture have been found, ranging from
(C) Jhum (D) Logan several large and medium-sized farming
villages, to many small villages, as well as
Ans.223(C) The word Jhum or Podu means. temporary and seasonal camp-sites used by
shifting or slash and burn cultivation. It is one pastoralists.
of the oldest practices of agriculture systems.
It is known as Jhum in Northeastern India,
Podu in Odisha, Andhra Pradesh and some
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226. It is located in Uttarakhand. It is situated at (B) Proxima Centauri

the end of the Pindari glacier and connects the (C) Sirius
Pindari valley to Milam valley. This pass is (D) Deneb
very steep and rugged.
(A) Traill’s Pass (B) Lipu Lekh Ans.228(B) Proxima Centauri is a small, low-
(C) Mana Pass (D) None mass star located 4.244 light-years (1.301 pc)
away from the Sun in the southern
Ans.226(A) Pindari Kanda Traill's Pass constellation of Centaurus. Its Latin name
(5,300 m or 17,400 ft) is a mountain pass means the "nearest [star] of Centaurus". This
through the Himalayas located between object was discovered in 1915 by Robert
Nanda Devi and Nanda Kot peaks in the Innes and is the nearest-known star to the Sun.
Uttarakhand state in the districts of
Pithoragarh and Bageshwar in India. It is 229. Rill erosion is caused due to?
situated at the end of Pindari glacier and links (A) Erosion by water
Pindari valley to Milam valley (Lawan Gad) (B) Erosion by wind
and is said to be very difficult to cross. The (C) Due to plate movement of earth
pass was reached in 1830 by G.W. Traill, the (D) None of these
first British Deputy Commissioner of Kumaon
division. In 1926, it was crossed by Hugh Ans.229(A) Erosion, which is the weathering
Ruttledge. away of soil and rock, can happen by wind,
water, or gravity. It’s natural, but sometimes
227. The summer solstice 2019 in the Northern people do things to speed up the process or
Hemisphere will occur on _____. cause it to happen in places where it wouldn’t
(A) 21st June (B) 26th June normally. Rill erosion is one type of water
(C) 20th June (D) 24th June erosion,

Ans.227(A) The summer solstice (or estival 230. Which soil is largest of all soil groups in
solstice), also known as midsummer, occurs India.
when one of the Earth's poles has its (A) Red Soil (B) Alluvial Soil
maximum tilt toward the Sun. It happens (C) Black Soil (D) Desert soil
twice yearly, once in each hemisphere
(Northern and Southern). For that hemisphere, Ans.230(B) Alluvial soils are soils deposited
the summer solstice is when the Sun reaches by surface water. You’ll find them along
its highest position in the sky and is the day rivers, in floodplains and deltas (like the
with the longest period of daylight. Within the Mississippi Delta), stream terraces, and areas
Arctic Circle (for the northern hemisphere) or called alluvial fans. This last category results
Antarctic Circle (for the southern from larger floods, causing the soil to spread
hemisphere), there is continuous daylight out in the shape of a triangle fan. Alluvial
around the summer solstice. On the summer soils provide many functions the greatest is
solstice, Earth's maximum axial tilt toward the serving as the earth’s kidneys. Alluvial soils
Sun is 23.44°. Likewise, the Sun's declination remove sediments and nutrients flowing in the
from the celestial equator is 23.44°. adjacent water. They can also remove other
contaminants from rivers and improve water
228. Stars are huge celestial bodies made mostly of quality for downstream communities!
hydrogen and helium that produce light and
heat from the churning nuclear forges inside 231. The Yarlung Tsangpo, also called Yarlung
their cores. Aside from our sun, the dots of Zangbo or Yalu Zangbu.It is the other name in
light we see in the sky are all light-years from Tibet for _______.
Earth. Which of the following stars is nearest (A) Kosi (B) Gandak
to the sun? (C) Brahmaputra (D) Ganga
(A) Betelgeuse
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Ans.231(C) The Brahmaputra, called Yarlung mountain in India after Kangchenjunga and
Tsangpo in Tibet, Siang/Dihang River in the highest located entirely within the country.
Arunachal Pradesh and Luit or Dilao in (Kangchenjunga, which is higher, is on the
Assam is a trans-boundary river which flows border of India and Nepal.) It is the 23rd-
through China, India and Bangladesh. It is the highest peak in the world. It was considered
ninth largest river in the world by discharge, the highest mountain in the world before
and the 15th longest. computations in 1808 proved Dhaulagiri to be
With its origin in the Manasarovar Lake higher. It was also the highest mountain in
region, near the Mount Kailash, located on the India until 1975 when Sikkim, The state in
northern side of the Himalayas in Burang which Kangchenjunga is located, joined the
County of Tibet. As the Yarlung Tsangpo Republic of India.
River it flows along southern Tibet to break
through the Himalayas in great gorge and into 235. Which of the following wind is blowing from
Arunachal Pradesh (India) the Mediterranean sea to the North Western
parts of India.
232. The Kovvada Nuclear Park project is (A) Western disturbances
proposed to be setup in which State (B) Norwesters
(A) Rajasthan (B) Uttar Pradesh (C) Loo
(C) Andhra Pradesh (D) Karnataka (D) Mango showers

Ans.232(C) Kovvada Atomic Power Project Ans.235(A) A Western Disturbance is an

is a proposed 6,600 MW nuclear power extratropical storm originating in the
station in the state of Andhra Pradesh, India. Mediterranean region that brings sudden
The project is planned over an area of 2067 winter rain to the northwestern parts of the
acres. According to a GV Ramesh, the project Indian subcontinent. It is a non-monsoonal
director at NPCIL, close to 485 acres of land precipitation pattern driven by the westerlies.
has already been handed over for the project The moisture in these storms usually
by the Srikakulam district administration. originates over the Mediterranean Sea and the
Indian Ocean. Extratropical storms are a
233. The World’s largest island is – global phenomena with moisture usually
(A) Greenland (B) Iceland carried in the upper atmosphere, unlike their
(C) New Guinea (D) Madagascar tropical counterparts where the moisture is
carried in the lower atmosphere.
Ans.233(A) Greenland is the world's largest
island, located between the Arctic and 236. Which layer of the earth’s atmosphere
Atlantic oceans, east of the Canadian Arctic contains the ozone layer?
Archipelago. It is an autonomous territory (A) Troposphere (B) Mesosphere
within the Kingdom of Denmark. Though (C) Ionosphere (D) Stratosphere
physiographically a part of the continent of
North America, Greenland has been Ans.236(D) The next layer up is called the
politically and culturally associated with stratosphere. The stratosphere extends from
Europe (specifically Norway and Denmark, the top of the troposphere to about 50 km (31
the colonial powers, as well as the nearby miles) above the ground. The infamous ozone
island of Iceland) for more than a millennium. layer is found within the stratosphere. Ozone
molecules in this layer absorb high-energy
234. Nandadevi peak is located in ____________ ultraviolet (UV) light from the Sun,
State. converting the UV energy into heat. Unlike
(A) Himachal Pradesh (B) Uttarakhand the troposphere, the stratosphere actually gets
(C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Sikkim warmer the higher it goes! That trend of rising
temperatures with altitude means that air in
Ans.234(B) Nanda Devi is the second highest
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the stratosphere lacks the turbulence and Ans.239(C) The taungya is a system whereby
updrafts of the troposphere beneath. villagers and sometimes forest plantation
workers are given the right to cultivate
237. Barrier reef, a coral reef roughly parallel to a agricultural crops during the early stages of
shore and separates from it by a lagoon or forest plantation establishment. Cultivation is
other part of water. Where is the Great Barrier often allowed to continue until trees shade
Reef located? crops due to canopy closure.
(A) Pacific Ocean (B) Indian Ocean
(C) Atlantic Ocean (D) Arctic Ocean 240. Drainage pattern is the pattern formed by the
streams, rivers, and lakes in a particular
Ans.237(A) The Great Barrier Reef is the drainage basin. They are governed by the
world's largest coral reef system composed of topography of the land, whether a particular
over 2,900 individual reefs and 900 islands region is dominated by hard or soft rocks, and
stretching for over 2,300 kilometres (1,400 the gradient of the land.
mi) over an area of approximately 344,400 a drainage pattern where a river is joined by
square kilometres (133,000 sq mi).The reef is its tributaries approximately at right angles is
locate near coast of Queensland Australia. ________.
The Great Barrier Reef can be seen from outer (A) Dendritic (B) Trellis
space and is the world's biggest single (C) Rectangular (D) Radial
structure made by living organisms. This reef
structure is composed of and built by billions Ans.240(B) Trellis drainage patterns look
of tiny organisms, known as coral polyps. similar to their namesake. Trellis drainage
develops in folded topography like that found
238. There are 50 tiger reserves in India which are in the Appalachian Mountains of North
governed by Project Tiger which is America. Down-turned folds called synclines
administrated by the National Tiger form valleys in which resides the main
Conservation Authority (NTCA). Dudhwa channel of the stream. Short tributary streams
Tiger Reserve is in which state? enter the main channel at sharp angles as they
(A) Karnataka (B) Uttar Pradesh run down sides of parallel ridges called
(C) Chhattisgarh (D) West Bengal anticlines. Tributaries join the main stream at
nearly right angles.
Ans.238(B) The Dudhwa Tiger Reserve is a
protected area in Uttar Pradesh that stretches 241. Earth's inner core is the innermost geologic
mainly across the Lakhimpur Kheri and layer of the Earth. It is primarily a solid ball
Bahraich districts and comprises the Dudhwa with a radius of about 1,220 kilometres (760
National Park, Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary miles), which is about 20% of the Earth's
and Katarniaghat Wildlife Sanctuary. It covers radius or 70% of the Moon's radius. The core
an area of 1,284.3 km2 (495.9 sq mi) and of the earth is also known as ______.
includes three large forest fragments amidst (A) Lithosphere (B) Mesosphere
the matrix dominated by agriculture. It shares (C) Barysphere (D) Centrosphere
the north-eastern boundary with Nepal, which
is defined to a large extent by the Mohana Ans.241(C) Barysphere is the central part of
River. the Earth. It is the beneath the lithosphere.
Barysphere comprises of nickel and iron.
239. Growing agricultural crops between rows of Its diameter ranges from 2500-2700 km with a
planted trees is known as – temperature of around 5500 degrees Celsius.
(A) Social forestry Barysphere is divided into liquid and solid
(B) Jhum Cultivation core.
(C) Taungya system
(D) Community Forestry 242. What is dew point?
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(A) The temperature at which an air becomes (B) Relative humidity

unsaturated (C) Ultra humidity
(B) The temperature at which an air becomes (D) Mild humidity
cold from warm
(C) The temperature at which an air becomes Ans.244(B) Relative humidity is the ratio of
saturated the current absolute humidity to the highest
(D) None of the above possible absolute humidity (which depends on
the current air temperature). A reading of 100
Ans.242(C) The dew point is the temperature percent relative humidity means That the air
to which air must be cooled to become is totally saturated with water vapor and
saturated with water vapor. When it further cannot hold any more, creating the possibility
cooled, the airborne water vapour will of rain.
condense to form liquid water (dew). When
air cools to its dew point through contact with 245. Loess is a ________.
a surface that is colder than the air, water will (A) Loss of rocks
condense on the surface. When the (B) Animal deposited sediments
temperature is below the freezing point of (C) Water deposited sediments
water, the dew point is called the frost point, (D) Wind deposited sediments
as frost is formed rather than dew. The
measurement of the dew point is related to Ans.245(D) Loess, an unstratified,
humidity. A higher dew point means There is geologically recent deposit of silty or loamy
more moisture in the air. material that is usually buff or yellowish
brown in colour and is chiefly deposited by
243. Radiation inversions are the most common the wind. Loess is a sedimentary deposit
type of inversion. In some places, they occur composed largely of silt-size grains that are
almost nightly. Radiation inversion generally loosely cemented by calcium carbonate.
happen in places where cools off a lot at night.
During the night, the ground cools off, 246. At Barren Island, the only active volcano in
radiating the heat to the sky. It is because of India is situated in –
radiation inversion that there is often fog in (A) Andaman Islands (B) Nicobar Islands
the morning. Radiation inversion occurs only (C) Lakshadweep (D) Minicoy
on _____.
(A) Air surface Ans.246(A) At Barren Island, the only active
(B) Ocean surface volcano in India is situated in Andaman
(C) Land surface Islands. Barren Island is situated in the
(D) none of the above Andaman Sea, and lies about 138 km (86 mi)
northeast of the territory’s capital, Port Blair.
Ans.243(C) A radiation inversion commonly It is the only active Volcano along the chain
occurs when the evening air is still and there from Sumatra to Myanmar and also the only
are no clouds to trap heat. Surface temperature active volcano in India.
drops as longwave radiation emitted by the
Earth escapes to space. Since a land surface 247. The depletion in Ozone layer is caused by
radiates more heat than the air, ground is ___________.
cooled more rapidly than the air at great (A) Nitrous oxide (B) Carbon dioxide
heights during night time. Consequently, the (C) Chlorofluorocarbons (D) Methane
coldest air lies at the ground and is overlaid Ans.247(C) The ozone layer is a region of
by warmer air. Earth’s stratosphere that absorbs most of the
Sun’s ultraviolet (UV) radiation. The
244. The comparative ratio between humidity of depletion in Ozone layer is caused by
certain area with the maximum limit is called Chlorofluorocarbons.
(A) Relative strength
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248. One of the leading producers of asbestos in Ans.250(A) Two giants of 20th-century
the world is : meteorology, Gilbert Walker and Jacob
(A) Australia (B) Russia Bjerknes, are usually given credit for
(C) Canada (D) Armenia discovering the El Nio-Southern Oscillation
Ans.248(B) Russia is the leading producer of phenomenon. During the early 1920s, Walker
Asbestos. Asbestos is a term used to refer to empirically identified a periodic variation in
six naturally occurring silicate minerals. All atmospheric pressure over the Indo-Pacific
are composed of long and thin fibrous which he christened the "Southern Oscillation.
crystals, each fiber being composed of many
microscopic 'fibrils' that can be released into 251. Which months are known for retreating
the atmosphere by abrasion and other monsoons.
processes. Asbestos is an excellent electrical (A) April and May
insulator and is highly heat-resistant, so for (B) June and August
many years it was used as a building material. (C) October and November
However, it is now a well-known health and (D) March and April
safety hazard and the use of asbestos as a
building material is illegal in many countries. Ans.251(C) The monsoons withdraw from the
Inhalation of asbestos fibres can lead to extreme north-west end of the country in
various serious lung conditions including September from the peninsula by October and
asbestosis and cancer. from the extreme south-eastern tip by
December. It starts with the beginning of the
249. The Peninsular India comprises the diverse withdrawal of southwest monsoon [middle of
topological and climatic patterns of South September – November] and lasts till early
India. The Peninsula is in shape of a vast January.
inverted triangle bounded on the west by the
Arabian Sea, on the east by the Bay of Bengal 252. Sedimentary rocks are deposited in layers as
and on the north by the Vindhya and Satpura (A) Disintegration (B) Bedding
ranges. The highest pea In Peninsular India, (C) strata
the direction of prevailing summer monsoonal (D) none of the above
wind is?
(A) From South-East (B) From West Ans.252(C) Sedimentary rocks are types of
(C) From North (D) From South rock that are formed by the accumulation or
deposition of small particles and subsequent
Ans.249(B) The southwest monsoon arrives cementation of mineral or organic particles on
in two branches: the Bay of Bengal branch the floor of ocean or other bodies of water at
and the Arabian Sea branch. The latter the Earth's surface. Sedimentation is the
extends towards a low-pressure area over the collective name for processes that cause these
Thar Desert and is roughly three times particles to settle in place.
stronger than the Bay of Bengal branch. In geology and related fields, a stratum
250. Southern Oscillation (ENSO) is an irregularly (plural: strata) is a layer of sedimentary rock
periodic variation in winds and sea surface or soil, or igneous rock that was formed at the
temperatures over the tropical eastern Pacific Earth's surface, with internally consistent
Ocean, affecting the climate of much of the characteristics that distinguish it from other
tropics and subtropics. The warming phase of layers.
the sea temperature is known as El Niño and
the cooling phase La Niña. Southern 253. Dynamic metamorphism occur due to___.
Oscillation was discovered by whom? (A) Wind (B) Water
(A) Sir Gilbert Walker (B) Flohn (C) Heat
(C) Sir Palker (D) Sir Thomson (D) high Pressure and high temperature
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Ans.253(D) Metamorphism is the change of illuvium red layer. Red Soil look yellow
minerals or geologic texture in pre-existing when?
rocks, without the protolith melting into liquid (A) It occurs in a iron oxide form.
magma. The change occurs primarily due to (B) It occurs in a loosed form.
heat, pressure, and the introduction of (C) It occurs in a composed form.
chemically active fluids. There are several (D) It occurs in a hydrated form.
different types of metamorphism, including
dynamic, contact, regional, and retrogressive Ans.256(D) This soil, also known as the
metamorphism that form and shape rocks. omnibus group and have been developed over
Dynamic metamorphism involves high shear Archaean granite, gneiss and other crystalline
stress, high pressure, high strain, high fluid rocks the sedimentaries of the Cuddapah and
partial pressure and variable temperature. Vindhayan basins and mixed Dharwarian
group of rocks. Their colour is mainly due to
254. The processes which include geological ferric oxides occurring as thin coatings on the
phenomena and processes that originate soil particles while the iron oxide occurs as
externally to the Earth’s surface are called as haematite or as hydrous ferric oxide the color
_____. is red and when it occurs in the hydrate form
(A) Endogenic processes as limonite the soil gets a yellow colour.
(B) Exogenic processes Ordinarily the surface soils are red while the
(C) Biological process horizon below gets yellowish colour.
(D) None of these
257. What is Latent Heat.
Ans.254(B) Exogenic processes include (A) Energy in a form of heat needed to
geological phenomena and processes that convert the water into gaseous form
originate externally to the Earth’s surface. (B) Energy in a form of heat needed to
They are genetically related to the convert the gaseous into water form
atmosphere, hydrosphere and biosphere, and (C) Amount of heat present in the
therefore to processes of weathering, erosion, environment
transportation, deposition, denudation etc. (D) None of the above
Exogenic factors and processes could also
have sources outside the Earth, for instance Ans.257(A) Latent heat is the heat energy per
under the influence of the Sun, Moon etc. mass unit required for a phase change to
occur. Normally when heat energy is added to
255. The scientific study of soil is or removed from an object, the temperature of
(A) Pedology (B) Earth Study the object changes; however, during phase
(C) Soil Science (D) Soil Chemistry changes, the temperature of an object stays
constant. The temperature remains the same
Ans.255(A) Pedology is the study of soils in because energy is required for an object to
their natural environment. It is one of two change phases. So when you add heat to a
main branches of soil science, the other being liquid, you are actually causing the molecules
edaphology. Pedology deals with pedogenesis, to vibrate. The latent heat is the energy
soil morphology, and soil classification, while required to change the molecular movement.
edaphology studies the way soils influence Each substance has a unique latent heat value.
plants, fungi, and other living things.
258. Igneous rock (derived from the Latin word
256. Red soil is a type of soil that develops in a ignis meaning fire), or magmatic rock, is one
warm, temperate, moist climate under of the three main rock types, the others being
deciduous or mixed forest, having thin sedimentary and metamorphic. Which these
organic and organic-mineral layers overlying are example of Igneous rock.
a yellowish-brown leached layer resting on an 1. Granites 2. Basalt
3. Marble 4. Sandstones
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(A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only industrial activity. Earlier known as the
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) All of the above Sorrow of Bengal because of its ravaging
floods in the plains of West Bengal, the
Ans.258(A) Igneous rocks form from the Damodar and its tributaries have been
cooling of magma – molten materials in the somewhat tamed with the construction of
earth’s crust. Granite is a common type of several dams. It is the most polluted river of
felsic intrusive igneous rock that is granular India (by 2003). It has a number of tributaries
and phaneritic in texture. Granites can be and subtributaries, such as Barakar, Konar,
predominantly white, pink, or gray in color, Bokaro, Haharo, Jamunia, Ghari, Guaia,
depending on their mineralogy. Basalt is a Khadia and Bhera.
mafic extrusive igneous rock formed from the
rapid cooling of magnesium-rich and iron-rich 262. Which of the following resources is renewable
lava exposed at or very near the surface of a one?
terrestrial planet or a moon. More than 90% of (A) Uranium (B) Coal
all volcanic rock on Earth is basalt. (C) Timber (D) Natural Gas

259. Which of the following option is correct? Ans.262(C) A renewable resource is one that
(A) Mahadeo hills are in the west of Maikala can be used repeatedly and does not run out
hills. because it is naturally replaced. A renewable
(B) Mahadeo hills are the part of Karnataka resource, essentially, has an endless supply
Plateau. such as solar energy, wind energy, and
(C) Mahadeo hills are in the east of geothermal pressure. Other resources are
Chhotanagpur Plateau. considered renewable even though some time
(D) Mahadeo hills are the part of Aravalli or effort must go into their renewal (e.g.,
ranges. wood, oxygen, leather, and fish).
Timber is a renewable resource because of the
Ans.259(A) The Mahadeo Hills are a range of regrowth of forests. Unlike other products,
hills in Madhya Pradesh state of central India. such as iron ore for steel, timber requires
The hills are situated in the northern section of considerable less energy in the conversion of
the Satpura Range. They are situated to the raw products to usable ones and in the
west of Maikal Hills. remanufacture of material.

260. Which country has the most natural lakes? 263. Soil erosion can be prevented by
(A) Russia (B) England (A) Increasing bird population
(C) Brazil (D) Canada (B) Afforestation
(C) Removal of vegetation
Ans.260(D) Canada is the country that has the (D) Overgrazing
most natural lakes, with some estimates going
over 2 million. Most of Canada's lakes were Ans.263(B) Afforestation is the process of
formed by glaciers. establishing a forest on land that has not been
a forest for a long time by planting trees or
261. Which river is also known by the name their seeds. Soil erosion is when the soil is
‘Sorrow of Bengal’ as it gets flooded often- blown away by the wind or washed away by
causing damage? the rain. Roots of trees or plants hold the soil.
(A) Damodar (B) Kamodar Thus, when more trees are planted their roots
(C) Yamuna (D) Jhatta do not allow the soil to be blown or washed
away and prevent soil erosion.
Ans.261(A) Damodar River is a river flowing
across the Indian states of Jharkhand and 264. Natural sources of air pollution are
West Bengal. Rich in mineral resources, the (A) Forest fires
valley is home to large-scale mining and (B) Volcanic eruptions
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(C) Dust storm (A) Trans Siberian Railway

(D) Smoke from burning dry leaves (B) Canadian Pacific Railway
(C) Canadian National Railway
Ans.264(C) Some of the natural sources of air (D) TransAtlantic Railway
pollution are organic compounds from plants,
sea salt, suspended soils and dusts (e.g. from Ans.267(A) The Trans-Siberian Railway is a
the Sahara). Other natural sources are released nework of railways connecting Moscow with
during catastrophes such as volcanic eruptions the Russian Far East. With a length of 9,289
and forest fires. kilometres (5,772 miles), from Moscow to
But natural events such as volcanic eruptions, Vladivostok, it is the longest railway line in
earthquakes, wildfires, and dust storms can the world.
affect air quality, too. These natural events
produce particulate matter, or airborne 268. Which of the following river does not
particles of dust and soot, which can cause originate in Indian territory?
health problems when we breathe them. (A) Mahanadi (B) Brahmaputra
(C) Satluj (D) Ganga
265. The ‘graded profile’ of a river course is a
(A) smooth curve in the upper course Ans.268(B) The Brahmaputra, also called
(B) smooth curve in the middle course Tsangpo in Tibet, is one of the main rivers in
(C) smooth curve in the lower course Asia. It has its origin in the Himalayas of
(D) smooth curve from source to mouth Tibet. It flows through Tibet, India and
Bangladesh. It is 2,900 km (1,800 mi) long.
Ans.265(D) The course of a river from its
source to its mouth is normally divided into 3 269. Which one among the following industries in
sections, namely upper, middle and lower the maximum consumer of water in India?
courses. Action of the river on its valley from (A) Textile (B) Engineering
source to mouth in relation to the features (C) Paper and Pulp (D) Thermal Power
developed by it is seen in he river valley
profile, known as graded profile. Throughout Ans.269(D) Thermal power describes how
the long profile of a river, deposition and fast heat is produced. For most energy
erosion are balanced meaning that, given systems such as a gasoline engine, thermal
enough time, the river’s long profile would power is how fast fuel is converted into heat.
become a smooth, concave, graded profile These heat engines create this heat to achieve
from its source to mouth. useful work. Most commonly thermal power
refers to the heat input to a boiler in a power
266. Sinkhole is a phenomenon of ____ plant in order to generate electricity. In other
topography. contexts, it can be a measure of the output—
(A) Desert (B) Tundra such as the radiant heat given off by the Sun.
(C) Karst (D) Plain For power plants, the thermal power input is
measured in megawatts thermal (MWt).
Ans.266(C) Karst is a topography formed However, the output, which is usually
from the dissolution of soluble rocks such as supplying electric power to the grid is
limestone, dolomite, and gypsum. It is measured in megawatts electric (MWe). Since
characterized by underground drainage not all of the input heat can be converted
systems with sinkholes and caves. It has also entirely into electricity, the MWt value will
been documented for more weathering- always be larger the the MWe value.
resistant rocks, such as quartzite, given the
right conditions. 270. The layer of atmosphere close to the earth’s
surface is called:
267. The longest continental Railway in the world (A) Exosphere (B) Ionosphere
is (C) Stratosphere (D) Troposphere
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(B) Red and Yellow soils

Ans.270(D) The troposphere is the lowest (C) Tundra soils
layer of Earth's atmosphere, and is also where (D) Podsols
nearly all weather conditions take place. It
contains 75% of the atmosphere's mass and Ans.273(A) Brown podzolic soils are a
25% of the total mass of water vapour and subdivision of the Podzolic soils in the British
aerosols. The average height of the soil classification. Although classed with
troposphere is 18 km (11 mi; 59,000 ft) in the podzols because they have an iron-rich, or
tropics, 17 km (11 mi; 56,000 ft) in the middle spodic horizon, they are, in fact intermediate
latitudes, and 6 km (3.7 mi; 20,000 ft) in the between podzols and Brown earths. They are
polar regions in winter. The total average common on hilly land in western Europe, in
height of the troposphere is 13 km. The lowest climates where precipitation of more than
part of the troposphere, where friction with about 900mm exceeds evapotranspiration for
the Earth's surface influences airflow, is the a large part of the year, and summers are
planetary boundary layer. relatively cool.

271. What country has the longest coastline in the 274. Equinox occurs when the sun is vertically
world? above
(A) Canada (B) Indonesia (A) Tropic of Capricorn
(C) Russia (D) Malaysia (B) Tropic of Cancer
(C) Poles (D) Equator
Ans.271(A) Canada's coastline is the world's
longest, measuring 243,042 km (includes the Ans.274(D) An equator is an imaginary line
mainland coast and the coasts of offshore around the middle of a planet or other celestial
islands). body. It is halfway between the North Pole
and the South Pole, at 0 degrees latitude. An
272. Evergreen type forests are found in: equator divides the planet into a Northern
(A) Mediterranean region Hemisphere and a Southern Hemisphere. The
(B) Monsoon climatic area Earth is widest at its Equator.
(C) Desert region
(D) Equatorial region 275. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric
project, completed with the help of Japan, is
Ans.272(B) An evergreen forest is a forest on which the river.
made up of evergreen trees. They occur across (A) Ganga (B) Cauvery
a wide range of climatic zones, and include (C) Godavari (D) Narmada
trees such as coniferous and holly in cold
climates, eucalyptus, Live oak, acacias and Ans.275(C) Jayakwadi is one of the largest
banksia in more temperate zones, and earthen dams in Asia. Its height is approx
rainforest trees in tropical zones. 41.30 m and length of 9.998 km (10 km
Monsoon climate, also known as the tropical approx) with total storage capacity 2,909
monsoon climate, is found in the region MCM (million cubic meters) and effective live
bounded by the Tropic of Cancer and the storage capacity is 2,171 MCM. The total
Tropic of Capricorn. The region is influenced catchment area of dam is 21,750 km2. There
by the movement of inter-tropical are total 27 water gates for the dam.
convergence zone (ITCZ) and is hot and Jayakwadi Dam is also called as Nathsagar
humid all around the year because the sun Dam. Nath Sagar Jalashay is the name of
remains overhead. the reservoir formed by Jayakwadi Dam.
Fed by the Godavari and Pravara rivers the
273. The ash-grey soils of high latitude coniferous reservoir is about 55 km long and 27 km
forests are known as: wide and spans. over 350 km2. Total
(A) Grey-Brown soils
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submergence area due to the reservoir is (C) Indian Ocean (D) Atlantic Ocean
approx 36,000 hectares.
Ans.279(B) The Arctic Ocean is the smallest
276. The percentage of irrigated land in India is and shallowest of the world's five major
about. oceans. It is also known as the coldest of all
(A) 45 (B) 65 the oceans. The International Hydrographic
(C) 35 (D) 25 Organization (IHO) recognizes it as an ocean,
although some oceanographers call it the
Ans.276(C) The Economic Survey 2018 Arctic Sea. It is sometimes classified as an
states that agriculture in India even today estuary of the Atlantic Ocean, and it is also
relies heavily on weather because close to seen as the northernmost part of the all-
52% that is 73.2 million hectares area out of encompassing World Ocean.
141.4 million hectares is still unirrigated and
dependant on rainfall. The percentage of 280. Which is the largest peninsular river in India?
irrigated land in India is 34.5% as per the (A) Krishna (B) Godavari
survey. (C) Cauvery (D) Mahanadi

277. The pass located at the southern end of the Ans.280(B) Godavari is the longest river of
Nilgiri Hills in south India is called peninsular India. Godavari, also known as
(A) The Palghat gap 'Dakshin Ganga' – the South Ganges, is the
(B) The Bhorghat pass longest river of peninsular India, and the
(C) The Thalgat pass second longest river of India after the Ganges.
(D) The Bolan pass
281. Red soil is normally found in India in which
Ans.277(A) Palghat Gap, major break in the regions?
Western Ghats mountain range, in (A) Eastern Region only
southwestern India. Located between the (B) Southern Region only
Nilgiri Hills to the north and the Anaimalai (C) Eastern & Southern part of the Deccan
Hills to the south, it is about 20 miles (32 km) Plateau
wide and straddles the Kerala–Tamil Nadu (D) None of these
border, serving as a major communication
route between those two states. Ans.281(C) The Deccan Plateau is a large
plateau in western and southern India. It rises
278. Doda Betta, mountain peak, the highest point to 100 metres (330 ft) in the north, and to
in Tamil Nadu state, southeastern India, near more than 1,000 metres (3,300 ft) in the south,
(A) Udhagamandalam (B) Ootacamund forming a raised triangle within the south-
(C) Ooty (D) None pointing triangle of the Indian subcontinent's
coastline. It extends over eight Indian states
Ans.278(A) Udhagamandalam, also spelled and encompasses a wide range of habitats,
Uthagamandalam, formerly Ootacamund, also covering significant parts of Telangana,
called Ooty, town, western Tamil Nadu state, . Maharashtra, Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.
It is situated in the Nilgiri Hills at an
elevation of about 7,500 feet (2,300 metres) 282. The principal copper deposits of India lie in
above sea level and is sheltered by several which of the following places?
peaks—including Doda Betta (8,652 feet (A) Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar
[2,637 metres]), the highest point in Tamil (B) Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan
Nadu. (C) Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh
(D) Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in
279. Among the world oceans, which ocean is Karnataka
having the widest continental shelf?
(A) Antarctic Ocean (B) Arctic Ocean
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Ans.282(A) Hazaribagh is a city and a Ans.285(C) The only zone in the country that
municipal corporation in Hazaribagh district produces gold is also rich in iron is Southern
in the Indian state of Jharkhand. It is the zone.
divisional headquarters of North Chotanagpur
division. It is famous as a health resort and for 286. The India's highest annual rainfall is reported
Hazaribag Wildlife Sanctuary (17 km from at-
city). (A) Namchi, Sikkim
Singhbhum was a district of India during the (B) Churu, Rajasthan
British Raj, part of the Chota Nagpur Division (C) Masinram, Meghalaya
of the Bengal Presidency. It was located in the (D) Chamba, Himachal Pradesh
present-day Indian state of Jharkhand.
Chaibasa was the district headquarters. Ans.286(C) Mawsynram is a village in the
Located in the southern limit of the Chota East Khasi Hills district of Meghalaya state in
Nagpur Plateau, Singhbhum included the north eastern India, 65 kilometres from
Kolhan estate located in its southeastern part. Shillong. Mawsynram receives the highest
rainfall in India and the World.
283. Limestone is a raw material used by which
industry? 287. When does solar eclipse take place?
(A) Aluminium (B) Fertilizers (A) When the sun is between the moon and
(C) Cement (D) Petrochemicals earth
(B) When the earth is between the moon and
Ans.283(C) A cement is a binder, a substance sun
used for construction that sets, hardens, and (C) When the moon is between the sun and
adheres to other materials to bind them earth
together. Cement is seldom used on its own, (D) When the moon does not lie on the line
but rather to bind sand and gravel together. joining the sun and earth
Cement mixed with fine aggregate produces
mortar for masonry, or with sand and gravel, Ans.287(C) A solar eclipse occurs when a
produces concrete. portion of the Earth is engulfed in a shadow
cast by the Moon which fully or partially
284. The Salal Project is on the river blocks sunlight. This occurs when the Sun,
(A) Chenab (B) Jhelum Moon and Earth are aligned.
(C) Ravi (D) Sutlej
288. Strait of Gibraltar connects which of the
Ans.284(A) Salal Dam, also known as Salal following?
Hydroelectric Power Station, is a run-of-the- (A) Red Sea-Mediterranean Sea
river power project on the Chenab River in the (B) Red Sea-Arabian Sea
Reasi district of the India Jammu and (C) Atlantic Ocean-Mediterranean Sea
Kashmir. It was the first hydropower project (D) Mediterranean Sea-Black Sea
built by India in Kashmir under the Indus
Water Treaty regime, after having reached a Ans.288(C) The Strait of Gibraltar, also
bilateral agreement with Pakistan in 1978. The known as the Straits of Gibraltar, is a narrow
dam silted up in five years, strait that connects the Atlantic Ocean to the
Mediterranean Sea and separates Gibraltar and
285. The only zone in the country that produces Peninsular Spain in Europe from Morocco in
gold is also rich in iron is- Africa. The two continents are separated by
(A) North-eastern zone 14.3 kilometres (8.9 miles; 7.7 nautical miles)
(B) North-western zone of ocean at the Strait's narrowest point. The
(C) Southern zone name comes from the Rock of Gibraltar,
(D) None of the above
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289. The largest solar power plant in India is materials or converting raw material into
located at. products of value. The refineries are Mathura,
(A) Nagercoil (B) Jaisalmer Digboi and Panipat are set up by.
(C) Madhapur (D) Rann of Kutch (A) Indian Oil Corporation Ltd.
(B) Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
Ans.289(C) Solar is one of the fastest (C) Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
growing energy sources in the world, and with (D) Crude Distillation unit of Madras
countries racing to assert their dominance in Refineries Ltd.
the burgeoning industry the leading nation is
never clear for long. profiles the eight biggest Ans.292(A) The refineries are Mathura,
solar power plants in the world. The nations Digboi and Panipat are set up by Indian Oil
pulling ahead in the sunny sector are China Corporation Ltd.
and the US, which together account for two-
thirds of the global growth in solar power. 293. What is the predominant type of Indian
agriculture?
290. With which country, India has the longest (A) Commercial agriculture
international boundary? (B) Extensive agriculture
(A) Nepal (B) Pakistan (C) plantation agriculture
(C) China (D) Bangladesh (D) subsistence agriculture

Ans.290(D) The state of “Jammu & Kashmir” Ans.293(D) Subsistence agriculture occurs
actually has 3176 km of international border when farmers grow food crops to meet the
with Pakistan, China and Afghanistan. But, needs of themselves and their families. In
due to border disputes and wars, India lost subsistence agriculture, farm output is
significant amount of land in Jammu & targeted to survival and is mostly for local
Kashmir making the International border just requirements with little or no surplus. Planting
2000 km (1474 with Pakistan and over 650 decisions are made principally with an eye
with China). Bangladesh and India share a toward what the family will need during the
4,096 - kilometer (2,545-mile) long coming year
international border, the fifth-longest land
border in the world. West Bengal with 2,217 294. Jog falls in Karnataka is located over which
km share longest border with Bangladesh. river?
Other states include 262 km in Assam, 856 (A) Kaveri (B) Godavari
km in Tripura, 180 km in Mizoram, 443 km in (C) Sharavati (D) Krishna
Meghalaya, and 2,217 km in West Bengal.
Ans.294(C) Sharavati is a river which
291. Which State in India has the largest coastline? originates and flows entirely within the state
(A) Tamil Nadu (B) Andhra Pradesh of Karnataka in India. It is one of the few
(C) Gujarat (D) West Bengal westward flowing rivers of India and a major
part of the river basin lies in the Western
Ans.291(C) Gujarat has the longest mainland Ghats. The famous Jog Falls, located about 24
coastline in India. The total length of India's km from Sagara, are formed by this river. The
coastline is 7516.6 kilometers. The Arabian river itself and the region around it are rich in
Sea gives the state of Gujarat its extensive biodiversity and are home to many rare
coastline. Andhra Pradesh has the second species of flora and fauna. Jog Falls is the
longest mainland coastline with a total length highest waterfall in India if the single drop
of 974 kilometers. water fall and the volume of water are
considered for height. Otherwise, it is the third
292. A refinery is a production facility composed highest waterfall in India. The first highest is
of a group of chemical engineering unit Kunchikal Falls about 455 meters (1493 ft),
processes and unit operations refining certain and the second highest is Barkana Falls about
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340

259 meters (850 ft); all three are located in 298. The only state in India that produces saffron is
Shivamogga district. (A) Assam
(B) Himachal Pradesh
295. The Radcliffe line is a boundary between (C) Jammu and Kashmir
(A) India and Pakistan (D) Meghalaya
(B) India and China
(C) India and Myanmar Ans.298(C) Jammu and Kashmir is the
(D) India and Afghanistan only state in India producing saffron.

Ans.295(A) The Radcliffe Line was the 299. Which one of the following areas of India is
boundary demarcation line between the Indian covered by tropical evergreen forest?
and Pakistani portions of the Punjab and (A) Semi-arid areas of Gujarat
Bengal provinces of British India. It was (B) Eastern Ghats
named after its architect, Sir Cyril Radcliffe, (C) Western Ghats
who, as the joint chairman of the two (D) Madhya Pradesh
boundary commissions for the two provinces,
received the responsibility to equitably divide Ans.299(C) Tropical Evergreen Forests. The
175,000 square miles (450,000 km2) of tropical evergreen forests usually occur in
territory with 88 million people. The areas receiving more than 200 cm of rainfall
demarcation line was published on 17 August and having a temperature of 15 to 30 degrees
1947 upon the Partition of India. Today its Celsius. They occupy about seven per cent of
western side still serves as the Indo-Pakistani the earth's land surface and habours more than
border and the eastern side serves as the India- half of the world's plants and animals.
Bangladesh border.
300. The zonal soil type of peninsular India
296. Which of the following has a potential for the belongs to.
harnessing of tidal energy in India? (A) red soils (B) yellow soils
(A) Gulf of Cambay (B) Gulf of Mannar (C) black soils (D) older alluvium
(C) Backwaters of Kerala (D) Chilka lake
Ans.300(A) Red soil is a type of soil that
Ans.296(A) The Gulf of Khambhat, also develops in a warm, temperate, moist climate
known as the Gulf of Cambay, is a bay on the under deciduous or mixed forest, having thin
Arabian Sea coast of India, bordering the state organic and organic-mineral layers overlying
of Gujarat. The Gulf of Khambhat is about a yellowish-brown leached layer resting on an
200 km (120 mi) long, about 20 km (12 mi) illuvium red layer.
wide in the north and up to 70 km (43 mi)
wide in the south. Major rivers draining 301. Which of the following State is surrounded by
Gujarat are the Narmada, Tapti, Mahi and Bangladesh from three sides?
Sabarmati that form estuaries in the gulf. (A) Nagaland (B) Assam
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Tripura
297. The typical area of salt forest in the Indian
peninsular upland occurs Ans.301(D) Tripura is a state in northeastern
(A) on the western ghats India. The third-smallest state in the country,
(B) between the Tapti and the Narmada it covers 10,491 km2 (4,051 sq mi) and is
(C) to the north-east of the Godavari bordered by Bangladesh to the north, south,
(D) on the Malwa plateau and west, and the Indian states of Assam and
Mizoram to the east. In 2011 the state had
Ans.297(D) The typical area of sal forest in 3,671,032 residents, constituting 0.3% of the
the indian peninsular upland occurs on the country's population.
Malwa plateau. The area of modern Tripura—ruled for several
centuries by the Manikya dynasty—was part
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of an independent princely state under the 306. The oldest rocks in India are reported from
protectorate of the British Empire. (A) Dharwar region, Karnataka
(B) Aravalli range, Rajasthan
302. The Final Boundry between the Earth and the (C) Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh
outer space is called _____. (D) Siwalik range, Punjab
(A) Magnetosphere (B) Ionosphere
(C) Mesopause (D) Magnetopause Ans.306(B) The Aravalli Range (also spelled
Aravali) is a mountain range in Northwestern
Ans.302(D) The magnetopause is the abrupt India, running approximately 692 km (430 mi)
boundary between a magnetosphere and the in a south-west direction, starting near Delhi,
surrounding plasma. For planetary science, the passing through southern Haryana and
magnetopause is the boundary between the Rajasthan, and ending in Gujarat. The highest
planet's magnetic field and the solar wind. The peak is Guru Shikhar at 1,722 metres (5,650
location of the magnetopause is determined by ft). The Aravalli Range, an eroded stub of
the balance between the pressure of the ancient mountains, is the oldest range of fold
dynamic planetary magnetic field and the mountains in India.
dynamic pressure of the solar wind.
307. Which of the following groups of rivers
303. The northern boundary of the peninsular originate from the Himachal mountains?
plateau of Indian runs parallel to the Ganga (A) Beas, Ravi, and Chenab
and the Yamuna from Rajmahal hills to a (B) Ravi, Chenab, and Jhelum
point near (C) Sutlej, Beas, and Ravi
(A) Allahabad (B) Delhi (D) Sutlej, Ravi, and Jhelum
(C) Gwalior (D) Jaipur
Ans.307(A) The state of Himachal Pradesh is
Ans.303(B) The northern boundary of the spread over an area 55,673 km² Groups of
peninsula plateau of India runs parallel to the rivers originate from the Himachal mountains
Gange and the Yamuna from Rajmahal hills to are Beas, Ravi and Chenab.
a point near Delhi.
308. Which atomic power station in India is built
304. Which of the following food grain crops completely indigenously?
occupies the largest part of the cropped area in (A) Kalpakkam (B) Narora
India? (C) Rawat Bhata (D) Tarapore
(A) Barley and maize (B) Jowar and bajra
(C) Rice (D) Wheat Ans.308(A) Madras Atomic Power Station
(MAPS) located at Kalpakkam about 80
Ans.304(C) Rice is the most cultivated crop kilometres (50 mi) south of Chennai, India, is
in India. India is the world's second-largest a comprehensive nuclear power production,
producer of rice, behind China. Rice was
cultivated on an area of around 32.5 million 309. The oldest oil field in India is the _______
hectares during the fiscal year 2002-2003. field, in _______.
(A) Anleshwar, Gujarat
305. Which one of the following clouds does look (B) Bombay High, Maharashtra
like cotton wool? (C) Nawagam, Gujarat
(A) Cirrus (B) Altostratus (D) Digboi, Assam
(C) Cumulus (D) Nimbostratus
Ans.309(D) Digboi is a town and a town area
Ans.305(B) Normally, found between 4 and 8 committee in Tinsukia district in the north-
km altitude, cumulus cloud looks like cotton eastern part of the state of Assam, India.
wool. Crude oil was discovered here in late 19th
century and first oil well was dug in 1866.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
342

Digboi is known as the Oil City of Assam (A) 2 1 3 4

where the first oil well in Asia was drilled. (B) 1 2 4 3
The first refinery was started here as early as (C) 2 1 4 3
1901. Digboi has the oldest oil well in (D) 1 2 3 4
operation. Digboi has the distinction of being
India's oldest continuously producing oilfield. Ans.312(C) Volga, Danube, Rhine - Europe
Digboi refinery, now a division of Indian Oil Yangtze kiang , Dajla, Mekong - Asia
Corporation, had a capacity of about 0.65 Nile, Zaire, Niger - Africa
million tonnes per year as of 2003. Digboi is Saint Lawrence, Mississippi, Rio Grande -
now Headquarter of Assam Oil Division of North America
Indian Oil Corporation Limited.
313. Which of the following is not matched
310. Which of the following is matched correctly? correctly?
1. Nokrek Bio-sphere reserve : Garo hills (A) Mount Everest - Asia
2. Loktak lake : Barail Range (B) Vinson Massif - Antarctica
3. Namdapha national Park : Dafla Hills (C) Mount McKinley - South America
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only (D) Mount Lindsey – North America
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Ans.313(C) Mount Everest - Asia
Ans.310(A) Nokrek Biosphere Reserve is Vinson Massif - Antarctica
situated in Garo Hills in Meghalaya. Loktak Mount McKinley - North America
Lake is in Manipur. Barail Range is in Assam. Mount Lindsey – North America
Though Namdapha National Park and Dafla
Hill both are in Arunachal Pradesh, the two 314. Consider the following pairs Dam/Project
are separate entities. River
1. Kishau : Alaknanda
311. Which of the following combinations is not 2. Koteshwar : Bhagirathi
correctly matched? 3. Nangal : Sutlej
City river Which of the pairs given above is/are
(A) Paris Seen. correctly matched?
(B) Rome Tibber (A) 1 and 2 only (B) 2 and 3 only
(C) Tokyo Kyjil (C) 1 and 3 only (D)1, 2 and 3
(D) London Thames River
Ans.314(B) The Koteshwar Dam is a gravity
Ans.311(C) The Sumida River, (Sumida- dam on the Bhagirathi River, located 22 km
gawa) is a river that flows through Tokyo, (14 mi) downstream of the Tehri Dam in Tehri
Japan. It branches from the Arakawa River at District, Uttarakhand, India.
Iwabuchi and flows into Tokyo Bay. Its The Bhakra dam is built on Sutlej River. It is
tributaries include the Kanda and Shakujii Asia's second tallest dam with a height of
rivers. around 207.26 meters after the Tehri dam,
which has a height of around 261 meters.
312. Match list-I to List-II and use the code given
below to choose the correct answer- 315. Which of the following is not matched
List I List II correctly?
(Rivers) (Continents) Water body - Country
A. Volga, Danube, Rhine 1. Asia (A) Bering Strait - Alaska-Russia
B. Yangtze kiang , Dajla, Mekong 2. Europe (B) Hormuj Strait - Oman-Iran
C. Nile, Zaire, Niger 3. North America (C) Gibraltar Strait – Spain - Morocco
D. Saint Lawrence, Mississippi, Rio Grande (D) Hudson Strait – Canada- United States
4. Africa
` A B C D Ans.315(D) Bering Strait - Alaska-Russia
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
343

Hormuj Strait - Oman-Iran

Gibraltar Strait – Spain- Morocco 319. Which one of the following pairs is not
Hudson Strait -Quebec, Canada correctly matched?
(A) Miri Hills : Arunachal Pradesh
316. Which one of the following pairs is correctly (B) Mikir Hills : Assam
matched? (C) Lushai Hills : Mizoram
(Geographical features) (Region) (D) Abor Hills : Meghalya
(A) Atlas Mountains : North West Africa
(B) Kimberley Plateau : Central Africa Ans.319(D) The Abor Hills is a region of
(C) Caucasus Europe : Western Region Arunachal Pradesh in the far northeast of
(D) Piedmont Plateau : Eastern Asia India, near the border with China.
Ans.316(A) The Atlas Mountains extend some
2,500km across north-western Africa, 320. Which of the following pairs mountain ranges
spanning Morocco, Algeria and Tunisia, and their location is not correctly matched?
separating the Atlantic and Mediterranean (A) Zaskar Range -Kashmir
coastline from the Sahara Desert. (B) Dhauladhar Range -Himachal Pradesh
(C) Singalila Range -Arunachal Pradesh
317. Match the following columns: (D) Kumaon Range –Uttarakhand
Column-I Column-II
(Biosphere Reserves) (States) Ans.320(C) The Singalila Ridge is a north-
A. Nilgiri 1. Odisha south mountain ridge running from
B. Manas 2. Madhya Pradesh northwestern West Bengal through Sikkim in
C. Panchmarhi 3. Tamil Nadu the Indian part of the Himalayas.
D. similipal 4. Assam
Select the correct match using the code given 321. Which one of the following is wrongly
below: matched.
A B C D River Tributary
(A) 3 4 2 1 (A) Brahmaputra - Manas
(B) 2 1 4 3 (B) Yamuna - Kosi
(C) 3 2 1 4 (C) Godavari - Indravati
(D) 2 1 3 4 (D) Krishna - Tungabhadra

Ans.317(A) Nilgiri - Tamil Nadu Ans.321(B) The Yamuna, also known as the
Manas - Assam Jumna or Jamna, is the second largest
Panchmarhi - Madhya Pradesh tributary river of the Ganges and the longest
similipal - Odisha tributary in India, yamuna's tributaries are
Chambal, Banas River and the Kali Sindh
318. Which of the following is not matched River etc, and kosi river is trubutary of Ganga.
correctly?
Unit of Indian railway Location 322. Which one of the following is wrongly
(A) Railway staff college Vadodara matched.
(B) Central Org for railway Electrification Country Volcano
Varanasi (A) Santa Maria - Japan
(C) Wheel and Axle plant Bengaluru (B) Mount Vesuvius - Italy
(D) Rail Coach Factory Kapurthala (C) Mauna Loa - Hawaii
(D) Krakatoa - Indonesia
Ans.318(B) The Central Organisation for
Railway Electrification, headquartered in Ans.322(A) Santa María Volcano is a large
Allahabad, India, it is centralised agency for active volcano in the western highlands of
railway electrification of the Indian Railways Guatemala, is the site of one of the twentieth
network. century's largest eruptions. It is also the home
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
344

of Santiaguito, one of the most active lava (B) Buxa Tiger Reserve - West Bengal
dome complexes in the world. (C) Hemis National Park - Ladakh
(D) Madhav National Park - Maharashtra
323. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched. Ans.326(D) Madhav National Park is situated
Tribes Country in Shivpuri District of Gwalior division in
(A) Eskimos - Greenland, Canada northwest Madhya Pradesh, India. It was
(B) Flemings - Newzealand named after Madho Rao Scindia, the Maharaja
(C) Veddas - Sri Lanka of Gwalior belonging to the Scindia dynasty
(D) Masai - East Africa of the Marathas.

Ans.323(B) Fleming and Walloon, members 327. Which one of the following is wrongly
of the two predominant cultural and linguistic matched.
groups of modern Belgium. The Flemings, Biosphere Reserves - State
who constitute more than half of the Belgian (A) Agasthyamalai - Kerala
population (B) Cold Desert - Himachal Pradesh
(C) Nokrek - Assam
324. Which one of the following is wrongly (D) Simlipal - Orissa
matched.
Grasslands Region Ans.327(C) Nokrek National Park, the core
(A) Pustaz - Hungary area of Nokrek Biosphere Reserve, is a
(B) Prairies - USA national park located approximately 2 km
(C) Downs - Australia from Tura Peak in West Garo Hills district of
(D) Cantebury - Sauth Africa Meghalaya; India.UNESCO added this
National park to its list of Biosphere Reserves
Ans.324(D) Canterbury is a region of New in May 2009.
Zealand, located in the central-eastern South
Island. The region covers an area of 44,508 328. Which one of the following is wrongly
square kilometres (17,185 sq mi), and is home matched.
to a population of 617,700 Planets Satellite
(A) Mars Mimas
325. Which one of the following is wrongly (B) Jupiter Ganymede
matched. (C) Saturn Titan
River Falls (D) Uranus Ariel
(A) Mississippi Gulf of Mexico
(B) Volga River Caspian Sea. Ans.328(A)
(C) Nile Pacific Ocean (A) Mars Phobos
(D) Amazon Atlantic Ocean (B) Jupiter Ganymede
(C) Saturn Titan
Ans.325(C) Nile River The northern section (D) Uranus Ariel
of the river flows north almost entirely
through the Sudanese desert to Egypt, then 329. Which one of the following is wrongly
ends in a large delta and flows into the matched.
Mediterranean Sea. Egyptian civilization and Types Rocks
Sudanese kingdoms have depended on the (A) Limestone - Sedimentary
river since ancient times. (B) Marble - Metamorphic
(C) Basalt - Igneous
326. Which one of the following is wrongly (D) Quartzite - Sedimentary
matched.
National Park State Ans.329(D) Quartzite is a nonfoliate
(A) Bandipur National Park - Karnataka metamorphic rock composed almost entirely
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
345

of quartz. It forms when a quartz-rich Ans.332(D) Jog Falls located near Jog
sandstone is altered by the heat, pressure, and Village, falling point of water is located in
chemical activity of metamorphism. These Siddapur, Uttara Kannada and the view point
conditions recrystallize the sand grains and in Sagara Karnataka. Jog Falls is also known
the silica cement that binds them together. as Gerusoppe falls, Joga jalapatha and Jogada
gundi in the regional Kannada language. It
330. Which one of the following is wrongly isthe second highest plunge waterfalls in
matched. India, jog Falls is created by the Sharavathi
Straits - Joins River making it the second-highest plunge
(A) Bass Strait - Tasman Sea & South Sea waterfall in India
(B) Malacca Strait - Caribbean Sea & South
China Sea 333. Which one of the following is wrongly
(C) Sunda Strait - Java Sea & Indian Ocean matched.
(D) Bering Strait - Bering Sea & Chuksi Sea Dam River
(A) Nizam Sagar Dam - Manjira River
Ans.330(B) The Strait of Malacca or Straits of (B) Ukai Dam - Narmada River
Malacca is a narrow, 550 mi stretch of water (C)Baglihar Dam - Chenab River
between the Malay Peninsula and the (D) Mettur Dam - Kaveri River
Indonesian island of Sumatra. As the main
shipping channel between the Indian Ocean Ans.333(B) The Ukai Dam, constructed
and the Pacific Ocean, it is one of the most across the Tapi River, is the second largest
important shipping lanes in the world, Strait reservoir in Gujarat after the Sardar Sarovar.
of Malacca, waterway connecting the It is also known as Vallabh Sagar.
Andaman Sea (Indian Ocean) and the South Constructed in 1972, the dam is meant for
China Sea (Pacific Ocean). irrigation, power generation and flood control.

331. Which one of the following is wrongly 334. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched. matched.
Currents Ocean Minerals Highest Producer State
(A) Florida Current - Arctic Ocean (A) Bauxite Gujarat
(B) California Current - Pacific Ocean (B) Lead Rajasthan
(C) Humboldt Current - Pacific Ocean (C) Cobalt Jharkhand
(D) Canary Current - North Atlantic Gyre (D) Copper Madhya Pradesh

Ans.331(A) Originating in the South Atlantic Ans.334(A) Orissa is the largest bauxite
and Caribbean Sea, the Florida Current is producing state accounting for more than half
formed when the Gulf of Mexico Loop of the total production of India. The total
Current and the Yucatan Current come recoverable reserves in the state are estimated
together. This strong surface current carries at 1,370.5 million tonnes. The main bauxite
warm water from the Caribbean and is the belt is in Kalahandi and Koraput districts, and
primary reason for the corals reefs and marine Gujarat is 2nd highest producter of bauxite.
life that we see in the Florida Keys.
335. Which one of the following is wrongly
332. Which one of the following is wrongly matched.
matched. Steel Plants with Country help
Waterfall River (A) Bhilai - Soviet Union
(A) Victoria Falls Zambezi River (B) Rourkela - USA
(B) Niagara Falls Niagara River (C) Durgapur - United Kingdom
(C)Tugela Falls Tugela River (D) Bokaro - Soviet Union
(D) Jog Falls Kaveri River
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
346

Ans.335(B) Bhilai iron and steel centre was (C) Equator - 90 degrees
set up in Durg district of Chhattisgarh in 1957 (D) The International Date Line - 180 degrees
with the technical and financial support of the
then Soviet Union. Ans.337(C) The equator of a rotating spheroid
Plant of Hindustan Steel Limited at Rourkela (such as a planet) is the parallel (circle of
is situated in the Sundargarh district of Orissa latitude) at which latitude is defined to be 0°.
It was set up with the help of the then West It is the imaginary line on the spheroid,
German firm, Krupps and Demang, during t e equidistant from its poles, dividing it into
Second Five Year Plan. northern and southern hemispheres. On Earth,
Durgapur plant of The Hindustan Steel Ltd. is the equator is about 40,075 km (24,901 mi)
located at Durgapur in Bardhaman district of long, of which 78.8% lies across water and
West Bengal. It was set up in 1959 with the 21.3% over land.
help of the United Kingdom.
Bokaro a new public sector company, the 338. Find the Correctly Match.
Bokaro Steel Ltd. was formed in 1964 to erect Steel Plants State
a steel plant with the collaboration of the (A) Bhilai West Bengal
eartwhile Soviet Union at Bokaro near the (B) Rourkela Orissa
confluence of the Bokaro and Damodar rivers (C) Durgapur Chhattisgarh
in Hazaribagh district of Jharkhand. It is the (D) Bokaro Gujrat
second plant set up with the Soviet help.
Ans.338(B)
336. Which one of the following is wrongly (A) Bhilai Chhattisgarh
matched. (B) Rourkela Orissa
Multipurpose Project (C) Durgapur West Bengal
(A) Gandak Project - Bihar and Uttar Pradesh (D) Bokaro Jharkhand
(B) The Hirakud Project - Orissa
(C) Idukki Hydro-Electric Project - Gujrat 339. Which one of the following is wrongly
(D) Nagarjun Sagar Project - Andhra Pradesh matched.
Canals Connects
Ans.336(C) The river Gandak, after (A) Volga-Don Canal Caspian Sea to
debouching from Nepal Himalaya, has been Black Sea
tapped at Champaran in Bihar in its left bank (B) Suez Canal Red Sea to Pacific
and Gorakhpur in Uttar Pradesh in its right Sea
bank. This is also a joint venture comprising (C) Panama Canal Pacific Ocean to
Nepal and India. Atlantic Ocean
Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi (D) Baltic Sea Canal White Sea to Baltic
River, in Sambalpur in the state of Odisha Sea
The Idukki Dam is a double curvature Arch
dam constructed across the Periyar River in a Ans.339(B) The Suez Canal is a sea-level
narrow gorge between two granite hills locally waterway in Egypt, connecting the
known as Kuravan and Kurathi in Kerala, Mediterranean Sea to the Red Sea through the
This Project is a venture of Andhra Pradesh Isthmus of Suez. Constructed by the Suez
for utilizing water of the Krishna River. Canal Company between 1859 and 1869, it
officially opened on 17 November 1869.
337. Which one of the following is wrongly
matched. 340. Which one of the following is wrongly
Imaginary lines Latitude matched.
(A) Tropic of Capricorn - 23(1/2) degrees Winds Region
South - 23(1/2) (A) Khamsin Egypt
(B) Tropic of Cancer - 23(1/2) degrees North (B) Harmattan Australia
- 23(1/2) (C) Sirocco Southern Europe
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
347

(D) Chinook Canada a. Red soil 1. low in nutrients

and humus
Ans.340(B) The Harmattan is a season in the b. Black soil 2. deal plant-
West African subcontinent, which occurs growing medium
between the end of November and the middle c. Loamy soil 3. rich in iron and
of March. It is characterized by the dry and aluminium
dusty north easterly trade wind, of the same d. Laterite soil 4. derivatives of trap
name, which blows from the Sahara Desert lava and are spread mostly across interior
over West Africa into the Gulf of Guinea. Gujarat
341. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Codes:
answer using the codes given below the lists: A B C D
a has largest reserves of. (A) 1 2 4 3
a. Natural Gas 1. Russia (B) 1 4 2 3
b. Coal 2. U. S.A (C) 2 4 3 1
c. Oil 3. Australia (D) 2 1 4 3
d. Uranium 4. Venezula
Codes: Ans.342(B) Red soil is a type of soil that
A B C D develops in a warm, temperate, moist climate
(A) 1 2 4 3 under deciduous or mixed forest, having thin
(B) 1 4 2 3 organic and organic-mineral layers overlying
(C) 2 4 3 1 a yellowish-brown leached layer resting on an
(D) 2 1 4 3 illuvium red layer. Red soils are generally
derived from crystalline rock. They are
Ans.341(A) Russia tops the list, holding about usually poor growing soils, low in nutrients
a quarter of world's total gas reserves, and humus and difficult to be cultivated
followed by Iran and Qatar in the Middle East. because of its low water holding capacity.
profiles the top 10 countries with the world's Among the in situ soils of India, the black
biggest proven gas reserves. soils found in the lava-covered areas are the
The US tops the list holding more than one- most conspicuous. Those soils are often
fifth of the total proven coal reserves, while referred to as regur but are popularly known
China, which ranks third, is the biggest as “black cotton soils,” since cotton has been
producer and consumer of coal. Mining the most common traditional crop in areas
Technology profiles the ten countries with the where they are found. Black soils are
biggest coal reserves, based on total proved derivatives of trap lava and are spread mostly
reserves. across interior Gujarat, Maharashtra,
Based on data from OPEC at the beginning of Karnataka, and Madhya Pradesh on the
2013 the highest proved oil reserves including Deccan lava plateau and the Malwa Plateau,
non-conventional oil deposits are in where there is both moderate rainfall and
Venezuela (20% of global reserves), Saudi underlying basaltic rock.
Arabia (18% of global reserves), Canada Loam soil is a mixture of soil that is the ideal
(13% of global reserves), and Iran (15%). plant-growing medium. It is actually a
Australia, the world's biggest uranium reserve combination soil, normally equal parts of clay,
holder, was estimated to possess 1.66 million silt, and sand, which gives the benefits of each
tonnes (Mt) of known recoverable uranium with few of the disadvantages.
resources as of 2011, accounting for about Laterite is a soil and rock type rich in iron and
31% of the world total. aluminium and is commonly considered to
have formed in hot and wet tropical areas.
342. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Nearly all laterites are of rusty-red coloration,
answer using the codes given below the lists: because of high iron oxide content. They
List-I List-II develop by intensive and prolonged
weathering of the underlying parent rock.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
348

the river Kaveri, which forms here the

343. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct boundary to the mandya District, and is the
answer using the codes given below the lists: location of one of the first hydro-electric
List-I List-II power stations in Asia, which was set up in
a. International Advanced Research Centre 1902.
for Powder Metallurgy 1. Karnataka
b. Rana Pratap Sagar 2. Hyderabad 344. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
c. Shimsa hydroelectric station 3. Karnataka answer using the codes given below the lists:
d. first hydroelectric power station was List-I List-II
constructed 4. Rajasthan a. Malabar coast 1. Lying between
Codes: the Arabian Sea (west) and the Western Ghats
A B C D b. Konkan Coast 2. Southern part of
(A) 1 2 4 3 India’s westerncoast
(B) 1 4 2 3 c. Gujarat coast 3. South eastern
(C) 2 4 3 1 coast region of the
(D) 2 1 4 3 Indian subcontinent
d. Coromandel coast 4. Western coast
Ans.343(C) International Advanced Research of India
Centre for Powder Metallurgy and New Codes:
Materials (ARCI) established in the year A B C D
1997, is an Autonomous Research and (A) 1 2 4 3
Development Centre of Department of (B) 1 4 2 3
Science and Technology (DST), Government (C) 2 4 3 1
of India with main campus at Hyderabad (D) 2 1 4 3
spread about 95 acres of land and with
operations in Chennai and Gurgaon. Ans.344(D) Malabar Coast, name long
The Ranapratap Sagar Dam is a gravity applied to the southern part of India’s western
masonry dam of 53.8 metres (177 ft) height coast, approximately from the state of Goa
built on the Chambal River at Rawatbhata in southward, which is bordered on the east by
Rajasthan in India. It is part of integrated the Western Ghats range. The name has
scheme of a cascade development of the river sometimes encompassed the entire western
involving four projects starting with the coast of peninsular India. It now includes
Gandhi Sagar Dam in the upstream reach (48 most of Kerala state and the coastal region of
kilometres (30 mi) upstream) in Madhya Karnataka state. The coast consists of a
Pradesh and the Jawahar Sagar Dam on the continuous belt of sand dunes.
downstream (28 kilometres (17 mi) Konkan, also called Aparanta, coastal plain of
downstream) with a terminal structure of the western India, lying between the Arabian Sea
Kota Barrage (28 kilometres (17 mi) further (west) and the Western Ghats (east). The plain
downstream) in Rajasthan for irrigation. stretches approximately 330 miles (530 km)
One of the tributaries of the Cauvery River is from the Daman Ganga River north of
the Shimsha River that flows in southern part Mumbai (Bombay) to the Terekhol River
of India. The river originates in the southern between Maharashtra and Goa states and
part of the Devarayanadurga hill at an average Daman and Diu union territory in the south.
elevation of 914 metres, which is located in Between 28 and 47 miles (45 and 76 km) in
the Tumkur district of Karnataka. The total width, the Konkan includes the regions of
length of the river is two hundred and twenty- Thane, Greater Mumbai, Raigarh, and
one kilometers and has a catchment area of Ratnagiri.
about 8,469 square kilometers. Gujarat is a state on the western coast of India
Shivanasamudra is a small town in the with a coastline of 1,600 km (990 mi) – most
Chamarajanagar District of the state of of which lies on the Kathiawar peninsula –
Karnataka, India. It is situated on the banks of and a population in excess of 60 million. It is
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
349

the fifth largest Indian state by area and the Natural gas (also called fossil gas) is a
ninth largest state by population. naturally occurring hydrocarbon gas mixture
The Coromandel Coast is the southeastern consisting primarily of methane, but
coast region of the Indian subcontinent, commonly including varying amounts of other
bounded by the Utkal Plains to the north, the higher alkanes, and sometimes a small
Bay of Bengal to the east, the Kaveri delta to percentage of carbon dioxide, nitrogen,
the south, and the Eastern Ghats to the west, hydrogen sulfide, or helium.
extending over an area of about 22,800 square
kilometres. 346. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
345. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
List-I List-II a. Gulf of Cambay 1. shallow bay
a. Fossils 1. Occurring forming part of the Laccadive Sea
hydrocarbon gas b. Gulf of Mannar 2. A bay on the
mixture Arabian Sea coast of India
b. Radioactive decay 2. is any preserved c. Backwaters of Kerala 3. a brackish water
remains, impression lagoon, spread over the Puri
c. Biomass 3. Organic material d. Chilka lake 4. network of
that is used for production of energy brackish lagoons
d. Natural gas 4. is the process by Codes:
which an unstable atomic nucleus A B C D
Codes: (A) 1 2 4 3
A B C D (B) 1 4 2 3
(A) 1 2 4 3 (C) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 4 2 3 (D) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3 Ans.346(D) The Gulf of Khambhat, also
known as the Gulf of Cambay, is a bay on the
Ans.345(C) A fossil is any preserved remains, Arabian Sea coast of India, bordering the state
impression, or trace of any once-living thing of Gujarat. The Gulf of Khambhat is about
from a past geological age. Examples include 200 km long, about 20 km wide in the north
bones, shells, exoskeletons, stone imprints of and up to 70 km wide in the south.
animals or microbes, objects preserved in The Gulf of Mannar is a large shallow bay
amber, hair, petrified wood, oil, coal, and forming part of the Laccadive Sea in the
DNA remnants. Indian Ocean. It lies between the west coast of
Radioactive decay (also known as nuclear Sri Lanka and the southeastern tip of India, in
decay, radioactivity, radioactive disintegration the Coromandel Coast region. The chain of
or nuclear disintegration) is the process by low islands and reefs known as Ramsethu,
which an unstable atomic nucleus loses also called Adam's Bridge, which includes
energy by radiation. A material containing Mannar Island,
unstable nuclei is considered radioactive. The Kerala backwaters are a network of
Three of the most common types of decay are brackish lagoons and lakes lying parallel to
alpha decay, beta decay, and gamma decay, the Arabian Sea coast of Kerala state in
all of which involve emitting one or more southern India, as well as interconnected
particles or photons. canals, rivers, and inlets, a labyrinthine system
Biomass refers to the organic material that is formed by more than 900 kilometres of
used for production of energy. This energy waterways, and sometimes compared to
production process is referred to as Bioenergy. American bayous.
Biomass is primarily found in the form of Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon,
living or recently living plants and biological spread over the Puri, Khurda and Ganjam
wastes from industrial and home use. districts of Odisha state on the east coast of
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
350

India, at the mouth of the Daya River, flowing chemical element

into the Bay of Bengal, covering an area of d. Plutonium 4. atomic number 30
over 1,100 km. Codes:
A B C D
347. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (A) 1 2 4 3
answer using the codes given below the lists: (B) 1 4 2 3
List-I List-II (C) 2 4 3 1
a. Point Source of pollution 1. Pollutants (D) 2 1 4 3
mixed in rainwater runoff Ans.348(B) Thorium is a weakly radioactive
b. The biggest reserves of Thorium metallic chemical element with the symbol Th
2. India and atomic number 90. Thorium is silvery and
c. Damodar Valley Corporation 3. New Delhi tarnishes black when it is exposed to air,
d. Secretariat of SAARC is set up at forming thorium dioxide; it is moderately
4. Statutory body hard, malleable, and has a high melting point.
Codes: Zinc is a chemical element with the symbol
A B C D Zn and atomic number 30. Zinc is a slightly
(A) 1 2 4 3 brittle metal at room temperature and has a
(B) 1 4 2 3 blue-silvery appearance when oxidation is
(C) 2 4 3 1 removed. It is the first element in group 12 of
(D) 2 1 4 3 the periodic table.
Radium (Ra), radioactive chemical element,
Ans.347(A) A point source of pollution is a the heaviest of the alkaline-earth metals of
single identifiable source of air, water, Group 2 (IIa) of the periodic table. Radium is
thermal, noise or light pollution. Oil refinery a silvery white metal that does not occur free
waste water, noise from Jet engine and Air in nature.
pollution from forest fire are examples of Plutonium is a radioactive chemical element
point source of pollution. with the symbol Pu and atomic number 94. It
The biggest estimated reserve of Thorium are is an actinide metal of silvery-gray appearance
in India. that tarnishes when exposed to air, and forms
Damodar Valley Corporation is a statutory a dull coating when oxidized. The element
body. The corporation came into being on normally exhibits six allotropes and four
July 7, 1948 by an Act of the Constituent oxidation states.
Assembly of India.
The SAARC Secretariat is based in 349. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Kathmandu, Nepal. It coordinates and answer using the codes given below the lists:
monitors implementation of activities, List-I List-II
prepares for and services meetings, and serves a. Pluto 1. most massive and
as a channel of communication between the second-largest known dwarf planet
Association and its Member States as well as b. Eris 2. is an icy dwarf
other regional organisations. SAARC was planet in the Kuiper belt
founded in Dhaka on 8 December 1985. c. Earth 3. Moon is an
astronomical body orbiting Earth
348. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct d. Moon 4. is the unit of mass
answer using the codes given below the lists: equal to that of Earth
List-I List-II Codes:
a. Thorium 1. is a weakly A B C D
radioactive metallic (A) 1 2 4 3
chemical element (B) 1 4 2 3
b. Zinc 2. the heaviest of the (C) 2 4 3 1
alkaline-earth (D) 2 1 4 3
c. Radium 3. a radioactive
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
351

Ans.349(D) Pluto is an icy dwarf planet in the Ans.350(C) Gir National Park and Wildlife
Kuiper belt, a ring of bodies beyond the orbit Sanctuary, also known as Sasan Gir, is a
of Neptune. It was the first and the largest forest and wildlife sanctuary near Talala Gir
Kuiper belt object to be discovered. in Gujarat, India. It is located 43 km (27 mi)
Eris (minor planet designation 136199 Eris) is north-east of Somnath, 65 km (40 mi) south-
the most massive and second-largest known east of Junagadh and 60 km (37 mi) south-
dwarf planet in the Solar System. Eris was west of Amreli.
discovered in January 2005 by a Palomar Bharatpur is an Indian city in eastern
Observatory-based team led by Mike Brown, Rajasthan. At its center is the 18th-century
and its discovery was verified later that year. Lohagarh Fort, surrounded by a moat. Inside
In September 2006 it was named after the the fort is the Government Museum, which
goddess of strife and discord. displays artifacts of local rajas. Just south,
Earth mass (ME or M⊕, where ⊕ is the carved statues of Hindu gods fill Ganga
standard astronomical symbol for planet Mandir and the sandstone Laxman Mandir
Earth) is the unit of mass equal to that of temples.
Earth. The Earth mass is a standard unit of One of the oldest mountain ranges, located at
mass in astronomy that is used to indicate the the tri-junction of Tamil Nadu, Kerala and
masses of other planets, including rocky Karnataka. Nilgiris is a part of the Western
terrestrial planets and exoplanets. One Solar Ghats. Ooty the “Queen of Hill Stations”,
mass is close to 333,000 Earth masses. The Coonoor 19 kms from Ooty and Kotagiri 31
Earth mass excludes the mass of the Moon. kms from Ooty, are the three hill stations of
The Moon is an astronomical body orbiting this district.
Earth as its only natural satellite. It is the fifth- Rolling grasslands, dense sholas, waterfalls,
largest satellite in the Solar System, and by far streams, lakes, vast expanse of tea plantations,
the largest among planetary satellites relative interspersed with vegetable gardens,
to the size of the planet that it orbits (its spectacular view points, an amazing variety of
primary). The Moon is, after Jupiter's satellite flora and fauna, fabulous trekking trails,
Io, the second-densest satellite in the Solar innumerable heritage sites, spell binding
System among those whose densities are sunrises and sunsets, magical light, pollution
known. free atmosphere, mist, clouds, fog, star
studded skies, serenity etc.
350. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: 351. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer using the codes given below the lists:
a. Bharatpur 1. one of the oldest List-I List-II
mountain ranges a. Tides 1. The rise and fall
b. Gir forest 2. an Indian city in of sea levels
eastern Rajasthan b. Surface runoff 2. The flow of water
c. Kaziranga 3. a national park in that occurs when excess stormwater
the Golaghat, Karbi c. Ocean currents 3. a wave is a
Anglong and disturbance of one or more fields
Nagaon district d. Waves 4. The continuous,
d. Nilgiris 4. is a forest and predictable, directional movement of seawater
wildlife sanctuary Codes:
Codes: A B C D
A B C D (A) 1 2 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 (C) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
352

Ans.351(A) Tides are the rise and fall of sea Ans.352(B) Ultraviolet (UV) is
levels caused by the combined effects of the electromagnetic radiation with wavelength
gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and from 10 nm (with a corresponding frequency
the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth. Tide of approximately 30 PHz) to 400 nm (750
tables can be used for any given locale to find THz), shorter than that of visible light but
the predicted times and amplitude. longer than X-rays. UV radiation is present in
Surface runoff is the flow of water that occurs sunlight, and constitutes about 10% of the
when excess stormwater, meltwater, or other total electromagnetic radiation output from the
sources flow over the Earth's surface. This can Sun. It is also produced by electric arcs and
occur when the soil is saturated to full specialized lights, such as mercury-vapor
capacity, and rain arrives more quickly than lamps, tanning lamps, and black lights.
soil can absorb it. Radio waves are a type of electromagnetic
Ocean currents are the continuous, radiation with wavelengths in the
predictable, directional movement of seawater electromagnetic spectrum longer than infrared
driven by gravity, wind (Coriolis Effect), and light. Radio waves have frequencies as high as
water density. Ocean water moves in two 300 gigahertz (GHz) to as low as 30 hertz
directions: horizontally and vertically. (Hz).[1] At 300 GHz, the corresponding
Horizontal movements are referred to as wavelength is 1 mm, and at 30 Hz is 10,000
currents, while vertical changes are called km. Like all other electromagnetic waves,
upwellings or downwelling’s. radio waves travel at the speed of light in
In physics, mathematics, and related fields, a vacuum.
wave is a disturbance (change from Light or visible light is electromagnetic
equilibrium) of one or more fields such that radiation within the portion of the
the field values oscillate repeatedly about a electromagnetic spectrum that can be
stable equilibrium (resting) value. If the perceived by the human eye. Visible light is
relative amplitude of oscillation at different usually defined as having wavelengths in the
points in the field remains constant, the wave range of 400–700 nanometers (nm), or 4.00 ×
is said to be a standing wave. 10−7 to 7.00 × 10−7 m, between the infrared
(with longer wavelengths) and the ultraviolet
352. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct (with shorter wavelengths). This wavelength
answer using the codes given below the lists: means a frequency range of roughly 430–750
List-I List-II terahertz (THz).
a. Ultraviolet 1. electromagnetic Infrared (IR), sometimes called infrared light,
radiation with wavelength is electromagnetic radiation (EMR) with
b. Radiowave 2. electromagnetic wavelengths longer than those of visible light.
spectrum that can be perceived by the human It is therefore generally invisible to the human
eye. eye, although IR at wavelengths up to 1050
c. Light 3. is electromagnetic nanometers (nm)s from specially pulsed lasers
radiation (EMR) with wavelengths longer than can be seen by hum ans under certain
those of visible light. conditions.
d. Infrared 4. wavelengths in
the electromagnetic spectrum longer than 353. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
infrared light. answer using the codes given below the lists:
Codes: List-I List-II
A B C D a. Deimos 1. a satellite of
(A) 1 2 4 3 Jupiter
(B) 1 4 2 3 b. Ganymede 2. the smaller and
(C) 2 4 3 1 outermost of the two natural satellites
(D) 2 1 4 3 c. Callisto 3. is the smallest of
the four Galilean moons
d. Europa 4. the second-largest
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
353

moon of Jupiter, (D) 2 1 4 3

Codes:
A B C D Ans.354(B) A black hole is a region of
(A) 1 2 4 3 spacetime where gravity is so strong that
(B) 1 4 2 3 nothing—no particles or even electromagnetic
(C) 2 4 3 1 radiation such as light—can escape from it.
(D) 2 1 4 3 The theory of general relativity predicts that a
sufficiently compact mass can deform
Ans.353(D) Deimos is the smaller and spacetime to form a black hole.
outermost of the two natural satellites of the A white hole is a hypothetical region of
planet Mars, the other being Phobos. Deimos spacetime which cannot be entered from the
has a mean radius of 6.2 km and takes 30.3 outside, although matter and light can escape
hours to orbit Mars. Deimos is 23,460 km from it. In this sense, it is the reverse of a
from Mars, much further than Mars's other black hole, which can only be entered from
moon, Phobos. the outside and from which matter and light
Ganymede, a satellite of Jupiter, is the largest cannot escape.
and most massive of the Solar System's The asteroid belt is a torus-shaped region in
moons. The ninth-largest object in the Solar the Solar System, located roughly between the
System, it is the largest without a substantial orbits of the planets Jupiter and Mars, that is
atmosphere. It has a diameter of 5,268 km and occupied by a great many solid, irregularly
is 8% larger than the planet Mercury, although shaped bodies, of many sizes but much
only 45% as massive. Callisto, or Jupiter IV, smaller than planets, called asteroids or minor
is the second-largest moon of Jupiter, after planets.
Ganymede. It is the third-largest moon in the Ozone depletion consists of two related events
Solar System after Ganymede and Saturn's observed since the late 1970s: a steady
largest moon Titan, and the largest object in lowering of about four percent in the total
the Solar System that may not be properly amount of ozone in Earth's atmosphere, and a
differentiated. Callisto was discovered in 1610 much larger springtime decrease in
by Galileo Galilei. stratospheric ozone around Earth's Polar
Europa, or Jupiter II, is the smallest of the Regions. The latter phenomenon is referred to
four Galilean moons orbiting Jupiter, and the as the ozone hole.
sixth-closest to the planet of all the 79 known
moons of Jupiter. It is also the sixth-largest 355. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
moon in the Solar System. answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
354. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. Latitudes 1. an imaginary line
answer using the codes given below the lists: around the middle of a planet
List-I List-II b. Longitudes 2. the distance on
a. Black Hole 1. is a region of the earth's surface.
spacetime where gravity c. Meridians 3. the half of an
b. Ozone depletion 2. a torus-shaped imaginary great circle on the Earth's surface
region in the Solar System d. Equator 4. is a geographic
c. Asteroid belt 3. a hypothetical coordinate that specifies the east
region of spacetime Codes:
d. White hole 4. of two related A B C D
events observed since the late 1970s (A) 1 2 4 3
Codes: (B) 1 4 2 3
A B C D (C) 2 4 3 1
(A) 1 2 4 3 (D) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
354

Ans.355(C) Latitude is a geographic occurs on the June solstice, when the Northern
coordinate that specifies the north–south Hemisphere is tilted toward the Sun to its
position of a point on the Earth's surface. maximum extent.
Latitude is an angle which ranges from 0° at The Tropic of Capricorn is the circle of
the Equator to 90° at the poles. Lines of latitude that contains the subsolar point on the
constant latitude, or parallels, run east–west as December solstice. It is thus the southernmost
circles parallel to the equator. latitude where the Sun can be directly
Longitude, is a overhead. Its northern equivalent is the Tropic
geographic coordinate that specifies the of Cancer.
east–west position of a point on the Earth's The Arctic Circle is one of the five major
surface, or the surface of a celestial body. It is circles of latitude that mark maps of the Earth.
an angular measurement, usually expressed This is the parallel of latitude that (in 2000)
in degrees and denoted by the Greek letter runs 66.56083 degrees north of the Equator.
lambda. Meridians connect points with the Everything north of this circle is known as the
same longitude. Arctic, and the zone just to the south of this
A meridian is the half of an imaginary great circle is the Northern Temperate Zone.
circle on the Earth's surface, terminated by the An equator is an imaginary line around the
North Pole and the South Pole, connecting middle of a planet or other celestial body. It is
points of equal longitude, as measured in halfway between the North Pole and the South
angular degrees east or west of the Prime Pole, at 0 degrees latitude. An equator divides
Meridian. the planet into a Northern Hemisphere and a
An equator is an imaginary line around the Southern Hemisphere. The Earth is widest at
middle of a planet or other celestial body. It is its Equator.
halfway between the North Pole and the South
Pole, at 0 degrees latitude. An equator divides 357. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
the planet into a Northern Hemisphere and a answer using the codes given below the lists:
Southern Hemisphere. The Earth is widest at List-I List-II
its Equator. a. Thermal conduction 1. the transfer of
thermal energy through direct contact
356. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct b. Convection 2. very long-period
answer using the codes given below the lists: waves
List-I List-II c. Radition 3. the emission or
a. Tropic of Cancer 1. referred to as the transmission of energy
Northern Tropic d. Tides 4. the heat transfer
b. Tropic of Capricorn 2. is the circle of due to the bulk movement
latitude that contains the subsolar point Codes:
c. Arctic Ocean 3. an imaginary line A B C D
around the middle (A) 1 2 4 3
d. Equator 4. the five major (B) 1 4 2 3
circles of latitude (C) 2 4 3 1
Codes: (D) 2 1 4 3
A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3 Ans.357(B) Thermal conduction is the
(B) 1 4 2 3 transfer of internal energy by microscopic
(C) 2 4 3 1 collisions of particles and movement of
(D) 2 1 4 3 electrons within a body. The colliding
particles, which include molecules, atoms
Ans.356(A) The Tropic of Cancer, which is and electrons, transfer disorganized
also referred to as the Northern Tropic, is the microscopic kinetic and potential energy,
most northerly circle of latitude on Earth at jointly known as internal energy.
which the Sun can be directly overhead. This
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
355

Convection is the heat transfer due to the bulk larger region of Kashmir, which has been the
movement of molecules within fluids such as subject of dispute between India, Pakistan,
gases and liquids, including molten rock. and China since 1947.
Convection includes sub-mechanisms of Bagelkhand or Baghelkhand is a region and
advection, and diffusion. also a mountain range in central India that
Radiation is the emission or transmission of covers the northeastern regions of Madhya
energy in the form of waves or particles Pradesh and a small area of southeastern Uttar
through space or through a material medium. Pradesh. It includes the Madhya Pradesh
This includes: electromagnetic radiation, such districts Rewa, Satna, Shahdolof Rewa, Satna,
as radio waves, microwaves, infrared, visible Shahdol, Sidhi, and Singrauli and Chitrakoot
light, ultraviolet, x-rays, and gamma radiation. of Uttar Pradesh.
Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused
by the combined effects of the gravitational 359. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and answer using the codes given below the lists:
the rotation of the Earth. Tide tables can be List-I List-II
used for any given locale to find the predicted a. Zojila pass 1. a high mountain
times and amplitude. pass in the Himalayas
b. Rohtang Pass 2. one of the highest
358. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct vehicle-accessible passes in the world,
answer using the codes given below the lists: c. Mana Pass 3. connects the
List-I List-II Indian state of Sikkim with China's Tibet
a. Deccan plateau 1. is a plateau in Autonomous Region.
eastern India d. Nathula 4. It connects the
b. Chotanagpur plateau 2. is a large plateau Kullu Valley
in western and southern India Codes:
c. Ladakh Plateau 3. India as a union A B C D
territory, (A) 1 2 4 3
d. Baghelkhand plateau 4. that covers the (B) 1 4 2 3
northeastern regions of Madhya Pradesh (C) 2 4 3 1
Codes: (D) 2 1 4 3
A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3 Ans.359(B) Zoji La is a high mountain pass in
(B) 1 4 2 3 the Himalayas in the Indian union territory of
(C) 2 4 3 1 Ladakh. Located in the Drass, the pass
(D) 2 1 4 3 connects the Kashmir Valley to its west with
the Drass and Suru valleys to its northeast and
Ans.358(D) The Deccan Plateau is a large the Indus valley further east.
plateau in western and southern India. It rises Rohtang Pass are named as such due to people
to 100 metres in the north, and to more than working in CBRE dying in bad weather trying
1,000 metres in the south, forming a raised to cross the pass). It is a high mountain pass
triangle within the south-pointing triangle of (elevation 3,980 m (13,058 ft)) on the eastern
the Indian subcontinent's coastline. Pir Panjal Range of the Himalayas around 51
The Chhota Nagpur Plateau is a plateau in km (32 mi) from Manali. It connects the Kullu
eastern India, which covers much of Valley with the Lahaul and Spiti Valleys of
Jharkhand state as well as adjacent parts of Himachal Pradesh, India.
Odisha, West Bengal and Chhattisgarh. The Mana Pass (elevation 5,632 m or 18,478 ft),
Indo-Gangetic plain lies to the north and east alternatively Māna La, Chirbitya, Chirbitya-la,
of the plateau, and the basin of the Mahanadi or Dungri La, is a mountain pass in the
River lies to the south. Himalayas on the border between India and
Ladakh is a region administered by India as a China. It appears to now be one of the highest
union territory, and constituting a part of the vehicle-accessible passes in the world,
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
356

containing a road constructed in the 2005– Bangladesh, and on the east by Myanmar and
2010 period for the Indian military by the the Andaman Islands of India and Myanmar
Border Roads Organisation and visible on and the Nicobar Islands of India.
2011 imagery on visual globe systems such as Great Channel (Great Channel) is a strait
Google Earth. (class H - Hydrographic) in (India (general)),
Nathu La is a mountain pass in the Himalayas India (Asia) with the region font code of
in East Sikkim district. It connects the Indian Asia/Pacific. Its coordinates are 6°0'0" N and
state of Sikkim with China's Tibet 94°0'0" E in DMS (Degrees Minutes Seconds)
Autonomous Region. The pass, at 4,310 m or 6 and 94 (in decimal degrees).
(14,140 ft) above mean sea level, forms a part The Andaman Sea is a marginal sea of
of an offshoot of the ancient Silk Road. Nathu northeastern Indian Ocean bounded by the
means. "listening ears" and La means. "pass" coastlines of Myanmar and Thailand along the
in Tibetan. On the Indian side, the pass is 54 Gulf of Martaban and west side of the Malay
km (34 mi) east of Gangtok, the capital of Peninsula, and separated from the Bay of
Sikkim. Only citizens of India can visit the Bengal to its west by the Andaman Islands
pass, and then only after obtaining a permit in and the Nicobar Islands.
Gangtok.
361. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
360. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
List-I List-II a. National Emblem is adapted from
a. Ten Degree channel 1. is a marginal sea 1. Sarnath Lion Capital of Ashoka.
of northeastern Indian Ocean bounded by the b. 'Satyameva Jayate' inscribed taken from
coastlines 2. Rabindranath Tagore
b. Great channel 2. a channel that c. Jana Gana Mana composed by
separates the Andaman Islands 3. Bankim Chandra Chatterji’s
c. Bay of Bengal 3. is the northeastern d. National song Vande Mataram cmpoased
part of the Indian Ocean, by
d. Andaman sea 4. is a strait in, India 4. the Mundaka Upanishad
with the region font code of Asia/Pacific Codes:
Codes: A B C D
A B C D (A) 1 2 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 (C) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans.361(B) The Lion Capital of Ashoka is a
Ans.360(C) The Ten Degree Channel is a sculpture of four Asiatic lions standing back
channel that separates the Andaman Islands to back, on an elaborate base that includes
and Nicobar Islands from each other in the other animals. A graphic representation of it
Bay of Bengal. The two sets of islands was adopted as the official Emblem of India
together form the Indian Union Territory (UT) in 1950. It was originally placed on the top of
of Andaman and Nicobar Islands. This the Ashoka pillar at the important Buddhist
channel is 150 kilometres (93 mi) wide from site of Sarnath by the Emperor Ashoka, in
north to south, and approximately 10 about 250 BCE.
kilometres (6.2 mi) long from east to west. It Jana Gana Mana is the national anthem of
is so named as it lies on the 10-degree line of India. It was originally composed as Bharoto
latitude, north of the equator. Bhagyo Bidhata in Bengali by poet
The Bay of Bengal is the northeastern part of Rabindranath Tagore. Later, it was written in
the Indian Ocean, bounded on the west and sadhu Bengali or tatsama Bengali which is
northwest by India, on the north by heavily sanskiritised.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
357

"Satyameva Jayate" is a part of a mantra from 4. China

the Hindu scripture Mundaka Upanishad. Codes:
Bankimchandra Chatterjee or Bankimchandra A B C D
Chattopadhyay, was an Indian novelist, poet (A) 1 2 4 3
and journalist. He was the composer of Vande (B) 1 4 2 3
Mataram, originally in Sanskrit stotra (C) 2 4 3 1
personifying India as a mother goddess and (D) 2 1 4 3
inspiring activists during the Indian
Independence Movement. Chattopadhyay Ans.363(D) Brazil is the largest sugar
wrote thirteen novels and many serious, serio- producer in the whole world. After Brazil,
comic, satirical, scientific and critical treatises India is the 2nd largest sugarcane and Asia
in Bengali. Number one sugar producer country in the
362. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct world.
answer using the codes given below the lists: China is indisputably the largest producer of
(States and Capitals) tea in the world, producing 2,473,443 tonnes
List-I List-II in 2017 alone – a figure that was
a. Arunachal Pradesh 1. Itanagar approximately 30-35% of the total amount
b. Meghalaya 2. Shillong produced in the world that year.
c. Nagaland 3. Agartala China is the leading producer of onions in the
d. Tripura 4. Kohima world. Four major allium crops, the onion,
Codes: Chinese chive, garlic, and Welsh onion are
A B C D grown throughout the country. The combined
(A) 1 2 4 3 planting area of these crops in China is 0.473
(B) 1 4 2 3 million ha and the average annual production
(C) 2 4 3 1 is 11.16 million tons a year.
(D) 2 1 4 3 India is the largest producer of safflower in
Ans.362(A) Itanagar is the state capital of the world with the production hovering
Arunachal Pradesh, which is the largest of the around 0.2 million MT.
Seven Sister States of Northeast India. As of
the 2011 Census of India, Arunachal Pradesh 364. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
has a population of 1,382,611 and an area of answer using the codes given below the lists:
83,743 square kilometres (32,333 sq mi). List-I List-II
Shillong is a hill station in the northeastern a. World Cancer Day 1. Jul 28
part of India and the capital of Meghalaya, b. World Down Syndrome Day 2. Feb 4
which means. "The Abode of Clouds". It is the c. World Hemophilia Day 3. April 17
headquarters of the East Khasi Hills district. d. World Hepatitis Day 4. March 21
Kohima is the capital city of India's north Codes:
eastern state of Nagaland. With a resident A B C D
population of almost 100,000, it is the second (A) 1 2 4 3
largest city in the state. (B) 1 4 2 3
Agartala is the capital city of the Indian state (C) 2 4 3 1
of Tripura, and is the second-largest city in (D) 2 1 4 3
northeast India after Guwahati.
Ans.364(C) World Cancer Day is an
363. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct international day marked on February 4 to
answer using the codes given below the lists: raise awareness of cancer and to encourage its
List-I List-II prevention, detection, and treatment. World
a. Largest producer of tea 1. Brazil Cancer Day is led by the Union for
b. largest producer of sugarcane 2. China International Cancer Control to support the
c. largest producer of onions 3. India goals of the World Cancer Declaration,
d. Largest producer of safflower oil seeds written in 2008.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
358

World Hemophilia Day is an international across the river Cauvery where it enters the
awareness day for hemophilia and other plains. Built in 1934, it took 9 years to
bleeding disorders. It is held annually on April complete. Maximum height and width of the
17, date of the birthday of Frank Schnabel, dam are 214 and 171 feet respectively.
founder of the World Federation of
Hemophilia. 366. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
World Down Syndrome Day is marked each answer using the codes given below the lists:
year on March 21, beginning in 2006. The (Rivers and their places of confluence)
21st day of March was selected to signify the List-I List-II
uniqueness of the triplication of the 21st a. Alaknanda and Dhauliganga
chromosome which causes Down syndrome. 1. Vishnuprayag (Uttarakhand)
World Hepatitis Day, observed on July 28 b. Alaknanda and Bhagirathi 2. Devprayag
every year, aims to raise global awareness of (Uttarakhand)
hepatitis — a group of infectious diseases c. Ganges and Kosi 3. Allahabad (Uttar
known as Hepatitis A, B, C, D, and E — and Pradesh)
encourage prevention, diagnosis and d. Ganges and Yamuna 4. Kurusela (Katihar
treatment. dist of Bihar)
Codes:
365. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer using the codes given below the lists: (A) 1 2 4 3
(Dams and Rivers) (B) 1 4 2 3
List-I List-II (C) 2 4 3 1
a. Nagarjunasagar 1. Kaveri (D) 2 1 4 3
b. Srisailam 2. Krishna river
c. Panchet 3. Damodar Ans.366(A) Vishnuprayag is one of the Panch
d. Mettur 4. Krishna river Prayag of Alaknanda River, and lies at the
Codes: confluence of Alaknanda River and
A B C D Dhauliganga River, in Chamoli district in the
(A) 1 2 4 3 Indian state of Uttarakhand.
(B) 1 4 2 3 Devprayag is a town and a nagar panchayat in
(C) 2 4 3 1 Tehri Garhwal district in the state of
(D) 2 1 4 3 Uttarakhand, India, and is one of the Panch
Prayag of Alaknanda River where Alaknanda,
Ans.365(C) Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is a Saraswati and Bhagirathi rivers meet and take
masonry dam across the Krishna River at the name Ganga.
Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border Kursela is a village situated in the bank of
between Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh River Ganga and Kosi. It is a market and
andNalgonda district, Telangana farming village of Katihar district.
The Srisailam Dam is constructed across the Allahabad, officially known as Prayagraj, and
Krishna River in Kurnool district, Andhra also known as Illahabad and Prayag, is a city
Pradesh near Srisailam temple town and is the in the Indian state of Uttar Pradesh. It is the
2nd largest capacity working hydroelectric administrative headquarters of Allahabad
station in the country. district—the most populous district in the
Panchet Dam was the last of the four multi- state and 13th most populous district in
purpose dams included in the first phase of the India—and the Allahabad division.
Damodar Valley Corporation. It was
constructed across the Damodar River at 367. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Panchet in Dhanbad district in the Indian state answer using the codes given below the lists:
of Jharkhand, and opened in 1959. (Highest Mountains of Indian States)
The Mettur Dam is one of the largest dams in List-I List-II
India and the largest in Tamil Nadu, located a. Arunachal Pradesh 1. Kangto
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
359

b. Maharashtra 2. Deomali other being the Euphrates. The river flows

c. Odisha 3. Doddabetta south from the mountains of southeastern
d. Tamil Nadu 4. Kalsubai Turkey through Iraq and empties into the
Codes: Persian Gulf.
A B C D The Buriganga River is a river in Bangladesh
(A) 1 2 4 3 that ranks among the most polluted rivers in
(B) 1 4 2 3 the country.
(C) 2 4 3 1 Frankfurt, a central German city on the river
(D) 2 1 4 3 Main, is a major financial hub that's home to
the European Central Bank. It's the birthplace
Ans.367(B) Kangto at 7,060 metres is a of famed writer Johann Wolfgang von Goethe,
mountain of the Eastern Himalayas located in whose former home is now the Goethe House
the Indian state of Arunachal Pradesh on the Museum.
border with the Tibet Autonomous Region of The Danube is Europe's second-longest river,
China. It is the highest point in Arunachal after the Volga. It is located in Central and
Pradesh. The area in which Kangto is located Eastern Europe. The Danube was once a long-
lies in the West Kameng district of the state. standing frontier of the Roman Empire, and
Kalsubai is a mountain in the Western Ghats, today flows through 10 countries.
located in the Indian state of Maharashtra. Its
summit situated at an elevation of 1646 metres 369. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
is the highest point in Maharashtra. The answer using the codes given below the lists:
mountain range lies within the Kalsubai List-I List-II
Harishchandragad Wildlife Sanctuary. a. World Wildlife Day 1. 24 april
Deomali, is a mountain peak in the b. World Day for Laboratory Animals
Chandragiri-Pottangi subrange of the Eastern 2. March 3
Ghats. It is located near Koraput town in the c. World Sparrow Day 3. 21 june
Koraput district of southern Odisha, India. d. World Giraffe Day 4. March 20
Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the Codes:
Nilgiri Mountains at 2,637 metres. The name A B C D
derived from two Kannada words, Dodda (A) 1 2 4 3
means. Big and betta means. Hill, making it (B) 1 4 2 3
Doddabetta. There is a reserved forest area (C) 2 4 3 1
around the peak. (D) 2 1 4 3

368. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Ans.369(D) The theme of World Wildlife Day
answer using the codes given below the lists: 2020, “Sustaining all life on Earth”,
(Cities of the World and Rivers) encompasses all wild animal and plant species
List-I List-II as a component of biodiversity, as well as the
a. Baghdad 1. Buriganga livelihoods of people, especially those who
b. Dhaka 2. Tigris live closest to the nature. On 20 December
c. Frankfurt 3. Danube 2013, at its 68th session, the United Nations
d. Budapest 4. Main General Assembly, in its resolution UN
Codes: 68/205, decided to proclaim 3 March as
A B C D World Wildlife Day.
(A) 1 2 4 3 World Day For Animals In Laboratories is
(B) 1 4 2 3 observed every year on 24 April. The
(C) 2 4 3 1 surrounding week has come to be known as
(D) 2 1 4 3 "World Week for Animals In Laboratories".
The National Anti-Vivisection Society
Ans.368(D) The Tigris is the eastern of the describe the day as an "international day of
two great rivers that define Mesopotamia, the commemoration" for animals in laboratories.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
360

World Sparrow Day is celebrated on 20 Champawat, Nainital, Pithoragarh, and

March every year in many countries around Udham Singh Nagar.
the world. Every year celebration is organised
according to the theme. The theme for World 371. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Sparrow Day is "I LOVE Sparrows" and is answer using the codes given below the lists:
pictured like". (Tribes of India and States)
World Giraffe Day is an exciting annual event List-I List-II
initiated by GCF to celebrate the tallest animal a. BHIL 1. Bihar
on the longest day or night (depending on b. GOND 2. Tripura
which hemisphere you live!) of the year – 21 c. MINA 3. Rajasthan
June – every year! d. SANTAL 4. Chhattisgarh
Codes:
370. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct A B C D
answer using the codes given below the lists: (A) 1 2 4 3
(Hill Stations of India) (B) 1 4 2 3
List-I List-II (C) 2 4 3 1
a. Dalhousie 1. Lesser Himalayas (D) 2 1 4 3
or Mahabharat Range
b. Darjeeling 2. Dhauladhar range Ans.371(C) Bhils or Bheels are an Indo-
c. Lonavla 3. Kumaon Hills Aryan speaking ethnic group in West India.
d. Nainital 4. Sahyadri Hills They speak the Bhil languages, a subgroup of
Codes: the Western Zone of the Indo-Aryan
A B C D languages. As of 2013, Bhils were the largest
(A) 1 2 4 3 tribal group in India.
(B) 1 4 2 3 The Gondi or Gond or Koitur are an Indian
(C) 2 4 3 1 ethnic group. They speak the Gondi language
(D) 2 1 4 3 which is a Dravidian language. They are one
of the largest tribal groups in India. They are
Ans.370(D) The Dhauladhar range is part of a spread over the states of Madhya Pradesh,
lesser Himalayan chain of mountains. It rises eastern Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh, Uttar
from the Indian plains to the north of Kangra Pradesh, Telangana, Andhra Pradesh, Bihar
and Mandi. Dharamsala, the headquarters of and Odisha.
Kangra district, lies on its southern spur in The Meena is a tribe found mainly in the
above the Kangra Valley, which divides it Rajasthan and Madhya Pradesh regions of
from Chamba. India. Its name is also transliterated as
The Mahabharata Range is a major east-west Meenanda or Mina. The Meenas claim
mountain range with elevations 3,700 to 4,500 connection to the Matsya avatar of Vishnu,
m (12,000 to 14,500 feet) along the crest, and the ancient Matsya
paralleling the much higher High Himalayas The Santal or Santhal, are an ethnic group
range from the Indus River in Pakistan. native to India and Bangladesh in South Asia.
The Western Ghats, also known as Sahyadri, Santals are the largest tribe in the Jharkhand
are a mountain range that covers an area of state of India in terms of population and are
140,000 square kilometres in a stretch of also found in the states of Assam, Bihar,
1,600 kilometres parallel to the western coast Odisha and West Bengal.
of the Indian peninsula, traversing the states
of Kerala, Tamil Nadu, Karnataka, Goa, 372. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Maharashtra and Gujarat. answer using the codes given below the lists:
Kumaon or Kumaun is one of the two regions (Rivers and their Places of Origin)
and administrative divisions of the Indian List-I List-II
state of Uttarakhand, the other being Garhwal. a. Indus 1. Mansarovar
It includes the districts of Almora, Bageshwar, (Tibet)
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
361

b. Narmada 2. Chemayungdung b. 1st Indian Commander in Chief of Indian

(Tibet) Army
c. Brahmaputra 3. Mt Kailash 2. General Rajendrasinhji
(Tibet) c. 1st Chief of Army Staff
d. Sutlej 4. Maikal Hills, 3. Charles Thomas
Amarkantak (MP) Mark Pizey
Codes: d. First Chief of Naval Staff
A B C D 4. General KM
(A) 1 2 4 3 Cariappa
(B) 1 4 2 3 Codes:
(C) 2 4 3 1 A B C D
(D) 2 1 4 3 (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
Ans.372(B) Lake Manasarovar in Sanskrit (C) 2 4 3 1
and several other Indian languages), is a high (D) 2 1 4 3
altitude freshwater lake fed by the Kailash
Glaciers near Mount Kailash in the Tibet Ans.373(B) General Sir Rob McGregor
Autonomous Region, China. The lake is MacDonald Lockhart KCB CIE MC was a
revered as a sacred place in four religions: senior British Army officer during the Second
Bön, Buddhism, Hinduism and Jainism. World War and later a leading member of the
Amarkantak is a pilgrim town and a Nagar Scout Association.
Panchayat in Anuppur, Madhya Pradesh, Field Marshal Kodandera "Kipper" Madappa
India. The Amarkantak region is a unique Cariappa, OBE was the first Indian
natural heritage area and is the meeting point Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army. He
of the Vindhya and the Satpura Ranges, with led Indian forces on the Western Front during
the Maikal Hills being the fulcrum. This is the Indo-Pakistani War of 1947. He was
where the Narmada River, the Son River and appointed Commander-in-Chief of the Indian
Johila River emerge. Army in 1949.
The Brahmaputra, called Yarlung Tsangpo in General Maharaj Shri Rajendrasinhji Jadeja,
Tibet, Siang/Dihang River in Arunachal DSO, also known as K.S. Rajendrasinhji, was
Pradesh and Luit, Dilao in Assam, is a trans- the first Chief of Army Staff of the Indian
boundary river which flows through China, army, and the second Indian, after Field
India and Bangladesh. It is the ninth largest Marshal K. M. Cariappa, to become
river in the world by discharge, and the 15th Commander-in-Chief of the Indian Army.
longest. Admiral Sir Charles Thomas Mark Pizey GBE
Mount Kailash, is a 6,638 m high peak in the CB DSO* DL was a Royal Navy officer who
Kailash Range, which forms part of the served as the last Commander-in-Chief and
Transhimalaya in Tibet. The mountain is first Chief of Naval Staff of the Indian Navy
located near Lake Manasarovar and Lake from 1951 to 1955.
Rakshastal, close to the source of some of the
longest Asian rivers: the Indus, Sutlej, 374. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Brahmaputra, and Karnali also known as answer using the codes given below the lists:
Ghaghara in India. (Ancient Names of Rivers)
List-I List-II
373. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. Indus 1. Vipasa (Ancient
answer using the codes given below the lists: name
(Chiefs of Army, Navy and Air Force b. Beas 2. Sindhu (Ancient
List-I List-II name)
a. 1st Commander in Chief of Indian Army c. Betwa 3. Dihang
1. General Sir Robert Lockhart d. Brahmaputra 4. Vetravati
Codes:
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
362

A B C D Ans.375(C) Defence Institute of Advanced

(A) 1 2 4 3 Technology pune is the Premier Deemed
(B) 1 4 2 3 University under the Department of Defence
(C) 2 4 3 1 Research & Development, Ministry of
(D) 2 1 4 3 Defence, Government of India.
The Indian Defence Estates Service is Civil
Ans.374(D) When they found a mighty river Service in the Government of India. Its Cadre
so wide that it looked like a sea, and settled Controlling Authority (CCA) is the Ministry
there, they called it the Sindhu-river (Indus of Defence. Civil Services Examination
river). Thus the word Sindhu, which originally conducted every year by Union Public Service
meant "sea", started to mean the mighty river Commission provides a gateway for entry into
which seemed as wide as a sea. this service.
Vipasha is the ancient name of river Beas, The institute, considered as the only exclusive
which is the most dominating and inspiring college in Asia for defence management
part of our Manali visit. training to the Armed Forces, is run under the
The Betwa or Betravati is a river in Northern management of the Indian Armed Forces and
India, and a tributary of the Yamuna. It rises is located in Sainikpuri in Secunderabad, in
in the Vindhya Range (Raisen) just north of the recently formed Telangana State of India.
Hoshangabad in Madhya Pradesh and flows The Defence Services Staff College (DSSC) is
north-east through Madhya Pradesh and a joint-service institution of the Ministry of
Orchha to Uttar Pradesh. Nearly half of its Defence of the Republic of India.After the
course, which is not navigable, runs over the partition of India and Pakistan, the Indian
Malwa Plateau. operations relocated to its present home in
The Brahmaputra, called Yarlung Tsangpo in Wellington Cantonment in The Nilgiris
Tibet, Siang/Dihang River in Arunachal District of Tamil Nadu, India.
Pradesh and Luit, Dilao in Assam, is a trans-
boundary river which flows through China, 376. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
India and Bangladesh. It is the ninth largest answer using the codes given below the lists:
river in the world by discharge, and the 15th (Military/Para-military Organisations)
longest. List-I List-II
a. Indian Army 1. 15 jan
375. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct b. Indian Air Force 2. 1 Feb
answer using the codes given below the lists: c. Coast Guard day 3. 24 Oct
(Defence Training Establishments) d. Indo-Tibetan Border Police 4. 8 Oct
List-I List-II Codes:
a. Defence Institute of Advanced Technology A B C D
1. Wellington (A) 1 2 4 3
b. National Institute of Defence Estates (B) 1 4 2 3
Management 2. Pune (C) 2 4 3 1
c. College of Defence Management (D) 2 1 4 3
3. Secunderabad
d. Defence Services Staff College Ans.376(B) Army Day is celebrated on 15
4. Delhi January every year in India, in recognition of
Codes: Field Marshal Kodandera M. Cariappa's
A B C D taking over as the first Commander-in-Chief
(A) 1 2 4 3 of the Indian Army from General Sir Francis
(B) 1 4 2 3 Butcher, the last British Commander-in-Chief
(C) 2 4 3 1 of India, on 15 January 1949.
(D) 2 1 4 3 The Air Force Day is celebrated every year on
October 8, the day Indian Air Force was
officially established in 1932. This year, the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
363

IAF Day is special as the first of 36 long- (Mountain Ranges of the World)
awaited Rafale fighter jets will be received by List-I List-II
Defence Minister Rajnath Singh in France. a. Mountain range in Europe
The Indian Coast Guard (ICG) is an armed 1. The Rockies
force that protects India's maritime interests b. Mountain range in North America
and enforces maritime law, with jurisdiction 2. The Alps
over the territorial waters of India, including c. Mountain range in South America
its contiguous zone and exclusive economic 3. Drakensburg
zone. d. Mountain range in Africa
The Indo-Tibetan Border Police is one of the 4. The Andies
five Central Armed Police Forces of India, Codes:
raised on 24 October 1962, under the CRPF A B C D
Act, in the wake of the Sino-Indian War of (A) 1 2 4 3
1962. The ITBP was intended for deployment (B) 1 4 2 3
along India's border with Tibet. (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
377. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: Ans.378(D) The Alps are the highest and
(Important Military Operations) most extensive mountain range system that
List-I List-II lies entirely in Europe, and stretch
a. Operation Parakram 1. 2001–20 approximately 1,200 kilometres across eight
b. Operation Cactus 2. Nov 1988 Alpine countries: France, Switzerland,
c. Operation Trident 3. 1961 Monaco, Italy, Liechtenstein, Austria,
d. Operation Vijay 4. 1971 Germany, and Slovenia.
Codes: The Rocky Mountains, also known as the
A B C D Rockies, are a major mountain range located
(A) 1 2 4 3 in western North America. The Rocky
(B) 1 4 2 3 Mountains stretch 3,000 km (1,900 mi) in
(C) 2 4 3 1 straight-line distance from the northernmost
(D) 2 1 4 3 part of British Columbia, in western Canada,
Ans.377(A) The 2001–2002 India–Pakistan to New Mexico in the Southwestern United
standoff was a military standoff between India States.
and Pakistan that resulted in the massing of The Andes, running along South America's
troops on both sides of the border and along western side, is among the world's longest
the Line of Control in the region of Kashmir. mountain ranges. Its varied terrain
The operation Cactus was launched in Nov encompasses glaciers, volcanoes, grassland,
1988 on call of Maldives President MA desert, lakes and forest.
Gayoom, who was under threat of a coup from The Drakensberg is the name given to the
mercenaries. The three services of India eastern portion of the Great Escarpment,
launched the operation and captured the which encloses the central Southern African
mercenaries. plateau. The Great Escarpment reaches its
This was a naval offensive operation launched greatest elevation – 2,000 to 3,482 metres
on Pakistan's port city of Karachi by the within the border region of South Africa and
Indian Navy during the Indo-Pakistani War of Lesotho.
1971. India celebrates its Navy Day annually
on 4 December to mark this operation. 379. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Launched in 1961 to liberate Goa from answer using the codes given below the lists:
Portuguses control. (First Chief Ministers of Indian States)
List-I List-II
378. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. Andhra (State) 1. Tanguturi
answer using the codes given below the lists: Prakasham Pantulu
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
364

b. Hyderabad (State) 2. Gopinath (B) 1 4 2 3

Bordoloi (C) 2 4 3 1
c. Assam 3. Chaudhary Brahm (D) 2 1 4 3
Prakash
d. Delhi 4. M.K. Vellodi Ans.380(C) Chakravarti Rajagopalachari,
Codes: informally called Rajaji or C.R., was an
A B C D Indian politician, independence activist,
(A) 1 2 4 3 lawyer, writer, historian and statesman.
(B) 1 4 2 3 Rajagopalachari was the last Governor-
(C) 2 4 3 1 General of India, as India soon became a
(D) 2 1 4 3 Republic in 1950.
Sarvepalli Radhakrishnan was an Indian
Ans.379(B) Tanguturi Prakasam Pantulu was philosopher, academic, and statesman who
an Indian politician and freedom fighter, chief served as the first Vice President of India and
minister of the Madras Presidency, and the second President of India.
subsequently became the first chief minister Lal Bahadur Shastri was an Indian politician
of the new Andhra state, created by the who served as the second Prime Minister of
partition of Madras State along linguistic India. He promoted the White Revolution – a
lines. national campaign to increase the production
Mullath Kadingi Vellodi CIE, ICS was the and supply of milk – by supporting the Amul
appointed Chief Minister of Hyderabad state milk co-operative of Anand, Gujarat and
by the government of India after the fall of the creating the National Dairy Development
Hyderabad state ruled by Nizam rule. Board.
Gopinath Bordoloi was a politician and Indian Sir Chandrasekhara Venkata Raman was an
independence activist who served as the first Indian physicist who made groundbreaking
Chief Minister of Assam. He was a follower works in the field of light scattering. With his
of the Gandhian principle of non-violence as a student K. S. Krishnan, he discovered that
political tool. when light traverses a transparent material,
Chaudhary Brahm Prakash Yadav played an some of the deflected light change wavelength
important role in the Individual Satyagraha and amplitude.
Movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi in
1940 and was among the leaders of the 381. Consider the following statements:
‘underground’ activities in Delhi during the 1. The Gobi desert is located in Asia.
‘Quit India’ movement. He was imprisoned 2. The Sahara desert is located in North
many times during the freedom struggle. America.
Which of the statements given above is/are
380. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct correct?
answer using the codes given below the lists: (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(First Awardees of Various Awards) (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
List-I List-II
a. 1st Indian to be awarded the Bharat Ratna Ans.381(A) The Gobi is a large desert region
1. CV Raman in northern China and southern Mongolia.
b. 1st Bharat Ratna Awardee The Sahara is a desert located on the African
2. C Rajagopalachari continent.
c. 1st person to be awarded the Bharat Ratna
posthumously 3. Lal Bahadur Shastri 382. Consider the following statements:
d. 1st Scientist to be awarded the Bharat 1. Brazil's border connects to Columbia and
Ratna 4. Dr. S. Radhakrishnan Bolivia.
Codes: 2. The Argentina connects to Venezuela and
A B C D Ecuador.
(A) 1 2 4 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
365

Which of the statements given above is/are decreases to zero at the equator. The Coriolis
correct? Effect can be seen in action in the general
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only circulation of the atmosphere.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
385. Consider the following statements:
Ans.382(A) Brazil is bordered by the Atlantic 1. Nanda devi peak forms a part of kumaon
Ocean to the east; French Guiana, Suriname, Himalayas.
Guyana, Venezuela, and Colombia to the 2. Chikmagalur is famous for coffee
north; Peru, Bolivia, Paraguay, and Argentina cultivation.
to the west; and Uruguay to the south. Which of the statements given above is/are
Argentina shares land borders with Chile, NOT correct?
Uruguay, Bolivia, and Brazil. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
383. Consider the following statements: Ans.385(D) Nanda Devi peak forms a part of
1. The border of China connects Ukraine and Kumaon Himalayas located in Chamoli
Saudi Arabia. district of Uttaranchal.
2. India's border connects to Bhutan and Coffee is cultivated in Chikmagalur district in
Myanmar. an area of around 85,465 hectares with
Which of the statements given above is/are Arabica being the dominant variety grown in
NOT correct? upper hills and Robusta being the major
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only variety in the low-level hills.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
386. Consider the following statements:
Ans.383(A) China shares its borders with 14 1. India's first census was held in 1872 AD but
sovereign states. They are Afghanistan, the first complete census was completed in
Bhutan, India, Kazakhstan, Kyrgyzstan, Laos, 1881 AD.
Mongolia, Myanmar, Nepal, North Korea, 2. India's population is more than the total
Pakistan, Russia, Tajikistan, and Vietnam. population of North America, South America
India shares its borders with Pakistan in the and Australia.
west, China, Nepal, Bhutan, Myanmar and Which of the statements given above is/are
Bangladesh in the east and with Sri Lanka in correct?
the south. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
384. Consider the following statements:
1. According to Coriolis, the direction of wind Ans.386(C) Census is undertaken every 10
is affected by centrifugal force and the years, beginning in 1872 under british Viceroy
centripetal force. Lord Mayo, the first complete census was
2. Earth's deflecting force is not the same taken in 1881. Post 1949, it has been
everywhere. It is the minimum on the equator conducted by the Registrar General and
and maximum at the poles. Census Commissioner of India under the
Which of the statements given above is/are Ministry of Home Affairs.
NOT correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 387. Consider the following statements:
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 1. The period from 1901 to 1921 is called the
Ans.384(D) According to Coriolis, the stable phase of the growth of India's
direction of wind is affected by centrifugal population.
force and the centripetal force. The amount of 2. The period from 1921 to 1951, is known as
deflection varies with latitude, the speed of the period of steady growth of population.
the object and the rotation of the earth. The 3. The period of 1951-1981 are known as the
deflection is greatest at the poles and period of population explosion in India.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
366

Which of the statements given above is/are India in suburban category to be completely
correct? staffed by women.
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 only The South-Central Railway (SCR) today said
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 it has become the first railway zone in the
country to complete 100 per cent LED
Ans.387(D) The period from 1901-1921 is lighting at all the stations under its jurisdiction
referred to as a period of stagnant or
stationary phase of growth of India’s 390. Consider the following statements:
population, since in this period growth rate 1. Recently Israel has left UNESCO's
was very low, even recording a negative membership.
growth rate during 1911- 1921. 2. The Mahanadi water dispute is between
The decades 1921-1951 are referred to as the Chhattisgarh and Odisha states.
period of steady population growth. 3. India has recorded the highest average age
The decades 1951-1981 are referred to as the in the state of Kerala.
period of population explosion in India. Which of the statements given above is/are
correct?
388. Consider the following statements: (A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 only
1. World Environment Day is celebrated on 5 (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
June.
2. International Yoga Day is celebrated on 21 Ans.390(D) Israel joined UNESCO on 16
June. September 1949, but withdrew alongside the
3. World Health Day is celebrated on 7th US from UNESCO on 31 December 2018.
April. Cause of the Mahanadi river water dispute
Which of the statements given above is/are between Odisha and Chhattisgarh.
correct? There are notable variations at the State level
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 only with Kerala in 1970-75 recording the highest
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 life expectancy at birth of 62.0 years and Uttar
Pradesh, the lowest, 43.0 years.
Ans.388(D) World Environment Day - 5 June
International Yoga Day -21 June 391. Consider the following statements:
World Health Day - 7th April 1. The tropic of Cancer line passes through
Gujarat, Chhattisgarh states.
389. Consider the following statements: 2. Bhilai Steel Plant has been established in
1. The name changed to Kandla port is association with Germany.
Deendayal port. Which of the statements given above is/are
2. Fully functional by women railway station correct?
is Matunga. (A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
3. Railway Zone with 100% LED Light is (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
South Central Railway.
Which of the statements given above is/are Ans.391(A) India Tropic of Cancer passes
correct? through 8 States. (Rajasthan, Gujarat, Madhya
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 only Pradesh, Chhattisgarh, Jharkhand, West
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 Bengal, Tripura and Mizoram.)
Durgapur Steel plant was established in
Ans.389(D) Kandla Port was renamed as z collaboration with Britain, Rourkela Steel
Deendayal Port under the India port act of plant in collaboration with Germany and
1908. Bhilai steel plant was started in collaboration
Matunga is a railway station on the Central with Russia.
line of the Mumbai Suburban Railway
network. As per the Limca Book of Records 392. Consider the following statements:
2018, Matunga is the first railway station in
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
367

1. The Ross Island, located at Andaman Ans.394(A) The Lal Bahadur Shastri Dam is
Nicobar Islands by Prime Minister Narendra also known as Almatti Dam is a hydroelectric
Modi, has been named as Subhash Chandra project on the Krishna River in North
Bose Island. Karnataka, India which was completed in July
2. Havelock Island located at Andaman 2005.
Nicobar Islands by Prime Minister Narendra The Pong Dam, also known as the Beas Dam,
Modi has been named Swaraj Island. is an embankment dam on the Beas River in
Which of the statements given above is/are the state of Himachal Pradesh, India, just
NOT correct? upstream of Talwara.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 395. Consider the following statements:
1. The Environment Protection Act passed in
Ans.392(D) The Ross Island was renamed as 1986.
Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose Dweep, the Neil 2. The Biodiversity Act passed in 2002.
Island as Shaheed Dweep and the Havelock 3. The Forest Conservation Act passed in
Island as Swaraj Dweep. 1980.
Which of the statements given above is/are
393. Consider the following statements: correct?
1. Barak valley in Assam is famous for Tea (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
Cultivation. (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
2. Tungabhadra multipurpose project is a joint
venture of Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh. Ans.395(D) Environment Protection Act,1986
Which of the statements given above is/are is an Act of the Parliament of India.
correct? After years of consultations and deferral, the
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2 Biological Diversity Act 2002 has been
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 passed by the parliament.
The Forest (Conservation) Act, 1980 an Act
Ans.393(C) The Barak Valley is located in of the Parliament of India to provide for the
the southern region of the Indian state of conservation of forests and for matters
Assam. Soils of sugarcane growing areas in connected therewith or ancillary or incidental
Cachar and Karimganj districts in the Barak thereto.
valley of Assam have silty loam to clayey
soils. 396. Consider the following statements:
Tungabhadra is a multipurpose dam serving 1. Water is present on 71 percent of the earth's
irrigation, electricity generation, flood control, surface.
etc. This is a joint project of erstwhile 2. India's area is almost 2.4 percent of the
Hyderabad state and erstwhile Madras world.
Presidency when the construction was started Which of the statements given above is/are
later it became a joint project of Karnataka correct?
and Andhra Pradesh after its completion in (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
1953. (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2

394. Consider the following statements: Ans.396(C) India occupies 2.4 percent of the
1. Almatti Dam is situated on Krishana River. world's land surface area but is home to 17.5
2. Pong Dam is situated on Ravi River. percent of the world's population. The Indo-
Which of the statements given above is/are Gangetic plains are among the most densely
correct? populated areas of the world.
(A) Only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 397. Consider the following statements:
1. Vikram Sarabhai Space Center is located in
Sri Harikota.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
368

2. The world's deepest ocean is the Indian Northern and Eastern with China and a small
Ocean. border with Bhutan as well.
Which of the statements given above is/are Indian states that share border with Nepal are
NOT correct? Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Sikkim, West
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Bengal and Bihar.
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
400. Consider the following statements:
Ans.397(C) The Vikram Sarabhai Space 1. Columbus discovered the northern America
Centre (VSSC) is a major space research continent.
centre of the Indian Space Research 2. Victoria Falls is located on the Zambezi
Organisation (ISRO), focusing on rocket and River.
space vehicles for India's satellite programme. 3. The stream of California, Peru is a cold
It is located in Thiruvananthapuram, in the stream.
Indian state of Kerala. Which of the statements given above is/are
The Mariana Trench or Marianas Trench is correct?
located in the western Pacific Ocean about (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
200 kilometres (124 mi) east of the Mariana (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
Islands. it is the deepest trench in the world.
Ans.400(D) Christopher Columbus was the
398. Consider the following statements: first explorer to "discover" America.
1. Sri Penusila Narasimha Wildlife Sanctuary Victoria Falls (, "The Smoke that Thunders")
is located in Kerala. is a waterfall in southern Africa on the
2. Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is Zambezi River at the border between Zambia
located in Andhra Pradesh. and Zimbabwe.
Which of the statements given above is/are The Humboldt Current, also called the Peru
correct? Current, is a cold, low-salinity ocean current
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only that flows north along the western coast of
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 South America.

Ans.398(B) Sri Penusila Narasimha Wildlife 401. Consider the following statements:
Sanctuary is a 1030.85 km² Protected area in 1. Length of 1-degree latitude is 110.569 km
Nellore District of Andhra Pradesh state in on Equator.
South India. 2. This length is 111.7 km on the poles.
Sri Lankamalleswara Wildlife Sanctuary is a Which of the statements given above is/are
wildlife sanctuary headquartered in Kadapa, correct?
Andhra Pradesh, India. (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
399. Consider the following statements:
1. The Indian State of Sikkim does not share a Ans.401(C) Each degree of latitude is
border with neighbouring country Bangladesh. approximately 69 miles (111 kilometers)
2. The Indian State of Uttar pradesh does not apart. The range varies (due to the earth's
share a border with neighbouring country slightly ellipsoid shape) from 68.703 miles
Nepal. (110.567 km) at the equator to 69.407
Which of the statements given above is/are (111.699 km) at the poles.
NOT correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 402. Consider the following statements:
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 1. Earth rotates 15 degrees in one hour.
2. Earth revolves from west to east.
Ans.399(B) Sikkim shares borders with three Which of the statements given above is/are
countries-Western border with Nepal, correct?
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
369

(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 Ans.404(C) Jelep La or Jelep Pass elevation
4,267 m or 13,999 ft, is a high mountain pass
Ans.402(C) 360 degrees in a full rotation, between East Sikkim District, Sikkim, India
divided by 24 hours is 15 degrees an hour. 60 and Tibet Autonomous Region, China.
minutes in an hour divided by fifteen degrees Bara-lacha la is a high mountain pass in
an hour is four minutes. Zanskar range, connecting Lahaul district in
When viewed above the North Pole, the Earth Himachal Pradesh to Leh district in Ladakh.
rotates counter clockwise, from west to east.
This is also called a prograde rotation. 405. Consider the following statements:
Because of this direction of rotation, we see 1. Nicotina tubecam and nicotina rustica are
the sun rising every day in the east and setting the main varieties of tobacco.
in the west. 2. In India, two varieties of coffee are
produced- Arabica and Robusta.
403. Consider the following statements: Which of the statements given above is/are
1. India's standard Meridian line 82 (1/20) east correct?
longitudes have been considered. This passes (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
through Allahabad (Prayagraj). (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
2. India's total Longitude expansion is
approximately 300. Ans.405(C) The two main varieties of coffee
3. India's standard time is 5 hours 30 minutes viz., Arabica and Robusta are grown in India.
ahead of Greenwich standard time. Arabica is mild coffee, but the beans being
Which of the statements given above is/are more aromatic, it has higher market value
correct? compared to Robusta beans. On the other
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only hand Robusta has more strength and is,
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 therefore, used in making various blends.

Ans.403(D) 82˚ 30' East longitude is taken as 406. Consider the following statements:
the Standard Time Meridian of India or 1. In 1798 AD, East India Company started
reference letters longitude for IST, as it passes production of coffee experimentally.
through the middle of India (from Mirzapur, 2. Business production of coffee commences
near Allahabad). Indian Standard Meridian from India in 1820 AD.
(82˚30'E meridian) passes through UP, MP, Which of the statements given above is/are
Chhatisgarh, Orissa and Andhra Pradesh. NOT correct?
The country is situated north of the equator (A) 1 only (B) 2 only
between 8°04' to 37°06' north latitude and (C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
68°07' to 97°25' east longitude. (30 longitude
APPROX.) Ans.406(D) In India, coffee commercial
India Standard Time (IST) is 5:30 hours (5 plantations started after 1820 in the south of
hours 30 minutes) ahead of Greenwich Mean the country with British enterprise and
Time. Indian Standard Time was adopted on 1 investment.
September 1947.
407. Consider the following statements:
404. Consider the following statements: 1. The mars planet's satellite is Phobos and
1. Jelep La connects Sikkim with Tibet. Demos.
2. Bara-lacha la connects Himachal Pradesh to 2. On Mars, the highest mountain in the Solar
Leh. System is Nix Olympia.
Which of the statements given above is/are 3. Nix Olympia is three times higher than the
correct? Everest.
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only Which of the statements given above is/are
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 correct?
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 only
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
370

(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 410. Which among the following statements about
the earth is not true?
Ans.407 Deimos (fear and terror), which were (A) The Earth makes one complete revolution
discovered by the American astronomer round the Sun every 365 days, 5 hours, 48
Asaph Hall in 1877. minutes, and 46 seconds.
The highest mountain on Mars is also the (B) The Earth makes one complete revolution
highest mountain and volcano in the entire on its axis in 48 hours
solar system. It is called Olympus Mons (C) The Earth revolves in its orbit round the
(formerly Nix Olympica) and is 16 miles (24 Sun at a speed of 66,000 miles per hour
kilometers) high which makes it about three (D) The Earth rotates on its axis at an
times higher than Mt. Everest. equatorial speed of more than 1000 miles per
hour
408. Consider the following statements:
1. India has about 2.45 percent of the world's Ans.410(B) Earth makes a complete rotation
surface area and 4 percent of water resources. on its axis every 23 hours and 56 minutes,
2. About 16 percent of world population is which we commonly round up to 24 hours.
found in India.
Which of the statements given above is/are 411. Consider the following Correct statements
correct? about Ozone Layer
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only 1. A layer of 3 is spread like an invisible
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 canopy over the earth’s atmosphere to a
variable extent.
Ans.408(C) India accounts for about 2.45 per 2. Highest concentration is found between 15-
cent of world's surface area, 4 per cent of the 35 km in stratosphere
world's water resources and about 16 per cent 3. It is also found in troposphere
of world's population. The total water 4. It helps in keeping troposphere warm and
available from precipitation in the country in a regulates the jet stream which is found at the
year is about 4,000 cubic km. lower part of the stratosphere.
(A) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (B) 1 and 4
409. Consider the following statements: (C) 1, 2 and 4 (D) 1, 3 and 4
1. Planet word is made of the Greek word
'Planetai'. Ans.411(A) The ozone layer is mainly found
2. Mercury planet has the highest daily in the lower portion of the stratosphere that
temperature difference. absorbs most of the Sun's ultraviolet radiation.
3. Venus is also called the sister planet of the It contains high concentration of ozone (O3)
Earth. in relation to other parts of the atmosphere,
Which of the statements given above is/are Ozone layer, also called ozonosphere, region
correct? of the upper atmosphere, between roughly 15
(A) Only 1 (B) 1 and 2 only and 35 km (9 and 22 miles) above Earth’s
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 surface, containing relatively high
concentrations of ozone molecules (O3).
Ans.409(D) The change in temperature on the
surface of Mercury is due to its rotation and 412. Regarding “carbon credits” which one of the
lack of atmosphere. During the day the following statements is not correct?
temperature is so high that it could melt some 1. The carbon credit system was ratified in
metals and during the night the temperature conjunction with the Kyoto Protocol.
drops well below freezing. 2. Carbon credits are awarded to countries or
Venus is a terrestrial planet and is sometimes groups that have reduced greenhouse gases
called Earth's "sister planet" because of their below their emission quota.
similar size, mass, proximity to the Sun. 3.The goal of the carbon credit system is to
limit the increase of carbon.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
371

4. Carbon credits are traded at a price fixed 4. Precipitation will be frequent.

from time to time by the United Nations Select the correct answer from the codes given
Environment Programme. below.
(A) 1 and 4 (B) Only 2 (A) 1 and 3 (B) Only 2
(C) 2 and 3 (D) only 4 (C) 2 and 3 (D) only 4

Ans.412(D) A carbon credit is a permit that Ans.414(A) Global warming is the long-term
allows the company that holds it to emit a rise in the average temperature of the Earth's
certain amount of carbon dioxide or other climate system. It is a major aspect of climate
greenhouse gases. One credit permits the change and has been demonstrated by direct
emission of a mass equal to one ton of carbon temperature measurements and by
dioxide. The carbon credit is one half of a so- measurements of various effects of the
called "cap-and-trade" program. warming. Global warming and climate change
When you buy a carbon credit for $11, you are often used interchangeably. Increased
are guaranteed a reduction of one metric ton ocean temperatures are melting glaciers and
of carbon dioxide in return. This way a project ice caps all over the world. Melted ice
is allowed to sell certified carbon credits only increases the volume of water in our oce.
if the additional money definitely reduces Warmer temperatures also result in the
emissions by the promised amount. expansion of the water's mass, which causes
sea levels to rise, threatening low-lying
413. Consider the following statements. islands and coastal cities.
1. The international political response to
climate change began with the adoption of the 415. Consider the following statements.
UNFCCC in 1997. 1. Tides are of great help in navigation and
2. The UN Framework Convention on Climate fishing.
Change (UNFCCC) sets out a framework for 2. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave
action aimed at stabilizing atmospheric the harbor safely.
concentrations of greenhouse gases to avoid 3. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours.
“dangerous anthropogenic interference” with 4. Kandla and Diamond Harbor are tidal ports.
the climate system. Which of the statements given above are
3. The UNFCCC entered into force in 1998, correct?
and now has 192 parties. (A) 1 and 3 (B) Only 2
Which of the statements given above is/are (C) 2 and 3 (D) All of the above
correct?
(A) 1 and 4 (B) Only 2 Ans.415(D) Tides are the cyclic rising and
(C) 2 and 3 (D) only 3 falling of Earth's ocean surface caused by the
tidal forces of the Moon and the Sun acting on
Ans.413(B) The United Nations Framework the Earth. Tides cause changes in the depth of
Convention on Climate Change is an the sea, and also produce oscillating currents
international environmental treaty adopted on known as tidal streams, making prediction of
9 May 1992 and opened for signature at the tides important for coastal navigation.
Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro from 3 to 14
June 1992. It then entered into force on 21 416. Consider the following statements.
March 1994, after a sufficient number of 1. The Grand Trunk Road (GT Road) travels
countries had ratified it. in three South Asian countries-India Pakistan
and Bangladesh.
414. The effects of global warming are. 2. The stretch of the GT Road between
1. The sea level may rise. Kolkata and Delhi is known as NH 2.
2. It will prevent the stirring up of the ocean Which of the statements given above is/are
3. Fish population will migrate towards the correct?
Tropics. (A) only 1 (B) Only 2
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
372

(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these Narmada River, also called the Rewa and
previously also known as Nerbudda, is a river
Ans.416(B) The 'Grand Trunk Road' connects in central India after the Godavari, and the
Kolkata and Amritsar. G.T road is a part of Krishna. It is also known as "Life Line of
India's Golden Quadrilateral project (4–6 lane Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat" for its huge
highway) Connecting Amritsar via Delhi, contribution to the state of Madhya pradesh
Agra, Kanpur, Allahabad, Varanasi, Dhanbad, and Gujarat in many ways.
Asansol with Kolkata.
419. Consider the following correct statements.
417. Consider the following statements regarding 1. The Green Revolution started in 1965 with
latitudes and longitudes? the first introduction of High Yielding Variety
1. Longitudes are angular distance of a place (HYV) seeds in Indian agriculture.
from the equator. 2. The term green revolution was coined by an
2. Latitudes are angular distance of a place official at the U.S. State Department, Norman
from the prime meridian. Borlaug in 1968.
Choose the incorrect statement(s)? (A) only 1 (B) Only 2
(A) only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these
Ans.419(A) The Green Revolution in India
Ans.417(C) Latitude of a place is measured as refers to a period when Indian agriculture was
the angular distance of the place from the converted into an industrial system due to the
equator. All latitudes also called as parallels adoption of modern methods and technology
are concentric circles. It was mainly found by M.S. Swaminathan.
Equator is the largest latitude of earth dividing The term green revolution was coined by an
the earth in two equal halves. Longitude of a official at the U.S. State Department, William
place is measured as the angular distance of Gaud in 1968.
the place from the prime meridian. Longitudes
also known as meridians play a significant 420. Consider the following correct statements.
role in measuring the time zone of an area. 0- 1. Deccan Plateau is the peninsular tableland
degree longitude is Greenwich in UK and 180 lying to the south of the Tropic of Cancer. Its
degree is the International Date Line. outer boundary is marked by the 300 m
contour line, with Vindhya-Kaimur
418. Consider the following correct statements. watersheds in the north.
1. Narmada river is known as "Life Line of 2. The Deccan plateau is located between two
Madhya Pradesh and Gujarat" for its huge mountain ranges, the Western Ghats and the
contribution to the state of Madhya pradesh Eastern Ghats,
and Gujarat in many ways. (A) only 1 (B) Only 2
2. Narmada is one of only three major rivers (C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these
in peninsular India that run from east to west
along with the Tapti River and the Mahi Ans.420(C) The Deccan plateau is located
River. between two mountain ranges, the Western
(A) only 1 (B) Only 2 Ghats and the Eastern Ghats, Deccan Plateau
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these is the peninsular tableland lying to the south
of the Tropic of Cancer. Its outer boundary is
Ans.418(C) Narmada is the largest west marked by the 300 m contour line, with
flowing river of the peninsular India. Narmada Vindhya-Kaimur watersheds in the north. and
flows westwards through a rift valley between north-western part of the plateau is made up
the Vindhyan Range on the north and the of lava flows or igneous rocks known as the
Satpura Range on the south. It rises from Deccan Traps. The north-western part of the
Maikala range near Amarkantak in Madhya plateau is made up of lava flows or igneous
Pradesh, at an elevation of about 1057 m. The rocks known as the Deccan Traps
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
373

Ans.423(C) Jim Corbett National Park is a

421. Consider the following correct statements. forested wildlife sanctuary in northern India’s
1. Kharif crops, which are also known as Uttarakhand State. Rich in flora and fauna, it’s
monsoon crops, are the crops which are grown known for its Bengal tigers. It was the first
during the monsoon or rainy season (June to national park to come under the Project Tiger
October). initiative.
2. The major Kharif crop in India is wheat,
followed by barley, mustard, sesame and peas.
(A) only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these 424. Consider the following correct statements.
1. The Gulf Stream is a warm and swift
Ans.421(A) Kharif crops are the crops which Atlantic Ocean current that originates in the
are sown at the beginning of the rainy season, Gulf of Mexico and stretches to the tip of
between April and May. Kharif crops depend Florida.
on the rainfall patterns. The timing and 2. Labrador current is cold current of Arctic
quantity of rainwater are the two important Ocean, which flows along the eastern coast of
factors that decide the output of Kharif crops. Canada.
The main Kharif crops grown in India include 3. Canary Current, also known as the Black
paddy, maize, jowar, bajra, cotton, sugarcane, Current or the Black Stream,
groundnut, pulses etc. (A) only 1 (B) Only 2
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these
422. Consider the following correct statements.
1. Mumbai Port Trust, abbreviated as JNPT, Ans.424(C) The Canary Current flows along
also known as Nhava Sheva, is the largest the African coast from north to south between
container port in India. 30°N and 10°N and offshore to 20°W
2. Government of India plans to modernise all (Fedoseev 1970). The Canary Current and the
ports and has approved a project called North Equatorial Current are surface currents
Sagarmala. that the eastern and southern dynamic
(A) only 1 (B) Only 2 boundaries of the North Atlantic Subtropical
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these Gyre.
The Kuroshio, also known as the Black or
Ans.422(C) Jawaharlal Nehru Port, Japan Current or the Black Stream, is a north-
abbreviated as JNPT, also known as Nhava flowing ocean current on the west side of the
Sheva, is the largest container port in India. North Pacific Ocean.
The Sagarmala is a series of projects to
leverage the country's coastline and inland 425. Consider the following correct statements.
waterways to drive industrial development. 1. Nanda Devi is one of the highest mountain
in the world and ranked second in India, Also
423. Consider the following correct statements. highest mountain of Uttarakhand.
1. Jim Corbett National Park is the oldest 2. The Kangchenjunga is the highest mountain
national park in India and was established in peak in India and ranked 3rd highest summit
1936 as Hailey National Park to protect the in the world it is located at the border of India
endangered Bengal tiger. and Nepal in the great Himalayas range,
2. Kanhna national park was the first to come Arunachal Pradesh.
under the Project Tiger initiative. 3. The Kamet is the highest summit in the
3. Sundarbans National Park is densely Zaskar mountain Range of Garhwal region in
covered by mangrove forests, and is one of the the Chamoli District of Uttarakhand.
largest reserves for the Bengal tiger. (A) only 1 (B) both 1 and 3
(A) only 1 (B) Only 2 (C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these
(C) both 1,2 and 3 (D) none of these
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
374

Ans.425(B) Kangchenjunga, also spelled Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of
Kanchenjunga, is the third highest mountain South India.
in the world. It rises with an elevation of (A) only 1 (B) only 2
8,586 m in a section of the Himalayas called (C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these
Kangchenjunga Himal delimited in the west
by the Tamur River, in the north by the Ans.428(B) There are three biosphere reserve
Lhonak Chu and Jongsang La, and in the east zones:
by the Teesta River. 1. Core 2. Buffer
3. Manipulation
The core zone is basically an important area
426. Consider the following correct statements. where the conservation of wildlife and natural
1. The Irupu Falls are located in the resources is strictly protected by the forest
Brahmagiri Range in the Kodagu district of department.
Karnataka, Buffer zone only the research and education
2. Jog Fall located at southern state of activities are permitted to hum.
Karnataka is India's highest waterfall. it is on Manipulation zone is the peripheral area of a
the Sharavathi River biosphere reserve where human activities like
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 cropping, recreation, forestry, and settlements
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these are permitted with the cooperation of reserve
management and local people.
Ans.426(C) Jog Falls located near Jog
Village. located in Siddapur, Uttara Kannada 429. Consider the following correct statements.
Jog Falls is also known as Gerusoppe falls, 1. The Moon makes a complete orbit around
The Irupu Falls are located in the Brahmagiri Earth with respect to the fixed stars about
Range in the Kodagu district of Karnataka, once every 27.3 days.
India, bordering the Wayanad district of 2. The Moon's diameter is one-fourth of the
Kerala. Earth's diameter, and the Moon's mass is 1/81
of the Earth's mass.
427. Consider the following correct statements. (A) only 1 (B) only 2
1. Lipu Lekh is located in Sikkim, this pass is (C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these
an important border post for trade with China,
the pilgrims for Manasarovar travel through Ans.429(C) The Moon is the Earth’s only
this pass. natural satellite, it is the fifth largest moon in
2. Shipki La (Pass)-It is in Himachal Pradesh, the Solar System, the average distance from
Satluj River flows through this pass. the Moon to the Earth is 384403 kilometres
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 (238857 miles), the Moon orbits the Earth
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) none of these every 27.3 days.

Ans.427(B) Lipulekh pass in Pithoragarh 430. Consider the following correct statements.
district of Uttarakhand, Lipulekh pass 1. Mesosphere the most important layer of the
connects the Kumaon region of Uttarakhand atmosphere, its average height is 13 km, most
with the old trading town of Taklakot in Tibet. weather phenomena like rainfall, hailstorm,
The pass is first Indian border post to be etc. occur in this layer.
opened for trade with China in 1992. 2. Stratosphere extends up to a height of 50
km. Being free from associated weather
428. Consider the following correct statements. phenomenon, this layer is most ideal for
1. Buffer Zone is a legally protected area flying aeroplanes.
where human intervention is strictly 3. In thermosphere temperature rises very
prohibited. rapidly with increasing height, this layer helps
2. The Nilgiri Biosphere Reserve is an in radio communications.
International Biosphere Reserve in the (A) only 1 (B) only 2
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
375

(C) both 1 and 2 (D) both 2 and 3 The Deccan Plateau is a large plateau that
covers most of South India. It is triangular,
Ans.430(D) Troposphere-the most important surrounded by three mountain ranges. It
layer of the atmosphere. Its average height is extends over eight Indian states (principally,
13 km. The air we inhale exists here. Most Telangana, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
weather phenomena like rainfall, hailstorm, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu).
etc. occur in this layer, Stratosphere extends
up to a height of 50 km. Being free from 433. Consider the following correct statements
associated weather phenomenon, this about Endogenic Process.
urerilayer is most ideal for flying aeroplanes, 1. The energy originating from within the
In thermosphere temperatses very rapidly with earth is the main force behind endogenic
increasing height. Ionosphere is a part of this geomorphic processes.
sphere. It extends between80-400 km. This 2. This energy is mostly produced by
layer helps in radio communications. rotational and tidal friction, radioactivity, and
primordial heat from the origin of the earth.
431. Consider the following correct statements. (A) only 1 (B) only 2
1. P-waves are also known as the Primary (C) both 1 and 2 (D) all of the above
waves. They are the first waves to arrive at the
surface. Ans.433(D) Endogenic Processes The energy
2. S- Waves arrive after some time after the originating from within the earth is the main
happening of Earthquake and they are called force behind endogenic geomorphic
secondary waves. processes, This energy is mostly produced by
3. The characteristics of S-waves are like rotational and tidal friction, radioactivity, and
sound waves. They travel through all three primordial heat from the origin of the earth,
mediums- solid, liquid and gas. This energy due to geothermal gradients and
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 heat flow from within induces diastrophism
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) both 2 and 3 and volcanism in the lithosphere.

Ans.431(C) The characteristics of P-waves 434. Consider the following correct statements.
are like sound waves. They travel through all 1. The presence of oxygen becomes
three mediums- solid, liquid and gas. S- insignificant at the height of 120 km from the
Waves arrive after some time after the surface of the earth with respect to the
happening of Earthquake and they are called composition of the atmosphere.
secondary waves. A significant characteristic 2. Water vapour and Carbon dioxide occur
of these S-waves is that they travel only only up to 50 km.
through a solid medium. 3. Ozone gas Present around 10-50 km above
earth surface and acts as a sieve, absorbing
432. Consider the following correct statements. UV (ultraviolet rays) from the sun.
1. Chhotanagpur plateau in India is a huge (A) only 1 (B) only 2
reserves of iron, coal and manganese (C) both 1 and 3 (D) all of the above
2. The Deccan plateau in India is one of the
oldest plateaus. Ans.434(C) The portion of the gases changes
3. Tibetan plateau the largest and highest in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such
plateau in the world is on the Pamir mountain, a way that oxygen will be almost negligible
called the "roof of the world" quantity at the heights of 120 km. Similarly,
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 carbon dioxide (and water vapour) is found
(C) both 1 and 3 (D) all of the above only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.

Ans.432(D) Chhota Nagpur plateau is a store 435. Consider the following correct statements
house of mineral resources such as mica, about Pressure belts.
bauxite, copper, limestone, iron ore and coal,
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
376

1. Polar Highs These occur near poles which equator, which is the result of the warm
have low pressure. climate and high primary productivity.
2. subtropical high the region in 30 degrees
North and 30 degrees South, which are high- 437. Consider the following correct statements.
pressure areas. 1. Nimbus clouds form at middle levels or
3. Sub-polar Lows The region in 60 degrees very away to the surface of the earth.
North and 60 degrees South, which are low- 2. Cumulus clouds are generally formed at a
pressure belts. height of 4,000 – 7,000 m, they look like
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 cotton wool.
(C) both 2 and 3 (D) all of the above 3. Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes of
8,000 – 12,000m, they are detached thin
Ans.435(C) Pressure belts are created due to clouds, they are always white in colour.
the heating and cooling of the air at different (A) only 1 (B) only 2
places and in different magnitude due to the (C) both 2 and 3 (D) all of the above
difference in heating of the surface of the
earth from the sun rays, due to the spherical Ans.437(C) A cloud is a mass of water drops
shape of the earth. The latitudes of the earth or ice crystals suspended in the atmosphere.
can be divided into seven pressure belts, Clouds form when water condenses in the sky.
which are as follows: The condensation lets us see the water vapor,
Equatorial Low-Pressure Belt: It lies between clouds are an important part of Earth's weather
5 degrees north and 5 degrees south latitude and climatet, Nimbus clouds form at middle
around the equator. levels or very near to the surface of the earth,
Sub-tropical High-Pressure Belts: There are they are usually found in black or dark gray
two such belts, one each in north and south colour these are very dense and opaque to the
hemisphere at 30-degrees latitudes from the rays of the sun.
equator, in the respective hemispheres. 438. Consider the following correct statements.
Circum-Polar Low-Pressure Belts: Again 1. When magma in its upward movement
there are two of these, between 60 degrees and cools and turns into solid form it is called
70 degrees in each hemisphere. igneous rock.
Polar High-pressure Belts: Two of them, 2. Sandstone, shale is some of the examples
between 70 degrees and 90 degrees latitude in for Metamorphic Rocks.
the northern and southern hemisphere, the 3. Metamorphic Rocks form under the action
temperature at the poles is extremely low, of volume, pressure, and temperature (PVT)
changes.
436. Consider the following correct statements (A) only 1 (B) only 2
about biodiversity. (C) both 1 and 3 (D) all of the above
1. Biodiversity is typically a measure of
variation at the genetic, species, and Ans.438(C) A rock is any naturally occurring
ecosystem level. solid mass or aggregate of minerals or
2. The term biodiversity was coined by Ernst mineraloid matter. It is categorized by the
Haeckel in the year 1986. minerals included, its chemical composition
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 and the way in which it is formed. Rocks are
(C) both 2 and 3 (D) all of the above usually grouped into three main groups:
Ans.436(A) The term biodiversity was coined igneous rocks, metamorphic rocks and
by Walter G. Rosen in the year 1986, sedimentary rocks. Sandstone, shale are some
description Biodiversity is the variety and of the examples for Sedimentary Rocks.
variability of life on Earth. Biodiversity is
typically a measure of variation at the genetic, 439. Consider the following incorrect statements.
species, and ecosystem level. Terrestrial
biodiversity is usually greater near the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
377

1. The crust is the outermost solid part of the similar latitudes. The climate of India may be
earth, the average density of continental crust broadly described as tropical monsoon type.
is about 2.83 g/cm3 India’s climate is affected by two seasonal
2. The Mantle has a density lower than the winds viz. the north-east monsoon and the
crust portion. south-west monsoon.
3. The inner core is in the solid state whereas
the outer core is in the liquid state. 442. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 I. The Inter Tropical Convergence Zone, or
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) both 1 and 3 ITCZ, is a belt of low pressure.
II. The Humboldt Current, also called the
Ans.439(B) Earth can be divided into three Kuroshio Current,
main layers: core, mantle and crust. Each of Select the correct option.
these layers can be divided into two parts: (A) Only I (B) Only II
inner and outer core, upper and lower mantle, (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
and continental and oceanic crust. The mantle
is in solid state. It has a higher density than Ans.442(A) The Inter Tropical Convergence
the crust part. Zone, or ITCZ, is a belt of low pressure which
circles the Earth generally near the equator
440. Consider the following correct statements. where the trade winds of the Northern and
1. Asteroids are found between the orbits of Southern Hemispheres come together. It is
Mars and Jupiter. characterised by convective activity which
2. The Sun is a G-type main-sequence star that generates often vigorous thunderstorms over
comprises about 99.86% of the mass of the large areas. It is most active over continental
Solar System. land masses by day and relatively less active
(A) only 1 (B) only 2 over the oceans.
(C) both 1 and 2 (D) both 1 and 3 The Humboldt Current, also called the Peru
Current, is a cold, low-salinity ocean current
Ans.440(C) The asteroid is a torus-shaped that flows north along the western coast of
region in the Solar System, located roughly South America. Normally, for a period of just
between the orbits of the planets Jupiter and a few weeks around Christmas each year this
Mars, The Sun is the star at the center of the cold water is replaced by a warm current.
Solar System. It is a nearly perfect sphere of
hot plasma, The Sun is a G-type main- 443. Which of the following statements is true?
sequence star that comprises about 99.86% of I. Chernozems are mainly used for growing
the mass of the Solar System. wheat, barley and maize, alongside other food
crops and vegetables.
441. Which of the following statements is true? II. Black soils constitute the food basket for
I. Indian climate is generally influenced by many countries.
Indian ocean in the south. Select the correct option.
II. Indian climate is generally influenced by (A) Only I (B) Only II
Presence of Himalayas in the North. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Ans.443(C) Black soils constitute the food
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II basket for many countries and for the world in
general and are often recognized as inherently
Ans.441(C) India’s climate is strongly productive and fertile soils. They are
influenced by the Ocean Himalayas and the extensively and intensively farmed, and
Thar Desert. The Himalayas act as a barrier to increasingly dedicated to cereal production,
the frigid katabatic winds flowing down from pasture, range and forage systems. Given
Central Asia keeping the bulk of the Indian favourable climatic conditions, these soils
subcontinent warmer than most locations at allow a very high crop productivity. More
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
378

specifically, Chernozems are mainly used for hills found in all major oceans. It is thought to
growing wheat, barley and maize, alongside be the site of upwelling new ocean floor
other food crops and vegetables. Part of the material from Earth's mantle, from which
Chernozem area is also used for livestock ocean floors are gradually spreading out.
rearing. Small grains and irrigated food and A ridge or a mountain ridge is a geographical
vegetable crops are the principal crops grown feature consisting of a chain of mountains or
on Kastanozems, while they are also used for hills that form a continuous elevated crest for
extensive grazing. some distance. The sides of the ridge slope
away from narrow top on either side. The
444. Which of the following statements is true? lines along the crest formed by the highest
I. Saturn has the largest number of natural points, with the terrain dropping down on
satellites or moons. either sides, are called the ridgelines. Ridges
II. Pioneer 10 was the first spacecraft to visit are usually termed hills or mountains as well,
Jupiter. depending on size.
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II 446. Which of the following statements is true?
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II I. Delta is the triangular landmass that forms
at its mouth.
Ans.444(B) Jupiter is the fifth planet from the II. An estuary is a partially enclosed coastal
Sun and the largest in the Solar System. It is a body of brackish water.
gas giant with a mass one-thousandth that of Select the correct option.
the Sun, but two-and-a-half times that of all (A) Only I (B) Only II
the other planets in the Solar System (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
combined. Jupiter has 79 known moons,
including the four large Galilean moons Ans.446(C) A river delta is a landform
discovered by Galileo Galilei in 1610. created by deposition of sediment that is
Ganymede, the largest of these, hasa diameter carried by a river as the flow leaves its mouth
greater than that of the planet Mercury. and enters slower-moving or stagnant water.
Pioneer 10 (originally designated Pioneer F) is This occurs where a river enters an ocean, sea,
an American space probe, launched in 1972 estuary, lake, reservoir, or (more rarely)
and weighing 258 kilograms (569 pounds), another river that cannot carry away the
that completed the first mission to the planet supplied sediment.
Jupiter. Thereafter, Pioneer 10 became the An estuary is a partially enclosed coastal body
first of five artificial objects to achieve the of brackish water with one or more rivers or
escape velocity that will allow them to leave streams flowing into it, and with a free
the Solar System. This space exploration connection to the open sea.
project was conducted by the NASA Ames Estuaries form a transition zone between river
Research Center in California. environments and maritime environments
known as ecotone. Estuaries are subject both
445. Which of the following statements is true? to marine influences such as tides, waves, and
I. A MID-OCEAN RIDGE is a system of rifts the influx of saline water and to riverine
mountain ranges, hills found in all major influences such as flows of freshwater and
oceans. sediment.
II. A ridge or a mountain ridge is a
geographical feature consisting water bodies. 447. Which of the following statements is true?
Select the correct option. I. A lagoon is a shallow part of water
(A) Only I (B) Only II separated from a larger part of water by
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II barrier islands or reefs.
II. The Sunda Trench, earlier known as and
Ans.445(A) A MID-OCEAN RIDGE is a sometimes still indicated as the Java Trench,
system of rifts and parallel mountain ranges or
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
379

is an oceanic trench located in the Pacific western Pacific oceans and slightly north of
Ocean. the Equator off the African and Central
Select the correct option. American west coasts.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 449. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Narmada rivers flows through a rift valley.
Ans.447(A) A lagoon is a shallow part of II. Brahmaputra tenth largest river in the
water separated from a larger part of water by world by discharge, and the 15th longest.
barrier islands or reefs. Lagoons are Select the correct option.
commonly divided into coastal lagoons and (A) Only I (B) Only II
atoll lagoons. They have also been identified (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
as occurring on mixed-sand and gravel
coastlines. Ans.449(A) The Narmada, also called the
The Sunda Trench, earlier known as and Rewa, is a river in central India and the fifth
sometimes still indicated as the Java Trench, longest river in the Indian subcontinent. It is
is an oceanic trench located in the Indian the third longest river that flows entirely
Ocean near Sumatra formed where the within India, after the Godavari, and the
Australian-Capricorn plates subduct under Krishna. It is one of only three major rivers in
part of the Eurasian Plate. It is 3,200 peninsular India that run from east to west
kilometres (2,000 mi) long with a maximum (longest west flowing river), along with the
depth of 24,440 feet (7,450 metres). Its Tapti River and the Mahi River. It is one of
maximum depth is the deepest point in the the rivers in India that flows in a rift valley,
Indian Ocean. flowing west between the Satpura and
Vindhya ranges. The other rivers which
448. Which of the following statements is true? flow through rift valley include Damodar
I. The westerlies are associated with the River in Chota Nagpur Plateau and Tapti. The
changeable weather common to the middle Tapti River and Mahi River also flow
latitudes. through rift valleys, but between different
II. Trade winds, also called equatorial calms. ranges.
Select the correct option. The Brahmaputra, called Yarlung Tsangpo in
(A) Only I (B) Only II Tibet, Siang/Dihang River in Arunachal
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Pradesh and Luit or Dilao in Assam, is a
trans-boundary river which flows through
Ans.448(A) The westerly winds, also known China, India and Bangladesh. It is the ninth
as the westerlies, occur at two regions on largest river in the world by discharge, and the
Earth: between 30- and 60-degrees latitude in 15th longest.
the northern hemisphere and between 30- and
60-degrees latitude in the southern 450. Which of the following statements is true?
hemisphere. The name of these unique winds I. Manipur does not on border Bangladesh.
comes from the direction of their origin; the II. Narmada flows in Atlantic Ocean.
westerlies run west to east while other winds Select the correct option.
run east to west. Doldrums, also called (A) Only I (B) Only II
equatorial calms, equatorial regions of light (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
ocean currents and winds within the
intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ), a belt Ans.450(A) Manipur does not form border
of converging winds and rising air encircling with Bangladesh. Bangladesh and India share
Earth near the Equator. The northeast and a 4,156 km (2,582 mi)-long international
southeast trade winds meet there; this border, the fifth-longest land border in the
meeting causes air uplift and often produces world, including 262 km (163 mi) in Assam,
clusters of convective thunderstorms. They 856 km (532 mi) in Tripura, 180 km (110 mi)
occur along the Equator in the Indian and
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
380

in Mizoram, 443 km (275 mi) in Meghalaya, Ans.452(C) Frontal fog forms near a front
and 2,217 km (1,378 mi) in West Bengal. when raindrops, falling from relatively warm
Narmada rises from Amarkantak Plateau near air above a frontal surface, evaporate into
Anuppur district Madhya Pradesh. It forms the cooler air close to the Earth’s surface and
traditional boundary between North India and cause it to become saturated. The visibility in
South India and flows westwards over a an ice fog is often considerably worse than
length of 1,312 km (815.2 mi) before draining that in a water fog containing the same
through the Gulf of Khambhat into the concentration of condensed water.
Arabian Sea, 30 km (18.6 mi) west of Sandstone is a sedimentary rock composed of
Bharuch city of Gujarat. sand-size grains of mineral, rock, or organic
451. Which of the following statements is true? material. It also contains a cementing material
I. Energy in a form of heat needed to convert that binds the sand grains together and may
the water into gaseous form known as latent contain a matrix of silt- or clay-size particles
heat. that occupy the spaces between the sand
II. Normal Lapse rate is increase of grains.
temperature with increasing height.
Select the correct option. 453. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Only I (B) Only II I. The Pacific Ocean is the largest and deepest
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II of Earth's oceanic divisions.
II. The Maikale Hills are range of hills in the
Ans.451(A) Latent heat is the heat energy per state of Chandigarh India.
mass unit required for a phase change to Select the correct option.
occur. Normally when heat energy is added to (A) Only I (B) Only II
or removed from an object, the temperature of (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
the object changes; however, during phase
changes, the temperature of an object stays Ans.453(A) The Pacific Ocean is the largest
constant. The temperature remains the same and deepest of Earth's oceanic divisions. It
because energy is required for an object to extends from the Arctic Ocean in the north to
change phases. So, when you add heat to a the Southern Ocean (or, depending on
liquid, you are actually causing the molecules definition, to Antarctica) in the south and is
to vibrate. The latent heat is the energy bounded by the continents of Asia and
required to change the molecular movement. Australia in the west and the Americas in the
Each substance has a unique latent heat value. east.
The higher one travels into the troposphere, or The Maikale Hills are range of hills in the
the first layer of the atmosphere, the lower the state of Chhattisgarh India. The Maikale Hills
temperature becomes. The rate at which the are an eastern part of the Satpuras in
temperature drops is known as the lapse rate. Kawardha District of Chhattisgarh,
On average, the lapse rate of the troposphere overlooking the scenic town of Kawardha.
is 3.6 degrees per 1,000 feet, or 6.5 degrees they have an altitude ranging from 340 m to
Celsius for every 1,000 meters. 941 m above sea level. It is a picturesque
spot in the state with its serene and peaceful
452. Which of the following statements is true? atmosphere. This densely forested and thinly
I. Frontal fog forms near a front when populated range gives rise to several
raindrops, falling from relatively warm air. streams and rivers including the tributaries of
II. Sandstone is a sedimentary rock composed Narmada and Wainganga rivers. The hills
of sand-size grains of mineral. are inhabited by two tribal peoples, the Baigas
Select the correct option. and the Gonds. The hill range is very rich in
(A) Only I (B) Only II flora and fauna wealth.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
454. Which of the following statements is true?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
381

I. Sinkhole is a phenomenon of Tundra to a wide diffusion of iron in crystalline and

topography. metamorphic rocks.
II. A lunar eclipse occurs when the Moon The boundary between the turbulent
passes directly behind Earth and into its troposphere and the calm, cold stratosphere is
shadow. called the tropopause. Jet streams travel in the
Select the correct option. tropopause. Jet streams are some of the
(A) Only I (B) Only II strongest winds in the atmosphere. Their
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II speeds usually range from 129 to 225
kilometers per hour (80 to 140 miles per
Ans.454(B) A lunar eclipse occurs when the hour), but they can reach more than 443
Moon passes directly behind Earth and into its kilometers per hour (275 miles per hour).
shadow. This can occur only when the Sun, They are faster in winter when the
Earth, and Moon are exactly or very closely temperature differences between tropical,
aligned (in syzygy), with Earth between the temperate, and polar air currents are greater.
other two. A lunar eclipse can occur only on
the night of a full moon. 456. Which of the following statements is true?
A sinkhole, also known as a cenote, sink, I. The Cardamom Hills or Yela Mala are
sink-hole, swallet, swallow hole, or doline mountain range of northern India.
(the different terms for sinkholes are often II. The Anaimalai or Anamala Hills, also
used interchangeably), is a depression or hole known as the Elephant Mountains.
in the ground caused by some form of Select the correct option.
collapse of the surface layer. Most are caused (A) Only I (B) Only II
by karst processes – the chemical dissolution (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
of carbonate rocks or suffusion processes.
Karst is a topography formed from the Ans.456(B) The Anaimalai or Anamala Hills,
dissolution of soluble rocks such as limestone, also known as the Elephant Mountains, are the
dolomite, and gypsum. It is characterized by range of mountains that form the southern
underground drainage systems with sinkholes portion of the Western Ghats and span the
and caves. It has also been documented for border of Tamil Nadu and Kerala in Southern
more weathering-resistant rocks, such as India. The name animala is derived from the
quartzite, given the right conditions Tamil/Malayalam word anai or ana, meaning
455. Which of the following statements is true? elephant,and malai or mala, meaning hill —
I. Red soil is normally found in India in thus Elephant Hill. Anamudi Peak lies at the
eastern Region only. extreme southwestern end of the range and is
II. Jet streams are usually found in the the highest peak in southern India. Palakkad
Ionosphere. Gap divides the Western Ghats to the north.
Select the correct option. The Cardamom Hills or Yela Mala are
(A) Only I (B) Only II mountain range of southern India and part of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the southern Western Ghats located in
southeast Kerala and southwest Tamil Nadu in
Ans.455(A) Red soil is found in Indian state India. Their name comes from the cardamom
such that Tamil Nadu, southern Karnataka, spice grown in much of the hills' cool
north-eastern Andhra and some parts of M.P., elevation, which also supports pepper and
Chhatisgarh and Odisha. In India, red soil coffee. The Western Ghats and Periyar Sub-
develops on crystalline igneous rocks in areas Cluster including the Cardamom Hills, are
of low rainfall in the eastern and southern UNESCO World Heritage Sites.
parts of the Deccan plateau. These soils are
abundant along the eastern slopes of the 457. Which of the following statements is true?
Western Ghats, Odisha and Chhattisgarh and I. Iron ores are rocks and minerals from which
in the southern parts of the middle Ganga metallic iron can be economically extracted.
plain. The soil develops a reddish colour due
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
382

II. Bauxite is a polymer made up of the intensified, this means that the amount of
monomers phenol and formaldehyde. work needed goes up, until the worker is
Select the correct option. replaced by a machine. At that point, there
(A) Only I (B) Only II will only need to be a few workers to
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II operate the machines.

Ans.457(A) Iron ores are rocks and minerals 459. Which of the following statements is true?
from which metallic iron can be economically I. The Himalayas show a gradual elevation
extracted. The ores are usually rich in iron towards the Dhauladhar and Zaskar ranges.
oxides and vary in color from dark grey, II. Uttrakhand is famous for terrace
bright yellow, or deep purple to rusty red. cultivation.
Ores containing very high quantities of Select the correct option.
hematite or magnetite (greater than about 60% (A) Only I (B) Only II
iron) are known as "natural ore" or "direct (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
shipping ore", meaning they can be fed
directly into iron-making blast furnaces. Iron Ans.459(B) Rice and other crops are grown
ore is the raw material used to make pig iron, on the terraces. Hilly areas use this method of
which is one of the main raw materials to cultivation. The states that practice the
make steel—98% of the mined iron ore is cultivation are Uttarakhand, Himachal
used to make steel. Pradesh and north-east states. Terrace
Bauxite is a rock formed from a reddish clay cultivation, method of growing crops on sides
material called laterite soil and is most of hills or mountains by planting on graduated
commonly found in tropical or subtropical terraces built into the slope. Though labour-
regions. Bauxite is primarily comprised of intensive, the method has been employed
aluminum oxide compounds (alumina), silica, effectively to maximize arable land area in
iron oxides and titanium dioxide. Bakelite is a variable terrains and to reduce soil erosion and
polymer made up of the monomers phenol and water loss.
formaldehyde. This phenol-formaldehyde The Pir Panjal Range (Kashmiri: Pīr Pantsāl),
resin is a thermosetting polymer. also Panchaladeva in Hindu scriptures, is a
group of mountains in the Inner Himalayan
458. Which of the following statements is true? region, running from east-southeast (ESE) to
I. Deforestation can involve conversion of west-northwest (WNW) across the Indian
forest land to farms. state of Himachal Pradesh and Indian Union
II. Intensive farming is a kind of agriculture Territory of Jammu and Kashmir and the
where a lot of money and labour are used to Pakistani territory of Jammu and Kashmir
increase the yield. where the average elevation varies from 1,400
Select the correct option m (4,600 ft) to 4,100 m (13,500 ft). The
(A) Only I (B) Only II Himalayas show a gradual elevation towards
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the Dhauladhar and Pir Panjal ranges. Pir
Panjal is the largest range of the Lesser
Ans.458(C) Deforestation can involve Himalayas. Kashmir or the Jhelum Valley is
conversion of forest land to farms, ranches, or situated between the Pir Panjal range and the
urban use. Intensive farming or intensive Zanskar range and has an area of 15220 sq
agriculture is a kind of agriculture where a lot kms.
of money and labour are used to increase the
yield that can be obtained per area of land. 460. Which of the following statements is true?
The use of large amounts of pesticides for I. The Nile, is a major north-flowing river in
crops, and of medication for animal stocks is northeastern Africa.
common. This is a contrast to traditional II. Kakrapar Atomic Power Station is a
agriculture, which does not get as much nuclear power station in India.
output per area. When agriculture is Select the correct option.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
383

(A) Only I (B) Only II the summit. It is the fourth highest peak in
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II South India next to Anamudi, Mannamalai
and Meesapulimala.
Ans.460(C) The Kakrapar atomic power
station is located on the banks of the Tapti 462. Which of the following statements is true?
River, approximately 80km from the city of I. Chilika Lake is a brackish water lagoon,
Surat, India. The site is situated in Mandvi spread over the Puri.
Tehsil near Moticher. The power station lies II. The Bay of Bengal is the northeastern part
in close proximity to the nearest city of Vyara, of the Pacific Ocean.
which is accessible from the cities of Surat Select the correct option.
and Dhule. (A) Only I (B) Only II
The Nile is a major north-flowing river in (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
northeastern Africa, and is the longest river in
Africa and the disputed longest river in the Ans.462(A) Chilika Lake is a brackish water
world, as the Brazilian government says that lagoon, spread over the Puri, Khurda and
the Amazon River is longer than the Nile. The Ganjam districts of Odisha state on the east
Nile, which is about 6,650 km (4,130 mi) coast of India, at the mouth of the Daya River,
long, is an "international" river as its drainage flowing into the Bay of Bengal, covering an
basin covers eleven countries: Tanzania, area of over 1,100 km. It is the largest coastal
Uganda, Rwanda, Burundi, the Democratic lagoon in India and the second largest
Republic of the Congo, Kenya, Ethiopia, brackish water lagoon in the world after The
Eritrea, South Sudan, Republic of the Sudan, New Caledonian barrier reef. It has been listed
and Egypt. In particular, the Nile is the as a tentative UNESCO World Heritage site.
primary water source of Egypt and Sudan. The Bay of Bengal is the northeastern part of
the Indian Ocean, bounded on the west and
461. Which of the following statements is true? northwest by India, on the north by
I. Anaimudi is the highest peak in South Bangladesh, and on the east by Myanmar and
India. the Andaman Islands of India and Myanmar
II. Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the and the Nicobar Islands of India. Its southern
Nilgiri Mountains at 2000 metres. limit is a line between Sri Lanka and the north
Select the correct option. westernmost point of Sumatra (Indonesia). It
(A) Only I (B) Only II is the largest water region called a bay in the
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II world.

Ans.461(A) Anamudi is a mountain located in 463. Which of the following statements is true?
the Indian state of Kerala. It is the highest I. Kunchikal Falls is located Nidagodu village
peak in the Western Ghats and South India, at near Masthikatte in Shimoga.
an elevation of 2,695 metres (8,842 ft) and a II. Guwahati is the largest city in the Indian
topographic prominence of 2,479 metres state of Assam.
(8,133 ft). It lies on the border of Devikulam Select the correct option.
Taluk, Idukki district and Kothamangalam (A) Only I (B) Only II
Taluk, Ernakulam district. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Doddabetta is the highest mountain in the
Nilgiri Mountains at 2,637 metres (8,652 Ans.463(C) Kunchikal Falls is located
feet). The name derived from two Kannada Nidagodu village near Masthikatte in Shimoga
words, Dodda means. Big and betta means. district of state Karnataka. The total height of
Hill, making it Doddabetta. There is a waterfall is 455 meters (1493 feet) according
reserved forest area around the peak. It is 9 to world waterfall database. Kunchikal Falls is
km from Ooty, on the Ooty-Kotagiri Road in formed by the River Varahi.
the Nilgiris District of Tamil Nadu, India. It is Guwahati (Pragjyotishpura in ancient Assam,
a popular tourist attraction with road access to Gauhati in the modern era) is the largest city
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
384

in the Indian state of Assam and also the The Strait is named after Vitus Bering, an
largest urban area in Northeast India. A major explorer in the service of the Russian Empire.
riverine port city and one of the fastest
growing cities in India, Guwahati is situated 466. Which of the following statements is true?
on the south bank of the Brahmaputra. I. The Thar Desert, also known as the Great
Indian Desert, is a large arid region in the
464. Which of the following statements is true? north-western part of the Indian subcontinent.
I. Haryana is known as the ‘Land of Five II. The McMahon Line is the demarcation line
Rivers. between the Tibetan region of China and the
II. Udaipur is called the ‘Lake City’. North-east region of India.
Select the correct option. Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.464(B) It is named so because of the five Ans.466(C) The Thar Desert, also known as
rivers flowing through this land and these five the Great Indian Desert, is a large arid region
rivers of Punjab are Sutlej, Beas, Ravi, in the northwestern part of the Indian
Chenab and Jhelum. Punjab, a state bordering subcontinent that covers an area of 200,000
Pakistan, is the heart of India’s Sikh km2 (77,000 sq mi) and forms a natural
community. The city of Amritsar, founded in boundary between India and Pakistan. It is the
the 1570s by Sikh Guru Ram Das, is the site world's 17th largest desert, and the world's 9th
of Harmandir Sahib, the holiest gurdwara largest subtropical desert. About 85% of the
(Sikh place of worship). Thar Desert is located within India, with the
Udaipur City, formally known as the city of remaining 15% in Pakistan.
lakes and Venice of East. Udaipur, the capital The McMahon Line is the demarcation line
of the former princely state of Mewar is a between the Tibetan region of China and the
beautiful city in Rajasthan, India. Udaipur is North-east region of India proposed by British
also referred to as the “Venice of the East”, colonial administrator Henry McMahon at the
the “Most Romantic City of India” and the 1914 Simla Convention signed between
“Kashmir of Rajasthan”. British and Tibetan representatives. It is
currently the effective boundary between
465. Which of the following statements is true? China and India, although its legal status is
I. Palk Strait the strait dividing India and Sri disputed by the Chinese government.
Lanka.
II. The Bering Strait is a strait of the Indian 467. Which of the following statements is true?
ocean. I. India is the third largest producer of salt in
Select the correct option. the world.
(A) Only I (B) Only II II. Gujarat is the largest salt producer state of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II India.
Ans.465(A) The Palk Strait is a strait between Select the correct option.
the Tamil Nadu state of India and the Jaffna (A) Only I (B) Only II
District of the Northern Province of the island (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
nation of Sri Lanka. It connects the Bay of
Bengal in the northeast with Palk Bay in the Ans.467(C) India is the third largest producer
southwest. of salt in the world, Major salt producing
The Bering Strait is a strait of the Pacific, states of India are Gujarat, Rajasthan, Tamil
which separates Russia and the United Nadu, Maharashtra, Andhra Pradesh,
States slightly south of the Arctic Circle at Karnataka and Odisha. Gujarat is the largest
about 65° 40' N latitude. The present Russia- salt producer state of India and third largest in
US east-west boundary is at 168° 58' 37" W. the world. The state contributes 76 percent to
the total salt production in India, Kharaghoda,
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
385

Bhavnagar, Porbandar and Rann of Kutch of degree of longitude. The distance around the
Gujarat are major salt produced districts. Earth measures 360 degrees.

468. Which of the following statements is true? 470. Which of the following statements is true?
I. India is the seventh largest country in the I. Godavari rivers has the largest catchment
world. area.
II. Kibithu, also spelled Kibithoo, is a town in II. Azerbaijan is bounded by the Caspian Sea
Madhya Pradesh in Anjaw district. to the west.
Select the correct option. Select the correct option
(A) Only I (B) Only II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

Ans.468(A) With an area of 3,287,240 sqkm, Ans.470(D) Krishna rivers has the largest
India is the seventh largest country in the catchment area. It is the fourth largest river in
world by area and 2nd largest by population. India after the Ganga, Godavari and the
Kibithu, also spelled Kibithoo, is a town in Narmada.
Arunachal Pradesh in Anjaw district. It is one Azerbaijan is bounded by the Caspian Sea to
of the easternmost permanently populated the east, Russia to the north, Georgia to the
towns of India, located on the LAC (line of northwest, Armenia to the west and Iran to the
actual control) at 28°16′49″N 97°01′04″E. It south. The exclave of Nakhchivan is bound by
is located on the last road head of the extreme Armenia to the north and east, Iran to the
northeast of northeastern India. The Lohit south and west, and has an 11 km long border
River enters India at Kibithu. with Turkey in the north west.

469. Which of the following statements is true? 471. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity dam on I. The weight of the column of air at a given
the Narmada River in Bilaspur. place and time is called air pressure or
II. Longitude is the measurement east or west atmospheric pressure.
of the prime meridian. II. Atmospheric pressure is measured as force
Select the correct option. per unit area and the unit used for measuring
(A) Only I (B) Only II pressure is called millibar.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
Ans.469(B) Bhakra Dam is a concrete gravity (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
dam on the Sutlej River in Bilaspur, Himachal
Pradesh in northern India. The dam forms the Ans.471(C) The atmosphere is held on the
Gobind Sagar reservoir. earth by the gravitational pull of the earth. A
The dam, located at a gorge near the (now column of air exerts weight in terms of
submerged) upstream Bhakra village in pressure on the surface of the earth. The
Bilaspur district of Himachal Pradesh of weight of the column of air at a given place
height 226 m. The length of the dam and time is called air pressure or atmospheric
(measured from the road above it) is 518.25 m pressure. Atmospheric pressure is measured
and the width is 9.1 m. Its reservoir known as by an instrument called barometer. Nowadays,
"Gobind Sagar" stores up to 9.34 billion cubic Fortin’s barometer and Aneroid barometer I
metres of water. are commonly used for measuring air
Longitude is the measurement east or west of pressure.
the prime meridian. Longitude is measured by Atmospheric pressure is measured as force per
imaginary lines that run around the Earth unit area. The unit used for measuring
vertically (up and down) and meet at the pressure is called millibar. Its abbreviation is
North and South Poles. These lines are known ‘mb’. One millibar is equal to the force of one
as meridians. Each meridian measures one arc gram per square centimeter approximately.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
386

Areas of convergence experience low pressure

472. Which of the following statements is true? while those of divergence have high pressure.
I. Air pressure decreases with the decrease in Short title, extent and commencement.—
altitude. (1) This Act may be called the Mines and
II. There is an inverse relationship between Minerals
air temperature and air pressure. 1. [(Development and Regulation)] Act, 1957.
Select the correct option. (2) It extends to the whole of India.
(A) Only I (B) Only II (3) It shall come into force on such date2 as
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the Central Government may, by notification
in the Official Gazette, appoint.
Ans.472(A) The columnar distribution of 2. Declaration as to the expediency of Union
atmospheric pressure is known as vertical control.—It is hereby declared that it is
distribution of pressure. Air pressure expedient in the public interest that the Union
decreases with increase in altitude but it does should take under its control the regulation of
not always decrease at the same rate. Dense mines and the development of minerals to the
components of the atmosphere are found in its extent hereinafter provided.
lowest parts near the mean sea level. The
temperature of the air, amount of water 474. Which of the following statements is true?
vapour present in the air and gravitational I. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
pull of the earth determines the air pressure II. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that
of a given place and at a given time. Since of sugarcane in india
these factors are variable with change in Select the correct option.
height, there is a variation in the rate of (A) Only I (B) Only II
decrease in air pressure with an increase in (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
altitude.
The pressure and temperature of any gas, Ans.474(A) The cash crops — cotton and
including air, are directly proportional, sugarcane — are showing a divergent trend.
according to Gay-Lussac's law. Sugarcane acreage is up, while the area under
cotton is down by 11.3 per cent over
corresponding period last year. The lower area
473. Which of the following statements is true? in cotton is mainly on account of dip in
I. Earth's rotation generates Centrifugal force Punjab’s acreage, where the sowing is down
II. State Governments have the power to grant 26 per cent.
mining leases of minor minerals, but the Rice production in India is an important part
powers regarding the formation of rules of the national economy.
related to the grant of minor minerals lie with Major cropping areas in India. Rice shaded in
the Central Government. light jade green indicates the most important
Select the correct option. and extensive growing areas in the east of the
(A) Only I (B) Only II country.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Mature Rice, Thrissur, Kerala, India. India is
one of the world's largest producers of rice,
Ans.473(A) The earth’s rotation generates including white rice and brown rice, grown
centrifugal force. This results in the deflection mostly in the eastern and southern parts of
of air from its original place, causing a the country. The Production increased from
decrease in pressure. It is believed that the 53.6 million tons in FY 1980 to 74.6 million
low-pressure belts of the sub-Polar Regions tons in year 1990, a 39 percent increase over
and the high-pressure belts of the sub-tropical the decade. By year 1992, rice production had
regions are created as a result of the earth’s reached 181.9 kg per person, second in the
rotation. The earth’s rotation also causes world only to China with its 182 kg. Since
convergence and divergence of moving air. 1950 the increase has been more than 350
percent. Most of this increase was the result of
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
387

an increase in yields; the number of hectares around 200 wild greater one-horned rhinos
did not increase during this period. remained.
The recovery of the greater one-horned rhino
475. Which of the following statements is true? is among the greatest conservation success
I. The word 'Denisovan' is also known as an stories in Asia. Thanks to strict protection and
early human species. management from Indian and Nepalese
II. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India wildlife authorities, the greater one-horned
only. rhino was brought back from the brink. Today
Select the correct option. populations have increased to around 3,500
(A) Only I (B) Only II rhinos in northeastern India and the Terai
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II grasslands of Nepal.
The Valley of Flowers national park located in
Ans.475(C) The Denisovans or Denisova the Chamoli district of Uttarakhand and is
hominins are an extinct species or subspecies known for its meadows of endemic alpine
of archaic human that ranged across Asia flowers and the variety of flora. Situated
during the Lower and Middle Paleolithic approximately 3255m above sea level, this
(potentially surviving as late as 30,000– splendid park is spread across 87.5 sq. km of
14,500 years ago in New Guinea). Denisovans land.
are known from few remains, and, The valley has three sub-alpine between
consequently, most of what is known about 3,200m and 3,500m which is the limit for
them comes from DNA evidence. trees, lower alpine between 3,500m and
The first scientific description of the Asiatic 3,700m, and higher alpine above 3,700m.
lion was published in 1826 by the Austrian
zoologist Johann N. Meyer who named it 477. Which of the following statements is true?
Felis leo persicus. Until the 19th century, it I. Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the
occurred in Saudi Arabia eastern Turkey, Iran, NITI Aayog.
Mesopotamia, and from east of the Indus II. On 21st June, the Sun does not set below
River to Bengal and Narmada River in Central the horizon at Antarctic Circle.
India. Since the turn of the 20th century, it is Select the correct option.
restricted to the Gir Forest National Park and (A) Only I (B) Only II
surrounding areas. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

476. Which of the following statements is true? Ans.477(A) The Atal Innovation Mission
I. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found (AIM) is a flagship initiative set up by the
in India only. NITI Aayog to promote innovation and
II. Valley of Flowers National Park National entrepreneurship across the length and breadth
Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine of the country, based on a detailed study and
zone. deliberations on innovation and
Select the correct option. entrepreneurial needs of India in the years
(A) Only I (B) Only II ahead. AIM is also envisaged as an umbrella
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II innovation organization that would play an
instrumental role in alignment of innovation
Ans.476(B) The greater one-horned rhino (or policies between central, state and sectoral
“Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino innovation schemes incentivizing the
species. Once widespread across the entire establishment and promotion of an ecosystem
northern part of the Indian sub-continent, of innovation and entrepreneurship at various
rhino populations plummeted as they were levels - higher secondary schools, science,
hunted for sport or killed as agricultural pests. engineering and higher academic institutions,
This pushed the species very close to and SME/MSME industry, corporate and
extinction and by the start of the 20th century, NGO levels.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
388

Summer Solstice will be observed on 21 June that year. The global rice supply amounted to
2019 & it will be the day with the longest over 700 million metric tons of milled
period of daylight in India. Google Doodle equivalent each year. The production of
marks the beginning of Summer Season, milled rice was projected to increase to over
today. Many of us already know the scientific 496 million metric tons worldwide in 2020.
reason but those who don’t know, here is the Among the many varieties of rice, Pak
complete explanation why June 21 is known Basmati rice had the highest export price and
as Summer Solstice, often known as the India 25% rice the lowest average export price
longest day of the year in India. On June 21st, per ton in 2019.
the Northern Hemisphere is tilted towards the
sun. The rays of the sun fall directly on the 480. Which of the following statements is true?
Tropic of Cancer. I. The Barren Island volcano is an active
volcano located in the Indian territory.
II. The last time the Barren Island volcano
478. Which of the following statements is true? erupted was in 1991 and it has remained
I. Water reservoirs is common to the places inactive since then.
known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati. Select the correct option.
II. The Earth's surface would have the low (A) Only I (B) Only II
temperature on cloudy nights. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Ans.480(C) Barren Island is situated in the
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Andaman Sea, and lies about 138 km (86 mi)
northeast of the territory's capital, Port Blair.
Ans.478(A) A reservoir is, most commonly, It is the only active Volcano along the chain
an enlarged natural or artificial lake, pond or from Sumatra to Myanmar and also the only
impoundment created using a dam or lock to active volcano in India. Barren Island is a part
store water. of the Indian Union Territory of Andaman and
Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar Nicobar Islands and is well known as a
radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. Submarine emergent Volcano, which lies
High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming above the subduction zone of India and
solar radiation; at the same time, they trap Burmese plate.
some of the outgoing infrared radiation The first recorded eruption of the volcano
emitted by the Earth and radiate it back dates back to 1787. Since then, the volcano
downward, thereby warming the surface of the has erupted more than ten times, with the most
Earth. recent one being in 2017. After the first
recorded eruption in 1787, further eruptions
479. Which of the following statements is true? were recorded in 1789, 1795, 1803–04, and
I. GM mustard has the genes of a soil 1852. After nearly one and half century of
bacterium that give the plant the property of dormancy, the island had another eruption in
pest-resistance to a wide variety of pests. 1991 that lasted six months and caused
II. India is the largest exporter of rice in the considerable damage.
world in the last five years. The 1991 eruption was particularly harmful to
Select the correct option. the island's fauna.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 481. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Coral reefs host far more number of animal
Ans.479(B) India had the highest export phyla than those hosted by tropical rainforests.
volume of rice worldwide, at 9.8 million II. The term "two-state solution" is related to
metric tons as of 2018/2019. Thailand was israel
the second largest rice exporter, with about Select the correct option.
7.56 million metric tons of rice worldwide in (A) Only I (B) Only II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
389

(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
Ans.481(C) Coral reefs include a wide range (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
of diversity with 32 of the 34 animal phyla
present, in contrast to only 9 phyla Ans.483(A) The state government is
represented in tropical rainforest. exploring ways to develop an artificial inland
The two-state solution to the Israeli– port in Jalore by bringing in Arabian Sea
Palestinian conflict envisages an independent water into Rajasthan through Gujarat. If
State of Palestine alongside the State of Israel, implemented, Rajasthan will become
west of the Jordan River. The boundary accessible by water transport and will be able
between the two states is still subject to to shed the tag of a landlocked state.
dispute and negotiation, with Palestinian and Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves
Arab leadership insisting on the "1967 that are transverse in nature. S-waves can
borders", which is not accepted by Israel. The travel only through solids, as fluids (liquids
territory of the former Mandate Palestine and gases) do not support shear stresses. S-
(including Jerusalem) which did not form part waves are slower than P-waves, and speeds
of the Palestinian State would continue to be are typically around 60% of that of P-waves in
part of Israel. any given material.

482. Which of the following statements is true? 484. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Bengaluru one lies on a longitude closest to I. Inner Core is the densest layer of earth’s
that of Delhi. interior.
II. Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located in II. Continental crust is less dense than the
Manipur. oceanic crust.
Select the correct option. Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

Ans.482(A) Bangalore is the city which lies Ans.484(C) Earth's interior layers are ordered
on the longitude near to the Delhi because the by density. The densest layer is the solid metal
longitude of Nagpur, Hyderabad, and Pune is inner core, the mantle is of intermediate
too far from the Delhi. density, and the least dense layer is the
Pakhui is a Wildlife Sanctuary and a dedicated lithosphere, particularly the continental
Tiger Reserve (also known as the Pakke Tiger lithosphere. The origin of these layers and
Reserve) in the district of East Kameng in how scientists know about them is fascinating.
Arunachal Pradesh, India. It has an area of Different layers of the Earth are made of
over 860 square kilometres and is bordered by materials with different physical properties.
the Kameng River and Pakke River, which are One of the most important physical properties
important sources of water for the animals and that cause the formation of layers in the Earth
the irrigation of the vegetation. The Pakhui is density. Density is defined as the mass per
reserve is neighbour to the Nameri Tiger unit volume of a substance, so you can think
reserve in Assam, of it as how heavy that material is. Layers that
are less dense, such as the crust, float on
483. Which of the following statements is true? layers that are denser, such as the mantle.
I. Rajasthan States has explored the possibility Both oceanic crust and continental crust are
of constructing an artificial inland port to be less dense than the mantle, but oceanic crust is
connected to the sea by a long navigational denser than continental crust. This is partly
channel. why the continents are at a higher elevation
II. Secondary Wave surface seismic waves than the ocean floor.
that cause horizontal shifting of the Earth
during an earthquake.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
390

485. Which of the following statements is true? 487. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Gravitation force is not same at different I. The body waves (p and s waves) follow the
latitudes on the surface. Snell’s law when they pass from one medium
II. Gravitational force is greater near the poles to another and hence deflect from the path.
and less at the equator. II. Secondary waves do not pass through
Select the correct option. liquid medium (outer core).
(A) Only I (B) Only II Select the correct option.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.485(D) The gravitational force is a force
that attracts any two objects with mass. We Ans.487(C) The layering of Earth has been
call the gravitational force attractive because inferred indirectly using the time of travel of
it always tries to pull masses together, it never refracted and reflected seismic waves created
pushes them apart. In fact, every object, by earthquakes. The changes in seismic
including you, is pulling on every other object velocity between different layers causes
in the entire universe! This is called Newton's refraction owing to Snell's law, like light
Universal Law of Gravitation. Admittedly, bending as it passes through a prism.
you don't have a very large mass and so, Secondary waves (S-waves) are shear waves
you're not pulling on those other objects that are transverse in nature. S-waves can
much. And objects that are really far apart travel only through solids, as fluids (liquids
from each other don't pull on each other and gases) do not support shear stresses. S
noticeably either. But the force is there wave shadow zone form the boundary of outer
and we can calculate it. core as it is in liquid state.
F is the force of gravity (measured in
Newtons, N). 488. Which of the following statements is true?
G is the gravitational constant of the universe I. Lithosphere - the crust and the uppermost
and is always the same number. part of the mantle.
M is the mass of one object (measured in II. Shadow zone - the upper portion of the
kilograms, kg). mantle.
m is the mass of the other object (measured in Select the correct option.
kilograms, kg). (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
486. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Continental crust is thicker than oceanic Ans.488(A) A lithosphere is the rigid, outermost
crust. shell of a terrestrial-type planet, or natural
II. Earth as a whole is composed of mainly satellite, that is defined by its rigid mechanical
iron (Fe) but the earth’s crust consists of properties. On Earth, it is composed of the
mostly oxygen. crust and the portion of the upper mantle
Select the correct option. that behaves elastically on time scales of
(A) Only I (B) Only II thousands of years or greater. The outermost
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II shell of a rocky planet, the crust, is defined
on the basis of its chemistry and mineralogy.
Ans.486(C) The thickness of the crust varies The layer under the lithosphere is known as
under the oceanic and continental areas. the asthenosphere.
Oceanic crust is thinner as compared to the Earth's lithosphere includes the crust and the
continental crust. The mean thickness of uppermost mantle, which constitute the hard
oceanic crust is 5 km whereas that of the and rigid outer layer of the Earth. The
continental is around 30 km. The continental lithosphere is subdivided into tectonic plates.
crust is thicker in the areas of major The uppermost part of the lithosphere that
mountain systems. chemically reacts to the atmosphere,
hydrosphere, and biosphere through the soil
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
391

forming process is called the pedosphere. The made up of rock and metals, and have
lithosphere is underlain by the asthenosphere relatively high densities. The rest four are
which is the weaker, hotter, and deeper part of called Jovian or Gas Giant planets. Jovian
the upper mantle. means. Jupiter-like.
Most of them are much larger than the
489. Which of the following statements is true? terrestrial planets and have thick atmosphere,
I. The sun was surrounded by solar nebula mostly of helium and hydrogen.
containing mostly the hydrogen and silicon. (i) The terrestrial planets were formed in the
II. The collision of particle led to formation of close vicinity of the parent star where it was
a disk-shaped cloud and planets were formed too warm for gases to condense to solid
through the process of accretion. particles. Jovian planets were formed at quite
Select the correct option. a distant location.
(A) Only I (B) Only II (ii) The solar wind was most intense nearer
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the sun; so, it blew off lots of gas and dust
Ans.489(B) Nebular Hypothesis considered from the terrestrial planets. The solar winds
that the planets were formed out of a cloud of were not all that intense to cause similar
material associated with a youthful sun, which removal of gases from the Jovian planets.
was slowly rotating. Later in 1950, Otto (iii) The terrestrial planets are smaller and
Schmidt in Russia and Carl Weizascar in their lower gravity could not hold the escaping
Germany somewhat revised the ‘nebular gases.
hypothesis’, though differing in details.
1. They considered that the sun was 491. Which of the following statements is true?
surrounded by solar nebula containing mostly I. A galaxy (large number of stars) starts to
the hydrogen and helium along with what may form by accumulation of helium gas.
be termed as dust. II. The formation of stars is believed to have
2. The friction and collision of particles led to taken place some 5-6 Billion years ago.
formation of a disk-shaped cloud and the Select the correct option.
planets were formed through the process of (A) Only I (B) Only II
accretion. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II

490. Which of the following statements is true? Ans.491(C) The distribution of matter and
I. Planets between the sun and the belt of energy was not even in the early universe.
asteroids. These initial density differences gave rise to
II. The terrestrial planets are larger than differences in gravitational forces and it
Jovian planets and their lower gravity could caused the matter to get drawn together. These
hold the escaping gases. formed the bases for development of galaxies.
Select the correct option. A galaxy contains a large number of stars.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Galaxies spread over vast distances that are
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II measured in thousands of light-years. A
galaxy starts to form by accumulation of
Ans.490 (A) Our Solar system consists of hydrogen gas in the form of a very large cloud
eight planets. Our solar system consists of the called nebula. Eventually, growing nebula
sun (the star), 8 planets, 63 moons, millions of develops localized clumps of gas. These
smaller bodies like asteroids and comets and clumps continue to grow into even denser
huge quantity of dust-grains and gases. Out of gaseous bodies, giving rise to formation of
the eight planets, Mercury, Venus, Earth and stars. The formation of stars is believed to
Mars are called as the inner planets as they lie have taken place some 5-6 billion years ago.
between the sun and the belt of asteroids the
other four planets are called the outer planets. 492. Which of the following statements is true?
Alternatively, the first four are called I. All seismic waves are mechanical waves
Terrestrial, meaning earth-like as they are and require medium to propagate.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
392

II. All the planets were formed in the same followed. The industrial production in pre-
period sometime. independence period was neither adequate nor
Select the correct option diversified.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 494. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Sugar Industry is a consumer industry.
Ans.492(A) Seismic waves are waves of II. Paper is a small-scale industry.
energy that travel through the Earth's layers, Select the correct option.
and are a result of earthquakes, volcanic (A) Only I (B) Only II
eruptions, magma movement, large landslides (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
and large man-made explosions that give out
low-frequency acoustic energy. Seismic wave Ans.494(A) Finished products of Consumer
fields are recorded by a seismometer, goods industry are directly used by
hydrophone (in water), or accelerometer. individuals. Iron and steel and Petro-
The propagation velocity of the waves chemicals industries are basic goods industries
depends on density and elasticity of the because the finished products of basic
medium. Velocity tends to increase with depth industry are used as raw material for other
and ranges from approximately 2 to 8 km/s in industries. Chittranjan Locomotives is a
the Earth's crust, up to 13 km/s in the deep public sector industry because it is owned
mantle. The refraction or reflection of seismic managed by government of India.
waves is used for research into the structure of Small scale industries are labour intensive yet
the Earth's interior, and man-made vibrations require little capital. Small scale industries can
are often generated to investigate shallow, be either manufacturing industries or service
subsurface structures. providers. Small scale industries comprise of
small enterprises that manufacture goods or
493. Which of the following statements is true? provide services with the help of smaller
I. Jute industry made a beginning in 1855 with machines and a few workers and employees.
the establishment of a jute mill in the Hooghly
Valley near Kolkata with foreign capital and 495. Which of the following statements is true?
entrepreneurship. I. Textile industry is comprises of cotton
II. Coal mining was first started at Raniganj in textile, woollen textile, silk textile, synthetic
1772 while Railways were introduced in 1854. fibres, jute fibres etc.
Select the correct option. II. Textiles have been a major component of
(A) Only I (B) Only II the industrial sector which accounts for nearly
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II a fifth of the industrial output and a third of
the export earnings.
Ans.493(C) The modern industrial Select the correct option.
development in India started with the (A) Only I (B) Only II
establishment of the first cotton textile mill at (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Mumbai in 1854, predominantly with Indian
capital and entrepreneurship. Ans.495(C) Textile industry is the largest
Jute industry made a beginning in 1855 with industry in the organized sector. It comprises
the establishment of a jute mill in the Hooghly of (i) cotton textiles, (ii) woolen textiles, (iii)
Valley near Kolkata with foreign capital and silk textiles (iv) synthetic fibres and (v) jute
entrepreneurship. Coal mining was first textile industries.
started at Raniganj in 1772. Railways were Textiles have been a major component of the
introduced in 1854. industrial sector. It accounts for nearly a fifth
Tata Iron and Steel Plant was set up at of the industrial output and a third of the
Jamshedpur in 1907. Several other medium export earnings. In term of employment, it
and small size industries like cement, glass, comes next only to agriculture sector.
soaps, chemicals, jute, sugar and paper
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
393

‘
496. Which of the following statements is true? 498. Which of the following statements is true?
I. The upper Brahmaputra valley is known I. Madhya Pradesh states has the second
Silver. largest coal fields in India after Jharkhand.
II. The numbers cotton textile mills increased II. Out of the total coal reserves and
from 378 in 1952 to 1782 by March 1998. production in India, Gondwana coal fields
Select the correct option. contribute 98% and the rest 2% is produced
(A) Only I (B) Only II by tertiary coal fields.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Select the correct option.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
Ans.496(B) The numbers of mills increased (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
from 378 in 1952 to 1782 by March 1998.
Cotton textiles have an important place in the Ans.498(B) Coal in India occurs in two
economy of the country. It provides important types of coal fields. They are the
employment opportunities to a large number Gondwana coal fields and Tertiary coal fields.
of people. About one fifth of the total Out of the total coal reserves and production
industrial labour is absorbed by this industry. in India, Gondwana coal fields contribute 98%
Outside of these mineral belts, upper and the rest 2% is produced by tertiary coal
Brahmaputra valley is a significant petroleum fields.
producing area whereas Kerala possesses The Gondwana coal fields are located in the
enormous concentration of heavy mineral sedimentary rock systems of lower Gondwana
sands. Outside these above-mentioned areas Age. They are distributed chiefly in the river
minerals deposits are very poor, scattered and velleys of the Damodar (Jharkhand - West
reserves are inconsistent. Bengal); the Son (Madhya Pradesh–
Chhatisgarh); the Mahanadi (Orissa), the
497. Which of the following statements is true? Godavari (Andhra Pradesh) and the Wardha
I. In India, emphasis is being laid on setting (Maharashtra).
thermal and super thermal power station on or Tertiary coalfields occur in the extra-
near the coal fields and electricity generated is peninsular areas which include Assam,
supplied to far off places through transmission Meghalaya, Nagaland, Arunachal Pradesh,
lines. Jammu & Kashmir and Sikkim. Besides
II. The bulk of the Indian coal reserves are of lignite or brown coal are found in coastal
rather poor quality and the requirements of areas of Tamil Nadu, Gujarat and in land
coking coal met through the imports from basins of Rajasthan.
other countries. In Madhya Pradesh, coal deposits are found in
Select the correct option. Sidhi, Shahdol and Chhindwara districts.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Singrauli coalfield in Shadhol and Sidhi
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II districts is the largest in the state. In Andhra
Pradesh, coal occurs in the district of
Ans.497(C) Unfortunately, the bulk of the Adilabad, Karimnagar, Warangal, Khammam
Indian coal reserves are of rather poor quality. and West Godavari. In Orissa, Talcher is an
We meet part of our coking coal requirements important coal field.
through import. In India, emphasis is being Other coal field are in Sambalpur and
laid on setting thermal and super thermal Sundargarh districts. In Maharashtra the coal
power station on or near the coal fields and fields are found in the districts of
electricity generated is supplied to far off Chandrapura, Yeotmal and Nagpur.
places through transmission lines. At one time
Indian railways were the largest consumer of 499. Which of the following statements is true?
coal. Since they have switched on to the use I. The net sown area and the area sown more
of diesel and electricity, they are than once together are called gross cultivated
no more the direct consumer of coal. area.
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394

II. In India, about 47 per cent of total II. This area has under forest cover has
reporting area is under the net sown area. increased from 40 million hectares in 1951 to
Select the correct option. 68 million hectares in 2000.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Select the correct option.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.499(C) The total land area on which
crops are grown in a region is called net sown Ans.500(C) The area under forest cover is
area. The net sown area and the area sown about 68 million hectares or 22 per cent of the
more than once together are called gross total area in the country. This area has
cultivated area. In India, about 47 per cent of increased from 40 million hectares in 1951 to
total reporting area is under the net sown area. 68 million hectares in 2000.
For the ecological balance the forest cover
500. Which of the following statements is true? should be at least 33 per cent of the total
I. The area under forest cover is about 68 geographical area of a country. The states of
million hectares or 22 per cent of the total area Arunachal Pradesh, Mizoram, Jammu &
in the country. Kashmir and Tripura have relatively larger
proportion of area under forest cover.
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396

Objective

PART - 4
Economy
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397

Economics

Economy 04
Economics is the social science of studying the Centrally Planned Economy (Socialist)
production, distribution and consumption of goods and In a centrally planned economy, decisions relating to
services. It is a complex social science that spans from ‘what, how and for whom to produce’ are taken by the
mathematics to psychology. At its most basic, however, central authority appointed by the government of the
economics considers how a society provides for its country.
needs. Society's most basic need is survival; which All decisions are taken with a view to maximise social
requires food, clothing and shelter. Once those are welfare. Unlike the market economy, profit
covered, it can then look at more sophisticated maximisation is not the consideration. Those goods and
commodities such as services, personal transport, services will be produced which the central authority
entertainment, and the list goes on. Today, this social (or the government) finds as most useful for the society.
science, known as "Economics" tends to refer only to That technique of production will be adopted which is
the type of economic thought which political socially most useful. In a situation of mass
economists refer to as 'Neoclassical Economics'. It was unemployment, for example, labour intensive
developed in the 18th century based on the idea that technology will be preferred (rather than capital
economics can be analysed mathematically and intensive technology) so that unemployment is
scientifically. reduced. Enough goods will be produced for poorer
ECONOMY sections of the society even when production of such
An economy is a system of organizations and goods does not yield profit. Social justice is accorded
institutions that either facilitate or play a role in the higher priority than profit maximisation.
production and distribution of goods and services in a Mixed Economy (Capitalist + Socialist)
society. Economies determine how resources are Mixed economy shares the merits of market economies
distributed among members of a society; they as well as centrally planned economies. Decisions
determine the value of goods and services; and they regarding ‘what, how and for whom to produce’ are
even determine what sorts of things can be traded or taken on the basis of market forces as well as on the
bartered for those services and goods. basis of social considerations. In certain areas of
How a society structures its economic system is largely production, producers are free to take their decisions
a political and social issue. The political and legal with a view to maximising profits. In certain other
structure of a society will govern how wealth can be areas, decisions are taken entirely on the basis of social
accumulated, how wealth and resources are distributed, considerations. Example: In India, producers are free to
and the manner of competition permitted between produce cloth or steel to maximize their profits. But
different participants in the economy. ‘railways’ are the monopoly of the government. The
The three types of economic system are: government provides transport services at nominal
1. Market economy rates so that poorer sections of the society can avail
2. Centrally Planned economy them.
3. Mixed economy The study of economics is divided into two distinct
branches. They are:
Market Economy (Capitalist) • Micro Economics
Market economy is a free economy. It means that • Macro Economics
producers are free to decide ‘what, how and for whom BRANCHES OF ECONOMICS
to produce’. On what basis do they take their decisions? Micro Economics
It is on the basis of supply and demand forces in the The word "micro" means very small, so micro
market. economics implies the study of economics at a very
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
398

small level. It is the study of individuals, households For example, the government makes policies with
and firms behaviour in decision making and allocation respect to collection of taxes, expenditure on public
of resources. In a society comprising of many goods and welfare activities etc. which affect the whole
individuals collectively, every single individual makes economy. “How do such policies work” is the subject
just a small part. matter of macroeconomics.
So the economic decisions taken by a single individual In micro economics, we study the behaviour of an
become the subject matter of micro economics. We can individual as a buyer and seller. As a buyer, the
cite some examples in this regard. individual spends money on goods and services which
▪ In order to satisfy various wants, an individual is called his/her consumption expenditure.
buys goods and services. To buy goods and If we add consumption expenditure of all individuals
services, the individual has to pay some price living in an economy, then we get the idea of aggregate
from his limited amount of income. So, the consumption expenditure of the whole economy. This
individual has to make a decision with regard becomes a subject matter of macroeconomics.
to quantity of the good to be purchased at the Similarly, aggregating incomes of individuals becomes
given price. He/she also has to decide the total income of the country or the national income.
combination of different goods to buy in Inflation or price rise does not affect an individual only,
his/her income so that he/she can get maximum but it affects the whole economy. So knowing its causes
satisfaction as a buyer. and effects, as well as controlling it, comes under the
▪ An individual also sells goods and services as study of macroeconomics.
a seller. Here he has to take a decision Similarly, problems of unemployment, economic
regarding the quantity of good to be supplied at growth and development etc. concern with the whole
a given price so that he/she can earn some population of the nation and hence are covered under
profit. the study of macroeconomics.
All of us pay a price to buy a good. How does this price Limitations of Macroeconomics
get determined in the market? Micro economics • Inferences from aggregates may not always be true,
provides answer to this question. as rise in the national income does not necessarily
In order to produce a good, an individual producer has mean that individual incomes have risen.
to decide how to combine the various factors of • Takes into account only aggregate variables, which
production so that maximum output can be produced at may not clearly define economic conditions.
minimum cost. • Regards aggregates as homogeneous.
Limitation of Microeconomics Difference between micro and macroeconomics
• Focuses on certain unrealistic assumptions which • Microeconomics is the study of economics at an
may not always be true. individual level, whereas, macroeconomics is the
• The approach may even prove to be misleading as study of an economy as a whole.
it generalises situations that may act misleading. • Microeconomics focuses on issues that affect
Macro Economics individuals and firms (demand and supply).
The word "macro" means very large. In comparison to Whereas, macroeconomics focuses on issues that
an individual, the society, or the country, or the affect the economy as a whole (unemployment,
economy as a whole is very large. So the economic national income, etc.).
decisions taken at the level of the economy as whole • Microeconomics helps in determining the prices of
are the subject matter of macro economics. a product along with the prices of factors of
Macroeconomics include the study of the behaviour production, whereas, macroeconomics helps in
and performance of an economy as a whole. It focuses maintaining stability in general price level and
on the aggregate changes in the economy. Such as resolving major problems like inflation,
unemployment, growth rate, GDP & inflation. unemployment etc.
Take the example of the economic decisions taken by Similarities between Micro and Macro
the government. We all know that the government Economics
represents the whole country, not just an individual. So, • Micro economics principles are used in
the decisions taken by the government are meant for macroeconomics. Micro economics affects
solving the problems of the whole society. macroeconomics and vice versa.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
399

• If we see a rise in oil prices, this will have a

significant impact on cost-push inflation.
• If house prices rise, this is a micro economics effect
for the housing market. But, housing market is so
influential that it could also be considered a macro-
economic variable, and will influence the monetary
policy.
INTRODUCTION OF MICROECONOMICS
Economics is the study of making choices from the
available alternatives or opportunities.
Production Possibility Curve (PPC)
PP curve shows all the possible combination of two
goods (Good X and Good Y) that can be produced with
the help of available resources and technology. (It is
assumed that only two goods are produced in an
economy).

Opportunity Cost (OC)

Opportunity cost is defined as the value of the benefit
that is forgone by choosing one alternative rather than
the other.

Opportunity cost of allocating the given resources to

Use-1 is the loss of output in Use-2. Loss of output in
Use-2 is worth ₹ 5000 which is the opportunity cost.
Marginal Rate of Transformation (MRT)
MRT is the ratio of number of units of one good
AE: Production Possibility Curve Or Transformation sacrificed (Good Y) to produce one more unit of
Curve Or Production Possibility Line/Frontier another good (Good X), while maintaining the same
AE curve (which is production possibility curve) is level of factors of production. It is the slope of PPC.
drawn on the assumptions that: CONSUMER EQUILIBRIUM
I. the given resources are fully and efficiently Consumer equilibrium
utilised, and
II. technology remains constant. It can be defined as that allocation of a consumer's
income on goods and services which gives him
Marginal Opportunity Cost (MOC)
maximum satisfaction.
MOC of a particular good is the amount of other good Utility
(Good Y) which is sacrificed for the production of an
Utility is the satisfaction (actual or expected) derived
additional unit of another good (Good X).
from the consumption of a good.

Marginal Utility
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400

It is the addition to total utility from the consumption more unit of another good. It is the slope of indifference
of an additional unit of a good. curve.

Law of Diminishing Marginal Utility

Law of diminishing marginal utility states that as a

consumer consumes more units of a good, the marginal
utility obtained from each additional unit goes on
decreasing.
• TU increases so long as MU is +ve.
• TU is maximum when MU = 0.
• TU starts declining when MU is –ve.
• Decreasing MU implies that TU increases at a
decreasing rate (MU is the rate of TU). Diminishing MRS
X Y MRS (∆Y/∆X)
Indifference Schedule 2 6 –

It is a table showing different combinations of the two 3 4.5 –(1.5/1) = –1.5

goods such that utility from each combination is the 5 3 –(1.5/2) = –0.75
same.
7 2.5 –(0.5/2) = –0.25
Combination No. of Apples No. of Orange
• Between points A–B, slope of IC = –(∆Y/∆X)
A 1 10
= –(1.5/1) = –1.5 (or MRS = –1.5)
B 2 7 • Between points B–C, slope of IC = –(∆Y/∆X)
= –(1.5/2) = –0.75 (or MRS = –0.75)
C 3 5 • Between points C–D, slope of IC = –(∆Y/∆X)
D 4 4 = –(0.5/2) = –0.25 (or MRS = –0.25)
MRS tends to decline as we move down the IC. So, the
IC is convex to origin.
Indifference Curve Budget Set
An indifference curve is a graph showing combinations Budget Set refers to the set of all possible combinations
of two goods that give the consumer equal satisfaction of the two goods that the consumer consumes, which
and utility. Each point on an indifference curve he can afford from his income at the given prices.
indicates that a consumer is indifferent between the two These cost the consumer either less than or equal to his
and all points give him the same satisfaction. income.
Unit of Good-1 Unit of Good-2
0 60
10 40
20 20
30 0
[Note: This budget set is drawn on the assumptions
that consumer's income/budget = ` 60, PGood-1 = ` 2 per
unit and PGood-2 = ` 1 per unit.]
Budget Line
Marginal Rate of Substitution (MRS)
Marginal Rate of Substitution is the rate at which the
consumer is willing to sacrifice one good to obtain one
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
401

Budget line is the graphical presentation of the whole Thus, 4 units of the commodity are demanded when
collection of the combinations of the two goods which price is ` 1 per unit while only 1 unit is demanded when
costs the consumer his entire income. the price is ` 4 per unit.
Factors Affecting Individual Demand
For a Commodity/Determinants Of
Demand
• Price of the commodity itself
• Income of the consumer
• Price of related goods
• Taste and preference
• Expectations of future price change
Law of Demand
• The law of demand states that there is an inverse
relation between the change in price of a good and
DEMAND CONCEPTS its consequent change in demand. It assumes that
Demand the other factors influencing demand remains
constant.
Quantity of the commodity that a consumer is able and
• The amount of quantity demanded increases with a
willing to purchase in a given period and at a given fall in price and diminishes with a rise in price. So,
price.
the demand curve slopes downward.
Demand Schedule

Price of Ice Cream Quantity Demanded

(`) (Units)
1 4
2 3
3 2
4 1 It shows inverse relationship between price and
It is a tabular representation which shows the different quantity demanded. This is generally true in case of
quantities of a good that a consumer is willing to buy at normal goods. It is therefore called the law of demand.
different prices. • When price decreases from P to P1, the quantity
Demand Curve increases from L to L1.
Changes in Demand
It is a graphical representation of demand schedule.
Change in Quantity Demanded (Movement along
the demand curve)
Demand changes due to change in price of the
commodity alone are of two types (other factors
remaining constant):
• Expansion of demand: More demand at a lower
price

Demand curve slopes downward because of law of

demand. It shows an inverse relation between price and
quantity demanded.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
402

Expansion of demand refers to an increase in quantity Diagrammatically, it means a backward shift in

demanded of a commodity due to a fall in its own price. demand curve, as from D1 to D2. It can be due to a
Diagrammatically, it means a movement down the decrease in the price of a substitute good.
demand curve, like from A to B. • The change in quantity of demand is due to other
• Contraction of demand: Less demand at a higher factors. Hence, price remains constant.
price Expansion and Increase in Demand
Expansion of Increase in Demand
Demand
This is caused only by This is caused by change in
change in own price of determinants, other than
the commodity. own price of the
commodity.
Decrease in own price Several Causes: These
of the commodity is include increase in income,
Contraction of demand refers to decrease in quantity the only cause. increase in price of the
demanded of a commodity due to a rise in its own price. substitute good, decrease in
Diagrammatically, it means a movement up the price of the complementary
demand curve, like from B to A. good, and change in tastes
Change in demand (Shifts in demand curve) and preferences in favour
Demand changes due to change in factors other than its of the commodity.
own price are of two types: Diagrammatically, Diagrammatically, this is
• Increase in demand: More demand at constant this is shown as a shown as a forward shift in
price. downward movement demand curve.
(left to right) on the
same demand curve.

Contraction and Decrease in Demand

Contraction of Decrease in
Demand Demand
This is caused only by This is caused by change in
change in own price of determinants, other than
the commodity. own price of the
Increase in demand refers to increase in quantity commodity.
demanded of a commodity at its existing price.
Increase in own price Several Causes: These
Diagrammatically, it means a forward shift in demand
of the commodity is include decrease in
curve, as from D1 to D2. It can be due to an increase in
the only cause. income, decreases in price
the price of substitute good.
of the substitute good,
• Decrease in demand: Less demand at constant increase in price of the
price. complementary good, and
change in tastes and
preferences against the
commodity.
Diagrammatically, Diagrammatically, this is
this is shown as an shown as a backward shift
upward movement in demand curve.
(right to left) on the
same demand curve.
Decrease in demand refers to decrease in quantity
demanded of a commodity at its existing price. Types of Goods
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403

• Inferior Good: Goods which are negatively

related with income. It means less demand at
higher income and vice versa.
• Normal Good: Goods which are positively related
with income. It means when income rises, demand
for normal goods also rises.
• Veblen good (aka ostentatious goods): Veblen
goods are goods for which increased prices will
increase quantity demanded. Veblen goods are
high-status goods such as expensive wines,
automobiles, watches, or perfumes. These goods Perfectly inelastic demand (e = 0)
violate the law of demand. This describes a situation in which demand shows no
• Substitute Goods: Substitute goods are the response to a change in price. In other words, whatever
alternative goods that can be used for the same be the price the quantity demanded remains the same.
purpose by the same consumer. Increase in the Inelastic (less elastic) demand (e < 1)
price of one good causes increase in demand for
In this case, the proportionate change in demand is
other good. E.g., tea and coffee
smaller than in price.
• Complementary Goods: Complementary goods Unitary elastic demand (e = 1)
are products which are used together. Increase in
the price of one good causes decrease in demand When the percentage change in price produces
for other good. E.g:- Petrol and Car equivalent percentage change in demand, we have a
Types of Demand case of unit elasticity.
Elastic (more elastic) demand (e > 1)
• Cross demand: Demand primarily dependent
upon prices of related goods is called cross In case of certain commodities, the demand is relatively
demand. Demand is inversely related to price in more responsive to the change in price. It means a small
case of complementary goods. Demand is directly change in price induces a significant change in demand.
related to price in case of substitute goods. Perfectly elastic demand (e = ∞)
• Income demand: Demand primarily dependent This is experienced when the demand is extremely
upon income is called income demand. sensitive to the changes in price. In this case an
• Direct demand: Demand for goods and services insignificant change in price produces tremendous
made by final consumers to satisfy their wants or change in demand. The demand curve showing
needs is called direct demand. For example, guests perfectly elastic demand is a horizontal straight line.
of hotels make the demand for food. PRODUCTION
• Derived demand: Demand for goods and services Combining inputs in order to get the output is
(factor of production) made according to direct production.
demand is called derived demand. Production Function
• Joint demand: Demand made for two or more Production function is a long period production
goods and services to satisfy single need or want is function if all the inputs are varied.
called joint demand. Production function is a short period production
• Composite demand: Demand for a single function if few variable factors are combined with few
commodity made in order to use for different fixed factors.
purposes is called composite demand. Fixed Factors
PRICE ELASTICITY OF DEMAND (Ed)
It refers to the degree of responsiveness of quantity The factors whose quantity remain fixed with the level
demanded to change in its price. of output.
Variable Factors
Those inputs which change with the level of output.
Concepts of product

P = Original price; Qd = Original quantity; Δ = Change

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404

• Total Product: Total quantity of goods produced • Poor coordination between variable and fixed
by a firm / industry during a given period of time factor
with given number of inputs. • Decrease in efficiency of variable factors.
• Average product: Average product is also known Relation between MP and TP
as average physical product / Output per unit of • As long as MP increases, TP increases at an
variable input. increasing rate.
• AP = TP / units of variable factor • When MP decreases, TP increases at a diminishing
• Marginal product (MP): It refers to addition to rate.
the total product, when one more unit of variable • When MP is zero, TP is maximum.
factor is employed. It is the rate of change in TP. • When MP is negative, TP starts decreasing.
• MPn = TPn – TPn-1
• MPn = Marginal product of nth unit of variable
factor
• TPn = Total product of n units of variable factor
• TPn-1 = Total product of (n-1) unit of variable
factor.
• n = number of units of variable factor
•
• We derive TP by summing up MP
• TP = ΣMP
Short Run Production Function
Statement of law of variable proportion: In short
period, when only one variable factor is increased,
keeping other factors constant, the total product (TP)
initially increases at an increasing rate, then increases
at a decreasing rate and finally decreases.
MP initially increases, then falls but remains
positive, then in 3rd Stage becomes negative
Increasing returns to a factor (Stage I)
• TP increases at an increasing rate
• MP also increases.
Reasons for increasing returns to a factor
• Better utilization of fixed factor
• Increase in efficiency of variable factor
• Optimum combination of factors
Diminishing returns to a factor (Stage II) Long-Run Production Function - Returns to
• TP increases at decreasing rate Scale
• MP decreases / falls In the long run, all factors can be changed. Returns to
• This phase ends when MP is zero and TP is scale studies the changes in output when all factors or
maximum inputs are changed. An increase in scale means that all
Reasons for diminishing returns to a factor inputs or factors are increased in the same proportion.
• Indivisibility of factors. Unit of Unit of Total Margina Returns to
• Imperfect substitutes. Labou Capita Produc l Product Scale
Negative returns to a factor (Stage III) r l t
• TP diminishes / decreases
• MP becomes negative 1 3 10 10 Increasing
Reasons for negative returns to a factor
2 6 30 20
• Limitation of fixed factors
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405

3 9 60 30 • Money cost: Money expenses incurred by a firm

for producing a commodity or service.
4 12 80 20 Constant • Implicit cost: Cost incurred on the self - owned
factors of production. For example, interest on
5 15 100 20 owners capital, rent of own building, salary for the
6 18 120 20 services of entrepreneur etc.
• Explicit cost: Actual payment made on hired
7 21 130 10 Decreasin factors of production. For example wages paid to
g the hired labourers, rent paid for hired
8 24 135 5 accommodation, cost of raw material etc.
Increasing returns to scale Relation Between TC, TFC and TVC
• If an increase in all the factors leads to a higher • TFC is horizontal to x-axis (as it is constant at
proportionate increase in output, it is called every level of output).
increasing returns to scale. • TC and TVC are S-shaped (they rise initially at a
• For example, all the inputs are increased by 5%, the decreasing rate, then at a constant rate and finally
output increases by 10%. In this case, the marginal at an increasing rate) due to Law of Variable
product will be rising. Proportions.
Constant returns to scale • At zero level of output, TC is equal to TFC,
• If we increase all the factors (i.e. scale) in a given because TVC = 0.
proportion, the output will increase in the same • TC and TVC curves are parallel to each other.
proportion i.e. a 5% increase in all the factors will
result in an equal proportion of 5% increase in the
output. Here the marginal product is constant.
Decreasing returns to scale
• If the increase in all factors leads to a less
proportionate increase in output, it is called
decreasing returns to scale i.e. if all the factors are
increased by 5%, the output will increase by 3%. In Average Cost
this phase, marginal product will be decreasing.
Average variable cost (AVC) is the cost per unit of the
COST
variable cost of production.
Cost of production: Expenditure incurred on various
AVC = TVC/output.
inputs to produce goods and services.
• AVC falls with every increase in output initially.
Types of Cost
• Once the optimum level of output is reached AVC
• Fixed cost: Fixed cost (TFC or FC) is the cost starts rising.
which is incurred on the fixed factors of • Average total cost (ATC) or Average cost (AC)
production. These costs remain fixed whatever refers to the per unit total cost of production.
may be the scale of output. These costs are present Marginal Cost
even when the output is zero. These costs are
Marginal cost refers to the addition made to total cost
present in short run but disappear in the long run.
when an additional unit of output is produced.
• Total Variable Cost: TVC or variable cost is the MCn = TCn–TCn–1 or MC = ΔTC/ΔQ
cost which vary directly with the variation in the
Note : MC is not affected by TFC.
output. This cost is incurred on the variable factors
Relationship Between AC and MC
of production. These costs are also called “prime
costs”, “direct costs” or “avoidable costs”. These • Both AC and MC are derived from TC
costs are zero when output is zero.
• Total Cost: Total cost is the total expenditure
incurred on the factors and non-factor inputs in the
production of goods and services. It is obtained by
summing TFC and TVC at various levels of output.
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• Both AC and MC are “U” shaped (Law of Variable SS slopes upward from left to right. It shows positive
Proportions) relationship between own price of the commodity and
• If MC is lower than AC, then AC falls. its quantity supplied: as price rises quantity supplied
• If MC is equal to AC, then AC is constant. also rises.
• If MC is greater than AC, then AC rises. Change in Supply
• MC is always to the left of AC and thus cuts AC at Change in Quantity Supplied (Movement along the
its lowest point. supply curve)
SUPPLY CONCEPTS Supply changes due to change in the price of the
Supply commodity alone (other factors remaining constant) are
Supply refers to the quantity of a good, which a of two types:
producer is willing to sell at different prices, assuming • Expansion of supply: More supply at higher price.
there is no change in other factors influencing supply. • Contraction of supply: Less supply at a lower price.
Supply Schedule
It is a table showing different quantities of a good a
producer is willing to sell at different prices, assuming
there is no change in other factors influencing supply.
Supply Curve
It is a graphical representation of supply schedule.
Factors Determining Supply
• Price of the commodity itself
• Price of inputs
• Technology
• Price of other goods by same firm
• Taxes and subsidies
Law of Supply
The law of supply states that quantity supplied of a
good usually varies directly with its price, assuming
that all other factors determining supply remain the
same.
• The law of supply establishes a direct relationship
between price and supply.
• Firms will supply less at lower prices and more at
higher prices.
• Other things remaining the same, as the price of
Change in Supply (Shift in Supply Curve)
commodity rises, its supply expands and as the
price falls, its supply contracts. Supply changes due to changes in factors other than its
PX (₹) SX (Units) own price are of two types:
10 100 • Increase in supply: More supply at a constant price.
11 200 • Decrease in supply: Less supply at a constant price.
12 300
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The change in quantity of supply is due to other factors.

Hence, the price remains constant.
Causes of increase in Causes of decrease in P = Original price, QS = Original Qty supplied,
Supply Supply ∆ = Change
Lower prices of input Higher prices of input Perfectly Inelastic Supply (e = 0)
Advanced technology Obsolete technology This describes a situation in which the quantity
Less prices of other Higher prices of other supplied remains unaffected even with a change in
goods by the same firm goods by same firm price.
Less tax, more subsidies More tax, less subsidies Inelastic (less elastic) Supply (e < 1)
More the price, more the Lesser the price, lesser
In this case, the proportionate change in price causes a
supply the supply
smaller change in quantity supplied.
Unitary Elastic Supply (e = 1)
Types of Supply
When percentage change in price produces equivalent
• Market Supply: It is the total supply brought to change in quantity supplied, it is called unitary elastic
the market by producers at each price. It is
supply.
aggregate of the supply by individual firms at
Elastic (more elastic) Supply (e > 1)
different prices.
• Joint Supply: It refers to the goods produced or Supply is said to be elastic when a given percentage
supplied jointly (eg. cotton and seed). In this, one change in price leads to a larger change in quantity
product is called 'main product' and the other is supplied.
called its 'by-product'. Perfectly Elastic Supply (e = ∞)
• Composite Supply: In this, the supply of a It exists when any decrease in product price, no matter
commodity is made from various sources and is how insignificant, causes the supply to immediately fall
called 'composite supply. When there are different to zero.
sources of supply of a commodity, we can say that REVENUE
its supply is composed of all these resources. Revenue
• Long Term Supply: In this, if demand has been Revenue is the money received by a firm from the sale
changed, the supply can also be changed because of a given output in the market.
there is sufficient time to meet the demand by Total Revenue
manufacturing goods and supplying them in the
market. Total sale receipts or receipts from the sale of a given
ELASTICITY OF SUPPLY output.
Law of supply states that all other factors being equal, TR = Quantity sold × Price
as the price of a good increases, the quantity supplied Average Revenue
of the good will increase. Revenue or receipt received per unit of output sold.
The concept of elasticity of supply explains the rate of AR = TR / Output sold
change in supply as a result of change in price. AR is always equal to the price.
Marginal Revenue
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Additional revenue earned by the seller by selling an Up to point B, TR curve is increasing at a decreasing
additional unit of output. rate. This is because MR is decreasing. At point B, TR
MRn = TRn – TRn–1 is maximum. This is because, MR = 0. Beyond point B,
TR = Σ MR TR starts declining. This is because MR is negative. In
Relationship Between AR and MR a situation of zero price, AR touches X-axis.
When price remains constant or in perfect Accordingly, TR also touches X-axis.
competition • TR increases as long as MR is positive.
• Under perfect competition, the sellers are price • TR falls when MR is negative.
takers. Single price prevails in the market. Since all • TR will be maximum when MR is zero
the goods are homogeneous and are sold at the Break-even point
same price AR = MR. As a result, AR and MR It is that point where TR = TC or AR = AC. Firm will
curve will be a horizontal straight line parallel to be earning normal profit.
OX axis. (When price is constant or in perfect Shut down point
competition) A situation when a firm is able to cover only variable
Under monopoly and monopolistic competition costs or TR = TVC or AR = AVC.
• AR and MR curves will be downward sloping in PRODUCER EQUILIBRIUM
both the market forms. It means a combination of price and quantity of output
• AR lies above MR. which yields maximum profit.
• AR can never be negative. Profit is maximum at that output level at which the
• AR curve is less elastic in the monopoly market difference between TR and TC is maximum and total
form because of no substitutes. profit declines as one more unit of output is produced.
• AR curve is more elastic in the monopolistic The two condition of equilibrium are:
market because of the presence of substitutes. 1. MC = MR
Relationship Between TR and MR 2. MC > MR after equilibrium level of output.
It is so because, if MC is greater than MR, it means that
When price remains constant or in perfect the production is unprofitable. Hence the producer
competition must stop when MC = MR to avoid losses.
• When there exists a single price, the seller can sell FORMS OF MARKET AND PRICE
any quantity at that price, the total revenue DETERMINATION
increases at a constant rate. (MR is horizontal to x- Market structure
axis)
When price falls with the increase in sale of output Market structure refers to number of firms operating in
• Under imperfect market, AR will be downward an industry, nature of competition between them and
sloping – which shows that more units can be sold the nature of product. There are four types of market.
only at a less price. • Perfect competition
• MR falls with every fall in AR / price and lies • Monopoly
below AR curve. • Monopolistic Competition
• Oligopoly
Perfect competition
Perfect competition refers to a market situation in
which there are large number of buyers and sellers.
Firms sell homogeneous products at a uniform price.
Features of perfect competition
• Very large number of buyers and sellers
• Homogeneous product
• Free entry and exit of firms
• Perfect knowledge of product
• Firm is a price taker and industry is price maker
• Perfectly elastic demand curve (AR=MR)
• Perfect mobility of factors of production
• Absence of transportation cost
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• Absence of selling cost • Final goods: Goods and Services purchased, or

Monopoly market own produced, for the purpose of consumption and
Monopoly is a market situation dominated by a single investment.
seller who has full control over the price. • Stock variables: Those variables whose
Features of monopoly magnitude is measured at a particular point of time.
• Single seller of a commodity Eg., Quantity of money, wealth, etc.
• Absence of close substitute of the product • Flow variables: Variables whose magnitude is
• Difficulty of entry of a new firm (Entry Barrier) measured over a period of time. Eg., Consumption.
• Negatively sloped demand curve (AR>MR) We must remember:
• Full control over price hence price discrimination Gross = Net + Depreciation
exists
• Existence of abnormal profits National = Domestic + Net factor
Monopolistic competition income from
abroad
It refers to a market situation in which there are many
firms who sell closely related but differentiated Market = Factor + Net Indirect
products. price Cost Taxes
Features of monopolistic competition
• A large number of buyers and sellers but less than Also,
that in perfect competition
NFIA = Factor – Factor income
• Product differentiation income to abroad
• Freedom of entry and exit from
• Lack of perfect knowledge abroad
• High transportation cost
• Partial control over price and,
Oligopoly
NIT = Indirect – Subsidies
Oligopoly is a market structure in which there are few
Taxes
sellers of a commodity and large number of buyers.
Main features of Oligopoly NATIONAL INCOME
• Few dominant firms who are large in size The total amount of money earned in a country in a
• Mutual interdependence year.
• Barrier to entry Net National Product at Factor Cost (NNPFC)
• Homogeneous product • Net National Product at Factor Cost is the term
• Price rigidity used for calculating National Income.
INTRODUCTION TO MACROECONOMICS • It is the aggregate payments made to the factors of
• Consumption goods: Goods purchased, or self- production.
produced, for satisfaction of wants. • It is the total income earned by all the factors of
• Capital goods: Goods capable of being used for production in the form of wages, profits, rent,
producing other goods. interest etc. plus net factor income from abroad.
• Investment: Addition made to the stock of capital Gross Domestic Product at Market Price
during a period. It is also called 'capital formation'. (GDPMP)
• Depreciation: Fall in the value of fixed assets due • Gross Domestic Product at Market Price is the
to normal wear and tear. It is also called aggregate money value of the final goods and
'consumption of fixed capital'. services produced within the country's own
• Intermediate goods: Those goods and services territory. So as to calculate GDPMP all goods and
which are purchased during the year by one services produced in the domestic territory are
production unit from other production units and multiplied by their respective prices.
completely used up, or resold during the same year. • Symbolically GDPMP = P × Q. Where P is market
price and Q is final goods and services.
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Gross National Product at Market Price (GNPMP) Personal Income

• Gross National Product at Market Price is a broad ▪ Personal Income is the total income received by the
and comprehensive concept. GNPMP measures the individuals of country from all sources before
money value of all the final products produced direct taxes. Personal Income is not the same as
annually in a country plus net factor income from National Income, because personal income
abroad. includes the transfer payments whereas they are not
• Net factor income is derived by reducing the factor included in national income.
incomes earned by foreigners from the country ▪ Personal Income includes the wages, salaries,
from the factor incomes earned by the residents of interest and rent received by the individuals.
that country from abroad. ▪ Personal Income = Private Income
Net National Product at Market Price (NNPMP) ▪ Retained earnings of private corporate sector
• Net National Product measures the net money ▪ Corporate tax
value of final goods and services at current prices Personal Disposable Income
produced in a year in a country. • Personal Disposable Income means the actual
• Thus Net National Product is the net money value income which can be spent on consumption by
of final goods and services produced in the course individuals and families.
of a year. • It refers to the purchasing power of households.
• Net money value can be arrived at by excluding • The whole of disposable income is not spent on
depreciation allowance from total output. consumptions; a part of it is paid in the form of
Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost (NDPFC) direct tax. Thus disposable income is that part of
• Net Domestic Product at Factor Cost or Domestic income, which is left after the exclusion of direct
Income is the income earned by all the factors of tax.
production within the domestic territory of a • PDI = Personal Income minus
country during a year in the form of wages, interest, ▪ Direct taxes paid by households
profit and rent etc. ▪ Misc. receipts of govt. administrative depts.
• Thus NDPFC is a territorial concept. Terms related to GDP
Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost (GDPFC) Real GDP
Gross Domestic Product at Factor Cost refers to the GDP when expressed in physical quantities is called
value of all the final goods and services produced real GDP.
within the domestic territory of a country. Nominal GDP
Private Income When expressed in terms of the current market value of
these quantities, it is called nominal GDP.
• Private Income means the income earned by After the nominal GDP is estimated, the same is
private individuals from any source whether converted into real GDP but only indirectly and usable
productive or unproductive. It can be calculated only for comparing real GDP over time. The
from NNPFC by making certain additions and conversion aims at eliminating the effect of change in
deduction. prices on the nominal GDP. The main steps in the
• The additions include: conversion process are:
(a) transfer earnings from govt. • Take some year as the base. For example the base
(b) interest on national debt year in India is 2011-12.
(c) current transfers from rest of the world. • Calculated nominal GDP of the base year must be
• The deductions include: (a) Income from property at the prices of the base year. For the base year,
and entrepreneurship (b) savings of the non- nominal GDP and real GDP are the same because
departmental undertakings. both are calculated at the same prices.
• Private Income = NNPFC • Given nominal GDPs of years other than the base
▪ Income from property of entrepreneurship year we can find real GDPs by eliminating changes
accruing to govt. administrative depts. in prices. Let the base year be called year 1 and the
▪ Savings of non-departmental undertakings + next year as year 2. The effect of change in prices
current transfers from govt. + National debt on the nominal GDP of year 2 can be eliminated in
internet + CTFROW the following way:
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Expenditure Method
In this method, national income is measured as a flow
METHODS OF CALCULATING NATIONAL of expenditure. GDP is sum-total of private
INCOME consumption expenditure. Government consumption
Production Method (Value Added Method) expenditure, gross capital formation (Government and
In this method, national income is measured as a flow private) and net exports (Export-Import).
of goods and services. It is the money value of all final • Government Final Consumption Expenditure
goods and services produced in an economy during a • Private Final Consumption Expenditure
year. Final goods here refer to those goods which are • Net Exports (Exports – Imports)
directly consumed and not used in further production • Gross Domestic Capital Formation = Gross
process. Domestic Fixed Capital Formation + Change in
Goods which are further used in production process are stock
called intermediate goods. In the value of final goods, GDPMP = GFCE + PFCE + GDCF + NE
value of intermediate goods is already included NNPFC = GDPMP – Consumption of Fixed Capital
therefore we do not count value of intermediate goods + NFIA – Net Indirect Taxes
in national income otherwise there will be double Note: If capital formation is given as Net domestic
counting of value of goods. capital formation we arrive at NDPMP
• Value of Output = Sales + Change in Stock NNPFC = GDPMP – Depreciation + NFIA – NIT
• Change in Stock = Closing Stock – Opening Stock Capital formation = Investment
• Gross value added (GDPMP) = Value of Output – DETERMINATION OF INCOME AND
Intermediate Consumption EMPLOYMENT
NNPFC (NI) = GDPMP Aggregate Demand (AD)
(–) Consumption of Fixed Capital (Depreciation) Aggregate demand refers to the total value of final
(+) Net Factor Income from Abroad goods and services that all sectors of the economy taken
(–) Net Indirect Tax together are planning to buy at a given level of income
Income Method during a period of time.
Under this method, national income is measured as a AD = C + I + G + NX
flow of factor incomes. There are generally four factors Aggregate demand consists of the following:
of production: labour, capital, land and I. Private consumption expenditure (C)
entrepreneurship. Labour gets wages and salaries, II. Investment expenditure (I)
capital gets interest, land gets rent and entrepreneurship III. Government expenditure (G)
gets profit as their remuneration. IV. Net exports (NX) (X – M)
Besides, there are some self-employed persons who Private Consumption Expenditure (C)
employ their own labour and capital such as doctors, Private consumption expenditure here means the
advocates, CAs, etc. Their income is called mixed planned expenditure on final consumer goods and
income. The sum-total of all these factor incomes is services by households at a level of income during a
called NDP at factor costs. given period of time.
• Compensation of employees Investment Expenditure (I)
Wages and salaries in cash Investment expenditure is the planned expenditure on
(+) Wages and salaries in kind new capital goods by producers during a period of time.
(+) Social security scheme by employer Government Expenditure (G)
• Operating surplus
Government expenditure is the planned consumption
Rent
expenditure of general government on providing free
(+) Royalty
services to the people.
(+) Profit
(+) Interest Net Exports (X)
• Mixed income of self-employed Net exports is the planned net expenditure by
NDPFC = Compensations of employers + Operating foreigners on the goods and services produced in the
Surplus + Mixed Income from self-employed domestic country during a period.
Aggregate Supply (AS)
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Aggregate supply means the value of final goods and • The consumption which does not depend upon
services planned to be produced by all the production income is called Autonomous Consumption.
units in the economy taken together during a period. • Autonomous consumption is the consumption
Aggregate supply equals national income. Aggregate expenditure that occurs when income levels are
supply is also national output. zero.
Aggregate Supply = National Output = National Autonomous Investment
Income • It is an investment which is made irrespective of
Propensity to Consume the level of income. It is generally run by the
• Average Propensity to Consume (APC): The government sector. It is income inelastic.
proportion of income spent on consumption. • The volume of autonomous investment is same
• Average Propensity to Consume (APC) is the their at all level of income.
measure of total consumption expenditure as a Consumption Function
proportion of total income. The consumption function refers to the mathematical
relation between consumption expenditure and income.

• Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC):

Marginal propensity to consume is the proportion C = Total consumption expenditure
of change in consumption expenditure to change in = Autonomous consumption expenditure
income. b = MPC
Y = Income
Saving Function
Value of MPC varies from zero to one. Saving function refers to the mathematical relation
Propensity to save between income and saving.
It is the proportion of income saved.
• Average propensity to save (APS) is the measure
of total savings as a proportion of total income.

• Marginal propensity to save (MPS) is the Investment Multiplier And Its Working
proportion of change in saving to change in Investment multiplier explains the relationship
income. between increase in investment and the resultant
increase in national income.
• Investment multiplier is the ratio of change in
We must note that: national income to change in investment.
APC + APS = 1 Multiplier (K) = ΔY/ΔI
MPC + MPS = 1 Where Y = Income, I = Investment and Δ = Change
Full Employment • The value of multiplier depends on the value of
It means when the entire labour force of the country is Marginal Propensity to Consume (MPC).
in employment. • There is direct relationship between K and MPC.
INFLATION
Involuntary Unemployment
Inflation is a quantitative measure of the rate at which
It means that part of the labour force of the country the average price level of goods and services increases.
which is able and prefers to work, but is out of work The various types of inflation are:
though no fault or wish of its own. Open Inflation
Voluntary Unemployment
When government does not attempt to restrict inflation,
It refers to that part of the population which prefers not it is known as Open Inflation. In a free market
to work even though suitable work is available for economy, where prices are allowed to take their own
them. course, more here.
Autonomous Consumption
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Hyperinflation Money supply is the total amount of money in

Hyperinflation refers to a situation where the prices rise circulation or in existence in a country.
at an alarmingly high rate. The prices rise so fast that it • The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central
becomes very difficult to measure its magnitude. bank of our country. It manages the monetary
Deficit-Induced Inflation system of our country.
• Functions of Central Bank:
Deficit inflation takes place due to deficit financing. ▪ It has legal right to issue currency.
Credit Inflation ▪ It is the govt.'s banker, agent and advisor.
Credit inflation takes place due to excessive bank credit ▪ It is credit-controller.
or money supply in the economy. ▪ It is the banker's bank and supervisor.
Scarcity Inflation • It has classified the money supply of our country
Scarcity inflation occurs due to hoarding. Hoarding is into four components.
an excess accumulation of basic commodities by • M1 = C + DD + OD
unscrupulous traders and black marketers. C : Currency
Profit Inflation DD : Demand deposits in banks
OD : Other deposits in RBI
When entrepreneurs are interested in boosting their
M2 = M1 + Saving deposits with post office
profit margins, prices rise.
savings bank
Demand-Pull Inflation
M3 = M1 + Net Time deposits of Banks
Inflation which arises when aggregate demand exceeds M4 = M3 + Total deposits with Post Office Saving
aggregate supply, and tends to raise prices of goods and Organisation
services. This is known as Demand-Pull or Excess • Besides savings deposits, people maintain fixed
Demand Inflation. deposits of different maturity periods with the post
Cost-Push Inflation office.
When prices rise due to growing cost of production of Fiat Money
goods and services, it is known as Cost-Push (Supply- • It is a currency without intrinsic value that has been
side) Inflation. For e.g. If wages of workers are raised established as money. For example, One Rupee
then the unit cost of production also increases. As a Notes issued by the Government of India is Fiat
result, the prices of end-products or end-services being Money. The notes issued by the RBI are usually
produced and supplied are consequently hiked. referred to as Bank Notes.
Stagflation RESERVE BANK OF INDIA (RBI)
• Stagflation is when the economy experiences • The Central Bank of the country is the Reserve
stagnant economic growth, high unemployment, Bank of India (RBI).
and high inflation. • It was established in April 1935 with a share capital
• It is unusual because policies to reduce inflation of ₹ 5 crore on the basis of the recommendations of
make life difficult for the unemployed, while steps the Hilton Young Commission.
to alleviate unemployment raise inflation. • The RBI commenced operation on April 1, 1935,
Deflation under the Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934. The
• It means decline in the general price level of goods Act (II of 1934) provides the statutory basis of the
and services leading to rise in the purchasing power functioning of the Bank.
of the consumers. Structure of RBI
Disinflation • RBI is governed by a Central Board of Directors
• It is a decrease in the rate of inflation, i.e. a which is appointed by the Government of India.
slowdown in the rate of increase in the general The directors of the RBI are appointed for a term
price level of goods and services. of four years. The Central Board comprises of
MONEY AND MONEY SUPPLY Official Directors and Non-Official Directors. The
Money is defined as a medium of exchange. Official Directors are the Governor and not more
Money supply than four Deputy Governors. Apart from the above
designations, there are also four other Directors,
each from four local boards. These directors of the
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414

local boards represent the four regions of the • RBI has the responsibility of removing fluctuations
country- Mumbai, Chennai, Kolkata and New from the exchange rate market and maintaining a
Delhi. competitive and stable exchange rate.
• The current RBI governor is Mr. Shaktikanta Das, • RBI functions as custodian of nation's foreign
who has taken over from Mr. Urjit Patel in the year exchange reserves. It has to maintain a fair external
2018. He is the 25th Governor of the RBI. value of Rupee.
Functions of RBI • RBI achieves its objective through appropriate
Issue of Currency Notes monetary and exchange rate policies.
• Under section 22 of RBI Act, the bank has the sole Collection and Publication of Data
right to issue currency notes of all denominations • The RBI collects and compiles statistical/data
except one-rupee coins and notes. information on banking and financial operations,
• The one-rupee notes and coins and small coins are prices, FDIs, FPIs, BOP, Exchange Rate and
issued by Central Government, and their industries etc., of the economy.
distribution is undertaken by RBI as the agent of Regulator and Supervisor of Commercial Banks
the government. • The RBI has wide powers to supervise and regulate
• The RBI has a separate issue department which is the commercial and co-operative banks in India.
entrusted with the issue of currency notes. • RBI issue licenses, regulates branch expansion,
Banker to the Government manages liquidity and assets, manages and
• The RBI acts as a banker, agent and adviser to the methods of working of commercial banks and
government. It has an obligation to transact the amalgamation, reconstruction and liquidation of
banking business of Central Government as well as the banks.
State Governments. Monetary Policy
• RBI helps the Government – both Central and state • The Central Bank, the RBI formulates, implements
– to float new loans and manage public debt. and monitors the monetary policy. In fact, the
• On behalf of the central government, it sells monetary policy and the fiscal policy are the two
treasury bills and thereby provides short-term tools of macroeconomic policy. The monetary
finance. policy mainly ensures that there is price stability
Banker’s bank And Lender of Last Resort coupled with economic growth. The key areas that
• RBI acts as a banker to other banks. It provides these policy target are the interest rates, bank
financial assistance to scheduled banks and state credits, and money supply.
co-operative banks in the form of rediscounting of • Monetary Policy Committee (MPC) is the body of
eligible bills and loans and advances against the RBI, headed by the Governor, responsible for
approved securities. taking the important monetary policy decision
• RBI acts as a lender of last resort. It provides funds about setting the repo rate. Repo rate is ‘the policy
to the bank when they fail to get it from any other instrument’ in monetary policy that helps to realize
source. the set inflation target by the RBI.
• It also acts as a clearing house. Through RBI, banks • Some of the objectives of the monetary policy
make inter-banks payments. include maintenance of price stability, ensuring
Controller of Credit adequate flow of credit to the productive sectors,
• RBI has the power to control the volume of credit expansion of credit facility, equitable distribution
created by banks. The RBI through its various of credit, promotion of fixed deposits etc. The RBI
quantitative and qualitative measures regulates the also uses some tools to regulate the monetary
money supply and bank credit in the economy. policy. These include Open Market operations,
• RBI pumps in money during recessions and Bank Rate, Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), Statutory
slowdowns and withdraws money supply during an Liquidity Ratio (SLR), Repo rate, Reverse Repo
inflationary period. rate etc. There are also some Qualitative
• Manages Exchange Rate and Is Custodian of the instruments that the RBI uses which impact the
Foreign Exchange Reserves. money supply indirectly.
Few Important Terms
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415

• Bank Rate: It is the rate of interest which a central directional and policy inputs. While designing
bank charges on its short-term loans and advances strategic and long term policies and programmes
to a commercial bank. for the Government of India, NITI Aayog also
• Cash Reserve Ratio: It is the share of a bank's total provides relevant technical advice to the Centre
deposit to be maintained with it in the form liquid and States.
cash. • The Government of India, in keeping with its
• Statutory Liquidity Ratio: It is the fraction of the reform agenda, constituted the NITI Aayog to
net time and demand liabilities of the banks in the replace the Planning Commission instituted in
form of liquid assets that banks have to maintain. 1950. This was done in order to better serve the
• Repo rate: It is the discount rate at which a central needs and aspirations of the people of India. An
bank repurchases government securities from the important evolutionary change from the past, NITI
commercial banks, depending on the level of Aayog acts as the quintessential platform of the
money supply it decides to maintain in the Government of India to bring States to act together
country's monetary system. in national interest, and thereby foster Cooperative
• Reverse Repo Rate: The interest rate at which RBI Federalism.
borrows from commercial banks is called the • At the core of NITI Aayog’s creation are two hubs
reverse repo rate. – Team India Hub and the Knowledge and
Measures by RBI to Control Money Supply Innovation Hub. The Team India Hub leads the
• Consumer Credit Regulation: This refers to engagement of states with the Central government,
issuing rules regarding down payments and while the Knowledge and Innovation Hub builds
maximum maturities of installment credit for NITI’s think-tank capabilities. These hubs reflect
purchase of goods. the two key tasks of the Aayog.
• RBI Guidelines: RBI issues oral and written • Since it serves as a think tank of the government or
statements, appeals, guidelines, and warnings etc. as a directional and policy dynamo, it provides
to the banks. advice on strategic policy matters to the
governments at the Center and the States. Further,
• Rationing of credit: The RBI controls the credit
granted / allocated by commercial banks. it includes economic issues of both domestic and
international importance.
• Moral Suasion: Psychological and informal
means of selective credit control. • The NITI Aayog never Plans and it primarily
formulates policy. The different Ministries of the
• Direct Action: This step is taken by the RBI
against banks that don’t fulfil conditions and Central Government prepare projects based on
requirements. RBI may refuse to rediscount their these policies. The Aayog supports a cooperative
papers or may give excess credits or charge a penal federal structure where the Center and the States
rate of interest over and above the bank rate, for prepare development policies together. At the same
credit demanded beyond a limit. time, it also promotes healthy competition among
FINANCE COMMISSION the developing states. The regional councils focus
Finance commission came into existence in 1951. It on the development activities in specific areas. The
was established under article 280 of Indian constitution Aayog is based on the National Reforms
by the President of India. It was formed to define Development Commission, China.
financial relations between the centre and the state. • NITI Aayog has no power to allocate funds unlike
Functions its predecessor (The Planning Commission) which
had the power to allocate funds to States for
I. Distribution of taxes between centre and the states. regional development. The Finance Ministry’s
II. Determine factors governing grant-in-aid states. Department of Expenditure allocates funds now.
The Aayog’s primary responsibility is to undertake
NITI AAYOG long-term policy and design frameworks, along
• The National Institution for Transforming India, with taking necessary initiatives for faster
also called NITI Aayog, was formed via a development. Further, the Aayog also monitors
resolution of the Union Cabinet on January 1, 2015. these activities.
NITI Aayog is the premier policy ‘Think Tank’ of • The Aayog provides direction to the Monitoring
the Government of India, providing both and Evaluation (M & E) activities in India. It also
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
416

pegs importance to the quality standards, ethical Government of India and the same tax is called
procedures and provides appropriate institutional Securities Transaction Tax.
mechanisms. Therefore, NITI Aayog means: Banking Cash Transaction Tax
▪ A group of people that the Government Bank Transaction Tax is a tax levied on debit (and/or
entrusts for formulating and regulating policies credit) entries on bank accounts. It can be automatically
concerning the transformation of India. collected by a central counter party in the clearing or
▪ A Commission which assists the Government settlement process.
in both social and economic issues. Capital Gains Tax
▪ An institution with experts Capital Gain tax is a tax on gain in capital. If you sell
▪ A body which actively monitors and evaluates property, shares, bonds and precious material etc. and
the implementation of the Government’s earn profit on it then you are supposed to pay Capital
programs and initiatives. Gain Tax.
TAX STRUCTURE IN INDIA Other direct taxes are:
• Taxes are the amount of money government • Property Tax
imposes on an individual or corporates directly or • Gift Tax
indirectly so as to generate revenue or to keep track • House Tax
of any black money activities in India. • Professional Tax
• The tax on Incomes, Customs Duties, Central
Excise and Service Tax are levied by the Central GST
Government. • GST is an Indirect Tax which has replaced many
• The State Government levies agricultural income Indirect Taxes in India. The Goods and Service Tax
tax (income from plantations only), Value Added Act was passed in the Parliament on 29th March
Tax (VAT)/ Sales Tax, Stamp Duty, State Excise, 2017. The Act came into effect on 1st July 2017;
Land Revenue, Luxury Tax and Tax On Goods & Services Tax Law in India is a
Professions. comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based tax
• The local bodies have the authority to levy tax on that is levied on every value addition.
Properties, Octroi/Entry Tax and Tax for Utilities • In simple words, Goods and Service Tax (GST) is
like water supply, drainage etc. an indirect tax levied on the supply of goods and
Direct Taxes services. This law has replaced many indirect tax
These taxes are levied directly on the income or profits laws that previously existed in India. GST is one
of the persons who pays it, rather than on goods and indirect tax for the entire country.
services. • Under GST, the tax is levied at every point of sale.
Income Tax In the case of intra-state sales, Central GST and
• This is a type of tax levied on the individuals whose State GST are charged. Inter-state sales are
income falls under the taxable category (more than chargeable to Integrated GST.
2.5 lakhs per annum). • Now let us try to understand the definition of
• The Indian Income Tax Department is governed by Goods and Service Tax – “GST is a
Central Board of Direct Taxes and is part of the comprehensive, multi-stage, destination-based tax
Department of Revenue under the Ministry of that is levied on every value addition.” Multi-
Finance, Government of India. Staged as it is imposed at every step in the
Corporate Tax production process, but is meant to be refunded to
In India, the Corporate Income tax rate is a tax levied all parties in the various stages of production other
on net income of the companies. than the final consumer. And destination based tax,
Securities Transaction Tax as it is collected from point of consumption and not
Introduced in 2004, STT is levied on the sale and point of origin like previous taxes. GST is levied
purchase of equities (i.e. shares, debentures or any on the value additions i.e. the monetary value
other security). The income an individual generates added at each stage to achieve the final sale to the
through the securities market, be it through reselling of end customer.
shares or through debentures, is taxed by the Components of GST
There are 3 taxes applicable under this system:
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
417

• CGST: Collected by the Central Government on 3. GST will mean an increase in operational costs
an intra-state sale (Eg: transaction happening 4. GST came into effect in the middle of the financial
within Maharashtra) year.
• SGST: Collected by the State Government on an 5. GST is an online taxation system
intra-state sale (Eg: transaction happening within 6. SMEs will have a higher tax burden
Maharashtra) Other Indirect Taxes
• IGST: Collected by the Central Government for Other taxes are minor revenue generators and are small
inter-state sale (Eg: Maharashtra to Tamil Nadu) taxes. The various sub-categories of other taxes are as
Goods and services are divided into five tax slabs for follows:
collection of tax - 0%, 5%, 12%, 18% and 28%. • Entertainment tax: This is tax that is levied on
However, Petroleum products, alcoholic drinks, television series, movies, exhibitions, etc. The tax
electricity, are not taxed under GST and instead are is levied on the gross collections from the earnings.
taxed separately by the individual state governments, • Registration fees, stamp duty, transfer tax:
as per the previous tax regime. There is a special rate These are collected in addition to or as a
of 0.25% on rough precious and semi-precious stones supplement to property tax at the time of
and 3% on gold. In addition a less of 22% or other rates purchasing a property.
on top of 28% GST applies on few items like aerated • Education less: This is levied to fund the
drinks, luxury cars and tobacco products. educational programs launched and maintained by
GST council is a governing body to regulate and direct the government of India.
each and every step for the implementation of goods • Entry tax: Tax that is levied on the products or
and service tax in the nation with decisions over tax goods that enter a state, specifically through e-
rates and further implementation measures. GST commerce establishments. It is applicable in the
council assimilates suggestions and regulation into one states of Delhi, Assam, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh,
form and improvise the changes formally through etc.
notifications and circulars with its departments and • Road tax and toll tax: This tax is used for the
finance ministry. The GST Council is chaired by the maintenance of roads and toll infrastructure.
Union Finance Minister and other members are the BUDGET
Union State Minister of Revenue or Finance and Government Budget
Ministers in-charge of Finance or Taxation of all the
States. A government's budget is a statement showing
Advantages of GST itemwise estimated receipts and expenditures of the
government under various heads during a given year.
GST has mainly removed the Cascading effect on the Revenue Receipts
sale of goods and services. Removal of cascading effect
has impacted the cost of goods. Since the GST regime The receipts which neither create any liability nor lead
eliminates the tax on tax, the cost of goods decrease. to any reduction in assets are called revenue receipts.
GST is also mainly technologically driven. All The main source is tax, hence called tax revenue. Other
activities like registration, return filing, application for sources are termed as non-tax revenues and includes
refund and response to notice needs to be done online interest dividends, grants etc.
on the GST Portal; this accelerates the processes. Capital Receipts
1. GST eliminates the cascading effect of tax Raising of funds by government either by incurring a
2. Higher threshold for registration liability or by disposing of assets held by it, is treated
3. Composition scheme for small businesses as a capital receipt.
4. Simple and easy online procedure Recovery of loans, borrowings and disinvestment are
5. The number of compliances is lesser the sources of capital receipts.
6. Defined treatment for E-commerce operators Budgeted Expenditure
7. Improved efficiency of logistics Budgeted expenditure refers to the estimated
8. Unorganized sector is regulated under GST expenditure under revenue expenditure and capital
Disadvantages of GST expenditure.
1. Increased costs due to software purchase Revenue Expenditure
2. Being GST-compliant
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418

It is the expenditure incurred for the normal running of ▪ SLR refers to liquid assets of the commercial
government departments and provision of various banks which they are required to maintain (on
services like interest charges on debt, subsidies etc., daily basis) as a minimum percentage of their
Capital Expenditure total deposits. The liquid assets include: (i)
It consists mainly of expenditure on acquisition of cash, (ii) gold, and (iii) unencumbered
assets like land, building, machinery, equipment etc., approved securities.
and loans and advances granted by the Central II. Qualitative instruments
Government to States and Union Territories. ▪ The margin requirement of loan refers to the
Deficits in Government Budget difference between the current value of the
security offered for loan (called collateral) and
Deficit in budget means that the estimated expenditure the value of loan granted.
is higher than the estimated receipts. In the Indian ▪ Rationing of credit refers to fixation of credit
government's budget, there are three different types of quotas for different business activities.
deficit. Rationing of credit is introduced when the flow
These are: of credit is to be checked particularly for
▪ Fiscal deficit speculative activities in the economy.
▪ Revenue deficit ▪ Sometimes, the central bank makes the
▪ Primary deficit member banks agree through persuasion or
Fiscal Deficit pressure to follow its directives on the flow of
It refers to the excess of total expenditure over sum of credit.
revenue receipts and non-debt capital receipts. These are also called 'instruments of credit control'.
FD = Total budget expenditure – Revenue Receipts –
• Fiscal Policy: Fiscal policy is the revenue and
Non debt capital receipts expenditure policy of the government, focusing on
Revenue Deficit growth and stability of the economy. It is also
It is the excess of government's revenue expenditures called Budgetary Policy of the government,
over revenue receipts. revenue and expenditure being the two core
Revenue Deficit = Revenue Expenditure – Revenue components of the budget. The government tries to
Receipts achieve its set of objectives by varying the size and
Primary Deficit composition of revenue as well as of expenditure.
It is the fiscal deficit minus Interest payments on govt. According to D. C. Rown, “Fiscal policy is defined
debt. as the discretionary action by the government to
Primary Deficit = Fiscal Deficit – Interest Payment change:
Monetary And Fiscal Policy ▪ the level of government expenditure on goods
• Monetary Policy: It is the policy to control the and services and transfer payments
flow of credit/money supply. Instruments of ▪ the yield of taxation at any given level of
monetary policy are broadly classified as: output.”
I. Quantitative instruments STRUCTURE OF BALANCE OF PAYMENT
▪ The repo rate refers to the rate of interest at Current Account
which the central bank gives short period loans It records the following items.
to the commercial banks. During inflation, the
• Visible items of trade: Visible items of trade
cost of capital is increased by increasing the means goods.
repo rate. This reduces the flow of credit, as
• Invisible trade: Invisible trade means services.
desired. On the other hand, during deflation the
• Unilateral transfers: Unilateral transfers are
cost of capital is reduced by reducing the repo
receipts which resident of a country receive (or)
rate. This increases the flow of credit.
payments that the residents of a country make
▪ Open market operations refer to the sale and without getting anything in return e.g. gifts.
purchase of securities in the open market by the
The net value of balances of visible trade, invisible
central bank. trade and unilateral transfers is the balance on
▪ CRR refers to the legally required cash reserves Current Account.
of the commercial banks with the central bank
Capital Account
as a percentage of their total deposits.
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419

It records all international transactions that involve a Appreciation of a currency occurs when price of
resident of the domestic country changing his assets foreign currencies in relation to domestic currency
with a foreign resident or his liabilities to a foreign decreases.
resident. Depreciation of Currency
Balance of Trade Depreciation of currency occurs when price of foreign
It is defined as 'exports of goods' less 'imports of goods'. currency in terms of domestic currency rises in the
Balance of Payment foreign exchange market.
It is an accounting statement of a country's sources and Devaluation
uses of foreign exchange. It is divided into current • It is the official downward adjustment of the value
account and capital account. of a country's currency against another country's
• Sources: Exports, income from investments currency, in a fixed exchange rate system.
abroad, borrowings, transfers from abroad etc. • It increases the price of foreign currency in terms
• Uses: Imports, incomes paid on foreign of domestic currency.
investments, transfers to abroad, sending etc. Revaluation
Balance of Payment Deficit • It is the official upward adjustment of the value of
A deficit in Balance of Payment occurs when during a country's currency against another country's
the year autonomous inflow of foreign exchange falls currency, in a fixed exchange rate system.
short of autonomous outflows of foreign exchange. • It decreases the price of foreign currency in terms
FOREIGN EXCHANGE of domestic currency.
Foreign Exchange Trade Policy
Refers to all the currencies other than domestic The Government of India announces trade policy from
currency of a given country. time to time. The trade policy has been formulated with
Foreign Exchange Rate the objective of fulfilling plan goals.
Foreign exchange rate is the rate at which currency of Objectives
one country can be exchanged for currency of another • Important Substitution: Import of only essential
country. items; restructuring of imports to help export
Fixed Exchange Rate promotion.
• Export Promotion: This objective has assumed
Fixed rate of exchange is a rate that is fixed by the
great importance in recent years because of rapidly
government of a country and only the government can
increasing trade deficits and repayment obligation.
change it.
• Export-Import Policy (1988): It gave further
Flexible Exchange Rate strength to the measures announced in 1985.
Flexible rate of exchange is that rate which is INDIAN ECONOMY
determined by the market forces (demand and supply) Industrial Policy 1991
of different currencies in the foreign exchange market.
• The New Industrial Policy of 1991 comes at the
Equilibrium Rate Exchange center of economic reforms that launched during
Equilibrium exchange rate occurs when supply of and the early 1990s. All the later reform measures were
demand for foreign exchange are equal to each other. derived out of the new industrial policy. The Policy
Spot Exchange Rate has brought comprehensive changes in economic
The Spot Exchange Rate refers to the rate at which regulation in the country. As the name suggests,
foreign currencies are available on the spot. these reform measures were made in different areas
Foreign Exchange Market related to the industrial sector.
The Foreign Exchange Market is the market where • Because of the large scale changes, the Industrial
international currencies are traded for one another. Policy of 1991 or the new industrial policy
represents a major change from the early policy of
Forward Market
1956. The new policy contained policy directions
Market for foreign exchange for future delivery is for reforms and thus led to reforms LPG
known as the forward market. (Liberalisation, Privatisation and Globalisation). It
Appreciation of Currency enlarged the scope of private sector participation to
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
420

almost all industrial sectors except three • GAIL (India) Limited

(modified). Simultaneously, the policy has • Indian Oil Corporation Limited
welcomed foreign investment and foreign • NTPC Limited
technology. Since 1991, the country’s policy on • Oil and Natural Gas Corporation Limited
foreign investment is gradually evolving through • Steel Authority of India Limited
the introduction of liberalization measures in a Miniratna CPSEs
phase wise manner.
• Miniratna has two subcategories:
• Perhaps, the most welcome change under the new • Category I has 60 miniratnas
industrial policy was the abolition of the practice of
• Category II has 15 miniratnas
industrial licensing. The 1991 policy has limited
Navratna CPSEs
industrial licensing to less than fifteen sectors. It
means that to start an industry, one has to go for • Bharat Electronics Limited
license and waiting only in the case of these few • Container Corporation of India Limited
selected industries. This has ended the era of • Engineers India Limited
license raj or red tapism in the country. • Hindustan Aeronautics Limited
Features of New Industrial Policy 1991 • Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Limited
• Mahanagar Telephone Nigam Limited
• Free determination of interest rate by the
• National Aluminium Company Limited
commercial Banks
• NBCC (India) Limited
• Increase in the investment limit for the Small Scale
Industries (SSIs) • NMDC Limited
• NLC India Limited
• Freedom to import capital goods
• Oil India Limited
• Freedom for expansion and production to
industries • Power Finance Corporation Limited
• Power Grid Corporation of India Limited
• Abolition of Monopolies and Restrictive Trade
Practices (MRTP) Act 1969 • Rashtriya Ispat Nigam Limited
• Rural Electrification Corporation Limited
• Removal of Industrial Licensing and Registration
for all but (a) Liquor (b) Cigarette (c) Defence • Shipping Corporation of India Limited
equipment (d) Industrial explosives (e) Drugs and NATIONAL DEVELOPMENT COUNCIL
(f) Hazardous chemicals. • All the plans made by the Planning Commission
have to be approved by National Development
• Sale of shares of PSUs
Council first. It was constituted to build co-
• Disinvestment in PSU’s
operation between the States and the Planning
• Number of industries reserved for public sector
Commission for economic planning.
was reduced from 17 to 3 which are (a) Transport
and railway (b) Mining of atomic minerals and (c) • It is an extra-constitutional and extra-legal body.
Atomic energy • It was set up on August 6, 1952, by a proposal of
the Government. The PM is the ex-officio
• Reduction in tariffs
chairman of NDC. Other members are Union
Long Term Trade Policy
Cabinet Ministers, Chief Ministers and Finance
• Increase in Equity Limit of Foreign Investment. Ministers of all States, Lt. Governors of Union
• Partial convertibility can be defined as converting Territories and Governors of Centrally-ruled
Indian currency in the currency of other countries, States.
so that the flow of foreign investment is terms of Human Development Index (HDI)
Foreign Institutional Investment (FII) and Foreign
The Human Development Index (HDI) is a summary
Direct Investment (FDI).
measure of average achievement in key dimensions of
• Initiated public sector reforms. human development: a long and healthy life, being
LIST OF MAHARATNA, MINIRATNA AND
knowledgeable and have a decent standard of living.
NAVRATNA
• It was created to emphasise that people and their
Maharatna CPSEs capabilities should be the ultimate criteria for
• Bharat Heavy Electricals Limited assessing the development of a country, not
• Bharat Petroleum Corporation Limited economic growth alone.
• Coal India Limited
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
421

• It can also be used to question national policy integrated and transformative" 2030 Agenda for
choices, asking how two countries with the same Sustainable Development, a set of 17 Sustainable
level of GNI per capita can end up with different Development Goals (SDGs). The goals are to be
human development outcomes. These contrasts implemented and achieved in every country from
debate about government policies. the year 2016 to 2030.
• It is the geometric mean of normalized indices for The 17 SDGs are:
each of the three dimensions. 1. End poverty in all its forms everywhere
The ‘health’ dimension is assessed by life expectancy 2. Zero Hunger: End hunger, achieve food security
at birth; the ‘education’ dimension is measured by and promote sustainable agriculture
mean of years of schooling for adults aged 25 years and 3. Good Health and Well-being: Ensure healthy lives
more and expected years of schooling for children of and promote well-being
school entering age. The ‘standard of living’ dimension 4. Quality Education: Ensure inclusive and equitable
is measured by gross national income per capita. The quality education
scores for the three HDI dimension indices are then 5. Gender Equality: Achieve gender equality and
aggregated into a composite index using geometric empower all women and girls
mean. 6. Ensure availability and sustainable management of
It simplifies and captures only part of what human water and sanitation for all.
development entails. It does not reflect on inequalities, 7. Affordable and Clean Energy: Ensure access to
poverty, human security, empowerment, etc. The affordable, sustainable and modern energy
Human Development Report Office (HDRO) offers the 8. Promote sustained, inclusive and sustainable
other composite indices as broader proxy on some of economic growth, full and productive employment
the key issues of human development, inequality, and decent work.
gender disparity and poverty. 9. Industry, Innovation and Infrastructure: Build
The origins of the HDI are found in the annual Human resilient infrastructure, promote sustainable
Development Reports produced by the Human industrialisation and foster innovation
Development Reports Office of the United Nations 10. Reduced Inequality: Reduce inequalities within and
Development Programme (UNDP). among countries
11. Sustainable Cities and Communities: Make cities
and human settlements inclusive, safe, resilient and
sustainable
12. Sustainable Consumption and Production: Ensure
sustainable consumption and production patterns
13. Climate Action: Take urgent action to combat
climate change and its impacts
14. Life Below Water: Conserve the oceans, seas and
Sustainable Development
marine resources for sustainable development
• Sustainable development is development that 15. Life on Land: Protect, restore and promote
meets the needs of the present without
sustainable use of terrestrial ecosystems, manage
compromising the ability of future generations to
forests, and halt and reverse land degradation and
meet their own needs.
biodiversity loss
• It is the organizing principle for meeting human 16. Promote peaceful and inclusive societies for
development goals while at the same time sustainable development, provide access to justice
sustaining the ability of natural systems to provide for all and build effective, accountable, and
the natural resources and ecosystem services upon
inclusive institutions at all levels.
which the economy and society depend.
17. Partnerships for the Goal: Strengthen the means of
• The desired result is a state of society where living implementation and revitalise global partnership
conditions and resource use continue to meet
human needs without undermining the integrity FIVE YEAR PLANS
and stability of the natural system.
• First Five Year Plan (1951-56)
• In September 2015, the United Nations General • Second Five Year Plan (1956-61)
Assembly formally adopted the "universal,
• Third Five Year Plan (1961-66)
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
422

• Plan Holiday (1966-69) and low rate of capital formation. It is of long-term

• Fourth Five Year Plan (1969-74) in nature and unemployment in India is mainly of
• Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-79) this type.
• Rolling Plan (1978–1980) • Under employment: The person is engaged in work
• Sixth Five Year Plan (1980-85) but his efficiency and capability are not being
• Seventh Five Year Plan (1985-90) utilized to the optimum level.
• Annual Plans (1989-91) • Disguised unemployment: If a person is engaged
• Eighth Five Year Plan (1992-97) in a work but the contribution of his marginal
• Ninth Five Year Plan (1997-2002) productivity is zero then it is called disguised
• Tenth Five Year Plan (2002-07) unemployment. This is mainly found in agriculture
• Eleventh Five Year Plan (2007-12) sector of developing economies. Removing these
• Twelfth Five Year Plan (2012-17) disguised unemployed from work will not affect
CHARACTERISTICS OF INDIAN ECONOMY total production.
Agrarian Economy • Seasonal unemployment: This arises because
demand for labour changes with seasons and so
Even after six-decades of independence, 52.1 % of the
work force of India is still engaged in agriculture and workers get employment only in the peak season
its contribution to Gross National Product is like harvesting and sowing seasons in agriculture.
approximately 20%. • Frictional unemployment: The unemployment
that arises due to changes in demand and supply
Mixed Economy
conditions in the market. It results when workers
Indian Economy is a unique blend of public and private are shifting over from one job to another.
sector, i.e., it is a mixed economy. In its entire plan • Voluntary unemployment: There are jobs but
period, the government has invested 45% of capital in people are not ready to take job at the prevailing
public sector. However, major sources and resources of wage rate. This generally exists in advanced
production are still in the hands of private sector countries at large.
(approximately 80%). After liberalisation, Indian • Involuntary unemployment: This type of
economy is moving ahead as a market economy. unemployment exists in developing countries, in
Poverty which people want to do a job but they do not get
Poverty line is defined on the basis of nutritional the job.
standards. The calorie intake is fixed at 2400 • Technical unemployment: Unemployment
Cal/person/day for rural area and 2100 Cal/person/day caused due to change in technology. Under new
for urban area The people below these nutritional technique, more production can be done with less
standards are considered to be below the poverty line number of workers. Its immediate effect is
(BPL). retrenchment of workers. But, it is important to
Unemployment note that technological unemployment is
Unemployment simply means a situation when able temporary.
and willing people are not getting jobs as per their own SECTORS OF INDIAN ECONOMY
capabilities. Sectors of Indian Economy : Based on Nature of
Types of Unemployment Activity
• Open unemployment: The labourers do not find • Primary Sector: When the goods are produced by
work to do. Unskilled labour unemployment is exploiting natural resources, it comes under the
included in this category of unemployment. activity of the primary sector. It involves
• Educated unemployment: Even an educated or transforming natural resources into primary
skilled person fails to get suitable employment. products. It forms the base for all other products
This is one of the major problems for developing that we eventually make. Most of the natural
countries like India. products we get are from agriculture, dairy, fishing,
• Structural Unemployment: This is related to forestry. Therefore, this sector is also called as
economic structure of the country. It is found when Agriculture and Related Sector.
the demand for labour is unable to keep pace with Examples of the Primary Sector:
the supply, due to high growth rate of population ▪ Agriculture
▪ Fishing
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423

▪ Mining ▪ Tourism
▪ Forestry, etc. ▪ Entertainment
Generally, it is the larger sector in the developing Since the activities involved in Tertiary Sector
countries. In developed countries, activities of the generate services rather than goods, it is also called
primary sector have become more technologically as Service Sector.
advanced, for example, the mechanisation of Sectors of Indian Economy : Based on Condition
farming instead of hand picking and planting. of Work
• Secondary Sector: The secondary sector • Organised sector: It involves those enterprises or
encompasses activities in which natural products places of work where the people are offered some
are changed into other forms or finished goods by amount of job security. The employees are
manufacturing that are consequently used for expected to work only a fixed number of hours. In
consumption. The product has to be made and case they work more, they are to be paid overtime
therefore some process of manufacturing is by the employer. They also get several other
essential. The manufacturing could be done in a benefits from the employers, for instance, medical
factory, workshop or at home. benefits, provident funds, paid-leaves, etc. The
For example, using cotton fiber from the plant, to enterprises are registered by the government and
spin yarn and weave cloth, or using sugarcane to have to follow its rules and regulations under the
make jaggery and refined sugar. The manufacturing provision of various laws such as the Factories Act,
process is usually associated with the different Minimum Wages Act, Payment of Gratuity Act,
kinds of industries that come up, therefore, this is etc.
also called as Industrial Sector. Examples: Hospitals, Schools, etc. where
Secondary Sector is usually divided into Light employees are offered regular job and the
Industry and Heavy Industry. organisation is governed by various laws and
▪ Light Industry: it involves products that regulations.
require less capital and is more consumer- • Unorganised Sector: Section 2 (l) of the Unorganised
oriented. Workers Social Security Act, 2008 defines an
▪ Examples: Manufacturing of clothes, shoes, unorganised sector as:
furniture, etc. “an enterprise owned by individuals or self
▪ Heavy Industry: it involves products that are employed and engaged in the production or sale of
either heavy in weight or in their production goods or providing service of any kind whatsoever,
process. They require huge capital and and where the enterprise employs workers, the
advanced resources or facilities. number of such workers is less than ten.”
Examples: Heavy machinery, Chemical Plant, • The unorganised sector is characterised by small
Production of heavy equipments like crane, etc. and fragmented units which are mostly outside the
• Tertiary Sector: The activities in tertiary sector control of the government. The rules and
helps in the development of the primary and regulations are, generally, not followed. The jobs
secondary sectors. These activities do not produce are often not regular and are low-paid. There is no
any good but they are an aid or a support for the provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave
production process. due to sickness, etc. The employees do not have
For example, Certain business activities involve any job security. They can be asked to leave /quit
borrowing money from banks to help production without any reason. Mostly it depends on the
and trade or goods that are produced in the primary whims of the employer.
or secondary sector would need transportation Examples: Large number of people who are
facility to be sold in wholesale or retail shops. employed on their own doing small jobs such as
Examples of Tertiary Sector: selling on the street or doing repair work, farmers
▪ Transport work on their own and hire labourers as and when
▪ Communication they require, etc.
▪ Banking Sectors of Indian Economy : Based on
▪ Insurance Ownership of Assets
▪ Trade • Private Sector: Here, the ownership of assets and
▪ Hospitality delivery of services is in the hands of private
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
424

individuals or companies. For example, Reliance Green Revolution

Industries Limited (RIL), Aditya Birla Group, etc. • It refers to the major increase in agricultural
• Public Sector: In this sector, the government owns productivity due to the introduction of High Yield
most of the assets and provides all the services. For Variety of Seeds (HYVS) together with new
example, Railways, Post-Offices, etc. techniques.
Note: Currently, tertiary/service sector is the • Green revolution led to a significant increase in the
backbone of the Indian economy, contributing the production of both Wheat and Rice.
most in Indian GDP. It accounts for 53.66% of • The credit for ushering in the era of Green
India’s total GDP. Industry sector contributes Revolution goes to Dr. Norman Borlaug and Dr. M.
29.02%. While, Agriculture and allied sector share S. Swaminathan.
17.32%. • Dr. William Gande gave the term Green
AGRICULTURE Revolution.
• Agriculture is the primary source of livelihood for • Its negative aspect was that Green Revolution
about 58 percent of India’s population. remained confined to wheat and rice only. It did not
• The average annual growth rate of GDP in cover pulses.
agriculture and allied sectors during the Eleventh • India ranks first in the world in milk production.
Five-Year Plan is now placed at 3.3 per cent. This • India is the fourth largest producer of natural
is short of the target of 4 percent but is significantly rubber with a share of 8.2% in world production in
better than the achievement of 2.4 percent in the 2010.
Tenth Plan. Horticulture at 4.7 percent was only
• India is the sixth largest producer of coffee after
marginally short of the 5 percent target. Brazil, Vietnam, Colombia, Indonesia and
• During Twelfth Plan, the Agriculture Forestry and Ethiopia.
Fishing Sector is projected to grow at 4 percent, an India is largest producer and consumer of black tea
•
improvement over the 3.7 percent rate achieved in in the world.
the Eleventh Plan. White Revolution
• Contribution of GDP: The share of agriculture and
allied sectors in India’s GDP has declined to 13.7 • The White Revolution in the country has been
percent in 2012-13 (at constant prices) due to shift achieved by means of Operation Flood.
from traditional agrarian economy to industry and • It was carried out in three phases.
service sectors. The share of agricultural ▪ Operation Flood I … 1970-1981
products/Agriculture and Allied Sectors in Gross ▪ Operation Flood II … 1981-1985
Domestic Product (GDP) of the country was 51.9 ▪ Operation Flood III … 1985-1996
percent in 1950-51. • White revolution was launched to increase the
• Agriculture’s share in India’s exports increased to quality and quantity of milk and dairy products.
13.08% in 2012-13 from 12.81% in the year 2011- • The Father of the White Revolution in India is Dr.
12. India’s share of global agri-food product export Varghese Kurien. He is also known as Milkman of
is 2.1% India.
• India is the world’s largest rice exporter and second • India is the largest milk producer and second
in terms of wheat exports. largest cow’s milk producer, accounting for 8.7%
• Indian fisheries and aquaculture is an important of world production.
sector of food production, providing nutritional Various Revolutions
security to the food basket. Constituting about Revolution Commodity
4.4% of the global fish production, the sector Green Wheat, rice
contributes to 1.1% of the GDP. The total fish Yellow Oilseeds
production of 6.57 million metric tones presently Golden Horticulture
has nearly 55% contribution from the inland sector Golden Jute
and nearly the same from culture fisheries. It Fiber
accounts for around 3% of the total exports of the Rainbow Agriculture
country and nearly 20% of the agricultural exports. White Milk
Blue Fish
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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Red Meat and Tomato The Special Economic Zones Act was enacted in
Pink Lobster (Fish) the year 2005 and became effective in the year
Black Petroleum Products 2006. The idea was to promote exports from the
Brown Fertilizers country and realising the need that level playing
Grey Wool field must be made available to the domestic
Round Potato enterprises and manufacturers to be competitive
Silver Egg/poultry globally.
Silver Fiber Cotton CAPITAL MARKET
Evergreen Increase in productivity and • There are broadly two types of financial markets in
prosperity without ecological harm an economy – capital market and money market.
Now capital market deals in financial instruments
SMALL SCALE INDUSTRY and commodities that are long-term securities.
A Small-Scale industry is defined with reference to They have a maturity of at least more than one year.
•
the maximum investment allowed on the assets of While Money Market deals in short-term financial
a unit. instruments having maturity period of upto 1 year.
• In 1955, the village and small-scale industries • Capital Market is classified into two
committee, also called the Karve committee was interdependent segments, i.e. Primary Market and
constituted. Secondary Market. The former is a market where
securities are offered for the first time for receiving
• Small-Scale industries are more 'labour intensive'
i.e., they use more labour than the large-Scale public subscription while the latter is a place where
industries and, therefore, generate more pre-issued securities are dealt between the
employment. investors. While primary market offers avenues for
selling new securities to the investors, the
• Development of Small-Scale industry requires
them to be shielded from the large firms. For this secondary market is the market dealing in
purpose, the production of a number of products securities that are already issued by the company.
was reserved for the Small-Scale industry. Basis For Primary Market Secondary
• They were given Concessions such as lower excise Comparison Market
duty. Meaning The market place The place
SPECIAL ECONOMIC ZONE for new shares is where
• Export Processing Zone (EPZ) Policy implemented called primary formerly
in 1965 during the ‘Import Substitution market. issued
Industrialisation’ (ISI) period included multiplicity securities are
of controls and clearances, absence of good traded is
infrastructure and an unstable fiscal regime which known as
paved way for the transformation of EPZs into Secondary
Special Economic Zones. Special Economic Zone Market.
(SEZ) is a specifically delineated duty-free enclave Another name New Issue Market After Market
and shall be deemed to be foreign territory for the (NIM)
purposes of trade operations and duties and tariffs. Type of Direct Indirect
In other words, SEZ is a geographical region that Purchasing
has economic laws different from a country's Financing It supplies funds It does not
typical economic laws. to budding provide
• The Special Economic Zone (SEZ) policy in India enterprises and funding to
first came into inception on April 1, 2000. The also to existing companies.
prime objective was to enhance foreign investment companies for
and provide an internationally competitive and expansion and
compatible environment for exports. The policy diversification.
aimed at promoting exports from the country and How many Only once Multiple
boost the economic growth by using tax and times a times
business incentives to attract foreign investment.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
426

security can ▪ Housing: Construction of 60 lakh additional

be sold? houses for the poor.
Buying and Company and Investors ▪ Water Supply: To ensure drinking water for
Selling takes Investors all remaining 74,000 villages.
place between ▪ Electrification: To supply electricity to all
Who will gain Company Investors remaining 1,25,000 villages and provide
the amount on electricity connections to 2.3 crore houses.
the sale of ▪ Rural Communication: To provide telephone
shares? facility to all remaining 66,822 villages.
Intermediary Underwriters Brokers
Price Fixed price Fluctuates, Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment
depends on Guarantee Act (MNREGA)
the demand • The National Rural Employment Guarantee Bill
and supply was passed by Parliament on September 7, 2005. It
force secured Presidential assent later in 2005 itself and
became an Act.
GOVERNMENT SCHEMES • The Act provides for at least 100 days of
The Prime Minister's Employment Generation employment to one able bodied person in every
Programme (PMEGP) rural household every year.
Launched by merging the erstwhile Rural employment • The Act (NREGA) came into force from Feb. 2,
Generation Programme and Prime Minister's Rozgar 2006. Initially 200 districts were selected for the
Yojna in August 2008. Its objectives are to generate enforcement of the scheme. It was the centrepiece
employment opportunities in rural and urban areas by of UPA-I.
setting up new self-employment venture/projects/micro • The name of the scheme was changed from
enterprises, bring in together dispersed traditional National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
artisans and unemployed youth and increasing their (NREGA) to MGNREGA on Oct. 2, 2009.
wage-earning capacity.
Credit Guarantee Scheme Development of Women and Children in Rural
It's objective is to facilitate flow of credit to the MSEs, Areas (DWCRA) and Training Rural Youth for
particularly to micro enterprises by providing Self-Employment (TRYSEM)
guarantee cover for loans up to ₹ 100 lakh without • These programmes were the subplans of Integrated
collateral/third party guarantees. Rural Development Programme (IRDP).
National Manufacturing Competitiveness • The objective of TRYSEM was to provide training
to those rural youth (ages 18-35 years) who belong
Programme (NMCP)
to the families living below the poverty line. This
It is the nodal programme of the Government of India
programme was started in 1979.
for developing global competitiveness among the
Indian MSMEs. • DWCRA was started in September 1982. Under
this programme, a group of 10-15 women were
Bharat Nirman Yojana
taken and they were given training for starting any
• The Union Government launched a new economic activity. Every group was given the
comprehensive scheme, named 'Bharat Nirman economic assistance of ₹ 25,000.
Yojana' on December 16, 2005, for creating basic
rural infrastructure. Prime Minister's Rozgar Yojana (PMRY)
• The major six sectors and their targets for next four
• This Yojana was started on October 2, 1993 for the
years were:
educated unemployed youth and initially was in
▪ Irrigation: To ensure irrigation for additional
operation in urban areas. From April 1, 1994
one crore hectare of land by 2009.
onwards, the scheme was implemented throughout
▪ Roads: To link all villages (population of
the country. Its objective was to give employment
1000) with main road and also to link all tribal
to 10 lakhs educated unemployed urban youth by
areas and hill villages population upto 500 with
roads.
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427

establishing 7 lakh micro enterprises during the • ICICI was established in 1994 as a public limited
Eighth Five-Year Plan. company under Indian Company Act for
MAJOR INDUSTRIAL FINANCE INSTITUTION developing medium and small industries of the
private sector.
Industrial Development Bank Of India (IDBI)
• Industrial Development Bank of India (IDBI) was National Bank For Agriculture And Rural
established under Industrial Development Bank of Development (NABARD)
India Act, 1964. • National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
• It is principal financial institution for providing Development (NABARD) was established on the
credit and other facilities for developing industries recommendations of B. Sivaraman Committee (by
and assisting development institution. Act 61, 1981 of Parliament) on 12 July 1982 to
• Till 1976 it was separated from RBI and the implement the National Bank for Agriculture and
ownership was transferred to Government of India. Rural Development Act, 1981. NABARD is India's
• Merged with IDBI Bank in 2004. specialised bank for Agriculture and Rural
Development in India.
Small Industries Development Bank Of India • International associates of NABARD include
(SIDBI) World Bank-affiliated organisations and global
• Small Industries Development Bank of India developmental agencies working in the field of
(SIDBI) was established as a wholly-owned agriculture and rural development. These
subsidiary of IDBI under the Small Industries organizations help NABARD by advising and
Development Bank of India Act, 1989 as the giving monetary aid for the upliftment of the
principal financial institution for promotion, people in the rural areas and optimising the
financing and development of industries in the agricultural process. NABARD has its head office
small scale sector. at Mumbai, India.
• SIDBI also co-ordinates the activities of agencies • NABARD Regional Office has a Chief General
which provide finances to small enterprises. SIDBI Manager as its head, and the Head office has
started its operations from April 2, 1990. Its head- several top executives viz the Executive Directors,
quarter is situated at Lucknow. Managing Directors, and the Chairperson. It has
336 District Offices across the country, one special
Industrial Finance Corporation Of India Ltd. cell at Srinagar.
(IFCI) • Roles and responsibilities:
1. It looks after the development of the cottage
• Industrial Finance Corporation of India Ltd. was
established in 1948 under a special Act on the industry, small scale industry and village industry,
recommendations of Central Banking Enquiry and other rural industries.
Committee. 2. It also reaches out to allied economies and supports
and promotes integrated development.
• The basic aim of IFCI is to arrange medium and
long term credit for various industrial enterprises of 3. Serves as an apex financing agency for the
the country. institutions providing investment and production
credit for promoting the various developmental
• Initially the authorized capital of the corporation
activities in rural areas.
was ₹ 10 crore which was divided in equities of ₹
5000 each. Later on this authorized capital was 4. Takes measures towards institution building for
improving absorptive capacity of the credit
increased upto ₹ 20 crores.
delivery system, including monitoring, formulation
• Since July 1, 1993 this corporation has been
of rehabilitation schemes, restructuring of credit
converted into a company and it has been given the
institutions, training of personnel, etc.
status of a Ltd. company with the name Industrial
5. Co-ordinates the rural financing activities of all
Finance Corporation of India Ltd.
institutions engaged in developmental work at the
field level and maintains liaison with Government
Industrial Credit And Investment Corporation
of India, state governments, Reserve Bank of India
Of India Bank (ICICI Bank)
(RBI) and other national level institutions
concerned with policy formulation.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
428

6. Undertakes monitoring and evaluation of projects Regulatory Authority of SEBI

refinanced by it. Stock Market
7. NABARD refinances the financial institutions
which finances the rural sector. Youngest stock exchange in Metropolitan Stock
8. NABARD partakes in development of institutions India Exchange
which help the rural economy.
9. NABARD also keeps a check on its client INTERNATIONAL ECONOMIC
institutes. ORGANISATIONS
10. It regulates the institutions which provide financial International Monetary Fund (IMF)
help to the rural economy.
11. It provides training facilities to the institutions • The international Monetary Fund (IMF) is an
working in the field of rural upliftment. international organisation that was initiated in 1944
12. It regulates and supervises the cooperative banks at the Bretton Woods Conference and formally
and the RRB’s, throughout entire India. created in 1945 by 29 member countries.
SECURITIES AND EXCHANGE BOARD OF • The IMF has 188 member countries. It is a
INDIA (SEBI) specialised agency of the United Nations but it has
• SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India) its own charter, governing structure, and finances.
was initially constituted, on April 12, 1988, as a • Its members are represented through a quota
non-statutory body for dealing with all matters system broadly based on their relative size in the
relating to development and regulation of securities global economy.
market. • A country must pay its subscription in full upon
• SEBI was given statutory status and powers joining the IMF: up to 25 per cent must be paid in
through an Ordinance promulgated on January 30, the IMF’s currency, called Special Drawing Rights
1992. (SDRs) or widely accepted currencies (such as the
dollar, the euro, the yen, or pound sterling), while
Functions of SEBI the rest is paid in the member’s currency.
• SDR allocations: SDRs are used as an international
• To safeguard the interests of investors and to reserve asset. A member’s share of general SDR
regulate capital market with suitable measures. allocations is established in proportion to its quota.
• To regulate the business of stock exchanges and Voting power: The quota largely determines a
•
other securities market. member's voting power in IMF decisions. Each
• To regulate the working of Stock Brokers, Sub- IMF member's votes are comprised of basic votes
brokers, Share Transfer Agents, Trustees, plus one additional vote for each SDR 100,000 of
Merchant Bankers, Underwriters, Portfolio quota.
Managers, etc. and also to make their registration. Access to Financing: The amount of financing a
•
• To register and regulate collective investment plans member country can obtain from the IMF is based
of mutual funds. on its quota. For instance, under Stand-By and
• To encourage self-regulatory organisations. Extended Arrangements, which are types of loans,
• To train the persons associated with security a member country can borrow up to 200 percent of
markets and also to encourage investor’s its quota annually and 600 per cent cumulatively.
education.
• To check insider trading of securities. World Bank Group
• To promote research and investigations for
ensuring the attainment of above objectives. • The World Bank was created at the 1944 Bretton
Woods Conference, along the International
Oldest Stock Exchange in Bombay Stock Monetary Fund (IMF).
India Exchange • The World Bank Group (WBG) is a family of five
Largest Stock Exchange in National Stock international organizations that make leveraged
India Exchange loans to poor countries. These are:
▪ The International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD)
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
429

▪ The International Development Association the World Bank and the International Monetary
(IDA) Fund.
▪ The International Finance Corporation (IFC). International Development Association (IDA)
▪ The Multilateral Investment Guarantee • IDA is an associate institute of the World Bank.
Agency (MIGA). • It was known as soft loan window of World bank.
▪ The International Centre for Settlement of • It was established in 1960.
Investment Disputes (ICSID). • At present 172 countries are its member.
• To become a member of the Bank, under the IBRD • IDA provides loan to its member countries and no
Articles of Agreement, a country must first join the interest is charged on these long term loans.
International Monetary Fund (IMF). Membership United Nations Conference on Trade and
in IDA, IFC and MIGA are conditional on Development (UNCTAD)
membership in IBRD. It has 188 members.
• In 1964, UNO organized a World Trade and
• The World Bank Group has set two goals for the
Development Conference, which came to be
world to achieve by 2030:
known as UNCTAD.
▪ End extreme poverty by decreasing the
• Its headquarter is at Genveva.
percentage of people living on less than $ 1.25
• It has become a permanent organization for
a day to no more than 3%.
promoting international trade.
▪ Promote shared prosperity by fostering the
• UNCTAD has its session after every 4 years.
income growth of the bottom 40% for every
Asian Development Bank (ADB)
country.
• ADB was established in 1966.
World Trade Organisation • The head office of ADB is located in Manila,
Philippines.
• Aim: To liberalize international trade.
• 67 countries are its member at present.
• When: Formed in 1995, replaced GATT.
(Marrakesh Agreement) • The Chairmanship of ADB is always alloted to the
Japanese.
• Headquarters: Geneva, Switzerland.
Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)
• Members: 164 member states (Afghanistan
became 164th WTO member) • ASEAN was constituted in 1967 with objective to
• The highest decision-making body of the WTO is promote economic co-operation in south-east Asia
the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets and to ensure economic stability.
every two years. • Its headquarter is in Jakarta, Indonesia.
• The WTO has 164 members and 23 observer • At present, 10 countries are members of ASEAN
governments. Indonesia, Philippines, Malaysia, Thailand,
• GATT was established after World War II in the Singapore, Brunei, Vietnam, Laos, Cambodia and
wake of new multilateral institutions formed- Myanmar.
notably the Bretton Woods institutions known as • In 1996, ASEAN gave advisory status to India.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
430

Economics

Practice Exercise
1. Which law states that for every 1% increase in Ans.4(D) Immediate Payment Service (IMPS)
the unemployment rate, a country's GDP will is an instant payment inter-bank electronic
be roughly an additional 2% lower than its funds transfer system in India. IMPS offers an
potential GDP? inter-bank electronic fund transfer service
(A) Okun's law (B) Phillips curve through mobile phones.
(C) Friedman’s law (D) Marshall’s law
5. In which year was the Skill India Mission
Ans.1(A) Okun's law can also pertain to how a started?
rise in unemployment affects gross domestic (A) 2014 (B) 2015
product (GDP), where a percentage increase in (C) 2016 (D) 2017
unemployment causes a 2% fall in GDP.
Arthur Okun was a Yale professor and Ans.5(B) Skill India campaign was launched
economist who studied the relationship by Prime Minister Narendra Modi
between unemployment and production. on 15 July 2015 to train over 40 crore people
in India in different skills by 2022.
2. In the year 1943, the United States established
an International Fund which is known as ___? 6. What is the full form of RTGS in banking?
(A) White plan (B) Keynes plan (A) Real Time Gap Settlement
(C) Walker plan (D) Smith plan (B) Real Time Gross Settlement
(C) Real Term Gap Settlement
Ans.2(B) In the year 1943, the United States (D) Real Time Gross Sell out
established an International Fund which is
known as Keynes plan Ans.6(B) RTGS is an acronym stands for Real
Time Gross Settlement. ... RTGS is used to
3. If the ________ firm has zero costs or only transfer money or securities from one bank to
has fixed cost, the quantity supplied in another on a real time and on gross basis.
equilibrium is given by the point where the RTGS systems are generally used for high-
marginal revenue is zero. value money transactions that require
(A) Perfect Competition immediate clearing.
(B) Monopoly
(C) Oligopoly 7. What is the full form of NEFT in banking
(D) Monopolistic Competition sector?
(A) National Electronic Fund Transparent
Ans.3(B) the Monopoly firm has zero costs or System
only has fixed cost, the quantity supplied in (B) National Electronics Funds Transfer
equilibrium is given by the point where the System
marginal revenue is zero (C) National Electronic Fund Transfer System
(D) National Electrical Fund Transparent
4. What is the full form of IMPS in banking System
sector?
(A) Intermediate Payment Service Ans.7(C) National Electronic Funds Transfer
(B) International Payment Service (NEFT) is an Indian system of electronic
(C) Initial Payment Service transfer of money from one bank to another. It
(D) Immediate Payment Service was introduced by Reserve Bank of India.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
431

8. Goods for which the quantity that a consumer (A) 1% (B) 2%

chooses, increases as the consumer's income (C) 3% (D) 4%
increases and decreases as the income
decreases are called? Ans.12(C) The 7th Central Pay Commission
(A) Inferior Goods (B) Normal Goods (7CPC), constituted in February 2014 to
(C) Complementary Goods review the principles and structure of
(D) Substitute Goods emoluments of all central government civilian
employees including defence forces in India,
Ans.8(C) Complementary Goods for which submitted its report on 19 November 2015. 7th
the quantity that a consumer chooses, pay commission has retained the rate of annual
increases as the consumer's income increases increment of 3%.'
and decreases as the income decreases are
called 13. The demand for an inferior good decrease
with ________ in the consumer's income.
9. In which year the Export Import (EXIM) (A) Increase (B) Decrease
Bank of India was set up? (C) Constant (D) Double
(A) 1980 (B) 1981
(C) 1982 (D) 1989 Ans.13(A) in economics, the demand for
inferior goods decreases as income increases
Ans.9(C) Export-Import Bank of India (EXIM or the economy improves. When this happens,
Bank) is a specialized financial institution, consumers will be more willing to spend on
wholly owned by Government of India, set up more costly substitutes.
in 1982, for financing, facilitating and
promoting foreign trade of India. 14. The Club of Rome is related to?
(A) Economic Development
10. Sukanya samriddhi yojana was launched by (B) Economic growth
Prime Minister Narendra modi on _________ (C) Sustainable Development
as a part of the Beti Bachao, Beti Padhao (D) Developed economy
campaign.
(A) 22 January 2015 (B) 15 July 2015 Ans.14(B) The Club of Rome is related to
(C) 8 November 2016 (D) 1 April 2018 Economic growth.

Ans.10(A) Sukanya samriddhi yojana was 15. Which of the following rate is charged by
launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi on banks to their most credit worthy customers?
22 January 2015 as a part of the Beti Bachao, (A) Prime Lending Rate
Beti Padhao campaign. (B) Statutory Liquidity Rate
(C) Bank Rate
11. Who takes the decision regarding the savings (D) Repo Rate
and loan activities in a Self-Help Group
(SHG)? Ans.15(A) A prime rate or prime lending rate
(A) Finance ministry is an interest rate used by banks, usually the
(B) Reserve Bank of India interest rate at which banks lend to favoured
(C) Members of group customers—those with good credit.
(D) Non-Government Organizations
16. Which of the following country is not the
Ans.11(C) Members of group takes the member of G-20 group?
decision regarding the savings and loan (A) India (B) Russia
activities in a Self-Help Group (SHG) (C) Australia (D) Uruguay

12. The 7th pay commission has retained the rate Ans.16(D) The members of the G20 are
of annual increment of _____. Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China,
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
432

France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Ans.20(C) An oligopoly is an industry which

Japan, Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, is dominated by a few firms. In this market,
Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the there are a few firms which sell homogeneous
United Kingdom, the United States and the or differentiated products.
European Union. Uruguay is not member of
G20. 21. Shishu, Kishor, and Tarun are the schemes of-
(A) Regional rural banks.
17. Deen Dayal Rasoi Yojana to provide food at (B) Micro Units development and refinance
only Rs. 5 has been launched on 6th April, Agency Limited (MUDRA).
2017 by which state? (C) Small Industries Development Bank of
(A) Chattisgarh (B) Mizoram India.
(C) Madhya Pradesh (D) Rajasthan (D) Industrial development bank of India.

Ans.17(C) Madhya Pradesh Government has Ans.21(B) Under 'Shishu' Scheme, lons. up to
launched Deendayal Antyodaya Rasoi Yojana Rs 50,000 will be sanctioned. Under 'Kishor'
will provide a full nutritious meal to poor Scheme, lons. above Rs 50,000 and up to Rs 5
people, workers and their families at Lakh will be provided. Under 'Tarun' category,
subsidised rate of Rs. 5. Rupees. loan of above Rs 5 Lakh and up to Rs 10 Lakh
will be sanctioned.
18. The headquarter of International Monetary
Fund (IMF) is located at? 22. Which one of the following nations is not a
(A) Washington, D.C. (B) New York member of the Eurasian Economic Union?
(C) Nairobi (D) Geneva (A) Armania (B) Russia
(C) Kazakhstan (D) Uzbekistan
Ans.18(A) The International Monetary Fund
(IMF), is an international organization Ans.22(D) The Eurasian Economic Union
headquartered in Washington, D.C., consisting (EAEU) is an economic union of states located
of 189 countries working to foster global in central and northern Asia and Eastern
monetary cooperation, secure financial Europe. member of Eurasian Economic Union
stability, facilitate international trade, promote Armenia Belarus Kazakhstan Kyrgyzstan
high employment and sustainable economic Russia. And Uzbekistan is not member of
growth, and reduce poverty. Eurasian Economic union.
19. Which amongst the following is not a 23. Suraj Dhara yojana is related to-
component of monetary policy in India? (A) Loan related
(A) Repo rate (B) Moral suasion (B) Exchange of seeds
(C) Credit Rationing (D) Public Debt (C) Vaccination
(D) Insurance related
Ans.19(B) Moral Suasion refers to a method
adopted by the central bank to persuade or Ans.23(B) Under the Raja Dhara Annapurna
convince the commercial banks to advance Yojana, the Department of Agriculture will
credit in accordance with the directives of the provide seeds to farmers at 75 percent subsidy.
central bank in the economic interest of the Small marginal farmers of SC / ST who are
country and it is not component of monetary unable to purchase seeds of improved varieties
policy. of food crops that produce mass production. it
is related to Exchange of seeds.
20. In which market form, a market or industry is
dominated by a few firms? 24. Which of the following is called GDP
(A) Perfect Competition (B) Monopoly Deflator?
(C) Oligopoly (D) None of these (A) Ratio of nominal to real GDP
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
433

(B) Ratio of nominal to real GNP organisation that aimed to bring about
(C) Ratio of nominal to real CPI economic integration among its member
(D) Ratio of real to nominal GNP states. it is established in 25 March 1957.

Ans.24(A) In economics, the GDP deflator 28. Dr. Ambedkar International Center signed
(implicit price deflator) is a measure of the Memorandum of Understanding on November
level of prices of all new, domestically 30, 2018, with which university to increase
produced, final goods and services in an research on socio-economic change and
economy in a year. It is Ratio of nominal to sustainable development?
real GDP. (A) IIM Ahmedabad
(B) Jawaharlal Nehru University
25. Which organization monitors the banks in (C) IIT Chennai
actually maintaining cash balance? (D) Bombay University
(A) State Bank of India
(B) Reserve Bank of India Ans.28(B) Dr Ambedkar International Centre
(C) Rural Bank of India (DAIC) and the Jawaharlal Nehru University
(D) Bank of India on November 30, 2018 signed a Memorandum
of Understanding (MoU) to facilitate and
Ans.25(B) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is enhance research activities and policy
the central bank of India, which was formulation aimed at socio-economic
established on April 1, 1935, under the transformation and sustainable development.
Reserve Bank of India Act. Reserve Bank of
India monitors the banks in actually 29. On the recommendation of Arun Kumar
maintaining cash balance. Agrawal Committee of the following, the
Central Government has set a formula of
26. Mahila Police volunteer scheme to be compensation for wrong ____ implant?
implemented in all states of the country has (A) liver (B) Hip
been launched on pilot basis firstly in which (C) Hair (D) All of the above
state?
(A) Delhi (B) Gujrat Ans.29(B) On the recommendation of Arun
(C) Haryana (D) Maharashtra Kumar Agrawal Committee of the following,
the Central Government has set a formula of
Ans.26(C) Mahila Police volunteer scheme compensation for wrong Hip.
All Chief Secretaries of States/UTs were
requested to adopt this initiative in their 30. Which among the following represents
respective States. Haryana was the first state plateau phase in population?
to adopt the initiative at Karnal and (A) Birth rate and Death rate are equal
Mahindergarh District on a pilot basis under (B) Birth rate and death rate are not equal
Nirbhaya Fund during the financial year 2016- (C) Birth rate is higher than death rate
2017. (D) Death rate is more than birth rate

27. When was the European Economic Ans.30(A) Birth rate and Death rate are equal
Community established? represents plateau phase in population.
(A) 1957 (B) 1958
(C) 1959 (D) 1960 31. Planned economy in India is based on which
system?
Ans.27(A) The European Economic (A) Capitalist system
Community (EEC) was a regional organisation (B) Traditional system
that aimed to bring about economic integration (C) Command system
among its member states. The European (D) Socialist system
Economic Community (EEC) was a regional
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434

Ans.31(D) A planned economy is a type of both volume and purpose of credit for which
economic system where investment, bank gives loans.
production and the allocation of capital goods
take place according to economy-wide 36. Which among the following is an example of
economic plans and production plans. In India, micro-economic variable?
planned economy is based on Socialist (A) National Income
System. (B) Aggregate Supply
(C) Employment
32. Which among the following comes under (D)Consumer's Equilibrium
primary sector of Indian Economy?
(A) Sugar Industry (B) Dairy Ans.36(D) Equilibrium means a state of
(C) Banking maximum satisfaction. Consumer's
(D) Transport of Goods equilibrium is a situation when he spends his
given income on the purchase of one or more
Ans.32(B) Primary Sector Agriculture, commodities in such a way that he gets
Mining, Fishing, Forestry, Dairy etc. are some maximum satisfaction and has no urge to
examples of this sector. Since most of the change this level of consumption, given the
natural products we get are from agriculture, prices of commodities. it is example of micro-
dairy, called Agriculture and allied sector. economic variable.

33. Which type of deposits gives the highest rate 37. Courier service comes under which sector?
of interest? (A) Primary (B) Secondary
(A) Current account (B) Fixed account (C) Tertiary
(C) Recurring account (D) None of these (D) Both Secondary and Tertiary

Ans.33(B) The rate of interest paid on fixed Ans.37(C) The tertiary industry is the segment
deposits is higher than the interest paid on of the economy that provides services to its
savings bank account. consumers, including a wide range of
businesses such as financial institutions,
34. Demand for a commodity refers to- schools and restaurants. It is also known as the
(A) The desire for that commodity. tertiary sector or service industry/sector.
(B) Need for that commodity.
(C) Quantity demand of that commodity. 38. Which among the following is not an
(D) Quantity demanded at a certain price instrument of fiscal policy?
during any particular period of time. (A) Taxation
(B) Public expenditure
Ans.34(D) Demand for a commodity refers to (C) Public debt
a quantity of the commodity demanded at a (D) Credit Rationing
certain price during any particular period of
time. Ans.38(D) Some of the major instruments of
fiscal policy are Budget, Taxation, Public
35. Which one of the following is not an Expenditure, Public Works, Public Debt, etc.
instrument of credit control in India? They consist of changes in government
(A) Rationing of credit revenues or rates of the tax structure so as to
(B) Direct Action encourage or restrict private expenditures on
(C) Open Market operations consumption and investment.
(D) Variable cost reserve ratios
39. IRDAI is an autonomous apex statutory body,
Ans.35(D) Variable Reserve Ratio (Cash which regulates and develops the insurance
Reserve Ratio) is aimed to control only industry in India. IRDAI’s headquarter at.
volume of credit (quantitative method) not
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(A) New Delhi (B) Mumbai system which is expected to bring accuracy in
(C) Kolkata (D) Hyderabad weather monitoring mechanism in the Indian
Navy. The Integrated Automatic Aviation
Ans.39(D) Insurance Regulatory and Meteorological System (IAAMS) was
Development Authority of India (IRDAI) launched at Rajali Air Station in Tamil Nadu.
IRDA is an apex statutory body that regulates
and develops insurance industry in India. It 44. The head office of Securities & exchange
was constituted as per provisions of Insurance board of India is located at?
Regulatory and Development Authority Act, (A) Delhi (B) Chennai
1999. It headquarter is in Hyderabad. (C) Mumbai (D) Kolkata

40. Which tax is collected by Panchayat? Ans.44(C) SEBI has its headquarters at the
(A) Sales Tax (B) Custom Duty business district of Bandra Kurla Complex in
(C) Land Revenue Mumbai, and has Northern, Eastern, Southern
(D) Tax on Local fairs and Western Regional Offices in New Delhi,
Kolkata, Chennai and Ahmedabad
Ans.40(D) Tax on Local fairs collected by respectively.
Panchayat.
45. A market in which there are large numbers of
41. Open market operations of a Central Bank are sellers of a particular product, but each seller
sale and purchase of sells somewhat differentiated but close
(A) Foreign Currencies products is termed as.
(B) Corporate Securities (A) Perfect Competition
(C) Trade bills (B) Monopoly
(D) Government Securities (C) Monopolistic Competition
(D) Oligopoly
Ans.41(D) Open market operations is the sale
and purchase of government securities and Ans.45(C) Thus monopolistic competition
treasury bills by RBI or the central bank of the refers to the market situation in which many
country. firms producing differentiated products
(closely related but no identical products)
42. Telecom gear maker Ericsson has signed a compete with each other for the sale of their
MoU with IIT ____ to jointly work on a products.
programme for 5G technology development in
India. 46. Fiscal Policy in India is formulated by.
(A) Kanpur (B) Roorkee (A) The reserve bank of India
(C) Delhi (D) Madras (B) The planning Commission
(C) The Finance Ministry
Ans.42(C) Ericsson and IIT Delhi have signed (D) SEBI
a memorandum of understanding (MoU) to
jointly roll out a '5G for India' programme, the Ans.46(C) In India, Fiscal Policy is
company said in a statement. formulated by the Ministry of Finance. Fiscal
policy is playing an important role on the
43. In which state Indian Navy has unveiled the economic and social front of a country.
Integrated Automatic Aviation Meteorological Traditionally, fiscal policy is concerned with
System (IAAMS)? the determination of state income and
(A) Andhra Pradesh (B) Kerala expenditure policy.
(C) Karnataka (D) Tamil Nadu
47. Which is the first bank established in India?
Ans.43(D) Navy Chief Admiral Sunil Lanba (A) Bank of Maharashtra
unveiled an integrated aviation meteorological (B) Bank of Hindustan
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436

(C) State bank of India introduce ATM in India was HSBC in 1987,
(D) Panjab national bank Mumbai. Central Bank of India was the first
public bank to introduce Credit card.
Ans.47(B) The first bank established in India
was Bank of Hindustan, which was started in 51. The first Bank with Limited Liability to be
1770. Second was The General Bank of India, managed by the Indian Board was _______.
which started in 1786. The oldest bank still in (A) Oudh Commercial Bank
existence in India is the State Bank of India. It (B) State bank of India
was originated in the Bank of Calcutta in June (C) Bank of India
1806. (D) Panjab national bank

48. When is the National Education Day Ans.51(A) Oudh Commercial Bank or Awadh
observed? Commercial Bank was an Indian bank
(A) 8 November (B) 9 November established in 1881 in Faizabad and operated
(C) 10 November (D) 11 November until 1958 when it failed. It was the first
commercial bank in India having limited
Ans.48(D) November 11 has been celebrated liability and an entirely Indian board of
as the National Education Day since 2008. directors.
The date has been chosen to commemorate the
birth anniversary of independent India's first 52. Oudh Commercial Bank was established in
education minister – Maulana Abul Kalam 1881 at ___________.
Azad. Maulana Abul Kalam Azad was born (A) Mathura (B) Allahabad
Abul Kalam Ghulam Muhiyuddin on (C) Noida (D) Faizabad
November 11, 1888.
Ans.52(D) Oudh Commercial Bank or Awadh
49. What term is used to define the total number Commercial Bank was an Indian bank
of people of different age groups in a region? established in 1881 in Faizabad and operated
(A) Sex ratio until 1958 when it failed. It was the first
(B) Age composition commercial bank in India having limited
(C) Adolescent population liability and an entirely Indian board of
(D) Occupational Structure directors.

Ans.49(B) Age distribution, also called Age 53. The first bank purely managed by Indians was
Composition, in population studies, the ________ established in Lahore in 1895.
proportionate numbers of persons in (A) Bank of Hindustan
successive age categories in a given (B) Punjab National Bank
population. ... A population with persistently (C) Oudh Commercial Bank
high fertility, for instance, has a large (D) Bank of Maharashtra
proportion of children and a small proportion
of aged persons. Ans.53(B) Punjab National Bank is the first
bank purely managed by Indians, which was
50. Which is the first bank to provide internet established in Lahore in 1895.
banking facility in India?
(A) ICICI (B) SBI 54. The first summit of the BRICS countries was
(C) Axis held in which country?
(D) Bank of Maharashtra (A) India (B) Russia
(C) Brazil (D) China
Ans.50(A) Bengal Bank, established in 1784,
was the first bank to introduce cheque system. Ans.54(B) 1st BRIC summit. The inaugural
ICICI Bank was the first Indian bank to BRIC summit took place in Yekaterinburg,
provide internet banking facility. First bank to Russia on June 16, 2009. The four heads of
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437

government from the BRIC countries Ans.58(C) It has now been decided that for
attended. investments in automatic route sectors,
requiring approval only on the matter of
55. BIMSTEC was formerly known by which investment being from country of concern,
name? FDI applications would be processed by
(A) BISTEC (B) BIMTEC Department of Industrial Policy & Promotion
(C) BIMSTC (D) BIMS (DIPP) for Government approval

Ans.55(A) The Bay of Bengal Initiative for 59. The head quarter of International Bank for
Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Reconstruction and Development is located
Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a regional at-
organization comprising seven Member States (A) Washington D.C. (B) Geneva
lying in the littoral and adjacent areas of the (C) New York (D) London
Bay of Bengal constituting a contiguous
regional unity. This sub-regional organization Ans.59(A) The International Bank for
came into being on 6 June 1997 through the Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is an
Bangkok Declaration. was formerly known international financial institution that offers
(BIS-TEC). loans to middle-income developing countries.
The IBRD is the first of five member
56. Which one of the following is a component of institutions that compose the World Bank
Food Security System? Group, and is headquartered in Washington,
(A) Buffer stock (B) Crop production D.C. in the United States.
(C) MGNREGA (D) Crop rotation
60. The International Centre for Settlement of
Ans.56(B) Crop production is the component Investment Disputes (ICSID) was established
of Food Security System. in-
(A) 1988 (B) 1977
57. What are true about RBI? (C) 1966 (D) 1955
(A) RBI can print unlimited currency.
(B) Currency is printed on the basis of Ans.60(C) The International Centre for
proportional reserve system. Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) is
(C) Currency is printed on the basis of an international arbitration institution
minimum reserve system which was adopted established in 1966 for legal dispute resolution
in 1956. and conciliation between international
(D) RBI is a non-statutory body. investors.

Ans.57(B) Printing of currency notes in India 61. When was the Prime Minister Skill
is done on the basis of Minimum Reserve Development Plan launched?
System (MRS). This system is applicable in (A) 21 March, 2015 (B) 21 April, 2015
India since 1956. According to this system, the (C) 21 May, 2015 (D) 15 July, 2015
Reserve Bank of India has to maintain assets
of at least 200 crore rupees all the times. Ans.61(D) The National Skill Development
Mission launched by the Ministry of Skill
58. In some areas FDI requires govt. approval Development and Entrepreneurship on July
from which of the following agency? 15, 2015, aims to create convergence across
(A) SEBI sectors and States in terms of skill training
(B) Department of Industrial Policy & activities.
Promotion
(C) Foreign Investment and Promotion Board. 62. The degree of monopoly power is to be
(D) RBI measured in terms of the firm’s.
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438

(A) Normal profit under perfect competition which can be

(B) Supernormal profit considered the socially ideal output. This gives
(C) Both normal and supernormal profit the measure of excess capacity which lies
(D) Selling price unutilized under imperfect competition.
Ans.62(B) Supernormal profit is defined as 66. Which one of the following is not a ‘canon of
extra profit above that level of normal profit. taxation’ according to Adam Smith?
Supernormal profit is also known as abnormal (A) Canon certainty
profit. Abnormal profit means there is an (B) Canon of simplicity
incentive for other firms to enter the industry. (C) Canon of convenience
(D) Canon of economy
63. Effective demand depends on.
(A) capital-output ratio Ans.66(B) It argues that the tax system should
(B) output-capital ratio be simple; otherwise there would be confusion
(C) Total expenditure and, worse still, corruption. During the war
(D) Supply price and after, certain taxes, e.g., on sale of cloth
and lather essential supplies in India resulted
Ans.63(D) Effective Demand is "the demand in corruption mainly because they lacked in
in which the consumer are able and willing to simplicity.
purchase at conceivable price" simply saying
if the product price is low more will buy; but 67. Who wrote the book 'Economic History of
if the rates go high then the quantity of the India'?
demand goes down. Keynes used two terms: (A) Ramesh Chandra Dutt
Aggregate Demand Function or Price and (B) Pherozeshah Mehta
Aggregate Supply Function or Price to explain (C) Dada bhai naoroji
the determination of effective demand. (D) Surendra Nath Banerjee
64. Who propounded the Innovation theory of Ans.67(A) Romesh Chunder Dutt (13 August
profits? 1848 – 30 November 1909) was an Indian
(A) J.A. Schumpeter (B) P.A. Samuelson civil servant, economic historian, writer, and
(C) Alfred Marshall (D) David Ricardo translator of Ramayana and Mahabharata. he
Ans.64(A) J.A. Schumpeter's Innovation wrote the book 'Economic History of India
Theory of Profit. Definition: The Innovation
Theory of Profit was proposed by Joseph. A. 68. The headquarter of International Finance
Schumpeter, who believed that an Corporation is situated at-
entrepreneur can earn economic profits by (A) New Delhi
introducing successful innovations (B) Washington D.C.
(C) New York
65. Under perfect competition, the industry does (D) London
not have any excess capacity because each
firm produces at the minimum point on its. Ans.68(B) The International Finance
(A) long-run marginal cost curve Corporation (IFC) is an organization
(B) long-run average cost curve established in 1956 by the World Bank Group
(C) long-run average variable cost curve with an aim of reducing poverty and creating
(D) long-run average revenue curve jobs in developing countries through the
development of private enterprises. The IFC
Ans.65(B) Under perfect competition, the has 184 countries as its members and it
firms operate at the minimum point of long- headquarter is located in Washington, D.C.
run average cost curve. In this way, the actual
long-run output of the firm under monopolistic 69. When two goods are completely
competition falls short of what is produced interchangeable, they are called.
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439

(A) Perfect Substitutes established on 15 July 1978 under the Deposit

(B) Perfect Complements Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation
(C) Giffen Goods Act, 1961 for the purpose of providing
(D) Veblen Goods insurance of deposits and guaranteeing of
credit facilities.
Ans.69(A) A perfect substitute is a situation
where two goods are viewed as identical. 73. For the installation of Aluminium plants in
Perfect substitutes are commodities such that India, the minimum required parameter other
it is impossible to build a brand whereby than bauxite is ____.
customers prefer your product. Producers of a (A) Coke (B) Electricity
perfect substitute must except a market price (C) Labour (D) Market
and typically have no influence on the price.
Ans.73(B) For the installation of Aluminium
70. Gadgil Committee is associated with which plants in India, the minimum required
sector? parameter other than bauxite is Electricity.
(A) Lead Banking System
(B) Reforms in Insurance Sector 74. Which of the animal on the insignia in the
(C) Income Distribution RBI?
(D) Tax Reforms (A) Lion (B) Tiger
(C) Panther (D) Elephant
Ans.70(A) The Lead Bank Scheme was
introduced in 1969 to provide lead roles to Ans.74(B) The logo of Reserve Bank Of India
individual banks (both in public sector and contains Royal Bengal Tiger standing in front
private sector) for the districts allotted to of Palm Tree entrenched by on the top and
them. The Lead Bank Scheme was introduced 'Reserve Bank Of India' at the bottom
by RBI on the basis of the recommendations
of both the Gadgil Study Group and Banker’s 75. If the ______ firm has zero costs or only has
Committee. fixed cost, the quantity supplied in
equilibrium is given by the point where the
71. The business in Stock Market and other marginal revenue is zero.
securities markets is regulated by: (A) Perfect Competition (B) Monopoly
(A) Stock and Exchange Bank of India. (C) Oligopoly
(B) Securities and Exchange Board of India (D) Monopolistic Competition
(C) State and Exchange bank of India Ans.75(B) Monopoly firm has zero costs or
(D) Sole Trade and Exchange Bank of India only has fixed cost, the quantity supplied in
equilibrium is given by the point where the
Ans.71(A) The National Stock Exchange of marginal revenue is zero.
India Limited (NSE) is the leading stock
exchange of India, located in Mumbai. The 76. The short-run marginal cost curve is _______
NSE was established in 1992. Securities and shaped.
Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the (A) U (B) V
Regulator for the Securities market (C) X (D) W
72. Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Ans.76(A) The short run marginal cost curve
Corporation was established on- is ‘U’ shaped because initially the marginal
(A) 1978 (B) 1960 cost falls but ultimately it rises. It is based
(C) 1956 (D) 1987 upon the law of variable proportions.

Ans.72(A) Deposit Insurance and Credit 77. What is MCX-SX?

Guarantee Corporation is a wholly owned (A) Online trading market dealing only in
subsidiary of Reserve Bank of India. It was Gold.
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(B) A new life insurance company (A) Balance of Payment (B) Fiscal Deficit
(C) This is online banking system issued by (C) Current Account Deficit
RBI (D) Balance of trade
(D) This is Third national stock exchange in
India Ans.81(A) The balance of payments (BOP) is
a statement of all transactions made between
Ans.77(D) National Stock Exchange of India entities in one country and the rest of the
or in short NSE happens to be India's largest world over a defined period of time, such as a
Stock Exchange and World's third largest quarter or a year.
stock exchange
82. The government proposed the merger of
78. Open market operations are related to - which of the three banks aimed at creating the
(A) Fiscal policy country’s third-biggest lender?
(B) Monetary policy (A) Bank of Baroda, Vijaya Bank and Dena
(C) Small Weaver policy Bank
(D) Agricultural policy (B) Bank of India, Axis bank and Syndicate
bank
Ans.78(B) Open Market Operations is when (C) Bank of Maharashtra, HDFC bank and
the RBI involves itself directly and buys or ICICI bank
sells short-term securities in the open market. (D) Panjab national bank, Bank of India and
This is a direct and effective way to increase Vijaya bank
or decrease the supply of money in the market.
It also has a Monetary policy direct effect on Ans.82(A) The government proposed the
the ongoing rate of interest in the market. merger of three banks — Bank of Baroda,
Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank —aimed at
79. Karl Marx's book Das capital was published creating the country's third-biggest lender.
in which year?
(A) 1866 (B) 1867 83. Which is India's place in the Human
(C) 1868 (D) 1869 Development Index released in 2019 by
U.N.D.P.?
Ans.79(B) Das Kapital, also called Capital. A (A) 129 (B) 133
Critique of Political Economy is a (C) 135 (D) 138
foundational theoretical text in materialist
philosophy, economics and politics by Karl Ans.83(A) India climbed one spot to 129
Marx. published in Berlin in 1867. among 189 countries in the 2019 human
development index, according to a report
80. Who is the chairman of the 15th Finance released by the United Nations Development
Commission? Programme (UNDP) on December 9. In 2018,
(A) Nand Kishore Singh (B) A. M. Khusro India's human development index (HDI) value
(C) Dr. Vijay L. Kelkar (D) Dr. Y. V. Reddy of 0.647 had put it at 130 rank

Ans.80(A) 15th Finance Commission Nand 84. The Bay of Bengal Initiative for Multi-
Kishore Singh was appointed as the Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation
commission's chairman, with its full-time is a subregional grouping comprising seven
members being Shaktikanta Das and Anoop countries of South Asia and South East Asia.
Singh and its part-time members being Where is its headquarters?
Ramesh Chand and Ashok Lahiri. (A) Dhaka (B) New Delhi
(C) Kathmandu (D) Mumbai
81. What is the record of all economic
transactions of a country in a particular period Ans.84(A) The Bay of Bengal Initiative for
called? Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic
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Cooperation (BIMSTEC) is a sub-regional the domestic industry expressing concerns

group of seven countries in South Asia and over the agreement disproportionately
South East Asia lying in the littoral and favouring that country
adjacent areas of the Bay of Bengal viz.
Bangladesh, India, Myanmar, Sri Lanka, 88. Which Committee recommended
Thailand, Bhutan and Nepal. and headquarters discontinuance of a separate Railway Budget?
Dhaka Bangladesh (A) Committee headed by Shri Arvind
Panagariya
85. NEFT is used for Electronic Transfer of (B) Committee headed by Shri Suresh Prabhu
Funds between any bank branch to any (C) Committee headed by Shri Arvind
individual having an account with any other Subramanian
bank branch. What is the full form of NEFT? (D) Committee headed by Shri Bibek Debroy
(A) Networked Electronic Funds Transfer,
MICR Code. Ans.88(D) Bibek Debroy Committee
(B) Networked Electronic Funds Transfer, IFS
Code. 89. Which of the following is expected to be
(C) National Electronic Funds Transfer, boosted by Project 'Chaman'?
MICR Code. (A) Fisheries (B) Crop Insurance
(D) National Electronic Funds Transfer, IFS (C) Soil Research (D) Horticulture
Code.
Ans.89(D) Union Agriculture and Farmers
Ans.85(D) National Electronic Funds Transfer Welfare Minister, Shri Radha Mohan Singh
(NEFT) is a nation-wide payment system said that in order to provide strategic
facilitating one-to-one funds transfer. Under development to the horticulture sector, so as to
this Scheme, individuals can electronically increase farmers income, a pioneer project
transfer funds from any bank branch to any called CHAMAN, has been launched three
individual having an account with any other years back by the Government.
bank branch in the country participating in the
Scheme 90. NITI Aayog has been formed to replace which
of the following institution?
86. To address consumer queries on digital (A) Planning Commission
payments, which toll-free helpline number did (B) Finance Commission
the Government of India launch in 2017? (C) DRDO
(A) 109 (B) 911 (D) ISRO
(C) 14444 (D) 18888
Ans.86(C) 14444 Toll-Free Helpline for Ans.90(A) In accordance with a key
Digital Payments Launched. The Government announcement made by Prime Minister
of India, in collaboration with telecom and IT Narendra Modi on Independence Day, the
industry, has launched a toll-free helpline - Union Government today established NITI
14444 - to address consumer queries on digital Aayog (National Institution for Transforming
payments on 5th Jan 2017. India), as replacement for the Planning
Commission.
87. Which of the following nations and India
upgraded their existing Comprehensive 91. Which one of the following issues the 'Global
Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) in Economic Prospects' report periodically?
2018? (A) The Asian Development Bank
(A) Indonesia (B) South Korea (B) The European Bank for Reconstruction
(C) Iceland (D) Taiwan and Development
(C) The US Federal Reserve Bank
Ans.87(B) India has decided to upgrade its (D) The World Bank
existing trade pact with South Korea, despite
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Ans.91(D) Global Economic Prospects is a 1960s. It is operated by Steel Authority of

World Bank Group report that examines India.
global economic developments, with a special
focus on developing countries, on a semi- 95. Rourkela steel plant is located in which state?
annual basis (in January and June). First (A) Maharashtra (B) Odisha
published in 1998, the report provides both (C) Jharkhand (D) Karnataka
historical data and economic forecasts.
Ans.95(B) Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP), in
92. When the Reserve Bank of India reduces the Rourkela, Odisha is the first integrated steel
Statutory Liquidity Ratio by 50 basis points, plant in the public sector in India. It was set up
which of the following is likely to happen? with West Germany collaboration with an
(A) India's GDP growth rate increases installed capacity of 1 million tonnes in the
drastically 1960s.
(B) Foreign Institutional Investors may bring
more capital into our country 96. Rourkela Steel Plant was established in which
(C) Scheduled Commercial Banks may cut year?
their lending rates (A) 1950 (B) 1955
(D) It may drastically reduce the liquidity to (C) 1959 (D) 1964
the banking system
Ans.96(B) One of the largest steel plants of
Ans.92(C) Scheduled Commercial Banks may the Steel Authority of India Limited is situated
cut their lending rates. if When the Reserve here. It is surrounded by a range of hills and
Bank of India reduces the Statutory Liquidity encircled by rivers. It is situated in an area
Ratio by 50 basis points, with the richest deposit of mineral wealth in
Orissa. It came into prominence in 1955, with
93. Which of the following is the maximum the establishment of the Rourkela Steel Plant.
population density in the continent?
(A) Africa (B) Europe 97. Bhilai Steel Plant is situated in which state?
(C) North America (D) Asia (A) Uttar Pradesh (B) Jharkhand
(C) Chhattisgarh (D) West Bengal
Ans.93(D) Asia is the most populated
continent in the world with a population of Ans.97(C) The Bhilai Steel Plant (BSP),
approximately 4.5 billion. About 59.55% of located in Bhilai, in the Indian state of
the world’s population lives in Asia. Asia Chhattisgarh, is India's first and main producer
covers an area of 17,212,000 square miles. of steel rails, as well as a major producer of
The continents population density is 246.11 wide steel plates and other steel products.
per square mile.
98. With the help of which country, the Bhilai
94. Rourkela steel plant was developed in Steel Plant was established and when?
collaboration with which of the following (A) Germany, 1952 (B) U.K., 1955
countries? (C) Japan, 1957 (D) Russia, 1955
(A) Russia
(B) Japan Ans.98(D) Bhilai steel plant was setup with
(C) Germany the help of USSR now Russia in 1955. The
(D) United Kingdom government of India and the USSR entered
into an agreement, which was signed in New
Ans.94(C) Rourkela Steel Plant (RSP), in delhi on 2 March 1955, for the establishment
Rourkela, Odisha is the first integrated steel of an integrated iron and steel works at Bhilai
plant in the public sector in India. It was set up with an initial capacity of one million tons of
with West Germany collaboration with an steel ingot.
installed capacity of 1 million tonnes in the
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99. Bokaro Steel Plant was established in 103. Who recently launched 'Jan Dhan Darshak'
collaboration with which country? Mobile App?
(A) Germany (B) Russia (A) Narendra Modi
(C) U.S.A. (D) Canada (B) Ramnath Kovind
(C) Rajnath Singh
Ans.99(B) Bokaro Steel Plant (BSP) is located (D) Arun Jaitley
in the Bokaro district of Jharkhand. It is the
fourth integrated public sector steel plant in Ans.103(D) Finance Minister Arun Jaitley has
India built with Soviet help. It was launched Mobile Application Jan Dhan
incorporated as a limited company in 1964. It Darshak as a Part of Financial Inclusion. This
was later merged with the state-owned Steel App will provide guidance to the common
Authority of India Limited (SAIL). people in locating a financial service touch
point at a given location in the country.
100. In which of the following places was the first
nuclear power station established? 104. Which state has the highest average per capita
(A) Kalpakkam income in India?
(B) Ranapratap Sagar (A) Kerala (B) Maharashtra
(C) Narora (C) Goa (D) Rajasthan
(D) Tarapur
Ans.104(C) Goa has the highest per capita
Ans.100(D) The Tarapur Atomic Power income in India while Bihar has the lowest of
Station (TAPS) located near Boisar, only Rs 24,681.
Maharashtra, is the oldest nuclear power plant
in India. The power station comprises two 105. Which state has the lowest average per capita
120MW boiling water reactor (BWR) units income in India?
commissioned in October 1969 and two (A) Chhattisgarh (B) Bihar
pressurised heavy water reactor (PHWR) units (C) Uttar Pradesh (D) Odisha
commissioned between Ans.105(B) According to the latest figures
released by Government – Goa leads the
101. Who among the following suggested the country with per capita income of Rs.
'Rolling Plan'? 1,92,652/-, while Bihar has the lowest with a
(A) John W. Miller (B) D. T. Lakdawala per capita income of only Rs. 24,681/-. An
(C) Gunnar Myrdal average Goan earns 6 times more than an
(D) Sukhmay Chakarborty average Bihari!
Ans.101(C) Rolling Plans. The Janta 106. When was the first economic census done in
Government terminated the fifth five-year plan India by Central Statistical Organization?
in 1977-78 and launched its own sixth five- (A) 1942 (B) 1977
year plan for period 1978-83 and called it a (C) 1991 (D) 2013
Rolling Plan suggested by Gunnar Myrdal.
Ans.106(B) In 1976, Government of India
102. Why was 'Tendulkar Committee' constituted? launched a plan scheme called Economic
(A) To measure unemployment Census and Surveys. In 1977 Central
(B) To measure growth rate Statistical Organisation conducted First
(C) To measure poverty economic census in collaboration with the
(D) To measure agricultural produce Directorate of Economics & Statistics (DES)
in the States/Union Territories.
Ans.102(C) A committee was formed by
government of India in 2005, with Tendulkar 107. The biggest feature of the ____________
as chairman to 'report on methodology of economy is that private and public sector
estimation of poverty'. work together in this kind of economy?
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(A) Mixed (B) Socialist (C) 1936 (D) 1923

(C) Capitalist (D) All of the above
Ans.111(D) During British rule, the first radio
Ans.107(D) Advantages of a Mixed Economic programme was broadcast in July 1923 by the
System Allows capitalism and socialism to Radio Club of Mumbai. Four months later,
coexist: A mixed economic system allows Calcutta Radio Club also went on air. The
capitalism and socialism to coexist and private Indian Broadcasting Company Ltd.
function by segregating the roles of the (IBC) came into existence in July 1927, when
government and the private sector. it started functioning with two radio stations in
Mumbai and Calcutta.
108. By which constitution amendment act
Economically Weaker Sections among 112. Economics is the science of human activities
General Category candidates in government considered as an Endeavour to reach the stage
jobs and educational institutions get 10% of wantlessness.
reservation? (A) J.K. Mehta (B) Adam Smith
(A) 103rd Constitution Amendment Act, 2019 (C) Marshall (D) Samuelson
(B) 130th Constitution Amendment Act, 2019
(C) 113th Constitution Amendment Act, 2019 Ans.112(A) This proposes to be a tentative
(D) 132th Constitution Amendment Act, 2019 presentation of a significant contribution of
the economist J. K. Mehtra, which is on the
Ans.108(A) 103 constitution amendment act nature of wants and wantlessness.
Economically Weaker Sections among
General Category candidates in government 113. Which of the following is the method of
jobs and educational institutions get 10% calculating national income?
reservation. (A) Production calculation method
(B) Income calculation method
109. The save Public sector banks day was (C) Expenditure calculation method
celebrated on which date in India? (D) All of the above
(A) 15 July (B) 19 July
(C) 24 July (D) 29 July Ans.113(A) The income method of calculating
national income focuses on the production
Ans.109(B) The United Forum of Bank perspective. Now production of goods and
Unions has decided to observe July 19, the services involves the use of land, labour,
48th anniversary of nationalisation of major capital, and so on. And if we consider these
banks, as 'Save public sector banks' day. factors of production, income is generated via
rent, wages and salaries, profits, and interest.
110. Commercial paper is source of credit for The expenditure method of calculating
which one of the following- national income focuses on the expenditures.
(A) Corporate Industry (B) Small Industry Now expenditure refers to all the purchases
(C) Commercial Bank (D) Foreign Bank made by residents, government, or business
enterprises.
Ans.110(A) Commercial paper is a common
form of unsecured, short-term debt issued by a 114. In which of the following years was the
corporate industry. Commercial paper is Antyodaya Anna Yojana (AAY) launched?
typically issued for the financing of payroll, (A) 2000 (B) 2005
accounts payable, inventories, and meeting (C) 2010 (D) 2015
other short-term liabilities.
Ans.114(A) This section of the population can
111. In which of the following years was the first be called as “hungry”. In order to make TPDS
radio program broadcast? more focused and targeted towards this
(A) 1911 (B) 1927 category of population, the “Antyodaya Anna
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Yojana” (AAY) was launched in December, 119. What is the currency of China?
2000 for one crore poorest of the poor (A) Dinar (B) Yuan Renminbi
families. (C) Dollar (D) Pound

115. Which fibre is called the ‘Golden Fibre’? Ans.119(B) The Chinese Yuan, also known as
(A) Cotton (B) Jute Renminbi, is used throughout in mainland
(C) Rayon (D) Wool China, while in Hong Kong and Macau, the
Hong Kong dollar and pataca are respectively
Ans.115(B) Jute is known as the Golden used. “Renminbi,” which translates to
Fibre. That's an appropriate name for the “people's money,” is the official currency of
yellowish brown, shiny, natural vegetable China.
fibre produced from plants of genus
Corchorus. The importance and use of jute 120. The new symbol of Indian rupee is a blend of
spread to different parts of the world, where it (A) Persian R and Roman R
is called hessian fibre. (B) Roman R and Pound
(C) Devanagiri Ra and Dollar
116. Which of the following banks has the largest (D) Devanagiri Ra and Roman R
branch in India?
(A) Hong Kong and Shanghai Banking Ans.120(D) The Indian rupee will soon have a
Corporation. unique symbol -- a blend of the Devanagri 'Ra'
(B) City Bank. and Roman 'R' -- joining elite currencies like
(C) Standard chartered bank. the US dollar, euro, British pound and
(D) Deutsche Bank. Japanese yen in having a distinct identity.

Ans.116(B) Standard Chartered is the largest 121. Santiago is the capital of -

on that count with 100 branches, while (A) Congo (B) Cuba
Citibank is India's third largest foreign bank in (C) Croatia (D) Chile
terms of branches, with 45 operational
Ans.121(D) Santiago also known as Santiago
117. International AIDS day is celebrated on? de Chile, is the capital and largest city of Chile
(A) 1st December (B) 1st November as well as one of the largest cities in the
(C) 11th December (D) 11th November Americas. It is the center of Chile's largest and
most densely populated conurbation, the
Ans.117(A) 1988. World AIDS Day, Santiago Metropolitan Region, whose total
designated on 1 December every year since population is 7 million.
1988, is an international day dedicated to
raising awareness of the AIDS pandemic 122. Which is the primary sector lending by banks
caused by the spread of HIV infection and in India?
mourning those who have died of the disease (A) Agricultural sector
(B) Small (micro) and medium enterprises
118. Name the 29th state of India formed in 2014. (C) Weaker section
(A) Uttarakhand (B) Chhattisgarh (D) All of the above
(C) Telangana (D) Odisha
Ans.122(B) Priority Sector Lending is an
Ans.118(C) The bill receives the assent of the important role given by the Reserve Bank of
President and published in the gazette on 1 India (RBI) to all scheduled banks for
March 2014. On 4 March 2014 the providing a specified portion of the bank
Government of India declares 2 June 2014 the lending to few critical sectors like agriculture
Telangana Formation Day. Telangana is the and allied activities, micro and small
29th state of the Union of India with enterprises, poor people for housing.
Hyderabad as its capital.
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123. Sunder Rajan committee is related to which of more than 51 per cent of production,
the following? according to World Steel Association (world
(A) Cotton clothes steel).
(B) Petroleum
(C) Agricultural sector 127. World Steel Association is a non-profit
(D) Public distribution system organization; its headquarters is located in-
(A) Beijing (B) New Delhi
Ans.123(B) In 1994, Shri Sundararajan was (C) New York (D) Brussels
appointed as Convenor of the Study Group for
developing a comprehensive long-term Ans.127(D) Brussels, Belgium Members
perspective plan for the Hydrocarbon Sector in represent around 85% of global steel
India for meeting the challenges that would production. It is a non-profit organisation with
emerge by the year 2010. The report of the its headquarters in Brussels, Belgium and a
Study Group, popularly known as the second office in Beijing, China, whose
“Sundararajan Committee Report”, Petroleum purpose is to promote steel and the steel
Sector was very widely appreciated. industry to customers, the industry, media and
the general public.
124. In which year Special Economic Zones Act
was passed by the Parliament of India? 128. The Union Cabinet has approved the
(A) 2005 (B) 2009 establishment of the GST Appellate Tribunal,
(C) 2014 (D) 2019 which will act as the first shared forum to
settle disputes between-
Ans.124(A) The Special Economic Zones Act, (A) Central and state
2005, was passed by Parliament in May, 2005 (B) Ministry of Finance and Home Affairs
which received Presidential assent on the 23rd (C) Both
of June, 2005. (D) None

125. When was the Broadcast Audience Research Ans.128(D) Goods and Services Tax
Council of India Established? Appellate Tribunal is the forum of second
(A) 2005 (B) 2010 appeal in GST laws and the first common
(C) 2015 (D) 2018 forum of dispute resolution between Centre
and States. The appeals against the orders in
Ans.125(B) Broadcast Audience Research first appeals issued by the Appellate
Council (BARC) India is a joint industry body Authorities under the Central and State GST
founded by stakeholder bodies that represent Acts lie before the GST Appellate Tribunal,
Broadcasters (IBF), Advertisers (ISA) and which is common under the Central as well as
Advertising & Media Agencies (AAAI). It is State GST Acts.
also the world's largest televison measurement
science industry-body. The company was 129. The Bloomberg Innovation Index is India's
incorporated in 2010 and is based in Mumbai, place in the list of the most innovative
India. countries in 2019?
(A) 45th (B) 49th
126. According to the World Steel Association (C) 52nd (D) 54th
report, which is the largest producer of crude
steel. Ans.129(C) India improved its ranking in the
(A) India (B) America global innovation index by five places to 52nd
(C) China (D) Japan in 2019 from 57th position last year, according
to a report released. Commerce and Industry
Ans.126(C) India has world's second largest Minister Piyush Goyal released the Global
steel producing country, while China is the Innovation Index.
largest producer of crude steel accounting for
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130. Workers from unorganized sector will earn to co-ordinate the research work done on this
___ rupees after the age of 60 years under the crop in different States of the country.
scheme of PM shramyogi maan dhan yojana?
(A) 2000 (B) 3000 134. Where is the Central Food Technological
(C) 5000 (D) 6000 Research Institute situated?
(A) Bangaluru (B) Karnal
Ans.130(B) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi (C) Mysore (D) Lucknow
Maan-Dhan (PMSYM) schem covering
unorganised sector workers of age between 18 Ans.134(C) Mysore CSIR-Central Food
and 40 years, making them eligible for a Technological Research Institute (CSIR-
minimum monthly pension of Rs 3,000 after CFTRI), is one of the constituent laboratory
the age of 60 in lieu of contributions made under the aegis of the Council of Scientific
under the scheme and Industrial Research (CSIR). It was opened
on 21 October 1950 in Mysore, Karnataka.
131. The Central Government is introducing the
Kisan Samman Nidhi Yojana. In this, 135. Which plan gave emphasis on removal of
government will give -_____ rupees annually poverty for the first time?
to small and marginal farmers. (A) Fourth (B) Fifth
(A) 2 thousand (B) 3 thousand (C) Sixth (D) Seventh
(C) 5 thousand (D) 6 thousand
Ans.135(B) The Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–
Ans.131(D) Prime Minister Narendra Modi 1979) laid stress on employment, poverty
was launch the Rs 75,000-crore Pradhan alleviation, and justice. The plan also focused
Mantri Kisan Samman Nidhi (PM-KISAN) on self-reliance in agricultural production and
scheme in Gorakhpur, Uttar Pradesh, by defence.
transferring the first instalment of Rs 2,000
each to over one crore farmers 136. The period of the eleventh five-year plan is:
(A) 2004 to 2009 (B) 2006 to 2011
132. Where the first Agriculture University of (C) 2007 to 2012 (D) 2009 to 2014
India was established?
(A) Faizabad (B) Pantnagar Ans.136(C) Eleventh Five Year Plan: Its
(C) Kanpur (D) Allahabad duration was from 2007 to 2012. It was
prepared by the C. Rangarajan. Its main theme
Ans.132(B) The first state agricultural was “faster and more inclusive growth” Its
university of India, G. B. Pant University of growth rate target was 8.1% but it achieved
Agriculture and Technology, was established only 7.9%
in Pantnagar (then in Uttar Pradesh, now in
Uttarakhand). It was inaugurated by the first 137. The second five-year plan was based on-
Prime Minister of India Jawaharlal Nehru on (A) Harrod- Domar Model.
17 November 1960. (B) Mahalanobis Model.
(C) Solow Growth Model.
133. Where is the Indian Sugarcane Research (D) Vakil and Brahmananda’s Wage –Goods
Institute situated? Model.
(A) New Delhi (B) Varanasi Ans.137(B) The Second Plan focused on the
(C) Kanpur (D) Lucknow development of the public sector and "rapid
Industrialisation". The plan followed the
Ans.133(D) The Indian Institute of Sugarcane Mahalanobis model, an economic
Research (IISR), Lucknow was established in development model developed by the Indian
1952 by Indian Central Sugarcane Committee statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in
for conducting researches on fundamental and 1953.
applied aspects of sugarcane culture as well as
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138. Which one of the following in NOT correct? 142. Which date is celebrated Central Excise day?
(A) First Five-year plan -1951-56 (A) 23th January (B) 24th February
(B) Second Five-year plan-1956-61 (C) 25th March (D) 22th April
(C) Third Five-year plan – 1961-66
(D) Fourth five-year plan – 1966-71 Ans.142(B) The Central Excise Day is
observed every year in India on February 24.
Ans.138(D) Fourth Five Year Plan in Plan
Holiday: The duration of plan holiday was 143. Who wrote the book ‘An Essay on the Nature
from 1966 to 1969. The main reason behind and Significance of Economic Science?’
the plan holiday was the Indo-Pakistan war & (A) Keynes (B) Marshall
failure of third plan. During this plan annual (C) Smith (D) Robins
plans were made and equal priority was given
to agriculture its allied sectors and the industry Ans.143(D) 'An Essay on the Nature' and
sector. 'Significance of Economic Science; by Lionel
Robbins first appeared in 1932 as an
139. According to the 2011 Census report, which outstanding English-language statement of the
state has the lowest literacy rate? Misesian view of economic method.
(A) Haryana (B) Bihar
(C) Arunachal Pradesh (D) Madhya Pradesh 144. Who was the first administrator-statesman to
attempt planning as a means for economic
Ans.139(B) India's literacy rate is at 74.04%. development?
Kerala is the most literate state in India, with (A) Sir CP Ramaswami Aiyyar
93.91% literacy. Bihar is the least literate state (B) M Viswesvarayya
in India, with a literacy of 63.82%. (C) VT Krishnamachari
(D) C Rajagopalachari
140. In which city would you find La Sagrada
Familia? Ans.144(B) M. Visvesvaraya was the first
(A) Barcelona (B) Morocco administrator-statesman who introduced the
(C) Vatican City (D) Canada concept of planning in economic development
of a country.
Ans.140(A) The Basílica de la Sagrada
Família, Spanish: Basílica de la Sagrada 145. Which of the following is the basic
Familia, also known as the Sagrada Família, characteristic of Oligopoly?
is a large unfinished Roman Catholic minor (A) A few sellers, one buyer
basilica in Barcelona, Catalonia, Spain. (B) A few sellers, many buyers
(C) A few sellers, a few buyers
141. The Foreign Exchange Reserve of India are (D) Many sellers, a few buyers
kept in the custody of ______.
(A) Swiss Bank Ans.145(B) In an Oligopoly market there are
(B) International Monetary Fund few sellers and many buyers. As a result some
(C) Finance ministry of these firms enjoys an extensive control over
(D) Reserve Bank of India the price of the product. Oligopoly is closest to
monopoly.
Ans.141(D) The reserves are managed by the
Reserve Bank of India for the Indian 146. The aim of which of the Five-Year Plans was
government and the main component is to correct the disequilibrium in the economy?
foreign currency assets. Foreign-exchange (A) First Five Year Plan
reserves act as the first line of defense for (B) Second Five Year Plan
India in case of economic slowdown, but (C) Third Five Year Plan
acquisition of reserves has its own costs. (D) Fourth Five Year Plan
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Ans.146(A) First Five Year Plan of India

(1951-56) India had to recover from the Ans.150(C) National Bank for Agriculture
partition and the disequilibrium in the and Rural Development (NABARD) is an
economy due to the Second World War. The Apex Development Financial Institution in
First Plan, therefore, had the objectives of India. The Bank has been entrusted with
rehabilitating refugees, agricultural "matters concerning Policy Planning and
development, and self-sufficiency in food Operations in the field of credit for
along with controlling inflation. Agriculture and other Economic activities in
Rural areas in India".
147. At which of the following places was the
mining of coal started in 1774? 151. Which of the following estimates the National
(A) Chhindwara (B) Dhanbad Income in India?
(C) Ranchi (D) Raniganj (A) Central Statistical Organization
(B) National Income Committee
Ans.147(D) Raniganj coalmine was the first (C) Planning commission
Indian coal mine, which opened in 1774 after (D) Reserve Bank of India
a John Sumner and Suetonius Grant Heatly of
the British East India Company acquired a Ans.151(A) The CSO was set up in the
license for mining activities. The mine was cabinet secretariat on 2 May 1951 as a part of
nationalized in 1974 and the Coal Mines the cabinet Secretariat and having co-
Authority of India took over. ordinating and advisory functions. At that time
the name of CSO was Central Statistical
148. When, for the first time, did the Prime Institute. cso estimates the National Income in
Minister of India announce the 20-point India.
Economic Programme?
(A) 1973 (B) 1974 152. Which industry employs the largest number of
(C) 1975 (D) 1976 women in India?
(A) Tea (B) Textile
Ans.148(C) The twenty-point programme was (C) Jute (D) Coal
launched in 1975. It was followed from 1974
to 1979. The Minimum Needs Programme Ans.152(A) In the present days women in
(MNP) was introduced in the first year of the India are working in almost all sectors in our
Fifth Five-Year Plan (1974–78). country. But the tea industries are the biggest
women employing industries in our country.
149. People belonging to what age group are These tea industries employ thousands of
eligible for training under TRYSEM scheme? women for tea plant harvesting and cutting
(A) 18-35 (B) 25-40 works.
(C) 18-50 (D) 18-25
153. Which among the following treaties provided
Ans.149(A) The Scheme of TRYSEM, a for a common currency for the member
facilitating part of IRDP, aims at providing countries of European Community?
basic technical and entrepreneurial skills to the (A) Brussels Treaty
rural poor in the age group of 18 to 35 years to (B) Geneva Convention
allow them to take up income generating (C) Maastricht Treaty
activities. (D) Treaty of Versailles

150. Which of the following organizations looks Ans.153(C) The Maastricht Treaty is the
after the credit needs of agriculture and rural treaty that is responsible for the creation of the
development in India? European Union, signed in Maastricht, a city
(A) FCI (B) IDBI in the Netherlands. The Maastricht Treaty was
(C) NABARD (D) ICAR signed on February 7, 1992, by the leaders of
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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12 member nations, and it reflected the serious investors. The agreement is applicable to all
intentions of all countries to create a common members of the World Trade Organisation
economic and monetary union. (WTO). and WTO old name was GATT.
154. With which aspect of commerce are ‘Bulls and
Bears’ associated? 158. During which Five Year Plan was the annual
(A) Foreign Trade growth rate of National Income the lowest?
(B) Stock Exchange market (A) Second plan (B) Third plan
(C) Banking (C) Fifth plan (D) Sixth plan
(D) International finance
Ans.158(B) During third plan Five Year Plan
Ans.154(B) The bull depicts investors who are was the annual growth rate of National Income
optimistic about future prospects of the stock the lowest.
market and believe an upward trending market
is on. The polar opposite is the bear; an 159. Economic planning is an essential feature of-
investor who is convinced that the market is (A) Capitalist economy
headed for a fall. (B) Socialist economy
(C) Mixed economy
155. Which of the following taxes is a progressive (D) Dual economy
tax?
(A) Income tax (B) Custom tax Ans.159(B) Under socialism, government
(C) Sales tax (D) Excise duty fixes certain objectives. In order to achieve
these objectives, government adopts economic
Ans.155(C) a wealth or property tax, a sales planning. All types of decisions regarding the
tax on luxury goods, or the exemption of sales central problems of an economy are taken in
taxes on basic necessities, may be described as the economic plans. There is a Central
having progressive effects as it increases the Planning Authority, who plans for the
tax burden of higher income families and economy.
reduces it on lower income families.
160. In India, inflation is measured by-
156. In which year was the policy of population (A) Wholesale price index number.
planning adopted by the government of India? (B) Consumer price index for urban non
(A) 1947 (B) 1956 manual workers.
(C) 1952 (D) 1962 (C) Consumer price index for agricultural
workers.
Ans.156(C) India was the first country in the (D) National income deflation.
world to adopt the family planning program in
1952. In the first five-year plan, only the Ans.160(A) The commonly-used measure of
growing population has been identified as an inflation in the Indian economy is based on the
impediment to development and since then, WPI. As WPI measures the price change at the
efforts have been made to control the level of either the wholesaler or the producer
population in various five-year plans. and does not take into account retail margins,
it thus represents the production side and not
157. The terms TRIPS and TRIMS are related to the consumption side.
(A) NAFTA (B) SAPTA
(C) EFTA (D) GATT 161. Which of the following programs aims at the
promotion of savings among rural women?
Ans.157(D) It is an agreement on Trade- (A) Rashtriya Mahila Kosh
Related Investment Measures which specifies (B) Mahila Samriddhi Yojna
the rules that are applicable to the domestic (C) Indira Mahila Yojna
regulations a country applies to foreign (D) Javhar Rozgar Yojna
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Ans.161(B) What is Mahila Samridhi Yojana. Ans.165(A) The euro came into existence on 1
Women who open an account under Mahila January 1999, although it had been a goal of
Samridhi Yojana do not have to go to any the European Union (EU) and its predecessors
government servant or head-sarpanch to since the 1960s. After tough negotiations,
certify their age and their place of residence. particularly due to opposition from the United
Kingdom, the Maastricht Treaty entered into
162. When was the Imperial Bank of India force in 1993 with the goal of creating an
nationalized to form the State Bank of India? economic and monetary union by 1999 for all
(A) 1947 (B) 1949 EU states except the UK and Denmark (even
(C) 1951 (D) 1955 though Denmark has a fixed exchange rate
policy with the euro).
Ans.162(D) On 1 July 1955, the Imperial
Bank of India became the State Bank of India. 166. When did the Foreign Exchange Regulation
In 2008, the Government of India acquired the Act (FERA) come into being?
Reserve Bank of India's stake in SBI so as to (A) 1973 (B) 1975
remove any conflict of interest because the (C) 1980 (D) 1981
RBI is the country's banking regulatory
authority. Ans.166(A) Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
1973 (FERA) FERA was enacted in
163. Decision taken at Bretton Woods Conference September 1973 and it came in force from
led to the formation of January 1, 1974. It was amended by the
(A) IDA (B) IMF Foreign Exchange Regulation (Amendment)
(C) ADB (D) IFC Act 1993 and later in 2000, was replaced by
FEMA. FERA applied to all citizens of India,
Ans.163(A) Bretton Woods Conference led to all over India.
the formation of IDA historically prioritized
funding infrastructure projects, since the 167. Contribution of agriculture to Gross National
1990s, the Bank has directed less lending to Product is approximately?
infrastructure projects in favor of other (A) 14% (B) 15%
development projects such as fighting climate (C) 16.5% (D) 17.5%
change, eradicating poverty and ensuring good
governance. Ans.167(D) Currently this sector is the
backbone of the Indian economy and
164. Which was the first Indian Bank to introduce contributing around 53% of the Indian GDP.
credit card? .While, Primary Sector of the economy i.e.
(A) State Bank of India (B) ICICI Agriculture and allied sector contributes
(C) Bank of Baroda 17.32%.
(D) Central bank Of India
168. How much population is living below poverty
Ans.164(D) Central Bank of India was the line in India?
first public bank to introduce Credit card. (A) Approx. 24% (B) Approx. 25%
ICICI is the first bank to provide mobile (C) Approx. 26% (D) Approx. 27%
ATM. Bank of Baroda has the maximum Ans.168(A) In 2012, the Indian government
number of overseas branches. stated that 22% of its population is below its
official poverty limit. Based on 2005's PPPs
165. Euro is the currency of European Union. International Comparison Program, in 2011,
When did it come into being? the World Bank estimated that 23.6% of
(A) 1999 (B) 1995 Indian population, or about 276 million
(C) 2000 (D) 2002 people, lived below $1.25 per day on
purchasing power parity.
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(C) Its high population in the age group above

169. The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ 65 years.
and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, (D) Its high total population.
sometimes appearing in news, are used in
relation to _____. Ans.172(B) India is regarded as a country
(A) Banking operations. with “Demographic Dividend”. This is due to
(B) Communication networking. Its high population in the age group of 15-64
(C) Military strategies. years.
(D) Supply and demand of agricultural
Products. 173. To obtain full benefits of demographic
dividend, what should India do? (2013)
Ans.169(A) The terms ‘Marginal Standing (A) Promoting skill development.
Facility Rate’ and ‘Net Demand and Time (B) Introducing more social security schemes.
Liabilities’, sometimes appearing in news, are (C) Reducing infant mortality rate.
used in relation to Banking operations. (D) Privatization of higher education.

170. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, Ans.173(A) To reap the benefits of
it will ___________. demographic dividend, skills have to be
(A) Decrease the consumption expenditure in developed because a relatively larger portion
the economy. of population fall under the category of
(B) Increase the tax collection of the productive labour force when there is a
Government. demographic dividend.
(C) Increase the investment expenditure in the
economy. 174. On which commission’s recommendations;
(D) Increase the total savings in the economy. Reserve Bank of India was established?
(A) Chamberlain Commission
Ans.170(D) If the interest rate is decreased in (B) Hilton Young Commission
an economy, it will Increase the total savings (C) Keynes Commission
in the economy. (D) None of the above

171. What does venture capital mean? Ans.174(B) The Reserve Bank of India was
(A) A short-term capital provided to set up on the basis of the recommendations of
industries. the Hilton Young Commission. The Reserve
(B) A long-term start-up capital provided to Bank of India Act, 1934 (II of 1934) provides
new entrepreneurs. the statutory basis of the functioning of the
(C) Funds provided to industries at times of Bank, which commenced operations on April
incurring losses. 1, 1935.
(D) Funds provided for replacement and
renovation of industries. 175. Who mints the coins in India?
(A) Ministry of Finance
Ans.171(B) Venture capital is A long-term (B) Reserve Bank of India
start-up capital provided to new entrepreneurs (C) Prime Minister's Office
(D) Commerce and Industry Ministry
172. India is regarded as a country with
“Demographic Dividend”. This is due to: Ans.175(A) In India, the RBI is responsible
(A) Its high population in the age group for the printing of currency notes, while the
below 15 years. work of printing one-rupee notes and all the
(B) Its high population in the age group of 15- minting of coins is done by the Finance
64 years. Ministry.
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176. Which agency is responsible for marketing of The non-official members are representatives
agricultural products in India? of the farming community and usually have an
(A) TRIFED (B) ISOPOM active association with the farming
(C) NAFED (D) APMC community.

Ans.176(A) The full form of TRIFED is 'The 179. India International Exchange (INX) is located
Tribal Cooperative Marketing Development at- Published on 10 Jan 1917?
Federation of India'. It was established in (A) Gandhinagar (B) Mumbai
1987. It became operational from April 1988. (C) Chennai (D) Pune
The basic objective of the TRIFED is to
provide good price to the products made or Ans.179(A) Prime Minister Narendra Modi
collected from the forest by the tribal peoples inaugurated the India International Exchange
TRIFED agency is responsible for marketing (INX) located at the International Financial
of agricultural products in India. Services Centre (IFSC), GIFT City (in
Gandhinagar), terming it as momentous
177. Who recommends the MSP and issue prices? occasion for the country's financial sector.
(A) Ministry of agriculture
(B) Planning commission 180. An economy is at the take off stage on its path
(C) NABARD to development when it.
(D) Commission for Agricultural Costs and (A) Becomes stagnant
Prices (CACP) (B) Begins steady growth
(C) Is liberalized
Ans.177(D) The Commission for Agricultural (D) Gets maximum foreign aid
Costs & Prices (CACP since 1985, earlier
named as Agricultural Prices Commission) Ans.180(B) An economy is at the take off
came into existence in January 1965. stage on its path to development when it
Currently, the Commission comprises a Begins steady growth.
Chairman, Member Secretary, one Member
(Official) and two Members (Non-Official). 181. When the productive capacity of the economic
The non-official members are representatives system of a State is inadequate to create
of the farming community and usually have an sufficient number of jobs, it is called?
active association with the farming (A) Seasonal unemployment
community. (B) Structural unemployment
(C) Disguised unemployment
178. Which of the following option is NOT correct (D) Cyclical unemployment
about Rajeev Awas Yojna?
(A) Its main aim is to make slum free India. Ans.181(B) Structural unemployment is a
(B) About 500 cities of the country have been. form of involuntary unemployment caused by
planned to get covered by the end of 12th five- a mismatch between the skills that workers in
year plan. the economy can offer, and the skills
(C) Its 50% share will be shared by the central demanded of workers by employers. Structural
government. unemployment is often brought about by
(D) All are correct. technological changes that make the job skills
of many workers obsolete.
Ans.178(D) The Commission for Agricultural
Costs & Prices (CACP since 1985, earlier 182. Which one among the following is not a
named as Agricultural Prices Commission) clause of World Trade Organization?
came into existence in January 1965. (A) Lowering trade barriers with negotiations.
Currently, the Commission comprises a (B) Providing financial support to the
Chairman, Member Secretary, one Member countries having deficit balance of payments.
(Official) and two Members (Non-Official).
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(C) Discouraging unfair trade practices such (B) Payment for imports in terms of rupees.
as anti-dumping and export subsides. (C) Repayment of loans.in terms of rupees.
(D) None of these. (D) Determination of rate of exchange
between rupee and foreign currencies freely.
Ans.182(B) Providing financial support to the by the market forces of demand and supply.
countries having deficit balance of payments
its clause of World Trade Organization. Ans.186(D) Currency convertibility means
“the freedom to convert one currency into
183. Special Drawings Rights (SDRs) relate to- other internationally accepted currencies. Full
(A) The World Bank convertibility of rupees means unified market
(B) The Reserve Bank of India determined exchange rate regime, converting
(C) The World Trade Organization rupees in to foreign currencies on both sides
(D) The International Monetary Fund i.e. from “current account” and from “capital
account” side.
Ans.183(D) Special drawing rights. Special
drawing rights (abbreviated SDR, ISO 4217 187. India is called a mixed economy because of
currency code XDR (numeric: 960)) are the existence of?
supplementary foreign exchange reserve assets (1) Public Sector (2) Private Sector
defined and maintained by the International (3) Joint Sector (4) Cooperative Sector
Monetary Fund (IMF). (A) 1, 4 (B) 1, 2
(C) 3, 4 (D) 2, 4
184. The TEAM-9 initiative is a techno economic
cooperation venture between India and eight Ans.187(B) Indian economy is called a mixed
countries of ___________. economt because it is neither completely
(A) West Africa (B) East Africa socialist nor capitalist. In india private &
(C) North Africa (D) Central Africa public sector both operate in the market.
Private sector has boosted the indian economy
Ans.184(A) In a bid to expand its economic and this capitalist approach has worked much
reach, India launched an initiative in 2004 better.
called Techno-Economic Approach for
Africa–India Movement (TEAM–9), together 188. The term stagflation refers to a situation
with eight energy- and resource-rich West where?
African countries viz. (A) Growth has no relation with the change in
prices.
185. The present Indian monetary system is based (B) Rate of growth and prices both are
on which system? decreasing.
(A) Gold Reserve System (C) Rate of growth is faster than the rate of
(B) Proportional Reserve System price increase.
(C) Convertible Currency System (D) Rate of growth is slower than the rate of
(D) Minimum Reserve System price increase.

Ans.185(D) RBI as Currency Issuing Ans.188(D) Stagflation is a condition of slow

Authority of India! The Reserve Bank has the economic growth and relatively high
sole right to issue currency notes, except one- unemployment, or economic stagnation,
rupee notes which are issued by the Ministry accompanied by rising prices, or inflation. It
of Finance. ... The RBI follows a minimum can also be defined as inflation and a decline
reserve system in the note issue. in gross domestic product (GDP). istagflation
refers to a situation rate of growth is slower
186. Full convertibility of a rupee means______. than the rate of price increase.
(A) Purchase of foreign exchange for rupees
freely.
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189. In Economics the terms ‘Utility’ and of interest rate swaps, currency rate swaps as
‘Usefulness’ have _________. well as mortgages.
(A) Same meaning
(B) Different meaning 193. Bringing Green Revolution to eastern India is
(C) Opposite meaning a sub scheme of?
(D) None of the above (A) It is not a sub scheme.
(B) Rashtriya Krishi Vikas Yojana.
Ans.189(B) Utility: Its is one of the most (C) National Mission for sustainable
important concepts in economics and it forms agriculture.
the basis for demand. It is the satisfaction (D) National Mission on Agriculture
derived from the consumption of a good, a Extension and Technology.
consumer always tries to increase utility.
Usefulness: Is is used to describe if a resource Ans.193(B) Bringing Green Revolution to
is practical and cost effective in nature and if Eastern India, or commonly referred to as
it can be used in productive activity. BGREI, is a sub-scheme of the Rashtriya
Krishi Vikas Yojana (RKVY) and is
190. Which of the following public sector banks implemented in the states of Assam,
has the largest number of branches in foreign Chhattisgarh, Bihar, Odisha, Jharkhand, West
countries? Bengal and the eastern part of Uttar Pradesh.
(A) Bank of India
(B) Bank of Baroda 194. Name the scheme which aims to free the
(C) Punjab National Bank country from slums in the next five years.
(D) Corporation Bank (A) Rajiv Awas Yojana
(B) Indira Awas Yojana
Ans.190(B) Bank of Baroda has the largest (C) Jawahar Awas Yojana
number of branches in foreign countries. (D) Mahatma Awas Yojana

191. Which of the following banks was inaugurated Ans.194(A) Prime Minister Manmohan Singh
by Mahatma Gandhi in 1919? on said the government's endeavour is to make
(A) Bank of Maharashtra the country slum-free through the Rajiv Awas
(B) Bank of Baroda Yojana (RAY) scheme and empowering slum
(C) State Bank of Saurashtra dwellers with house ownership.
(D) Union Bank of India
195. Integrated Child Protection Scheme was
Ans.191(D) Union Bank of India (Union launched in which year?
Bank) was registered on 11 November 1919 as (A) 2005-2006 (B) 2008-2009
a limited company in Mumbai and was (C) 2009-2010 (D) 2012-2013
inaugurated by Mahatma Gandhi.
Ans.195(C) The Integrated Child Protection
192. Expand the term LIBOR as used in financial Scheme (ICPS) was launched by the India's
banking sectors? national Ministry of Women and Child
(A) Local Indian Bank Offered Rate. Development in 2009-2010.
(B) London-India Bureau of Regulations.
(C) Liberal International Bank Official Ratio. 196. Which is the base financial year for
(D) London Inter-Bank Offered Rate. calculating All India Index of Industrial
Production (IIP):
Ans.192(D) LIBOR, the acronym for London (A) 2008-2009 (B) 2006-2007
Interbank Offer Rate, is the global reference (C) 2011-2012 (D) 2005-2006
rate for unsecured short-term borrowing in the
interbank market. It acts as a benchmark for Ans.196(C) The Central Statistics Office
short-term interest rates. It is used for pricing (CSO) revised the base year of the all-India
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Index of Industrial Production (IIP) from 199. Which of the following is incorrect.
2004-05 to 2011-12. Revisions in the IIP are (A) Radha Krishnan Commission - (1948)
necessitated to maintain representativeness of (B) Narismhan Committee - (1988)
the items and producing entities and also (C) Mahajan Committee - (1997)
address issues relating to continuous flow of (D) Dave Committee - (2000)
production data. Founded: 2 May 1951
Headquarters location: New Delhi Ans.199(B) They submitted their
recommendations in the 1990s in reports
197. Which year Khadi and Village Industries widely known as the Narasimham Committee-
Commission Act was passed. I (1991) report and the Narasimham
(A) 1948 (B) 1956 Committee-II (1998) Report These
(C) 1965 (D) 1964 recommendations not only helped unleash the
potential of banking in India,
Ans.197(B) The Khadi and Village Industries
Commission (KVIC) is a statutory body 200. For calculation of GNP, we need to collect
formed in April 1957 (as per an RTI) by the and assess the data from all productive
Government of India, under the Act of activities, such as agricultural produce, wood,
Parliament, 'Khadi and Village Industries minerals, commodities, the contributions to
Commission Act of 1956'. production by transport, communications,
Headquarters: Mumbai insurance companies, professions such (as
lawyers, doctors, teachers, etc). at market
198. National income means the value of goods prices. It also includes net income arising in a
and services produced by a country during a country from abroad. So, what are the four
financial year. Thus, it is the net result of all main constituents of GNP?
economic activities of any country during a (A) Goods produced or services rendered.
period of one year and is valued in terms of (B) Consumer goods and services & Gross
money. So, according to this how many private domestic income.
Methods of Measuring National Income? (C) Income arising from abroad.
(A) Product Method (B) Income Method (D) All of above.
(C) Expenditure Method (D) All of above
Ans.200(D) GNP measures the output of a
Ans.198(D) There are three ways of country's residents regardless of the location
measuring the National Income of a country. of the actual underlying economic activity.
They are from the income side, the output side Income from overseas investments by a
and the expenditure side. country's residents counts in GNP, and foreign
Product Method: Under this method, we add investment within a country's borders does not
the values of output produced or services count. This is in contrast to GDP which
rendered by the different sectors of the measures economic output and income based
economy during the year in order to calculate on the location rather than nationality. GNP
the National Income. In this method, we and GDP can have different values, and a
include only the value added by each firm in large difference between a country's GNP and
the production process in the output figure. GDP can suggest a great deal of integration
Income Method: we add all the incomes from into the global economy.
employment and ownership of assets before
taxation received from all the production 201. What is the "Golden Handshake Scheme"
activities in an economy. related to?
Thus, it is also the Factor Income method. We (A) Inviting foreign companies
also need to add the undistributed profits of (B) Private investment in public enterprises
the private sector and the trading surplus of (C) Establishing Joint Enterprises
the public sector corporations. (D) Voluntary retirement
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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Ans.201(D) A Golden Handshake Scheme is (A) Demand-Pull Effect

associated with voluntary retirement. It is a (B) Cost-Push Effect
clause in an executive employment contract (C) Built-In Inflation
that provides the executive with a significant (D) All of above
severance package in the case the executive
loses his job through job restructuring or even Ans.205(D) Demand-pull inflation occurs
scheduled retirement. when the overall demand for goods and
services in an economy increases more rapidly
202. What are the effects of depreciation of the than the economy's production capacity. It
rupee? creates a demand-supply gap with higher
(A) Capital in flow slows down. demand and lower supply, which results in
(B) Trade deficit decreases. higher prices. For instance, when the oil
(C) Forex reserves increase. producing nations decide to cut down on oil
(D) Spending on discretionary goods production, the supply diminishes. It leads to
decrease. higher demand, which results in price rises
and contributes to inflation.
Ans.202(A) When the rupee depreciates, it Cost-push inflation is a result of the increase
loses value with respect to the dollar. This in the prices of production process inputs.
means it takes more rupees to exchange with a Examples include an increase in labor costs to
dollar. Most of the international trade happens manufacture a good or offer a service or
in US dollars. Therefore, as rupee depreciates, increase in the cost of raw material. These
exports become more profitable, because the developments lead to higher cost for the
exporter earns more rupees for exchanging finished product or service and contribute to
dollar. inflation.
Built-in inflation is the third because that links
203. The words 'Micro Economics' and "Macro to adaptive expectations. As the price of
Economics" By whom was it coined. goods and services rises, labor expects and
(A) Alfred Marshall (B) Ragner Nurkse demands more costs/wages to maintain their
(C) Ragner Frisch (D) J.M. Keynes cost of living. Their increased wages result in
higher cost of goods and services, and this
Ans.203(C) The branch of economics is wage-price spiral continues as one factor
divided in to the micro economics and induces the other and vice-versa.
macroeconomics. The term was first coined by
economist Ragnar Frish in 1933. 206. Who has defined the vicious cycle of poverty?
(A) Ragnar Narcs (B) Prof. Fisher
204. What is the best source of economic (C) Prof. Cannes (D) None of these
development of India?
(A) agriculture (B) transport Ans.206(A) According to Prof. Ragnar
(C) gross production Nurkse. “It implies circular constellation of
(D) per capita income forces tending to act and react one another in
such a way as to keep a poor country in a state
Ans.204(A) Agriculture and allied sectors like of poverty.
forestry, logging and fishing accounted for
18.6% of the GDP in 2005, employed 60% of 207. Which is the relation that demand defines.
the total workforce and despite a steady (A) Income and price of a commodity.
decline of its share in the GDP, is still the (B) Price and quantity of a commodity.
largest economic sector and plays a significant (C) Income and quantity demanded.
role in the overall socio-economic (D) Quantity demanded and quantity supplied.
development of India.
Ans.207(B) The basic demand relationship is
205. What are factors effecting Inflation? between potential prices of a good and the
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quantities that would be purchased at those 211. What is the main objective of monetary
prices. Generally, the relationship is negative policy?
meaning that an increase in price will induce a (A) Increasing money in the market
decrease in the quantity demanded. (B) Price stability
(C) Weed out corruption in the economy.
208. The Worldwide great depression happens in (D) increase revenue
which year.
(A) 1919 (B) 1914 Ans.211(B) The goals of monetary policy
(C) 1929 (D) 1947 refer to its objectives such as reasonable price
stability, high employment and faster rate of
Ans.208(C) 1929 The Great Depression was economic growth. The targets of monetary
the worst economic downturn in the history of policy refer to such variables as the supply of
the industrialized world, lasting from 1929 to bank credit, interest rate and the supply of
1939. It began after the stock market crash of money.
October 1929, which sent Wall Street into a
panic and wiped out millions of investors. 212. Internal profit–
(A) Happens when internal trade expands.
209. Which of the following taxes is levied by also (B) Happens when business expands.
the state governments in India? (C) Happens in economy when they increase.
(A) Excise Duties (B) Gift Tax (D) Happens in firms when they expand their
(C) Service Tax (D) Wealth Tax product.

Ans.209(A) Excise duty is a form of indirect Ans.212(D) Organic Growth of Businesses,

tax that is levied by the Central Government Organic growth is also known as internal
of India for the production, sale, or license of growth. It happens when a business expands
certain goods. Excise duty charges are also its own operations rather than relying on
collected by state governments for alcohol and takeovers and mergers.
narcotics. Excise duty is a kind of indirect tax
charged on the sale of certain products. 213. Which one is not the main objective of fiscal
policy in India?
210. Multinational firm is– (A) To increase liquidity in the economy.
(A) Multinational Companies are corporate (B) To promote price stability.
organizations that operate in more than one (C) To minimize the inequalities of income &
country. wealth.
(B) A company in India started by U.S. (D) To promote employment opportunity.
government.
(C) A company started jointly by India and Ans.213(A) Fiscal policy means the use of
U.S. taxation and public expenditure by the
(D) A company started by foreign government for stabilization or growth of the
governments. economy.
General objectives of Fiscal Policy are given
Ans.210(A) Multinational Corporations or below:
Multinational Companies are corporate 1. To maintain and achieve full employment.
organizations that operate in more than one 2. To stabilize the price level.
country other than home country. 3. To stabilize the growth rate of the
Multinational Companies have their central economy.
head office in the home country and 4. To maintain equilibrium in the Balance of
secondary offices, facilities, factories, Payments.
industries, and other such assets in other 5. To promote the economic development of
countries. underdeveloped countries.
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214. Trickle-down theory ignores the impact of ratio is a valuable source for finding the
economic growth on- population of women in India and what is the
(A) Income distribution (B) Savings ratio of women to that of men in India. In the
(C) Consumption (D) Investment Population Census of 2011, it was revealed
that the population ratio in India 2011 is 940
Ans.214(A) Trickle-down theory is an females per 1000 of males.
economic theory that favours reducing taxes
on businesses and the wealthy in society to 218. In a economy “Development Stage” define-
stimulate business investment in the short (A) Bad economy.
term. This theory does not focus on the (B) Economy is on the verge of destroying.
income distribution. (C) Stay economy.
(D) Starting of steadily increasing economy.
215. The best Example of capital-intensive
industry in India is- Ans.218(D) The development stage is the
(A) Steel Industry phase a company goes through Starting of
(B) Tourism Industry steadily increasing economy during the
(C) Sports Goods Industry preliminary stage of its corporate life. During
(D) Textile Industry this stage, companies are focused on R&D,
market research, construction of
Ans.215(A) Capital Intensive Industry refers manufacturing facilities, and product design
to that industry which requires substantial and testing.
amount of capital for the production of goods.
In the Capital-Intensive Industries, proportion 219. Which of the following state has the highest
of capital involved is much higher than the literacy rate.
proportion of labor. This is because the (A) Punjab (B) Maharashtra
industrial structure and industry type require (C) Mizoram (D) Uttar Pradesh
high value investments in capital assets. On Ans.219(C) The literacy rate of Mizoram
the basis of this standard, iron and steel stood at 91.33 per cent making it the third
industry can be termed as a capital-intensive most literate state in the country after Kerala
industry. and Lakshadweep, a state minister said.
216. The Removal of prohibitions and hindrance 220. According to Kenz, the consumption function
by government is called. indicates a relationship between whom.
(A) Favourable trade (B) Liberalisation (A) Total Consumption and Total Population.
(C) Globalisation (D) Privatisation (B) Total Consumption and Normal Price
Rate.
Ans.216(B) To maintain a safe and healthy (C) Total Consumption and Total Income.
society of the nation, the government often (D) Total Consumption and Rate of Interest.
puts many rules, restrictions by the law
system. At that case, those invalid restrictions Ans.220(C) The consumption function, or
are removed by the government. This removal Keynesian consumption function, is an
process is known as the liberlization. economic formula that represents the
functional relationship between total
217. How is the sex ratio measured in India? consumption and gross national income. It
(A) Number of males per thousand females. was introduced by British economist John
(B) Number of females per thousand males. Maynard Keynes, who argued the function
(C) Number of males per hundred females. could be used to track and predict total
(D) Number of females per hundred males. aggregate consumption expenditures.

Ans.217(B) Sex ratio is used to describe the 221. Characteristic of India's population growth-
number of females per 1000 of males. Sex (A) An increase in the ratio of females.
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(B) An increase in the birth rate and declining consisting of 189 countries working to foster
death rate. global monetary cooperation, secure financial
(C) Increasing number of old people. stability. the capital of IMF is made up by the
(D) An increase in rate of death. contribution of Member Nations.
Ans.221(B) India's population growth is 225. The Production of a commodity mostly
characterised by decadal (on every 10-year through the natural process is an activity of–
basis) growth of population on every census (A) Primary Sector
basis, which is based on an increase in the (B) Secondary Sector
birth rate and decrease in death rate. (C) Tertiary Sector
(D) Technology Sector
222. The World Bank is an international financial
institution that provides loans and grants to Ans.225(A) Production of a commodity,
the governments it is also called as – mostly through the “natural process” Primary
(A) International Bank for Reconstruction and sector of the economy. “Primary sector”
development. consists of mining, agriculture, fishing,
(B) Bank for 'liberation'. grazing, forestry, etc. The products of these
(C) International, rehabilation and are obtained directly from nature and no
development bank. artificial manufacturing is required.
(D) International Bank of Development.
226. Where is the minting of coins in India?
Ans.222(A) The World Bank is an (A) Delhi, Mumbai, Kolkata
international development organization owned (B) Mumbai, Kolkata, Hyderabad, Noida
by 187 countries. Its official name was the (C) Mumbai, Delhi, Bangalore
International Bank for Reconstruction and (D) Delhi, Kolkata, Hyderabad
Development (IBRD). When it first began
operations in 1946, it had 38 members. Today, Ans.226(B) The Government of India has the
most of the countries in the world are sole right to mint coins. The responsibility for
members. coinage vests with the Government of India in
terms of the Coinage Act, 1906 as amended
223. What would be called a system of taxation from time to time. The designing and minting
under which the poorer classes are taxed at of coins in various denominations is also the
higher rates than the rich classes? responsibility of the Government of India.
(A) Regressive tax (B) Degressive tax Coins are minted at the four India
(C) Proportional tax (D) Progressive tax Government Mints at Mumbai, Alipore
(Kolkata), Saifabad (Hyderabad), Cherlapally
Ans.223(A) A regressive tax is a tax that (Hyderabad) and NOIDA (UP).
takes a larger percentage of income from low-
income earners than from high-income 227. What is the accounting year of the Reserve
earners. A regressive tax is generally a tax Bank of India?
that is applied uniformly to all situations, (A) January- December
regardless of the payer. (B) March - february
(C) July - June
224. The contribution of IMF capital is made by (D) December - Novermber
(A) Deficit Financing (B) Credit
(C) Borrowings Ans.227(C) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI)
(D) Member Nations is aligning its July-June accounting year with
the government’s April-March fiscal year in
Ans.224(D) The International Monetary Fund order to ensure more effective management of
(IMF) is an international organization the country’s finances.
headquartered in Washington, D.C.,
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228. What situation would result if Government manner where worker productivity is
expenditure exceeds the Government revenue essentially zero. It is unemployment that does
on Current Account? not affect aggregate output. An economy
(A) Deficit budgeting demonstrates disguised unemployment when
(B) Performance-based budgeting productivity is low and too many workers are
(C) Surplus budgeting filling too few jobs. It is related to Agriculture
(D) Zero-based budgeting sector.

Ans.228(A) Deficit spending is the amount by 232. Labour Intensive Technique would get chosen
which spending exceeds revenue over a in a _______?
particular period of time, called budget (A) Labour Surplus Economy
deficit; the opposite of budget surplus. The (B) Capital Surplus Economy
term may be applied to the budget of a (C) Developed Economy
government, private company, or individual. (D) Developing Economy

229. Due to worldwide great depression, ‘New Ans.232(A) The economy has to decide about
Deal’ was declared by_______? technique of production on the basis of cost of
(A) Abhraham Lincon labour and capital. A labour surplus economy
(B) Benzamin Frankllin choose labour intensive techniques and a
(C) J.F. Kennedy capital surplus economy choose capital -
(D) D. Roozwelt intensive technique.

Ans.229(D) The New Deal was a series of 233. The RBI plays a vital role in economic growth
domestic programs introduced by President of the country and maintaining price stability.
Franklin D. Roosevelt in an attempt to end the It was established on April 1, 1935. Where
economic ravages of the Great Depression. was the first Central office of RBI
established?
230. The Relationship between rate of interest and (A) New Delhi (B) Bengal
consumption level was firstly estimated by– (C) Calcutta (D) Mumbai
(A) Amartya Sen
(B) Milton Freedman Ans.233(C) The Central Office of the Reserve
(C) J.F. Kennedy Bank was initially established in Calcutta
(D) Irwing Fischer (now Kolkata) in 1935, before shifting to
Bombay (now Mumbai) in 1937. The first
Ans.230(B) First developed by Milton building of the Reserve Bank known as
Friedman, it supposes that a person's "Currency Building" is a heritage building.
consumption at a point in time is determined The Kolkata Regional Office of the Reserve
not just by their current income but also by Bank of India is located at B B D Bag,
their expected income in future years—their formerly known as "Dalhousie Square
"permanent income" Permanent income is
defined as expected long-term average 234. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is the central
income. bank of the country. RBI is a statutory body.
What do you understand by Statutory Body?
231. Disguised unemployment in India is mainly (A) Statutory body or authority mans a non-
related to- constitutional body which is set up by a
(A) Agricultural sector (B) Factory sector parliament.
(C) Urban Area (D) Rural Area (B) Statutory bodies are authorized to pass the
law and take the decision on the behalf of
Ans.231(A) Disguised unemployment exists state or country.
where part of the labor force is either left (C) A statutory body does not include the
without work or is working in a redundant corporations owned by shareholders.
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(D) All of above. services produced within a country's borders

in a specific time period and includes
Ans.234(D) Statutory body or authority anything produced by the country's citizens
means a non-constitutional body which is set and foreigners within its borders. (Facts:
up by a parliament. Statutory bodies are According to the International Monetary
authorized to pass the law and take the Fund, the United States is the world's largest
decision on the behalf of state or country. economy, followed by China and Japan.)
Statutory body has official permission for
Legislation i.e. process of enacting laws. 237. When did the Foreign Exchange Regulation
Cabinet resolution should be passed to Act (FERA) come into existence?
establish this body. Example of a statutory (A) 1973 (B) 1975
body is SEBI i.e. Securities and Exchange (C) 1980 (D) 1981
Board of India. SEBI is a very important
regulatory body for the security market in Ans.237(A) FERA was enacted in September
India. Another example is the National 1973 and it came in force from January 1,
Commission for OBCs. A statutory body does 1974. It was amended by the Foreign
not include the corporations owned by Exchange Regulation (Amendment) Act 1993
shareholders. and later in 2000, was replaced by FEMA.
FERA applied to all citizens of India, all over
235. The Kelkar Committee (2002) was associated India
with.
(A) Tax Structure Reforms 238. Money is anything which is generally
(B) Development Finance Institutions acceptable by the people in exchange of goods
(C) Agricultural Credit System and services and for settlement of debts. There
(D) Development of Handlooms are four forms of money i.e. Commodity, Fiat,
Fiduciary, Commercial. So, what do you
Ans.235(A) In September 2002, two task understand by Commodity money?
forces were set up under the chairmanship of (A) Money depends for its value on the
Vijay Kelkar, the then Advisor to the Ministry confidence that it will be generally accepted
of Finance and Company Affairs to as a medium of exchange.
recommend measure for simplification and (B) Money is the simplest and, most likely,
rationalisation of direct and indirect taxes. the oldest type of money.
(C) Money gets its value from a government
236. Gross Domestic Product is the total value of order. That means, the government declares
goods produced and services rendered within fiat money to be legal tender, which requires
a country during a year is its Gross Domestic all people and firms within the country to
Product. Further, GDP is calculated at market accept it as a means of payment.
price and is defined as GDP at market prices. (D) Money can be described as claims against
Which of the following does not comes under financial institutions that can be used to
GDP constituents? purchase goods or services
(A) Wages and salaries (B) Rent
(C) Divident (D) Factor Cost Ans.238(B) Commodity money is closely
related to (and originates from) a barter
Ans.236(D) Different constituents of GDP system, where goods and services are directly
are: Wages and salaries, Rent, Interest, exchanged for other goods and services.
Undistributed profits, Mixed-income, Direct Commodity money facilitates this process
taxes, Dividend, Depreciation. because it acts as a generally accepted
Gross domestic product (GDP) is one of the medium of exchange. The critical thing to
most common indicators used to track the note about commodity money is that its value
health of a nation's economy. It is the is defined by the intrinsic value of the
monetary value of all the finished goods and commodity itself. In other words, the
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
463

commodity itself becomes money. Examples (B) The Consumer Price Index measures the
of commodity money include gold coins, average change in prices over time that
beads, spices, etc. consumers pay for a basket of goods and
services.
239. Money is defined as a generally accepted (C) CPI is widely used as an economic
medium of exchange for goods and services. indicator.
Virtually anything can be considered money, (D) All are correct
as long as it performs what we call the three
major functions of money (i.e., medium of Ans.240(D) The CPI measures the average
exchange, store of value, unit of account). change in prices over time that consumers pay
There are four forms of money i.e. for a basket of goods and services, commonly
Commodity, Fiat, Fiduciary, Commercial known as inflation. Essentially it attempts to
Bank. So, what do you understand by quantify the aggregate price level in an
Fiduciary money? economy and thus measure the purchasing
(A) Money is the simplest and, most likely, power of a country's unit of currency. The
the oldest type of money. weighted average of the prices of goods and
(B) Money is not backed by any physical services that approximates an individual's
commodity. consumption patterns is used to calculate CPI.
(C) Money depends for its value on the
confidence that it will be generally accepted 241. Competition is a condition where different
as a medium of exchange. economic firms seek to obtain a share of a
(D) Money is created through what we call limited good by varying the elements of the
fractional reserve banking. marketing mix: price, product, promotion and
place. In classical economic thought,
Ans.239(C) Fiduciary money depends for its competition causes commercial firms to
value on the confidence that it will be develop new products, services and
generally accepted as a medium of exchange. technologies, which would give consumers
Unlike fiat money, it is not declared legal greater selection and better products. So, what
tender by the government, which means do you understand by the Monopolistic
People are not required by law to accept it as a competition?
means of payment. Instead, the issuer of (A) Monopolistic competition also refers to a
fiduciary money promises to exchange it back market structure, where a large number of
for a commodity or fiat money if requested by small firms compete against each other.
the bearer. As long as people are confident (B) Describes a market structure that is
that this promise will not be broken, they can dominated by only a small number of firms.
use fiduciary money just like regular fiat or (C) A market structure where a single firm
commodity money. Examples of fiduciary controls the entire market
money include cheques, banknotes, or drafts. (D) All of above

240. The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is an Ans.241(A) Monopolistic competition also
indicator that measures the average change in refers to a market structure, where a large
prices paid by consumers for a representative number of small firms compete against each
basket of goods and services over a set period. other. However, unlike in perfect
It is widely used as a measure of inflation, competition, the firms in monopolistic
together with the GDP deflator. So, which one competition sell similar, but slightly
is wrong about CPI? differentiated products. That gives them a
(A) CPI is widely used as an economic certain degree of market power, which allows
indicator. It is the most widely used measure them to charge higher prices within a certain
of inflation and, by proxy, of the effectiveness range. Monopolistic competition builds on the
of the government’s economic policy. following assumptions:
(1) all firms maximize profits
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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(2) there is free entry, and exit to the market, 245. Formalized system of trading agreements with
(3) firms sell differentiated products groups of countries is known as
(4) consumers may prefer one product over (A) Trading bloc (B) Trade ventures
the other. Now, those assumptions are a bit (C) Trade partners
closer to reality than the ones we looked at in (D) Trade organizations
perfect competition.
Ans.245(A) A trade bloc is a type of
242. Which bank provides loan for reconstruction intergovernmental agreement, often part of a
and development? regional intergovernmental organization,
(A) World Bank (B) IDA where barriers to trade are reduced or
(C) IMF (D) IBRD eliminated among the participating states.
Trade blocs can be stand-alone agreements
Ans.242(D) The International Bank for between several states or part of a regional
Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) is organization.
an international financial institution,
established in 1944 and headquartered in 246. In India, monetary policy of the Reserve Bank
Washington, D.C., United States, that is the of India is aimed?
lending arm of World Bank Group. The IBRD (A) Increase the pace of economic growth
offers loans to middle-income developing (B) Managing the quantity of money
countries. (C) Update stock markets
(D) Both A & B
243. The statement "Economics is what it should Ans.246(D) Monetary policy also known as
be" refers to- the credit policy, is the policy which is purely
(A) Normative Economics managed by our Central bank of India
(B) Positive Economics (Reserve Bank of India) to control the money
(C) Monetary Economics supply in the economy & amount of credit in
(D) Fiscal Economics the economy. Monetary policy is governed by
RBI.
Ans.243(A) Normative economics (as
opposed to positive economics) is that part of 247. What do you understand by Open market
economics that expresses value judgments operations?
(normative judgments) about economic (A) Sale of government securities
fairness or what the economy ought to be like (B) Purchase of government securities
or what goals of public policy ought to be. (C) These securities carry our by commercial
Normative economics deals heavily in value banks
judgments and theoretical scenarios. (D) All of above
244. Who said, “Economics is the Science of Ans.247(D) Open market operations is the
Wealth”? sale and purchase of government securities
(A) Amartya Sen and treasury bills by RBI or the central bank
(B) Milton Friedman of the country. When the RBI wants to
(C) Adam Smith increase the money supply in the economy, it
(D) Janet Yellen purchases the government securities from the
market and it sells government securities to
Ans.244(C) Classical economists Adam smith suck out liquidity from the system. RBI
defined economics as a science which studies carries out the OMO through commercial
about the nature and causes of wealth of banks and does not directly deal with the
nations. He said that economics is the study of public. OMO is one of the tools that RBI uses
the activities of people involved in the to smoothen the liquidity conditions through
production of wealth. the year and minimize its impact on the
interest rate and inflation rate levels.
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248. What do you understand from the increases the quantity of the good that is
Microeconomics? demanded.
(A) Effect Decisions A Veblen goods is when demand rises as price
(B) Effect many factors rises. People think more expensive goods are
(C) Effect single factors better quality, and so people buy more.
(D) None Normal goods are the quantity demanded of
such commodities increases when the
Ans.248(C) Microeconomics is the study of consumer’s income increases and
individuals, households and firms' behavior in Decreases when the consumer’s income
decision making and allocation of resources. decreases. Such goods are called normal
It generally applies to markets of goods and goods.
services and deals with individual and
economic issues. In other words, 252. What are method to measure National
Microeconomic study deals with what choices Income?
people make, what factors influence their (A) Product (B) Production
choices and how their decisions affect the (C) Manufacturing (D) All
goods markets by affecting the price, the
supply and demand. Ans.252(A) There are three type of method to
measure National Income. In Product Method
249. Service tax is categorized under? we add the values of output produced or
(A) Indirect Tax (B) Direct Tax services rendered by the different sectors of
(C) Both of them (D) None the economy during the year in order to
calculate the National Income. In, income
Ans.249(A) Service tax is a tax levied by the Method we add all the incomes from
government on service providers on certain employment and ownership of assets before
service transactions, but is actually borne by taxation received from all the production
the customers. It is categorized under Indirect activities in an economy.
Tax and came into existence under the In Expenditure Method measures the total
Finance Act, 1994. domestic expenditure of the economy. It
consists of two elements, Consumption
250. The Finance Commission was established in expenditure and Investment expenditure.
1951 by the President of India, who was the
first Chairman. 253. What are the different constituents of GDP?
(A) Y. B Chavan (B) K.C. Pant (A) Wages and salaries (B) Rent
(C) K. C. Neogy (D) A.M Khusro (C) Interest (D) All

Ans.250(C) The First Finance Commission of Ans.253(D) The total value of goods
India was appointed in 1951, for the period produced and services rendered within a
1952-57 by the President of India and was country during a year is its Gross Domestic
chaired by K. C. Neogy. Product.
Further, GDP is calculated at market price and
251. How many types of goods in Indian is defined as GDP at market prices. Different
economy? constituents of GDP are: Wages and salaries
(A) Veblen (B) Giffen Rent
(C) Normal (D) All of above Interest
Undistributed profits
Ans.251(D) A giffen goods is an Inferior Mixed-income
goods (a goods that people buy more of when Direct taxes
their income goes down) with the unique Dividend
characteristic that an increase in price actually Depreciation
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254. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) mainly in agriculture, producing only a
of India or the CAG is an authority, quarter of the GDP. In contrast to this, the
established by which article of the secondary and tertiary sectors produce three-
Constitution of India? fourth of the product whereas they employ
(A) Article 148 (B) Article 149 less than half the people.
(C) Article 147 (D) Article 148 (A)
257. A sustained rise in the general price level in
Ans.254(A) The Comptroller and Auditor an economy is known as?
General (CAG) of India or the CAG is an (A) Disinflation (B) Deflation
authority, established by Article 148 of the (C) Inflation (D) Stagflation
Constitution of India, which audits all receipts
and expenditure of the Government of India Ans.257(C) Inflation is a quantitative measure
and the state governments, including those of of the rate at which the average price level of
bodies and authorities substantially financed a basket of selected goods and services in an
by the government. All the Union and State economy increases over a period of time. It is
government departments are subject to the the constant rise in the general level of prices
audit of the CAG, including commercial and where a unit of currency buys less than it did
non-commercial government institutions, in prior periods. Often expressed as a
autonomous bodies financed from Union or percentage, inflation indicates a decrease in
State revenues and companies where equity the purchasing power of a nation’s currency.
participation by the government is in excess
of 51%. These audits are reviewed by the 258. The Banking Regulation Act was passed in
Public Accounts Committees of the India in which year?
Parliament of India and State legislative (A) 1965 (B) 1974
bodies. The CAG also controls the Indian (C) 1949 (D) 1951
Audit and Accounts Service.
Ans.258(C) The Banking Regulation Act,
255. If there is a lack of money supply in 1949 is a legislation in India that regulates all
comparison to the supply of goods and banking firms in India. Passed as the Banking
services, then what would be the possible Companies Act 1949, it came into force from
consequence? 16 March 1949 and changed to Banking
(A) Hyperinflation (B) Inflation Regulation Act 1949 from 1 March 1966.
(C) Deflation (D) Devaluation
259. When a government’s total expenditures
Ans.255(C) Deflation is the decline in the exceed the revenue that it generates,
prices for goods and services that occur when excluding money from borrowings the
the rate of inflation falls below 0%. It will situation is known as?
take place naturally, if and when the money (A) Current Account Deficit
supply of an economy is limited. It indicates (B) Fiscal Deficit
deteriorating conditions. It is normally linked (C) Budgetary Deficit
with significant unemployment and low (D) Revenue Deficit
productivity levels of goods and services.
Ans.259(B) A fiscal deficit is a shortfall in a
256. Which of the following economic activities government's income compared with its
employs the maximum number of people in spending. A fiscal deficit is calculated as a
India? percentage of gross domestic product (GDP),
(A) Tourism (B) Agriculture or simply as total dollars spent in excess of
(C) Mining (D) Manufacturing income. In either case, the income figure
includes only taxes and other revenues and
Ans.256(B) More than half of the workers in excludes money borrowed to make up the
the country are working in the primary sector, shortfall.
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260. A risk arising on chances of a government difference between a monopoly and

failing to make debt repayments or not monopsony is primarily in the difference
honouring a loan agreement is known as what between the controlling entities. A single
kind of risk? buyer dominates a monopsonized market
(A) Investment Risk (B) Market Risk while an individual seller controls a
(C) Sovereign Risk (D) Inflation Risk monopolized market. Monosonists are
common to areas where they supply most or
Ans.260(C) ‘Sovereign risk’ refers to the risk all of the region's jobs.
that a government may default on its debt
obligations. In general, when governments 264. What do we understand by ‘Intermediate
have bonds that are due to mature, they don’t Goods’?
have sufficient tax receipts on hand to repay (A) Fixed assets used by manufacturers
all the debt, so they re-enter the market to (B) Goods Price Without GST
raise further money via a bond issuance. (C) Goods in transit before reaching the
consumers
261. What does the Lorenz Curve indicate? (D) Goods sold between industries for the
(A) Relationship between the price of a resale or production of other goods
certain commodity and its demand
(B) Income distribution Ans.264(D) Intermediate goods are items that
(C) Rate of employment we use to create another product. In other
(D) Taxable income elasticity words, they are inputs in other products or the
ingredients of finished goods. Suppliers of
Ans.261(B) Lorenz curve is a graphical intermediate goods sell them to, for example,
representation of the distribution of income or manufacturers for the inclusion in their final
of wealth. It was developed by Max O. ... It is products.
often used to represent income distribution,
where it shows for the bottom x% of 265. A tax is levy placed on a firm's profit by the
households, what percentage (y%) of the total government, what type of tax is this?
income they have. (A) VAT (B) Service
(C) Corporate tax (D) Company tax
262. A situation where the expenditure of the
government exceeds its revenue is known as? Ans.265(C) A corporate tax is a levy placed
(A) Default Financing (B) Deficit Revenue on a firm's profit by the government. The
(C) Budget Deficit (D) Fiscal Deficit money collected from corporate taxes is used
for a nation's source of income. A firm's
Ans.262(C) A budget deficit is when operating earnings are calculated by deducting
spending exceeds income. The term applies to expenses including the cost of goods sold
governments, although individuals, (COGS) and depreciation from revenues.
companies, and other organizations can run Then, tax rates are applied to generate a legal
deficits. obligation the business owes the government.

263. An economic condition when there is one 266. An individual, investor or business misses out
buyer and many sellers is known as? on when choosing one alternative over
(A) Monopoly (B) Oligopoly another this situation is known as?
(C) Monopsony (A) Opportunity Cost (B) Individual Cost
(D) Perfect Competition (C) Maximum Cost (D) None

Ans.263(C) A monopsony is a market Ans.266(A) Opportunity costs represent the

condition in which there is only one buyer, the benefits an individual, investor or business
monopsonist. Like a monopoly, a monopsony misses out on when choosing one alternative
also has imperfect market conditions. The over another. While financial reports do not
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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show opportunity cost, business owners can various world currencies to one another. It is a
use it to make educated decisions when they theoretical exchange rate that allows you to
have multiple options before them. buy the same amount of goods and services in
Bottlenecks are often a cause of opportunity every country. The purchasing power parity
costs. calculation tells you how much things would
cost if all countries used the U.S. dollar.
267. The possibility of an investor experiencing
losses due to factors that affect the overall 270. The Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Mandhan
performance of the financial markets in which Yojana ensures old age protection for
he or she is involved, what type of risk is this? unorganized workers whose monthly income
(A) Commodity risk (B) Market Risk is less than or equal to?
(C) Operational (D) None (A) ₹ 10,000 (B) ₹ 12,000
(C) ₹ 15,000 (D) ₹ 20,000
Ans.267(B) Market risk is the risk that the
value of an investment will decrease due to Ans.270(C) Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi
changes in market factors. These factors will Maan-dhan for unorganized sector workers in
have an impact on the overall performance on Ahmedabad, Gujarat. This mega pension
the financial markets and can only be reduced scheme ensures old age protection for
by diversification into assets that are not unorganized Workers, whose monthly income
correlated with the market – such as certain is Rs 15,000/ per month or less.
alternative asset classes. Market risk is
sometimes called “systematic risk” because it 271. The Ayushman Bharat Scheme introduced by
relates to factors, such as a recession, that the Government of India provides medical
impact the entire market. coverage of up to which amount?
(A) 5 lakh (B) 1 Lakh
268. The interest rate charged by banks on short- (C) 7 Lakh (D) 2 Lakh
term loans to their largest, most secure and
most creditworthy customers are known as? Ans.271(A) The Ayushman Bharat Scheme
(A) Variable Rate introduced by the Government of India
(B) Prime Lending Rate provides medical coverage of up to ₹ 5 lakh
(C) Discount Rate family per year. It was launched on 23rd
(D) Amortised Rate September 2018 by Prime Minister Narendra
Modi in Ranchi, Jharkhand.
Ans.268(B) A prime rate or prime lending
rate is an interest rate used by banks, usually 272. Which one of the following is also regarded as
the interest rate at which banks lend to Disguised unemployment?
customers with good credit. Some variable (A) Underemployment
interest rates may be expressed as a (B) Frictional unemployment
percentage above or below prime rate. (C) Seasonal unemployment
(D) Cyclical unemployment
269. Which theory is used to make long-run
predictions about exchange rates in a flexible Ans.272(A) Underemployment is the
exchange rate system? underuse of a worker because a job does not
(A) Balance of Payment Theory use the worker's skills, is part-time, or leaves
(B) Interest Rate Approach the worker idle. Examples include holding a
(C) Portfolio Balance Approach part-time job despite desiring full-time work,
(D) Purchasing Power Parity Theory and overqualification, in which the employee
has education, experience, or skills beyond the
Ans.269(D) Purchasing power parity (PPP) is requirements of the job. Underemployment is
an economic theory that allows the also regarded as Disguised unemployment as
comparison of the purchasing power of the workers skills are underutilised due to
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over staffing as seen in agriculture or due to 276. A commercial enterprise that is owned by
over qualification where an engineer works as private investors, shareholders or owners
an peon. It is an important cause of poverty in (usually collectively), so what type of
India. organisation is known as?
(A) Solo Proprietorship
273. Which among the following is not an account (B) Private Enterprise
under Balance of Payment? (C) Corporation
(A) Current Account (B) Capital Account (D) None
(C) Official Reserves Account
(D) Unilateral Payments Account Ans.276(B) A privately owned enterprise is a
commercial enterprise that is owned by
Ans.273(C) Official Reserves Account is not private investors, shareholders or owners
a separate account under Balance of Payment (usually collectively, but they can be owned
instead it is a subdivision of the capital by a single individual), and is in contrast to
account. Official reserve account consists of state institutions, such as publicly owned
foreign currencies and securities which are enterprises and government agencies. Private
held by the government or by its central bank, enterprises comprise the private sector of an
and is used to balance the payments from year economy.
to year.
277. What was the main motive of Third Five Year
274. Which among the following is an example of Plan in India?
micro-economic variable? (A) Rural development
(A) National Income (B) Agriculture
(B) Aggregate Supply (C) Financial inclusion
(C) Employment (D) Economic reform
(D) Consumer's Equilibrium
Ans.277(D) Economic reform" usually refers
Ans.274(D) Consumer’s equilibrium is an to deregulation, or at times to reduction in the
example of micro-economic variable. Micro size of government, to remove distortions
economic variable studies the behaviour of caused by regulations or the presence of
individuals and firms in making decisions government, rather than new or increased
regarding the allocation of scarce resources. regulations or government programs to reduce
Consumer Equilibrium refers to the amount of distortions caused by market failure.
goods and services consumer can purchase
using their present level of income and the 278. Which among the following is not a direct
current level of prices with maximum tax?
satisfaction. (A) Income tax (B) Wealth tax
(C) Corporate tax (D) None of these
275. An economic system combining private and
state enterprise is called as? Ans.278(D) The Direct taxes are those taxes
(A) Market economy that cannot be transferred or shifted to another
(B) Centrally planned economy person, i.e., individual pays directly to the
(C) Private economy government. Major types of direct tax are:
(D) Mixed economy Income Tax, Corporate Tax, Wealth Tax,
Estate Duty, Gift Tax, Fringe Benefit Tax, etc.
Ans.275(D) A mixed economy is variously
defined as an economic system blending 279. MTNL comes under which of the following
elements of market economies with elements category?
of planned economies, free markets with state (A) Navratna (B) Maharatna
interventionism, or private enterprise with (C) Mini Ratna (D) None
public enterprise.
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Ans.279(A) Navratna was the title given (A) Direct Tax (B) Indirect Tax
originally to 9 Public Sector Enterprises (C) Both Direct and Indirect Tax
(PSEs) identified by the Government of India (D) None of these
in 1997 as "public sector companies that have
comparative advantages", giving them greater Ans.283(B) Indirect taxes are basically taxes
autonomy to compete in the global market so that can be passed on to another entity or
as to "support them in their venture to become individual. It is usually imposed on a
global giants". manufacturer or supplier who then passes on
the tax to the consumer. The most common
280. Statement of all transactions made between example of indirect tax is the excise tax on
entities in one country and the rest of the cigarettes and alcohol. Value Added Tax
world over a defined period of time, such as a (VAT) is also an example of an indirect tax.
quarter or a year.
(A) Capital Account (B) Current Account 284. What is defined as the output per unit of
(C) Balance of Payments (D) None variable input?
Ans.280(C) The balance of payments (BOP) (A) Marginal product
is a statement of all transactions made (B) Production function
between entities in one country and the rest of (C) Total product
the world over a defined period of time, such (D) Average product
as a quarter or a year. The balance of
payments include both the current account and Ans.284(D) The term average product refers
capital account. to the average output (or products) produced
by each input (factors of production like labor
281. Which of the following is called GDP and land). It's a way for companies to measure
Deflator? total output produced with a particular
(A) Ratio of nominal to real GDP combination of variable inputs. Relationship
(B) Ratio of nominal to real GNP between Marginal Product and Average.
(C) Ratio of nominal to real CPI Product: - Marginal product is the increase in
(D) Ratio of real to nominal GNP total product as a result of adding one more
unit of input whereas Average product is the
Ans.281(A) GDP deflator is a tool used to total product (or total output) divided by the
measure the level of price changes over time quantity of inputs used to produce that total.
so that current prices which are affected by
inflation or deflation can be accurately 285. What is an alternative way of representing the
compared to historical prices. production function?
(A) The Short Run (B) The Long Run
282. After which five-year plan, 'The Rolling Plan' (C) Isoquant (D) Average product
was implemented?
(A) Third Plan (B) Fifth Plan Ans.285(C) An isoquant is a firm's
(C) Seventh Plan (D) Ninth Plan counterpart of the consumer's indifference
curve. An isoquant is a curve that shows all
Ans.282(B) It was after the fifth-year plan the combinations of inputs that yield the same
that rolling plan was implemented. The time level of output. 'Iso' means equal and 'quant'
period of such plan was from 1978-80 and means quantity. Therefore, an isoquant
were implemented by the Janata party represents a constant quantity of output.
government by terminating the fifth five-year
plan and started new plan for the year 1978- 286. Which exchange rate is the price of one unit
83. of foreign currency in terms of domestic
currency.
283. Which tax causes a burden on the poorer (A) Artificial (B) Nominal
section of the society? (C) Fixed (D) Real
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Ans.286(B) The nominal exchange rate is while per capita income growth averaged
defined as: The number of units of the 1.3%.
domestic currency that are needed to purchase
a unit of a given foreign currency. For 290. The BRICS New Development Bank (NDB)
example, if the value of the Euro in terms of has been set up for.
the dollar is 1.37, this means that the nominal (A) Funding infrastructure projects in
exchange rate between the Euro and the dollar emerging economics for sustainable
is 1.37. development.
(B) Funding non-infrastructure projects in
287. What is an input is defined as the change in emerging economics for sustainable
output per unit of change in the input when all development.
other inputs are held constant. (C) Funding infrastructural projects in
(A) Marginal product developed countries.
(B) Production function (D) Funding infrastructural projects in BRICS
(C) Total product countries only.
(D) Average product
Ans.290(A) New Development Bank has been
Ans.287(A) The marginal product or marginal established with the aim of funding
physical productivity of an input (factor of infrastructure projects in emerging economies
production) is the change in output resulting for sustainable development. The bank is
from employing one more unit of a particular headquartered in Shanghai.
input (for instance, the change in output when
a firm's labor is increased from five to six 291. Which one is not included in Non-Banking
units), assuming that the quantities of other Financial Institutions (NBFIs)?
inputs are kept constant. (A) EXIM (B) SIDBI
(C) NABARD (D) BOI
288. If at a price, market supply is greater than
market demand, we say that there is ________ Ans.291(D) Non-Banking Financial
in the market at that price. institutions refer to those institutions that
(A) Equilibrium (B) Excess Demand doesn’t accept chequable deposits nor extend
(C) Excess Supply loans to general public. So, going by this
(D) Marginal Revenue definition, Bank of India, is not an NBFC, but
rather a commercial bank.
Ans.288(C) An excess supply or economic
surplus is a situation in which the quantity of 292. By which Scheme by the Central Government
a good or service supplied is more than the aims at setting up an organized rural
quantity demanded, and the price is above the Panchayat in order to make the villages more
equilibrium level determined by supply and self-sustained.
demand. (A) Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday Abhiyan
(B) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
289. Who introduced the term 'Hindu rate of (C) Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva
growth’? Yojana
(A) Amartya Sen (B) Raj Krishna (D) Vidyanjali Yojana
(C) V. K. R. V. Rao (D) Kaushik Basu
Ans.292(A) Gram Uday Se Bharat Uday
Ans.289(B) Hindu rate of growth was given Abhiyan scheme was launched by the Central
by Raj Krishan. This concept refers to the low Government aiming at setting up an organized
annual growth rate of the planned economy of rural Panchayat in order to make the villages
India before the liberalizations of 1991, which more self-sustained. The abhiyan was
stagnated around 3.5% from 1950s to 1980s, launched on the birth anniversary of Dr.
Bhimrao Ambedkar by Prime Minister Shri
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Narendra Modi. It was launched in April Bhanu Pratap Sharma is the new Chairman of
2016. the Mumbai based Bureau. It is housed in
RBI's Central Office in Mumbai. The BBB
293. "Taxes on agricultural income" is listed in was the part of Indra Dhanush Plan of
which list given in the Seventh Schedule in government.
the Constitution of India.
(A) Union (B) State 296. Which of the following is not included in the
(C) Global (D) Concurrent assets of a commercial bank in India?
(A) Advances (B) Deposits
Ans.293(B) "Taxes on agricultural income" is (C) Investments
listed in the state list given in the Seventh (D) Money at call and short notice
Schedule in the Constitution of India. There
are three list, state list, union list and Ans.296(B) Commercial banks are authorized
concurrent list in the 7th schedule of the to provide a variety of financial services
Indian constitution. There are 97 items in the which includes loans, savings accounts, etc. In
union list, 47 items in the concurrent list and this article, we will talk about various
59 items in the state list. These three lists are functions that a commercial bank performs.
the division of the legislative section Accepting Deposits- Commercial banks
accept deposits from people, businesses, and
294. India's first official census operation was other entities in the form of:
undertaken in which year? Savings deposits – The commercial bank
(A) 1841 (B) 1881 accepts small deposits, from households or
(C) 1921 (D) 1961 persons, in order to encourage savings in the
economy.
Ans.294(B) India's first official census Time deposits – The bank accepts deposits
operation was undertaken in 1881. It has been for a fixed time and carries a higher rate of
conducted after every 10 years and it has been interest as compared to savings deposits.
conducted 15 times from then. It includes Current deposits – These accounts do not
acquiring and recording information about the offer any interest. Further, most current
members of a given population. accounts offer overdrafts up to a pre-specified
limit. The bank, therefore, undertakes the
295. The Chairmen of public sector banks are obligation of paying all cheques against
selected by the- deposits subject to the availability of
(A) Banks Board Bureau sufficient funds in the account.
(B) Reserve Bank of India 2. Lending of Funds
(C) Union Ministry of Finance Another important activity is lending funds to
(D) Management of concerned bank customers in the form of loans and advances,
cash credit, overdraft and discounting of bills,
Ans.295(A) Banks Board Bureau (BBB) is an etc.
autonomous body of the Government of India Bank as an Agent
tasked to improve the governance of Public A bank acts as an agent to its customers for
Sector Banks, recommend selection of chiefs various services like:
of government owned banks and financial Collecting bills, draft, cheques, etc.
institutions and to help banks in developing Paying the insurance premium, rent, loan
strategies and capital raising plans. In instalments, etc.
February 2016, the NDA government General Utility Services
approved the proposal for setting up BBB and There are several general utility services that
it started functioning from April 2016. The commercial banks offer like:
BBB works as step towards governance Issuing traveller cheques.
reforms in Public Sector Banks (PSBs) as Offering locker facilities for keeping
recommended by P.J. Nayak Committee. valuables in safe custody.
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297. Which of the following is issued by registered 299. The money multiplier in an economy
foreign portfolio investors to overseas increases with which one of the following?
investors who want to be part of the Indian (A) Increase in the cash reserve ratio.
stock market without registering themselves (B) Increase in the banking habit of the
directly? population.
(A) Certificate of Deposit (C) Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio.
(B) Commercial Paper (D) Increase in the population of the country.
(C) Promissory Note
(D) Participatory Note Ans.299(B) Money Multiplier and Reserve
Ratio. The Money Multiplier refers to how an
Ans.297(D) Participatory notes are often initial deposit can lead to a bigger final
referred to as PNs or P-Notes. These are increase in the total money supply. This bank
financial instruments used by investors and loan will, in turn, be re-deposited in banks
hedge funds to invest in the Indian securities, allowing a further increase in bank lending
and no registration is required with the SEBI, and a further increase in the money supply
the market watchdog in India. Investments
flowing in through PNs are considered as 300. In a given year in India, official poverty lines
offshore derivative investments (ODIs). are higher in some states than in others
Deutsche Bank and Citigroup are the leading because.
issuers of participatory notes. (A) poverty rates vary from State to State.
(B) price levels vary from State to State.
298. Which one of the following is not the most (C) Gross State Product varies from State to
likely measure the Government/RBI takes to State.
stop the slide of Indian rupee? (D) quality of public distribution varies from
(A) Curbing imports of non-essential goods- State to State.
and promoting exports. Ans.300(B) A common method used to
(B) Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue estimate poverty in India is based on the
rupee-denominated Masala Bonds. income or consumption levels and if the
(C) Easing conditions relating to external income or consumption falls below a given
commercial borrowing. minimum level, then the household is said to
(D) Following an expansionary monetary be Below the Poverty Line (BPL).
policy. Poverty Line Calculation: Poverty estimation
in India is now carried out by NITI Aayog’s
Ans.298(D) Monetary policy is the policy task force through the calculation of poverty
adopted by the monetary authority of a line based on the data captured by the
country that controls either the interest rate National Sample Survey Office under the
payable on very short-term borrowing or the Ministry of Statistics and Programme
money supply, often targeting inflation or the Implementation (MOSPI).
interest rate to ensure price stability and
general trust in the currency. 301. Which one of the following links all the
Unlike fiscal policy, which relies on taxation, ATMs in India?
government spending, and government (A) Indian banks' Association
borrowing, as tools for a government to (B) National Securities Depository Limited
manage cyclic financial swings such as (C) National Payments Corporation of India
recessions, monetary policy aims to (D) Reserve Bank of India
manipulate the money supply, like 'printing'
more money or decreasing the money supply Ans.301(C) The National Payments
by changing interest rates or removing excess Corporation of India is an umbrella
reserves. organization for operating retail payments and
settlement systems in India. Founded in 2008,
the NPCI is a not-for-profit organization
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registered under section 8 of the Companies (C) The opportunity cost is transferred from.
Act 2013, established by Reserve Bank of the consumers of the product to the tax-paying
India & IBA. The organization is owned by a public.
consortium of major banks, and has been (D) The opportunity cost is transferred from
promoted by the country's central bank, the the consumers of the product to the
Reserve Bank of India. The NPCI was Government.
incorporated in December 2008 and the
Certificate of Commencement of Business Ans.303(D) Opportunity Cost = Return of
was issued in April 2009. Most Lucrative Option – Return of Chosen
Option. If the government is investing in the
302. Which one of the following statements priority sector, somebody has to bear the cost,
correctly describes the meaning of legal and it is usually the taxpaying public itself.
tender money?
(A) The money which is tendered in courts of 304. Increase in absolute and per capita real GNP
law to defray the fee of legal cases. do not connote a higher level of economic
(B) The money which a creditor is under development, if
compulsion to accept in settlement of his (A) Industrial output fails to keep pace with
claims. agricultural output.
(C) The bank money in the form of cheques, (B) Agricultural output fails to keep pace with
drafts, bills of exchange, etc. industrial output.
(D) The metallic money in circulation in a (C) Poverty and unemployment increase.
country. (D) Imports grow faster than exports.

Ans.302(B) Legal tender is a form of money Ans.304(C) Economic development is not

that courts of law are required to recognize as possible with increase in per capita income, by
satisfactory payment for any monetary debt. which there is an increase in the productivity
Each jurisdiction determines what is legal of the labour and production. Increase in per
tender, but essentially it is anything which capita income is not possible with increase in
when offered ("tendered") in payment of a poverty and unemployment. Increase in
debt extinguishes the debt. There is no poverty and unemployment creates economic
obligation on the creditor to accept the class divide; unequal distribution of wealth
tendered payment, but the act of tendering the and resources.
payment in legal tender discharges the debt.
The creditor is not obligated to give change. 305. Despite being a high saving economy, capital
Some jurisdictions allow contract law to formation may not result in significant
overrule the status of legal tender, allowing increase in output due to-
for example merchants to specify that they (A) Weak administrative machinery
will not accept cash payments. Coins and (B) Illiteracy
banknotes are usually defined as legal tender (C) High population density
in many countries, but personal cheques, (D) High capital-output ratio
credit cards, and similar non-cash methods of
payment are usually not. Some jurisdictions Ans.305(D) The relationship between capital
may include a specific foreign currency as and output can be expressed by Incremental
legal tender, at times as its exclusive legal Capital Output Ratio (ICOR). ICOR shows
tender or concurrently with its domestic how certain amount of capital is being used to
currency. produce a single unit of production.
Higher Capital Output Ratio indicates that the
303. If a commodity is provided free to the public economy is inefficient in making best use of
by the Government, then. capital. It is difficult for that country to
(A) The opportunity cost is zero. produce without higher amount of capital.
(B) The opportunity cost is ignored.
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306. Which of the following is a most likely year, even a smaller rise in the Price Index
consequence of implementing the 'Unified will arithmetically give a high rate of inflation
Payments Interface (UPI)’? now. On the other hand, if the price index had
(A) Mobile wallets will not be necessary for risen at a high rate in the corresponding period
online payments. of the previous year and recorded high
(B) Digital currency will totally replace the inflation rate, a similar absolute increase in
physical currency in about two decades. the price index now will show a lower
(C) FDI inflows will drastically increase. inflation rate now.
(D) Direct transfer of subsidies to poor people An illustration of the base effect would be
will become very effective. like:
Price Index 100 goes to 150, and then to 200.
Ans.306(A) Unified Payments Interface (UPI) The initial increase of 50, gives the percentage
is an instant real-time payment system increase as 50% but the subsequent increase
developed by National Payments Corporation of 50 gives the percentage increase as
of India facilitating inter-bank transactions. 33.33%. This happens arithmetically as the
The interface is regulated by the Reserve base on which the percentage is calculated has
Bank of India and works by instantly increased from 100 to 150.
transferring funds between two bank accounts
on a mobile platform. Mobile wallets will not 309. In India, which of the following have the
be necessary for online payments. highest share in the disbursement of credit to
agriculture and allied activities?
307. In terms of economy, the visit by foreign (A) Commercial Banks
nationals to witness the XIX Common Wealth (B) Cooperative Banks
Games in India amounted to- (C) Regional Rural Banks
(A) Export (B) Import (D) Microfinance Institutions
(C) Production (D) Consumption
Ans.309(A) A commercial bank is a type of
Ans.307(A) An export in international trade is bank that provides services such as accepting
a good or service produced in one country that deposits, making business loans, and offering
is sold into another country. The seller of such basic investment products that is operated as a
goods and services is an exporter; the foreign business for profit.
buyer is an importer. It can also refer to a bank, or a division of a
Export of goods often requires the large bank, which deals with corporations or
involvement of customer’s authorities. From large/middle-sized business to differentiate it
the buyer's point of view an export is an from a retail bank and an investment bank.
import. Commercial banks accept various types of
deposits from public especially from its
308. What is “base effect”? clients, including saving account deposits,
(A) It is the impact of drastic deficiency in recurring account deposits, and fixed deposits.
supply due to failure of crops. These deposits are returned whenever the
(B) It is the impact of the surge in demand due customer demands it or after a certain time
to rapid economic growth. period.
(C) It is the impact of the price levels of
previous year on the calculation of inflation 310. Economic growth is usually coupled with-
rate. (A) Deflation (B) Inflation
(D) None of them. (C) Stagflation (D) Hyperinflation

Ans.308(C) The base effect relates to Ans.310(B) In economics, inflation is a

inflation in the corresponding period of the sustained increase in the general price level of
previous year, if the inflation rate was too low goods and services in an economy over a
in the corresponding period of the previous period of time. When the general price level
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rises, each unit of currency buys fewer goods (C) It is a tax on the final consumption of
and services; consequently, inflation reflects a goods or services and must ultimately be
reduction in the purchasing power per unit of borne by the consumer.
money – a loss of real value in the medium of (D) It is basically a subject of the Central
exchange and unit of account within the Government and the State Governments are
economy. The opposite of inflation is only a facilitator for its successful
deflation, a sustained decrease in the general implementation.
price level of goods and services. The
common measure of inflation is the inflation Ans.312(C) A value-added tax (VAT), known
rate, the annualized percentage change in a in some countries as a goods and services tax
general price index, usually the consumer (GST), is a type of tax that is assessed
price index, over time. Economists generally incrementally. It is levied on the price of a
believe that very high rates of inflation and product or service at each stage of production,
hyperinflation are caused by an excessive distribution or sale to the end consumer,
growth of the money supply. except where a business is the end consumer
which will reclaim this input value. It is
311. The lowering of Bank Rate by the Reserve similar to and is often compared to a sales tax.
Bank of India leads to- There are two main methods of calculating
(A) More liquidity in the market. VAT: the credit-invoice or invoice-based
(B) Less liquidity in the market. method, and the subtraction or accounts-based
(C) No change in the liquidity in the market. method. Using the credit-invoice method,
(D) Mobilization of more deposits by sales transactions are taxed, with the customer
commercial banks. informed of the VAT on the transaction, and
businesses may receive a credit for VAT paid
Ans.311(A) Bank rate, also known as on input materials and services. The credit-
discount rate in American English, is the rate invoice method is the most widely employed
of interest which a central bank charges on its method, used by all national VATs except for
loans and advances to a commercial bank. The Japan. Using the subtraction method, at the
bank rate is known by a number of different end of a reporting period, a business
terms depending on the country, and has calculates the value of all taxable sales then
changed over time in some countries as the subtracts the sum of all taxable purchases and
mechanisms used to manage the rate have the VAT rate is applied to the difference.
changed.
Whenever a bank has a shortage of funds, 313. A “closed economy” is an economy in which
they can typically borrow from the central (A) The money supply is fully controlled
bank based on the monetary policy of the (B) Deficit financing takes place
country. (C) Only exports take place
The borrowing is commonly done via repos: (D) Neither exports nor imports take place
the repo rate is the rate at which the central
bank lends short-term money to the banks Ans.313(D) A closed economy is completely
against securities. It is more applicable when self-sufficient, with no imports or exports
there is a liquidity crunch in the market. from international trade.
The need for raw materials produced
312. Which one of the following is not a feature of elsewhere that play a vital role as inputs to
“Value Added Tax”? final goods makes closed economies
(A) It is a multi-point destination-based inefficient.
system of taxation. A government may close off a specific
(B) It is a tax levied on value addition at each industry from international competition
stage of transaction in the production- through the use of quotas, subsidies, and
distribution chain. tariffs.
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In reality, there are no nations that have the Central bank is following a tight monetary
economies that are completely closed. policy as increase in rates will lead to decrease
in money supply thereby leading to decrease
314. The basic aim of Lead Bank Scheme is that: in inflation and reduction in investment.
(A) Big banks should try to open offices in
each district. 317. In India, deficit financing is used for raising
(B) There should be stiff competition among resources for-
the various nationalized banks. (A) economic development
(C) Individual banks should adopt particular (B) redemption of public debt
districts for intensive development. (C) adjusting the balance of payments
(D) All the banks should make intensive (D) reducing the foreign debt
efforts to mobilize deposits.
Ans. 317(A) Deficit financing is a necessary
Ans.314(C) The basic aim of Lead Bank evil in a welfare state as the states often fail to
Scheme is that there should be stiff generate tax revenue which is sufficient
competition among the various nationalized enough to take care of the expenditure of the
banks and big banks should try to open offices state. The basic intention behind deficit
in each district. financing is to provide the necessary impetus
to economic growth by artificial means.
315. The balance of payments of a country is a
systematic record of- 318. Disguised unemployment generally means.
(A) All import and transactions of a during a (A) large number of people remain
given period normally a year. unemployed.
(B) Goods exported from a country during a (B) alternative employment is not available.
year. (C) marginal productivity of labour is zero.
(C) Economic transaction between the (D) productivity of workers is low.
governments of one country to another.
(D) Capital movements from one country to Ans.318(C) Disguised unemployment exists
another. where part of the labor force is either left
without work or is working in a redundant
Ans.315(A) The balance of payments of a manner where worker productivity is
country is a systematic record of. The balance essentially zero. It is unemployment that does
of payments (BOP) of a country is the record not affect aggregate output. An economy
of all economic transactions between the demonstrates disguised unemployment when
residents of a country and the rest of the world productivity is low and too many workers are
in a particular period (over a quarter of a year filling too few jobs.
or more commonly over a year). Disguised unemployment exists frequently in
developing countries whose large populations
316. An increase in the Bank Rate generally create a surplus in the labor force. It can be
indicates that the: characterized by low productivity and
(A) market rate of interest is likely to fall. frequently accompanies informal labor
(B) Central Bank is no longer making loans to markets and agricultural labor markets, which
commercial banks. can absorb substantial quantities of labor.
(C) Central Bank is following an easy money
policy. 319. Priority Sector Lending by banks in India
(D) Central Bank is following a tight money constitutes the lending to:
policy. (A) agriculture
(B) micro and small enterprises
Ans.316(D) Bank rate refers to rate at which (C) weaker sections
the Central bank lends money to its clients for (D) All of the above
long term. An increase in this rate means that
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Ans.319(D) Priority Sector Lending is an

important role given by the (RBI) to the banks Ans.321(B) Supply of money remaining the
for providing a specified portion of the bank same when there is an increase in demand.
lending to few specific sectors like agriculture With increase in demand for money, people
and allied activities, micro and small will deposit less money in banks. Hence,
enterprises, poor people for housing, students banks will increase rate of interest to attract
for education and other low-income groups people to deposit money in bank.
and weaker sections. This is essentially meant
for an all-round development of the economy 322. Economic growth in country X will
as opposed to focusing only on the financial necessarily have to occur if -
sector. The broad categories of priority sector (A) there is technical progress in the world
for all scheduled commercial banks are as economy.
under: (B) there is population growth in X.
(i) Agriculture and Allied Activities (Direct (C) there is capital formation in X.
and Indirect finance): Direct finance to (D) the volume of trade grows in the world
agriculture shall include short, medium and economy.
long term loans given for agriculture and
allied activities directly to individual farmers, Ans.322(C) Capital formation (investment)
Self-Help Groups (SHGs) or Joint Liability brings additional income/production in the
Groups (JLGs) of individual farmers without economy which enhances growth. Other of
limit and to others (such as corporate, the given choices do not lead to 'necessay'
partnership firms and institutions) up to Rs. 20 growth.
lakh, for taking up agriculture/allied activities.
323. The national income of a country for a given
320. Which one of the following is likely to be the period is equal to the:
most inflationary in its effect? (A) total value of goods and services
(A) Repayment of public debt. produced by the nationals.
(B) Borrowing from the public to finance a (B) sum of total consumption and investment
budget deficit. expenditure.
(C) Borrowing from banks to finance a budget (C) sum of personal income of all individuals.
deficit. (D) money value of final goods and services
(D) Creating new money to finance a budget produced.
deficit.
Ans.323(A) National income means the value
Ans.320(D) When the government finances of goods and services produced by a country
its deficit by issuing new printed money during a financial year. Thus, it is the net
which the public adds to its holdings of result of all economic activities of any country
nominal balances to maintain the real value of during a period of one year and is valued in
money balances constant, we say the terms of money. National income is an
government is financing itself through the uncertain term and is often used
inflation tax. Note that monetary base is the interchangeably with the national dividend,
amount of the high-powered money. national output, and national expenditure. The
National Income is the total amount of income
321. Supply of money remaining the same when accruing to a country from economic activities
there is an increase in demand for money, in a years’ time. It includes payments made to
there will be? all resources either in the form of wages,
(A) a fall in the level of prices interest, rent, and profits.
(B) an increase in the rate of interest The progress of a country can be determined
(C) a decrease in the rate of interest. by the growth of the national income of the
(D) an increase in the level of income and country
employment.
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324. The terms ‘Marginal Standing Facility Rate’ disposable income and therefore limit the
and ‘Net Demand and Time Liabilities’, growth in consumer spending. Higher interest
sometimes appearing in news, are used in rates tend to reduce inflationary pressures and
relation to- cause an appreciation in the exchange rate.
(A) banking operations.
(B) communication networking. 327. The sales tax you pay while purchasing a
(C) military strategies. toothpaste is a.
(D) supply and demand of agricultural (A) Tax imposed by the Central Government.
products. (B) Tax imposed by the Central Government
but collected by the State Government
Ans.324(A) Banks borrow from the central (C) Tax imposed by the State Government but
bank by pledging government securities at a collected by the Central Government
rate higher than the repo rate under liquidity (D) Tax imposed and collected by the State
adjustment facility or LAF in short. The MSF Government
rate is pegged 100 basis points or a percentage
point above the repo rate. Ans.327(D) The taxes levied by the state
The Net Demand and Time Liabilities or government are determined, collected, and
NDTL shows the difference between the sum retained by them as the taxation amount varies
of demand and time liabilities (deposits) of a from state to state. Professional tax, VAT, and
bank (with the public or the other bank) and motor vehicle tax are some of the taxes that
the deposits in the form of assets held by the are levied and collected by the state. When it
other bank. comes to taxes levied on individuals or
organizations, there are two broad types of
325. If the interest rate is decreased in an economy, taxes. On the one hand you have taxes that are
it will. levied by the central government and on the
(A) Decrease the consumption expenditure in other, those levied by the state government.
the economy. The taxes that are levied by the state
(B) Increase the tax collection of the government are also governed and collected
Government. by them and can differ from one state to
(C) Increase the investment expenditure in the another. A simple example of this occurrence
economy. can be seen in the cost of certain things in
(D) Increase the total savings in the economy. various states.

Ans.325(C) If the interest rate is decreased in 328. The main objective of the 12th Five-Year Plan
an economy, it will. People will deposit less is.
money from the banks and borrow more (A) Inclusive growth and poverty reductions
money, hence money supply in the economy (B) Inclusive and sustainable growth
will increase. (C) Sustainable and inclusive growth to
reduce unemployment
326. If the interest rate is increase in an economy, (D) Faster, sustainable and more inclusive
it will. growth.
(A) Decrease the consumption expenditure in
the economy. Ans.328(D) The Twelfth Five-Year Plan of
(B) Increase the tax collection of the the Government of India has been decided to
Government. achieve a growth rate of 8.2% but the
(C) Increase the cost of borrowing. National Development Council (NDC) on 27
(D) Increase the total savings in the economy. December 2012 approved a growth rate of 8%
for the Twelfth Plan.
Ans.326(C) Higher interest rates tend to With the deteriorating global situation, the
moderate economic growth. Higher interest Deputy Chairman of the Planning
rates increase the cost of borrowing, reduce Commission Montek Singh Ahluwalia has
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said that achieving an average growth rate of (B) When there are only two buyers of a
9 percent in the next five years is not possible. product
The Final growth target has been set at 8% by (C) When there is only one buyer and one
the endorsement of the plan at the National seller of a product
Development Council meeting held in New (D) When there are two buyers and two sellers
Delhi. of a product

329. What does venture capital mean? Ans.331(C) A bilateral monopoly exists when
(A) A short-term capital provided to industries a market has only one supplier and one buyer.
(B) A long-term start-up capital provided to The one supplier will tend to act as a
new entrepreneurs monopoly power and look to charge high
(C) Funds provided to industries at times of prices to the one buyer. The lone buyer will
incurring losses look towards paying a price that is as low as
(D) Funds provided for replacement and possible. Since both parties have conflicting
renovation of industries goals, the two sides must negotiate based on
the relative bargaining power of each, with a
Ans.329(B) Venture capital (VC) is a form of final price settling in between the two sides'
private equity financing that is provided by points of maximum profit.
venture capital firms or funds to startups,
early-stage, and emerging companies that 332. Redistribution of income in a country can be
have been deemed to have high growth brought about through…
potential or which have demonstrated high (A) Progressive taxation combined with
growth (in terms of number of employees, progressive expenditure.
annual revenue, or both). Venture capital (B) Progressive taxation combined with
firms or funds invest in these early-stage regressive expenditure.
companies in exchange for equity, or an (C) Regressive taxation combined with
ownership stake, in those companies. Venture regressive expenditure.
capitalists take on the risk of financing risky (D) Regressive taxation combined with
start-ups in the hopes that some of the firms progressive expenditure.
they support will become successful. Because
start-ups face high uncertainty, VC Ans.332(A) Progressive taxation is a tax that
investments have high rates of failure. The takes a larger percentage from high-income
start-ups are usually based on an innovative earners than it does from low-income
technology or business model and they are individuals. Progressive expenditure means
usually from the high technology industries, large percentage of expenditure from high
such as information technology (IT), clean income earners than low income earners.
technology or biotechnology.
333. What will you call a system of taxation under
330. A person who starts a business to produce a which the poorer sections are taxed at higher
new product in the marketplace is known as: rates than the richer sections?
(A) A manager. (B) A bureaucrat. (A) Progressive tax (B) Proportional tax
(C) An entrepreneur. (D) Don’t know (C) Regressive tax (D) Degressive tax

Ans.330(C) The person who creates a new Ans.333(C) A regressive tax is a tax imposed
enterprise and embraces every challenge for in such a manner that the tax rate decreases as
its development and operation is known as an the amount subject to taxation increases.
entrepreneur. "Regressive" describes a distribution effect on
income or expenditure, referring to the way
331. Bilateral monopoly situation is. the rate progresses from high to low, so that
(A) When there are only two sellers of a the average tax rate exceeds the marginal tax
product rate. In terms of individual income and
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
481

wealth, a regressive tax imposes a greater capitalism. Here, private individuals are
burden (relative to resources) on the poor than unrestrained. They may determine where to
on the rich: there is an inverse relationship invest, what to produce or sell, and at which
between the tax rate and the taxpayer's ability prices to exchange goods and services. The
to pay, as measured by assets, consumption, laissez-faire marketplace operates without
or income. The opposite of a regressive tax is checks or controls.
a progressive tax, in which the average tax
rate increases as the amount subject to 336. The goods which people consume more, when
taxation rises In between is a flat or their price rises, because of its exclusive
proportional tax, where the tax rate is fixed as nature and appeal as a status symbol are called
the amount subject to taxation increases. __________.
(A) Essential goods (B) Capital goods
334. Which of the following tax systems will help (C) Veblen goods (D) Giffen goods
to reduce economic inequalities in India?
(A) Regressive Tax (B) Progressive Tax Ans.336(C) A veblen good is a good for
(C) Flat rate tax (D) None of these which demand increases as the price
increases, because of its exclusive nature and
Ans.334(B) A progressive tax is a tax in appeal as a status symbol. A Veblen good has
which the tax rate increases as the taxable an upward-sloping demand curve, which runs
amount increases. The term "progressive" counter to the typical downward-sloping
refers to the way the tax rate progresses from curve. However, a Veblen good is generally a
low to high, with the result that a taxpayer's high-quality, coveted product, in contrast to a
average tax rate is less than the person's Giffen good, which is an inferior product that
marginal tax rate. The term can be applied to does not have easily available substitutes.
individual taxes or to a tax system as a whole;
a year, multi-year, or lifetime. Progressive 337. Movement along the supply curve is known as
taxes are imposed in an attempt to reduce the _________.
tax incidence of people with a lower ability to (A) Contraction of supply
pay, as such taxes shift the incidence (B) Expansion of supply
increasingly to those with a higher ability-to- (C) Increase in supply
pay. The opposite of a progressive tax is a (D) Expansion and contraction of supply
regressive tax, where the average tax rate or
burden decreases as an individual's ability to Ans.337(D) A movement along the supply
pay increases. curve will occur when the price of the good
changes and the quantity supplied changes in
335. Which among the following is a characteristic accordance to the original supply relationship.
of capitalist economy? In other words, a movement alongs the supply
(A) Minimum government intervention curve is known as Expansion and Contraction
(B) Market forces are highly regulated of supply.
(C) It is a socialist system
(D) Maximum government intervention 338. The concept of joint sector implies
cooperation between.
Ans.335(A) Capitalism is an economic system (A) Public sector and private sector industries.
in which private individuals or businesses (B) State Government and Central
own capital goods. The production of goods Government.
and services is based on supply and demand in (C) Domestic and Foreign Companies.
the general market—known as a market (D) None of these.
economy—rather than through central
planning—known as a planned economy or Ans.338(A) The private sector consists of all
command economy. The purest form of privately owner, for-profit businesses in the
capitalism is free market or laissez-faire economy.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
482

The private sector tends to make up a larger estate activities, business and personal
share of the economy in free market, services, education, health and social work.
capitalist-based societies. It is made of:
Private sector businesses can also collaborate the market services sector (trade, transports,
with government run agencies in financial operations, business services,
arrangements called public-private personal services, accommodation and food
partnership. service activities, real estate, information-
The public sector (also called the state sector) communication); the non-market sector
is the part of the economy composed of both (public administration, education, human
public services and public enterprises. health, social work activities).
Public sectors include public goods and The perimeter of the tertiary sector is
governmental services such as the military, therefore defined by complementarity with
law enforcement, infrastructure (public roads, agricultural and industrial activities (the
bridges, tunnels, water supply, sewers, primary and secondary sectors).
electrical grids, telecommunications, etc.),
public transit, public education, along with 341. A closed economy is one which-
health care and those working for the (A) Does not trade with other countries.
government itself, such as elected officials. (B) Does not possess any means of
international transport.
339. ‘Hire and Fire’ is the policy of- (C) Does not have a coastal line.
(A) Capitalism (D) Is not a member of the UNO.
(B) Socialism
(C) Mixed economy Ans.341(A) A closed economy is a type of
(D) Traditional economy economy where the import and export of
goods and services don’t happen, which
Ans.339(A) Capitalism is an economic system implies that the economy is self-sufficient and
based on the private ownership of the means has no trading activity from outside
of production and their operation for profit. economics. The sole purpose of such an
Characteristics central to capitalism include economy is to meet all the domestic
private property, capital accumulation, wage consumers’ needs within the country’s border.
labor, voluntary exchange, a price system and In practice, there are no countries with closed
competitive markets. In a capitalist market economies at present. Brazil has the closest to
economy, decision-making and investments the closed economy. It has the least import of
are determined by every owner of wealth, goods compared to the countries from the rest
property or production ability in financial and of the world. It is impossible to meet all the
capital markets whereas prices and the goods and service demands within the
distribution of goods and services are mainly domestic boundary. With globalization and
determined by competition in goods and technology dependency building and
services markets. maintaining such economies can be a
herculean task. It can be considered that India
340. Which of the following is a part of tertiary was a closed economy till 1991 and so were
sector? the other countries across the globe. At
(A) Power and Transportation present, it is not quite possible to run a closed
(B) Animal Husbandry economy.
(C) Cotton Manufacturing
(D) Cultivation of Crops 342. What is the meaning of ‘Laissez Faire
Policy’?
Ans.340(A) The tertiary sector covers a wide (A) Fair legislation
range of activities from commerce to (B) Control over trade
administration, transport, financial and real (C) Withdrawal of ‘some restrictions’
(D) None of these
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
483

direct public ownership wherein production is

Ans.342(C) Laissez-faire economics is a carried out directly for use rather than for
theory that restricts government intervention profit. Socialist systems that utilize markets
in the economy. It holds that the economy is for allocating capital goods and factors of
strongest when all the government does is production among economic units are
protect individuals' rights. designated market socialism. When planning
Laissez-faire is French for "let do." In other is utilized, the economic system is designated
words, let the market do its own thing. If left as a socialist planned economy. Non-market
alone, the laws of supply and demand will forms of socialism usually include a system of
efficiently direct the production of goods and accounting based on calculation-in-kind to
services. Supply includes natural resources, value resources and goods.
capital, and labor. Demand includes purchases
by consumers, businesses, and the 345. Which one of the following is not correctly
government. matched?
The only role of government in a laissez-faire (A) IBRD- International Bank for
economy is to prevent any coercion against Reconstruction and Development.
individuals. Theft, fraud, and monopolies (B) IDA- International Development
prevent rational market forces from operating. Association.
Laissez-faire policies need three components (C) IFC- International Finance Company.
to work: capitalism, the free market economy, (D) MIGA- Multilateral Investment Guarantee
and rational market theory. Agency.

343. The demand curve shows that price and Ans.345(C) The International Finance
quantity demanded are- Corporation (IFC) is an international financial
(A) Directly related only. institution that offers investment, advisory,
(B) Directly proportional and also directly and asset-management services to encourage
related. private-sector development in less developed
(C) Inversely proportional and also inversely countries.
related.
(D) Inversely related only. 346. Which of the following is not matched
correctly?
Ans.343(C) Law of demand states that when (A) Wanchoo Committee : Financial Inclusion
price increases, the demand for the commodity (B) J Reddy Committee: Reforms in Insurance
falls and when price decreases, the demand for Sector
the commodity rises. The demand curve shows (C) Mahalanobis Committee: Income
that price and quantity demanded are inversely Distribution
proportional and also inversely related. (D) Raja Chelliah Committee : Tax Reforms

344. Economic planning is an essential feature of- Ans.346(A) Wanchoo Committee Report,
(A) capitalist economy provides for settlement of huge tax disputes
(B) socialist economy and immunity from criminal proceedings by a
(C) mixed economy Commission to be constituted by the Central
(D) dual economy Government when approached without...
chapter in action and its fall-out may benefit
Ans.344(B) Socialist economics comprises the nation by information about who the true
the economic theories, practices and norms of beneficiaries of this legislation.
hypothetical and existing socialist economic
systems. A socialist economic system is 347. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
characterized by social ownership and answer using the codes given below the lists.
operation of the means of production that may List-I List-II
take the form of autonomous cooperatives or a. Hyperinflation 1. high and typically
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
484

accelerating inflation b. Banking Regulation Act was passed 2.1982

b. Inflation 2. increase in the c. Nabard 3. temporary
general price level of goods slowing of the pace of price inflation
c. Deflation 3. lowering of the d. Disinflation 4. 1949
value of a country's currency Codes:
d. Devaluation 4. decrease in the A B C D
general price level of goods and services (A) 1 2 4 3
Codes: (B) 1 4 2 3
A B C D (C) 2 4 3 1
(A) 1 2 4 3 (D) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1 Ans.348(B) Stagflation, or recession-inflation,
(D) 2 1 4 3 is a situation in which the inflation rate is
high, the economic growth rate slows, and
Ans.347(A) In economics, hyperinflation is unemployment remains steadily high. It
very high and typically accelerating inflation. presents a dilemma for economic policy, since
It quickly erodes the real value of the local actions intended to lower inflation may
currency, as the prices of all goods increase. exacerbate unemployment.
This causes people to minimize their holdings National Bank for Agriculture and Rural
in that currency as they usually switch to more Development (NABARD) is an Apex
stable foreign currencies, often the US Dollar. Development Financial Institution in India.
Inflation refers to the rise in the prices of most The Bank has been entrusted with "matters
goods and services of daily or common use, concerning Policy Planning and Operations in
such as food, clothing, housing, recreation, the field of credit for Agriculture and other
transport, consumer staples, etc. Inflation Economic activities in Rural areas in India".
measures the average price change in a basket NABARD is active in developing Financial
of commodities and services over time. The Inclusion policy. NABARD was established
opposite and rare fall in the price index of this on the recommendations of B. Sivaramman
basket of items is called ‘deflation’. Inflation Committee, (by Act 61, 1981 of Parliament)
is indicative of the decrease in the purchasing on 12 July 1982 to implement the National
power of a unit of a country’s currency. This Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
is measured in percentage. Act 1981.
In economics, deflation is a decrease in the The Banking Regulation Act, 1949 is a
general price level of goods and services. legislation in India that regulates all banking
Deflation occurs when the inflation rate falls firms in India. Passed as the Banking
below 0%. Inflation reduces the value of Companies Act 1949, it came into force from
currency over time, but sudden deflation 16 March 1949 and changed to Banking
increases it. Regulation Act 1949 from 1 March 1966. It is
In modern monetary policy, a devaluation is applicable in jammu and Kashmir from 1956.
an official lowering of the value of a country's Disinflation is a decrease in the rate of
currency within a fixed exchange-rate system, inflation – a slowdown in the rate of increase
in which a monetary authority formally sets a of the general price level of goods and
lower exchange rate of the national currency services in a nation's gross domestic product
in relation to a foreign reference currency or over time. It is the opposite of reflation.
currency basket.
349. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
348. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
answer using the codes given below the lists: List-I List-II
List-I List-II a. Current Account Deficit 1. excess of its
a. Stagflation 1. inflation rate is total revenue expenditure
high b. Fiscal Deficit 2. measurement of a
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
485

country's trade A B C D
c. Budgetary Deficit 3. expenses exceed (A) 1 2 4 3
revenue (B) 1 4 2 3
d. Revenue Deficit 4. shortfall in a (C) 2 4 3 1
government's income compared (D) 2 1 4 3
Codes:
A B C D Ans.350(D) The Fiscal Responsibility and
(A) 1 2 4 3 Budget Management Act, 2003 (FRBMA) is
(B) 1 4 2 3 an Act of the Parliament of India to
(C) 2 4 3 1 institutionalize financial discipline, reduce
(D) 2 1 4 3 India's fiscal deficit, improve macroeconomic
management and the overall management of
Ans.349(C) A country's current account is the public funds by moving towards a
one of the two components of its balance of balanced budget and strengthen fiscal
payments, the other being the capital account. prudence. The main purpose was to eliminate
The current account consists of the balance of revenue deficit.
trade, net primary income or factor income The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is India's
and net unilateral transfers, that have taken central bank, which controls the issue and
place over a given period of time. supply of the Indian rupee. RBI is the
A fiscal deficit is a shortfall in a government's regulator of entire Banking in India. RBI
income compared with its spending. The plays an important part in the Development
government that has a fiscal deficit is Strategy of the Government of India.
spending beyond its means. A fiscal deficit is RBI regulates commercial banks and non-
calculated as a percentage of gross domestic banking finance companies working in India.
product (GDP), or simply as total dollars It serves as the leader of the banking system
spent in excess of income. and the money market. It regulates money
A budget deficit occurs when expenses exceed supply and credit in the country. The RBI
revenue and indicate the financial health of a carries out India's monetary policy and
country. The government generally uses the exercises supervision and control over banks
term budget deficit when referring to spending and non-banking finance companies in India.
rather than businesses or individuals. Accrued RBI was set up in 1935 under the Reserve
deficits form national debt. Bank of India Act,1934.
Revenue Deficit is the excess of its total Intermediate goods, producer goods or semi-
revenue expenditure to its total revenue finished products are goods, such as partly
receipts. Revenue Deficit is only related to finished goods, used as inputs in the
revenue expenditure and revenue receipts of production of other goods including final
the government. The difference between total goods. A firm may make and then use
revenue expenditure to the total revenue intermediate goods, or make and then sell, or
receipts is Revenue Deficit. buy then use them.
Direct demand refers to demand for goods
350. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct meant for final consumption; it is the demand
answer using the codes given below the lists: for consumers' goods like food items,
List-I List-II readymade garments and houses. Thus, the
a. (FRBM) Act 1. 1934 demand for an input or what is called a factor
b. Reserve Bank of India 2. 2003 of production is a derived demand; its demand
c. ‘Intermediate Goods’ 3. Commodities or depends on the demand for output where the
services which satisfy our wants directly input enters.
d. Direct Demand 4. Goods sold
between industries for the resale or production 351. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
of other goods. answer using the codes given below the lists:
Codes: List-I List-II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
486

a. Monopoly 1. defined by domestic product (GDP) minus depreciation

several idealizing conditions d. NNI 4. The total market
b. Oligopoly 2. A specific person value of all final goods and in country
or enterprise is the only supplier of a Codes:
particular good A B C D
c. Monopsony 3. monopsony is a (A) 1 2 4 3
market structure in which a single buyer (B) 1 4 2 3
substantially controls the market (C) 2 4 3 1
d. Perfect Competition 4. is a market form (D) 2 1 4 3
wherein a market or industry is dominated by
a small group of large sellers. Ans.352(C) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is
Codes: the monetary value of all finished goods and
A B C D services made within a country during a
(A) 1 2 4 3 specific period. GDP provides an economic
(B) 1 4 2 3 snapshot of a country, used to estimate the
(C) 2 4 3 1 size of an economy and growth rate. GDP can
(D) 2 1 4 3 be calculated in three ways, using
expenditures, production, or incomes.
Ans.351(C) An oligopoly is a market form Net national product (NNP) refers to gross
wherein a market or industry is dominated by national product (GNP), i.e. the total market
a small group of large sellers. Oligopolies can value of all final goods and services produced
result from various forms of collusion which by the factors of production of a country or
reduce competition and lead to higher prices other polity during a given time period, minus
for consumers. Oligopolies have their own depreciation. Similarly, net domestic product
market structure. (NDP) corresponds to gross domestic product
A monopoly is a specific type of economic (GDP) minus depreciation. Depreciation
market structure. A monopoly exists when a describes the devaluation of fixed capital
specific person or enterprise is the only through wear and tear associated with its use
supplier of a particular good. As a result, in productive activities.
monopolies are characterized by a lack of The net domestic product (NDP) equals the
competition within the market producing a gross domestic product (GDP) minus
good or service. depreciation on a country's capital goods.
A monopsony is a market structure in which a Net domestic product accounts for capital that
single buyer substantially controls the market has been consumed over the year in the form
as the major purchaser of goods and services of housing, vehicle, or machinery
offered by many would-be sellers. deterioration. The depreciation accounted for
A perfect competition specifically general is often referred to as "capital consumption
equilibrium theory, a perfect market, also allowance" and represents the amount of
known as an atomistic market, is defined by capital that would be needed to replace those
several idealizing conditions, collectively depreciated assets.
called perfect competition, or atomistic In national income accounting, net national
competition. income (NNI) is net national product (NNP)
minus indirect taxes. Net national income
352. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct encompasses the income of households,
answer using the codes given below the lists: businesses, and the government. Net national
List-I List-II income is defined as gross domestic product
a. GDP 1. net national plus net receipts of wages, salaries and
product (NNP) minus indirect taxes. property income from abroad, minus the
b. NNP 2. monetary value of depreciation of fixed capital assets (dwellings,
all finished good buildings, machinery, transport equipment and
c. NDP 3. equals the gross
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
487

physical infrastructure) through wear and tear c. Fiscal policy 3. taxes to levy, in
and obsolescence. what amounts
d. Tax policy 4. determines it will
353. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct lend money to or gives credit
answer using the codes given below the lists: Codes:
List-I List-II A B C D
a. Human Development Index was developed (A) 1 2 4 3
1. United Nations Development Programme (B) 1 4 2 3
(UNDP) (C) 2 4 3 1
b. Human Development Report (HDR) is an (D) 2 1 4 3
annual report published by
2. Mahbub-ul-Haq Ans.354(B) Monetary policy is the
c. Economic development depends on macroeconomic policy laid down by the
3. Steady growth begins central bank. It involves management of
d. ‘Take-off stage’ in an economy means money supply and interest rate and is the
4. Capital formation demand side economic policy used by the
Codes: government of a country to achieve
A B C D macroeconomic objectives like inflation,
(A) 1 2 4 3 consumption, growth and liquidity.
(B) 1 4 2 3 A firm’s credit policy is the set of principles
(C) 2 4 3 1 on the basis of which it determines who it will
(D) 2 1 4 3 lend money to or gives credit (the ability to
pay for goods or services at a later date).
Ans.353(D) Mahbub ul Haq was a Pakistani Fiscal policy is the means by which a
economist, politician and international government adjusts its spending levels and tax
development theorist who served as the 13th rates to monitor and influence a nation's
Finance Minister of Pakistan from 10 April economy. It is the sister strategy to monetary
1985 until 28 January 1988. policy through which a central bank
The Human Development Report (HDR) is an influences a nation's money supply. These two
annual report published by the Human policies are used in various combinations to
Development Report Office of the United direct a country's economic goals.
Nations Development Programme (UNDP). Tax policy is the choice by a government as to
The first HDR was launched in 1990 by the what taxes to levy, in what amounts, and on
Pakistani economist Mahbub ul Haq and whom. It has both microeconomic and
Indian Nobel laureate Amartya Sen. macroeconomic aspects.
Economists generally agree that economic
development and growth are influenced by 355. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
four factors: human resources, physical answer using the codes given below the lists:
capital, natural resources and technology. List-I List-II
Highly developed countries have governments a. Pradhan Mantri Jan Dhan Yojna (PMJDY)
that focus on these areas. 1. 2015
"Take Off Stage" in an economy means b. Sukanya Samriddhi Yojna (SSY) 2. 2014
Steady growth begins. c. Rajiv Gandhi Jeevandayee Arogya Yojana
(RGJAY) 3. 2015
354. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct d. Pradhan Mantri Jeevan Jyoti Bima Yojna
answer using the codes given below the lists: (PMJJBY) 4. 2012
List-I List-II Codes:
a. Monetary policy 1. Management of A B C D
money supply and interest rate (A) 1 2 4 3
b. Credit Policy 2. government (B) 1 4 2 3
adjusts its spending levels and tax rates (C) 2 4 3 1
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
488

(D) 2 1 4 3 b. Golden Handshake Scheme’ is associated

with 2. Monetary policy
Ans.355(D) PMJDY is a government scheme c. Imperial Bank was constituted in the year
for poor and needy with a National Mission 3. 1921
for Financial Inclusion, particularly to provide d. Reserve bank of India act
access to financial services such as savings 4. private investment in public enterprises
and deposit accounts, remittance, credit, Codes:
insurance, pension, etc. at affordable rates. A B C D
The scheme was announced on the eve of (A) 1 2 4 3
Independence Day, in 2014 by Prime Minister (B) 1 4 2 3
Narendra Modi. (C) 2 4 3 1
Narendra Modi launched the Sukanya (D) 2 1 4 3
Samridhi scheme, under the ‘Beti Bacho, Beti
Padhao’ campaign on 22nd January 2015. The Ans.356(C) Monetary policy is associated
aim of this scheme is to meet the education with interest rates and availability of credit.
and marriage expenses of a girl child. Instruments of monetary policy have included
It permits opening of one account per girl short-term interest rates and bank reserves
child. A family can have a maximum of two through the monetary base.
accounts if there are 2 girl children. A Golden Handshake Scheme is associated
However, a third account can also be opened, with voluntary retirement. It is a clause in an
provided the first or second delivery results in executive employment contract that provides
twins or triplets. the executive with a significant severance
Launched as a pilot project in 2012, this package in the case the executive loses his/her
scheme is a universal health scheme for the job through firing, job restructuring or even
economically backward in Maharashtra. scheduled retirement.
Anyone holding one of the four cards issued The Imperial Bank of India, which became the
by the Maharashtra government- Antyodaya State Bank of India after independence, came
card, Annapurna card, yellow ration card or into existence on January 27, 1921. The
orange ration card is eligible for this. history of modern banking in India can be
The government plans to provide free access traced back to 1806 when the Bank of
to medical care in 488 government hospitals Calcutta was established. In 1809 it was re-
Free treatment for 971 types of diseases named Bank of Bengal.
surgeries and therapies. Reserve Bank of India Act, 1934 is the
Announced by Finance Minister Arun Jaitley legislative act under which the Reserve Bank
during Budget 2015, the uniqueness of the of India was formed. This act along with the
PMJJBY is that it is a renewable insurance Companies Act, which was amended in 1936,
scheme, offering life insurance coverage of were meant to provide a framework for the
Rs. 2 lakhs on death. Two other schemes – supervision of banking firms in India.
Pradhan Mantri Suraksha Bima Yojana and
Atal Pension Yojna were launched alongside 357. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
it. answer using the codes given below the lists:
Any savings bank account holder, aged List-I List-II
between 18 and 50 years can avail this scheme a. Secondary market 1. investors buy and
Aadhar linking with the account is mandatory sell securities they already own
to obtain benefits offered in this scheme. b. Grey market 2. which goods have
been manufactured by or with the consent of
356. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct the brand owner
answer using the codes given below the lists: c. Primary market 3. is a clandestine
List-I List-II market or series of transactions
a. Interest Rate Policy’ is a component of d. Black market 4. where securities
1. 1934 are created
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
489

Codes: (A) 1 2 4 3
A B C D (B) 1 4 2 3
(A) 1 2 4 3 (C) 2 4 3 1
(B) 1 4 2 3 (D) 2 1 4 3
(C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3 Ans.358(B) Liberalization is a process
whereby a state lifts restriction on some
Ans.357(A) The secondary market is where private individual activities. Liberalization
investors buy and sell securities they already occurs when something which used to be
own. It is what most people typically think of banned is no longer banned, or when
as the "stock market," though stocks are also government regulations are relaxed.
sold on the primary market when they are first Economic liberalization is the reduction of
issued. state involvement in the economy.
A grey market is a market in which goods Globalization is the process of interaction and
have been manufactured by or with the integration among people, companies, and
consent of the brand owner but are sold governments worldwide. As a complex and
outside of the brand owner's approved multifaceted phenomenon, globalization is
distribution channels—an activity that can be considered by some as a form of capitalist
perfectly legal. expansion which entails the integration of
The primary market is where securities are local and national economies into a global,
created. It's in this market that firms sell unregulated market economy. Globalization
(float) new stocks and bonds to the public for has grown due to advances in transportation
the first time. An initial public offering, or and communication technology. With the
IPO, is an example of a primary market. increased global interactions comes the
A black market, underground economy or growth of international trade, ideas, and
shadow economy, is a clandestine market or culture.
series of transactions that has some aspect of Industrialization is the period of social and
illegality or is characterized by some form of economic change that transforms a human
noncompliant behavior with an institutional group from an agrarian society into an
set of rules. If the rule defines the set of goods industrial society. This involves an extensive
and services whose production and re-organization of an economy for the purpose
distribution is prohibited by law, non- of manufacturing.
compliance with the rule constitutes a black- As industrial workers' incomes rise, markets
market trade since the transaction itself is for consumer goods and services of all kinds
illegal. tend to expand and provide a further stimulus
to industrial investment and economic growth.
358. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Privatization can suggest several things
answer using the codes given below the lists: including migrating something from the
List-I List-II public sector into the private sector. It is also
a. Liberalisation 1. a state lifts seldom used as a metonym for deregulation
restrictions on some private individual when a massively regulated private firm or
activities industry becomes less organized. Government
b. Globalisation 2. is the period of services and operations may also be
social and economic change that transforms a (denationalized) privatized; in this
human group circumstance, private entities are tasked with
c. Industrialisation 3. It means a the application of government plans or
transfer of ownership, management execution of government assistance that had
d. Privatisation 4. is the process of earlier been the vision of state-run companies.
interaction and integration among people Some instances involve law enforcement,
Codes: revenue collection, and prison management.
A B C D
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
490

359. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Through the correct declaration and paying on
answer using the codes given below the lists: time of an SME’s taxes, the company ensures
List-I List-II budget transparency and prevents itself from
a. Tax Avoidance 1. taxable income is being legally prosecuted.
worked out after making relevant deductions. Income tax is calculated on the basis of tax
b. Tax Evasion 2. is the legal usage slab. Your taxable income is worked out after
of the tax regime in a single territory to one's making relevant deductions, other taxes that
own. you may have already paid (Advance Tax)
c. Tax Compliance 3. is the degree to and tax deducted at source (TDS), the
which a taxpayer complies (or fails to resultant taxable income will be taxed at the
comply) with the tax. slab rate that is applicable.
d. Tax Estimation 4. is the illegal
evasion of taxes by dondes, corporations, and 360. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
trusts. answer using the codes given below the lists:
Codes: List-I List-II
A B C D a. Average Revenue means 1. The purchasing
(A) 1 2 4 3 power of his earnings
(B) 1 4 2 3 b. Measure of a worker’s real wage 2. the
(C) 2 4 3 1 revenue per unit of commodity sold
(D) 2 1 4 3 c. If the income of buyers falls the demand of
an inferior good 3. Maximum
Ans.359(C) Tax avoidance is the legal usage d. marginal utility is zero, the total utility is
of the tax regime in a single territory to one's 4. rises
own advantage to reduce the amount of tax Codes:
that is payable by means that are within the A B C D
law. Tax sheltering is very similar, although (A) 1 2 4 3
unlike tax avoidance tax sheltering is not (B) 1 4 2 3
necessarily legal. (C) 2 4 3 1
Tax evasion is the illegal evasion of taxes by (D) 2 1 4 3
dondes, corporations, and trusts. Tax evasion
often entails taxpayers deliberately Ans.360(D) Average revenue is the revenue
misrepresenting the true state of their affairs generated per unit of output sold. It plays a
to the tax authorities to reduce their tax role in the determination of a firm’s profit. Per
liability and includes dishonest tax reporting, unit profit is average revenue minus average
such as declaring less income, profits or gains (total) cost.
than the amounts actually earned, or The real wage represents the purchasing
overstating deductions. Tax evasion is an power of wages that is, the quantity of goods
activity commonly associated with the the wages will purchase.
informal economy. An inferior good is one whose consumption
Tax Compliance is the degree to which a decreases when income increases and rises
taxpayer complies (or fails to comply) with when income falls. The demand curve for an
the tax rules of his or her country, for example inferior good shift out when income
by declaring income, filing a return, and decreases and shifts in when income
paying the tax due in a timely manner. increases.
Tax compliance refers to fulfilling all tax Marginal utility is the additional bit of
obligations as specified by the law freely and satisfaction, or amount of utility, gained from
completely. Tax compliance means each extra unit of consumption. For example,
submitting a tax return within the stipulated from eating just one more cookie. Total utility
period, correctly stating income and is maximum when marginal utility is zero. It
deductions, paying assessed taxes by the due is based in the law of diminishing marginal
date and paying levied taxes. utility.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
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361. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct Abnormal profit, also called excess profit,
answer using the codes given below the lists: supernormal profit or pure profit, is "profit of
List-I List-II a firm over and above what provides its
a. Disequilibrium 1. excess profit owners with a normal return to capital."
b. Super profit 2. is a tradition of Normal profit in turn is defined as opportunity
research centered on the role of disequilibrium cost of the owner's resources.
in economics.
c. Equilibrium 3. is a situation in 362. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
which economic forces such as supply and answer using the codes given below the lists:
demand are balanced. List-I List-II
d. Abnormal profit 4. is the excess of a. Relatively elastic 1. demand curve is
average profits over normal profits. represented by a straight horizontal line.
Codes: b. Perfectly elastic curve 2. Means that
A B C D relatively small changes in price.
(A) 1 2 4 3 c. Perfectly inelastic 3. alternative in
(B) 1 4 2 3 which relatively large changes in one variable.
(C) 2 4 3 1 d. Relatively inelastic 4. demand or
(D) 2 1 4 3 supply is an economic condition.
Codes:
Ans.361(C) Disequilibrium macroeconomics A B C D
is a tradition of research centered on the role (A) 1 2 4 3
of disequilibrium in economics. This approach (B) 1 4 2 3
is also known as non-Walrasian theory, (C) 2 4 3 1
equilibrium with rationing, the non-market (D) 2 1 4 3
clearing approach, and non-tâtonnement
theory. Early work in the area was done by Ans.362(D) Perfectly Inelastic. E = 0.
Don Patinkin, Robert W. Clower, and Axel Relatively elastic means that relatively small
Leijonhufvud. Their work was formalized into changes in price cause relatively large
general disequilibrium models, which were changes in quantity. In other words, quantity
very influential in the 1970s. is very responsive to price. More specifically,
Super profit is the excess of average profits the percentage change in quantity is greater
over normal profits. Under this method, than the percentage change in price.
goodwill is calculated on the basis of super A perfectly elastic demand curve is
profits. Normal rate of return on the capital represented by a straight horizontal line and
employed is compared with the actual average shows that the market demand for a product is
profits to find out the super profits. directly tied to the price. In fact, the demand
In economics, economic equilibrium is a is infinite at a specific price. Thus, a change in
situation in which economic forces such as price would eliminate all demand for the
supply and demand are balanced and in the product.
absence of external influences the Perfectly inelastic demand or supply is an
(equilibrium) values of economic variables economic condition in which a change in the
will not change. For example, in the standard price of a product or a service has no impact
text perfect competition, equilibrium occurs at on the quantity demanded or supplied because
the point at which quantity demanded and the elasticity of demand or supply is equal to
quantity supplied are equal. Market zero.
equilibrium in this case is a condition where a An elasticity alternative in which relatively
market price is established through large changes in one variable (usually price)
competition such that the amount of goods or cause relatively small changes in another
services sought by buyers is equal to the variable (usually quantity). In other words,
amount of goods or services produced by quantity is not very responsive to price.
sellers.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
492

Quantity does change but not much in groups, usually as a means of enterprise for
response to large changes in price. profit, rather than being owned by the state.

363. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 364. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II List-I List-II
a. Public Sector 1. is the part of the a. Expensive goods 1. Something are
economy composed of both public services more expensive of the actual market value
and public enterprises. b. Luxury goods 2. a good for which
b. Household Sector 2. is the part of the demand increases
economy made up by companies. c. Capital goods 3. Goods are
c. Corporate Sector 3. sometimes materials that satisfy human wants and
referred to as the citizen sector. provide utility
d. Private Sector 4. macroeconomic d. Economic goods 4. is a durable good
sector that includes the entire wants and- that is used in the production of goods or
needs. services.
Codes: Codes:
A B C D A B C D
(A) 1 2 4 3 (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 (B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1 (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3 (D) 2 1 4 3

Ans.363(B) The public sector (also called the Ans.364(A) A luxury good is a good for
state sector) is the part of the economy which demand increases more than
composed of both public services and public proportionally as income rises, so that
enterprises. expenditures on the good become a greater
Public sectors include public goods and proportion of overall spending. Luxury goods
governmental services such as the military, are in contrast to necessity goods, where
law enforcement, infrastructure (public roads, demand increases proportionally less than
bridges, tunnels, water supply, sewers, income.
electrical grids, telecommunications, etc.), something’s are more expensive of the actual
public transit, public education, along with market value rather than the actual cost/profit
health care and those working for the margin for example.
government itself, such as elected officials. • furniture
The aggregate macroeconomic sector that • real estate vs construction (in certain places)
includes the entire wants and-needs-satisfying • fashion items including worn stuff,
population of the economy. The primary fragrances and anything else comestic brand
economic role of the household sector is with a high-end brand even though its cheaper
consumption. The share of gross domestic to make then to do.
product purchased by the household sector is • illegal narcotics
termed consumption expenditures. A capital good is a durable good that is used
The business sector or corporate sector is the in the production of goods or services. Capital
part of the economy made up by companies. It goods are one of the three types of producer
is a subset of the domestic economy, goods, the other two being land and labour.
excluding the economic activities of general In economics, goods are materials that satisfy
government, of private households, and of human wants and provide utility, for example,
non-profit organizations serving individuals. to a consumer making a purchase of a
The private sector is the part of the economy, satisfying product. A common distinction is
sometimes referred to as the citizen sector, made between goods that are tangible
which is owned by private individuals or
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
493

property, and services, which are non- individual citizens and businesses. There is
physical. little government intervention or central
planning.
365. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists: 366. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
List-I List-II answer using the codes given below the lists:
a. major objective of monetary policy is to. List-I List-II
1. is free from the Government control. a. Income theory 1. the nation that a
b. Malthusian theory of population. particular amount of capital stock is necessary
2. Promote economic growth with price b. Investment theory 2. it is the flow of
stability. expenditures
c. MUDRA 3. Development c. Price theory 3. it is changes in
and Refinance Agency. income rather than in the money supply
d. Market Economy 4. increases in d. Expenditure theory 4. is concerned with
geometric ratio, food supply increases in the flow of goods
arithmetic ratio. Codes:
Codes: A B C D
A B C D (A) 1 2 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3 (B) 1 4 2 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 (C) 2 4 3 1
(C) 2 4 3 1 (D) 2 1 4 3
(D) 2 1 4 3
Ans.366(D) According to the income theory,
Ans.365(C) Monetary policy is designed as to it is the flow of expenditures which explains
maintain the price stability in the economy. the quantity of money and its velocity. The
Thus, its main objective is to promote income theory does not deny an important
economic growth with Price stability. role of the money supply—money is an
Monetary policy is the macroeconomic policy important variable but its impact on prices
laid down by central bank. cannot be taken for granted.
Malthusian theory of population states that The accelerator theory of investment, in its
“By nature human food increases in a slow simplest form, is based upon the nation that a
arithmetical ratio; man himself increases in a particular amount of capital stock is necessary
quick geometrical ratio unless want and vice to produce a given output.
stop him. The increase in numbers is For example, a capital stock of Rs. 400 billion
necessarily limited by the means of may be required to produce Rs. 100 billion of
subsistence Population invariably increases output. This implies a fixed relationship
when the means of subsistence increase, between the capital stock and output.
unless prevented by powerful and obvious Price theory, “is concerned with the flow of
checks. goods and services from business firms to
Micro Units Development and Refinance consumers, the composition of the flow, and
Agency Bank (or MUDRA Bank) is a public the evaluation or pricing of the component
sector financial institution in India. It provides parts of the flow. It is concerned, too, with the
loans at low rates to micro-finance institutions flow of productive resources (or their
and non-banking financial institutions which services) from resource owners to business
then provide credit to MSMEs. It was firms, with their evaluation, and with their
launched by Prime Minister Narendra Modi allocation among alternative uses.”
on 8 April 2015. According to them, it is changes in income
A market economy is an economic system in rather than in the money supply which cause
which economic decisions and the pricing of changes in the aggregate demand. When
goods and services are guided solely by the income increases, aggregate demand for
aggregate interactions of a country’s
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
494

goods and services also increases. People to honor Mahatma Gandhi’s vision of a Clean
spend more and the price level rises. country.
Initially, this Swachh Bharat Abhiyan
367. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct campaign was run on a national level in all the
answer using the codes given below the lists. towns, rural and urban areas.
List-I List-II HRIDAY scheme called National Heritage
a. Apprenticeship Promotion Scheme 1. 2014 City Development and Augmentation Yojana
b. Saansad Adarsh Gram Yojana 2. 2016 was launched by the Ministry of Housing and
c. Swachh Bharat Abhiyan 3. 2015 Urban Affairs on 21st January 2015. This
d. HRIDAY scheme 4. 2014 scheme was introduced to preserve and
Codes: revitalize the rich cultural heritage of the
A B C D country. HRIDAY scheme aims in the
(A) 1 2 4 3 conservation of heritage, urban planning and
(B) 1 4 2 3 in increasing the economic growth of the
(C) 2 4 3 1 heritage cities. The National Heritage City
(D) 2 1 4 3 Development and Augmentation Yojana
emphasize on the accessibility, security,
Ans.367(D) National Apprenticeship safety, livelihood, cleanliness and faster
Promotion Scheme (NAPS) is a new scheme service delivery in the heritage cities.
of Government of India to promote
apprenticeship. It was launched on19th 368. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
August 2016. Apprenticeship Training answer using the codes given below the lists.
consists of Basic Training and On-the-Job List-I List-II
Training/Practical Training at workplace in a. Microeconomics 1. is the study of
the industry. individuals and business decisions.
The NAPS is effective from notification date b. Macroeconomics 2. the study of how
of 19th August, 2016. goods and services are created or
The main objective of the scheme is to manufactured.
promote apprenticeship training and to c. Production Theory 3. is the quantitative
increase the engagement of apprentices. application of statistical and mathematical
SAGY popularly known as ‘Saanjhi’ was models.
launched by PM Narendra Modi under the d. Econometrics 4. studies the
Government of India on 11th October 2014. behavior of a country and how its policies
SAGY is a development programme project affect the economy as a whole.
focusing mainly on the social and cultural Codes:
development of the villages. Under this A B C D
yojana, each member of the parliament is (A) 1 2 4 3
responsible for developing the institutional (B) 1 4 2 3
and physical infrastructure in three villages (C) 2 4 3 1
each by the year 2019. Saansad Aadarsh Gram (D) 2 1 4 3
Yojana was established with an aim to
develop three villages by 2019 followed by Ans.368(B) Microeconomics studies
the development of five Adarsh Grams by the individuals and business decisions, while
year 2024. It also aims at achieving objectives macroeconomics analyzes the decisions made
apart from infrastructure development along by countries and governments.
with developing various model villages. Microeconomics focuses on supply and
Swachh Bharat Abhiyan is one of the most demand, and other forces that determine price
popular and significant missions in the levels, making it a bottom-up approach.
History of India. This campaign was Macroeconomics takes a top-down approach
introduced by the Prime Minister, Narendra and looks at the economy as a whole, trying to
Modi and was launched on 2nd October 2014 determine its course and nature.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
495

Macroeconomics, on the other hand, studies Commodity money consists of objects having
the behavior of a country and how its policies value or use in themselves (intrinsic value) as
affect the economy as a whole. It analyzes well as their value in buying goods. This is in
entire industries and economies, rather than contrast to representative money, which has
individuals or specific companies, which is little or no intrinsic value but represents
why it's a top-down approach. something of value, and fiat money, which
Production Theory: This principle is the study has value only because it has been established
of how goods and services are created or as money by government regulation.
manufactured. A financial corporation that facilitates the
Econometrics is the quantitative application of completion of money transfers for other banks
statistical and mathematical models using data and exchanges. A type of intermediary bank
to develop theories or test existing hypotheses that, like Federal Reserve Banks, serves as a
in economics and to forecast future trends clearinghouse for checks.
from historical data. It subjects real-world
data to statistical trials and then compares and 370. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
contrasts the results against the theory or answer using the codes given below the lists.
theories being tested. List-I List-II
a. Demand Deposits 1. interest-bearing
369. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct account at a bank or credit union.
answer using the codes given below the lists. b. Money Market Account 2. consists of funds
List-I List-II held in a bank account.
a. Certificates of Deposit 1. A type of c. Savings Accounts 3. traditional street-
investment instrument issued primarily by side business that offers products and services
banks to its customers.
b. Checking Account 2. a deposit account d. Brick-and-Mortar 4. future purchase or
held at a financial institution to simply weather any financial emergencies
c. Commodity Money 3. A financial that arise.
corporation that facilitates the completion of Codes:
money A B C D
d. Clearinghouse Corporation 4. Whose value (A) 1 2 4 3
comes from a commodity of. (B) 1 4 2 3
Codes: (C) 2 4 3 1
A B C D (D) 2 1 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 Ans.370(D) A demand deposit account
(C) 2 4 3 1 (DDA) consists of funds held in a bank
(D) 2 1 4 3 account from which deposited funds can be
withdrawn at any time, such as checking
Ans.369(A) A type of investment instrument accounts. DDA accounts can pay interest on a
issued primarily by banks. Investors lend deposit into the accounts but aren’t required.
money to the financial institution at a set A DDA allows funds to be accessed anytime,
interest rate for a fixed period of time. while a term deposit account restricts access
A checking account is a deposit account held for a predetermined time.
at a financial institution that allows A money market account is an interest-
withdrawals and deposits. Also called demand bearing account at a bank or credit union—not
accounts or transactional accounts, checking to be confused with a money market mutual
accounts are very liquid and can be accessed fund. Sometimes referred to as money market
using checks, automated teller machines, and deposit accounts (MMDA), money market
electronic debits, among other methods. accounts (MMA) have some features not
Commodity money is money whose value found in other types of accounts. Most money
comes from a commodity of which it is made. market accounts pay a higher interest rate than
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
496

regular passbook savings accounts and often Modi along with the other provisions of
include check writing and debit card Taxation Laws (Second Amendment) Act,
privileges. They also come with restrictions 2016. It came into effect from 17th December
that make them less flexible than a regular 2016 under the Ministry of Finance.
checking account. They are important for UJALA scheme was launched by PM
calculating tangible net worth. Narendra Modi on 1st May 2015 under the
Savings accounts can be a great place to stash government of India. The Ujala Scheme was
cash you'll need for a large future purchase or established by replacing the Bachat Lamp
to simply weather any financial emergencies Yojana is a joint initiative of Public Sector
that arise. But if you choose the wrong Undertaking of the Government of India,
savings account, you won't earn anything after Energy Efficiency Services Limited (EESL)
inflation and possible fees—and you could under the Union Ministry of Power and the
even lose money. Electricity Distribution Company.
The term "brick-and-mortar" refers to a Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban
traditional street-side business that offers Transformation (AMRUT) was launched in
products and services to its customers face-to- June 2015 by PM Narendra Modi under the
face in an office or store that the business Government of India. The AMRUT scheme is
owns or rents. The local grocery store and the an initiative to provide basic civic amenities
corner bank are examples of brick-and-mortar to the urban areas to improve the quality of
companies. Brick-and-mortar businesses have life with major focus to the poor and the
found it difficult to compete with mostly web- disadvantaged.
based businesses like (AMZN) because the
latter usually have lower operating costs and 372. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
greater flexibility. answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II
371. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct a. Inflation 1. a quantitative
answer using the codes given below the lists. measure of the rate at which the average price
List-I List-II level of a basket of selected goods and
a. Jal Shakti 1. 2015 services in an economy increases.
b. Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana b. Purchasing Power 2. refer to stocks,
2. 2019 bonds, futures or other securities.
c. UJALA scheme 3. 2015 c. Marginable 3. efers to the
d. Atal Mission for Rejuvenation and Urban process of offering shares of a private
Transformation (AMRUT) 4. 2016 corporation.
Codes: d. Initial Public Offering 4. the value of a
A B C D currency expressed in terms of the amount of
(A) 1 2 4 3 goods.
(B) 1 4 2 3 Codes:
(C) 2 4 3 1 A B C D
(D) 2 1 4 3 (A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
Ans.371(C) The Ministry of Jal Shakti was (C) 2 4 3 1
established in May 2019 under Government of (D) 2 1 4 3
India. Two ministries namely the Ministry of
Water Resources, River Development & Ans.372(B) Inflation is a quantitative measure
Ganga Rejuvenation, as well as the Ministry of the rate at which the average price level of
of Drinking Water and Sanitation, were a basket of selected goods and services in an
merged together to form the Ministry of Jal economy increases over some period of time.
Shakti. It is the rise in the general level of prices
The Pradhan Mantri Garib Kalyan Yojana was where a unit of currency effectively buys less
launched in the year 2016 by PM Narendra than it did in prior periods. Often expressed as
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
497

a percentage, inflation thus indicates a Ans.373(C) Deflation is a general decline in

decrease in the purchasing power of a nation’s prices for goods and services, typically
currency. associated with a contraction in the supply of
money and credit in the economy. During
Purchasing power is the value of a currency deflation, the purchasing power of currency
expressed in terms of the amount of goods or rises over time.
services that one unit of money can buy. Monetary policy, the demand side of
Purchasing power is important because, all economic policy, refers to the actions
else being equal, inflation decreases the undertaken by a nation's central bank to
amount of goods or services you would be control money supply to achieve
able to purchase. macroeconomic goals that promote
Marginable securities refer to stocks, bonds, sustainable economic growth.
futures or other securities capable of being Monetary policy can be broadly classified as
traded on margin. Securities traded on margin, either expansionary or contractionary.
paid for by a loan, are facilitated through a Liquidity describes the degree to which an
brokerage or other financial institution that asset can be quickly bought or sold in the
lends the money for these trades. Securities market at a price reflecting its intrinsic value.
with high liquidity are more likely to be Cash is universally considered the most liquid
marginable. asset because it can most quickly and easily
An initial public offering (IPO) refers to the be converted into other assets. Tangible
process of offering shares of a private assets, such as real estate, fine art, and
corporation to the public in a new stock collectibles, are all relatively illiquid. Other
issuance. Public share issuance allows a financial assets, ranging from equities to
company to raise capital from public partnership units, fall at various places on the
investors. The transition from a private to a liquidity spectrum.
public company can be an important time for An exchange rate is the value of a country's
private investors to fully realize gains from currency vs. that of another country or
their investment as it typically includes share economic zone.
premiums for current private investors. Most exchange rates are free-floating and will
Meanwhile, it also allows public investors to rise or fall based on supply and demand in the
participate in the offering. market.

373. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct 374. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists. answer using the codes given below the lists
List-I List-II List-I List-II
a. Deflation 1. the value of one a. Floating Exchange Rate 1. is a large
nation's currency versus the currency of quantity of currency maintained by central
another nation or economic zone. banks.
b. Monetary Policy 2. a general decline b. Supply and Demand. 2. is a regime where
in prices for goods and services. the currency price of a nation is set by.
c. Liquidity 3. refers to the ease c. Fixed Exchange Rate. 3. is a regime
with which an asset. applied by a government or central bank ties
d. Exchange Rate 4. the demand side the country's currency official exchange rate.
of economic policy. d. Reserve Currency. 4. the most
Codes: fundamental concepts of economics.
A B C D Codes:
(A) 1 2 4 3 A B C D
(B) 1 4 2 3 (A) 1 2 4 3
(C) 2 4 3 1 (B) 1 4 2 3
(D) 2 1 4 3 (C) 2 4 3 1
(D) 2 1 4 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
498

Ans.374(C) A floating exchange rate is a Ans.375(C) Fiat money is a government-

regime where the currency price of a nation is issued currency that isn't backed by a
set by the forex market based on supply and commodity such as gold.
demand relative to other currencies. This is in Fiat money gives central banks greater control
contrast to a fixed exchange rate, in which the over the economy because they can control
government entirely or predominantly how much money is printed.
determines the rate. Most modern paper currencies, such as the
Supply and demand form the most U.S. dollar, are fiat currencies.
fundamental concepts of economics. Whether One danger of fiat money is that governments
you are an academic, farmer, pharmaceutical will print too much of it, resulting in
manufacturer, or simply a consumer, the basic hyperinflation.
premise of supply and demand equilibrium is Hyperinflation is a term to describe rapid,
integrated into your daily actions. Only after excessive, and out-of-control general price
understanding the basics of these models can increases in an economy. While inflation is a
the more complicated aspects of economics be measure of the pace of rising prices for goods
mastered. and services, hyperinflation is rapidly rising
A fixed exchange rate is a regime applied by a inflation, typically measuring more than 50%
government or central bank ties the country's per month.
currency official exchange rate to another Although hyperinflation is a rare event for
country's currency or the price of gold. The developed economies, it has occurred many
purpose of a fixed exchange rate system is to times throughout history in countries such as
keep a currency's value within a narrow band. China, Germany, Russia, Hungary, and
A reserve currency is a large quantity of Argentina.
currency maintained by central banks and The Consumer Price Index (CPI) is a measure
other major financial institutions to prepare that examines the weighted average of prices
for investments, transactions, and of a basket of consumer goods and services,
international debt obligations, or to influence such as transportation, food, and medical care.
their domestic exchange rate. A large It is calculated by taking price changes for
percentage of commodities, such as gold and each item in the predetermined basket of
oil, are priced in the reserve currency, causing goods and averaging them. Changes in the
other countries to hold this currency to pay for CPI are used to assess price changes
these goods. associated with the cost of living. The CPI is
one of the most frequently used statistics for
375. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct identifying periods of inflation or deflation.
answer using the codes given below the lists Consumer goods are products bought for
List-I List-II consumption by the average consumer.
a. Fiat Money 1. products bought Alternatively called final goods, consumer
for consumption by the average consumer goods are the end result of production and
b. Hyperinflation 2. government- manufacturing and are what a consumer will
issued currency that is not backed by a see stocked on the store shelf. Clothing, food,
physical commodity, and jewellery are all examples of consumer
c. Consumer Price Index (CPI) 3. is a measure goods. Basic or raw materials, such as copper,
that examines the weighted average of prices are not considered consumer goods because
d. Consumer Goods 4. is a term to they must be transformed into usable
describe rapid, excessive, and out-of-control products.
Codes:
A B C D 376. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
(A) 1 2 4 3 answer using the codes given below the lists.
(B) 1 4 2 3 List-I List-II
(C) 2 4 3 1 a. Legal tender 1. is any thing
(D) 2 1 4 3
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
499

recognized by law as a means to settle a expand the economy by freeing capital for
public or private debt lending.
b. Fiat Money 2. is government-
issued currency that is not backed by a 377. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
physical commodity, answer using the codes given below the lists.
c. Mint 3. which only a List-I List-II
fraction of bank deposits are backed by actual a. Liquidity Adjustment facility (LAF)
cash 1. is a tool used in monetary policy,
d. Fractional Reserve Banking 4. primary b. Repurchase Agreement 2. refers to a
producer of a country's coin currency, central bank buying or selling short-term
Codes: Treasuries.
A B C D c. Open Market Operations 3. is the minimum
(A) 1 2 4 3 percentage of deposits that a commercial bank
(B) 1 4 2 3 has to maintain.
(C) 2 4 3 1 d. Statutory Liquidity Ratio – SLR 4. is a
(D) 2 1 4 3 form of short-term borrowing for dealers.
Codes:
Ans.376(A) Legal tender is anything A B C D
recognized by law as a means to settle a (A) 1 2 4 3
public or private debt or meet a financial (B) 1 4 2 3
obligation, including tax payments, contracts, (C) 2 4 3 1
and legal fines or damages. The national (D) 2 1 4 3
currency is legal tender in practically every
country. A creditor is legally obligated to Ans.377(B) A liquidity adjustment facility
accept legal tender toward repayment of a (LAF) is a tool used in monetary policy,
debt. primarily by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI),
Fiat money is government-issued currency that allows banks to borrow money through
that is not backed by a physical commodity, repurchase agreements (repos) or for banks to
such as gold or silver, but rather by the make loans to the RBI through reverse repo
government that issued it. The value of fiat agreements. This arrangement manages
money is derived from the relationship liquidity pressures and assures basic stability
between supply and demand and the stability in the financial markets. In the United States,
of the issuing government, rather than the the Federal Reserve transacts repos and
worth of a commodity backing it as is the case reverse repos under its open market
for commodity money. Most modern paper operations.
currencies are fiat currencies, including the A repurchase agreement (repo) is a form of
U.S. dollar, the euro, and other major global short-term borrowing for dealers in
currencies. government securities. In the case of a repo, a
A mint is a primary producer of a country's dealer sells government securities to investors,
coin currency, and it has the consent of the usually on an overnight basis, and buys them
government to manufacture coins to be used back the following day at a slightly higher
as legal tender. Along with production, the price. That small difference in price is the
mint is also responsible for the distribution of implicit overnight interest rate. Repos are
the currency, protection of the mint's assets typically used to raise short-term capital. They
and overseeing its various production are also a common tool of central bank open
facilities. market operations.
Fractional reserve banking is a system in Open market operations (OMO) refers to a
which only a fraction of bank deposits are central bank buying or selling short-term
backed by actual cash on hand and available Treasuries in the open market in order to
for withdrawal. This is done to theoretically influence the money supply, thus influencing
short term interest rates.
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These open market operations are the method accounts, high-yield savings accounts,
the Fed uses to manipulate interest rates. government bonds and Treasury bills.
The government uses the SLR to regulate Usually, these investments are high-quality
inflation and fuel growth. Increasing the SLR and highly liquid assets or investment
will control inflation in the economy while vehicles.
decreasing the statutory liquidity rate will
cause growth in the economy. The SLR was 379. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
prescribed by Section 24 (2A) of Banking answer using the codes given below the lists.
Regulation Act, 1949. List-I List-II
a. Mutual Funds 1. a type of financial
378. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct vehicle made up of a pool of money.
answer using the codes given below the lists. b. Near Money 2. a financial
List-I List-II economics term describing non-cash assets
a. Moral suasion 1. as marketable that are highly liquid.
securities or temporary investments. c. Representative money 3. One of the
b. Narrow Money 2. the act of functions of money.
persuading a person or group to act. d. Store of Value 4. type of money
c. Broad Money 3. is a category for that can be redeemed for something of real
measuring the amount of money. value.
d. Short-Term Investments 4. a category of Codes:
money supply that includes all physical A B C D
money. (A) 1 2 4 3
Codes: (B) 1 4 2 3
A B C D (C) 2 4 3 1
(A) 1 2 4 3 (D) 2 1 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3
(C) 2 4 3 1 Ans.379(A) A mutual fund is a type of
(D) 2 1 4 3 financial vehicle made up of a pool of money
collected from many investors to invest in
Ans.378(C) Moral suasion is the act of securities like stocks, bonds, money market
persuading a person or group to act in a instruments, and other assets. Mutual funds
certain way through rhetorical appeals, are operated by professional money managers,
persuasion, or implicit & explicit threats—as who allocate the fund's assets and attempt to
opposed to the use of outright coercion or produce capital gains or income for the fund's
physical force. In economics, it is sometimes investors.
used in reference to central banks. Near money is a financial economics term
Narrow money is a category of money supply describing non-cash assets that are highly
that includes all physical money such as coins liquid and easily converted to cash. Near
and currency, demand deposits and other money can also be referred to as quasi-money
liquid assets held by the central bank. In the or cash equivalents. The nearness of near
United States, narrow money is classified as moneys is important for determining liquidity
M1 (M0 + demand accounts). In the United levels. Examples of near money assets include
Kingdom, M0 is referenced as narrow money. savings accounts, certificates of deposit
Short-term investments, also known as (CDs), foreign currencies, money market
marketable securities or temporary accounts, marketable securities, and Treasury
investments, are those which can easily be bills. In general, near money assets included
converted to cash, typically within 5 years. in near money analysis will vary depending
Many short-term investments are sold or on the type of analysis.
converted to cash after a period of only 3-12 A type of money that can be redeemed for
months. Some common examples of short- something of real value. In the past, most
term investments include CDs, money market representative money was backed by gold and
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
501

silver. Countries pegged the value of their priced. A call loan rate is also called a
currency to a certain amount of the precious broker’s call.
metal and promised to exchange their The capital account, in international
currency for the metal on demand. macroeconomics, is the part of the balance of
One of the functions of money. Money serves payments which records all transactions made
as a store of value in that it allows us to store between entities in one country with entities
the rewards of our labor or business in a in the rest of the world. These transactions
convenient tool. In other words, money lets us consist of imports and exports of goods,
store the value of a long, hard week of work services, capital, and as transfer payments
in a tidy little stack of cash. such as foreign aid and remittances. The
balance of payments is composed of a capital
380. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct account and a current account—though a
answer using the codes given below the lists. narrower definition breaks down the capital
List-I List-II account into a financial account and a capital
a. Call Money 1. a financial account.
statement that reports a company's assets. A balance sheet is a financial statement that
b. Call Loan Rate 2. rate at which reports a company's assets, liabilities and
short term funds are borrowed and lent in the shareholders' equity at a specific point in time,
money market. and provides a basis for computing rates of
c. Capital Account 3. in international return and evaluating its capital structure. It is
macroeconomics, is the part of the balance of a financial statement that provides a snapshot
payments. of what a company owns and owes, as well as
d. Balance Sheet 4. the short-term the amount invested by shareholders.
interest rate charged by banks on loans
extended to broker-dealers. 381. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
Codes: answer using the codes given below the lists.
A B C D List-I List-II
(A) 1 2 4 3 a. Amortization 1. an accounting
(B) 1 4 2 3 technique used to periodically lower the book
(C) 2 4 3 1 value of a loan.
(D) 2 1 4 3 b. Debt 2. an amount of
money borrowed by one party from another.
Ans.380(C) Call money, also known as c. Commercial Paper 3. an asset that a
"money at call," is a short-term financial loan lender accepts as security for a loans.
that is payable immediately, and in full, when d. Collateral 4. a commonly used
the lender demands it. Unlike a term loan, type of unsecured, short-term debt.
which has a set maturity and payment Codes:
schedule, call money does not have to follow A B C D
a fixed schedule, nor does the lender have to (A) 1 2 4 3
provide any advanced notice of repayment. (B) 1 4 2 3
A call loan rate is the short-term interest rate (C) 2 4 3 1
charged by banks on loans extended to (D) 2 1 4 3
broker-dealers. A call loan is a loan made by a
bank to a to broker-dealer to cover a loan the Ans.381(A) Amortization is an accounting
broker-dealer granted to a client for a margin technique used to periodically lower the book
account. A call loan is payable by the broker- value of a loan or intangible asset over a set
dealer on call (i.e., on demand or period of time. The term "amortization" can
immediately) upon receiving such a request refer to two situations. First, amortization is
from the lending institution. The call loan rate used in the process of paying off debt through
forms the basis upon which margin loans are regular principal and interest payments over
time. An amortization schedule is used to
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
502

reduce the current balance on a loan, for Ans.382(C) A lien is a claim or legal right
example a mortgage or car loan, through against assets that are typically used as
instalment payments. collateral to satisfy a debt. A lien could be
Debt is an amount of money borrowed by one established by a creditor or a legal judgement.
party from another. Debt is used by many A lien serves to guarantee an underlying
corporations and individuals as a method of obligation, such as the repayment of a loan. If
making large purchases that they could not the underlying obligation is not satisfied, the
afford under normal circumstances. A debt creditor may be able to seize the asset that is
arrangement gives the borrowing party the subject of the lien. There are many types
permission to borrow money under the of liens that are used to secure assets.
condition that it is to be paid back at a later A mortgage is a debt instrument, secured by
date, usually with interest. the collateral of specified real estate property,
Commercial paper is a commonly used type that the borrower is obliged to pay back with a
of unsecured, short-term debt instrument predetermined set of payments.
issued by corporations, typically used for the Arbitrage is the purchase and sale of an asset
financing of payroll, accounts payable and in order to profit from a difference in the
inventories, and meeting other short-term asset's price between markets. It is a trade that
liabilities. Maturities on commercial paper profits by exploiting the price differences of
typically last several days, and rarely range identical or similar financial instruments on
longer than 270 days. Commercial paper is different markets or in different forms.
usually issued at a discount from face value Arbitrage exists as a result of market
and reflects prevailing market interest rates. inefficiencies and would therefore not exist if
The term collateral refers to an asset that a all markets were perfectly efficient.
lender accepts as security for a loan. A unit of account is a standard monetary unit
Collateral may take the form of real estate or of measurement of value/cost of goods,
other kinds of assets, depending on the services, or assets. It is one of three well-
purpose of the loan. The collateral acts as a known functions of money. It lends meaning
form of protection for the lender. That is, if to profits, losses, liability, or assets. The
the borrower defaults on their loan payments, accounting monetary unit of account suffers
the lender can seize the collateral and sell it to from the pitfall of not being a stable unit of
recoup some or all of its losses. account over time. Inflation destroys the
assumption that money is stable which is the
382. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct basis of classic accountancy. In such
answer using the codes given below the lists. circumstances, historical values registered in
List-I List-II accountancy books become heterogeneous
a. Lien 1. is a standard amounts measured in different units. The use
monetary unit of measurement of value/cost. of such data under traditional accounting
b. Mortgage 2. claim or legal methods without previous correction often
right against assets that are typically used as leads to invalid results.
collateral to satisfy a debt.
c. Arbitrage 3. the purchase and 383. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
sale of an asset in order to profit. answer using the codes given below the lists.
d. Unit of Accounting 4. a debt instrument, List-I List-II
secured by the collateral of specified real a. Gross Domestic Product 1. to as net
estate property. exports, is an economic condition.
Codes: b. Trade Deficit 2. is the total monetary or
A B C D market value of all the finished good.
(A) 1 2 4 3 c. Trade Surplus 3. when a person who is
(B) 1 4 2 3 actively searching for employment.
(C) 2 4 3 1 d. Unemployment 4. an economic measure
(D) 2 1 4 3 of a positive balance of trade.
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Codes: (C) 2 4 3 1
A B C D (D) 2 1 4 3
(A) 1 2 4 3
(B) 1 4 2 3 Ans.384(C) A depression is a severe and
(C) 2 4 3 1 prolonged downturn in economic activity. In
(D) 2 1 4 3 economics, a depression is commonly defined
as an extreme recession that lasts three or
Ans.383(D) Gross Domestic Product (GDP) is more years or which leads to a decline in real
the total monetary or market value of all the gross domestic product (GDP) of at least 10
finished goods and services produced within a percent. in a given year. Depressions are
country's borders in a specific time period. As relatively less frequent than milder recessions,
a broad measure of overall domestic and tend to be accompanied by high
production, it functions as a comprehensive unemployment and low inflation.
scorecard of the country’s economic health. A recession is a macroeconomic term that
A trade deficit also referred to as net exports, refers to a significant decline in general
is an economic condition that occurs when a economic activity in a designated region. It
country is importing more goods than it is had been typically recognized as two
exporting. The trade deficit is calculated by consecutive quarters of economic decline, as
taking the value of goods being imported and reflected by GDP in conjunction with monthly
subtracting it by the value of goods being indicators such as a rise in unemployment.
exported. However, the National Bureau of Economic
A trade surplus is an economic measure of a Research (NBER), which officially declares
positive balance of trade, where a country's recessions, says the two consecutive quarters
exports exceed its imports. of decline in real GDP are not how it is
Trade Balance = Total Value of Exports - defined anymore.
Total Value of Imports. The law of demand is one of the most
Unemployment occurs when a person who is fundamental concepts in economics. It works
actively searching for employment is unable with the law of supply to explain how market
to find work. Unemployment is often used as economies allocate resources and determine
a measure of the health of the economy. The the prices of goods and services that we
most frequent measure of unemployment is observe in everyday transactions. The law of
the unemployment rate, which is the number demand states that quantity purchased varies
of unemployed people divided by the number inversely with price.
of people in the labor force. The law of supply is the microeconomic law
that states that, all other factors being equal,
384. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct as the price of a good or service increases, the
answer using the codes given below the lists. quantity of goods or services that suppliers
List-I List-II offer will increase, and vice versa. Thelaw of
a. Depression 1. the microeconomic law supply says that as the price of an item goes
that states that, all other factors being equal. up, suppliers will attempt to maximize their
b. Recession 2. a severe and prolonged profits by increasing the quantity offered for
downturn in economic active. sale.
c. Law of Demand 3. is one of the most
fundamental concepts in economics. 385. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct
d. Law of Supply 4. a macroeconomic term answer using the codes given below the lists.
that refers to a significant decline in general List-I List-II
economic activity. a. Market Equilibrium 1. an economic
Codes: system based on supply and demand.
A B C D b. Free Market 2. the state in which
(A) 1 2 4 3 market supply.
(B) 1 4 2 3 c. Financial Markets 3. several different
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
504

types of economic systems employed by a. Depreciation 1. an accounting

nations. method of allocating the cost of a tangible or
d. Capitalist Economies 4. refer broadly to physical asset.
any marketplace where the trading of b. Straight Line Basis 2. or straight-line
securities occurs. depreciation, depreciates a fixed asset over its
Codes: expected life.
A B C D c. Absolute minimum 3. are assets that can
(A) 1 2 4 3 be traded.
(B) 1 4 2 3 d. Financial Instrument 4. output value of
(C) 2 4 3 1 the lowest point on a graph over a given input.
(D) 2 1 4 3 Codes:
A B C D
Ans.385(D) Equilibrium is the state in which (A) 1 2 4 3
market supply and demand balance each (B) 1 4 2 3
other, and as a result, prices become stable. (C) 2 4 3 1
Generally, an over-supply of goods or (D) 2 1 4 3
services causes prices to go down, which
results in higher demand. The balancing effect Ans.386(A) Depreciation is an accounting
of supply and demand results in a state of method of allocating the cost of a tangible or
equilibrium. physical asset over its useful life or life
The free market is an economic system based expectancy. Depreciation represents how
on supply and demand with little or no much of an asset's value has been used up.
government control. It is a summary Depreciating assets helps companies earn
description of all voluntary exchanges that revenue from an asset while expensing a
take place in a given economic environment. portion of its cost each year the asset is in use.
Free markets are characterized by a If not taken into account, it can greatly affect
spontaneous and decentralized order of profits.
arrangements through which individuals make Straight-line basis, or straight-line
economic decisions. Based on its political and depreciation, depreciates a fixed asset over its
legal rules, a country's free market economy expected life. In order to use the straight-line
may range between very large or entirely method, taxpayers must know the cost of the
black market. asset being depreciated, its expected useful
Financial markets refer broadly to any life, and its salvage value—the price an asset
marketplace where the trading of securities is expected to sell for at the end of its useful
occurs, including the stock market, bond life.
market, forex market, and derivatives market, The output value of the lowest point on a
among others. Financial markets are vital to graph over a given input interval or over all
the smooth operation of capitalist economies. possible input values. An absolute minimum
There are several different types of economic point is a local minimum point and occurs at
systems employed by nations. Two such an endpoint of the given input interval.
types, socialism and capitalism are the most Financial instruments are assets that can be
common. Capitalism is often referred to as a traded, or they can also be seen as packages of
free market economy in its purest form; a capital that may be traded. Most types of
common type of socialism is communism. financial instruments provide efficient flow
Embedded in these economic systems are and transfer of capital all throughout the
political and social elements that influence the world's investors. These assets can be cash, a
degree of purity of each system. contractual right to deliver or receive cash or
another type of financial instrument, or
386. Match List-I with List-II and select the correct evidence of one's ownership of an entity.
answer using the codes given below the lists.
List-I List-II 387. Consider the following statements:
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505

1. The kharif cropping season is from July to 390. Which of the following is direct tax?
October. 1. Corporate tax 2. Expenditure tax
2. The rabi cropping season is from October 3. Wealth tax
to March. Which of the statements given above is/are
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
correct? (A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only (C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2
Ans.390(D) Taxation, imposition of
Ans.387(C) The kharif cropping season is compulsory levies on individuals or entities by
from July to October and rabi cropping season governments. Direct taxes include tax varieties
is from October to March. such as income tax, corporate tax, wealth tax,
gift tax, expenditure tax etc.
388. Consider the following statements:
1. Census 2011 was organized in the direction 391. Which of the following statements is true?
of the Registrar General of India and the I. Human Development Index was developed
Commissioner of Census, Dr. C. by Mahbub-ul-Haq.
Chandramouli. II. ‘Take-off stage’ in an economy means
2. Census 2011 was the eighth census after Economy is stagnant.
Independence. Select the correct option.
3. The mascot of this census was a female (A) Only I (B) Only II
enumerator teacher. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Which of the statements given above is/are
correct? Ans.391(A) Mahbub ul Haq was a Pakistani
(A) 1 only (B) 1 and 2 only economist, politician and international
(C) 1 and 3 only (D) 1, 2 and 3 development theorist who served as the 13th
Finance Minister of Pakistan from 10 April
Ans.388(D) Census 2011 was organized in the 1985 until 28 January 1988.
direction of the Registrar General of India and After graduating in economics from Punjab
the Commissioner of Census, Dr. C. University, he won a scholarship to
Chandramouli. and eighth census after Cambridge University obtaining a second
Independence. and the mascot of this census degree.
was a female enumerator teacher. Rostow’s ‘Stages of Economic Growth’
(1960) presented five stages through which all
389. Consider the following statements: countries must pass to become developed: 1)
1. Custom duty is an indirect tax. traditional society, 2) preconditions to take-
2. Corporation tax is direct tax. off, 3) take-off, 4) drive to maturity, and 5)
Which of the statements given above is/are age of high mass consumption. Take-off is the
NOT correct? short period of intensive growth, in which
(A) 1 only (B) 2 only industrialization begins to occur, and workers
(C) Both 1 and 2 (D) Neither 1 nor 2 and institutions become concentrated around a
new industry.
Ans.389(C) Custom duty is a type of indirect
tax that is levied on all the goods that are 392. Which of the following statements is true?
imported to the country as well as some goods I. New capital issue is placed in primary
exported from the country corporate tax, also market.
called corporation tax or company tax, is a II. If there is a lack of money supply in
direct tax imposed by a jurisdiction on the comparison to the supply of goods and
income or capital of corporations or analogous services, then the possible consequence would
legal entities. be Inflation.
Select the correct option.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
506

(A) Only I (B) Only II 394. Which of the following statements is true?
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II I. A current account deficits occurs when a
government’s total expenditures exceed the
Ans.392(A) The primary market is that part of revenue that it generates excluding money
the capital markets that deals with the from borrowings.
issuance of new securities. Companies, II. A sustained rise in the general price level
governments or public sector institutions can in an economy is called Inflation.
obtain funding through the sale of a new stock Select the correct option.
or bond issue. ... Therefore, it is also called (A) Only I (B) Only II
the new issue market (NIM). (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Deflation occurs when the change in prices
turns negative. Today, the economies of the Ans.394(B) Inflation is a quantitative measure
Eurozone are combating deflation, and the of the rate at which the average price level of
European Central Bank (ECB) has even been a basket of selected goods and services in an
taking the extraordinary measures of economy increases over some period of time.
undergoing quantitative easing. It is the rise in the general level of prices
Deflation is when the general price levels in a where a unit of currency effectively buys less
country are falling—as opposed to inflation than it did in prior periods. Often expressed as
when prices rise. a percentage, inflation thus indicates a
decrease in the purchasing power of a nation’s
393. Which of the following statements is true? currency.
I. Disinvestment in Public Sector is called A fiscal deficit is a shortfall in a government's
Privatisation. income compared with its spending. The
II. Agriculture economic activities employs government that has a fiscal deficit is
the maximum number of people in India. spending beyond its means. A fiscal deficit is
Select the correct option. calculated as a percentage of gross domestic
(A) Only I (B) Only II product (GDP), or simply as total dollars
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II spent in excess of income

Ans.393(C) When disinvestment or sale of its 395. Which of the following statements is true?
equity capital by the Government exceeds 50 I. Banks in India were nationalized for the
per cent so that the majority ownership and first time in the year 1969.
therefore control and management of the II. NABARD was established on the (by Act
enterprise is transferred to private enterprise, 61, 1981 of Parliament) on 12 July 1989.
it results in privatisation. Select the correct option.
Disinvestment can also be defined as the (A) Only I (B) Only II
action of an organisation (or government) (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
selling or liquidating an asset or subsidiary. It
is also referred to as 'divestment' or Ans.395(A) In 1960, the State Banks of India
'divestiture. ' In most contexts, disinvestment was given control of eight state-associated
typically refers to sale from the government, banks under the State Bank of India
partly or fully, of a government-owned (Subsidiary Banks) Act, 1959. These are now
enterprise. called its associate banks. In 1969 the Indian
Agriculture sector imploys maximum no. of government nationalised 14 major private
people in India, whereas it has least banks; one of the big banks was Bank of
contribution in GDP. India. In 1980, 6 more private banks were
The opposite scenario is due to lack of nationalised. These nationalised banks are the
technological upgradation in agriculture, majority of lenders in the Indian economy.
disguise employment, land fragmentation and They dominate the banking sector because of
low agriculture input.’ their large size and widespread networks.
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NABARD was established on the Marrakesh Agreement, signed by 123 nations

recommendations of B. Sivaramman on 15 April 1994, replacing the General
Committee, (by Act 61, 1981 of Parliament) Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT),
on 12 July 1982 to implement the National which commenced in 1948. It is the largest
Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development international economic organization in the
Act 1981. It replaced the Agricultural Credit world.
Department (ACD) and Rural Planning and
Credit Cell (RPCC) of Reserve Bank of India, 397. Which of the following statements is true?
and Agricultural Refinance and Development I. ‘Pure Banking, Nothing Else’ is a slogan
Corporation (ARDC). It is one of the premier raised by ICICI Bank.
agencies providing developmental credit in II. Paraellel economy emerges due to Tax
rural areas. NABARD is India's specialised Evasion.
bank for Agriculture and Rural Development Select the correct option.
in India. (A) Only I (B) Only II
The initial corpus of NABARD was Rs.100 (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
crores. Consequent to the revision in the
composition of share capital between Ans.397(B) Parallel economy (black
Government of India and RBI, the paid up economy) indicates the functioning of an
capital as on 31 May 2017, stood at Rs.6,700 unsanctioned sector in the economy whose
crore with Government of India holding objectives run parallel with the social
Rs.6,700 crore (100% share). The authorized objectives. Major contributory factor to such
share capital is Rs.30,000 crore an economy is black money which is any
money that a person or an organization
396. Which of the following statements is true? acquires as by a means that involves tax
I. FERA in India has been replaced by evasion.
FEMA. "Pure Banking, Nothing Else" - is a slogan
II. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is raised by SBI - State Bank of India.
an intergovernmental organization that is
concerned with the regulation of trade within 398. Which of the following statements is true?
countries. I. A budget deficit occurs when expenses
Select the correct option. exceed revenue.
(A) Only I (B) Only II II. Hyperinflation is very high and typically
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II accelerating inflation.
Select the correct option.
Ans.396(C) The Foreign Exchange (A) Only I (B) Only II
Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is an Act of (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
the Parliament of India "to consolidate and
amend the law relating to foreign exchange Ans.398(C) A budget deficit occurs when
with the objective of facilitating external trade expenses exceed revenue and indicate the
and payments and for promoting the orderly financial health of a country. The government
development and maintenance of foreign generally uses the term budget deficit when
exchange market in India". It was passed in referring to spending rather than businesses or
the winter session of Parliament in 1999, individuals. Accrued deficits form national
replacing the Foreign Exchange Regulation debt.
Act (FERA). This act makes offences related Hyperinflation is very high and typically
to foreign exchange civil offenses. accelerating inflation. It quickly erodes the
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an real value of the local currency, as the prices
intergovernmental organization that is of all goods increase. This causes people to
concerned with the regulation of international minimize their holdings in that currency as
trade between nations. The WTO officially they usually switch to more stable foreign
commenced on 1 January 1995 under the currencies, often the US Dollar. Prices
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
508

typically remain stable in terms of other corporation, state or provincial authority, or

relatively stable currencies. sovereign government.
Default is the failure to repay a debt including
399. Which of the following statements is true? interest or principal on a loan or security. A
default can occur when a borrower is unable
I. Revenue Deficit: is the excess of its total
to make timely payments, misses payments, or
revenue expenditure to its total revenue avoids or stops making payments. Individuals,
receipts. businesses, and even countries can fall prey to
II. An economic condition- when there is one default if they cannot keep up their debt
buyer and many sellers is called Monopoly. obligations. Default risks are often calculated
Select the correct option. well in advance by creditors.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 401. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Imperfect competition refers to any
Ans.399(A) A revenue deficit occurs when economic market that does not meet the
realized net income is less than the projected rigorous standards of a hypothetical perfectly
net income. This happens when the actual or purely competitive market.
amount of revenue and/or the actual amount II. Macroeconomics is the social science that
of expenditures do not correspond with studies the implications of human action.
budgeted revenue and expenditures. This is Select the correct option.
the opposite of a revenue surplus, which (A) Only I (B) Only II
occurs when the actual amount of net income (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
exceeds the projected amount.
A monopsony is a market condition in which Ans.401(C) Imperfect competition refers to
there is only one buyer, the monopsonist. Like any economic market that does not meet the
a monopoly, a monopsony also has imperfect rigorous standards of a hypothetical perfectly
market conditions. The difference between a or purely competitive market.
monopoly and monopsony is primarily in the In this environment, companies sell different
difference between the controlling entities. A products and services, set their own individual
single buyer dominates a monopsonized prices, fight for market share and are often
market while an individual seller controls a protected by barriers to entry and exit.
monopolized market. Monosonists are Imperfect competition is common and can be
common to areas where they supply most or found in the following types of market
all of the region's jobs. structures: monopolies, oligopolies,
monopolistic competition, monopsonies, and
400. Which of the following statements is true? oligopsonies.
I. A credit rating is a quantified assessment of Microeconomics is the social science that
the creditworthiness of a borrower. studies the implications of human action,
II. Default is the failure to repay a debt specifically about how those decisions affect
including interest or principal on a loan or the utilization and distribution of scarce
security. resources. Microeconomics shows how and
Select the correct option. why different goods have different values,
(A) Only I (B) Only II how individuals make more efficient or more
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II productive decisions, and how individual’s
best coordinate and cooperate with one
Ans.400(C) A credit rating is a quantified another. Generally speaking, microeconomics
assessment of the creditworthiness of a is considered a more complete, advanced, and
borrower in general terms or with respect to a settled science than macroeconomics.
particular debt or financial obligation. A
credit rating can be assigned to any entity that 402. Which of the following statements is true?
seeks to borrow money—an individual,
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I. Budget Line is the name given to the graph which must be foregone in order that X,
that shows all the combinations of two instead of (X-1) units of A can be produced.
commodities that a consumer can afford at
given market prices and within the particular 404. Which of the following statements is true?
income level in economic terms. I. Treasury Bills are short term (up to one
II. Intermediate goods, producer goods or year) borrowing instruments.
semi-finished products are goods. II. Uttar Pradesh is the largest dairy and milk-
Select the correct option. producing state of India.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Select the correct option.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Ans.402(C) Budget line is to the graph that
shows all the combinations of two Ans.404(C) Treasury Bills are short term (up
commodities that a consumer can afford at to one year) borrowing instruments of the
given market prices and within the particular Government of India which enable investors
income level in economic terms. It is also to park their short-term surplus funds while
called Budget constraint. reducing their market risk. They are auctioned
Intermediate goods, producer goods or semi- by Reserve Bank of India at regular intervals
finished products are goods, such as partly and issued at a discount to face value.
finished goods, used as inputs in the The bill market is a sub-market of the money
production of other goods including final market in India. There are two types of bills
goods. A firm may make and then use viz. Treasury Bills and commercial bills.
intermediate goods, or make and then sell, or While Treasury Bills or T-Bills are issued by
buy then use them. In the production process, the Central Government; Commercial Bills
intermediate goods either become part of the are issued by financial institutions.
final product, or are changed beyond Uttar Pradesh, Rajasthan, and Gujarat have
recognition in the process. This means been the major milk producing states in India.
intermediate goods are resold among Uttar Pradesh is the largest dairy and milk-
industries. producing state because it is home to the
highest buffalo population and the second-
403. Which of the following statements is true? highest cattle population in the country.
I. A stock is a debt instrument in which an
investor loans money to an entity. 405. Which of the following statements is true?
II. Gottfried Haberler economist gave the I. An indirect tax is collected by one entity in
theory of Opportunity Cost. the supply chain.
Select the correct option. II. A indirect tax is paid directly by an
(A) Only I (B) Only II individual or organization to the imposing
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II entity.
Select the correct option.
Ans.403(B) Individuals, businesses and (A) Only I (B) Only II
governments use common types of debt (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
instruments, such as loans, bonds and
debentures, to raise capital or generate Ans.405(C) An indirect tax is collected by
investment income. Debt instruments one entity in the supply chain (usually a
essentially act as an IOU between the issuer producer or retailer) and paid to the
and the purchaser. government, but it is passed on to the
Elaborating upon the opportunity cost, consumer as part of the purchase price of a
Haberler writes that “the marginal cost of a good or service. The consumer is ultimately
given quantity X of a commodity A must be paying the tax by paying more for the product.
regarded as that quantity of commodity B A direct tax is paid directly by an individual
or organization to the imposing entity. A
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510

taxpayer, for example, pays direct taxes to the exchanges that take place in a given economic
government for different purposes, including environment. Free markets are characterized
real property tax, personal property tax, by a spontaneous and decentralized order of
income tax, or taxes on assets. arrangements through which individuals make
economic decisions. Based on its political and
406. Which of the following statements is true? legal rules, a country's free market economy
I. In monopoly market form, a market or an may range between very large or entirely
industry is dominated by a single seller. black market.
II. Employment is a measure of employment Frictional unemployment is the result of
and labor utilization in the economy. employment transitions within an economy.
Select the correct option. Frictional unemployment naturally occurs
(A) Only I (B) Only II even in a growing, stable economy. Workers
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II leaving their jobs or new workers entering the
workforce both add to frictional
Ans.406(A) A monopoly refers to when a unemployment. Frictional unemployment is
company and its product offerings dominate a the result of employment transitions within an
sector or industry. Monopolies can be economy.
considered an extreme result of free-market Frictional unemployment naturally occurs
capitalism in that absent any restriction or even in a growing, stable economy.
restraints, a single company or group becomes
large enough to own all or nearly all of the 408. Which of the following statements is true?
market (goods, supplies, commodities, I. Current account can be regarded as one of
infrastructure, and assets) for a particular type the primary components of the balance of
of product or service. The term monopoly is payments of a nation.
often used to describe an entity that has total II. The current account represents a country's
or near-total control of a market. imports and exports of goods and services
Underemployment is a measure of Select the correct option
employment and labor utilization in the (A) Only I (B) Only II
economy that looks at how well the labor (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
force is being utilized in terms of skills,
experience and availability to work. Labor Ans.408(B) The current account represents a
that falls under the underemployment country's imports and exports of goods and
classification includes those workers who are services, payments made to foreign investors,
highly skilled but working in low paying or and transfers such as foreign aid.
low skill jobs and part-time workers who The current account may be positive (a
would prefer to be full-time. surplus) or negative (a deficit); positive means
the country is a net exporter and negative
407. Which of the following statements is true? means it is a net importer of goods and
I. The free market is an economic system services.
based on supply and demand with little or no A country's current account balance, whether
government control. positive or negative, will be equal but
II. Seasonal unemployment is the result of opposite to its capital account balance.
employment transitions within an economy. A capital account deficit shows that more
Select the correct option. money is flowing out of the economy along
(A) Only I (B) Only II with increase in its ownership of foreign
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II assets and vice-versa in case of a surplus. The
balance of payments contains the current
Ans.407(A) The free market is an economic account (which provides a summary of the
system based on supply and demand with trade of goods and services) in addition to the
little or no government control. It is a capital account which records all capital
summary description of all voluntary transactions.
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511

The WTO is based on agreements signed by

409. Which of the following statements is true? the majority of the world’s trading nations.
I. Credit rationing is the limiting by lenders
of the supply of additional credit to borrowers. 411. Which of the following statements is true?
II. Governments create debt by issuing I. The law of demand states that a higher price
government bonds and bills. leads to a lower quantity.
(A) Only I (B) Only II II. A savings account is a basic type of bank
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II account that allows you to deposit money.
Select the correct option.
Ans.409(A) Credit rationing is the limiting by (A) Only I (B) Only II
lenders of the supply of additional credit to (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
borrowers who demand funds, even if the
latter are willing to pay higher interest rates. It Ans.411(C) The law of demand states that a
is an example of market imperfection, or higher price leads to a lower quantity
market failure, as the price mechanism fails to demanded and that a lower price leads to a
bring about equilibrium in the market. It higher quantity demanded.
should not be confused with cases where Demand curves and demand schedules are
credit is simply "too expensive" for some tools used to summarize the relationship
borrowers, that is, situations where the interest between quantity demanded and price.
rate is deemed too high. A savings account is a basic type of bank
account that allows you to deposit money,
410. Which of the following statements is true? keep it safe, and withdraw funds, all while
I. Globalization is the spread of products, earning interest. Savings accounts offered by
technology, information, and jobs across most banks, credit unions, and other financial
national borders and cultures. institution.
II. The World Trade Organization (WTO) is
an international institution that oversees the 412. Which of the following statements is true?
global trade rules among nations. I. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) is an
Select the correct option. economic theory that compares different
(A) Only I (B) Only II countries' currencies through a "basket of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II goods" approach.
II. A direct tax (VAT) is a consumption tax
Ans.410(C) Globalization is the spread of placed on a product whenever value is added
products, technology, information, and jobs at each stage of the supply chain.
across national borders and cultures. In Select the correct option.
economic terms, it describes an (A) Only I (B) Only II
interdependence of nations around the globe (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
fostered through free trade.
Socially, it leads to greater interaction among Ans.412(A) Purchasing power parity (PPP) is
various populations. a popular metric used by macroeconomic
Culturally, globalization represents the analysts that compares different countries'
exchange of ideas, values, and artistic currencies through a "basket of goods"
expression among cultures. approach.
Globalization also represents a trend toward Purchasing power parity (PPP) allows for
the development of single world culture. economists to compare economic productivity
Politically, globalization has shifted attention and standards of living between countries.
to intergovernmental. Some countries adjust their gross domestic
The World Trade Organization (WTO) is an product (GDP) figures to reflect PPP.
international institution that oversees the A value-added tax, or VAT, is added to a
global trade rules among nations. product at every point on the supply chain
where value is added.
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512

Advocates of VATs claim that they raise in 1974 during administration of Indira
government revenues without punishing Gandhi, trying to retain foreign currency and
success or wealth, while critics say that VATs prevent smuggling. It was an economic
place an increased economic strain on lower- adjunct to the controversial Maintenance of
income taxpayers and bureaucratic burdens on Internal Security Act (MISA) which was
businesses. enacted in 1971.

413. Which of the following statements is true? 415. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Shankar-6 is a variety of cotton. I. Bombay Stock Exchange was established in
II. Export of services is an Invisible Export. 1875.
Select the correct option. II. Central Food Technological Research
(A) Only I (B) Only II Institute is located at Lucknow.
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Select the correct option.

Ans.413(C) Two Gujarat-based entrepreneurs (A) Only I (B) Only II

are planning to set up a commodity-specific (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
special economic zone — one of its kind in
the country. It will be a textile SEZ which will Ans.415(A) The Bombay Stock Exchange
be different from the rest on one count: the (BSE) is an Indian stock exchange located at
SEZ will only have units which manufacture Dalal Street, Mumbai.
end-products using Shankar 6 cotton. Established in 1875, the BSE (formally
Any export that does not have a tangible known as Bombay Stock Exchange Ltd.) is
physical presence (e.g. expertise, insurance Asia's oldest stock exchange. The BSE is the
underwriting). Here, Invisible Export means world's 10th largest stock exchange with an
export of Services. overall market capitalization of more than
$2.2 trillion on as of April 2018.
414. Which of the following statements is true? CSIR-Central Food Technological Research
I. COFEPOSA was enacted in 1979. Institute (CSIR-CFTRI), is one of the
II. Duty Entitlement Pass Book (DEPS) is an constituent laboratory under the aegis of the
scheme of Indian Government provided to Council of Scientific and Industrial Research
exporters. (CSIR).[1] It was opened on 21 October 1950
Select the correct option. in Mysore, Karnataka. C.F.T.R.I. also has its
(A) Only I (B) Only II resource centers in Hyderabad, Lucknow and
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Mumbai, rendering technical assistance to
numerous entrepreneurs.
Ans.414(B) DEPB (Duty Entitlement Pass
Book) is an export incentive scheme of Indian 416. Which of the following statements is true?
Government provided to Exporters in India. I. A capital gain refers to profit that results
Duty Entitlement Pass Book Scheme (DEPB) from a sale of a capital asset.
is an export incentive scheme. The objective II. Gift tax is the direct tax.
of DEPB is to neutralise the incidence of Select the correct option.
Customs duty on the import content of the (A) Only I (B) Only II
export product. The neutralisation shall be (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
provided by way of grant of duty credit
against the export product. Under the DEPB, Ans.416(A) A capital gain refers to profit that
an exporter may apply for credit, as a results from a sale of a capital asset, such as
specified percentage of FOB value of exports stock, bond or real estate, where the sale price
made in freely convertible currency. exceeds the purchase price. The gain is the
COFEPOSA or the Conservation of Foreign difference between a higher selling price and
Exchange and Prevention of Smuggling a lower purchase price. Conversely, a capital
Activities Act is an Act of Parliament passed
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513

loss arises if the proceeds from the sale of a Select the correct option.
capital asset are less than the purchase price. (A) Only I (B) Only II
Capital gains may also refer to a different (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
form of profit received from an asset that
refers to "investment income" in the form of Ans.418(C) A progressive tax is a tax that
cash flow or passive income that arises in imposes a lower tax rate on low-income
relation to real assets, such as property; earners compared to those with a higher
financial assets, such as shares/stocks or income, making it based on the taxpayer's
bonds; and intangible assets. ability to pay. That means. it takes a larger
A direct tax is paid directly by an individual percentage from high-income earners than it
or organization to the imposing entity. A does from low-income individuals. A
taxpayer, for example, pays direct taxes to the progressive tax is one that charges a higher
government for different purposes, including tax rate for people who earn a higher income.
real property tax, personal property tax, The rationale is that people with a lower
income tax, or taxes on assets. income will usually spend a greater
percentage of their income to maintain their
417. Which of the following statements is true? standard of living. The income tax system is
I. Inflation is a seemingly contradictory considered a progressive system.
condition described by slow economic NHB RESIDEX, India’s first official housing
growth. price index, was an initiative of the National
II. United Nations Conference on Trade and Housing Bank (NHB) undertaken at the
Development publishes World Investment behest of the Ministry of Finance,
Report. Government of India. The index was
Select the correct option. formulated under the guidance of a Technical
(A) Only I (B) Only II Advisory Committee (TAC) comprising of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II stakeholders from the housing market. It was
launched in July, 2007 and updated
Ans.417(B) The United Nations Conference periodically till March 2015, taking 2007 as
on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) was the base year. During this period, the coverage
established in 1964 as a permanent of NHB RESIDEX was expanded gradually to
intergovernmental body. 26 cities.
UNCTAD is the part of the United Nations
Secretariat dealing with trade, investment, and 419. Which of the following statements is true?
development issues. The organization's goals I. The Mercator projection is a cylindrical
are to: "maximize the trade, investment and map projection.
development opportunities of developing II. The money market is a component of the
countries and assist them in their efforts to economy which provides short-term funds.
integrate into the world economy on an Select the correct option.
equitable basis". (A) Only I (B) Only II
Stagflation is a seemingly contradictory (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
condition described by slow economic growth
and relatively high unemployment, or Ans.419(C) The Mercator projection is a
economic stagnation, which is at the same cylindrical map projection presented by
time accompanied by rising prices (i.e. Flemish geographer and cartographer
inflation). Stagflation can also be alternatively Gerardus Mercator in 1569. It became the
defined as a period of inflation combined with standard map projection for navigation
a decline in gross domestic product (GDP). because of its unique property of representing
any course of constant bearing as a straight
418. Which of the following statements is true? segment.
I. NHB Residex was launched in 2007. The money market is a component of the
II. Income tax is a Progressive Tax. economy which provides short-term funds.
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514

The money market deals in short-term loans, (A) Only I (B) Only II
generally for a period of less than or equal to (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
365 days. As money became a commodity,
the money market became a component of the Ans.421(C) Immediate Payment Service
financial market for assets involved in short- (IMPS) is an instant payment inter-bank
term borrowing, lending, buying and selling electronic funds transfer system in India.
with original maturities of one year or less. IMPS offer an inter-bank electronic fund
Trading in money markets is done over the transfer service through mobile phones.
counter and is wholesale. Unlike RTGS, the service is available 24x7
throughout the year including bank holidays.
420. Which of the following statements is true? NEFT is also made available 24x7 from Dec
I. Commercial paper, in the global financial 2019. It is managed by the National Payments
market, is an unsecured promissory note. Corporation of India (NPCI) and is built upon
II. A credit rating agency is a company that the existing National Financial Switch
assigns credit ratings. network.
Select the correct option Amber’s industry-leading, plug and play
(A) Only I (B) Only II technology can quickly be installed to monitor
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II grain assets remotely, be it bins, bags or
barges.
Ans.420(C) Commercial paper, in the global For the core farm application - aeration
financial market, is an unsecured promissory automation is applied to make storage
note with a fixed maturity of rarely more than investments perform at peak efficiency.
270 days. Growers are able to execute on targets for
Commercial paper is a money-market security temperature and moisture management.
issued (sold) by large corporations to obtain
funds to meet short-term debt obligations (for 422. Which of the following statements is true?
example, payroll) and is backed only by an I. The Balance of Payments (BOP) is an
issuing bank or company promise to pay the overall statement of a state’s economic
face amount on the maturity date specified on transactions.
the note. Since it is not backed by collateral, II. Globalization is the shift towards a more
only firms with excellent credit ratings from a united and interdependent world economy.
recognized credit rating agency will be able to Select the correct option.
sell their commercial paper at a reasonable (A) Only I (B) Only II
price. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
A credit rating agency (CRA, also called a
ratings service) is a company that assigns Ans.422(B) Globalization is the shift towards
credit ratings, which rate a debtor's ability to a more united and interdependent world
pay back debt by making timely principal and economy. Globalization of markets means the
interest payments and the likelihood of merging of distinctively separate national
default. An agency may rate the markets into a global marketplace wherein the
creditworthiness of issuers of debt obligations, tastes and preferences converge into a global
of debt instruments, and in some cases of the norm. Globalization of production means
servicers of the underlying debt but not of referring to sources of various goods and
individual consumers. services from across the world to take benefit
of differences in cost or quality of the factors
421. Which of the following statements is true? of production such as land, human labor,
I. Money can be transferred using mobile energy, capital, etc.
phones through the service called IMPS. The Balance of Payments (BOP) is an overall
II. 'Amber lox' is the term related Agricultural statement of a country’s economic
Subsidies. transactions with the rest of the world over a
Select the correct option. specific period of time, generally a year. The
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515

statement indicates the receiving’s from the collaboration to foster global monetary
world and the payments made to the world in cooperation.
the current and capital accounts. The current Select the correct option.
account of BoP includes a nation’s net-trade (A) Only I (B) Only II
in goods and services, its net transfer (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
payments and its net earnings on the cross-
border investments. The capital account of Ans.424(B) Headquartered in Washington
BoP consists of the import and export of DC, International Monetary Fund(IMF)
capital and foreign aid of the nation. This consists of 189 countries that work in
statement is based on the principle of collaboration to foster global monetary
accounting. It can be compared to the balance cooperation, facilitate international trade,
sheet of a company. Hence, it can turn out to secure financial stability, reduce poverty and
be positive or negative. promote high employment along with
sustainable development. It was formed in
423. Which of the following statements is true? 1944 at the Bretton woods Conference and
I. EXIM Policy is the export-import policy of officially came into force in 1945.
the government that is announced every five World Trade Organization (WTO) was
years. established in 1995 to replace GATT (General
II. The three major international economic Agreement on Tariffs and Trade). Signed by
institutions are WTO, IMF, World Bank. 123 countries, it is established as a result of
Select the correct option. the Marrakesh Agreement. There was a need
(A) Only I (B) Only II to replace GATT which was established in
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 1948 as it was biased towards the developed
countries. WTO deals with the global rules of
Ans.423(C) EXIM Policy is the export-import trade across nations. More specifically, it
policy of the government that is announced deals with regulation of trade in services,
every five years. This policy consists of goods and intellectual property between the
general provisions regarding exports and countries by providing a framework for the
imports, promotional measures, duty regulation of trade and dispute resolution.
exemption schemes, export promotion Any discrimination between the participating
schemes, special economic zone programs and countries in the trade negotiation is strictly
other details for different sectors. prohibited by WTO.
Every country indulges in export and import
to capitalize on the growing international 425. Which of the following statements is true?
trade. This makes it imperative to have certain I. Liberalization was brought about with an
institutions that can govern these foreign idea that any regulations or restrictions that
trades. These institutions govern foreign trade were imposed on free trade.
practices and ensure a level field to all the II. Privatization refers to giving more
countries and promote economic cooperation. opportunities to the all sector.
The three major international economic Select the correct option.
institutions are WTO, IMF, World Bank and (A) Only I (B) Only II
UNCTAD (United Nations Conference on (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
Trade and Development).
Ans.425(C) Liberalization was brought about
424. Which of the following statements is true? with an idea that any regulations or
I. World Trade Organization (WTO) was restrictions that were imposed on free trade
established in 1998 to replace GATT (General must loosen up its grip to allow trade. It
Agreement on Tariffs and Trade. allowed opening up the economic borders for
II. International Monetary Fund (IMF) foreign investments and MNCs. Several
consists of 189 countries that work in economic reforms that were imposed under
Liberalization include expansion of
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516

production capacity, de-servicing producing Ans.427(C) In economics and political

areas, abolishing industrial licensing by the science, fiscal policy is the use of government
government, and freedom to import goods. revenue collection and expenditure to monitor
Privatization refers to giving more and influence a nation's economy. It
opportunities to the private sector in developed out of the Great Depression, when
regulating different services and reducing the the laissez-faire approach to economic
role of the public sector (government-owned management was ended and government
enterprises) in them. With privatization, FDI intervention became the means of influencing
(Foreign Direct Investment) was introduced in macroeconomic variables.
India giving healthy competition to the Indian Economic planning is a mechanism for the
goods and services. allocation of resources between and within
organizations which is held in contrast to the
426. Which of the following statements is true? market mechanism. As an allocation
I. Monetary policy is the procedure by which mechanism for socialism, economic planning
the monetary authority of a state. replaces factor markets with a direct
II. The term Labour Law is used to denote allocation of resources within a single or
that body of laws. interconnected group of socially-owned
Select the correct option. organizations.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 428. Which of the following statements is true?
I. National Income refers to the total value of
Ans.426(B) The term Labour Law is used to goods and services produced within a country.
denote that body of laws which deal with II. Per Capita Income refers to the average
employment and non-employment, wages, income every two person.
working conditions, industrial relations, social Select the correct option.
security and labour welfare of industrially (A) Only I (B) Only II
employed, persons. Labour has a vital role in (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
growing productivity and management must
help create conditions in which workers can Ans.428(A) National Income refers to the
make their maximum contribution towards total value of goods and services produced
this objective. within a country in a specific period of time.
Monetary policy is the procedure by which There are four ways to measure National
the monetary authority of a country, typically Income namely Gross Domestic Product
the central bank or currency board, controls (GDP), Net Domestic Product (NDP), Gross
either the cost of very short-term borrowing or National Product (GNP) and Net National
the money supply, often targeting inflation Product (NNP). In India, National Income is
rate or interest rate to ensure price stability calculated by the Central Statistical Office
and general trust in the currency. (CSO) which is headquartered in New Delhi.
Per Capita Income refers to the average
427. Which of the following statements is true? income per person in a specified area in a
I. Fiscal policy is the use of government year. It can be calculated by dividing the total
revenue collection and expenditure to income by the total population of the country.
monitor. It is calculated to evaluate the living standards
II. Economic planning is a mechanism for the and the quality of life in a country. It is a
allocation of resources between and within crude indicator of prosperity in a country.
organizations.
Select the correct option. 429. Which of the following statements is true?
(A) Only I (B) Only II I. Demography refers to the statistical study of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the country.
II. Multiculturalism refers to the existence of
multiple cultures within the same society.
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517

Select the correct option. urbanization process, especially in the less

(A) Only I (B) Only II developed countries is linked to volatility in
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II the agricultural practices and the lack of
sectoral diversification within the economy of
Ans.429(C) Multiculturalism refers to the a country.
existence of multiple cultures within the same Social Movement refers to a loosely organized
society. It is a way in which a society deals effort or movement where people come
with cultural diversity. Sociologically, together to achieve a common goal. It can be a
multiculturalism assumes that society will political, social or environmental goal. For eg,
benefit from the increased diversification as it Anna Aandolan or the 2011 Anti-Corruption
will allow harmonious coexistence of Movement or Narmada Bachao Aandolan.
different cultures. Primarily, there are two David F Aberle in the year 1966 identified
methods in which multiculturalism evolves in four different kinds of social movements
any society. They are described by the two namely, alternative, revolutionary, redemptive
metaphors ‘melting pot theory' and ‘salad and reformative social movements. Each of
bowl theory' which has a distinct characteristic.
Demography refers to the statistical study of
the population, especially the human 431. Which of the following statements is true?
population. And there is a strong tradition to I. Indian political system functions within the
study the demographic trends, especially in framework of the Constitution of India.
economics to understand the population in a II. Human Development refers to the process
better way. Demographics is the study of the of enlarging specific gender's freedom.
population on various factors including but Select the correct option.
not limited to age, sex, race, employment (A) Only I (B) Only II
status, education, income, marital status, etc. (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
It helps in analyzing certain trends, more
commonly known as demographic trends Ans.431(A) Indian political system functions
which allows the governments to formulate within the framework of the Constitution of
efficient policies that can benefit the India. It is a federal parliamentary democratic
population of their country. republic wherein the President of India is the
head of the country and the Prime Minister of
430. Which of the following statements is true? India is the head of the government. India
I. Migration refers to the demographic follows the dual government system (federal)
process that links rural to urban areas wherein we have a Union or a Central
stimulating the growth. Government at the center and the State
II. Social Movement refers to a loosely Government at the periphery. The constitution
organized effort or movement where people of India designates the power and authority of
come together to achieve a common goal. each of these governments and they work
Select the correct option. within those frameworks.
(A) Only I (B) Only II Human Development refers to the process of
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II enlarging people's freedom and opportunities
and improve their wellbeing. It refers to the
Ans.430(C) Migration refers to the real freedom that ordinary people pose so as
demographic process that links rural to urban to decide who they want to be, what they want
areas stimulating the growth of cities thereby to do and how they want to live. The concept
resulting in the urbanization of a place. The of Human Development was put forward by
most common form of migration viz rural- Mahbub ul Haq.
urban migration or internal migration plays a
crucial role in the urbanization process and 432. Which of the following statements is true?
the economic growth and development of a
place. A big factor in the migration and
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
518

I. The Indian social sector plays an important stabilising prices in an entire economy or an
role in the growth and development of the individual (commodity) market. Specifically,
country. commodities are bought when a surplus exists
II. Health and Education are the two major in the economy, stored, and are then sold from
components of the social sector in the world. these stores when economic shortages in the
Select the correct option. economy occur.
(A) Only I (B) Only II
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II 434. Which of the following statements is true?
I. Statutory Liquidity Ratio is full form of
Ans.432(C) The Indian social sector plays an SLR.
important role in the growth and development II. To check the expansion of bank credit we
of the country. It has several important use CRR.
components namely, health, education, Select the correct option.
poverty alleviation, sanitation, housing (A) Only I (B) Only II
condition, etc that plays an important role in (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
overall human development. The expenditure
on these components is a critical indicator of Ans.434(A) Statutory Liquidity Ratio or SLR
the commitment of the government towards is the minimum percentage of deposits that a
the social sector in India. commercial bank has to maintain in the form
of liquid cash, gold or other securities. It is
Health and Education are the two major basically the reserve requirement that banks
components of the social sector in the world. are expected to keep before offering credit to
It was included in MDG (Millennial customers. The SLR is fixed by the RBI and is
Development Goals) and now, are a part of a form of control over the credit growth in
SDG (Sustainable Development Goals), the India.
2030 Agenda. The government of India has The government uses the SLR to regulate
also committed itself to provide basic inflation and fuel growth. Increasing the SLR
elementary education by making it a will control inflation in the economy while
fundamental right enshrined in the decreasing the statutory liquidity rate will
constitution of India under the 83rd cause growth in the economy. The SLR was
Constitution Amendment Act. prescribed by Section 24 (2A) of Banking
Regulation Act, 1949.
433. Which of the following statements is true? To check the expansion of bank credit.
I. Employees is not a characterize the business To ensure the solvency of commercial banks.
environment. To compel banks to invest in government
II. Buffer stock mean a reserve of securities like bonds.
commodities used to offset deficit. To fuel growth and demand; this is done by
(A) Only I (B) Only II decreasing the SLR so that there is more
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II liquidity with the commercial banks.

Ans.433(A) Business environment refers to 435. Which of the following statements is true?
the external forces such as individuals, I. Commodities Markets are regulated by
enterprises, situation, and other such forces IRDAI.
that affect the performance of the II. The Government of India refers to the
organization. Employees are integral to an absolute poverty line in terms of Household
organization and does not characterize its income.
environment. Select the correct option.
A buffer stock scheme (commonly (A) Only I (B) Only II
implemented as intervention storage, the (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
"ever-normal granary") is an attempt to use
commodity storage for the purposes of
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
519

Ans.435(B) The Forward Markets The World Economic Forum (WEF), based in
Commission (FMC) was the chief regulator of Colony-Geneva, Switzerland, is an NGO,
commodity futures markets in India. As of founded in 1971. The WEF's mission is cited
July 2014, it regulated Rs 17 trillion worth of as "committed to improving the state of the
commodity trades in India. It is headquartered world by engaging business, political,
in Mumbai and this financial regulatory academic, and other leaders of society to
agency is overseen by the Ministry of shape global, regional, and industry agendas".
Finance. The Commission allows commodity It is a membership-based organization, and
trading in 22 exchanges in India, of which 6 membership is made up of the world's largest
are national. corporations.
On 28 September 2015 the FMC was merged
with the Securities and Exchange Board of 437. Which of the following statements is true?
India (SEBI) to make the regulation of I. The Central Statistics Office (CSO) is a
commodity futures market strong. governmental agency in India under the
A common method used to estimate poverty Ministry of Statistics and Programme
in India is based on the income or Implementation.
consumption levels and if the income or II. India’s Zero Hunger Programme was
consumption falls below a given minimum launched on October 16, 2018.
level, then the household is said to be Below Select the correct option.
the Poverty Line (BPL). (A) Only I (B) Only II
Poverty Line Calculation: Poverty estimation (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
in India is now carried out by NITI Aayog’s
task force through the calculation of poverty Ans.437(A) The Central Statistics Office
line based on the data captured by the (CSO) is a governmental agency in India
National Sample Survey Office under the under the Ministry of Statistics and
Ministry of Statistics and Programme Programme Implementation responsible for
Implementation (MOSPI). co-ordination of statistical activities in India,
and evolving and maintaining statistical
436. Which of the following statements is true? standards. It has a well-equipped Graphical
I. Gross value added (GVA) is the measure of Unit. The CSO is located in Delhi. Some
the value of goods and services produced in portion of Industrial Statistics work pertaining
an area. to Annual Survey of industries is carried out
II. The World Economic Forum (WEF), in Calcutta. It deals with statistical data of
based in Colony-Geneva, Switzerland, is an different departments.
NGO, founded in 1971. India’s Zero Hunger Programme was
Select the correct option. launched on October 16, 2017. The day marks
(A) Only I (B) Only II the ‘World Food Day’. The focus of the
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II initiative is agriculture, health and nutrition.
Hunger and malnutrition is a serious problem
Ans.436(C) Gross value added (GVA) is the in India. As per the Global Hunger Index
measure of the value of goods and services 2019, India is ranked 102 out of 117
produced in an area, industry or sector of an countries. India is ranked much below its
economy. "Gross value added is the value of south Asian neighbors such as Pakistan, Nepal
output less the value of intermediate and Bangladesh.
consumption; it is a measure of the The report pointed out that “India is suffering
contribution to GDP made by an individual from a serious hunger problem”.
producer, industry or sector; gross value
added is the source from which the primary 438. Which of the following statements is true?
incomes of the SNA are generated and is I. A Farmer Producer Company can be
therefore carried forward into the primary formed by any 100 or more primary producers
distribution of income account.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
520

or by two or more producer institutions, or by examine the central-state relationship on

a contribution of both. various portfolios and suggest changes within
II. The Indian Council of Agricultural the framework of Constitution of India. The
Research (ICAR) is an autonomous body Commission was so named as it was headed
responsible for coordinating agricultural by Justice Ranjit Singh Sarkaria (Chairman of
education and research in India. the commission), a retired judge of the
Select the correct option. Supreme Court of India. The other members
(A) Only I (B) Only II of the committee were Shri B. Sivaraman
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II (Cabinet Secretary), Dr S.R. Sen (former
Executive Director of IBRD) and Rama
Ans.438(B) The Indian Council of Subramaniam (Member Secretary).
Agricultural Research (ICAR) is an A special economic zone (SEZ) is an area in
autonomous body responsible for co- which the business and trade laws are
ordinating agricultural education and research different from the rest of the country. SEZs
in India. It reports to the Department of are located within a country's national
Agricultural Research and Education, borders, and their aims include increased trade
Ministry of Agriculture. The Union Minister balance, employment, increased investment,
of Agriculture serves as its president. It is the job creation and effective administration. To
largest network of agricultural research and encourage businesses to set up in the zone,
education institutes in the world. financial policies are introduced. These
The Committee to Advise on Renovation and policies typically encompass investing,
Rejuvenation of Higher Education (Yashpal taxation, trading, quotas, customs and labour
Committee, 2009) has recommended setting regulations. Additionally, companies may be
up of a constitutional body — the National offered tax holidays, where upon establishing
Commission for Higher Education and themselves in a zone, they are granted a
Research — which would be a unified period of lower taxation.
supreme body to regulate all branches of
higher education including agricultural 440. Which of the following statements is true?
education. I. Inflation would have most adverse effects
A Farmer Producer Company can be formed on creditors.
by any 10 or more primary producers or by II. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code comes
two or more producer institutions, or by a into force from 2016.
contribution of both. Select the correct option.
They can undertake activities related to (A) Only I (B) Only II
production, harvesting, procurement, grading, (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
pooling, marketing, processing, etc., of
agricultural produce. Ans.440(C) Inflation affects different people
differently. This is because of the fall in the
439. Which of the following statements is true? value of money. When price rises or the value
I. Sarkaria Commission was set up in 1983 by of money falls, some groups of the society
the central government of India. gain, some lose and some stand in-between.
II. Special Economic Zones are being set up Broadly speaking, there are two economic
by the Government in order to attract Foreign groups in every society, the fixed income
companies. group and the flexible income group. People
Select the correct option. belonging to the first group lose and those
(A) Only I (B) Only II belonging to the second group gain. The
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II reason is that the price movements in the case
of different goods, services, assets, etc. are not
Ans.439(C) Sarkaria Commission was set up uniform. When there is inflation, most prices
in 1983 by the central government of India. are rising, but the rates of increase of
The Sarkaria Commission's charter was to individual prices differ much. Prices of some
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
521

goods and services rise faster, of others slowly 442. Which of the following statements is true?
and of still others remain unchanged. We I. Atal Pension Yojana is a government-
discuss below the effects of inflation on backed pension scheme in India.
redistribution of income and wealth, II. The Minamata Convention on Mercury is
production, and on the society as a whole. an international treaty designed to protect
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 human health.
(IBC) is the bankruptcy law of India which Select the correct option.
seeks to consolidate the existing framework (A) Only I (B) Only II
by creating a single law for insolvency and (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
bankruptcy. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy
Code, 2015 was introduced in Lok Sabha in Ans.442(C) Atal Pension Yojana (or APY,
December 2015. It was passed by Lok Sabha previously known as Swavalamban Yojana) is
on 5 May 2016 and by Rajya Sabha on 11 a government-backed pension scheme in
May 2016. The Code received the assent of India, primarily targeted at the unorganised
the President of India on 28 May 2016. sector. It was mentioned in the 2015 Budget
Certain provisions of the Act have come into speech by the then Finance Minister Arun
force from 5 August and 19 August 2016. Jaitley. It was launched by Prime Minister
Narendra Modi on 9 May in Kolkata.
441. Which of the following statements is true? Swavalamban Yojana was a government-
I. Central Vigilance Commission (CVC) is an backed pension scheme targeted at the
apex Indian governmental body created in unorganised sector in India. It was applicable
1964. to all citizens in the unorganised sector who
II. A fiscal deficit is a increase in a joined the National Pension Scheme (NPS)
government's income compared with its administered by the Pension Fund Regulatory
spending. and Development Authority (PFRDA) Act
Select the correct option. 2013.
(A) Only I (B) Only II The Minamata Convention on Mercury is an
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II international treaty designed to protect human
healthand the environment from
Ans.441(A) Central Vigilance Commission anthropogenic emissions and releases of
(CVC) is an apex Indian governmental body mercury and mercury compounds. This
created in 1964 to address governmental Convention was a result of three years of
corruption. In 2003, the Parliament enacted a meeting and negotiating, after which the text
law conferring statutory status on the CVC. It of the Convention was approved by delegates
has the status of an autonomous body, free of representing close to 140 countries on 19
control from any executive authority, charged January 2013 in Geneva and adopted and
with monitoring all vigilance activity under signed later that year on 10 October 2013 at a
the Central Government of India, advising Diplomatic Conference held in Kumamoto,
various authorities in central Government Japan. The Convention is named after the
organizations in planning, executing, Japanese city Minamata. This naming is of
reviewing and reforming their vigilance work. symbolic importance as the city went through
It was set up by the Government of India a devastating incident of mercury poisoning.
Resolution on 11 February 1964.
A fiscal deficit is a shortfall in a government's 443. Which of the following statements is true?
income compared with its spending. The I. A foreign currency convertible bond
government that has a fiscal deficit is (FCCB) is a type of convertible bond issued in
spending beyond its means. A fiscal deficit is a currency different than the issuer's domestic
calculated as a percentage of gross domestic currency.
product (GDP), or simply as total dollars II. The Foreign Exchange Management Act,
spent in excess of income. 1999 (FEMA) is an Act of the Parliament of
India.
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
522

Select the correct option. to stock can be done at certain times during
(A) Only I (B) Only II the bond's life and is usually at the discretion
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II of the bondholder.
A hybrid security is a single financial security
Ans.443(C) The Foreign Exchange that combines two or more different financial
Management Act, 1999 (FEMA) is an Act of instruments. Hybrid securities, often referred
the Parliament of India "to consolidate and to as "hybrids," generally combine both debt
amend the law relating to foreign exchange and equity characteristics. The most common
with the objective of facilitating external trade type of hybrid security is a convertible bond
and payments and for promoting the orderly that has features of an ordinary bond but is
development and maintenance of foreign heavily influenced by the price movements of
exchange market in India". It was passed in the stock into which it is convertible.
the winter session of Parliament in 1999,
replacing the Foreign Exchange Regulation 445. Which of the following statements is true?
Act (FERA). This act makes offences related I. Preferred stock, are shares of a company’s
to foreign exchange civil offenses. It extends stock with dividends that are paid out to
to the whole of India, replacing FERA, which shareholders before common stock dividends
had become incompatible with the pro- are issued.
liberalization policies of the Government of II. Common stock is a security that represents
India. It enabled a new foreign exchange ownership in a corporation.
management regime consistent with the Select the correct option.
emerging framework of the World Trade (A) Only I (B) Only II
Organization (WTO). (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
A foreign currency convertible bond (FCCB)
is a type of convertible bond issued in a Ans.445(C) Preference shares, more
currency different than the issuer's domestic commonly referred to as preferred stock, are
currency. In other words, the money being shares of a company’s stock with dividends
raised by the issuing company is in the form that are paid out to shareholders before
of foreign currency. A convertible bond is a common stock dividends are issued. If the
mix between a debt and equity instrument. It company enters bankruptcy, preferred
acts like a bond by making regular coupon stockholders are entitled to be paid from
and principal payments, but these bonds also company assets before common stockholders.
give the bondholder the option to convert the Most preference shares have a fixed dividend,
bond into stock. while common stocks generally do not.
Preferred stock shareholders also typically do
444. Which of the following statements is true? not hold any voting rights, but common
I. A hybrid security is a single financial shareholders usually do.
security that combines three financial Common stock is a security that represents
instruments. ownership in a corporation. Holders of
II. A convertible bond is a fixed-income common stock elect the board of directors and
corporate debt security that yields interest vote on corporate policies. This form of equity
payments, ownership typically yields higher rates of
Select the correct option. return long term. However, in the event of
(A) Only I (B) Only II liquidation, common shareholders have rights
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II to a company's assets only after bondholders,
preferred shareholders, and other debtholders
Ans.444(B) A convertible bond is a fixed- are paid in full. Common stock is reported in
income corporate debt security that yields the stockholder's equity section of a
interest payments, but can be converted into a company's balance sheet.
predetermined number of common stock or
equity shares. The conversion from the bond 446. Which of the following statements is true?
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
523

I. Liquidation in finance and economics is the regardless of whether it's manufacturing

process of bringing a business to an end and equipment or a patent.
distributing its assets to claimants. Current assets represent all the assets of a
II. Insolvency is a term for when an company that are expected to be conveniently
individual or organization can meet its sold, consumed, used, or exhausted through
financial obligations to its lenders. standard business operations with one year.
Select the correct option. Current assets appear on a company's balance
(A) Only I (B) Only II sheet, one of the required financial statements
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II that must be completed each year.

Ans.446(A) Liquidation in finance and 448. Which of the following statements is true?
economics is the process of bringing a I. Copyright law gives creators of original
business to an end and distributing its assets to material the exclusive right.
claimants. It is an event that usually occurs II. Brand identity is the non-visible elements
when a company is insolvent, meaning it of a brand.
cannot pay its obligations when they are due. Select the correct option.
As company operations end, the remaining (A) Only I (B) Only II
assets are used to pay creditors and (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
shareholders, based on the priority of their Ans.448(A) Copyright refers to the legal right
claims. General partners are subject to of the owner of intellectual property. In
liquidation. simpler terms, copyright is the right to copy.
Insolvency is a term for when an individual or This means that the original creators of
organization can no longer meet its financial products and anyone they give authorization
obligations to its lenders as debts become due. to are the only ones with the exclusive right to
Before an insolvent company or person gets reproduce the work.
involved in insolvency proceedings, it will Copyright law gives creators of original
likely be involved in informal arrangements material the exclusive right to further use and
with creditors, such as setting up alternative duplicate that material for a given amount of
payment arrangements. Insolvency can arise time, at which point the copyrighted item
from poor cash management, a reduction in becomes public domain.
cash inflow, or an increase in expenses. Brand identity is the visible elements of a
brand, such as color, design, and logo, that
447. Which of the following statements is true? identify and distinguish the brand in
I. Current assets represent some assets of a consumers' minds. Brand identity is distinct
company. from brand image. The former corresponds to
II. An asset is a resource with economic the intent behind the branding and the way a
value. company does the following—all to cultivate
Select the correct option. a certain image in consumers' minds:
(A) Only I (B) Only II Chooses its name
(C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II Designs its logo
Uses colors, shapes, and other visual elements
Ans.447(B) An asset is a resource with in its products and promotions.
economic value that an individual,
corporation, or country owns or controls with 449. Which of the following statements is true?
the expectation that it will provide a future I. The NITI Aayog is a policy think tank of
benefit. Assets are reported on a company's the Government of India,
balance sheet and are bought or created to II. A bond is a fixed income instrument that
increase a firm's value or benefit the firm's represents a debt.
operations. An asset can be thought of as Select the correct option.
something that, in the future, can generate (A) Only I (B) Only II
cash flow, reduce expenses, or improve sales, (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
 Objective + Subjective General Studies
524

Ans.449(C) NITI Aayog, the National 450. Which of the following statements is true?
Institution for Transforming India is a I. A fixed-income security is an investment
Government of India policy, established to that provides a return.
replace the Planning Commission. II. A coupon or coupon payment is the
The aim of NITI Aayog is to encourage annual interest rate paid on a bond,
involvement and participation in the economic Select the correct option.
policy-making process, with emphasis (A) Only I (B) Only II
towards making the country a cooperative (C) Both I & II (D) Neither I nor II
federalism.
A bond is a fixed income instrument that Ans.450(C) A fixed-income security is an
represents a loan made by an investor to a investment that provides a return in the form
borrower (typically corporate or of fixed periodic interest payments and the
governmental). A bond could be thought of as eventual return of principal at maturity.
an I.O.U. between the lender and borrower Unlike variable-income securities, where
that includes the details of the loan and its payments change based on some underlying
payments. Bonds are used by companies, measure—such as short-term interest rates—
municipalities, states, and sovereign the payments of a fixed-income security are
governments to finance projects and known in advance.
operations. Owners of bonds are debtholders, A coupon or coupon payment is the annual
or creditors, of the issuer. Bond details interest rate paid on a bond, expressed as a
include the end date when the principal of the percentage of the face value and paid from
loan is due to be paid to the bond owner and issue date until maturity. Coupons are usually
usually includes the terms for variable or referred to in terms of the coupon rate.
fixed interest payments made by the borrower.