Answer:d

Project Management - Explanation:The probability of the risk might be assessed

“Project Management”. as very low (<10%), low (10–25%), moderate (25–50%),
1. Which of the following is not project management high (50–75%), or very high (>75%).
goal? 6. Which of the following is/are main parameters that
a) Keeping overall costs within budget. you should use when computing the costs of a software
b) Delivering the software to the customer at the agreed development project?
time. a) travel and training costs
c) Maintaining a happy and well-functioning b) hardware and software costs
development team. c) effort costs (the costs of paying software engineers and
d) Avoiding costumer complaints. managers)
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation:Projects need to be managed because Answer:d
professional software engineering is always subject to Explanation:Estimation involves working out how much
organizational budget and schedule constraints. effort is required to complete each activity and, from this,
2. Project managers have to assess the risks that may calculating the total cost of activities.
affect a project. 7. Quality planning is the process of developing a quality
a) True plan for
b) False a) team
b) project
Answer:b c) customers
Explanation:Risk management involves anticipating risks d) project manager
that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the
software being developed, and then taking action to avoid Answer:b
these risks. Explanation: The quality plan should set out the desired
3. Which of the following is not considered as a risk in software qualities and describe how these are to be
project management? assessed.
a) Specification delays 8. Which of the following is incorrect activity for the
b) Product competition configuration management of a software system?
c) Testing a) Internship management
d) Staff turnover b) Change management
c) Version management
Answer:c d) System management
Explanation:Testing is a part of project, thus it can’t be
categorized as risk. Answer:a
4. The process each manager follows during the life of a Explanation:Configuration management policies and
project is known as processes define how to record and process proposed
a) Project Management system changes, how to decide what system components
b) Manager life cycle to change, how to manage different versions of the
c) Project Management Life Cycle system and its components, and how to distribute
d) All of the mentioned changes to customers.
9. Identify the sub-process of process improvement
Answer:c a) Process introduction
Explanation:A proven methodical life cycle is necessary b) Process analysis
to repeatedly implement and manage projects c) De-processification
successfully. d) Process distribution
5. A 66.6% risk is considered as
a) very low Answer:b
b) low Explanation:The current process is assessed, and process
c) moderate weaknesses and bottlenecks are identified.
d) high 10. An independent relationship must exist between the
e) very high attribute that can be measured and the external quality
attribute.
a) True
b) False Answer:a
Explanation:The conveyor line sorting system (CLSS)
Answer:b sorts boxes moving along a conveyor line. Each box is
Explanation:The value of the quality attribute must be identified by a bar code that contains a part number and
related, in some way, to the value of the attribute than is sorted into one of six bins at the end of the line.
can be measured. 5. The project planner examines the statement of scope
and extracts all important software functions which is
. known as
a) Association
Project Planning - b) Decomposition
“Project Planning”. c) Planning process
1. Which of the following is an important factor that can d) All of the mentioned
affect the accuracy and efficacy of estimates?
a) Project size Answer:b
b) Planning process Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
c) Project complexity 6. The environment that supports the software project is
d) Degree of structural uncertainty called
a) CLSS
Answer:a b) SEE
Explanation:As size increases, the inter-dependency c) FAST
among various elements of the software grows rapidly. d) CBSE
2. What describes the data and control to be processed?
a) Planning process Answer:b
b) Software scope Explanation:Software engineering environment (SEE),
c) External hardware incorporates hardware and software.
d) Project complexity 7. Which of the following is not an option to achieve
reliable cost and effort estimate?
Answer:b a) Base estimates on similar projects that have already
Explanation:Functions described in the statement of been completed
scope are evaluated and in some cases refined to provide b) Use one or more empirical models for software cost
more detail prior to the beginning of estimation. and effort estimation
3. A number of independent investigators have developed c) Use relatively simple decomposition techniques to
a team-oriented approach to requirements gathering that generate project cost and effort estimates.
can be applied to establish the scope of a project called d) The ability to translate the size estimate into human
a) JAD effort, calendar time, and dollars.
b) CLASS
c) FAST Answer:d
d) None of the mentioned
8. What can be used to complement decomposition
Answer:c techniques and offer a potentially valuable estimation
Explanation:Facilitated application specification approach in their own right?
techniques a) Automated estimation tools
(FAST), this approach encourages the creation of a joint b) Empirical estimation models
team of customers c) Decomposition techniques
and developers who work together to identify the d) Both Automated estimation tools and Empirical
problem, propose elements estimation models
of the solution, negotiate different approaches, and
specify a preliminary set of Answer:b
requirements. Explanation:An estimation model for computer software
4. CLSS stands for uses empirically derived formulas to predict effort as a
a) conveyor line sorting system function of LOC or FP.
b) conveyor line sorting software 9. Which of the following is not achieved by an
c) conveyor line sorting speed automated estimation tools?
d) conveyor line sorting specification a) Predicting staffing levels
b) Predicting software cost
c) Predicting software schedules c) Estimation by analogy
d) Predicting clients demands d) Parkinson’s Law

Answer:d Answer:a
Explanation:Demands can vary from client to client. Explanation:The model uses a basic regression formula
10. Software project estimation can never be an exact with parameters that are derived from historical project
science, but a combination of good historical data and data and current as well as future project characteristics.
systematic techniques can improve estimation accuracy. 5. It is often difficult to estimate size at an early stage in
a) True a project when only a specification is available
b) False a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Answer:a
Explanation:Function-point and object-point estimates
. are easier to produce than estimates of code size but are
often still inaccurate.
Size and Cost Estimation of Software - 6. Which technique is applicable when other projects in
“Size and Cost Estimation of Software”. the same analogy application domain have been
1. Which of the following are parameters involved in completed?
computing the total cost of a software development a) Algorithmic cost modelling
project? b) Expert judgement
a) Hardware and software costs c) Estimation by analogy
b) Effort costs d) Parkinson’s Law
c) Travel and training costs
d) All of the mentioned Answer:c
Explanation:The cost of a new project is estimated by
Answer:d analogy with these completed projects.
Explanation:All these are accounted for in estimating a 7. Which model assumes that systems are created from
software’s development cost. reusable components, scripting or database
2. Which of the following costs is not part of the total programming?
effort cost? a) An application-composition model
a) Costs of networking and communications b) A post-architecture model
b) Costs of providing heating and lighting office space c) A reuse model
c) Costs of lunch time food d) An early design model
d) Costs of support staff
Answer:a
Answer:c Explanation:It is designed to make estimates of prototype
Explanation:This is a incurred by the employees. development.
3. What is related to the overall functionality of the 8. Which of the following states that work expands to fill
delivered software? the time available.
a) Function-related metrics a) CASE tools
b) Product-related metrics b) Pricing to win
c) Size-related metrics c) Parkinson’s Law
d) None of the mentioned d) Expert judgement

Answer:a Answer:c
Explanation:Productivity is expressed in terms of the Explanation:The cost is determined by available
amount of useful functionality produced in some given resources rather than by objective assessment. If the
time. Function points and object points software has to be delivered in 12 months and 5 people
are the best-known metrics of this type. are available, the effort required is estimated to be 60
4. A _________ is developed using historical cost person-months.
information that relates some software metric to the 9. Which model is used during early stages of the system
project cost. design after the requirements have been established?
a) Algorithmic cost modelling a) An application-composition model
b) Expert judgement b) A post-architecture model
c) A reuse model b) Comprehensive cost model
d) An early design model c) Constructive cost estimation model
d) Complete cost estimation model
Answer:d
Explanation:Estimates are based on function points, Answer:a
which are then converted to number of lines of source
code. The formula follows the standard form discussed 4. Which version of COCOMO states that once
above with a simplified set of seven multipliers. requirements have been stabilized, the basic software
10. Which model is used to compute the effort required architecture has been established?
to integrate reusable components or program code that is a) Early design stage model
automatically generated by design or program translation b) Post-architecture-stage model
tools? c) Application composition model
a) An application-composition model
b) A post-architecture model Answer:a
c) A reuse model
d) An early design model 5. Which model was used during the early stages of
software engineering, when prototyping of user
Answer:c interfaces, consideration of software and system
interaction, assessment of performance, and evaluation of
11. The COCOMO model takes into account different technology maturity were paramount.
approaches to software development, reuse, etc. a) Early design stage model
a) True b) Post-architecture-stage model
b) False c) Application composition model

Answer:b Answer:c
Explanation:Its the COCOMO-2 model. COCOMO 2 Explanation:None.
incorporates a range of sub-models that produce 6. Which one is not a size measure for software product?
increasingly detailed software estimates. a) LOC
b) Halstead’s program length
. c) Function Count
d) Cyclomatic Complexity
Emperical Estimation Models -
“Emperical Estimation Models”. Answer:d
1. Which of the following uses empirically derived Explanation:It is the part of white box testing.
formulas to predict effort as a function of LOC or FP? 7.COCOMO was developed initially by
a) FP-Based Estimation a) B.Beizer
b) Process-Based Estimation b) Rajiv Gupta
c) COCOMO c) B.W.Bohem
d) Both FP-Based Estimation and COCOMO d) Gregg Rothermal

Answer:d Answer:c
Explanation:Function points and COCOMO are used to Explanation:Barry Boehm introduced a hierarchy of
evaluate effort. software estimation models bearing the name COCOMO,
2. The empirical data that support most estimation for COnstructive COst MOdel.
models are derived from a vast sample of projects. 8. Estimation of size for a project is dependent on
a) True a) Cost
b) False b) Time
c) Schedule
Answer:b d) None of the mentioned
Explanation:The emperical data is derived from a limited
sample of projects. For this reason, no estimation model Answer:d
is appropriate for all classes of software and in all Explanation:Estimation depends on factors such as
development environments. Fucntion points and LOC.
3. COCOMO stands for 9. COCOMO-II was developed at
a) Constructive cost model a) University of Texas
b) University of Southern California Answer:d
c) MIT Explanation:Technical risks identify potential design,
d) IIT-Kanpur implementation, interface, verification, and maintenance
problems.
Answer:b 5. What threatens the viability of the software to be built?
a) Known risks
10. Which one is not a stage of COCOMO-II? b) Business risks
a) Early design estimation model c) Project risks
b) Application Composition estimation model d) Technical risks
c) Comprehensive cost estimation model
d) Post architecture estimation model Answer:b
Explanation:Business risks often jeopardize the project or
Answer:a the product.
Explanation:It was a part of COCOMO. 6. Which of the following is not a business risk?
a) building an excellent product or system that no one
. really wants
b) losing the support of senior management due to a
Software Risks and Identification - change in focus or change in people
“Software Risks and Identification”. c) lack of documented requirements or software scope
1. What all has to be identified as per risk identification? d) losing budgetary or personnel commitment
a) Threats
b) Vulnerabilities Answer:c
c) Consequences Explanation:This is not considered as a business risk.
d) All of the mentioned 7. Which of the following is a systematic attempt to
specify threats to the project plan?
Answer:d a) Risk identification
Explanation:Risk identification states what could cause a b) Performance risk
potential loss. c) Support risk
2. Which one is not a risk management activity? d) Risk projection
a) Risk assessment
b) Risk generation Answer:d
c) Risk control Explanation:By identifying known and predictable risks,
d) None of the mentioned the project manager takes a first step toward avoiding
them when possible and controlling them when
Answer:b necessary.
Explanation:Risk management activities would never 8. Which risks are associated with the overall size of the
want a new risk to be generated. software to be built or modified?
3. What is the product of the probability of incurring a a) Business impact risks
loss due to the risk and the potential magnitude of that b) Process definition risks
loss? c) Product size risks
a) Risk exposure d) Development environment risks
b) Risk prioritization
c) Risk analysis Answer:c
d) All of the mentioned
9. Which risks are associated with constraints imposed by
Answer:a management or the marketplace?
a) Business impact risks
4. What threatens the quality and timeliness of the b) Process definition risks
software to be produced? c) Product size risks
a) Known risks d) Development environment risks
b) Business risks
c) Project risks Answer:a
d) Technical risks
10. Which of the following term is best defined by the
statement:”the degree of uncertainty that the product will
meet its requirements and be fit for its intended use.”? a) Risk monitoring
a) Performance risk b) Risk planning
b) Cost risk c) Risk analysis
c) Support risk d) Risk identification
d) Schedule risk
Answer:a
Answer:a.
6. Which of the following risks are derived from the
Risk Management - organizational environment where the software is being
“Risk Management”. developed?
1. Risk management is one of the most important jobs for a) People risks
a b) Technology risks
a) Client c) Estimation risks
b) Investor d) Organizational risks
c) Production team
d) Project manager Answer:d
Explanation:These risks are at management level.
Answer:d 7. Which of the following risks are derived from the
Explanation:Risk management involves anticipating risks software or hardware technologies that are used to
that might affect the project schedule or the quality of the develop the system?
software being developed, and then taking action to avoid a) Managerial risks
these risks. b) Technology risks
2. Which of the following risk is the failure of a c) Estimation risks
purchased component to perform as expected? d) Organizational risks
a) Product risk
b) Project risk Answer:b
c) Business risk Explanation:The risks associated with technology might
d) Programming risk affect the product development.
8. Which of the following term is best defined by the
Answer:a statement: “Derive traceability information to maximize
Explanation:Risks that affect the quality or performance information hiding in the design.”?
of the software being developed. a) Underestimated development time
3. Which of the following term is best defined by the b) Organizational restructuring
statement: “There will be a change of organizational c) Requirements changes
management with different priorities.”? d) None of the above
a) Staff turnover
b) Technology change Answer:c
c) Management change Explanation:Tracing the requirements can help us
d) Product competition understand the risk.
9. Which of the following strategies means that the
Answer:c impact of the risk will be reduced?
a) Avoidance strategies
4. Which of the following term is best defined by the b) Minimization strategies
statement: “The underlying technology on which the c) Contingency plans
system is built is superseded by new technology.”? d) All of the above
a) Technology change
b) Product competition Answer:b
c) Requirements change
d) None of the mentioned 10. Risk management is now recognized as one of the
most important project management tasks.
Answer:a a) True
Explanation:Technology changes are common in the b) False
competitive environment of software engineering.
5. What assess the risk and your plans for risk mitigation Answer:a
and revise these when you learn more about the risk?
 Answer:b
. Explanation: This assumes that there is a very small
probability that the actual size result will fall outside the
Decomposition Techniques in Software Project optimistic or pessimistic values.
Planning - 6. How many forms exists of Barry Boehm’s COCOMO
“Decomposition Techniques in Software Project Model?
Planning”. a) Two
1. Why is decomposition technique required? b) Three
a) Software project estimation is a form of problem c) Four
solving d) No form exists
b) Developing a cost and effort estimate for a software
project is too complex Answer:b
c) All of the mentioned Explanation: The three forms include the basic,
d) None of the mentioned intermediate and advanced COCOMO model.
7. Who suggested the four different approaches to the
Answer:c sizing problem?
Explanation:For these reasons, we decompose the a) Putnam
problem, re-characterizing it as a set of smaller problems. b) Myers
2. Cost and effort estimation of a software uses only one c) Boehm
forms of decomposition, either decomposition of the d) Putnam and Myers
problem or decomposition of the process.
a) True Answer:d
b) False
8. In many cases, it is often more cost effective to
Answer:b acquire, rather than develop, computer software.
Explanation:Estimation uses one or both forms of a) True
partitioning. b) False
3. If a Direct approach to software project sizing is taken,
size can be measured in Answer:a
a) LOC Explanation:Mangers are faced with a make-buy decision
b) FP in such situations.
c) LOC and FP 9. A make-buy decision is based on whether
d) None of the mentioned a) The software may be purchased off-the-shelf
b) “Full-experience” or “Partial-experience” software
Answer:a components should be used
Explanation:LOC or Line of Code is a direct measure to c) Customer-built software should be developed
estiom ate project size. d) All of the mentioned
4. Which software project sizing approach develop
estimates of the information domain characteristics? Answer:d
a) Function point sizing .
b) Change sizing 10. Which of the following is not one of the five
c) Standard component sizing information domain characteristics of Function Point
d) Fuzzy logic sizing (FP) decomposition?
a) External inputs
Answer:a b) External outputs
c) External process
5. The expected value for the estimation variable (size), d) External inquiries
S, can be computed as a weighted average of the
optimistic(Sopt), most likely (Sm), and pessimistic Answer:c
(Spess) estimates given as Explanation: External inputs, external outputs, external
a) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/4 inquiries, internal logical files, external interface files are
b) EV = (Sopt + 4Sm + Spess)/6 the five domains.
c) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/6 11. The project planner must reconcile the estimates
d) EV = (Sopt + 2Sm + Spess)/4 based on decomposition techniques to produce a single
estimate of effort.
a) True d) project management capability maturity model
b) False
Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation:The people management maturity model
Explanation:The planner must determine the cause of defines the following key practice areas for software
divergence and then reconcile the estimates. people: recruiting, selection, performance management,
12. Programming language experience is a part of which training, compensation, career development, organization
factor of COCOMO cost drivers? and work design, and team/culture development.
a) Personnel Factor 4. Which of the following is not a project manager’s
b) Product Factor activity?
c) Platform Factor a) project control
d) Project Factor b) project management
c) project planning
Answer:a d) project design

13. If an Indirect approach is taken, then the sizing Answer:d

approach is represented as Explanation:The design part of any project management
a) LOC is done by the project team.
b) FP 5. A software ________ provides the framework from
c) Fuzzy Logic which a comprehensive plan for software development
d) LOC and FP can be established.
a) people
Answer:b b) product
Explanation:A function point (FP) is a unit of c) process
measurement to express the amount of business
functionality an information system provides to a user. Answer:c
Explanation:A small number of framework activities are
. applicable to all software projects, regardless of their size
or complexity.
Managing Software Projects - 1 - 6. Who defines the business issues that often have
“Managing Software Projects – 1”. significant influence on the project?
1. Project management involves the planning, a) Practitioners
monitoring, and control of the people, process, and b) Project managers
events that occur as software evolves from a preliminary c) Senior managers
concept to an operational implementation.
a) True Answer:c
b) False
7. Who delivers the technical skills that are necessary to
Answer:a engineer a product or an application?
a) Practitioners
2. Which of the following is not an effective software b) Project managers
project management focus? c) Senior managers
a) people d) None of the mentioned
b) product
c) popularity Answer:a
d) process Explanation:None.
8. Which of the following paradigm attempts to structure
Answer:c a team in a manner that achieves some of the controls
Explanation:Effective software project management associated with the closed paradigm but also much of the
focuses on the four P’s: people, product, process, and innovation that occurs when using the random paradigm?
project. a) asynchronous paradigm
3. PM-CMM stands for b) open paradigm
a) people management capability maturity model c) closed paradigm
b) process management capability maturity model d) synchronous paradigm
c) product management capability maturity model
Answer:b Answer:a
Explanation:Open paradigm team structures are well Explanation:A product is always built to satisfy an end-
suited to the solution of complex problems but may not user.
perform as efficiently as other teams. 3. Which of the following is not an effective project
9. Which of the following is a people-intensive activity? manager trait?
a) Problem solving a) Problem solving
b) Organization b) Managerial identity
c) Motivation c) Influence and team building
d) Project management d) None of the mentioned

Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation:For this reason, competent practitioners Explanation:All are key traits of an effective project
often make poor team leaders. manager.
10. Which paradigm structures a team loosely and 4. Which type of software engineering team has a defined
depends on individual initiative of the team members? leader who coordinates specific tasks and secondary
a) random paradigm leaders that have responsibility for sub tasks?
b) open paradigm a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
c) closed paradigm b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
d) synchronous paradigm c) Controlled centralized (CC)
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:d
Answer:a
11. Which of the following is not an approach to software Explanation:Problem solving remains a group activity,
cost estimation? but implementation of solutions is partitioned among
a) Empirical subgroups by the team leader.
b) Heuristic 5. Commitments to unrealistic time and resource
c) Analytical estimates may result in
d) Critical a) project delay
b) poor quality work
Answer:d c) project failure
Explanation:Critical is no such standard approach of cost d) All of the mentioned
estimation.
Answer:d
.
6. Which software engineering team has no permanent
Managing Software Projects - 2 - leader?
“Managing Software Projects – 2”. a) Controlled decentralized (CD)
1. Which paradigm relies on the natural b) Democratic decentralized (DD)
compartmentalization of a problem and organizes team c) Controlled Centralized (CC)
members to work on pieces of the problem with little d) None of the above
active communication among themselves?
a) random paradigm Answer:b
b) open paradigm Explanation:Here Communication among team members
c) closed paradigm is horizontal.
d) synchronous paradigm 7. Which of the following is not a project factor that
should be considered when planning the structure of
Answer:c software engineering teams?
a) The difficulty of the problem to be solved
2. Who interacts with the software once it is released for b) High frustration caused by personal, business, or
production use? technological factors that causes friction among team
a) End-users members
b) Client c) The degree of sociability required for the project
c) Project (technical) managers d) The rigidity of the delivery date
d) Senior managers
Answer:c in advance
Explanation:Development is irrelevant of social quotient. d) All of the mentioned
8. Which of the following is a collection of project
coordination technique? Answer:d
a) Formal approaches
b) Formal, interpersonal procedures 2. Which of the following is an activity that distributes
c) Informal, interpersonal procedures estimated effort across the planned project duration by
d) All of the mentioned allocating the effort to specific software engineering
tasks?
Answer:d a) Software Macroscopic schedule
b) Software Project scheduling
9. Which activity sits at the core of software c) Software Detailed schedule
requirements analysis? d) None of the mentioned
a) Problem decomposition
b) Partitioning Answer:b
c) Problem elaboration
d) All of the mentioned 3. Every task that is scheduled should be assigned to a
specific team member is termed as
Answer:d a) Compartmentalization
Explanation:During the scoping activity decomposition is b) Defined milestones
applied in two major areas: the functionality that must be c) Defined responsibilities
delivered and the process that will be used to deliver it. d) Defined outcomes
10. Which of the following is not a sign that indicates
that an information systems project is in jeopardy? Answer:c
a) Software people don’t understand their customer’s Explanation:These responsibilities are domain specific.
needs. 4. What is a collection of software engineering work
b) Changes are managed poorly. tasks, milestones, and deliverables that must be
c) Sponsorship is gained. accomplished to complete a particular project?
d) Users are resistant. a) Task set
b) Degree of milestone
Answer:c c) Adaptation criteria
Explanation:Other options are contradictory of the d) All of the mentioned
question.
11. SPMP stands for Answer:a
a) Software Project Manager’s Plan
b) Software Project Management Plan 5. Ensuring that no more than the allocated number of
c) Software Product Management Plan people are allocated at any given time in Software
d) Software Product Manager’s Plan Scheduling is known as
a) Time Allocation
Answer:b b) Effort Validation
Explanation:After planning is complete, documenting of c) Defined Milestone
the plans is done in a Software Project Management d) Effort Distribution
Plan(SPMP) document.
Answer:b
.
6. What is used to determine the recommended degree of
Project Scheduling and Tracking - rigor with which the software process should be applied
“Project Scheduling and Tracking”. on a project?
1. Which of the following is the reason that software is a) Degree of Rigor
delivered late? b) Adaptation criteria
a) Changing customer requirements that are not reflected c) Task Set
in schedule changes d) Both degree of Rigor and adaptation criteria
b) Technical difficulties that could not have been
foreseen in advance
c) Human difficulties that could not have been foreseen
Answer:b the software process is 40% (analysis and design), 20%
Explanation:Four different degrees of rigor are: casual, (coding), and 40% (testing).
structured, strict, and quick reaction. 12. A project usually has a timeline chart which was
7. What evaluates the risk associated with the technology developed by
to be implemented as part of project scope? a) Henry Gantt
a) Concept scoping b) Barry Boehm
b) Preliminary concept planning c) Ivar Jacabson
c) Technology risk assessment d) None of the mentioned
d) Customer reaction to the concept
Answer:a
Answer:b Explanation:Timeline chart, also called a Gantt chart was
invented by Henry Gantt, an industrial engineer in 1917 .
8. Which of the following is not an adaptation criteria for
software projects? .
a) Size of the project
b) Customers Complaints Software Configuration Management - 1 -
c) Project staff “Software Configuration Management – 1”.
d) Mission criticality 1. Which of the following categories is part of the output
of software process?
Answer:b a) computer programs
Explanation:These can vary from client to client. b) documents that describe the computer programs
9. Which of the following is a project scheduling method c) data
that can be applied to software development? d) All of the mentioned
a) PERT
b) CPM Answer:d
c) CMM Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
d) both PERT and CPM 2. Which is a software configuration management
concept that helps us to control change without seriously
Answer:d impeding justifiable change?
Explanation:Program evaluation and review technique a) Baselines
(PERT) and critical path method (CPM) are two project b) Source code
scheduling methods that can be applied to software c) Data model
development. d) None of the mentioned
10. A technique for performing quantitative analysis of
progress is known as Answer:a
a) BCWS Explanation:A baseline is analogous to the kitchen doors
b) EVA in the restaurant. Before a software configuration item
c) BAC becomes a baseline, change may be made quickly and
d) CBSE informally.
3. Software Configuration Management can be
Answer:b administered in several ways. These include
Explanation:The earned value system provides a a) A single software configuration management team for
common value scale for every task, regardless of the type the whole organization
of work being performed. The total hours to do the whole b) A separate configuration management team for each
project are estimated, and every task is given an earned project
value based on its estimated percentage of the total. c) Software Configuration Management distributed
11. What is the recommended distribution of effort for a among the project members
project? d) All of the mentioned
a) 40-20-40
b) 50-20-30 Answer:a
c) 30-40-30 Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
d) 50-30-20 4. What combines procedures and tools to manage
different versions of configuration objects that are
Answer:a created during the software process?
Explanation:A recommended distribution of effort across a) Change control
b) Version control Answer:d
c) SCIs Explanation:It is defined in all the mentioned options.
d) None of the mentioned 10. What involves preparing software for external release
and keeping track of the system versions that have been
Answer:b released for customer use?
Explanation:Configuration management allows a user to a) System building
specify alternative configurations of the software system b) Release management
through the selection of appropriate versions. c) Change management
5. What complements the formal technical review by d) Version management
assessing a configuration object for characteristics that
are generally not considered during review? Answer:b
a) Software configuration audit
b) Software configuration management
c) Baseline .
d) None of the mentioned
Software Configuration Management - 2 -
Answer:a “Software Configuration Management – 2”.
1. Which of the following process ensures that versions
6. Which of the following is the process of assembling of systems and components are recorded and maintained?
program components, data, and libraries, and then a) Codeline
compiling and linking these to create an executable b) Configuration control
system? c) Version
a) System building d) Workspace
b) Release management
c) Change management Answer:b
d) Version management Explanation:In configuration control changes are
managed and all versions of components are identified
Answer:a and stored for the lifetime.
2. Which of the following process is concerned with
7. Which of the following option is not tracked by analyzing the costs and benefits of proposed changes?
configuration management tools? a) Change management
a) Tracking of change proposals b) Version management
b) Storing versions of system components c) System building
c) Tracking the releases of system versions to customers d) Release management
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Answer:d Explanation:It involves approving those changes that are
Explanation:All the options are tracked. worthwhile, and tracking which components in the
8. Which of the following is not a Software system have been changed.
Configuration Management Activity? 3. Which of the following is not a Version management
a) Configuration item identification feature?
b) Risk management a) Version and release identification
c) Release management b) Build script generation
d) Branch management c) Project support
d) Change history recording
Answer:b
Explanation:Risk management is an entirely different Answer:b
domain. Explanation:All other options are a part of version
9. The definition and use of configuration management management.
standards is essential for quality certification in 4. Which method recommends that very frequent system
a) ISO 9000 builds should be carried out with automated testing to
b) CMM discover software problems?
c) CMMI a) Agile method
d) All of the mentioned b) Parallel compilation method
c) Large systems method
d) All of the mentioned a) System building
b) Mainline
Answer:a c) Software Configuration Item(SCI)
Explanation:In keeping with the agile methods notion of d) None of the above
making many small changes, continuous integration
involves rebuilding the mainline frequently, after small Answer:b
source code changes have been made.
5. Which of the following is not a build system feature? 10. Which of the following term is best defined by the
a) Minimal recompilation statement “The creation of a new codeline from a version
b) Documentation generation in an existing codeline”?
c) Storage management a) Branching
d) Reporting b) Merging
c) Codeline
Answer:c d) Mainline
Explanation:To reduce the storage space required by
multiple versions of components that differ only slightly, Answer:a
version management systems usually provide storage Explanation:The code may then be developed
management facilities. independently.
6. Which of the following is a collection of component
versions that make up a system? .
a) Version
b) Codeline Software Maintenance - 1 -
c) Baseline by mod2
d) None of the above “Software Maintenance – 1”.
1. Software Maintenance includes
Answer:c a) Error corrections
Explanation:Baselines are controlled, which means that b) Enhancements of capabilities
the versions of the components making up the system c) Deletion of obsolete capabilities
cannot be changed. d) All of the mentioned
7. Which of the following is a configuration item?
a) Design specification Answer:d
b) Source code Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) Test specification 2. Maintenance is classified into how many categories ?
d) Log information a) two
e) All of the mentioned b) three
c) four
Answer:e d) five
Explanation:A configuration item is an approved and
accepted deliverable, changes have to be made through Answer:c
formal procedure. Explanation: Adaptive, corrective, perfective and
8. Which of the following is a part of system release? preventive are the four types of software maintenance.
a) electronic and paper documentation describing the 3. The modification of the software to match changes in
system the ever changing environment, falls under which
b) packaging and associated publicity that have been category of software maintenance?
designed for that release a) Corrective
c) an installation program that is used to help install the b) Adaptive
system on target hardware c) Perfective
d) all of the mentioned d) Preventive

Answer:d Answer:b
Explanation:Release creation is the process of creating Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
the collection of files and documentation that includes all 4. How many phases are there in Taute Maintenance
of the components of the system release. Model?
9. A sequence of baselines representing different versions a) six
of a system is known as b) seven
c) eight Answer:c
d) nine Explanation: Generality measures the ability of a
technique to handle realistic and diverse language
Answer:c constructs, arbitrarily complex modifications, and
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. realistic testing applications.
5. What type of software testing is generally used in 10. Which regression test selection technique exposes
Software Maintenance? faults caused by modifications?
a) Regression Testing a) Efficiency
b) System Testing b) Precision
c) Integration Testing c) Generality
d) Unit Testing d) Inclusiveness

Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation: All other options are known as levels of Explanation: Inclusiveness measures the extent to which
software testing which further have types of software a technique chooses test cases that will cause the
testing. modified program to produce different output than the
6. Regression testing is a very expensive activity. original program, and thereby expose faults caused by
a) True modifications.
b) False
.
Answer:a
Explanation: As regression testing is performed many Software Maintenance - 2 -
times over the life of the software product, it becomes a by mod2
costly affair. “Software Maintenance – 2”.
7. Selective retest techniques may be more economical 1. The process of generating analysis and design
than the “retest-all”technique.How many selective retest documents is known as
techniques are there? a) Software engineering
a) two b) Software re-engineering
b) three c) Reverse engineering
c) four d) Re-engineering
d) five
Answer:c
Answer:b Explanation: Reverse engineering is the process followed
Explanation: The three categories include: Coverage, in order to find difficult, unknown and hidden
Minimization and Safe techniques. information about a software system..
8. Which selective retest technique selects every test case 2. What is a software patch?
that causes a modified program to produce a different a) Required or Critical Fix
output than its original version? b) Emergency Fix
a) Coverage c) Daily or routine Fix
b) Minimization d) None of the mentioned
c) Safe
Answer:b
Answer:c Explanation: A software patch is an emergency fix which
Explanation: Safe techniques do not focus on coverage is worked upon the obsolete version whenever a
criteria, instead they select every test case that cause a vulnerability is encountered.
modified program to produce different output than its 3. Which one of the following is not a maintenance
original version. model?
9. ______________ measures the ability of a regression a) Waterfall model
test selection technique to handle realistic applications. b) Reuse-oriented model
a) Efficiency c) Iterative enhancement model
b) Precision d) Quick fix model
c) Generality
d) Inclusiveness Answer:a
Explanation: Waterfall model is a software development
model.
4. What does ACT stands for in In Boehm model for d) Reconstructing
software maintenance?
a) Actual change track Answer:a
b) Annual change track Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
c) Annual change traffic 10. How many stages are there in Iterative-enhancement
d) Actual change traffic model used during software maintenance?
a) two
Answer:c b) three
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. c) four
5. Choose the suitable options with respect to regression d) five
testing.
a) It helps in development of software Answer:b
b) It helps in maintenance of software Explanation: The stages include: analysis of existing
c) both a and b system, characterize proposed modifications, redesign
d) none of the mentioned and implement current version.

Answer:c .
Explanation: Regression testing preserves the quality and
reliability of software and ensures the software’s Software Certification -
continued operation. “Software Certification”.
6. What are legacy systems? 1. Which of the following is a field related to certification
a) new systems ?
b) old systems a) Person
c) under-developed systems b) Process
d) none of the mentioned c) Product
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation: Legacy systems are the existing systems Answer:d
which may require some modification or maintenance. Explanation: During software certification all given
7. Which of the following manuals is not a user options are targeted.
documentation? 2. Which of the following is a software process
a) Beginner’s Guide certification ?
b) Installation guide a) JAVA Certified
c) Reference Guide b) IBM Certified
d) SRS c) ISO-9000
d) Microsoft Certified
Answer:d
Explanation: SRS provides information on exact Answer:c
requirements of system as agreed between user and Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
developers. 3. Which standard is followed in aviation industry ?
8. Which of the following manuals is a user a) CTRADO-172B
documentation? b) RTCADO-178B
a) SRS -Software Requirement Specification c) RTRADO-178B
b) SDD -Software Design Document d) CTCADO-178B
c) System Overview
Answer:b
Answer:c Explanation: RTCADO-178B is a popular aviation
Explanation: System overview provides general standard that has become a defacto standard.
description of the system’s functions. 4. How many levels, does the DO-178B certification
9. The process of transforming a model into source code targeted by RTCADO-178B has ?
is known as a) two
a) Forward engineering b) three
b) Reverse engineering c) four
c) Re-engineering d) five
Answer:d Answer:d
Explanation: The levels are A, B, C, D, E. Explanation: The answer is self explanatory.
5. Third Party Certification for software standards is
based on .
a) Ul 1998, Second Edition
b) UT 1998, Second Edition Process Improvement -
c) Ul 1992, Second Edition “Process Improvement”.
d) Ul 1996, Second Edition 1. “Robustness” answers which of the following
description?
Answer:a a) CASE tools be used to support the process activities
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they
6. What are the goals to gain Laboratory Accreditation ? result in product errors
a) Increase availability of testing services through third- c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the
party laboratories engineers responsible for producing the software
b) Increase availability of testing market to encourage d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
development of software testing industry
c) Reduce cost by increasing supply of testing services Answer:d
d) All of the mentioned
2. Process improvement is the set of activities, methods,
Answer:d and transformations that developers use to develop and
Explanation: The goal is to promote development of maintain information systems.
competitive market, hence option d. a) True
7. National Voluntary Laboratory Accreditation Program b) False
approve accreditation in
a) Environmental standards Answer:b
b) Computers and electronics Explanation:The definition is of a system development
c) Product testing process.
d) All of the mentioned 3. “Understandability” answers which of the following
description?
Answer:d a) The extent to which the process is explicitly defined
Explanation: National Voluntary Laboratory b) Process errors are avoided or trapped before they
Accreditation Program Works with other national metro- result in product errors
logy institutes to establish criteria for mutual recognition c) Defined process is acceptable and usable by the
of test results. engineers responsible for producing the software product
8. CSTE stands for d) Process continues in spite of unexpected problems
a) Certified Software Technology
b) Certified Software Tester Answer:a
c) Certified Software Trainee
4. How many stages are there in process improvement?
Answer:b a) three
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. b) four
9. CSQA stands for c) five
a) Certified Software Quality Analyst d) six
b) Certified Software Quality Approved
c) Certified Software Quality Acclaimed Answer:a
Explanation:Process measurement, analysis and change
Answer:a are the three stages.
Explanation: The answer is self explanatory. 5. In which stage of process improvement bottlenecks
10. Which of the following companies provide and weaknesses are identified?
certifications for their own products? a) Process measurement
a) CISCO b) Process analysis
b) ORACLE c) Process change
c) Microsoft d) None of the mentioned
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:b c) Introducing or removing deliverable
Explanation:In Process analysis the current process is d) Introducing new roles or responsibilities
assessed and bottlenecks and weaknesses are identified.
6. Prototypes and 4GL business systems are categorized Answer:b
under which process? Explanation:Adding more developers aid to process
a) Informal completion rather than changing it.
b) Managed 12. The Capability Maturity Model (CMM) is a
c) Methodical continuous model.
d) Supported a) True
b) False
Answer:a
Explanation:Here the development team chose their own Answer:b
way of working. Explanation:The CMM is discrete rather than continuous.
7. The documentation of a process which records the 13. The CMMI assessment is based on a x-point scale.
tasks, the roles and the entities used is called What is the value of x?
a) Process metric a) 0
b) Process analysis b) 2
c) Process modelling c) 4
d) None of the mentioned d) 6

Answer:c Answer:d
Explanation:Process models may be presented from Explanation:Not performed, performed, managed,
different perspectives. defined, quantitatively managed, and optimizing are the
8. It is always best to start process analysis with a new six points.
test model.
a) True .
b) False
Software Quality Assurance -
Answer:b “Software Quality Assurance”.
Explanation:It is always best to start process analysis 1. Which of the following is not included in failure costs?
with an existing model. People then may extend and a) rework
change this. b) repair
9. What is a tangible output of an activity that is c) failure mode analysis
predicted in a project plan? d) none of the mentioned
a) Deliverable
b) Activity Answer:d
c) Condition Explanation:Failure costs are those that would disappear
if no defects appeared before shipping a product to
Answer:a customers.
2. Which requirements are the foundation from which
10. What is often undefined and is left to the ingenuity of quality is measured?
the project managers and engineers? a) Hardware
a) Role b) Software
b) Exception c) Programmers
c) Activity d) None of the mentioned
d) Process
Answer:b
Answer:b Explanation:Lack of conformance to requirements is lack
Explanation:Exceptions are often undefined and it is left of quality.
to the ingenuity of the project managers and engineers to 3. Which of the following is not a SQA plan for a
handle the exception. project?
11. Which of the following is not a part of process a) evaluations to be performed
change? b) amount of technical work
a) Introducing new practices, methods or processes c) audits and reviews to be performed
b) Introducing new team members to existing project
d) documents to be produced by the SQA group c) test equipment
d) equipment calibration and maintenance
Answer:b
Explanation:All other options support a SQA plan. Answer:d
4. Degree to which design specifications are followed in Explanation:The cost of quality includes all costs
manufacturing the product is called incurred in the pursuit of quality or in performing
a) Quality Control quality-related activities.
b) Quality of conformance 10. Software quality assurance consists of the auditing
c) Quality Assurance and reporting functions of management.
d) None of the mentioned a) True
b) False
Answer:b
Answer:a
5. Which of the following is not included in External
failure costs?
a) testing .
b) help line support
c) warranty work ISO 9001 and CMM -
d) complaint resolution “ISO 9001 and CMM”.
1. CMM stands for
Answer:a a) Capability Management Module
Explanation:External failure costs are associated with b) Conservative Maturity Model
defects found after the product has been shipped to the c) Capability Maturity Module
customer. d) Capability Maturity Model
6. Which of the following is not an appraisal cost in
SQA? Answer:d
a) inter-process inspection Explanation:The Capability Maturity Model for Software
b) maintenance describes the principles and practices underlying
c) quality planning software process maturity and is intended to help
d) testing software organizations improve the maturity of their
software processes in terms of an evolutionary path from
Answer:c adhoc, chaotic processes to mature, disciplined software
Explanation:It is associated prevention cost. processes.
7. Who identifies, documents, and verifies that 2. The ISO 9000 series of standards is a program that can
corrections have been made to the software? be used for external quality assurance purposes.
a) Project manager a) True
b) Project team b) False
c) SQA group
d) All of the mentioned Answer:b
Explanation:The ISO 9000 series of standards is a set of
Answer:c documents.
3. According to ISO 9001, the causes of nonconforming
8. The primary objective of formal technical reviews is to product should be
find _________ during the process so that they do not a) deleted
become defects after release of the software. b) eliminated
a) errors c) identified
b) equivalent faults d) eliminated and identified
c) failure cause
d) None of the mentioned Answer:d
Explanation: ISO 9001 requires that the causes of
Answer:a nonconforming product to be identified. Potential causes
Explanation:Errors lead to faults of nonconforming product are eliminated.
9. What is not included in prevention costs? 4. .CO poliy in CMM means
a) quality planning a) The leadership practices in Commitment to Perform
b) formal technical reviews b) The organizational structure (groups) practices in
Ability to Perform 9. The CMM emphasizes
c) The policy practices in Commitment to Perform a) continuous process improvement
d) The planning practices in Commitment to Perform b) the need to record information
c) the need to accept quality system
Answer:c d) both a and b
Explanation: CMM have certain policy practices covered
under .CO policy. Answer:
5. ISO 9001 is not concerned with ____________ of Explanation: CMM emphasizes the need to record
quality records. information for later use in the process and for
a) collection improvement of the process.
b) maintenance 10. _______ states that, where appropriate, adequate
c) verification statistical techniques are identified and used to verify the
d) dis-positioning acceptability of process capability and product
characteristics.
Answer:c a) ISO 9001
Explanation:The practices defining the quality records to b) ISO 9000-4
be maintained in the CMM are distributed throughout the c) CMM
key process areas in the various Activities Performed d) All of the mentioned
practices.
6. Which of the following is not a maturity level in Answer:a
CMM? Explanation: ISO 9001 states that, where, appropriate
a) Design adequate statistical techniques are identified and used to
b) Repeatable verify the acceptability of process capability and product
c) Managed characteristics.
d) Optimizing
.
Answer:c
Explanation:The CMM is organized into five maturity Architectural Design -
levels as namely: Initial, Repeatable, Defined, Managed “Architectural Design”.
and Optimizing. 1. Architectural design is a creative process satisfying
7. In CMM, the life cycle activities of requirements only functional-requirements of a system.
analysis, design, code, and test are described in a) True
a) Software Product Engineering b) False
b) Software Quality Assurance
c) Software Subcontract Management Answer:b
d) Software Quality Management Explanation:In architectural design you design a system
organization satisfying the functional and non-functional
Answer:a requirements of a system.
Explanation:In CMM planning these activities is 2. A ________ view shows the system hardware and how
described in Software Project Planning, however the life software components are distributed across the
cycle activities of requirements analysis, design, code, processors in the system.
and test are described in Software Product Engineering. a) physical
8. Which of the following requires design control b) logical
measures, such as holding and recording design reviews c) process
and qualification tests?
a) CMM Answer:a
b) ISO 9001 Explanation:A physical view is implemented by system
c) ISO 9000-3 engineers implementing the system hardware.
d) None of the mentioned 3. The UML was designed for describing _________.
a) object-oriented systems
Answer:c b) architectural design
Explanation:ISO 9000-3 states that the supplier should c) SRS
carry out reviews to ensure the requirements are met and d) Both object-oriented systems and Architectural design
design methods are correctly carried out.
Answer:d c) model-view-controller
Explanation:The UML was designed for describing d) different operating system
object-oriented systems and, at the architectural design
stage, you often want to describe systems at a higher Answer:c
level of abstraction. Explanation:Model-View-Controller pattern is the basis
4. Which of the following view shows that the system is of interaction management in many web-based systems.
composed of interacting processes at run time? 9. What describes how a set of interacting components
a) physical can share data?
b) development a) model-view-controller
c) logical b) architecture pattern
d) process c) repository pattern
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation:This view is useful for making judgments Answer:c
about non-functional system characteristics such as Explanation:The majority of systems that use large
performance and availability. amounts of data are organized around a shared database
5. Which of the following is an architectural conflict? or repository.
a) Using large-grain components improves performance 10. Which view in architectural design shows the key
but reduces maintainability abstractions in the system as objects or object classes?
b) Introducing redundant data improves availability but a) physical
makes security more difficult b) development
c) Localizing safety-related features usually means more c) logical
communication so degraded performance d) process
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:c
Answer:d Explanation:It is possible to relate the system
Explanation:High availability architecture can be affected requirements to entities in a logical view.
by several design factors that are required to be 11. Which of the following is a type of Architectural
maintained to ensure that no single points of failure exist Model?
in such design. a) Static structural model
6. Which of the following is not included in Architectural b) Dynamic process model
design decisions? c) Distribution model
a) type of application d) All of the mentioned
b) distribution of the system
c) architectural styles Answer:d
d) testing the system Explanation:All these models reflects the basic strategy
that is used to structure a system.
Answer:d
Explanation: Architectural design decisions include .
decisions on the type of application, the distribution of
the system, the architectural styles to be used, and the Architectural Patterns -
ways in which the architecture should be documented “Architectural Patterns”.
and evaluated. 1. Which of these following sensor is a useful as part of a
7. Architecture once established can be applied to other burglar alarm system for commercial buildings?
products as well. a) Movement detector
a) True b) Door sensor
b) False c) Window sensor
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:b
Explanation:Systems in the same domain often have Answer:d
similar architectures that reflect domain concepts. Explanation:A burglar alarm system for commercial
8. Which of the following pattern is the basis of buildings include movement detectors in individual
interaction management in many web-based systems? rooms, door sensors that detect corridor doors opening,
a) architecture and window sensors on ground-floor windows that can
b) repository pattern detect when a window has been opened.
2. Which of the following is not real-time architectural a) Observe and React
patterns that are commonly used? b) Process Pipeline
a) Asynchronous communication c) Environmental Control
b) Observe and React
c) Environmental Control Answer:d
d) Process Pipeline Explanation:An anti-skid braking system in a car
monitors the car’s wheels and brake system .
Answer:a 8. ETL stands for
Explanation:These patterns can be combined and you a) Data Extraction Transformation & Loading
will often see more than one of them in a single system. b) Data Execution Transformation & Loading
3. A monitoring system examines its environment c) Extraction Transformation & Loading
through d) Execution Transformation & Loading
a) operating system
b) communication Answer:a
c) set of sensors
d) none of these 9. Control systems may make use of the Environmental
Control pattern, which is a general control pattern that
Answer:c includes _________processes.
Explanation:If some exceptional event or sensor state is a) sensor
detected by the system, the monitoring system takes b) actuator
some action. Often, this involves raising an alarm to draw c) pipeline
an operator’s attention to the event. d) both sensor and actuator
4. Which of the following is applicable on software
radio? Answer:d
a) Environmental Control Explanation:Such patterns are quite common in
b) Process Pipeline Environmental Control Systems.
c) Distributed system 10. ________ can be associated with a separate processor
d) None of the mentioned or core, so that the processing steps can be carried out in
parallel.
Answer:b a) Process Pipeline
Explanation:A software radio accepts incoming packets b) Environmental Control
of digital data representing the radio transmission and c) Observe and React
transforms these into a sound signal that people can listen d) none of the mentioned
to.
5. An example of a system that may use a process Answer:a
pipeline is a high-speed Explanation:The Process Pipeline pattern makes this
a) data distributing system rapid processing possible by breaking down the required
b) data acquisition system data processing into a sequence of separate
c) data collector system transformations, with each transformation carried out by
d) none of the mentioned an independent process.

Answer:b .
Explanation:Data acquisition systems collect data from
sensors for subsequent processing and analysis. Application Architectures -
6. Monitoring systems are an important class of “Application Architectures”.
embedded real-time systems. 1. Which of the following examples is/are models of
a) True application architectures?
b) False a) a means of assessing components for reuse
b) a design checklist
Answer:a c) a vocabulary for talking about types of applications
Explanation:A monitoring system examines its d) All of the mentioned
environment through a set of sensors and, usually,
displays the state of the environment in some way. Answer:d
7. Which of the following is an example of a controller Explanation:Application architectures encapsulate the
for a car braking system? principal characteristics of a class of systems.
2. ERP stands for Answer:c
a) Enterprise Research Planning Explanation:In software engineering, compilers translate
b) Enterprise Resource Planning an artificial programming language into machine code.
c) Enterprise Resource Package 7. Properties of a system such as performance and
d) Enterprise Research Package security are independent of the architecture used.
a) True
Answer:b b) False

3. Which of the following type describes application Answer:b

architectures? Explanation:Properties such as performance, security,
a) Transaction processing applications and availability are influenced by the architecture used.
b) Language processing systems 8. Which of the following is/are commonly used
c) Client management systems architectural pattern(s)?
d) Transaction processing applications and Language a) Model-View-Controller
processing systems b) Layered Architecture
e) All of the mentioned c) Client–server
d) All of the mentioned
Answer:d
Explanation:Transaction processing applications are Answer:d
database-centered applications that process user requests Explanation:Commonly used architectural patterns
for information and update the information in a database, include Model-View-Controller, Layered Architecture,
while language processing systems are systems in which Repository, Client–server, and Pipe and Filter.
the user’s intentions are expressed in a formal language. 9. A language-processing systems may translate an XML
4. All the operations in a transaction need to be data description into
completed before the database changes are made a) a machine code
________. b) an alternative XML representation
a) functional c) machine code and alternative XML representation
b) available to the users d) a software module
c) permanent
d) None of the mentioned Answer:c
Explanation:Such is the property and function of
Answer:b language processing system.
Explanation:This ensures that failure of operations within 10. Transaction processing systems may be organized as
the transaction does not lead to inconsistencies in the a _________ architecture with system components
database. responsible for input, processing, and output.
5. Systems that involve interaction with a shared database a) Repository
can be considered as. b) Client–server
a) software-based c) Model-View-Controller
b) transaction-based d) Pipe and Filter
c) server-based
d) client-based Answer:d

Answer:b
Explanation:Such systems with a shared database are also .
referred to as transaction based information systems.
6. What translates a natural or an artificial language into Unified Modelling Language -
another representation of that language and, for by mod2
programming languages also execute the resulting code? “Unified Modelling Language”.
a) ERP systems 1. Object oriented analysis and design can be handled by
b) Transaction-based information systems the one who knows UML.
c) Language processing systems a) True
d) None of the mentioned b) False

Answer: False
Explanation: The Unified Modeling Language includes a
set of graphic notation techniques to create visual models b) Include
of object-oriented software-intensive systems. c) Extend
2. At Conceptual level Class diagrams should include d) All of the mentioned
a) operations only
b) attributes only Answer: d
c) both (a) and (b) Explanation: Generalization, include, extend all of these
d) None of the mentioned are valid relationships in use case diagrams.
8. Which of the following statement(s) is true about
Answer: b interaction diagrams?
Explanation: In software engineering, a class diagram in a) Interaction diagrams are at their best when they deal
the Unified Modeling Language (UML) is a type of static with one main design flow and not multiple variants that
structure diagram that describes the structure of a system can happen.
by showing the system’s classes, their attributes, b) Interaction diagrams are good at designing part or all
operations, and the relationships among objects. of one use case’s functionality across multiple objects.
3. Select the statement true for activity diagrams. c) Interaction diagrams allow the analyst to show
a) They can be used to discover parallel activities iteration and conditional execution for messaging
b) They are used to depict workflow for a particular between objects.
business activity d) All of these
c) Activity diagram do not tell who does what and are
difficult to trace back to object models Answer: d
d) All of the mentioned Explanation: Interaction diagram is used to describe
some type of interactions among the different elements in
Answer: d the model. So this interaction is a part of dynamic
Explanation: Activity diagrams are graphical behaviour of the system.
representations of workflows of step wise activities and 9. UML interfaces are used to:
actions with support for choice, iteration and a) specify required services for types of objects.
concurrency. b) program in Java, but not in C++ or Smalltalk.
4. Constraints can be represented in UML by c) define executable logic to reuse across classes.
a) {text} d) define an API for all classes.
b) [text] c) constraint
d) None of the mentioned Answer: a
Explanation: An interface is like a template design for a
Answer: a class that contains no data or implementation; only
Explanation: Constraints are represented by {text string}. definitions for methods, properties etc.
5. What is an object? 10. Referring to the attached diagram, the arrow
a) An object is an instance of a class. indicates:
b) An object includes encapsulation of data a) Navigability
c) An object is not an instance of a class b) Dependency
c) Association
Answer: a d) Refers to
Explanation: An object is an instance of a class.
6. What is an abstract class? Answer: a
a) A class that has direct instances, but whose Explanation: The arrows describe the ways you can
descendants may have direct instances. navigate.
b) A class that has direct instances, but whose
descendants may not have direct instances.
c) A class that has no direct instances, but whose Building Blocks of UML -
descendants may have direct instances. “Building Blocks of UML”.
1. Which of the following is a building block of UML?
Answer: c a) Things
Explanation: An abstract type is a type in a nominative b) Relationships
type system which cannot be instantiated directly. c) Diagrams
7. Which of the following are the valid relationships in d) All of the mentioned
Use Case Diagrams
a) Generalization
Answer:d c) Collaboration
Explanation:All are the building blocks of UML which d) Class
are further sub-categorized.
2. Classes and interfaces are a part of Answer:b
a) Structural things Explanation:This diagram is a model describing how
b) Behavioral things groups of objects collaborate in some behavior over time.
c) Grouping things 8. Object diagram captures the behavior of a single use
d) Annotational things case.
a) True
Answer:a b) False
Explanation:Structural things are mostly static parts of a
model, representing elements that are either conceptual Answer:b
or physical. Explanation:Sequence Diagram is responsible for this.
3.What is a collection of operations that specify a service 9. If you are working on real-time process control
of a class or component? applications or systems that involve concurrent
a) Use Case processing, you would use a
b) Actor a) Activity diagram
c) Interface b) Sequence diagram
d) Relationship c) Statechart diagram
d) Object diagram
Answer:c
Answer:c
4. What is a physical element that exists at run time in Explanation:A statechart diagram shows a state machine,
UML? consisting of states, transitions, events, and activities.
a) A node 10. Which diagram shows the configuration of run-time
b) An interface processing elements?
c) An activity a) Deployment diagram
d) None of the mentioned b) Component diagram
c) Node diagram
Answer:a d) ER-diagram
Explanation:A node represents a computational resource.
5. What can be requested from any object of the class to Answer:a
affect behavior? Explanation:A Deployment diagram shows the
a) object configuration of run-time processing elements and the
b) attribute software components, processes, and objects.
c) operation 11. Which things in UML are the explanatory parts of
d) instance UML models?
a) Structural things
Answer:c b) Behavioral things
Explanation:An operation is the implementation of a c) Grouping things
service that can be requested from any object of the class d) Annotational things
to affect behavior.
6. Which things are dynamic parts of UML models? Answer:d
a) Structural things Explanation:It include a note which is simply a symbol
b) Behavioral things for rendering constraints and comments attached to an
c) Grouping things element or a collection of elements.
d) Annotational things 12. Which of the following term is best defined by the
statement:”a structural relationship that specifies that
Answer:b objects of one thing are connected to objects of another”?
Explanation:These are the verbs of a model, representing a) Association
behavior over time and space. b) Aggregation
7. Which diagram in UML emphasizes the time-ordering c) Realization
of messages? d) Generalization
a) Activity
b) Sequence
Answer:a a) Node
b) Interface
13. What refers to the value associated with a specific c) Class
attribute of an object and to any actions or side? d) Component
a) Object
b) State Answer:d
c) Interface Explanation: The figure is self explanatory. A component
d) None of the mentioned is a modular, significant and replaceable part of the
system that packages implementation and exposes a set
Answer:b of interfaces.
Explanation:In a state chart diagram, effects occur when 4. What type of relationship is represented by Shape class
the attribute’s value changes. and Square ?

Diagrams in UML - 1 -
by mod2
“Diagrams in UML-1 “.
1. Which of the following UML diagrams has a static
view?
a) Collaboration
b) Use case
c) State chart
d) Activity a) Realization
b) Generalization
Answer:b c) Aggregation
Explanation: A use case diagrams captures only the d) Dependency
functionality of the system whereas a dynamic
model/view captures the functions as well as the action. Answer: b
2. What type of core-relationship is represented by the Explanation: The generalization relationship is also
symbol in the figure below? known as the inheritance relationship. In the figure
Square is the sub class of super class shape.
5. Which diagram in UML shows a complete or partial
view of the structure of a modeled system at a specific
time?
a) Sequence Diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Class Diagram
d) Object Diagram
a) Aggregation
b) Dependency
Answer: d
c) Generalization
Explanation: An object diagram focuses on some
d) Association
particular set of object instances and attributes, and the
links between the instances. It is a static snapshot of a
Answer:a
dynamic view of the system.
Explanation: The figure is self explanatory.
6. Interaction Diagram is a combined term for
3. Which core element of UML is being shown in the
a) Sequence Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
figure?
b) Activity Diagram + State Chart Diagram
c) Deployment Diagram + Collaboration Diagram
d) None of the mentioned

Answer: a
Explanation: Interaction diagram are used to formalize
the dynamic behavior of the system.
7. Structure diagrams emphasize the things that must be 2. Which UML diagram is shown below?
present in the system being modeled.
a) True
b) False

Answer: a
Explanation: Since structure diagrams represent the
structure they are used extensively in documenting the
architecture of software systems
8. Which of the following diagram is time oriented?
a) Collaboration
b) Sequence
c) Activity

Answer:b
Explanation: A sequence diagrams timeline along which
tasks are completed.

Software Engineering Questions and Answers –

Diagrams in UML – 2
“Diagrams in UML – 2”.
1. How many diagrams are here in Unified Modelling
Language?
a) six
b) seven
c) eight a) Use Case
d) nine b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Class Diagram
Answer:d d) Object Diagram
Explanation: The nine UML diagrams include use-case,
sequence, collaboration, activity, state-chart, deployment, Answer:a
class, object and component. Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
3. Which UML diagram is shown below?

a) Use Case
b) State Chart
c) Activiy 6. Which UML diagram is shown below?
d) Object Diagram

Answer:b
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
4. Which UML diagram is shown below?

a) Deployment diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Object Diagram
d) Class Diagram

Answer:d
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
7. Which UML diagram is shown below?

a) Use Case
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Sequence Diagram
d) Object Diagram

Answer:c
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory.
5. Which UML diagram’s symbols are shown below?

a) Deployment diagram
b) Collaboration Diagram
c) Component Diagram
d) Object Diagram a) Activity
b) State chart
Answer:a c) Sequence
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory. c) Collaboration
Answer:a b) interaction model
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory. c) environmental model
8. Which UML diagram is shown below? d) both system context and interaction

Answer:a
Explanation:The context model of a system may be
represented using associations. Associations simply show
that there are some relationships between the entities
involved in the association.
4. Which of the following come under system control?
a) Reconfigure
b) Shutdown
c) Powersave
d) All of the mentioned

Answer:d
Explanation: Functionalities are governed by the system.
5. We use _________ where various parts of system use
are identified and analyzed in turn.
a) tangible entities
a) Component b) scenario-based analysis
b) Deployment c) design-based analysis
c) Use Case d) None of the mentioned
d) DFD
Answer:b
Answer:a Explanation:Use a scenario-based analysis where various
Explanation: The diagram is self explanatory. scenarios of system use are identified and analyzed in
turn.
Object Oriented Design using UML - 6. Which model describes the static structure of the
“Object Oriented Design using UML”. system using object classes and their relationships?
1. Which of the following is not needed to develop a a) Sequence model
system design from concept to detailed object-oriented b) Subsystem model
design? c) Dynamic model
a) Designing system architecture d) Structural model
b) Developing design models
c) Specifying interfaces
Answer:d
d) Developing a debugging system
Explanation:Important relationships that may be
documented at this stage are generalization (inheritance)
Answer:d relationships, uses/used-by relationships, and
Explanation:The debugging system is a part of testing composition relationships.
phase. 7. Which model shows the flow of object interactions?
2. Which of the following is a dynamic model that shows a) Sequence model
how the system interacts with its environment as it is b) Subsystem model
used? c) Dynamic model
a) system context model d) Both Sequence and Dynamic model
b) interaction model
c) environmental model
Answer:a
d) both system context and interaction
Explanation.Sequence model are represented using a
UML sequence or a collaboration diagram and are
Answer:b dynamic models
8. If the system state is Shutdown then it can respond to
3. Which of the following is a structural model that which of the following message?
demonstrates the other systems in the environment of the a) restart()
system being developed? b) reconfigure()
a) system context model c) powerSave()
d) All of the mentioned c) control specification diagram
d) workflow diagram
Answer:d
Explanation:A restart() message causes a transition to Answer:b
normal operation. Both the powerSave() and Explanation:The state transition diagram represents the
reconfigure() messages cause a transition to a state in various modes of behavior (called states) of the system
which the system reconfigures itself. and the manner in which transitions are made from state
9. Which message is received so that the system moves to to state.
the Testing state, then the Transmitting state, before 4. A data model contains
returning to the Running state? a) data object
a) signalStatus() b) attributes
b) remoteControl() c) relationships
c) reconfigure() d) All of the mentioned
d) reportStatus()
Answer:d
Answer:d Explanation: The data model consists of three interrelated
pieces of information: the data object,
10. Open source development involves making the the attributes that describe the data object, and the
source code of a system publicly available. relationships that connect data objects to one another.
a) True 5. _________ defines the properties of a data object and
b) False take on one of the three different characteristics.
a) data object
Answer:a b) attributes
Explanation:This means that many people can propose c) relationships
changes and improvements to the software. d) data object and attributes

. Answer:b
Explanation:They can be used to name an instance of the
Analysis Modelling - data object, describe the instance, or make reference to
“Analysis Modelling”. another instance in another table.
1. Which of the following is not the primary objectives in 6. The __________ of a relationship is 0 if there is no
the analysis model? explicit need for the relationship to occur or the
a) describing the customer complaints relationship is optional.
b) establishing a basis for the creation of a software a) modality
design b) cardinality
c) defining a set of requirements that can be validated c) entity
once the software is built d) structured analysis
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:a
Answer:d Explanation:The modality is 1 if an occurrence of the
Explanation:All the options are covered in analysis relationship is mandatory, else 0 for optional relationship.
model. 7. A _________ is a graphical representation that depicts
2. A description of each function presented in the DFD is information flow and the transforms that are applied as
contained in a ________. data moves from input to output.
a) data flow a) data flow diagram
b) process specification b) state transition diagram
c) control specification c) control specification
d) data store d) workflow diagram

Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation:The basic form of a data flow diagram, also
3. Which diagram indicates the behaviour of the system known as a data flow graph or a bubble chart.
as a consequence of external events? 8. A data condition occurs whenever a data is passed to
a) data flow diagram an input element followed by a processing element and
b) state transition diagram the result in control output.
a) True d) All of the mentioned
b) False
Answer:d
Answer:a Explanation: A decision table includes action stub and a
Explanation:Standard flow of condition check. condition stub with a set of rules.
9. The __________ enables the software engineer to 3. _________ is a pidgin(simplified version of a language
develop models of the information domain and functional that develops as a means of communication between two
domain at the same time or more groups that do not have a language in common)
a) data flow diagram a) program design language
b) state transition diagram b) structured English
c) control specification c) pseudocode
d) activity diagram d) All of the mentioned

Answer:a Answer:d
Explanation:As the DFD is refined into greater levels of Explanation:The difference between PDL and a real
detail, the analyst performs an implicit functional programming language lies in the use of narrative text
decomposition of the system, thereby accomplishing the embedded directly within PDL statements.
fourth operational analysis principle for function. 4. Which of the following term is best defined by the
10. The __________ contains a state transition diagram statement:”The ability to represent local and global data
that is a sequential specification of behavior. is an essential element of component-level design.”?
a) data flow diagram a) Data representation
b) state transition diagram b) Logic verification
c) control specification c) “Code-to” ability
d) workflow diagram d) Automatic processing

Answer:c Answer:a
Explanation:The control specification(CSPEC) describes
the behavior of the system, but it gives us no information 5. A software component
about the inner working of the processes that are a) Implements some functionality
activated as a result of this behavior . b) Has explicit dependencies through provides and
required interfaces
. c) Communicates through its interfaces only
d) All of the mentioned
Component Level Design -
“Component Level Design”. Answer:d
1. Which of the following is not a construct? Explanation:All the options identify with features of a
a) sequence software component.
b) condition 6. Which diagram evolved from a desire to develop a
c) repetition procedural design representation that would not allow
d) selection violation of the structured constructs?
a) State transition diagram
Answer:d b) Box diagram
Explanation: Sequence implements processing steps that c) ER diagram
are essential in the specification of any algorithm. d) None of the mentioned
Condition provides the facility for selected processing
based on some logical occurrence, and repetition allows Answer:b
for looping. Explanation:None.
2.Which of the following steps is applied to develop a 7. A __________ executes the loop task first, then tests a
decision table? condition and repeats the task until the condition fails.
a) List all actions that can be associated with a specific a) repeat until
procedure b) condition
b) List all conditions during execution of the procedure. c) do while tests
c) Define rules by indicating what action(s) occurs for a d) if then-else
set of conditions.
Answer:a d) Design for direct interaction with objects that appear
on the screen
8. Which of the following is not a characteristics of box
diagram? Answer:c
a) functional domain Explanation:The user interface should move the user into
b) arbitrary transfer of control is impossible the virtual world of the application.
c) recursion is easy to represent 3. Which of the following is not a user interface design
d) providing a notation that translates actions and process?
conditions a) User, task, and environment analysis and modeling
b) Interface design
Answer:d c) Knowledgeable, frequent users
Explanation:This functionality is covered by UML d) Interface validation
diagrams.
9. The________ is represented as two processing boxes Answer:c
connected by an line (arrow) of control. Explanation:These are the end user for whom the product
a) Repetition is being built.
b) Sequence 4. When users are involved in complex tasks, the demand
c) Condition on __________ can be significant.
d) None of the above a) short-term memory
b) shortcuts
Answer:b c) objects that appear on the screen
d) all of the mentioned
10. Which of the following term is best defined by the
statement “Notation that can be input directly into a Answer:a
computer-based development system offers significant Explanation:The interface should be designed to reduce
benefits.”? the requirement to remember past actions and results.
a) Machine readability 5. Which of the following option is not considered by the
b) Maintainability Interface design?
c) Structure enforcement a) the design of interfaces between software components
d) Overall simplicity b) the design of interfaces between the software and
human producers and consumers of information
Answer:a c) the design of the interface between two computers
Explanation:Readability is processing input. d) all of the mentioned

. Answer:c
Explanation:The answer is self explanatory
User Interface Design - 6. A software might allow a user to interact via
“User Interface Design”. a) keyboard commands
1. Which of the following is golden rule for interface b) mouse movement
design? c) voice recognition commands
a) Place the user in control d) all of the mentioned
b) Reduce the user’s memory load
c) Make the interface consistent Answer:d
d) All of the mentioned Explanation:All the mentioned input mediums are
available today.
Answer:d 7. A software engineer designs the user interface by
Explanation:These golden rules actually form the basis applying an iterative process that draws on predefined
for a set of user interface design principles that guide this design principles.
important software design activity. a) True
2. Which of the following is not a design principle that b) False
allow the user to maintain control?
a) Provide for flexible interaction Answer:a
b) Allow user interaction to be interrupt-able and undo- Explanation:The statement is true.
able 8. What incorporates data, architectural, interface, and
c) Show technical internals from the casual user procedural representations of the software?
a) design model Answer:b
b) user’s model Explanation:Static Analysis Techniques are based solely
c) mental image on the (manual or automated) examination of project
d) system image documentation of software models and code.
3. Which granularity level of testing checks the behavior
Answer:a of module cooperation?
Explanation:The requirements specification may a) Unit Testing
establish certain constraints that help to define the user of b) Integration Testing
the system, but the interface design is often only c) Acceptance Testing
incidental to the design model. d) Regression Testing
9. What establishes the profile of end-users of the
system? Answer:b
a) design model Explanation:Integration testing is the phase in software
b) user’s model testing in which individual software modules are
c) mental image combined and tested as a group.
d) system image 4. Which test refers to the retesting of a unit, integration
and system after modification, in order to ascertain that
Answer:b the change has not introduced new faults?
Explanation:To build an effective user interface, all a) Regression Test
design should begin with an understanding of the b) Smoke Test
intended users, including their profiles of their age, c) Alpha Test
physical abilities, education, etc. d) Beta Test
10. What combines the outward manifestation of the
computer-based system , coupled with all supporting Answer:a
information that describe system syntax and semantics? Explanation:Regression test seeks to uncover new
a) mental image software bugs in existing functional and non-functional
b) interface design areas of a system after changes have been made to them.
c) system image 5. Which of the following is a black box testing strategy?
d) interface validation a) All Statements Coverage
b) Control Structure Coverage
Answer:c c) Cause-Effect Graphs
Explanation:When the system image and the system d) All Paths Coverage
perception are coincident, users generally feel
comfortable with the software and use it effectively. Answer:c
Explanation:Rest are test strategies of white box testing.
. 6. A set of inputs, execution preconditions and expected
outcomes is known as a
Test Case Design - a) Test plan
“Test Case Design”. b) Test case
1. What do you understand by V&V in software testing? c) Test document
a) Verified Version d) Test Suite
b) Version Validation
c) Verification and Validation Answer:b
d) Version Verification
7. In which test design each input is tested at both ends of
Answer:c its valid range and just outside its valid range?
Explanation:V&V generally refers to any activity that a) Boundary value testing
attempts to ensure that the software will function as b) Equivalence class partitioning
required. c) Boundary value testing AND Equivalence class
2. In static test techniques, behavioral and performance partitioning
properties of the program are observed. d) Decision tables
a) True
b) False Answer:a
Explanation:Boundary value analysis is a software
testing technique in which tests are designed to include a document written by a company that defines a product
representatives of boundary values. they are making, or the requirements for one or more new
8. A white box test scales up well at different granularity features for an existing product.
levels of testing.
a) True .
b) False
Software Design Pattern -
Answer:b “Software Design Pattern”.
Explanation:A white box test is mostly applicable at unit 1. Which mechanism is applied to use a design pattern in
and integration testing level. an OO system?
9. When does the testing process stops? a) Inheritance
a) When resources (time and budget) are over b) Composition
b) When some coverage is reached c) All of the mentioned
c) When quality criterion is reached d) None of the mentioned
d) Testing never ends.
Answer:c
Answer:c Explanation:Using inheritance, an existing design pattern
Explanation:As software testing is an exhaustive process, becomes a template for a new subclass.Composition is a
when the quality assurance is established and the product concept that leads to aggregate objects.
is ready to be delivered, testing is stopped. 2. Design patterns does not follow the concept of
10. Which of the following is not a part of a test design software reuse.
document? a) True
a) Test Plan b) False
b) Test Design Specification
c) Test Case Specification Answer:b
d) Test Log Explanation:Design patterns allow the designer to create
the system architecture by integrating reusable
Answer:d components.
Explanation:Test log is a part of testing result document. 3. The use of design patterns for the development of
11. Specifying a set of test cases or test paths for each object-oriented software has important implications for
item to be tested at that level is known as a) component-based software engineering
a) Test case generation b) reusability in general
b) Test case design c) All of the mentioned
c) ALL of the mentioned d) None of the mentioned
d) None of the mentioned
Answer:c
Answer:c
4. Which of the following is a design pattern?
12. Acceptance & system test planning are a part of a) Behavioral
architectural design. b) Structural
a) True c) Abstract Factory
b) False d) All of the mentioned

Answer:b Answer:d
Explanation:They are a part of requirements engineering, Explanation:All the options are design patterns so option
while integration & unit test planning come under d.
architectural design. 5. You want to minimize development cost by reusing
13. PRD stands for methods? Which design pattern would you choose?
a) Product Requirement Document a) Adapter Pattern
b) Project Requirement Document b) Singleton Pattern
c) Product Restrictions Document c) Delegation pattern
d) None of the mentioned d) Immutable Pattern

Answer:a Answer:c
Explanation:A product requirements document (PRD) is Explanation:The delegation pattern is a design pattern in
OOP where an object, instead of performing one of its d) Factory method pattern
stated tasks, delegates that task to an associated helper
object. Answer:c
6. You want to avoid multiple inheritance. Which design Explanation:Observer pattern defines one-to-many
pattern would you choose? dependency among objects so that when one object
a) Abstraction-Occurrence Pattern changes its state, all its dependents are notified.
b) Player-Role Pattern 12. Facade pattern couples a subsystem from its clients.
c) General Hierarchy Pattern a) True
d) Singleton Pattern b) False

Answer:b Answer:b
Explanation:The answer is self-explanatory. Explanation:A facade can be a single entry point to each
7. The recurring aspects of designs are called design subsystem level. It decouples the subsystem.
a) patterns 13. In factory method pattern, the framework must
b) documents instantiate classes but it only knows about the abstract
c) structures classes, which it cannot initiate. How would one solve
d) methods this problem?
a) encapsulating the knowledge of which document
Answer:a subclass to is to be created and
Explanation:A pattern is the outline of a reusable solution b) moving this knowledge out of the framework
to a general problem encountered in a particular context. c) instantiating the application specific documents
8. Design pattern is a solution to a problem that occurs without knowing their class
repeatedly in a variety of contexts. d) All of the mentioned
a) True
b) False Answer:d
Explanation:Following all the options in order will solve
Answer:a the factory method problem.
Explanation:Each design pattern has a name and use of
each pattern has consequences. .
9. Which pattern prevents one from creating more than
one instance of a variable?
a) Factory Method
b) Singleton
c) Observer
d) None of the mentioned

Answer:b
Explanation:In singleton pattern, the class itself is made
responsible for keeping track of its instance.Thus it
ensures that no more than one instance is created.
10. Facade pattern promotes weak coupling between
subsystem and its clients.
a) True
b) False

Answer:a
Explanation:It is one of the patterns’s benefit.The facade
pattern shields clients from subsystem classes and
reduces the number of objects that clients deal with.
11. Which design pattern defines one-to-many
dependency among objects?
a) Singleton pattern
b) Facade Pattern
c) Observer pattern