✅ MCQs – Easy Level (1–20)

1. Which version of Windows Server only supports 64-bit architecture?

A) Windows XP
B) Windows Server 2008
C) Windows Server 2012
D) Windows Vista
Answer: C
2. Which edition of Windows Server 2012 is NOT available in the evaluation
version?
A) Essentials
B) Standard
C) Datacenter
D) Foundation
Answer: D
3. Which Windows Server license type is purchased with hardware?
A) Retail
B) Volume
C) OEM
D) Subscription
Answer: C
4. What does CAL stand for?
A) Computer Access Level
B) Client Access License
C) Central Authorization Log
D) Configuration Access License
Answer: B
5. Which installation method installs a fresh copy of Windows Server?
A) Format-only
B) Upgrade
C) Clean Installation
D) Express Setup
Answer: C
6. Which Windows Server 2012 tool is used to configure roles and features?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) Server Manager
C) Registry Editor
D) File Explorer
Answer: B
7. Which of these is a common use for a server operating system?
A) Gaming
B) Video editing
C) File and printer sharing
D) Word processing
Answer: C
8. Which edition of Windows Server 2012 supports CAL and DAL licenses?
A) Essentials only
B) Datacenter and Standard
C) Foundation
 D) Home Edition
Answer: B
9. What feature allows encryption of hard drives in Windows Server 2012?
A) Active Directory
B) BitLocker
C) Server Core
D) DHCP
Answer: B
10. Which command-line tool opens File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)?
A) regedit
B) taskmgr
C) mmc
D) diskmgmt
Answer: C
11. What type of group in Windows Server is used for email distribution?
A) Security Group
B) Admin Group
C) Distribution Group
D) Local Group
Answer: C
12. Which policy controls how long a password can be used before change?
A) Minimum Password Age
B) Password History
C) Maximum Password Age
D) Account Lockout
Answer: C
13. Which port is used by SMTP for outgoing email?
A) 25
B) 110
C) 443
D) 143
Answer: A
14. Which tool is used to manage IP address leasing?
A) DNS
B) DHCP
C) FTP
D) WINS
Answer: B
15. Which of these is an authentication method in Windows?
A) Anonymous
B) Digest
C) Integrated Windows
D) All of the above
Answer: D
16. Which of the following is a type of backup?
A) Quick
B) Visual
C) Full
D) Reactive
Answer: C
 17. What is the function of the IIS role in Windows Server 2012?
A) File encryption
B) Hosting websites
C) Printing documents
D) Monitoring hardware
Answer: B
18. Which version of IP is 128-bit?
A) IPv2
B) IPv4
C) IPv5
D) IPv6
Answer: D
19. Which server type stores and sends emails?
A) DHCP Server
B) DNS Server
C) Email Server
D) FTP Server
Answer: C
20. Which tool is used to monitor CPU, memory, and network usage?
A) Device Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) Task Scheduler
D) Resource Monitor
Answer: D

🟡 MCQs – Medium Level (21–50)

21. Which installation option in Windows Server 2012 provides a minimal

environment without GUI?
A) Clean Install
B) Desktop Experience
C) Server Core
D) Foundation Mode
Answer: C
22. Which PowerShell command is used to install a Windows Server role?
A) Install-Feature
B) Add-WindowsRole
C) Add-WindowsFeature
D) Enable-ServerManager
Answer: C
23. Which Windows Server tool allows central management of multiple servers?
A) Registry Editor
B) Server Manager
C) Device Manager
D) Local Group Policy Editor
Answer: B
24. What is the main function of Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)?
A) Network file sharing
B) Centralized domain management
C) DNS resolution
 D) Virtualization
Answer: B
25. What does the Group Policy Object (GPO) control in a domain?
A) Internet access
B) Hardware resources
C) User and computer settings
D) Licensing
Answer: C
26. Which utility is used to back up and restore the system state in Windows Server?
A) Disk Cleanup
B) System Image Recovery
C) Windows Server Backup
D) Event Viewer
Answer: C
27. What is the default TCP port for Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP)?
A) 20
B) 22
C) 3389
D) 8080
Answer: C
28. Which DNS record type maps a hostname to an IP address?
A) MX
B) A
C) PTR
D) CNAME
Answer: B
29. Which policy setting defines how many failed logon attempts will trigger a
lockout?
A) Minimum Password Age
B) Account Lockout Threshold
C) Password Complexity
D) Logon Attempt Limit
Answer: B
30. Which tool in Windows Server allows scheduled automation of tasks?
A) Event Viewer
B) Task Scheduler
C) Resource Monitor
D) Command Prompt
Answer: B
31. What is the purpose of a DHCP reservation?
A) Blocks an IP address
B) Allows dynamic DNS registration
C) Assigns a fixed IP to a specific MAC address
D) Renews DHCP lease instantly
Answer: C
32. What is the function of the "Forest" in Active Directory?
A) Logical group of OUs
B) Group of users
C) Collection of domains sharing a schema
 D) Physical LAN segment
Answer: C
33. What does Windows Server Backup NOT support by default?
A) Full backup
B) Incremental backup
C) Differential backup
D) System state backup
Answer: C
34. Which feature of File Server Resource Manager (FSRM) sets size limits on
folders?
A) File Screening
B) Quota Management
C) Storage Reports
D) Disk Cleanup
Answer: B
35. Which log in Event Viewer records events related to logon attempts and file
access?
A) System
B) Application
C) Security
D) Setup
Answer: C
36. Which authentication method in IIS is best used in intranet environments?
A) Basic
B) Anonymous
C) Windows Integrated
D) Digest
Answer: C
37. Which option is used to grant NTFS permissions to a group of users?
A) Owner rights
B) Inheritance
C) Group-based access control
D) Share permission
Answer: C
38. Which edition of Windows Server 2012 is limited to one physical or virtual
instance?
A) Datacenter
B) Foundation
C) Standard
D) Essentials
Answer: D
39. What is the purpose of Volume Shadow Copy?
A) Speed up boot time
B) Create system images
C) Restore previous versions of files
D) Allocate disk quotas
Answer: C
40. Which role enables centralized printing and printer sharing?
A) DHCP Server
B) DNS Server
 C) Print and Document Services
D) File Server Resource Manager
Answer: C
41. Which cmdlet is used to create a new Active Directory user in PowerShell?
A) New-User
B) Add-ADUser
C) New-ADUser
D) Create-User
Answer: C
42. What is the purpose of a PTR record in DNS?
A) Email routing
B) Hostname to IP mapping
C) IP to hostname resolution
D) Alias assignment
Answer: C
43. Which group type can be used to assign permissions to resources in any domain?
A) Local
B) Global
C) Universal
D) Domain Local
Answer: C
44. What is the recommended minimum number of domain controllers per domain?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 5
Answer: B
45. Which storage configuration provides redundancy and improved performance?
A) Standalone HDD
B) SSD only
C) RAID
D) USB drives
Answer: C
46. Which protocol does DNS use to communicate?
A) TCP only
B) UDP only
C) Both TCP and UDP
D) HTTP
Answer: C
47. Which Windows Server feature allows centralized management of Group
Policy?
A) MMC
B) GPMC
C) gpedit.msc
D) Server Manager
Answer: B
48. Which command allows editing the boot configuration data in Windows Server?
A) bcdboot
B) bcdedit
C) bootrec
 D) msconfig
Answer: B
49. What type of file system is recommended for Windows Server volumes?
A) FAT32
B) NTFS
C) exFAT
D) EXT4
Answer: B
50. What service allows remote deployment of Windows images to clients?
A) RDS
B) IIS
C) WDS
D) FSRM
Answer: C

🔴 MCQs – Hard Level (51–100)

51. What component of Active Directory defines objects such as users and
computers?
A) Forest
B) Schema
C) Domain
D) Global Catalog
Answer: B
52. Which service must be installed before deploying Group Policy in a domain
environment?
A) DNS
B) DHCP
C) Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS)
D) IIS
Answer: C
53. Which PowerShell cmdlet is used to promote a server to a domain controller?
A) Install-ADDomain
B) New-ADForest
C) Install-ADDSDomainController
D) Add-DomainController
Answer: C
54. Which role must be installed to host websites on Windows Server?
A) DHCP Server
B) Print Server
C) Web Server (IIS)
D) Remote Access Server
Answer: C
55. What is the function of the Global Catalog server in Active Directory?
A) Store DHCP leases
B) Authenticate users across domains
C) Assign IP addresses
D) Manage backup schedules
Answer: B
56. Which type of group scope is available only on domain controllers?
A) Domain Local
B) Global
C) Universal
D) Built-in
Answer: C
57. Which Active Directory object can contain user accounts and other groups?
A) GPO
B) Organizational Unit (OU)
C) DNS Zone
D) Resource Monitor
Answer: B
58. Which RAID level provides the best fault tolerance with mirroring?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
Answer: B
59. What tool is used to migrate roles between Windows Servers?
A) Active Directory Migration Tool
B) Server Manager
C) Windows Server Migration Tools
D) SysPrep
Answer: C
60. What does the dcpromo command do in older Windows Server versions?
A) Promotes server to print server
B) Promotes server to domain controller
C) Deploys DNS
D) Launches Event Viewer
Answer: B
61. What is the benefit of the Server Core installation option?
A) More GUI features
B) Enhanced security and smaller footprint
C) Better file sharing support
D) DHCP compatibility
Answer: B
62. Which feature must be enabled to encrypt file systems on Windows Server?
A) NTFS
B) BitLocker
C) TPM
D) EFS
Answer: D
63. Which Windows feature allows remote desktop connections to a server?
A) Remote Desktop Services
B) IIS
C) DHCP
D) DFS
Answer: A
64. Which of the following logs contains kernel-mode errors and driver failures?
A) Application
 B) System
C) Security
D) Setup
Answer: B
65. Which type of backup backs up only the files changed since the last full backup?
A) Full
B) Incremental
C) Differential
D) Snapshot
Answer: B
66. Which tool is used to configure advanced security policies for servers?
A) Device Manager
B) Security Configuration Wizard
C) Task Scheduler
D) FSRM
Answer: B
67. Which service maps domain names to IP addresses?
A) DHCP
B) DNS
C) AD DS
D) SMB
Answer: B
68. What PowerShell command lists all installed Windows features?
A) Get-ServerRoles
B) Show-Features
C) Get-WindowsFeature
D) List-Modules
Answer: C
69. Which role enables centralized control of internet access policies?
A) Web Server (IIS)
B) Print Server
C) Remote Access with Web Application Proxy
D) File Server
Answer: C
70. Which NTFS permission allows a user to view file contents but not modify them?
A) Modify
B) Read & Execute
C) Write
D) Full Control
Answer: B
71. Which setting should be adjusted to allow a virtual machine to boot from ISO?
A) BIOS boot order
B) Group Policy
C) NIC priority
D) File permission
Answer: A
72. What must be configured for IP-based communication within a domain?
A) FTP
B) DNS and DHCP
C) IIS
 D) DFS
Answer: B
73. Which DNS record is used to define mail servers for a domain?
A) A
B) MX
C) CNAME
D) PTR
Answer: B
74. What does Windows Server Failover Clustering provide?
A) Firewall configuration
B) Shared folder hosting
C) High availability
D) Backup scheduling
Answer: C
75. What type of trust is automatically created between domains in a forest?
A) External
B) Forest
C) Parent-child
D) Shortcut
Answer: C
76. Which command repairs the boot sector in Windows Server?
A) bootrec /fixboot
B) bcdedit /repair
C) bootmgr /restore
D) bcdboot /fix
Answer: A
77. Which command-line tool is used to monitor network statistics?
A) ping
B) netstat
C) nslookup
D) tracert
Answer: B
78. Which RAID level combines mirroring and striping?
A) RAID 0
B) RAID 1
C) RAID 5
D) RAID 10
Answer: D
79. What does the "Authoritative Restore" process affect?
A) Group Policy only
B) Global Catalog
C) Active Directory objects
D) System files
Answer: C
80. Which service prevents unauthorized software from being installed?
A) AppLocker
B) BitLocker
C) AD DS
D) File Server Resource Manager
Answer: A
81. Which command is used to reset Group Policy settings to default?
A) gpedit /reset
B) gpupdate /force
C) gpresult /h
D) secedit /configure
Answer: D
82. Which command generates a Group Policy report in HTML format?
A) gpresult /report
B) gpupdate /html
C) gpresult /h report.html
D) gpedit /export
Answer: C
83. Which security tool monitors attempts to log on to a server?
A) Task Scheduler
B) Event Viewer – Security Log
C) Services.msc
D) Control Panel
Answer: B
84. Which logon type is used when accessing a file via shared folder?
A) Batch
B) Network
C) Interactive
D) Remote Desktop
Answer: B
85. Which protocol does DHCP use at the transport layer?
A) TCP
B) UDP
C) HTTP
D) ICMP
Answer: B
86. Which PowerShell command removes a feature from Windows Server?
A) Uninstall-WindowsFeature
B) Disable-Role
C) Remove-ServerRole
D) Delete-Feature
Answer: A
87. Which account is created by default during Windows Server installation?
A) Guest
B) Root
C) Administrator
D) Owner
Answer: C
88. Which component is required for Active Directory replication?
A) WINS
B) Sites and Services
C) NetBIOS
D) Server Core
Answer: B
89. What type of DNS record would be used to alias one domain name to another?
A) MX
 B) A
C) PTR
D) CNAME
Answer: D
90. Which configuration file does the boot loader read during startup?
A) boot.ini
B) winload.exe
C) BCD (Boot Configuration Data)
D) autoexec.bat
Answer: C
91. Which authentication protocol uses a challenge/response mechanism?
A) LDAP
B) Kerberos
C) NTLM
D) RADIUS
Answer: C
92. Which option is used to upgrade Windows Server without losing settings?
A) Clean install
B) Sysprep
C) In-place upgrade
D) ISO overwrite
Answer: C
93. Which tool generates performance logs for later analysis?
A) Task Manager
B) Event Viewer
C) Performance Monitor
D) Task Scheduler
Answer: C
94. Which of the following is a dynamic DNS feature?
A) Static record binding
B) Auto-update of records
C) Authoritative restore
D) Zone delegation
Answer: B
95. Which Windows Server feature allows central software deployment?
A) File Server
B) Group Policy
C) DHCP
D) WDS
Answer: B
96. Which command-line tool resets TCP/IP stack settings?
A) netstat
B) netsh int ip reset
C) ipconfig /flushdns
D) ping 127.0.0.1
Answer: B
97. Which backup type captures everything regardless of previous backups?
A) Incremental
B) Snapshot
C) Full
 D) Scheduled
Answer: C
98. Which group scope allows cross-domain access?
A) Domain Local
B) Global
C) Universal
D) Built-in
Answer: C
99. Which feature allows multiple virtual machines to run on a single server?
A) RDP
B) IIS
C) Hyper-V
D) RAID
Answer: C
100. Which tool helps enforce system-wide password policies?
A) Group Policy
B) Task Scheduler
C) User Accounts
D) AD Sites and Services
Answer: A

🔴 MCQs – Hard Level (101–150)

101. Which AD feature helps reduce replication traffic across multiple sites?
A) Global Catalog
B) Bridgehead Server
C) Schema Master
D) Trust Relationships
Answer: B
102. Which role provides centralized management for user desktops and apps
remotely?
A) DHCP
B) Remote Desktop Services (RDS)
C) DNS
D) FSRM
Answer: B
103. Which type of trust is used between forests in Active Directory?
A) Tree
B) Forest
C) External
D) Transitive
Answer: B
104. What is the function of the KDC in Active Directory?
A) Distributes user policies
B) Issues Kerberos tickets
C) Manages DNS records
D) Provides file access
Answer: B
105. Which utility checks the integrity of protected system files?
A) CHKDSK
 B) DISM
C) SFC
D) BCDEDIT
Answer: C
106. Which server role must be installed to provide a database of network
resources?
A) DNS
B) IIS
C) AD DS
D) WINS
Answer: C
107. Which FSMO role manages changes to the schema in Active Directory?
A) RID Master
B) Schema Master
C) Infrastructure Master
D) Domain Naming Master
Answer: B
108. Which role allows deployment of software images over the network?
A) RDS
B) WDS
C) DFS
D) DHCP
Answer: B
109. What is the default replication protocol used by Active Directory?
A) FTP
B) DFS-R
C) RPC over IP
D) SMB
Answer: C
110. What is the primary advantage of using Dynamic DNS?
A) Supports IPv4 only
B) Allows manual DNS entry
C) Automatically updates DNS records
D) Blocks unauthorized access
Answer: C
111. Which GPO processing order is correct from first to last?
A) Local > Site > Domain > OU
B) Domain > Site > Local > OU
C) OU > Domain > Site > Local
D) Site > Domain > OU > Local
Answer: A
112. Which command creates a new DNS zone in PowerShell?
A) Add-DNSRecord
B) New-DnsZone
C) Install-DNS
D) Add-DnsServerPrimaryZone
Answer: D
113. Which AD object represents a physical location in the network topology?
A) Site
B) Domain
 C) Tree
D) OU
Answer: A
114. What is the main purpose of the RID Master FSMO role?
A) Issues Kerberos tickets
B) Maintains password history
C) Allocates relative identifiers
D) Controls DNS naming
Answer: C
115. Which tool allows managing offline Active Directory database files?
A) DSA.MSC
B) NTDSUTIL
C) ADSI Edit
D) SYSVOL
Answer: B
116. Which protocol provides secure authentication in Active Directory
environments?
A) NTLM
B) RADIUS
C) Kerberos
D) CHAP
Answer: C
117. Which feature helps restore accidentally deleted AD objects?
A) System State Backup
B) AD Recycle Bin
C) Volume Shadow Copy
D) Event Viewer
Answer: B
118. What is required before enabling the Active Directory Recycle Bin?
A) Forest at Windows Server 2012 functional level
B) DNS service installed
C) RDP access
D) Global Catalog configured
Answer: A
119. Which command lists FSMO roles in PowerShell?
A) netdom query fsmo
B) Get-FSMORoles
C) dcdiag /roles
D) Get-ADDomainController
Answer: A
120. Which service must be running for Group Policy to apply?
A) DHCP Client
B) Server
C) Group Policy Client
D) Workstation
Answer: C
121. Which protocol does Kerberos use by default?
A) UDP 88
B) TCP 389
C) TCP 443
 D) UDP 137
Answer: A
122. Which PowerShell cmdlet retrieves Group Policy Result reports?
A) Get-GPO
B) gpupdate
C) Get-GPResultantSetOfPolicy
D) Set-GPReport
Answer: C
123. What is the function of the Infrastructure Master FSMO role?
A) Maintains SID-to-name mappings
B) Issues domain controller certificates
C) Tracks schema updates
D) Authorizes backup jobs
Answer: A
124. What must be done before removing a Global Catalog server from a site?
A) Transfer all FSMO roles
B) Move users to a different OU
C) Ensure another Global Catalog server exists
D) Disable Kerberos
Answer: C
125. Which role is responsible for naming new domains?
A) Domain Naming Master
B) RID Master
C) Schema Master
D) Infrastructure Master
Answer: A
126. Which partition of Active Directory stores forest-wide configuration
data?
A) Domain
B) Configuration
C) Schema
D) Application
Answer: B
127. What tool is used to perform metadata cleanup in AD?
A) NTDSUTIL
B) ADSIEdit
C) GPMC
D) DCDiag
Answer: A
128. Which GPO setting disables access to Control Panel for users?
A) User Configuration > Administrative Templates > Control Panel
B) Computer Configuration > Policies > Control Panel
C) Security Settings > Disable Control Panel
D) Login Policy > Disable Tools
Answer: A
129. Which service replicates SYSVOL contents across domain controllers?
A) DFS
B) NTDS
C) FRS or DFS-R
 D) KDC
Answer: C
130. Which protocol does DFS Replication (DFS-R) use?
A) SMB
B) HTTP
C) RPC
D) SMTP
Answer: C
131. Which utility allows a domain controller to seize FSMO roles?
A) Server Manager
B) NTDSUTIL
C) ADSIEdit
D) GPMC
Answer: B
132. What must be backed up to recover Group Policy Objects?
A) GPOs only
B) SYSVOL
C) Registry
D) DNS zones
Answer: B
133. Which service handles logon authentication in Active Directory?
A) WINS
B) KDC
C) DNS
D) DHCP
Answer: B
134. Which type of group is not security-enabled?
A) Global
B) Distribution
C) Domain Local
D) Universal
Answer: B
135. Which tool is used to configure replication between AD sites?
A) Active Directory Users and Computers
B) Group Policy Management Console
C) Active Directory Sites and Services
D) DNS Manager
Answer: C
136. Which AD object stores replicated information about all objects in a
forest?
A) Domain
B) Schema
C) Global Catalog
D) Site
Answer: C
137. Which port must be open for LDAP communication?
A) TCP 88
B) TCP 443
C) TCP 389
 D) UDP 67
Answer: C
138. What tool is used to edit the default domain policy?
A) secpol.msc
B) gpmc.msc
C) gpedit.msc
D) dsquery
Answer: B
139. Which folder contains replicated GPO settings?
A) NETLOGON
B) AD DS
C) SYSVOL
D) DNS
Answer: C
140. Which group should NOT be used to assign permissions across multiple
domains?
A) Domain Local
B) Global
C) Universal
D) Built-in
Answer: A
141. Which AD partition is not replicated to all domain controllers?
A) Domain Partition
B) Schema Partition
C) Configuration Partition
D) Application Partition
Answer: D
142. Which service provides secure access to internal applications via the web?
A) AD FS
B) RDS
C) Web Application Proxy
D) GPMC
Answer: C
143. Which FSMO role is unique to the forest?
A) RID Master
B) PDC Emulator
C) Domain Naming Master
D) Infrastructure Master
Answer: C
144. Which authentication type requires a certificate?
A) NTLM
B) Kerberos
C) Smart Card Logon
D) Digest
Answer: C
145. Which AD component is used to apply password policies to users in
different OUs?
A) Group Policy
B) Password Settings Object (PSO)
C) Registry
 D) AD Site Link
Answer: B
146. What is the purpose of an RODC (Read-Only Domain Controller)?
A) Modify schema
B) Speed up DNS queries
C) Provide limited domain services in branch offices
D) Host DHCP services
Answer: C
147. Which database file stores the Active Directory data?
A) ad.dat
B) ntds.dit
C) dc.mdf
D) gpo.sys
Answer: B
148. Which AD object provides centralized authentication and directory
lookup?
A) AD FS
B) DNS
C) Global Catalog
D) LDAP
Answer: C
149. Which command identifies replication errors in AD?
A) dcdiag /dns
B) repadmin /replsummary
C) adprep /forestprep
D) netdom query
Answer: B
150. Which tool should be used to create fine-grained password policies?
A) ADUC
B) ADSIEdit
C) GPMC
D) Netplwiz
Answer: B

🟢 MCQs – Basic Level (151–200)

151. What does OS stand for in computing?
A) Open Software
B) Operating System
C) Original Setup
D) Online Server
Answer: B
152. Which of the following is a Windows Server operating system?
A) Windows XP
B) Windows 7
C) Windows Server 2012
D) Android
Answer: C
153. Which device connects a computer to a network?
A) USB stick
 B) Monitor
C) Network Interface Card (NIC)
D) Printer
Answer: C
154. Which company develops Windows Server?
A) Google
B) Microsoft
C) Apple
D) IBM
Answer: B
155. What is the main function of a server?
A) Watch videos
B) Store and manage resources for clients
C) Play music
D) Write documents only
Answer: B
156. Which menu allows you to restart or shut down a Windows server?
A) File
B) Start
C) Tools
D) View
Answer: B
157. Which device is used to input data?
A) Printer
B) Scanner
C) Monitor
D) Speaker
Answer: B
158. Which type of memory is used for temporary storage during operations?
A) SSD
B) Hard Drive
C) RAM
D) CD-ROM
Answer: C
159. What does GUI stand for?
A) General User Input
B) Graphical User Interface
C) Global Usage Index
D) General Unit Interface
Answer: B
160. Which key opens the Start menu in Windows?
A) Ctrl
B) Alt
C) Windows Key
D) Shift
Answer: C
161. What does IP stand for in networking?
A) Internal Page
B) Internet Protocol
C) Indexed Process
 D) Internal Pointer
Answer: B
162. What does DNS stand for?
A) Data Network System
B) Domain Name System
C) Digital Network Setting
D) Data Naming Service
Answer: B
163. Which component provides power to a server?
A) CPU
B) RAM
C) Power Supply Unit (PSU)
D) Hard Drive
Answer: C
164. What is a user account?
A) A web page
B) A printer configuration
C) A way to log in and access services
D) A device driver
Answer: C
165. What is the primary role of a file server?
A) Print documents
B) Play videos
C) Store and share files
D) Send emails
Answer: C
166. Which of the following is NOT a server role?
A) DNS Server
B) DHCP Server
C) File Server
D) Web Browser
Answer: D
167. Which tool is used to manage devices in Windows Server?
A) Event Viewer
B) Device Manager
C) Disk Cleanup
D) Task Scheduler
Answer: B
168. What is the purpose of a password?
A) Speed up the PC
B) Keep unauthorized users out
C) Send emails faster
D) Increase RAM
Answer: B
169. Which of the following is used to access files on the server from a client?
A) Command Prompt only
B) Remote Desktop
C) Shared folder
D) Firewall
Answer: C
170. Which component processes data in a server?
A) PSU
B) CPU
C) HDD
D) Monitor
Answer: B
171. What does HTTP stand for?
A) High Text Transfer Program
B) HyperText Transfer Protocol
C) High Traffic Transfer Path
D) Hyper Tool Transport Protocol
Answer: B
172. What is a printer server used for?
A) Connecting hard drives
B) Storing emails
C) Managing print jobs
D) Configuring firewalls
Answer: C
173. Which button refreshes a folder in Windows?
A) F5
B) F2
C) Esc
D) Shift
Answer: A
174. What does backup mean in computing?
A) Restarting the computer
B) Cleaning files
C) Creating a copy of data
D) Deleting unwanted files
Answer: C
175. Which of these is a secure way to log into a server?
A) No password
B) Simple password like “1234”
C) Strong password with symbols
D) Use another user’s login
Answer: C
176. What does USB stand for?
A) United Server Backup
B) Universal Serial Bus
C) Ultra Safe Backup
D) User System Buffer
Answer: B
177. What device outputs sound from a server or PC?
A) Printer
B) Monitor
C) Speaker
D) Mouse
Answer: C
178. What does the Task Manager show?
A) Stored files
 B) Scheduled backups
C) Running applications and processes
D) File history
Answer: C
179. What kind of program is antivirus software?
A) Web browser
B) Media player
C) Security software
D) Word processor
Answer: C
180. Which extension is used for executable files in Windows?
A) .docx
B) .jpg
C) .exe
D) .mp4
Answer: C
181. Which server type provides websites?
A) Print Server
B) DNS Server
C) Web Server (IIS)
D) DHCP Server
Answer: C
182. Which key is used to delete selected files?
A) Enter
B) Tab
C) Del
D) Ctrl
Answer: C
183. What is the name of the folder where most installed programs are stored
in Windows?
A) Users
B) Windows
C) Program Files
D) Temp
Answer: C
184. What is a shortcut?
A) A tool to increase RAM
B) A direct link to a file or program
C) A printer configuration
D) A firewall rule
Answer: B
185. Which of the following is a common output device?
A) Scanner
B) Monitor
C) Microphone
D) Keyboard
Answer: B
186. What does Windows Update do?
A) Removes drivers
B) Speeds up downloads
 C) Installs software from CDs
D) Installs the latest system patches and features
Answer: D
187. Which drive letter is usually assigned to the system drive in Windows?
A) A:
B) B:
C) C:
D) D:
Answer: C
188. Which is a common default gateway IP for routers?
A) 10.0.0.1
B) 255.255.255.0
C) 192.168.1.1
D) 127.0.0.1
Answer: C
189. What does the Recycle Bin do in Windows?
A) Deletes files permanently
B) Hides folders
C) Stores deleted files temporarily
D) Encrypts files
Answer: C
190. What is a firewall used for?
A) Cooling hardware
B) Printing faster
C) Filtering network traffic
D) Displaying images
Answer: C
191. What does FTP stand for?
A) File Transfer Protocol
B) Fast Transfer Port
C) File Transport Policy
D) Folder Type Protocol
Answer: A
192. Which shortcut opens File Explorer in Windows?
A) Ctrl + E
B) Windows + E
C) Shift + E
D) Alt + E
Answer: B
193. Which port is used for HTTP traffic?
A) 25
B) 53
C) 80
D) 3389
Answer: C
194. Which of these is a computer virus symptom?
A) Fast startup
B) Unusual pop-ups and crashes
C) Better battery life
 D) Larger display
Answer: B
195. What is the default extension for text files?
A) .txt
B) .doc
C) .jpg
D) .exe
Answer: A
196. Which file system is used by Windows by default?
A) FAT
B) NTFS
C) EXT4
D) HFS+
Answer: B
197. Which of these is a removable storage device?
A) RAM
B) USB Flash Drive
C) CPU
D) Motherboard
Answer: B
198. What does LAN stand for?
A) Local Access Node
B) Large Area Network
C) Local Area Network
D) Link Access Network
Answer: C
199. What does “log off” do in Windows?
A) Shuts down the system
B) Signs out the user without shutting down
C) Installs updates
D) Deletes the account
Answer: B
200. Which command is used to view the IP address in Command Prompt?
A) ipconfig
B) ping
C) format
D) shutdown
Answer: A