Section A: Data Communication & Transmission (1–20)

1. Which of the following is not a fundamental characteristic of a data communication

system?
a) Timeliness
b) Accuracy
c) Speed
d) Delivery
2. What is the primary role of a modem?
a) Routing data
b) Switching
c) Modulation and demodulation
d) Data compression
3. What type of signal is more vulnerable to noise?
a) Analog
b) Digital
c) Binary
d) Optical
4. Which transmission mode supports bidirectional communication at the same time?
a) Simplex
b) Full duplex
c) Half duplex
d) Broadcast
5. What is the effect of attenuation in signal transmission?
a) Speed increase
b) Energy loss
c) More bandwidth
d) Less error
6. Which one is a guided transmission medium?
a) Infrared
b) Satellite
c) Coaxial cable
d) Microwave
7. In digital transmission, data is represented using:
a) Sine waves
b) Voltage levels
c) Analog tones
d) Carrier waves
8. What is the main advantage of multiplexing?
a) Reducing jitter
b) Bandwidth efficiency
c) Power saving
d) Increasing noise
9. Which of the following uses line-of-sight communication?
a) Bluetooth
b) Infrared
 c) Twisted pair
d) Fiber optic
10. What kind of interference affects analog signals the most?
a) Collisions
b) Electromagnetic interference
c) Voltage overflow
d) Fragmentation
11. Which transmission impairment causes waveform distortion?
a) Jitter
b) Noise
c) Attenuation
d) Distortion
12. Which device separates multiplexed signals at the receiver end?
a) Modem
b) Demultiplexer
c) Router
d) Switch
13. What kind of wave does AM radio use?
a) Microwaves
b) Radio waves
c) Infrared
d) Laser
14. The speed of transmission in the physical layer is known as:
a) Baud rate
b) Bit rate
c) Throughput
d) Signal rate
15. Which media is most secure for data transmission?
a) Coaxial
b) Twisted pair
c) Wireless
d) Fiber optic
16. The purpose of twisting wires in twisted pair cables is to:
a) Increase speed
b) Improve strength
c) Reduce noise
d) Lower cost
17. A cable that consists of a core, cladding, and jacket is:
a) Twisted pair
b) Coaxial cable
c) Fiber optic
d) HDMI
18. Which of the following provides the highest data transmission rate?
a) UTP
b) STP
 c) Coaxial
d) Fiber optic
19. Full-duplex communication allows:
a) One-way transfer
b) Alternating transfer
c) Two-way simultaneous
d) Burst transfer
20. An example of a half-duplex system is:
a) Telephone
b) Walkie-talkie
c) Internet
d) Web browsing

🌐 Section B: Networking & OSI (21–40)

21. What is the main function of a router?

a) Converts analog signals
b) Filters packets
c) Routes data between networks
d) Generates IP addresses
22. A computer network that covers a campus is called:
a) WAN
b) LAN
c) MAN
d) PAN
23. What topology connects all nodes in a circular fashion?
a) Star
b) Mesh
c) Ring
d) Bus
24. Which device works at the data link layer?
a) Hub
b) Switch
c) Router
d) Firewall
25. Which network type connects devices in a city?
a) LAN
b) MAN
c) PAN
d) WAN
26. In star topology, the central device is usually a:
a) Switch
b) Server
 c) Hub
d) Bridge
27. Which device is used to boost signals over long distances?
a) Repeater
b) Router
c) Switch
d) Bridge
28. A peer-to-peer network does not require a:
a) Switch
b) Server
c) Router
d) Gateway
29. IPv4 addresses are:
a) 32-bit
b) 64-bit
c) 128-bit
d) 16-bit
30. The address used at the data link layer is:
a) IP address
b) Port number
c) MAC address
d) Domain name
31. DNS is used for:
a) Encrypting data
b) Translating domain names to IP addresses
c) File transfer
d) Authentication
32. HTTP operates at which layer of OSI?
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Application
d) Session
33. Which protocol is used for sending emails?
a) FTP
b) SMTP
c) SNMP
d) HTTP
34. Which protocol is connection-oriented and ensures reliable delivery?
a) UDP
b) FTP
c) TCP
d) HTTP
35. What is the role of the session layer?
a) Routing
b) Encryption
 c) Managing communication sessions
d) Physical transmission
36. The OSI layer responsible for framing and MAC addressing is:
a) Network
b) Transport
c) Data Link
d) Session
37. A packet is created at which OSI layer?
a) Application
b) Network
c) Physical
d) Transport
38. The device that operates on all OSI layers is:
a) Hub
b) Firewall
c) Switch
d) Repeater
39. The internet is an example of a:
a) MAN
b) PAN
c) WAN
d) LAN
40. A port number is used in:
a) Physical addressing
b) IP routing
c) Process-to-process communication
d) MAC resolution

📐 Section C: Subnetting & IP Addressing (41–70)

41. How many host addresses are possible in a /28 subnet?

a) 30
b) 14
c) 62
d) 126
42. What is the subnet mask for a /26?
a) 255.255.255.0
b) 255.255.255.128
c) 255.255.255.192
d) 255.255.255.224
43. Which class of IP has the range 192–223 in the first octet?
a) Class A
b) Class B
 c) Class C
d) Class D
44. Which two IP addresses in a subnet cannot be assigned to hosts?
a) Gateway and DNS
b) Broadcast and Network address
c) MAC and IP
d) Server and Router
45. What is the broadcast address of 192.168.1.0/25?
a) 192.168.1.255
b) 192.168.1.0
c) 192.168.1.127
d) 192.168.1.128
46. How many subnets can be created with a /27 mask from a /24 network?
a) 8
b) 16
c) 4
d) 2
47. Which subnet mask allows exactly 62 usable hosts?
a) /24
b) /25
c) /26
d) /27
48. Which class is used for multicast?
a) Class C
b) Class D
c) Class A
d) Class B
49. What is the default subnet mask for Class B?
a) 255.0.0.0
b) 255.255.0.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 255.255.255.128
50. What does CIDR stand for?
a) Classless Inter-Domain Routing
b) Connected IP Domain Routing
c) Classful Internet Dynamic Routing
d) Class Internal Device Resolution
51. A /30 subnet has how many usable IPs?
a) 4
b) 2
c) 6
d) 8
52. What is the block size of a /28 subnet?
a) 16
b) 14
 c) 32
d) 64
53. Which subnet provides 8 subnets and 30 hosts per subnet?
a) /27
b) /28
c) /26
d) /25
54. What is the network address of IP 192.168.1.140/27?
a) 192.168.1.128
b) 192.168.1.0
c) 192.168.1.64
d) 192.168.1.96
55. Which IP address is in the same subnet as 192.168.10.66/26?
a) 192.168.10.129
b) 192.168.10.33
c) 192.168.10.200
d) 192.168.10.1
56. What is the wildcard mask for /24?
a) 0.0.0.255
b) 0.0.255.0
c) 255.255.255.0
d) 255.0.0.0
57. In VLSM, the subnet mask varies depending on:
a) MAC address
b) Number of hosts required
c) IP class
d) DNS server
58. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.224 provides how many subnets in /24?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
59. A router uses what information to forward packets?
a) Port
b) MAC address
c) IP address
d) Frame size
60. Which subnet has the IP range 192.168.1.64–192.168.1.95?
a) /26
b) /27
c) /28
d) /25
61. What is the primary benefit of VLSM over FLSM?
a) Easier to configure
b) Fixed address blocks
 c) Efficient address usage
d) Faster routing
62. The subnet mask 255.255.255.248 allows how many usable hosts?
a) 2
b) 4
c) 6
d) 8
63. What is the valid range of Class A public IPs?
a) 0–127
b) 1–126
c) 1–128
d) 0–126
64. Which IP is a private address?
a) 10.0.0.5
b) 11.0.0.1
c) 150.0.0.1
d) 200.168.1.1
65. Which of the following is a loopback address?
a) 255.255.255.255
b) 127.0.0.1
c) 192.0.0.1
d) 0.0.0.0
66. The main reason for subnetting is:
a) Faster DNS resolution
b) Limiting physical cables
c) Network organization and efficiency
d) Increasing MAC address size
67. How many bits are borrowed in a /29 subnet from a /24?
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
68. Which device assigns IPs dynamically in a network?
a) Router
b) Server
c) DHCP
d) Switch
69. What is the main purpose of NAT?
a) Encrypt packets
b) Translate private IPs to public
c) Route between networks
d) Detect collisions
70. A subnet mask of /22 supports how many hosts?
a) 1022
b) 510
c) 2046
d) 4094