PADMAVANI ARTS AND SCIENCE COLLEGE FOR WOMEN

(AUTONOMOUS)
DEPARTMENT OF COMPUTER SCIENCE AND COMPUTER APPLICATIONS

CLASS:I.MSC(CS) SUBJECT: ADVANCED OPERATING SYSTEMS

UNIT-I

Basics of Operating Systems: What is an Operating System?

1. What is an Operating System?

a) Software that manages hardware resources
b) Interface between user and computer
c) A computer hardware component
d) A programming language
2. Which of the following is an example of an Operating System?
a) Microsoft Office
b) Windows
c) Java
d) Google Chrome
3. What is the primary goal of an Operating System?
a) Manage system resources efficiently
b) Create documents
c) Edit images
d) Write programs
4. Which component of the OS interacts directly with the hardware?
a) User interface
b) Kernel
c) Application software
d) File system
5. Which of these is NOT a function of an Operating System?
a) Compiling code
b) Process management
c) Memory management
d) Device control
6. Which type of OS is designed for multiple users?
a) Single-user OS
b) Multi-user OS
c) Real-time OS
d) Embedded OS
7. What is the role of a process in an Operating System?
a) Store data permanently
b) Execute a program
c) Manage memory
d) Control devices
8. What does multitasking in an OS mean?
a) Running one program
b) Running multiple programs simultaneously
c) Running only background tasks
d) Running tasks in sequence
9. Which OS is widely used in mobile phones?
a) Windows
b) Android
c) UNIX
d) macOS
10. What is virtual memory in an Operating System?
a) Real physical memory
b) Extension of RAM using disk space
c) Memory in the CPU
d) Memory for graphics
11. Which of these is a real-time operating system?
a) VxWorks
b) Windows 10
c) macOS
d) Ubuntu
12. Which feature allows multiple users to use the same computer resources?
a) Single-user mode
b) Time-sharing
c) Multiprocessing
d) Networking
13. What is the function of the device driver in an OS?
a) Manage communication with hardware devices
b) Compile code
c) Store user data
d) Execute programs
14. What is the term for OS software managing file storage?
a) Device management
b) File system
c) Process scheduling
d) Network management
15. Which OS is mainly used in servers?
a) Android
b) Linux
c) Windows XP
d) macOS
16. What is the term for a program in execution in the OS?
a) Process
b) Task
c) Thread
d) Service
17. Which of these is a UNIX-based Operating System?
a) macOS
b) Windows
c) Android
d) DOS
18. What is the purpose of a scheduler in an OS?
a) Manage memory
b) Allocate CPU to processes
c) Handle user inputs
d) Manage files
19. What type of OS is used in washing machines?
a) Multi-user OS
b) Time-sharing OS
c) Embedded OS
d) Real-time OS
20. What is a thread in the context of an OS?
a) Smallest unit of process execution
b) Program code
c) Hardware resource
d) User interface component
21. Which part of the OS handles deadlocks?
a) File system
b) User interface
c) Resource manager
d) Network stack
22. Which component keeps track of files on a disk?
a) File system
b) Kernel
c) Scheduler
d) Process table
23. Which type of OS is used for critical time-sensitive tasks?
a) Real-time OS
b) Batch OS
c) Multi-user OS
d) Network OS
24. Which command interface allows users to interact with the OS?
a) Kernel
b) Shell
c) Scheduler
d) Processor
25. What is the bootloader’s role in an OS?
a) Load the OS into memory during startup
b) Manage files
c) Handle processes
d) Execute user programs
Mainframe Systems, Desktop Systems, Multiprocessor Systems, and Distributed
Systems

Mainframe Systems

26. What is a mainframe system primarily used for?

a) Large-scale data processing
b) Gaming
c) Graphic design
d) Embedded systems
27. Which feature is key in mainframe systems?
a) Portability
b) High reliability and scalability
c) High graphics performance
d) Lightweight design
28. Which industries commonly use mainframe systems?
a) Banking and finance
b) Personal computing
c) Mobile applications
d) Gaming
29. What operating systems are typical for mainframe systems?
a) z/OS
b) Android
c) Windows
d) macOS
30. What is a unique feature of mainframe systems?
a) Single-user support
b) Handling thousands of users simultaneously
c) Limited storage capacity
d) High GPU power
31. What kind of processing is central to mainframes?
a) Real-time processing
b) Batch processing
c) Interactive gaming
d) Image rendering
32. Which of the following is a mainframe computer?
a) iPhone
b) Raspberry Pi
c) IBM Z
d) Chromebook
33. How do mainframes ensure data integrity?
a) Redundant systems and backups
b) Frequent restarts
c) Hardware resets
d) Low memory usage
 34. What is a core advantage of mainframes in enterprise systems?
a) Gaming performance
b) High power consumption
c) Centralized processing
d) Limited access control
35. What connects mainframe systems to terminals?
a) Networks
b) USB
c) HDMI
d) Bluetooth

DESKTOP SYSTEMS

36. What is a desktop system commonly used for?

a) Personal and office tasks
b) Large-scale data processing
c) Mobile computing
d) Space exploration
37. Which component is essential in a desktop system?
a) CPU
b) Mainframe
c) Terminal
d) Robotic arm
38. What type of OS is usually found on desktop systems?
a) Windows
b) z/OS
c) RTOS
d) Android
39. What is an example of a desktop application?
a) Microsoft Word
b) Apache Kafka
c) Docker
d) Kubernetes
40. Which is a characteristic of desktop systems?
a) Multi-user capability
b) Single-user capability
c) Redundant data storage
d) Real-time operation
41. What type of monitor is common in desktop systems?
a) LCD/LED monitors
b) Terminal-based display
c) CRT-only displays
d) Projector
42. Which is NOT a feature of desktop systems?
a) Graphical interface
b) Large-scale transaction processing
 c) Local storage
d) Peripheral support
43. What connects peripherals like keyboards and mice to desktops?
a) Ethernet
b) USB ports
c) HDMI
d) RJ45
44. What type of memory is primary in desktop systems?
a) Hard drives
b) RAM
c) Flash memory
d) Cache
45. Which of these is an example of a desktop system?
a) Mainframe
b) Dell Inspiron
c) Cisco Router
d) Raspberry Pi

MULTIPROCESSOR SYSTEMS

46. What is the defining feature of a multiprocessor system?

a) Single processor
b) Multiple processors working together
c) External device management
d) Large-scale storage
47. What is the benefit of a multiprocessor system?
a) Reduced costs
b) Increased processing speed
c) Lower energy consumption
d) Single-threaded operation
48. Which type of architecture is used in multiprocessor systems?
a) Single-tier
b) Symmetric or asymmetric
c) Open-source only
d) Legacy-only
49. What is an example of a symmetric multiprocessor system?
a) Modern supercomputers
b) Smartphones
c) Microcontrollers
d) Tablets
50. What is a disadvantage of multiprocessor systems?
a) High cost
b) Low processing speed
c) Single-user functionality
d) Limited scalability
 51. Which term describes sharing tasks among processors?
a) Virtual memory
b) Parallel processing
c) Serial execution
d) Cache splitting
52. What is a key use case for multiprocessor systems?
a) Word processing
b) Personal computing
c) High-performance computing
d) Device control
53. Which OS feature supports multiprocessor systems?
a) Non-preemptive scheduling
b) Multiprocessing support
c) Single-tasking mode
d) Limited hardware compatibility
54. What interconnects processors in a multiprocessor system?
a) Bus or network
b) GPU
c) External memory
d) Optical fibers
55. What is an example of an asymmetric multiprocessor system?
a) Master-slave configuration
b) Peer-to-peer desktops
c) Embedded controllers
d) Mainframes

Distributed Systems

56. What is a distributed system?

a) Single system on a mainframe
b) Collection of independent systems working together
c) Local computing
d) Personal applications
57. What is the key advantage of distributed systems?
a) Scalability
b) Limited access
c) Single point of failure
d) Low complexity
58. Which of these is a distributed system example?
a) Cloud computing
b) Desktop systems
c) Embedded systems
d) Video games
59. How do distributed systems communicate?
a) Networks
b) USB
 c) Parallel ports
d) Internal buses
60. What is a common challenge in distributed systems?
a) Single-user operation
b) Synchronization and consistency
c) High-speed local access
d) Limited scalability
61. Which protocol is widely used in distributed systems?
a) TCP/IP
b) RS232
c) USB
d) I2C
62. What is an example of a distributed database system?
a) Microsoft Word
b) Apache Cassandra
c) Excel
d) Photoshop
63. Which type of processing does a distributed system use?
a) Centralized processing
b) Decentralized processing
c) Serial execution
d) Batch mode
64. Which feature ensures distributed systems handle failures?
a) Cache management
b) Real-time processing
c) Fault tolerance
d) High latency
65. What is the purpose of middleware in distributed systems?
a) Provide communication between components
b) Store data locally
c) Manage graphics
d) Optimize hardware resources

Clustered Systems, Real-Time Systems, Handheld Systems, and Feature

Migration

Clustered Systems

66. What is the primary purpose of a clustered system?

a) Improve system availability
b) Enhance graphic performance
c) Reduce energy consumption
d) Support single-user applications
67. What is a feature of clustered systems?
a) Single-node processing
b) Multiple nodes working together
 c) Limited scalability
d) Real-time processing
68. What type of applications commonly use clustered systems?
a) High-performance computing
b) Mobile apps
c) Word processing
d) Gaming
69. How do clustered systems handle failures?
a) Restart the system
b) Failover to another node
c) Terminate all processes
d) Reset the memory
70. What is required for nodes in a clustered system to work together?
a) Independent processors
b) Shared storage or data
c) Single-threaded architecture
d) Local memory
71. Which of these is a clustered system example?
a) Hadoop clusters
b) Embedded systems
c) Personal desktops
d) Smartphones
72. Which protocol supports communication in clustered systems?
a) TCP/IP
b) USB
c) I2C
d) UART
73. What is a clustered system designed to avoid?
a) Single point of failure
b) High latency
c) External storage usage
d) Local processing
74. How are resources managed in clustered systems?
a) Fixed allocation
b) Shared and dynamic allocation
c) Single-tasking
d) Isolated from nodes
75. What type of architecture is commonly used in clustered systems?
a) Centralized
b) Distributed
c) Standalone
d) Linear
Real-Time Systems

76. What defines a real-time system?

a) High storage capacity
b) Responds within a fixed time constraint
c) High graphic performance
d) Handles batch jobs
77. Which of these is a hard real-time system?
a) Gaming console
b) Airbag deployment system
c) Email application
d) Text editor
78. What is an example of a soft real-time system?
a) Video streaming
b) Satellite control
c) Heartbeat monitor
d) Embedded robotics
79. How do real-time systems ensure timely response?
a) Preemptive scheduling
b) Background processing
c) Batch processing
d) Serial execution
80. Which operating system is suitable for real-time systems?
a) Windows
b) macOS
c) RTOS
d) Android
81. What is a common use case for real-time systems?
a) Embedded control in vehicles
b) Document editing
c) Graphic design
d) Large-scale data processing
82. What is the main challenge in real-time systems?
a) High energy consumption
b) Lack of scalability
c) Ensuring deadlines are met
d) Limited multitasking
83. What type of processing is common in real-time systems?
a) Batch processing
b) Parallel processing
c) Event-driven processing
d) Sequential execution
84. Which application uses a real-time system?
a) Radar tracking
b) Spreadsheet software
 c) Web browsing
d) File management
85. What is a real-time clock used for?
a) Synchronizing time-sensitive tasks
b) Storing data locally
c) Enhancing GUI performance
d) Running background services

Handheld Systems

86. What is a defining feature of handheld systems?

a) High scalability
b) Large display units
c) Portability
d) Multi-user support
87. What type of device is a handheld system?
a) Mainframe
b) Desktop
c) Smartphone
d) Supercomputer
88. Which OS is common in handheld systems?
a) z/OS
b) Android
c) Windows Server
d) UNIX
89. What is a typical use case for handheld systems?
a) Mobile communication
b) Data center management
c) Scientific simulations
d) Mainframe applications
90. What is a key limitation of handheld systems?
a) Lack of portability
b) High power consumption
c) Limited computational power
d) Complex software design
91. What is the primary input method for handheld systems?
a) Mouse
b) Touchscreen
c) Keyboard only
d) Voice-only commands
92. Which handheld device is commonly used for reading?
a) Desktop monitor
b) E-reader
c) CRT display
d) Projector
 93. What network connectivity is common in handheld systems?
a) Ethernet
b) Fiber optic
c) Wi-Fi
d) Serial ports
94. What power source is typical for handheld systems?
a) Direct electricity
b) Battery
c) Fuel cells
d) USB-C
95. Which application is commonly found on handheld systems?
a) Mobile banking apps
b) Desktop publishing
c) Data warehousing
d) 3D rendering software

Feature Migration

96. What is feature migration in computing systems?

a) Replacing hardware components
b) Transferring features to newer systems
c) Archiving old software
d) Enhancing GUI designs
97. What is a key benefit of feature migration?
a) High latency
b) System isolation
c) Improved compatibility
d) Redundant data
98. What drives feature migration?
a) Reduced user base
b) Technological advancements
c) Fixed configurations
d) Decreased software complexity
99. Which system component is often migrated?
a) Software features
b) Electrical components
c) Peripheral devices
d) Disk partitions

100. What is a challenge in feature migration?

a) Ensuring backward compatibility
b) High bandwidth usage
c) Reduced processing power
d) Simplified configurations
 101. Which of these requires feature migration?
a) Upgrading legacy systems
b) Installing antivirus software
c) Using portable storage
d) Data compression

102. How does feature migration affect system scalability?

a) Enhances scalability
b) Reduces capacity
c) Fixes configurations
d) Limits multitasking

103. What ensures successful feature migration?

a) Random execution
b) Manual input
c) Careful planning and testing
d) Data loss management

104. What is a typical result of feature migration?

a) System downtime
b) Reduced performance
c) Increased efficiency
d) lower compatibility

105. Which tool is used for software feature migration?

a) Hardware debugger
b) Task scheduler
c) Migration software
d) File compression tool

Computing Environments, Process Scheduling, Cooperating Processes, Inter-

Process Communication, and Deadlocks

Computing Environments

106. What is a computing environment?

a) Hardware only
b) Combination of hardware, software, and processes
c) Data center only
d) Operating system alone

107. Which type of computing environment involves accessing resources over the internet?
a) Cloud computing
b) Mobile computing
c) Real-time systems
d) Embedded systems
108. What type of environment is used for scientific simulations?
a) Handheld systems
b) High-performance computing
c) Mainframe systems
d) Distributed systems

109. Which environment focuses on running a process immediately after it's requested?
a) Batch processing
b) Interactive computing
c) Embedded systems
d) Cloud storage

110. What is an advantage of distributed computing environments?

a) Centralized processing
b) Scalability
c) Limited communication
d) Single-threaded execution

Process Scheduling

111. What is process scheduling?

a) Terminating processes
b) Managing memory
c) Allocating CPU time to processes
d) Removing unused files

112. Which scheduling algorithm is preemptive?

a) Round Robin
b) First-Come, First-Served
c) Shortest Job First
d) Priority Scheduling (non-preemptive)

113. What is the primary purpose of a scheduler?

a) Manage user inputs
b) Optimize CPU utilization
c) Connect external devices
d) Compress files

114. Which of these is a long-term scheduler?

a) Input-output scheduler
b) Job scheduler
c) CPU scheduler
d) Disk scheduler

115. What type of processes are handled by a real-time scheduler?

a) Time-sensitive tasks
 b) Batch jobs
c) User queries
d) File archiving

Cooperating Processes

116. What are cooperating processes?

a) Processes that execute independently
b) Processes that share resources
c) Processes that always terminate together
d) Processes in batch execution

117. Which mechanism is used by cooperating processes to share data?

a) Paging
b) Segmentation
c) Shared memory
d) Hardware interrupts

118. What is an example of a cooperating process?

a) Background music player
b) Web server handling multiple clients
c) Command-line interpreter
d) Batch processing system

119. Which concept ensures processes coordinate without conflict?

a) Synchronization
b) Segmentation
c) Memory allocation
d) Multi-threading

120. What issue arises if cooperating processes are not properly synchronized?
a) File deletion
b) Race conditions
c) Input-output errors
d) Program crashes

Inter-Process Communication (IPC)

121. What is Inter-Process Communication?

a) Sharing operating systems
b) Copying processes
c) Exchange of data between processes
d) Terminating threads

122. What is a common IPC mechanism?

a) Memory segmentation
 b) Message passing
c) CPU allocation
d) File copying

123. Which IPC method uses signals?

a) Shared memory
b) UNIX-based signaling
c) Mutex
d) Semaphores

124. Which system call is used to create a pipe in IPC?

a) pipe()
b) open()
c) read()
d) write()

125. What is an advantage of shared memory in IPC?

a) Fast communication
b) Reduced complexity
c) Guaranteed security
d) No synchronization needed

Deadlocks

126. What is a deadlock?

a) Unlimited resource availability
b) High CPU usage
c) Processes waiting indefinitely for resources
d) Multi-threaded operation

127. What is a necessary condition for a deadlock?

a) Circular wait
b) Unlimited resources
c) Parallel execution
d) Single-threaded processing

128. Which strategy can prevent deadlocks?

a) Resource allocation graph
b) Batch processing
c) Multi-core processors
d) File permissions

129. What is an example of a resource that can lead to deadlocks?

a) Printers
b) File archives
 c) Virtual memory
d) Video outputs

130. What scheduling technique can help avoid deadlocks?

a) Preemptive priority
b) Banker’s algorithm
c) Time slicing
d) Round-robin

Deadlock Detection and Recovery

131. How is deadlock detection performed?

a) Using a wait-for graph
b) Periodic process termination
c) Manual process inspection
d) Optimizing hardware usage

132. What is a recovery method after deadlock detection?

a) Halting the operating system
b) Process termination
c) Increasing CPU frequency
d) Compressing memory

133. What is rollback in deadlock recovery?

a) Memory cleanup
b) Reverting to a safe state
c) Rebooting the system
d) Disconnecting hardware

134. What is one drawback of deadlock recovery?

a) Simplifies scheduling
b) Reduces execution time
c) Loss of process work
d) Improves system throughput

135. What is the primary goal of deadlock recovery?

a) Optimize memory
b) Minimize input errors
c) Resume normal system operation
d) Increase resource demand

UNIT-II

Distributed Operating Systems: Issues

1. What is the main goal of a distributed operating system?
a) Minimize user interaction
b) Enhance local computation
c) Provide a unified system view
d) Limit multitasking
2. What is a common issue in distributed operating systems?
a) High CPU usage
b) Network latency
c) File system fragmentation
d) Limited threading
3. What does transparency in distributed systems mean?
a) Increasing memory capacity
b) Hiding complexity from users
c) Using redundant resources
d) Displaying all process details
4. Which type of transparency refers to process continuity after node failure?
a) Location transparency
b) Fault transparency
c) Data transparency
d) Replication transparency
5. What is scalability in distributed systems?
a) Increasing hardware dependence
b) Decreasing system size
c) Maintaining performance as demand increases
d) Limiting resource sharing
6. What is a challenge when managing resources in distributed systems?
a) Centralized access
b) Coordination between nodes
c) Redundant user inputs
d) Monolithic processing
7. What kind of system is used for global resource sharing?
a) Distributed system
b) Batch processing system
c) Standalone system
d) Real-time system
8. Which of the following helps in synchronization in distributed systems?
a) Logical clocks
b) Cache memory
c) Disk scheduling
d) File locks
9. What is the advantage of distributed systems over centralized systems?
a) Simpler architecture
b) Fault tolerance
c) Lower hardware requirements
d) Single-threaded execution
 10. What is the primary use of load balancing in distributed systems?
a) Reducing system errors
b) Distributing workload evenly
c) Maximizing power usage
d) Prioritizing user inputs

Communication Primitives

11. What is a communication primitive?

a) A hardware component
b) A file-sharing mechanism
c) Basic operations for inter-process communication
d) An encryption method
12. Which is an example of a communication primitive?
a) Message passing
b) Memory swapping
c) Disk scheduling
d) File locking
13. What is the role of remote procedure calls (RPCs)?
a) File system updates
b) Process scheduling
c) Execute processes on remote systems
d) Increase CPU performance
14. What is an advantage of message passing?
a) Processes remain decoupled
b) Reduced memory usage
c) Real-time data compression
d) Simplified thread synchronization
15. What is a drawback of synchronous communication?
a) Reduced memory access
b) Processes must wait for a response
c) Lack of scalability
d) High power usage
16. Which of the following is essential for asynchronous communication?
a) User authentication
b) Static file allocation
c) Buffers for storing messages
d) Segmentation
17. What is the purpose of a communication protocol?
a) Increase execution speed
b) Define rules for data exchange
c) Reduce storage capacity
d) Encrypt all communications
 18. Which IPC mechanism uses a shared memory region?
a) Message queue
b) Shared memory
c) Pipes
d) Signals
19. What is required for processes to use communication primitives effectively?
a) Synchronization
b) Higher CPU clock speed
c) Simplified hardware
d) Decentralized operating systems
20. Which communication primitive allows bidirectional data flow?
a) FIFO
b) Full-duplex pipes
c) Synchronous RPC
d) Read-only memory

Lamport’s Logical Clocks

21. What problem do Lamport’s logical clocks address?

a) Process prioritization
b) Event ordering in distributed systems
c) Memory allocation
d) File handling errors
22. What is the primary relation used in Lamport's clocks?
a) Happens-before relation
b) Happens-after relation
c) Direct ordering relation
d) Concurrent execution relation
23. What is the initial value of a logical clock in Lamport’s model?
a) Random number
b) Zero
c) System time
d) Process ID
24. How does a process increment its logical clock?
a) Based on CPU cycles
b) Using physical time
c) With every event
d) During memory allocation
25. What does the “happens-before” relation ensure?
a) Data consistency
b) Random execution
c) Causal dependency between events
d) Low memory usage
Deadlock Handling Strategies – Issues in Deadlock Detection and Resolution –
Distributed File Systems

Deadlock Handling Strategies

26. What is the first step in deadlock handling?

a) Process rollback
b) Resource reallocation
c) Detecting or preventing deadlock
d) Terminating processes
27. Which strategy proactively avoids deadlocks?
a) Deadlock recovery
b) Process suspension
c) Deadlock prevention
d) Memory optimization
28. What is an example of deadlock prevention?
a) Ignoring resource requests
b) Allowing circular wait
c) Allocating resources in a specific order
d) Delaying process execution
29. What is the role of the Banker’s algorithm?
a) Memory fragmentation
b) Avoiding deadlocks by resource allocation
c) CPU scheduling
d) Interrupt handling

Issues in Deadlock Detection and Resolution

30. What happens during resource preemption for deadlock recovery?

a) Processes are paused
b) Resources are forcibly reallocated
c) System is restarted
d) Deadlocks are ignored
31. Which graph is used for detecting deadlocks?
a) Wait-for graph
b) Directed acyclic graph
c) Process hierarchy graph
d) Disk allocation graph
32. What is the main challenge in distributed deadlock detection?
a) File system synchronization
b) Single-threaded execution
c) Coordinating detection across nodes
d) Process execution priority
33. What is a common method to resolve deadlocks in distributed systems?
a) Terminating one or more processes
b) Limiting resource allocation
 c) Increasing system clocks
d) Reducing the number of nodes
34. What is starvation in the context of deadlocks?
a) Increased memory usage
b) Process waits indefinitely for resources
c) High CPU utilization
d) Reduced network bandwidth
35. How can circular wait conditions be avoided?
a) Using fixed process IDs
b) Implementing interrupts
c) Defining a strict resource allocation order
d) Scheduling all processes sequentially
36. What is an issue in deadlock resolution in distributed systems?
a) Low disk space
b) Reduced user interaction
c) Identifying the correct victim process
d) Increased stack usage
37. Which approach resolves deadlocks after they occur?
a) Deadlock avoidance
b) Resource allocation
c) Deadlock recovery
d) Load balancing
38. What is the purpose of resource allocation graphs?
a) Tracking CPU usage
b) Reducing memory requirements
c) Identifying potential deadlocks
d) Synchronizing files

Distributed File Systems

39. What is a distributed file system?

a) A system that manages files across multiple nodes
b) A single-node file system
c) A real-time disk scheduler
d) A memory optimization technique
40. What is a common issue in distributed file systems?
a) Data consistency
b) CPU scheduling
c) Process prioritization
d) Single-user access
41. Which strategy ensures high availability in distributed file systems?
a) Memory paging
b) Centralized servers
c) Data replication
d) User authentication
42. What is the main benefit of a distributed file system?
a) Shared access to files across nodes
b) Simplified directory structure
c) Reduced resource sharing
d) Real-time processing
43. How does a distributed file system handle file updates?
a) By deleting old versions
b) Using random synchronization
c) Through consistent protocols
d) By limiting file sharing
44. What is a primary issue in distributed file system performance?
a) Lack of user input
b) Network latency
c) Static process allocation
d) Reduced memory usage
45. What is metadata in distributed file systems?
a) A temporary cache file
b) Information about file properties
c) A resource allocation table
d) An unused memory block
46. How are security issues addressed in distributed file systems?
a) By limiting node access
b) Using centralized servers
c) By encrypting file transfers
d) Reducing user permissions
47. What is the role of file locking in distributed systems?
a) Prevents simultaneous file modifications
b) Improves memory allocation
c) Simplifies thread execution
d) Optimizes CPU scheduling
48. Which strategy resolves network partitioning in distributed file systems?
a) Delayed updates
b) Conflict resolution protocols
c) Resource preemption
d) Multithreading
49. What is the goal of data replication in distributed file systems?
a) Limit file size
b) Improve fault tolerance
c) Reduce user interaction
d) Simplify thread synchronization
50. What ensures users see consistent data in distributed file systems?
a) File compression
b) Static memory allocation
c) Synchronization protocols
d) High CPU speed
Design Issues – Case Studies – The Sun Network File System (NFS) – Coda

Design Issues

51. What is a significant design issue in distributed systems?

a) Increasing user permissions
b) Maintaining fault tolerance
c) Enhancing thread synchronization
d) Reducing file sizes
52. What does fault tolerance in distributed systems ensure?
a) Reduced resource allocation
b) System operation despite failures
c) Simplified process execution
d) Improved memory usage
53. What is meant by transparency in distributed systems?
a) Visibility of system resources
b) Hiding the complexity of the system from users
c) Restricting file access
d) Providing redundant data
54. What is the challenge of consistency in distributed systems?
a) Ensuring all nodes have the same data
b) Avoiding process execution
c) Reducing network traffic
d) Increasing CPU utilization
55. Which is an example of scalability in distributed systems?
a) Fixed resource limits
b) Adding more nodes without performance degradation
c) Using centralized servers
d) Limiting process execution
56. What is a primary feature of the Sun Network File System (NFS)?
a) High local memory usage
b) Transparent remote file access
c) File encryption
d) Limited fault tolerance
57. Which protocol is fundamental for NFS?
a) HTTP
b) Remote Procedure Call (RPC)
c) TCP/IP
d) SMTP
58. What is a stateless protocol in the context of NFS?
a) Protocols with state tracking
b) Protocols that do not maintain client session information
c) Protocols with limited data transfer
d) Protocols requiring static IPs
59. How does NFS handle file consistency?
a) By locking resources
 b) Using client-side caching with validation
c) Avoiding replication
d) Through manual updates
60. What is a limitation of NFS’s design?
a) Vulnerability to client failures
b) Inefficient CPU scheduling
c) High memory usage
d) Limited node capacity
61. Which distributed file system supports disconnected operation?
a) NFS
b) Coda
c) Hadoop
d) GFS

Case Studies

62. How does Coda ensure file availability offline?

a) Through client-side caching
b) Centralized storage
c) Periodic manual updates
d) Reducing file size
63. What is a distinguishing feature of Coda?
a) Centralized architecture
b) Server replication for fault tolerance
c) Lack of scalability
d) Manual conflict resolution
64. How does Coda handle network failures?
a) By allowing disconnected operations
b) Terminating processes
c) Avoiding resource sharing
d) Using static resource allocation
65. What is the purpose of version vectors in Coda?
a) Encrypting files
b) Reducing file access time
c) Tracking changes across replicas
d) Improving memory allocation
66. What challenge does Coda address in conflict resolution?
a) Synchronizing file updates after reconnection
b) Preventing process starvation
c) Increasing memory usage
d) Reducing resource allocation
67. What is a similarity between NFS and Coda?
a) Both lack transparency
b) Both avoid replication
c) Both provide remote file access
d) Both use stateless protocols
68. Which mechanism in Coda supports scalability?
a) Fixed file hierarchy
b) Data replication
c) Centralized architecture
d) Client-side processing
69. What is the goal of replication in distributed systems?
a) Simplifying resource allocation
b) Ensuring data availability during failures
c) Reducing process execution time
d) Enhancing GUI capabilities
70. What type of architecture does NFS use?
a) Stateless client-server architecture
b) Stateful peer-to-peer architecture
c) Centralized architecture
d) Real-time architecture
71. What is a major drawback of NFS?
a) Poor performance under high client load
b) Lack of file encryption
c) Limited node capacity
d) Inefficient memory usage
72. What ensures conflict resolution in Coda after reconnection?
a) Synchronization protocols
b) Redundant file deletion
c) Manual updates
d) Static memory allocation
73. How does a distributed file system maintain user transparency?
a) By avoiding replication
b) By hiding the complexities of the underlying system
c) By using manual updates
d) Through centralized architecture
74. What is the advantage of Coda over traditional distributed file systems?
a) Lack of data replication
b) Support for disconnected operation
c) Manual conflict resolution
d) Avoidance of consistency protocols
75. What is the purpose of client caching in NFS?
a) Reducing latency in file access
b) Encrypting file content
c) Avoiding data replication
d) Simplifying resource allocation
76. How does Coda improve fault tolerance?
a) By using centralized servers
b) Through server replication
c) By reducing file sharing
d) By optimizing thread scheduling
 77. What is a key issue in distributed system design?
a) Increasing file hierarchy complexity
b) Limiting user access
c) Maintaining consistency across nodes
d) Avoiding resource sharing

The Sun Network File System (NFS)

78. What is a challenge for distributed file systems like NFS and Coda?
a) Balancing performance and fault tolerance
b) Simplifying file directory structures
c) Reducing memory requirements
d) Avoiding data redundancy
79. Which strategy helps in improving scalability in distributed systems?
a) Centralized resource allocation
b) Adding nodes dynamically
c) Manual conflict resolution
d) Limiting user processes
80. What is the main focus of distributed file system case studies?
a) Enhancing graphical user interfaces
b) Solving real-world challenges of scalability and fault tolerance
c) Reducing node dependencies
d) Avoiding dynamic resource allocation
81. Which protocol does Coda use for communication?
a) HTTP
b) FTP
c) RPC (Remote Procedure Call)
d) SMTP
82. What is a critical design issue in NFS?
a) Limited security features
b) High memory requirements
c) Statelessness of the protocol
d) Complexity of client-server interactions
83. Which of the following best describes the architecture of Coda?
a) Client-server
b) Peer-to-peer
c) Client-only
d) Centralized
84. Which of the following is a challenge for NFS?
a) Managing large-scale file systems
b) Poor network bandwidth
c) Lack of encryption
d) Centralized control
85. What does the Sun Network File System (NFS) use to manage access to files?
a) Manual updates
b) File locking
 c) Remote Procedure Calls (RPC)
d) Cache invalidation
86. What feature of Coda is particularly beneficial for mobile systems?
a) Increased file size
b) Server-side storage
c) Disconnected operation
d) Synchronization with centralized systems
87. How does Coda handle file conflicts during reconnection?
a) By using conflict resolution protocols
b) Through manual updates
c) By overwriting local files
d) By ignoring changes
88. Which file system is known for its robustness in supporting disconnected operations?
a) NFS
b) GFS
c) Coda
d) AFS
89. What is the role of the versioning system in Coda?
a) To lock files during updates
b) To avoid file access
c) To track and resolve file version conflicts
d) To delete outdated files
90. Which feature makes NFS more suitable for large-scale distributed systems?
a) File versioning
b) Stateless nature
c) Data encryption
d) Peer-to-peer communication
91. What is one benefit of client-side caching in distributed systems like NFS?
a) Reduced latency for file access
b) Increased resource allocation
c) Reduced data replication
d) Enhanced network security

CODA

92. What is one advantage of server replication in Coda?

a) Limited file access
b) Fault tolerance and high availability
c) Increased memory usage
d) Reduced system security
93. What role does the cache validation mechanism play in NFS?
a) Avoids file duplication
b) Ensures cached data is up-to-date
c) Increases memory usage
d) Reduces network load
 94. What is the biggest challenge in maintaining consistency in distributed file systems like
NFS and Coda?
a) Increased latency
b) Synchronizing data across replicas
c) Limiting resource consumption
d) Avoiding data loss
95. How does NFS improve file system performance?
a) By increasing resource allocation
b) By minimizing network overhead through caching
c) By eliminating server-side storage
d) By avoiding file replication
96. Which of the following does NFS rely on for its functioning?
a) File replication
b) Manual synchronization
c) Remote Procedure Calls (RPC)
d) Centralized data storage
97. What is the primary goal of distributed file systems like Coda?
a) To provide high security
b) To enable fault tolerance and disconnected operation
c) To restrict file access
d) To increase memory usage
98. What is an essential aspect of Coda's design?
a) Fixed directory structure
b) Centralized storage management
c) Support for disconnected operations
d) Minimal resource allocation
99. Which of the following is true about both NFS and Coda?
a) Both use peer-to-peer communication
b) Both support transparent remote file access
c) Both have centralized data management
d) Both avoid file replication

100. What is a key challenge in the design of distributed file systems?

a) Increased CPU usage
b) Balancing fault tolerance, performance, and consistency
c) Reducing the number of nodes
d) Simplifying user authentication

UNIT-III

Real-Time Operating Systems: Introduction – Applications of Real-Time

Systems – Basic Model of Real-Time System

Real-Time Operating Systems: Introduction

1. What is a key characteristic of a real-time operating system (RTOS)?
a) Long response time
b) High memory consumption
c) Predictable and fast response time
d) Inability to manage processes
2. Real-time operating systems are primarily used in:
a) Office automation
b) Systems requiring immediate processing
c) Web development
d) Database management
3. Which of the following is a primary function of a real-time operating system?
a) Handling long-term tasks
b) Reducing system complexity
c) Managing time-critical tasks
d) Reducing resource allocation
4. In a real-time system, what happens if a task is not completed in the specified time?
a) The system automatically reallocates resources
b) The task may be considered a failure
c) The system ignores the task
d) The task is delayed indefinitely
5. Real-time systems can be categorized into:
a) Low- and high-speed systems
b) Hard and soft real-time systems
c) Distributed and centralized systems
d) Interactive and batch systems
6. A hard real-time system is characterized by:
a) A strict deadline that must be met
b) Flexible task scheduling
c) Tolerating delay in task completion
d) Dynamic resource management
7. Soft real-time systems allow:
a) Strict deadlines
b) Missed deadlines without critical consequences
c) Zero resource allocation
d) Fixed task priority
8. The basic model of a real-time system consists of:
a) Tasks, resources, and deadlines
b) Files, users, and processes
c) Input devices and output devices
d) Memory management and CPU management
9. What is the primary role of a real-time operating system in controlling tasks?
a) Limiting system resources
b) Scheduling tasks based on their priority
c) Creating graphical user interfaces
d) Compiling programs for execution
Applications of Real-Time Systems

10. The most common application of a real-time system is:

a) Web browsing
b) Embedded systems and control systems
c) File storage
d) Data backup
11. What distinguishes hard real-time systems from soft real-time systems?
a) Task priority management
b) Response time variance
c) The strictness of meeting deadlines
d) System shutdown protocols
12. Which is an example of a real-time system application?
a) Air traffic control
b) Word processing
c) Database management
d) E-commerce
13. What is the main difference between hard and soft real-time systems in terms of
deadlines?
a) Soft systems require less memory
b) Hard systems have strict deadlines that must be met
c) Soft systems cannot process data
d) Hard systems can miss deadlines without impact
14. In a real-time system, a task that must be completed within a fixed time frame is known
as a:
a) Soft task
b) Hard task
c) Dynamic task
d) Priority task
15. What is the scheduling approach for real-time systems?
a) Priority-based and time-sharing
b) Deadline-based and priority-based
c) Randomized scheduling
d) First-come-first-serve
16. Which of the following is a typical use case for real-time systems?
a) Social media platforms
b) Industrial automation systems
c) File compression tools
d) Game development
17. What does it mean for a real-time system to be predictable?
a) It has a high capacity for multitasking
b) It processes tasks within a known time frame
c) It is scalable
d) It can handle an unlimited number of tasks
18. The basic model of real-time systems includes:
a) Resource utilization
 b) Process synchronization
c) Task execution and time constraints
d) CPU scheduling only
19. A real-time operating system guarantees that critical tasks are executed:
a) At the convenience of the user
b) On demand without any delay
c) Within predefined time constraints
d) After the completion of non-critical tasks
20. A real-time system is most commonly used in:
a) Systems that require immediate responses to events
b) Systems with no specific time requirement
c) Desktop computing environments
d) File servers
21. The basic goal of a real-time system is:
a) Maximizing CPU usage
b) Handling large amounts of data
c) Ensuring tasks are completed on time
d) Limiting memory usage
22. Which is a key feature of real-time operating systems?
a) Low cost
b) Predictable task execution
c) Complex user interfaces
d) High user interactivity

Basic Model of Real-Time System

23. Real-time systems are used in which of the following applications?

a) Accounting software
b) Word processors
c) Medical equipment monitoring
d) Video streaming
24. The scheduling of tasks in a real-time system depends on:
a) File sizes
b) Task priorities and deadlines
c) User preferences
d) Network bandwidth
25. Real-time systems are critical in:
a) Systems requiring precise control over hardware
b) General-purpose computing environments
c) Web servers
d) Social networking
26. Which of the following is an example of a soft real-time system?
a) Flight control system
b) Audio and video streaming
c) Nuclear reactor control system
d) Automated banking system
27. Which is a defining characteristic of hard real-time systems?
a) Meeting strict deadlines is mandatory
b) High user interactivity
c) Can afford to miss some deadlines
d) Task execution is flexible
28. What type of system is used for industrial control and monitoring systems?
a) Real-time operating system
b) Distributed computing system
c) General-purpose operating system
d) Peer-to-peer system
29. The key function of an RTOS is to:
a) Provide resource management for non-critical applications
b) Ensure time-critical tasks are completed within deadlines
c) Manage users and their permissions
d) Provide network services
30. Real-time systems are commonly used in:
a) Web development
b) Autonomous vehicles
c) Online shopping systems
d) Cloud computing
31. Which of the following is a real-time system scheduling algorithm?
a) Rate Monotonic Scheduling
b) Round Robin Scheduling
c) First-Come, First-Served
d) Shortest Job First
32. Which of the following best describes a soft real-time system?
a) It processes tasks without deadlines
b) It ensures no task is ever delayed
c) It can tolerate missing some deadlines
d) It executes tasks sequentially without interruption
33. In a real-time system, the task that executes first is typically based on:
a) Task size
b) Task priority
c) Task creation time
d) User input
34. What is the main disadvantage of a hard real-time system?
a) Lower priority task execution
b) Strict timing constraints that may cause task failure
c) High resource consumption
d) Limited scalability
35. The purpose of time-sharing in a real-time system is to:
a) Manage and prioritize multiple tasks
b) Minimize system downtime
c) Simplify system configuration
d) Maximize data throughput
 36. Real-time systems are characterized by their ability to:
a) Execute tasks asynchronously
b) Respond to inputs within specific time constraints
c) Use complex user interfaces
d) Handle large data volumes
37. Which of the following is an application of real-time systems?
a) Cloud computing
b) Virtual reality systems
c) Radar systems
d) E-mail systems
38. What is the key challenge in designing real-time operating systems?
a) Managing complex user interfaces
b) Ensuring tasks meet strict time requirements
c) Maximizing system resources
d) Reducing file storage requirements
39. Which of the following is a typical feature of hard real-time systems?
a) High tolerance for missed deadlines
b) Failure to meet deadlines results in a system failure
c) Flexible scheduling policies
d) Limited resource usage
40. Real-time systems are typically used in which of the following applications?
a) Embedded systems
b) Database management systems
c) File storage systems
d) Web browsers

Characteristics

41. What is the basic requirement for a real-time operating system?

a) Fast network connectivity
b) High priority task scheduling
c) Simplified resource management
d) General-purpose functionality
42. What is the role of an RTOS in a robotic system?
a) Ensuring timely control of robotic movements
b) Managing network connections
c) Handling database transactions
d) Providing a graphical user interface
43. In real-time systems, task priorities are assigned based on:
a) Urgency and importance of the task
b) Time of creation
c) Available resources
d) User preferences
44. What is the main purpose of scheduling algorithms in real-time systems?
a) To ensure all tasks are given equal priority
b) To ensure time-critical tasks are completed on time
 c) To minimize the number of tasks
d) To reduce system overhead
45. What defines the behavior of a real-time system?
a) Task parallelism
b) Task execution deadlines
c) Task input and output
d) Resource sharing mechanisms
46. In real-time systems, tasks are classified as:
a) Static and dynamic
b) Periodic and aperiodic
c) Short-term and long-term
d) Interactive and batch
47. Which of the following is an example of a periodic task in a real-time system?
a) Video rendering
b) Sensor data collection
c) User authentication
d) Web server requests
48. What type of scheduling is often used in real-time systems for periodic tasks?
a) Cyclic scheduling
b) Round-robin scheduling
c) Priority-based scheduling
d) Randomized scheduling
49. What feature is essential for handling time-critical operations in real-time systems?
a) Complex user interfaces
b) Fast task execution and minimal latency
c) High data throughput
d) Extensive logging
50. What is the importance of task synchronization in real-time systems?
a) To manage system resources efficiently
b) To ensure tasks do not interfere with each other
c) To reduce system complexity
d) To prioritize non-time-critical tasks
51. What is a fundamental challenge in real-time system design?
a) Balancing performance and predictability
b) Ensuring unlimited resources
c) Avoiding task dependencies
d) Simplifying the user interface
52. What is the impact of missing deadlines in a real-time system?
a) It can lead to system failure or incorrect operation
b) The system continues to operate normally
c) Non-time-critical tasks are delayed
d) The system automatically reallocates resources
53. What is the main characteristic of a periodic task in a real-time system?
a) It repeats at regular intervals
b) It executes only once
 c) It requires unpredictable scheduling
d) It never misses a deadline
54. Which scheduling policy is commonly used in real-time systems to ensure tasks are
executed on time?
a) Round-robin scheduling
b) Least recently used
c) Priority-based scheduling
d) First-come, first-served
55. In real-time systems, which of the following is typically guaranteed?
a) Timely execution of critical tasks
b) User-specific system behavior
c) Complex user interface features
d) Low resource consumption

Safety and Reliability

56. What is a key characteristic of real-time systems?

a) Variable response time
b) High latency
c) Predictable and fast response time
d) Resource-intensive
57. The primary challenge of safety in real-time systems is to:
a) Improve the graphical user interface
b) Prevent harm to the system or users
c) Maximize processing power
d) Minimize power consumption
58. In a real-time system, the concept of reliability refers to:
a) The system's ability to execute tasks asynchronously
b) The system's ability to perform correctly under predefined conditions
c) The system's capacity to handle large amounts of data
d) The system's ability to scale to larger workloads
59. Safety-critical systems are designed to:
a) Handle only administrative tasks
b) Prevent catastrophic failures or damage
c) Optimize system throughput
d) Ensure resource allocation
60. What is the focus of real-time task scheduling?
a) Memory allocation
b) Ensuring tasks meet their deadlines
c) User management
d) File system maintenance
61. Real-time task scheduling is crucial in ensuring:
a) Equal priority for all tasks
b) Tasks are executed in the correct order to meet deadlines
c) Unlimited task execution time
d) Non-priority tasks are executed first
62. Which of the following is the most critical feature of real-time task scheduling?
a) Power efficiency
b) Deadline adherence
c) File management
d) Data security
63. What does safety in real-time systems ensure?
a) Quick execution of tasks
b) No risk to human life or property
c) High-speed data processing
d) Efficient power consumption
64. Real-time systems must guarantee that:
a) Tasks are completed when resources are available
b) User data is secured
c) Critical tasks meet their deadlines
d) No data loss occurs
65. Which of the following factors is crucial for reliability in real-time systems?
a) High CPU usage
b) System stability and fault tolerance
c) Frequent updates
d) Minimal data storage
66. In the context of real-time systems, the term "reliability" is most closely related to:
a) Task priority
b) The system's ability to function without failure
c) Memory management
d) Network connectivity
67. In safety-critical systems, failures can result in:
a) Harm to people or equipment
b) System shutdown
c) Data corruption
d) Resource wastage
68. What is the main objective of safety in a real-time system?
a) Increasing processing speed
b) Ensuring system failure does not cause harm
c) Maximizing resource usage
d) Managing large data sets
69. In the context of real-time scheduling, which approach is used to handle tasks with time
constraints?
a) Preemptive scheduling
b) Round-robin scheduling
c) Priority-based scheduling
d) Longest job first
70. What is a common real-time scheduling policy used in real-time systems?
a) FIFO scheduling
b) Rate-monotonic scheduling
c) Least recently used
d) Shortest job first
71. Rate-monotonic scheduling is best suited for systems where:
a) Tasks have equal priority
b) Periodic tasks have fixed, known periods
c) Tasks do not have deadlines
d) Tasks are aperiodic
72. Which of the following is true about real-time task scheduling?
a) Tasks with tighter deadlines should be given higher priority
b) All tasks must be treated with equal importance
c) Only periodic tasks need scheduling
d) Task execution times are irrelevant
73. Which of the following algorithms is used to schedule real-time tasks in systems where
tasks have deadlines?
a) Earliest Deadline First (EDF)
b) Round-robin scheduling
c) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
d) Least Recently Used (LRU)
74. Which of the following is an important feature of task scheduling in real-time systems?
a) Meeting deadlines without failure
b) Maximizing task resource consumption
c) Task randomization
d) Equal execution time for all tasks
75. What happens if a task in a real-time system does not meet its deadline?
a) The task is executed later
b) The system may fail or produce incorrect results
c) The task is removed from the queue
d) The task is automatically rescheduled
76. Which of the following is a characteristic of real-time task scheduling algorithms?
a) They prioritize tasks based on time constraints
b) They aim to distribute tasks equally across all processors
c) They process tasks in a random order
d) They only schedule tasks with equal importance
77. The key distinction between hard real-time and soft real-time systems is:
a) Hard systems allow missed deadlines
b) Hard systems cannot miss deadlines
c) Soft systems do not use task scheduling
d) Hard systems use random task scheduling
78. What is the key objective of reliability in real-time systems?
a) Ensuring consistent performance without failure
b) Minimizing task deadlines
c) Maximizing resource allocation
d) Avoiding user interaction
79. What is the primary concern in safety-critical real-time systems?
a) Task synchronization
b) Preventing catastrophic failures
c) Task execution time
d) Task completion order
 80. What kind of systems typically require hard real-time scheduling?
a) Systems where missing deadlines results in severe consequences
b) Systems that process large amounts of data
c) Systems with flexible processing time
d) Systems that prioritize resource sharing
81. What is an example of a safety-critical real-time system?
a) Autonomous vehicle control system
b) Web application server
c) Data backup system
d) Social media platform
82. In real-time systems, task scheduling is primarily concerned with:
a) Ensuring tasks meet deadlines
b) Minimizing resource usage
c) Reducing task execution time
d) Limiting memory allocation
83. What is the purpose of reliability in a real-time system?
a) Task prioritization
b) To ensure the system functions without failure
c) Minimizing memory usage
d) Optimizing network connections
84. Which of the following is critical in ensuring reliability for real-time systems?
a) Ensuring fault tolerance
b) Reducing task delays
c) Increasing system overhead
d) Improving network connectivity
85. In real-time systems, the term "task deadline" refers to:
a) The time at which a task is created
b) The time by which a task must be completed
c) The time when resources are allocated
d) The time when the system is shut down
86. Which of the following is the primary goal of real-time scheduling algorithms?
a) Ensuring all time-critical tasks are completed within deadlines
b) Minimizing task execution time
c) Maximizing CPU utilization
d) Ensuring equal resource allocation

Real Time Task Scheduling

87. The Rate-Monotonic Scheduling (RMS) algorithm assumes that:

a) Tasks are executed sequentially
b) Task priorities are based on their periods
c) Task execution times are variable
d) Tasks are aperiodic
88. What is the role of the scheduler in a real-time operating system?
a) To assign priorities and meet task deadlines
b) To execute user tasks
 c) To manage memory usage
d) To maintain user preferences
89. In safety-critical systems, the most important factor is:
a) Data throughput
b) Ensuring there is no risk of failure
c) High processing speed
d) User interface complexity
90. Which scheduling algorithm is ideal for systems with periodic tasks and fixed deadlines?
a) Rate-Monotonic Scheduling (RMS)
b) Round-Robin Scheduling
c) First-Come, First-Served
d) Priority Scheduling
91. In a real-time system, which condition is most critical for task completion?
a) Availability of resources
b) Meeting deadlines
c) User interaction
d) Task priority
92. Which of the following is necessary for maintaining reliability in a real-time system?
a) Redundancy and fault tolerance
b) Task execution time
c) Equal task scheduling
d) Task randomization
93. Real-time systems often require which feature to handle timing constraints?
a) Dynamic task prioritization
b) Task preemption and deadline management
c) High user interactivity
d) Network communication
94. Which of the following is not a key characteristic of real-time systems?
a) Indefinite task deadlines
b) Predictable task execution
c) Deterministic system behavior
d) Task prioritization
95. What is the significance of "reliability" in real-time systems?
a) Task completion
b) Ensuring the system operates without failure
c) Task response time
d) Resource allocation
96. In real-time task scheduling, what happens if tasks do not meet their deadlines?
a) The system operates normally
b) The system may fail or provide incorrect results
c) The tasks are rescheduled randomly
d) The tasks are ignored
97. Which of the following is the primary goal of a real-time operating system?
a) Meeting task deadlines with minimal delay
b) Maximizing processing throughput
 c) Minimizing memory usage
d) Ensuring user satisfaction
98. What does "safety" mean in the context of real-time systems?
a) System availability
b) Protection against catastrophic failure
c) Task completion
d) Reduced response time
99. What does the concept of "task synchronization" help prevent in real-time systems?
a) Conflicts and data corruption
b) Task execution time delays
c) Task resource wastage
d) System resource exhaustion
100. What is the main challenge when scheduling real-time tasks?
a) High system memory usage
b) Ensuring timely task completion
c) Optimizing user interfaces
d) Minimizing system overhead

UNIT-IV

Operating Systems for Handheld Systems: Requirements

1. What is the primary focus when designing operating systems for handheld devices?
a) Large-scale resource management
b) Efficient resource utilization with limited hardware
c) High processing power
d) Extensive software compatibility
2. Handheld operating systems are typically designed to run on:
a) Desktop computers
b) Mobile devices such as smartphones and tablets
c) Network servers
d) Large mainframe systems
3. What is a key characteristic of handheld operating systems?
a) Extensive user interfaces
b) Optimized for low power consumption and limited resources
c) Multi-user support
d) Complex task scheduling
4. What technology is commonly used in handheld operating systems?
a) High-performance computing
b) Mobile and embedded technologies
c) Virtualization
d) Cloud computing
5. Which of the following is a primary challenge for handheld operating systems?
a) Managing limited resources such as battery, CPU, and memory
b) Handling large databases
 c) Maintaining system security
d) Supporting multiple users
6. Which handheld operating system is open-source?
a) Android
b) iOS
c) Windows CE
d) Palm OS
7. Which of the following is a major requirement for handheld systems?
a) Support for multiple threads
b) Efficient power management
c) High-speed processing
d) Large memory capacity
8. Which feature is crucial for handheld operating systems regarding user interfaces?
a) Command-line interface
b) Touch-based interface
c) Multi-window interface
d) Voice-based interface
9. What is a common feature of handheld operating systems for mobile devices?
a) Complex data processing
b) Battery management and low energy consumption
c) Multi-tasking with desktop support
d) Large screen resolution
10. Which of the following operating systems is most commonly used in smartphones?
a) Android
b) Windows Phone
c) Linux
d) iOS
11. What is the main role of the operating system in handheld systems?
a) To manage large-scale databases
b) To provide a platform for mobile applications and manage hardware
c) To support multiple users simultaneously
d) To ensure real-time network connectivity
12. What is the most important feature for handheld operating systems in terms of
connectivity?
a) High bandwidth usage
b) Efficient wireless network management
c) Multi-user network support
d) Large data transfer capability
13. Handheld operating systems are designed to be:
a) Lightweight and efficient
b) Powerful and resource-heavy
c) Multi-threaded and complex
d) Network-intensive
14. Which of the following is a key consideration in handheld operating system design?
a) Power efficiency
b) Complex database management
 c) High processing speed
d) Multiple user support
15. What is a limitation of handheld operating systems compared to desktop operating
systems?
a) Limited user interface options
b) Limited processing power and memory
c) Inefficient task scheduling
d) Lack of connectivity options

Technology Overview Handheld Operating Systems

16. What is the main feature of Android, a widely used handheld operating system?
a) Open-source nature
b) Extensive system resources
c) Support for desktop applications
d) High memory requirements
17. Which of the following is a common trait of handheld OS architectures?
a) Complex multitasking models
b) Simplified kernel design
c) Multi-user support
d) Extensive file system management
18. What is the role of multitasking in handheld operating systems?
a) To efficiently manage multiple tasks within limited resources
b) To support multiple users simultaneously
c) To enhance graphics processing
d) To increase the system’s power consumption
19. Which type of user interface is typically used in handheld operating systems?
a) Touchscreen-based interface
b) Command-line interface
c) Keyboard-driven interface
d) Graphical user interface with windows
20. What is the primary use of handheld operating systems in mobile devices?
a) To provide high-performance computing
b) To run mobile applications and manage system resources
c) To support multiple user accounts
d) To perform heavy data computations
21. Which mobile OS was developed by Apple?
a) Android
b) iOS
c) Windows Mobile
d) BlackBerry OS
22. What is the most common processor architecture used in handheld operating systems?
a) ARM architecture
b) x86 architecture
c) SPARC architecture
d) MIPS architecture
23. Which feature is most important for handheld operating systems?
a) Multi-core processing support
b) Efficient memory and power management
c) High-level data encryption
d) Multi-threading support
24. What does a handheld operating system need to optimize in terms of hardware?
a) Display resolution
b) Power consumption and resource utilization
c) Disk space
d) Peripheral devices support
25. Which of the following is essential for handheld operating systems when dealing with
applications?
a) Efficient management of running applications with limited resources
b) Heavy multitasking support
c) Extensive file storage
d) Support for multiple users
26. Which of the following mobile operating systems is known for its proprietary nature?
a) Android
b) iOS
c) Linux
d) Windows CE
27. What kind of support is commonly provided by handheld operating systems for external
peripherals?
a) Limited peripheral support due to resource constraints
b) Extensive device support
c) Full plug-and-play support
d) No peripheral support
28. Which of the following is an important feature of a handheld OS in terms of security?
a) Support for multi-factor authentication
b) Secure boot and app sandboxing
c) Extensive encryption features
d) Multi-user system access
29. What is one of the most significant constraints in handheld system OS design?
a) Limited battery life
b) Lack of internet connectivity
c) Large screen sizes
d) Insufficient network bandwidth
30. In handheld operating systems, what role does task scheduling play?
a) To manage multi-core processing
b) To efficiently allocate limited system resources to various tasks
c) To support complex user interfaces
d) To manage external peripheral devices
31. What does "app store integration" provide in a handheld operating system?
a) Multi-user support
b) Easy access to applications for installation and updates
 c) Secure file system management
d) High-performance computing
32. Which operating system is known for being used on the majority of handheld gaming
consoles?
a) Windows 10
b) Custom embedded OS or Linux-based systems
c) macOS
d) Android
33. What is the primary goal of operating systems for handheld systems in terms of resource
management?
a) To ensure minimal power usage while supporting mobile applications
b) To maximize processing power
c) To enable multi-threading with desktop apps
d) To provide real-time task management
34. What is one of the primary limitations of handheld OS compared to traditional desktop
OS?
a) Limited hardware resources like RAM and storage
b) Lack of multitasking capabilities
c) Inability to run mobile apps
d) Poor support for web browsing
35. What is one of the most crucial requirements for a handheld OS in mobile devices?
a) Efficient and fast task switching
b) Large user interface options
c) Multi-user session support
d) High-speed connectivity
36. What is an essential feature of Android as a handheld operating system?
a) Open-source nature and customizable platform
b) Proprietary system with high security
c) Limited app compatibility
d) Complex file management
37. What is the main purpose of handheld operating systems in terms of system resources?
a) To manage limited resources efficiently
b) To optimize multi-core processing
c) To maximize memory usage
d) To run high-performance applications
38. Which operating system has been designed for high security and stability in handheld
devices?
a) Android
b) iOS
c) Windows CE
d) Linux
39. What does the term "mobile OS fragmentation" refer to?
a) A specific task scheduling method
b) The existence of multiple versions of an OS on different devices
c) Limited battery life
d) A complex user interface
40. In handheld operating systems, which feature is important for software developers?
a) Availability of a software development kit (SDK)
b) Ability to develop desktop applications
c) High-end computational support
d) No need for app stores
41. What is a key difference between handheld operating systems and desktop operating
systems?
a) Handheld OS is optimized for portability and power efficiency
b) Handheld OS supports more simultaneous users
c) Handheld OS has a larger file system
d) Handheld OS requires complex user interfaces
42. How does battery management affect handheld operating systems?
a) It is a secondary consideration
b) It is critical for ensuring device longevity during mobile use
c) It affects system processing speed
d) It has little to no effect on system performance
43. What is the key characteristic of user interfaces in handheld operating systems?
a) Touch-based interaction with simple design
b) Multi-window support with drag-and-drop
c) High-resolution graphical output
d) Complex taskbar and multi-monitor support
44. What makes handheld operating systems different from those used in desktop systems?
a) Focus on power consumption and hardware constraints
b) Ability to run complex programs
c) Support for multiple users
d) Use of command-line interfaces
45. Which of the following mobile operating systems is designed for use on low-power
devices?
a) Android
b) iOS
c) Windows Server
d) Linux
46. What is one of the key reasons for the widespread adoption of Android in handheld
devices?
a) Closed-source licensing
b) Open-source code and developer support
c) Exclusive hardware support
d) Extensive built-in software
47. What role does the kernel play in handheld operating systems?
a) Managing hardware resources and system processes
b) Providing user interfaces
c) Running applications
d) Handling network connectivity
48. What is one of the most important considerations for security in handheld systems?
a) Multi-user access
b) Data encryption and app sandboxing
 c) Complex password systems
d) Real-time task switching
49. What is the main function of operating systems in handheld systems in terms of
applications?
a) Providing a platform for running mobile apps
b) Supporting multiple simultaneous users
c) Handling complex computations
d) Running background processes
50. How does Android differ from iOS in terms of accessibility for developers?
a) Android is open-source and customizable, whereas iOS is closed-source
b) iOS provides better multitasking
c) Android has more complex security features
d) iOS is primarily for business use
51. What is one of the key characteristics of handheld operating systems regarding security?
a) Lack of security features
b) Strong security protocols to protect user data
c) No encryption support
d) Limited access to personal data
52. What technology is widely used for creating mobile applications in handheld operating
systems?
a) SDKs (Software Development Kits)
b) Virtual machines
c) Direct assembly programming
d) Network frameworks
53. Handheld operating systems typically use which type of memory management system?
a) Virtual memory
b) Memory management based on efficiency and minimal overhead
c) Swap memory management
d) High-performance memory systems
54. What is the key feature of the user interface in iOS for handheld devices?
a) Touch-based interaction and minimalist design
b) Multi-monitor support
c) Complex taskbar navigation
d) Extensive window management
55. What type of communication protocols are most often supported by handheld operating
systems?
a) Wireless communication protocols such as Bluetooth and Wi-Fi
b) Ethernet and wired communication
c) High-speed network protocols
d) Legacy communication systems
56. Handheld operating systems are typically designed for which purpose?
a) Data analysis
b) Mobile application support and efficient resource management
c) Running heavy simulations
d) Enterprise-level computing
 57. What is the primary concern in handheld operating systems regarding storage?
a) Optimizing storage space due to limited capacity
b) High-speed storage performance
c) Handling large databases
d) Multi-user storage management
58. Which of the following is a key challenge in handheld OS development?
a) Providing multi-user support
b) Ensuring efficient task scheduling with limited resources
c) Supporting large-scale file systems
d) High-speed data transfer
59. What is one of the advantages of using a handheld operating system in portable devices?
a) Increased portability and flexibility in mobile environments
b) Ability to run complex desktop applications
c) Support for large-scale data processing
d) Multiple user session management
60. Which of the following handheld operating systems is most known for its stability and
security features?
a) Android
b) iOS
c) Windows CE
d) Palm OS

PalmOS

61. Which company initially developed PalmOS?

a) Microsoft
b) Palm, Inc.
c) Sony
d) Nokia
62. What type of devices originally used PalmOS?
a) Laptops
b) PDAs (Personal Digital Assistants)
c) Desktop computers
d) Smartphones
63. What was the primary feature of PalmOS in its early versions?
a) Advanced graphics processing
b) Simple and efficient user interface for personal organizers
c) High-end gaming support
d) Multi-user capability
64. What is the key characteristic of PalmOS in terms of application management?
a) It supports efficient application switching
b) It uses complex file systems
c) It has extensive multi-threading capabilities
d) It supports only one application at a time
65. What year did PalmOS become one of the most widely used mobile operating systems?
a) 2000
 b) 1995
c) 2005
d) 1990
66. PalmOS was originally developed for which processor architecture?
a) ARM
b) Motorola 68000
c) x86
d) SPARC
67. Which of the following is a major feature of PalmOS?
a) Full desktop computing environment
b) Simplified interface with stylus-based input
c) Advanced network connectivity
d) Extensive multitasking
68. What was the original target market for PalmOS?
a) Personal and business productivity applications
b) Gaming consoles
c) Home automation systems
d) Industrial and scientific computing
69. Which of the following was a key component of PalmOS?
a) Windows environment
b) Graffiti handwriting recognition system
c) Virtual machine
d) Command-line interface
70. What year did PalmOS officially become obsolete for most modern devices?
a) 2009
b) 2012
c) 2005
d) 2010
71. What type of software applications did PalmOS initially support?
a) Personal productivity software like calendars and contacts
b) Heavy data processing applications
c) Virtualization software
d) Complex multimedia applications
72. PalmOS was replaced by which operating system in many of its later devices?
a) Windows Mobile
b) webOS
c) Android
d) iOS
73. What was PalmOS known for in terms of user experience?
a) User-friendly interface with stylus support
b) Complex and technical user interface
c) Desktop-class multitasking
d) High-end graphics and gaming support
74. What type of file system was used in PalmOS?
a) NTFS
b) Filesystem optimized for low memory usage and small devices
 c) HFS+
d) FAT32
75. Which company acquired Palm, Inc., and later used its technology for smartphones?
a) Google
b) Hewlett-Packard (HP)
c) Microsoft
d) Samsung
76. What feature made PalmOS efficient for low-power devices?
a) High-speed data processing
b) Optimized for battery life and low memory usage
c) Extensive multi-tasking capabilities
d) Large file support
77. Which feature of PalmOS allowed for the fastest operation on handheld devices?
a) Simple operating system with minimal resource requirements
b) Complex graphical user interface
c) Advanced multi-threading
d) Virtualization

Symbian Operating System

78. What is the main feature of Symbian OS?

a) Designed for mobile phones with multitasking and resource management
b) Limited to single-tasking environments
c) Exclusively used for desktop systems
d) High compatibility with cloud computing
79. Symbian OS was most popular in which type of devices?
a) Personal computers
b) Mobile phones and smartphones
c) Gaming consoles
d) Industrial machines
80. Which company initially developed Symbian OS?
a) Nokia
b) Sony
c) Samsung
d) Motorola
81. Symbian OS is best known for its use in which brand of mobile phones?
a) Nokia
b) Samsung
c) Apple
d) LG
82. What type of operating system is Symbian considered?
a) Open-source
b) Proprietary
c) Cross-platform
d) Real-time
83. Which of the following was a key feature of Symbian OS?
a) Simple command-line interface
b) Multi-threading and efficient memory management
c) High-end gaming support
d) Desktop-based system integration
84. Symbian OS was primarily designed to support which mobile hardware platform?
a) ARM architecture
b) x86 architecture
c) PowerPC
d) MIPS
85. What was a major reason for Symbian OS's decline in popularity?
a) Lack of app stores
b) Competition from iOS and Android
c) Limited hardware support
d) High processing requirements
86. Which software framework was used by Symbian OS for mobile app development?
a) .NET Framework
b) Symbian C++
c) Java
d) Swift
87. What was one of the core strengths of Symbian OS?
a) Real-time multitasking capabilities
b) Complex file system management
c) High-end graphics rendering
d) Multi-user support
88. What type of user interface was common in devices running Symbian OS?
a) Command-line interface
b) Graphical user interface with touchscreen support
c) Text-based interface
d) Voice-controlled interface
89. Symbian OS provided better support for which of the following?
a) Desktop applications
b) Mobile communication and multimedia
c) Gaming systems
d) High-performance computing
90. What feature did Symbian OS offer for applications in terms of performance?
a) Virtualization
b) Efficient memory and process management for mobile applications
c) Multi-user support
d) Cloud storage integration
91. Which of the following operating systems is based on the Symbian platform?
a) Nokia's S60 OS
b) Android
c) webOS
d) iOS
92. What contributed to the eventual phase-out of Symbian OS?
a) Lack of app compatibility
b) Shift to Android and iOS as dominant platforms
c) Inefficient resource management
d) Limited device support
93. Which of the following was one of Symbian OS's key competitors?
a) Blackberry OS
b) Android
c) Windows 98
d) Linux
94. What role did Symbian OS play in the mobile industry?
a) Early leader in smartphone operating systems
b) Provided desktop-like user experiences on mobile devices
c) Focused only on gaming applications
d) Focused on multimedia production
95. Which company took over Symbian OS development after Nokia?
a) Microsoft
b) Accenture
c) Apple
d) Google
96. Which of the following is a major limitation of Symbian OS?
a) Lack of device compatibility
b) Complex development environment
c) Limited graphics support
d) High memory usage
97. Which of the following best describes PalmOS's interaction with mobile applications?
a) Limited app store
b) Fast app launching and efficient resource management
c) No app management system
d) Complex app installation process
98. In which year did Palm, Inc. release the first version of PalmOS?
a) 1995
b) 1996
c) 1997
d) 1998
99. Which feature was unique to Symbian OS compared to other mobile operating systems at
the time?
a) Real-time communication support
b) Support for multiple hardware vendors and devices
c) Multi-core processor support
d) Advanced graphical rendering capabilities

100. Which of the following mobile operating systems was most known for its real-time
capabilities?
a) Android
b) Symbian OS
 c) Windows Phone
d) PalmOS

Android - Architecture of Android

101. What is the primary programming language for Android development?

a) C++
b) Java
c) Python
d) Swift

102. Which of the following is part of the Android operating system architecture?
a) Kernel
b) Application framework
c) Desktop environment
d) Command-line interface

103. What is the role of the Android Application Framework?

a) Handle system security
b) Provide libraries and APIs for app development
c) Manage networking
d) Support hardware abstraction

104. Which layer of the Android architecture contains the Dalvik Virtual Machine?
a) Kernel
b) Application runtime
c) Application framework
d) Libraries

105. What does the Android operating system use for inter-process communication?
a) Bluetooth
b) Binder IPC mechanism
c) Shared memory
d) Network sockets

106. Which of the following is the top-most layer of Android architecture?

a) Libraries
b) Applications
c) Application framework
d) Linux Kernel

107. What is the function of the Linux Kernel in the Android architecture?
a) Run applications
b) Provide system-level services like memory management
 c) Handle the graphical interface
d) Interpret Java bytecode

108. Which component of Android is responsible for managing the lifecycle of applications?
a) Application framework
b) Activity Manager
c) Telephony Manager
d) Media Manager

109.What is the Android security model primarily based on?

a) Sandboxing of applications
b) File system encryption
c) Biometric authentication
d) Application control

110. Android apps run on which virtual machine?

a) JVM
b) Dalvik VM
c) QEMU
d) VirtualBox

111. In Android, what is an Intent used for?

a) Connecting to the internet
b) Interacting with components like activities and services
c) Encrypting data
d) Storing application data

112. What Android component manages background tasks and services?

a) Activity Manager
b) Service
c) Content Provider
d) Broadcast Receiver

113. How are applications secured on Android?

a) Each app runs in its own sandboxed environment
b) Only encrypted apps can be installed
c) Apps must pass a security certification test
d) All apps must be open-source

114. Which of the following is a part of Android's native libraries?

a) OpenGL ES
b) SQLite
c) VirtualBox
d) Java SE API
115. What is the purpose of the Android content provider?
a) Manage permissions
b) Provide a mechanism for data sharing between apps
c) Run services
d) Handle network requests

116. What Android component is used to display a user interface?

a) Content Provider
b) Activity
c) Service
d) Intent

117. Which of the following best describes Android's architecture?

a) A microkernel-based system
b) A layered architecture with a Linux kernel
c) A single monolithic system
d) A distributed system

118. What is a key feature of Android's security model?

a) Centralized database access
b) App sandboxing
c) Encryption of all user data
d) Cloud storage integration

Securing Handheld Systems

119. Android OS uses which form of security for data storage?

a) Hardware encryption only
b) File-based encryption
c) Network encryption
d) No encryption by default

120. What is Android's approach to securing communications between apps?

a) Using hardware security modules
b) Ensuring encrypted communication and secure APIs
c) Using Bluetooth for data transfers
d) Allowing only trusted apps to communicate

121. What Android security feature prevents unauthorized access to private app data?
a) Using two-factor authentication
b) App sandboxing and permissions
c) File encryption at rest
d) Remote data wiping

122. Which Android component is responsible for handling broadcasts and notifications?
a) Service
 b) Broadcast Receiver
c) Content Provider
d) Activity

123. In Android, which feature helps control access to sensitive data?

a) Activity Manager
b) Permissions system
c) Content Providers
d) Keychain API

124. What is the primary security mechanism that Android uses for app isolation?
a) Encryption of application data
b) Application sandboxing
c) Hardware-based security
d) Device-level firewalls

125. What Android feature allows apps to respond to specific system or application events?
a) Activities
b) Broadcast Receivers
c) Services
d) Content Providers

126. Which type of Android application component is used to perform long-running tasks in the
background?
a) Activity
b) Service
c) Broadcast Receiver
d) Content Provider

127. What is a feature of Android's permission model?

a) Permissions are granted by the device manufacturer
b) Permissions are requested at runtime by apps
c) Apps automatically gain permissions without asking the user
d) Permissions are only granted by the system administrator

128. Which Android architecture component is responsible for managing the database?
a) Service
b) Content Provider
c) Activity Manager
d) Broadcast Receiver

129. What type of Android security vulnerability is most commonly exploited in attacks?
a) Weak password policies
b) Poor app permissions management
c) Inefficient memory management
d) Lack of encryption
130. What Android system component controls how applications interact with hardware?
a) Content Providers
b) Linux Kernel
c) Activity Manager
d) Application Framework

131. Which Android feature ensures that an application cannot access sensitive data without the
user’s consent?
a) Permissions system
b) Root access
c) Encrypted file system
d) User authentication

132. Which of the following is an example of a tool used to secure Android applications?
a) Dalvik Debug Monitor
b) ProGuard
c) Android SDK
d) Android Studio

133. What Android feature allows the system to notify applications about system changes?
a) Intent Filter
b) Broadcast Receiver
c) Activity Manager
d) Content Provider

134. What is the role of Android’s SELinux security feature?

a) It ensures that applications cannot access external storage
b) It enforces mandatory access control policies for app security
c) It encrypts app data
d) It provides biometric authentication

135. What is a major concern when securing handheld Android devices?

a) Multi-tasking capabilities
b) Protecting user data and preventing unauthorized access
c) Ensuring app compatibility
d) Increasing battery life

136. What kind of threat does Android's application sandboxing prevent?

a) Data corruption
b) Unauthorized access between apps
c) Virus infections
d) Network attacks

137. What Android component allows an app to run in the background even if it is not active?
a) Content Provider
b) Service
 c) Activity
d) Broadcast Receiver

138. What is the purpose of Android's KeyStore system?

a) Manage app permissions
b) Securely store cryptographic keys
c) Encrypt user data
d) Monitor network usage

139. What Android permission is required for an app to access the device’s camera?
a) CAMERA
b) INTERNET
c) ACCESS_FINE_LOCATION
d) RECORD_AUDIO

140. What Android system feature enhances the security of system services?
a) Encryption
b) Trusted execution environment (TEE)
c) User authentication
d) Antivirus software

UNIT-V

Case Studies: Linux System: Introduction

1. What is the primary function of the Linux kernel?

a) User interface management
b) Resource management (memory, processes, etc.)
c) Security handling
d) File management
2. Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Linux operating system?
a) Open-source
b) Proprietary software
c) Multi-user
d) Multi-tasking
3. Who is credited with the creation of the Linux operating system?
a) Linus Torvalds
b) Richard Stallman
c) Dennis Ritchie
d) Ken Thompson
4. What is the default shell used in most Linux distributions?
a) Zsh
b) Bash
c) Tcsh
d) Fish
5. Which file system does Linux typically use by default?
a) ext4
b) NTFS
c) FAT32
d) HFS+
6. What does the Linux command ls do?
a) Display system logs
b) List directory contents
c) Change file permissions
d) Create a new directory
7. In Linux, what is the root user?
a) A regular user with admin privileges
b) The superuser with full system access
c) The user that owns the root directory
d) A system user with limited permissions
8. Which of the following is a Linux package manager?
a) apt
b) yum
c) All of the above
d) pacman
9. What command in Linux is used to change the current directory?
a) cd
b) ls
c) mv
d) pwd
10. What type of operating system is Linux considered?
a) Monolithic kernel
b) Hybrid kernel
c) Microkernel
d) Exokernel
11. Which of the following is a popular Linux distribution?
a) Ubuntu
b) Windows
c) macOS
d) FreeBSD
12. In Linux, which command is used to display the current working directory?
a) pwd
b) ls
c) dir
d) find
13. What is a primary benefit of using Linux?
a) Stability and reliability
b) Limited software availability
c) Proprietary software
d) High hardware requirements
14. Which of the following commands would be used to list the contents of a directory in
Linux?
a) open
b) show
c) ls
d) list
15. How does Linux handle multitasking?
a) By allocating tasks to different CPUs only
b) By using a preemptive multitasking model
c) By running tasks sequentially
d) By limiting the number of running processes
16. What does the chmod command in Linux do?
a) Change the user password
b) Change file permissions
c) Change the file name
d) Change the file owner
17. Which of the following is used to store system configurations in Linux?
a) /etc
b) /home
c) /usr
d) /var
18. What is the Linux file extension for executables?
a) .exe
b) None (Linux executables have no specific file extension)
c) .bin
d) .run
19. Which command is used to copy files in Linux?
a) mv
b) cp
c) rm
d) touch
20. What does the man command do in Linux?
a) It shows the manual or help information for a command
b) It displays the memory usage
c) It modifies system settings
d) It lists files in a directory
21. Which of the following is a security feature in Linux?
a) Limited file access by default
b) File permissions
c) Windows Defender
d) Antivirus software
22. In Linux, what is the grep command used for?
a) Move files
b) Display file permissions
c) Search for patterns in files
d) Display disk usage
 23. What is the kill command used for in Linux?
a) Terminate a running process
b) Create a new process
c) Change process priority
d) Display running processes
24. In Linux, what is the purpose of the tar command?
a) To create and extract compressed archive files
b) To change file ownership
c) To list files in a directory
d) To search for files
25. What is the role of the /bin directory in Linux?
a) Store user data
b) Store log files
c) Store essential system binaries
d) Store configuration files

Memory Management in Linux

26. What is the primary role of the memory manager in Linux?

a) Manage user data
b) Manage system memory resources
c) Handle I/O operations
d) Control network traffic
27. Which of the following memory management techniques is used by Linux?
a) Paging only
b) Segmentation only
c) Both paging and segmentation
d) Memory-mapped I/O
28. What is a page fault in Linux?
a) An error caused by incorrect system commands
b) A situation where the page is not in physical memory and needs to be loaded
from disk
c) A hardware failure
d) A logical error in the code
29. In Linux, what is the purpose of the swap space?
a) To provide virtual memory by swapping data between RAM and disk
b) To increase the RAM size
c) To store file system data
d) To manage input/output operations
30. What does the Linux kernel use to manage physical memory?
a) Dynamic memory allocation
b) Buddy system
c) Linked list
d) Stack-based memory
31. Which of the following memory management schemes is used by Linux for handling
virtual memory?
 a) First Fit
b) Best Fit
c) Paging
d) Segmentation
32. What is the default page size in most Linux systems?
a) 512 KB
b) 64 MB
c) 4 KB
d) 2 GB
33. How does Linux handle memory fragmentation?
a) By ignoring it
b) Through the use of the buddy system and swapping
c) By using a fixed partition size
d) By merging memory pages manually
34. What is the free command used for in Linux?
a) Display the amount of free and used memory
b) Free up system resources
c) Create a new memory partition
d) Allocate more memory
35. Which of the following is the primary tool used in Linux for monitoring memory usage?
a) lspci
b) ifconfig
c) free
d) lsblk
36. What is the purpose of the vm.swappiness parameter in Linux?
a) To determine the amount of virtual memory used
b) To control the tendency of the kernel to use swap space
c) To enable memory compression
d) To monitor the memory leaks
37. How does Linux handle memory mapping for files?
a) Through memory-mapped I/O only
b) Using mmap() system call
c) By reading the file data into buffers
d) By using regular file pointers
38. What is the function of the mmap() system call in Linux?
a) To allocate new processes
b) To map files or devices into memory
c) To free memory
d) To monitor memory usage
39. Which type of memory allocation is used by the Linux kernel to manage kernel memory?
a) Dynamic memory allocation
b) Slab allocator
c) Stack allocation
d) Static allocation
40. What is the role of the Linux kernel's page table?
a) To allocate disk space
 b) To handle I/O operations
c) To translate virtual memory addresses to physical addresses
d) To store system configurations
41. What is the purpose of the /proc/meminfo file in Linux?
a) To provide detailed information about memory usage
b) To display disk usage
c) To control memory allocation
d) To log memory errors
42. What does the slab allocator in Linux do?
a) Allocates swap space
b) Allocates virtual memory
c) Allocates kernel memory in slabs for better performance
d) Frees memory
43. What happens when the system's RAM is full and there is no available swap space?
a) The system may experience a crash or out-of-memory error
b) The system will automatically reboot
c) The kernel will shutdown
d) The system will stop using virtual memory
44. How does Linux ensure that processes don't access memory they shouldn't?
a) By using disk quotas
b) Through memory protection mechanisms
c) By restricting system calls
d) By encrypting memory
45. What is the result of an out-of-memory (OOM) condition in Linux?
a) The system will automatically restart
b) The kernel may kill processes to free memory
c) The system will freeze
d) The kernel will allocate more swap space
46. Which of the following is a consequence of excessive swapping in Linux?
a) Increased CPU performance
b) Increased RAM usage
c) Decreased system performance
d) Better resource allocation
47. What is the swapon command used for in Linux?
a) To enable swap space
b) To monitor memory usage
c) To change the swap size
d) To allocate physical memory
48. Which of the following system calls is used in Linux to release memory?
a) munmap()
b) malloc()
c) malloc_free()
d) free_mem()
49. What happens when Linux is using memory overcommit?
a) The system allows processes to allocate more memory than is physically available
b) The system terminates all processes
 c) The system prioritizes system memory
d) The system automatically increases physical memory
50. How does the Linux kernel handle large memory pages?
a) By using huge pages
b) By ignoring memory page sizes
c) By limiting the number of pages used
d) By creating smaller pages
51. What is the drop_caches command used for in Linux?
a) To release swap space
b) To free up cache memory
c) To release memory pages
d) To check memory allocation
52. How does Linux handle memory fragmentation at the user level?
a) By using swap space
b) By allocating large blocks of memory
c) By using heap allocation
d) By ignoring fragmentation
53. What is the effect of increasing the vm.overcommit_memory parameter in Linux?
a) It changes the behavior of memory allocation and overcommit handling
b) It increases the size of virtual memory
c) It reduces memory usage
d) It decreases memory swapping
54. What does kmem refer to in Linux memory management?
a) Kernel memory
b) Cache memory
c) Virtual memory
d) Swapping memory
55. Which of the following is used to identify the amount of swap used in Linux?
a) ps aux
b) swapon -s
c) df -h
d) free -m
56. How does the Linux kernel manage memory on 64-bit systems?
a) It limits virtual memory to 2GB
b) It allows for a larger address space, improving memory management
c) It uses a 32-bit memory model
d) It doesn't use virtual memory
57. Which of the following is a tool used to check memory usage in Linux?
a) top
b) uname
c) lsblk
d) lspci
58. In Linux, what is the effect of setting vm.swappiness to 0?
a) Increases swap usage
b) Reduces swap usage
 c) Increases CPU usage
d) Reduces disk usage
59. What does the free -m command show in Linux?
a) Memory usage in MB
b) System uptime
c) Disk usage in MB
d) Network usage
60. What does the oom-killer do in Linux when the system is out of memory?
a) It terminates processes to free up memory
b) It reboots the system
c) It increases swap space
d) It sends a notification to the user

Process Scheduling

61. What is the primary goal of process scheduling in an operating system?

a) To prioritize hardware resources
b) To allocate CPU time efficiently to processes
c) To allocate memory to processes
d) To manage disk space
62. Which of the following is a common type of scheduling algorithm used in operating
systems?
a) Random Scheduling
b) Round Robin Scheduling
c) Hybrid Scheduling
d) Priority-based Scheduling
63. In which scheduling algorithm does each process get an equal share of CPU time?
a) First-Come, First-Served
b) Round Robin
c) Shortest Job Next
d) Priority Scheduling
64. What does the term "preemptive scheduling" refer to?
a) Processes are scheduled based on their priority
b) The CPU is forcibly taken from a process to allocate it to another
c) Processes are scheduled when they finish their tasks
d) The longest job is selected first
65. Which of the following is true for the First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) scheduling
algorithm?
a) It prioritizes shorter jobs first
b) It is a preemptive scheduling algorithm
c) It schedules processes based on the order they arrive
d) It is used to schedule only background tasks
66. What is the advantage of the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling algorithm?
a) It reduces the process completion time for all processes
b) It minimizes the average waiting time
 c) It ensures that the system never faces starvation
d) It ensures no process is interrupted
67. What is a major disadvantage of the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling algorithm?
a) It causes a high rate of starvation for long processes
b) It may not always be feasible to know the length of the next CPU burst
c) It can cause processes to be executed in reverse order
d) It results in lower CPU utilization
68. Which of the following scheduling algorithms can cause the "convoy effect"?
a) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
b) Round Robin
c) Shortest Job First (SJF)
d) Multilevel Queue Scheduling
69. In Round Robin (RR) scheduling, what is the role of the time quantum?
a) It is the maximum time a process can run before being interrupted
b) It is the total time allocated for the entire process
c) It defines the minimum CPU time for a process
d) It is the time taken to switch between processes
70. What is the purpose of a priority-based scheduling algorithm?
a) To process jobs in the order they arrive
b) To assign CPU time based on the priority of processes
c) To round-robin the processes evenly
d) To execute jobs with the shortest burst time first
71. What is the key difference between preemptive and non-preemptive scheduling?
a) Non-preemptive scheduling does not use time quanta
b) Preemptive scheduling allows processes to be interrupted
c) Preemptive scheduling does not prioritize processes
d) Non-preemptive scheduling executes jobs without interruptions
72. What is a critical issue with non-preemptive scheduling algorithms?
a) Long processes may cause short processes to wait too long
b) Short processes are prioritized over long processes
c) It leads to high CPU utilization
d) It causes low priority processes to starve
73. What does the "waiting time" refer to in process scheduling?
a) The time spent by the process in the system
b) The total time a process spends waiting in the ready queue
c) The time a process waits for input/output operations
d) The time spent executing on the CPU
74. What is a key feature of the Multilevel Queue Scheduling algorithm?
a) It uses only one queue for all processes
b) It separates processes into different queues based on priority or type
c) It uses time quanta for all processes
d) It executes the longest process first
75. What is the role of the scheduler in process scheduling?
a) To assign memory to processes
b) To execute processes directly
 c) To decide which process gets to use the CPU next
d) To free up disk space
76. What is a possible effect of improper process scheduling?
a) Increased data storage
b) Process starvation and inefficient CPU utilization
c) Faster execution of all processes
d) Better memory management
77. What is the main disadvantage of Round Robin scheduling?
a) It may lead to high turnaround time if the time quantum is too large
b) It is too complex to implement
c) It doesn't allow for prioritizing tasks
d) It always results in lower CPU utilization
78. In a priority scheduling algorithm, what happens when two processes have the same
priority?
a) The shorter process is executed first
b) The first one to arrive is executed first
c) It can lead to a tie-breaker based on other criteria such as arrival time
d) They are executed at the same time
79. What is the "turnaround time" in process scheduling?
a) The time a process waits in the ready queue
b) The total time from submission to completion of a process
c) The time spent by the process waiting for I/O
d) The time spent by the process on the CPU
80. Which scheduling algorithm is generally best suited for time-sharing systems?
a) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
b) Shortest Job First (SJF)
c) Round Robin (RR)
d) Priority Scheduling
81. What does the "starvation" problem refer to in scheduling?
a) When lower priority processes may never get executed
b) When the CPU is under-utilized
c) When processes are scheduled in a round-robin manner
d) When all processes get executed immediately
82. Which of the following algorithms could cause the convoy effect, where shorter
processes get delayed by longer ones?
a) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
b) Round Robin
c) Shortest Job First
d) Multilevel Queue
83. What is the main advantage of the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling algorithm?
a) It minimizes the CPU time required for each process
b) It ensures the system never faces starvation
c) It minimizes the average waiting time for all processes
d) It guarantees fairness for all processes
84. What type of process scheduling algorithm is typically used in embedded systems?
a) Round Robin
 b) Fixed Priority Scheduling
c) Multilevel Queue
d) First-Come, First-Served
85. In a system using round-robin scheduling, what happens if the time quantum is set too
low?
a) Processes will execute in priority order
b) There may be too many context switches, causing overhead
c) Processes will execute quickly and efficiently
d) The system will never complete any process
86. What does "context switching" refer to in process scheduling?
a) Saving and loading the state of a process when switching between processes
b) Allocating new memory to the processes
c) Determining which process will run next
d) Swapping processes to the disk
87. Which of the following can improve the performance of a scheduling algorithm?
a) Using a non-preemptive algorithm
b) Tuning the time quantum for Round Robin
c) Allowing only one process to run at a time
d) Using a priority-based system for all processes
88. Which process scheduling algorithm is most suitable for processes with unpredictable
burst times?
a) Round Robin
b) First-Come, First-Served
c) Shortest Job First
d) Multilevel Queue
89. What is the primary benefit of priority-based scheduling?
a) It executes processes in the order they arrive
b) It ensures high-priority processes get CPU time first
c) It ensures no process waits for CPU time
d) It is easier to implement
90. How does the operating system decide the next process to execute in priority scheduling?
a) It selects the process with the highest priority value
b) It selects the process that arrived first
c) It selects the process with the shortest burst time
d) It selects the process that has the most I/O operations
91. What is the primary disadvantage of using the First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
scheduling algorithm?
a) It leads to high turnaround time
b) It can cause long waiting times for short processes
c) It always causes high CPU utilization
d) It results in equal distribution of CPU time
92. Which scheduling algorithm uses a fixed time quantum to manage the CPU?
a) Round Robin
b) First-Come, First-Served
c) Shortest Job First
d) Priority Scheduling
 93. In which scenario is the Shortest Job First (SJF) algorithm most efficient?
a) When all processes have the same burst time
b) When processes have predictable CPU bursts
c) When CPU bursts are unknown
d) When there are many I/O-bound processes
94. What is a disadvantage of round-robin scheduling with a large time quantum?
a) It leads to high CPU utilization
b) It reduces the responsiveness of the system
c) It causes short processes to be delayed
d) It causes processes to execute inefficiently
95. What is the key advantage of multilevel queue scheduling?
a) It always gives equal CPU time to processes
b) It categorizes processes based on their characteristics and uses different
scheduling algorithms for each queue
c) It uses time quanta to allocate CPU time
d) It guarantees no process waits for CPU time

Scheduling Policy

96. What is the main goal of a scheduling policy in an operating system?

a) To allocate disk space to processes
b) To determine the order in which processes get CPU time
c) To manage input/output operations
d) To prevent memory fragmentation
97. Which scheduling policy ensures that every process gets a fair share of the CPU time?
a) Round Robin Scheduling
b) First-Come, First-Served
c) Shortest Job First
d) Priority Scheduling
98. What is a characteristic of the First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) scheduling policy?
a) It prioritizes shorter jobs over longer ones
b) It executes processes in the order they arrive
c) It is always preemptive
d) It causes minimal process starvation
99. Which scheduling policy is best for real-time systems where tasks have strict deadlines?
a) Round Robin
b) Real-Time Scheduling
c) First-Come, First-Served
d) Shortest Job First
100. What is the main advantage of the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling policy?
a) It minimizes average waiting time
b) It prioritizes high-priority tasks
c) It ensures processes are executed in the order they arrive
d) It reduces the turnaround time for all processes
101. In which scheduling policy do processes with the highest priority get executed first?
a) Round Robin
 b) Priority Scheduling
c) First-Come, First-Served
d) Shortest Job First
102. What is a disadvantage of the First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) scheduling policy?
a) It leads to high average waiting time
b) It can cause long jobs to delay shorter ones
c) It causes high CPU utilization
d) It doesn't consider process priorities
103. In which scenario is Round Robin scheduling most effective?
a) When all processes have unpredictable CPU bursts
b) In time-sharing systems where fairness is essential
c) When processes have deadlines to meet
d) When jobs have varied arrival times
104. What is the issue with priority scheduling when multiple processes have the same
priority?
a) Processes are always executed in a round-robin manner
b) It may lead to ties, requiring additional criteria to break them
c) It causes starvation for low-priority processes
d) It makes the system inefficient
105. What is the main problem with non-preemptive scheduling policies?
a) They result in high CPU utilization
b) Long processes may delay short ones
c) They require more system memory
d) They prevent real-time applications from running
106. Which of the following scheduling policies requires a fixed time quantum?
a) First-Come, First-Served
b) Round Robin Scheduling
c) Priority Scheduling
d) Shortest Job First
107. What is a key feature of the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling policy?
a) It executes the process with the shortest burst time first
b) It gives equal priority to all processes
c) It executes processes in the order they arrive
d) It schedules processes based on their priority
108. What is the primary advantage of a preemptive scheduling policy?
a) It ensures all processes are executed without interruption
b) It allows higher-priority processes to interrupt lower-priority ones
c) It eliminates process starvation
d) It reduces process waiting time
109. Which scheduling policy can result in process starvation?
a) Priority Scheduling
b) First-Come, First-Served
c) Round Robin
d) Shortest Job First
110. Which scheduling policy works best for systems where processes have similar burst
times?
 a) Round Robin
b) Priority Scheduling
c) Shortest Job First
d) First-Come, First-Served
111. In a priority scheduling policy, what determines the execution order of processes?
a) The priority value assigned to each process
b) The arrival time of the process
c) The process burst time
d) The length of time a process has been waiting
112. What is the main benefit of using Round Robin scheduling in a multi-tasking
environment?
a) It reduces the system's memory usage
b) It provides a fair share of CPU time to all processes
c) It ensures that processes are completed quickly
d) It ensures high-priority processes are completed first
113. What is the time quantum in Round Robin scheduling?
a) The total time a process is allowed to run before it is completed
b) The maximum time a process is allowed to run before being interrupted
c) The time taken to execute a process
d) The time taken to switch between processes
114. What happens in priority scheduling if two processes have the same priority?
a) The operating system uses additional criteria such as arrival time to decide the
execution order
b) The process that arrives first is always executed first
c) The operating system selects the shortest job first
d) Both processes are executed simultaneously
115. What is the main disadvantage of Round Robin scheduling?
a) It leads to longer process completion times
b) It can cause processes with large burst times to monopolize the CPU
c) It may cause high overhead due to frequent context switches
d) It doesn't consider process priorities
116. What type of scheduling policy is often used in embedded systems with strict timing
constraints?
a) Real-Time Scheduling
b) First-Come, First-Served
c) Round Robin Scheduling
d) Shortest Job First
117. How does the Shortest Job First (SJF) algorithm determine the next process to execute?
a) It picks the process that arrived first
b) It picks the process with the shortest expected CPU burst
c) It picks the process with the highest priority
d) It picks the process with the longest CPU burst
118. Which scheduling policy is most commonly used in time-sharing systems?
a) Priority Scheduling
b) Round Robin Scheduling
 c) First-Come, First-Served
d) Shortest Job First
119. What is the main disadvantage of the Shortest Job First (SJF) scheduling policy?
a) It may not always be feasible to know the next job's burst time
b) It causes long jobs to be executed first
c) It is a non-preemptive algorithm
d) It always leads to process starvation
120. In which of the following scenarios does priority scheduling work best?
a) When processes need to be executed in the order they arrive
b) When certain processes require faster execution than others
c) When all processes have the same CPU burst time
d) When no process has a strict deadline
121. What can be a result of improper time quantum selection in Round Robin scheduling?
a) Efficient process execution
b) High overhead due to excessive context switching or low CPU utilization
c) High process starvation
d) Process order is determined incorrectly
122. What is the role of the operating system in managing scheduling policies?
a) To select the appropriate policy based on system requirements and workloads
b) To only use a fixed scheduling policy
c) To allow users to set their own policies
d) To allocate memory to processes
123. How does priority scheduling affect low-priority processes?
a) They are always executed first
b) They may experience starvation if high-priority processes dominate
c) They are never scheduled
d) They are executed after all high-priority processes finish
124. What is the best approach to handle process starvation in priority scheduling?
a) Aging, where the priority of waiting processes increases over time
b) Preemptive scheduling
c) Equal allocation of CPU time
d) Random selection of processes
125. What is the primary characteristic of a preemptive scheduling policy?
a) Processes are not interrupted until they finish
b) Processes can be interrupted to allow higher-priority processes to run
c) Processes are scheduled based on their burst time
d) Processes are scheduled in the order they arrive

Managing I/O Devices – Accessing Files

126. What is the main role of the operating system in managing I/O devices?
a) To increase the speed of I/O operations
b) To provide an interface for processes to communicate with I/O devices
c) To allocate memory for I/O devices
d) To manage network connections
127. Which of the following is a key function of an I/O device driver?
a) To manage the memory of processes
b) To translate the system calls into device-specific operations
c) To allocate CPU time to processes
d) To provide direct access to physical hardware
128. What does the term "file system" refer to in an operating system?
a) A type of I/O device
b) A structure for organizing and managing files on storage devices
c) A system for managing network protocols
d) A method for allocating memory to processes
129. Which of the following is not a type of file access method?
a) Sequential access
b) Random access
c) Direct access
d) Indexed access
130. What is the main advantage of indexed file access?
a) It is simpler than sequential access
b) It allows for fast retrieval of records based on a key
c) It is easier to implement
d) It reduces the storage requirements
131. Which file access method reads or writes data in a specific sequence?
a) Sequential access
b) Direct access
c) Random access
d) Indexed access
132. What does a file descriptor do in file management?
a) It stores the contents of a file
b) It acts as a handle for accessing files
c) It assigns permissions to files
d) It manages the memory allocation of files
133. Which type of I/O device requires buffering to manage data transfer efficiently?
a) Disk drives
b) Network devices
c) Printers
d) Keyboard
134. What is the purpose of buffering in I/O operations?
a) To reduce the need for hardware resources
b) To store data temporarily before it is processed or written to storage
c) To increase the speed of the CPU
d) To manage the memory of the operating system
135. What is the role of the operating system in handling file permissions?
a) To ensure files are compressed properly
b) To manage read, write, and execute permissions for files
c) To store file contents securely
d) To encrypt files automatically
136. In which scenario is direct access used in file management?
a) When files are processed in a sequence
b) When a specific part of a file needs to be accessed quickly
c) When files are used for logging
d) When files are being copied to a network drive
137. What is the primary purpose of a file system's directory structure?
a) To organize files into a hierarchical structure for easy access
b) To assign access control to files
c) To store file contents securely
d) To compress files to save space
138. What is a common method for organizing files within a file system?
a) Access control
b) Directory trees
c) File fragmentation
d) Disk defragmentation
139. Which of the following best describes sequential access file systems?
a) They allow random access to any part of the file
b) They require reading files from start to end
c) They index data for fast access
d) They use a tree structure for file organization
140. What is the function of the I/O scheduler in the operating system?
a) To manage the order in which I/O requests are processed
b) To allocate memory to I/O devices
c) To maintain file integrity
d) To ensure that processes are executed in the correct order
141. Which of the following is an example of a blocking I/O operation?
a) Asynchronous data transfer
b) Synchronous data transfer where the process waits for I/O completion
c) Memory-mapped I/O
d) Direct memory access (DMA)
142. What does DMA (Direct Memory Access) do in I/O management?
a) Allows data transfer directly between memory and I/O devices without CPU
involvement
b) Involves the CPU in every data transfer operation
c) Transfers data between disk drives and network interfaces
d) Provides buffering for I/O devices
143. What is the purpose of file access control mechanisms in operating systems?
a) To organize files on storage devices
b) To prevent unauthorized access and ensure data security
c) To improve the performance of disk operations
d) To allocate space for file storage
144. Which type of file system is designed for storing files on flash-based storage devices?
a) NTFS
b) FAT32
c) EXT4
d) HFS+
 145. What is the role of file system journaling?
a) To keep track of memory allocations
b) To maintain a log of file system changes for recovery after crashes
c) To organize files into directories
d) To manage file access permissions
146. What is the first step when accessing a file in an operating system?
a) The operating system checks the file descriptor to locate the file
b) The operating system checks if the file is in memory
c) The operating system assigns a process ID to the file
d) The operating system opens the file directly
147. What is the key difference between a file system's metadata and the actual data?
a) Metadata stores information about the file, such as its name and permissions,
while the data stores the file's contents
b) Metadata stores the contents of the file
c) The data is managed by the file system, while the metadata is stored in memory
d) Metadata is used for file access control, and data is used for performance management
148. What is the purpose of a file allocation table (FAT)?
a) To manage the storage space of file systems
b) To map file blocks to their physical storage locations
c) To assign access permissions to files
d) To perform disk defragmentation
149. Which of the following file systems supports journaling for data integrity?
a) FAT32
b) NTFS
c) EXT3
d) HFS+
150. What happens when a file is deleted in a file system with a journal?
a) The file’s deletion is logged in the journal, which can be used for recovery in case
of failure
b) The file is permanently removed without logging any information
c) The file is simply hidden from the user
d) The file remains in the cache until the system reboots

iOS: Architecture and SDK Framework

151. What is the primary purpose of the iOS SDK (Software Development Kit)?
a) To provide tools and libraries for developing iOS applications
b) To manage system resources on iOS devices
c) To optimize iOS device performance
d) To monitor user activity on iOS devices
152. Which of the following is a core component of the iOS application architecture?
a) SQLite
b) UIKit
c) Java Virtual Machine
d) DirectX
153. Which layer of the iOS architecture is responsible for interacting with hardware?
a) Application Layer
b) Core Services Layer
c) Core OS Layer
d) Media Layer
154. In the iOS SDK, which framework is primarily used for building user interfaces?
a) UIKit
b) Foundation
c) Core Data
d) Core Graphics
155. What is the role of the Foundation framework in iOS?
a) It provides tools for creating the user interface
b) It is responsible for media playback
c) It provides essential data management and networking capabilities
d) It handles low-level system functions
156. Which language is primarily used for developing iOS applications?
a) C++
b) Swift
c) Objective-C
d) Python
157. What does the iOS App Store provide for developers?
a) Access to system-level services
b) A platform to distribute iOS applications to users
c) API documentation
d) Free software for building apps
158. In iOS development, what is the role of a ViewController?
a) It manages the views and handles the interaction between the user interface and
data
b) It handles networking tasks
c) It manages app settings
d) It handles low-level hardware interactions
159. What is the main purpose of the Model-View-Controller (MVC) design pattern in iOS
development?
a) To simplify network management
b) To separate data, user interface, and control logic for better maintainability
c) To manage system resources
d) To optimize app performance
160. What is the role of the Core Graphics framework in iOS?
a) It handles network operations
b) It provides 2D drawing and rendering capabilities
c) It provides tools for user authentication
d) It handles database management
161. What does the iOS SDK provide for testing applications?
a) A set of testing APIs for hardware interactions
b) Tools like Xcode for running and debugging apps
 c) Real-time user feedback collection
d) Direct access to memory allocation
162. Which component of iOS development allows apps to store and manage data locally?
a) Core Animation
b) Core OS
c) Core Data
d) Core Audio
163. What does the iOS Keychain provide?
a) Storage for large multimedia files
b) Secure storage for sensitive information like passwords
c) A framework for storing app settings
d) A tool for managing app icons
164. What is the purpose of the UIKit framework in iOS?
a) To manage media content like videos and music
b) To provide essential tools for building and managing user interfaces
c) To optimize app battery usage
d) To handle low-level system tasks
165. Which of the following is a key feature of the iOS Simulator in Xcode?
a) It allows testing iOS applications on macOS without a physical device
b) It runs iOS apps faster than on a real device
c) It helps optimize memory usage in apps
d) It is used to test network performance
166. Which type of application lifecycle does iOS use for managing the state of applications?
a) State-driven lifecycle
b) Event-driven lifecycle
c) Thread-based lifecycle
d) Process-based lifecycle
167. What is the role of the Media Layer in iOS architecture?
a) To manage hardware interactions
b) To provide low-level data storage
c) To handle multimedia processing such as audio and video
d) To manage security and authentication
168. What is the iOS App Sandbox?
a) A testing environment for third-party apps
b) A security feature that isolates apps to protect data and system resources
c) A tool for optimizing app performance
d) A cloud-based data storage solution
169. Which framework is used for managing notifications in iOS?
a) Core Data
b) User Notifications framework
c) Core Audio
d) UIKit
170. What is the primary function of the Core Location framework in iOS?
a) To manage audio and video content
b) To provide location and geographical information
 c) To manage app data and persistence
d) To handle network requests
171. Which part of the iOS SDK is used for integrating third-party libraries and frameworks?
a) SwiftUI
b) CocoaPods
c) Core Data
d) Interface Builder
172. In iOS, what does the term "delegate" refer to?
a) A design pattern where one object acts on behalf of another
b) A method used to perform background tasks
c) A framework for managing network requests
d) A UI component for displaying content
173. What does the iOS App Store require before an app is published?
a) The app must be signed and meet Apple's review guidelines
b) The app must be completely open-source
c) The app must be compatible with both iPhone and Android
d) The app must contain advertisements
174. What is the primary benefit of using Swift over Objective-C for iOS development?
a) Swift has better support for older devices
b) Swift is more modern, safer, and has better performance
c) Swift is easier to learn but offers less functionality
d) Swift is not compatible with older versions of iOS
175. Which tool is used to build and test iOS applications?
a) Xcode
b) Android Studio
c) Visual Studio Code
d) IntelliJ IDEA
176. What is the role of the AppDelegate in an iOS application?
a) It manages the app’s life cycle events and global states
b) It stores app settings and preferences
c) It handles network requests
d) It manages user authentication
177. What is the purpose of the Core Animation framework in iOS?
a) To manage memory allocation for animations
b) To provide high-performance animation support for apps
c) To handle audio playback during animations
d) To integrate animation effects into video content
178. What is the use of the HealthKit framework in iOS?
a) To handle audio processing for health-related apps
b) To manage health and fitness data
c) To track user interactions with fitness devices
d) To monitor system resources for fitness apps
179. Which of the following is a key benefit of using Auto Layout in iOS?
a) It helps create flexible, adaptive user interfaces that work on different screen
sizes
b) It speeds up the app development process
 c) It reduces the need for testing
d) It automatically detects user inputs

Media Layer

180. What is the main purpose of the Media Layer in iOS architecture?
a) To manage application data
b) To handle multimedia processing such as audio and video
c) To manage system-level tasks
d) To create and manage the user interface
181. Which framework does the Media Layer rely on to handle audio playback in iOS?
a) AVFoundation
b) UIKit
c) Core Audio
d) Core Location
182. What is Core Audio primarily used for in iOS?
a) Managing UI components
b) Handling audio playback, recording, and manipulation
c) Managing camera access
d) Handling user notifications
183. What is the role of the AVFoundation framework in iOS?
a) It provides tools for working with time-based media such as audio and video
b) It manages system resources
c) It handles background tasks
d) It optimizes battery usage
184. Which of the following is true about the Media Layer's support for video?
a) It supports video editing only
b) It supports video playback and processing via frameworks like AVKit
c) It is only used for streaming video content
d) It cannot handle live streaming
185. What type of media files can be handled by the AVPlayer in iOS?
a) Only audio files
b) Audio and video files
c) Only video files
d) Only images
186. What feature does the AVAudioPlayer provide?
a) It records audio
b) It plays audio files
c) It edits audio files
d) It streams audio files over the internet
187. Which framework provides support for video capturing in iOS?
a) AVFoundation
b) UIKit
c) Core Graphics
d) Core Animation
188. What does the Media Layer use for rendering high-quality video on iOS devices?
a) Core Animation
b) AVPlayerLayer
c) Core Data
d) Core Graphics
189. What is the role of the Media Player framework in iOS?
a) It allows manipulation of text data
b) It handles media playback, including audio and video streaming
c) It manages memory for video data
d) It encrypts media files
190. How does the Media Layer in iOS support real-time video processing?
a) It uses Core Animation to process video in real-time
b) It relies on AVFoundation for real-time video playback and processing
c) It uses UIKit for real-time video processing
d) It compresses video in real-time
191. What is a feature of the AVAsset class in iOS?
a) It allows only video playback
b) It represents an audio or video asset for manipulation
c) It manages UI components for media playback
d) It compresses audio files
192. What does the AVAudioRecorder class allow developers to do?
a) Play audio files
b) Record audio files
c) Edit audio files
d) Stream audio files
193. How does iOS handle background music playback while other apps are running?
a) Through the AVAudioSession framework
b) Through the UIKit framework
c) Through the Core Animation framework
d) Through the AVPlayer framework
194. What is the use of the MPMusicPlayerController in iOS?
a) To play audio and video from local files
b) To control the iOS device’s music library and playback
c) To edit media files
d) To record audio
195. What is the main function of the Media Layer in terms of user interaction?
a) It handles notifications
b) It provides multimedia content for users, including audio and video
c) It manages background tasks
d) It provides security services
196. How can iOS developers integrate audio effects into their apps?
a) Using Core Graphics
b) Using AVAudioEngine
c) Using UIKit
d) Using Core Animation
197. Which media type is supported by the AVPlayer for streaming content in iOS?
a) Only video
b) Both audio and video
c) Only audio
d) Only images
198. Which iOS framework is used to create media content for apps?
a) UIKit
b) AVFoundation
c) Core Animation
d) Core Graphics
199. Which feature does the Media Layer in iOS support for editing video files?
a) It cannot edit video files
b) It provides basic editing capabilities via AVFoundation
c) It allows advanced video editing through UIKit
d) It edits audio, but not video
200. How does the Media Layer enable high-quality audio playback?
a) By providing the AVAudioPlayer class for playback of various audio formats
b) By compressing audio files
c) By optimizing the battery usage during audio playback
d) By handling video playback only
201. How can developers access media from the device's photo library in iOS?
a) Using the Photos framework
b) Using the UIKit framework
c) Using the Media Player framework
d) Using the Core Animation framework
202. Which class allows developers to retrieve metadata about audio and video files in iOS?
a) AVAudioPlayer
b) AVAsset
c) AVPlayer
d) AVAudioRecorder
203. What type of media can the AVQueuePlayer handle in iOS?
a) Audio files only
b) Audio and video files in a queue
c) Only video files
d) Only image files
204. What role does the Core Media framework play in iOS?
a) It provides essential media services for processing audio and video data
b) It manages video recording
c) It handles media streaming
d) It provides audio playback only
205. How does iOS ensure synchronization of audio and video during playback?
a) By adjusting the volume of audio
b) By synchronizing media data via AVFoundation
c) By buffering video content
d) By compressing audio
Services Layer in OS

206. What is the main function of the Services Layer in an operating system?
a) To manage hardware components
b) To provide system services to applications and users
c) To handle file management
d) To control user input devices
207. Which of the following is a key role of the Services Layer in OS?
a) To manage memory allocation
b) To provide system calls and interface between applications and hardware
c) To schedule processes
d) To control network connections
208. In an operating system, which layer is responsible for handling system calls?
a) Application Layer
b) Services Layer
c) Hardware Layer
d) User Layer
209. What does the Services Layer provide for applications?
a) Direct access to hardware
b) System services such as file management and process control
c) Real-time data processing
d) Virtual memory management
210. How does the Services Layer interact with the Kernel?
a) It directly manages memory
b) It facilitates communication between the application layer and the kernel
c) It handles hardware interrupts
d) It controls the network protocols
211. Which of the following is not a function of the Services Layer?
a) Handling raw hardware access
b) Providing system call interfaces
c) File system management
d) Process management
212. The Services Layer provides services for which aspect of the operating system?
a) Both user and system applications
b) Only user applications
c) Only system applications
d) Only the kernel
213. What type of functionality does the Services Layer include?
a) Hardware management
b) Process and memory management services
c) Application programming
d) User interface services
214. Which of these is a responsibility of the Services Layer in an operating system?
a) Direct hardware control
b) Providing APIs for system-level operations like file handling
 c) Managing the graphical user interface
d) Performing user-level applications execution
215. How does the Services Layer benefit applications?
a) It manages user permissions
b) It abstracts complex system functions for easier application access
c) It handles input devices directly
d) It monitors system performance
216. The Services Layer typically provides which type of interfaces for applications?
a) Hardware-specific APIs
b) System call interfaces for communication with the kernel
c) Network protocols
d) Graphics rendering libraries
217. Which service in the OS is typically managed by the Services Layer?
a) Memory allocation
b) File management and input/output operations
c) Hardware interrupts
d) System booting process
218. Which of these is an example of a service provided by the Services Layer?
a) CPU scheduling
b) File system management
c) Direct hardware access
d) Network routing
219. What role does the Services Layer play in process management?
a) It directly schedules CPU tasks
b) It provides the services required for process creation and management
c) It prioritizes network packets
d) It executes applications
220. What happens when an application makes a system call in an OS?
a) The kernel handles the hardware directly
b) The Services Layer provides the necessary system services to fulfill the call
c) The application runs independently of the OS
d) The user is notified about the system state
221. In the OS architecture, which component communicates with the Services Layer for
hardware access?
a) User interface
b) Kernel
c) Device drivers
d) Application programs
222. Which of the following best describes the role of system services in an OS?
a) Hardware control
b) Execution of system functions like process management and I/O operations
c) User input processing
d) Direct manipulation of graphics
223. Which layer of the operating system is responsible for translating system calls into
actions?
a) Services Layer
 b) Application Layer
c) Hardware Layer
d) User Layer
224. How does the Services Layer contribute to system security?
a) It directly monitors system resources
b) It provides access control mechanisms and security services
c) It manages network security protocols
d) It controls user interface permissions
225. What would happen if the Services Layer was not present in an operating system?
a) The system would crash
b) Applications would have to interact directly with hardware
c) The OS would be unable to manage memory
d) The kernel would become unnecessary

Core OS Layer

226. What is the primary role of the Core OS Layer in an operating system?
a) To provide graphical user interfaces
b) To manage hardware resources and provide system services
c) To handle user input and output
d) To provide access to file systems
227. Which of the following is a function of the Core OS Layer?
a) Running user applications
b) Managing memory, CPU, and device resources
c) Interfacing with the user
d) Managing the network protocol stack
228. The Core OS Layer is directly responsible for:
a) Providing system utilities to users
b) Resource management, such as CPU scheduling and memory management
c) Running background services
d) Handling user interface events
229. Which of these components is part of the Core OS Layer?
a) File management utilities
b) Kernel
c) User application programs
d) Graphics libraries
230. Which of the following best describes the function of the Core OS Layer?
a) It provides the fundamental management of system resources and hardware
b) It offers user-level services
c) It controls the execution of user programs
d) It provides network communication
231. Which service is typically handled by the Core OS Layer?
a) Managing graphical interfaces
b) Process scheduling and memory management
c) Handling user input events
d) Executing application programs
232. What is the relationship between the Core OS Layer and the Kernel?
a) The Core OS Layer manages application programs
b) The Core OS Layer includes the Kernel, which manages system resources
c) The Kernel is responsible for file management
d) The Core OS Layer handles user interfaces
233. The Core OS Layer directly interacts with:
a) Network protocols
b) Hardware components like CPU, memory, and storage devices
c) User applications
d) Graphics rendering engines
234. Which of the following is the most critical component of the Core OS Layer?
a) Shell
b) Kernel
c) User interface
d) File system manager
235. In an operating system architecture, the Core OS Layer is responsible for:
a) Handling network communications
b) Direct management of system hardware resources
c) Running application software
d) Controlling the display output
236. Which layer in the OS architecture is responsible for direct hardware management?
a) Application Layer
b) Core OS Layer
c) User Interface Layer
d) File System Layer
237. What does the Core OS Layer manage in terms of CPU?
a) Data visualization
b) Process scheduling and execution
c) Network data routing
d) User interface interaction
238. Which of the following is not managed by the Core OS Layer?
a) Memory management
b) Network connections
c) Process control
d) Device management
239. Which is the primary role of the Core OS Layer's kernel?
a) Running user applications
b) Managing system resources like CPU, memory, and I/O devices
c) Displaying user interfaces
d) Handling external network communications
240. The Core OS Layer interacts with which of the following?
a) User applications
b) System hardware and device drivers
c) Graphical user interfaces
d) Network protocol stack
241. The Core OS Layer is crucial for:
a) Resource allocation and task scheduling
b) Providing application interfaces
c) Network management
d) Running databases
242. What is the function of the Core OS Layer in relation to system processes?
a) To handle user interactions
b) To manage process scheduling and execution
c) To provide network services
d) To display user interfaces
243. Which of the following services is NOT provided by the Core OS Layer?
a) Memory allocation
b) File organization and user file access
c) Process management
d) Device management
244. How does the Core OS Layer interact with the hardware?
a) By interpreting user commands
b) By using device drivers and kernel functions to manage hardware
c) By providing network communication
d) By creating graphical outputs
245. The Core OS Layer ensures that:
a) Users can interact with applications directly
b) System resources are efficiently managed across multiple processes
c) Network services are available
d) Files are organized in a user-friendly manner
246. Which layer does the Core OS Layer directly communicate with for hardware
management?
a) Hardware Layer
b) Application Layer
c) File System Layer
d) User Interface Layer
247. What part of the operating system is contained in the Core OS Layer?
a) User applications
b) The kernel and essential system services
c) Network protocols
d) Graphics management libraries
248. Which of these activities is performed by the Core OS Layer?
a) Running user-level programs
b) Managing interrupts and hardware communication
c) Providing security services
d) Displaying graphical interfaces
249. What key feature does the Core OS Layer provide for resource management?
a) It allocates resources like CPU time and memory to different processes
b) It organizes user files into directories
c) It controls user login authentication
d) It provides network connectivity
 250. Which of these is an example of an action handled by the Core OS Layer?
a) Application-specific tasks
b) Process creation, scheduling, and termination
c) User authentication
d) Network traffic management

Topic: File System

251. What is the primary purpose of a file system?

a) To provide network services
b) To manage how data is stored and retrieved on storage devices
c) To manage CPU resources
d) To execute application programs
252. Which of the following is NOT a function of a file system?
a) Allocating disk space
b) Managing CPU scheduling
c) Organizing data into files and directories
d) Providing access control to files
253. In a file system, what is the purpose of the file allocation table (FAT)?
a) To manage file permissions
b) To map the physical location of files on the storage medium
c) To monitor file access time
d) To organize files into directories
254. Which of the following is a typical file system operation?
a) Compiling programs
b) Creating, deleting, and accessing files
c) Scheduling tasks for CPU execution
d) Managing hardware resources
255. Which of the following file systems is used in Windows operating systems?
a) ext4
b) NTFS
c) HFS+
d) F2FS
256. Which of the following best describes a file system?
a) A method for organizing and storing files on a storage device
b) A programming language used to create files
c) A protocol for transferring files over a network
d) A hardware component responsible for storing data
257. A file system is responsible for:
a) Running system processes
b) Organizing and managing files on storage devices
c) Managing network connections
d) Handling user input/output
258. What is the role of the directory structure in a file system?
a) To define the permissions for file access
b) To organize files into a hierarchical structure
 c) To manage file allocation
d) To execute system commands
259. Which of these file systems supports file permissions?
a) FAT32
b) NTFS
c) exFAT
d) FAT16
260. What does the file control block (FCB) contain?
a) The file's content
b) Metadata about the file, including its size, location, and access permissions
c) The operating system's kernel
d) The directory structure
261. In a file system, what is the file extension used for?
a) To determine the file's location on disk
b) To identify the file type and format
c) To control file access
d) To organize files in directories
262. Which of the following is an example of a file system used in Linux?
a) NTFS
b) ext4
c) APFS
d) HFS+
263. A file system may implement which of the following strategies to optimize
performance?
a) Compression of files
b) Disk block allocation strategies such as contiguous or linked allocation
c) Automatic file deletion
d) User interface customization
264. What does the term "mounting" refer to in a file system?
a) Installing a new application
b) Attaching a file system to a specified directory in the operating system
c) Compressing files for storage
d) Encrypting files for security
265. In a file system, what is the main purpose of file fragmentation?
a) To improve access speed by clustering related files
b) To reduce wasted space on the disk by storing parts of files in different locations
c) To enhance file security by splitting the file into multiple parts
d) To enable concurrent access by multiple processes
266. Which of the following is a characteristic of a journaling file system?
a) Files are encrypted automatically
b) It keeps a log of changes to the file system to improve recovery after crashes
c) Files are compressed by default
d) It uses a distributed architecture for file storage
267. The "inode" in a Unix-based file system refers to:
a) A directory entry
b) A data structure that stores information about a file, excluding its name
 c) The content of a file
d) The disk partition where the file is stored
268. Which of the following is an advantage of the hierarchical directory structure in a file
system?
a) It allows direct access to file contents without opening them
b) It helps organize files in a tree-like structure for easy management
c) It improves the speed of file transfers
d) It enables encryption of files
269. Which file system structure is typically used for managing large files with large
numbers of records?
a) FAT
b) B-tree
c) Linked list
d) Queue
270. Which of these features is provided by modern file systems to ensure data integrity?
a) File access encryption
b) Transactional logging or journaling
c) Cloud synchronization
d) File versioning
271. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a distributed file system?
a) It allows multiple machines to share files over a network
b) It operates on a single machine and does not support network access
c) It hides the physical location of files from users
d) It provides redundancy and fault tolerance
272. In the context of file systems, what does "block size" refer to?
a) The amount of space a file takes on disk
b) The fixed-size unit of data that the file system uses to store files
c) The total size of the file system
d) The number of files in a directory
273. What does the file system do when a file is deleted?
a) It permanently erases the file content
b) It removes the file from the directory structure and marks its space as available
c) It moves the file to a backup location
d) It compresses the file to save space
274. What is the main difference between FAT and NTFS file systems?
a) NTFS supports file compression, FAT does not
b) NTFS supports advanced features like file permissions and encryption, FAT does
not
c) FAT is faster for large files, NTFS is slower
d) NTFS is only used on Linux systems
275. Which of the following file systems is commonly used in Mac OS?
a) FAT32
b) HFS+
c) NTFS
d) ext4