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Computer Fundamentals Basic Notes in English

The document provides an overview of computers, including their definitions, functions, and generations, from the first generation using vacuum tubes to the current developments in artificial intelligence. It outlines the major historical milestones in computing, such as the invention of the abacus, ENIAC, and the introduction of microprocessors. Additionally, it discusses the components of a computer system, including hardware, software, and user interaction, along with input devices like keyboards.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
7 views118 pages

Computer Fundamentals Basic Notes in English

The document provides an overview of computers, including their definitions, functions, and generations, from the first generation using vacuum tubes to the current developments in artificial intelligence. It outlines the major historical milestones in computing, such as the invention of the abacus, ENIAC, and the introduction of microprocessors. Additionally, it discusses the components of a computer system, including hardware, software, and user interaction, along with input devices like keyboards.

Uploaded by

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What is Computer?
Definitions of computer –

a) Computer is an electronic machine which collects input, performs processing then gives
desired result or output.
INPUT – PROCESS - OUTPUT
Computer is an advanced electronic device that takes raw data as input from the user and
processes these data under the control of set of instructions (called program) and gives the result
(output) and saves output for the future use. It can process both numerical and non-numerical
(arithmetic and logical) calculations.

A computer has four functions:

a. accepts data Input

b. processes data Processing

c. produces output Output

d. stores results Storage

Input :
INPUT – The data and instructions that we give to computer are called inputs.

PROCESSING – Performing Mathematical and logical operations on data is called


processing.

OUTPUT – the result of data processing that we get from computer are called output.

Computer System
All of the components of a computer system can be summarized with the simple equations.
COMPUTER SYSTEM = HARDWARE + SOFTWARE+ USER

• Hardware = Internal Devices + Peripheral Devices

All physical parts of the computer (or everything that we can touch) are known as Hardware.

• Software = Programs

Software gives "intelligence" to the computer.

• USER = Person, who operates computer.

Features of Computer:-

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 Processor
 speed
 reliability
 accuracy
 automation
 diligence
 consistency
 no.feelings

Generations of Computers
Each generation of computer is characterized by a major technological development that fundamentally
changed the way computers operate, resulting in increasingly smaller, cheaper, more powerful and more
efficient and reliable devices.

First Generation (1940-1956) Vacuum Tubes

First generation computers relied on machine language, the lowest-level programming language
understood by computers, to perform operations, and they could only solve one problem at a time.
Input was based on punched cards and paper tape, and output was displayed on printouts.

The UNIVAC and ENIAC computers are examples of first-generation computing devices. The UNIVAC
was the first commercial computer delivered to a business client, the U.S. Census Bureau in 1951.

Second Generation (1956-1963) Transistors

Second-generation computers moved from cryptic binary machine language to symbolic, or


assembly, languages, which allowed programmers to specify instructions in words. High-level
programming languages were also being developed at this time, such as early versions of COBOL
and FORTRAN. These were also the first computers that stored their instructions in their memory,
which moved from a magnetic drum to magnetic core technology.

Third Generation (1964-1971) Integrated Circuits

The development of the integrated circuit was the hallmark of the third generation of computers.
Transistors were miniaturized and placed on silicon chips, called semiconductors, which drastically
increased the speed and efficiency of computers.

Instead of punched cards and printouts, users interacted with third generation computers through
keyboards and monitors and interfaced with an operating system, which allowed the device to run
many different applications at one time with a central program that monitored the memory.

Fourth Generation (1971-Present) Microprocessors

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The microprocessor brought the fourth generation of computers, as thousands of integrated circuits
were built onto a single silicon chip. What in the first generation filled an entire room could now fit
in the palm of the hand. The Intel 4004 chip, developed in 1971, located all the components of the
computer—from the central processing unit and memory to input/output controls—on a single
chip.

In 1981 IBM introduced its first computer for the home user, and in 1984 Apple introduced the
Macintosh. Microprocessors also moved out of the realm of desktop computers and into many
areas of life as more and more everyday products began to use microprocessors.

Fifth Generation (Present and Beyond) Artificial Intelligence


Fifth generation computing devices, based on artificial intelligence, are still in development, though
there are some applications, such as voice recognition, that are being used today. The use of
parallel processing and superconductors is helping to make artificial intelligence a reality. Quantum
computation and molecular and nanotechnology will radically change the face of computers in
years to come. The goal of fifth-generation computing is to develop devices that respond to
natural language input and are capable of learning and self-organization.
Abacus to ENIAC (Electronic Numerical Integrator And Calculator): highlights in the
history of computing

 1300 The abacus, using beads strung on wires and mounted in a frame, was in widespread use in China.
 1500 The quipu, a system of knotted strings, was in extensive use by Peruvian Incas.

 1614 John Napier described logarithms.

 1617 Napier described his calculating rods, or "bones," in a book published the year he died.

 1623 Wilhelm Schickard, in a letter to Johannes Kepler, gave the first known description of an automatic
adding machine.

 1642 Blaise Pascal invented an adding machine; it is the oldest surviving example of a true adding
machine where tens carry.

 1673 Gottfried Wilhelm Leibniz's calculator mechanized multiplica tion as well as addition.

 1803 Joseph Marie Jacquard began work on an automatic loom that used punched cards to control the
manufacturing process.

 1822 Charles Babbage completed a model of the difference engine, a device that linked adding and
subtracting mechanisms to one another to calculate the values of more complex mathematical functions.
Charles Babbage known as father of computer.

 1834 Babbage turned from construction of the difference engine to a far more ambitious analytical
engine: a machine that embodied in its design most of the features of a modern digital computer.

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 1843 Ada Augusta, Countess of Lovelace, published a description of Babbage's analytical engine that
incorporated many of the concepts of modern computer programming. Ada Lovelance known as first
computer programmer.

 1853 The Scheutz difference engine, the world's first printing calculator, was completed.
 1893 The Millionaire calculator, introduced in Switzerland, allowed direct multiplication by any digit and
was used by government agencies and scientists, especially astronomers, well into the 20th century.
 1928 IBM adopted the 80-column punched card, the standard for the next 50 years.
 1930 Vannevar Bush of MIT developed the differential analyzer, a large analog computer.
 1942 J. Presper Eckert and John W. Mauchly, of the University of Pennsylvania, proposed an electronic
version of the Bush differential analyzer for the Army, which would operate digitally instead of by analog
means. The proposal led to the creation of the ENIAC.
 1943 Electromechanical Bombes were built in Britan and the U.S. to decipher German messages
encrypted by Enigma.
 1945 The ENIAC was completed and tested at the Moore School of Electrical Engineering, University of
Pennsylvania.
 1946 February 14: The public unveiling of the ENIAC took place in Philadelphia.

ENIAC - Electronic Numerical Integrator and Calculator; began construction in 1943 and completed
in 1946. Occupied about 1,800 square feet and used about 18,000 vacuum tubes, weighing almost 50
tons. ENIAC created to help with the war efforts against German forces.

UNIVAC - Universal Automatic Computer; A trademark of Unisys corporation; it was released in 1951
and 1952. UNIVAC contains thousands of vacuum tubes that utilize punch cards and switches.

Computer History Computer History Computer History


Year/Enter Inventors/Inventions Description of Event
First freely programmable
1936 Konrad Zuse - Z1 Computer
computer.
John Atanasoff & Clifford Berry Who was first in the computing
1942
ABC Computer biz is not always as easy as ABC.
Howard Aiken & Grace Hopper
1944 The Harvard Mark 1 computer.
Harvard Mark I Computer
John Presper Eckert & John W.
1946 Mauchly 20,000 vacuum tubes later...
ENIAC 1 Computer
Frederic Williams & Tom Kilburn
Baby and the Williams Tube turn
1948 Manchester Baby Computer & The
on the memories.
Williams Tube
No, a transistor is not a
John Bardeen, Walter Brattain &
computer, but this invention
1947/48 Wiliam Shockley
greatly affected the history of
The Transistor
computers.
John Presper Eckert & John W.
First commercial computer &
1951 Mauchly
able to pick presidential winners.
UNIVAC Computer
1953 International Business Machines IBM enters into 'The History of

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IBM 701 EDPM Computer Computers'.


John Backus & IBM
The first successful high level
1954 FORTRAN Computer Programming
programming language.
Language
The first bank industry computer
Stanford Research Institute, Bank of
1955 - also MICR (magnetic ink
America, and General Electric
(In Use 1959) character recognition) for reading
ERMA and MICR
checks.
Jack Kilby & Robert Noyce
1958 Otherwise known as 'The Chip'
The Integrated Circuit
Steve Russell & MIT The first computer game
1962
Spacewar Computer Game invented.
Douglas Engelbart Nicknamed the mouse because
1964
Computer Mouse & Windows the tail came out the end.
1969 ARPAnet The original Internet.
The world's first available
1970 Intel 1103 Computer Memory dynamic RAM chip.

Faggin, Hoff & Mazor


1971 The first microprocessor.
Intel 4004 Computer Microprocessor
Alan Shugart &IBM Nicknamed the "Floppy" for its
1971
The "Floppy" Disk flexibility.
Robert Metcalfe & Xerox
1973 Networking Networking.
The Ethernet Computer
Scelbi & Mark-8 Altair & IBM 5100
1974/75 The first consumer computers.
Computers
Apple I, II & TRS-80 & Commodore
1976/77 More first consumer computers.
Pet Computers
Dan Bricklin & Bob Frankston Any product that pays for itself in
1978
VisiCalc Spreadsheet Software two weeks is a surefire winner.
WordStar Software Word
1979 Seymour Rubenstein & Rob Barnaby
Processors.
IBM From an "Acorn" grows a
1981
The IBM PC - Home Computer personal computer revolution
From "Quick And Dirty" comes
Microsoft
1981 the operating system of the
MS-DOS Computer Operating System
century.
The first home computer with a
1983 Apple Lisa Computer
GUI, graphical user interface.
The more affordable home
1984 Apple Macintosh Computer
computer with a GUI.
Microsoft begins the friendly war
1985 Microsoft Windows
with Apple.
SERIES TO BE CONTINUED

Computer in India: -

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Even though the world got introduced to the computer technology in late forties, India bought its
first computer in 1956 for a princely sum of Rs 10 lakh. It was called HEC-2M and was installed at
Calcutta’s Indian Statistical Institute. It was nothing more than a number crunching machine and
was huge in size. The dimensions of this monster were 10 ft in length, 7 ft in breadth and 6 ft in
height. It played a critical role in formulating annual and five-year plans by the planning
commission, and in top-secret projects of India’s nuclear program. Moreover, it went on to turn out
India’s first generation of computer professionals. It was at least ten thousand times slower in
solving even simple problems than today’s machines. But it set the stage for the development of
computers in India.

Major parts of the Computer

Input Devices

A device that can be used to insert data into a computer or other computational device is
known as Input device.

Keyboard: - it is an input device. it is used to do typing of alphabets and


numbers it looks like at ordinary type writer. It contains 101 or 104 keys.

The buttons on the keyboard can be classified: -

Alphabet keys

Numeric keys

Special character keys

Special keys.

Function keys

Alphabet keys: - those keys which are used to do typing of letters ‘A’ to
‘Z’ called alphabetic keys

Numeric keys: - those keys which are used to do typing of digits ‘0’ to 9
are called numeric keys.

Special character keys : -those keys which are used to do typing of


special symbols +,-,x,/ etc are called special character keys

Special keys: - those keys which are used to send special signals to the
CPU are called special keys

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Function keys: -there are 12 keys labeled as F1 to F12 are present at the
first row of the keyboard. Those keys are used as shortcut of instructions
the function (work) at these keys depends upon the software being used.
These keys are also called programmable keys.

***************special keys and their work ***********************

Enter keys:- this keys used to move cursor to the beginning of next line or
to get result of an instructions.

Space bar: - this key is used to put blank s pace between two words.

Back space: -this key is used to erase the character which is lost of
current cursor position.

Caps lock: -this key is used to do typing of capital letter it is also called
toggle key when it pressed for first time it is turned on and when it is
pressed again it is turned off.

Cursor control keys:- these keys are used to move cursor the pointing
direction.

Home keys: - this keys move cursor to the beginning of first line.

End key: - this keys move cursor to the end of line.

1. Mouse
2. Keyboard

4. Digital
3. Scanner
Camera

5. Web
6. Joysticks
Camera

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8. Touch
7. Track Ball
Pad/ Screen

10. Bar Code


9. Light Pen
Reader

11. 12. Graphics


Microphone Tablets

14. Optical
Mark Reader
13. Magnetic
(Used for
Ink Character
Answer-
Reader (Used
Sheet
in Bank)
Marking
Purpose)

15. Magnetic
Card Reader
(Used in 16. Biometric
Shops, Devices
Colleges,
Stations etc)

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17. Bluetooth

Processor
CENTRAL PROCESSING UNIT (CPU)

The main unit inside the computer is the CPU. This unit is responsible for all events inside the
computer. It controls all internal and external devices, performs arithmetic and logic operations.
The CPU (Central Processing Unit) is the device that interprets and executes instructions.

Architecture of Computer

CPU=ALU + Registers + Control Unit.

ALU (Arithmetic Logic Unit): -


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ALU is a digital circuit that calculates an arithmetic operation (e.g., addition, subtraction) and logic
operations between two numbers; the fundamental building block of the Central Processing Unit
(CPU) or a computer

Functions of ALU: -

The arithmetic-logic unit (ALU) performs all arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction,
multiplication, and division) and logic operations. Logic operations test various conditions
encountered during processing and allow for different actions to be taken based on the results. The
data required to perform the arithmetic and logical functions are inputs from the designated CPU
registers and operands.

Control Unit: -

The control unit maintains order within the computer system and directs the flow of
traffic (operations) and data. The control unitselects one program statement at a time from
theprogram storage area, interprets the statement, and sends the appropriate electronic
impulses to the arithmetic-logic unit and storage section to cause them to carry out the instruction

1. 2.
Monitor Printer

3. 4.
Speaker Projector

5.
Plotter

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Output Devices

Any machine capable of representing information from a computer is known as output device. This
includes display screens, printers, plotters, and synthesizers.

Output devices are two types:

1. Hard Copy devices: -

Hard copy is a relatively permanent form of output that can be read immediately or stored for later
use, such as paper. Printers are the most common hard copy output devices.

2. Soft Copy devices: -

Soft copy is a transient form of output, for example, text on a screen display. It is lost if the
computer is turned off unless it is saved in the main memory or on a disk.

Printer: -

A device that prints text or illustrations on paper is known as printer. They are broadly categorized in to
two types, they are

1. Impact Printer

To create text or image by physically making the print head to press the ink ribbon and cause the ink
deposition on the paper in desired form is called impact type. Normally it is quite louder in nature when
compared to other types of printers. The well known example for impact type is Dot Matrix and Daisy
wheel.

Dot Matrix Printer: -

A type of printer that produces characters and illustrations by striking pins against an ink ribbon to
print closely spaced dots in the appropriate shape. Dot-matrix printers are relatively expensive and
do not produce high-quality output.

Dot-matrix printers vary in two important characteristics:

Speed:

Given in characters per second (cps), the speed can vary from about 50 to over 500 cps. Most dot-
matrix printers offer different speeds depending on the quality of print desired.

Print Quality:

Determined by the number of pins (the mechanisms that print the dots), it can vary from 9 to 24.
The best dot-matrix printers (24 pins) can produce near letter-quality type.

1. Non-Impact Type

This produce text or images on paper without striking the paper physically are called as non-impact
type. The well known example of this type is Thermal printer, lasers and inkjets.

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Laser Printer: -

A type of printer that utilizes a laser beam to produce an image on a drum. The light of the laser
alters the electrical charge on the drum wherever it hits. The drum is then rolled through a
reservoir of toner. One of the chief characteristics of laser printers is their resolution — how
many dots per inch (dpi) they lay down. The available resolutions range from 300 dpi at the low
end to 1,200 dpi at the high end.

Inkjet Printer: -

A type of printer that works by spraying ionized ink at a sheet of paper. Magnetized plates in the
ink’s path direct the ink onto the paper in the desired shapes. Ink-jet printers are capable of
producing high quality print approaching that produced by laser printers. A typical ink-jet printer
provides a resolution of 300 dots per inch, although some newer models offer higher
resolutions.

Plotter: -

A computer output device that draws graphs or pictures, usually by moving a pen. An output device that
draws graphs and other pictorial images on paper, sometimes using attached pens; to plod or totter,
move casually and lazily.

Dump Terminal: -

A display monitor that has no processing capabilities is an example of dump terminal. A dumb terminal
is simply an output device that accepts data from the CPU.

VDU (Visual Display Unit): -


Short for visual display unit, the old term for display monitors. The older VDUs included a CRT, a serial
port to connect to a main computer, and a keyboard. It is a soft copy output device.

Monitor:-

A monitor or display (also called screen or visual display unit) is an electronic visual display for
computers. The monitor comprises the display device, circuitry, and an enclosure. The display device in
modern monitors is typically a thin film transistor (TFT), liquid crystal display (LCD), thin panel, while
older monitors use a cathode ray tube (CRT) about as deep as the screen size.

Cathode Ray Tube (CRT): -

The first computer monitors used cathode ray tubes (CRT). Until the early 1980s, they were known as
video display terminals and were physically attached to the computer and keyboard. The monitors were
monochrome, flickered and the image quality was poor.

Liquid Crystal Display (LCD): -

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A liquid crystal display (LCD) is a flat panel display, electronic visual display, or video display that uses
the light modulating properties of liquid crystals (LCs). LCs do not emit light directly.

LCDs are used in a wide range of applications, including computer monitors, television, instrument
panels, aircraft cockpit displays, signage, etc. They are common in consumer devices such as video
players, gaming devices, clocks, watches, calculators, and telephones. LCDs have replaced cathode ray
tube (CRT) displays in most applications.

Thin-Film Transistor: -

A thin-film transistor (TFT) is a special kind of field-effect transistor made by depositing thin films of a
semiconductor active layer as well as the dielectric layer and metallic contacts over a supporting
substrate. A common substrate is glass, since the primary application of TFTs is in liquid crystal displays.
This differs from the conventional transistor where the semiconductor material typically is the substrate,
such as a silicon wafer.

Storage Devices
Devices used to store data that can be retrieved later.

1. Primary memory (main memory)

Primary storage, also known as main storage or memory, is the main area in a computer in
which data is stored for quick access by the computer’s processor. On today’s smaller
computers, especially personal computers and workstations, the term random access
memory (RAM) - or just memory - is used instead of primary or main storage

A. RAM (Random Access Memory/

Read-Write Memory)

Pronounced ramm, acronym for random access memory, a type of computer memory that can be
accessed randomly; that is, and any byte of memory can be accessed without touching the preceding
bytes.

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There are two different types of RAM: DRAM (Dynamic Random Access Memory) and SRAM (Static
Random Access Memory).

DRAM: -

A type of physical memory used in most personal computers. The term dynamic indicates that the
memory must be constantly refreshed (reenergized) or it will lose its contents. RAM (random-access
memory) is sometimes referred to as DRAM (pronounced dee-ram) to distinguish it from static RAM
(SRAM). Static RAM is faster and less volatile than dynamic RAM, but it requires more power and is more
expensive.

SRAM: -

Short for static random access memory, and pronounced ess-ram. SRAM is a type of memory that is
faster and more reliable than the more common DRAM (dynamic RAM). The term static is derived from
the fact that it doesn’t need to be refreshed like dynamic RAM.

While DRAM supports access times of about 60 nanoseconds, SRAM can give access times as low as 10
nanoseconds.

The two types differ in the technology they use to hold data, with DRAM being the more common type.
In terms of speed, SRAM is faster. DRAM needs to be refreshed thousands of times per second while
SRAM does not need to be refreshed, which is what makes it faster than DRAM. DRAM supports access
times of about 60 nanoseconds, SRAM can give access times as low as 10 nanoseconds.

B. ROM (Read-only-memory)

ROM is a non volatile memory .It is a primary memory of computer, which stored data permanentaly.

Types of ROM

A. PROM: -

Short for programmable read-only memory, a memory chip on which data can be written only once.
Once a program has been written onto a PROM, it remains there forever. Unlike RAM, PROMs retain
their contents when the computer is turned off.

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The difference between a PROM and a ROM (read-only memory) is that a PROM is manufactured as
blank memory, whereas a ROM is programmed during the manufacturing process. To write data onto a
PROM chip, you need a special device called a PROM programmer or PROM burner. The process of
programming a PROM is sometimes called burning the PROM.

A. EPROM: -

Acronym for erasable programmable read-only memory, and pronounced ee-prom, EPROM is a special
type of memory that retains its contents until it is exposed to ultraviolet light. The ultraviolet light clears
its contents, making it possible to reprogram the memory. To write to and erase an EPROM, you need a
special device called a PROM programmer or PROM burner.

An EPROM differs from a PROM in that a PROM can be written to only once and cannot be erased

A. EEPROM: -

EEPROM short for electrically erasable programmable read-only memory. EEPROM is a special type of
PROM that can be erased by exposing it to an electrical charge. Like other types of PROM, EEPROM
retains its contents even when the power is turned off. Also like other types of ROM, EEPROM is not as
fast as RAM.

EEPROM is similar to flash memory (sometimes called flash EEPROM). The principal difference is that
EEPROM requires data to be written or erased one byte at a time whereas flash memory allows data to
be written or erased in blocks. This makes flash memory faster.

1. Secondary memory (storage devices)


Secondary memory (or secondary storage) is the slowest and cheapest form of memory. It cannot be
processed directly by the CPU. It must first be copied into primary storage (also known as RAM).

Secondary memory devices include magnetic disks like hard drives and floppy disks; optical disks such as
CDs and CD-ROM; and magnetic tapes, which were the first forms of secondary memory.

1. Secondary memory (storage devices)


Secondary memory (or secondary storage) is the slowest and cheapest form of memory. It cannot be
processed directly by the CPU. It must first be copied into primary storage (also known as RAM).

Secondary memory devices include magnetic disks like hard drives and floppy disks; optical disks such as
CDs and CD-ROM; and magnetic tapes, which were the first forms of secondary memory.

Date invented 24 December 1954

Invented by IBM team led by Rey Johnson

It is a non-volatile storage device which stores digitally encoded data on rapidly rotating platters
with magnetic surface.

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Types of HDD:

IDE: Integrated Drive Electronics. IDE drives are also known as PATA drives (Parallel advance technology
attachment)

SATA: Serial advance technology attachment

SCSI: Small Computer System Interface. SCSI is pronounced as scuzzy.

SAS: Serial Attached SCSI

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IDE / PATA (Integrated Drive Electronics Drive / Parallel Advance Technology Attachment Drive)

 IDE/PATA Drives have usually 40 pins.

 IDE/PATA Drives offer 133 MB/sec transfer rate.

 It sends 8 bit data at a time.

 PATA Cables are used to connect PATA HDD. Two drives can be connected in a single PATA
cable. One as master and other as slave. The configuration of master and slave is done by
different combination of jumpers in the HDD.

SATA (Serial Advance Technology Attachment Drive)

 SATA Drives have usually 7 pins, 4 pins in pair of two for sending and receiving data and rest 3
pins are grounded.

 SATA Drives offers generally 300MB/sec transfer rate.

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 It sends data bit by bit.

 SATA Cables are used to connect SATA HDD. Only one drive can be connected in a single SATA
cable.

SCSI (Small Computer System Interface Drive)

 SCSI Drives have usually 50 to 68 pins.

 SCSI Drive offers generally 640MB/sec transfer rate.

 These drives are not swappable.

 SCSI cables are used to connect SCSI HDD. Maximum of 16 drives can be connected in a single
scsi cable. Each HDD has a 8 bytes hexadecimal code known as WWN (world wide name) for its
identification in the cable.

SAS (Serial Attached SCSI Drive)

 SAS Drives generally offers 805 MB/sec transfer rate.

 These drives are not swappable.

 SAS Cables are used to connect SAS Drives. Maximum of 128 drives can be connected in a single
sas cable.

B. Optical Disks: CD-R, CD-RW, DVD-R, DVD-RW


B. Optical Disks: C. Pen Drive
CD-R, CD-RW,
DVD-R, DVD-RW

D. E.Floppy Disks
Zip Drive

F. Memory Cards G. External


Hard Disk

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Peripheral Devices

1. 2.
The Modem/ Switches/
Internet Hub
Adapter

3. 4.
Router TV Tuner Card

Removable Drive: -

Storage media which are designed to be removed from the computer without powering the computer
off is known as removable drive or removable media.

Pen Drive, external hard disk, memory card, optical disk, floppy disk etc are the examples of removable
media.

Pen Drive: -

It is also known as a USB drive or a thumb drive. It is a portable drive which is as small as the size of a
thumb and connects to a computer’s USB port. They are capable to store information up to as much as
32 GB.

Internal Components

1. The Mother
Board 2. Expansion Slots

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3. CMOS Battery 4. Cooling Fan

5. Network Card 6. Graphics Card

7. Power Supply
8. Memory Slots
Unit (SMPS)

Port: -

A socket in a computer or network into which a device can be plugged is known as port.

a) Serial Port
A serial port can only transmit one bit of data at a time, whereas a parallel port can transmit
many bits at once. The serial port is typically the slowest port you'll find on a PC, if you find one
at all. Most newer computers have replaced serial ports with much faster and more compatible
USB ports.
b) Parallel Port
A connector for a device that sends or receives several bits of data simultaneously by using
more than one wire is known as parallel port.
c) USB (Universal Serial Bus) Port: -
Universal Serial Bus, a connection technology for attaching peripheral devices to a computer or
other electronic machines, providing fast data exchange. Universal Serial Bus (USB) is a
specification to establish communication between devices and a host controller (usually
personal computers), developed and invented by Ajay Bhatt while working for Intel.

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Software
Software, simply are the computer programs. The instructions given to the computer in the form of a
program are called Software. Software is the set of programs, which are used for different purposes. All
the programs used in computer to perform specific task is called Software.
Software is a collection of programmes, documentation and procedures.
Software = Programmes + Documentation + Procedures
Programmes : Set of instructions
Documentation : “What is”, Documentation describes information about software such as software
names, software requirement, features and functions of software etc.
Procedures : “How to”, Procedures describe the working procedure of software i.e. how to operate
software.
SOFTWARE

Programms Documentation Procedures

Types of software
1. System software:
System software is computer software designed to operate the computer hardware and to provide and
maintain a platform for running application software.

a) Operating System Software


An operating system (OS) is software, consisting of programs and data that runs on computers and
manages the computer hardware and provides common services for efficient execution of various
application software.
Example :-
DOS, Windows XP, Windows Vista, Windows 7, Unix/Linux, MAC/OS X etc.
b) Utility Software
Utility software is system software designed to help analyze, configure,
optimize or maintain a computer. A single piece of utility software is
usually called a utility or tool.
Utility software usually focuses on how the computer infrastructure operates. Examples are-

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Windows Explorer (File/Folder Management), Windows Media Player, Anti-Virus Utilities, Disk
Defragmentation, Disk Clean, BackUp, WinZip, WinRAR etc…
1. Application software:
Application software, also known as an application, is computer software designed to help the user to
perform singular or multiple related specific tasks. Examples include enterprise software, accounting
software, office suites, graphics software, and media players.

a) Package Software

Multiple software programs that work together (or performs similar functions) and is bundled and sold
together as a software package. Examples are :-

Ms. Office 2003, Ms. Office 2007, Macromedia (Dreamweaver, Flash, Freehand), Adobe (PageMaker,
PhotoShop)

a) Tailored or Custom Software

Custom software (also known as bespoke software) is a type of software that is developed either for a
specific organization or function that differs from or is opposite of other already available softwareSAGE
(Accounting), Galileo/Worldspan (Travel) etc.

3. Computer Languages & Scripting:


a) Low Level Language

Machine languages and assembly languages are known as low-level languages because they interact
directly with the computer’s hardware using machine-oriented codes rather than English-like commands

i) Machine Level Language

ii) Assembly Language

Machine language: These language instructions are directly executed by CPU

Assembly language: The endeavor of giving machine language instructions a name structure that means
bit strings of instructions of machine language are given name here

(b) High Level Language: The user friendly language ...more natural language than assembly language.

Assembler is needed to convert assembly language into machine language

Complier is needed to convert high level to machine language.

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COBOL (COmmon Business Oriented Language), FORTRAN (FORmula TRANslation), BASIC


(Beginner’s All-purpose Symbolic Instruction Code), C, C++ etc. are the examples of High Level
Language.

Types of Computer
On the basis of working principle

a) Analog Computer
An analog computer (spelt analogue in British English) is a form of computer that uses continuous
physical phenomena such as electrical, mechanical, or hydraulic quantities to model the problem being
solved.

1. 2.
Thermometer Speedometer

3.
4.
Petrol Pump
Multimeter
Indicator

b) Digital Computer
A computer that performs calculations and logical operations with quantities represented as digits,
usually in the binary number system.

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c) Hybrid Computer (Analog + Digital)


A combination of computers those are capable of inputting and outputting in both digital and analog
signals. A hybrid computer system setup offers a cost effective method of performing complex
simulations.

On the basis of Size

a) Super Computer
The fastest type of computer. Supercomputers are very expensive and are employed for specialized
applications that require immense amounts of mathematical calculations. For example, weather
forecasting requires a supercomputer. Other uses of supercomputers include animated graphics, fluid
dynamic calculations, nuclear energy research, and petroleum exploration.

The chief difference between a supercomputer and a mainframe is that a supercomputer channels all its
power into executing a few programs as fast as possible, whereas a mainframe uses its power to
execute many programs concurrently.

b) Mainframe Computer

A very large and expensive computer capable of supporting


hundreds, or even thousands, of users simultaneously. In

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the hierarchy that starts with a simple microprocessor (in watches, for example) at the bottom and
moves to supercomputers at the top, mainframes are just below supercomputers. In some ways,
mainframes are more powerful than supercomputers because they support more simultaneous
programs. But supercomputers can execute a single program faster than a mainframe.

c) Mini Computer
A midsized computer. In size and power, minicomputers lie between workstations and mainframes. In the
past decade, the distinction between large minicomputers and small mainframes has blurred, however, as
has the distinction between small minicomputers and workstations. But in general, a minicomputer is a
multiprocessing system capable of supporting from 4 to about 200 users simultaneously.

d) Micro Computer
i. Desktop Computer: a personal or micro-mini computer sufficient to fit on a desk.

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ii. Laptop Computer: a portable computer complete with an integrated screen and keyboard. It is
generally smaller in size than a desk top computer and larger than a notebook computer.

iii. Palmtop Computer/Digital Diary /Notebook /PDAs: a hand-sized computer. Palmtops


have no keyboard but the screen serves both as an input and output device.

e) Workstations
A terminal or desktop computer in a network. In this context, workstation is just a generic term for a
user's machine (client machine) in contrast to a "server" or "mainframe."

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On the basis of Brand

 IBM/IBM Compatible Computers


 Apple/Macintosh

Booting
The process of loading the system files of the operating system from the disk into the computer memory
to complete the circuitry requirement of the computer system is called booting. The system files of MS.
DOS are:

Types of Booting:
There are two types of booting:

• Cold Booting: If the computer is in off state and we boot the computer by pressing the power switch
‘ON’ from the CPU box then it is called as cold booting.

• Warm Booting: If the computer is already ‘ON’ and we restart it by pressing the ‘RESET’ button from
the CPU box or CTRL, ALT and DEL key simultaneously from the keyboard then it is called warm booting.

How to start the Computer in Ms. Windows mode?


There is nothing special you need to start this system. Just,

1. Switch ON the Power Supply.

2. Switch ON the CPU and,

3. Switch ON the Screen (Monitor).

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How to Shutdown (Turn Off) the Computer?


Before shutting down the Computer, close all opened windows at first. Then,

1. Click on Start button.

2. Click on Shutdown (Turn Off Computer).

Then, Computer asks you:

What do you want the Computer to do?


• Standby

• Shutdown (Turn Off)

• Restart

• Restart in MS-DOS mode.

3. Choose 2nd option (i.e. Shutdown/Turn Off).

4. Click on OK.

Then, wait until the message “It’s now safe to turn off your Computer”.

5. Then, Switch Off the screen.

6. Switch Off the CPU.

7. At last, Switch Off the power supply.

NUMBER SYSTEM
There are two types of number systems. These are positional number system and non
positional number system.

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1) Positional number system -The number system in which digits change their value
according to their place is called positional number system. Such as decimal,
octal, hexadecimal and binary number systems
2) Non – positional number system - the number system in which digits do not
change their value according to their place is called non positional number
system. Such as roman number system.
BINARY NUMBER SYSTEM – a number system in which only two digits 0 and 1 are used to
write any number is called binary number system. The base of this number system is 2.

Decimal to binary conversion –

1) Division method
(a) (54)10 = (?)2

2 54 0

2. 27 1

2 13 1

2 6 0

2 3 1

(110110)2

(b) (75)10 =(1001011)2

2 75 1

2 37 1

2 18 0

2 9 1

2 4 0

2 2 0

2 80 0

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2 40 0

2 20 0

2 10 0

2 5 1

2 2 0

(1010000)2

2 105 1

2 52 0

2 26 0

2 13 1

2 6 0

2 3 1

(1101001)2

Decimal to binary

Series writing method

(a) (54)10 =(?)2

1 2 4 8 16 32

0 1 1 0 1 1

(110110)2

(b) (105)10 = (?)2

1 2 4 8 16 32 64

1 0 0 1 0 1
1

=(1101001)2

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Binary to decimal

(a) (100101)2=(?)10

= 1 X 25+ 0X24+0X23+1X22+0X21+1X20

=32 + 0+0+4+0+1 = (37)10

(b) (101011)2 =(?)10

= 1X25+0X24+1X23+0X22 +1X21+1X20

=32 + 0 + 8 + 0 + 2 + 1 =(43 )10

Series writing method to change binary number to decimal

(a) (101110)2 = (?)10


1 0 1 1 1 0

32 16 8 4 2 1

(46)10

(b) (1000100)2 = (?)10

1 0 0 0 1 0 0

64 32 16 8 4 2 1

(68)10

Example :-

Binary to decimal:-

Series writing method.

(10110)2=(?)10

=1x24+0x23+1x22+1x21+0x20

=16+0+4+2+0

=(22)10

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Octal number system: - a number system in which digits ‘0’ to ‘7’ are used to represent any
value is called octal number system.

The base of this number system is 8.

Decimal to octal conversion.

(a) (49)10=(?)8
8 49

6 =(61)

(b)(98)10=(?)8

8 98 2

812 4

(142)

Octal to decimal:-

(A)(61)8 =(?)10

=6x81+1x80

=48+1(49)10

(b)(142)8 =(?)10

1x82+4x81+2x80

=64+32+2=(98)

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Hexa decimal number system:-

A number system whose base is 16 is called hexadecimal number


system. It uses digits 0 to 9 and letter a to F represent any value.

Decimal convert to hexadecimal

10-A

11-B

12-C

13-D

14-E

15-F

(a)(28)10=(?)16

16 28 12

1 (1C)16

(b) (43)10 =(?)16


16 43 11
2 (2B)16

INTERNET
Internet:-

The Internet, sometimes called simply "the Net," is a worldwide system of computer networks - a
network of networks in which users at any one computer can, if they have permission, get
information from any other computer (and sometimes talk directly to users at other computers). It
was conceived by the Advanced Research Projects Agency (ARPA) of the U.S. government in 1969
and was first known as the ARPANet. The original aim was to create a network that would allow

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users of a research computer at one university to be able to "talk to" research computers at other
universities.

Network:-

In information technology, a network is a series of points or nodes or computers interconnected by


communication paths. Networks can interconnect with other networks and contain subnetworks.

The most common topology or general configurations of networks include the bus, star, token ring,
and mesh topologies. Networks can also be characterized in terms of spatial distance as local area
networks (LANs), metropolitan area networks (MANs), and wide area networks (WANs).

Types of Networks:-

LAN - Local Area Network

WLAN - Wireless Local Area Network

WAN - Wide Area Network

MAN - Metropolitan Area Network

SAN - Storage Area Network, System Area Network, Server Area Network, or sometimes Small Area
Network

CAN - Campus Area Network, Controller Area Network, or sometimes Cluster Area Network

PAN - Personal Area Network

DAN - Desk Area Network

LAN - Local Area Network

A LAN connects network devices over a relatively short distance. A networked office building,
school, or home usually contains a single LAN, though sometimes one building will contain a few
small LANs (perhaps one per room), and occasionally a LAN will span a group of nearby buildings.

WAN - Wide Area Network

A WAN is a geographically-dispersed collection of LANs. A network device called a router connects


LANs to a WAN. In IP networking, the router maintains both a LAN address and a WAN address.

Wireless Local Area Network –

A LAN based on WiFi wireless network technology

Metropolitan Area Network -

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A network spanning a physical area larger than a LAN but smaller than a WAN, such as a city is
known as MAN. A MAN is typically owned an operated by a single entity such as a government body
or large corporation.

Campus Area Network –

A network spanning multiple LANs but smaller than a MAN is known as CAN, such as on a university
or local business campus.

Storage Area Network –

SAN connects servers to data storage devices through a technology like Fibre Channel.

System Area Network –

It links high-performance computers with high-speed connections in a cluster configuration. It is also


known as Cluster Area Network.

Homogenous Network: -

A network running a single network layer protocol is known as Homogenous Network.

Heterogeneous Network: -

A network running multiple network layer protocols is known as Heterogeneous Network. A


heterogeneous network is a network connecting computers and other devices with different
operating systems and/or protocols. For example, local area networks (LANs) that connect Microsoft
Windows and Linux based personal computers with Apple Macintosh computers are heterogeneous.

SWAN (State Wide Area Network): -

In India, SWAN is a government-subsidized project to create a state wide area network (WAN) that
will improve government efficiency. SWAN was approved by the government of India in March 2005
and is targeted for completion in June 2010.

When the SWAN project is completed, government offices in each of India's 29 states and six union
territories will be connected and able to support National e-Governance Plan (NEGP) initiatives for
government-to-government and government-to-consumer services.

What is a Topology?

The physical topology of a network refers to the configuration of cables, computers, and other
peripherals. Physical topology should not be confused with logical topology which is the method
used to pass information between workstations.

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Network topologies are categorized into the following basic types:

1. Bus
2. Ring
3. Star
4. Tree
5. Mesh

More complex networks can be built as hybrids of two or more of the above basic topologies.

Wi-Fi (wireless fidelity)

Wi-Fi (short for "wireless fidelity") is a term for certain types of wireless local area network (WLAN)
that use specifications in the 802.11 family. The term Wi-Fi was created by an organization called
the Wi-Fi Alliance, which oversees tests that certify product interoperability. A product that passes
the alliance tests is given the label "Wi-Fi certified" (a registered trademark).

What is a Network Protocol

A protocol is a set of rules that governs the communications between computers on a network.
These rules include guidelines that regulate the following characteristics of a network: access
method, allowed physical topologies, types of cabling, and speed of data transfer.

Types of Network Protocols

1. Ethernet
2. Local Talk
3. Token Ring
4. FDDI
5. ATM

The different types of protocols are.

1. Connection oriented protocol.


2. Connection less protocols.

Example: TCP is a connection oriented protocol. UDP is a connection less protocol.

TCP/IP:- Transmission Control protocol


FTP: - File Transfer Protocol
HTTP: -Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
HTTPS: - Secure Hyper Text Transfer Protocol
UDP: - User Datagram Protocol

WWW
WWW Stands for "World Wide Web." It is important to know that this is not a synonym for the Internet.
The World Wide Web, or just "the Web," as ordinary people call it, is a subset of the Internet. The Web

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consists of pages that can be accessed using a Web browser. The Internet is the actual network of
networks where all the information resides. Things like Telnet, FTP, Internet gaming, Internet Relay Chat
(IRC), and e-mail are all part of the Internet, but are not part of the World Wide Web. The Hyper-Text
Transfer Protocol (HTTP) is the method used to transfer Web pages to your computer. With hypertext, a
word or phrase can contain a link to another Web site. All Web pages are written in the hyper-text
markup language (HTML), which works in conjunction with HTTP.
E-Mail (electronic mail or email)
E-mail (electronic mail) is the exchange of computer-stored messages by telecommunication. E-mail
messages are usually encoded in ASCII text.

However, you can also send non-text files, such as graphic images and sound files, as attachments sent
in binary streams. E-mail was one of the first uses of the Internet and is still the most popular use.
E-Mail Format in Gmail

Cc
Cc stands for
carbon copy,
which means
that whose
address
appears
after the Cc:
header
would
receive a copy of the message. Also, the Cc header would also appear inside the header of the
received message.

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Bcc
Bcc stands for blind carbon copy which is similar to that of Cc except that the Email address of
the recipients specified in this field do not appear in the received message header and the
recipients in the To or Cc fields will not know that a copy sent to these address.

Website:
A website is a collection of WebPages. A website is actually a collection of files and documents
which is saved in a server (it's a specific computer that is connected to the internet all the time).
Every file has its own address that called as URL (Uniform Resource Locators). If you want to
have a website, here are thing that you need:
Website Address (URL = Uniform Resource Locator):
There are 4 important parts of URL. The first part is called Protocol, we know it as http:// stands
for Hyper Text Transfer Protocol. The 2nd one is domain name (in many cases subdomain is
included) e.g., www.mydomain.com or www.subdomain.mydomain.com. The 3rd one is
Directory, just like a directory (folder) in your computer where the files located in specific area.
The 4th one is file name e.g., index.html or myfiles.html. Here is an example of complete
address of a website file http://www.wix.com/sachcorp/sp#!download/
E-Mail Websites
 Gmail
 Yahoo! Mail
 Rediffmail
 Sifymail
 Hotmail
Social Networking Sites
 Facebook
 Twitter
 Orkut
 LinkedIn

Search Engines
Search engines are programs that search documents for specified keywords and return a list of
the documents where the keywords were found. A search engine is really a general class of
programs; however, the term is often used to specifically describe systems like Google, Bing and
Yahoo! Search that enable users to search for documents on the World Wide Web.

Basic Computer Literacy


Quiz One

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1. Which one is not an output device?


o Printer
o Monitor
o Keyboard
o Modem
2. Which one works as an output and input device?
 Modem
 Scanner
 Mouse
 Monitor
3. All computers must have:
 Word processing software
 An operating system
 A printer attached
 A virus checking program
4. The brain of the computer is called:
 Random Access Memory or RAM
 Central Processing Unit or CPU
 Read Only Memory or ROM
 BIOS
5. An operating system is:
 Integrated software
 CD-ROM software
 Application software
 System software
6. Software is:
 A computer programA set of instructions
 All of the above
 Only in operating systems
7. One MB is equal to:
 The amount of RAM in every computer
 1 billion bytes
 1024KB
 1 thousand bytes
8. The resolution of a printer is measured in:
 Megabits
 Hz
 Dots per inch (DPI)
 Inches (diagonal)

9. Windows and Macintosh computers:


 Are both manufactured by Motorola
 Both use Intel microprocessors
 Use the same operating system
 Are not compatible

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10. A computer port is used to:


 Communicate with other computer peripherals
 Download files from the web
 Communicate with all hard drives
 Connect computers together

Quiz Two
11. Which computer is the fastest?
 PII 600MHz
 PIII 600MHz
 Pentium 600MHz
 486 Turbo
12. Which hard disk will be able to store more information?
 24MB
 2400KB
 24Gig
 240MB
13. In order for your computer to play music you need:
 A network card and speakers
 A sound card and speakers
 Nothing more than the internal speaker
 A CD-ROM drive
14. In order to access the World Wide Web you need:
 An Internet connection, an Internet Service Provider and browser software
 Only Internet Explorer or Netscape Navigator
 A modem and a browser
 Nothing. All computers can access the Internet
15. If you have two different printers attached to your computer:
 It is not possible to have two printers attached to a single computer
 You need to install a single printer driver
 You need to use application software that can recognize both printers
 You need to install two different printer drivers in order to be able to print to either
printer

16. Which file extensions indicate only graphics files?


 BMP and DOC
 JPEG and TXT
 TXT and STK
 BMP and GIF
17. Which Windows program do you use to manage folders and files?
 Windows Explorer
 Windows Accessories
 Microsoft Office
 Windows Control Panel
18. What is a URL:
 An email address

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 The title of a web site


 The address of a page on the World Wide Web
 A communication method between computers and printers
19. Which media holds more information?
 Floppy diskette
 DVD
 CD-ROM
 Zip drive
20. Which one is an email address?
 http://vianet.com/index.htm
 D:\\Email\Standard
[email protected]
 Chaminade.org/teachers/mail addresses

Quiz Three

21. CPU means


 Central Processing Unit
 Controlled Program Utilization
 Computer Programming Unit
 Computerized Processing Unit
22. Computers use a special code for representing letters and numbers, known as the
 processing code
 binary code
 CRX code
 integrated code
23. The main circuit board in the computer that connects the parts of the computer is the
 hard drive
 motherboard
 fatherboard
 main board
24. The part of the computer that processes the information is the
 floppy disk
 CD-ROM drive
 monitor
 microprocessor

25. Which of these is not an example of an input device?


 keyboard
 mouse
 hard drive
 scanner
26. Processing speed in computers is measured in
 millivolts (mV)

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 hertz (Hz)
 megahertz (MHz)
 rpm's
27. External devices such as printers and scanners plug into ___ in the back of the computer.
 RX-5's
 expansion slots
 outlets
 ports
28. Windows is
 a kind of operating system.
 a graphics display device.
 a monitor display system.
 a video game.
29. To "boot a computer" means to
 add extra drives.
 turn on the sound.
 turn it on.
 throw it out - it's outdated.
30. The hard drive in the computer is usually
 Drive A.
 Drive B.
 Drive C.
 Drive H.
31. A "byte" is
 found in the upper right corner of a window screen.
 a group of 8 bits of code.
 the capacity of a sound card.
 the part that moves on a disk drive.
32. When you click SAVE on the monitor, and there is no floppy disk in a drive, the document or
application you're using is stored
 on the RAM chips.
 on the CD-ROM drive.
 in ROM memory.
 on the hard drive.
33. Pictures on the display screen (monitor) are made up of
 pixels.
 layers of color.
 bits.
 video "packets"
34. Temporary memory is called
 RAM
 CAD
 DOS
 ROM
35. Which of these is not one of the three main functions of a microprocessor?
 fetch

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 store
 decode
 execute
36. Which of these is not an example of computer hardware?
 video card
 mouse
 CD-ROM drive
 Windows
37. To "debug" the system means to
 clean it.
 find and correct errors.
 decode it.
 set up icons.
38. A megabyte is
 1,000 bytes
 1 byte
 1 million bytes
 1 trillion bytes
39. Formatting a disk means
 installing an operating system on it.
 setting up sections on the disk to store the files in.
 cleaning the disk from any dust contaminates.
 programming the disk so data on it can't be erased.
40. A system that connects individual computers together is a(n)
 Operating system.
 Network.
 Tape drive system.
 Partnered path.
41. When you use a PC, you are using a
 Programmable console.
 Powered calculating machine.
 Personal computer.
 Processing contraption.
42. VDU stands for:
 Video Display Unit
 Visible Display Unit
 Visual Display Unit
 Video Diode Unit

Answer of Quiz 1.

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1. C 2. A 3. B 4. B 5. D 6. C 7.
C 8. C 9. D 10. A

Answer of Quiz 2.

11. B 12. C 13. B 14. A 15. C 16. D 17.


A 18. C 19. B 20. C

Answer of Quiz 3.

21. A 22. B 23. B 24. D 25. C 26. C


27. D 28. A 29. C 30. C 31. B 32.
D 33. A 34. A 35. B 36. D 37. B
38. C 39. A 40. B 41. C 42. A

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Quiz:- 4
Q.1) Which button is used to save our documents?
A. Home Button
B. Microsoft Office Button
C. Insert Button
Q.2) Which tabs on the Ribbon is used to find in the document?
A. Home Tab
B. Insert Tab
C. Review Tab
Q.3) Which tabs on the Ribbon you find the Zoom?
A. Insert Tab
B. Tools Tab
C. View Tab
Q.4) Which tabs on the Ribbon do we use to change our font size?
A. Home Tab
B. Format Tab
C. Font Tab
Q.5) What is MS Word?
A. Its is a typing tool.
B. It is a calculating tool.
C. It is a computerized tool.
Q.6) Which tabs on the Ribbon do we use to cut and paste?
A. Home Tab
B. Tools Tab
C. Edit Tab
Q.7) Choose the best definition of a Mail Merge.
A. Combining your company's mailroom with email technology.
B. The process of merging two documents into new documents.
C. A process of bulk printing addressed envelopes.
Q.8) In a Mail Merge operation, which of the following might represent the main document?
A. A Sales Brochure.
B. A Form Letter.
C. A Database of Names and Addresses.
Q.9) The ____________ indents only the first line in a paragraph.
A. First Line Indent.
B. Hanging Indent.
C. Left Indent.

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Q.10) A _________ is a popular design element used to begin in a newsletter, magazine or other
publication.
A. Drop Cap
B. Alignment
C. First Line Indent
Q.11) The simplest way to rearrange text in your document is to ____________.
A. Cutting, copying and pasting.
B. Drag and drop.
C. Type and Replace.
Q.12) Keyboard shortcut for CUT command is _________.
A. Ctrl + Z
B. Ctrl + Y
C. Ctrl + X
Q.13) You left your glasses at home and you need to update an Word Document. What will you do?
A. Ask someone else to update the spreadsheet.
B. Increase the resolution so all the screen elements are larger.
C. Increase the magnification by selecting an appropriate value from the
Zoom Command.

Q.14) Which tabs on the Ribbon use to layout the page of a document?
A. Home Tab
B. Page Layout Tab
C. Review Tab

Q.15) Which tab is the picture diagram shows?


A. Home Tab
B. Insert Tab
C. Page Layout Tab
Q.16) You use Insert Tab to put header and footer in a document.
A. True
B. False
Q.17) To make the text at the center, click Left Alignment in the Home Tab.
A. True
B. False
Q.18) You cannot save your document either in a pendrive or in a diskette.

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A. True
B. False
Q.19) To insert clipart, you need to go to Insert Tab then click Clip Art.
A. True B. False
Q.20) Becareful when you delete text from a document, because after you deleted or choose Cut,
the data is gone and you cannot get it back.
A. True
B. False
Q.21) The only way to change print margins for document is to enter the margins in the Page Set Up
dialog box.
A. True
B. False
Q.22) What button is this picture show?
A. Font Size
B. Change Case
C. Spelling and Grammar

Q.23) What button is this?


A. Copy
B. Paste
C. Format Painter

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Quiz:-5

Question 1
If you opened a document from you folder and added a new paragraph to it, how would you save the
changes that you made?

A. Select "Save As" and select a new folder and file name for it.
B. Just click the "Save" icon on the toolbar or press Ctrl + S.
C. Just close the program. It will save automatically.
D. Any of the above would work.

Question 2 "Save As" function?

A. When you are saving a document for the first time and you need to choose
a folder for the document and create a file name for it.
B. Every time you want to save something.
C. Only when working with a Microsoft Word document.
D. Only when you want to burn the file onto a CD.

Question 3
If you accidentally deleted some text from a document, and you want it back, you should:

A. Select "Redo" or press Ctrl +Y.


B. Immediately close the document and reopen it.
C. Restart the computer.
D. Select "Undo" or press Ctrl + Z.

Question 4
Why do you think you should log-off of your computer when you leave class?

A . You should not log-off your computer when you leave class.
B. To prevent it from getting a virus.
C. If you don't log-off, anyone can go on that computer and access your
folder and files.
D. It helps to make sure that your work gets saved.

Question 5
The best way to move some text to another part an essay would be to:

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A. Delete the text and then re-type it.


B. Highlight the text, and then drag it into place with the mouse.
C. Highlight the text, and press the up or down arrows to move it.
D. Highlight the text, right-click, and use the "Cut" and "Paste" func
tions.
Question 6
Why should you avoid downloading files using file-sharing programs like Limewire or
Frostwire? (used to download music, videos, etc.)
A. It is illegal to download music using these programs due to copyright
laws.
B. These files can contain a virus which can harm you computer.
C. You might have to pay money in damages if you are caught.
D. All of the above are true.
Question 7
If you are doing research for an essay, and you use some information from a website in your essay,
you must:

A. Do nothing. You can use this material in your essay freely.


B. List the website in a bibliography at the end of your essay.
C. Type the information in bold letters.
D. Type the information in italic letters.

Question 8
Why is a website like Wikipedia NOT the best choice for researching information about a topic?

A. Wikipedia and other "wikis" allow anyone to type information on their pages, which may be
inaccurate.
B. It is the best choice.
C. There is too much information on the site to sort through which complicates things.
D. There are not enough images on the site.Question 9 / 10
Question 9
If you wanted to create an animated presentation, what would be the BEST program to use?

A. Excel
B. Power Point
C. Word
D. Access
Question 10
If you wanted to add an image from Google to an essay or a presentation, how would you do this?

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A. You must download the image first.


B. Save the image into your folder, and then select "Insert Image" on the
essay or presentation.
C. Right-click the image, select "Copy," then right-click in your essay or
presentation and select "Paste."
D. Both answers "B" and "C" are correct.
Answer

QUIZ-4

1. B 2. A 3. C 4. A 5. A 6. A 7.
C 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. C 13.
C 14. B 15. A 16. A 17. B 18. B 19.
A 21. B 22. B 23. C

QUIZ-5

1. B 2. A 3. D 4. C 5. D 6. D 7.
B 8. A 9. B 10. D

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QUIZ:-6

1. Which of the following is a valid version of MS Office?

A) Office XP
B) Office Vista
C) Office 2007
D) None of above

2. You cannot close MS Word application by

A) Choosing File menu then Exit submenu


B) Press Alt+F4
C) Click X button on title bar
D) From File menu choose Close submenu

3. The key F12 opens a

A) Save As dialog box


B) Open dialog box
C) Save dialog box
D) Close dialog box
4. What is the short cut key to open the Open dialog box?

A) F12
B) Shift F12
C) Alt + F12
D) Ctrl + F12
5. A feature of MS Word that saves the document automatically after certain interval is
available on
A) Save tab on Options dialog box
B) Save As dialog box
C) Both of above
D) Save automatically after

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6. Where can you find the horizontal split bar on MS Word screen?
A) On the left of horizontal scroll bar
B) On the right of horizontal scroll bar
C) On the top of vertical scroll bar
D) On the bottom of vertical scroll bar

7. Which of the following is not available on the Ruler of MS Word screen?


A) Tab stop box
B) Left Indent
C) Right Indent
D) Center Indent
E) All of them are available on ruler

8. What is place to the left of horizontal scroll bar?


A) Tab stop buttons
B) View buttons
C) Split buttons
D) Indicators
E) None of above
9. Which file starts MS Word?
A) Winword.exe
B) Word.exe
C) Msword.exe
D) Word2003.exe
10. How many ways you can save a document?

A) 3
B) 4
C) 5
D) 6

11. If you want to keep track of different editions of a document which features will you use?

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A) Editions
B) Versions
C) Track Change
D) All of above

12. Background color or effects applied on a document is not visible in


A) Web layout view
B) Print Layout view
C) Reading View
D) Print Preview
13. What is a portion of a document in which you set certain page formatting options?
A) Page
B) Document
C) Section
D) Page Setup
14. Borders can be applied to
A) Cells
B) Paragraph
C) Text
D) All of above
15. Which of the following is not a type of page margin?
A) Left
B) Right
C) Center
D) Top
16. What is the default left margin in Word 2007 document?
A) 1"
B) 1.25"
C) 1.5"
D) 2"
17. What is gutter margin?

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A) Margin that is added to the left margin when printing


B) Margin that is added to right margin when printing
C) Margin that is added to the binding side of page when printing
D) Margin that is added to the outside of the page when printing
18. Portrait and Landscape are
A) Page Orientation
B) Paper Size
C) Page Layout
D) All of above
19. If you need to change the typeface of a document, which tab will you choose?
A) Home
B) Insert
C) Page Layout
D) View
20. Which of the following is not a font style?
A) Bold
B) Italics
C) Regular
D) Superscript

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QUIZ-7

1. Pressing F8 key for three times selects


A) A word
B) A sentence
C) A paragraph
D) Entire document

2. What happens if you press Ctrl + Shift + F8?

A) It activates extended selection


B) It activates the rectangular selection
C) It selects the paragraph on which the insertion line is.
D) None of above

3. How can you disable extended selection mode?


A) Press F8 again to disable
B) Press Del to disable
C) Press Esc to disable
D) Press Enter to disable
4. What does EXT indicator on status bar of MS Word indicate?
A) It indicates whether the external text is pasted on document or not
B) It indicates whether extended add-ons are installed on MS Word or not
C) It indicates whether Extended Selection mode is turned on or off
D) None of above
5. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for a drop cap?
A) 3
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
6. What is the default number of lines to drop for drop cap?
A) 3
B) 10
C) 15
D) 20
7. What is the shortcut key you can press to create a copyright symbol?
A) Alt+Ctrl+C

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B) Alt + C
C) Ctrl + C
D) Ctrl + Shift + C
8. How many columns can you insert in a word document in maximum?
A) 33
B) 43
C) 53
D) 63
9. What is the smallest and largest font size available in Font Size tool on formatting toolbar?

A) 8 and 72
B) 8 and 64
C) 12 and 72
D) None of above
10. What is the maximum font size you can apply for any character?

A) 163
B) 1638
C) 16038
D) None of above
11. Which of the following is graphics solution for Word Processors?

A) Clipart
B) WordArt
C) Drop Cap
D) All of above

12. The keystrokes Ctrl + I is used to

A) Increase font size


B) Inserts a line break
C) Indicate the text should be bold
D) Applies italic format to selected text
13. A character that is raised and smaller above the baseline is known as

A) Outlined
B) Raised
C) Superscript
D) Subscript

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14. What is the purpose of inserting header and footer in document?


A) To enhance the overall appearance of the document
B) To mark the starting and ending of page
C) To make large document more readable
D) To allow page headers and footers appear on document all pages when
printed
15. Which of the following function key activates the speller?
A) F5
B) F7
C) F9
D) Shift + F7
16. The minimum number of rows and columns in MS Word document is
A) 1 and 1
B) 2 and 1
C) 2 and 2
D) None of above
17. Thesaurus tool in MS Word is used for
A) Spelling suggestions
B) Grammar options
C) Synonyms and Antonyms words
D) All of above
18. Why Drop Caps are used in document?
A) To drop all the capital letters
B) To automatically begin each paragraph with capital letter
C) To begin a paragraph with a large dropped initial capital letter
D) None of above
19. A bookmark is an item or location in document that you identify as a name for future reference.
Which of the following task is accomplished by using bookmarks?

A) To add anchors in web page


B) To mark the ending of a paragraph of document
C) To quickly jump to specific location in document
D) To add hyperlinks in webpage

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20. A word processor would most likely be used to do

A) Keep an account of money spent


B) Do a computer search in media center
C) Maintain an inventory
D) Type a biography

Answers

QUIZ-6

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-D, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-A, 10-A, 11-B, 12-D, 13-C, 14-D, 15-C, 16-A, 17-C, 18-A, 19-A, 20-
D,

QUIZ-7

1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-C, 5-B, 6-A, 7-A, 8-B, 9-A, 10-B, 11-A, 12-D, 13-C, 14-D, 15-B, 16-A, 17-C, 18-C, 19-C, 20-D,

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QUIZ-8

1. What happens when you click on Insert >> Picture >> Clip Art

A) It inserts a clipart picture into document


B) It lets you choose clipart to insert into document
C) It opens Clip Art taskbar
D) None of above

2. Which option is not available in Insert Table Autofit behavior?


A) Fixed Column Width
B) AutoFit to Contents
C) Autofit to Window
D) Autofit to Column

3. To autofit the width of column

A) Double click the right border of column


B) Double click the left border of column
C) Double click the column header
D) All of above

4. From which menu you can insert Header and Footer?

A) Insert Menu
B) View Menu
C) Home Menu
D) Page Layout Menu
5. After typing header text, how can you quickly enter footer text?
A) Press PageDown key and type the text for footer
B) Click on Switch between Header & Footer then type the text
C) Both of above
D) None of above
6. When inserting Page number in footer it appeared 1 but you wish to show a. How can you do that?
A) From format menu choose bullets and Numbering and configure necessary
setting

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B) From Insert menu choose Page Number and specify necessary setting
C) Click on Page Number Format tool and specify required setting
D) All of above
7. Which of the following statement is false?
A) You can set different header footer for even and odd pages
B) You can set different page number formats for different sections
C) You can set different header footer for first page of a section
D) You can set different header and footer for last page of a section
8. Where can you change the vertical alignment?
A) Formatting toolbar
B) Paragraph dialog box
C) Page Setup dialog box
D) Standard toolbar
9. To get to the ‘Symbol’ dialog box, click on the ______ menu and choose ‘Symbol’.

A) Insert
B) Page Layout
C) View
D) Table
10. Which of the following symbol sets would be most likely to contain a mathematical symbol such as
a degree sign, greater than or equal to, or a Greek letter?
A) Wingdings
B) Wingdings 3
C) Webdings
D) Symbol
11. When assigning a shortcut key to a symbol, you should always try to select a key or key
combination that is:
A) unassigned
B) Located on the ten-key pad section of your keyboard.
C) Assigned to another task.
D) From the same font family as the symbol.
12. Suppose you wanted to create an AutoCorrect entry that would type the words ‘We regret to
inform you that your submission has been declined’ Of the following choices, which would be the best
name you could assign to this entry?
A) Regret
B) Subdual

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C) We regret to inform you that your submission has been declined


D) 11
13. If you want to convert a symbol or several lines of text into an AutoCorrect entry, you should:
A) Insert the symbol or type the text in a Word document first. Then, select
the text or symbol and go to the AutoCorrect dialog box.
B) Click the Tools menu and choose AutoCorrect Options. Then, click theInsert
menu and choose Symbol (or click the Format menu and choose Paragraph
to add the symbol or paragraph to Auto Correct.
C) AutoCorrect can only accommodate one line of text. It is not possible to
convert a symbol or multiple lines of text into an AutoCorrect entry.
D) Insert the symbol or type the text in a Word document first. Then, select
the text or symbol and click the Edit menu followed by Paste Special.
Select New AutoCorrect Entry and then click OK.
14. AutoCorrect was originally designed to replace _________ words as you type.
A) Short, repetitive
B) Grammatically incorrect
C) Misspelled
D) None of the above

15. Which of the following is the second step in creating a macro?

A) Start recording
B) Using your mouse or keyboard, perform the task you want to automate
C) Assign a keyboard shortcut to the macro
D) Give the macro a name16. If you will be displaying or printing

16. your document on another computer, you’ll want to make sure and select the _____________
option under the ‘Save’ tab.

A) Embed Fonts
B) Embed True Type Fonts
C) Save True Type Fonts
D) Save Fonts

17. In Word, the mailing list is known as the ____________.

A) Data sheet
B) Source
C) Data source
D) Sheet

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18. Which of the following is not one of the three ‘Mail Merge Helper’ steps?

A) Merge the two files


B) Create the main document
C) Set the mailing list parameters
D) Create the data source
19. Which of the following button will allow you to add, delete, or change records in your Data
Source?

A) ‘Data Source’ button


B) ‘Edit’ button
C) ‘Edit Recipient List’ button
D) ‘Data editing’ button

20. It is possible to _______ a data source before performing a merge.

A) Create
B) Modify
C) Sort
D) all of the above

Answers

1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-A, 5-B, 6-C, 7-D, 8-C, 9-A, 10-D, 11-A,
12-B, 13-A, 14-C, 15-C, 16-B, 17-C, 18-C, 19-C, 20-D,

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QUIZ: -9

1. What is the default font size of a new Word document based on


Normal template?
A) 10 pt
B) 11 pt
C) 14 pt
D) None of abovE

2. What is the default font used in MS Word document?


A) Calibri (body)
B) Arial
C) Algerian
D) Times New Roman

3. Which tab in Font dialog box contains options to apply font effects?
A) Font tab
B) Character Spacing
C) Text Effects
D) Standard Toolbar

4. If you need to double underline a word, how will you do that?


A) Go to Format menu and then Font option. Open Underline Style and
choose Double Underline
B) From Format menu choose Font option and then from Font tab open
Under line Style and select Double Underline
C) Select the text then choose Format >> Font and on Font tab open Under
line Style and choose Double Underline
D) Click double underline tool on formatting toolbar

5. Drop Cap means


A) All Caps
B) Small Caps
C) Title case
D) None of above
6. What is the short cut key to open Font dialog box?

A) Ctrl + F
B) Alt + Ctrl + F
C) Ctrl + D
D) Ctrl + Shift + D

7. How can you access the font size tool on formatting toolbar?

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A) Ctrl + S
B) Ctrl + Shift + S
C) Ctrl + P
D) Ctrl + Shift + P

8. How can you make the selected character superscripted?

A) Ctrl + =
B) Ctrl + Shift + =
C) Alt + Ctrl + Shift + =
D) None of above

9. What does Ctrl + = key effect?

A) Superscript
B) Subscript
C) All Caps
D) Shadow

10. What happens if you mark on Hidden check box of Font dialog box after you select some text?
A) The text is deleted from document and you need to bring from Recycle Bin
if required again.
B) The text is hidden and you need to bring it by removing the check box if
needed again
C) The text is deleted and cannot be returned back
D) The text is hidden and cannot be returned back

11. How can you increase the font size of selected text by one point every time?

A) By pressing Ctrl + ]
B) By pressing Ctrl + [
C) By pressing Ctrl + }
D) By pressing Ctrl + {

12. Which of the following line spacing is invalid?

A) Single
B) Double
C) Triple
D) Multiple
13. How can you apply exactly the same formatting you did to another text?

A) Copy the text and paste in new location. Then type the new text again.
B) Copy the text and click on Paste Special tool on new place

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C) Select the text then click on Format Painter and select the new text
D) All of above

14. What should you do if you require pasting the same format in many places?

A) Click the Format painter and go on pasting in many places holding Alt Key
B) Double click the format painter then go on pasting in many places
C) Click the format painter then go on pasting to many places holding Ctrl Key
D) All of above

15. On which toolbar can you find Format Painter tool?

A) Clipboard
B) Formatting toolbar
C) Drawing Toolbar
D) Picture Toolbar
16. Which indent marker controls all the lines except first line?

A) First Line Indent Marker


B) Left Indent Marker
C) Hanging Indent Marker
D) Right Indent Marker

17. How can you remove tab stop markers from ruler?

A) Double click the tab marker and choose Clear All


B) Drag the tab stop marker out of the ruler
C) Right click the tab stop marker and choose remove
D) All of above

18. Which operation you will perform if you need to move a block of text?

A) Copy and Paste


B) Cut and Paste
C) Paste and Delete
D) Paste and Cut
19. What is the extension of Word files?

A) FIL
B) DOT
C) DOCX
D) TXT

20. Which of the following option is not available in Insert >> Illustrations?

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A) Chart
B) Word Art
C) Clip Art
D) Shapes

Answers

1-B, 2-A, 3-A, 4-C, 5-D, 6-C, 7-D, 8-B, 9-B, 10-B, 11-A, 12-C, 13-C, 14-B, 15-A, 16-B, 17-B, 18-B, 19-C, 20-B

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QUIZ: -10
1. To insert a drop cap in one of the paragraph you should access
A) Home
B) Insert
C) Page Layout
D) None of above
2. How many different positions can you set for drop cap?
A) 1
B) 2
C) 4
D) 6
3. What is the maximum number of lines you can set for lines to drop box?
A) 3
B) 5
C) 10
D) 15
4. Which of the following can NOT be used to create parallel style column?
A) Format Tabs
B) Table Insert Table
C) Insert Textbox
D) Format Columns
5. Which of the following is used to create newspaper style columns?
A) Format Tabs
B) Table Insert Table
C) Insert Textbox
D) Format Columns
6. Columns dialog box can be opened from
A) Home menu Columns submenu
B) Page Layout-Columns
C) Press Alt + O + C
D) B&C
7. You can jump to the next column by
A) Clicking with your mouse on the next column
B) Press Alt + Down-arrow
C) Both of above
D) None of Above
8. How can you break the current column and start a new column immediately?
A) Press Ctrl + Shift + Enter

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B) Press Alt + Enter


C) Press Ctrl + Enter
D) Press Alt + Shift + Enter
9. What is the smallest width of a column?
A) 0"
B) 0.5"
C) 1"
D) 1.5"
10. If the number of columns is selected 1 and the line between check box is marked, where is the line
drawn?
A) in the left margin
B) in the right margin
C) both in left and right margin
D) None of Above
11. The other Col# are inactive when you’ve select 3 columns. How will you activate those boxes?
A) double click on spacing box
B) double click on inactive Col#
C) Remove mark from Line between checkbox
D) Remove mark from Equal Column Width check box
12. Howmuch space in minimum must be provided between columns?
A) 0"
B) 0.5"
C) 1"
D) 1.5"
13. To open Columns dialog box quickly
A) Double click on the left margin area of ruler
B) Double click the space between area on ruler
C) Double click the right margin in ruler
D) All of above
14. Which of the following command is available in View menu?
A) Auto text
B) Autocorrect
C) Auto summarize
D) Macro
15. To move the cursor page to page of document
A) Ctrl+PgDn
B) Ctrl+PgUp
C) Both of above

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D) None of above
16. Text boundary can be displayed or hidden from
A) Auto text option from Insert menu
B) Border from Home Menu
C) Customize from Tools menu
D) All of above
17. Which of the following are word processing software?
A) WordPerfect
B) Easy Word
C) MS Word
D) All of above
18. MS Office provides help in many ways, which of these is one of them?
A) What is this?
B) Office Assistant
C) Help menu
D) All of the above

19. You wished to justify text over the height of paper, which option will you choose
A) Page Setup from Page Layout menu
B) Paragraph from Format menu
C) From formatting toolbar
D) Font from Format menu

20. Which of the following is not of the merge process?


A) Sort the data source records
B) Format a main document
C) Edit a data source
D) Merge the two files to print or create a new document

Answers

1-B, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D, 5-D, 6-D, 7-C, 8-A, 9-B, 10-D, 11-D, 12-A,
13-B, 14-D, 15-C, 16-B, 17-D, 18-D, 19-A, 20-A,

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QUIZ: -11
1. There can be many ways to insert page number in a document. Which of the following lets you
insert page number

A) Page number from Insert menu


B) Page Setup from file menu
C) Footnote from Insert menu
D) Both a & c

2. Which is not a Mailing component?

A) Pictures
B) Envelopes
C) Address Block
D) Rules

3. Which of the following is not the part of standard office suite?

A) Word Processor
B) Database
C) Image Editor
D) File manager
4. Where can you find the Draw Table tool button?

A) Home
B) Insert
C) Page Layout
D) View

5. Which of the following option in Office button is used to close a MS Word document?

A) Quit
B) Close
C) Exit
D) New

6. You need to jump to the next column breaking current column right at the cursor position. How can
you break column?

A) Pressing Ctrl+Enter
B) Break command from Page Layout
C) Break command from Insert menu
D) Both b and c
7. Superscript, subscript, outline, emboss, engrave are known as

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A) font styles
B) font effects
C) word art
D) text effects

8. Shimmer, Sparkle text, Blinking Background etc. are known as

A) font styles
B) font effects
C) word art
D) text effects

9. The feature of Word that automatically adjusts the amount of space between certain combination
of characters so that an entire word looks more evenly spaced. What is that feature called?

A) Spacing
B) Scaling
C) Kerning
D) Positioning
10. Which of the following is not available in Font Spacing?
A) Normal
B) Loosely
C) Condensed
D) Expanded

11. Which of the following position is not available for fonts on MS Word?
A) Normal
B) Raised
C) Lowered
D) Centered

12. What is the maximum scale percentage available in Scale drop down box?

A) 500
B) 200
C) 100
D) 90

13. Bold, Italic, Regular are known as

A) font styles
B) font effects
C) word art
D) text effects

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14. Uppercase on Change Case dialog box and All Caps on Fonts dialog box both converts selected text
into Capital Letters. What’s the difference between the two?

A) Both are same. They are only two different ways of capitalize text.
B) It is faster to convert from Change Case than from Font dialog box
C) Change Case makes conversion permanent but All Caps on Font can always
be reverted
D) All Caps on Font dialog box makes the change permanent where Change
Case can be always reverted

15. If you need to hide some paragraphs, how can you do it?

A) From Paragraph dialog box


B) From Font dialog box
C) From Options Dialog box
D) None of above

16. Which of the following is the latest version of MS Word?

A) Word 2000
B) Word 2007
C) Word 2010
D) Word 2011

17. Changing the appearance of a document is called

A) Proofing
B) Editing
C) Formatting
D) All of above
18. In a document what is the maximum number of columns that can be inserted in MS Word Table?
A) 35
B) 15
C) 63
D) 65
19. You can detect spelling and grammar errors by

A) Press Shift + F7
B) Press Ctrl + F7
C) Press Alt+ F7
D) Press F7

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20. A screen element of MS Word that is usually located below the title bar that provides categorized
options is
A) Menu mar
B) Tool Bar
C) Status Bar
D) All of the above

Answers

1-A, 2-A, 3-D, 4-B, 5-B, 6-B, 7-B, 8-D, 9-C, 10-B, 11-D, 12-B, 13-A, 14-C, 15-B, 16-C, 17-C, 18-C, 19-D, 20-A

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Quiz:-12
1 A function inside another function is called _______
A. Nested function
B. Round function
C. Sum function
D. Text function

2 Which of the following is not an underline option in the format cells dialog box?
A. Double
B. Single Accounting
C. Double Accounting
D. Single Engineering

3 Formulas in Excel start with


A. %
B. =
C. +
D. -
4 The default header for a worksheet is
A. Username
B. Date and Time
C. Sheet tab Name
D. None

5 Which of the following is not an option of the spelling dialog box?


A. Ignore
B. Ignore all
C. Edit
D. Change
6 Which of the following methods will not enter data in a cell?
A. Pressing the Esc key
B. Pressing an arrow key
C. Pressing the tab key
D. Clicking the enter button to the formula bar

7 The cell reference for cell range of G2 to M12 is _______


A. G2.M12
B. G2;M12
C. G2:M12
D. G2-M12

8 What is the keyboard shortcut for creating a chart from the selected cell range?

A. F2
B. F4
C. F8
D. F11

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9 The Software which contains rows and columns is called _______

A. Database
B. Drawing
C. Spreadsheet
D. Word processing

10 You can group noncontiguous worksheets with

A. The alt+enter key


B. The ctrl key and mouse
C. The shift key and the mouse
D. The group button on the standard toolbar

ANSWERS:

1. A 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C 6. A 7.
C 8. D 9. C 10. B

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Quiz:-13

Q. 1 E_Mail is used to
a) Delivery receipts
b) Vouchers
c) Exchange Mails
d) Exchange Money
Q.2 Which option in print command is used to print the document
from last to first?
a) Last to First Printing
b) Reverse print order
c) Draft output
d) Reverse Prin
Q.3 Which option is used to preview the file before the print?
a) Print preview
b) Show File
c) Preface
d) Preview page
Q.4 In MS Power Point, which option is used to create buttons in
your slide
a) Action Button
b) Slide Button
c) Used Button
d) Apply Button
Q.5 What is the use of floppy disk?
a) Select
b) Store data
c) Open data
d) Read data
Q.6 In MS Word, which option is used to define page margin and
paper size?
a) Print
b) Margin
c) Page setup
d) Size
Q.7 What is the use of magnifier?
a) Show the page
b) Delete
c) Backup
d) Enlarge
Q.8 The information in ROM can only be

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a) Written
b) Viewed
c) Executed
d) Read
Q.9 What is the extension of document type files?
Ans:-
Q.10 Which option is used to insert special characters in a word document?
Ans:-
Q.11 What does the term “cc” in email refer to?
Ans:-
Q.12 What is expansionfor “IP”?
Ans:-
Q.13 What is the expansion of OS?
Ans:-
Q.14 In one Byte is equal to
Ans:-
Q.15 What is expansion for “SMPS”?
Ans:-
Q.16 What is the name of the Text or Graphics that appear at the bootom of every page in a Word
document?
Ans:-
Q.17 Which option is used to arrange the data based on the contents of cells?
Ans:-
Q.18 ______________ application is used to create a document?
Ans:-

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Quiz:-14

Q.1 Which is the minimum text point size in a slide?


a) 12 point
b) 15 point
c) 4 point
d) 8 point

Q.2 How many bits store in 1 KB?


a) 8 Bits
b) 1024 bits
c) 32 bits
d) 1024*8 bits

Q.3 RAM is a _______________\


a) Permanent memory
b) Secondary memory
c) Voilatile Memory
d) Non-voilatile memory

Q.4 Windows Xp is an example of_____________


a) Application s/w
b) Internal s/w
c) Programming s/w
d) System s/w
Q.5 How many default views available in MS- Word?
a) 1
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

Q.6 What is the extention of web layout view of MS- Word?


a) doc
b) docx
c) dot
d) html

Q.7 Wrap Text is avaiable in which menu of MS-EXcel?


a) Home
b) Insert
c) Page Layout
d) Data
Q.8 “edit” command in MS- DOS is a_________
a) External Command

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b) Internal Command
c) Boot Command
d) Both 1 & 3

Q.9 For deleting a directory by DOS which command used ?


a) rd command
b) del command
c) delete command
d) either 2 or 3

Q.10 If you want to enter floating point in MS-Access then you must set which properties of number
data type?
a) Scale
b) Format
c) Default
d) value Both 1 & 2
Q.11 E- Mail stand for?
a) Electronic-Mail
b) Erasable-Mail
c) Economic-Mail
d) None of these
Q.12 WWW stand for?
a) World Wide Web
b) World Web Wide
c) Both 1 & 2
d) None of these

Q.13 Group of 8 Bits called?


a) Byte
b) KB
c) MB
d) GB

Q.14 Control Unit is the Part of?


a) ALU
b) CPU
c) Memory
d) Monitor

Q.15 Fourth generation of computer used?


a) Vaccum Tude
b) Processor

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c) ICA
d) Transitor

Q.16 HDD stand for?


a) Hard drive disk
b) Hard Disk Drive
c) Hyper Text Disk Drive
d) Hard Digital Disk
Q.17 DVD stand for?
a) Digital Visual Display
b) Digital Video Disk
c) Disk Visual Display
d) Digital Video Display

Q.18 How many types of Command are there in DOS?


a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4

Q.19 Window XP developed by?


a) Sun Micro System
b) Oracle
c) Microsft
d) IBM

Q.20 Shortcut key for Spelling check


a) F7
b) F9
c) Atl+s
d) Atl+g

Q.21 Start button is present on?


a) Desktop
b) Toolbar
c) Taskbar
d) Control Panel

Q.22 Mail Merge Options is located at?


a) Insert
b) View
c) Mailing
d) Home

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Q.23 Shortcut key for Subscript?


a) F7
c) Ctrl+=
b) F9
d) Ctrl+Shift+S

Q.24 In Excel a formuls starts with?


a) =
b) +
c) -
d) >

Q.25 A2 is a?
a) Row Number
b) Column Number
c) Refernce Number
d) None of these

Q.26 CPU Stands for?


a) Control Processing Unit
b) Central Power Unit
c) Central Processing Unit
d) Control Power Unit

Q.27 Who is the First programmer?


a) Bill Gates
b) Ada Lowrence
c) Charles Babbage
d) Sabir joshi
Q.28 MS-DOS Stands for?
a) Microsoft Disk Operaring System
b) Microsoft Digital OS
c) Microsoft Drive OS
d) Micro System Digital OS

Q.29 DIR is?


a) An Internal Command
b) An Eternal Command
c) A boot Command
d) None of these

Q.30 cd commamd is used for?

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a) Create a directory
b) Change the directory
c) Checking the directory
d) Copy the directory from one drive to another drive

Q.31 When we copy an item it store?


a) In the memory
b) In the buffer
c) In the clipart
d) In the cliboard
Q.32 IC is used in the ?
a) First Generation Computer
b) Second Generation Computer
c) Third Generation Computer
d) Fourth Generation Computer

Q.33 Which is not a type of Software?


a) System Software
b) Application Software
c) progamming Software
d) Internal Software

Q.34 MS-Office is a/an


a) System Software
b) Application Software
c) progamming Software
d) Internal Software

Q.35 Format painter is located in which menu of MS-Word 2007?


a) Home
b) Insert
c) Review
d) Page layout

Q.36 If we want to protect our document then we chosse which menu of word 2007?
a) Home
b) Insert
c) Review
d) Page layout

Q.37 What is the default extention of word 2007 document?


a) doc
b) docx

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c) dot
d) txt

Q.38 If we want to insert watermark in our page then we choose


which menu of word 2007?
a) Home
b) Pagelayout
c) review
d) Reference

Q.39 number of default menu item in Excel 2007 Menu bar?


a) 5
b) 6
c) 7
d) 8

Q.40 Number of data types used in MS-Access 2007?


a) 8
b) 9
c) 10
d) 11

Q.41 The default data types of Ms-Access 2007?


a) Autonumber
b) Text
c) Number
d) Date/Time

Q.42 Number Of Object in Access 2007?


a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9

Q.43 MS-Access is a ?
a) Database
b) Database Mangement System
c) Relational DBMS
d) Operating System

Q.44 If we want to collect the information from multiple tables we


used the following object of Access?
a) Design View of a table
b) Query

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c) Relationship
d) Macro
Q.45 Consolidate is located in the following menu of Excel 2007?
a) Home
b) Data
c) Review
d) Formulas

Q.46 Default extention of the Ms- Access 2007 database?


a) mdb
b) accdb
c) msdb
d) accsdb

Q.47 Ram Markes a presentation, so he choose MS-PowerPoint for this. Ram has prepared 10 Slide,
now he want to set the resolution of his slides so he should be used which menu item

a) Animation
b) Slide show
c) View
d) Insert

Q. 48 rahul want to chchange the folder option of his computer so he select the which menu item/
a) Tools
b) View
c) File
d) Edit

Q.49 The shortcut key to increase the font size?


a) Ctrl+>
b) Ctrl++
c) Ctrl+Alt+>
d) Alt+ctrl++

Q.50 Computer is

a) An Electronic Device
b) A Power Suppiler
c) A Magnetic Device
d) An Electronic Power

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Quiz-14

Anwer

1. D 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D 6. D
7. A 8. A 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. A 14. A 15. B 16. B 17. D 18. B
19. C 20. A 21. C 22. C 23. C 24. A 25.
C 26. A 27. B 28. A 29. A 30. B
31. D 32. C 33. D 34. B 35. A 36. C
37. B 38. B 39. C 40. C 41. B 42. B 43.
B 44. B 45. B 46. D 47. B 48. A
49. A 50. A

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COMPUTER HARDWARE
&
NETWORKING

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Quiz: -1

1. From what location are the 1st computer instructions available on boot up?

A. ROM BIOS
B. CPU
C. boot.ini
D. CONFIG.SYS
E. None of the above
2.What could cause a fixed disk error.

A. No-CD installed
B. bad ram
C. slow processor
D. Incorrect CMOS settings
E. None of the above
3. Missing slot covers on a computer can cause?
A. over heat
B. power surges
C. EMI.
D. incomplete path for ESD
E. None of the above
4. When installing PCI NICS you can check the IRQ availability by looking at

A. dip switches
B. CONFIG.SYS
C. jumper settings
D. motherboard BIOS
E. None of the above

5. With respect to a network interface card, the term 10/100 refers to

A. protocol speed
B. a fiber speed
C. megabits per seconds
D. minimum and maximum server speed
E. None of the above
6. Which Motherboard form factor uses one 20 pin connector
A. ATX
B. AT
C. BABY AT
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
7. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:
A. clusters

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B. sectors
C. vectors
D. heads
E. None of the above
8. A wrist grounding strap contains which of the following:
A. Surge protector
B. Capacitor
C. Voltmeter
D. Resistor
E. None of the above
9. Which standard govern parallel communications?
A. RS232
B. RS-232a
C. CAT 5
D. IEEE 1284
E. None of the above
10. In laser printer technology, what happens during the conditioning stage?
A. The corona wire places a uniform positive charge on the paper
B. A uniform negative charge is placed on the photosensitive drum
C. A uniform negative charge is placed on the toner
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
11. What product is used to clean smudged keys on a keyboard?
A. TMC solvent
B. Silicone spray
C. Denatured alcohol
D. All-purpose cleaner
E. None of the above
12. ESD would cause the most damage to which component?

A. Power supply
B. Expansion board
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard
E. None of the above
13. To view any currently running Terminate Stay Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:

A. Memory
B. MEM
C. SYS /M
D. Memmaker
E. None of the above

14. Which type of system board is the MOST likely candidate for processor upgrading if you want
maximum performance and future compatibility?
A. ML

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B. PCI
C. ISA
D. EISA
E. None of the above
15. Suppose that you have a the maintenance package identifies several possible field replaceable
units (FRUs) that will resolve the problem. What should you do after turning the power off?

A. Replace the indicated parts, one at a time in the recommended sequence,


until the problem is resolved; return unused FRUs to stock
B. Replace all of the indicated FRUs at once and return the machine to the cus
tomer if the problem is resolved
C. Follow the same procedure as in ays replace the system board first if it is on
the list `of possible FRUs If multiple FRUs are indicated, then software is the
most likely source of the problem
D. None of the above

16. Most PCs give a single beep on bootup to indicate they are ok hardware wise. You boot your PC
and don't get a beep. What should you check first?

A. system board
B. RAM
C. microprocessor
D. power supply
E. speaker
17. Which peripheral port provides the FASTEST throughput to laser printers?

A. RS-232
B. SCSI
C. Parallel
D. Serial
E. None of the above

18. The mouse pointer moves erratically, what is the possible cause? The mouse

A. ball is dirty
B. is not connected
C. driver is not installed properly
D. has an incorrect IRQ setting
E. None of the above

19. Voltage4s measured:

A. in parallel
B. in series
C. after breaking the circuit
D. after checking resistance
E. after checking current

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20. Your customer tells you the print quality of their dot matrix printer is light then dark. Which of the
following could cause the problem.

A. Paper slippage
B. Improper ribbon advancement
C. Paper thickness
D. Head position
E. None of the above

21. The 34-pin connection on an I/O card is for?

A. Floppy drive
B. SCSI drive
C. IDE drive
D. Zip drive
E. None of the above

22. The terms "red book", "yellow book", and "orange book" refer to:

A. SCSI
B. ide
C. floppy drive technology
D. CD-ROM standards
E. All of the above

23. On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to which higher level Interrupt?

A. 9
B. 11
C. 13
D. 15
E. None of the above

24. What beep codes could indicate a system board or power supply failure?

A. steady short beep


B. no beep
C. one long continuous beep tone
D. steady long beeps
E. All of the above

25. To view any currently running Terminate Stay Resident (TSR's) programs you could type:

A. Memory
B. MEM
C. SYS /M
D. Memmaker
E. None of the above

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26. Which part of the laser printer should NOT be exposed to sunlight?

A. Transfer corona assembly


B. PC drum
C. Primary corona wire
D. Toner cartridge
E. None of the above

27. After doing a low-level format, what would be the next step in configuring the hard drive in a
system?

A. Format DOS partition


B. Install operating system
C. Configure DMA channel and back-up interrupt
D. Partition had disk
E. None of the above
28. Resistance is measured in ?

A. Volts
B. Amps
C. Watts
D. Ohms
E. None of the above

29. What command is used to reset a MODEM when using the "AT Command Set"?

A. ATR
B. ATZ
C. DTR
D. DCE
E. None of the above

30. When installing a SCSI CD-ROM drive, you must set the CD-ROM SCSI adapter to:

A. B0007
B. An unused SCSI address
C. The same address as the SCSI device before the CD-ROM
D. SCSI ID=1
E. None of the above

31. Pick the correct choice for the 80386SXCPU.

A. 16 bit word size, 16 bit data path


B. 32 bit word size, 16 bit data path
C. 8 bit word size, 32 bit data path
D. 32 bit word size, 8 bit data path
E. 32 bit word size, 32 bit data path

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32. In Inkjet technology the droplets of ink are deflected by?

A. multi directional nozzles


B. electronically charged plates
C. high pressure plates
D. electro static absorbtion
E. None of the above

33. When your hard drive crashes from any of the correct selections in the question above, or
from dropping it, it is known as head-to-disk interference, or HDL

A. True B. False

34. What tool is used to test serial and parallel ports?

A. high volt probe


B. cable scanner
C. loop backs (wrap plugs)
D. sniffer
E. None of the above

35. ESD would cause the most damage to which component?

A. Power supply
B. Expansion board
C. Monitor
D. Keyboard
E. None of the above

36. What is the highest binary number that can be referred to on a three position jumper block?

A. 4
B. 6
C. F
D. 1
E. None of the above

37. What voltage does a Pentium system use?

A. +12 volts
B. + 5 volts
C. + 8 volts
D. +3.3 volts
E. None of the above

38. A numeric error code check: A 17xx indicates a problem with:

A. CMOS

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B. ROM BIOS
C. DMA controller
D. hard drive or controller
E. power supply

39. Which provides the fastest access to large video files?

A. Optical drives
B. IDE hard drives
C. SCSI hard drives
D. EIDE hard drives
E. None of the above

40. A 25-pin female connector on the back of your computer will typically be:

A. Serial port 1
B. A parallel port
C. Docking
D. COM2 port
E. None of the above
41. On the PC side, the printer port is a:

A. 25 pin female serial connector


B. 15 pin female parallel connector
C. 25 pin male serial connector
D. 15 pin female serial connector
E. 25 pin female parallel connector

42. You were installing an application in Windows 95, and the computer crashes, what do you do?

A. press alt + Ctrl + delete, twice


B. press alt + Ctrl + delete, and end task
C. press the reset button on the computer
D. turn off computer and boot from a floppy disk
E. None of the above

43. RS-232 is a standard that applies to:

A. serial ports
B. parallel ports
C. game ports
D. networks
E. digital frequencies

44. You just installed a new IDE hard drive, but your system BIOS will not recognize the new drive,
what should you check first.

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A. cable sequence
B. jumpers on the hard drive
C. drivers that need to be loaded
D. hard drive manufacturer web site information
E. None of the above

45. During boot-up, the memory test:

A. Is a superfluous step that should be ignored


B. Checks and verifies that contiguous memory is installed
C. Is an operational error
D. Displays what memory is installed, but nothing else
E. None of the above

46. What is the best ground for a conductive work bench?

A. AC outlet
B. Ground to bend
C. To another device
D. Chassis ground
E. None of the above

47. Topically, how many type III PC cards can you insert in a laptop

A. 1
B 2
C. 3
D. 4
E. None of the above

48. What is the first thing you could do to check for damage to a printer after receiving it?

A. Run MSD diagnostics


B. Attach it to a PC and print something
C. Check the cables
D. Unbox it and examine it for physical damage
E. None of the above

49. You have a system that periodically locks up. You have ruled out software, and now suspect
that it is hardware. What should you do first that could help you narrow it down to the component at
fault?

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A. Rotate the RAM


B. Replace the RAM
C. Replace the level 2 cache SIMM
D. Disable the CPU cache in CMOS
E. Replace the CPU

Quiz:-2
1. What's the best way to protect your hard drive data?

A. regular backups
B. periodically defrag it
C. run chkdsk at least once a week
D. run scandisk at least once a week
E. run a regular diagnostic

2. On a dot matrix printer, you should never lubricate which part?

A. carriage rails
B. printhead pins
C. paper advance bearings
D. carriage bearings
E. None of the above

3. How many devices can be used on a single SCSI bus? Keep in mind that the SCSI host adapter
counts as a device.

A. 1
B. 8
C. 20
D. 10
E. All of the above

4. Match the device driver HIMEM.SYS to its operation.

A. Supports (ANSI) terminal emulation


B. Manages the use of extended memory
C. Uses expanded memory on a 80386 processor
D. Supports code page switching
E. None of the above

5. ____ help prevent power surges.

A. Surge suppressor
B. Spike protector

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C. UPS system
D. High-grade multi-meter
E. None of the above

6. The digital multimeter is set for DC, Ohm and 20k. You will read _____ while measuring a good 2
amp fuse.

A. 0.00
B. 0.02
C. 0.20
D. 2.00
E. None of the above

7. An anti static strap uses a small _____ to make sure you do not become the least path of resistance
to the ground?

A. capacitor
B. diode
C. transistor
D. resistor
E. None of the above

8. If the memory slots have 30 pins then the chip is a?

A. DIMM
B. SIMM
C. SDRAM
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

9. Laser Jet printer speeds are measured in pages per minute (ppm) what do we use to measure dot-
matrix printers?

A. lines per inch


B. lines per sheet
C. characters per inch
D. characters per second
E. None of the above

10. Which values are held in CMOS for the hard drive

A. size (heads, cylinders, sectors)


B. IRQ
C. Free space

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D. Virus alert
E. None of the above

11. Which of the following would be a logical first step in troubleshooting a PC?

A. Check the computer CMOS


B. Define the circumstances of the problem
C. Call the vendor
D. Define what applications are being used
E. None of the above

12. Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded memory?

A. Himem.sys
B. EMM386.exe
C. Mem386.sys
D. Ramdrive.sys
E. None of the above

13. For a Macintosh to print successfully, the System Folder must contain:

A. File sharing software


B. A printer enabler
C. The apple Garamond font set
D. A printer driver
E. None of the above

14. Which component must be vacuumed or replaced during preventative maintenance on a laser
printer?

A. Scanning mirror
B. Toner cartridge
C. Ozone filter
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

15. Which device uses a DMA channel?

A. Modem
B. Network Card
C. Sound Card
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
16. When is the risk for electrostatic discharge the greatest?

A. Day time
B. High humidity
C. Low humidity

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D. Night time
E. None of the above

17. When is the risk for electrostatic discharge the greatest?

A. Day time
B. High humidity
C. Low humidity
D. Night time
E. None of the above

18. A modem could be attached to which port?

A. Parallel port
B. ASYNC port
C. Keyboard connector
D. Video port
E. None of the above

19. What device prevents power interruptions, resulting in corrupted data?

A. Battery back-up unit


B. Surge protector
C. Multiple SIMMs strips
D. Data guard system
E. None of the above

20. SCSI must be terminated with?

A. Dip switch
B. Resistor
C. BNC
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

21. In a computer with an eide adapter, where should you connect an ATA CD-ROM drive?

A. on the floppy bus


B. on the primary IDE
C. on the secondary IDE
D. on the SCSI bus
E. All of the above

22. What's the best way to prevent damaging your PC with static electricity?
A. place your PC on a rubber mat
B. wear leather soled shoes
C. periodically touch a safe ground point on the PC to discharge yourself
D. static electricity doesn't really hurt a PC

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E. wear an ESD wrist strap

23. What is the highest binary number that can be referred to on a three position jumper block?

A. 4
B. 6
C. F
D. 1
E. None of the above

24. During boot-up, the memory test:

A. Is a superfluous step that should be ignored


B. Checks and verifies that contiguous memory is installed
C. Is an operational error
D. Displays what memory is installed, but nothing else
E. None of the above

25. IRQ6 is typically reserved for:

A. The floppy
B. The keyboard controller
C. LPT2
D. The modem
E. None of the above

26. Which would you do first when troubleshooting a faulty monitor?


A. Check its connections to the computer and power source
B. Use a meter to check the CRT and internal circuitry for continuity
C. Power down the monitor, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the
problem
D. Power down the computer, then turn it on again to see if that corrects the
problem
E. None of the above

27. To install a second IDE drive into a computer, you must:


A. Set the master-slave jumper to slave on the second drive
B. Use the IDE configuration software to set the new drive as slave
C. Verify that you define the new drive as D: in the CMOS setup
D. Verify that you attach the drive to the connector at the end of the ribbon
cable
E. None of the above
28. Why does a successfully mapped network drive disappear every time you boot the computer?

A. The computer you are connected to has moved


B. You didn't click reconnect on log on
C. The map statement is not in the autoexec.bat file
D. The last drive was not set correctly

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E. None of the above

29. What do you need to check serial and parallel port?

A. Port adapter
B. Logic probe
C. Loopback plug
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
30. You have a PC with no video* Which of the following is LEAST likely to be causing the
problem?

A. defective RAM (bank zero)


B. defective microprocessor
C. crashed hard drive
D. loose video card
E. low AC outlet power

31. To test for AC ripple on a PC power supply, you would set the volt/ohm meter for:

A. DC voltage scale
B. AC voltage
C. OHM scale
D. Farad scale
E. None of the above

32. You get a CMOS checksum error during bootup. What is most likely the cause?

A. power supply is bad


B. BIOS needs updating
C. CMOS battery is nearing end of life
D. hard drive types are incorrectly defined
E. None of the above

33. On the 16-bit ISA bus, IRQ2 is elevated to which higher level interrupt?

A. 9
B. 11
C. 13
D. 15
E. None of the above

34. When measuring AC (Alternating Current) with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the
proper polarity.

A. True
B. False

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35. After trying to unload a TSR, you get an error message saying that other TSRs were loaded
after the one you tried to remove. Which of the following commands could you use to see the current
load order?

A. MEM /P
B. MEMMAKER
C. MEM /C
D. SYS:
E. None of the above

36. What is a common language that computers use to talk with one another on a network

A. client
B. adapter
C. protocol
D. operating systems
E. None of the above
37. When measuring AC (Alternating Current) with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the
proper polarity.

A. True B. False

38. Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded memory?

A. Himem.sys
B. EMM386.exe
C. Mem386.sys
D. Ramdrive.sys
E. None of the above

39. Which should you use for cleaning Mylar-protected LCD screens?

A. Ammonia window cleaner


B. Non-abrasive cleanser
C. Anti-static wipes
D. Alcohol-impregnated wipes
E. None of the above

40. What could cause a fixed disk error?

A. No-CD installed
B. Bad RAM
C. Slow processor
D. Incorrect CMOS settings
E. None of the above

34. When measuring AC (Alternating Current) with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the
proper polarity.

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A. True
B. False

35. After trying to unload a TSR, you get an error message saying that other TSRs were loaded
after the one you tried to remove. Which of the following commands could you use to see the current
load order?

A. MEM /P
B. MEMMAKER
C. MEM /C
D. SYS:
E. None of the above

36. What is a common language that computers use to talk with one another on a network

A. client
B. adapter
C. protocol
D. operating systems
E. None of the above

37. When measuring AC (Alternating Current) with a multimeter, it is important to maintain the
proper polarity.

A. True
B. False
C. None of the above

38. Which DOS driver is used to emulate expanded memory?

A. Himem.sys
B. EMM386.exe
C. Mem386.sys
D. Ramdrive.sys

39. Which should you use for cleaning Mylar-protected LCD screens?

A. Ammonia window cleaner


B. Non-abrasive cleanser
C. Anti-static wipes
D. Alcohol-impregnated wipes
E. None of the above

40. What could cause a fixed disk error?

A. No-CD installed
B. Bad RAM

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C. Slow processor
D. Incorrect CMOS settings
E. None of the above

41. ESD potential decreases with the use of:

A. De-ionizing fans
B. A wrist strap
C. Rubber gloves with matching cap
D. A static meter
E. None of the above

42. Which of the following FRUs would be considered both an input/output device?

A. Video board
B. SCSI host adapter
C. System board CPU
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

43. A COM port is a _____ port.

A. parallel B. serial
C. static D. multi
E. SCSI
44. Which device is on IRQ 6?

A. Keyboard
B. IDE
C. Floppy drive
D. Video card
E. None of the above

45. A system has two IDE hard drives that are each divided into primary and extended partitions,
which drive letter is assigned to the primary partition of the second drive?

A. C
B. D
C. E
D. F
E. None of the above

46. What is the most significant difference between the USB and IEEE1394 standards?

A. IEEE 1394 is faster


B. USB does not support USB
C. USB is plug and play
D. IEEE 1394 is hot swappable

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E. None of the above


47. When connecting two internal SCSI hard disks to a computer, where do you connect the
second hard drive?

A. Any open SCSI port on the computer


B. A Serial port on the first host adapter
C. An open parallel port on the computer
D. An open SCSI port on the first hard drive
E. None of the above
48. When connecting a ribbon cable to a connector, how do you know which direction to plug it
in?

A. The red line in the cable goes to the highest pin number
B. The colored line in the cable goes to pin #1
C. It does not matter
D. The blue or red line in the cable goes away from the power connector
E. None of the above

49. What is the first step in diagnosing a completely dead computer at the client site that was
working the day before.

A. Test the power supply


B. replace the CMOS battery
C. check the AC outlet
D. reseat the hard drive controller cable
E. None of the above

50. What specification covers PC hard cards?

A. SCSI
B. ISA
C. PCMCIA
D. MFM
E. None of the above

Quiz: -3

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1. Which common bus specification provides the fastest data transfer rate?

A. VL bus
B. ISA
C. PCI
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
2. Modems use transmission.

A. Synchronous
B. Asynchronous
C. Timed interval
D. Ata
E. Bank

3. A 6xx indicates a problem with the:

A. Floppy drive
B. Hard drive
C. Keyboard
D. CD ROM
E. All of the above

4. A sound card typically uses which IRQ?

A. 6
B. 5
C. 15
D. 1
E. It doesn't use an IRQ

5. During preventative maintenance on a dot matrix printer, do NOT lubricate:

A. Platen assembly
B. Print head pulley
C. Print head pins
D. Paper advance gear bushings
E. None of the above
6. You see the message "invalid media device" after installing a new hard drive. What do you do
next?

A. Format
B. Fdisk
C. Partition
D. Add the OS
E. None of the above

7. What is the modem hang up command?

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A. ATHU
B. ATH
C. ATZ
D. ATX
E. None of the above

8. What expansion types do most pll/plll motherboards support?

A. MCA, PCI
B. ISA, EISA
C. ISA, PCI, AGP
D. ISA, VESA, PCI
E. None of the above

9. When installing an internal modem, all of the following IRQ's can be used except?

A. 5
B. 10
C. 14
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

10. An IRQ allow interface cards to:

A. Interrupt the CPU to request service


B. Pass data to the CPU to be processed
C. Pass data from one card to another
D. Pass data to the computers memory
E. None of the above
11. A workstation has just been installed on an Ethernet LAN, but cannot communicate with the
network. What should you check first?

A. reinstall the network protocols


B. reinstall the network interface card driver
C. verify the ip configuration on the workstation
D. verify the link status on the computer's network card
E. None of the above

12. One of the major components of a PC is the Central Processing Unit (CPU) which can be best
described as:

A. The device that sends the monitor signals telling it what to display
B. The area that regulates all of the system power usage
C. The area where ail the of the Basic input/output routines are tored
D. The area where all of the processing takes place
E. None of the above

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13. What is the i/o address for com ?

A. 5 B. 4
C. 1 D. 9
E. 2
14. The ESD wrist strap is designed to protect PC Components or Service Technicians ?

A. PC Components
B. Service Technicians
C. Both

15. You can have EISA and MCA devices in the same PC.

A. True B. False

16. The floppy drive uses which DMA (direct memory access) channel?

A. 5 B. 4
C. 1 D. 9
E. 2
17. The DC voltage on most circuit boards is:

A. -12 volts
B. 0 volts
C. +5 volts
D. +12 volts
E. None of the above

18. A customer attached an external drive to his notebook computer but the computer is not
recognizing it. What should be considered?

A. The cables are attached firmly


B. The external drive has been pre¬loaded with the appropriate software
C. The external drive was attached before the computer was on
D. The external drive is turned on
E. All of the above

19. "Parity" errors usually indicate bad memory.

A. True
B. False

20. What device protects against line deficiencies?

A. Surge protector
B. UPS
C. Logic probe
D. Capacitor

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E. None of the above

21. Which monitor would provide the highest level of performance?

A. VGA
B. XGA
C. CGA
D. SVGA
E. None of the above

22. Which of the following items would require you to comply with EPA disposal guidelines?

A. Keyboard
B. System board
C. Power supply
D. Battery
E. None of the above
23. A hard disk is divided into tracks which are further subdivided into:

A. clusters
B. sectors
C. vectors
D. heads
E. None of the above

24. What is the paper feeding technology most commonly associated with dot-matrix printers?

A. sheet feed
B. tractor feed
C. friction feed
D. manual feed
E. None of the above

25. COM1 is typically represented by which of the following?

A. 15 pin port
B. 9 pin male port
C. 9 pin female port
D. 25 pin male port
E. None of the above

26. Which step should you perform first before discharging a CRT?

A. Remove the CRT from its housing


B. Disconnect the CRT from the computer
C. Remove the video assembly
D. Turn power off before removing power source
E. None of the above

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27. A capacitor is measured in which of the following units?

A. Volts
B. Ohms
C. Farads
D. Resistance
E. None of the above

28. UART is a type of serial chip. Its letters stand for:

A. unidirectional access regarding transmission


B. universal asynchronous receiver/ transmitter
C. upper advanced real transfer
D. unable all restore t-bits
E. use all ROM types

29. A system has two IDE hard drives that are each divided into primary and extended partitions,
which drive letter is assigned to the primary partition of the second drive?

A. C
B. D
C. E
D. F
E. None of the above

30. What would you ask to determine if the display is working?

A. Is there a video cursor or action on the screen?


B. Did the computer beep or chime?
C. Is there high voltage static on the screen
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

31. Your CD-ROM audio cable connects to the:

A. speaker supply
D. hard drive
E. BIOS

32. In the Binary numbering system, a (1) represents a jumper being shorted and a (0) represents
a jumper being open. On a three-bit jumper block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID of logical 3 be set?

A. 100
B. 010
C. 011
D. . 101
E. None of the above

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33. After installing a sound card, the system locks up when a parallel port tape backup unit is also
used. What is most likely the problem?
A. IRQ
B. DMA
C. defective LPT port
D. defective tape driver
E. defective sound card

34. You are testing the resistance in Ohms of a fuse on a 15K amp system. If the fuse is good, the
meter should read?

A. 0.0
B. 0.2
C. 5.0
D. 2.0
E. None of the above
35. Type one PC cards:

A. are used only in desktops


B. are no longer being produced
C. are the thinnest of the PC cards
D. don't exist
E. have their own power source
36. 14.4 modem should transmit _____ bits per second

A. 14,400-15,000
B. 140-150
C. 1400-1500
D. 140,000-150,000
E. None of the above
37. In laser technology, what happens during the transfer stage?

A. Residual toner is transferred to the waste receptacle


B. The laser transfers the image from the drum to the paper
C. The image is transferred from the drum to the paper
D. A negative charge is transferred to the surface of the drum
E. None of the above

38. _____ is the term used to refer to the process of two modems establishing communications
with each other.

A. interacting B. handshaking
C. connecting D. linking
E. pinging

39. Resistance is measured in ohm.

A. True

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B. False

40. Suppose that the power lamp in on, but the printer will not print. What can you do to correct
the problem?

A. Make sure the printer is on line


B. Replace the AC line fuse
C. Turn the printer on and off
D. Replace the ribbon
E. None of the above

41. The ATAPI compliance is stands for?

A. CDROM
B. Bus mastering
C. Mass storage device
D. All of the above
E. None of the above

42. A dialog box with a bomb appears on a Macintosh screen. What type of problem has
occurred?

A. A RAM problem
B. A software problem
C. A ROM problem
D. An ADB problem
E. None of the above

43. Capacitance is measured in units of:

A. volts B. amps
C. farads D. neutrinos
E. anti-neutrinos

44. When not in use, it is very important to keep 5 1/ 4diskettes in _____.

A. Their protective sleeves


B. In a plastic bag
C. On a shelf in an upright position
D. In the floppy drive
E. None of the above

45. What can you use to ensure power is not interrupted, resulting in corrupted data?

A. UPS
B. Propergrounding
C. Surge protector
D. Sag protector

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E. None of the above

46. A 25-pin female connector on the back of your computer will typically be:

A. Serial port 1
B. A parallel port
C. Docking
D. COM2 port
E. None of the above

47. In the Binary numbering system, a (1) represents a jumper being shorted and a (0) represents
a jumper being open. On a three-bit jumper block on a SCSI drive, how would an ID of logical 3 be set?

A. 100
B. 010
C. 011
D. 101
E. None of the above
48. _____ help prevent power surges.

A. Surge suppressor
B. Spike protector
C. UPS system
D. High-grade multi-meter
E. None of the above

49. What can you use to ensure power is not interrupted, resulting in corrupted data?

A. UPS
B. Proper grounding
C. Surge protector
D. Nuclear powered thermal protective underwear
E. None of the above

50. The POST routine, which counts system board RAM first, is stored in:

A. RAM
B. microprocessor
C. ROM BIOS
D. CMOS
E. 8259 POST controller

Answer
Hardware Quiz-1

1. A 2. D 3. A 4. D 5. C 6. A 7.
B 8. D 9. D 10. B 11. D 12. B 13.

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B 14. B 15. A 16. E 17. C 18. A 19.


A 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. A 24. E
25. B 26. B 27. A 28. D 29. B 30. B
31. B 32. A 33. A 34. C 35. B 36. D
37. D 38. D 39. C 40. B 41. E 42. D
43. A 44. B 45. B 46. A 47. A 48. D
49. D

Quiz-2
1. A 2. B 3. B 4. B 5. A 6. A
7. D 8. B 9. D 10. A 11. B 12. B
13. D 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. C 18. A
19. A 20. B 21. C 22. E 23. D 24. B 25.
A 26. A 27. A 28. C 29. C 30. C
31. B 32. C 33. A 34. B 35. D 36. C
37. B 38. B 39. B 40. D 41. B 42. B 43.
B 44. C 45. D 46. A 47. A 48. B
49. C 50. C

Quiz-3
1. C 2. B 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. A
7. B 8. C 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. D
13. B 14. C 15. B 16. E 17. C 18. E
19. A 20. B 21. D 22. D 23. B 24. B 25.
B 26. D 27. C 28. B 29. B 30. D
31. B 32. C 33. A 34. A 35. C 36. A
37. C 38. B 39. A 40. A 41. C 42. B 43.
C 44. A 45. A 46. B 47. C 48. A
49. A 50. C

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