13-06-2024

1901303001240034 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) A particle moves 21 m along the vector , then 14 m along the vector . Its
total displacement (in meters) is :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

2) A particle moves m in South–West direction, 12m in upward direction and then 1m in

East direction. Find the net displacement.

(1) 13m
(2) 17m
(3) 14m
(4) 18m

3) A particle is moving towards East with velocity 10 ms–1 and acceleration 5 ms–2 directed
towards West. Find the distance travelled in 8 seconds.

(1) 80m
(2) 70m
(3) 100m
(4) 60m

4) Position of a particle at t = 0 is (2,3,0). It starts moving with a speed of 10 m/sec in direction

37o north of west. Its position after t = 1 sec is -
(Take north as positive y axis and east as positive x axis)

(1) (6, 11)

(2) (–4, 11)
(3) (–8, 6)
(4) (–6, 9)

5) A body travelling along a straight line with a uniform acceleration has velocities 5 m/s at a point A
and 15 m/s at a point B respectively. If M is the mid point of AB, then choose incorrect statement.
(1)
The ratio of times taken by the body to cover distance MB and AM is
(2) The velocity at M is

(3)
Average velocity over AM is
(4) The product of the acceleration and the distance AB is 200 m2/s2.

6) A motor cyclist accelerates from rest with acceleration of 2 m/s2 for a time of 10 sec. Then he
moves with a constant velocity for 20 sec and then finally comes to rest with an deceleration of 1
m/s2. Average speed for complete journey is :-

(1) 10 m/s
(2) 14 m/s
(3) 20 m/s
(4) 28 m/s

7) A particle moves with a speed v in a horizontal circular path. The change in its velocity
for covering 60° will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4) v

8) Which of the following must be true for magnitude of average velocity of a body if v1 and v2
are magnitude of average speeds during successive time intervals t1 and t2 in which body
covers distances d1 and d2 and displacements and ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

9) In the figure, path of a particle is shown. Its velocity is shown at points A & B. Which of
the following vector correctly represents the average acceleration during its motion from point A to
B.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Mark the INCORRECT statement for a particle moving on a straight line :-

(1) If velocity and position have opposite sign then object is moving towards origin.
(2) If velocity and acceleration have opposite sign then object is slowing down.
If velocity is zero for a time interval, the acceleration is zero at any instant within the time
(3)
interval.
(4) If velocity is zero at particular instant, acceleration must be zero at that instant.

11) A car starting from rest is accelerated at constant rate until it attains a speed of 16 m/s. It
moves with the constant speed 16 m/s for some time and then it is retarded at other constant rate
until it comes to rest. Considering that the car moves with constant speed for half of the time of
total journey, what will be the average speed of the car for the whole journey (in m/s) ?

(1) 8
(2) 12
(3) 9
(4) 15

12) BC is the diameter of a circle of radius 62.5 cm. A particle moves with constant speed of 2.5 cm/s
from B to C through A on straight line.

Find time taken.

(1) 70s
(2) 50s
(3) 80s
(4) 100s

13) A particle moves half the time of its journey with velocity u. The rest of the half time it moves
with two velocities v1 and v2 such that half the distance it covers with v1 and the other half with v2.
Find the net average velocity assume straight line motion :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) In one second a particle moves with constant speed from point A to point B along the
circular track of radius 1.0 m as shown in the figure. What is the average acceleration of the particle

during this motion.

(1) 2π m/s2 due east

(2) π m/s2 due west
(3) zero
(4) 2π m/s2 due west

15) The speed of a train increases at a constant rate a from 0 to v and then remains constant for
an interval and finally decreases to zero, at a constant rate β. The total time taken to cover a total
distance ℓ is given by

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) Two particles A and B are moving in XY plane. Particle A moves along a line with equation y =
x while B moves along X axis such that their X coordinates are always equal. If B moves with
a uniform speed 3 m/s, the speed of A is
(1) 3 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) A car starts from rest and moves with uniform acceleration a on a straight road from t = 0 to t =
T. After that, a constant deceleration 'a' brings it to rest. In this process the average speed of the car
is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) aT

18) A boy starts towards east with uniform speed 5m/s. After t = 2sec, he turns right and travels 40
m with same speed. Again he turns right and travel for 8 sec with same speed. His average velocity
is :-

(1) 5 m/s

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) A particle moves with constant acceleration along a straight line starting from rest. The
percentage increase in its displacement during the 4th second compared to its displacement in the 3rd
second is :

(1) 33 %
(2) 40 %
(3) 66 %
(4) 77 %

20) An object starts from rest with constant acceleration. In which second it will travel
same distance as much it travels in first five seconds :-

(1) 3rd s
(2) 11th s
(3) 13th s
(4) 9th s
21) A body starts from rest with uniform acceleration a, its velocity after n seconds is v.
The displacement of the body in last 3 s is : (assume
total time of journey from 0 to n seconds) :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

22) A particle moves through the origin of an x-y coordinate system at t = 0 with initial velocity

. It moves in x-y plane with an acceleration . Speed of the particle at t

= 4 second in :-

(1) 12 m/s
(2)
(3) 5 m/s
(4) 13 m/s

23) A particle is moving along x-axis whose position is given by then choose
the CORRECT statement for this motion-

(1) Direction of motion is not changing at any of the instants

(2) For 0 < t < 2s, the particle is speeding up
(3) Direction of motion is changing at t = 3 sec
(4) For 0 < t < 3s the particle is speeding up

24) The motion of a particle is defined by the position vector

Where t is expressed in seconds. Determine the value of t for which positions vectors and
velocity vector are perpendicular.

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) for all value of t
(4) None of these

25) Equation of a particle moving along the x axis is x = u(t – 2) + a(t – 2)2

(1) the initial velocity of the particle is u

(2) the acceleration of the particle is a
(3) the acceleration of the particle is 2a
(4) at t = 2 particle is not at origin

26) A particle is moving along x-axis and it’s position with time is given as :
x(t) = 2t2 – t – 1, then choose incorrect statement (unit of t is second and that of x is metre) :-

(1) Particle is at x = 0 at t = 1 sec

(2) Velocity of particle is zero at t = 0.25 sec
(3) While passing through origin, velocity of particle can be 3ms–1 (in + x direction)
(4) None

27) The co-ordinates of a particle in x-y plane are given as

x = 2t2 + t and y = 16t2 + 8t
The motion of the particle is :-

(1) Along a straight line

(2) Along a circular path
(3) Along a parabolic path
(4) Along a hyperbolic path

28) The relation between time t and distance x is given by t = Ax2 + Bx, where A and B are
constants. Then the
(A) velocity is given by v = 2Ax + B
(B) velocity is given by v = (2Ax + B)–1
(C) retardation is given by 2Av3
(D) retardation is given by 2Bv3

(1) Only (C)

(2) Only (D)
(3) Only (B) & (C)
(4) Only (B) & (D)

29) A point moves such that its position as a function of time is given by x2 = t2 + 1. Its acceleration
at time t is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) both (1) and (2)

30) A point particle moves in xy-plane according to the law x = a sin 2t and y = a – a cos 2t where a
is a positive constant and t is the time. Match the suitable matching.

List I List II
 x component constant and
(P) (1)
of velocity equal to 2a

y-component constant and

(Q) (2)
of acceleration equal to 4a

(R) Speed (3) vary as sinusoidally

(S) Acceleration (4) vary as linearly

Codes:
P Q R S

(1) 3 .3 1 2

(2) 3 4 1 2

(3) 3 2 1 4

(4) 3 4 2 1
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

31) The x and y coordinates of a particle moving in a plane are given by x(t) = a cos (pt) and y(t) = b
sin(pt) where a, b (< a) and p are positive constants of appropriate dimensions and t is time.
Then,

(1) the path of the particle is an ellipse.

(2) velocity and acceleration of the particle are perpendicular to each other at t = π/2p.
(3) acceleration of the particle is always directed towards a fixed point.
(4) all of these

32) Position vector of a particle is given as . The time after which,

the velocity vector and acceleration vector becomes perpendicular to each other is equal to -

(1) 1 sec
(2) 2 sec
(3) 1.5 sec
(4) 10 sec

33) A particle is falling freely under gravity. In first t second it covers distance d1 and in the next
t second it covers distance d2, then t is given by:

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) Two inclined frictionless tracks, one gradual and the other steep meet at A from where two
stones are allowed to slide down from rest, one on each track as shown in figure. Which of the

following statement is correct?

(1) Both the stones reach the bottom at the same time but not with the same speed.
Both the stones reach the bottom with the same speed and stone I reaches the bottom earlier
(2)
than stone II.
Both the stones reach the bottom with the same speed and stone II reaches the bottom earlier
(3)
than stone I.
(4) Both the stones reach the bottom at different times and with different speeds.

35) A ball is released from point A. During its motion ball takes two seconds from B to C. Find the

time taken by ball from A to C.

(1) 4s
(2) 5s
(3) 6s
(4) 7s

SECTION-B

1) A ball is thrown upwards from the foot of a tower. The ball crosses the top of tower twice after
an interval of 4 seconds and the ball reaches ground after 8 seconds. Then the height of tower in
meters is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 30m
(2) 45m
(3) 50m
(4) 60m

2) A particle is thrown upward from ground. It experiences a constant resistive force, which
produces retardation of 2m/s2. The ratio of time of ascent to the time of descent is :-

(1) 1

(2)

(3)

(4)

3) If a ball is projected vertical upward from ground such that total distance traveled is 3.6 times
of distance travel by the ball in 1st second. Then find time of flight of ball ?

(1) 2.4 s
(2) 3 s`
(3) 6 s
(4) 4.8 s

4) Water drops fall with negligible velocity at regular intervals from a hole at the bottom of a
vessel placed 16 m from the ground. The ninth drop is about to fall when the first drop just falls on
the floor. Find the distance between the third and fifth drop at this instant in meters.

(1) 2
(2) 5
(3) 8
(4) 9

5) A ball is thrown vertically upwards. It was observed at a height h twice after a time interval Δt.
The initial velocity of the ball is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
6) Figure shows the velocity (v) of particle plotted again time 't' :-
(A)Particle changes its direction of motion at some point
(B) Acceleration of particle remains constant and positive
(C) Speed of particle is always increasing
(D)Velocity of particle first decreases and then increases
(E) Displacement of particle is zero
(F) Speed of particle is first decreases and then increases
(G)Velocity of particle is always increasing
Choose correct statement(s) :-

(1) Only A,B,E,F,G

(2) Only A,B,C,D,E
(3) Only B,C,D,E
(4) Only B,C,D

7) Position-time graph is given find average speed in time t = 0 and t = 15 sec is :-

(1) 5 m/s

(2)

(3) 2 m/s

(4)

8) The dependence of the acceleration of a body with time is shown in Figure. At t = 0, the velocity

of the body is – 3 m/s and position is x = 0 m.

(1)

The velocity time graph is

(2)

The velocity time graph is

(3)

The position time graph is

(4)

The position time graph is

9) In the diagram shown, displacement of particles is given as a function of time. Particle 'A' is
moving under constant velocity 9 m/s. The particle 'B' is moving with variable acceleration. From

time t = 0 to t = 6 sec -

(1) Average velocity of particle B is more than 9 m/s

(2) Average velocity of particle B is less than that of particle A
(3) Displacement of particle 'A' is less than that of 'B'
(4) Displacement of particle 'B' is equal to that of particle A

10) In which of the graphs the particle moving on straight line is speeding up?
(1) II, III, IV
(2) II, IV
(3) II, III
(4) Only II

11) A particle moving along x-axis, its velocity at time t is 'v' then its “v2–t” graph is shown below.

Its acceleration at t = 1sec is :-

(1) 2 m/s2
(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 0.5 m/s2
(4) 0.7 m/s2

12) The position time relation of a particle moving along the x-axis is given by x = 6 – 2t + 3t2
then for velocity time graph

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

13) Acceleration time graph of a particle moving along a straight line is given. Then

average acceleration between t = 0 and t = 4 is :-

(1) 0 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 10 m/s2
(4) 7.5 m/s2

14) Referring to a-t diagram, find the velocity of the particle at t = 20 s. Assume that the particle
was at the origin at t = 0 and was moving with a velocity of 10 m/s in negative x-direction :-

(1) 20 m/s
(2) 22 m/s
(3) 18 m/s
(4) 42 m/s

15) The figure shows the graph of velocity-time for a particle moving in a straight line. If the
average speed for 6 s is ‘b’ and the average acceleration from 0 sec to 4 s is ‘c’ find magnitude of bc
(in m2/s3)

(1) 0
(2) 25
(3) 50/6
(4) None

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Number of electrons present in 1.8 ml of H2O [density of H2O is 1 g ml–1] [Molecular mass of H2O
= 18]

(1) 6.02 × 1023

(2) 3.011 × 1023
(3) 0.6022 × 1023
(4) 60.22 × 1023

2) 42 gm iron and 70 gm carbon monoxide are allowed to react to produce iron carbonyl Fe(CO)5.
Find the excess reactant and how much mass of it will be left at the end of reaction :-

(1) CO, 42 gm
(2) Fe, 42 gm
(3) CO, 13 gm
(4) Fe, 14 gm

3) Which of the following contains the greatest number of atoms ? Which of the following contains
the greatest number of atoms ?

(1) 1.0 g of butane (C4H10)

(2) 1.0 g of nitrogen (N2)
(3) 1.0 g of silver (Ag)
(4) 1.0 g of water (H2O)

4) The number of atoms of oxygen present in 10.6g of Na2CO3 will be

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4) 31.8

5) Two elements A and B combine to form compound X and Y. For the fixed mass of A, masses of B
combined for the compounds X and Y are in 3:7 ratio. If in compound X, 4g of A combines with 12g
B, then in compound Y, 8g of A will combine with.......g of B.

(1) 24
(2) 56
(3) 28
(4) 8

6)

5.85 g of NaCl is dissolved in 1 L of pure water. The number of ions in 1 mL of this solution is :

(1) 6.02×1019
(2) 1.2×1022
(3) 1.2×1020
(4) 6.02×1020

7) The molarity of the solution containing 2.8% mass/ volume solution KOH is :

(1) M/10
(2) M/2
(3) M/5
(4) 1M

8) If a sample of CuSO4.5H2O contains 3 moles of oxygen molecule, then moles of H-atoms present in
the sample is:

(1) 5
(2) 9
(3) 10/3
(4) 20/3

9) Which of the following is correct for 21 mg of N3– (azide ion) ?

–3
(1) It has 1.5 × 10 NA nitrogen atoms
(2) It has approximately 21 coloumb charge
(3) It is equal to 0.25 mol
(4) All of these

10) One mole of a mixture of N2, NO2 and N2O4 has a mean molar mass of 55.4. On heating to a
temperature at which all the N2O4 may be presumed to have dissociated : N2O4 → 2NO2, the mean
molar mass tends to the lower value of 39.6. What is the mole ratio of N2 : NO2 : N2O4 in the original
mixture?

(1) 0.5 : 0.1 : 0.4

(2) 0.6 : 0.1 : 0.3
(3) 0.5 : 0.2 : 0.3
(4) 0.6 : 0.2 : 0.2

11) The maximum volume at N.T.P. is occupied by-

(1) 12.8 gm of SO2

22
(2) 6.02 x 10 molecules of CH4
(3) 0.5 mol of NO2
(4) 1 gm-molecule of CO2

12) No. of oxalic acid molecules in 100 ml of 0.02 M oxalic acid is -

(1) 12 × 1020
(2) 6.023 × 1021
(3) 6.023 × 1022
(4) 6.023 × 1023

13) The vapour density of gas A is four times that of B. If molecular mass of B is M, then molecular
mass of A is -

(1) M
(2) 4M
(3) M/4
(4) 2M

14) ‘A’ sample of [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 contains 2.4 × 1024 ammonia molecules. The moles of [Cu(NH3)4]SO4
in given sample will be –

(1) 6 × 1023
(2) 4
(3) 3
(4) 1

15) 0.30 mole CaCl2 is mixed with 0.20 mole of Na3PO4, the maximum number of moles of Ca3(PO4)2
formed is
3CaCl2 + 2Na3PO4 Ca3(PO4)2 + 6NaCl

(1) 0.10
(2) 0.50
(3) 0.20
(4) 0.70
16) For the reaction 2Fe(NO3)3 + 3Na2CO3 Fe2(CO3)3 + 6NaNO3 Initially if 2.5mole of Fe(NO3)3
and 3.6 mole of Na2CO3 is taken. If 6.3 mole of NaNO3 is obtained then % yield of the given reaction
is

(1) 50
(2) 84
(3) 87.5
(4) 100

17) 20.0 g of a magnesium carbonate sample decomposes on heating to give carbon dioxide and 8.0
g magnesium oxide. What will be the percentage purity of magnesium carbonate in the sample ?
(Atomic weight of Mg = 24)

(1) 60
(2) 84
(3) 75
(4) 96

18) The mass of 80% pure Fe produced on the complete reduction of 10g of 10% pure Fe2O3 is
2Fe2O3 + 3C —→ 4Fe + 3CO2 (Fe=56 amu)

(1) 0.325g
(2) 0.875g
(3) 1000g
(4) None

19) Assertion : Volume occupied by 1 mol of H2O(l) is equal to 22400 mL at NTP.

Reason : 1 mole of any substance occupies a volume of 22.4L at NTP.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If both Assertion & Reason are False.

20) Assertion : At S.T.P. volumes of 2 mole O2 and 2 mole N2 are equal.

Reason : According to Avagadro's law equal mole of all gases at same temperature and pressure
possess equal volume.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

21) Assertion : The number of molecules of Ammonia and oxygen kept in two container of same
volume will be same under similar condition of temperature and pressure.
Reason : Volume ratio of two gases will be same as their mass ratio under similar condition of
temperature and pressure.
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

22) Assertion : Molarity of pure water is 55.5 M at 4°C.

Reason : Molarity is temperature dependent parameter.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

23) Assertion : Molality of the solution does not change with temperature.
Reason : Molarity of the solution change with temperature.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

24) The number of carbon atoms present in a signature, if a signature written by carbon pencil,
weighing 1.2 × 10–3 g is

(1) 12.04 × 1020

(2) 6.02 × 1019
(3) 3.01 × 1019
(4) 6.02 × 1020

25) In an organic compound C, H and N are present in 9 : 1 : 3.5 by mass. Molecular formula can be
:-

(1) C6H8N2
(2) C7H10N
(3) C5H6N2
(4) C4H18N3

26) The relative abundance of two rubidium isotopes of atomic weights 85 and 87 are 75% and 25%
respectively. The average atomic weight of rubidium is:-

(1) 75.5
(2) 85.5
(3) 86.5
(4) 87.5

27) A compound contains equal mass % of element A, B and C. If atomic mass of A, B and C are 20,
40 and 60 respectively, the empirical formula of compound is.

(1) A3B2C
(2) AB2C3
(3) ABC
(4) A6B3C2

28) For the reaction 2P + Q → R, 8 mol of P and 5 mol of Q will produce :-

(1) 8 mol of R
(2) 5 mol of R
(3) 4 mol of R
(4) 13 mol of R

29) 3.0 molal NaOH solution has a density of 1.110 g/ml. The molarity of the solution is-

(1) 2.9732
(2) 3.05
(3) 3.64
(4) 3.0504

30) The mass of CaCO3 produced when carbon dioxide is passed in excess through 500 ml of 0.5 M
Ca(OH)2 will be-

(1) 10 gm
(2) 20 gm
(3) 50 gm
(4) 25 gm

31) 10 L Nitrogen gas reacts with 20 L hydrogen gas to produce how many litres of Ammonia under
similar condition of temperature and pressure ?

(1) 20 L
(2) 13.33 L
(3) 23.33 L
(4) 9.2 L

32) Density of aqueous solution of 4g/100 ml by strength NaOH solution is 1.04g/mL then molality of
solution is :-

(1) 1 m
(2) < 1m
(3) > 1 m
(4) Can't predict

33) Mass of NaOH required for formation of 100 ml of its decimolar solution is–
(1) 0.8
(2) 0.4
(3) 0.2
(4) 8 g

34)

Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II

A. 88 g of CO2 I. 0.25 mole

B. 6.022 × 1023 molecules of H2O II. 2 mole

C. 5.6 litres of O2 at STP III. 1 mole

D. 96 g of O2 IV. 6.022×1023 molecules

E. 1 mol of any gas V. 3 mole

(1) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-V, E-IV
(2) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-V, E-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-V, E-IV
(4) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV, E-V

35) Which of the following option represents correct limiting reagents in reactions (i), (ii) and (iii)
respectively?

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(1) C, N2, O2
(2) C, N2, P4
(3) O2, H2, P4
(4) O2, N2, P4

SECTION-B

1) Haemoglobin contains 0.334% of iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is

approximately 67200. The number of iron atoms (Atomic weight of Fe is 56) present in one molecule
of haemoglobin is
(1) 4
(2) 6
(3) 3
(4) 2

2) Assertion (A) : Empirical formula represents the simplest ratio of atoms in a molecule of a
compound.
Reason (R) : Empirical formula is always different from molecular formula.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)

3) Assertion : Both 53 g of Na2CO3 and 6g of graphite have same number of C-atoms.

Reason : Number of oxygen atoms in 53 g Na2CO3 is three times the number of C-atoms in 6 g
graphite.

(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false.

4) Calculate the weight of MgO produced when 16g Mg combined with 4g O2 :-

(1) 10 g
(2) 20 g
(3) 30 g
(4) 40 g

5) Calculate mass percentage of Na in Na2SO4 :-

(1) 32.39%
(2) 22.53%
(3) 45.07%
(4) 50.6%

6) 6 × 1024 atoms of an element weight 200g. If this element forms homodiatomic gas (X2) then
calculate gram molecular mass of X2 (NA = 6 × 1023)

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 30
(4) 40

7) differ in :-
(1) Atomic Number
(2) Number of neutrons
(3) Number of electrons
(4) Number of protons

8) n mol of N2 and 0.05 mol of Ar are enclosed in a vessel of capacity 2 L at 1 atm and 27°C. Find n :
(R = 0.082 L atm mol K–1).

(1) 0.30
(2) 0.10
(3) 0.03
(4) 0.06

9) A sample of water contains only H1 and H2 atoms in 4 : 1 atomic ratio and O16 and O17 in 5 : 2
atomic ratio. The average molecular mass of such water is:

(1) 16.28
(2) 18.00
(3) 18.10
(4) 18.68

10) Zinc and hydrochloric acid react according to the reaction :

Zn(s) + 2HCl(aq) → ZnCl2(aq.) + H2(g)
if 0.3 mole of Zn are added to 0.52 mole of HCl then how many moles of H2 will produced

(1) 0.26
(2) 1.04
(3) 0.52
(4) 0.13

11) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l) when 1mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are made to
react to completion -

(1) 1 mole of H2O is produced

(2) 1 mole of NO will be produced
(3) All the oxygen will be consumed
(4) All the ammonia will be consumed

12) What is correct for 10 g of CaCO3 -

(1) It contains 1g-atom of carbon

(2) It contains 0.3 g-atoms of oxygen
(3) It contains 12 g of calcium
(4) None of these

13) The empirical formula and molecular mass of a compound are CH2O and 180 g respectively.
what will be molecular formula of the compound?

(1) C9H18O9
(2) CH2O
(3) C6H12O6
(4) C2H4O2

14) Find out Mass of 3g -atoms of aluminium?

(1) 81g
(2) 27g
(3) 54g
(4) 13.5g

15) 4% W/V HCl solution has molarity

(1) 1M
(2) 1.1M
(3) 2M
(4) 2.1M

BOTANY

SECTION-A

1) A is the feature seen in human beings only. Here A is

(1) Reproduction
(2) Growth
(3) Self consciousness
(4) Metabolism

2) Largest Botanical Garden, Indian Botanical Garden and National Botanical Research Institute are
situated respectively at:-

(1) Kew, Lucknow, Howrah

(2) Kew, Howrah, Lucknow
(3) Lucknow, Howrah, Kew
(4) Howrah, Lucknow, Kew

3) Metabolism can be defined as ?

(1) Sum total of all chemical reactions happens out side the body.
(2) Chemical reactions take place in particular cells.
(3) Sum total of all chemical reactions occurring in living body.
(4) Sum total of all chemical reactions occurring outside the cells.

4) In keys, a pair containing set of contrasting characters is called a

(1) Lead
(2) Couplet
(3) Botanical name
(4) Monograph

5) Which two among the following are the twin characters of growth?
(A) Increase in number
(B) Increase in mass
(C) Cellular organisation
(D) Reproduction

(1) (A) and (B)

(2) (A) and (C)
(3) (B) and (C)
(4) (C) and (D)

6) Statement-I : In majority of higher plants and animals, growth and reproduction are mutually
exclusive events.
Statement-II : Both unicellular and multicellular organisms exhibit metabolism.

(1) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are correct.

(2) Statement 1 is incorrect but statement 2 is correct.
(3) Statement 1 is correct but statement 2 is incorrect.
(4) Both statement 1 and statement 2 are incorrect.

7) Statement I : Self consciousness is found in all living organisms.

Statement II : Intrinsic growth can be taken as defining property of life.

(1) Only statement I is correct

(2) Only Statement II is correct
(3) Both statement I and II are correct
(4) Both statement I and II are incorrect

8) Which of the following is not a defining feature of life forms?

(1) Cellular organisation

(2) Growth
(3) Consciousness
(4) Metabolism

9) Reproduction is not considered as defining characteristic of living organisms, Because

(1) Some non-living objects also capable of replicating themselves

(2) Some living organisms do not reproduce
(3) No living organism is capable of reproducing by itself
(4) Growth and reproduction are mutually exclusive events

10) Assertion : Consciousness is considered as the defining property of living organisms.

Reason : All organism, from the prokaryotes to the most complex eukaryotes can sense and respond
to environmental stimuli.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

11) The number of species that are known ranges between

(1) 1.7-1.8 million

(2) 1 million
(3) 50 million
(4) 2 million

12) Which one of the following is common to multicellular fungi, filamentous algae and protonema of
mosses ?

(1) Diplontic life cycle

(2) Members of kingdom Planate
(3) Mode of Nutrition
(4) Multiplication by fragmentation

13) Mark the correct statement from the following :-

(1) Growth in living organisms is from inside

(2) Plants grow but only up to a certain age
(3) Only living organisms grow
(4) All of the above

14) How many features are defining for all the living organisms –
Growth, Reproduction, Metabolism, Cellular organisation, Consciousness and self consciousness.

(1) 1
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 2

15) In given following option which is not a correct scientific name :-

(1) Mangifera mangifera

(2) Magnifera indica Linn
(3) Naja naja
(4) Homo sapiens

16) What you call a process by which anything is grouped into convenient categories ?

(1) Identification
(2) Nomenclature
(3) Classification
(4) Taxonomy

17) In Mangifera indica, Solanum tuberosum, and Panthera leo, all the three names, indica,
tuberosum and leo represent the :-

(1) Names of species

(2) Names of specific epithets
(3) Names of genus
(4) Names of generic epithet

18) 'indica' is a particular species or species epithet of which genus among these ?

(1) Solanum
(2) Brassica
(3) Panthera
(4) Mangifera

19) Which of the following statement is incorrect for taxonomical hierarchy ?

(1) The number of common characters goes on decreasing as we go higher from species to kingdom
(2) lower the taxa, more are the charactersitics that the members with in the taxon share
Higher the taxa, greater is the difficulty of determining the relationship to other taxa at the
(3)
same level
(4) Higher the taxa more are the characteristics that members with in the taxon share

20) Taxonomic key are based on :-

(1) Contrasting characters

(2) Vegetative characters only
(3) Flower character only
(4) Stem characters only

21) Key is based on..........characters, generally in pair called..........

(1) Normal, conjugation

(2) special, conjugation
(3) contrasting, couplet
(4) Conjugation, Special

22) A collection of species, which bears a close resemblance to one another in the morphological
characters of the floral parts is known as :-

(1) Family
(2) Genus
(3) Division
(4) Variety

23) What is common in wheat, mammals, dogs and animals :-

(1) These are all taxa at different levels

(2) These all taxa belong to same category
(3) These are all taxa at same level in linnaeus hierarchy
(4) These are all categories at different levels

24)

Match Column-I with Column-II and select the correct option from the codes given below.

Column-I Column-II
Binomal
A. (i) Hippocrates
nomenclature
The Darwin of the
B. (ii) Earnst Mayr
20th century
C. Father of Botany (iii) Linnaeus
D. Father of medicine (iv) Theopharastus
(1) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
(2) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(i), D-(iv)
(3) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(4) A-(ii), B-(iii), C-(iv), D-(i)

25)

Taxon is

(1) Short term for taxonomy

(2) A group of species
(3) A classificatory (taxonomic) unit of any rank
(4) A international rules of nomenclature

26) Animals, mammals and dogs represents :-

(1) Taxa at same level

(2) Taxa at different level
(3) Group of same species
(4) same class

27) Which are is correct statement :-

(a) Genus is a group of related species
(b) Family is a group of related genera
(c) Class is a group of related orders
(d) Order is a higher category to family

(1) a, b, c
(2) b, c, d
(3) c, d, b
(4) a, b, c, d

28) Modern taxonomy includes study of

(1) Internal structure and cell structure

(2) Developmental process
(3) Morphological characters
(4) All of these

29)

Find the incorrect statement:

(1) Lower the taxa more are the characteristics that the members within the taxon share.
As we go higher from species to kingdom the number of common characteristics goes on
(2)
increasing.
(3) Order is a higher category than family.
(4) Classes with similar characters are assigned to category called division.

30) Match column I with II for housefly classification and select the correct option using the codes
given below :

Column I Column II

1 Family I Diptera

2 Order II Arthropoda

3 Class III Muscidae

4 Phylum IV Insecta
(1) 1-III, 2-I, 3-IV, 4-II
(2) 1-III, 2-II, 3-IV, 4-I
(3) 1-IV, 2-III, 3-II, 4-I
(4) 1-IV, 2-II, 3-I, 4-III

31) Scientific names are derived from which of the following languages ?
(1) German
(2) English
(3) Latin or Greek
(4) Spanish

32) Study the following statements carefully and give the answer :-
A. Biological names are generally in English and written in Latin.
B. The first word in biological names represents the genus.
C. Both the words in a biological name are separately underlined when printed by computers.
D. Name of the scientist who described the organism first; is written in full at the end of
biological name.

(1) B – correct A, C, D – incorrect

(2) A, C – correct B, D – incorrect
(3) A, B – correct C, D – incorrect
(4) A, C, D – correct B – incorrect

33) Identify the correct option regarding Mangifera indica (mango) :

Family Order Class

1 Anacardiaceae Sapindales Dicotyledonae

2 Sapindales Anacardiaceae Dicotyledonae

3 Anacardiaceae Sapindales Monocotyledonae

4 Sapindales Anacardiaceae Monocotyledonae

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

34) Which is not correctly matched with its taxonomic rank ?

1 Solanaceae Order

2 Homo Genus

3 Felidae Family

4 Mammalia Class
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Choose the correct statement from following :-

(1) Key is used for identification of only plants
(2) Herbaria serve as quick referral system in taxonomic studies
(3) Felidae and canidae both are example of order
(4) Botanical garden and museum both are related with living plants and animals only

SECTION-B

1) Biological names when printing should be :-

(1) Latin
(2) Greek
(3) English
(4) Italics

2) In 'S' phase of the cell cycle :-

(1) Amount of DNA doubles in each cell.

(2) Amount of DNA remains same in each cell.
(3) Chromosome number is increased.
(4) Amount of DNA is reduced to half in each cell.

3) Cytokinesis :-

(1) In animal cell occur centrifugally whereas in plant cells it occur centripetally
(2) In plant cells occur by furrow or cleavage formation in the protoplast
(3) Is not a part of telophase
(4) Is universally followed by karyokinesis

4)

During which phase(s) of cell cycle, amount of DNA in a cell remains at 4C level if the initial amount
is denoted as 2C?

(1) G0 and G1
(2) G1 and S
(3) Only G2
(4) G2 and M

5) Mitosis occurs in :

(1) Haploid individuals

(2) Diploid individuals
(3) Both (1) & (2)
(4) In bacteria only

6) Assertion (A) : Cell growth is a continuous process.

Reason (R) : DNA synthesis occurs only during one phase of cell cycle.

(1) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct but (R) does not explain (A)
(2) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct and (R) correct explain (A)
(3) Assertion is correct and Reason is incorrect
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect

7) Assertion (A) : Mitosis is significant in the life of an organism, especially in the growth of
multicellular organism.
Reason (R) : Mitosis restores the nucleocytoplasmic.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

(2) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true, but R is false
(4) Both A and R are false

8) Nucleus is absent in:

(1) Mature RBC

(2) Mature sieve tube
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) All mature cells

9) What is true about telophase stage of mitosis?

(1) Chromosomes lose their identity as discrete elements

(2) Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
(3) Nuclear envelope, nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER reform
(4) All of these

10) Synapsis is the process where by :-

(1) Homologous pairs of chromosomes separate & migrate toward a pole.

(2) Homologous chromosomes exchange chromosomal material.
(3) Homologous chromosomes become closely associated.
(4) The daughter cells contain half of the genetic material of the parent cells.

11) During meiosis, if there are 40 chromatids in a cell during prophase I, how many chromatids will
there be in each daughter cell by the end of telophase II :-

(1) 5
(2) 10
(3) 20
(4) 40

12) Which stage of karyokinesis is marked by complete disintegration of the nuclear envelop and
spreading of chromosomes through the cytoplasm of the cell ?
(1) Anaphase
(2) Metaphase
(3) Prophase
(4) Telophase

13) Chromosome number is restored by :-

(1) Meiosis
(2) Mitosis
(3) Crossing over
(4) Interphase

14) The eukaryotes are included in all of the following except:-

(1) Protists
(2) Monera
(3) Fungi
(4) Plants

15) What is the primary function of the cell membrane ?

(1) To provide structural support to the cell

(2) To synthesize proteins for the cell
(3) To regulate the movement of substances in and out of the cell
(4) To generate energy for the cell

ZOOLOGY

SECTION-A

1) Select the correct option for tongue worm :-

(1) Fresh water animal

(2) True notochord is present
(3) Excretion by proboscis gland
(4) Triploblastic and circulatory system is close type

2) The connecting link between non chordates and chordates is:

(1) Neopilina
(2) Peripatus
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Archaeopteryx
3) Identify the incorrect statement about the given organism :-

(1) Body in divided into proboscis, collar & trunk

(2) It is commonly called as Acorn worm
(3) Circulatory system is of closed type
(4) External fertilisation is observed.

4) In molluscs, gills (feather-like) have the :-

(1) Respiratory and circulatory functions

(2) Circulatory and excretory functions
(3) Excretory and respiratory functions
(4) Excretory, respiratory and circulatory functions

5) The structure found in Balanoglossus similar to notochord is :-

(1) Proboscis
(2) Trunk
(3) Stomochord
(4) Collar

6) Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following ?

(1) Porifera
(2) Ctenophora
(3) Echinodermata
(4) Chordata

7) An animal having coelom, radial symmetry in adult but bilateral symmetry in larva is member of :-

(1) Mollusca
(2) Echinodermata
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Annelida

8) Which of the following is a spiny-skin animal?

(1) Pila
(2) Periplaneta
(3) Pheretima
(4) Ophiura

9) How many animals are related with echinodermata

Asterias, Echinus, Sea lily, Ophiura, Cucumaria, Saccoglossus, Cuttle fish, Sea hare, Culex, Chiton

(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 4
(4) 7

10) Match the columns I and II, and choose the correct combination from the options given :

Column-I Column-II
(a) Echinus (1) Brittle star
(b) Cucumaria (2) Star fish
(c) Antedon (3) Sea urchin
(d) Ophiura (4) Sea cucumber
(e) Asterias (5) Sea lily
(1) a-4, b-3, c-5, d-2, e-1
(2) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-1, e-2
(3) a-3, b-4, c-5, d-2, e-1
(4) a-3, b-5, c-4, d-1, e-2

11) The most distinctive feature of echinoderms is the presence of water vascular system, which
does not helps in :-

(1) Capture and transport of food

(2) Respiration
(3) Offence, defence and cleaning
(4) Locomotion

12) Radula, shell, mantle cavity present in :-

(1) Echinus
(2) Limulus
(3) Sea hare
(4) Ctenoplana

13) Which of the following is the correct match of animal ?

(1) Sepia-Devil fish

(2) Chaetopleura-chiton
(3) Octopus-Cuttle fish
(4) Aplysia-Squid

14) The elephant tusk shell is :–

(1) Dentalium
(2) Nautilus
(3) Limax
(4) Octopus

15) The animal of which phylum has bilateral symmetry, organ system level of body organisation,
Triploblastic, tube with in tube body plan, unsegmented body and schizocoelomate :-

(1) Echinodermata
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthopoda
(4) Mollusca

16) The second largest animal plylum is :-

(1) Annelida
(2) Arthropoda
(3) Mollusca
(4) Porifera

17) Book lungs are respiratory structures of :

(1) Cockroach
(2) Limulus
(3) Scorpion
(4) Prawn

18) Which is the gregarious pest of phylum Arthropoda?

(1) Cockroach
(2) Scorpion
(3) Prawn
(4) Locusta

19) Identify the living fossil among the following:-

(1) Anopheles
(2) Gambusia
(3) Limulus
(4) Petromyzon

20) The unique feature of arthopoda is the presence of:-

(1) Jointed appendages
(2) Chitinous exoskeleton
(3) 3 pair of thoracic legs
(4) 1 and 2 both

21) Two common characters found in Centipede, Honey bee, Silver fish, Scorpion, Cockroach and
Crab are :-

(1) Jointed legs and chitinous exoskeleton

(2) Green glands and tracheae
(3) Book lungs and antennae
(4) Compound eyes and anal cerci

22) Excretion in members of arthropoda take place by :-

(1) Malpighian tubules

(2) Green glands
(3) Coxal glands
(4) All of the above

23) Here some informations are given about Arthropoda :-

– Bilateral symmetry
– Incomplete digestive system
– Organ system level of organisation
– Coelomate
– Open type circulatory system
– Triploblastic
– Unsegmented
How many informations are correct ?

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

24) Following diagram represents which animal ?

(1) Earthworm
(2) Hirudinaria
(3) Nereis
(4) Ascaris

25) Parapodia are found in

(1) Leech
(2) Insects
(3) Nereis
(4) Sycon

26) In which group of animals, a closed circulatory system is present :-

(1) Arthropoda
(2) Mollusca
(3) Hemichordata
(4) Annelida

27) How many of the following statements are correct regarding annelid locomotion :-
(1) They posess circular and longitudinal muscles for locomotion.
(2) Locomotion in Hirudinaria occurs with the help of suckers.
(3) Setae made of chitin help in earthworms locomotion.
(4) Aquatic annelids swim with the help of parapodia.

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) One
(4) Two

28) Elephantiasis disease caused by members of which phylum ?

(1) Platyhelminthes
(2) Annelida
(3) Arthropoda
(4) Aschelminthes

29) In which of the following option all animals are dioecious

(1) Fasciola, Ascaris, Taenia

(2) Ascaris, Ancylostoma, Wuchereria
(3) Ancyclostoma, Fasciola, Ascaris
(4) Taenia, Ascaris, Wuchereria

30) Which one of the following groups of animals is bilaterally symmetrical and triploblastic ?

(1) Coelenterates (Cnidarians)

(2) Aschelminthes (round worms)
(3) Ctenophores
(4) Sponges

31) Identify the incorrect statement from the following :-

(1) Radula is found in molluscs

(2) Apis is an economically important insect
(3) Female Ascaris is longer than males
(4) Male Ascaris is longer than females

32) Hook worm is :-

(1) Ascaris
(2) Ancylostoma
(3) Trichuris
(4) Wuchereria

33) Which of the following is not a pseudocoelomate animal?

(1) Ascaris
(2) Wuchereria
(3) Ancylostoma
(4) Pheretima

34) Cnidarians and ctenophores resemble in their :-

(1) Levels of organisation

(2) Symmetry
(3) Diploblastic organisation
(4) All of the above

35) Assertion : Sponges have a water transport or ambulacral system.

Reason : The body of sponges is supported by skeleton made up from calcareous ossicles.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

SECTION-B

1) Assertion : Flatworms are mostly endoparasite found in animals including human beings.
Reason : Sexes are separate in flat worms.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

2) Assertion : Cnidarians exhibit two basic body forms called polyp and medusa.
Reason : These body forms alternatively changed in each other by metagenesis.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3)
Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) Assertion : Coelenterates, Ctenophores and echoniderms have radial symmetry.

Reason : In Radial symmetry, body divisible into two equal halves through only one axis and plane.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

4) Assertion : Some groups of kingdom animalia show organ system level of organisation.
Reason : Organs have associated to form functional systems, each system concerned with a specific
physiological function.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.

(3)
Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

5) Consider the following four statements (a-d) and select the option which includes all the correct
ones only :-
(a) All members of animalia are multicellular.
(b) In sponges the cells are arranged as loose cell aggregates
(c) Platyhelminthes exhibit cellular level of organisation
(d) All multicellular animals do not exhibit the same pattern of organisation of cells

(1) Statements (b), (c) and (d)

(2) Statements (a), (b)
(3) Statements (c), (d)
(4) Statements (a), (b) and (d)

6) Select the correct statements :

(A) Platyhelminthes are triploblastic pseudocoelomate and bilaterally symmetrical organisms.
(B) Ctenophores reproduce only sexually and fertilization is external.
(C) In tapeworm, fertilization is internal but sexes are not separate.
(D) Ctenophores are exclusively marine, diploblastic and bioluminescent organisms.
(E) In sponges, fertilization is external and development is direct.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :

(1) (A), (C) and (D) only

(2) (B), (C) and (D) only
(3) (A) and (E) only
(4) (B) and (D) only

7) In the evolutionary history of the animal kingdom, which of the following features have evolved
for the first time in phylum Annelida?
A. Metameric segmentation
B. Organ level of organisation
C. Closed circulatory system
D. True coelom
E. Bilateral symmetry

(1) B and E
(2) A,B,C and D
(3) A,C and D
(4) Only A and B

8) Read the following statements.

(a) Metagenesis is observed in Helminths.
(b) Echinoderms are triploblastic and coelomate animals.
(c) Round worms have organ-system level of body organization.
(d) Comb plates present in ctenophores help in digestion.
(e) Water vascular system is characteristic of Echinoderms.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) (a), (d) and (e) are correct

(2) (b), (c) and (e) are correct
(3) (c), (d) and (e) are correct
(4) (a), (b) and (c) are correct

9) Choose the diploblastic acoelomate animal from the folllowing given options.

(1) Sea anemone

(2) Tapeworm
(3) Hookworm
(4) Pearl oyster

10) Read out the following characters:

A. Digestion is both extracellular and Intracellular.
B. Bioluminescence is well marked.
C. Reproduction occurs only sexually.
D. Indirect development.
These features can be observed in

(1) Ctenoplana
(2) Petromyzon
(3) Balanoglossus
(4) Hydra

11) Statements-I : Flatworms are bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic and acoelomate animal with
organ level of organisation.
Statements-II : Comb jellies are exclusively marine, radially symmetrical, triploblastic organism
with tissue level of organisation.

(1) Both statement-I and Statements-II are correct.

(2) Statements-I is correct and Statements-II is incorrect.
(3) Statements-I is incorrect but Statements-II is correct.
(4) Both Statements-I and Statements-II are incorrect.

12) Match the following columns.

Column-I Column-II

(A) (1) Spongilla

(B) (2) Euspongia

(C) (3) Sycon

(D) (4) Aurelia

(1) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4

(2) A-2 B-3 C-1 D-4
(3) A-4 B-1 C-2 D-3
(4) A-3 B-1 C-2 D-4

13) Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II

(A) Asymmetrical (I) Adamsia

(B) Pseudocoelomate (II) Fasciola

(C) Diploblastic (III) Spongilla

 (D) Acoelomate (IV) Ascaris
Choose the correct answer from the options given below :
(1) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II

14) A : Sponges represent the most primitive animals possessing multicellularity.

R : They have tissue level of organisation and each tissue exhibit different function.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are true and the reason is the correct explanation of the assertion
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are true but the reason is not the correct explanation of the assertion
(3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements

15) Which of the following is / are showing internal fertilisation?

(1) Pleurobranchia
(2) Spongilla
(3) Nereis
(4) Pheretima
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 4 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 1 4 2 1 1 4 2 3 3 4 2 3
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 4 3 3 3 4 1 3 4 1 4 1 3 3 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 4 2 3 2 2 1 3 1 4 3 4 3 2 2 2

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 4 1 3 2 3 2 4 1 1 4 1 2 4 1 3 2 2 4 1
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 3 1 2 2 1 2 4 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 2 2 1 1 4 2 3 4 1 3 2 3 1 2

BOTANY

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 3 2 3 2 1 1 2 2 2 1 1 4 1 2 1 3 2 4 4 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 2 1 1 3 2 4 4 2 1 3 1 1 1 2

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 4 1 3 3 3 1 1 3 4 3 2 2 1 2 3

ZOOLOGY
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 3 3 3 3 3 2 4 1 2 3 3 2 1 4 3 3 4 3 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 1 4 2 3 3 4 1 4 2 2 4 2 4 4 4

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 3 1 3 1 4 2 3 2 1 1 2 3 4 3 2
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

CHEMISTRY

59)

21 mg =
= 0.5 × 10–3 mol
∴ No. of N atoms = 3 × 0.5 × 10–3 mol
= 1.5 × 10–3 × NA atoms.

68)
No. of notes of Fe2O3 is

mol
Mass of 80% pure iron produced is

73) 1 volume dependent concentration terms depend on temperature

(Ex - molarity)

75)

C H N
Mass 9x x 3.5x

Moles : :
3 : 4 : 1

76) Avg. Atomic weight

= 85.5

79)

1 kg of solvent —→ 3 mol NaOH

1 kg of solvent —→ 3 0 × 40 gm = 120 gm
Total weight of solution = 1000 + 120 = 1120 gm

V=
M=

=3× = 2.97 M

80)

Ca(OH)2 + CO2 —→ CaCO3

1 mol 1 mol 1 mol
0.5 M × 0.5 L
0.25 mol 0.25 mol
Weight in gm of Ca(OH)2 = 0.25 × 100 = 25 gm

81)

Volume of NH3 produced =

82)

4g of NaOH present in 100 mL of solution

mass of solution = 100 mL × 1.04 g/mL = 104g
mass of solvent = 104 – 4 = 100 g

83)
W = 0.4 g

91) At. wt. of element = 20

Mol. wt. of x2 = 2× 20 = 40

BOTANY

108) NCERT Page No.4

109)

NCERT page no. 4

117)

NCERT, Pg # 9
 118)

NCERT XI (E/H) Pg. # 7

119)

NCERT XI Pg # 10, 11

121)

NCERT (XIth) Pg. # 13 (1.4.5)

126) NCERT XI Page No. # 7

131)

Module Pg no. 17

132)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 7

133) NCERT page no. 11

136)

NCERT Pg. # 07, Para-1.2

137) NCERT Pg. # 163

147) NCERT Pg # 165

149)

NCERT-XI, Pg. #129

150) module

ZOOLOGY

152) NCERT (XI) Page 54

153) NCERT Page 54.

Open type circulatory system with dorsal heart.

154)
NCERT XIth Pg.#53, IInd Para

155) New NCERT Update

158)

NCERT(XI) Pg#54 Para:4.2.9

159)

NCERT XI Pg. # 54

161)

NCERT XI Pg. # 54

167)

NCERT Pg. # 53

168)

NCERT Pg. # 53

169) Limulus or king crab is considered to be a living fossil.

170)

NCERT (XI) Pg. # 53

174)

NCERT Pg. # 52

178)

NCERT Pg. # 52

179) NCERT XI pg no.52

192) Module

197) NCERT, Pg. # 40,41

198)

NCERT Pg. # 49, 50, 51, 52

200)

NCERT Page No. 51