AIRCRAFT SYSTEMS

[Type here]
 1

TOPIC No. 1
Fuselage, Wings and Stabilizing Surfaces
Definitions, Loads Applied to Aircraft Structures
1)Tension/Tensile Load
One which tends to stretch a structural
member.
Components designed to resist tensile loads
are known as ties.
2)Compression/Compressive loads
Opposite of tensile loads and tend to shorten
structural members.
Components designed to resist compressive
loads are known as struts.
3)Shear
Shear is a force which tends to slide one face
of the material over an adjacent face.
Riveted joints are designed to resist shear
forces.

Combination Loadings
Bending
Bending of the structure involves
the three basic loadings:

Tension as the outer edge

stretches.
Compression as the inner edge squeezes together.
Shear across the structure as the forces try to split it.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 2

Torsion/Twisting force
Produce tension at the outer edge

Compression in the centre

Shear across the structure.

Stress
Stress is the internal force per unit area.

Stress is defined as the force per unit of area and is

measured in units of N/mm2 or MN/m2. (DGCA)
Strain
Strain is defined as the deformation caused
by the action of stress on a material.

It is normally given as the change in

dimension expressed as a percentage of the
original dimensions of the object.

Buckling
Buckling occurs to thin sheet materials
when they are subjected to end loads and if
subjected to compressive forces.

Elasticity
Property of matter by virtue of which an
object regains its original shape and size is
called elasticity.

Elastic Limit
Maximum load a material can take and sustain it elastic property or elasticity.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 3

If any load takes the structure beyond the elastic limit, the permanent
deformation will take place(DGCA)
Design Limit Load (DLL) 80 kather
This is the maximum load that the designer would expect the airframe or
component to experience in service.
These values are based on ‘g’-forces and derived from failure values
determined experimentally at the design stage.
Design Ultimate Load (DUL) 100 Bethe
The DUL is the DLL × the safety factor.
DUL=DLL × SAFETY FACTOR
The minimum safety factor specified in design requirements is 1.5.
The structure must withstand DUL without collapse.

Safety Factor
The safety factor is the ratio of the ultimate load to the limit load.

Design Philosophies
Safe Life
The safe life of an aircraft structure is defined as the minimum life during
which it is known that no catastrophic damage should occur.
Life-counts for components of assemblies may be recorded as a number of
flying hours, cycles of landing, pressurization events, accelerations or even on
a calendar basis.
After the elapsed life-count or fatigue cycle (typically pressurisations or
landings) has been reached, the item is replaced or overhauled.
In the operational life of the aircraft, and to minimize the chances of failure
due to fatigue, aircraft designers apply the principle of Fail-safe construction or
Damage tolerance.
Fail-safe Structure

MANSIMRAN SINGH

Better)
 4

If failure of a critical subsystem will cause severe losses, back-up systems are
often employed, for example, commercial aircraft have a minimum of two
engines.
They are designed such that fully loaded airplane can take-off even if one
engine fails.
If a structure element fails, the load it was carrying will be transferred to the
other member.
Damage Tolerant structure
Fail-safe structures are rather heavy due to the extra structural members
required to protect the integrity of the structure.
Damage tolerant structure eliminates the extra structural members by
spreading the loading of a particular structure over a larger area.
This means that the structure is designed so that damage can be detected
during the normal inspection cycles before a failure occurs.

Fatigue
Weakness in metal or other material caused by repeated variation of stress.
Repeatedly applied and then removed a nominal load to and from a metal
part(Known as cyclic load), the part would break after a certain number of
load-unload cycle, even when the maximum cyclic stress level applied was
much lower that the ultimate stress
This behaviour became to be known as fatigue because it was originally
thought the metal got tired.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 5

Station Numbers
A method of locating components on the aircraft must be established in order
that maintenance and repairs can be carried out.
Stations: Designate location along the length of the a/c.
Station numbers are given in inches Forard or aft

xy2
place
(point

Water Line: Vertical position from a ground line or horizontal datum.

Buttock line: Designate location left/right on the A/c.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 6

Aircraft Structures
Fuselage
The fuselage is the main structure or body of the aircraft and carries the
aircraft payload i.e. the passengers and/or freight as well as the flight crew and
cabin staff in safe, comfortable conditions.

Pressurized Aircraft
Structures must also be capable of supporting the axial and hoop stresses
imposed by the pressurization forces.

Axial Stress/Longitudinal Stress

Set up in the fuselage of aircraft when
pressurized and tend to elongate the
fuselage.

Hoop Stress/Radial Stress

Hoop or radial stresses are set up in addition to axial stress and tend to expand
fuselage cross section area.
“SHAPE OF THE FUSELAGE IS CIRCULAR”(DGCA)
Fuselage Construction

There are three main types of construction in use:

Truss or framework type generally used for light, non-pressurized, aircraft.

Monocoque - Generally used for light aircraft

Semi-monocoque is more widely used on most other aircraft. This type of

structure is now generally referred to as Stressed Skin.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 7

Framework

Framework consists of light gauge steel

tubes welded together to form a frame.
It is a strong, easily constructed and
relatively trouble free basic structure.
The framework is covered by a
lightweight aluminium alloy or fabric skin
to give an enclosed, aerodynamically efficient load carrying compartment.

Monocoque Construction
All the loads are taken by the skin
with just light internal frames or
formers to give the required shape.
Even slight damage to the skin can
seriously weaken the structure.
Extra strength needs to be built in
around holes in the structure for
windows, doors or undercarriages as
these will weaken the structure.
This type of construction is only suitable for smaller aircraft.
Semi-monocoque Construction

As aircraft became larger and the air loads

greater the pure monocoque structure
was not strong enough
Additional structural members known as
stringers (stiffeners) and longerons were
added to run lengthwise along the
fuselage joining the frames together.
(DGCA)
The light alloy skin is then attached to the
frames and stringers by riveting or adhesive bonding.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 8

Stringers stiffen the skin and assist the sheet materials to carry loads along
their length.

Frames
Frames are vertical structures that are open
in their centre.
They are designed to take the major loads
and give the aircraft its shape

Bulkheads
The bulkheads are similar to frames but are
usually solid but may have access doors.
They are also designed to give the fuselage
its shape and take some of the main loads.

Firewalls
There has to be means of separating the flight deck and cabin from the engine.
This is called a firewall.
The firewall is required to protect the flight crew and passengers in the event
of an engine fire.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 9

Flight Deck and Passenger Cabin Windows

Flight Deck Windows
The flight deck windows fitted to pressurized
aircraft must withstand both the loads of
pressurization and impact loads from
birdstrikes.

An electrically conducting coating, applied to

the inside of the outer glass panel is used to
heat the window.

This prevents ice from forming and makes the

window more resilient and able to withstand
birdstrikes.

~
“WINDOW CONSISTS OF FIVE LAYERS”

Direct Vision (DV) Windows

An opening window, normally referred to as a DV window must be provided in
the control cabin to enable the pilot to land the aircraft safely should forward
vision be restricted.
The DV window can be used in the event of a failure of the demisting system.
Can be opened in flight if the aircraft is depressurized.
Depending on size, may also be used as an emergency exit.

Mainplanes (Wings)

Biplane
Braced monoplane
Cantilever monoplane

Biplane
Highly resistant to bending and
twisting.
Used on low speed A/C.

Produces More Drag.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 10

Braced Monoplane
Also used on low speed aircraft.

Root use toota hal .

Cantilever Monoplane

The mainplanes(wings) have to

absorb the stresses due to lift and
drag in flight and, if of cantilever
design, their own weight when on the
ground.

This will be achieved by building the wing around one or more main load
bearing members known as spars.
These are constructed so that they will absorb the downwards bending
stresses when the aircraft is on the ground.
However when the aircraft is in flight the wing not only has to have the
flexibility to bend upwards but needs enough stiffness to resist the torsional
loads which will cause twisting.

Bending stress relief mounting the engines on the wing and positioning the
major fuel tanks within the wing. During flight the fuel in the wing tanks is
the last to be used.
Note: The maximum bending moment occurs at the wing root.

TORSION BOX STRUCTURE

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 11

Front spar and rear spar:

(Bending and
twisting)Constructed so that
they will absorb the
downward bending stress
when on the ground and the
upwards, rearwards and
twisting stress when in flight.

Skin: takes the loads due to

differences in air pressures
and the mass and inertia of
the fuel (if any) in the wing
tanks.

Stringers: are spanwise

members giving the wing
rigidity by stiffening the skin
in compression.

Ribs: these maintain the

aerofoil shape of the wings, support the spars, stringers and skin against
buckling and pass concentrated loads from engines, landing gear and control
surfaces into the skin and spars.

Questions

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 12

~
1. What is the purpose of the wing main spar?
a. To withstand bending and torsional loads
~
b. To withstand compressive and torsional loads
c. To withstand compressive and shear loads
d. To withstand bending and shear loads
2. What is the purpose of wing ribs?

~
a. To withstand the fatigue stresses
b. To shape the wing and support the skin
~
c. To house the fuel and the landing gear
d. To provide local support for the skin
3. What is the purpose of stringers?
a. To absorb the torsional and compressive stresses ~
b. To produce stress risers and support the fatigue metres
~ c. To prevent buckling and bending by supporting and stiffening the skin
d. To support the primary control surfaces
4. The airframe structure must remain substantially intact after experiencing:
a. the design ultimate load times a 1.5 safety factor
b. the design limit load plus the design ultimate load
c. three times the safety factor
~
- d. the design limit load times a 1.5 factor of safety
5. In the construction of airframes the primary purpose of frames or formers
is to:

~ a. provide a means of attaching the stringers and skin panels

~
b. oppose hoop stresses and provide shape and form to the fuselage
c. form the entrance door posts
d. support the wings
6. How can wing bending moments be reduced in flight?
a. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and keeping the centre section fuel tanks
full for as long as possible
~
~
b. By using aileron ‘up-float’ and using the fuel in the wings last
c. By having tail-mounted engines and using aileron ‘down-float’
d. By having wing-mounted engines and using the wing fuel first
7. Regarding a safe life structure:
1. will only fail after a known number of operations or hours of use.
2. should not fail until a predicted number of fatigue cycles has been
achieved.
3. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults.
4. is changed before its predicted life is reached. X
a. 1 and 2 apply
b. 1 and 3 apply

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 13

c. 2, 3 and 4 apply
d. all of the above apply.
↓
8. A fail-safe structure:
1. has a programmed inspection cycle to detect and rectify faults.
2. is changed before its predicted life is reached.
3. has redundant strength which will tolerate a certain amount of structural
damage.
4. is secondary structure of no structural significance.
a. 1 and 2 apply
b. 1 and 3 apply
c. 3 and 4 apply
d. all of the above apply
9. The skin of a modern pressurized aircraft:
w a. is made up of light alloy steel sheets built on the monocoque principle
b. houses the crew and the payload
c. provides aerodynamic lift and prevents corrosion by keeping out
X
adverse weather
~ d. is primary load bearing structure carrying much of the structural loads
10. The primary purpose of the fuselage is to:

v
a. support the wings
- b. house the crew and payload
c. keep out adverse weather
d. provide access to the cockpit
11. Station numbers (Stn) and water lines (WL) are:
~ a. a means of locating airframe structure and components
b. passenger seat locations
c. runway markings for guiding the aircraft to the terminal
d. compass alignment markings
~
12. Flight deck windows are constructed from:
a. an amalgam of strengthened glass and vinyl with rubber pressure
seals
~ b. strengthened glass with shock absorbing clear vinyl interlayers and
rubber pressure seals
X
~ c. strengthened clear vinyl with an electrical conducting coat for de-icing
and rubber pressure seals
d. strengthened glass with rubber seals
13. A cantilever wing:

~ a. is externally braced with either struts and/or bracing wires

b. is supported at one end only with no external bracing
c. has both an upper an lower aerofoil section
~
MANSIMRAN SINGH
 14

d. folds at the root section to ease storage in confined spaces

14. A torsion box:
a. is a structure within the fuselage to withstand compression, bending

~ and twisting loads

b. is a structure formed between the wing spars, skin and ribs to resist
bending and twisting loads ~
c. is a structure within the wing for housing the fuel tanks, flight controls
and landing gear
d. is a structure designed to reduce the weight
15. A lightening hole in a rib:
a. prevents lightning strikes damaging the fuselage
b. provides a means of passing cables and controls through a pressure
bulkhead -
c. collects and disposes of electrical charges
~ d. lightens and stiffens the structure
16. Control surface flutter:
a. provides additional lift for take-off and landing in the event of engine
failure ~
b. occurs at high angles of attack
e c. is a destructive vibration that must be damped out within the flight
envelope
d. is a means of predicting the critical safe life of the wing
17. Control surface flutter is minimized by:
a. reducing the moment of the critical engine
b. aerodynamic balance of the control cables

-
c. changing the wings before they reach their critical life
d. mass balance of the control surface
-
v
18. A damage tolerant structure:
a. has degree of structural strength redundancy spread over a large area
b. is light, non load bearing structure, damage to which will not
adversely affect the aircraft
c. is replaced when it reaches its predicted life
-W
d. need not be repaired until the aircraft undergoes deep maintenance
19. Aircraft structures consists mainly of:
a. light alloy steel sheets with copper rivets and titanium or steel
materials at points requiring high strength
b. magnesium alloy sheets with aluminium rivets and titanium or steel at
points requiring high strength
~ c. aluminium alloy sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at
points requiring high strength
~
MANSIMRAN SINGH
 15

d. aluminium sheets and rivets with titanium or steel materials at points

requiring high strength
20. The Maximum Zero Fuel Mass (MZFM) of an aircraft is:
a. the maximum permissible take-off mass of the aircraft
- b. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with no usable fuel
c. the maximum permissible mass of an aircraft with zero payload
d. the maximum permissible landing mass
~

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 16

TOPIC NO.-2
HYDRAULICS
• Hydraulics is the science relating to the behaviour of liquids under
various conditions and in aircraft the hydraulic system provides a means
of operating large and remote components that it would not be possible
to operate satisfactorily by other means.
• Hydraulic systems provide the power for the operation of components
such as landing gear, flaps, flight controls, wheel brakes, windshield
wipers etc.
Pascal’s Law

• “If a force is applied to a liquid in a confined

space, then this force will be felt equally in
all directions”.
• Hydraulic pressure is created only when an
attempt is made to compress fluid.

FORCE = PRESSURE × AREA

PRESSURE = FORCE PER UNIT AREA
FORCE = TOTAL LOAD AVAILABLE

Bramah’s Press
• Smaller the area under
load, the greater the
pressure generated.

• Larger the area under

pressure, the greater will be
the load available.

• FORCE × DISTANCE (piston

A) = FORCE × DISTANCE
(piston B)

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 17

• 1000 × 0.6 = 2000 × the distance moved by piston ‘B’

• so the distance moved by piston ‘B’ = 0.3 m
Passive Hydraulic System
• A passive
hydraulic
system is one
in which there
is no pump
and pressure
is only
produced
when a force
is applied to a piston.
• A good example of this would be a light aircraft braking system.
The ideal properties of a hydraulic fluid are:

Incompressible(ensuring Non-flammable.
instantaneous operation.)

Good lubricating properties. Resistant to evaporation, low

volatility. (how easy a substance will
vaporize)

Good viscosity with a high boiling freedom from sludging and foaming.
point and low freezing point

flash point above 100°C. Non-corrosive.

Reasonably priced and readily Chemically Inert

available

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 #DEFS TBNeophone 18

HYDRAULIC FLUID TYPES (DGCA)

DEF STAN 91-48 SKYDROL
Colour - Red Purple
Used with synthetic rubber seals Used with synthetic rubber seals
(Neoprene) (Butyl).
Mineral based oil Synthetic Fluid
FLAMMABLE fire resistant

“Hydraulic fluids should be handled with care as they are considered to be a

skin and eye irritant.”

Seals

Seals perform a very important

function in a hydraulic system, in
preventing leakage of fluid.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 19

Basic Hydraulic system System

There are six main components common to

all hydraulic systems:

1. Reservoir of oil, which delivers oil to

the pump and receives oil from the
actuators.

2. Pump, either hand, engine or

electrically driven.

3. Selector or control valve, enabling

the operator to select the direction
of the flow of fluid to the required
service and providing a return path
for the oil to the reservoir.

4. a jack, or set of jacks or actuators, to

actuate the component. stamolic emesy to mechanical
Energy

5. a filter, to keep the fluid clean.

6. a relief valve, as a safety device to relieve excess pressure.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 20

Reservoirs
A reservoir provides storage
space for the system fluid, It
also provides sufficient air
space to allow for any
variations of fluid.(DGCA)

Air pressure is normally

supplied from the
compressor section of the
engine or the cabin
pressurization system.
A reservoir also contains a
relief valve, to prevent over
pressurization; connections
for suction pipes to the pumps, and return pipes from the system;

Filters
Filters are fitted in both suction
and pressure lines i.e. both sides
of the pump and sometimes in
the return line to the reservoir;
a suction filter to protect the
pump,
a pressure filter to ensure the
cleanliness of fluid during use.
They remove foreign particles
from the fluid, and protect the
seals and working surfaces in
the components.
Some filters are fitted with a
device which senses the
pressure differential across the
filter element, and releases a
visual indicator, in the form of a
button or illuminates a warning

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 21

lamp, when the pressure differential increases as a result of the filter

becoming clogged.
CASE DRAIN FILTERS- to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to
monitor pump condition
Pumps

Draw oil from the reservoir

and deliver a supply of fluid
to the system. Pumps may
be:

Hand operated
Engine driven
Electric motor driven
Pneumatically (air turbine
motor) (ATM)
Ram air turbine (HYDRAT or
RAT)
Hydraulically (Hyd. motor
driving a hyd. pump). Known as a Power Transfer Unit or PTU.

Hand Pumps: may be the only source of power in a small, light aircraft
hydraulic system, but in larger aircraft are employed: To allow ground
servicing to take place without the need for engine running. (DGCA)
so that lines and joints can be pressure tested.
so that cargo doors etc., can be operated without power.

The hand pump is usually a double acting pump (delivers oil on both
strokes) in a very compact body.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 22

Engine driven pumps (EDP) or electrically driven pumps may be classified as

follows:
Constant Delivery (Fixed Volume) Type Pump(ACOV)
Constant Pressure (Variable Volume) Pump

Constant Delivery (Fixed Volume)

Type Pump.
This pump supplies fluid at a
constant rate and therefore needs
an automatic cut-out or relief valve
to return the fluid to the reservoir
when the jacks have reached the
end of their travel, and when the
system is not operating, it requires
an idling circuit.
This pump is usually a single or double stage gear pump giving a large flow at
a small pressure.

Constant Pressure (Variable Volume) Pump. (DGCA)

This pump supplies fluid at a variable volume and controls its own pressure,
this type of pump is typically fitted in modern aircraft whose systems operate
at 3000-4000 psi.

Automatic Cut-out Valves (ACOV)

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 23

• An automatic cut-out valve (ACOV) is

fitted to a system employing a
constant delivery (fixed volume)
pump, to control system pressure and
to provide the pump with an idling
circuit when no services have been
selected.
• An accumulator is fitted as part of the
power system when a cut-out is fitted.
• The accumulator maintains the system pressure when the pump is in
its ‘cut-out’ position.

Hydraulic Accumulators

• An accumulator is fitted:

• to store hydraulic fluid

under pressure.

• to provide an emergency
supply of fluid to the system
in the event of pump failure.

• Rapid fluctuations of system

pressure which can be felt
and heard as ‘hammering’ in the system.(DGCA)
Hydraulic Jacks (Actuators)

Purpose: To convert fluid flow into linear or rotary motion.(Hydraulic pressure

into mechanical movement)

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 24

Construction: They
vary in size and
construction
depending on the
operating loads, but
all consist of:

An outer cylinder in
which slides a piston
and seal assembly.

Types of Jacks
(Actuators). Three types of jack are used for different purposes

Single Acting.
Is normally used as a locking device,

The lock being engaged by spring pressure and released by hydraulic

pressure.

A typical application is a landing gear downlock.

Double Acting Unbalanced.

Is used in most aircraft systems.

Therefore, the operation which offers the greater resistance is carried out
in the direction in which the piston rod extends; for example, in raising
the landing gear.

Double Acting Balanced Jack.

equal force can be applied to both sides of the piston,
is often used in applications such as nose wheel steering and flying
control boost systems.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 25

Hydraulic Lock (DGCA)

When fluid is trapped between the piston of the jack and a non-return
valve, a “hydraulic lock” is said to be formed. Because the fluid is
incompressible and is unable to flow through the system.

Hydraulic Motors

These are a form of rotary actuator, and are sometimes connected through
gearing to operate a screw jack, or to drive generators or pumps.

Pressure Control (DGCA)

Relief valves are used for:

expansion (thermal relief).

ultimate system protection (full flow relief).
mechanical overload protection (flap relief).

All act as safety devices to relieve excess pressure in the system back to
reservoir.
Pressure Maintaining Valves.
or priority valve, is basically a
relief valve which maintains
the pressure in a primary
service at a value suitable for
operation of that service,
regardless of secondary
service requirements.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 26

Pressure Reducing Valves. A

pressure reducing valve is often
used to reduce main system
pressure to a value suitable for
operation of a service such as
the wheel brakes.

Brake Control Valves. is essentially a variable pressure reducing valve,

which controls pressure in the brake system according to the position of
the pilot’s brake pedals, the anti-skid system and autobrake selections as
required.

Flow Control
Non-return Valves:
The most common device used to
control the flow of fluid is the non-
return valve, which permits full flow
in one direction, but blocks flow in the
opposite direction.
This valve is also known as a One Way Check valve or Non-reversible
valve.
One Way Restrictor Valves (or choke):
A restrictor valve may be
similar in construction to a
non-return valve, but a
restrictor valve is designed
to permit limited flow in one
direction and full flow in the
other direction;

A restrictor valve is used in a number of locations in order to limit the

speed of operation of an actuator in one direction only. It may, for

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 27

instance, be used to slow down flap retraction or landing gear extension

(up line for both).
Shuttle Valves. (DGCA) Back i efail safe
• These are often used in
landing gear and brake
systems, to enable an
alternate system to
operate the same
actuators as the normal
system.
Sequence Valves. (DGCA)
• Sequence valves are
often fitted in a
landing gear circuit to
ensure correct
operation of the
landing gear doors and
jacks.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 28

Questions

1. A force of 100 N is applied to 2 separate jacks, the area of one is 0.02 m2

and the other is 0.04 m2:
a. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 2000 Pa and the larger 4000
Pa
b. the smaller jack will exert a pressure of 5000 Pa and the larger 2500
Pa
c. both jacks will move at the same speed
d. both have the same load
2. A pre charge pressure of 1000 bar of gas is shown on the accumulator
gauge. The system is then pressurized to 1500 bar, so the accumulator will
read:
a. 500 bar
b. 1000 bar
c. 1500 bar
d. 2500 bar
3. The pressure gauge of a hydraulic system provides information regarding
the pressure of:
a. the air in the accumulator
b. the air and hydraulic fluid in the system
c. the proportional pressure in the system
d. the hydraulic fluid in the system
4. A shuttle valve:
a. is used to replace NRVs
b. allows two supply sources to operate one unit
c. allows one source to operate two units
d. acts as a non-return valve
5. Def. Stan 91/48 is ---------- and is ------------- based:
a. red, mineral
b. red, synthetic
c. green, mineral
d. purple, synthetic
6. A restrictor valve:
a. is used to restrict the number of services available after loss of system
pressure
b. controls the rate of movement of a service
c. controls the rate of build-up of pressure in the system
d. controls the distance a jack moves
7. With a hyd lock there is:
a. flow, but no jack movement

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 29

b. no flow but jack continues to move under gravitational effects

c. no flow, jack is stationary
d. constant flow
8. The hydraulic fluid is changed, but the wrong fluid is replaced. This would
lead to:
a. high operating fluid temperature
b. system failure from leaks and blocked filters, high temp and possible
corrosion
c. a rise in the reservoir fill level
d. normal operation, it does not matter which fluid is used
9. Accumulator floating piston:
a. pushes the fluid up when being charged
b. pushes the fluid down when being charged
c. provides a seal between the gas and fluid
d. prevents a hydraulic lock
10. A relief valve:
a. relieves below system pressure
b. maintains pressure to a priority circuit
c. relieves at its designed pressure
d. prevents excessive pressure through increased fluid temperature
11. The primary purpose of a hydraulic reservoir is:
a. to compensate for leaks, displacement and expansion
b. to allow a space into which spare fluid may be stored
c. to indicate system contents
d. to maintain fluid between a jack and the accumulator
12. With air in the hydraulic system you would:
a. ignore it because normal operation would remove it
b. bleed the air out of the system
c. allow the accumulator to automatically adjust itself
d. expect it to operate faster
13. The pressure filter in a hydraulic system:
a. filters the fluid returning to the tank
b. is fitted down stream of the pump
c. can be by passed when maximum flow is required
d. clears the fluid as it leaves the reservoir
14. Pascal’s law states that:
a. pressure is inversely proportional to load
b. liquid is compressible
c. oxygen can be used to charge the accumulators
d. applied force acts equally in all directions

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 30

15. A constant pressure hydraulic pump is governed by:

a. an automatic cut-out
b. engine RPM
c. a control piston
d. a swash plate that senses the fluid temperature
16. A high pressure hydraulic pump:
a. needs a positive fluid supply
b. does not need a positive fluid supply
c. outlet pressure is governed by centrifugal force
d. does not need a cooling fluid flow
17. Case drain filters are:
a. fitted to prevent debris from the reservoir reaching the system
b. designed to allow hydraulic pump lubricating fluid to drain to
atmosphere
c. to enable pump lubricating fluid to be used to monitor pump
condition
d. fitted in the reservoir outlet
18. The purpose of an accumulator is to:
a. relieve excess pressure
b. store fluid under pressure
c. store compressed gas for tyre inflation
d. remove air from the system
19. With a one way check valve (NRV):
a. flow stops when input pressure is greater than output pressure
b. flow stops when the thermal relief valve off loads the hand pump
c. flow starts when input pressure is less than output pressure
d. flow stops when input pressure is less than output pressure
20. A restrictor valve is physically fitted in the:
a. U/C up line and flap up line
b. U/C down line and flap up line
c. U/C down line and flap down line
d. supply line to the U/C retraction actuator
21. In the case of a failure of a cut-out valve:
a. a full flow relief valve is fitted down stream of it
b. a full flow relief valve is fitted upstream of it
c. a full flow relief valve is not required
d. the terminal pressure will be controlled by adjusting the pump rpm
22. Hydraulic pressure of 3000 Pa is applied to an actuator, the piston area of
which is 0.02 m2 and the same pressure is exerted on actuator whose area is
0.04 m2:

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 31

a. both have the same force

b. both jacks will move at the same speed
c. the smaller jack will exert a force of 600 N and the larger 1200 N
d. the smaller jack will exert a force of 60 N and the larger 120 N
23. A separator in an accumulator:
a. isolates the gas from the fluid
b. reduces the size of the accumulator required
c. removes the dissolved gases from the fluid
d. maintains the fluid level in the reservoir
24. In an operating hydraulic actuator the pressure of the fluid will be:
a. greatest near to the actuator due to the load imposed on the jack
b. greatest at the opposite end to the actuator due to the load imposed
on the actuator
c. high initially, falling as the actuator completes its travel
d. the same at all points
25. The contents of the hydraulic fluid reservoir are checked. They indicate
that the reservoir is at the full level. The system is then pressurized. The
contents level will:
a. fall below the “full” mark
b. fall to a position marked ‘full accs charged’
c. remain at the same level
d. rise above the “full” mark
26. A pressure maintaining or priority valve:
a. enables ground operation of services when the engines are off
b. is used to ensure available pressure is directed to essential services
c. is used to control pressure to services requiring less than system
pressure
d. is used to increase pressure in the system
27. A hydraulic lock occurs:
a. when the thermal RV operates
b. when fluid by passes a system and returns to the tank
c. when flow is stopped and the actuator is not able to move
d. when fluid and air enters the cylinder and only fluid is allowed to
bypass to the reservoir
28. In an enclosed system pressure is felt:
a. more at the piston head than the rest of the cylinder
b. more at the cylinder end than the piston head
c. more when the piston is moving than when it is stationary
d. the same at both ends between the piston and the cylinder head
29. A non-return valve:

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 32

a. can only be fitted if provided with a by-pass selector

b. closes if inlet pressure exceeds outlet pressure
c. opens if inlet pressure equals outlet pressure
d. closes if inlet pressure ceases
30. Low gas pressure in accumulator causes:
a. rapid jack movements
b. no effect on system
c. rapid pressure fluctuations while system is operating
d. rapid and smooth operation of system
31. Hammering in system:
a. is normal and does not affect the system’s efficiency
b. is caused by pipe diameter fluctuations
c. is an indication that a further selection is necessary
d. is detrimental to the system
32. The specification of hydraulic fluids, mineral, vegetable or ester based is:
a. always distinguishable by taste and smell
b. generally distinguishable by colour
c. generally distinguishable by colour only if they are from the same
manufacturer
d. cannot be distinguished by colour alone
33. An ACOV will:
a. provide an idling circuit when a selection is made
b. extend the life of the accumulator
c. provide an idling circuit when the accumulator is fully charged
d. ensure the pump is always on load
34. The purpose of a hydraulic fuse is to:
a. allow the parking brake to remain on overnight if required
b. allow a reduced pressure to the wheel brake system to prevent the
wheels locking
c. prevent over pressurizing the reservoir as altitude increases
d. prevent total loss of system fluid if the brake pipeline is ruptured
35. A shuttle valve will allow:
a. the accumulator to be emptied after engine shut down
b. the pressure pump to off load when the system pressure is reached
c. two independent pressure sources to operate a system/component
d. high pressure fluid to return to the reservoir if the Full Flow Relief
Valve fails
36. The purpose of a reservoir is to:
a. compensate for temperature changes
b. compensate for small leaks, expansion and jack displacement

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 33

c. compensate for fluid loss

d. minimize pump cavitation
37. When the hydraulic system pressure is released:
a. reservoir air pressure will increase
b. reservoir fluid contents will rise if reservoir is lower than other
components in the system
c. reservoir fluid contents will fall if reservoir is the highest point in the
system
d. reservoir contents are dumped overboard
38. Hydraulic pressure in a closed system:
a. is greater in pipes of larger diameters
b. is greater in pipes of smaller diameters
c. does not vary with pipe diameter
d. varies in direct proportion to the system demands
39. Skydrol hydraulic fluid:
a. needs no special safety precautions or treatment
b. is flame resistant but is harmful to skin, eyes and some paints
c. is highly flammable and harmful to skin, eyes and some paints
d. is highly flammable but not harmful in any other way
40. Skydrol hydraulic fluid can be used to replenish:
a. any hydraulic system without restriction
b. hydraulic systems that have butyl rubber seals only
c. any hydraulic system in an emergency
d. hydraulic systems that have neoprene seals only
41. A variable displacement pump on system startup will be at:
a. minimum stroke
b. an optimized position depending on fluid viscosity
c. maximum stroke
d. mid stroke
42. The purpose of a reservoir is:
a. to provide a housing for the instrument transmitters
b. to enable the contents to be checked
c. to allow for fluid displacements, small leaks, thermal expansion and
contents monitoring
d. to provide a housing for the main system pumps and so obviate the
need for backing pumps
43. Hydraulic Thermal Relief Valves are fitted:
a. to release all the pressure back to return in an overheat situation
b. to release half the pressure back to return in an overheat situation

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 34

c. to relieve excess pressure back to the actuator in an overheat

situation
d. in isolated lines only to relieve excess pressure caused by temperature
rises
44. A main system hydraulic pump:
a. does not need a positive fluid supply if primed before startup
b. always needs a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation
c. does not need a positive fluid supply in order to prevent cavitation
d. can be run dry without causing any damage
45. Different diameter actuators supplied with the same pressure at same
rate:
a. exert the same force
b. will lift equal loads
c. will move at the same speed
d. exert different forces
46. A force of 1500 N is applied to a piston of area 0.002 m² and generates a
force of---- -(1)------non a piston of area 0.003 m². The pressure generated is --
---(2)----- and, if the smaller piston moves 0.025 m, the work done is -----(3)----
--.
a. (1) 56.25 J (2) 750 000 Pa (3) 750 000 N
b. (1) 750 000 N (2) 2250 P (3) 56.25 J
c. (1) 225 N (2) 75 000 Pa (3) 562.5 J
d. (1) 2250 N (2) 750 000 Pa (3) 37.5 J
47. The following statements relate to hydraulic accumulators. The function
of an accumulator is to:
1. Store fluid under pressure
2. Dampen pressure fluctuations
3. Allow for fluid expansion
4. Replace the need for a reservoir
5. Absorb some of the landing loads
6. Allow for thermal expansion
7. Prolong the period between pump cut-in and cut-out
8. Provide the initial pressure when a selection is made and the pump is cut-
out
9. Provide an emergency reserve of pressure in the event of pump failure
Which of the following applies?
a. All of the statements are correct
b. None of the statements are correct
c. Statements 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 8 and 9 are correct
d. Statements 1, 2, 3, 6, 7, and 9 are correct

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 35

48. The seal materials used with hydraulic fluids to DEF/STAN 91-48 and
SKYDROL 700 specification are respectively:
a. natural rubber and neoprene
b. neoprene and natural rubber
c. butyl and neoprene
d. neoprene and butyl
49. To prevent cavitation of the pump a hydraulic reservoir may be:
a. pressurized
b. bootstrapped
c. above the pump
d. all of the above
50. A hand pump is usually fitted for:
a. ground servicing purposes
b. lowering the landing gear in an emergency
c. pressurizing the oleo struts in the air
d. retracting the gear after take-off

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 36

TOPIC NO.-3
LANDING GEAR
The functions of the landing gear are:

• To provide a means of manoeuvring the aircraft on the ground.

• To support the aircraft at a convenient height to give clearance for

propellers and flaps, etc. and to facilitate loading.

• To absorb the kinetic energy of landing and provide a means of

controlling deceleration.

Landing Gear Types –

Fixed
Retractable
Fixed Landing Gear
Three types of fixed landing gear:
Spring steel leg,
Rubber cord
Oleo-pneumatic strut
Spring Steel Legs.
• Spring steel legs are usually
employed at the main
undercarriage positions.

• The leg consists of a tube, or strip

of tapered spring steel, the upper
end being attached by bolts to the fuselage and the lower end
terminating in an axle on which the wheel and brake are assembled.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 37

Rubber Cord.
• When rubber cord is used as a shock-absorb, the undercarriage is usually
in the form of tubular struts, designed and installed so that the landing
force is directed against a number of turns of rubber in the form of
grommet or loop.

Oleo-pneumatic Struts.
• Some fixed main undercarriages, and
most fixed nose undercarriages, are
fitted with an oleo-pneumatic shock
absorber strut.

CONSTRUCTION
• The outer cylinder is fixed rigidly to the
airframe structure, and houses an inner
cylinder and a piston assembly.

• The interior space being partially filled

with hydraulic fluid and inflated with
compressed gas (air or nitrogen).

• The inner cylinder is free to rotate and

move up and down within the outer
cylinder, but these movements are
limited by the torque links, (scissor-
links) which connect the inner cylinder to the steering collar.
• The steering collar arms are connected through spring struts to the
rudder pedals, and a shimmy damper is attached to the steering collar.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 38

Oleo-pneumatic Strut Operation

• Under static conditions the weight of the

aircraft is balanced by the strut gas
pressure and the inner cylinder takes up a
position approximately midway up its
stroke.

• Under compression (e.g. when landing), the

strut shortens and fluid is forced through
the gap between the piston orifice and the
metering rod, this restriction limiting the
speed of upward movement of the inner
cylinder.

• As the internal volume of the cylinders

decreases, the gas pressure rises until it
balances the upward force.

• As the upward force decreases, the gas

pressure acts as a spring and extends the inner cylinder. The speed of
extension is limited by the restricted flow of fluid through the orifice.

• Normal taxiing bumps are cushioned by the gas pressure and dampened
by the limited flow of fluid through the orifice.

• Movement of the rudder pedals turns the nose wheel to facilitate

ground manoeuvres, the spring struts being provided to allow for
vertical movement of the nose wheel, and prevent shocks from being
transmitted through the rudder control system.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 39

Retractable Landing Gear

• Improve aircraft performance by reducing drag.

• Retraction is normally effected by a hydraulic system, but
pneumatic or electrical systems are also used.
• Retractable landing
gear is also provided
with mechanical locks
to ensure that each
undercarriage is locked
securely in the retracted
and extended positions.
• Devices to indicate to
the crew the position of
each undercarriage; and
means by which the
landing gear can be
extended in the event of
failure of the power source.(Three green DOWN & LOCKED)
• Means are provided to prevent retraction with the aircraft on the
ground, and to guard against landing with the landing gear
retracted.

There are two main types of landing gear.

Nose wheel, which are often referred to as tricycle and tail wheel aircraft that
are also called tail draggersDGCA

Most aircraft use the “tricycle layout”, where the two main undercarriage units
are positioned just aft of the C of G and support up to 90% of the aircraft’s weight
and all initial landing shocks.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 40

Loads Sustained by the Landing Gear

An undercarriage unit has to withstand varying loads during its life. These loads
are transmitted to the mountings in the aircraft structure, so these too must be
very strong. The loads sustained are:

• Compressive (static and on touchdown).

• Rearward bending.
• Side (during crosswind landings, take-offs, and taxiing).
• Forwards (during push back).
• Torsional (ground manoeuvring).

Its design is complicated by several requirements:

• Castoring.
• Self-centring.
• Steering.
• Anti-shimmy.
• Withstand shear loads.

Castoring

• Castoring is the ability of the nose wheel to turn to either side in

response to the results of differential braking or aerodynamic forces on
the rudder.

Self-centring

• Automatic self-centring of the nose wheel is essential prior to

landing gear retraction.
• If the nose gear is not in a central position prior to its retraction, the
restricted space available for its stowage will not be sufficient and severe
damage may be caused to the aircraft structure as the hydraulic system
forces the gear upwards.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 41

• Centring is achieved by either a spring loaded cam or a hydraulic

dashpot.

Nose Wheel Steering

• Steering is required to enable the pilot to manoeuvre the aircraft safely

on the ground. Early methods involved the use of differential braking.
• Powered steering using hydraulic systems are now common to most
large commercial aircraft, allowing the engines to be set at the minimum
thrust for taxiing, thereby saving fuel.
• This method of steering is more accurate and also reduces tyre and brake
wear and noise pollution.
Steering is controlled, depending on the type of aircraft, by:

• A separate steering wheel.

• Operation of rudder pedals.

• Incorporated in the steering system are:

• Self-centring jack.
• Shimmy damper.

Nose Wheel Shimmy

• Due to the flexibility of tyre side walls, an unstable, rapid sinusoidal

oscillation or vibration known as shimmy is induced into the nose
undercarriage.
• Excessive shimmy, especially at high speeds, can set up vibrations
throughout the aircraft and can be dangerous.
• Worn or broken torque links, wear in the wheel bearings and uneven
tyre pressures can all increase the tendency to shimmy.

• Shimmy can be reduced in several ways:

Provision of a hydraulic lock across the steering jack piston.

Fitting a hydraulic damper.
Fitting heavy self-centring springs.
Double nose wheels.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 42

A Hydraulic Gear Retraction System

• A hydraulic system for retracting and extending a landing gear normally

takes its power from engine driven pumps, alternative system being
available in case of pump failure.
• This type of system normally provides for powered retraction of the
landing gear, extension being by ‘free-fall’,
• On some light aircraft a self-contained ‘power pack’ is used, which
houses a reservoir and selector valves for the landing gear and flap
systems.

Gear Position Indication(DGCA)

Many large aircraft also have main gear door lock indicators to confirm the doors
are locked in their correct position.

To prevent inadvertent retraction of the landing gear when the aircraft is

resting on its wheels, a safety device is incorporated which prevents movement
of the selector lever.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 43

This safety device consists of a spring-loaded plunger which retains the selector
in the down position and is released by the operation of a solenoid.

Electrical power to the solenoid is controlled by a switch mounted on the shock

absorber strut (part of the air\ground logic circuits).
When the strut is compressed the switch is open, but as the strut extends after
take-off, the switch contacts close and the electrical supply to the solenoid is
completed, thus releasing the selector lever lock and allowing the landing gear
to be selected up.

Ground Locks
Ground locks or landing gear locking pins
are a further safety feature which is intended
to prevent collapse of the gear when the
aircraft is unpowered on the ground.
They will usually consist of pins or metal
sleeves which interfere unpowered with the
operation of the gear in such a way that it is
impossible for the gear to move when they
are in position.

They are fitted with warning flags which

should prevent the crew from getting
airborne with them still in position on the
gear. This can be prevented by ensuring that
the ground locks are removed before flight
and stowed on board the aircraft and the
flight crew are informed that they have
been removed and stowed safely on the
aircraft.

Emergency Lowering Systems

A means of extending the landing gear and locking it in the down position is
provided to cater for the eventuality of main system failure.
On some aircraft the uplocks are released mechanically or electrically by
manual selection. The landing gear ‘free falls’ under its own weight (gravity) and
the downlocks are engaged mechanically.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 44

Air/Ground Logic System(DGCA)

Inevitably there are systems of all types which need to be selected on or off in
response to the criterion of whether the aircraft is airborne or not.
This effect can be obtained by merely placing microswitches or the main landing
gear oleos so that their position will be changed when the weight of the aircraft
compresses the oleo, or alternatively, on take-off, when the weight of the wheel
and bogie assembly extends the oleo.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 45

Topic No.-5
AIRCRAFT TYRES
Aircraft wheels are fitted with pneumatic tyres which may be tubeless or have
an inner tube.
Tubes tend to be fitted to light and older aircraft.
Tyres are usually inflated with nitrogen which absorbs shock and supports the
weight of the aircraft.

Tyre Covers
The tyre cover consists of a
casing made of rubber which is
reinforced with plies of cotton,
rayon or nylon cords.
During the construction of the
cover, the plies are fitted in
pairs and set so that the cords
of adjacent plies are at 90
degrees to one another in the
case of bias (cross-ply) tyres and
from bead to bead at
approximately 90 degrees to the
centre line of the tyre in radial
tyres.

To absorb and distribute load shocks, and protect the casing from concussion
damage, two narrow plies embedded in thick layers of rubber are situated

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 46

between the casing and the tread, these special plies are termed breaker
strips

The casing is retained on the rim of the wheel by interlocking the plies around
inextensible steel wire coils to form ply overlaps, this portion of the cover is
known as the bead.
The tyre manufacturers give each tyre a ply rating. This rating does not relate
directly to the number of plies in the tyre, but is the index of the strength of
the tyre.

The Regions of the Tyre

CROWN
SHOULDER
SIDEWALL
BEAD

The most popular tread pattern is that termed

Ribbed, which has circumferential grooves around
the tyre to assist in water dispersion and to help
prevent aquaplaning (hydroplaning).
Nose wheel tyres, particularly those fitted to
aircraft with the engines mounted on the rear
fuselage, may have a chine moulded onto the
shoulder.
This is to direct water away from the engine intakes
and so prevent flameouts due to water ingestion.

Inner Tubes

An inner tube is manufactured by an extruding machine, which forces a

compound of hot rubber through a circular die, thus producing a continuous

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 47

length of tubing. The requisite length is cut off, the ends are then butt welded
and a valve is fitted.
The Inflation Valve
Each inflation valve operates as a non-return valve.
The valve core is not considered to be a perfect seal.
The inflation valve must always be fitted with a valve cap, the valve cap also
prevents dirt entering the valve.
Tubeless Tyres

These tyres are similar in construction to that of a conventional cover for use
with a tube, but an extra rubber lining is vulcanized to the inner surface and
the underside of the beads. This lining, which retains the gas pressure, forms
an gas tight seal on the wheel rim.

Tyre Pressures

Low Pressure 25 - 35 psi , used on grass surfaces.

Medium Pressure 35 - 70 psi, used on grass surfaces or on medium firm

surfaces without a consolidated base.

High Pressure 70 - 90 psi, and is suitable for concrete runways.

Extra High Pressure Over 90 psi (some tyres of this type are inflated to 350
psi), the tyre is suitable for concrete runways.

RATED INFLATION PRESSURE

Creep is less likely to occur if the tyre air pressure is correctly

maintained.

This figure applies to a cold tyre not under load, that is, a tyre not fitted
to an aircraft.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 48

Distortion of the tyre cover when the weight of the aircraft is on it will
cause the tyre pressure to rise by 4%. When checking the tyre pressure
of a cold tyre fitted to an aircraft you should mentally add 4% to the
rated tyre pressure.

During use, that is during taxiing, take-off or landing, the tyres will
become heated. This can cause up to a further 10% rise in tyre pressure.

Aquaplaning(DGCA)

Aquaplaning is a phenomenon caused by a wedge of water building up

under the tread of the tyre and breaking its contact with the ground.

Aquaplaning speed, in Nautical Miles per Hour, the speed that the tyre
loses contact can be found by applying the formula.

AQUAPLANING SPEED = 9 √P (where P = the tyre pressure in psi)

(OR) AQUAPLANING SPEED = 34 √P (where P = the tyre pressure in
kg/cm2, bar)

The possibility of aquaplaning increases as the depth of the tread is

reduced, it is therefore important that the amount of tread remaining is
accurately assessed

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 49

Reduction of Tyre Wear

With the increased size of modern airports, taxi distances also increase, thus
increasing the amount of tyre wear and risk of damage.

To minimize tyre wear therefore, it is recommended that a speed of no more

than 25 mph (40 kph) should be reached during taxi.

Over-inflation will cause excessive wear to the crown of the tyres

whilst under-inflation is the cause of excessive shoulder wear.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 50

TOPIC NO.-6
Aircraft Brakes
In common with most braking systems, aircraft wheel brakes function by using
friction between a fixed surface and a moving one to bring an aircraft to rest,
converting kinetic energy into heat energy.
The amount of heat generated in stopping a large modern aircraft, is
enormous, the problem of dissipating this heat has been a challenge to aircraft
designers and scientists for years.
Plate or Disc Brakes
All modern aircraft now use plate brakes operated by hydraulic systems as
their means of slowing down or stopping (Similar to car brakes)
light aircraft would be able to utilize a single plate disc brake.
large aircraft would be a multi-plate unit.
SINGLE PLATE DISC BRAKES(LIGHT AIRCRAFTS)
 Small light aircraft typically achieve
effective braking using a single disc
keyed or bolted each wheel.
 As the wheel turns so does the disc.
 Braking is accomplished by applying
friction to both sides of the disc from a
non rotating calliper bolted to the
landing gear axle flange.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 51

MULTI PLATE DISC BRAKE(LARGE AIRCRAFTS)

 The physical size of the braking
area has been increased by
employing multiple brake
plates sandwiched between
layers or friction material.
 Construction the rotating
plates (rotors) are keyed to
revolve with the outer rim of
the wheel.
 Stationary plates carrying the
friction material (stators) are
keyed to remain stationary
with the hub of the wheel
 In the unfortunate event of a wheel or brake fire, the best extinguishant
to use is dry powder(DGCA)
 Carbon is also used for manufacturing brake units because it has much
better heat absorbing and dissipating properties.
 Carbon brakes are also much lighter .
 The disadvantage is their increased cost and shorter life.
 If the brakes become too hot, they will not be able to absorb any
further energy and their ability to retard (slow down) the aircraft
diminishes. This phenomenon is termed Brake Fade.

Brake Release

 When the pilot releases the pressure on the brake pedals, the
brake adjuster assemblies will move the pressure plate away
from the stators and rotor assemblies, thus allowing them to
move slightly apart.
 If the return spring inside the adjuster assembly ceases to
function, or if the unit is wrongly adjusted, then they could be
the cause of a brake not releasing correctly. This is termed brake
drag.

Brake Wear

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 52

 Aircraft brakes are

designed to give good
retardation, while at the
same time avoiding
excessive wear of the brake
lining material.
 It is important that the
thickness of the brake
lining material is carefully
monitored.

There are several methods

of determining the amount
of brake lining material which remains on the brake unit, the
following are just some of those methods.

 On multiple disc brake systems, the most popular method of

gauging the depth of brake lining material remaining is by
checking the amount that the retraction pin (or the indicator pin,
as it is sometimes called) extends from (or intrudes within) the
spring housing with the brakes selected on.
 If the brake is a single disc unit, the amount of brake lining
material remaining can be checked by once again applying the
brakes and measuring the distance between the disc and the
brake housing and ensuring that it is no less than a minimum
value.

Brake System Operation

 Operation of the brake pedals on the flight deck, allows hydraulic fluid
under pressure to move small pistons which, by moving the pressure
plate, force the stator pads against the rotor plates, with the resultant
friction slowing the plates down.
 On a small aircraft the hydraulic pressure from the brake
pedals may be enough to arrest its progress.
 On a large aircraft it is obvious that foot power alone will
be insufficient, some other source of hydraulic power is

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 53

required. This is supplied by the aircraft main hydraulic

system.

Brake Modulating Systems

 Optimum braking is important in the operation of modern aircraft with

their high landing speeds, low drag and high weight, particularly when
coupled with operation from short runways in bad weather.
 The pilot is unable to sense when the wheels lock and so the first
requirement of a brake modulating system is to provide anti-skid
protection.
 Skidding wheel provides very little braking effect.

Effects of Anti-skid Systems on Performance

 An anti-skid system will reduce the braking distance on both take-off and
landing.
 An inoperative anti-skid system will increase the take-off and landing
distances required.
Note Take-off is prohibited with an inoperative anti-skid system on a
wet runway

Mechanical Anti-skid Systems(The basic principle of these systems is the

use of the inertia of a flywheel as a sensor of wheel deceleration.)
Electronic Anti-skid Systems (The response rates of the flywheels used
in mechanical systems are low when compared with electrical signalling)

This ensures that the brake pressure applied immediately after a wheel
is released after an Anti-Skid Unit (ASU) operation, is lower than the
pressure which was applied before the ASU operation preventing an
immediate return to the conditions that caused the ASU to release the
pressure in the first place.
The ASU has a number of important functions that may include.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 54

Touchdown protection.

 This will prevent the brakes being applied before touchdown.

 The electronic anti-skid controller will monitor the wheel speed and
air/ground logic. If no signal is received the brakes cannot be applied
while the aircraft is airborne. On touchdown the wheels ‘spin up’ and
apply a signal to the controller which will now allow the brakes to be
applied.

Skid prevention.

 The anti-skid controller will reduce the brake pressure to any wheel that
it determines is approaching a skid by monitoring the deceleration rate of
the individual wheels.

Locked wheel protection

 If a wheel locks because of a wet patch, or ice, the anti-skid controller

will release the pressure to that wheel completely until the wheel spins
up again and the pressure will be re-applied.

Hydroplane protection

 Systems that have this facility will monitor aircraft velocity and wheel
speeds of a complete bogie.

 If all braked wheels hydroplane and lock up, then the pressure to some
of the wheels is released.

 The method varies from aircraft to aircraft but typically, if all braked
wheels lock then a number of brakes are released e.g. two wheels on a
four wheel bogie would be released.
 The remaining pair will provide locked wheel protection.
 Subsequently, the hydroplaned pair will spin up and they will in turn
provide locked wheel protection. If hydroplane conditions still exist the
other pair will be released

To enable the pilot to have full control of the brakes for taxiing and
manoeuvring, the anti-skid system is deactivated, either manually or
automatically, when the aircraft has slowed down to below

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 55

approximately 20 mph,(DGCA) it is assumed then that there is no

further danger of skidding

Autobrakes
 This system permits automatic braking when using the normal
brake system during landing rollout or during a rejected take-off
(RTO).
 The autobrake system is not available when using the alternate
brake system.
 Anti-skid protection is provided during autobrake operation.
 With RTO selected, maximum brake pressure will be applied
automatically when all thrust levers are closed at ground speeds
above 85 knots.
Parking Brake
 The parking brake handle operates a shut-off valve in the return
line to the reservoir from the anti-skid valves.
 To apply the parking brake depress the foot pedals, apply the
parking brake lever, then release the foot pedals.
 Hydraulic pressure is now trapped in the brakes because the
return line from the anti-skid valves is closed.
 This will be capable of maintaining the brakes ‘on‘ for overnight
parking if required.

Brake Temperature Indicators

 Larger aircraft types, (B747, B777, A340, A380 etc.) may be

fitted with Brake Temperature Indicators.
 Sensors are arranged to sample the temperature of the
brakes of each individual wheel.
 The brake temperatures are constantly monitored by the
system, if the temperature of any brake assembly rises
above a predetermined level then a “HIGH TEMP” indicator
light illuminates.
 Should any brake temperature go above that level at which
the High Temp warning light illuminates, then a brake
“OVERHEAT” caption will come on.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 56

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 57

Questions

1. Oil is used in an oleo strut to:

a. support the weight of the aircraft
b. limit the speed of compression of the strut
c. lubricate the piston within the cylinder
d. limit the speed of extension and compression of the strut
2. The nose wheel assembly must be centred before retraction because:
a. there is limited space in the nose wheel bay
b. the aircraft may swerve on the next landing if the nose wheel is not
straight
c. the tyres may be damaged on landing if the nose wheel is not straight
d. it will remove any slush or debris which may have accumulated on
take-off
3. The movement of the gear on lowering is normally damped to:
a. prevent the fluid becoming aerated
b. counteract the force of gravity which would bring the gear down too
fast
c. make the lowering time greater than the raising time
d. prevent the hydraulic fluid becoming overheated
4. Inadvertent retraction of the landing gear on the ground is:
a. not possible because the system is not powerful enough
b. prevented by the ground/air logic system
c. always a danger after the ground locks have been removed
d. the responsibility of the first officer when he is on the aircraft
5. Creep (slippage):
a. is not a problem with tubeless tyres
b. refers to the movement of the aircraft against the brakes
c. alignment can rip out the inflation valve on tubed tyres, and deflate
the tyre
d. can be prevented by painting lines on the wheel and tyre
6. Tyre wear when taxiing can be reduced by:
a. restricting the use of brakes and using thrust reversers
b. taxiing at less than 40 kph
c. staying on the smoothest parts of the taxiway
d. taxiing at less than 25 knots
7. To prevent scrubbing the tyres while taxiing , you should:
a. use tyres with fusible plugs
b. make sharp turns only if you have high speed tyres fitted
c. turn no sharper than the minimum specified radius
d. deflate the tyres to a minimum pressure

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 58

8. The best extinguishant to use on a wheel or brake fire is:

a. CO2
b. dry powder
c. freon
d. water
9. When inflating a tyre fitted to an aircraft, the tyre pressure reading on the
gauge should be modified by:
a. 10 psi
b. 10%
c. 4 psi
d. 4%
10. The most likely cause of brake fade is:
a. oil or grease on the brake drums
b. worn stators
c. the pilot reducing the brake pressure
d. the brake pads overheating
11. The pressure needed to operate the wheel brakes on a large aircraft
comes from:
a. the aircraft main hydraulic system
b. the pilots brake pedals
c. a self-contained power pack
d. the hydraulic reservoir
12. Which of the following statements will produce the shortest landing run?
i. Crossing the threshold at the correct height and speed
ii. Applying full anti-skid braking as quickly as possible after touchdown
iii. Using maximum pedal pressure but releasing the pressure as the wheels
start to skid
iv. The use of cadence braking
v. Use of minimum braking pressure early in the landing run and maximum
pressure towards the end
vi. Application of reverse thrust as early as possible in the landing run
vii. Deployment of the lift dumpers/speed brakes as early as possible in the
landing run
a. (i), (ii), (vi), (vii)
b. (i), (iii), (vi), (vii)
c. (i), (iv), (vi), (vii)
d. (i), (v), (vi), (vii)
13. The formula which gives the minimum speed (VP) at which aquaplaning
may occur is:
a. VP = 9 × √P where P is kg/cm2 and VP is in knots

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 59

b. VP = 9 × √P where P is psi and VP is in mph

c. VP = 9 × √P where P is psi and VP is in knots
d. VP = 34 × √P where P is kg/cm2 and VP is in mph
14. An aircraft has a tyre pressure of 225 psi, its minimum aquaplaning speed
will be:
a. 135 mph
b. 135 knots
c. 145 knots
d. 145 mph
15. Landing gear ground locking pins are:
a. fitted before flight to ensure the landing gear locks are fully cocked
b. removed prior to flight and returned to stores
c. fitted after flight to maintain a hydraulic lock in the downlock jack
d. removed prior to flight and stowed on the aircraft where they are
visible to the crew
16. The most likely cause of brake unit dragging is:
a. dirt between the rotor and stator assemblies
b. grease on the rotor assembly
c. the brake pressure being too high
d. incorrect operation of the adjuster assemblies
17. A likely cause of nose wheel shimmy is:
a. aircraft is overweight
b. the tyre pressures are too high
c. the aircraft is incorrectly loaded
d. a torque link is worn or damaged
18. Creep (slippage):
a. can damage the braking system
b. can be measured by painting marks on the tyre and wheel rim
c. may cause excess wear
d. never occurs on new tyres
19. The anti-skid system would be used:
a. on landing runs only
b. on take-off runs only
c. for take-off on icy runways
d. for both take off and landing runs
20. A hydraulic gear extension/retraction mechanism consists of sequence
valves, uplocks and:
a. an anti-skid braking system
b. downlocks
c. torque links

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 60

d. a shock absorber
21. A nose wheel steering control system:
a. prevents the nose wheel from castoring at all times
b. allows the nose wheel to castor within preset limits about the neutral
position
c. allows the nose wheel to castor freely at all times
d. prevents the nose gear from lowering if the nose wheels are not
centralized
22. At an aircraft taxiing speed of 10 mph the anti-skid braking system is:
a. inoperative
b. operative
c. operative only on the nose wheel brakes
d. operative only on the main wheel brakes
23. The tyre pressures are checked after a long taxi to the ramp following
landing. The pressures will have:
a. fallen by 15% from their rated value
b. risen by 15% from their rated value
c. remained constant
d. risen by 10% of their original weight-on-wheels value
24. The ply rating of a tyre:
a. always indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass
b. never indicates the number of cords or plies in the tyre carcass
c. indicates whether or not an inner tube should be fitted
d. is the index of the tyre strength

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 61

AIRCRAFT FUEL SYSTEM

CALORIFIC VALUE
The energy contained in a fuel, determined by measuring the heat produced by
the complete combustion of a specified quantity of it.

PISTON ENGINE FUELS

1. Piston engine aircraft uses gasoline fuels grouped under title AVGAS
(Aviation Gasoline)
2. Octane rating
a) Measure of a fuel’s resistance to detonation.
b) Octane rating does not relate to the energy content of the fuel.
c) Carbon deposits and pits in pistons leave small amount of fuel which pre-
ignite by heat of compression.
d) The higher the octane number, the more compression the fuel can
withstand before detonating.
GAS TURBINE FUELS
Gas turbine engine aircraft uses kerosene fuels

MOGAS : Highly volatile and can cause carburettor icing and vapour locking.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 62

FLASHPOINT
The flashpoint of a liquid is the lowest temperature at which the vapour it
produces will burn in air

CLOUDY FUEL
a. If the cloudiness appears to rise quite rapidly towards the
top of the sample
then air is present.
b. If the cloud falls quite slowly towards the bottom of the
sample then water is
present in the fuel.
c. A cloudy appearance usually indicates the presence of water.

JET FUEL ADDITIVES

a. FSII : A certain amount of water is present in fuel, FSII contains an icing
inhibitor and fungal suppressant.
b. HITEC : A lubricating agent is added to the fuel to reduce wear in the fuel
system components.
c. STATIC DISSIPATOR : Eliminate the hazards of static electricity generated by
the movement of fuel, particularly during refuelling and defueling.
d. Corrosion Inhibitors : protect ferrous metals in fuel handling system ,such as
pipelines and storage tanks from corrosion.

WATER IN THE FUEL

Water is always present in fuel, measures can be taken to minimise water
accretion once the fuel has been transferred to the aircraft tanks.
a. Water Drainer
b. Fuel heater
c. Atmosphere Enclosure

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 63

WAXING
1. Waxing is the depositing of heavy
hydrocarbons from the
fuel at low temperatures.
2. The deposits take the form of paraffin wax
crystals which
can clog the fuel filter.

Effect of waxing can be minimised by

a. The refinery keeping the levels of heavy hydrocarbons low.
b. The inclusion of a fuel heater in the engine fuel system.
BOILING
1. The temperature at which a fuel boils will vary with
the pressure on its
surface.
2. As an aircraft climbs, the pressure on the surface of
the fuel reduces and with that reduction comes an
increased likelihood that the fuel will boil and form
vapour in the pipelines.
3. Fuel booster pumps fitted inside the tanks can
overcome this problem by
pressurising the fuel in the
pipelines from the tank to the
engine.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 64

THE EFFECT OF SPECIFIC GRAVITY

1. The specific gravity of a liquid
varies inversely with
its temperature.
2. SG is the ratio of the density
of a substance to the
density of a reference
substance.

FUEL SYSTEMS
1) Integral tank
a) Inside of the wings, the centre section torsion box and horizontal stabiliser
provide large volume fuel storage.
b) The advantage of this type of tank is that there is little extra weight added
to the aircraft.
2) Rigid tank
a) A sealed metal container mounted in the aircraft wing or fuselage.
b) Add extra weight, most popular on light aircraft.
c) This type of tank may be fitted externally on the wing tip.
3) Flexible tanks
a) Made of sealed rubberised fabric sometimes referred to as a fuel bladder or
bag tanks.
b) This type of tank requires structure inside the aircraft to attach and support
it.
c) They are typically mounted inside the wing or fuselage

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 65

BAFFLES
a) Fitted within the
tank to minimise the
large inertial forces
generated when the
fuel surges during
aircraft manoeuvres,
acceleration,
deceleration or
sideslip.
b)Baffles check valves : Which allow the fuel to flow inboard but not outboard
towards the wing tips during manoeuvres.
FUEL DISTRIBUTION
Vent system
a) May include vent valves and vent surge tank. Allows the air pressure above
the fuel in the tank to equalise with the ambient pressure.
b) Also provide for ram air to be introduced to partially pressurise the tanks in
flight to assist the fuel flow and help to reduce fuel boiling at altitude.
c) Any fuel overflowing into the vent system is collected by the vent/surge
tank and recycled back to the main tank.

Booster pumps
a) Normally fitted in
pairs in each tank.
b) They are a necessity in
high altitude to prevent
cavitation of the engine
driven pump.
c) Booster pumps are
typically centrifugal
pump driven by AC
induction motors
providing low pressure
(20 – 40 psi) and high flow.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 66

d) In the event of a double booster pump failure in one main tank the aircraft
minimum equipment list will invariably limit the aircraft to a maximum
operating altitude to prevent fuel starvation.
Collector tank (Feeder box): a) The booster pumps are fitted in a collector
tank or feeder box which always holds a measured quantity of fuel to allow
the pumps to be continually submerged in fuel thereby preventing pump
cavitation.
Cross – feed and shut off valve : To enable fuel to be fed from any tank to any
engine and isolated in the event of a fault or emergency.

High and low level float switches or level sensors

1. High level switches are used to automatically close the
refuel valve when the tank is full during refuelling.
2. The low level switches are used to maintain a required
minimum fuel in the main tanks during fuel jettison or
dumping.

Baffles : To dampen rapid movement of fuel (surging and sloshing) during

manoeuvring.
Over pressure relief valve : In the event of the fuel tank being over
pressurised due to a malfunction a relief valve may be incorporated to
prevent structural damage to the tank.
The normal sequence of fuel usage after take-off would be to use the
centre tank fuel first followed by the wing tank fuel. The sequence helps to
relieve the wing bending stress.
When the booster pumps can no longer pump fuel from the centre tank the
residual fuel can be removed to the No1 tank by use of the centre tank
scavenge system.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 67

There is a temperature sensor in the No1 tank which will transmit the fuel
tank temperature to an indicator on the control panel.
The APU takes its fuel from the No1 tank from a bypass valve if there are no
booster pumps operating.

FUEL JETTISON OR DUMP

1.Fuel dumping is accomplished by pumping fuel out of a dump master valve,
typicallyone on each wing at the trailing edge.
2.The fuel dumping process will be automatically stopped when the minimum
level hasbeen reached.
FUEL QUANTITY MEASUREMENT
There are two methods of measuring fuel quantity.
1.Measuring volume by varying a resistance by a float normally restricted to
light aircraft,
is subjected to manoeuvring error and cannot compensate for variations of
density

2.Measuring weight or mass by varying capacitance -essential on modern

passengeraircraft, does not suffer from manoeuvring error and can
compensate for variations ofdensity.
The Capacitive Method
1.The primary advantage of capacitance type technology

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 68

are no moving parts and fuel quantity is measured in

mass rather than volume.
2.The dilelectric is either fuel or air depending on the
quantity of fuel in tank.
3.The current that flows in the circuit now depends on 4
factors, the level of voltage applied, the frequency of
supply, the size of the plates and the dilelectric
constant of the material separating the plates.
4.The amount of current flowing in the circuit therefore depends on the
amount offuel/air between the plates.
5.Fuel density factor : Cold fuel is denser than warm fuel. Hence there are
more pounds ofcold fuel in a system than warm fuel, which is more important
in large aircraft becausethe power of the engine is determined by the pounds
of fuel burned not the gallon.
6.The system can be made sensitive to the specific gravity (density) of the fuel
so thatalthough the volume of a quantity of fuel may increase with a
temperature rise, theresulting decrease in the specific gravity will ensure that
the indicated mass remains the same.
7.To compensate for change in aircraft attitude the capacitive system may
have many
capacitor probes in the tank connected in parallel to ‘average’ the
measurement.
AIRCRAFT REFUELLING
Before fuelling an aircraft, fuelling zones should be established. These zones
will extend at least 6m (20 feet) radially from the filling and venting points on
the aircraft and the fuelling equipment.
Within these zones the following restrictions apply:
1.There should be no smoking
2.If the exhaust of an A.P.U. which is required during the fuelling operation
discharges into the zone, then it must be started before filler caps are
removed or fuelling connections made
3.If the A.P.U. stops for any reason during fuelling, it
should not be started again until fuelling has
ceased.
4.Ground power units, (G.P.U.’s) should be located as
far away as practical from the fuelling zones and
not be connected or disconnected while fuelling is
in progress.
5.Fire extinguishers should be located so as to be readily
Accessible

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 69

PRECAUTIONS BEFORE FUELLING

1.The aircraft should be bonded (grounded) to the fuelling
equipment using dedicated wires and clips. Reliance
must not be placed upon conductive hoses for effective
bonding.

2.When overwing refuelling, the hose nozzle should be

bonded (grounded) to the aircraft structure before
removing the tank filler cap. Similarly, even funnels,
filters and cans should be bonded to the aircraft. Plastic
funnels or pipes should never be used.
3.When underwing pressure refuelling, the mechanical
metal to metal contact between the aircraft fitting and

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 70

the nozzle end eliminates the need for a separate hose-end bonding cable.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 71

Topic No.- 4
Aircraft Wheels

The wheels and tyres of an aircraft support it when on the ground and provide
it with a means of mobility for take-off, landing and taxiing.

The pneumatic tyres cushion the aircraft from shocks due to irregularities both
in the ground surface and occasionally, lack of landing technique.

The main wheels, and in some cases nose wheels, house brake units which
control the movement of the aircraft and provide a means of deceleration on
landing.

Aircraft Wheels
Aircraft wheels are so designed as to facilitate tyre replacement. Wheels are
classified as follows:

Loose and detachable flange.

Divided.

Loose and Detachable Flange Wheel

Wheels of this type, are made with one flange integral with the wheel body, and
the other loose and machined to fit over the wheel rim.
The difference between the loose flange type and the detachable flange type
is the method by which the removable flange is secured, the loose flange is
retained by a locking device on the wheel rim, and the detachable flange is
secured to the wheel body by nuts and bolts.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 72

A detachable flange may be a single piece, or two or three pieces bolted

together.
LOOSE FLANGE WHEEL

DETACHABLE FLANGE WHEEL

(Split Hub)

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 73

The divided wheel consists of two

half wheels, matched up and
connected by bolts which pass
through the two halves, the bolts
are fitted with stiff nuts, or, if one
half of the wheel is tapped, each
bolt is locked with a locking plate.

This wheel is designed to be used

with a tubeless tyre.

A seal, incorporated at the joint,

prevents abrasion between the two halves and provides an airtight joint.

When used with a conventional tyre, the wheel inflation valve is removed to
enable the tube inflation valve to be fitted through the rim.

Creep (DGCA)

When in service, the tyre has a tendency to rotate, creep (slippage) around the
wheel. This creep, if excessive, will tear out the inflation valve and cause the
tyre to burst.

Creep is less likely to occur if the tyre air pressure is correctly maintained, but
additional precautions may be incorporated in the design of the wheel.

Methods of counteracting/monitoring creep are as follows:

Knurled Flange. The inner face of the wheel flange is milled so

that the side pressure of the tyre locks the beads to the flange.

Tapered Bead Seat. The wheel is tapered so that the flange area
is of greater diameter than at the centre of the rim.
When the tyre is inflated, the side pressure forces the bead
outwards to grip the rim.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 74

Creep Marks. Creep can be detected by misalignment of two matched white

lines one painted on the wheel and one on the tyre.

Wheel Material
Aircraft wheels are either cast or forged, then machined and ground to the
required finish. They are made of:

Aluminium alloy.
Magnesium alloy.

Wheels for Tubeless Tyres

Wheels for tubeless tyres are similar in construction to non-tubeless but have a
finer finish and are impregnated with Bakelite to seal the material.
‘O’ ring seals are used between the parts of the wheel to prevent leakage.

Unlike tubed wheels, the valve is built into the wheel itself and is thus not
affected by creep though creep may still damage the tyre.

Fusible Plugs (DGCA)

Under extra hard braking conditions the heat generated in the wheel, tyre and
brake assembly could be sufficient to cause a tyre blowout, with possible
catastrophic effect to the aircraft.
To prevent a sudden blowout fusible plugs(DGCA) are fitted in some tubeless
wheels.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 75

These plugs are held in position in the wheel hub by means of a fusible alloy,
which melts under excessive heat conditions and allows the plug to be blown
out by the tyre air pressure.

This prevents excessive pressure build-up in the tyre by allowing controlled

deflation of the tyre.
An example of a fusible plug is shown in Figure 4.2, they are made for 3 different
temperatures, being colour coded for ease of identification:

Red - 155°C
Green - 177°C
Amber - 199°C

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 76

TOPIC NO.-7
Aircraft Pneumatic Systems
A pneumatic system is fitted in most modern aircraft to supply some or all of
the following aircraft systems.

 Air conditioning
 Pressurization
 Aerofoil and engine anti-icing
 Air turbine motors
 Engine starting
 Hydraulic power
 Thrust reverse
 Leading and trailing edge flap/slat operation
 Pneumatic rams, e.g. thrust reverser actuation
 Cargo compartment heating
Most of these systems use high volume low pressure airflow bled from the
compressor stages of a gas turbine engine.
Other sources of supply are engine driven compressors or blowers, auxiliary
power unit bleed air and ground power units.

Temperature
Cabin air temperature should be maintained within the range 65°F to
75°F, (18°C to 24°C).
Relative Humidity
Ideally the relative humidity within the cabin should be approximately 30%.

Note: the relative humidity at 40 000 ft is only 1 to 2%

Systems Used for Non-pressurized Flight

Ram Air Systems

 Used in unpressurized piston engined aircraft,
 Ambient atmospheric air is introduced to the cabin through forward
facing air intakes.
 Some of this ram air can be heated by exhaust or combustion heaters
and then mixed with the cold ambient air in varying proportions to give
a comfortable cabin temperature.
 It is of extreme importance that the supply (ram) air does not come into
contact with, or is contaminated by, the exhaust gases or the air used
for combustion.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 77

 A typical system for a light aircraft,which also features hot windscreen

demisters and a fresh air blower for use on the ground when there is
no ram air.
 The heater muff or exhaust muff is a close fitting cowl around the
exhaust pipe which allows ram air to come into close contact with the
hot exhaust pipe to provide hot air for heating the cabin.
 Fresh cold air can be allowed into the cabin through the ram air inlets
on the wing leading edge.

Combustion Heater
 The fuel used in the heater is normally that which is used in the aircraft’s
engines and the heater works by burning a fuel/air mixture within the
combustion chamber.
 The system is designed so that there is no possibility of leaks from inside
the chamber contaminating the cabin air.
 In addition the system must be provided with a number of safety devices
which must include:
 Automatic fuel shut-off in the event of any malfunction.
 Adequate fire protection in the event of failure of the structural
integrity of the combustion chamber.
 Automatic shut-off if the outlet air temperature becomes too high.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 78

Systems Used for Pressurized Flight

 Engine Driven Cabin Supercharger (Blower) Systems

 When a supply of air from the compressor of a gas turbine engine for
air conditioning or pressurization is not available, cabin air supply
may be provided by blowers driven through the accessory gearbox
or by turbo-compressors driven by bleed air.
 Such systems were necessary for piston engined and turbo-propeller
aircraft and are used for some turbojet aircraft where the air supply
from the compressor is considered to be too dirty (contaminated).
 These blowers may be of the centrifugal type.
 The blower must be capable of supplying the required mass flow of
air under all operating conditions which means that at sea level with
the engine running at high speed too high a mass flow will be
delivered, therefore in order to prevent over pressurization of the
supply ducts, a mass flow controller signals spill valves to vent the
excess air flow to atmosphere.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 79

 The hot and cold air supplies are mixed in varying proportions to
maintain the delivery temperature at a comfortable level for both
passengers and crew(Selection and control may be automatic or

manual)
 Engine Bleed Air Systems
 This the most widely used method of supplying charge air for the air
conditioning systems of modern aircraft.
 Hot pressurized air is supplied to the bleed air duct from the LP/HP
compressor.
 A tapping is then taken from the duct to supply the air conditioning
system.
 This air is passed through a mass flow controller or a modulated engine
bleed air valve and since the bleed air supply is always at a higher
temperature than that required for passenger comfort a means of
cooling this air is accomplished by the air conditioning pack.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 80

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 81

Heat Exchanger

These components operate on the principle of surface heat exchange and

normally use ram air as the cooling medium.

Ground Cooling Fan

The ground cooling fan, as its name implies, allows the air conditioning system
to be used when the aircraft is on the ground by drawing (or pushing) air
across the primary and, if necessary, the secondary heat exchangers.

Water Separator

The water separator removes the excess

water which condenses during the
cooling process.
This is a problem at low altitude and
when running the system on the ground
during conditions of high humidity.

Humidifier

In aircraft operating at high altitudes for

long periods of time it may be necessary to
increase the moisture content of the
conditioning air.
Physical discomfort arising from low
relative humidity.
This is the function of the humidifier.
The aircraft’s drinking water supply is used and the water is atomized by air
from the air conditioning supply.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 82

Ram Air Valves

The ram air valves (inlet and outlet doors) are opened and closed by the pack
controller and regulate the amount of air entering the ram air duct.

This is done automatically as part of the temperature control system and

during landing and take-off in order to prevent ingestion of foreign matter.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 83

TOPIC NO.-8
Pressurization Systems

 Modern aircraft operate more efficiently at high altitudes and have high
rates of climb and descent.

 An aircraft flying at high altitude is pressurized to allow passengers and

crew to function normally without the need for additional oxygen.

 Up to an altitude of 10 000 ft, the air pressure and consequently the

amount of oxygen is sufficient for humans to operate without too many
problems.

 Cabin pressurization systems are designed to produce conditions

equivalent to those of approximately 8000 ft.

 Once the cabin altitude reaches 10 000 ft the crew must be on oxygen,
and at 15 000 ft cabin altitude the passengers must be on emergency

oxygen.

The Aircraft Structure

LoX
--
- Liquid 02
maintain in cabin %
must be appeal
-

Humility
-
MANSIMRAN SINGH
 84

 Airframe structure must, therefore, be strong enough to withstand the

differential pressures generated without being too heavy and therefore
uneconomic in operation.
 The difference in pressure between the inside and outside of the
pressurized areas of the aircraft or differential pressure produces hoop
stresses which are applied cyclically every time the aircraft is pressurized
and de-pressurized causing fatigue which can, ultimately, lead to
structural failure.
 Keeping the maximum differential pressure to its lowest practical value
reduces the hoop stress.

 Typical maximum differential pressures for large jet transport aircraft

are between 8 and 9 psi (552-621 hPa).
ycada
position Pressure differential e
Ondar
boba Ram pressured .

System Control

 Cabin Pressurization is controlled by having a constant mass flow of air

entering the cabin and then varying the rate at which it is discharged to
atmosphere.
 The constant mass flow of air is supplied by the air conditioning system
via the mass flow controller and is discharged to atmosphere by the
discharge or outflow valves.
 Closing the valve reduces the outflow and increases the pressure,
Opening the valve increases the outflow and reduces the pressure.
 During the cruise the outflow valves form a thrust recovery nozzle to
regain lost thrust energy from the cabin exhaust air.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 85

In addition to the outflow valves the following safety devices must be fitted to
any cabin Pressurization system.

Safety valve.

 A simple mechanical outwards pressure relief valve fitted to relieve

positive pressure in the cabin when the maximum pressure differential
allowed for the aircraft type is exceeded i.e. prevents the structural max.
diff. being exceeded.
 This valve will open if the pressure rises to max. diff. plus 0.25 psi.

Inwards relief (inwards vent) valve.

 A simple mechanical inwards relief valve is fitted to prevent excessive

negative differential pressure which will open if the pressure outside
the aircraft exceeds that inside the aircraft by 0.5 to 1.0 psi.

Dump Valve.

 A manually operated component, the Dump Valve, will enable the crew
to reduce the cabin pressure to zero for emergency de-Pressurization.
 Blow out panels are fitted between passenger and cargo compartments
in order to prevent excessive differences in pressure occurring between
these areas in the event of, for example, a cargo door opening in flight

Ditching control

 Closes all the discharge valves to reduce the flow of water Into the cabin
in the event of a forced landing in water.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 86

X
System Operation

There are two modes of operation,

 auto (1 & 2) and manual

with the outflow valves
being electrically operated
by either of the two AC
motors under the control of
the automatic controllers or
by the DC motor for
emergency or manual
operation.
 Only one controller is in use at any one time, the other being on standby.
 The standby controller will automatically take over in the event of failure
of the other controller.
NOTE: On older aircraft the controller will reduce the differential pressure to
zero on touchdown. To summarize: if the differential pressure is increasing the
discharge valves are closing, if the differential pressure is decreasing then the
discharge valves are opening and if the differential pressure is constant then,
since the mass flow in is constant, the discharge valve will not move.

Cabin rates of climb and descent should be carefully monitored and should not
normally exceed 500 ft/min during the climb or 300 ft/ min in the descent in
order not to cause too much discomfort for the passengers, particularly those
with colds etc. and to reduce the effect of rapid pressure changes in the ears.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 87

Questions

1. Main and nose wheel bays are:

a. pressurized
b. unpressurized
c. conditioned
d. different, with the mains being unpressurized and the nose
pressurized
2. Normal maximum negative differential pressure is:
a. when atmospheric pressure exceeds cabin pressure by the amount
permitted by the system controls
b. where the cabin pressure falls below aircraft altitude pressure at
which time the inward relief valve opens
c. when the cabin pressure exceeds the atmospheric pressure by 0.5 psi
d. the pressure at which the duct relief valve is set to operate
3. When would the negative differential limit be reached/exceeded?
a. Rapid descent when AC descends below cabin altitude
b. During ground pressure testing
c. Rapid ascent when aircraft climbs
d. When changing to manual operation
4. A/C in level flight: if cabin altitude increases, pressure diff:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. nil
5. In level pressurized flight what does the outflow valve do?
a. Close
b. Adjust to provide constant flow, and is normally partially open
c. Open to increase air conditioning
d. Adjust to provide maximum flow, and is normally almost closed
6. In a turbo-compressor or bootstrap system the cooling air is:
a. ram air
b. engine by pass air
c. cabin air
d. compressor air
7. The rate of change of cabin pressure should be kept to the minimum. This
is more important:
a. in descent
b. in climb
c. in periods when the dehumidifier is in use
d. in cruise

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 88

8. A cabin humidifier is used:

a. on the ground in conditions of low relative humidity
b. at high altitude
c. at low altitude
d. on the ground in high ambient temperatures
9. Fatigue life of the fuselage is based on the:
a. number of pressurization cycles
b. number of explosive decompressions
c. number of landings only
d. number of cycles at maximum differential
10. If the forward oil seal in an axial flow compressor fails, cabin air will be:
a. contaminated
b. unaffected
c. ‘b’ is only correct if synthetic oil is used
d. ‘a’ will be correct only if the aircraft is inverted
11. Rate of change of cabin altitude is shown on a:
a. special gauge
b. aircraft VSI
c. cabin pressure controller
d. gauge reading a percentage of Max Diff Pressure
12. Cabin discharge valve (pneumatic) is supplied with:
a. air data computer output information
b. cabin and static pressure
c. cabin pressure, static and air speed information
d. cabin pressure only
13. What is the purpose of the duct relief valve?
a. To protect the undercarriage bay
b. To ensure the compressor pressure is regulated
c. To prevent damage to the ducts
d. To relieve excess pressure to compressor return line
14. What system is installed to control the air conditioning?
a. Emulsifier and water extractor
b. Impingement type dehydrator and humidifier
c. Dehydrator only
d. Humidifier only
15. How is the (charge) air cooled in a bootstrap (turbo-compressor) system?
a. By expanding over turbine
b. By expanding over turbine driving compressor
c. Via an air cooled radiator
d. By passing it through the fuel heater

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 89

16. At the max differential phase, the discharge phase is:

a. open
b. closed
c. under the control of the rate capsule
d. partly open
17. What is the purpose of inward relief valves?
a. To prevent negative differential
b. To back up the duct relief valve
c. To allow positive pressure to be bled off in an emergency
d. To back up the outflow valve
18. On a ground pressurization test, if the cabin suffers a rapid de-
pressurization:
a. the temperature will rise suddenly
b. water precipitation will occur
c. damage to hull may occur
d. duct relief valve may jam open
19. A heat exchanger functions by:
a. combining ram and charge air
b. mixing the various vapours inside the heat exchanger
c. passing charge air through ducts and cool air around ducts
d. removing the static charge
20. Maximum differential pressure:
a. is the maximum authorized pressure difference between the inside of
the fuselage and the atmospheric ambient pressure
b. is the absolute pressure provided by the vacuum pump
c. is the pressure loss over a given time limit
d. is the absolute pressure the cabin pressure ducting is designed to
carry
21. A humidifier is fitted to:
a. extract the moisture content in the air
b. filter the air
c. increase the moisture content in the air when operating at high
altitude
d. to ensure the cabin air is saturated at high altitude
22. If the discharge or outflow valve closes:
a. the duct relief valve will take control
b. the inward relief valve would assume control
c. the safety valve would limit the positive pressure difference
d. the safety relief valve would limit the negative pressure difference
23. Air for conditioning and pressurization is taken from:

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 90

a. the engine compressor or cabin compressor

b. the engine by pass duct or thrust reverse by pass duct
c. the engine compressor or ram turbine
d. the engine turbine or cabin compressor
24. Safety valves are biased:
a. inwards
b. outwards
c. in the direction sensed by the SVC
d. neither a nor b
25. Cabin compressors:
a. increase their flow in cruise conditions
b. decrease their flow in cruise conditions
c. increase their flow in proportion to increases of altitude differential
pressure and reduction in engine rpm in order to maintain the mass flow
d. deliver minimum air at sea level via the cold air unit
26. In a pressurization circuit the sequence of operation is for the:
a. inward relief valve to open before the safety valve
b. outflow valve to operate before the safety valve
c. outflow valve to operate after the safety valve
d. outflow valve to operate the same time as the safety valve
27. In the cruise at 30 000 ft the cabin altitude is adjusted from 4000 ft to
6000 ft:
a. cabin differential will increase
b. cabin differential will not be affected
c. cabin differential will decrease
d. nil.
28. An aircraft climbs from sea level to 16 000 ft at 1000 ft per min, the cabin
pressurization is set to climb at 500 ft per min to a cabin altitude of 8000 ft.
The time taken for the cabin to reach 8000 ft is:
a. the same time as it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
b. half the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
c. twice the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
d. three times the time it takes the aircraft to reach 16 000 ft
29. The aircraft inhibiting switch connected to the A/C landing gear:
a. allows the aircraft to be pressurized on the ground
b. stops pressurizing on the ground and ensures that there is no
significant pressure differential
c. ensures that the discharge valve is closed
d. cancels out the safety valve on the ground
30. Negative differential is limited by:

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 91

a. dump valve
b. inward relief valve
c. outflow valve
d. safety valve
31. To maintain a steady and constant airflow regardless of altitude or cabin
pressure:
a. a duct relief valve is fitted
b. a venturi device is fitted
c. a mass flow controller is fitted
d. a thermostatic relief valve is fitted
32. The term “pressurization cycle” means:
a. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure only
b. air introduced into a fuselage under pressure until the time the air is
released
c. air discharged from the fuselage, above 15 psi
d. the frequency in Hz the pressure cycles from the rootes blowers enter
the fuselage
33. Inward Relief Valves operate:
a. in conjunction with the cabin pressure controller when there is a
negative diff
b. in conjunction with the cabin altitude selector when there is negative
diff
c. when manually selected during the emergency descent procedure
d. automatically when there is a negative diff
34. Safety valves operate:
a. at higher than maximum differential
b. as soon as initiation takes place
c. at a lower diff than a discharge valve
d. at a set value, which is selected
35. Ditching Cocks are operated:
a. automatically when the soluble plugs dissolve
b. to shut all outflow valves
c. to direct pressure into flotation bags
d. for rapid depressurization
36. Duct Relief Valves operate when:
a. excessive pressure builds up in the air conditioning system supply
ducts
b. to keep cabin pressure close to ambient pressure
c. to prevent the floor from collapsing should baggage door open
d. the cooling modulator shutters reach the optimized position

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 92

37. During a normal pressurized cruise, the discharge valve position is:
a. at a position pre-set before take-off
b. partially open
c. open until selected altitude is reached
d. closed until selected altitude is reached
38. A dump valve:
a. automatically opens when fuel is dumped
b. is controlled manually
c. is opened automatically when the safety valve opens
d. is controlled by the safety valve integrating line

39. When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:

a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. nil
40. If pressure is manually controlled:
a. an extra member is required to monitor system operation
b. the climb rate would be maintained automatically
c. climb rate could not be maintained
d. care should be taken to ensure climb/descent rates are safe
41. An aircraft is prevented from pressurizing on the ground by:
a. the auto deflating valve on the main oleos
b. inhibiting microswitches on the landing gear
c. inhibiting microswitches on the throttles
d. the pressure control master switch
42. If the pressurization air is passed over the cold air unit compressor it:
a. increases the charge air temperature
b. decreases the charge air temperature
c. decreases the charge air pressure
d. makes no change to the charge air condition
43. If the cabin pressure increases in level flight does the cabin VSI shows:
a. rate of climb
b. no change unless the aircraft climbs
c. rate of descent
d. nil
44. The term pressure cabin is used to describe:
a. pressurization of the flight deck only
b. the ability to pressurise the aircraft to a higher than ambient pressure
c. the passenger cabin on an airliner
d. the ability to maintain a constant pressure differential at all altitudes

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 93

45. A pressurization system works by:

a. essentially constant input mass flow and variable output
b. essentially constant output mass flow and variable input
c. does not start until an altitude of 8000 ft has been reached
d. supplying hot gases from the engine exhaust unit to the mass flow
control system
46. When air is pressurized by an engine driven compressor, it is also:
a. moisturized
b. heated
c. cooled
d. the temperature is not affected

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 94

TOPIC NO.-9
Ice and Rain Protection
The formation of ice or frost on the surfaces of an aircraft will cause a
detrimental effect on aerodynamic performance.

No ICING ABOVE 40,000 ft(DGCA)

In no circumstances should a formation of ice or frost be allowed to remain on
the aircraft wing surfaces prior to take-off.
AREAS REQUIRING PROTECTION
ENIGINE AIR INTAKE TAILPLANE LEADING EDGE
WING LEADING EDGE ALPHA PROBES
FIN LEADING EDGE SLATS
PROPELLERS COMPRESSOR INLET GUIDE VANES
PITOT HEAD COCKPIT WINDOW

Two different approaches are generally used:

‘De-icing’ where ice is allowed to accumulate prior to being removed.
‘Anti-icing’ where the object is to prevent any ice accumulation.

There are a number of avenues which need exploring and these include
detection and warning systems and the methods used to protect the aircraft,
which can be any or all of the following:

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 95

Pneumatic Expanding rubber boots - mechanical.

Thermal Electrically heated.
Oil heated.
Air heated.
Liquid Freezing point depressant fluids. (FPD)
Ice detection Is provided automatically by the provision of ice
detectors which relay a warning to the flight crew.
Anti-icing Is the application of continuous heat or fluid.
De-icing Is the intermittent application of fluid, heat or
mechanical effort

Detection Devices and Warnings

There are three main types of ice detector in current use:

The ice detector head.
The mechanical ice detector.
The element ice sensing unit.

Ice Detector Heads

Teddington Ice Detector.
 This detector consists of an aerofoil
shaped mast protruding into the
airflow and visible from the
cockpit.
 The mast incorporates a heater
element and a light to illuminate
the mast at night .
 When icing conditions are
encountered in flight, with the
heater power supply switched off, ice accumulates on the mast and
gives a direct visual indication of ice accretion.
 The heater may be switched on to dissipate accumulated ice.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 96

Smiths Ice Detector.

 The Smiths ice detector consists
of a hollow tube, attached to the
aircraft by one end and has holes
drilled in the leading and trailing
faces;
 There are four holes in the
leading edge and two in the
trailing edge.
 In flight under normal conditions,
there is a pressure build up in the
probe which is sensed by a relay
unit at the open base of the tube.
 In icing conditions, the leading
edge holes become blocked by ice and a negative pressure is created in
the hollow tube, causing the relay unit to give a warning.
 A heater element is fitted around the tube to dissipate accumulated
ice.
Mechanical Ice Detectors

Rotary (Napier) Ice Detector.

In the Napier ice detector
a serrated rotor shaft is
continuously driven by an
electric motor.
The shaft rotates
adjacent to a fixed knife-
edge cutter, with a
clearance between them
of less than 0.002 inches.
The unit is mounted
on the aircraft fuselage
with the rotor axis at right
angles to the airflow.
Under normal conditions, little torque is required to drive the
rotor.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 97

In icing conditions, ice builds up on the rotor and is shaved off by

the cutter.
This movement operates a microswitch which gives an ice
warning, or automatically initiates the anti-icing sequence.

Rosemount (Vibrating Rod) Ice Detector.

 This detector consists of a short
cylindrical probe mounted on a
vibrator housing which vibrates
the probe axially at about 35
kHz .
 If ice builds up on the probe, the
added mass reduces the
resonant frequencies.
 When the frequency falls to a
predetermined level, an ice
warning is given.
 The warning signal also operates a built in heater element in the
probe to shed accumulated ice.
 After six seconds, the heater switches off and the icing cycle
recommences.
Element Ice Sensing Unit

Sangamo Weston Ice

Detector.
 Ice can only be formed when
there is a combination of
moisture and freezing
temperatures.
 In the Sangamo Weston ice
detector, these two conditions are detected separately and,
therefore, icing conditions are detected rather than actual ice
formation.

Beta Particle Ice Detection Probe

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 98

 Two probes, mounted

perpendicularly from the forward
fuselage, plus a relay and the
flight deck warning constitute the
basic system.
 Under nil ice conditions the
forward probe, an emitter, will
emit Beta particles which are
detected by the rear probe, a
detector.
 Beta particles are absorbed by
ice so that, in icing conditions, less particles are sensed by the
detector.

Mechanical ‘De-icing’

De-icer Boots.
 The de-icer boots, or
overshoes, consist of layers of
natural rubber and rubberized
fabric between which are
disposed flat inflatable tubes
closed at the ends.

 The tubes are made of

rubberized fabric and are
vulcanized inside the rubber layers.

 In some boots the tubes are so arranged that when the boots are
in position on a wing or tailplane leading edge the tubes run
parallel to the span; in others they run parallel to the chord.

Thermal ‘Anti-icing’ and ‘De-icing’

 Hot air systems on modern aircraft are generally engine bleed air and
are said to be ‘anti-icing’.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 99

 Heated air is ducted to the wings and tail units and passes into the gap,
providing sufficient heat in the outer skin of the leading edge to melt ice
already formed and prevent further ice formation.

Fluid Systems

This system prevents the

adhesion of ice on surfaces
by pumping freezing point
depressant fluid (FPD) to
panels in the leading edge
of the aerofoil, and
allowing the fluid to be
carried over the surface by
air movement.
The fluid is supplied from the storage tank to the pump through an integral
filter.

Windscreen Protection

Windshield or
Windscreen Wipers.
Independent two speed
wipers are usually
provided for both
pilots.
They may be electrically
or hydraulically
powered, with two
operating speeds.
Windscreen Rain Repellent System.

The rain repellent system is used with the wipers to improve visibility during
heavy rain.
Fluid De-icing System.

The method employed in this system is to spray the windscreen panel with a
methyl-alcohol based fluid.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 100

Propeller Protection Systems

Protection is provided either by an anti-icing fluid system, or by an electrically

powered thermal de-icing system.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 101

TOPIC NO.-10
SAFETY EQUIPEMENT

PUBLIC ADDRESS
a)When required, at least one microphone to be
available for use by the Flight
Attendant at each floor level exist in the passenger
compartment.
b)Flight Crew members to be able to use the public
address either through a
hand microphone or their normal headset
communications.

MEGAPHONES
a)Purpose is for passenger information in
the event of normal
aircraft power failure.
b)Battery powered
c)Checked by pressing the transmit switch
and listening for an
audible “Click” or the illumination of a
green neon light on the
megaphone.
d)Passenger Seats AvailableNo. of Megaphones
61-99 1
100 or more 2

TORCHES
a)Positioned at each crew station including the flight deck.
b)Indication of serviceability is by a flashing red neon light situated on the
body of the torch.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 102

EMERGENCY EXIT DESCENT DEVICES

a)Equipment for evacuation process can be a simple
rope, a slide, an
inertial reel or a tape.
b)Inflatable escape slide are rigid and double as
slide rafts. Apron
slides need human effort to keep them taut.
c)Crew escape methods still include simple rope
system.

OVER-WING ESCAPE HATCHES

a)Escape hatches are located in the passenger cabin over the wings.
b)Plug type hatches, held in place by mechanical locks and aeroplane cabin
pressure.
c)Can be opened from the inside or from the outside by a spring loaded

handle.
d)Hatch removal illuminates the
over-wing emergency exit lights on the
same sideprovided Cockpit
Emergency Exit light switch – Armed
Position

OVER-WING ESCAPE STRAPS Used as a

hand hold in a ditching emergency for
passengers to walk out on to the wing and
step in to a life raft.

CUT IN AREAS

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 103

a)Cut in areas are mandatory on public

transport aircraft over 3600Kgs
AUW.
b)Those areas which can be broken from
outside the aircraft in an event
when normal emergency exits are blocked
or are unable to open.
c)Rectangular in shape, marked by right
angled corners.
d)Red or Yellow in colour and outlined in
white if a contrast is required.

ESCAPE SLIDES
a)Inflatable rubber/nylon units which are
stored in compartments on the bottom inner
face of entrance and service doors.
b)Slides incorporate a girt bar.
c)Escape slides are of two types – Fully
Automatic and
Semi Automatic.
d)Some large aircraft utilise the escape slides as
a survival
raft with accommodation for up to 60 people
by
detaching the girt bar, it can be used in this mode.

DOORS/EMERGENCY EXITS
a)Doors may be electrically or manually operated.
b)Doors may act as Emergency Exits.
c)Must be outlined externally by a 5cm band in a contrasting
colour .

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 104

PERSONAL FLOATATION EQUIPMENT

1.The personal equipment is the life jacket or
Life
Preserver.
2.Jackets used for demonstration purposes are
usually
marked Demo Only or Dummy.
3.Buoyancy is achieved by inflating the jacket
with CO2
which is stored under pressure in small bottle.
4.CO2 is released manually by the operation of
a Red
Toggle or Lever.
5.A standby method of inflation by mouth is available.
6.Jackets are coloured yellow or Flame red.
7.Following equipment may be on a Life Jacket:-
a.A whistle
b. A lifeline
c. A sea water activated light
d. A mirror
e. Sea water dye
f. Shark Repellent
8. A crew jacket may contain communication equipment or a Search and
Rescue Beacon also known as PLB(PERSONAL BEACON LOCATOR) or SARSE.

LOCATOR BEACONS
1. Self Buoyant
2. Dual Frequency 243.0 or 121.5MHz
3. Radio distress beacon transmitter with an 80 Mile range
4. 48 hours continuous transmission on the Civil and Military
International Aviation Distress Frequencies.

FIRST AID EQUIPMENT

1. First Aid Holdalls: Not sealed and are designed for use by cabin crew
for the treatment of minor emergencies and ailments.
2. Slide/Raft kits: This First Aid Kit is situated in the survival pack of the
slide/raft and includes a survival booklet
3. Emergency First Aid Kits: Divided into two parts.
a. One for the cabin crew use.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 105

b. other by qualified doctors only, other part is provided when aircraft capacity
is more than 30 seats and if any part of planned route is more than 60 minutes
flying time.

ANCILLARY EQUIPMENT
1. Fire-Proof Gloves: For using or handling overheated equipment.
2. Fire Axe or Jemmy: Used for levering and lifting hot panels
Fire Axe phased out in favour of the jemmy

EMERGENCY LIGHTING
1. An emergency lighting system independent of the main lighting system
must be installed.
2. The system must include-
a. Illuminated emergency exit marking, sources of general cabin illumination,
internal lighting in emergency exit areas and floor proximity escape path
marking.
b. External Emergency lighting
c. Exit signs must have red letters on a white electrically or self illuminated
background.
3. Design of the system must be (Emergency
Lighting)-
a. Operable from the flight station or
passenger compartment.
b. Capable of providing the crew
with a
warning light if not armed.
c. Capable of providing illumination
to the
areas on the wing and ground
where an
evacuee is likely to make his first
step or
contact.
d. The capacity of emergency
batteries must
be such that they are capable of
providing em ergency lighting for a
period of at least
10 minutes.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 106

Topic no.-11
Aircraft Oxygen Equipment
In order for the body to function satisfactorily it requires oxygen which it
extracts from oxygenated blood provided by the lungs.

Insufficient oxygen is known as Hypoxia.

The symptoms of hypoxia can be summarized as follows:

 Apparent Personality Change

 Impaired Judgement
 Muscular Impairment
 Memory Impairment
 Sensory Loss

Impairment of Consciousness i.e. confusion, semi-consciousness,

unconsciousness and finally DEATH.
Time of Useful Consciousness(DGCA)
This is the time available for a pilot to recognize the development of hypoxia
and do something about it.
ALTITUDE TIME
45000 ft About 12 Sec
35000 ft 45-30 Sec
30000 ft 90-45 Sec
25000 ft 5-3 Min
18000 t 30 Min

Lox is LIQUID OXYGEN (DGCA)

Available Systems

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 107

 In unpressurized aircraft,
oxygen equipment will be installed for
the use of passengers and crew if the
aircraft is to fly above 10 000 ft with
portable oxygen sets being provided
if no fixed installation exists.
 Crew oxygen is stored in High
Pressure gaseous form whilst
passenger supplies may be of HP gas
or be chemically generated.
 Gaseous oxygen systems are generally of the diluter demand type
for crew use and the continuous flow type for passenger use, although
some smaller aircraft may have the continuous flow type for crew use as
well.
 In both systems the gas is stored in cylinders at 1800 psi, the
pressure being reduced to a suitable level for use.

Quantity (pressure) indication is provided by a gauge on the flight

compartment.
 In the event of an overpressure the cylinder is vented to atmosphere
through a safety (bursting) disc.(DGCA)
 Indication of this fact is given by a discharge indicator located on the
outer skin of the aircraft adjacent to the oxygen storage bottle(s).
 The cylinders are fitted with “shut-off valves” to enable them to be
removed from the aircraft for maintenance purposes.

Continuous Flow Oxygen System

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 108

 At the PRV the pressure is reduced to 80-100 psi for supply to the mask
connection points, where the pressure is further reduced by the fitting of
a calibrated orifice.
 This ensures that oxygen is supplied at the correct pressure for breathing
at a continuous rate when required.
 In the case of pressurization failure, the masks are presented
automatically and oxygen flow will commence when the passenger puts
on the mask.
 Continuous flow regulators of the hand adjustable and automatic type
may be installed for crew and passenger oxygen supply respectively.
 The system usually has a pressure gauge, a flow indicator and a manual
control knob used to regulate the flow according to the cabin altitude.
 Flow indicators show that oxygen is flowing through the regulator.
 They do not show how much is flowing or if the user is being supplied
with sufficient oxygen.

Diluter Demand System

This type of system is provided in most aircraft for flight crew use and is
separate and additional to passenger system.
Oxygen is diluted with air and supplied as demanded by the user’s respiration
cycle and the oxygen regulator.
There is a mask connection point for each crew member and the
supernumerary crew position.
A typical regulator operates as follows:-

With the oxygen supply ‘ON’ and ‘NORMAL’ oxygen selected, diluted oxygen
will be supplied to the crew member’s mask as he/she inhales. As the cabin
altitude increases and cabin air pressure decreases the percentage oxygen
increases until, at 32 000 ft cabin altitude, 100% oxygen is supplied. (DGCA)

100% oxygen will be supplied, regardless of altitude, if the crew member

selects 100% O2 on the regulator control panel.

Selecting ‘EMERGENCY’ on the regulator will provide protection against the

inhalation of smoke and harmful gases by supplying 100% O2 at a positive
pressure.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 109

When ‘TEST’ is selected, oxygen at a high positive pressure is supplied to check

masks for fit and other equipment for leakage.

(Smokel

Passenger Oxygen System

 Continuous flow type supplied either by a high pressure gaseous system

or a chemical generator system.
 The masks are
stowed in the
passenger service
units (PSU), the
doors of which will
open automatically
by a barometrically controlled release mechanism if the cabin altitude
reaches 14 000 ft or by manual selection from the flight deck.

o When the PSU doors open the masks drop to the “half-hung”
position. Pulling the mask towards the face initiates the oxygen
flow by opening a check valve on the gas supplied system or

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 110

operating the electrical or percussion cap firing mechanism on

the chemical generator.

Chemical Oxygen Generators

 The generators are relatively light self-contained devices and are located
in each passenger, cabin attendants and lavatory service units.
 Oxygen is generated by the chemical reaction of sodium chlorate
(NaClO3) and iron (Fe). The complete reaction is
 NaClO3 + Fe = (NaCl + FeO) + O2.
 The sodium chlorate and iron core is shaped to provide maximum oxygen
flow at starting.
o Sufficient oxygen is supplied from the generator to meet the
requirements of descent in emergency conditions (min of 15
mins).
o There has now been developed a chemical generator which lasts
for a period of 22 minutes.

o Caution. Once the chemical reaction has started, it cannot be

stopped.
o Surface temperatures of the generator can reach 232°C (450°F).
o A strip of heat sensitive tape or paint changes colour, usually to
black.
o Chemical generators have a shelf/installed life of ten years.

Portable Oxygen Systems

First aid and sustaining portable oxygen cylinders are installed, they
consist of a cylinder containing normally 120 litres of oxygen at a
pressure of 1800 psi in a carrying bag with straps.
There are two flow rates,
NORMAL FLOW RATE- 2 litres per minute -lasts for 60 Min.
HIGH FLOW RATE - 4 litres per minute.- lasts for 30 Min

AMERICAN OXYGEN CYLINDER IS GREEN

BRITISH OXYGEN CYLINDER IS BLACK WITH WHITE NECK

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 111

Crew Portable Oxygen Systems and Smoke Hoods

Standard portable oxygen bottles can be used by the crew to enable

them to move about the cabin during reduced cabin pressure situations
but for use when harsh environmental conditions exist portable sets
with a full face smoke mask will be used.
They may be standard cylinders or may be special smoke sets with built-
in generators which can produce oxygen for 15 minutes(DGCA) once
initiated.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 112

Questions

1. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 30 000 ft is

approximately:
a. twenty seconds
b. eighty seconds
c. one to two minutes
d. six minutes
2. Without added oxygen the time of useful consciousness at 40 000 ft is
approximately:
a. twenty seconds
b. three minutes
c. eighty seconds
d. six minutes
3. The maximum altitude without oxygen at which flying efficiency is not
seriously impaired is:
a. 10 000 ft
b. 17 500 ft
c. 25 000 ft
d. 30 000 ft
4. In a pressure demand oxygen system:
a. each member of the crew has a regulator
b. each member of the crew has a continuous oxygen supply
c. oxygen is supplied with a continuous pressure flow
d. oxygen demand will cause the pressure to rise
5. In a continuous flow oxygen system, oxygen is supplied:
a. only when the mask is plugged into the socket connection
b. only on passenger inhalation through the mask
c. only when the cabin altitude is above 18 000 ft
d. only when the supply has been regulated by the pilot
6 In a diluter demand system, selection of emergency on this regulator will
result in:
a. air mix supplied at emergency pressure
b. 100% oxygen supply as called for by the user
c. 100% oxygen at positive pressure
d. 100% oxygen continuous flow at positive pressure
7. If the aircraft suffers a decompression passenger oxygen masks:
a. are released by the passengers

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 113

b. automatically drop to a half-hung (ready position)

c. are handed out by the cabin staff
d. must be removed from the life jacket storage
8. Oxygen cylinders are normally charged to:
a. 1000 psi
b. 1200 psi
c. 1800 psi
d. 2000 psi
9. Rate of flow of oxygen is given in:
a. litres/minute
b. pounds/minute
c. litres/second
d. kilos/hour
10. The colour of American and European oxygen cylinders is:
a. red
b. blue
c. green
d. brown
11. Dangerous pressure rise in oxygen cylinders:
a. is relieved by a thermostat
b. is relieved by under pressurizing the bottle
c. is relieved by a bursting disc
d. is controlled by a thermal relief valve
12. To leak test an oxygen system use:
a. fairy liquid and de-ionized water
b. thin oil
c. acid free soap and distilled water
d. acid free soap and water
13. Lubrication of an oxygen component thread is by:
a. soap water
b. grease
c. oil
d. graphite
14. Satisfactory operation of the oxygen system is indicated by:
a. flow indicators
b. lack of anoxia
c. aural reassurance
d. pressure indicators
15. If the pressurization system fails and the cabin starts to climb, then at 14
000 ft oxygen will be available to the passengers by:

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 114

a. the stewardess who will hand out masks

b. the passengers grabbing a mask from the overhead lockers
c. portable oxygen bottles located in the seat backs
d. masks automatically ejected to a half-hung position
16. When air is pressurized the % of oxygen:
a. increases
b. decreases
c. remains the same
d. nil
17. In an emergency chemically produced oxygen is supplied for a given
period by:
a. sodium chlorate, iron power, an electrical firing system and a filter
b. potassium chlorate, iron powder, an electrical firing system and a
filter
c. sodium chlorate, iron powder which is chemically activated by air and
then filtered
d. sodium chlorate and an electrical firing system
18. Passenger oxygen masks will present:
a. only when the cabin altitude reaches 14 000
b. only if selected by the crew
c. only if selected by the cabin staff
d. if selected manually / electrically / barometrically
19. The charged pressure of a portable oxygen cylinder is normally:
a. 500 psi
b. 1200 psi
c. 1800 psi
d. 3000 psi
20. With the control knob set to high, a 120 litre portable bottle will provide
oxygen for a period of:
a. 60 mins
b. 30 mins
c. 12 mins
d. 3 mins
21. At what altitude will the diluter-demand oxygen regulator provide 100%
pure oxygen:
a. 10 000 ft
b. 14 000 ft
c. 24 000 ft
d. 34 000 ft
22. A flow indicator fitted to an oxygen regulator indicates:

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 115

a. that exactly the correct amount of oxygen is being used by the crew
member
b. that oxygen is flowing through the regulator
c. that the crew member is correctly connected to the regulator
d. that the system pressure reducing valve is supplying the correct
pressure to the regulator
23. What is the approximate time of useful consciousness when hypoxia
develops at the specified altitudes?
20 000 ft 30 000 ft
a. 2-3 min 10-15 sec
b. 10 min 2 min
c. 30 min 90-60 secs
d. 40 min 5 min
24. What is the effect on cabin temperature of a rapid de-compression at 30
000 ft?
a. Sudden and extreme drop
b. Insignificant change over the first 2 minutes
c. A gradual decrease to ambient over a period of about 10 minutes if
the cabin heating ceases
d. A gradual decrease to ambient temperature over a period of about 30
minutes if cabin heating continues
25. Susceptibility to hypoxia is increased by:
a. heat
b. noise
c. smoking
d. under-breathing
26. What is the approximate cabin altitude above which you must breath
100% oxygen if you are to maintain an alveolar partial pressure equal to that
at sea level?
a. 26 000 ft
b. 30 000 ft
c. 34 000 ft
d. 38 000 ft

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 116

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 117

Topic no-12
Smoke Detection
Smoke Detection

Smoke detection systems are employed where it is not possible to keep a bay
or compartment under constant physical surveillance. E.g, Cargo,
ElectricalEquipment etc.

Smoke and flame detectors osperate according to several different

principles:
OPTICAL
IONISATION
Light detection system –
 Designed to respond to a change in visible light or a change in infrared
radiation.
 Uses a photoelectric cell positioned so that it can monitor the
surrounding area producing a change in current to activate a warning
circuit when a change of light or infrared radiation striking the cell
occurs.
 Activated by an open flame

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 118

Light refraction system –

 Uses a photoelectric cell which is
shielded from direct light from a
projection lamp directed into a
detection chamber.
 Air from the compartment is drawn
through the chamber.
 When smoke is introduced into the
chamber light is reflected from the
smoke particles and falls on the
photoelectric cell. .
 The test lamp illuminates when the
test is selected from the flight deck
and activates the smoke detector
Ionization –
 uses a small piece of radioactive
material to bombard the oxygen
and nitrogen molecules in the air
inside a detection chamber.
 Ionization takes place causing a
small current to flow across the
chamber and through an external
circuit.
 When smoke is introduced to the
chamber the smoke particles attach themselves to the oxygen and
nitrogen ions and reduce the current flow and activates the aural and
visual warning.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 119

Smoke Hoods (DGCA)

Smoke hoods are a fairly recent innovation to emergency equipment.

Owing to the training required to use a smoke hood it is only worn by flight
and cabin crews.
The basic unit provides protection against all forms of smoke generated in a
ground or flight emergency. A rubber neck seal ensures complete insulation for
the wearer whilst oxygen is supplied via a self-contained system, the duration
being a minimum of 15 minutes.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 120

Fire Detection and Protection

Fire Detection/Protection system must be fitted in
engines, APUs and main wheel wells.

A fire detection system must be capable of

providing rapid detection of a localized fire or
overheat condition, however it must not
automatically operate the fire extinguishers.
Fire Detection Systems

Detection methods can vary according to the position of the equipment. Four
methods of detection can be described as follows:
Melting Link Detectors.
These are found in older aircraft and consist of a pair of contacts held apart by
a fusible plug.
At a predetermined temperature the fusible plug melts allowing the contacts
to close and a fire warning circuit is made.
A major drawback with this detector is that the contacts will not open after
the fire has been extinguished thus giving a permanent fire warning.

Differential Expansion Detectors.

This type of detector operates on the
principle of the differential rate of
expansion of dissimilar materials.
They consist of a pair of contacts
mounted on a spring bow assembly,
fitted within an expansion tube
mounted on a base.

When heat is applied the tube expands at a greater rate then the bow,
drawing the contacts together, so providing power to the Fire Warning
Circuit.
A subsequent drop in temperature will cause the tube to shorten, the contact
will open and cancel the warning.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 121

Continuous Fire Detectors.

These detectors are commonly
known as Fire Wire Free From False
Detection, (FFFD)
Operate on the principle of their
elements having either a negative
coefficient of resistance (Dec in
resistance with inc. in Temp) or a
positive coefficient of
capacitance.(Inc in capacitance with
inc in temp)

An element consists of a stainless

steel tube, with a central electrode
insulated from the tube by a temperature sensitive material.

The resistance of insulating material in the resistive type will decrease with
increase of temperature and current flow (leakage) between the central
electrode and the outer tube will increase until, at a predetermined level,
sufficient current will flow and the warning system will operate. If the
temperature drops below a preset value the system will automatically reset.

In the case of the capacitance type an increase in temperature causes an

increase in capacitance.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 122

On receipt of left engine fire warning:

ACTION TO BE TAKEN IN CASE OF ENGINE FIRE(DGCA)

1. CLOSE LEFT THRUST LEVER

2. LEFT ENGINE HP OR ENGINE START LEVER CLOSE fuel supply close
3. PULL No. 1 FIRE HANDLE
4. NUMBER 1 ENGINE FIRE HANDLE ROTATE LEFT TO MECHANICAL LIMIT AND
HOLD FOR AT LEAST 1 SECOND. THIS WILL DISCHARGE THE LEFT BOTTLE INTO
THE LEFT ENGINE
5. IF AFTER 30 SECONDS FIRE WARNING REMAINS ILLUMINATED ROTATE No.
1 FIRE HANDLE RIGHT TO ITS MECHANICAL LIMIT AND HOLD FOR AT LEAST 1
SECOND. THIS WILL DISCHARGE THE RIGHT BOTTLE INTO THE LEFT ENGINE.
6. LAND AS SOON AS POSSIBLE
This is an example and individual aircraft checklists must be consulted for the
correct procedure to be followed.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 123

Auxiliary Power Unit Protection

APUs are constant speed self-contained gas turbines, which derive their fuel
supply from the aircraft system. Their services may include, bleed air, hydraulic
power, electrical power or a combination of these. They can when certified be
available for airborne use.
APUs are self-monitoring and will auto shut down in the event of:

fire
oil pressure failure
overspeed
overheat
Note: Although APUs auto shut down a manual control panel is normally
included. Automatic discharge of the APU fire extinguisher may be performed
on some aircraft in some circumstances.
Cincin mahi battal
FIRE EXTINGUISHERS(DGCA)
Bromochlorodifluromethane very effective against electrical and
(BCF)(Halon1211) flammable liquid fires.
Bromotrifluromethane (BTM)( Halon used for the protection of APUs,
1301) power plants and cargo
compartments.
Water or Water Glycol for combatting fires involving
domestic materials.
best known for its application front Ibaat
ve
Dry Chemical (Dry Powder)
against wheel and brake fires. approach
Carbon Dioxide (CO2) useful against engine fires as it will
extinguish the fire without damaging
the engine.
Useful for containing metal fires such
Sand as magnesium or titanium where
liquids will make matters worse.
Foam use on flammable liquid fires and
propane, it blankets the flames by
excluding oxygen.
NOTE: BCF & BTM are part of a group of Halogenated Hydrocarbons commonly
called FREON.

/ /In I
Petal fre
C
A
argainc/ an

household MANSIMRAN SINGH

as
CO2 used in
engine fire 124

Hand Held Extinguishers

Fire Compartments (DGCA)

The cockpit and passenger cabin are designated Class A compartments, meaning
that a fire may be visually detected, reached and combatted by a crew
member.

The engines are Class C compartments, and fire detection and warning is
provided.
There are five types of cargo compartments:

Class A and B crew members may reach and combat a source of fire;

Class C or D which crew members cannot reach the source of fire.

A Class E cargo compartment is one on aeroplanes only used for the carriage
of cargo.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 125

Pumps

Engine driven pumps (EDP) or electrically driven pumps may be classified as

follows:

Constant Delivery (Fixed Volume) Type Pump(ACOV)

Constant Pressure (Variable Volume) Pump

Constant Delivery (Fixed Volume) Type Pump.

This pump supplies fluid at a constant rate and therefore needs an automatic
cut-out or relief valve.

Constant Pressure (Variable Volume) Pump.

This pump supplies fluid at a variable volume and controls its own pressure,
this type of pump is typically fitted in modern aircraft .

Hydraulic Lock
When fluid is trapped between the piston of the jack and a non-return valve, a
“hydraulic lock” is said to be formed

PRESSURE CONTROL VALVES

Relief valves All act as safety devices to relieve excess pressure in the system
back to reservoir.

expansion (thermal relief).

ultimate system protection (full flow relief).
mechanical overload protection (flap relief).

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 126

Pressure Maintaining Valves. or priority valve, is basically a relief valve which

maintains the pressure in a primary service at a value suitable for operation of
that service, regardless of secondary service requirements.

Pressure Reducing Valves. A pressure reducing valve is often used to reduce

main system pressure to a value suitable for operation of a service such as
the wheel brakes.

Flow Control
Non-return Valves(One Way Check valve or Non-reversible valve)The
most common device used to control the flow of fluid is the non-return
valve, which permits full flow in one direction, but blocks flow in the
opposite direction.

One Way Check valve or Non-reversible valve similar in construction to

a non-return valve, but a restrictor valve is designed to permit limited
flow in one direction and full flow in the other direction(used to slow
down flap retraction or landing gear extension (up line for both)

Shuttle Valves. These are often used in landing gear and brake systems, to
enable an alternate system to operate the same actuators as the normal
system.
Sequence Valves. When there is a sequence to flow, often fitted in a landing
gear circuit to ensure correct operation of the landing gear doors and jacks
System Control

 Cabin Pressurization is controlled by having a constant mass flow of air

entering the cabin and then varying the rate at which it is discharged to
atmosphere.
 The constant mass flow of air is supplied by the air conditioning system
via the mass flow controller and is discharged to atmosphere by the
discharge or outflow valves.
 Closing the valve reduces the outflow and increases the pressure,
Opening the valve increases the outflow and reduces the pressure.

MANSIMRAN SINGH
 127

Ditching control

 Closes all the discharge valves to reduce the flow of water I to the cabin
in the event of a forced landing in water.

Safety valve. A simple mechanical outwards pressure relief valve fitted to

relieve positive pressure in the cabin when the maximum pressure differential
allowed for the aircraft type is exceeded i.e. prevents the structural max. diff.
being exceeded.
Inwards relief (inwards vent) valve.A simple mechanical inwards relief valve is
fitted to prevent excessive negative differential pressure which will open if the
pressure outside the aircraft exceeds that inside the aircraft by 0.5 to 1.0 psi.

MANSIMRAN SINGH