M P C Merged
M P C Merged
®
(1) 2 : 1 : 4 (2) 4 : 1 : 4
(1) Both (I) and (II) are true
(3) 1 : 2 : 4 (4) 1 : 1 : 4
(2) Neither (I) nor (II) is true Ans. (4)
(3) Only (II) is true Sol. Put x = 1
a 1
(4) Only (I) is true
x
ln 1 t
Ans. (1) 1 t 2024
dt
2
Sol. f(x) = (a + b – 2c) x + (b + c – 2a) x + (c + a – 2b) b lim 0
x 0 x2
f(x) = a + b – 2c + b + c – 2a + c + a – 2b = 0 Using L’ HOPITAL Rule
f(1) = 0 ln 1 x 1 1
b lim
c a 2b
x 0
1 x 2024
2x 2
1
a b 2c Now, cx2 + dx + e = 0, x2 + x + 4 = 0
(D < 0)
c a 2b
c d e
a b 2c
1 1 4
If, –1 < < 0 3. If the foci of a hyperbola are same as that of the
c a 2b x 2 y2
1 0 ellipse 1 and the eccentricity of the
a b 2c 9 25
15
ac hyperbola is times the eccentricity of the
b + c < 2a and b 8
2
ellipse, then the smaller focal distance of the point
therefore, b cannot be G.M. between a and c.
14 2
If, 0 1 2, on the hyperbola, is equal to
3 5
c a 2b
0 1 2 8 2 4
a b 2c (1) 7 (2) 14
5 3 5 3
ac 2 16 2 8
b > c and b (3) 14 (4) 7
2 5 3 5 3
Therefore, b may be the G.M. between a and c. Ans. (1)
1
x 2 y2 13 x = 39
Sol. 1
9 25 x = 3, y = 2
a = 3, b = 5 Center of given circle is (5, –2)
9 4 Radius 25 4 13 4
e 1 foci 0, be = (0, ± 4)
25 5 CM 4 16 5 2
4 15 3
eH CP 16 20 6
5 8 2
5. The area of the region
Let equation hyperbola
xy x 1 x 2
x 2 y2 x, y : y 4x, x 4, 0, x 3
2
1 x 3 x 4
A 2 B2
8 is
B eH 4 B
3 16 64
(1) (2)
64 9 80 3 3
A2 B2 e2H 1 1 A 9
2
®
9 4 8 32
(3) (4)
x 2 y2 3 3
1 Ans. (4)
80 64
9 9 Sol. y2 4x, x 4
B 16 xy x 1 x 2
Directrix : y 0
eH 9
x 3 x 4
3 14 2 16
PS = e PM Case – I : y 0
2 3 5 9
x x 1 x 2
2 8 0
7 x 3 x 4
5 3
x 0,1 2,3
4. If one of the diameters of the circle x2 + y2 – 10x +
4y + 13 = 0 is a chord of another circle C, whose Case – II : y < 0
center is the point of intersection of the lines 2x + x x 1 x 2
0, x 1, 2 3, 4
3y = 12 and 3x – 2y = 5, then the radius of the x 3 x 4
circle C is
(1) 20 (2) 4
(3) 6 (4) 3 2
Ans. (3)
P
4
M
(5, –2)
C
4
(3, 2)
Area 2 x dx
0
Sol.
2 4 32
2x + 3y = 12 2 x 3/2
3 0 3
3x – 2y = 5
2
4x 3 2 1 2 1
6. If f x , x and (fof) (x) = g(x), where
6x 4 3 Sol. D 2 3
2 2 3 1
g: , then (gogog) (4) is equal
3 3
= 1( + 3) + 2(2 – 9) + 1(–2 – 3)
to
= + 3 + 4 – 18 – 2 – 3
19 19
(1) (2) For infinite solutions D = 0, D1 = 0, D2 = 0 and
20 20
D3 = 0
(3) – 4 (4) 4
D=0
Ans. (4)
– 3 + 4 = 17 ….(1)
4x 3
Sol. f x
6x 4 4 2 1
4x 3 D1 5 3 0
4 3 34x
6x 4 3 1
gx x
®
4x 3 34
6 4 1 4 1
6x 4
D2 2 5 3 0
g x x g g g 4 4 3 3
e2 sin x 2 sin x 1
7. lim 15 9 4 2 9 1 6 15 0
x 0 x2
(1) is equal to – 1 (2) does not exist 13 9 36 9 0
(3) is equal to 1 (4) is equal to 2 54
13 54, put in (1)
Ans. (4) 13
e2 sin x 2 sin x 1 54 54
Sol. lim 3 4 17
x 0 x2 13 13
e2 sin x 2 sin x 1 sin 2 x 54 39 216 221
lim 2
2
x 0
sin x x 1
15 5
Let |sinx| = t 3
e 2t 2t 1 sin 2 x 1 54
lim 2
lim 2 Now, 12 13 12. 13.
t 0 t x 0 x 3 13
2e2t 2 = 4 + 54 = 58
lim 1 2 1 2
t 0 2t 9. The solution curve of the differential equation
8. If the system of linear equations
dx
x 2y z 4 y x log e x log e y 1 , x > 0, y > 0 passing
dy
2x y 3z 5
through the point (e, 1) is
3x y z 3
has infinitely many solutions, then 12 + 13 is y y
(1) loge x (2) log e y2
equal to x x
(1) 60 (2) 64 x x
(3) log e y (4) 2 log e y 1
(3) 54 (4) 58 y y
Ans. (4)
Ans. (3)
3
dx x x D(1, 2) C()
Sol. ln 1
dy y y
x
Let t x ty
y
dx dt
ty
dy dy
Sol. A() B(1, 0)
dt
t y t ln t 1 Let E is mid point of diagonals
dy
11 2 0
dt dt dy &
y t ln t 2 2 2 2
dy t ln t y
2 2
dt dy
2 2 2 2 8
t.ln t y
®
11. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential
dp dy
let ln t = p
dy tan x y
p y equation ,
dx sin x sec x sin x tan x
1
dt dp
t
x 0, satisfying the condition y 2.
lnp = lny +c 2 4
ln(ln t) = ln y + c
Then, y is
x 3
ln ln ln y c
y (1)
3 2 log e 3
at x = e, y = 1
3
e (2) 2 log e 3
ln ln ln(1) c c 0 2
1 (3) 3 1 2log e 3
x 3 2 log e 3
ln ln ln y (4)
y Ans. (1)
x dy sin x y cos x
ln eln y Sol.
y dx 1
sin x.cos x sin x.
sin x
x cos x cos x
ln y sin x y cos x
y
sin x 1 sin 2 x
10. Let Z and let A (), B (1, 0), C ()
and D (1, 2) be the vertices of a parallelogram dy
sec 2 x y.2 cos ec2x
ABCD. If AB = 10 and the points A and C lie on dx
the line 3y = 2x + 1, then 2 () is equal dy
2 cos ec 2x .y sec 2 x
to dx
(1) 10 (2) 5 dy
p.y Q
(3) 12 (4) 8 dx
Ans. (4)
4
I.F. e e
pdx 2cosec 2x dx pb cb 0
Sol.
Let 2x = t p c b 0
dx p c b p c b
2 1
dt Now, p.a 0 given
dt
dx So, c.a a.b 0
2
(3 – 3 – 8) + (12 + 1 – 14) = 0
e
cosec(t)dt
= –8
t p c 8b
ln tan
e 2
p 31iˆ 11jˆ 52kˆ
ln tan x 1 So, p.(iˆ ˆj k)
ˆ
e
tanx = –31 + 11 + 52
= 32
y(IF) Q IFdx c
®
1
13. The sum of the series
1 1 1 3 12 14
y sec2 x c
tan x tan x 2 3
….. up to 10 terms
1 3 2 2
2 4
1 3 32 34
1 dt
y. c for tan x = t is
tan x |t| 45 45
(1) (2)
1 109 109
y. ln | t | c 55 55
tan x (3) (4)
109 109
y tan x ln | tan x | c Ans. (4)
Sol. General term of the sequence,
Put x , y=2 r
4 Tr
1 3r 2 r 4
2 = ln 1 + c c = 2
r
Tr 4
y | tan x | ln | tan x | 2 r 2r 1 r 2
2
r
y 3 ln 3 2
3
Tr
r 1 r2
2 2
12. Let a 3iˆ ˆj 2k,
ˆ b 4iˆ ˆj 7kˆ and r
Tr
c ˆi 3jˆ 4kˆ be three vectors. If a vectors p
r 2
r 1 r 2 r 1
1 2
satisfies pb cb and pa 0 , then r r 1 r 2 r 1
Tr 2 2
p ˆi ˆj kˆ is equal to r r 1 r 2 r 1
(1) 24 1 1 1
2
(2) 36 2 r r 1 r r 1
2
5
14. The distance of the point Q(0, 2, –2) form the line 15. For , , 0. If sin–1 + sin–1 + sin–1 = and
passing through the point P(5, –4, 3) and ( + + ) ( – + ) = 3, then equal to
perpendicular to the lines
r 3iˆ 2kˆ +
(1)
3
2
2iˆ 3jˆ 5kˆ , and r ˆi 2ˆj kˆ +
1
(2)
µ ˆi 3jˆ 2kˆ , µ is 2
3 1
(1) 86 (3)
2 2
(2) 20
(4) 3
(3) 54 Ans. (1)
(4) 74 Sol. Let sin 1 A,sin 1 B,sin 1 C
Ans. (4) A+B+C=
2
®
Sol. A vector in the direction of the required line can be 2 3
obtained by cross product of
2 2 2
ˆi ˆj kˆ
2 2 2 1
2 3 5
2 2
1 3 2 1
cos C
2
9iˆ 9jˆ 9kˆ
sinC
Required line,
1
r 5iˆ 4ˆj 3kˆ ' 9iˆ 9ˆj 9kˆ cos C 1 2
2
6
17. Let g(x) be a linear function and x3 2x 2 1 1 3x
gx ,x 0 18. If f (x) 3x 2
2
2x x3 6
f x 1 x x
1
, is continuous at x = 0. x3 x 4 x2 2
,x 0
2 x for all x , then 2f(0) + f 0 is equal to
If f 1 f 1 , then the value of g(3) is
(1) 48 (2) 24
1 4 (3) 42 (4) 18
(1) loge 1/3
3 9e Ans. (3)
1 4 0 1 1
(2) loge 1
3 9 Sol. f 0 2 0 6 12
4 0 4 2
(3) log e 1
9 3x 2 4x 3
4 f x 3x 2 2x x 6 +
2 3
®
(4) log e 1/3
9e x3 x 4 x 2 2
Ans. (4)
x3 2x 2 1 1 3x
Sol. Let g(x) = ax + b
6x 2 3x 2 +
Now function f(x) in continuous at x = 0
x3 x 4 x2 2
lim f x f 0
x 0
x3 2x 2 1 1 3x
1
1 x x 3x 2 2 2x x3 6
lim b
x 0 2 x
3x 2 1 0 2x
0b 0 0 3 0 1 1 0 1 1
g x ax f 0 2 0 6 0 2 0 2 0 6
0 4 2 0 4 2 1 0 0
Now, for x > 0
1
1
= 24 – 6 = 18
1 1 x x 1
f x 2f 0 f 0 42
x 2x 2 x
2
4 40
ln (4)
1/3 153
9e
Ans. (4)
7
Sol. 3 bad apples, 15 good apples. 1
2 11
5 2
Let X be no of bad apples Sol. I sin 2x cos x 2
1 cos x 2
dx
15 0
C2 105
Then P(X = 0) 18
C2 153 Put cosx = t2 sinx dx = – 2 t dt
3
C1 15 C1 45
P X 1 1
18
C2 153 I 4 t 2 t11 1 t t dt
5
0
3
C 3
P X 2 18 2 1
C2 153
I 4 t14 1 t 5 dt
105 45 3 51 0
E X 0 1 2
153 153 153 153
Put 1 + t5 = = k2
1
5t4dt = 2k dk
3
Var X E X 2 E X
2
®
2
2k
k 1 k
2
I 4 2
dk
2 5
105 45 3 1 1
0 1 4
153 153 153 3 2
8
I k 2k 4 k 2 dk
6
57 1 40 5
1
153 9 153
20. Let S be the set of positive integral values of a for 8 k 7 2k 5 k 3
2
I
ax 2 2 a 1 x 9a 4 5 7 5 3 1
which 0, x .
x 2 8x 32
Then, the number of elements in S is : 8 8 2 8 2 2 2 1 2 1
I
(1) 1 5 7 5 3 7 5 3
(2) 0
8 22 2 8
(3) I
5 105 105
(4) 3
Ans. (2)
525 I 176 2 64
Sol. ax2 + 2 (a + 1) x + 9a + 4 < 0 x R
a 0 22. Let S 1, and f : S be defined as
e 1 (2t 1)5 t 2 t 3 2t 10
11
SECTION-B f (x) t 7 12 61
dt
1
21. If the integral Let p = Sum of square of the values of x, where
1
f(x) attains local maxima on S. and q = Sum of the
2
115
2
525 sin 2x cos x 1 cos 2 x dx is equal to
2
n
2 64 , then n is equal to ______
Then, the value of p2 + 2q is ________
Ans. (27)
Ans. (176)
8
Sol. x y z 1
Sol. r Q r, r,1
f x e x 1
1 1 0
2x 1 x 2 x 3 2x 10
11 5 7 12 61
x y z 1
k R k, k, 1
1 1 0
PQ a r ˆi a r ˆj a 1 kˆ
1 a = r + a – r = 0.
Local minima at x , x = 5 2a = 2r a = r
2
PR a k i a k ˆj a 1 kˆ
Local maxima at x = 0, x = 2
a–k–a–k=0 k=0
1 11
p 0 4 4, q 5 As, PQ PR
2 2
Then p2 + 2q = 16 + 11 = 27
a r a k a r a k a 1a 1 0
a = 1 or –1
23. The total number of words (with or without 12a2 = 12
®
meaning) that can be formed out of the letters of 25. In the expansion of
5
1 x 1 x 1 2 3 , x 0 , the
the word ‘DISTRIBUTION’ taken four at a time, 2 3 3 1
is equal to _____ x x x
sum of the coefficient of x3 and x–13 is equal to ___
Ans. (3734)
Ans. (118)
Sol. We have III, TT, D, S, R, B, U, O, N 5
1 x 1 x 1 2 3
2 3 3 1
Number of words with selection (a, a, a, b) Sol.
x x x
4! 5
8 C1 32 1 3
3! 1 x 1 x 1
2
x
Number of words with selection (a, a, b, b)
1 x 1 x 1 x
2 15
4!
6
2!2! x15
1 x x 1 x
17 17
Number of words with selection (a, a, b, c)
2 C1 8 C2
4!
672
x15
2! coeff x 3 in the expansion coeff x18 in
Number of words with selection (a, b, c, d)
1 x x 1 x
17 17
9 C4 4! 3024
=0–1
total = 3024 + 672 + 6 + 32 = –1
= 3734 coeff x 13 in the expansion coeff x 2 in
17 17
24. Let Q and R be the feet of perpendiculars from the (1 + x) – x(1 + x)
17 17
point P(a, a, a) on the lines x = y, z = 1 and x = –y,
2 1
z = –1 respectively. If QPR is a right angle, then
= 17 × 8 – 17
12a2 is equal to _____ = 17 × 7
= 119
Ans. (12)
Hence Answer = 119 – 1 = 118
9
26. If denotes the number of solutions of |1 - i|x = 2x 5 2
a 1 e2
|z| 2
and , where
arg(z) 5 5 2
e
1 e2
2
4 1 i i
z 1 i , i 1 , then 2 2e2 e
4 i 1 i
2e2 e 2 0
the distance of the point () from the line
2e2 2e e 2 0
4x – 3y = 7 is _____
2e e 2 1 1 2 0
Ans. (3)
e 2 2e 1 0
2
x
Sol. 2x x 0 1 1
e 2 ; e
®
4 i i i i 2
z 1 i
4 1 1 x2 y2
1 a 5 2
i b2 a 2b2
1 4i 6i 2 4i 3 1 b=5
2
2i a 2 b2 b2 e12 1 e12 51
2
4 28. Let a and b be two vectors such that
2
| a | 1,| b | 4 and a . b 2 . If c 2a b 3b
Distance from (1, 4) to 4x 3y 7
15 and the angle between b and c is , then
Will be 3
5 192sin2 is equal to______
27. Let the foci and length of the latus rectum of an Ans. (48)
2 2
x y
ellipse 1, a > b be 5,0 and
a 2 b2
50 , Sol.
b c 2a b b 3 b
2
2
2b 2 | c |2 2a b 3b
Sol. focii 5,0 ; 50
a
3
64 144 192
5 2a 4
ae = 5 b2
2 | c |2 cos 2 144
5 2a
b 2 a 2 1 e2 192cos2 144
2
192sin 2 48
10
29. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and R = {(1, 2), (2, 3), (1, 4)} 30. Let f : be a function defined by
be a relation on A. Let S be the equivalence 4x
f (x) x and
4 2
relation on A such that R S and the number of
f (1 a )
Sol. All elements are included M N, , , then the least value of
Ans. (5)
®
Sol. f(a) + f(1 – a) = 1.
f (1a )
M 1 x .sin x 1 x dx
4
f (a )
M=N–M 2M = N
= 2; = 1;
Ans. 5
11
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
®
32. Identify the logic operation performed by the given Sol.
circuit. A
sin
2
A A m
cos sin
2 2
A A
sin sin
2 2
(1) NAND (2) NOR
A A m
(3) OR (4) AND sin sin
Ans. (3) 2 2 2
Sol. Y AB A B A B A A m
(De-Morgan's law) 2 2 2 2
33. The relation between time ‘t’ and distance ‘x’ is t = m 2A
x2 + x, where and are constants. The relation 35. A rigid wire consists of a semicircular portion of
between acceleration (a) and velocity (v) is: radius R and two straight sections. The wire is
3
(1) a = –2v (2) a = –5v5 partially immerged in a perpendicular magnetic
(3) a = –3v2 (4) a = –4v4
field B = B0 j as shown in figure. The magnetic
Ans. (1)
force on the wire if it has a current i is :
Sol. t x 2 x (differentiating wrt time)
dt
2x
dx
1
2x
v
(differentiating wrt time)
1 dv dx (1) iBR j (2) 2iBR j
2 2
v dt dt
(3) iBR j (4) 2iBR j
dv
2v3 Ans. (4)
dt
1
a F
m m
Sol. Sol. a F F
i 2R ' a
m a m
F i B Gm 2 Gm 2
F and F '
2
a2 2a
= 2R
Gm 2 Gm 2
F 2iRBj Fnet 2
a2 2a 2
36. If the wavelength of the first member of Lyman 2 2 1 Gm 2 Gm 2 2 2 1
2
series of hydrogen is . The wavelength of the 32 L2 a 2
®
a = 4L
second member will be
38. The given figure represents two isobaric processes
27 32 for the same mass of an ideal gas, then
(1) (2)
32 27
27 5
(3) (4)
5 27
Ans. (1)
1 13.6z 2 1 1
Sol. 2 ….. (i)
hc 1 2
2 (1) P2 P1 (2) P2 P1
1 13.6z 2 1 1 (3) P1 P2 (4) P1 P2
2 ….. (ii)
' hc 1 2
3 Ans. (4)
On dividing (i) & (ii) Sol. PV = nRT
nR
27 V T
' P
32
nR
37. Four identical particles of mass m are kept at the Slope =
P
four corners of a square. If the gravitational force 1
Slope
exerted on one of the masses by the other masses is P
(Slope)2 > (Slope)1
2 2 1 Gm 2
, the length of the sides of the P2 < P1
32 L2 39. If the percentage errors in measuring the length
square is and the diameter of a wire are 0.1% each. The
percentage error in measuring its resistance will
L
(1) (2) 4L be:
2 (1) 0.2% (2) 0.3%
(3) 3L (4) 2L (3) 0.1% (4) 0.144%
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
2
L 42. Two charges q and 3q are separated by a distance
Sol. R 2
d ‘r’ in air. At a distance x from charge q, the
4 resultant electric field is zero. The value of x is :
R L 2d (1 3)
(1)
R L d r
L d r
0.1% and 0.1% (2)
L d 3(1 3)
R r
= 0.3% (3)
R (1 3)
40. In a plane EM wave, the electric field oscillates
(4) r (1 3)
sinusoidally at a frequency of 5 × 1010 Hz and an
Ans. (3)
amplitude of 50 Vm–1. The total average energy
density of the electromagnetic field of the wave is :
®
Sol.
[Use 0 = 8.85 × 10 C / Nm ]
E
–12 2 2
net P 0
(1) 1.106 × 10–8 Jm–3
–8 –3 kq k 3q
(2) 4.425 × 10 Jm
2
x (r x)2
(3) 2.212 × 10 Jm–3
–8
Ans. (1) r x 3x
1 r
Sol. U E 0 E 2 x
2 3 1
1 43. In the given arrangement of a doubly inclined
U E 8.85 10 12 50
2
Ans. (1)
Sol. F = ax2 + bt
1/2
[F]
[a] M1L1T 2
[x 2 ]
[F] (1) 9 kg
[b] 1/2
M1L1T 5/2
[t ] (2) 4.5 kg
(3) 6.5 kg
2 2 5
b2 M L T M1L3 T 3 (4) 2.25 kg
a M1L1T 2 Ans. (2)
3
a = 2m/s2 Sol.
T
Sol. a = 2m/s2 fr
mgsin37
fr ° /4
Mgsin53°
For M block
L1 /2
10gsin53° – µ (10g) cos53° – T = 10 × 2
T = 80 – 15 – 20
T = 45 N /4
For m block
T – mg sin 37° – µmg cos 37° = m × 2
L1 2
45 = 10 m 4 2
m = 4.5 kg
2v
44. A coil is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field v = f f2
2L 2
of 5000 T. When the field is changed to 3000 T in
®
2s, an induced emf of 22 V is produced in the coil. v
v = f1(4L1) f2
If the diameter of the coil is 0.02 m, then the L2
number of turns in the coil is :
v
(1) 7 (2) 70 f1
4L1
(3) 35 (4) 140
Ans. (2) f1 = f2
v
v
Sol. N
t 4L1 L 2
(B)A L2 = 4L1
Bi = 5000 T, 60 = 4 × L1
Bf = 3000 T L1 = 15 cm
d = 0.02 m
46. A small steel ball is dropped into a long cylinder
r = 0.01 m
containing glycerine. Which one of the following
(B)A
is the correct representation of the velocity time
= (2000)(0.01)2 = 0.2
graph for the transit of the ball?
0.2
N 22 N
t 2
N = 70
45. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ pipe
is equal to the first overtone frequency of an open (1) (2)
organ pipe. If length of the open pipe is 60 cm, the
length of the closed pipe will be :
(1) 60 cm (2) 45 cm
(3) 30 cm (4) 15 cm (3) (4)
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
4
Sol. Sol.
F
N
Fv Coin
f
r
µ
mg mg
mg – FB – Fv = ma
N = mg
4 3 4 3 dv
r g L r g 6rv m f = m2r
3 3 dt
f = µN
4 6r µmg = mr2
Let R3g L K1 and K2
®
3m m g
dv r
K1 K 2 v
dt 48. Two conductors have the same resistances at 0°C
v t but their temperature coefficients of resistance are
dv
K1 K 2 v dt 1 and 2. The respective temperature coefficients
0 0 for their series and parallel combinations are :
1 1 2
n K1 K 2 v 0 t (1) 1 2 ,
v
2
K2
1 2 1 2
K K2v (2) ,
2 2
n 1 K 2 t
K1 1 2
(3) 1 2 ,
1 2
K1 K2 v K1eK2t
1 2
(4) , 1 2
K 2
v 1 1 e K 2t
K2 Ans. (2)
47. A coin is placed on a disc. The coefficient of Sol. Series :
Req = R1 + R2
friction between the coin and the disc is µ. If the
2R(1 eq ) R(1 1) R(1 2 )
distance of the coin from the center of the disc is r,
the maximum angular velocity which can be given 2R(1 eq ) 2R 1 2 R
to the disc, so that the coin does not slip away, is : 1 2
eq
g r 2
(1) (2) Parallel :
r g
1 1 1
g
(3) (4) R eq R1 R2
r rg
1 1 1
Ans. (3)
R R(1 1) R(1 2 )
(1 eq )
2
5
2 1 1 50. When a metal surface is illuminated by light of
1 eq 1 1 1 2 wavelength , the stopping potential is 8V. When
the same surface is illuminated by light of
2 1 2 1 1
wavelength 3, stopping potential is 2V. The
1 eq 1 1 1 2
threshold wavelength for this surface is :
2 1 1 1 2 (1) 5
(2) 3
= 2 1 2 1 eq
(3) 9
2 1 1 2 1 2 (4) 4.5
= Ans. (3)
Sol. E = Kmax
2 2 eq 1 2 eq 1 2 2
®
hc
Neglecting small terms
0
2 + 2(1 + 2) 2 2 eq 1 2
K max eV0
1 2 2 eq hc hc
8e ......(i)
0
1 2
eq
2 hc hc
2e .......(ii)
3 0
49. An artillery piece of mass M1 fires a shell of mass
on solving (i) & (ii)
M2 horizontally. Instantaneously after the firing,
0 9
the ratio of kinetic energy of the artillery and that
SECTION-B
of the shell is :
51. An electron moves through a uniform magnetic
M2
(1) M1 / (M1 + M2) (2)
M1 field B B0 i 2B0 j T. At a particular instant of
6
52. A parallel plate capacitor with plate separation 5 2 2
A
mm is charged up by a battery. It is found that on
introducing a dielectric sheet of thickness 2 mm, 2 3 3
while keeping the battery connections intact, the
capacitor draws 25% more charge from the battery B
than before. The dielectric constant of the sheet is A
____.
3 3 3
Ans. (2)
B
Sol. Without dielectric
A 0 1
R eq 3 1
Q V
d 3
®
with dielectric 54. A solid circular disc of mass 50 kg rolls along a
A 0 V horizontal floor so that its center of mass has a
Q
t speed of 0.4 m/s. The absolute value of work done
dt
K on the disc to stop it is ______ J.
given
Ans. (6)
A 0 V A 0 V
1.25 Sol. Using work energy theorem
t d
dt
K 1 1
W KE 0 mv2 I2
2 2
2
1.25 3 5
K 1 K2
W=0– mv 2 1 2
K 2 2 R
53. Equivalent resistance of the following network is 1 1
= 50 0.42 1 = –6J
_____ . 2 2
Absolute work = +6J
W = –6J W 6J
7
Sol. L
u=0
H–h
Sol.
h
dT
For max. time = 0 0 i
dh 4 sin 45 sin 45 2
L
4
2 1 1 2
®
0
g 2 H h 2 h
0 i 2
2 2
Hh h L
2
H H 2 20 0
h 2 M 2 2
2 h i L
56. Two waves of intensity ratio 1 : 9 cross each other 4
2 2 107
at a point. The resultant intensities at the point,
when (a) Waves are incoherent is I1(b) Waves are = 8 2 107 H
l1 10
coherent is I2 and differ in phase by 60°. If = 128 107 H
l2 x
x = 128
then x = _____.
58. The depth below the surface of sea to which a
Ans. (13) rubber ball be taken so as to decrease its volume by
Sol. For incoherent wave I1 I A I B I1 = I0 + 9I0 0.02% is _____ m.
I1 = 10I0 (Take density of sea water = 103 kgm–3, Bulk modulus
For coherent wave I2 IA IB 2 IA IB cos 60 8 –2
of rubber = 9 × 10 Nm , and g = 10 ms )
–2
1 Ans. (18)
I2 = I0 + 9I0 + 2 9I20 . = 13 I0
2 P
Sol.
I1 10 V
V
I2 13
V
57. A small square loop of wire of side is placed P
V
inside a large square loop of wire of side L
V
(L = 2 ). The loops are coplanar and their centers gh
V
coinside. The value of the mutual inductance of the
0.02
system is x × 10–7 H, where x = _____. 103 × 10 × h = 9 108
100
Ans. (128)
h = 18 m
8
59. A particle performs simple harmonic motion with 60. The mass defect in a particular reaction is 0.4g.
7
amplitude A. Its speed is increased to three times at The amount of energy liberated is n × 10 kWh,
2A where n = _____.
an instant when its displacement is . The new
3
(speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s)
nA
amplitude of motion is . The value of n is ___. Ans. (1)
3
2
Ans. (7) Sol. E = mc
®
2
2A
2 5A
v A
3 3
2
2A
v ' 3v 5A (A ') 2
3
7A
A'
3
9
FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – JANUARY, 2024
(Held On Wednesday 31st January, 2024) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON
®
(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true. Raoult’s Law
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true. 64. The compound that is white in color is
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false. (1) ammonium sulphide
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false. (2) lead sulphate
Ans. (4)
(3) lead iodide
Sol. Statement I and II are False
Noble gases have low boiling points (4) ammonium arsinomolybdate
Noble gases are held together by weak dispersion Ans. (2)
forces. Sol. Lead sulphate-white
62. For the given reaction, choose the correct Ammonium sulphide-soluble
expression of KC from the following :- Lead iodide-Bright yellow
FeSCN aq
2
Fe3(aq) SCNaq Ammonium arsinomolybdate-yellow
65. The metals that are employed in the battery
FeSCN 2 industries are
(1) K C
Fe3 SCN A. Fe
Fe SCN
3 B. Mn
(2) K C
FeSCN 2 C. Ni
D. Cr
FeSCN 2
(3) K C 2 2 E. Cd
Fe3 SCN
Choose the correct answer from the options given
2
FeSCN 2
below:
(4) K C 3
Fe SCN (1) B, C and E only
1
66. A species having carbon with sextet of electrons 69. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
and can act as electrophile is called Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(1) carbon free radical Assertion A: Alcohols react both as nucleophiles
(2) carbanion and electrophiles.
(3) carbocation Reason R: Alcohols react with active metals such
(4) pentavalent carbon as sodium, potassium and aluminum to yield
Ans. (3) corresponding alkoxides and liberate hydrogen.
®
explanation of A.
67. Identify the factor from the following that does not
affect electrolytic conductance of a solution. (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A
(1) The nature of the electrolyte added.
Ans. (4)
(2) The nature of the electrode used.
(3) Concentration of the electrolyte. Sol. As per NCERT, Assertion (A) and Reason (R) is
correct but Reason (R) is not the correct
(4) The nature of solvent used.
explanation.
Ans. (2)
70. The correct sequence of electron gain enthalpy of
Sol. Conductivity of electrolytic cell is affected by
the elements listed below is
concentration of electrolyte, nature of electrolyte
and nature of solvent. A. Ar
2
71. Identify correct statements from below: Sol. A B + C
A. The chromate ion is square planar.
Pi 0 0
B. Dichromates are generally prepared from
chromates. Pi – x x x
C. The green manganate ion is diamagnetic. Pt = Pi + x
D. Dark green coloured K2MnO4 disproportionates in
a neutral or acidic medium to give permanganate. Pi - x = Pi – Pt + Pi
E. With increasing oxidation number of transition = 2Pi – Pt
metal, ionic character of the oxides decreases.
2.303 Pi
Choose the correct answer from the options given K log
below: t 2Pi Pt
(1) B, C, D only 74. Given below are two statements: One is labelled as
(2) A, D, E only Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R:
(3) A, B, C only Assertion A: pKa value of phenol is 10.0 while
(4) B, D, E only that of ethanol is 15.9.
®
Ans. (4) Reason R: Ethanol is stronger acid than phenol.
Sol. A. CrO42– is tetrahedral In the light of the above statements, choose the
+ +
B. 2Na2CrO4 + 2H Na2Cr2O7 + 2Na + H2O correct answer from the options given below:
C. As per NCERT, green manganate is (1) A is true but R is false.
paramagnetic with 1 unpaired electron.
(2) A is false but R is true.
D. Statement is correct
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
E. Statement is correct
explanation of A.
72. ‘Adsorption’ principle is used for which of the
following purification method? (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(1) Extraction
(2) Chromatography Ans. (1)
(3) Distillation Sol. Phenol is more acidic than ethanol because
(4) Sublimation conjugate base of phenoxide is more stable than
ethoxide.
Ans. (2)
Sol. Principle used in chromotography is adsorption. 75. Given below are two statements:
73. Integrated rate law equation for a first order gas Statement I: IUPAC name of HO–CH2–(CH2)3–
phase reaction is given by (where Pi is initial CH2– COCH3 is 7-hydroxyheptan-2-one.
pressure and Pt is total pressure at time t) Statement II: 2-oxoheptan-7-ol is the correct
2.303 Pi IUPAC name for above compound.
(1) k log
t 2Pi Pt In the light of the above statements. choose the
2.303 2Pi most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) k log below:
t 2Pi Pt
(1) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) k
2.303
log
2Pi Pt
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
t Pi
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2.303 Pi
(4) k (4) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
t 2Pi Pt Ans. (1)
Ans. (1) Sol. 7-Hydroxyheptan-2-one is correct IUPAC name
3
Final JEE-Main Exam January, 2024/31-01-2024/Morning Session
76. The correct statements from following are: 78. Match List I with List II
A. The strength of anionic ligands can be LIST-I LIST-II
explained by crystal field theory. A. Glucose/NaHCO3/D I. Gluconic acid
B. Glucose/HNO3 II. No reaction
B. Valence bond theory does not give a
C. Glucose/HI/ D III. n-hexane
quantitative interpretation of kinetic stability of
D. Glucose/Bromine IV. Saccharic acid
coordination compounds. water]
C. The hybridization involved in formation of Choose the correct answer from the options given
[Ni(CN)4]2–complex is dsp2. below:
(1) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
D. The number of possible isomer(s) of (2) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
cis-[PtC12 (en)2]2+ is one (3) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
Choose the correct answer from the options given (4) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
below: Ans. (2)
Sol. Glucose ¾¾¾¾
NaHCO3
® no reaction
®
D
(1) A, D only
Glucose ¾¾¾
HNO3
® saccharic acid
(2) A, C only D
Glucose ¾¾
HI
® n-hexane
(3) B, D only D
4
SECTION-B 84. The product of the following reaction is P.
81. Molar mass of the salt from NaBr, NaNO3, KI and CHO
CaF2 which does not evolve coloured vapours on
heating with concentrated H2SO4 is _____ g mol–1, (i) PhMgBr(1 equiv.)
(ii) aq. NH4Cl
(Molar mass in g mol–1 : Na : 23, N : 14, K : 39,
O : 16, Br : 80, I : 127, F : 19, Ca : 40 OH
Ans. (78) The number of hydroxyl groups present in the
Sol. CaF2 does not evolve any gas with concentrated product P is________.
H2SO4. Ans. (0)
NaBr evolve Br2 Sol. Product benzene has zero hydroxyl group
CHO CHO CHO
NaNO3 evolve NO2 PhMgBr aq. NH4Cl
+
(1 eq.)
KI evolve I2 Product
OH OMgBr OH
®
2+ Reactant
82. The 'Spin only’ Magnetic moment for [Ni(NH3)6]
is______× 10–1 BM. 85. The number of species from the following in which
the central atom uses sp3 hybrid orbitals in its
(given = Atomic number of Ni : 28)
bonding is__________.
Ans. (28)
NH3, SO2, SiO2, BeCl2, CO2, H2O, CH4, BF3
Sol. NH3 act as WFL with Ni2+ Ans. (4)
2+ 8
Ni = 3d Sol. NH3 sp3
SO2 sp2
SiO2 sp3
No. of unpaired electron = 2
BeCl2 sp
n n 2 8 2.82 BM CO2 sp
H2O sp3
= 28.2 × 10–1 BM
CH4 sp3
x = 28
BF3 sp2
83. Number of moles of methane required to produce C2H5OH
22g CO2(g) after combustion is x × 10–2 moles. The Product A
value of x is 86. CH3CH2Br + NaOH H2O
Product B
Ans. (50) The total number of hydrogen atoms in product A
and product B is__________.
Sol. CH 4(g) 2O2(g) CO2(g) 2H2 O( )
Ans. (10)
22 C 2H 5OH
n CO2 0.5 moles CH2=CH2
44 Sol. CH3CH2Br + NaOH H 2O
CH3–CH2–OH
So moles of CH4 required = 0.5 moles Total number of hydrogen atom in A and B is 10
–2
i.e. 50 × 10 mole 87. Number of alkanes obtained on electrolysis of a
x = 50 mixture of CH3COONa and C2H5COONa is_____.
Ans. (3)
5
89. The ionization energy of sodium in kJ mol–1. If
Sol. CH3COONa CH3
electromagnetic radiation of wavelength 242 nm is
C2 H5COONa C2 H5 just sufficient to ionize sodium atom is______.
2C2 H5 CH3 CH2 CH2 CH3 Ans. (494)
1240
Sol. E eV
2CH3 CH3 CH3 nm
CH3 C2 H5 CH3 CH2 CH3 1240
eV
242
88. Consider the following reaction at 298 K.
= 5.12 eV
3
O2(g) O3(g) .K P 2.47 1029. = 5.12 × 1.6 × 10–19
2
= 8.198 × 10–19 J/atom
r G for the reaction is _________ kJ. (Given R
®
= 494 kJ/mol
= 8.314 JK–1 mol–1)
90. One Faraday of electricity liberates x × 10–1 gram
Ans. (163) atom of copper from copper sulphate, x is______.
3
Sol. O2(g) O3(g) .K P 2.47 1029. Ans. (5)
2
Sol. Cu2+ + 2e– Cu
r G = – RT ln KP
2 Faraday mol Cu
= – 8.314 × 10–3 × 298 × ln (2.47 × 10–29)
1 Faraday mol Cu deposit
= –8.314 × 10–3 × 298 × (–65.87)
0.5 mol = 0.5 g atom = 5 × 10–1
= 163.19 kJ
x=5