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Biology 5. Which one of the following is not a

functional unit of an ecosystem?
1. Match the following concerning the 1. Energy flow
activity/function and the phytohormone 2. Decomposition
involved: 3. Productivity
Column I Column II 4. Stratification
(a) Fruit ripener (i) Abscisic acid
6. In sea urchin DNA, which is double-stranded
(b) Herbicide (ii) GA 3
17% of the bases were shown to be cytosine.
(c) Bolting agent (iii) 2, 4-D The percentages of the other three bases
(d) Stress hormone (iv) Ethephon expected to be present in this DNA are:
1. G/34%, A/24.5%, T/24.5%
2. G/17%, A/16.5%, T/32.5%
Select the correct option from following: 3. G/17%, A/33%, T/33%
4. G/8.5%, A/50%, T/24.5%
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
2. (iii) (iv) (ii) (i) 7. In the given figure, which component has
3. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) thin outer walls and highly thickened inner
4. (iv) (ii) (i) (iii) walls?

2. Species are considered:

1. Real basic units of classification

2. The lowest units of classification
The artificial concept of the human mind
3.
which cannot be defined in absolute terms
Real units of classification devised by 1. D
4. 2. A
taxonomists
3. B
4. C
3. Ribosomes are produced in:
8. Some dividing cells exit the cell cycle and
1. Nucleolus
enter the vegetative inactive stage. This is
2. Cytoplasm
called the quiescent stage (G0 ). This process
3. Mitochondria
4. Golgibody occurs at the end of:
1. G1 phase
4. For the assimilation of one CO2 molecule in 2. S phase
3. G2 phase
C3 plants, the energy required in the form of
4. M phase
ATP and NADPH2 is:
1. 2 ATP & 2 NADPH2
2. 5 ATP & 3 NADPH2
3. 3 ATP & 2 NADPH2
4. 18 ATP & 12 NADPH2

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9. Cryopreservation of gametes of threatened 15. The energy-releasing metabolic process in

species in viable and fertile conditions can be which substrate is oxidized without an external
referred to as: electron acceptor is called:
Advanced ex-situ conservation of 1. glycolysis
1. 2. fermentation
biodiversity
2. In situ conservation by sacred groves 3. aerobic respiration
4. photorespiration
3. In situ cryo-conservation of biodiversity
4. In situ conservation of biodiversity 16. In angiosperms, the correct sequence of
events leading to the formation of female
gametophyte in the ovule is:
10. While explaining interspecific interaction of 3 successive free nuclear divisions in
population, (+) sign is assigned for beneficial A.
functional megaspore.
interaction, (–) sign is assigned for detrimental
B. Degeneration of 3 megaspores
interaction and (0) for neutral interaction.
Which of the following interactions can be C. Meiotic division in megaspore mother cell
assigned (+) for one species and (–) for another D. Migration of 3 nuclei towards each pole.
species involved in the interaction? Formation of a wall resulting in seven celled
E.
1. Competition 2. Predation embryosac.
3. Amensalism 4. Commensalism
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
11. The plant body is thalloid in: 1. (A), (B), (C), (D), (E) 2. (C), (E), (A), (D), (B)
1. Sphagnum 2. Salvinia 3. (B), (C), (A), (D), (E) 4. (C), (B), (A), (D), (E)
3. Marchantia 4. Funaria

17. The imperfect fungi which are decomposers

12. A protoplast is a cell: of litter and help in mineral cycling belong to?
1. Without plasma membrane 1. Deuteromycetes
2. Without nucleus 2. Basidiomycetes
3. Undergoing division 3. Phycomycetes
4. Without cell wall 4. Ascomycetes

13. In a pea flower, five petals are arranged in a

specialized manner with one posterior, two
lateral and two anterior. These are named
as___________, ____________ and ________
respectively.
1. Keel, Wings and standard
2. Vexillum, Keel and standard
3. Keel, Standard and Carina
4. Standard, Wings and Keel

14. Which of the following yields citric acid?

1. Penicillium citrinum
2. Aspergillus niger
3. Saccharomyces
4. Azospirillium

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18. Match List I and List II: 22. The chemiosmotic coupling hypothesis of
List I List II oxidative phosphorylation proposes that
Two or more Adenosine Triphosphate (ATP) is formed
A. alternative forms I. Back Cross because:
of a gene high energy bonds are formed in
1.
Cross of mitochondrial proteins
F1 progeny with ADP is pumped out of the matrix into the
B. II. Ploidy 2.
homozygous inter-membrane space
recessive parent a proton gradient forms across the inner
3.
Cross membrane
of F1 progeny with there is a change in the permeability of the
C. III. Allele 4. inner mitochondrial membrane toward
any of the parents
Adenosine Diphosphate (ADP)
Number of
D. chromosome sets IV. Test cross
in plant 23. Which one of the following is not used for
the construction of ecological pyramids?
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below: Number of
1. Dry weight 2.
1. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV individuals
2. A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II 3. Rate of energy 4. Fresh weight
3. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
4. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
24. Given below are two statements:
19. Which one of the following growth In prokaryotes, the positively
regulators is known as the stress hormone? charged DNA is held with some
Statement I:
1. Abscisic acid 2. Ethylene negatively charged proteins in a
3. GA3 4. Indole acetic acid region called nucleoid.
In eukaryotes, the negatively
charged DNA is wrapped around
Statement II:
20. ICBN stands for: the positively charged histone
1. Indian Congress of Biological Names octamer to form nucleosome.
2. International Code of Botanical In the light of the above statements, choose the
Nomenclature correct answer from the options given below:
3. Indian Code of Botanical Nomenclature 1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
4. International Congress of Biological Names correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are
21. Which one of the following has its own correct.
DNA? 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are
1. Mitochondria incorrect.
2. Dictyosome 4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is
3. Lysosome incorrect.
4. Peroxisome

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25. The transverse section of a plant shows 29. A student observed algae with chlorophyll
following anatomical features: 'a', 'd', and phycoerythrin. It should belong to:
Large number of scattered vascular bundles 1. Phaeophyta 2. Rhodophyta
a.
surrounded by bundle sheath. 3. Chlorophyta 4. Bacillariophyta
Large conspicuous parenchymatous ground
b.
tissue.
c. Vascular bundles conjoint and closed. 30. Somaclones are obtained by:
d. Phloem parenchyma absent. 1. tissue culture
2. plant breeding
Identify the category of plant and its part : 3. irradiation
1. Monocotyledonous root 4. genetic engineering
2. Dicotyledonous stem
3. Dicotyledonous root 31. The Floral Diagram represents which one of
4. Monocotyledonous stem the following families?

26. Following are the stages of cell division :

A. Gap 2 phase
B. Cytokinesis
C. Synthesis phase
D. Karyokinesis
E. Gap I phase
Choose the correct sequence of stages from the
options given below :
1. E-B-D-A-C
2. B-D-E-A-C 1. Fabaceae 2. Brassicaceae
3. E-C-A-D-B 3. Solanaceae 4. Liliaceae
4. C-E-D-A-B

27. Which one of the following is related to Ex- 32. Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) strains have been
situ conservation of threatened animals and used for designing novel:
plants? 1. Bioinsecticidal plants
1. Biodiversity hot spots 2. Bio-mineralization processes
2. Amazon rainforest 3. Biofertilizers
3. Himalayan region 4. Bio-metallurgical techniques
4. Wildlife safari parks

28. If '+' sign is assigned to beneficial

interaction, '–' sign to detrimental and '0' sign to
neutral interaction, then the population
interaction represented by '+' '–' refers to:
1. mutualism 2. amensalism
3. commensalism 4. parasitism

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33. Match List-I with List-II: 36. The fruit fly Drosophila melanogaster was
List-I List-II found to be very suitable for experimental
A. ETS Complex I I. NADH Dehydrogenase verification of the chromosomal theory of
inheritance by Morgan and his colleagues
B. ETS Complex II II. Cytochrome bC1
because:
ETS Complex 1. a single mating produces two young flies
C. III. Cytochrome C oxidase
III
smaller female is easily recognisable from a
Succinate 2.
D. ETS Complex IV IV. large male
Dehydrogenase
3. it completes its life cycle in about two weeks
4. it reproduces parthenogenetically
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A-IV, B-I, C- III, D- II
2. A-I, B-IV, C- II, D- III 37. The maximum growth rate occurs in:
3. A-III, B-I, C- IV, D- II 1. Senescent phase
4. A-I, B-II, C- IV, D- III 2. Lag phase
3. Exponential phase
34. The coconut water and the edible part of 4. Stationary phase
coconut are equivalent to:
1. Endosperm 38. House fly belongs to _______ family.
2. Endocarp 1. Cyprinidae 2. Hominidae
3. Mesocarp 3. Calliphoridae 4. Muscidae
4. Embryo

35. Given below is the diagram of a 39. The size of Pleuro Pneumonia Like
bacteriophage. In which one of the options, all Organism (PPLO) is:
the four parts A, B, C and D are correct? 1. 0.02 μm
2. 1-2 μm
3. 10-20 μm
4. 0.1 μm

40. In leaves of C4 plants, malic acid synthesis

during CO2 fixation occurs in:
1. epidermal cells 2. mesophyll cells
3. bundle sheath 4. guard cells

A B C D 41. The vertical distribution of different species

1. Sheath Collar Head Tail fibres occupying different levels in a biotic
2. Head Sheath Collar Tail fibres community is known as:
3. Collar Tail fibres Head Sheath 1. divergence
2. stratification
4. Tail fibres Head Sheath Collar
3. zonation
4. pyramid

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42. In lac operon, z gene codes for : 48. CCK and secretin secreted by:
1. β−galactosidase 1. Stomach
2. Permease 2. Ileum
3. Repressor 3. Duodenum
4. Transacetylase 4. Colon

43. Compared to a dicot root, a monocot root 49. Transplantation of tissues/organs fails often
has: due to non-acceptance by the patient's body.
1. Many xylem bundles Which type of immune-response is responsible
2. Inconspicuous annual rings for such rejections?
3. Relatively thicker periderm 1. Cell-mediated immune response
4. More abundant secondary xylem 2. Hormonal immune response
3. Physiological immune response
44. Select the correct sequence of substages of
4. Autoimmune response
Prophase - I of Meiotic division
(A) Zygotene
(B) Pachytene
(C) Diakinesis 50. During muscular contraction, which of the
(D) Leptotene following events occur?
(E) Diplotene (a) 'H' zone disappears
Choose the correct answer from the options (b) 'A' band widens
given below: (c) 'I' band reduces in width
1. (D), (B), (A), (E), (C) 2. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C) Myosin hydrolyzes ATP, releasing the ADP
(d)
3. (D), (A), (B), (E), (C) 4. (A), (D), (B), (C), (E) and Pi
Z-lines attached to actins are pulled
(e)
inwards
45. Best method to preserve the wild relatives
of plants:
1. By growing them in natural habitats Choose the correct answer from the options
2. Gene library given below:
3. By storing seeds 1. (b), (c), (d), (e) only
4. Cryopreservation 2. (b), (d), (e), (a) only
3. (a), (c), (d), (e) only
46. Which of the following is a hormone- 4. (a), (b), (c), (d) only
releasing intra Uterine Device (IUD)?
1. Multiload 375
2. LNG - 20
3. Cervical cap 51. When gene targeting involving gene
4. Vault amplification is attempted in an individual's
tissue to treat disease, it is known as:
47. Choose the correctly matched pair: 1. Molecular diagnosis 2. Safety testing
1. Inner lining of salivary ducts- Ciliated 3. Biopiracy 4. Gene therapy
epithelium
2. Moist surface of buccal cavity- Glandular
epithelium
3. Tubular parts of nephrons- Cuboidal
epithelium
4. Inner surface of bronchioles- Squamous
epithelium

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52. Which one of the following phenomena 55. Refer to the following statements for
supports Darwin's concept of natural selection agarose-gel electrophoresis:
in organic evolution: Agarose is a natural polymer obtained from
(a)
sea-weed.
1. Production of 'Dolly', the sheep by cloning The separation of DNA molecules in
Development of organs from 'stem' cells for (b) agarose-gel electrophoresis depends on the
2.
organ transplantation size of DNA.
3. Development of transgenic animals The DNA migrates from negatively-charged
4. Prevalence of pesticide-resistant insects (c) electrode to the positively-charged
electrode.
The DNA migrates from positively-charged
53. Which of the following biomolecules have a (d) electrode to the negatively-charged
phosphodiester bond? electrode.
1. Fatty acids in a diglyceride Choose the most appropriate answer from the
2. Monosaccharides in a polysaccharide options given below :
3. Amino acids in a polypeptide 1. (a) and (b) only 2. (a), (b) and (c) only
4. Nucleic acids in a nucleotide 3. (a), (b) and (d) only 4. (b), (c) and (d) only

54. Following are the stages of pathway for

conduction of an action potential through the 56. Consider the following features:
heart:
A: Organ system level of organisation
A. AV bundle
B. Purkinje fibres B: Bilateral symmetry
C. AV node C: True coelom with segmentation of body
D. Bundle branches
E. SA node Select the correct option of animal groups that
Choose the correct sequence of pathway from possess all the above characteristics:
the options given below :
1. A-E-C-B-D 1. Annelida, Mollusca and Chordata
2. B-D-E-C-A 2. Annelida, Arthropoda and Chordata
3. E-A-D-B-C 3. Annelida, Arthropoda and Mollusca
4. E-C-A-D-B 4. Arthropoda, Mollusca and Chordata

57. Select the incorrect statement:

1. LH and FSH trigger ovulation in ovary.
LH and FSH decrease gradually during the
2.
follicular phase.
LH triggers the secretion of androgens from
3.
the Leydig cells.
FSH stimulates the sertoli cells which help in
4.
spermiogenesis

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58. Listed below are four respiratory capacities 60. Match List-I with List-II:
(1-4) and four jumbled respiratory volumes of a List-I List-II
normal human adult. A. Limbic system I. Body temperature
Respiratory B. Arachnoid II. Tract of nerve fibres
Respiratory capacities
volume
C. Corpus callosum III. Amygdala
(a) Residual volume 2500 mL
D. Hypothalamus IV. Cranial meninge
(b) Vital capacity 3500 mL
Inspiratory reserve Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) 1200 mL
volume given below:
(d) Inspiratory capacity 4500 mL 1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III
3. A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
Which one of the following is the correct 4. A-IV,B-II, C-III, D-I
matching of two capacities and volumes?
1. (a) 2500 mL, (d) 4500 mL 61.
2. (c) 1200 mL, (a) 2500 mL Which one of the following is the most widely
3. (b) 4500 mL, (c) 2500 mL accepted method of contraception in India, as
4. (d) 4500 mL, (b) 3500 mL present?

1. Tubectomy
2. Diaphragms
59. Given below are statements: one is labelled 3. IUDs (Intra Uterine Devices)
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as 4. Cervical caps
Reason (R).
Nephrons are of two types: 62. Which of the following types of epithelium
Cortical & Juxta medullary, lines the walls of blood vessels?
Assertion (A):
based on their relative position 1. Ciliated epithelium
in cortex and medulla. 2. Squamous epithelium
Juxta medullary nephrons have 3. Cuboidal epithelium
short-loop of Henle whereas, 4. Columnar epithelium
Reason (R):
cortical nephrons have longer
loop of Henle. 63. Select the correct statement.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 1. Glucagon is associated with hypoglycemia.
correct answer from the options given below: 2. Insulin acts on pancreatic cells and
1. (A) is False, (R) is True. adipocytes.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly 3. Insulin is associated with hyperglycemia.
2. 4. Glucocorticoids stimulate gluconeogenesis.
explains (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
3.
correctly explain (A).
4. (A) is True, (R) is False.

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64. Match List-I with List-II: 68. Which protein is found in the maximum
List-I List-II amount:
B- 1. Catalase
A. I. Passive immunity 2. Zinc carbonic anhydrase
Lymphocytes
3. Transferase
B. Interferons II. Cell mediated immunity
4. RUBISCO
Produce an army of
T-
C. III. proteins in response to 69. Which of the following statement is true for
Lymphocytes
pathogens Lymph:
D. Colostrum IV. Innate immunity
Choose the correct answer from the options 1. WBCs and serum
given below: All components of blood except RBCs and
1. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III 2.
some proteins
2. A-IV,B-II,C-III,D-I
3. RBCs, WBCs, and plasma
3. A-III,B-IV,C-II,D-I
4. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III 4. RBCs, proteins, and platelets

65. Which one of the following is the correct

description of a certain part of a normal human 70. The construction of the first recombinant
skeleton: DNA emerged from the possibility of linking a
gene encoding antibiotic resistance with a
First vertebra is the axis which articulates native plasmid of which of the following
1. organism?
with the occipital condyles
1. Escherichia coli
The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the
2. 2. Bacillus thuringiensis
floating ribs
3. Salmonella typhimurium
Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the 4. Agrobacterium tumefaciens
3.
thigh bone articulates
Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the 71. The similarity between Ascaris lumbricoides
4.
skull are joined by fibrous joint and Anopheles stephensi is:
1. Sexual dimorphism
2. Metamerism
66. 3. Anaerobic respiration
The process of RNA interference has been used 4. Endoparasitism
in the development of plants resistant to:

1. fungi
2. viruses
3. insects
4. nematodes

67. Flippers of Penguins and Dolphins are

examples of:
Convergent Industrial
1. 2.
evolution melanism
3. Natural selection 4. Adaptive radiation

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72. Match the following columns and select the 75. Match List-I with List-II
correct option: List-I List-II
Column I Column II A. Schwann cells I. Neurotransmitter
Human chorionic B. Synaptic knob II. Cerebral cortex
(a) Ovary (i)
gonadotropin C. Bipolar neurons III. Myelin Sheath
(b) Placenta (ii) Estrogen & Progesterone D. Multipolar neurons IV. Retina
Corpus Choose the correct answer from the options
(c) (iii) Androgens
luteum given below:
(d) Leydig cells (iv) Progesterone only 1. A-III,B-I,C-IV,D-II
2. A-I,B-IV,C-II,D-III
Options: (a) (b) (c) (d) 3. A-IV,B-III,C-II,D-I
1. (iv) (iii) (ii) (i) 4. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
2. (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
76. Which one of the following statements is
3. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv) correct regarding Sexually Transmitted
4. (ii) (i) (iv) (iii) Diseases (STD)?
A person many contact syphilis by sharing
1. milk with one already suffering from the
73. Two friends are eating together at a dining disease
table. One of them suddenly starts coughing 2. Haemophilia is one of the STD
while swallowing some food. This coughing
Genital herpes and sickle-cell, anemia are
would have been due to improper movement 3.
both STD
of:
1. diaphragm 2. neck The chances of a 5-year boy contacting a STD
4.
are very little
3. tongue 4. epiglottis

77. Match List-I with List-II:

74. If Henle's loop was absent from mammalian
List-I List-II
nephron, which of the following is to be
(Cockroach) (Term Used)
expected:
A. Metamorphosis I. Ommatidia
1. There will be no urine formation B. Brain II. Paurometabolous
There will be hardly any change in the C. Vision III. Spiracles
2.
quality and quantity of urine formed Supra oesophageal
D. Respiration IV.
3. The urine will be more concentrated ganglion
4. The urine will be more diluted Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
1. A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
2. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
3. A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
4. A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III

78. Secretin and cholecystokinin are digestive

hormones. They are secreted in:
1. Oesophagus
2. Ileum
3. Duodenum
4. Pyloric stomach

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79. Use of anti-histamine and steroids give a 84. Match List I with List II:
quick relief from: List I List II
1. allergy 2. nausea Heart muscles are
A. P wave I.
3. cough 4. headache electrically silent
Depolarisation of
B. QRS complex II.
ventricles.
80. The type of muscles present in our: Depolarisation of
upper arms are smooth muscle C. T wave III.
1. atria.
fibres fusiform in shape Repolarisation of
heart is involuntary and unstriated smooth D. T-P gap IV.
2. ventricles.
muscles
3. intestine are striated and involuntary Choose the correct answer from the options
4. thighs are striated and voluntary given below:
1. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
2. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
81. The genetic defect-Adenosine Deaminase 3. A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(ADA) deficiency may be cured permanently by: 4. A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
periodic infusion of genetically engineered
1. 85. Which of the following are correct about
lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA
EcoRI?
administering adenosine deaminase
2. A. Cut the DNA with blunt end
activators
introducing bone marrow cells producing B. Cut the DNA with sticky end
3. C. Recognises a specific palindromic sequence.
ADA into cells at early embryonic stages
4. invitro cell culture therapy Cut the DNA between the base G and A
D. where it encounters the DNA sequence
'GAATTC'
82. The eye of the octopus and the eye of the cat E. Exonuclease
show different patterns of structure, yet they Choose the correct answer from the options
perform a similar function. This is an example given below:
of: 1. B,C,E only 2. A,D,E only
Homologous organs that have evolved due to 3. A,C,D only 4. B,C,D only
1.
divergent evolution.
Analogous organs that have evolved due to
2.
convergent evolution. 86. Match List-I with List-II:
Analogous organs that have evolved due to List-I List-II
3.
divergent evolution. A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias
Homologous organs that have evolved due to B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon
4.
convergent evolution. C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine
D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis
83. The major portion of the dry weight of
Choose the correct answer from the options
plants comprises of:
given below:
1. Nitrogen, phosphorus, and potassium
2. Calcium, magnesium, and sulphur 1. A-II,B-IV,C-I,D-III
3. Carbon, nitrogen, and hydrogen 2. A-I,B-III,C-II,D-IV
4. Carbon, hydrogen, and oxygen 3. A-II,B-III,C-I,D-IV
4. A-I,B-II,C-III,D-IV

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87. Which of the following statements are true 90. The figure shows an axon terminal and
for spermatogenesis but do not hold true for synapse. Select the option giving correct
Oogenesis? identifications of labels A-D.
It results in the formation of haploid
(a)
gametes.
Differentiation of gamete occurs after the
(b)
completion of meiosis.
Meiosis occurs continuously in a mitotically
(c)
dividing stem cell population.
It is controlled by the Luteinising hormone
(d) (LH) and Follicle Stimulating Hormone
(FSH) secreted by the anterior pituitary. 1. A-Action potential C-Neurotransmitter
(e) It is initiated at puberty. 2. B-Neurotransmitter D-Receptor capsules
3. C-Receptor D-Synaptic vesicles
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 4. A-Axon terminal B-Serotonin complex
option given below:
1. (b), (c), and (e) only 2. (c) and (e) only
3. (b) and (c) only 4. (b), (d) and (e) only
Chemistry
91. During the preparation of Mohr's salt
solution (Ferrous ammonium sulphate), which
of the following acid is added to prevent
88. Which of the following factors are
hydrolysis of Fe2+ ion?
favourable for the formation of
1. Concentrated sulphuric acid
oxyhaemoglobin in alveoli?
+ 2. Dilute nitric acid
1. High pO2 and Lesser H concentration
+
3. Dilute sulphuric acid
2. Low pCO2 and High H concentration 4. Dilute hydrochloric acid
3. Low pCO2 and High temperature
4. High pO2 and High pCO2 92. Aniline in a set of reactions yielded a
product D
89. Which of the following statements are
correct?
An excessive loss of body fluid from the
A:
body switches off osmoreceptors.
ADH facilitates water reabsorption to
B:
prevent diuresis.
C: ANF causes vasodilation.
D: ADH causes increase in blood pressure.
The structure of the product D would be:
E: ADH is responsible for decrease in GFR.
1. C6 H5 CH2 OH
Choose the correct answer from the options
2. C6 H5 CH2 NH2
given below:
3. C6 H5 NHOH
1. C, D and E only 2. A and B only
4. C6 H5 NHCH2 CH3
3. B, C and D only 4. A, B and E only

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

93. The Kjeldahl's method for the estimation of 96. Which of the following plot represents the
nitrogen can be used to estimate the amount of variation of ln k versus 1 according to the
T
nitrogen in which one of the following
Arrhenius equation?
compounds?

1. 2.
1. 2.

3. 4.

3. 4.

94. Consider the following species:

CN+, CN-, NO and CN
The highest bond order associated with:

1. NO 2. CN– 97. The standard cell potential of the following

2+ 2+
3. CN+ 4. CN cell Zn ∣∣Zn (aq)∥Fe (aq)∣
∣ Fe is 0.32 V.

Calculate the standard Gibbs energy change for

the reaction:
95. Calculate the energy corresponding to light Zn(s) + Fe2+ (aq) → Zn2+ (aq) + Fe(s)
of wavelength 45 nm: (Given : 1 F = 96487Cmol−1 )
(Planck's constant h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js: 1. −61.75 kJ mol−1 2. +5.006 kJ mol−1
8 –1
speed of light c = 3 × 10 ms )
15 3. −5.006 kJ mol−1 4. +61.75 kJ mol−1
1. 6.67 x 10 J
2. 6.67 x 1011 J
3. 4.42 x 10-15 J 98. Which one is most reactive towards SN1
4. 4.42 x 10-18 J reaction?
1. C6 H5 CH (C6 H5 )Br
2. C6 H5 CH (CH3 )Br
3. C6 H5 C(CH3 )(C6 H5 )Br
4. C6 H5 CH2 Br

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

99. At a given temperature and pressure, the 104. Find the correct sequence of the bond
equilibrium constant value for the equilibria enthalpy of the "C-X" bond among the
are given below: following:
3A2 + B2 ⇌ 2A3 B, K1 1. CH3-F < CH3-Cl > CH3-Br > CH3-I
A3 B ⇌
3
A2 +
1
B 2 , K2
2. CH3-Cl > CH3-F > CH3-Br > CH3-I
2 2
3. CH3-F < CH3-Cl < CH3-Br < CH3-I
The relation between K1 and K2 is:
4. CH3-F > CH3-Cl > CH3-Br > CH3-I
1. K12 = 2K2
K1
2. K2 =
2
105. The most acidic compound among the
3. K1 =
1 following is:
√K
2

1
4. K2 =
√K
1

1. 2.
100. The mole ratio of H2 and O2 gas is 8:1. The
ratio of their weight will be:
1. 1 : 1
2. 2 : 1
3. 4 : 1
4. 1 : 2
3. 4.
101. Among the following, the most
characteristic oxidation states for lead and tin
are, respectively:
1. +4, +2
2. +2, +4
106. Urea reacts with water to form A which
3. +4, +4
will decompose to form B. B when passed
4. +2, +2 2+
through (Cu) (aq), deep blue colour solution
102. The basic structural unit of silicates is: C is formed. What is the formula of C from the
1. SiO 4– following?
4 2+

2. SiO32– 1. [Cu(N H3 )4 ] 2. Cu ( OH )
2

3. SiO42– 3. CuCO3 . Cu(OH )2 4. CuSO4

4. SiO

103. The product formed in aldol condensation 107. The acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous
is: solution increases in the order:
1. A β-hydroxy acid 1. H2S < H2Se < H2Te
2. A β-hydroxy aldehyde or a β-hydroxy ketone 2. H2Se < H2S < H2Te
3. An α-hydroxy aldehyde or ketone 3. H2Te < H2S < H2Se
4. An α-β unsaturated ester 4. H2Se < H2Te < H2S

108. Which condition is not satisfied by an ideal

solution?
1. Δmix V = 0
2. Δmix S = 0
3. Obeyance to Roult's Law
4. Δmix H = 0

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

109. The non-essential amino acid among the 113. Which of the following statements about
following is: the advantage of roasting sulphide ore before
1. Lysine 2. Valine reduction is not true?
3. Leucine 4. Alanine
Carbon and hydrogen act as suitable
1.
reducing agents for metal sulphides
110. The correct order of N-compounds in its The Δf G0 of the sulphide is greater than
2.
decreasing order of oxidation states is : those for CS2 and H2 S
1. HNO3 , NO, N2 , NH4 Cl
The Δf G0 is negative for roasting of sulphur
2. HNO3 , NO , NH4 Cl , N2 3.
ore to oxide.
3. HNO3 , NH4 Cl , NO , N2
4. NH4 Cl , N2 , NO , HNO3 Roasting of the sulphide to the oxide is
4.
thermodynamically feasible
111. The correct order of the stoichiometries of
AgCl formed when AgNO3 in excess is treated
114. The major product (P) formed in the
with the complexes
following reaction sequence is :
CoCl3.6NH3, CoCl3.5NH3,
CoCl3.4NH3 respectively is:
1. 3AgCl, 1AgCl, 2AgCl
2. 3AgCl, 2AgCl, 1AgCl
3. 2AgCl, 3AgCl, 1AgCl
4. 1AgCl, 3AgCl, 2AgCl

112. The correct order of acidity among the

following is:
CH ≡ CH > CH3 − C ≡ CH
1. 2.
1.
> CH2 = CH2 > CH3 − CH3

CH ≡ CH > CH2 = CH2

2.
> CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH3 − CH3

CH3 − CH3 > CH2 = CH2

3.
> CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

CH2 = CH2 > CH3 − CH3

4. 3. 4.
> CH3 − C ≡ CH > CH ≡ CH

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

115. Given: 119. Given:

(i) Cu + 2e− → Cu Eo = 0.337 V
2+

(ii) Cu + e− → Cu Eo = 0.153 V
2+ +

Electrode potential, Eo for the reaction,

+
→ Cu, will be:
−
Cu + e

1. 0.52 V
2. 0.90 V
I II 3. 0.30 V
I and II are classified as: 4. 0.38 V
1. Identical
2. A pair of conformers 120. In a SN2 substitution reaction of the type
3. A pair of geometrical isomers −
DMF
−
4. A pair of optical isomers R − Br + Cl −−
− → R − Cl + Br

one of the following that has the highest

116. The dipole moment of compound AB is relative rate is:
10.92 D and that of compound CD is 12.45 D. If
the bond length of AB is 2.72 A° and that of CD
is 2.56 A°, then for these compounds the correct 1. CH − CH − CH Br 2.
3 2 2
statement is:
1. More ionic nature in AB
2. More ionic nature in CD
3. Equal in both
4. Cannot be predicted 3. 4. CH3 CH2 Br

117. The energies E1 and E2 of two radiations

are 25 eV and 50 eV respectively. The relation
between their wavelengths i.e., λ1 and λ2 will
be: 121. Given that the equilibrium constant for the
1. λ1 = 2λ2 reaction
2. λ1 = 4λ2 2SO2(g) + O2(g) ⇋ 2SO3(g)
1
3. λ1 = 2 λ2 has a value of 278 at a particular temperature,
the value of the equilibrium constant for the
4. λ1 = λ2
following reaction at the same temperature will
be:
118. 92U235, nucleus absorb a neutron and
SO 3(g)
⇋ SO + 1/2 O
2(g) 2(g)

disintegrate in 54Xe139, 38Sr94 and x . The 1. 3. 6 × 10−3

product x is: 2. 6. 0 × 10−2
1. 3 - neutrons −5
3. 1. 3 × 10
2. 2 - neutrons
3. α - particle 4. 1. 8 × 10−3
4. β - particle
122. A compound contains C, H, and O. If C =
40% and H = 6.67% and rest is oxygen, then the
empirical formula of the compound will be:
1. CH2 O
2. CH4 O
3. CH4 O2
4. CHO

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

123. Among the elements Ca, Mg, P and Cl, the 126. The major product C in the below-
correct order of increasing atomic radii is: mentioned reaction is:
1. Cl < P < Mg < Ca
2. P < Cl < Ca < Mg
3. Ca < Mg < P < Cl
4. Mg < Ca < Cl < P
1. Propan-1-ol 2. Propan-2-ol
124. Which of the following statements is not 3. Propane 4. Propyne
correct about diborane?
1. Both the boron atoms are sp2 hybridised.
2. There are two 3-centre-2-electron bonds. 127. The correct acidic order of the following is:
The four terminal B-H bonds are 2-centre-2-
3.
electron bonds.
The four terminal hydrogen atoms and the
4.
two boron atoms lie in one plane.

125. Given below are two statements: (I) (II) (III)

Aldehydes and ketones having at
least one α-hydrogen undergo
Statement I: aldol condensation in the 1. I > II > III
presence of dilute alkali as 2. III > I > II
catalyst. 3. II > III > I
4. I > III > II
When aldol condensation is
carried out between two
Statement II: different aldehydes, it is called
cross aldol condensation. 128. The outer electronic configuration of Gd:
Ketones do not give this reaction.( At. No. 64)
5 4 1
In light of the above statements, choose the 1. 4f 5d 6s
7 1 2
most appropriate answer from the options 2. 4f 5d 6s
given below: 3. 4f3 5d5 6s2
4. 4f4 5d5 6s1
Statement I is correct and Statement II is
1.
incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
2.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
4.
incorrect.

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

129. Given below are two statements: 133. Given below are two statements :
The boiling points of the [Co(NH3 ) ]
3+
is a homoleptic
following hydrides of group 16 6

Statement I: Statement I: complex, whereas

elements increase in the order
[Co(N H3 )4 Cl2 ]
+
is a
H2 O < H2 S < H2 Se < H2 Te
heteroleptic complex.
The boiling points of these
Statement II: hydrides increase with the Complex [Co(N H3 )6 ]3+ has
increase in molar mass. only one kind of ligand but
Statement II:
In the light of the above statements, choose the [Co(N H3 )4 Cl2 ]
+
has more
most appropriate answer from the options than one kind of ligands.
given below: In light of the above statements, choose the
1. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct answer from the options given below:
correct 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are False.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are 2. Statement I is True but Statement II is False.
correct 3. Statement I is false but Statement II is True.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are 4. Both Statement I and Statement II are True.
incorrect
4. Statement I is correct but Statement II is 134. The correct IUPAC name of the given
incorrect compound is:

130. A solution of sucrose (molar mass = 342 g

mol–1) has been prepared by dissolving 68.5 g
of sucrose in 1000 g of water. The freezing point
of the solution obtained will be: 1. 3-Ethyl-4-ethenylheptane
2. 3-Ethyl-4-propylhex-5-ene
(kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol–1)
3. 3-(1-Ethyl propyl) hex-1-ene
1. –0.372 oC 4. 4-Ethyl-3-propylhex-1-ene
2. –0.520 oC
3. +0.372 oC 135. The standard enthalpy and standard
o
4. –0.570 C entropy changes for the oxidation of ammonia
at 298 K are –382.64 kJ mol–1 and –145.6 JK–1
131. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives: mol–1, respectively. Standard Gibbs energy
1. α-D-Glucose + β-D-Glucose change for the same reaction at 298 K is:
2. α-D-Glucose + β-D-Fructose 1. –339.3 kJ mol–1
3. α-D-Fructose + β-D-Fructose 2. – 439.3 kJ mol–1
4. β-D-Glucose + α-D-Fructose 3. –523.2 kJ mol–1
4. –221.1 kJ mol–1
132. The change in oxidation number of
chlorine when Cl2 gas reacts with hot and
concentrated sodium hydroxide solution is:
1. Zero to +1 and Zero to –5
2. Zero to –1 and Zero to +5
3. Zero to –1 and Zero to +3
4. Zero to +1 and Zero to –3

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

Physics 139. A square surface of a side L (m)

plane of the paper. A uniform electric field E

is in the
→
136. In a circuit L, C , and R are connected in (V/m), also in the plane of the paper, is
series with an alternating voltage source of limited only to the lower half of the square
frequency f . The current leads the voltage by surface, (see figure). The electric flux in SI units
∘
45 . The value of C is: associated with the surface is:
1
1.
2πf (2πf L−R)

1
2. 2πf (2πf L+R)

1
3. πf (2πf L−R)

1
4.
πf (2πf L+R) 1. 2
EL /(2ε0 ) 2. EL /2
2

3. zero 4. EL
2

137. Body A of mass 4m moving with speed u

collides with another body B of mass 2m at
rest. The collision is head-on and elastic in 140. Two coils of self-inductance 2 mH and
nature. After the collision, the fraction of 8 mH are placed so close together that the
energy lost by the colliding body A is: effective flux in one coil is completely linked
5 1
1. 2. with the other. The mutual inductance between
9 9 these coils is:
8 4 1. 10 mH
3. 4. 2. 6 mH
9 9
3. 4 mH
4. 16 mH
138. A source of unknown frequency gives 4
beats/s when sounded with a source of known 141. A cylinder contains hydrogen gas at a
frequency of 250 Hz. The second harmonic of pressure of 249 kPa and temperature 27∘ C. Its
the source of unknown frequency gives five density is:
−1 −1
beats per second when sounded with a source (R = 8.3 J mol K )
3
of frequency of 513 Hz. The unknown 1. 0.2 kg/m

frequency will be: 2. 0.1 kg/m

3

1. 246 Hz 2. 240 Hz 3
3. 0.02 kg/m
3. 260 Hz 4. 254 Hz 3
4. 0.5 kg/m

142. For a particle, displacement time relation

is given by; t = √x + 3 . Its displacement,
when its velocity is zero will be:
1. 2 m
2. 4 m
3. 0 m
4. none of the above

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

143. Three identical spheres, each of mass M , 145. One mole of an ideal gas goes from an
are placed at the corners of a right-angle initial state A to the final state B with two
triangle with mutually perpendicular sides processes. It first undergoes isothermal
equal to 2 m (see figure). Taking the point of expansion from volume V to 3V and then its
intersection of the two mutually perpendicular volume is reduced from 3V to V at constant
sides as the origin, find the position vector of pressure. The correct (P − V ) diagram
the centre of mass. representing the two processes is:

1. 2.

1. 2(^ ^
i + j)
3. 4.
2. ^ ^
i + j
2
3. 3
^ ^
( i + j)

4
4. 3
^ ^
( i + j)

144. Zener diode is used as:

146. The maximum elongation of a steel wire of
1. Half-wave rectifier
1 m length if the elastic limit of steel and its
2. Full-wave rectifier
Young's modulus, respectively, are
3. AC voltage stabilizer 8 −2 11 −2

4. DC voltage stabilizer 8 × 10 N m and 2 × 10 N m , is:

1. 0.4 mm
2. 40 mm
3. 8 mm
4. 4 mm

147. The angular width of the central maximum

in the Fraunhofer diffraction for λ = 6000 A
˚
is
θ0 . When the same slit is illuminated by

another monochromatic light, the angular

width decreases by 30%. The wavelength of
this light is:
1. 1800 ˚
A 2. 4200 ˚
A

3. 420 ˚
A 4. 6000 ˚
A

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

148. The heart of a man pumps 5 L of blood 152. Given below are two statements:
through the arteries per minute at a pressure of Image formation needs regular
150 mm of mercury. If the density of mercury
Statement I:
reflection and/or refraction.
3 3 2
is 13.6 × 10 kg/m and g = 10 m/s , then The variety in colour of objects
the power of the heart in watts is: we see around us is due to the
Statement II:
1. 1.70 2. 2.35 constituent colours of the light
3. 3.0 4. 1.50 incident on them.

Statement I is correct but Statement II is

1.
149. A bar magnet is oscillating in the Earth's incorrect.
magnetic field with a period T . What happens Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is
2.
to this period and motion if this mass is correct.
quadrupled: Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
1. motion remains SHM with time period =
T
correct.
2
Both Statement I and Statement II are
2. motion remains SHM with time period = 2T 4.
incorrect.
3. motion remains SHM with time period = 4T
motion remains SHM with time and period
4.
remains nearly constant 153. The current in 8 Ω resistance is (in the
figure below):

150. The x and y coordinates of the particle at

any time are x = 5t − 2t2 and y = 10t
respectively, where x and y are in meters and t
in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at
t = 2 s is:
2 2
1. 5^
i m/s 2. −4^
i m/s

2
3. −8^
j m/s 4. 0

151. The upper half of an inclined plane of

inclination θ is perfectly smooth while the 1. 0.69 A
lower half is rough. A block starting from rest 2. 0.92 A
at the top of the plane will again come to rest at 3. 1.30 A
the bottom if the coefficient of friction between 4. 1.6 A
the block and the lower half of the plane is
given by: 154. Radiation of energy E falls normally on a
1. μ = 2/ tan θ perfectly reflecting surface. The momentum
2. μ = 2 tan θ transferred to the surface is:
(c = velocity of light)
3. μ = tan θ E

4. μ = 1/ tan θ 1. c
2E
2. c
2E
3. 2
c
E
4.
c2

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

155. The magnetic field of a given length of 159. The dependence of acceleration due to
wire for a single-turn coil at its centre is B. Its gravity 'g' on the distance 'r' from the centre of
value for two turns coil for the same wire will the earth, assumed to be a sphere of radius R of
be: uniform density, is as shown in figure below:
B
1. 4
B
2. 2

3. 4B
4. 2B

156. The effective capacity of the network

between terminals A and B is:

1. 6 μF 2. 20 μF

3. 3 μF 4. 10 μF
The correct figure is:
1. a
157. If E→ and B → represent the electric field 2. b
3. c
vector and magnetic field vector, respectively, 4. d
in an electromagnetic wave then the direction
of EM wave is along: 160. A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g,
→
1. E radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length
→
2. B (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum possible
→×B
3. E → percentage error in the measurement of
→ × E→
4. B density will nearly be:
1. 1.4%
158. Two particles are oscillating along two 2. 1.2%
close parallel straight lines side by side, with 3. 1.3%
the same frequency and amplitudes. They 4. 1.6%
pass each other, moving in opposite
directions when their displacement is half of 161. For the given reaction, the particle X is:
11 11 +
the amplitude. The mean positions of the two 6
C →
5
B + β + X

particles lie in a straight line perpendicular to 1. neutron

the paths of the two particles. The phase 2. anti-neutrino
difference is: 3. neutrino
1. 6
π
4. proton
2. 0
2π
3. 3
4. π

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

162. The ground state energy of a hydrogen 166.

atom is −13.6 eV. The energy needed to ionize A block of mass M is attached to the lower end
the hydrogen atom from its second excited state of a vertical spring. The spring is hung from a
will be: ceiling and has a force constant value of k. The
1. 13.6 eV mass is released from rest with the spring
2. 6.8 eV initially unstretched. The maximum extension
3. 1.51 eV produced in the length of the spring will be:
4. 3.4 eV 1. M g/k
2. 2M g/k
163. → →
3. 4M g/k
If the angle between the vector A and B
→ → → 4. M g/2k
is θ, the value of the product ( B × A) ⋅ A is

equal to: 167. 4.0 gm of gas occupies 22.4 litres at

1. zero NTP. The specific heat capacity of the gas at a
2. BA2sin θ cos θ −1 −1
constant volume is 5.0 JK mol . If the
3. BA2cos θ speed of sound in the gas at NTP is 952 ms−1 ,
4. BA2sin θ then the molar heat capacity at constant
pressure will be:
164. Unit of Stefan's constant is: (R = 8.31 JK−1 mol )
−1

1. Watt-m2-K4 1. 8.0 −1 −1
2. 7.5 −1 −1
JK mol JK mol
2. Watt-m2/K4
3. 7.0 JK
−1
mol
−1
4. 8.5 JK
−1
mol
−1

3. Watt/m2–K
4. Watt/m2 K4
168. Two point charges A and B, having
165. A 10 μFcapacitor is connected to a
charges +Q and −Q respectively, are placed at
210 V, 50 Hz source as shown in the figure.
a certain distance apart and the force acting
The peak current in the circuit is nearly between them is F . If 25% charge of A is
(π = 3.14):
transferred to B, then the force between the
charges becomes:
4F
1. 3
2. F

9F 16F
3. 16
4. 9

1. 0.93 A 2. 1.20 A
169. A cycle wheel of radius 0.5 m is rotated
3. 0.35 A 4. 0.58 A with a constant angular velocity of 10 rad/s in a
region of a magnetic field of 0.1 T which is
perpendicular to the plane of the wheel. The
EMF generated between its centre and the rim
is:
1. 0.25 V 2. 0.125 V
3. 0.5 V 4. zero

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

170. The amount of heat energy required to 173. Which of the following is an example of
raise the temperature of 1 g of Helium at NTP, forward biasing?
from T1 K to T2 K is:
3
1. Na kB (T2 − T1 )
2 1. 2.
3
2. 4
Na kB (T2 − T1 )

3 T2
3. 4
Na k B
T1
3. 4.
3
4. 8
Na kB (T2 − T1 )

171. The velocity (v)-time (t) plot of the motion 174. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas
of a body is shown below: undergoes a process described by the equation
= constant. The heat capacity of the gas
3
PV

during this process is:

3
1. 2
R
5
2. 2
R

3. 2R
4. R
The acceleration (a)-time (t) graph that best
suits this motion is: 175. A wire of length L, area of cross section A
is hanging from a fixed support. The length of
the wire changes to L1 when mass M is
suspended from its free end. The expression for
1. 2. Young's modulus is:
M g(L − L) M gL
1
1. 2.
AL AL1

M gL M gL
1
3. 4.
A(L − L) AL
1

3. 4.

176. In Young's double-slit experiment, the

intensity of light at a point on the screen where
the path difference is λ is K , (λ being the
wavelength of light used). The intensity at a
172. Two rotating bodies A and B of masses m point where the path difference is
λ
will be:
and 2m with moments of inertia IA and IB 4

1. K
(IB > IA ) have equal kinetic energy of K
2. 4
rotation. If LA and LB be their angular
K
momenta respectively, then: 3. 2

1. LA =
LB
4. zero
2

2. LA = 2LB

3. LB > LA

4. LA > LB

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 Full Test - NEET PYQs - 22 Apr
Contact Number: 8527521718

177. Three liquids of densities ρ1 , ρ2 and ρ3 180. A rigid rod is placed against the wall as
(ρ1 > ρ2 > ρ3 ) having the same value of the shown in the figure. When the velocity at its
surface tension T , rise to the same height in lower end is 10 ms-1 and its base makes an
∘
three identical capillaries. The angles of contact angle α = 60 with horizontal, then the
θ1 , θ2 and θ3 obey: vertical velocity of its end B (in ms-1) will be:
π
1. 2 > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 ≥ 0
π
2. 0 ≤ θ1 < θ2 < θ3 <
2
π
3. 2
< θ1 < θ2 < θ3 < π

4. π > θ1 > θ2 > θ3 >

π

178. If the magnetic dipole moment of an atom

of diamagnetic material, paramagnetic material
and ferromagnetic material are denoted by
μd , μp , and μf respectively, then: 10
1. 10√3 2.
1. μp = 0 and μf ≠ 0 √3

5
2. μd ≠ 0 and μp = 0 3. 5 √3 4. √3

3. μd ≠ 0 and μf ≠ 0

4. μd = 0 and μp ≠ 0

179. A body is moving with a velocity of 30 m/s Fill OMR Sheet*

towards the east. After 10 s, its velocity
becomes 40 m/s towards the north. The *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
average acceleration of the body is: from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
2
1. 7 m/s there
2
2. √7 m/s
2
3. 5 m/s
2
4. 1 m/s

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