Ancient Chinese Chariots

A The Shang Dynasty or Yin Dynasty, according to traditional historiography,

ruled in the Yellow River valley in the second millennium. Archaeological work at
the Ruins of Yin (near modern-day Anyang), which has been identified as the last
Shang capital, uncovered eleven major Yin royal tombs and the foundations of
palaces and ritual sites, containing weapons of war and remains from both animal
and human sacrifices.
B The Tomb of Fu Hao is an archaeological site at Yinxu, the ruins of the ancient
Shang Dynasty capital Yin, within the modem city of Anyang in Henan Province,
China. Discovered in 1976，it was identified as the final resting place of the queen
and military general Fu Hao. The artifacts unearthed within the grave included
jade objects, bone objects, bronze objects etc. These grave goods are confirmed
by the oracle texts, which constitute almost all of the first hand written record we
possess of the Shang Dynasty. Below the corpse was a small pit holding the
remains of six sacrificial dogs and along the edge lay the skeletons of human
slaves, evidence of human sacrifice.
C The Terracotta Army was discovered on 29 March 1974 to the east of Xian in
Shaanxi. The terracotta soldiers were accidentally discovered when a group of
local farmers was digging a well during a drought around 1.6 km (1 mile) east of
the Qin Emperors tomb around at Mount Li (Lishan), a region riddled with
underground springs and watercourses. Experts currently place the entire number
of soldiers at 8,000 — with 130 chariots (130 cm long), 530 horses and 150
cavalry horses helping to ward of any dangers in the afterlife. In contrast, the
burial of Tutank Hamun yielded six complete but dismantled chariots of
unparalleled richness and sophistication. Each was designed for two people (90
cm long) and had its axle sawn through to enable it to be brought along the
narrow corridor into the tomb.
D Excavation of ancient Chinese chariots has confirmed the descriptions of them
in the earliest texts. Wheels were constructed from a variety of woods: elm
provided the hub, rose-wood the spokes and oak the felloes. The hub was drilled
through to form an empty space into which the tampering axle was fitted, the
whole being covered with leather to retain lubricating oil. Though the number of
spokes varied, a wheel by the fourth century BC usually had eighteen to thirty-two
of them. Records show how elaborate was the testing of each completed wheel:
flotation and weighing were regarded as the best measures of balance, but even
the empty spaces in the assembly were checked with millet grains. One
outstanding constructional asset of the ancient Chinese wheel was dishing.
Dishing refers to the dish-like shape of an advanced wooden wheel, which looks
rather like a flat cone. On occasion they chose to strengthen a dished wheel with
a pair of struts running from rim to rim on each of the hub. As these extra supports
were inserted separately into the felloes, they would have added even greater
strength to the wheel. Leather wrapped up the edge of the wheel aimed to retain
bronze.
E Within a millennium, however, Chinese chariot-makers had developed a vehicle
with shafts, the precursor of the true carriage or cart. This design did not make its
appearance in Europe until the end of the Roman Empire. Because the shafts
curved upwards, and the harness pressed against a horse’s shoulders, not his
neck, the shaft chariot was incredibly efficient. The halberd was also part of
chariot standard weaponry. This halberd usually measured well over 3 metres in
length, which meant that a chariot warrior wielding it sideways could strike down
the charioteer in a passing chariot. The speed of chariot which was tested on the
sand was quite fast. At speed these passes were very dangerous for the crews of
both chariots.
F The advantages offered by the new chariots were not entirely missed. They
could see how there were literally the warring states, whose conflicts lasted down
the Qin unification of China. Qin Shi Huang was buried in the most opulent tomb
complex ever constructed in China, a sprawling, city-size collection of
underground caverns containing everything the emperor would need for the
afterlife. Even a collection of terracotta armies called Terra- Cotta Warriors was
buried in it. The ancient Chinese, along with many cultures including ancient
Egyptians, believed that items and even people buried with a person could be
taken with him to the afterlife.

Questions 1-4

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
1? In boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1 When the Tomb of Fu Hao was discovered, the written records of the grave
goods proved to be accurate.

2 Human skeletons in Anyang tomb were identified ad soldiers who were killed in
the war.
3 The Terracotta Army was discovered by people who lived nearby by chance.

4 The size of the King Tutankhamen’s tomb is bigger than that of in Qin
Emperors’ tomb.

Questions 5-10

Complete the notes below.

Choose ONE WORD from the passage for each answer. Write your answers in
boxes 5-10 on your answer sheet

5 The hub is made of wood from the tree of………………….

6 The room through the hub was to put tempering axle in which is wrapped up by
leather aiming to retain………………….

7 The number of spokes varied from…………………….to ………………….

8 The shape of the wheel resembles a…………………….

9Two ________ were used to strengthen the wheel.

10 The edge of the wheel was wrapped up by leather aiming to retain ________.

Questions 11-13

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the

passage for each answer.

11 What body part of horse was released the pressure from to the shoulder after
the appearance of the shafts?

12 what kind of road surface did the researchers measure the speed of the chariot
on?

13 What part of his afterlife palace was the Emperor Qin Shi Huang buried in?

Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Saving the
British Bitterns PDF here.

Saving the British Bitterns

Questions 14-20

The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-H

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-H from the list below. Write the
correct number, i-viii, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. research findings into habitats and decisions made

ii. fluctuation in bittern number

 iii. protect the young bittern

iv. international cooperation works

v. Began in the calculation of the number

vi. importance of food

vii. Research has been successful.

viii. research into the reedbed

ix. reserve established holding bittern in winter

14 Paragraph A

15 Paragraph B

16 Paragraph C

17 Paragraph D

18 Paragraph E

19 Paragraph F

20 Paragraph G

Example Paragraph E vii

Questions 21-26

Answer the questions below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER from the

passage for each answer.

21 When did the bird of bitten reach its peak of number?

22 What does the author describe the bittern’s character?

23 What is the main cause for the chick bittern’s death?

24 What is the main food for chick bittern?

25 What system does it secure the stability for bittern’s population?

26 Besides bittern and rare vegetation, what mammal does the plan benefit?

Questions 27

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 27 on your answer sheet.

27 What is the main purpose of this passage?

AMain characteristic of a bird called bittern.

BCooperation can protect an endangered species.

CThe difficulty of access information of bittern’s habitat and diet.

DTo save wetland and reedbed in UK.

Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the E-Training
PDF here.

E-Training

Questions 28-33

The reading passage has seven paragraphs，A-F

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-F from the list below. Write the
correct number, i-xi in boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet.
 List of Headings

i overview of the benefits for the application of E-training

ii IBM’s successful choice of training

iii Future direction and a new style of teaching

iv learners7 achievement and advanced teaching materials

v limitations when E-training compares with traditional class

vi multimedia over the Internet can be a solution

vii technology can be a huge financial burden

the distance learners outperformed the traditional university

viii
learners in worldwide

ix other advantages besides economic consideration

x Training offered to help people learn using computers

28 Paragraph A

29 Paragraph B

30 Paragraph C

31 Paragraph D

32 Paragraph E

33 Paragraph F

Questions 34-37

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-F, in boxes 35-37 on your answer sheet.

34 Projected Basic Blue in IBM achieved great success.

35 E-learning wins as a priority for many corporations as its flexibility.

36 The combination of traditional and e-training environments may prevail.

37 Example of fast electronic delivery for a company’s products to its customers.

Questions 38-40

Choose Three correct letters, among A-E

Write your answers in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet.

A Technical facilities are hardly obtained.

B Presenting multimedia over the Internet is restricted due to the bandwidth limit.

C It is ineffective imparting a unique corporate value to fresh employees.

D Employees need to block a long time leaving their position attending the
training.

E More preparation time is needed to keep the course at a suitable level.

Answer Keys

Section 1

1Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 4

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “these grave
goods are confirmed by the oracle texts, which constitute almost all of the
first hand written record we possess of the Shang Dynasty.” This line
confirms the information that the written records (hand-written records) of the
grave goods proved to be accurate (confirmed) when the Tomb of Fu Hao was
discovered.

2Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 5

Answer explanation: According to the information shared in paragraph B “below

the corpse was a small pit holding the remains of six sacrificial dogs and
along the edge lay the skeletons of human slaves, evidence of human
sacrifice.” The given passage states that skeletons are of enslaved people;
however, in the question, it is mentioned that human skeletons in the Anyang
tomb were identified as soldiers, which is incorrect.

3Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can point out that “the
terracotta soldiers were accidentally discovered when a group of local
farmers was digging a well during a drought around 1.6 km (1 mile) east of
the Qin Emperors tomb around at Mount Li (Lishan), a region riddled with
underground springs and watercourses.” Here, the term terracotta soldiers
has been paraphrased to terracotta army, and it’s true that Terracotta Army was
discovered by people lived nearby (group of local farmers) by chance
(accidentaly).

4Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: N/A

Answer explanation: None of the passage confirms or denies that the size of the
King Tutankhamen’s tomb is bigger than that of Qin Emperors’ tomb.

5Answer: elm
Question Type: Note Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 2

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “wheels were
constructed from a variety of woods: elm provided the hub, rose-wood the
spokes and oak the felloes.” Since this passage puts forward the information
about structure of ancient Chinese chariots, we can comprehend that the the hub
is made of elm wood (tree).

6Answer: oil

Question Type: Note Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the passage specifies “the
hub was drilled through to form an empty space into which the tampering
axle was fitted, the whole being covered with leather to retain lubricating
oil.” Thus, the room (empty space) through the hub was to put tempering axle in (
tampering axle was fitted) which is wrapped up (being covered) by leather aiming
to retain lubricating oil.

7Answer: 18 to 32

Question Type: Note Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 4

Answer explanation: Paragraph D puts forward the information that “though the
number of spokes varied, a wheel by the fourth century BC usually had
eighteen to thirty-two of them.” This line confirms that number of spokes varied
from eighteen (18) to thirty-two (32).

8Answer: dish

Question Type: Note Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 7

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, the author in the given paragraph
mentions that “dishing refers to the dishlike shape of an advanced wooden
wheel, which looks rather like a flat cone.” Hence we can infer that dishing
is dishlike shape of an advanced wooden wheel. The wheel’s form resembles a
flat cone, also described as a dish-like shape.

9Answer: struts

Question Type: Note Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 8

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims, “on
occasion they chose to strengthen a dished wheel with a pair of
struts running from rim to rim on each of the hub.” Hence, we can infer
that pair (two) of struts was used to strengthen the wheel (strengthen a dished
wheel).

10Answer: bronze

Question Type: Note Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, last line

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “as these extra supports were inserted
separately into the felloes, they would have added even greater strength to
the wheel. Leather wrapped up the edge of the wheel aimed to retain
bronze.” Hence, we can deduce that the appropriate answer is bronze.

11Answer: Neck

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 3

Answer explanation: Paragraph E puts forward the information that “because

the shafts curved upwards, and the harness pressed against a horse’s
shoulders, not his neck, the shaft chariot was incredibly efficient.” Since
the harness pressed against a horse’s shoulders and not his neck, we can
deduce that horse released the pressure from neck to the shoulder.

12Answer: sand

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 6

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “the speed of chariot which was tested on
the sand was quite fast. At speed these passes were very dangerous for the
crews of both chariots.” Hence, the kind of road surface the researchers used
to measure the speed of the chariot is sand.

13Answer: tomb complex

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 3

Answer explanation: According to paragraph F,“Qin Shi Huang was buried in

the most opulent tomb complex ever constructed in China, a sprawling,
city-size collection of underground caverns containing everything the
emperor would need for the afterlife.” Therefore, Emperor Qin Shi Huang was
buried in the most opulent tomb complex.

Section 2

14Answer: ii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: Paragraph A provides the information that “breeding

bitterns became extinct in the UK by 1886 but, following re-colonisation
early last century, numbers rose to a peak of about 70 booming (singing)
males in the 1950s, falling to fewer than 20 by the 1990s.” The term fluctuates
means to change frequently from one thing to another. Hence, from 1886 to the
late 1990s the population growth of the bitterns kept fluctuating.
15Answer: v

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: According to paragraph B “our first challenge was to

develop standard methods to monitor their numbers.” The challenge was
counting/calculating the actual numbers of bitterns that were present.

16Answer: i

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can find that “this research
showed that bitterns had been retained in reedbeds where the natural
process of succession, or drying out, had been slowed through
management. Based on this work, broad recommendations on how to
manage and rehabilitate reedbeds for bitterns were made, and funding was
provided.” Here, we can observe that a study/research of bittern habitats was
carried out, and judgments/decisions were made based on the findings.

17Answer: viii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line claims that “to refine these
recommendations and provide fine-scale, quantitative habitat prescriptions
on the bitterns’ preferred feeding habitat, we radio-tracked male bitterns on
the RSPB’s Minsmere and Leighton Moss reserves.” From this information,
we can deduce that large-scale research was done on the reedbed vegetation.

18Answer: vii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes “the success of the habitat prescriptions developed from this
research has been spectacular.” Since it is given that prescriptions from this
research has been spectacular we can deduce that research was successful.

19Answer: vi

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 1

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “the final phase of the research involved
understanding the diet, survival, and dispersal of bittern chicks.” From the
given information, we can deduce that the author states that the final phase of the
research about bitterns involved research on understanding the link between food
and the sustainability of the bitterns.

20Answer: iii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 1

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “once
independent, radio-tagged young bitterns were found to seek out new sites
during their first winter; a proportion of these would remain on new sites to
breed if the conditions were suitable.” The author informs that researchers
have tagged radios on young bitterns to track their locations and observe the
conditions of the new sites that are suitable for their breeding. Hence, researchers
are working for the protection of young bitterns.

21Answer: 1950s

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: The opening line of paragraph A puts forward the

information that “breeding bitterns became extinct in the UK by 1886 but,
following re-colonization early last century, numbers rose to a peak of about
70 booming (singing) males in the 1950s, falling to fewer than 20 by the
1990s.” From this line, we can deduce that the breeding reached its peak in the
1950s.

22Answer: shy

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can point out that “bitterns
have cryptic plumage and a shy nature, usually remaining hidden within the
cover of reedbed vegetation.” Hence, one of the characteristics of bittern birds
is that have a shy nature.

23Answer: starvation

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the passage specifies

that “many chicks did not survive to fledging and starvation was found to be
the most likely reason for their demise.” The term demise means death and
according to this line, the main reason behind many chick’s death/demise is
starvation.

24Answer: fish prey

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 4

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph to the fact that “the
fish prey fed to chicks was dominated by those species penetrating into the
reed edge.” We can infer that the main food for chick bitterns was fish prey, as it
was fed to chicks in more numbers.

25Answer: partnership project/partnership project network

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph G, last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes “a network of 19 sites developed through this partnership
project will secure a more sustainable UK bittern population with successful
breeding outside of the core area, less vulnerable to chance events and sea-
level rise.” Thus, the network of 19 sites developed through partnership projects
secures stability for the bittern’s population.

26Answer: otter

Question Type: Short Answer Questions

Answer location: Paragraph I, last line

Answer explanation: The last line of paragraph I claims that “otter and brown-
hare occur on the site as does the rare plant, pillwort.” From this information,
we can infer that besides bittern and brown hare, otter benefits from the protection
plan.

27Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Complete Paragraph

Answer explanation: The purpose of this passage is to convey that the

cooperation of people irrespective of their countries can help them protect an
endangered species (bitters).

Section 3

28Answer: i

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 3

Answer explanation: Paragraph A brings forth the author’s attitude towards e-

learning as “cutting the travel expenses required to bring employees and
instructors to central classroom accounts for the lion’s share of the
savings. With an online course, employees can learn from any Internet-
connected PC, anywhere in the world.” Here, we can observe that author lists
various benefits for the application of E-training, such as cuts in travel expenses,
learning taking place from anywhere in the world, and many more.

29Answer: ix

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims, “in
addition to generally positive economic benefits, other advantages such as
convenience, standardized delivery, self-paced learning, and a variety of
available content, have made e-learning a high priority for many
corporations.” This passage discusses the other advantages of e-learning
besides economic benefits.

30Answer: iv

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph C, 2nd last line

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “e-training promises more effective teaching
techniques by integrating audio, video, animation, text and interactive
materials with the intent of teaching each student at his or her own pace. In
addition to higher performance results, there are other immediate benefits
to students such as increased time on task, higher levels of motivation, and
reduced test anxiety for many learners.” There are two benefits of e-learning
getting effective teaching techniques through advanced teaching materials and
higher performance results.

31Answer: vii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, the author in the given paragraph
mentions that “on the other hand, nobody said E-training technology would
be cheap. E-training service providers, on average, charge from $10,000 to
$60,000 to develop one hour of online instruction.” Since it is given that
technology is not cheap and it charges around $10,000 to $60,000 to develop one
hour of online instruction, we can infer that technology can be a huge financial
burden for companies.

32Answer: v

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, refer that, “furthermore, e-training

isn,t suited to every mode of instruction or topic. For instance, it’s rather
ineffective imparting cultural values or building teams.” This passage
compares e-learning with traditional classroom training and points out the
limitation of e-learning such as the inability to impart cultural values and team
spirit.

33Answer: iii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 1

Answer explanation: According to the author in paragraph F, “while few people

debate the obvious advantages of e-learning, systematic research is needed
to confirm that learners are actually acquiring and using the skills that are
being taught online, and that e-learning is the best way to achieve the
outcomes in a corporate environment.” Here, the author says that in the future
systematic research is needed to ensure learners are acquiring new skills through
the new style of teaching.

34Answer: A

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 2

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “IBM, for instance, claims that the institution
of its e-training program, Basic Blue, whose purpose is to train new
managers, saved the company in the range of $200 million in 1999.” Since
IBM saved $200 million through the basic blue project, it implies that this project
helped IBM achieve great success.

35Answer: B

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 2

Answer explanation: In the reference paragraph, the author mentions that “E-
learning is widely believed to offer flexible “any time, any
place” learning.” Many corporations prefer e-learning as a high priority because
it is believed to offer flexibility.

36Answer: F

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: Paragraph F puts forward the information that “nowadays,

a go-between style of Blended learning, which refers to a mixing of different
learning environments, is gaining popularity. It combines traditional face-to-
face classroom methods with more modem computer-mediated
activities.” From the term blended learning we can infer that author is talking
about the combination of traditional and e-training environments.

37Answer: D

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph D, last line

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can find out that “today, over
half of the 400-plus courses that Rockwell Collins offers are delivered
instantly to its clients in an e-leaming format, a change that has reduced its
annual training costs by 40%. Many other success stories exist.” The term
delivered instantly has been paraphrased to fast electronic delivery. Thus,
Rockwell Collins is the perfect example of fast electronic delivery for a company’s
products to its customers.

38Answer: B (B, C, E: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 2

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the said paragraph

discusses that “for one thing, bandwidth limitations are still an issue in
presenting multimedia over the Internet.” Hence, one of the limitations of e-
learning is presenting multimedia (restricted due to the bandwidth limit).

39Answer: C (B, C, E: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 4

Answer explanation: A line in the given paragraph suggests that “for instance,
it’s rather ineffective imparting cultural values or building teams.” Another
limitation of e-learning is that it is ineffective in imparting cultural values to fresh
employees.

40Answer: E (B, C, E: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 5

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said that “In
addition, there is a perceived loss of research time because of the work
involved in developing and teaching online classes” In order to keep the
course at a suitable level company has to prepare the online courses, which
require more attention because of their complexity than a traditional course.
Hence, it requires more preparation time.
Sosus: Listening to the Ocean, Monkeys and Forests, Age-proofing Our

Brains Reading Answers

5 min read

Updated On Aug 28, 2024

You will find IELTS Academic Reading passages, Sosus: Listening to the Ocean,
Monkeys and Forests, Age-proofing Our Brains Reading Answers, in this article.
Practise this one and you will get an idea of how to deal with IELTS Reading.

Section 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the SOSUS:
Listening to the Ocean PDF here.

SOSUS： Listening to the Ocean

Questions 1-4

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading
passage above? In boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1 In the past, difficulties of research carried out on Moon were much easier than
that of

2 The same light technology used on investigation of moon can be employed in

the field of ocean.

3 Research on the depth of ocean by method of sound wave is more time-

consuming.

4 Hydrophones technology is able to detect the category of precipitation.

ster IELTS Reading in 10 Days

Unlock Free Plan

Questions 5-8

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H, in boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once

5Elements affect sound transmission in the ocean.

6 Relationship between global climate and ocean temperature

7Examples of how sound technology help people research ocean and creatures
in it

8 Sound transmission under water is similar to that of light in any condition.

Questions 9-13

Choose the correct letter, A，B，C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9Who of the followings is dedicated to the research of rate of sound?

ALeonardo da Vinci
BIsaac Newton
CJohn William Strutt
DCharles Sturm

10 Who explained that the theory of light or sound wavelength is significant in

water?

ALord Rayleigh
BJohn William Strutt
CCharles Sturm
DChristopher Clark

11 According to Fox and colleagues, in what pattern does the change of finback
whale calls happen

AChange in various seasons

BChange in various days
CChange in different months
DChange in different years

12 In which way does the SOSUS technology inspect whales?

ATrack all kinds of whales in the ocean

BTrack bunches of whales at the same time
CTrack only finback whale in the ocean
DTrack whales by using multiple appliances or devices

13 what could scientists inspect via monitoring along a repeated route ?

ATemperature of the surface passed

BTemperature of the deepest ocean floor
CVariation of temperature
DFixed data of temperature

Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Monkeys and
Forests PDF here.
Monkeys and Forests

Questions 14-19

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-I.

Which paragraph contains the following information? Write the correct

letter in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

14 a reference of reduction in Forest inhabitant

15 Only one species of monkey survived while other two species were vanished

16 a reason for howler Monkey of choosing new leaves

17 mention to howler Monkey’s nutrient and eating habits

18 a reference of asking farmers’ changing attitude toward wildlife

19 the advantage for howler Monkey’s flexibility living in a segmented habitat

Questions 20-22

Look at the following places and the list of descriptions below.

Match each description with the correct place, A-E.

Write the correct letter, A-E, in boxes 20-22 on your answer sheet.

List of places

A Hacienda La Pacifica
B Santa Rosa National Park
C a cacao plantation in Tabasco,
Mexico
D Estacion de Biologia Los
Tuxtlas in Veracruz, Mexico
E Amazon Basin

20 howler Monkey’s benefit to the local region’s agriculture

21 Original home for all three native monkeys

22 A place where Capuchins monkey comes for a better habitat

Questions 23-27

Complete the sentences below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet.

The reasons for Howlers monkey survive better in focal region than other two
species

Howlers in La Pacifica since they can feed themselves with leaf

when 23………………………is not easily found

Howlers has better ability to alleviate the 24………………………. which old and
young trees used to protect themselves)

When compared to that of spider monkeys and capuchin monkeys,

the 25 …………….. the rate of Howlers is relatively faster (round for just every 2
years).

The monkeys can survive away from open streams and water holes as the leaves
howlers eat hold high content of 26………………………………. which ensure
them to resist to continuous 27………………………………………. in Guanacaste

Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Age-proofing
Our Brains PDF here.

Age-proofing Our Brains

Questions 28-31

Choose the four correct letters among A-G.

Write your answers in boxes 28-31 on your answer sheet.

Which of the FOUR situations or conditions assisting the Brains’ function?

A Preventive treatment against Alzheimer’s disease

B Doing active aerobic exercise and frequently climbing stairs
C High levels of education
D Early verbal or language competence training
E Having more supplements such as ginkgo tree
F Participate in more physical activity involving in stimulating tasks
G Personality and feelings of self-fulfillment

Questions 32-39

Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-G) with
opinions or deeds below. Write the appropriate letters A-G in boxes 32-39
on your answer sheet.

NB you may use any latter more than once.

AZaven Khachaturian
BWilliam Greenough
CMarilyn Albert
DRobert Sapolsky
ELinda Gilbert
FPeter Davies
APaddy Spence

32Alzheimer’s was probably a kind of disease rather than a normal aging process.

33 Keeping neurons busy, people may be able to endure more harm to your brain

34 Regular exercises boost blood flow to the brain and increase anti-disease
disability.

35 Significant increase of Sales of ginkgo has been shown.

36 More links between their neurons are found among stimulated animals.

37 Effectiveness of the use of brains supplements products can be of little

scientific proof.
38 Heightened levels of stress may damage brain cells and cause part of brain to
deteriorate.

39 Products that upgrade and preserve mental competence are still a newly
developing industry.

Questions 40

Choose the correct letters among A-D.

Write your answers in box 40 on your answer sheet.

40 According the passage, what is the most appropriate title for this passage?

AMaking our minds last a lifetime

Bamazing pills of the ginkgo
Chow to stay healthy in your old hood
Dmore able a brain and neurons

Answers

Now it’s time to check the answers to the above questions from the passages in
the reading section of IELTS Academic and get an idea of how you need to
improve for a high IELTS Reading band score.

1 TRUE 11 A 21 A 31 G

2 FALSE 12 B 22 B 32 D

3 NOT GIVEN 13 C 23 Fruits 33 F

24 Plant toxins/
4 TRUE 14 G 34 C
toxin
 25 Reproduction/
5D 15 A 35 G
reproduce

6G 16 C 26 Water 36 B

7F 17 B 27 drought 37 A

8D 18 I 28 C 38 C

9D 19 D 29 D 39 E

10 A 20 C 30 F 40 A

SECTION 1

Dirty river but clean water

Floods can occur in rivers when the flow rate exceeds the capacity of the river
channel, particularly at bends or meanders in the waterway. Floods often cause
damage to homes and businesses if they are in the natural flood plains of rivers.
While riverine flood damage can be eliminated by moving away from rivers and
other bodies of water, people have traditionally lived and worked by rivers
because the land is usually flat and fertile and because rivers provide easy travel
and access to commerce and industry.
A FIRE and flood are two of humanity’s worst nightmares. People have,
therefore, always sought to control them. Forest fires are snuffed out quickly. The
flow of rivers is regulated by weirs and dams. At least，that is how it used to be.
But foresters have learned that forests need fires to clear out the brush and even
to get seeds to germinate. And a similar revelation is now dawning on
hydrologists. Rivers 一 and the ecosystems they support — need floods. That is
why a man-made torrent has been surging down the Grand Canyon. By Thursday
March 6th it was running at full throttle, which was expected to be sustained for 60
hours.

B Floods once raged through the canyon every year. Spring Snow from as far
away as Wyoming would melt and swell the Colorado river to a flow that averaged
around 1,500 cubic metres (50,000 cubic feet) a second. Every eight years or so,
that figure rose to almost 3,000 cubic metres. These floods infused the river with
sediment, carved its beaches and built its sandbars.

[do_widget id=custom_html-47]

C However, in the four decades since the building of the Glen Canyon dam, just
upstream of the Grand Canyon, the only sediment that it has collected has come
from tiny, undammed tributaries. Even that has not been much use as those
tributaries are not powerful enough to distribute the sediment in an ecologically
valuable way.

D This lack of flooding has harmed local wildlife. The humpback chub, for
example, thrived in the rust-red waters of the Colorado. Recently, though, its
population has crashed. At first sight, it looked as if the reason was that the chub
were being eaten by trout introduced for sport fishing in the mid-20th century. But
trout and chub co-existed until the Glen Canyon dam was built, so something else
is going on. Steve Gloss, of the United States’ Geological Survey (USGS),
reckons that the chub’s decline is the result of their losing their most valuable
natural defense, the Colorado’s rusty sediment. The chub were well adapted to
the poor visibility created by the thick, red water which gave the river its name,
and depended on it to hide from predators. Without the cloudy water the chub
became vulnerable.

E And the chub are not alone. In the years since the Glen Canyon dam was built,
several species have vanished altogether. These include the Colorado pike-
minnow, the razorback sucker and the roundtail chub. Meanwhile, aliens including
fathead minnows, channel catfish and common carp, which would have been
hard， put to survive in the savage waters of the undammed canyon, have moved
in.

F So flooding is the obvious answer. Unfortunately, it is easier said than done.

Floods were sent down the Grand Canyon in 1996 and 2004 and the results were
mixed. In 1996 the flood was allowed to go on too long. To start with, all seemed
well. The floodwaters built up sandbanks and infused the river with sediment.
Eventually, however, the continued flow washed most of the sediment out of the
canyon. This problem was avoided in 2004，but unfortunately, on that occasion,
the volume of sand available behind the dam was too low to rebuild the
sandbanks. This time, the USGS is convinced that things will be better. The
amount of sediment available is three times greater than it was in 2004. So if a
flood is going to do some good, this is the time to unleash one.

G Even so, it may turn out to be an empty gesture. At less than 1,200 cubic
metres a second, this flood is smaller than even an average spring flood, let alone
one of the mightier deluges of the past. Those glorious inundations moved
massive quantities of sediment through the Grand Canyon, wiping the slate dirty,
and making a muddy mess of silt and muck that would make modem river rafters
cringe.

Questions 1-7

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
1? Refer the box given below and answer the questions from 1 to 7 on your
answer sheet.

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1. Damage caused by fire is worse than that caused by flood.

2. The flood peaks at almost 1500 cubic meters every eight years.
 3. Contribution of sediments delivered by tributaries has little impact.

4. Decreasing number of chubs is always caused by introducing of trout since

mid-20th

5. It seemed that the artificial flood in 1996 had achieved success partly at the
very beginning

6. In fact, the yield of artificial flood water is smaller than an average natural flood
at present.

7. Mighty floods drove fast moving flows with clean and high-quality water.

Questions 8-13

o Complete the summary below.

o Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
o Write your answers in boxes for questions 8-13 on your answer sheet.

The Eco- Impact of the Canyon Dam

Floods are peopled nightmare. In the past, canyon was raged by flood every year.
The snow from far Wyoming would melt in the season of 8………………. and
caused a flood flow peak in Colorado river. In the four decades after people built
the Glen Canyon dam, it only could gather 9………………………………….
together from tiny, undammed tributaries.

humpback chub population reduced, why?

Then, several species disappeared including Colorado pike-

minnow, 10 ………………… and the round-tail chub. Meanwhile, some moved in
such as fathead minnows, channel catfish and 11……………………………… The
non-stopped flow led to the washing away of the sediment out of the canyon,
which poses great threat to the chubs because it has poor 12………………………
away from predators. In addition, the volume of 13…………………… available
behind the dam was too tow to rebuild the bars and flooding became more
serious.

SECTION 2
Smell and Memory

SMELLS LIKE YESTERDAY

Why does the scent of a fragrance or the mustiness of an old trunk trigger such
powerful memories of childhood? New research has the answer, writes Alexandra
Witze.

A You probably pay more attention to a newspaper with your eyes than with your
nose. But lift the paper to your nostrils and inhale. The smell of newsprint might
carry you back to your childhood, when your parents perused the paper on
Sunday mornings. Or maybe some other smell takes you back- the scent of your
mother’s perfume, the pungency of a driftwood campfire. Specific odours can
spark a flood of reminiscences. Psychologists call it the “Proustian phenomenon
“，after French novelist Marcel Proust. Near the beginning of the masterpiece In
Search of Lost Time, Proust’s narrator dunks a madeleine cookie into a cup of
tea – and the scent and taste unleash a torrent of childhood memories for 3000
pages.

B Now, this phenomenon is getting the scientific treatment. Neuroscientists

Rachel Herz, a cognitive neuroscientist at Brown University in Providence, Rhode
Island， have discovered, for instance, how sensory memories are shared across
the brain, with different brain regions remembering the sights, smells, tastes and
sounds of a particular experience. Meanwhile, psychologists have demonstrated
that memories triggered by smells can be more emotional, as well as more
detailed, than memories not related to smells. When you inhale, odour molecules
set brain cells dancing within a region known as the amygdala，a part of the brain
that helps control emotion. In contrast, the other senses, such as taste or touch,
get routed through other parts of the brain before reaching the amygdala. The
direct link between odours and the amygdala may help explain the emotional
potency of smells. “There is this unique connection between the sense of smell
and the part of the brain that processes emotion,” says Rachel Herz.

C But the links don’t stop there. Like an octopus reaching its tentacles outward,
the memory of smells affects other brain regions as well. In recent experiments,
neuroscientists at University College London (UCL) asked 15 volunteers to look at
pictures while smelling unrelated odours. For instance, the subjects might see a
photo of a duck paired with the scent of a rose, and then be asked to create a
story linking the two. Brain scans taken at the time revealed that the volunteers’
brains were particularly active in a region known as the olfactory cortex, which is
known to be involved in processing smells. Five minutes later, the volunteers
were shown the duck photo again, but without the rose smell. And in their brains,
the olfactory cortex lit up again, the scientists reported recently. The fact that the
olfactory cortex became active in the absence of the odour suggests that people’s
sensory memory of events is spread across different brain regions. Imagine going
on a seaside holiday, says UCL team leader, Jay Gottfried. The sight of the
waves becomes stored in one area, whereas the crash of the surf goes
elsewhere, and the smell of seaweed in yet another place. There could be
advantages to having memories spread around the brain. “You can reawaken that
memory from any one of the sensory triggers,” says Gottfried. ’’Maybe the smell
of the sun lotion, or a particular sound from that day, or the sight of a rock
formation.” Or – in the case of an early hunter and gatherer ( out on a plain – the
sight of a lion might be trigger the urge to flee, rather than having to wait for the
sound of its roar and the stench of its hide to kick in as well.

D Remembered smells may also carry extra emotional baggage, says Herz. Her
research suggests that memories triggered by odours are more emotional than
memories triggered by other cues. In one recent study, Herz recruited five
volunteers who had vivid memories associated with a particular perfume, such as
opium for Women and Juniper Breeze from Bath and Body Works. She took
images of the volunteers’ brains as they sniffed that perfume and an unrelated
perfume without knowing which was which. (They were also shown photos of
each perfume bottle.) Smelling the specified perfume activated the volunteers
brains the most，particularly in the amygdala, and in a region called the
hippocampus，which helps in memory formation. Herz published the work earlier
this year in the journal Neuropsychologia.

E But she couldn’t be sure that the other senses wouldn’t also elicit a strong
response. So in another study Herz compared smells with sounds and pictures.
She had 70 people describe an emotional memory involving three items –
popcorn, fresh-cut grass and a campfire. Then they compared the items through
sights，sounds and smells. For instance, the person might see a picture of a
lawnmower， then sniff the scent of grass and finally listen to the lawnmower’s
sound. Memories triggered by smell were more evocative than memories
triggered by either sights or sounds.

F Odour-evoked memories may be not only more emotional, but more detailed as
well. Working with colleague John Downes，psychologist Simon Chu of the
University of Liverpool started researching odour and memory partly because of
his grandmother’s stories about Chinese culture. As generations gathered to
share oral histories, they would pass a small pot of spice or incense around; later,
when they wanted to remember the story in as much detail as possible, they
would pass the same smell around again. “It’s kind of fits with a lot of anecdotal
evidence on how smells can be really good reminders of past experiences,” Chu
says. And scientific research seems to bear out the anecdotes. In one
experiment, Chu and Downes asked 42 volunteers to tell a life story, then tested
to see whether odours such as coffee and cinnamon could help them remember
more detail in the story. They could.

G Despite such studies, not everyone is convinced that Proust can be

scientifically analysed. In the June issue of Chemical Senses, Chu and Downes
exchanged critiques with renowned perfumer and chemist J. Stephan Jellinek.
Jellinek chided the Liverpool researchers for, among other things, presenting the
smells and asking the volunteers to think of memories, rather than seeing what
memories were spontaneously evoked by the odours. But there’s only so much
science can do to test a phenomenon that’s inherently different for each person,
Chu says. Meanwhile, Jellinek has also been collecting anecdotal accounts of
Proustian experiences, hoping to find some there is a case to be made that
surprise may be a major aspect of the Proust phenomenon,” he says. “That’s why
people are so struck by these memories” No one knows whether Proust ever
experienced such a transcendental moment. But his notions of memory, written
as fiction nearly a century ago, continue to inspire scientists of today.

Questions 14-18

Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-C) with opinions
or deeds below. Write the appropriate letters A- C in boxes for the questions 14-
18 on your answer sheet. NB you may use any letter more than once

A Rachel Herz

B Simon Chu

C Jay Gottfried

14. Found pattern of different sensory memories stored in various zones of a

brain.

15. Smell brings detailed event under a smell of certain substance.

16. Connection of smell and certain zones of brain is different with that of other
senses.

17. Diverse locations of stored information help us keep away the hazard.

18. There is no necessary correlation between smell and processing zone of

brain.

Questions 19-22

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

19. What does the experiment conducted by Herz show?

A Women are more easily addicted to opium medicine

B Smell is superior to other senses in connection to the brain

C Smell is more important than other senses

D Amygdala is part of brain that stores processes memory

20. What does the second experiment conducted by Herz suggest?

A Result directly conflicts with the first one

B Result of her first experiment is correct

C Sights and sounds trigger memories at an equal level

D Lawnmower is a perfect example in the experiment

21. What is the outcome of experiment conducted by Chu and Downes?

A smell is the only functional under Chinese tradition

B half of volunteers told detailed stories

C smells of certain odours assist story tellers

D odours of cinnamon is stronger than that of coffee

22. What is the comment of Jellinek to Chu and Downers in the issue of Chemical
Senses:

A Jellinek accused their experiment of being unscientific

B Jellinek thought Liverpool is not a suitable place for experiment

C Jellinek suggested that there was no further clue of what specific memories
aroused

D Jellinek stated that experiment could be remedied

Questions 23-26

Summary

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage,

using not more than three words from the Reading Passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 23-26 on your answer sheet.

In the experiments conducted by UCL, participants were asked to look at a picture

with a scent of a flower, then in the next stage, everyone would have
to……………………… 23………….. for a connection.

A method called……………… 24…………. suggested that specific area of

brain named……………. 25…………. were quite active. Then in another
paralleled experiment about Chinese elders, storytellers could recall detailed
anecdotes when smelling bowl of…………… 26……………… or incense around.

SECTION 3

Soviet’s new working week

Historian investigates how Stalin changed the calendar to keep the Soviet people
continually at work.

A “There are no fortresses that Bolsheviks cannot storm”. With these words,
Stalin expressed the dynamic self-confidence of the Soviet Union’s Five Year
Plan: weak and backward Russia was to turn overnight into a powerful modem
industrial country. Between 1928 and 1932，production of coal, iron and steel
increased at a fantastic rate, and new industrial cities sprang up, along with the
world’s biggest dam. Everyone’s life was affected, as collectivised farming drove
millions from the land to swell the industrial proletariat. Private enterprise
disappeared in city and country, leaving the State supreme under the dictatorship
of Stalin. Unlimited enthusiasm was the mood of the day, with the Communists
believing that iron will and hard-working manpower alone would bring about a new
world.

B Enthusiasm spread to time itself, in the desire to make the state a huge efficient
machine, where not a moment would be wasted, especially in the workplace.
Lenin had already been intrigued by the ideas of the American Frederick Winslow
Taylor (1856-1915), whose time-motion studies had discovered ways of stream-
lining effort so that every worker could produce the maximum. The Bolsheviks
were also great admirers of Henry Ford’s assembly line mass production and of
his Fordson tractors that were imported by the thousands. The engineers who
came with them to train their users helped spread what became a real cult of
Ford. Emulating and surpassing such capitalist models formed part of the training
of the new Soviet Man, a heroic figure whose unlimited capacity for work would
benefit everyone in the dynamic new society. All this culminated in the Plan,
which has been characterized as the triumph of the machine, where workers
would become supremely efficient robot-like creatures.

C Yet this was Communism whose goals had always included improving the lives
of the proletariat. One major step in that direction was the sudden announcement
in 1927 that reduced the working day from eight to seven hours. In January 1929,
all Indus-tries were ordered to adopt the shorter day by the end of the Plan.
Workers were also to have an extra hour off on the eve of Sundays and holidays.
Typically though, the state took away more than it gave, for this was part of a
scheme to increase production by establishing a three-shift system. This meant
that the factories were open day and night and that many had to work at highly
undesirable hours.

D Hardly had that policy been announced, though, than Yuri Larin, who had been
a close associate of Lenin and architect of his radical economic policy, came up
with an idea for even greater efficiency. Workers were free and plants were
closed on Sundays. Why not abolish that wasted day by instituting a continuous
work week so that the machines could operate to their full capacity every day of
the week? When Larin presented his idea to the Congress of Soviets in May
1929, no one paid much attention. Soon after, though, he got the ear of Stalin,
who approved. Suddenly, in June, the Soviet press was filled with articles praising
the new scheme. In August, the Council of Peoples’ Commissars ordered that the
continuous work week be brought into immediate effect, during the height of
enthusiasm for the Plan, whose goals the new schedule seemed guaranteed to
forward.

E The idea seemed simple enough, but turned out to be very complicated in
practice. Obviously, the workers couldn’t be made to work seven days a week,
nor should their total work hours be increased. The solution was ingenious: a new
five-day week would have the workers on the job for four days, with the fifth day
free; holidays would be reduced from ten to five, and the extra hour off on the eve
of rest days would be abolished. Staggering the rest-days between groups of
workers meant that each worker would spend the same number of hours on the
job, but the factories would be working a full 360 days a year instead of 300. The
360 divided neatly into 72 five-day weeks. Workers in each establishment (at first
factories，then stores and offices) were divided into five groups, each assigned a
colour which appeared on the new Uninterrupted Work Week calendars
distributed all over the country. Colour-coding was a valuable mnemonic device,
since workers might have trouble remembering what their day off was going to be,
for it would change every week. A glance at the colour on the calendar would
reveal the free day, and allow workers to plan their activities. This system,
however, did not apply to construction or seasonal occupations, which followed a
six-day week, or to factories or mines which had to close regularly for
maintenance: they also had a six-day week, whether interrupted (with the same
day off for everyone) or continuous. In all cases, though, Sunday was treated like
any other day.

F Official propaganda touted the material and cultural benefits of the new scheme.
Workers would get more rest; production and employment would increase (for
more workers would be needed to keep the factories running continuously); the
standard of living would improve. Leisure time would be more rationally employed,
for cultural activities (theatre, clubs, sports) would no longer have to be crammed
into a weekend, but could flourish every day, with their facilities far less crowded.
Shopping would be easier for the same reasons. Ignorance and superstition, as
represented by organized religion, would suffer a mortal blow, since 80 per cent of
the workers would be on the job on any given Sunday. The only objection
concerned the family, where normally more than one member was working: well,
the Soviets insisted, the narrow family was far less important than the vast
common good and besides, arrangements could be made for husband and wife to
share a common schedule. In fact, the regime had long wanted to weaken or
sideline the two greatest potential threats to its total dominance: organised
religion and the nuclear family. Religion succumbed, but the family, as even Stalin
finally had to admit, proved much more resistant.

G The continuous work week, hailed as a Utopia where time itself was conquered
and the sluggish Sunday abolished forever, spread like an epidemic. According to
official figures, 63 per cent of industrial workers were so employed by April 1930;
in June, all industry was ordered to convert during the next year. The fad reached
its peak in October when it affected 73 per cent of workers. In fact, many
managers simply claimed that their factories had gone over to the new week,
without actually applying it. Conforming to the demands of the Plan was
important; practical matters could wait. By then, though, problems were becoming
obvious. Most serious (though never officially admitted), the workers hated it.
Coordination of family schedules was virtually impossible and usually ignored, so
husbands and wives only saw each other before or after work; rest days were
empty without any loved ones to share them 一 even friends were likely to be on a
different schedule. Confusion reigned: the new plan was introduced haphazardly,
with some factories operating five-, six- and seven-day weeks at the same time,
and the workers often not getting their rest days at all.

H The Soviet government might have ignored all that (It didn’t depend on public
approval) ，but the new week was far from having the vaunted effect on
production. With the complicated rotation system, the work teams necessarily
found themselves doing different kinds of work in successive weeks. Machines,
no longer consistently in the hands of people who knew how to tend them, were
often poorly maintained or even broken. Workers lost a sense of responsibility for
the special tasks they had normally performed.

I As a result, the new week started to lose ground. Stalin’s speech of June 1931，
which criticised the “depersonalised labor” its too hasty application had brought,
marked the beginning of the end. In November, the government ordered the
widespread adoption of the six-day week, which had its own calendar, with
regular breaks on the 6th, 12th, 18th，24th, and 30th，with Sunday usually as a
working day. By July 1935, only 26 per cent of workers still followed the
continuous schedule, and the six-day week was soon on its way out. Finally, in
1940，as part of the general reversion to more traditional methods, both the
continuous five-day week and the novel six-day week were abandoned, and
Sunday returned as the universal day of rest. A bold but typically ill-conceived
experiment was at an end.
Questions 27-34

Reading Passage 2 has nine paragraphs A-I.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings below.
Write the correct number i-xii in boxes 27-34 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i Benefits of the new scheme and its resistance

ii Making use of the once wasted weekends

iii Cutting work hours for better efficiency

iv Optimism of the great future

v Negative effects on production itself

vi Soviet Union’s five year plan

vii The abolishment of the new work-week scheme

viii The Ford model

ix Reaction from factory workers and their families

x The color-coding scheme

xi Establishing a three-shift system

xii Foreign inspiration

27. Paragraph A

28. Paragraph B

29. Paragraph D

30. Paragraph E

31. Paragraph F

32. Paragraph G

33. Paragraph H

33. Paragraph I

Example Answer

Paragraph C iii

Questions 35-37

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes for questions 35-37 on your answer sheet.

35. According to paragraph A, Soviet’s five year plan was a success because

A Bolsheviks built a strong fortress.

B Russia was weak and backward.

C industrial production increased.

D Stalin was confident about Soviet’s potential.

36. Daily working hours were cut from eight to seven to

A improve the lives of all people.

B boost industrial productivity.

C get rid of undesirable work hours.

D change the already establish three-shift work system.

37. Many factory managers claimed to have complied with the demands of the
new work week because

A they were pressurized by the state to do so.

B they believed there would not be any practical problems.

C they were able to apply it.

D workers hated the new plan.

Questions 38-40

Answer the questions below using NOT MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the
passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes for questions 38-40 on your answer sheet.

38. Whose idea of continuous work week did Stalin approve and helped to
implement?

39. What method was used to help workers to remember the rotation of their off
days?

40. What was the most resistant force to the new work week scheme?

Going Bananas, Computer Provides More Questions, Save Endangered

Language Reading Answers

Prity Mallick
Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Find the practice test with the Going Bananas PDF here.

Going Bananas

Questions 1-3

Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage.

In boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet, write

Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet

1 The banana was first eaten as a fruit by humans ……………………………years

ago.

2 The banana was first planted in………………………….

3 Wild banana’s taste is adversely affected by its……………………………….

Questions 4-10

Look at the following statements (Questions 4-10) and the list of people below
Match each statement with the correct person, A-I.

Write the correct letter: A-I, in boxes 4-10 On your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

4 Pest invasion may seriously damage the banana industry.

5The effect of fungal infection in the soil is often long-lasting.

6 A commercial manufacturer gave up on breeding bananas for disease-resistant

7 The banana disease may develop resistance to chemical sprays.

8 A banana disease has destroyed a large number of banana plantations.

9 Consumers would not accept the genetically altered crop.

10 Lessons can be learned from bananas for other crops.

List of People

A Rodomiro
B David Maclaughlin
C Emile Frison
D Ronald Romero
E Luadir Gasparotto
F Geoff Hawtin

Questions 11-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 1?

In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

11 Banana is the oldest known fruit

12 Gros Michel is still being used as a commercial product

13 Banana is the main food in some countries

Reading Passage 2

Computer Provides More Questions Than Answers

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-33, which are based
on Reading Passage 2 below.
Find the practice test with the Computer Provides More Questions Than
Answers PDF here.

Are you unsure of how to solve the Matching Information questions? Check out
some tips and ways to solve Matching Information type!

Questions 14-18

The reading Passage has ten paragraphs A- J.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-J, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14 The content inside the wrecked ship

15 Ancient astronomers and craftsman might involve

16 The location of the Antikythera Mechanism

17 Details of how it was found

18 Appearance and structure of the mechanism

Questions 19-22

Summary

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage,

using no more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 19-22 on your answer sheet.

An ancient huge sunk _______________ 19______ was found accidentally by

sponges searcher. The ship loaded

with ______ 20______ such as bronze and sculptures. However, an

archaeologist found a junk similar to a_______ 21______ which has Greek script
on it. This inspiring and elaborated device was found to be the
first _______22 _______ in the world.

Questions 23-26
Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-C) with
opinions or deeds below.

Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 23-27 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once

AYanis Bitsakis
BMike Edmunds
CFrancois Charette

23 More complicated than the previous device

24 Anticipate to find more Antikythera Mechanism in the future

25 Antikythera Mechanism was found related to the moon

26 Mechanism assisted ancient people to calculate the movement of stars.

Questions 27-33

The reading passage has eight paragraphs, A-H

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-H from the list below.

Write the correct number, i – xi, in boxes 27-33 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. data consistency needed for language

ii. consensus on an initial recommendation for saving dying out languages
iii. positive gains for protection
iv. the minimum requirement for saving a language
v. The potential threat to minority language
vi. a period when there was an absence of real effort made.
vii. native language programs launched
viii. Lack of confidence in young speakers as a negative factor
ix. Practice in several developing countries
x. Value of minority language to linguists.
xi. government participation in the language field

27 Paragraph A
28 Paragraph B
29 Paragraph C
30 Paragraph D
31 Paragraph E
32 Paragraph F
33 Paragraph G

Example: Paragraph C

Reading Passage 3

Save Endangered Language

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 34-40, which are based
on Reading Passage 3 below.

Find the practice test with the Save Endangered Language PDF here.

Questions 34-38

Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-F) with
opinions or deeds below.

Write the appropriate letters A-F in boxes 34-38 on your answer sheet.

ANicholas Ostler
BMichael Krauss
CJoseph E. Grimes
DSarah G. Thomason
EKeneth L. Hale
FDouglas H. Whalen

34 Reported language conservation practice in Hawaii

35 Predicted that many languages would disappear soon

36 The experienced process that languages die out personally

37 Raised language fund in England

38 Not enough effort on saving until recent work

Questions 39-40

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.

39 What is the real result of a master-apprentice program sponsored by The

Ford Foundation!

A Teach children how to speak

B Revive some endangered languages in California
C postpone the dying date for some endangered languages
D Increase communication between students

40 What should the majority language speakers do according to the last

paragraph?

A They should teach their children endangered language in free lessons

B They should learn at least four languages
C They should show their loyalty to a dying language
D They should be more tolerant of the minority language speaker
<

Answers

Reading Passage 1

1 Ten thousand

2 Southeast Asia

3 Hard seeds/seeds

4 F

5 A
 6 D

7 C

8 E

9 B

10 C

11 NOT GIVEN

12 FALSE

13 TRUE

Computer Games for Preschoolers, The History of pencil, Knowledge in

Medicine – IELTS Reading Answers in 2016
Nehasri Ravishenbagam

Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1 below.

Computer Games for Preschoolers: Nintendo’s Research and Design Process

A. Designing computer games for young children is a daunting task for game
producers, who, for a long time, have concentrated on more “hard core” game
fans. This article chronicles the design process and research involved in creating
Nintendo DS for preschool gamers.
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B. After speaking with our producers who have a keen interest in designing for the
DS, we finally agreed on three key goals for our project. First, to understand the
range of physical and cognitive abilities of preschoolers in the context of handheld
system game play; second, to understand how preschool gamers interact with the
DS, specifically how they control the different forms of play and game mechanics
offered by the games presently on the market for this platform; third, to
understand the expectations of preschoolers, parents concerning the handheld
systems as well as the purchase and play contexts within which game play
occurs. The team of the research decided that in-home ethnographies with
preschoolers and their families would yield comprehensive database with which to
give our producers more information and insights, so we start by conducting 26 in-
home ethnographies in three markets across the United States: an East coast
urban/suburban area, a West coast urban/suburban area, and a Midwest
suburban/rural area.

C. The subjects in this study included 15 girls and 11 boys ranging from 3 years
and 3 months old to 5 years and 11 months old. Also, because previous research
had shown the effects of older siblings on game play (demonstrated, for example,
by more advanced motor coordination when using a computer mouse),
households were employed to have a combination of preschoolers with and
without elder peers. In order to understand both “experienced” and “new”
preschool users of the platform, we divided the sample so that 13 families owned
at least one Nintendo DS and the others did not. For those households that did
not own a DS, one was brought to the interview for the kid to play. This allowed us
to see both the instinctive and intuitive movements of the new players (and of the
more experienced players when playing new games), as well as the learned
movements of the more experienced players. Each of those interviews took about
60 to 120 minutes and included the preschooler, at least one parent, and often
siblings and another caregiver.

D. Three kinds of information were collected after each interview. From any older
siblings and the parents that were available, we gathered data about ： the buying
decisions surrounding game systems in the household, the family’s typical game
play patterns， levels of parental moderation with regard to computer gaming, and
the most favorite games played by family members .We could also understand
the ideology of gaming in these homes because of these in-home interviews：
what types of spaces were used for game play， how the systems were installed,
where the handheld play occurred in the house (as well as on-the-go play), and
the number and type of games and game systems owned. The most important is,
we gathered the game-playing information for every single kid.

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E. Before carrying out the interviews, the research team had closely discussed
with the in-house game producers to create a list of game mechanics and
problems tied to preschoolers* motor and cognitive capabilities that were critical
for them to understand prior to writing the games. These ranged from general
dexterity issues related to game controllers to the effectiveness of in-game
instructions to specific mechanics in current games that the producers were
interested in implementing for future preschool titles. During the interviews, the
moderator gave specific guidance to the preschooler through a series of games,
so that he or she could observe the interaction and probe both the preschooler
and his or her parents on feelings, attitudes, and frustrations that arose in the
different circumstances

F. If the subject in the experiment had previous exposure to the DS system, he or

she was first asked to play his or her favorite game on that machine. This gave
the researchers information about current of gaming skill related to the complexity
of the chosen one, allowing them to see the child playing a game with mechanics
he or she was already familiar with. Across the 26 preschoolers, the Nintendo DS
selections scope were very broad，including New Super Mario Bros, Sonic Rush.
Nintendo, and Tony Hawk’s Proving Ground. The interviewer observed the child
play，noting preferences for game mechanics and motor interactions with the
device as well as the complexity level each game mechanic was for the tested
subject The researchers asked all of the preschoolers to play with a specific game
in consultation with our producers, The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea
Adventure. The game was chosen for two major reasons. First, it was one of the
few games on the market with characters that appeal to this young age group.
Second, it incorporated a large variety of mechanics that highlighted the
uniqueness of the DS platform, including using the microphone for blowing or
singing.
G. The findings from this initial experiment were extensive. After reviewing the
outcomes and discussing the implications for the game design with our internal
game production team, we then outlined the designing needs and presented the
findings to a firm specialising in game design. We worked closely with those
experts to set the game design for the two preschool-targeted DS games under
development on what we had gathered.

H. As the two DS games went into the development process, a formative research
course of action was set up. Whenever we developed new game mechanics, we
brought preschoolers into our in-house utility lab to test the mechanics and to
evaluate both their simplicity, and whether they were engaging. We tested either
alpha or beta versions of different elements of the game, in addition to looking at
overarching game structure. Once a full version of the DS game was ready, we
went back into the field test with a dozen preschoolers and their parents to make
sure that each of the game elements worked for the children, and that the overall
objective of the game was understandable and the process was enjoyable for
players. We also collected parents’ feedback on whether they thought the game is
appropriate, engaging, and worth the purchase.

Questions 1-5

Complete the sentences below.Choose ONE WORD ONLYfrom the passage for
each answer. Write your answers in

boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet

Exploratory Research Project

Main Objectives:

Determine the relevant 1_________________ in the context

Observe how preschoolers manage playing

Investigate attitudes of 2______________________________ towards games

Subjects:

26 children from different US 3____________________

Age range: 3 years and 3 months to 5_years and 11 months

Some children have older 4__________________ in the house as playing peers.

Equal number of new and 5___________________________ players

Some households have Nintendo DS and some don’t

Length of Interview:

1-2 hours

Questions 6-9

Do following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage 1In
boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information

FALSE if the statement contradicts the information

NOT GIVEN if there is no information a on this

6 One area of research is how far mothers and fathers controlled children’s
playing after school.

7 Some researchers are allowed an access to the subjects’ houses.

8 The researchers regarded The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure as

likely appeal to preschoolers.

9 The Little Mermaid: Ariel’s Undersea Adventure is entirely designed for

preschool children.

Questions 10-13

Complete the flow-chart below.Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the
passage for each answer Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer
sheet.

Using the Results of the Study

Presentation of design requirements to a specialist 10_________

Testing the mechanics of two new games in the Nintendo lab
(assess 11 _________ and interest)

A field test in 12__________________ trailed by twelve children

Collection of 13__________________ from parents

Reading Passage 2

The History of pencil

A. The beginning of the story of pencils started with a lightning. Graphite, the
main material for producing pencil, was discovered in 1564 in Boirowdale in
England when a lightning struck a local tree during a thunder. Local people found
out that the black substance spotted at the root of the unlucky tree was different
from burning ash of wood. It was soft, thus left marks everywhere. Chemistry was
barely out of its infancy at the time, so people mistook it for lead, equally black but
much heavier. It was soon put to use by locals in marking their sheep for signs of
ownership and calculation.

B. Britain turns out to be the major country where mines of graphite can be
detected and developed. Even so, the first pencil was invented elsewhere. As
graphite is soft, it requires some form of encasement. In Italy, graphite sticks were
initially wrapped in string or sheepskin for stability, becoming perhaps the very
first pencil in the world. Then around 1560, an Italian couple made what are likely
the first blueprints for the modem, wood-encased carpentry pencil. Their version
was a flat, oval, more compact type of pencil. Their concept involved the
hollowing out of a stick of juniper wood. Shortly thereafter in 1662，a superior
technique was discovered by German people: two wooden halves were carved, a
graphite stick inserted, and the halves then glued together – essentially the same
method in use to this day. The news of usefulness of these early pencils spread
far and wide, attracting the attention of artists all over the known world.

C. Although graphite core in pencils is still referred to as lead, modem pencils do

not contain lead as the “lead “of the’ pencil is actually a mix of finely ground
graphite and clay powders. This mixture is important because the amount of clay
content added to the graphite depends on intended pencil hardness, and the
amount of time spent on grinding the mixture determines the quality of the lead.
The more clay you put in, the higher hardness the core has. Many pencils across
the world, and almost all in Europe, are graded on the European system. This
system of naming used B for black and H for hard; a pencil’s grade was described
by a sequence or successive Hs or Bs such as BB and BBB for successively
softer leads, and HH and HHH for successively harder ones. Then the standard
writing pencil is graded HB.

D. In England, pencils continued to be made from whole sawn graphite. But with
the mass production of pencils, they are getting drastically more popular in many
countries with each passing decade. As demands rise, appetite for graphite soars.
According to the United States Geological Survey (USGS), world production of
natural graphite in 2012 was 1,100,000 tonnes, of which the following major
exporters are: China, India, Brazil, North Korea and Canada.

When the value of graphite was realised, the mines were taken over by the
government and guarded. One of its chief uses during the reign of Elizabeth I in
the second half of the 16th century was as moulds for the manufacture of camion
balls. Graphite was transported from Keswick to London in armed stagecoaches.
In 1751 an Act of Parliament was passed making it an offence to steal or receive
“wad”. This crime was punishable by hard labour or transportation.

E. That the United States did not use pencils in the outer space till they spent
$1000 to make a pencil to use in zero gravity conditions is in fact a fiction. It is
widely known that astronauts in Russia used grease pencils, which don’t have
breakage problems. But it is also a fact that their counterparts in the United States
used pencils in the outer space before real zero gravity pencil was invented .They
preferred mechanical pencils, which produced fine lines, much clearer than the
smudgy lines left by the grease pencils that Russians favoured. But the lead tips
of these mechanical pencils broke often. That bit of graphite floating around the
space capsule could get into someone’s eye, or even find its way into machinery
or electronics short or other problems. But despite the fact that the Americans did
invent zero gravity pencil later, they stuck to mechanical pencils for many years.

F. Against the backcloth of a digitalized world, the prospect of pencils seems

bleak. In reality, it does not. The application of pencils has by now become so
widespread that they can be seen everywhere, such as classrooms, meeting
rooms and art rooms, etc. A spectrum of users are likely to continue to use it into
the future: students to do math works, artists to draw on sketch pads, waiters or
waitresses to mark on order boards, make-up professionals to apply to faces, and
architects to produce blue prints. The possibilities seem limitless
Questions 14-19

Complete the sentences below.Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for
each answer,

Write your answers in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet

Graphite was found under a 14 __________ in Borrowdale

Ancient people used graphite to sign possession and number of 15 __________ .

The first pencil was graphite wrapped in 16 __________ or animal skin.

In the eighteenth century, the 17__________ value of graphite was realized.

During the reign of Elizabeth I, people were condemnable if they 18 __________

or receive the “wad”.

Russian astronauts preferred 19 __________ pencils to write in the outer space.

Questions 20-26

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Rending Passage
2? In boxes20-26 on your answer sheet write
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

20 Italy is probably the first country of the whole world to make pencils.

21 Germany used various kinds of wood to make pencils.

22 Graphite makes a pencil harder and sharper.

23 Pencils are not produced any more since the reign of Elizabeth

24 Pencil was used during the first American space expedition. ‘

25 American astronauts did not replace mechanical pencils immediately after the
zero gravity pencils were invented.

26 Pencils are unlikely to be used in the fixture.

Reading Passage 3

Knowledge in Medicine

A. What counts as knowledge? What do we mean when we say that we know

something? What is the status of different kinds of knowledge? In order to explore
these questions we are going to focus on one particular area of knowledge——
medicine.

B. How do you know when you are ill? This may seem to be an absurd question.
You know you are ill because you feel ill; your body tells you that you are ill. You
may know that you feel pain | or discomfort but knowing you are ill is a bit more
complex. At times, people experience the symptoms of illness, but in fact they are
simply tired or over-worked or they may just have a ‘ hangover. At other times,
people may be suffering from a disease and fail to be aware of the illness until it
has reached a late stage in its development. So how do we know we are ill, and
what counts as knowledge?

C. Think about this example. You feel unwell. You have a bad cough and always
seem to be tired. Perhaps it could be stress at work, or maybe you should give up
smoking. You feel worse. You visit the doctor who listens to your chest and heart,
takes your temperature and blood pressure, and then finally prescribes antibiotics
for your cough.

D. Things do not improve but you struggle on thinking you should pull yourself
together, perhaps things will ease off at work soon. A return visit to your doctor
shocks you. This time the doctor, drawing on years of training and experience,
diagnoses pneumonia. This means that you will need bed rest and a considerable
time off work. The scenario is transformed. Although you still have the same
symptoms, you no longer think that these are caused by pressure at work. You
now have proof that you are ill. This is the result of the combination of your own
subjective experience and the diagnosis of someone who has the status of a
medical expert. You have a medically authenticated diagnosis and it appears that
you are seriously ill; you know you are ill and have evidence upon which to base
this knowledge.

E. This scenario shows many different sources of knowledge. For example, you
decide to consult the doctor in the first place because you feel unwell—this is
personal knowledge about your own body. However, the doctor’s expert diagnosis
is based on experience and training, with sources of knowledge as diverse as
other experts, laboratory reports, medical textbooks and years of experience.

F. One source of knowledge is the experience of our own bodies; the personal
knowledge we have of changes that might be significant, as well as the subjective
experience of pain and physical distress. These experiences are mediated by
other forms of knowledge such as the words we have available to describe our
experience and the common sense of our families and friends as well as that
drawn from popular culture. Over the past decade, for example, Western culture
has seen a significant emphasis on stress-related illness in the media. Reference
to being Stressed out7 has become a common response in daily exchanges in the
workplace and has become part of popular common-sense knowledge. It is thus
not surprising that we might seek such an explanation of physical symptoms of
discomfort.

G. We might also rely on the observations of others who know us. Comments
from friends and family such as 7you do look ill7 or ‘that’s a bad cough7 might be
another source of knowledge. Complementary health practices, such as holistic
medicine, produce their own sets of knowledge upon which we might also draw in
deciding the nature and degree of our ill health and about possible treatments.

H. Perhaps the most influential and authoritative source of knowledge is the

medical knowledge provided by the general practitioner. We expect the doctor to
have access to expert knowledge. This is socially sanctioned. It would not be
acceptable to notify our employer that we simply felt too unwell to turn up for work
or that our faith healer, astrologer, therapist or even our priest thought it was not a
good idea. We need an expert medical diagnosis in order to obtain the necessary
certificate if we need to be off work for more than the statutory self-certification
period. The knowledge of the medical sciences is privileged in this respect in
contemporary Western culture. Medical practitioners are also seen as having the
required expert knowledge that permits them legally to prescribe drugs and
treatment to which patients would not otherwise have access. However there is a
range of different knowledge upon which we draw when making decisions about
our own state of health.

I. However, there is more than existing knowledge in this little story; new
knowledge is constructed within it. Given the doctor7s medical training and
background, she may hypothesize ‘is this now pneumonia? and then proceed to
look for evidence about it. She will use observations and instruments to assess
the evidence and—critically interpret it in the light of her training and experience.
This results in new knowledge and new experience both for you and for the
doctor. This will then be added to the doctor’s medical knowledge and may help in
future diagnosis of pneumonia.

Questions 27-32

Complete the table.Choose no more than three words from the passage for each
answer. Write your answers in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet

Source of
Examples
knowledge

Symptoms of a (27)……………………… and tiredness

Personal Doctor’s measurement by taking (28)………………….. and

experience temperature

Common judgment from (29)……………………… around you

Medical knowledge from the general (30)………………………

Scientific e.g. doctor’s medical(31)………………………………
evidence Examine the medical hypothesis with the previous drill and(32)
……………………………..

Question 33-40

The reading Passage has nine paragraphs A-IWhich paragraph contains the
following information?

Write the correct letter A-I, in boxes 33-40 on your answer sheet.

33 the contrast between the nature of personal judgment and the nature of
doctor’s diagnosis

34 a reference of culture about pressure

35 sick leave will not be permitted without the professional diagnosis

36 how doctors, opinions are regarded in the society

37 the illness of patients can become part of new knowledge

38 a description of knowledge drawn from non-specialized sources other than

personal knowledge

39 an example of collective judgment from personal experience and professional

doctor

40 a reference that some people do not realize they are ill

Pollution In The Bay, Can Scientists Tell Us: What Happiness Is?, The Gap

Of Ingenuity 2 – IELTS Reading Answers In 2016

SECTION 1

Pollution in the Bay

A Pouring water into the sea sounds harmless enough. But in Florida Bay, a
large and shallow section between the southern end of the Everglades and
Florida Keys, it is proving highly controversial. That is because researchers are
divided over whether it will help or hinder the plants and animals that live in the
bay.

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B What is at risk, is the future of the bay’s extensive beds of sea grasses. These
grow on the bay’s muddy floor and act as nurseries for the larvae of shrimps,
lobsters and fish—many of them important sport and commercial-fishing species.
Also in danger, is an impressive range of coral reefs that run the length of the
Florida Keys and form the third-largest barrier reef in the world. Since the 1980s,
coral cover has dropped by 40%, and a third of the coral species have gone. This
has had a damaging effect on the animals that depend on the reef, such as crabs,
turtles and nearly 600 species of fish.

C What is causing such ecological change is a matter of much debate. And the
answer is of no small consequence. This is because the American government is
planning to devote $8 billion over the next 30 years to revitalising the Everglades.
Seasonal freshwater flows into the Everglades are to be restored in order to
improve the region’s health. But they will then run off into the bay.

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D Joseph Zienam, a marine ecologist at the University of Virginia, thinks this is a

good idea. He believes that a lack of freshwater in the bay is its main problem.
The blame, he says, lies with a century of drainage in the Everglades aimed at
turning the marshes into farmland and areas for development. This has caused
the flow of freshwater into Florida Bay to dwindle, making the water in the bay,
overall, more saline. This, he argues, kills the sea grasses, and as these rot,
nutrients are released that feed the microscopic plants and animals that live in the
water. This, he says, is why the bay’s once crystal- clear waters often resemble a
pea soup. And in a vicious circle, these turbid blooms block out sunlight, causing
more sea grasses to die and yet more turbidity.

E Brian Lapointe, a marine scientist at the Harbour Branch Oceanographic

Institution at Fort Pierce in Florida, disagrees. He thinks sea grasses can tolerate
much higher levels of salinity than the bay actually displays. Furthermore, he
notes that, when freshwater flows through the Everglades were increased
experimentally in the 1990s, it led to massive plankton blooms. Freshwater
running off from well-fertilised farmlands, he says, caused a fivefold rise in
nitrogen levels in the bay. This was like pouring fuel on a fire. The result was
mass mortality of sea grasses because of increased turbidity from the plankton.
Dr. Lapointe adds that, because corals thrive only in waters where nutrient levels
are low, restoring freshwater rich in nitrogen will do more damage to the reef.

F It is a plausible theory. The water flowing off crops that are grown on the
750,000 acres of heavily fertilised farmland on the northern edge of the
Everglades is rich in nitrogen, half of which ends up in the bay. But Bill
Kruczynski, of America’s Environmental Protection Agency, is convinced that
nitrogen from farmlands is not the chief problem. Some coral reefs well away from
any nitrogen pollution are dying and, curiously, a few are thriving. Dr Kuczynski
thinks that increased nutrients arriving from local sewage discharges from the
thousands of cesspits along the Florida Keys are part of the problem.

G Such claims and counterclaims make the impact of the restoration plan difficult
to predict. If increased salinity is the main problem, the bay’s ecology will benefit
from the Everglades restoration project If, however, nitrogen is the problem,
increasing the flow of freshwater could make matters much worse.

H If this second hypothesis proves correct, the cure is to remove nitrogen from
farmland or sewage discharges, or perhaps both, Neither will be easy. Man-made
wetlands, at present being built to reduce phosphate run off into the bay- also
from fertilisers -would need an algal culture (a sort of contained algal bloom)
added to them to deal with discharges from farmlands. That would be costly. So
too would be the replacement of cesspits with proper sewerage-one estimate puts
the cost at $650m. Either way, it is clear that when, on December 1st, 3,000
square miles of sea around the reef are designated as a “protective zone” by the
deputy secretary of commerce, Sam Bodman, this will do nothing to protect the
reef from pollution.

I Some argue, though, that there is a more fundamental flaw in the plans for the
bay: the very idea of returning it to a utopian ideal before man wrought his
damage. Nobody knows what Florida Bay was like before the 1950s, when
engineers cut the largest canals in the Everglades and took most of the water
away. Dr Kruczynski suspects it was more like an estuary. The bay that many
people wish to re-create could have been nothing more than a changing phase in
the bay’s history.

J These arguments do not merely threaten to create ecological problems but

economic ones as well. The economy of the Florida Keys depends on tourism-the
local tourist industry has an annual turnover of $2.5 billion. People come for
fishing-boat trips, for manatee watching, or for scuba diving and snorkeling to
view the exotically coloured corals. If the plan to restore the Everglades makes
problems in the bay and the reef worse, it could prove a very expensive mistake.

Questions 1-4

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-J.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter in boxes 1 -4 on your answer sheet

1 See grass turned to be more resistant to the saline water level in the Bay.

2Signigicance of finding a specific reason in

3Expensive proposals raised to solve the nitrogen dilemma

4 A statistic of ecological changes in both the coral area and species

Questions 5-8

Use the infomation in the passage to match the people (listed A-C) with opinions
or deeds below. Write the appropriate letters A-C in boxes 5-8 on your answer
sheet.

ABillKruczynsk
i
BBrian
Lapointe
CJoseph
Zieman,

5 Drainage system in everglades actually results in high salty water in the bay.

6 Restoring water high in nitrogen level will make more ecological side effect

7 High nitrogen levels may be caused by the nearby farmland.

8 Released sewage rather than nutrients from agricultural area increases the level
of Nitrogen.

Questions 9-13

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
2 In boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT if the information is not given in the

 GIVEN passage

9 Everyone agree with ‘’pouring water into sea is harmless enough” even in
Florida Bay area.

10 Nitrogen was poured in from different types of crops as water flows through.

11 Everglades restoration project can be effective regardless the cause of the

pollution.

12 Human has changed Florida Bay where old image before 1950s is unrecalled

13 Tourism contributes fundamentally to economy of the Florida Bay area.

SECTION 2

Can Scientists tell us:

What happiness is?

A Economists accept that if people describe themselves as happy, then they are
happy. However, psychologists differentiate between levels of happiness. The
most immediate type involves a feeling; pleasure or joy. But sometimes happiness
is a judgment that life is satisfying, and does not imply an emotional state.
Esteemed psychologist Martin Seligman has spearheaded an effort to study the
science of happiness. The bad news is that we’re not wired to be happy. The
good news is that we can do something about it. Since its origins in a Leipzig
laboratory 130 years ago, psychology has had little to say about goodness and
contentment. Mostly psychologists have concerned themselves with weakness
and misery. There are libraries full of theories about why we get sad, worried, and
angry. It hasn’t been respectable science to study what happens when lives go
well. Positive experiences, such as joy, kindness, altruism and heroism, have
mainly been ignored. For every 100 psychology papers dealing with anxiety or
depression, only one concerns a positive trait.

B A few pioneers in experimental psychology bucked the trend. Professor Alice

Isen of Cornell University and colleagues have demonstrated how positive
emotions make people think faster and more creatively. Showing how easy it is to
give people an intellectual boost, Isen divided doctors making a tricky diagnosis
into three groups: one received candy, one read humanistic statements about
medicine, one was a control group. The doctors who had candy displayed the
most creative thinking and worked more efficiently. Inspired by Isen and others,
Seligman got stuck in. He raised millions of dollars of research money and funded
50 research groups involving 150 scientists across the world. Four positive
psychology centres opened, decorated in cheerful colours and furnished with
sofas and baby-sitters. There were get-togethers on Mexican beaches where
psychologists would snorkel and eat fajitas, then form “pods” to discuss subjects
such as wonder and awe. A thousand therapists were coached in the new
science.

C But critics are demanding answers to big questions. What is the point of
defining levels of haziness and classifying the virtues? Aren’t these concepts
vague and impossible to pin down? Can you justify spending funds to research
positive states when there are problems such as famine, flood and epidemic
depression to be solved? Seligman knows his work can be belittled alongside trite
notions such as “the power of positive thinking”. His plan to stop the new science
floating “on the waves of self- improvement fashion” is to make sure it is anchored
to positive philosophy above, and to positive biology below.

D And this takes us back to our evolutionary past Homo sapiens evolved during
the Pleistocene era (1.8 m to 10,000 years ago)，a time of hardship and turmoil.
It was the Ice Age, and our ancestors endured long freezes as glaciers formed,
then ferocious floods as the ice masses melted. We shared the planet with
terrifying creatures such as marnmoths, elephant-sized ground sloths and sabre-
toothed cats. But by the end of the Pleistocene, all these animals were extinct.
Humans, on the other hand, had evolved large brains and used their intelligence
to make fire and sophisticated tools, to develop talk and social rituals. Survival in
a time of adversity forged our brains into a persistent mould. Professor Seligman
says: “Because our brain evolved during a time of ice, flood and famine, we have
a catastrophic brain. The way the brain works is looking for what’s wrong. The
problem is, that worked in the Pleistocene era. It favoured you, but it doesn’t work
in the modem world”.

E Although most people rate themselves as happy, there is a wealth of evidence

to show that negative thinking is deeply ingrained in the human psycho.
Experiments show that we remember failures more vividly than success. We dwell
on what went badly, not what went well. Of the six universal emotions, four anger,
fear, disgust and sadness are negative and only one, joy, is positive. (The sixth,
surprise, is neutral). According to the psychologist Daniel Nettle, author of
Happiness, and one of the Royal Institution lectures, the negative emotion each
tell us “something bad has happened” and suggest a different course of action.

F What is it about the structure of the brain that underlies our bias towards
negative thinking? And is there a biology of joy? At Iowa University, neuroscientist
studied what happens when people are shown pleasant and unpleasant pictures.
When subjects see landscapes or dolphins playing, part of the frontal lobe of the
brain becomes active. But when they are shown unpleasant images a bird
covered in oil, or a dead soldier with part of his face missing the response comes
from more primitive parts of the brain. The ability to feel negative emotions
derives from an ancient danger-recognition system formed early in the brain’s
evolution. The pre-frontal cortex, which registers happiness, is the part used for
higher thinking, an area that evolved later in human history.

G Our difficulty, according to Daniel Nettle, is that the brain systems for liking and
wanting are separate. Wanting involves two ancient regions the amygdala and the
nucleus accumbens that communicate using the chemical dopamine to form the
brain’s reward system. They are involved in anticipating the pleasure of eating
and in addiction to drugs. A rat will press a bar repeatedly， ignoring sexually
available partners, to receive electrical stimulation of the “wanting” parts of the
brain. But having received brain stimulation, the rat eats more but shows no sign
of enjoying the food it craved. In humans, a drug like nicotine produces much
craving but little pleasure.

H In essence, what the biology lesson tells us is that negative emotions are
fundamental to the human condition and it’s no wonder they are difficult to
eradicate. At the same time, by a trick of nature, our brains are designed to crave
but never really achieve lasting happiness.

Questions 14-20

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-H, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

14 An experiment involving dividing several groups one of which received positive

icon
15 Review of a poorly researched psychology area

16 Contrast being made about the brains’ action as response to positive or

negative stimulus

17 The skeptical attitude toward the research seemed to be a waste of fund

18 a substance that produces much wanting instead of much liking

19a conclusion that lasting happiness are hardly obtained because of the nature
of brains

20 One description that listed the human emotional categories.

Questions 21-25

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading

Passage，using no more than four words from the Reading Passage for each
answer. Write your answers in boxes 21-25 on your answer sheet.

A few pioneers in experimental psychology study what happens when lives go

well. Professor Alice divided doctors, making a tricky experiment, into three
groups: beside the one control group, the other two either are asked to read
humanistic statements about drugs, or received 21………………………The latter
displayed the most creative thinking and worked more efficiently. Since critics are
questioning the significance of the 22……………………… for both levels of
happiness and classification for the virtues. Professor Seligman countered in an
evolutional theory: survival in a time of adversity forged our brains into the way of
thinking for what’s wrong because we have a 23…………………………………….

There is bountiful of evidence to show that negative thinking is deeply built in the
human psyche. Later, at Iowa University, neuroscientists studied the active parts
in brains to contrast when people are shown pleasant and unpleasant pictures.
When positive images like 24………………………………..are shown, part of the
frontal lobe of the brain becomes active. But when they are shown unpleasant
image, the response comes from 25 ……………………………… of the brain.

Questions 26

Choose the correct letter, A，B，C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 26 on your answer sheet.

26 according to Daniel Nettle in the last two paragraphs, what is true as the
scientists can tell us about happiness

A Brain systems always mix liking and wanting together.

B Negative emotions can be easily rid of if we think positively.
C Happiness is like nicotine we are craving for but get little pleasure.
D The inner mechanism of human brains does not assist us to achieve durable
happiness

SECTION 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40 which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

THE GAP of INGENUITY 2

A Ingenuity, as I define it here, consists not only of ideas for new technologies like
computer or drought-resistant crops but, more fundamentally, of ideas for better
institutions and social arrangements, like efficient markets and competent
governments.

B How much and what kinds of ingenuity a society requires depends on a range
of factors, including the society’s goals and the circumstances within which it must
achieve those goals – – whether it has a young population or an aging one, an
abundance of natural resources or a scarcity of them, an easy climate or a
punishing one, whatever the case may be.

C How much and what kinds of ingenuity a society supplies also depends on
many factors, such as the nature of human inventiveness and understanding, the
rewards an economy gives to the producers of useful knowledge, and the strength
of political opposition to social and institutional reforms.

D A good supply of the right kind of ingenuity is essential, but it isn’t, of course,
enough by itself. We know that the creation of wealth, for example, depends not
only on an adequate supply of useful ideas but also on the availability of other,
more conventional factors of production, like capital and labor. Similarly,
prosperity, stability and justice usually depend on the resolution, or at least the
containment, of major political struggles over wealth and power. Yet within our
economies ingenuity often supplants labor, and growth in the stock of physical
plant is usually accompanied by growth in the stock of ingenuity. And in our
political systems, we need great ingenuity to set up institutions that successfully
manage struggles over wealth and power. Clearly, our economic and -political
processes are intimately entangled with the production and use of ingenuity.

E The past century’s countless incremental changes in our societies around the
planet, in our technologies and our interactions with our surrounding natural
environments have accumulated to create a qualitatively new world. Because
these changes have accumulated slowly, it’s often hard for us to recognize how
profound and sweeping they’re. They include far larger and denser populations;
much higher per capita consumption of natural resources; and far better and more
widely available technologies for the movement of people, materials, and
especially information.

F In combination, these changes have sharply increased the density, intensity,

and pace of our inter actions with each other; they have greatly increased the
burden we place on our natural environment; and they have helped shift power
from national and international institutions to individuals and subgroups, such as
political special interests and ethnic factions.

G As a result, people in all walks of life—from our political and business leaders to
all of us in our day-to-day— —must cope with much more complex, urgent, and
often unpredictable circumstances. The management of our relationship with this
new world requires immense and ever-increasing amounts of social and technical
ingenuity. As we strive to maintain or increase our prosperity and improve the
quality of our lives, we must make far more sophisticated decisions, and in less
time, than ever before.

H When we enhance the performance of any system, from our cars to the planers
network of financial institutions, we tend to make it more complex. Many of the
natural systems critical to our well-being, like the global climate and the oceans,
are extraordinarily complex to begin with. We often can’t predict or manage the
behavior of complex systems with much precision, because they are often very
sensitive to the smallest of changes and perturbations, and their behavior can flip
from one mode to another suddenly and dramatically. In general, as the human-
made and natural systems we depend upon become more complex, and as our
demands on them increase, the institutions and technologies we use to manage
them must become more complex too, which further boosts our need for
ingenuity.
I The good news, though, is that the last century’s stunning changes in our
societies and technologies have not just increased our need for ingenuity; they
have also produced a huge increase in its supply. The growth and urbanization of
human populations have combined with astonishing new communication and
transportation technologies to expand interactions among people and produce
larger, more integrated, and more efficient markets. These changes have, in turn,
vastly accelerated the generation and delivery of useful ideas.

J But—and this is the critical “but” we should not jump to the conclusion that the
supply of ingenuity always Increases in lockstep with our ingenuity requirement:
while it’s true that necessity is often the mother of invention, we can’t always rely
on the right kind of ingenuity appearing when and where we need it. In many
cases, the complexity and speed of operation of today’s vital economic, social,
arid ecological systems exceed the human brain s grasp. Very few of us have
more than a rudimentary understanding of how these systems work. They remain
fraught with countless “unknown unknowns, which makes it hard to supply the
ingenuity we need to solve problems associated with these systems.

K In this book, explore a wide range of other factors that will limit our ability to
supply the ingenuity required in the coming century. For example, many people
believe that new communication technologies strengthen democracy and will
make it easier to find solutions to our societies, collective problems, but the story
is less clear than it seems. The crush of information in our everyday lives is
shortening our attention span, limiting the time we have to reflect on critical
matters of public policy, and making policy arguments more superficial.

L Modem markets and science are an important part of the story of how we
supply ingenuity. Markets are critically important, because they give
entrepreneurs an incentive to produce knowledge. As for science, although it
seems to face no theoretical limits, at least in the foreseeable future, practical
constraints often slow its progress. The cost of scientific research tends to
increase as it delves deeper into nature. And science’s rate of advance depends
on the characteristic of the natural phenomena it investigates, simply because
some phenomena are intrinsically harder to understand than others, so the
production of useful new knowledge in these areas can be very slow.
Consequently, there is often a critical time lag between the recognition between a
problem and the delivery of sufficient ingenuity,, in the form of technologies, to
solve that problem. Progress in the social sciences is especially slow, for reasons
we don’t yet understand; but we desperately need better social scientific
knowledge to build the sophisticated institutions today’s world demands
Questions 27-30

Complete each sentence with the appropriate answer, A, B，C，or D.

Write the correct answer in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

27 Definition of ingenuity

28 The requirement for ingenuity

29 The creation of social wealth

30 The stability of society

A depends on many factors including climate.

B depends on the management and solution of disputes.
C is not only of technological advance, but more of institutional renovation.
D also depends on the availability of some traditional resources.
Questions 31-33

Choose the correct letter, A，B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 31-33 on your answer sheet.

31 What does the author say about the incremental change of the last 100 years?

A It has become a hot scholastic discussion among environmentalists.

B Its significance is often not noticed.
C It has reshaped the natural environments we live in.
D It benefited a much larger population than ever.

32 The combination of changes has made life:

A easier
B faster
C slower
D less sophisticated

33 What does the author say about the natural systems?

A New technologies are being developed to predict change with precision.

B Natural systems are often more sophisticated than other systems.
C Minor alterations may cause natural systems to change dramatically.
D Technological developments have rendered human being more independent of
natural systems.
Questions 34-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
3?

In boxes 34 -40 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement is true

NO if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

34 The demand for ingenuity has been growing during the past 100 years.

35 The ingenuity we have may be inappropriate for solving problems at hand

36 There are very few who can understand the complex systems of the present
world

37 ore information will help us to make better decisions

38 The next generation will blame the current government for their conduct

39 Science tends to develop faster in certain areas than others

40Social science develops especially slowly because it is not as important as

natural science

Eco-Resort Management Practices, TV Addiction 1, Music : Language We all

Speak- Reading Answers in 2016

Nehasri Ravishenbagam
35 min read

Updated On Sep 13, 2023

Reading Passage 1

Eco-Resort Management Practices

A. Ecotourism is often regarded as a form of nature-based tourism and has

become an important alternative source of tourists. In addition to providing the
traditional resort-leisure product, it has been argued that ecotourism resort
management should have a particular focus on best-practice environmental
management, and educational and interpretive components, and direct and
indirect contributions to the conservation of the natural and cultural environment
(Ayala, 1996).

B. Couran Cove Island Resort is a large integrated ecotourism-based resort

located south of Brisbane on the Gold Coast, Queensland, and Australia. As the
world’s population becomes increasingly urbanized, the demand for tourist
attractions which are environmentally friendly, serene and offer amenities of a
unique nature, has grown rapidly. Couran Cove Resort, which is one such tourist
attractions, is located on South Stradbroke Island, occupying approximately 150
hectares of the island. South Stradbroke Island is separated from the mainland by
the Broadwater, a stretch of sea 3 kilometres wide. More than a century ago,
there was only one Stradbroke Island, and there were at least four aboriginal
tribes living and hunting on the island. Regrettably, most of the original island
dwellers were eventually killed by diseases such as tuberculosis, smallpox, and
influenza by the end of the 19th century. The second shipwreck on the island in
1894, and the subsequent destruction of the ship (the Cambus Wallace) because
it contained dynamite, caused a large crater in the sandhills on Stradbroke Island.
Eventually, the ocean broke through the weakened landform and Stradbroke
became two islands. Couran Cove Island Resort is built on one of the world’s few
naturally-occurring sand lands, which is home to a wide range of plant
communities and one of the largest remaining remnants of the rare Livistona
Rainforest left on the Gold Coast. Many mangrove and rainforest areas and
Melaleuca Wetlands on South Stradbroke Island (and in Queensland) have been
cleared, drained or filled for residential, industrial, agricultural or urban
development in the first half of the 20th century. Farmers and graziers finally
abandoned South Stradbroke Island in 1939 because the vegetation and the soil
conditions there were not suitable for agricultural activities.

Sustainable practices of courant cove resort

C. Being located on an offshore island, the resort is only accessible by means of

water transportation. The resort provides hourly ferry service from the marina on
the mainland to and from the island. Within the resort, transport modes include
walking trails, bicycle tracks, and the beach train.
The reception area is the counter of the shop which has not changed in 8 years at
least. The accommodation is an octagonal “Bure”. These are large rooms that are
clean but! The equipment is tired and in some cases just working. Our ceiling fan
only worked on high speed for example. Beds are hard but clean, there are
television, radio, an old air conditioner and a small fridge. These “Bures” are right
on top of each other and night noises do carry so be careful what you say and do.
The only thing is the mosquitos but if you forget to bring mosquito repellant they
sell some on the island.
As an ecotourism-based resort, most of the planning and development of the
attraction has been concentrated on the need to co-exist with the fragile natural
environment of South Stradbroke Island to achieve sustainable development.

Water and energy management

D. South Stradbroke Island has groundwater at the centre of the island, which has
a maximum height of 3 meters above sea level. The water supply is recharged by
rainfall and is commonly known as an unconfined freshwater aquifer ( StK/1-).
Couran Cove Island Resort obtains its water supply by tapping into this aquifer
and extracting it via a bore system. Some of the problems which have threatened
the island’s freshwater supply include pollution, contamination, and over-
consumption. In order to minimize some of these problems, all laundry activities
are carried out on the mainland. The resort considers washing machines as
onerous to the island’s freshwater supply, and that the detergents contain a high
level of phosphates which are a major source of water pollution. The resort uses
LPG-power generation rather than a diesel-powered plant for its energy supply,
supplemented by a wind turbine, which has reduced greenhouse emissions by
70% of diesel-equivalent generation methods. Excess heat recovered from the
generator is used to heat the swimming pool. Hot water in the eco-cabins and for
some of the resort’s vehicles are solar-powered. Water-efficient fittings are also
installed in showers and toilets. However, not all the appliances used by the resort
are energy efficient, such as refrigerators. Visitors who stay at the resort are
encouraged to monitor their water and energy usage via the in-house television
systems and are rewarded with prizes (such as a free return trip to the resort)
accordingly if their usage level is low.

Concluding remarks

E. We examined a case study of good management practice and a pro-active

sustainable tourism stance of an eco-resort. In three years of operation, Couran
Cove Island Resort has won 23 international and national awards, including the
2001 Australian Tourism Award in the 4-Star Accommodation category. The
resort has embraced and has effectively implemented contemporary
environmental management practices. It has been argued that the successful
implementation of the principles of sustainability should promote long-term social,
economic and environmental benefits while ensuring and enhancing the
prospects of continued viability for the tourism enterprise. Couran Cove Island
Resort does not conform to the characteristics of the Resort Development
Spectrum, as proposed by Prideaux (2000). According to Prideaux, the resort
should be at least at Phase 3 of the model (the National tourism phase), which
describes an integrated resort providing 3-4 star hotel-type accommodation. The
primary tourist market in Phase 3 of the model consists mainly of interstate
visitors. However, the number of interstate and international tourists visiting the
resort is small, with the principal locals and residents from nearby towns and the
Gold Coast region. The carrying capacity of Couran Cove does not seem to be of
any concern to the Resort management. Given that it is a private commercial
ecotourist enterprise, regulating the number of visitors to the resort to minimize
the damage done to the natural environment on South Stradbroke Island is not a
binding constraint. However, the Resort’s growth will eventually be constrained by
its carrying capacity, and quantity control should be incorporated into the
management strategy of the resort.

Questions 1 – 4.

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 1 -4 on your answer sheet.

1. The Stradbroke became two islands

A. by intended destruction of the ship of the Cambus Wallace

B. by an explosion of dynamite on a ship and following nature erosion

C. by the movement sandhills on Stradbroke Island

D. by the volcanic eruption on the island

2. Why are laundry activities for the resort carried out on the mainland?

A. In order to obtain its water supply via a bore system

B. In order to preserve the water and anti-pollution

C. In order to save the cost of installing onerous washing machines

D. In order to reduce the level of phosphates in the water around

3. What is the major water supplier in South Stradbroke Island is by

A. desalinating the seawater

B. collecting the rainfall

C. transporting from the mainland

D. boring groundwater

4. What is applied for heating water on Couran Cove Island Resort?

A. the LPG-power

B. a diesel-powered plant

C. the wind power

D. the solar-power

5. What does, as the managers of resorts believe, the prospective future

focus on?

A. more awards for the resort’s accommodation

B. sustainable administration and development in the long run

C. Economic and environmental benefits for the tourism enterprise

D. successful implementation of the Resort Development Spectrum

Questions 6-10

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using no

more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-10 on your answer sheet.

Being located away from the mainland, tourists can attain the resort only by
6…………………………………………………………. in regular service. Within the
resort, transports include trails for walking or tracks for
7…………………………………….. and the beach train. The on-island equipment
is old-fashioned which is barely working such as the
8……………………………………………. overhead. There is a television, radio, an
old 9……………………………………….. and a small fridge. And you can buy the
repellant for 10……………………………………………… if you forget to bring
some.

Questions 11-13

Choose three correct letters among A-E

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

What is true as to the contemporary situation of the Couran Cove Island Resort in
the last paragraph?

A. Couran Cove Island Resort goes for more eco-friendly practices

B. the accommodation standard only conforms to the Resort Development

Spectrum of Phase 3

C. Couran Cove Island Resort should raise the accommodation to build more
standard and build more facilities

D. the principal group visiting the resort is international tourists

E. its carrying capacity will restrict the future business’ expansion

Reading Passage 2
You should spend about 20 minutes on question 14-26, which are based on
reading passage 2 on the following pages.

TV Addiction 1

A. The amount of time people spend watching television is astonishing. On

average, individuals in the industrialized world devote three hours a day to the
pursuit —fully half of their leisure time, and more than on any single activity save
work and sleep. At this rate, someone who lives to 75 would spend nine years in
front of the tube. To some commentators, this devotion means simply that people
enjoy TV and make a conscious decision to watch it. But if that is the whole story,
why do so many people experience misgivings about how much they view? In
Gallup polls in 1992 and 1999, two out of five adult respondents and seven out of
10 teenagers said they spent too much time watching TV. Other surveys have
consistently shown that roughly 10 per cent of adults call themselves TV addicts.

B. To study people’s reactions to TV, researchers have experiments in which they

have monitored the brain waves (using an electroencephalograph, or EEG) to
track behaviour and emotion in the normal course of life, as opposed to the
artificial conditions of the lab. Participants carried a beeper, and we signaled them
six to eight times a day, at random, over the period of a week; whenever they
heard the beep, they wrote down what they were doing and how they were feeling
using a standardized scorecard.

C. As one might expect, people who were watching TV when we beeped them
reported feeling relaxed and passive. The EEG studies similarly show less mental
stimulation, as measured by alpha brain-wave production, during viewing than
during reading. What is more surprising is that the sense of relaxation ends when
the set is turned off, but the feelings of passivity and lowered alertness continue.
Survey participants say they have more difficulty concentrating after viewing than
before. In contrast, they rarely indicate such difficulty after reading. After playing
sports or engaging in hobbies, people report improvements in mood. After
watching TV, people’s moods are about the same or worse than before. That may
be because of viewers’ vague learned sense that they will feel less relaxed if they
stop viewing. So they tend not to turn the set-off. Viewing begets more viewing
which is the same as the experience of habit-forming drugs. Thus, the irony of TV:
people watch a great deal longer than they plan to, even though prolonged
viewing is less rewarding. In our ESM studies the longer people sat in front of the
set, the less satisfaction they said they derived from it. For some, a twinge of
unease or guilt that they aren’t doing something more productive may also
accompany and depreciate the enjoyment of prolonged viewing. Researchers in
Japan, the U.K., and the U.S. have found that this guilt occurs much more among
middle-class viewers than among less affluent ones.

D. What is it about TV that has such a hold on us? In part, the attraction seems to
spring from our biological ‘orienting response/ First described by Ivan Pavlov in
1927, the orienting response is our instinctive visual or auditory reaction to any
sudden or novel stimulus. It is part of our evolutionary heritage, a built-in
sensitivity to movement and potential predatory threats. In 1986 Byron Reeves of
Stanford University, Esther Thorson of the University of Missouri and their
colleagues began to study whether the simple formal features of television—cuts,
edits, zooms, pans, sudden noises — activate the orienting response, thereby
keeping attention on the screen. By watching how brain waves were affected by
formal features, the researchers concluded that these stylistic tricks can indeed
trigger involuntary responses and ‘derive their attentional value through the
evolutionary significance of detecting movement… It is the form, not the content,
of television that is unique.

E. The natural attraction to television’s sound and the light starts very early in life.
Dafna Lemish of Tel Aviv University has described babies at six to eight weeks
attending to television. We have observed slightly older infants who, when lying
on their backs on the floor, crane their necks around 180 degrees to catch what
light through yonder window breaks. This inclination suggests how deeply rooted
the orienting response is.

F. The Experience Sampling Method permitted us to look closely at most every

domain of everyday life: working, eating, reading, talking to friends, playing a
sport, and so on. We found that heavy viewers report feeling significantly more
anxious and less happy than light viewers do in unstructured situations, such as
doing nothing, daydreaming or waiting in line. The difference widens when the
viewer is alone. Subsequently, Robert D. Mcllwraith of the University of Manitoba
extensively studied those who called themselves TV addicts on surveys. On a
measure called the Short Imaginal Processes Inventory (SIPI), he found that the
self-described addicts are more easily bored and distracted and have poorer
attentional control than the non-addicts. The addicts said they used TV to distract
themselves from unpleasant thoughts and to fill time. Other studies over the years
have shown that heavy viewers are less likely to participate in community
activities and sports and are more likely to be obese than moderate viewers or
non-viewers.
G. More than 25 years ago psychologist Tannis M. MacBeth Williams of the
University of British Columbia studied a mountain community that had no
television until cable finally arrived. Over time, both adults and children in the town
became less creative in problem-solving, less able to persevere at tasks, and less
tolerant of unstructured time.

H. Nearly 40 years ago Gary A. Steiner of the University of Chicago collected

fascinating individual accounts of families whose set had broken. In experiments,
families have volunteered or been paid to stop viewing, typically for a week or a
month. Some fought, verbally and physically. In a review of these cold-turkey
studies, Charles Winick of the City University of New York concluded: ‘The first
three or four days for most persons were the worst, even in many homes where
the viewing was minimal and where there were other ongoing activities. In over
half of all the households, during these first few days of loss, the regular routines
were disrupted, family members had difficulties in dealing with the newly available
time, anxiety and aggressions were expressed. By the second week, a move
toward adaptation to the situation was common. ‘Unfortunately, researchers have
yet to flesh out these anecdotes; no one has systematically gathered statistics on
the prevalence of these withdrawal symptoms.

I. Even though TV does seem to meet the criteria for substance dependence, not
all researchers would go so far as to call TV addictive. Mcllwraith said in 1998 that
‘displacement of other activities by television may be socially significant but still
fall short of the clinical requirement of significant impairment.’ He argued that a
new category of ‘TV addiction’ may not be necessary if heavy viewing stems from
conditions such as depression and social phobia. Nevertheless, whether or not
we formally diagnose someone as TV-dependent, millions of people sense that
they cannot readily control the amount of television they watch.

Questions 14-18

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage?

In boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage
14. Study shows that males are more likely to be addicted to TV than females.

15. Greater improvements in mood are experienced after watching TV than

playing sports.

16. TV addiction works in similar ways as drugs.

17. It is reported that people’s satisfaction is in proportion to the time they spend
watching TV.

18. Middle-class viewers are more likely to feel guilty about watching TV than the
poor.

Questions 19-23

Look at the following researchers (Questions 19-23) and the list of statements
below.

Match each researcher with the correct statements.

Write the correct letter A-H in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheets.

19. Byron Reeves and Esther Thorson

20. Dafna Lemish

21. Robert D. Mcllwraith

22. Tannis M. MacBeth Williams

23. Charles Winick

List of statements

A. Audiences would get hypnotized from viewing too much television.

B. People have been sensitive to TV signals from a younger age.

C. People are less likely to accomplish their work with television.

D. A handful of studies have attempted to study other types of media addiction.

E. The addictive power of television could probably minimize the problems.

F. Various media formal characters stimulate people’s reaction on the screen.

G. People who believe themselves to be TV addicts are less likely to join in the
group activities.

H. It is hard for people to accept life without a TV at the beginning.

Questions 24-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 24-26 on your answer sheet.

24. People in the industrialized world

A. devote ten hours watching TV on average.

B. spend more time on TV than other entertainment.

C. call themselves TV addicts.

D. working best.

25. When compared with light viewers, heavy viewers

A. like playing sport more than reading.

B. feels relaxed after watching TV.

C. spends more time daydreaming.

D. is more easily bored while waiting in line.

26. Which of the following statements is true about the family experiment?

A. Not all subjects participate in the experiment for free.

B. There has been a complete gathered data.

C. People are prevented from other activities during the experiment.

D. People cannot adapt to the situation until the end

Reading Passage 3

Question 27 – 31

Reading Passage 3 has five sections A-E.

Choose the correct heading for each section from the list of headings
below.

Write the correct number i-viii in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. Animals sometimes make music.

ii. Recent research on music
iii. The culture embedded in music
iv. Historical theories review
v. Communication in music with animals
vi. The contrast between music and language
vii. Questions on a biological link with human and music
viii. Music is good for babies.

27. Section A

28. Section B

29. Section C

30. Section D

31. Section E

Music: Language We All Speak

A. Music is one of the human species’ relatively few universal abilities. Without
formal training, any individual, from Stone Age tribesman to suburban teenager
can recognize music and, in some fashion, to make it. Why this should be so is a
mystery. After all, music isn’t necessary for getting through the day, and if it aids
in reproduction, it does so only in highly indirect ways. Language, by contrast, is
also everywhere- but for more obvious reasons. With language, you and the
members of your tribe can organize a migration across Africa, build reed boats
and cross the seas, and communicate at night even when you can’t see each
other. Modern culture, in all its technological extravagance, springs directly from
the human talent for manipulating symbols and syntax. Scientists have always
been intrigued by the connection between music and language. Yet over the
years, words and melody have acquired a vastly different status in the lab and the
seminar room. While language has long been considered essential to unlocking
the mechanisms of human intelligence, music is generally treated as an
evolutionary frippery-mere “auditory cheesecake,” as the Harvard cognitive
scientist Steven Pinker puts it.

B. But thanks to a decade-long wave of neuroscience research, that tune is

changing. A flurry of recent publications suggests that language and music may
equally be able to tell us who we are and where we’re from – not just emotionally,
but biologically. In July, the journal Nature Neuroscience devoted a special issue
to the topic. And in an article in the August 6 issue of the Journal of Neuroscience,
David Schwartz, Catherine Howe, and Dale Purves of Duke University argued
that the sounds of music and the sounds of language are intricately connected. To
grasp the originality of this idea, it’s necessary to realize two things about how
music has traditionally been understood. First, musicologists have long
emphasized that while each culture stamps a special identity onto its music; the
music itself has some universal qualities. For example, in virtually all cultures
sound is divided into some or all of the 12 intervals that make up the chromatic
scale – that is, the scale represented by the keys on a piano. For centuries,
observers have attributed this preference for certain combinations of tones to the
mathematical properties of sound itself. Some 2,500 years ago, Pythagoras was
the first to note a direct relationship between the harmoniousness of a tone
combination and the physical dimensions of the object that produced it. For
example, a plucked string will always play an octave lower than a similar string
half its size, and a fifth lower than a similar string two-thirds it’s the length. This
link between simple ratios and harmony has influenced music theory ever since.

C. This music-is-moth idea is often accompanied by the notion that music

formally speaking at least, exists apart from the world in which it was created.
Writing recently in The New York Review of Books, pianist and critic Charles
Rosen discussed the long-standing notion that while painting and sculpture
reproduce at least some aspects of the natural world, and writing describes
thoughts and feelings we are all familiar with, music is entirely abstracted from the
world in which we live. Neither idea is right, according to David Schwartz and his
colleagues. Human musical preferences are fundamentally shaped not by elegant
algorithms or ratios but by the messy sounds of real life, and of speech in
particular -which in turn is shaped by our evolutionary heritage.” The explanation
of music, like the explanation of any product of the mind, must be rooted in
biology, not in numbers per se,” says Schwartz.

Schwartz, Howe, and Purves analyzed a vast selection of speech sounds from a
variety of languages to reveal the underlying patterns common to all utterances.
In order to focus only on the raw sound, they discarded all theories about speech
and meaning and sliced sentences into random bites. Using a database of over
100,000 brief segments of speech, they noted which frequency had the greatest
emphasis in each sound. The resulting set of frequencies, they discovered,
corresponded closely to the chromatic scale. In short, the building blocks of music
are to be found in speech

Far from being abstract, music presents a strange analogue to the patterns
created by the sounds of speech. “Music, like the visual arts, is rooted in our
experience of the natural world,” says Schwartz. “It emulates our sound
environment in the way that visual arts emulate the visual environment. ” In music,
we hear the echo of our basic sound-making instrument- the vocal tract. The
explanation for human music is simple; still than Pythagoras’s mathematical
equations. We like the sounds that are familiar to us- specifically, we like sounds
that remind us of us.

This brings up some chicken-or-egg evolutionary questions. It may be that music

imitates speech directly, the researchers say, in which case it would seem that
language evolved first. It’s also conceivable that music came first and language is
in effect an Imitation of a song – that in everyday speech we hit the musical notes
we especially like. Alternately, it may be that music imitates the general products
of the human sound-making system, which just happens to be mostly speech.
“We can’t know this,” says Schwartz. “What we do know is that they both come
from the same system, and it is this that shapes our preferences.”

D. Schwartz’s study also casts light on the long-running question of whether

animals understand or appreciate music. Despite the apparent abundance of
“music” in the natural world- birdsong, whale song, wolf howls, synchronized
chimpanzee hooting previous studies have found that many laboratory animals
don’t show a great affinity for the human variety of music-making. Marc Hauser
and Josh McDermott of Harvard argued in the July issue of Nature Neuroscience
that animals don’t create or perceive music the way we do. The act that laboratory
monkeys can show recognition of human tunes is evidence, they say, of shared
general features of the auditory system, not any specific chimpanzee musical
ability. As for birds, those most musical beasts, they generally recognize their own
tunes – a narrow repertoire – but don’t generate novel melodies as we do. There
are no avian Mozarts.

But what’s been played to the animals, Schwartz notes, is human music. If
animals evolve preferences for sound as we do – based upon the soundscape in
which they live – then their “music” would be fundamentally different from ours. In
the same way, our scales derive from human utterances, a cat’s idea of a good
tune would derive from yowls and meows. To demonstrate that animals don’t
appreciate sounds the way we do, we’d need evidence that they don’t respond to
“music” constructed from their own sound environment.

E. No matter how the connection between language and music is parsed, what is
apparent is that our sense of music, even our love for it, is as deeply rooted in our
biology and in our brains as language is. This is most obvious with babies, says
Sandra Trehub at the University of Toronto, who also published a paper in the
Nature Neuroscience special issue.

For babies, music and speech are on a continuum. Mothers use musical speech
to “regulate infants’ emotional states.” Trehub says. Regardless of what language
they speak, the voice all mothers use with babies is the same: “something
between speech and song.” This kind of communication “puts the baby in a
trance-like state, which may proceed to sleep or extended periods of rapture.” So
if the babies of the world could understand the latest research on language and
music, they probably wouldn’t be very surprised. The upshot, says Trehub, is that
music maybe even more of a necessity than we realize.

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Questions 32-38

Look at the following people and list of statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement.

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 32-38 on your answer sheet.

List of statements

A. Music exists outside of the world in which it is created

B. Music has a common feature though cultural influences affect
C. Humans need music
D. Music priority connects to the disordered sound around
E. Discovery of mathematical musical foundation
F. Music is not treated equally well compared with a language
G. Humans and monkeys have similar traits in perceiving sound

32. Steven Pinker

33. Musicologists

34. Greek philosopher Pythagoras

35. Schwartz, Howe, and Purves

36. Marc Hauser and Josh McDermott

37. Charles Rosen

38. Sandra Trehub

Questions 39-40

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D

Write your answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.

39. Why was the study of animal music uncertain?

A. Animals don’t have the same auditory system as humans.

B. Experiments on animal’s music are limited.

C. tunes are impossible for the animal to make up.

D. Animals don’t have the spontaneous ability for the tests.

 40. What is the main subject of this passage?

A. Language and psychology.

B. Music formation.

C. Role of music in human society.

D. Music experiments for animals.

Bamboo, A Wonder Plant, Biodiversity, Sunset for the Oil Business –

Reading Answers in 2016

In the following Academic Reading practice test, “Bamboo – a Wonder Plant,

Biodiversity, Sunset for the Oil Business” you can attempt 40 Reading
questions of various question types. The test is designed as per the original
IELTS Format and can be attempted as a practice Module exam. We at
IELTSMaterial.com would urge every IELTS aspirant to time this test as it would
be in the real exam. After completing the test, you can check the Answer Key to
calculate your IELTS Reading score.

Here are the question types in this Bamboo – a Wonder Plant, Biodiversity,
Sunset for the Oil Business IELTS reading test

Reading Passage 1 (Bamboo – a Wonder Plant):

 Matching information,
 Matching features,
 short answer questions

Reading Passage 2 (Biodiversity):

 T/F/NG questions,
 summary completion

Reading Passage 3 (Sunset for the Oil Business):

 Yes/No/Not Given questions,

 Note completion,
 Matching features

Before you begin, read our expert IELTS exam preparation tips to score higher!

Reading Passage 1

Bamboo, A Wonder Plant

The wonder plant with an uncertain future: more than a billion people rely on
bamboo for either their shelter or income, while many endangered species
depend on it for their survival. Despite its apparent abundance, a new report says
that species of bamboo may be under serious threat.

A. Every year, during the rainy season, the mountain gorillas of Central Africa
migrate to the foothills and lower slopes of the Virunga Mountains to graze on
bamboo. For the 650 or so that remain in the wild, it’s a vital food source.
Although they at almost 150 types of plant, as well as various insects and other
invertebrates, at this time of year bamboo accounts for up to 90 per cent of their
diet. Without it, says Ian Redmond, chairman of the Ape Alliance, their chances of
survival would be reduced significantly. Gorillas aren’t the only locals keen on
bamboo. For the people who live close to the Virungas, it’s a valuable and
versatile raw material used for building houses and making household items such
as mats and baskets. But in the past 100 years or so, resources have come under
increasing pressure as populations have exploded and large areas of bamboo
forest have been cleared to make way for farms and commercial plantations.

[do_widget id=custom_html-47]

B. Sadly, this isn’t an isolated story. All over the world, the ranges of many
bamboo species appear to be shrinking, endangering the people and animals that
depend upon them. But despite bamboo’s importance, we know surprisingly little
about it. A recent report published by the UN Environment Programme (UNEP)
and the International Network for Bamboo and Rattan (INBAR) has revealed just
how profound is our ignorance of global bamboo resources, particularly in relation
to conservation. There are almost 1,600 recognized species of bamboo, but the
report concentrated on the 1,200 or so woody varieties distinguished by the
strong stems, or culms, that most people associate with this versatile plant. Of
these, only 38 ‘priority species’ identified for their commercial value have been the
subject of any real scientific research, and this has focused mostly on matters
relating to their viability as a commodity. This problem isn’t confined to bamboo.
Compared to the work carried out on animals, the science of assessing the
conservation status of plants is still in its infancy. “People have only started
looking hard at this during the past 10-15 years, and only now are they getting a
handle on how to go about it systematically,” says Dr Valerie Kapos, one of the
report’s authors and a senior advisor in forest ecology and conservation to the
UNEP

C. Bamboo is a type of grass. It comes in a wide variety of forms, ranging in

height from 30 centimeters to more than 40 meters. It is also the world’s fastest-
growing woody plant; some species can grow more than a meter in a day.
Bamboo’s ecological rote extends beyond providing food and habitat for animals.
Bamboo tends to grow in stands made up of groups of individual plants that grow
from root systems known as rhizomes. Its extensive rhizome systems, which tie in
predicting the top layers of the soil, are crucial in preventing soil erosion. And
there is growing evidence that bamboo plays an important part in determining
forest structure and dynamics. “Bamboo’s pattern of mass flowering and mass
death leaves behind large areas of dry biomass that attract wildfire,” says Kapos.
“When these bum, they create patches of open ground within the forest far bigger
than would be left by a fallen tree.” Patchiness helps to preserve diversity
because certain plant species do better during the early stages of regeneration
when there are gaps in the canopy.

D. However, bamboo’s most immediate significance lies in its economic value.

Modem processing techniques mean that it can be used in a variety of ways, for
example, flooring and laminates. One of the fastest-growing bamboo products is
paper -25 per cent of paper produced in India is made from bamboo fibre and in
Brazil, 100,000 hectares of bamboo is grown for its production. Of course,
bamboo’s main function has always been in domestic applications, and as a
locally traded commodity, it’s worth about US$4.5billion annually. Because of its
versatility, flexibility and strength (its tensile strength compares to that of some
steel), it has traditionally been used in construction. Today, more than one billion
people worldwide live in bamboo houses. Bamboo is often the only readily
available raw material for people in many developing countries, says Chris Staple-
ton, a research associate at the Royal Botanic Gardens. “Bamboo can be
harvested from forest areas or grown quickly elsewhere, and then converted
simply without expensive machinery or facilities,” he says. “In this way, it
contributes substantially to poverty alleviation and wealth creation.”
E. Given bamboo’s value in economic and ecological terms, the picture painted by
the UNEP report is all the more worrying. But keen horticulturists will spot an
apparent contradiction here. Those who’ve followed the recent vogue for
cultivating exotic species in their gardens will point out that if it isn’t kept in check,
bamboo can cause real problems. “In a lot of places, the people who live with
bamboo don’t perceive it as being endangered in any way,” says Kapos. “In fact,
a lot of bamboo species are actually very invasive if they’ve been introduced.” So
why are so many species endangered? There are two separate issues here, says
Ray Townsend, vice president of the British Bamboo Society and arboretum
manager at the Royal Botanic Gardens. “Some plants are threatened because
they can’t survive in the habitat – they aren’t strong enough or there aren’t enough
of them, perhaps. But bamboo can take care of itself – it is strong enough to
survive if left alone. What is under threat is its habitat.” It is the physical
disturbance that is the threat to bamboo, says Kapos. “When forest goes, it is
converted into something else: there isn’t any-where for forest plants such as
bamboo to grow if you create a cattle pasture.”

F. Around the world, bamboo species are routinely protected as part of forest eco-
systems in national parks and reserves, but there is next to nothing that protects
bamboo in the wild for its own sake. However, some small steps are being taken
to address this situation. The UNEP-INBAR report will help conservationists to
establish effective measures aimed at protecting valuable wild bamboo species.
Towns end, too, sees the UNEP report as an important step forward in promoting
the cause of bamboo conservation. “Until now, bamboo has been perceived as a
second-class plant.

When you talk about places such as the Amazon, everyone always thinks about
the hardwoods. Of course, these are significant, but there is a tendency to
overlook the plants they are associated with, which are often bamboo species. In
many ways, it is the most important plant known to man. I can’t think of another
plant that is used so much and is so commercially important in so many
countries.” He believes that the most important first step is to get scientists into
the field. “We need to go out there, look at these plants and see how they survive
and then use that information to conserve them for the future.

Questions 1-7

Reading Passage 1 has six sections A-F.

Which section contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-F in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet

NB You may use any letter more than once

1. The limited extent of existing research

2. Comparison of bamboo with other plant species

3. Commercial application of bamboo

4. Example of an animal which relies on bamboos for survival

5. The human activity that damaged large areas of bamboo

6. The approaches used to study bamboo

7. Bamboo helps the survival of a range of plants

Questions 8-11

Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-D) with
opinions or deeds below.

Write the appropriate letters A-d in boxes 8-11 on your answer sheet.

NB you may use any letter more than once

A. Ian Redmond

B. Valerie Kapos

C. Ray Townsend

D. Chris Stapleton

8. Destroying bamboo jeopardizes to wildlife.

9. People have very confined knowledge of bamboo.

10. Some people do not think that bamboo is endangered.

11. Bamboo has loads of commercial potentials.

Questions 12-13

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the
passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 12-13 on your answer sheet

12. What problem does the bamboo’s root system prevent?

13. Which bamboo product is experiencing market expansion

Reading Passage 2

Biodiversity

A. It seems biodiversity has become a buzzword beloved of politicians,

conservationists, protesters and scientists alike. But what exactly is it? The
Convention on Biological Diversity, an international agreement to conserve and
share the planet’s biological riches, provides a good working definition:
biodiversity comprises every form of life, from the smallest microbe to the largest
animal or plant, the genes that give them their specific characteristics and the
ecosystems of which they are apart.

B. In October, the World Conservation Union (also known as the IUCN) published
its updated Red List of Threatened Species, a roll call of 11,167 creatures facing
extinction – 121 more than when the list was last published in 2000. But the new
figures almost certainly underestimate the crisis. Some 1.2 million species of
animals and 270,000 species of plants have been classified, but the well-being of
only a fraction has been assessed. The resources are simply not available. The
RJCN reports that 5714 plants are threatened, for example, but admits that only 4
per cent of known plants have been assessed. And, of course, there are
thousands of species that we have yet to discover. Many of these could also be
facing extinction.

C. It is important to develop a picture of the diversity of life on Earth now so that

comparisons can be made in the future and trends identified. But it isn’t necessary
to observe every single type of organism in an area to get a snapshot of the
health of the ecosystem. In many habitats, there are species that are particularly
susceptible to shifting conditions, and these can be used as indicator species.
D. In the media, it is usually large, charismatic animals such as pandas,
elephants, tigers and whales that get all the attention when the loss of biodiversity
is discussed. However, animals or plants far lower down the food chain are often
the ones vital for preserving habitats – in the process saving the skins of those
more glamorous species. These are known as keystone species.

E. By studying the complex feeding relationships within habitats, species can be

identified that have a particularly important impact on the environment. For
example, the members of the fig family are the staple food for hundreds of
different species in many different countries, so important that scientists
sometimes call figs “jungle burgers”. A whole range of animals, from tiny insects
to birds and large mammals, feed on everything from the tree’s bark and leaves to
its flowers and fruits. Many fig species have very specific pollinators. There are
several dozen species of fig trees in Costa Rica, and a different type of wasp has
evolved to pollinate each one. Chris Lyle of the Natural History Museum in
London – who is also involved in the Global Taxonomy Initiative of the Convention
on Biological Diversity – points out that if fig trees are affected by global warming,
pollution, disease or any other catastrophe, the loss of biodiversity will be
enormous.

F. Similarly, sea otters play a major role in the survival of giant kelp forests along
the coasts of California and Alaska. These “marine rainforests” provide a home for
a wide range of other species. The kelp itself is the main food of purple and red
sea urchins and in turn, the urchins are eaten by predators, particularly sea otters.
They detach an urchin from the seabed then float to the surface and lie on their
backs with the urchin shell on their tummy, smashing it open with a stone before
eating the contents. Urchins that are not eaten tend to spend their time in rock
crevices to avoid the predators. This allows the kelp to grow – and it can grow
many centimeters in a day. As the forests form, bits of kelp break off and fall to
the bottom to provide food for the urchins in their crevices. The sea otters thrive
hunting for sea urchins in the kelp, and many other fish and invertebrates live
among the fronds. The problems start when the sea otter population declines. As
large predators they are vulnerable – their numbers are relatively small so
disease or human hunters can wipe them out. The result is that the sea urchin
population grows unchecked and they roam the seafloor eating young kelp fronds.
This tends to keep the kelp very short and stops forests developing, which has a
huge impact on biodiversity.

G. Conversely, keystone species can also make dangerous alien species: they
can wreak havoc if they end up in the wrong ecosystem. The cactus moth, whose
caterpillar is a voracious eater of prickly pear was introduced to Australia to
control the rampant cacti. It was so successful that someone thought it would be a
good idea to introduce it to the Caribbean islands that had the same problem. It
solved the cactus menace, but unfortunately, some of the moths have now
reached the US mainland – borne on winds and in tourists’ luggage – where they
are devastating the native cactus populations of Florida.

H. Organizations like the Convention on Biological Diversity work with groups

such as the UN and with governments and scientists to raise awareness and fund
research. A number of major international meetings – including the World Summit
on Sustainable Development in Johannesburg this year – have set targets for
governments around the world to slow the loss of biodiversity. And the CITES
meeting in Santiago last month added several more names to its list of
endangered species for which trade is controlled. Of course, these agreements
will prove of limited value if some countries refuse to implement them.

I. There is cause for optimism, however. There seems to be a growing

understanding of the need for sustainable agriculture and sustainable tourism to
conserve biodiversity. Problems such as illegal logging are being tackled through
sustainable forestry programs, with the emphasis on minimizing the use of
rainforest hardwoods in the developed world and on rigorous replanting of
whatever trees are harvested. CITES is playing its part by controlling trade in
wood from endangered tree species. In the same way, sustainable farming
techniques that minimize environmental damage and avoid monoculture.

J. Action at a national level often means investing in public education and

awareness. Getting people like you and me involved can be very effective.
Australia and many European countries are becoming increasingly efficient at
recycling much of their domestic waste, for example, preserving natural resources
and reducing the use of fossil fuels. This, in turn, has a direct effect on biodiversity
by minimizing pollution, and an indirect effect by reducing the number of
greenhouse gases emitted from incinerators and landfill sites. Preserving
ecosystems intact for future generations to enjoy is obviously important, but
biodiversity is not some kind of optional extra. Variety may be “the spice of life”,
but biological variety is also our life-support system.

Questions 14-20

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
2
In boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

14. The term “biodiversity” consists of living creatures and the environment that
they live in.

15. There are species that have not been researched because it’s unnecessary to
study all creatures.

16. It is not necessary to investigate all creatures in a certain place.

17. The press more often than not focuses on animals well-known.

18. There is a successful case that cactus moth plays a positive role in the US.

19. Usage of hardwoods is forbidden in some European countries.

20. Agriculture experts advise farmers to plant single crops in the field in terms of
sustainable farming

Questions 21-26

Summary

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage,

using no more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

Because of the ignorance brought by media, people tend to neglect significant

creatures called 21 ………………..Every creature has diet connections with
others, such as 22 ………………. which provide a majority of foods for other
species. In some states of America, the decline in the number of sea otters leads
to the boom of 23 ………………. An impressing case is that imported 24
successfully tackles the plant cacti in 25 ………………. However, the operation is
needed for the government to increase its financial support in 26 ………………..

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Reading Passage 3

Sunset for the Oil Business

The world is about to run out of oil. Or perhaps not. It depends on who you
believe…

A. Members of the Department Analysis Centre (ODAC) recently met in London

and presented technical data that support their grim forecast that the world is
perilously close to running out of oil. Leading lights of this moment, including the
geologist Colin Campbell, rejected rival views presented by the American
geological survey and the international energy agency that contradicted their
findings. Dr Campbell even decried the amazing display of ignorance, denial, and
obfuscation by government, industry, and academics on this topic.

B. So is the oil really running out? The answer is easy: Yes. Nobody seriously
disputes the notion that oil is, for all practical purposes, a non-renewable resource
that will run out someday, be that years or decades away. The harder question is
determining when precisely oil will begin to get scarce. And answering that
question involves scaling Hubbert’s peak.

C. M. King Hubbert, a Shell geologist of legendary status among depletion

experts, forecast in 1956 that oil production in the United States would peak in the
early 1970s and then slowly decline, in something resembling a bell-shaped
curve. At the time, his forecast was controversial, and many rubbished it. After
1970, however, empirical evidence proved him correct: oil production in America
did indeed peak and has been in decline ever since.

D. Dr Hubbert’s analysis drew on the observation that oil production in a new area
typically rises quickly at first, as the easiest and cheapest reserves are tapped.
Over time, reservoirs age and go into decline, and so lifting oil becomes more
expensive. Oil from that area then becomes less competitive in relation to other
fuels, or to oil from other areas. As a result, production slows down and usually
tapers off and declines. That, he argued, made for a bell-shaped curve.

E. His successful prediction has emboldened a new generation of geologists to

apply his methodology on a global scale. Chief among them are the experts at
ODAC, who worry that the global peak in production will come in the next decade.
Dr. Campbell used to argue that the peak should have come already; he now
thinks it is just around the comer. A heavyweight has now joined this gloomy
chorus. Kenneth Deffeyes of Princeton University argues in a lively new book
(“The View from Hubbert’s Peak”) that global oil production could peak as soon as
2004.

F. That sharply contradicts mainstream thinking. America’s Geological Survey

prepared an exhaustive study of oil depletion last year (in part to rebut Dr.
Campbell’s arguments) that put the peak of production some decades off. The
IEA has just weighed in with its new “World Energy Outlook”, which foresees
enough oil to comfortably meet the demand to 2020 from remaining reserves.
Rene Dahan, one of ExxonMobil’s top managers, goes further: with an assurance
characteristic of the world’s largest energy company, he insists that the world will
be awash in oil for another 70 years.

G. Who is right? In making sense of these wildly opposing views, it is useful to

look back at the pitiful history of oil forecasting. Doomsters have been predicting
dry wells since the 1970s, but so far the oil is still gushing. Nearly all the
predictions for 2000 made after the 1970s oil shocks were far too pessimistic.
America’s Department of Energy thought that oil would reach $150 a barrel (at
2000 prices); even Exxon predicted a price of $ 100.

H. Michael Lynch of DRI-WEFA, an economic consultancy, is one of the few oil

forecasters who has got things generally right. In a new paper, Dr. Lynch
analyses those historical forecasts. He finds evidence of both bias and recurring
errors, which suggests that methodological mistakes (rather than just poor data)
were the problem. In particular, he faults forecasters who used Hubbert-style
analysis for relying on fixed estimates of how much “ultimately recoverable” oil
there really is below ground, in the industry’s jargon: that figure, he insists, is
actually a dynamic one, as improvements in infrastructure, knowledge, and
technology raise the amount of oil which is recoverable.

I. That points to what will probably determine whether the pessimists or the
optimists are right: technological innovation. The first camp tends to be dismissive
of claims of forthcoming technological revolutions in such areas as deep-water
drilling and enhanced recovery. Dr. Deffeyes captures this end-of-technology
mindset well. He argues that because the industry has already spent billions on
technology development, it makes it difficult to ask today for new technology, as
most of the wheels have already been invented.
J. Yet techno-optimists argue that the technological revolution in oil has only just
begun. Average recovery rates (how much of the known oil in a reservoir can
actually be brought to the surface) are still only around 30-35%. Industry optimists
believe that new techniques on the drawing board today could lift that figure to 50-
60% within a decade.

K. Given the industry’s astonishing track record of innovation, it may be foolish to

bet against it. That is the result of adversity: the nationalizations of the 1970s
forced Big Oil to develop reserves in expensive, inaccessible places such as the
North Sea and Alaska, undermining Dr. Hubbert’s assumption that cheap
reserves are developed first. The resulting upstream investments have driven
down the cost of finding and developing wells over the last two decades from over
$20 a barrel to around $6 a barrel. The cost of producing oil has fallen by half, to
under $4 a barrel.

L. Such miracles will not come cheap, however, since much of the world’s oil is
now produced in ageing fields that are rapidly declining. The IEA concludes that
global oil production need not peak in the next two decades if the necessary
investments are made. So how much is necessary? If oil companies are to
replace the output lost at those ageing fields and meet the world’s ever-rising
demand for oil, the agency reckons they must invest $ 1 trillion in non-OPEC
countries over the next decade alone. That’s quite a figure.

Questions 27-31

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage 3

In boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet, write

YES, if the statement agrees with the information

NO, if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN, if there is no information on this

27. Hubbert has a high-profile reputation amongst ODAC members.

28. Oil is likely to last longer than some other energy sources.

29. The majority of geologists believe that oil will start to run out sometime this
decade.
30. Over 50 per cent of the oil we know about is currently being recovered.

31. History has shown that some of Hubbert’s principles were mistaken.

Question 32-35

Complete the notes below

Choose ONE WORD ONLY from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

Many people believed Hubbert’s theory was 32…………….. when it was originally
presented.

When the oil field is 33……….., it is easy to…

The recovery of the oil gets more 34 ………………..as the reservoir gets older

The oil field can’t be as 35…………………… as other areas

Questions 36-40

Look at the following statements (questions 36-40) and the list of people below.

Match each statement with the correct person, A-E.

Write the correct letter, A-E in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

36. has found fault in a geological research procedure

37. has provided the longest-range forecast regarding oil supply

38. has convinced others that oil production will follow a particular model

39. has accused fellow scientists of refusing to see the truth

40. has expressed doubt over whether improved methods of extracting oil are
possible.

List of People

A. Colin Campbell

B. M. King Hubbert

C. Kenneth Deffeyes

D. Rene Dahan

E. Michael Lynch

Bamboo – a Wonder Plant, Biodiversity, Sunset for the Oil Business IELTS

Reading Answers

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Reading Passage 1

1.

Answer: B

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 6

Organic Farming And Chemical Fertilizers, The Pearl & Scent Of Success -

IELTS Reading Answers

Kasturika Samanta

17 min read

Updated On Aug 02, 2024

This article is based on the academic reading passages 'Organic Farming And
Chemical Fertilizers, The Pearl & Scent Of Success.'

Reading Passage 1

The Academic passage ‘Organic Farming and Chemical Fertilizers’ is a

reading passage that appeared in an IELTS Test.

Find the reading passage with the Organic Farming And Chemical Fertilizers
PDF here.

Questions 1 – 4

Use the information in the passage to match the people (listed A-D) with
opinions or deeds below.

Write the appropriate letters A-D in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

A.Vaclav Smil

B. Bill Liebhardt

C. Kenneth Cassman

D. Ron Olson

1. The use of chemical fertilizer can be optimized by combining weather

information.
2. Organic framing yield is nearly equal to traditional ones.

3. A better agricultural setting is a significant key to solve environmental tough

nut.

4. Substantial production loss would happen in case all farmers shifted from using
synthetic fertilizer.

Questions 5 – 9

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 1

In boxes 5-9 on your answer sheet, write

YES, if the statement agrees with the information

NO, if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN, if there is no information on this

5. Increasing population, draining irrigation, eroding farmland push agricultural

industry to extremity.

6. There are only two options for farmers; they use chemical fertilizer or natural
approach.

7. Chemical fertilizer currently is more expensive than natural fertilizers.

8. In order to keep nutrients in the soil, organic farmers need to rotate the planting
method.

9. “organic agriculture” is the way that environment-damaging technologies are all

strictly forbidden.

Questions 10-13

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage,

using no more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

Several 10 …………………… approaches need to be applied in the order that the

global population wouldn’t go starved. A team called 11……………………
repeated the viewpoint of a scholar by a survey in British farming. More and more
European farmers believe in 12……………………farming these years. The
argument of organic against 13……………………seems in an inaccurate
direction.

Reading Passage 2

The Academic passage ‘The Pearl’ is a reading passage that appeared in an

IELTS Test.

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on Reading Passage 2.

Find the reading passage with The Pearl PDF here.

Questions 14-17

Reading Passage 1 has seven paragraphs, A-G. Which paragraph contains

the following information?
Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

14. ancient stories around the pearl and customers

15. Difficulties in the cultivating process.

16. Factors can decide the value of natural pearls.

17. Different growth mechanisms that distinguish the cultured pearls from natural
ones.

Questions 18 – 23

Complete the summary below.

Choose a letter from A-K for each answer. Write them in boxes 5-10 on your
answer sheet.

In ancient history, pearls have great importance within the rich and rulers, which
was treated as a gem for women in 18……………….. And pearls were even used
as medicine and sex drug for people in 19……………….. There are essentially
three types of pearls: natural, cultured and imitation. Most freshwater cultured
pearls sold today come from China while the 20……………….. is famous for its
imitation pearl industry. The country 21…………………… usually manufactures
some of the glitteriest cultured ones while the nation such as 22………………..
produces the larger sized pearl due to the favourable environment along the
coastline. In the past, one country of 23 ……………….. in the Gulf produced the
world’s best pearls. Nowadays, the maJor remaining suppliers of the natural
pearls belong to India

A. America

B. Ancient Rome

C. Australia

D. Bahrain

E. China

F. Japan

G. India

H. Korea

I. Mexico

J. Persia

K. Spain

Questions 24 – 27

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 1?

In boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

24. Often cultured pearl’s centre is significantly larger than in a natural pearl.
25. Cultivated cultured pearls are generally valued the same as natural ones.

26. The size of pearls produced in Japan is usually of a smaller size than those
who came from Australia.

27. Akoya pearls from Japan Glows more deeply than the South Sea pearls of
Australia

Reading Passage 3

The Academic passage ‘Scent of Success’ is a reading passage that appeared in

an IELTS Test.

Find the reading passage with the Scent of Success PDF here.

Questions 28-34

Reading Passage 3 has six paragraphs, A—G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

28. Description of one family member persuading another of selling cleaning

products

29. An account of the cooperation of all factory staff to cope with a sales increase

30. An account of the creation of the formula of Shower Power

31. An account of buying the original OzKleen company

32. Description of Shower Power’s international expansion

33. The reason for changing the packaging size of Shower Power

34. An example of some innovative ideas

Questions 35 – 38
Look at the following people and list of statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement

Write the correct letter A-E in boxes 8-11 on your answer sheet.

35. Grant Keamey

36. Tom Quinn

37. PeterQuinn

38. BelindaMcDonnell

List of statement

A. Described his story of selling his product to a chain store

B. Explained there was a shortage of money when sales suddenly increased

C. Believe innovations need support to succeed

D. Believes new products like Shower Power may incur risks

E. Says business won’t succeed with innovations

Questions 39 – 40

Choose the correct letter A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 12-13 on your answer sheet.

39. Tom Quinn changed the bottle size to 750ml to make Shower Power

A. Easier to package.

B. Appealing to individual customers.

C. Popular in foreign markets.

D. Attractive to supermarkets.

40. Why did Tom Quinn decide not to sell OzKleen?

A. No one wanted to buy OzKleen.

B. New products were being developed in OzKleen.

C. He couldn’t make an agreement on the price with the buyer.

D. He wanted to keep things unchanged.

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Organic Farming And Chemical Fertilizers, The Pearl & Scent Of Success

Answers With Explanations

Don’t miss the answer key for the Organic Farming And Chemical Fertilizers, The
Pearl & Scent Of Success IELTS Reading passage, complete with detailed
explanations, and prepare to score a high IELTS Reading band score.

1. Answer: D

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph K, line 5

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, this entire paragraph is dedicated to

the optimum utilization of technology for farming. It is also clear from the
line, “Eventually, farmers may -incorporate long-term weather forecasts into
their planning as well so that they can cut back on fertilizer use when the
weather is likely to make harvests poor anyway, says Ron Olson.” Here,
“incorporate and weather forecasts, fertilizers” are the main keywords.

2. Answer: B

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph I, line 4

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, this entire paragraph is dedicated to

the difference between organic farming and conventional synthetic fertilizer based
farming. It is paraphrased from the line, “Bill Liebhardt, a research manager at
the Rodale Institute in Kutztown, Pennsylvania recently compiled the results
of such comparisons for corn, wheat, soybeans, and tomatoes in the US
and found that the organic fields averaged between 94 and 100 per cent of
the yields of nearby conventional crops.” Here, the term “average difference is
between 94 and 100 percent” has been paraphrased to nearly equal.

3. Answer: C

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 8

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said
that “Agriculture must become the solution to environmental problems in 50
years. If we don’t have systems that make the environment better~not just
hold the fort-then we’re in trouble, says Kenneth Cassman, an agronomist
at the University of Nebraska at Lincoln.” Here, “agriculture, the solution, and
environmental problems” are the keywords.

4. Answer: A

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph J, line 5

Answer explanation: If you observe, this paragraph has been dedicated to

synthetic farming. The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line “Vaclav Smil of the University of Manitoba in Winnipeg, Canada,
estimates that if farmers worldwide gave up the 80 million tonnes of
synthetic fertilizer they now use each year, total grain production would fall
by at least half.” Here the term ‘total grain production would fall‘ suggests the
substantial loss that would happen to the production of synthetic fertilizers.

5. Answer: YES

Question type: Yes/No/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “The world’s
population continues to climb. And despite the rise of high-tech agriculture,
800 million people don’t get enough to eat. Clearly, it’s time to rethink the
food we eat and where it comes from. Feeding 9 billion people will take
more than the same old farming practices if want to do it without felling
rainforests and planting every last scrap of the prairie.” In the given
sentence, “the world’s population continues to climb” has been paraphrased to
increasing population. Moreover, ‘planting every last scrap of prairie’ is
paraphrased to “pushing agriculture to extremity”

6. Answer: NO

Question type: Yes/No/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, this entire paragraph is dedicated to

organic farming and the synthetic fertilizers approach. From the given
line, “relying solely on chemical fertilizers to provide soil nutrients without
doing other things to build healthy soil is damaging.” We can comprehend
that chemical fertilizers are not safe to build healthy soil. Hence, organic farming
is the only ideal approach farmers can follow.

7. Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question type: Yes/No/Not Given Questions

Answer location: N/A

Answer explanation: None of the given paragraphs claim the price difference
between organic farming and chemical fertilization.

8. Answer: YES

Question type: Yes/No/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph J, line 2

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line “Farmers can’t grow such crops every year if they want to maintain or
build soil nutrients without synthetic fertilizers. They need to alternate with
soil-building crops such as pasture grasses and legumes such as
alfalfa.” Here, the phrase ‘need to alternate’ refers that in order to main the soil
nutrients organic farmers need to rotate the planting method.
9. Answer: NO

Question: Yes/No/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph L, line 1

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “Organic
techniques certainly have their benefits, especially for poor farmers. But
strict “organic agriculture”, which prohibits certain technologies and allows
others, isn’t always better for the environment.” From the given lines, we can
learn that organic farming does not entirely prohibit environment damaging
technologies, rather restricts some and allows others.

10. Answer: Farming

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 3

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line “Feeding 9 billion people will take more than the same old farming
practices.” Here, the term will take more has been paraphrased to several.
Hence, in order to feed 9 billion starving people, there need to be several farming
approaches applied.

11. Answer: Curry

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph A, 2nd last line

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “that view was
echoed in January by the Curry report, a government panel that surveyed
the future of farming and food in Britain.” Confirms that it was the “Curry”
reporting team which re-stated the viewpoint of scholars.

12. Answer: Natural/Organic

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 3

Answer explanation: You can note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it
states that “perhaps these easy assumptions explain why sales of organic
food across Europe are increasing by at least 50 per cent per year.” Since
the sale of organic food is surging, it is clear that more European farmers are
relying on natural or organic farming.

13. Answer: Chemical

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 3

Answer explanation: You can note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it
states that “but more fundamentally, the organic versus-chemical debate
focuses on the wrong question.” which suggests that debate is going in the
wrong direction.

Master Academic Reading with our IELTS Reading guide for high scores on
passages like ‘Organic Farming And Chemical Fertilizers, The Pearl & Scent
Of Success Reading Answers’!

Reading Passage 2

14. Answer: A

Question type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: The entire sentence has been paraphrased here. In the
passage, it states that “Throughout history, pearls have held a unique
presence within the wealthy and powerful.” Therefore, this complete passage
discusses ancient stories of the Roman empire, Orient and Persian Empire, and
American Indian thereby conveying the importance of pearl.

15. Answer: E

Question type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 5

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, this entire paragraph is dedicated to
the production of cultivated pearls. It is paraphrased from the line, “by the end of
a 5 to 10-year cycle, only 50% of the oysters will have survived. And of the
pearls produced, only approximately 5% are of substantial quality for top
jewellery makers.” Here, the term “only 50% survives” suggests this passage
discusses the difficulties of cultivating process.

16. Answer: F

Question type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 6

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “the actual value
of a natural pearl is determined in the same way as it would be for other
“precious” gems. The valuation factors include size, shape, and colour,
quality of surface, orient, and lustre. In general, cultured pearls are less
valuable than natural pearls.” This confirms that this passage discusses the
variety of factors that determine the value of the pearl.

17. Answer: C

Question type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “the only
difference between natural pearls and cultured pearls is that the irritant is a
surgically implanted bead or piece of shell called Mother of Pearl.” This
confirms that this passage discusses different types of growth mechanisms that
distinguish cultured pearls from natural ones.

18. Answer: B

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 3

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line “Roman women wore pearls to bed so they could be reminded of their
wealth immediately upon waking up. Before jewellers learned to cut gems,
the pearl was of greater value than the diamond.” Here, this line confirms that
pearls were gems for Ancient Roman women.

19. Answer: J

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 5

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “in the Orient and
Persia Empire, pearls were ground into powders to cure anything from heart
disease to epilepsy, with possible aphrodisiac uses as well.” Confirms that it
was the people of Persia who used pearl powder as medicine.

20. Answer: K

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 4

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line “the Island of Mallorca (in Spain) is known for its imitation pearl
industry.” Here, this line confirms that Spain is famous for its imitation pearl
industry.

21. Answer: F

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 4

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line“Akoya pearls from Japan are some of the most lustrous. A good quality
necklace of 40 Akoya pearls measuring 7 mm in diameter .” This line confirms
that it is Japan the country that usually manufactures some of the glitteriest
cultured pearls.

22. Answer: C

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, 3rd last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, the last part of the paragraph is
dedicated to the large size pearls. It is also clear from the line, “the South Sea
waters of Australia tend to produce the larger pearls; probably because the
water along the coastline is supplied with rich nutrients from the ocean
floor.” Here, the word water along the coastline is supplied with rich nutrients has
been paraphrased in the question as favorable environmental conditions along
the coastline.

23. Answer: D

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 1

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “historically, the
world’s best pearls came from the Persian Gulf, especially around what is
now Bahrain.” Confirms that the country of Bahrain produces the world’s best
pearls.

24. Answer: TRUE

Question type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, this entire paragraph is dedicated to

the production difference between natural and cultivated pearls. It is paraphrased
from the line, “the only difference between natural pearls and cultured pearls
is that the irritant is a surgically implanted bead or piece of shell called
Mother of Pearl. The resulting core is, therefore, much larger than in a
natural pearl.” Here, the term “much larger than natural pearl” suggests that it’s
true that cultivated pearls’ centres are larger than natural pearls.

25. Answer: FALSE

Question type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 9

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph mentions that “in general,
cultured pearls are less valuable than natural pearls, whereas imitation
pearls almost have no value.” Therefore, we can deduce that cultivated pearls
are not valued the same as natural pearls.

26. Answer: TRUE

Question type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, 5th last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, the last part of the paragraph is
dedicated to pearls sizes. It is also clear from the line, “Akoya pearls from
Japan are some of the most lustrous. A good-quality necklace of 40 Akoya
pearls measuring 7 mm in diameter sells for about $1,500, while a super-
high-quality strand sells for about $4,500. Size, on the other hand, has to do
with the age of the oyster that created the pearl (the more mature oysters
produce larger pearls) and the location in which the pearl was cultured. The
South Sea waters of Australia tend to produce the larger pearls.” Here, these
lines from the passage confirm that size of pearls in Japan is usually smaller than
the one that came from Australia.

27. Answer: TRUE

Question type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 12

Answer explanation: In the given paragraph a line claims that “among cultured
pearls, Akoya pearls from Japan are some of the most lustrous.” Akoya
pearls are some of the most lustrous and not the lustrous amongst all. So we
don’t know whether it glittered more than Australian pearls or not. No such
comparison is given in the passage. So it is NOT GIVEN

Reading Passage 3

28. Answer: F

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, the first part of the paragraph refers
to “convinced her father that shower power should be in
supermarkets.” Thus, we can infer that the daughter of Coles Myer is persuading
another family member to sell cleaning products such as shower power.

29. Answer: E

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “it was all hands
on deck at the factory, labelling and bottling Shower Power to keep up with
demand.” As the idiom ‘all hands on deck’ implies that all team members are
required. It suggests that it was a difficult situation for factory staff to cope with
sales.

30. Answer: C

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 8

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “he is credited with
finding the Shower Power formula.” This line alludes to the account of the
creation of the formula of Shower Power.

31. Answer: B

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, this entire paragraph is dedicated to

shower powder innovation. It is clear from the given line, “Tom Quinn and John
Heron bought a struggling cleaning products business, OzKleen .” Hence, it
signifies the account of buying the original OzKleen company.

32. Answer: G

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 5

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes the Shower Power’s international expansion, i.e., ‘the cleaning
products are sold everywhere.’

33. Answer: D

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: A line in the paragraph denotes the reason for changing
the size of Shower Power. The reason is that “Tom Quinn decided to sell it in
750ml bottles after the constant “raves” from customers at their retail store
at, near Brisbane.”

34. Answer: A

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 5

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, the passage states examples of

some ideas that innovate “are spruiking to potential investors include new
water-saving showerheads, a keyless locking system, ping-pong balls that
keep pollution out of rainwater tanks and so on.”

35. Answer: C

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph A, last line

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, it is mentioned that according to

Grant Kearney, “an idea only becomes innovation when it is connected to
the right resources and capabilities.” The right resources and capabilities are
the support required for innovations to succeed.

36. Answer: A

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 4

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph Tom Quinn said, “we
did a dummy label and went to see Woolworths.” Thus, we can infer from this
line that he is describing his story of selling his product to a chain store.

37. Answer: D

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 3

Answer explanation: Paragraph F puts forward the information that “Peter

Quinn says the company was wary of how long the sales would last and
hesitated to spend money on upgrading the manufacturing
process.” According to Peter Quinn, he was able to sense a problem about how
long the sales would last. Therefore, we can deduce that he believes new
products like Shower Power may incur risks.

38. Answer: B

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph convey that “Shower
Power was released in Australian supermarkets in 1997 and became the
top-selling product in its category within six months.” Besides that “Belinda
McDonnell recalls it was hand-to-mouth, cash flow was very difficult.” Since
it was a hand-to-mouth difficult cash flow situation, it implies that there was a
shortage of money when sales suddenly increased.

39. Answer: B

Question type: Multiple-Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 2

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims “Tom
Quinn to sell it in 750ml bottles after the constant ‘raves’ from customers at
their retail store,near Brisbane.” And “how good Shower Power was.” This
line indicates that Tom Quinn changed the bottle size to make it more appealing
to individual customers.
40. Answer: D

Question type: Multiple-Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph G, last line

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph indicates the reason why Tom
Quinn decided not to sell Ozkleen. It was because he says ‘he is happy with
things as they are.’ From this line, we can infer that we wanted things to remain
unchanged.

Copy Your Neighbour, What Are You Laughing At?, Memory Decoding

Reading Answers
Nehasri Ravishenbagam

26 min read

Updated On Aug 14, 2024

Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below.

Find the practice test with the Copy Your Neighbour PDF here.

Copy Your Neighbour

Questions 1 – 5

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-I.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-I, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. Criticism against flight height theory of butterfly

2. Explained why Beccaloni researched in Ecuador.

3. Different mimicry ring flies at different height

4. The method of catching butterfly by Beccaloni

5. Not all Mimicry patterns are toxic information sent out from insects.

Questions 6-11

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
1

In boxes 6-11 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

6. All butterflies’ colours of the wing reflect the sense of warning to other
predators.

7. Insects may imitate butterflies’ wing patterns as well.

8. Flying the Altitude of a butterfly is determined by their food.

9. Beccaloni agreed with the flight height hypothesis and decide to reassure its
validity.

10. Jatun Sacha has the riches diversity of breeds in the world.

11. Beecaloni has more detailed records on the location of butterfly collection than
others.

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Questions 12-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D

Write your answers in boxes 12-13 on your answer sheet.

12. Which is correct about butterflies’ flight altitude?

A. Flight height theory already established

B. Butterfly always flies at a certain height

C. It is like the aeroplane’s flying phenomenon

D. Each butterfly has its own favourable height

13. Which is correct about Beccaloni’s next investigation after flight height?

A. Some certain statistics have already been collected

B. Try to find connections between larval height and adult ones

C. It’s very difficult to raise butterfly larval

D. Different larval favours different kinds of trees

Reading Passage 2

What are you laughing at?

Questions 14 – 19

Look at the following research findings (questions 1-6) and the list of people
below.

Match each finding with the correct person, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 1-6 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

A. Tom Flamson
B. Elke Zimmerman

C. Robert Provine

D. Jaak Panksepp

14. Babies and chimps produce similar sounds of laughter.

15. Primates are not the only animals who produce laughter Pan

16. Laughter also suggests that we feel safe and easy with others.

17. Laughter is a response to a polite situation instead of humour.

18. Animal laughter evolved before human laughter

19. Laughter is a social activity.

Questions 20 – 23

Complete the summary using the list of words, A-K, below.

Write the correct letter, A-K, in boxes 7-10 on your answer sheet.

Some researchers believe that laughter first evolved out of 20…………………….

An investigation has revealed that human and chimp laughter may have the same
21 ……………………. Besides, scientists have been aware that
22…………………… laugh, however, it now seems that laughter might be more
widespread than once we thought. Although the reasons why humans started to
laugh are still unknown, it seems that laughter may result from the
23…………………… we feel with another person

A. evolution

B. chirps

C. origins

D. voice

E. confidence

F. rats
G. primates

H. response

I. play

J. children

K. tickling

Questions 24 – 26

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 1?

In boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

24. Both men and women laugh more when they are with members of the same
sex.

25. Primates lack sufficient breath control to be able to produce laughs the way
humans do.

25. Chimpanzees produce laughter in a wider range of situations than rats do

Reading Passage 3

Memory Decoding

Questions 27-31

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.
27. The reason why the competence of super memory is significant in academic
settings

28. Mention of a contest for extraordinary memory held in consecutive years

29. A demonstrative example of extraordinary person did an unusual recalling

game

30. A belief that extraordinary memory can be gained through enough practice

31. A depiction of the rare ability which assists the extraordinary memory
reactions

Questions 32-36

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage,

using no more than three words from the Reading Passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 32-36 on your answer sheet.

Using visual imagery and spatial navigation to remember numbers are

investigated and explained. A man called Ed Cooke in a pub, spoke a string of
odd words when he held 7 of the spades (the first one of any cards group) was
remembered as he encoded it to a 32. ________ and the card deck to memory is
set to be one time of an order of 33 ________; When it comes time to recall,
Cooke took a 34. ________along his way and interpreted the imaginary scene
into cards. This superior memory skill can be traced back to Ancient Greece, the
strategy was called 35. ________which had been a major subject was in ancient
36. ________.

Questions 37-38

Choose TWO correct letters, A-E

Write your answers in boxes 37-38 on your answer sheet.

According to World Memory Championships, what activities need good

memory?

A. order for a large group of each digit

B. recall people’s face

C. resemble a long Greek poem

D. match name with pictures and features

E. recall what people ate and did yesterday

Questions 39-40

Choose TWO correct letters, A-E

Write your answers in boxes 39-40 on your answer sheet.

What is the result of Psychologists Elizabeth Valentine and John Wilding‘s MRI
Scan experiment find out?

A. the champions ‘ brains are different in some way from common people

B. the difference in the brain of champions’ scan image to control subjects are
shown when memorizing sequences of three-digit numbers

C. champions did much worse when they are asked to remember photographs

D. the memory-champs activated more brain regions than control subjects

E. there is some part in the brain coping with visual and spatial memory

Answers

Reading Passage 1

1Answer: E

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 5

Answer explanation: Paragraph E, illustrates the questions pointed out by

DeVries, who said that mimicry complexes were stratified by flight height.
The idea is that wing colour patterns are camouflaged against the different
patterns of light and shadow at each level in the canopy, providing the first
line of defence, against predators. But the light patterns and wing patterns
don’t match very well. And observations show that the insects do not shift in
height as the day progresses. The light patterns and wing patterns don’t
match very well. He concluded by saying that the theory doesn’t explain why the
model species is flying at that specific height in the first place. These lines
indicate that DeVries criticized the flight height theory of butterfly. So, the answer
is E.

2Answer: B

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 5

Answer explanation: We can find reference in the 5th line of Paragraph B, which
states that in pursuit of a solution to the mystery of mimetic
exuberance, Beccaloni set off for one of the mega centres for butterfly
diversity, the point where the western edge of the Amazon basin
meets the foothills of the Andes in Ecuador. These lines suggest that in order
to find a solution to the mystery of mimetic exuberance, Beccaloni went to a mega
centre for butterfly diversity, the point where the western edge of the amazon
basin meets the foothills of the Andes in Ecuador. The main objective of
Beccaloni was to understand how the organization of butterflies was done and
their relation to mimicry. So, the answer is B.

3Answer: G

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph G

Answer explanation: We understand from paragraph G that

Beccaloni’s attention to detail paid off when he found that the mimicry rings
were flying at two quite separate altitudes. He claimed that their forest use was
quite distinctive, for example, most members of the clear-winged mimicry ring
would fly close to the forest floor, while the majority of the 12 species in
the tiger-winged ring fly high up. Each mimicry ring had its own characteristic
flight height. We understand that Beccaloni came to the conclusion that the
butterflies with different mimicry patterns on the wings made a flight at various
altitudes. So, the answer is G.
4Answer: F

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 8

Answer explanation: The 8th line of paragraph F illustrates that Beccaloni used
a large bag-like net to capture his prey. This allowed him to sample the 2.5
meters immediately above the forest floor. Unlike many previous workers, he
kept very precise notes on exactly where he caught his specimens. These
lines reveal that Beccaloni used the effective strategies employed by the
entomologists before him. He used a large bag-like net to capture his prey, which
allowed him to catch a sample to an extent of 2.5 metres. Thus, the answer is F.

5Answer: D

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph D

Answer explanation: Paragraph D states the fact that despite all the ithomiines
are poisonous, it is in their interest to evolve to look like one another because
predators that learn to avoid one species will also avoid others that resemble
it. This is known as Mullerian mimicry. Mimicry rings may also contain insects
that are not toxic but gain protection by looking like a model species: an
adaptation called Batesian mimicry. These lines indicate that some mimicry
rings contain non-toxic insects, and gain protection by looking like a model
species. We can understand that in order to create a defence, the insects aim to
make themselves resemble those insects. Thus, the answer is D.

6Answer: False

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph D

Answer explanation: The initial line of paragraph D states that although

all ithomiines are poisonous, it is in their interest to evolve to look like one
another because predators that learn to avoid one species will also avoid
others that resemble it. This is known as Mullerian mimicry. We understand that
according to the Mullerian mimicry, many ithomiines are poisonous but it is in their
interest to resemble one another, which notifies the predators of the threat sign.
Therefore, the statement contradicts the information, so, the answer is False.

7Answer: True

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 3

Answer explanation: The 3rd line of paragraph D states that Mimicry rings may
also contain insects that are not toxic but gain protection by looking like
a model species, which is an adaptation called Batesian mimicry. These lines
suggest that according to the Batesian mimicry, many insects follow the pattern of
mimicry rings, despite the fact that they do not resemble any danger to the
predator. Thus, the statement agrees with the information, so, the answer is
True.

8Answer: Not Given

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 2

Answer explanation: The 2nd line in Paragraph G states an example, according

to which, most members of the clear-winged mimicry ring would fly close to the
forest floor, while the majority of the 12 species in the tiger-winged ring fly
high up. Each mimicry ring had its own characteristic flight height. These
lines reveal that each mimicry ring had its own characteristics because a clear-
winged mimicry ring would fly close to the forest whereas the 12 species in the
tiger-winged ring would fly high up. However, there’s no reference that the
butterfly’s flying altitude is determined by their food. Hence, the answer is Not
Given.

9Answer: False

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph F

Answer explanation: The introductory line of paragraph F reveals that initially,

Beccaloni didn’t agree with the flight height hypothesis when he went to
Ecuador, as a result of which he set out to test it. Thus, the statement
contradicts the information, so, the answer is False.

10Answer: Not Given

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 6

Answer explanation: We find a reference for Jatun Sacha in the 6th line of
paragraph F, which states that it consists of 56 ithomiine butterfly species
divided among eight mimicry rings. Apart from that, there were also 69 other
insect species, including 34 day-flying moths and a damselfly, all in a 200-
hectare study area. These lines suggest that Jatun Sacha had a sheer diversity
of breeds. However, there’s no reference that he was the richest diversity of
breeds in the world.

11Answer: True

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 5

Answer explanation: The 5th line of paragraph B illustrates that in pursuit of a

solution to the mystery of mimetic exuberance, Beccaloni set off for one of
the mega centres for butterfly diversity, the point where the western edge of
the Amazon basin meets the foothills of the Andes in Ecuador. These lines
state that Beccaloni came up with the idea of researching each of resolving the
mystery of mimetic exuberance as he was aware of the relation of the location
and the species of butterfly found there. Thus, the statement agrees with the
information, so, the answer is True.

12Answer: D

Question type: Multiple Choice Question

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 2

Answer explanation: An example is found in the 2nd line of paragraph G, which

states that most members of the clear-winged mimicry ring would fly close to
the forest floor, while the majority of the 12 species in the tiger-winged ring fly
high up. Each mimicry ring had its own characteristic flight height. These
lines indicate that each mimicry ring had its own characteristic flight height, i.e, a
clear-winged mimicry ring would fly close to the floor of the forest, while the tiger-
winged ring would fly up in the sky. Therefore, it is evident that different species of
mimicry rings maintained their flight at different heights. So, the answer is D.

13Answer: B

Question type: Multiple Choice Question

Answer location: Paragraph I

Answer explanation: The introductory line of Paragraph I states that Beccaloni

had an idea to look at the distribution of ithomiine larval food plants within
the canopy. He’d record the height of each above the ground at which the eggs
or larvae were found. These lines reveal Beccaloni’s idea, which was to locate
the distribution of larval food plants and canopy. The primary aim of his idea was
to research the maximum height to which the host plant would shoot up about the
height at which eggs and larvae were found above the ground. Thus, the answer
is B.

Reading Passage 2

14Answer: B

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 4

Answer explanation: 24th line of paragraph D states that the findings come
from Elke Zimmerman, head of the Institute for Zoology in Germany,
who compared the sounds made by babies and chimpanzees in response to
tickling during the first year of their life. These lines indicate that Elke
Zimmerman compared the sounds of babies and chimpanzees made in response
to tickling in the first year of life. So, it’s evident that Elke Zimmerman was a man
who compared the tickling sounds of babies and chimps to know whether they
produced similar sounds of laughter. Thus, the answer is B.

15Answer: D

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 5

Answer explanation: Paragraph E, Line 5 states that till now, the

most compelling evidence for laughter beyond primates comes from
research done by Jaak Panksepp from Bowling Green State University, Ohio,
into the ultrasonic chirps produced by rats during play and in response to
tickling. These lines suggest that the most significant evidence for laughter
beyond primates is from Jaak Panksepp’s research, where it was researched if
the ultrasonic chirps produced by rats during play and in response to tickling. We
can understand that it was Jaak Panksepp who proved that primates are not the
only ones who can laugh. So, the answer is D.

16Answer: A

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 10

Answer explanation: The 10th line of paragraph F is said by Flamson, who says,
“Even in rats, laughter, tickle, play, and trust are linked. Rats chirp a lot when
they play, ‘says Flamson. ‘These chirps can be aroused by tickling. And they
get bonded to us as a result, which certainly seems like a show of
trust.’” These lines reveal that laughter, tickle, play, and trust are linked in rats as
they chirp a lot while they play. Their chirps are aroused by tickling. As a result of
which they get bonded, which showcases trust. Therefore, these lines are said by
Tom Flamson. So, the answer is A.

17Answer: C

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph B

Answer explanation: The introductory line of Paragraph B states that laughter

evolved as a signal to others – it almost disappears when we are alone,’ says
Robert Provine, a neuroscientist at the University of Maryland. Provine found
that most laughter comes as a polite reaction to everyday remarks such
as ‘see you later’, rather than anything particularly funny. We can deduce that
Robert Provine saying that laughter is like a signal to others, which disappears
when a person is alone. Provine also claims that most of the laughter comes as a
polite interaction between people rather than something funny. Thus, Provine
says that laughter is a response to polite situations instead of humor. So, the
answer is C.

18Answer: B

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 8

Answer explanation: The 8th line of paragraph D

illustrates, Zimmerman believing the closeness of baby laughter to chimp
laughter supports the idea that laughter was around long before humans
arrived on the scene. These lines reveal that Zimmerman believed that there
were similarities between a baby’s laughter and chimpanzee’s laughter and that
the laughter was around long before humans arrived. Thus, animal laughter
evolved before humans was said by Elke Zimmerman. So, the answer is B.

19Answer: C

Question type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 2

Answer explanation: Paragraph B, line 2 states that Laughter evolved as a

signal to others – it almost disappears when we are alone,’ says Robert
Provine, a neuroscientist at the University of Maryland. Provine found that
most laughter comes as a polite reaction to everyday remarks such as ‘see
you later’, rather than anything particularly funny. These lines indicate that most
of the laughter comes as a response to polite interaction between people such as
‘see you later’ rather than something funny. Here, polite interaction refers to social
activity. So, laughter can be defined as social activity, was said by Robert
Provine. Thus, the answer is C.

20Answer: I

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph C

Answer explanation: The initial lines of paragraph C illustrates, “To find the
origins of laughter, Provine believes we need to look at the play.” These lines
demonstrate provine saying that in order to find the origins of laughter, it is
required to look at the play. Thus, according to Provine, laughter first evolved out
of play. So, the answer that fits the sentence is I. play.

21Answer: C

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 7

Answer explanation: We can find reference in the 7th line of paragraph D

that Zimmerman discovered that chimp and human baby laughter follow
broadly the same pattern. She believed the closeness of baby laughter to
chimp laughter supports the idea that laughter was around long before
humans arrived on the scene. What started simply as a modification of
breathing associated with enjoyable and playful interactions has acquired
a symbolic meaning as an indicator of pleasure. We can understand from
these lines that Zimmerman found a similarity between the laughter of babies and
chimps, which revealed that laughter was around long before humans arrived.
What initially started with the breathing associated with playful and enjoyable
interaction has now a symbolic meaning indicating pleasure. Hence, it is evident
that the origin of the laughter of chimps and humans is the same. So, the answer
is C. Origins.

22Answer: G

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 4

Answer explanation: The 4th line of paragraph E illustrates that Scientists are
currently testing such stories with a comparative analysis of just
how common laughter is, among animals. So far, though, the most compelling
evidence for laughter beyond primates comes from research done by Jaak
Panksepp from Bowling Green State University, Ohio, into the ultrasonic chirps
produced by rats during play and in response to tickling. These lines indicate
that scientists are researching how common laughter is among the animals. Till
now, the most significant evidence for laughter beyond primates comes from
Jaak’s research. So, it’s evident that primates can also laugh. So, the answer is G
– Primates.

23Answer: E
Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 10

Answer explanation: We find reference in the 10th line of paragraph F, which

states that laughter, tickle, play, and trust are linked to rats. Tom Flamson
says that rats chirp a lot when they play and those chirps can be aroused by
tickling. And they get bonded to us as a result, which certainly seems like
a show of trust. These lines reveal that rats get bound to humans showcasing
trust. This line indicates that humans laugh when they trust someone, which
builds confidence. Although the reasons why humans started to laugh is still not
known, it seems that laughter results from the confidence a person feels with
another person. So, the answer is E – confidence.

24Answer: False

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 5

Answer explanation: The 5th line of paragraph B states that men tend to laugh
longer and harder when they are with other men, perhaps as a way of bonding.
Women tend to laugh more and at a higher pitch when men are present,
possibly indicating flirtation or even submission. These lines suggest that men
used to laugh more when they’ve company with other men, resulting in a great
bond between them. Similarly, women laugh harder and louder when there’s a
man present with them indicating a sign of flirtatious behavior or submission.
Thus, the statement contradicts the information, so, the answer is False.

25Answer: True

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 8

Answer explanation: The 8th line of paragraph D illustrates that Zimmerman

thought the closeness of baby laughter to chimp laughter supports the idea
that laughter was around long before humans arrived on the scene. What
started simply as a modification of breathing associated with enjoyable and
playful interactions has acquired a symbolic meaning as an indicator of
pleasure. These lines indicate Zimmerman’s belief that there was a similarity in
the laughter of baby and chimp, which supported the idea that laughter was
around long before humans arrived. What started with the breathing associated
with playful and enjoyable interactions has a symbolic meaning which indicates
pleasure. This line suggests that primates could laugh before humans but their
laugh was not a symbol of pleasure as humans. Thus, the statement matches the
information, so, the answer is True.

26Answer: Not Given

Question type: True/False/Not Given

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 2

Answer explanation: The 2nd line of paragraph A states that while joking and wit
are uniquely human inventions, laughter certainly is not. Other creatures,
including chimpanzees, gorillas, and even rats, chuckle. Obviously, they don’t
crack up at Homer Simpson or titter at the boss’s dreadful jokes, but the fact that
they laugh in the first place suggests that sniggers and chortles have been
around for a lot longer than we have. These lines illustrate that even
chimpanzees, gorillas, and even rats chuckle, which indicates that sniggers and
chortles have been present for a long time. However, there’s no reference that
chimpanzees had a wider range of situations that resulted in laughter than rats
did. So, the answer is Not Given.

Reading Passage 3

27Answer: F

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 11

Answer explanation: We find reference in the 11th line of paragraph A, which

states that before printed books, the art of memory was considered a staple of
classical education on par with grammar, logic, and rhetoric. These lines
indicate that the art of remembering images and recalling them through an
imaginary route is considered significant in academic studies. Since the ancestors
didn’t have any books, super memory at that time was considered classical
education. Thus, this is the reason the competence of super memory is significant
in academic settings. So, the answer is F.
28Answer: B

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B

Answer explanation: The introductory line of paragraph B illustrates that in timed

trials, contestants were challenged to take at and then recite a two-page
poem, memorize rows of 40-digit numbers, recall the names of 110 people
after looking at their photographs, and perform seven other feats of
extraordinary retention. Some tests took just a few minutes; others
lasted hours. In the 14 years since the World Memory Championships was
founded, no one has memorized the order of a shuffled deck of playing cards
in less than 30 seconds. These lines state that contestants were challenged to
take and then recite a two page poem, memorize the row of 40 digit numbers,
recall the names of 110 people after looking at their photos and perform seven
other feats of extraordinary retention. While some tests took only a few minutes,
others lasted hours. People were asked to remember things in the world memory
championship contest for extraordinary memory, where no participant has
memorized the order of a shuffled deck of playing cards in less than 30 seconds.
Thus, this is a contest held for extraordinary memory in consecutive years. So,
the answer is B.

29Answer: D

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 2

Answer explanation: The 2nd line of paragraph D illustrates that Cooke, a 23-
year-old cognitive-science graduate student with a shoulder-length mop of
curly hair, is a grandmaster of brain storage. He can memorize the order of 10
decks of playing cards in less than an hour or one deck of cards in less
than a minute. These lines indicate that Cooke was a grandmaster of brain
storage, who can memorize 1 deck of cards in less than a minute. So, this is an
example of an extraordinary person who did an unusual recalling game. Thus, the
answer is D.

30Answer: H

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph H, line 3

Answer explanation: Paragraph H states about K. Anders Ericsson, who cited

an experiment with S. F, who was paid to take a standard test of memory. The
3rd line illustrates that when he started, he could hold, like most people, only
about seven digits in his head at any given time (conveniently, the length of a
phone number). Over two years, S. F. completed 250 hours of testing. By then,
he had stretched his digit span from 7 to more than 80. The study of S. F. led
Ericsson to believe that innately superior memory doesn’t exist at all. When
he reviewed original case studies of naturals, he found that exceptional
memorizers were using techniques—sometimes without realizing it—and lots
of practice. These lines reveal that initially, S. F could hold only 7 digits in his
head, but after 2 years with lots of consistent practice, he could remember more
than 80 digits. These lines indicate a belief that extraordinary memory can be
gained through enough practice. So, the answer is H.

31 Answer: G

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 3

Answer explanation: Paragraph G, line 3, states, “The capacity of his memory

had no distinct limits,” wrote Alexander Luria, the Russian psychologist who
studied Shereshevskii from the 1920s to the 1950s. Shereshevski also
had synesthesia, a rare condition in which the senses become intertwined For
example, every number may be associated with a colour or every word with
a taste. Synesthetic reactions evoke a response in more areas of the brain,
making memory easier. We can deduce from these lines that Alexander was
diagnosed with synesthesia and this reaction assists the extraordinary memory
reaction, making memories easier to remember. Thus, synesthesia is a rare
ability. So, the answer is G.

32Answer: a specific person

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph E

Answer explanation: The initial lines of paragraph E states that Cooke has
already memorized a specific person, verb, and object that he associates with
each card in the deck. These lines indicate that Cooke has linked each card in
the deck with a specific person, verb, and object. So, the answer that fits the
summary is a specific person.

33Answer: three cards

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 5

Answer explanation: The 5th line of paragraph E states that when

Cooke commits a deck to memory, he does it three cards at a time.
Every three-card group forms a single image of a person doing something to
an object. These lines suggest that when Cooke used to carry out a deck to the
memory, he’d take 3 cards at a time and each card group had already formed an
image in his head. Thus, the answer is three cards.

34Answer: mental walk

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 9

Answer explanation: The 9th line of paragraph E illustrates that when it comes
time to recall Cooke takes a mental walk along his route and
translates the images into cards. These lines suggest that Cooke goes on a
mental walk along his route and translates the imaginary scene into cards. Thus,
the answer is mental walk.

35Answer: toci method

Question type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: The 2nd line of paragraph F states that competitive

memorizers place their images along an imaginary route. That technique,
known as the toci method reportedly originated in 477 B.C. with the Greek poet
Simonides of Ceos. These lines reveal that it is the technique used by Cooke to
memorize the cards. The memorizer remembers the image along with an
imaginary route. Thus, the answer is toci method.
36Answer: education

Question type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 11

Answer explanation: The eleventh line of paragraph F illustrates that before

printed books, the art of memory was considered a staple of classical
education, on a par with grammar, logic, and rhetoric. These lines indicate
that our ancestors used to consider the art of memorization as a staple of
classical education on par with grammar, logic, and rhetoric. Thus, the answer is
education.

37Answer: A

Question type: Multiple Choice Question

Answer location: Paragraph B

Answer explanation: The introductory line of paragraph B states that in timed

trials, contestants were challenged to take at and then recite a two-page
poem, memorize rows of 40-digit numbers, recall the names of 110 people
after looking at their photographs, and perform seven other feats of
extraordinary retention. These lines reveal that contestants of the programs
were challenged to recite two page numbers, memorize rows of 40 digit numbers,
recall the names of 120 people after looking at their pictures and perform 7 other
feats of extraordinary retention. Therefore, according to the world memory
championship, order of a large group of each digit is required for a good memory.
So, the answer is A.

38Answer: D

Question type: Multiple Choice Question

Answer location: Paragraph B

Answer explanation: The initial lines of paragraph B illustrates that during

the timed trails, contestants were challenged to take at and then recite a two-
page poem, memorize rows of 40-digit numbers, recall the names of 110
people after looking at their photographs, and perform seven other feats of
extraordinary retention. We can deduce from these lines that contestants were
instructed to recall the names of 110 people by looking at their pictures and
perform 7 other feats of extraordinary retention. So, the answer is D.

39Answer: B

Question type: Multiple Choice Question

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 6

Answer explanation: The 6th line of paragraph C states that when it came
to memorizing sequences of three-digit numbers, the difference between
the memory contestants and the control subjects was, as expected,
immense. These lines suggest that the MRI experiment of Elizabeth valentine
and John wilding reveals that when it comes to memorizing sequences of three-
digit numbers, there was an immense difference between the memory contestants
and the control subjects. So, the answer is B.

40Answer: E

Question type: Multiple Choice Question

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 9

Answer explanation: Paragraph C, line 9 states the fact that when the
researchers analyzed the brain scans, they found that the memory champs
were activating some brain regions that were different from those the control
subjects were using. These regions, which included the right posterior
hippocampus, are known to be involved in visual memory and spatial
navigation. These lines suggest that when the brain scans were analyzed, it was
found that the memory champs activated some brain regions that were different
from the control subjects used. It was then concluded that visual memory and
spatial navigation were used while memorizing photos. So, the answer is E.

Coastal Archaeology of Britain, Activities for Children, Mechanisms of

Linguistic Change Reading Answers

Section 1
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Coastal
Archaeology of Britain PDF here.

Coastal Archaeology of Britain

Questions 1-3

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 1-3 on your answer sheet.

1What has caused public interest in coastal archaeology in recent years?

A Golds and jewelleries in the ships that have submerged

B The rising awareness of climate change
CForests under the sea
D Technological advance in the field of sea research

2 What does the passage say about the evidence of boats?

A We have a good knowledge of how boats were made and what boats were for
prehistorically
B Most of the boats discovered were found in harbors
C The use of boats had not been recorded for a thousand years
D The way to build boats has remained unchanged throughout human history

3 What can be discovered from the air?

A Salt mines
B Shellfish
C Ironstones
D Fisheries

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Questions 4-10

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
1? In boxes 4-10 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

4England lost much of its land after the ice-age due to the rising sea level.

5 The coastline of England has changed periodically.

6 Coastal archaeological evidence may be well-protected by sea water.

7 The design of boats used by pre-modem people was very simple.

8 Similar boats were also discovered in many other European countries

9 There are few documents relating to mineral exploitation.

10 Large passenger boats are causing increasing damage to the seashore.

Questions 11-13

Choose THREE letters J-G Write your answer in boxes 11-13 on your answer
sheet Which THREE of the following statements are mentioned in the passage?

A Our prehistoric ancestors adjusted to the environmental change caused by the

rising sea level by moving to higher lands
B It is difficult to understand how many people lived close to the sea.
C Human settlements in coastal environment were different from those inland.
DOur knowledge of boat evidence is limited.
E The prehistoric boats were built mainly for collecting sand from the river.
F Human development threatens the archaeological remains.
G The reason for the decline of salt industry was the shortage of laborers.

Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Activities for
Children PDF here.

Activities for Children

Questions 14 -17

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 14-17 on your answer sheet.

14 Health and living condition of children

15 Health organization monitored physical activity

16 Comparison of exercise time between UK and other countries

17 Wrong approach for school activity

Questions 18-21

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
2? In boxes 18-21 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

18 According to American Heart Foundation, cholesterol levels of boys are higher
than girls’.

19 British children generally do less exercise than some other European

countries.

20 Skipping becomes more and more popular in schools of UK.

21 According to Healthy Kids, the first task is for parents to encourage their
children to keep the same healthy body weight.

Questions 22-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 22-26 on your answer sheet.

22 According to paragraph A, what does Professor Neil Armstrong concern

about?

A Spending more time on TV affect academic level

B Parents have less time stay with their children
C Future health of British children
D Increasing speed of property’s development

23What does Armstrong indicate in Paragraph B?

A We need to take a 10 minute walk everyday

B We should do more activity to exercise heart
C Girls’ situation is better than boys
D Exercise can cure many disease

24What is aim of First Kids’ trainning?

A Make profit by running several sessions

BOnly concentrate on one activity for each child
C To guide parents how to organize activities for children
 D Spread the idea that team sport is better

25 What did Lifshitz suggest in the end of this passage?

A Create opportunities to exercise your body

B Taking elevator saves your time
C Kids should spend more than 200 calories each day
D We should never drive but walk

26 What is main idea of this passage?

A health of the children who are overweight is at risk in the future

B Children in UK need proper exercises
C Government mistaken approach for children
D Parents play the most important role in children’s activity

Also check :

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 IELTS Academic Reading test papers with answers pdf

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Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Mechanisms of
Linguistic Change PDF here.

Mechanisms of Linguistic Change

Questions 27-30
Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet.

The pronunciation of living language undergo changes throughout thousands of

years. Large scale regular Changes are usually called

27___________ . There are three reasons for these changes. Firstly, the
influence of one language on another; when one person imitates another
pronunciation(the most prestige’s), the imitation always partly involving factor
of 28______________ . Secondly, the imitation of children from adults1 language
sometimes are 29___________ , and may also contribute to this change if there
are insignificant deviations tough later they may be corrected Finally, for those
random variations in pronunciation, the deeper evidence lies in
the 30______________or minimization of effort.

Questions 31-37

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
3? In boxes 31-37 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

if the information is not given in the

NOT GIVEN
passage

31 it is impossible for modern people to find pronunciation of words in an earlier

age

32 The great change of language in Russian history is related to the rising status
and fortune of middle classes.
33 All the children learn speeches from adults white they assume that certain
language is difficult to imitate exactly.

34 Pronunciation with causal inaccuracy will not exert big influence on language
changes.

35 The link of can be influenced being pronounced as ‘nf’

36 The [g] in gnat not being pronounced will not be spelt out in the future.

37 The sound of ‘temporary’ cannot wholly present its spelling.

Questions 38-40

Look at the following sentences and the list of statements below. Match each
statement with the correct sentence, A-D.

Write the correct letter, A-D, in boxes 38-40 on your answer sheet

A Since the speakers can pronounce it with less effort

B Assimilation of a sound under the influence of a neighbouring one
C It is a trend for changes in pronunciation in a large scale in a given period
DBecause the speaker can pronounce [n] and [t] both in the same time

38As a consequence, ‘b’ will be pronounced as

39 The pronunciation of [mt] changed to [nt]

40The omit of ‘f in the sound of Christmas

Answer Keys

Coastal Archaeology of Britain Reading Answers (Section 1)

1Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, the author states that “in the 1980s
and 1990s scientific research into climate change and its environmental
impact spilled over into a much broader public debate as awareness of
these issues grew; the prospect of rising sea levels over the next century,
and their impact on current coastal environments, has been a particular
focus for concern.” From this information, we can infer that scientists started to
research climate change and awareness. Also, among the people, the topic
became highly discussed, and the impact of rising sea levels on coastal
environments became a concern. The rising awareness made coastal
archaeology a topic of interest.

2Answer: C

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 3

Answer explanation: The author in the said paragraph puts forward the
information that “the prehistoric sewn-plank boats such as those from the
Humber estuary and Dover all seem to belong to the second millennium BC;
after this, there is a gap in the record of a millennium, which cannot yet be
explained, before boats reappear, but built using a very different
technology.” Here, according to the author, there was a gap of about a
millennium before boats reappeared after the prehistoric sewn plank boats, which
were seen in the second millennium. This gap of thousand years is yet to be
explained as it was not recorded.

3Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph H, line 3

Answer explanation: The said paragraph refers that “elaborate wooden fish
weirs, often of considerable extent and responsive to aerial photography in
shallow water, have been identified in areas such as Essex and the Severn
estuary.” In areas such as Essex and Severn estuary, aerial photography has
been used in shallow water areas to help catch fish. Thus, proving that fish can be
discovered from air.

4Answer: TRUE
Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said that “the
dominant process affecting the physical form of England in the post- glacial
period has been the rise in the altitude of sea level relative to the land, as
the glaciers melted and the landmass readjusted.” As glaciers started melting,
there was a significant impact on the physical forms in England. A rise in sea level
after the post-glacial period led to the readjustment of landmass. A large amount
of land was lost under the North Sea and the English Channel. Britain became an
island, and the land bridge between England and France was also lost.

5Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 4

Answer explanation: Paragraph C informs that “one factor contributing to this

has been that, although the rise in relative sea level is comparatively well
documented, we know little about the constant reconfiguration of the
coastline.” Since it is given that there is little information available about the
constant changes in the coastline of England, we cannot conclude if the change
occurred periodically.

6Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: N/A

Answer explanation: None of the paragraphs confirms or denies that coastal

archaeological evidence may be well-protected by seawater.

7Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that
claims “boatbuilding must have been an extremely important activity around
much of our coast, yet we know almost nothing about it, Boats were some
of the most complex artefacts produced by pre-modem societies, and
further research on their production and use make an important
contribution to our understanding of past attitudes to technology and
technological change.” Here, it is mentioned that boatbuilding was considered
an important activity and boats were some of the most complex artifacts produced
by pre-modem societies.

8Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: N/A

Answer explanation: None of the paragraphs confirm or deny that similar boats
were also discovered in many other European countries.

9Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph H, last line

Answer explanation: Few lines in said paragraph discuss that “other industries
were also located along the coast, either because the raw materials
outcropped there or for ease of working and transport: mineral resources
such as sand, gravel, stone, coal, ironstone, and alum were all exploited.
These industries are poorly documented, but their mains are sometimes
extensive and striking.” As it is given that the documentation of the mineral
resources was done poorly by the industries, we can infer that because of the
poor documentation process there are a few documents relating to mineral
exploitation.

10Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph I, line 4

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, refer that, “the larger size of
ferries has also caused an increase in the damage caused by their wash to
fragile deposits in the intertidal zone. The most significant natural threat is
the predicted rise in sea level over the next century especially in the south
and east of England.” Ferries are boats that carry passengers. And this line
confirms that the larger size of ferries (large passenger boats) has caused
damage to the seashore.

11Answer: B (B, D, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, last line

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “we are not yet in a position to make even
preliminary estimates of answers to such fundamental questions as the
extent to which the sea and the coast affected human life in the past, what
percentage of the population at any time lived within reach of the sea, or
whether human settlements in coastal environments showed a distinct
character from those inland.” Since we are not in a position to ascertain to what
percentage of the population at any time lived within reach of the sea it implies
that it is difficult to understand how many people lived close to the sea.

12Answer: D (B, D, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 4

Answer explanation: Paragraph F provides the information that “boatbuilding

must have been an extremely important activity around much of our coast,
yet we know almost nothing about it, Boats were some of the most complex
artefacts produced by pre-modem societies, and further research on their
production and use make an important contribution to our understanding of
past attitudes to technology and technological change.” Since the author
mentions that boat building was considered an important activity in the past and
we know almost nothing about, it suggests that our knowledge of boat evidence is
limited.

13Answer: F (B, D, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph G, last line

Answer explanation: In the reference paragraph, the author mentions

that “redevelopment of harbor sites and other development and natural
pressures along the coast are subject- ing these important locations to
unprecedented threats, yet few surveys of such sites have been
undertaken.” It implies that these new developments by humans threaten the
archaeological remains.

Activities for Children Reading Answers (Section 2)

Plant Scents, The Development of Plastics, Global Warming in New Zealand

Reading Answers

Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below.

Find the practice test with the Plant Scent PDF here.

Plant Scent

Questions 1-4

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

1 A substance released to help plants themselves.

2 The scent helps the plant’s pollination.

3 Practice on the genetic experiments of fragrance.

4 Plant’s scent attracts herbivore’s enemy for protection.

Questions 5-8

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 1?

In boxes 5-8 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

5 We have little evidence to support the idea that scent attracts pollinators.

6 Heliothis virescens won’t eat those tobacco leaves on which they laid eggs.

7 Certain ants are attracted by volatiles to guard plants in the rainforest.

8 Pollination only affects fruit trees’ production rather than other crop trees.

Questions 9-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, or D.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9 How do wasps protect plants when they are attracted by scents according to the
passage?

A plants induce wasps to prey herbivore.

B wasps lay eggs into caterpillars.

C wasps laid eggs on plants to expel herbivore.

D offending caterpillars and wasp eggs coexist well.

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10 What reason caused the number of honeybees to decline in the United States.

A pollination process

B spread illness

C crop trees are poisonous

D grower’s overlook

11 Which of the following drawbacks about artificial fragrance is NOT mentioned

in the passage?

A it’s very expensive

B it can’t tell correct information to pollinators.

C it needs massive manual labour

D it poisons the local environment

12 The number of $30 billion quoted in the passage is to illustrate the fact that:

A Favourable perfumes are made from ornamental flowers

B traditional floriculture industry needs reform.

C genetic operation on scent can make a vast profit.

D Scent plays a significant role in the Ornamental industry.

13 What is the weakness of genetic experiments on fragrance?

A Linalool level is too low to be smelt by nose

 B no progress made in linalool emission

C experiment on tobacco has a better result

D transgenic plants produce an intense scent

Also check:

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 IELTS Reading tips
 Study in New Zealand
 True False Not Given IELTS Reading
 IELTS Reading recent actual test
 IELTS past paper pdf

Reading Passage 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with The Development
Of Plastics PDF here.

The Development Of Plastics

Questions 14-20

Complete the table below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

Name of Date of Original

plastic invention Property Common use
region

Clothing
Celluloid The 1860S US
and 14______

15 ______ 1907 US can be cast and 16 ______ ’househo

 moulded but
cannot be items and car parts
softened by heat

17
Polythene The 1930s bottles
______

Rigid PVC 18 ______ drains and gutters

transparent
Food container
Polystyrene The 1930s Germany
and resembled domestic
19______

formation like adhesives, coatings,

Polyurethanes Germany
and insulation
20 ______

Questions 21-26

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 2?

In boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

21 The chemical structure of plastic is very different from that of rubber.

22 John Wesley was a famous chemist.

23 Celluloid and Bakelite react to heat in the same way.

24 The mix of different varieties of plastic can make them less recyclable.

25 Adding starch into plastic does not necessarily make plastic more durable.
26 Some plastic containers have to be preserved in special conditions.

Reading Passage 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Global
Warming In New Zealand PDF here.

Global Warming In New Zealand

Questions 27-32

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

27 What is the main idea of the first paragraph?

A The temperature in the polar region will increase less than that in New Zealand
in the next century.

B The weather and climate of New Zealand are very important to its people
because of its close location to the polar region.

C The air condition in New Zealand will maintain a high quality because of the
ocean.

D The temperature of New Zealand will increase less than that of other regions in
the next 100 years because it is surrounded by sea.

28 What is one effect of the wind belt that circles the Southern Oceans?

A New Zealand will have more moisture in winds in summer.

B New Zealand needs to face droughts more often in hotter months in a year.

C Soil water will increase as a result of weakening moisture in the winds.

D Agricultural production will be reduced as a result of more rainfall in other

seasons.
29 What does “moisture deficit” mean to the grain and crops?

A The growing condition will be very tough for crops.

B The growing season of some plants can hardly be determined.

C There will be a huge gap between the water plants needed and the water the
earth can offer

D The soil of grain and crops in New Zealand reached its lowest production since
the 1970s.

30 What changes will happen to the skiing industry due to the global warming
phenomenon?

A The skiing station may lower the altitude of skiing.

B Part of the skiing station needs to move to the north.

C The snowfall may increase in the part of the skiing station.

D The local skiing station may likely to make a profit because of the snowfall
increase.

31 Cumulative changes over a long period of time in mass balance will lead to

A alterations in the volume and thickness of glaciers

B faster changes in internal deformation and basal sliding.

C bigger length of glaciers.

D the retreat of glacier tongues as a result of a change in annual atmospheric

conditions.
32 Why does the writer mention NIWA in the sixth paragraph?

A To use a particular example to explain the effects brought by glacier melting.

B To emphasize the severance of the further loss of ice in the Mt. Cook Region.

C To alarm the reader of the melting speed of glaciers at a uniform rate.

D To note the lake in the region will disappear when it reaches the glacier bed.

Questions 33-35

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
Write your answers in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet

Research data shows that sea level has a close relationship with the change of
climate. The major reason for the increase in sea level is connected with 33
____________, The increase in sea level is also said to have a threat to the
underground water system, the destruction of which caused by the rise of sea
level will lead to a high probability of a reduction in 34_____________. In the long
run, New Zealanders may have to improve the 35__________ if they want to
diminish the effect change in sea levels.

Questions 36-40

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage 3?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

YES, if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer.

NO, if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer

NOT GIVEN, if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

36 Farmers are less responsive to climate change than agriculturists.

37 The agricultural sector is too conservative and deals with climate change.

38 Turtle is vulnerable to climate change.

39 Global warming is going slowly, and it may have different effects on different
areas in New Zealand

40 New Zealand must cut carbon dioxide emissions if they want to solve the
problem of global warming.

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Answers

Reading passage 1 [Plant Scents]

1.

Answer: B

Question Type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, the author in the given paragraph
mentions that “the heavier C20 terpenes, called diterpenes, are glue-like and
can cover and immobilize insects as they plug the hole. This defense
mechanism is as ancient as it is effective: Many samples of fossilized resin,
or amber, contain the remains of insects trapped inside. Many other plants
emit volatiles when injured, and in some cases, the emitted signal helps
defend the plant.” Hence, we can conclude that this paragraph discusses
various types of substances released by plants such as resin, diterpenes, and
volatiles to protect themselves.

2.

Answer: A

Question Type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims, “everyone
is familiar with scented flowers, and many people have heard that floral
odors help the plant attract pollinators.” The term floral odor has been
paraphrased to scent.

3.

Answer: F

Question Type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 4

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, refer that, ” Ornamentals, including

cut flowers, foliage, and potted plants, play an important aesthetic role in
human life. Unfortunately, traditional breeding has often produced cultivars
with improved vase life, shipping characteristics, colour, and shape while
sacrificing desirable perfumes. The loss of scent among ornamentals,
which have a worldwide value of more than $30 billion, makes them
important targets for the genetic manipulation of flower fragrance.” From
this line, we can infer that genetic experiments of fragrance are carried out in the
floriculture industry. And the industry has a worldwide value of more than $30
billion.

4.

Answer: C

Question Type: Matching Information Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 3

Answer explanation: Paragraph C puts forward the information that “Herbivore

induced volatiles often serve as indirect defenses.” Also, “plants not only
emit volatiles acutely, at the site where caterpillars, mites, aphids or similar
insects are eating them but also generally from non-damaged parts of the
plant. These signals attract a variety of predatory insects that prey on the
plant-eaters.” Volatiles are the plant scents that are released from plants which
attract herbivores’ enemies for protection.

5.
Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “everyone is familiar with scented flowers,
and many people have heard that floral odors help the plant attract
pollinators. This common notion is mostly correct, but it is surprising how
little scientific proof of it exists. .” Since it is mentioned that there is little
scientific proof, we can conclude that we have little evidence if scent attracts
pollinators.

6.

Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, 2nd last line

Answer explanation: Though in paragraph B it is mentioned that “many other

plants emit volatiles when injured, and in some cases, the emitted signal
helps defend the plant. For example,(Z)_3_ hexenyl acetate, which is known
as a “green leaf volatile” because it is emitted by many plants upon injury,
deters females of the moth Heliothis virescens from laying eggs on injured
tobacco plants.” However, there is no information given that confirms that
Heliothis virescens won’t eat those tobacco leaves on which they laid eggs.

7.

Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 9

Answer explanation: In the reference paragraph, the author mentions that “in the
rainforest understory tree Leonardoxa Africana, ants of the species
Petalomyrmex phylax patrol young leaves and attack any herbivorous
insects that they encounter.” Here, certain ants are the Petalomyrmex phylax
ant species. Also, patrol means to keep watch over an area. Hence, we can
deduce that ants guard Leonardoxa Africana in the rainforest and protect them
from attacker animals.

8.

Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: Paragraph D puts forward the information that “The floral
scent has a strong impact on the economic success of many agricultural
crops that rely on insect pollinators, including fruit trees such as the bee-
pollinated cherry, apple, apricot, and peach, as well as vegetables and
tropical plants such as papaya. Pollination not only affects crop yield, but
also the quality and efficiency of crop production.” Here, the author has
mentioned that pollination affects fruit trees and crop trees. Hence the answer is
FALSE.

9.

Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 5

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph discuss that “some
parasitic wasps can detect the volatile signature of a damaged plant and will
lay their eggs inside the offending caterpillar; eventually, the wasp eggs
hatch, and the emerging larvae feed on the caterpillar from the inside
out.”According to the passage, wasps protect the plants by detecting their
damaged leaves and the lay their eggs into caterpillars.

10.

Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, last line

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can find out that “this problem
has been exacerbated by recent disease epidemics that have killed many
honeybees, the major insect pollinators in the United States.” The reason
that caused the decline of honeybees in the U.S is the disease epidemics. Hence,
the term disease has been paraphrased to illness in the question.

11.

Answer: C

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 2

Answer explanation: At the beginning of paragraph E it is given that “although

this solution is adequate, its drawbacks include near genetic uniformity and
consequent susceptibility to pathogens. Some growers have attempted to
enhance honeybee foraging by spraying scent compounds on orchard
trees, but this approach was costly, had to be repeated, had potentially
toxic effects on the soil or local biota, and, in the end, proved to be
inefficient.” Here, the drawbacks listed about artificial fragrance are that its costly
(expensive), has potentially toxic effects (can poison the environment) and
proved to be inefficient (means failed to give correct information). Here, the
only drawback that is missing is, that it requires massive manual labor.

12.

Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 4

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the said paragraph discusses
that “the loss of scent among ornamentals, which have a worldwide value of
more than $30 billion, makes them important targets for the genetic
manipulation of flower fragrance.” The figure of $30 billion indicates that scent
plays a crucial role in the ornamental industry.

13.
Answer: A

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 6

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph states that “for technical
reasons, the gene was expressed everywhere in the plant, and although the
transgenic plants did create small amounts of linalool, the level was below
the threshold of detection for the human nose.” The weakness of genetic
experiments on fragrance is Linalool level because it is below the level of
detection of the human nose.

Reading passage 2 [The Development Of Plastics]

Grey Workers, The History of Salt, Designed to Last - IELTS Reading

Answers
Kasturika Samanta

20 min read

Updated On Feb 27, 2025

To improve your IELTS Reading score, regularly practice with passages like 'Grey
Workers', 'The History of Salt', and 'Designed to Last'.
 Table of Contents

 Reading Passage 1
 Reading Passage 2
 Reading Passage 3
 Answers

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The IELTS Reading passage, Grey Workers, along with the other two IELTS
Academic Reading passages – The History of Salt and Designed to Last, make
this a complete IELTS Reading practice test. You will have 60 minutes to
complete the whole test, which consists of 40 questions in total.

Here are the question types in this reading test:

 IELTS Reading True/False/Not Given

 IELTS Reading Multiple Choice Question
 IELTS Reading Summary Completion
 IELTS Reading Yes/No/Not Given
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Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below.

Find the practice test with the Grey Workers PDF here.

Grey Workers

Questions 1-4

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 1?

In boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

1Insurance company Sun Life of Canada made a decision that it would hire more
Canadian employees rather than British ones in order to get a fresh staff.

2Unlike other places, employees in Japan get paid according to the years they
are employed.

3 Elder workers are laid off by some German companies which are refreshing
corporate culture.

4According to Peter Hicks, companies pay older people more regardless of the
contribution they make.

Questions 5-6

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, D, E.

Write your answers in boxes 5-6 on your answer sheet.

According to the passage, there are several advantages to hire elder people,
please choose TWO from below：

A their products are more superior to the young.

B paid less compared with younger ones
Crun fast when there is a meeting
D have a better inter-person relationship
Eidentify problems in an advanced time

Questions 7-8

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C, D, E.

Write your answers in boxes 7-8 on your answer sheet.

According to Mr.Peterson, Compared with elder employees, young graduates

have several weaknesses in workplace, please choose TWO of them below：

A they are not worth training

B their productivity is lower than counterparts.
C they change work more often
D their academic criteria is someway behind elders
E they are normally high school graduates.

Questions 9-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer sheet.

9. According to paragraph F, the firms and workers still hold the opinion that:

A Older workers are more likely to attract other staff

B people are not happy if pay gets lower in retiring age.
C Older people have more retaining motivation than young people
D young people often earn less for their piece-rates salary.

10. SkillTeam that has been founded by IBM conducted which of the following
movement:

A Ask all the old worker to continue their job on former working hours basis
B Carry on the action of cutting off the elder’s proportion of employment
C Ask employees to work more hours in order to get extra pay
D Re-hire old employees and kept the salary a bit lower

11. Which of the followings is correct according to the research of Mr Quinn?

A About 50% of all employees in America switched into ‘Bridge’ jobs.

B Only the worst-paid continue to work.
C More men than women fell into the category of ’bridge’ work.
D Some old people keep working for their motives rather than an economic
incentive.

12. Which of the followings is correct according to David Storey?

A 70% of business is successful if hire more older people.

B The average success of the self-employed business is getting lower.
C Self-employed elder people are more likely to survive.
D Older people’s working hours are more flexible.

13. What is the main purpose of the author in writing this passage?

A there must be a successful retiring program for the old

B older people should be correctly valued in employment
C old people should offer more helping young employees grow.
D There are more jobs in the world that only employ older people

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Reading Passage 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27, which are based
on the Reading Passage below.

Find the practice test with The History Of Salt PDF here.

The History Of Salt

Questions 14-16

Choose THREE letters A-H.

Write your answers in boxes 14-16 on your answer sheet.

NB: Your answers may be given in any order.

Which THREE statements are true of salt?

A A number of cities take their name from the word salt.

B Salt contributed to the French Revolution.
C The uses of salt are countless.
D Salt has been produced in China for less than 2000 years.
E There are many commercial applications for salt
F Salt deposits in the state of Kansas are vast.
G Salt has few industrial uses nowadays.
H Slaves used salt as a currency.

Questions 17-21

Complete the summary.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 17-21 on your answer sheet.

Salt is such an 17 ________ that people would not be able to live without it. As
well as its uses in cooking, this basic mineral has thousands of
business 18 ____________________ ranging from making paper to the
manufacture of soap. Being a prized and 19 __________________ it has played
a major part in the economies of many countries. As such, salt has not only led to
war but has also been used to raise 20 _____________ by governments in many
parts of the world. There are also many instances of its place in religion and
culture, being used as a means to get rid of evil 21 ________________

Questions 22-27

Do the following statements agree with the information in Reading Passage

2?
In boxes 22-27 on your answer sheet write

TRUE, if the statement is true

FALSE, if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

22 It has been suggested that salt was responsible for the first war.

23 The first tax on salt was imposed by a Chinese emperor.

24 Salt is no longer used as a form of currency.

25 Most of the money for the construction of the Erie Canal came from salt taxes.

26 Hopi legend believes that salt deposits were placed far away from civilization
to penalize mankind.

27 A lack of salt is connected with the deaths of some soldiers.

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Reading Passage 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below.

Find the practice test with the Designed To Last PDF here.

Designed To Last

Questions 28-32

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 28-32 on your answer sheet.

28. What does ‘conscience time’ imply in paragraph 2?

A People feel guilty when they throw things away easily.

B The shelf in the garage needs cleaning.
C The consumers are unaware of the waste problem.
D The power tool should be placed in the right place after being used.

29. Prior to mass production, people own things to show

A their quality
B their status
C their character
Dtheir history

30. The word ‘narrative’ in paragraph 3 refers to

A the novelty culture pursued by the customers

B the motivation for buying new products
C object stories that relate personally and meaningfully to the owners
D the image created by the manufacturers

31. Without a personal connection, people buy new stuff for

A sharing
B freshness
C collection
D family members

32. The writer quotes the old jeans and teddy bear to illustrate that

A products are used for simple utility.

B producers should create more special stuff to attract consumers.<
C Chapman led a poor childhood life.
D the emotional connections make us keep the objects for longer.

Questions 33-36

Complete the summary using the list of words, A-H, below.

Write the correct letter A-H, in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.
Tim Cooper claims that although sustainable design proceeds
33………………………………, the coming problems are pushing the move. In
accordance with Tim Cooper, Thackara believes that the origins of the looming
environmental crises are weight and 34………………………………… The
technology which was assumed to have a positive effect on our society actually
accelerates the world’s 35………………………………… To cure this, Manzini
proposes a ‘multi-local society’ which means every resource should be located
and redeployed 36………………………..

A properly
B energy
C locally
D economy
E slowly
F speed
G quickly
H. metabolism

Questions 37-40

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage?

In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write

YES, if the statement is true

NO, if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN, if the information is not given in the passage

37 People often buy things that are seldom used and throw them away.

38 In a post-throwaway society, we will pay extra money after disposing of

electronic goods.

39 Some businesses have jumped on the sustainability bandwagon.

40 The company will spend less on repairs in the future.

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Answers

Since you have completed the questions, it’s time to check the answer key for
Grey Workers, The History of Salt and Designed to Last IELTS Reading Answers
and get an idea of how you need to improve for a high IELTS band score.

Reading Passage 1

1. Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, last line

Answer explanation: There is a line in the said paragraph which claims

that “earlier this year, Sun Life of Canada, an insurance company,
announced that it was offering redundancy to all its British employees aged
50 or over.” However, there is no reference given if it would hire more Canadian
employees rather than British ones in order to get a fresh staff.

2. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims, “more
than perhaps anywhere else, pay in Japan is linked to seniority, it is hardly
surprising that seniority-based wage costs have become the most
intractable item on corporate profit-and-loss accounts.” Here, the term
seniority-based wage confirms that employees in Japan people get paid
according to the number of years they are employed.

3. Answer: TRUE
Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 5

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said
that “perhaps the main reason for replacing older workers is that it makes it
easier to ‘defrost’ the corporate culture.” The term defrost signifies the
removal of frost from ice. Hence, we can infer that in German companies, elder
workers are getting laid off and it has been referred to as defrosting and this
removal is referred to as refreshing the corporate culture.

4. Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, last line

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “Peter Hicks, who
coordinates OECD work on the policy implications of aging, says that plenty
of research suggests older people are paid more because they are worth
more.” This line alludes that Hicks thinks old people are paid more because they
are worth it, and not regardless of their contribution.

5. Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 2

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph, “other skills may
increase with age, including many that are crucial for goods management,
such as an ability to handle people diplomatically.” Since elder workers can
handle people diplomatically which signifies that they possess better inter-person
relationship skills.

6. Answer: E

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 3

Answer explanation: The entire sentence has been paraphrased here. In the
passage, it states that “to run a meeting or to spot a problem before it blows
up.” Thus, we can infer that elder people identify problems in an advanced time,
as it is mentioned that they are able to spot the problem before anything blows up.

7. Answer: C

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, 2nd last line

Answer explanation: A line in the passage mentions that “young people tend
to switch jobs so frequently that they offer the worst returns on
training.” Here, the term switch job frequently has been paraphrased to change
work more often.

8. Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 3

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can point out that Mr. Peterson
said, “besides, their education standards are much better than those of
today’s young high-school graduates.” Here, education standards signify
academic criteria.

9. Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “most companies
(and many workers) are uncomfortable with the idea of reducing someone’s
pay in later life.” This line confirms that both employers and the employees are
not happy about less pay during retirement years.

10. Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, refer that, “faced with the need to
cut staff costs, and have decided to concentrate cuts on 55-60-year-olds,
IBM set up a separate company called Skill Team, which re-employed any of
the early retired who wanted to go on working up to the age of 60. An
employee who joined Skill Team at the age of 55 on a five-year contract
would work for 58% of his time, over the full period, for 88% of his last IBM
salary”. From these lines, we can infer that IBM took the initiative to
re-hire/employ their elderly employee on lesser salaries.

11. Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph H, line 6

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said that “two
very different types of bridge job-holders – those who continue working
because they have to and those who continue working because they want
to, even though they could afford to retire.” This line of the paragraph confirms
the research of Mr. Quinn that some people continue working even though they
could retire because they want to work.

12. Answer: C

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph I, line 3

Answer explanation: Paragraph I provides the information that “a study by

David Storey of Warwick University found that 70% of businesses started by
people over 55 survived in Britain” David Storey’s research findings indicate
that older people who start their own business are more likely to survive because
70% of the businesses survived, (started by people over 55).

13. Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Complete passage

Answer explanation: This passage on multiple occasions points out the values
that elder employees bring to the company. Hence, they should be valued more.

Reading Passage 2

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14. Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 3

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “outrage over the gabelle fueled the French
Revolution.” The word gabelle means the tax on salt. Hence, it confirms that salt
contributed to French Revolution.

15. Answer: E

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 4

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “and while we are
all familiar with its many uses in cooking, we may not be aware that this
element is used in some 14,000 commercial applications.” In the given
sentence, it is clear that there are 14,000 commercial applications for salt. 14,000
can be inferred as many.

16. Answer: F

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “it is also one of
the most plentiful: it has been estimated that salt deposits under the state of
Kansas alone could supply the entire world’s needs for the next 250,000
years.” Since salt deposits under the state of Kansas could be used for the next
250,000 years, we can infer that it is vast which is why it can be used for the next
250,000 years.

17. Answer: essential element

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims, “but salt
is also an essential element. Without it, life itself would be impossible since
the human body requires the mineral in order to function properly.” This line
confirms that salt is an essential element without which life would be impossible.

18. Answer: applications

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 4

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “and while we are all familiar with its many
uses in cooking, we may not be aware that this element is used in some
14,000 commercial applications.” There term some 14,000 commercials have
been paraphrased to thousands of businesses. Hence, this mineral is used for
thousands of business applications.

19. Answer: portable commodity

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “as a precious and
portable commodity, salt has long been a cornerstone of economies
throughout history.” Since salt has played an important role in economics
throughout history, it means that salt being a portable commodity has been a
significant part of the economies of many countries.

20. Answer: taxes

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F & G, line 2

Answer explanation: Few lines in the given passage state that “in France,
Charles of Anjou levied the “gabelle”, a salt tax, in 1259 to finance his
conquest of the Kingdom of Naples.” and “salt tax revenues paid for half the
cost of construction of the canal.” These lines confirm that governments have
used salt to raise taxes besides causing wars.

21. Answer: spirits

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph H, line 2

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph it is mentioned

that “further, in the Buddhist tradition, salt repels evil spirits, which is why it
is customary to throw it over your shoulder before entering your house after
a funeral: it scares off any evil spirits that may be clinging to your
back.” From this line, we can deduce that religions like Buddhism use salt to get
rid of evil spirits.

22. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes “Bloch also believed that the first war – likely fought near the
ancient city of Essalt on the Jordan River – could have been fought over the
city’s precious supplies of the mineral.” According to Bloch the first war might
have been fought for the supplies of the mineral. The mineral is said to be salt.

23. Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: According to a line in the passage, “in 2200 BC, the
Chinese emperor Hsia Yu levied one of the first known taxes. He taxed
salt.” Because it is mentioned that he was one of the first known, which means
that one of the many, not the first. Hence, it is unknown if the first tax on salt was
imposed by a Chinese emperor.

24. Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 3

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “in Tibet, Marco Polo noted that tiny cakes
of salt were pressed with images of the Grand Khan to be used as coins and
to this day among the nomads of Ethiopia’s Danakil Plains it is still used as
money.” Here, it is mentioned that to this day, among the nomads of
Ethiopia’s Danakil Plains, it is still used as money. Thus, if these coins are
used to this day, it signifies that salt is still used as a form of currency.

25. Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 2

Answer explanation: Paragraph G puts forward the information that “salt tax
revenues paid for half the cost of the construction of the canal.” Since tax
revenue paid only half the cost of construction, it implies that it did not invest the
most money.

26. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph I, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read through, there is a line that implies “other
native tribes had significant restrictions on who was permitted to eat salt.
Hopi legend holds that the angry Warrior Twins punished mankind by
placing valuable salt deposits far from civilization, requiring hard work and
bravery to harvest the precious mineral.” The term penalize has been
paraphrased to punished and far from has paraphrased to far away.

27. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph J, last line

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can point out that “thousands
of Napoleon’s troops died during the French retreat from Moscow due to
inadequate wound healing and lowered resistance to disease – the results
of salt deficiency.” This line confirms that salt deficiency caused the deaths of
some soldiers.

Reading Passage 3

28. Answer: A

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read through, a line claims that “most will serve
conscience time, gathering dust on a shelf in the garage; people are
reluctant to admit that they have wasted their money. However, the end is
inevitable for thousands of years in landfill waste sites.” From this line, we
can learn that people like to keep some articles without them being of any use
because they feel guilty that they have wasted their money on certain things and
feel reluctant to throw them away.

29. Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 2

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph Chapman

said, “people own things to give expression to who they are and to show
what group of people they feel they belong to.” The term gives expression has
been paraphrased to show. Moreover, it confirms that people used to retain things
to show their status.

30. Answer: C

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 5

Answer explanation: According to a line in the passage, “For most of human

history, people had an intimate relationship with objects they used or
treasured. Often they made the objects themselves, or family members
passed them on. For more specialist objects, people relied on expert
manufacturers living close by, whom they probably knew personally.
Chapman points out that all these factors gave objects a history – a
narrative – and an emotional connection that today’s mass production
cannot match. “Here, Chapman suggests that people have intimate relationships
with the objects because it gives an emotional, historical, connection. Here, the
word narrative implies that objects are meaningful to the owners because of some
connected events.

31. Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims “We know
we can’t buy happiness, but the chance to remake ourselves with glossy,
box-fresh products seems irresistible. When the novelty fades we simply
renew the excitement by buying more new stuff.” Here, the excitement of
people gets renewed when they buy new stuff. Hence, people buy new stuff to get
freshness.

32. Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 9

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph “as adults, our
teddy bear connects us to our childhoods, and this protects it from
obsolescence. Stahel says this is what sustainable design needs to
do.” Hence, according to the writer teddy bear illustrates childhood memories,
and which is why it makes us keep the object for long.

33. Answer: E

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph E, last line

Answer explanation: A line in the paragraph denotes that “he thinks

sustainable design has been “surprisingly slow to take off” but says
looming environmental crises and resource depletion are pushing it to the
top of the agenda.” Hence, the line confirms Tim Cooper’s claim that sustainable
design proceeds slowly – paraphrased from “it is surprisingly slow to take off”.

34. Answer: F

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 1

Answer explanation: The entire sentence has been paraphrased here. In the
passage, it states that “Thackara agrees. For him, the roots of impending
environmental collapse can be summarized in two words: weight and
speed.” Here the term roots have been paraphrased to origins and collapse to
crises. Hence, the answer is speed.

35. Answer: H

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, last line

Answer explanation: Paragraph F puts forward the information that “we have
simply added information technology to the industrial era and hastened the
developed world’s metabolism, Thackara argues.” Here, Thackara argues that
technology that is developed for the benefit of society has accelerated the world’s
metabolism.

36. Answer: C

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph H, line 1

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph convey that “Manzini says
a crucial step would be to redesign our globalized world into what he calls
the “multi-local society” His vision is that every resource, from food to
electricity generation, should as far as possible be sourced and distributed
locally.” Here, sourced and distributed have been paraphrased to located and
redeployed.

37. Answer: YES

Question Type: Yes/No/Not Given Question

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 2

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line claims, “the truth is that
these things are thrown away having been used, on average, for just ten
minutes.” Since the word seldom means not often, from this line, we can deduce
that people often buy things and throw them away after using them for a matter of
a few minutes.

38. Answer: NO

Question Type: Yes/No/Not Given Question

Answer location: Paragraph J, line 4

Answer explanation: The said paragraph states that “electronic goods will be
designed to be recyclable, with the extra cost added to the retail price as
prepayment.” Since the term prepayment means paying for something before
you receive goods and services. Hence, we can infer that people are not going to
pay for goods after disposal.

39. Answer: YES

Question Type: Yes/No/Not Given Question

Answer location: Paragraph J, last line

Answer explanation: If you observe clearly, it is said that “as consumers

become increasingly concerned about the environment, many big
businesses are eagerly adopting sustainable design and brushing up their
green credentials to please their customers and stay one step ahead of the
competition.” The term adopting sustainable design suggests that some
businesses have jumped on the sustainability bandwagon.

40. Answer: NOT GIVEN

 Question Type: Yes/No/Not Given Question

Answer location: N/A

Answer explanation: None of the passages confirms or denies that the company
will spend less on repairs in the future.

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 IELTS Reading recent actual test

William Gilbert and Magnetism, Seed Hunting, The Power of Nothing

Reading Answers

Find the ‘William Gilbert and Magnetism, Seed Hunting, The Power of Nothing’
IELTS reading passage with answers, their location and explanations. Complete it
and check your answers!

Questions 1-7

Reading passage 1 has seven paragraphs A-G.

Choose the correct heading for each paragraph from the list of headings
below.

Write the correct number i-x in boxes 1-7 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. Early years of Gilbert

ii. What was new about his scientific research method

iii. The development of chemistry

iv. Questioning traditional astronomy

v. Pioneers of the early science

vi. Professional and social recognition

vii. Becoming the president of the Royal Science Society

viii. The great works of Gilbert

ix. His discovery about magnetism

x. His change of focus

1 Paragraph A

2 Paragraph B

3 Paragraph C

4 Paragraph D

5 Paragraph E

6 Paragraph F

7 Paragraph G

Questions 8-10

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 1?

In boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

8 He is less famous than he should be.

9 He was famous as a doctor before he was employed by the Queen

10 He lost faith in the medical theories of his time.

Questions 11-13

Choose THREE letters A-F.

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

Which THREE of the following are parts of Gilbert’s discovery?

A Metal can be transformed into another.

B Garlic can remove magnetism.
C Metals can be magnetized.
D Stars are at different distances from the earth.
E The earth wobbles on its axis.
F There are two charges of electricity.

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Reading Passage 2 – Seed Hunting

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Seed Hunting
PDF here.

Seed Hunting

Questions 14-19

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 2?
In boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

14 The purpose of collecting seeds now is different from the past

15 The millennium seed bank is the earliest seed bank.

16 One of the major threats for plant species extinction is farmland expansion into
wildness.

17 The approach that scientists apply to store seeds is similar to that used by
farmers.

18 technological development is the only hope to save plant species.

19 The works of seed conservation are often limited by financial problems.

Questions 20-24

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage 2,

using no more than three words from the Reading Passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 20-24 on your answer sheet.

Some people collect seeds for the purpose of protecting certain species from
___________ 20_________ ; others collect seeds for their ability to produce
_____________ 21_____________ . They are called seed hunters. The
___________________ 22_____________ of them included both gardeners and
botanists，such as______________ 23_____________ ，who financially
supported collectors out of his own pocket. The seeds collected are usually stored
in seed banks, one of which is the famous millennium seed bank, where seeds
are all stored in the __________ 24___________ at a low temperature.

Questions 25-26

Choose any two correct answers from the list of options given below.
Write your answers in boxes 25, 26 on your answer sheet.

Which TWO of the followings are provided by plants to the human?

A food
B fuels
C clothes
D energy
E commercial products

Reading Passage 3 – The Power of Hunting

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with The Power of
Nothing PDF here.

The Power of Nothing

Questions 27-32

Use the information given below to match.

Choose the appropriate letters A-H in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.

NB: You may use any letter more than once.

A Should easily be understood.

B Should improve by itself.
C Should not involve any mysticism.
D Ought to last a minimum length of time.
E Needs to be treated at the right time.
F Should give more recognition.
G Can earn valuable money.
H Do not rely on any specific treatment

27 Appointments with an alternative practitioner.

28 An alternative practitioners description of the treatment.

29 An alternative practitioner who has faith in what he does.

30The illness of patients convinced of alternative practice.

31 Improvements of patients receiving alternative practice.

32 Conventional medical doctors (who is aware of placebo).

Questions 33-35

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 33-35 on your answer sheet.

33 In the fifth paragraph, the writer uses the example of anger and sadness
to illustrate that:

A People’s feeling could affect their physical behavior<

B Scientists don’t understand how the mind influences the body.
C Research on the placebo effect is very limited
D How the placebo achieves its effect is yet to be understood.

34 Research on pain control attracts most of the attention because

A Scientists have discovered that endorphins can help to reduce pain.

B Only a limited number of researchers gain relevant experience
C Pain reducing agents might also be involved in the placebo effect.
D Patients often experience pain and like to complain about it

35 Fabrizio Benedettfs research on endorphins indicates that

A They are widely used to regulate pain.

B They can be produced by willM thoughts
C They can be neutralized by introducing naloxone.
DTheir pain-relieving effects do not last long enough.

Questions 36-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 3?

In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

36 There is enough information for scientists to fully understand the placebo

effect.

37 A London based researcher discovered that red pills should be taken off the
market.

38 People’s preferences for brands would also have an effect on their healing.

39 Medical doctors have a range of views that newly introduced drug.

40 Alternative practitioners are seldom known for applying the placebo effect.

Answer Key

Read further for the explanations and location of the IELTS Reading answers.

Reading Passage 1

1 Answer: v

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: The opening line of paragraph A suggests that the “16th
and 17th centuries saw two great pioneers of modem science: Galileo and
Gilbert. The impact of their findings is eminent.” From this line, we can
deduce that the appropriate title for paragraph A should be pioneers of modem
science, as it seems to introduce Galileo and Gilbert as two great pioneers of
modem science.

2 Answer: i

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: If you observe clearly, it is mentioned that “Gilbert’s birth
predated Galileo. Born in an eminent local family in Colchester county in the
UK, on May 24，1544，he went to grammar school, and then studied
medicine at St. John’s College, Cambridge, graduating in 1573.” Hence, the
appropriate title for this paragraph would be the early years of Gilbert because
this paragraph discusses Gilbert’s birth and highlights his graduation days.

3 Answer: vi

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 3

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “he was also appointed the personal
physician to the Queen (Elizabeth I), and later knighted by the Queen. He
faithfully served her until her death. However, he didn’t outlive the Queen
for long and died on December 10, 1603, only a few months after his
appointment as a personal physician to King James.” This paragraph
mentions that he was a personal physician to Queen, knighted by the Queen, and
was also appointed as a personal physician to King James. We can infer that the
appropriate title for this paragraph would be professional and social recognisition.

4 Answer: x

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: If you observe, this paragraph has been dedicated to the
change of interest of Gilbert. The answer is clearly mentioned in the said
paragraph and line “Gilbert was first interested in chemistry but later
changed his focus due to the large portion of the mysticism of alchemy
involved (such as the transmutation of metal). He gradually developed his
interest in physics after the great minds of the ancient, particularly about
the knowledge the ancient Greeks had about lodestones, strange minerals
with the power to attract iron.” Hence, we can infer that the appropriate title
would be the change of focus.

5 Answer: ix
Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 4

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “Gilbert also
found that metals can be magnetized by rubbing materials such as fur,
plastic, or the like on them. He named the ends of a magnet “north pole’ and
“south pole”. The magnetic poles can attract or repel, depending on
polarity.” From this information, we can conclude that Gilbert worked on the
discovery of magnetism. Hence, the most suitable title for this paragraph would be
his discovery about magnetism.

6 Answer: iv

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 1

Answer explanation: Paragraph F puts forward the information that “he also
questioned the traditional astronomical beliefs.” Here, he seems to have
questioned whether the earth is at the center of the universe or in orbit
around the sun. Therefore, the appropriate title for this paragraph would be
questioning traditional astronomy.

7 Answer: ii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph G, last line

Answer explanation: The last line of paragraph G suggests that “his approach
of careful observation and experimentation rather than the authoritative
opinion or deductive philosophy of others had laid the very foundation for
modem science.” Since this paragraph suggests that his approach was different
from the traditional approach, we can infer that this paragraph discusses what
was new about his scientific research method in depth.

8 Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, last line

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said
that “however, he is less well-known than he deserves.” The term well-known
has been paraphrased to famous in the question. Hence, he was less famous
than he deserves.

9 Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “he was a very
successful and eminent doctor. All this culminated in his election to the
president of the Royal Science Society. He was also appointed the personal
physician to the Queen (Elizabeth I), and later knighted by the Queen.” The
term eminent signifies famous. Hence, we can conclude that he was a famous
and successful doctor even before he was employed by the Queen.

10 Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: Paragraph D puts forward the information that “Gilbert

was first interested in chemistry but later changed his focus due to the large
portion of the mysticism of alchemy involved (such as the transmutation of
metal).” It is mentioned that he changed his focus but it is not mentioned whether
he lost faith in the medical theories of his time or not.

11 Answer: C (C, D, E: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph 6, line 5

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said that “Gilbert
also found that metals can be magnetized by rubbing materials such as fur,
plastic, or the like on them.” Hence, oneof Gilbert’s discovery was that metals
can be magnetized.
12 Answer: D (C, D, E: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 3

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said
that “However, he believed that stars are not equidistant from the earth, but
have their own earth-like planets orbiting around them.” The term equidistant
means equal distance. And here it is given that stars are not equidistant (different
distances) from the earth.

13 Answer: E (C, D, E: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 7

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph convey that “thus a
perfectly spherical lodestone, when aligned with the earth’s poles, would
wobble all by itself in 24 hours. Further, he also believed that suns and
other stars wobble just like the earth does around a crystal core, and
speculated that the moon might also be a magnet caused to orbit by its
magnetic attraction to the earth.” Hence, one of Gilbert’s discovery was that
when the earth is aligned with poles it would wobble on its axis.

Reading Passage 2

14 Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: In the reference paragraph, it is mentioned that “those

heady days of exploration and discovery may be over, but they have been
replaced by a pressing need to preserve our natural history for the
future.” From the line, we can infer that now people are collecting selecting
seeds to preserve natural history. In the past, the purpose was exploratory.
Hence, the purpose of seed collecting is now said to be different from the past.
15 Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read through, it is given that “overseen by the

Royal botanic gardens, the Millennium Seed Bank is the world’s largest
wild-plant depository.” However, it is not given that the millennium seed bank is
the earliest seed bank.

16 Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 4; Pararaph F, First and Last line

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can point out that “We’re
currently responsible for habitat destruction on an unprecedented scale,
and during the past 400 years, plant species extinction rates have been
about 70 times greater than those indicated by the geological record as
being ’normal’. Experts predict that during the next 50 years, further one
billion hectares of wilderness will be converted to farmland in developing
countries alone.” “The implications of this loss are enormous. Plant species
are being driven to extinction before their potential benefits are
discovered.” Since in the next 50 years wilderness areas will get converted to
farmland, we can comprehend that majority of the plants species will get extinct
with this change.

17 Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph I, line 1

Answer explanation: In paragraph I, the author mentions that “seed banks are
an insurance policy to protect the world’s plant heritage for the future,
explains Dr. Paul Smith, another Kew seed hunter. “Seed conservation
techniques were originally developed by farmers,” he says.” Here, since the
author suggests that seed conservation techniques were originally developed by
farmers, we can say that the approach that is developed by scientists today is
similar to what was developed by farmers earlier.
18 Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims, “the
reason is simple: thanks to humanity’s efforts, an estimated 25 percent of
the world’s plants are on the verge of extinction and may vanish within 50
years. We’re currently responsible for habitat destruction on an
unprecedented scale, and during the past 400 years, plant species
extinction rates have been about 70 times greater than those indicated by
the geological record as being ‘normal’.” Here, it indicates that the author is
trying to say that human efforts (actions) towards technological development have
caused plants to go on the verge of extinction. Hence, this development cannot
be considered to save plant species.

19 Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph K, last line

Answer explanation: The last of paragraph K implies that “the UN’s Food and
Agriculture Organization and the Consultative Group on International
Agricultural Research has since set up the Global Conservation Trust,
which aims to raise the US $260 million to protect seed banks in
perpetuity.” If the UN Food and Agriculture Organization is raising funds for
protection seeds, it means that seed conservation cannot be limited by financial
problems.

20 Answer: Extinction

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph A, last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the passage specifies

that “others collect to conserve, working to halt the sad slide into extinction,
facing so many plant species.” From the given information we can learn that
some people collect plant seeds to make a profit, whereas others do it to save or
pause (halt) them from becoming extinct.
21 Answer: drugs, crops

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph A, 2nd last line

Answer explanation: In the reference paragraph it is given that “some seek

seeds for profit—hunters in the employ of biotechnology firms,
pharmaceutical companies, and private corporations on the lookout for
species that will yield the drugs or crops of the future.” If some people are
collecting seeds to protect them from it getting extinct, others (such as private
corporates) are collecting them to produce drugs or crops of the future.

22 Answer: pioneers

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read through, it is clearly mentioned that “among

the pioneers of this botanical treasure hunt was John Tradescant, an
English royal gardener who brought back plants and seeds from his
journeys abroad in the early 1600s. Later, the English botanist Sir Joseph
Banks who was the first director of the Royal Botanic Gardens at Kew and
traveled with Captain James Cook on his voyages near the end of the 18th
century.” We can infer that the pioneers of them include both English botanist Sir
Joseph Banks, and John Tradescant, an English royal gardener.

23 Answer: Sir Joseph banks

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 2

Answer explanation: Few lines in the given paragraph indicates that “the
English botanist Sir Joseph Banks who was the first director of the Royal
Botanic Gardens at Kew and traveled with Captain James Cook on his
voyages near the end of the 18th century—was so driven to expand his
collections that he sent botanists around the world at his own
expense.” The line sent botanists around the world at his own expense suggests
that it was Sir Joseph Banks who financially supported collectors out of his own
pocket.
24 Answer: underground vaults

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 2

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “the collected seeds were used to store in
underground vaults. ‘Within its underground vaults are 260 million dried
seeds from 122 countries, all stored at -20 Celsius to survive for centuries.”

25 Answer: A

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “besides
providing staple food crops, plants are sources of many machines and the
principal supply of fuel and building materials in many parts of the
world.” From this line, we can confirm that plants provide food.

26 Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes“besides providing staple food crops, plants are sources of
many machines and the principal supply of fuel and building materials in
many parts of the world.” From this line, we can confirm that plants provide food
and are a main supply of fuel.

Reading Passage 3

27 Answer: D

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 5

Answer explanation: Paragraph A puts forward the information that “your
treatment should involve physical contact, and each session with your
patients should last at least half an hour.” Hence, it confirms that each
appointment with an alternative practitioner should last for at least half an hour
(ought to last a minimum length of time).

28 Answer: A

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 7

Answer explanation: A line in the paragraph denotes that “describe your

treatment in familiar words, but embroidered with a hint of mysticism:
energy fields, energy flows, energy blocks, meridians, forces, auras,
rhythms, and the like. Refer to the knowledge of an earlier age: wisdom
carelessly swept aside by the rise and rise of blind, mechanistic
science.” Here, the author suggests that treatment should be explained in
familiar words so that patients undergoing the treatment can easily understand it.

29 Answer: G

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 2

Answer explanation: A line in the passage mentions that “well yes, it could –
and often well enough to earn you a living. A good living if you are
sufficiently convincing, or better still, really believe in your therapy.” This
line suggests that an alternative practitioner should have faith in what he does
and believe in his/her therapy in order for it to work. It is only through this way
practitioners would be able to earn enough for a living.

30 Answer: B

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, last line

Answer explanation: The last line of the said paragraph states that “your
healing power would be the outcome of a paradoxical force that
conventional medicine recognizes but remains oddly ambivalent about: the
placebo effect.” The placebo effect suggests that the power of self-healing has
helped patients improve their illness ( if they believe in themselves).

31 Answer: H

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, lines 2 to end

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can point out that “Many
illnesses get better on their own, so if you are lucky and administer your
treatment at just the right time you will get the credit. But that’s only part of
it. Some of the improvements really would be down to you. Your healing
power would be the outcome of a paradoxical force that conventional
medicine recognizes but remains oddly ambivalent about: the placebo
effect.” The author suggests part of the improvement lies with the patient and his
healing power.

32 Answer: F

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 3

Answer explanation: The end of paragraph C claims that “the existence of the
placebo effect implies that even quackery may confer real benefits, which is
why any mention of placebo is a touchy subject for many practitioners of
complementary and alternative medicine, who are likely to regard it as
tantamount to a charge of charlatanism. In fact, the placebo effect is a
powerful part of all medical care, orthodox or otherwise, though its role is
often neglected or misunderstood.” Conventional medical doctors consider
placebo a touch subject, but given placebo’s potential to heal, it should be given
more recognition.

33 Answer: A

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “at one level, it should come as no surprise
that our state of mind can influence our physiology: anger opens the
superficial blood vessels of the face; sadness pumps the tear glands.” From
this line, we can confirm that author uses the example of anger and sadness to
illustrate that our state of mind can influence our physiology (physical behavior).

34 Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: In the reference paragraph, the author mentions “but

exactly how placebos work their medical magic is still largely unknown.
Most of the scant research done so far has focused on the control of pain
because it’s one of the commonest complaints and lends itself to
experimental study. Here, attention has turned to the endorphins, morphine-
like neurochemicals known to help control pain.” Here the term commonest
complaints have been paraphrased to “often experience pain and like to complain
about it”. Hence, most of the research is done on how to control pain because
people often complain about pain.

35 Answer: C

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph G, line 1

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph discuss that “But
endorphins are still out in front.” That case has been strengthened by the
recent work of Fabrizio Benedetti of the University of Turin, who showed
that the placebo effect can be abolished by a drug, naloxone, which blocks
the effects of endorphins.” Fabrizio Benedetti conducted a study on human
volunteers suffering from pain induced by a blood pressure cuff. He first relied on
morphine to treat his pain, but one day he decided to switch to saline instead. The
discomfort was also eased by the saline solution, which was a placebo effect. But
when he added naloxone to the saline solution, the agony returned.

36 Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph H, line 2

Answer explanation: According to a line in the said paragraph, “scientists
don’t know exactly how placebos work, they have accumulated a fair bit of
knowledge about how to trigger the effect.” Since scientists don’t know exactly
how placebos work, that implies that there is not enough information for scientists
to fully understand the placebo effect.

37 Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph H, line 3

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can find out that “a London
rheumatologist found, for example, that red dummy capsules made more
effective painkillers than blue, green, or yellow ones.” It is mentioned that he
found that blue, green, or yellow capsules have more effect on pain. However, it is
not given that a London-based researcher discovered that red pills should be
taken off the market.

38 Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph H, last line

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the said paragraph

discusses that “even branding can make a difference: if Aspirin or Tylenol is
what you like to take for a headache, their chemically identical generic
equivalents may be less effective.” Hence, people frequently place their trust in
a single brand, which they have used on a regular basis for years and healed
successfully.

39 Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph I, line 2

Answer explanation: Medical doctors have a range of views of the newly

introduced drug as “decades ago when the major tranquilizer chlorpromazine
was being introduced, a doctor in Kansas categorized his colleagues
according to whether they were keen on it, openly skeptical of its benefits,
or took a “let’s try and see’ attitude.” Some were keen, some were skeptical
and other had a “try and see” attitude. So they had different views.

40 Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 3 & last line

Answer explanation: Paragraph C puts forward the information that “the

existence of the placebo effect implies that even quackery may confer real
benefits, which is why any mention of placebo is a touchy subject for many
practitioners of complementary and alternative medicine. In fact, the
placebo effect is a powerful part of all medical care, orthodox or otherwise,
though its role is often neglected or misunderstood.” Here, it is mentioned
that placebo effects are an integral part of medical care, however, its role is
neglected. Since it is misunderstood and considered a touchy subject, we can
infer that alternative practitioners give the least or absolutely no preference to the
placebo effect.

Corporate social Responsibility – a new concept of “market”, Photovoltaics

on the rooftop, Assessing the risk Reading Answers

Prity Mallick

19 min read

Updated On Aug 23, 2024

To improve your IELTS Reading score, regularly practice with passages like
'Corporate Social Responsibility', 'Photovoltaics on the Rooftop', and 'Assessing
the Risk'.

Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below.
Find the practice test with the Corporate Social Responsibility – a new
concept of “market” PDF here.

Corporate Social Responsibility – a new concept of “market”

Questions 1-4

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-H.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter A-G, in boxes 1-4 your answer sheet.

1 An action is taken to Establishing social responsibility in the conservation

project

2 A description of the conventional way the ads applied to talk to its customers

3 A history of a humble origin and expansion

4 Management practices are intended to line up the company’s goal with

participants, prosperity

Questions 5-7

Choose the three correct letter, A- F.

Write your answers in boxes 5-7 on your answer sheet.

What is true about Ben & Jerry’s company management?

AThere was little difference between the highest salary and the lowest
BThey were advertising their product with powerful internal marketing.
CThey offer the employee complimentary product
DEmployees were encouraged to give services back to the community
Ethe products are designed for workers to barter for other goods and services
Foffered a package of benefits for disabled employees

5 ....................................
6 ....................................

7 ....................................

Questions 8-10

Choose the three correct letter, A- F.

Write your answers in boxes 8-10 on your answer sheet.

What are the factors once contributed to the success of the BODY SHOP?

APioneering the natural-ingredient cosmetics market

BAppealed to primary market mainly of the rich women
CFocused on their lavish ads campaign
DThe company avoided producing traditional cosmetics products
EIts moral concept that refuses to use animals- tested ingredients
FIts monetary donations to the communities and in developing countries

8 ....................................

9 ....................................

10 ....................................

Questions 11-13

Choose the three correct letter, A- F.

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

What are the factors leading to the later failure for BODY SHOP company?

AIts philosophy that there is real beauty in everyone is faulty

BFails to fulfil promises while acted like misleading the public
CFaced growing competition
DIts creating demand for something that the customers do not actually need

E its newer, fresher Brands are not successful in the Market

F fail to offer cosmetics at lower prices than competitors

11 ....................................

12 ....................................

13 ....................................

Reading Passage 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on the Reading Passage below.

Find the practice test with the Photovoltaics on the rooftop PDF here.

Photovoltaics on the rooftop: A natural choice for powering the family home

Questions 14-19

Reading passage 2 has nine paragraphs(listed A-H)

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the appropriate letters A-H in boxes 14-19 on your answer sheet.

NB you may use any letter more than once

14 examples of countries where electricity use is greater during the day than at
night

15 a detailed description of an experiment that led to photovoltaics being

promoted throughout the country

16 the negative effects of using conventional means of generating electricity

17 an explanation of the photovoltaic system

18 the long-term benefits of using photovoltaics

19 a reference to wealthy countries being prepared to help less wealthy countries
have access to photovoltaics

Questions 20-26

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
2?

In boxes 20-26 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

20 Photovoltaics are used to store electricity.

21 Since the 1970s，the US government has provided continuous support for the
use of photovoltaics on homes.

22 The solar-powered houses on Rokko Island are uninhabited.

23 In 1994, the Japanese government was providing half the money required for
installing photovoltaics on homes.

24 Germany, Italy, the Netherlands and Australia all have strict goals concerning
greenhouse gas emissions.

25 Residential electricity use is the major source of greenhouse gas emission.

26. Energy-saving measures must now be included in the design of all new
homes and improvements to buildings.

Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below.

Find the practice test with the Assessing the risk PDF here.

Assessing the risk

Questions 27-32

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading

Passage 3?

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

27 The title of the debate is not unbiased.

28 All the scientists invited to the debate were from the field of medicine.

29 The message those scientists who conducted the survey were sending was
people shouldn’t take risks.

30 All the 40 listed technologies are riskier than other technologies.

31 It was worth taking the risks to invent antibiotics.

32 All the other inventions on the list were also judged by the precautionary
principle.

Questions 33-39
Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading
Passage，using no more than three words from the Reading Passage for
each answer. Write your answers in boxes 33-39 on your answer sheet.

When applying the precautionary principle to decide whether to invent a new

technology, people should also take into consideration the…………….
33…………….. ，along with the usual consideration
of…………………… 34………………. For example, though risky and dangerous
enough, people still enjoy …………………… 35…………….. for the excitement it
provides. On the other hand, experts believe that future population desperately
needs………………… 36……………… in spite of their undefined risks. However,
the researches conducted so far have not been directed towards increasing the
yield of…………………… 37…………….. ，but to reduce the cost of
………………. 38…………… and to bring more profit out of it. In the end, such
selfish use of the precautionary principle for business and political gain has often
led people to ………………….. 39…………….. science for they believe scientists
are not to be trusted.

Questions 40

Choose the correct letter, A，B，C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 40 on your answer sheet.

40 What is the main theme of the passage?

Apeople have the right to doubt science and technologies

B the precautionary principle could have prevented the development of science
and technology
C there are not enough people who truly understand the precautionary principle
Dthe precautionary principle bids us take risks at all costs

Answer Keys

Now it’s time to check the answers to the above questions from the passages –
‘Corporate social Responsibility’, ‘Photovoltaics on the rooftop’ and ‘Assessing the
risk’ – and improve your reading skills for a better IELTS band score.
Reading Passage 1

Answer: D

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 4

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, it is mentioned that “the company

is known for pioneering the natural-ingredient cosmetic market and
establishing social responsibility as an integral part of company operations.
The Body Shop is known for its ethical stances, such as its monetary
donations to the communities in which it operates, and its business
partnerships with developing countries.” The Body Shop company is
contributing to society by making monetary donations.

Answer: F

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 6

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. You must note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it is said
that “companies like the Body Shop continually hype their products through
advertising and marketing, often creating a demand for something where a
real need for it does not exist.” The conventional way Body Shop applied ads
(advertising and marketing) to talk to its customers is by creating hype about their
products in the market.

Answer: C

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: You can note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it
states that“history of The Body Shop Anita Roddick started The Body Shop
with a mere £4,000 and a dream. With over 1,900 stores in 50 countries. The
Body Shop was founded in 1976 in Brighton, England. From her original
shop, which offered a line of 25 different lotions, creams, and oils, Roddick
became the first successful marketer of body care products that combined
natural ingredients with ecologically-benign manufacturing
processes.” From this information, we can see the history of The Body Shop
company started by Anita Roddick and its humble origin from Brighton, England to
its expansion with over 1,900 stores in 50 countries.

Answer: B

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 3

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “these
contributions are intended to achieve the company’s goal of linked
prosperity, i.e. to assure that future prosperity is widely shared by all
employees.” The term company’s goal of linked prosperity can be inferred as a
management practice where employees are shared the profits.

Answer: C (C,E, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes “Ben & Jerry’s offers a very sweet benefits package to
employees. First, every one of the 700+ Ben & Jerry’s workers is entitled to
three free pints of ice cream, sorbet or frozen yogurt per day worked. (Some
workers use allotments of their free treats to barter for other goods and
services in town such as haircuts.)” Since every one of the 700+ Ben & Jerry’s
workers is entitled to three free pints and some employees use free treats to
barter for other goods and services, we can deduce that Ben & Jerry offer the
employee complimentary product.

Answer: E (C,E, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 2

Answer explanation: A line in the paragraph denotes “some workers use

allotments of their free treats to barter for other goods and services in town
such as haircuts.” Since employees are using their free treats to barter for other
goods and services, we can infer that they are designed in such a manner that
workers can use the facility this way.

Answer: F (C,E, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “Ben & Jerry’s
offers a very sweet benefits package to employees.” From this information,
we can deduce option C (they offer the employee complimentary product) and
option E (the products are designed for workers to barter for other goods and
services) is already discussed above. Option A, on the other hand, is not correct
because it is nowhere mentioned about the difference between the highest salary
and the lowest. Since the passage discusses how Ben & Jerry’s offers a very
sweet benefits package to employees, and does not discuss how they advertise
their products, we can infer that option B (they were advertising their product with
powerful internal marketing) is also incorrect. Lastly, option D (employees were
encouraged to give services back to the community) is also incorrect because this
paragraph talks about the types of benefits offered to employees, not to the kind
of services offered by them to the community. Hence, option F is correct because
it is mentioned that Ben & Jerry’s offers a very sweet benefits package to
employees. Since the type of employees are not specified, it can also
include DISABLED EMPLOYEES.
8

Answer: A (A, E, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 4

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph to the fact that “the
company is known for pioneering the natural-ingredient cosmetic market
and establishing social responsibility as an integral part of company
operations.” This information confirms that one of the factor that contributed to
success of the body shop company is pioneering the natural-ingredient cosmetics
market.

Answer: E (A, E, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 5

Answer explanation: Paragraph C puts forward the information that “her

company’s refusal to test products on animals, along with an insistence on
nonexploitative labour practices among suppliers around the world,
appealed especially to upscale, mainly middle-class women, who were and
have continued to be the company’s primary market.” Since the body shop
company refused to test products on animals, it shows their moral concept that
they won’t use animals- tested ingredients.

10

Answer: F (A, E, F: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 5

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the passage specifies

that “the Body Shop is known for its ethical stances, such as its monetary
donations to the communities in which it operates, and its business
partnerships with developing countries.” Hence, from this information we can
confirm that the Body Shop is known for its monetary donations to the
communities and in developing countries.

11

Answer: B (B, C, D: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, last line

Answer explanation: If you read clearly, in the given passage it is given

that “other downfall factors also include misleading the public, low pay and
against unions, exploiting indigenous people; Also the mass production,
packaging and transportation of huge quantities of goods are using up the
world’s resources faster than they can be renewed and filling the land, sea
and air with dangerous pollution and waste.” Hence, one of the factor that led
to downfall (failure) of the body shop company was misleading the public by
making wrong promises.

12

Answer: C (B, C, D: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: The opening line of paragraph E puts forward the

information that “by the mid-1990s, however, The Body Shop faced growing
competition, forcing it to begin its first major advertising initiative, the most
prominent part of which was the “Ruby” campaign. The campaign was
personified by Ruby, a doll with Rubenesque proportions who was perched
on an antique couch and who looked quite pleased with herself and her
plump frame.” Hence, this line confirms that the body shop comapny faced
growing competition which ultimately resulted to its failure.

13

Answer: D (B, C, D: in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 7

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that

claims, “companies like the Body Shop continually hype their products
through advertising and marketing, often creating a demand for something
where a real need for it does not exist. The message pushed is that the
route to happiness is through buying more and more of their
products.” Through advertising and marketing the Body Shop was trying to
created a demand for something that the customers did not actually need.

The Innovation of Grocery Stores, Stealth Forces in Weight loss, Bright

Children Reading Answers

Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with The Innovation of
Grocery Stores PDF here.

The Innovation of Grocery Stores

Questions 1-5

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-G.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1 How Clarence Saunders，new idea had been carried out.

2 Introducing the modes and patterns of groceries before his age.

3 Clarence Saunders declared bankruptcy a few years later.

4 Descriptions of Clarence Saunders’ new conception.

5 The booming development of his business.

Questions 6-10

Answer the questions below.

Write ONLY ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.

6 When Clarence Saunders was an adolescent, he took a job as a

……………………………. in a grocery store.

7 In the new innovation of grocery store, most of the clerks’ work before was done
by………………………

8 In Saunders’ new grocery store，the section where customers finish the

payment was called ………………….

9 Another area in his store which behind the public area was called the
…………………., where only internal staff could access.

10 At……………………….. where customers were under surveillance.

Questions 11-13

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 11-13 on your answer sheet.

11 Why did Clarence Saunders want to propel the innovation of grocery stores at
his age?

A Because he was an enthusiastic and creative man.

B Because his boss wanted to reform the grocery industry.
C Because he wanted to develop its efficiency and make great profit as well.
D Because he worried about the future competition from the industry.

12 What happened to Clarence Saunders’ first store of Piggly Wiggly?

A Customers complained about its impracticality and inconvenience.
B It enjoyed a great business and was updated in the first twelve months.
C It expanded to more than a thousand franchised stores during the first year.
D Saunders were required to have his new idea patented and open more stores.

13 What left to Clarence Saunders after his death in 1953?

A A fully automatic store system opened soon near his first store.
B The name of his store the Piggly Wiggly was very popular at that time.
C His name was usually connected with his famous shop the Piggly Wiggly in the
following several years.
D His name was painted together with the name of his famous store.

Reading Passage 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-27, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Stealth
Forces in Weight loss PDF here.

Stealth Forces in Weight loss

Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has five sections, A-G.

Which section contains the following information? Write the correct letter, A-G, in
boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14 evaluation on the effect of weight bss on different kind of diets

15 an example of research which include relatives of participants

16 Example of a group of people who never regain weight immediately after.

17 long term hunger may appear to be acceptable to most of the participants

while losing weight

18 a continuous experiment may lead to a practical application besides diet or

hereditary resort.
Questions 19-23

Look at the following researchers and the list of findings below. Match each
researcher with the correct finding.

Write the correct letter in boxes 19-23 on your answer sheet.

List of Researchers

A Robert Berkowitz
B Rudolph Leibel
C Nikhil Dhurandhar
D Deirdre Barrett
E Jeffrey Friedman
F Teresa Hillier

19 A person’s weight is predetermined to a set point by the DNA.

20 Pregnant mother who are overweight may risk their fetus

21 The aim of losing Wright should be keeping healthy rather than attractiveness

22 mall changes in lifestyle will not have great impact on reducing much weight

23 Researchers should be divided into different groups with their own point of
view about weight loss.

Question 24 – 27

Complete the summery below.

Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the passage for each answer. Write
your answers in boxes 24-27 on your answer sheet.

In Bombay Clinic, a young doctor who came up with the concept ‘infect
obesity1 believed that the obesity is caused by a kind of virus, Years of
experiment that he conducted on 24 ……………………… Later he moved to
America and tested on a new virus named 25……………………… which proved
to be a significant breakthrough. Although there seems no way to eliminate the
virus, a kind of 26……………………… can be separated as to block the
expressing power of the virus. The doctor future is aiming at developing a
new 27………………… to effectively combating the virus.

Reading Passage 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 28-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below. Find the practice test with the Bright
Children PDF here.

Bright Children

Questions 28-33

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
3? In boxes 28-33 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement is true

NO if the statement is false
NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

28 America has a long history of selecting talented students into different

categories.

29 Teachers and schools in Britain held welcome attitude towards government’s

selection of gifted students.

30 Some parents agree to move near reputable schools in Britain.

31 Middle-class parents participate in their children’s education.

32 Japan and Finland comply with selected student’s policy.

33 Avoiding-selection-policy only works in a specific environment.

Questions 34-35

Choose the correct letter, A, B，C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 34-35 on your answer sheet.

34 What’s Laszlo Polgar’s point of view towards geniuses of children?

A Chess is the best way to train geniuses

B Genius tend to happen on first child
C Geniuses can be educated later on
D Geniuses are bom naturally

35 What is the purpose of citing Zsofia’s example in the last paragraph?

A Practice makes genius

B Girls are not good at chessing
C She was an adopted child
D Middle child is always the most talented

Questions 36-40

Use the information in the passage to match the countries (listed A-E) with correct

connection below. Write the appropriate letters A-E in boxes 36-40 on your
answer sheet.

AScandinavia
B Japan
C Britain
D China
E America

36 Less gifted children get help from other classmates

37 Attending extra teaching is open to anyone

38 People are reluctant to favor gifted children due to social characteristics

39 Both view of innate and egalitarian co-existed

40 Craze of audio and video teaching for pregnant women.

Answers

Reading Passage 1
 1 D

2 A

3 F

4 C

5 E

6 Clerk

7 Customers/shoppers

8 Lobby

9 Stockroom

10 Galleries

11 C

12 B

13 C

Reading Passage 2

Ants Could Teach Ants, Wealth in a cold climate, Compliance or

Noncompliance for children – Reading Answers

Prity Mallick

19 min read
Updated On Jul 25, 2024

Section 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
the Reading Passage below.

Find the reading passage with the Ants Could Teach Ants PDF here.

Ants Could Teach Ants

Questions 1-5

Look at the following statements (Questions 1-5) and the list of people in the box
below. Match each statement with the correct person, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter, A, B,C or D, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1 Animals could use objects to locate food.

2 Ants show two-way, interactive teaching behaviours.

3 It is risky to say ants can teach other ants as human beings do,

4 Ant leadership makes finding food faster.

5 Communication between ants is not entirely teaching.

List of people

A Nigel Franks

B Marc Hauser

C Tim Caro
 D Bennet Galef
Jr

Questions 6-9

Choose FOUR letters, A-H.

Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet.

Which FOUR of the following behaviours of animals are mentioned in the

passage?

A touch each other with antenna

B alert others when there is danger
C escape from predators
D protect the young
E hunt food for the young
F fight with each other
F use tools like twigs
G feed on a variety of foods

Questions 10-13

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage 1?

In boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

10 Ants,’ tandem running involves only one-way communication.

11 Franks’s theory got many supporters immediately after publicity.

12 Ants’ teaching behaviour is the same as that of human.

13 Cheetah share hunting gains to younger ones

Section 2

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 14-26, which are based
on the Reading Passage below.

Find the reading passage with the Wealth in a Cold Climate PDF here.

Wealth in a Cold Climate

Questions 14-20

The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-G

Choose the correct heading for paragraphs A-G from the list below.

Write the correct number, i-x, in boxes 14-20 on your answer sheet.

List of Headings

i. The positive correlation between climate and wealth

ii. Other factors besides climate that influence wealth
iii. Inspiration from reading a book
iv. Other researchers’ results do not rule out exceptional cases
v. different attributes between Eurasia and Africa
vi. Low-temperature benefits people and crops
vii. The importance of the institution in traditional views.
viii. The spread of crops in Europe, Asia and other places
ix. The best way to use aid
x. confusions and exceptional

14 Paragraph A
15 Paragraph B
16 Paragraph C
17Paragraph D
18 Paragraph E
19 Paragraph F
20 Paragraph G

Questions 21-26

Summary

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using no

more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 21-26 on your answer sheet.

Dr. William Master read a book saying that a(an) 21 …………………………..

which struck an American city of years ago was terminated by a frost. And
academics found that there is a connection between climate and country’s wealth
as in the rich but small country of 22……………………….; Yet besides excellent
surroundings and climate, one country still need to improve
their 23…………………………….. to achieve long prosperity,

Thanks to resembling weather condition across latitude in the continent

of 24………………….. ’crops such as 25 ………………….. is bound to spread
faster than from South America to the North. Other researchers also noted that
even though geographical factors are important, a tropical country such
as 26………………………………. still became rich due to scientific advancement.

Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based
on the Reading Passage below.

Find the reading passage with the Compliance or Noncompliance for

Children PDF here.

Compliance or Noncompliance for children

Questions 27-31
Choose the correct letter, A, B，C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 27-31 on your answer sheet,

27 The children, especially boys who received good education may

Aalways comply with their parents, words.

B be good at math
C have a high score at school
D disobey their parents’ order sometimes

28 Face to their children’s compliance and noncompliance, parents

Amust be aware of the compliance

B ask for help from their teachers
Csome of them may ignore their noncompliance
Dpretend not to see

29 According to Henry Porter noncompliance for children

Aare entirely harmful

Bmay have positive effects
Cneeds medicine assistance
Dshould be treated by an expert doctor

30 When children are growing up. they

Aalways try to directly say no

Bare more skillful to negotiate
Clearn to cheat instead of noncompliance
Dtend to keep silent

31 Which is the possible reaction the passage mentioned for elder children and
younger ones if they don’t want to comply with the order

Aelder children prefer to refuse directly

Belder ones refuse to answer
Cyounger children may reject directly
Dyounger ones may save any words

Questions 32-35
Look at the following people and list of statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement.

Write the correct letter A-G in boxes 32-35 on your answer sheet.

32 Henry Porter

33 Wallace Friesen

34 Steven Walson

35 Paul Edith

List of Statements

A. children of all ages will indirectly show noncompliance

B. elder children tend to negotiate rather than show noncompliance
C. converse behaviour means noncompliance
D. organizing fun activities to occur after frequently refused activities
E. organizing child’s daily activities in the same order as much as possible.
F. use praise to make children compliant
G. take the children to school at an early age

Questions 36-40

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage? In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

36 Socialization takes a long process, while compliance is the beginning of it.

37 Many parents were difficult to be aware of compliance or noncompliance.

38 Noncompliant Children are simple to deal with the relationship with the people
of the same age when they are growing up.

39 Experts never tried drilling compliance into children.

40 Psychologist Paul Edith negated the importance that knowing how to praise
children encouragingly.

Answer Keys

Now it’s time to check the answers to the above questions from the passages –
‘Ants Could Teach Ants’, ‘Wealth in a cold climate’ and ‘Compliance or
Noncompliance for Children’. – and improve your reading skills for a better IELTS
band score.

Reading Passage 1

1. Answer: C

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph F, last line

Answer explanation: Tim Caro, a zoologist, presented two cases of animal

communication in paragraph F “in another instance, birds watching other
birds using a stick to locate food such as insects and so on, are observed
to do the same thing themselves while finding food later.” Animals could use
objects to locate food (birds using a stick to locate food).

2. Answer: A

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the said paragraph
discusses that “tandem running is an example of teaching, to our knowledge
the first in a non-human animal, that involves bidirectional feedback
between teacher and pupil,” remarks Nigel Franks, professor of animal behavior
and ecology. Hence, it confirms that Nigel Franks suggests that ants show two-
way, interactive teaching behaviours by giving and receiving bidirectional
feedback between teacher and pupil.

3. Answer: D

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph I, last line

Answer explanation: Bennett Galef Jr, a psychologist who studies animal

behaviour and social learning at McMaster University in Canada, “warned that
scientists may be barking up the wrong tree when they look not only for
examples of humanlike behaviour among other animals but humanlike
thinking that underlies such behaviour. Animals may behave in ways similar
to humans without a similar cognitive system, he said, so the behaviour is
not necessarily a good guide into how humans came to think the way they
do.” Hence, according to Galef Jr, ants have human-like behaviour, but the
cognitive system is not necessarily the same. Therefore, it is risky to say ants can
teach other ants as human beings do.

4. Answer: A

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: “Franks took a further study and found that there were
even races between leaders. With the guidance of leaders, ants could find
food faster.” The given reference line makes us comprehend that it is Nigel
Franks who said ant leadership makes finding food faster.

5. Answer: B

Question Type: Matching Information

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 2

Answer explanation: Paragraph C puts forward the information that “Marc
Hauser, a psychologist, and biologist and one of the scientists who came
up with the definition of teaching, said it was unclear whether the ants had
learned a new skill or merely acquired new information.” Hence,
communication between ants is not entirely teaching because it was unclear
whether the ants had learned a new skill or merely acquired new information.

6. Answer: A (A,B,E,F : in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 4

Answer explanation: In the reference paragraph, the author mentions

that “once a follower got its bearings, it tapped the leader with its antennas,
prompting the lesson to proceed to the next step.” It is one of the animal
behavior that is discussed in the passage that animals touch each other with
antennas (leader with its antenna).

7. Answer: B (A,B,E,F : in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 3

Answer explanation: Information in paragraph E indicates that “consider a

species, for example, that uses alarm calls to warn fellow members about
the presence. Sounding the alarm can be costly, because the animal may
draw the attention of the predator to itself.” Another behavior of animals that is
discussed in this passage is their ability to use alarm calls to warn (alert) fellow
members about the presence of the predator (danger).

8. Answer: E (A,B,E,F : in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph discuss that “he found
that cheetah mothers that take their cubs along on hunts gradually allow
their cubs to do more of the hunting —going, for example, from killing a
gazelle and allowing young cubs to eat merely tripping the gazelle and
letting the cubs finish it off.” According to the information, cheetah mothers
take their young ones to hunt and let them eat merely by tripping the victim.
Hence, mother cheetahs hunt food for their young ones and allow them to
distribute and eat among themselves.

9. Answer: F (A,B,E,F : in any order)

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, last line

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can find out that “in another
instance, birds watching other birds using a stick to locate food such as
insects and so on.” The term twig means a stick or steam. Hence, we can
deduce that one of the behaviour of animals such as birds is that they use sticks
(twig) to locate food.

10. Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: The opening line of paragraph B suggests that “tandem

running is an example of teaching, to our knowledge the first in a non-
human animal, that involves bidirectional feedback between teacher and
pupil.” Bidirectional means two-way communication. Hence, the statement
contradicts the information in the passage.

11. Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: It is mentioned in paragraph C that “no sooner was the

paper published, of course, than another educator questioned it.” However,
it is not given that Franks’s theory got many supporters immediately after
publicity.

12. Answer: NOT GIVEN

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph I, line 3

Answer explanation: At the beginning of paragraph I, it is given that “He warned

that scientists may be barking up the wrong tree when they look not only for
examples of humanlike behaviour among other animals but humanlike
thinking that underlies such behaviour. Animals may behave in ways similar
to humans without a similar cognitive system, he said, so the behaviour is
not necessarily a good guide into how humans came to think the way they
do.” Ants might have similar behaviour as humans, but their cognitive (mental
action or process of acquiring knowledge and understanding)behaviour might not
be the same as that of humans. So we cannot conclude whether their teaching
behaviour is same as human beings.

13. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can find out that “he found that
cheetah mothers that take their cubs along on hunts gradually allow their
cubs to do more of the hunting —going, for example, from killing a gazelle
and allowing young cubs to eat merely tripping the gazelle and letting the
cubs finish it off.” Hence, we can deduce that cheetahs share hunting gains with
younger ones by allowing young cubs to eat merely by tripping the gazelle.

Reading Passage 2

14. Answer: iii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: You can note the paraphrasing here. In the passage, it
states that “Dr. William Masters was reading a book about mosquitoes when
inspiration struck.” Since Dr. William was reading a book on mosquitoes and an
inspirational thought occured to him. Hence, the appropriate heading for this
passage would be inspired by reading a book.
15. Answer: vi

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph B, last line

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph convey that “the pair
speculates that cold snaps have two main benefits — they freeze pests that
would otherwise destroy crops and also freeze organisms, such as
mosquitoes, that carry disease. The result is agricultural abundance a big
workforce.” This passage seems to discuss the benefits of low (cold)
temperatures for people and crops by highlighting how cold snaps have two main
benefits.

16. Answer: i

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 4

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes “countries having five or more frosty days a month are
uniformly rich; those with fewer than five are impoverished. The authors
speculate that the five-day figure is important; it could be the minimum time
needed to kill pests in the soil.” This passage appears to discuss the positive
correlation between climate and wealth by mentioning that frosty days a month
make a country rich.

17. Answer: ii

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: The opening line of paragraph D mentions that “masters

stresses that climate will never be the overriding factor 一 the wealth of
nations is too complicated to be attributable to just one factor. Climate, he
feels, somehow combines with other factors — such as the presence of
institutions, including governments, and access to trading routes — to
determine whether a country will do well.” Hence, wealth of nations is too
complicated to be attributable to just one factor. This para informs us about other
factors besides climate that influence wealth.
18. Answer: ix

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 3

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims “instead
of aid being geared towards improving governance, it should be spent on
technology to improve agriculture and to combat disease.” Here the author
suggests that the best way to use aid (help) is by using it to improve agriculture
and fight the disease.

19. Answer: v

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 3

Answer explanation: The answer is clearly mentioned in the said paragraph and
line. In the passage, it is said that “Jared Diamond, from the University of
California at Los Angeles, pointed out in his book Guns, Germs and Steel
that Eurasia is broadly aligned east-west, while Africa and the Americas are
aligned north-south.” Since Eurasia is aligned in east-west and Africa is in
north-south, can we say that the appropriate title for the passage would be
different attributes between Eurasia and Africa.

20. Answer: iv

Question Type: Matching Headings

Answer location: Paragraph G, last line

Answer explanation: The last line of paragraph G suggests that “but Masters
cautions against geographical determinism, the idea that tropical countries
are beyond hope: Human health and agriculture can be made better through
scientific and technological research, he says, so we shouldn’t be writing
off these countries.” The researchers’ results do not rule out exceptional cases
by stating that we shouldn’t be writing off these countries.

21. Answer: (yellow fever) epidemic

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 2

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can refer to, “dr.William
Masters was reading a book about mosquitoes when inspiration struck.
There was this anecdote about the great yellow fever epidemic that hit
Philadelphia in 1793.” Here, Dr. William Masters read a book that talks about the
great yellow fever epidemic.

22. Answer: Finland

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 6

Answer explanation: The entire sentence has been paraphrased here. In the
passage, it states that “Masters says: for example, Finland is a small country
that is growing quickly, but Bolivia is a small country that isn’t growing at
all. Perhaps climate has something to do with that.” Hence, a small rich
country is Finland.

23. Answer: governing institutions

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph D, last line

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “my feeling is that,
as countries get richer, they get better institutions. And the accumulation of
wealth and improvement in governing institutions are both helped by a
favourable environment, including climate.” It implies that a country is
required to improve its governing institutions.

24. Answer: Europe

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 4

Answer explanation: Paragraph F puts forward the information that “so, in

Europe, crops can spread quickly across latitudes because climates are
similar.” Hence, the entire continent of Europe has similar (resembling) weather
conditions.
25. Answer: Einkorn Wheat

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph F, line 5

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the passage specifies “one
of the first domesticated crops, einkorn wheat, spread quickly from the
Middle East into Europe; it took twice as long for corn to spread from
Mexico to what is now the eastern United States.” Hence, einkorn wheat
spread quickly (faster).

26. Answer: Singapore

Question Type: Summary Completion

Answer location: Paragraph C, last line

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph to the fact that “there
are exceptions to the “cold equals rich” argument. There are well-heeled
tropical countries such as Hong Kong and Singapore (both city-states,
Masters notes), a result of their superior trading positions. Likewise, not all
European countries axe moneyed — in the former communist colonies, the
economic potential was crushed by politics.” Hence, a tropical country such
as Singapore still became rich due to scientific advancement (superior trading
positions).

Reading Passage 3

27. Answer: D

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: The opening line of paragraph B suggests that “a number

of parents were not easy to be aware of the compliance, some even
overlooked their children’s noncompliance. Despite good education, these
children did not follow the words from their parents on several occasion
‘especially boys in certain ages.” Hence, we can infer that the term “children
did not follow the words from their parents on several occasions” has been
paraphrased to “may disobey their parents’ order sometimes”.

28. Answer: C

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, a line in the passage specifies

that “a number of parents were not easy to be aware of the compliance,
some even overlooked their children’s noncompliance.” Hence, we can
conclude some of the parents may ignore (overlook) their noncompliance.

29. Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 5

Answer explanation: If you observe, in the said paragraph Henry Proter

said, “he indicated that noncompliance means growth in some way, may
have benefit for children. Many Experts held different viewpoints in recent
years, they tried drilling compliance into children.” Noncompliance can also
mean growth and it may have positive effects.

30. Answer: B

Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line in the said paragraph
that describes “noncompliant Children sometimes prefer to say no directly
as they were younger, they are easy to deal with the relationship with
contemporaries when they are growing up. During the period that children
are getting elder, who may learn to use more advanced approaches for their
noncompliance.” Since growing children can learn to improve their approches
(methods), it signifies that they become more skillful to negotiate.

31. Answer: C
Question Type: Multiple Choice Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: The reference line from paragraph E suggests

that “Noncompliant Children sometimes prefer to say no directly as they
were younger,” Hence, the possible reaction can be expected from elder
children and younger one is a direct no, if they don’t want to comply with the
order.

32. Answer: B

Question Type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph C, last line

Answer explanation: Few lines in the said paragraph convey

that “noncompliant Children sometimes prefer to say no directly as they
were younger, they are easy to deal with the relationship with
contemporaries. when they are growing up. During the period that children
are getting elder, who may learn to use more advanced approaches for their
noncompliance. They are more skillful to negotiate or give reasons for
refusal rather than show their opposite idea to parents directly/’ Said Henry
Porter, a scholar working in the Psychology Institute of UK. He indicated
that noncompliance means growth in some way, may have benefit for
children.” Hence we can infer that growing children/elderly children will negotiate
rather than opposing ideas.

33. Answer: E

Question Type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 7

Answer explanation: “His collaborator Wallace Friesen believed that

Organizing a child’s daily activities so that they occur in the same order
each day as much as possible. This first strategy for defiant children is
ultimately the most important. Developing a routine helps a child to know
what to expect and increases the chances that he or she will comply with
things such as chores, homework, and hygiene requests.” The given line
suggests that developing a routine (daily activity) in a similar manner can help
increase the chances of children complying with chores, homework, and hygiene
activities.

34. Answer: D

Question Type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read thoroughly, there’s a line that claims “doctor
Steven Walson addressed that organizing fun activities to occur after
frequently refused activities works as a positive reinforcer.” Hence, Steven
Walson in the passage mentions that organizing fun activities to occur after
frequently refused activities works as a positive reinforcer.

35. Answer: F

Question Type: Matching Features

Answer location: Paragraph D, line 1

Answer explanation: A line in the passage mentions that “psychologist Paul

Edith insisted praise is the best way to make children comply with.” Hence,
it is Paul Edith who claims that praise makes children compliant.

36. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph A, line 1

Answer explanation: The author in reference paragraph mentions that “many

Scientists believe that socialization takes a long process, while compliance
is the outset of it.” Hence, the statement agrees with the information given in the
passage.

37. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph B, line 1

Answer explanation: If you read clearly it is given that “a number of parents
were not easy to be aware of the compliance， some even overlooked their
children’s noncompliance. Despite good education, these children did not
follow the words from their parents on several occasion ‘especially boys in
certain ages. Fortunately, this rate was acceptable; some parents could be
patient with the noncompliance. Someone held that noncompliance is
probably not a wrong thing.” Hence, it is true that many parents were difficult to
be aware ( not easy to be aware) of compliance or (some even overlooked)
noncompliance.

38. Answer: TRUE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 1

Answer explanation: Paragraph C puts forward the information that “non-

compliant children sometimes prefer to say no directly as they were
younger, they are easy to deal with the relationship with contemporaries.
when they are growing up.” The term “easy to deal” has been paraphrased to
“simple to deal” in a statement and the term contemporaries mean a person or
thing living or existing at the same time as another (people of the same age).

39. Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph C, line 6

Answer explanation: In the said paragraph, you can point out that “many
Experts held different viewpoints in recent years, they tried drilling
compliance into children. His collaborator Wallace Friesen believed that
Organizing a child’s daily activities so that they occur in the same order
each day as much as possible.” Here, it confirms that experts have tried drilling
compliance into children.

40. Answer: FALSE

Question Type: True/False/Not Given Questions

Answer location: Paragraph E, line 1

Answer explanation: A line in the said paragraph infers that “psychologist Paul
Edith insisted praise is the best way to make children comply with. This is
probably a common term you are used to hearing by now.” Hence, it confirms
that Paul Edith insisted on praise and not negated.

Bovids, Twin study: Two of a kind, The significant role of mother tongue

Reading Passage 1

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage I on pages 2 and 3.

Bovids

A. The family of mammals called bovids belongs to the Artiodactyl class, which
also includes giraffes. Bovids are highly diverse group consisting of 137 species,
some of which are man’s most important domestic animals.

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B. Bovids are well represented in most parts of Eurasia and Southeast Asian
islands, but they are by far the most numerous and diverse in the latter Some
species of bovid are solitary, but others live in large groups with complex social
structures. Although bovids have adapted to a wide range of habitats, from arctic
tundra to deep tropical forest, the majority of species favour open grassland,
scrub or desert. This diversity of habitat is also matched by great diversity in size
and form: at one extreme is the royal antelope of West Africa, which stands a
mere 25 cm at the shoulder; at the other, the massively built bisons of North
America and Europe, growing to a shoulder height of 2.2m.

C. Despite differences in size and appearance, bovids are united by the

possession of certain common features. All species are ruminants, which means
that they retain undigested food in their stomachs, and regurgitate it as
necessary. Bovids are almost exclusively herbivorous: plant-eating “incisors: front
teeth herbivorous.
D. Typically their teeth are highly modified for browsing and grazing: grass or
foliage is cropped with the upper lip and lower incisors** (the upper incisors are
usually absent), and then ground down by the cheek teeth. As well as having
cloven, or split, hooves, the males of ail bovid species and the females of most
carry horns. Bovid horns have bony cores covered in a sheath of horny material
that is constantly renewed from within; they are unbranched and never shed.
They vary in shape and size: the relatively simple horns of a large Indian buffalo
may measure around 4 m from tip to tip along the outer curve, while the various
gazelles have horns with a variety of elegant curves.

E. Five groups, or sub-families, may be distinguished: Bovinae, Antelope,

Caprinae, Cephalophinae and Antilocapridae. The sub-family Bovinae comprises
most of the larger bovids, including the African bongo, and nilgae, eland, bison
and cattle. Unlike most other bovids they are all non-territorial. The ancestors of
the various species of domestic cattle banteng, gaur, yak and water buffalo are
generally rare and endangered in the wild, while the auroch (the ancestor of the
domestic cattle of Europe) is extinct.

F. The term ‘antelope 1 is not a very precise zoological name _ it is used to

loosely describe a number of bovids that have followed different lines of
development. Antelopes are typically long-legged, fast-running species, often with
long horns that may be laid along the back when the animal is in full flight. There
are two main sub-groups antelope: Hippotraginae, which includes the oryx and
the addax, and Antilopinae, which generally contains slighter and more graceful
animals such as gazelle and the springbok. Antelopes are mainly grassland
species, but many have adapted to flooded grasslands: pukus, waterbucks and
lechwes are all good at swimming, usually feeding in deep water, while the
sitatunga has long, splayed hooves that enable it to walk freely on swampy
ground.

G. The sub-family Caprinae includes the sheep and the goat, together with
various relatives such as the goral and the tahr. Most are woolly or have long hair.
Several species, such as wild goats, chamois and ibex, are agile cliff 一 and
mountain-dwellers. Tolerance of extreme conditions is most marked in this group:
Barbary and bighorn sheep have adapted to arid deserts, while Rocky Mountain
sheep survive high up in mountains and musk oxen in arctic tundra.

H. The duiker of Africa belongs to the Cephalophinae sub-family. It is generally

small and solitary, often living in thick forest. Although mainly feeding on grass
and leaves, some duikers – unlike most other bovids -are believed to eat insects
and feed on dead animal carcasses, and even to kill small animals.

I. the pronghorn is the sole survivor of a New World sub-family of herbivorous

ruminants, the Antilocapridae in North America. It is similar in appearance and
habits to the Old World antelope. Although greatly reduced in numbers since the
arrival of Europeans, and the subsequent enclosure of grasslands, the pronghorn
is still found in considerable numbers throughout North America, from Washington
State to Mexico. When alarmed by the approach of wolves or other predators,
hairs on the pronghorn’s rump stand erect, so showing and emphasising the white
patch there. At this signal, the whole herd gallops off at speed of over 60 km per
hour.

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Questions 1-3

Choose the correct letter, A. B. C or D.Write the correct letter in boxes 1 -3 on

your answer sheet.

1 In which region is the biggest range of bovids to be found?

A Africa
BEurasia
C North America
D South-east Asia

2 Most bovids have a preference for living in

A isolation
B small groups
C tropical forest
D wide open spaces

3 Which of the following features do all bovids have in common?

A Their homs are shot
B They have upper incisors
C They store food in the body
D Their hooves are undivided

Questions 4-8

Look at the following characteristics (Question 4-8) and the list of sub-families
below. Match each characteristic with the correct sub-family, A, B，C or D.Write
the correct letter, A, B, C or D, in boxes 4-8 on your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once

4 can endure very harsh environments

5 includes the ox and the cow

6 may supplement its diet with meat

7 can usually move at speed

8 does not defend a particular area of land

List of sub-families

A Antelope

B Bovinae

C Caprinae

D Cephalophinae

Question 9-13
Answer the questions below.Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer. Write your answers in boxes 9-13 on your answer
sheet

9 What is the smallest species of Bovid called?

10 Which species of Boviae has now died out?

11 What facilitates the movement of the sitatunga over wetland?

12 What sort of terrain do barbary sheep live in?

13 What is the only living member of the Antilocapridae sub-family?

Reading Passage 2

Twin study: Two of a kind

A. The scientific study of twins goes back to the late 19th century, when Francis
Galton, an early geneticist, realized that they came in two varieties: identical twins
born from one egg and non-identical twins that had come from two. That insight
turned out to be key, although it was not until 1924 that it was used to formulate
what is known as the twin rule of pathology, and twin studies really got going.

B. The twin rule of pathology states that any heritable disease will be more
concordant (that is, more likely to be jointly present or absent) in identical twins
than in non-identical twins—and, in turn, will be more concordant in non-identical
twins than in non-siblings. Early work, for example, showed that the statistical
correlation of skin-mole counts between identical twins was 0.4, while non-
identical twins had a correlation of only 0.2. (A score of 1.0 implies perfect
correlation, while a score of zero implies no correlation.) This result suggests that
moles are heritable, but it also implies that there is an environmental component
to the development of moles, otherwise the correlation in identical twins would be
close to 1.0.

C. Twin research has shown that whether or not someone takes up smoking is
determined mainly by environmental factors, but once he does so, how much he
smokes is largely down to his genes. And while a person’s religion is clearly a
cultural attribute, there is a strong genetic component to religious fundamentalism.
Twin studies are also unraveling the heritability of various aspects of human
personality. Traits from neuroticism and anxiety to thrill- and novelty-seeking all
have large genetic components. Parenting matters, but it does not determine
personality in the way that some had thought.

D. More importantly, perhaps, twin studies are helping the understanding of

diseases such as cancer, asthma, osteoporosis, arthritis and immune disorders.
And twins can be used, within ethical limits, for medical experiments. A study that
administered vitamin C to one twin and a placebo to the other found that it had no
effect on the common cold. The lesson from all today’s twin studies is that most
human traits are at least partially influenced by genes. However, for the most part,
the age-old dichotomy between nature and nurture is not very useful. Many
genetic programs are open to input from the environment, and genes are
frequently switched on or off by environmental signals. It is also possible that
genes themselves influence their environment. Some humans have an innate
preference for participation in sports. Others are drawn to novelty. Might people
also be drawn to certain kinds of friends and types of experience? In this way, a
person’s genes might shape the environment they act in as much as the
environment shapes the actions of the genes.

E. In the past, such research has been controversial. Josef Mengele, a Nazi
doctor working at the Auschwitz extermination camp during the Second World
War, was fascinated by twins. He sought them out among arrivals at the camp
and preserved them from the gas-chambers for a series of brutal experiments.
After the war, Cyril Burt, a British psychologist who worked on the heredity of
intelligence, tainted twin research with results that appear, in retrospect, to have
been rather too good. Some of his data on identical twins who had been reared
apart were probably faked. In any case, the prevailing ideology in the social
sciences after the war was Marxist, and disliked suggestions that differences in
human potential might have underlying genetic causes. Twin studies were thus
viewed with suspicion.

F. the ideological pendulum has swung back; however, as the human genome
project and its aftermath have turned genes from abstract concepts to real pieces
of DNA. The role of genes in sensitive areas such as intelligence is acknowledged
by all but a few die-hards. The interesting questions now concern how nature and
nurture interact to produce particular bits of biology, rather than which of the two
is more important. Twin studies, which are a good way to ask these questions, are
back in fashion, and many twins are enthusiastic participants in this research.
G. Research at the Twinsburg festival began in a small way, with a single stand in
1979. Gradually, news spread, and more scientists began turning up. This year,
half a dozen groups of researchers were lodged in a specially pitched research
tent. In one comer of this tent, Paul Breslin, who works at the Monell Institute in
Philadelphia, watched over several tables where twins sat sipping clear liquids
from cups and making notes. It was the team’s third year at Twinsburg. Dr Breslin
and his colleagues want to find out how genes influence human perception,
particularly the senses of smell and taste and those (warmth, cold, pain, tingle,
itch and so on) that result from stimulation of the skin. Perception is an example of
something that is probably influenced by both genes and experience. Even before
birth, people are exposed to flavours such as chocolate, garlic, mint and vanilla
that pass intact into the bloodstream, and thus to the fetus. Though it is not yet
clear whether such pre-natal exposure shapes taste-perception, there is evidence
that it shapes preferences for foods encountered later in life.

H. However, there are clearly genetic influences at work, as well-for example in

the ability to taste quinine. Some people experience this as intensely bitter, even
when it is present at very low levels. Others, whose genetic endowment is
different, are less bothered by it. Twin studies make this extremely clear. Within a
pair of identical twins, either both, or neither, will find quinine hard to swallow.
Non-identical twins will agree less frequently.

I. On the other side of the tent Dennis Drayna, from the National Institute on
Deafness and Other Communication Disorders, in Maryland, was studying
hearing. He wants to know what happens to sounds after they reach the ear. It is
not clear, he says, whether sound is processed into sensation mostly in the ear or
in the brain. Dr Drayna has already been involved in a twin study which revealed
that the perception of musical pitch is highly heritable. At Twinsburg, he is playing
different words, or parts of words, into the left and right ears of his twinned
volunteers. The composite of the two sounds that an individual reports hearing
depends on how he processes this diverse information and that, Dr Drayna
believes, may well be influenced by genetics.

J. Elsewhere in the marquee, Peter Miraldi, of Kent State University in Ohio, was
trying to find out whether genes affect an individual’s motivation to communicate
with others. A number of twin studies have shown that personality and sociability
are heritable, so he thinks this is fertile ground. And next to Mr. Miraldi was a
team of dermatologists from Case Western Reserve University in Cleveland. They
are looking at the development of skin diseases and male-pattern baldness. The
goal of the latter piece of research is to find the genes responsible for making
men’s hair fall out.

K. The busiest part of the tent, however, was the queue for forensic-science
research into fingerprints. The origins of this study are shrouded in mystery. For
many months, the festival/’s organisers have been convinced that the Secret
Service – the American government agency responsible for, among other things,
the safety of the president – is behind it. When The Economist contacted the
Secret Service for more information, we were referred to Steve Nash, who is
chairman of the International Association for Identification (IAI), and is also a
detective in the scientific investigations section of the Marin County Sheriff’s
Office in California. The IAI, based in Minnesota, is an organisation of forensic
scientists from around the world. Among other things, it publishes the Journal of
Forensic Identification.

Questions 14-18

The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-K.Which paragraph contains the
following information? Write the correct letter A-K, in boxes 14-18 on your answer
sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

14 Mentioned research conducted in Ohio

15 Medical contribution to the researches for twins.

16 Research situation under life threatening conditions

17 Data of similarities of identical twins

18 Reasons that make one study unconvincing

Questions 19-20

SummaryComplete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading

Passage 2 , using no more than two words from the Reading Passage for each
answer. Write your answers in boxes 19-20 on your answer sheet.

The first one that conducted research on twins iscalled

……………….. 19………………… He separated twins into two categories: non
identical and identical twins. The twin research was used in medical application in
as early as the year of………………………………… 20………………

Questions 21-23

Choose the correct letters in following options:Write your answers in boxes 21-23
on your answer sheet.

Please choose THREE research fields that had been carried out in Ohio,
Maryland and Twinsburgh?

A Sense
B Cancer
C Be allergic to Vitamin D
D Mole heredity
E Sound
F Baldness of men

Questions 24-26

Choose the correct letters in following options:Write your answers in boxes 24-26
on your answer sheet.

Please choose THREE results that had been verified in this passage.

A Non identical twins come from different eggs.

B Genetic relation between identical twins is closer than non-identical ones.
CVitamin C has evident effect on a cold.
D Genetic influence to smoking is superior to environment’s
E If a pregnant woman eats too much sweet would lead to skin disease.
F Hair loss has been found to be connected with skin problem.

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Reading Passage 3
You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40，which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.

The significant role of mother tongue language in education

A. One consequence of population mobility is an increasing diversity within

schools. To illustrate, in the city of Toronto in Canada, 58% of kindergarten pupils
come from homes where English is not language of communication. Schools in
Europe and North America have experienced this diversity for years, but
educational policies and practices vary widely between countries and even within
countries. Some political parties and groups search for ways to solve the problem
of diverse communities and their integration in schools and society. They see few
positive consequences for the host society and worry that diversity threaten the
identity of the host society .Consequently, they promote unfortunate educational
policies that will make the “problem” disappear. If students retain their culture and
language, they are viewed as less capable of identifying with the mainstream
culture and learning the mainstream language of the society.

B. The challenge for educators and policy-makers is to shape the evolution of

national identity in such a way that the rights of all citizens (including school
children) are respected, and the cultural, linguistic, and economic resources of the
nation are maximized. To waste the resources of the nation by discouraging
children from developing their mother tongues is quite simply unintelligent from
the point of view of national self-interest. A first step in Providing an appropriate
education for culturally and linguistically diverse children is to examine what the
existing research says about the role of children’s mother tongues in their
educational development.

C. In fact, the research is very clear. When children continue to develop their
abilities in two or more languages throughout their primary school, they gain a
deeper understanding of language and how to use it effectively. They have more
practice in processing language, especially when they develop literacy in both.
More than 150 research studies conducted during the past 35 years strongly
support what Goethe, the famous eighteenth-century German philosopher, once
said： that the person who knows only one language does not truly know that
language. Research suggests that bilingual children may also develop more
flexibility in their thinking as a result of processing information through two
different languages.
D. The level of development of children’s mother tongue is a strong predictor of
their second language development. Children who come to school with a solid
foundation in their mother tongue develop stronger literacy abilities in the school
language. When parents and other caregivers (e.g. grandparents) are able to
spend time with their children and tell stories or discuss issues with them in a way
that develops their mother tongue, children come to school well-prepared to learn
the school language and succeed educationally. Children’s knowledge and skills
transfer across languages from the mother tongue to the school language.
Transfer across languages can be two-way: both languages nurture each other
when the educational environment permits children access to both languages.

E. Some educators and parents are suspicious of mother tongue-based teaching

programs because they worry that they take time away from the majority
language. For example, in a bilingual program where 50% of the time is spent
teaching through children’s home language and 50% through the majority
language, surely children’s won’t progress as far in the letter? One of the most
strongly established findings of educational research, however, is that well-
implemented bilingual programs can promote literacy and subject- matter
knowledge in a minority language without any negative effects on children’s
development in the majority language. Within Europe, the Foyer program in
Belgium, which develops children’s speaking and literacy abilities in three
languages (their mother tongue, Dutch and French), most clearly illustrates the
benefits of bilingual and trilingual education (see Cummins, 2000).

F. It is easy to understand how this happens. When children are learning through
a minority language, they are learning concepts and intellectual skills too. Pupils
who know how to tell the time in their mother tongue understand the concept of
telling time. In order to tell time in the majority language they do not need to re-
learn the concept. Similarly, at more advanced stages, there is transfer across
languages in other skills such as knowing how to distinguish the main idea from
the supporting details of a written passage or story, and distinguishing fact from
opinion, Studies of secondary school pupils are providing interesting findings in
this area, and it would be worth extending this research.

G. Many people marvel at how quickly bilingual children seem to “pick up”
conversational skills in the majority language at school (although it takes much
longer for them to catch up to native speakers in academic language skills).
However, educators are often much less aware of how quickly children can lose
their ability to use their mother tongue, even in the home context. The extent and
rapidity of language loss will vary according to the concentration of families from a
particular linguistic group in the neighborhood. Where the mother tongue is used
extensively in the community, then language loss among young children will be
less. However, where language communities are not concentrated in particular
neighborhoods, children can lose their ability to communicate in their mother
tongue within 2-3 years of starting school. They may retain receptive skills in the
language but they will use the majority language in speaking with their peers and
siblings and in responding to their parents. By the time children become
adolescents, the linguistic division between parents and children has become an
emotional chasm. Pupils frequently become alienated from the cultures of both
home and school with predictable results.

Questions 27-30

Choose the correct letter, A，B，C or D.Write the correct letter in boxes 27-30 on
your answer sheet.

27 What point the writer making in the second paragraph?

A Some present studies on children’s mother tongues are misleading

B A culturally rich education programme benefits some children more than others.
C bilingual children can make a valuable contribution to the wealth of a country
DThe law on mother tongue use at school should be strengthened.

28 Why does the writer refer to something that Goethe said?

A to lend weight his argument

B to contradict some research
C to introduce a new concept
D to update current thinking

29 The writer believes that when young children have a firm grasp of their mother
tongue

A they can teach older family members what they learn at school
B they go on to do much better throughout their time at school
C they can read stories about their cultural background
D they develop stronger relationships with their family than with their peers.

30 Why are some people suspicious about mother tongue-based teaching

programmes?
A They worry that children will be slow to learn to read in either language
B They think that children will confuse words in the two languages.
C They believe that the programmes will make children less interested in their
lessons
D They fear that the programmes will use up valuable time in the school day.

Questions 31-35

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage using no

more than Two words from the Reading Passage for each answer.Write your
answers in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

Bilingual children

It was often recorded that Bilingual Children acquire

the 31 ………………………………………. to converse in the majority language
remarkable quickly. The fact that the mother tongue can disappear at a
similar 32……………………………………. is less well understood. This
phenomenon depends to a certain extent, on the proposition of people with the
same linguistic background that have settled in a
particular 33 ………………………………..; If this is limited, children are likely to
lose the active use of their mother tongue. And thus no longer employ it even
with 34………………………………. although they may still understand it. It follows
that teenager children in these circumstances experience a sense
of 35……………………………………………. in relation to all aspects of their lives.

A Teachers B school C dislocation

D Rate E time F family

G communication H type I ability

J Area
Questions 36-40

Do the following statement agree with the views of the writer in Reading passage
3? In boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet, writeYES if the statement agrees with
the views of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts with the views of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

36 Less than half the children who attend kindergarten in Toronto have English as
their Mother tongue.

37 Research proves that learning the host country language at school can have
an adverse effect on a child’s mother tongue.

38 the foyer Program is to be accepted by the French education system.

39 Bilingual children are taught to tell the time earlier than monolingual children.

40 Bilingual children can eventually apply reading comprehension strategies

acquired in one language when reading in the other.

The Impact of the Potato, Life-Casting and Art, Honey bees in trouble –

IELTS Reading Answers

Nehasri Ravishenbagam

6 min read

Updated On Feb 27, 2024

 Table of Contents

 Section 1
 Section 2
 Section 3
 Answer Keys

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Section 1

You should ideally spend 20 minutes on Questions 1-13, which are based on
Reading Passage 1.

The Impact of the Potato

Jeff Chapman relates the story of history the most important vegetable
Questions 1-5

Do the following statements agree with the views of the writer in Reading
Passage 1?

In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

 YES if the statement is true

NO if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

1 The early Spanish called potato as the Incan name ‘Chuchu

2. The purposes of Spanish coming to Peru were to find out potatoes.

3 The Spanish believed that the potato has the same nutrients as other
vegetables.

4 Peasants at that time did not like to eat potatoes because they were ugly.

5 The popularity of potatoes in the UK was due to food shortages during the war.

Questions 6-13

Complete the sentences below with NO MORE THAN ONE WORD AND from
passage 1 for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-13 on your answer sheet.

6 In France，people started to overcome their disgusting about potatoes because

the King put a potato ___________________ in his button hole.

7 Frederick realized the potential of potato but he had to handle the

______________________ against potatoes from ordinary people.

8 The King of Prussia adopted some _________________________ psychology

to make people accept potatoes.

9 Before 1800，the English people preferred eating

_____________________________ with bread, butter and cheese.
10 The obvious way to deal with England food problems were high yielding potato
______________________

11 The Irish _____________________________and climate suited potatoes well.

12 Between 1780 and 1841，based on the ___________________________ of

the potatoes, the

Irish population doubled to eight million.

13 The potato’s high yields help the poorest farmers to produce more healthy food
almost without _____________________

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Section 2

Life-Casting and Art

Questions 14-18

Reading Passage 2 has six paragraphs, A-F.

Which paragraph contains the following information?

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 14-18 on your answer sheet.

14 an example of a craftsman’s unsuccessful claim to ownership of his work

15 an example of how trends in the art can change attitudes to an earlier work

16 the original function of a particular type of art

17 ways of assessing whether or not an object is an art

18 how artists deal with the less interesting aspects of their work

Questions 19-24

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage 2?

In boxes 19-24 on your answer sheet, write

YES if the statement is true

NO if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given in the passage

19 Nineteenth-century sculptors admired the speed and realism of life-casting.

20 Rodin believed the quality of the life-casting would improve if a slower process
were used.
 21 The importance of painting has decreased with the development of colour
photography.

22 Life-casting requires more skill than sculpture does.

23 New art encourages us to look at earlier work in a fresh way.

24 The intended meaning of a work of art can get lost over time.

Questions 25-26

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write the correct letter in boxes 25 and 26 on your answer sheet.

25 The most noticeable contrast in the cast of the giants hand is between the

A dirt and decoration

B size and realism
C choice and arrangement
D balance and texture

26 According to the writer, the importance of any artistic object lies in

Athe artist’s intentions

B the artist’s beliefs
C the relevance it has to modem life
D the way we respond to it

Also check :

 IELTS Reading
 Tips to Improve IELTS Reading Skills
 True False Not Given IELTS Reading
 IELTS Reading recent actual test
 IELTS Academic Reading test papers with answers pdf

Section 3

You should spend about 20 minutes on Questions 27-40, which are based on
Reading Passage 3 below.
Honey bees in trouble

Can native pollinators fill the gap?

Questions 27-30

Do the following statements agree with the claims of the writer in Reading
Passage 3? In boxes 27-30 on your answer sheet, write
 YES if the statement agrees with the claims of the writer

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer

NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this

27 In the United States, farmers use honeybees on a large scale over the past
few years.

28 Cleaning farming practices would be harmful to farmers’

29 The blue orchard bee is the most efficient pollinator among native bees for
every crop.

30 It is beneficial to other local creatures to protect native bees.

Questions 31-35

Choose the correct letter, A, B, C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 31-35 on your answer sheet.

31 The example of the ‘Fruitless Fair underlines the writer’s point about

A needs for using pesticides.

B impacts of losing insect pollinators.
C vulnerabilities of native bees.
D benefits in building more pollination industries.

32 Why can honeybees adapt to the modem agricultural system?

A the honeybees can pollinate more crops efficiently

B The bees are semi-domesticated since ancient times.
C Honeybee hives can be protected away from pesticides.
D The ability of wild pollinators using to serve crops declines.

33 The writer mentions factories and assembly lines to illustrate

A one drawback of the industrialised agricultural system.
B a low cost in modem agriculture.
C the role of honeybees in pollination.
D what a high yield of industrial agriculture.

34 In the 6th paragraph，Wlnfree’s experiment proves that

Ahoneybee can pollinate various crops.

B there are many types of wild bees as the pollinators.
C the wild bees can increase the yield to a higher percentage
D wild bees work more efficiently as a pollinator than honey bees in certain cases

35 What does the writer want to suggest in the last paragraph?

A the importance of honey bees in pollination

B adoption of different bees in various sizes of agricultural system
C the comparison between the intensive and the rarefied agricultural system
D the reason why farmers can rely on native pollinators
Questions 36-40

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-F, below.

Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 36-40 on your answer sheet

36 The headline of colony collapse disorder states that

37 Viewpoints of Freitas manifest that

38 Examples of blue orchard bees have shown that

39 Centris tarsata is mentioned to exemplify that

40 One finding of the research in Delaware Valley is that

A native pollinators can survive when a specific plant is supplied.

B it would cause severe consequences both to commerce and agriculture.
C honey bees cannot be bred.
D some agricultural landscapes are favourable in supporting wild bees.
E a large scale of honey bees are needed to pollinate.
F an agricultural system is fragile when relying on a single pollinator
 Bondi Beach, London Swaying Footbridge, The Exploration of Mars – IELTS

Reading Answers
Prity Mallick

17 min read

Updated On Dec 14, 2023

Table of Contents

 Section 1
 Section 2
 London Swaying Footbride
 Section 3
 The Exploration of Mars
 Answer Key
Limited-Time Offer : Access a FREE 10-Day IELTS Study Plan!
Download Study Plan

The Reading Module of the IELTS can be the top-scoring category, with diligent
practice. To achieve the best results in this section, you must understand how to
approach and answer the different Question types in the Reading Module. By
solving and reviewing Sample Reading Tests, like the one including Bondi Beach,
London Swaying Footbridge, The Exploration of Mars, from past IELTS papers,
you can ensure that your Reading skills are up to the mark.

Section 1

Bondi Beach

A Bondi Beach, Australia’s most famous beach, is located in the suburb of Bondi,
in the Local Government Area of Waverley, seven kilometres from the centre of
Sydney. “Bondi” or “Boondi” is an Aboriginal word meaning water breaking over
rocks or the sound of breaking waves. The Australian Museum records that Bondi
means a place where a flight of nullas took place. There are Aboriginal Rock
carvings on the northern end of the beach at Ben Buckler and south of Bondi
Beach near McKenzies Beach on the coastal walk.

B The indigenous people of the area at the time of European settlement have
generally been welcomed as the Sydney people or the Eora (Eora means “the
people”). One theory describes the Eora as a sub-group of the Darug language
group which occupied the Cumberland Plain west to the Blue Mountains.
However, another theory suggests that they were a distinct language group of
their own. There is no clear evidence for the name or names of the particular
band(s) of the Eora that roamed what is now the Waverley area. A number of
place names within Waverley, most famously Bondi, have been based on words
derived from Aboriginal languages of the Sydney region.

C From the mid-1800s Bondi Beach was a favourite location for family outings
and picnics. The beginnings of the suburb go back to 1809, when the early road
builder, William Roberts, received from Governor Bligh a grant of 81 hectares of
what is now most of the business and residential area of Bondi Beach. In 1851,
Edward Smith Hall and Francis O’Brien purchased 200 acres of the Bondi area
that embraced almost the whole frontage of Bondi Beach, and it was named the
“The Bondi Estate.” Between 1855 and 1877 O’Brien purchased Hall’s share of
the land, renamed the land the “O’Brien Estate,” and made the beach and the
surrounding land available to the public as a picnic ground and amusement resort.
As the beach became increasingly popular, O’Brien threatened to stop public
beach access. However, the Municipal Council believed that the Government
needed to intervene to make the beach a public reserve.

D During the 1900s beach became associated with health, leisure and democracy
– a playground everyone could enjoy equally. Bondi Beach was a working-class
suburb throughout most of the twentieth century with migrant people from New
Zealand comprising the majority of the local population. The first tramway reached
the beach in 1884. Following this, tram became the first public transportation in
Bondi. As an alternative, this action changed the rule that only rich people can
enjoy the beach. By the 1930s Bondi was drawing not only local visitors but also
people from elsewhere in Australia and overseas. Advertising at the time referred
to Bondi Beach as the “Playground of the Pacific”.

E There is a growing trend that people prefer having to relax near seaside instead
of living unhealthily in cities. The increasing popularity of sea bathing during the
late 1800s and early 1900s raised concerns about public safety and how to
prevent people from drowning. In response, the world’s first formally documented
surf lifesaving club, the Bondi Surf Bathers’ Life Saving Club, was formed in 1907.
This was powerfully reinforced by the dramatic events of “Black Sunday” at Bondi
in 1938. Some 35,000 people were on the beach and a large group of lifesavers
were about to start a surf race when three freak waves hit the beach, sweeping
hundreds of people out to sea. Lifesavers rescued 300 people. The largest mass
rescue in the history of surf bathing, it confirmed the place of the lifesaver in the
national imagination.

F Bondi Beach is the endpoint of the City to Surf Fun Run which is held each year
in August. Australian surf carnivals further instilled this image. A Royal Surf
Carnival was held at Bondi Beach for Queen Elizabeth II during her first visit to
Australia in 1954. Since 1867, there have been over fifty visits by a member of the
British Royal Family to Australia. In addition to many activities, the Bondi Beach
Markets is open every Sunday. Many wealthy people spend Christmas Day at the
beach. However, the shortage of houses occurs when lots of people crushed to
the seaside. Manly is the seashore town which solved this problem. However,
people still choose Bondi as the satisfied destination rather than Manly.

G Bondi Beach has a commercial area along Campbell Parade and adjacent side
streets, featuring many popular cafes, restaurants, and hotels, with views of the
contemporary beach. It is depicted as wholly modern and European. In the last
decade, Bondi Beaches’ unique position has seen a dramatic rise in svelte
houses and apartments to take advantage of the views and scent of the sea. The
valley running down to the beach is famous worldwide for its view of distinctive
red-tiled roofs. Those architectures are deeply influenced by British coastal town.

H Bondi Beach hosted the beach volleyball competition at the 2000 Summer
Olympics. A temporary 10,000-seat stadium, a much smaller stadium, 2 warm-up
courts, and 3 training courts were set up to host the tournament. The Bondi Beach
Volleyball Stadium was constructed for it and stood for just six weeks.
Campaigners oppose both the social and environmental consequences of the
development. The stadium will divide the beach in two and seriously restrict public
access for swimming, walking, and other forms of outdoor recreation. People
protest for their human rights of having a pure seaside and argue for healthy life in
Bondi.

I “They’re prepared to risk lives and risk the Bondi beach environment for the sake
of eight days of volleyball”, said Stephen Uniacke, a construction lawyer involved
in the campaign. Other environmental concerns include the possibility that soil
dredged up from below the sand will acidify when brought to the surface.

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Questions 1-5

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
1?

In boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet, write

TRUE if the statement is true

FALSE if the statement is false

NOT GIVEN if the information is not given

1 The name of the Bondi beach was first called by the British settlers.

2 The aboriginal culture in Australia is different when compared with European

culture.
3 Bondi beach area holds many contemporary hotels.

4 The seaside town in Bondi is affected by British culture for its characteristic red
colour.

5 Living near Bondi seashore is not beneficial for health.

Questions 6-9

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR
NUMBERS from the passage for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 6-9 on your answer sheet

6 At the end of the 19th century, which public transport did people use to go to
Bondi?

7 When did the British Royalty first visit Bondi?

8 Which Olympic event did Bondi hold in the 2000 Sydney Olympic games?

9 What would be damaged if the stadium was built for that Olympic event?

Questions 10-13

Complete the following summary of the paragraphs of Reading Passage, using no

more than two words from the Reading Passage for each answer. Write your
answers in boxes 10-13 on your answer sheet.

Bondi beach holds the feature sports activities every year, which attracts a lot
of___________ 10 choosing to live at this place during holidays. But local
accommodation cannot meet with the expanding population, a nearby town
of___________11 is the first suburb site to support the solution, yet people prefer
___________ 12 as their best choice. Its seaside buildings are well-known in the
world for the special scenic coloured___________ 13 on buildings and the joyful
smell from the sea.

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Section 2
London Swaying Footbride

A. In September 1996 a competition was organized by the Financial Times in

association with the London Borough of Southwark to design a new footbridge
across the Thames. The competition attracted over 200 entries and was won by a
team comprising Amp (engineers), Foster and Partners (architects) and the
sculptor Sir Anthony Caro.

B. The bridge opened to the public on 10 June 2000. Up to 100,000 people

crossed it that day with up to 2000 people on the bridge at any one time. At first,
the bridge was still. Then it began to sway, just slightly. Then, almost from one
moment to the next, when large groups of people were crossing, the wobble
intensified. This movement became sufficiently large for people to stop walking to
retain their balance and sometimes to hold onto the hand rails for support. It was
decided immediately to limit the number of people on the bridge, but even so the
deck movement was sufficient to be uncomfortable and to raise concern for public
safety so that on 12 June the bridge was closed until the problem could be solved.

C. The embarrassed engineers found the videotape that day which showed the
center span swaying about 3 inches side to side every second. The engineers first
thought that winds might be exerting excessive force on the many large flags and
banners bedecking the bridge for its gala premiere. What’s more, they also
discovered that the pedestrians also played a key role. Human activities, such as
walking, running, dumping, swaying, etc. could cause horizontal forces which in
turn could cause excessive dynamic vibration in the lateral direction in the bridge.
As the structure began moving, pedestrians adjusted their gait to the same lateral
rhythm as the bridge. The adjusted footsteps magnified the motion – just like
when four people all stand up in a small boat at the same time. As more
pedestrians locked into the same rhythm, the increasing oscillations led to the
dramatic swaying captured on film.

D. In order to design a method of reducing the movements, the force exerted by

the pedestrians had to be quantified and related to the motion of the bridge.
Although there are some descriptions of this phenomenon in existing literature,
none of these actually quantifies the force. So there was no quantitative analytical
way to design the bridge against this effect. An immediate research program was
launched by the bridge’s engineering designers Ove Arup, supported by a number
of universities and research organizations.
E. The tests at the University of Southampton involved a person walking on the
spot’ on a small shake table. The tests at Imperial College involved persons
walking along a specially built, 7.2m-long platform which could be driven laterally
at different frequencies and amplitudes. Each type of test had its limitations. The
Imperial College tests were only able to capture 7-8 footsteps, and the walking on
the spot tests, although monitoring many footsteps, could not investigate normal
forward walking. Neither test could investigate any influence of other people in a
crowd on the behavior of the individual being tested.

F. The results of the laboratory tests provided information which enabled the initial
design of a retro-fit to be progressed. However, the limitations of these tests was
clear and it was felt that the only way to replicate properly the precise conditions
of the Millennium Bridge was to carry out crowd tests on the bridge deck itself.
These tests done by the Arup engineers could incorporate factors not possible in
the laboratory tests. The first of these was carried out with 100 people in July
2000. The results of these tests were used to refine the load model for the
pedestrians. A second series of crowd tests was carried out on the bridge in
December 2000. The purpose of these tests was to further validate the design
assumptions and to load test a prototype danger installation. The test was carried
out with 275 people.

G. Unless the usage of the bridge was to be greatly restricted, only two generic
options to improve its performance were considered feasible. The first was to
increase the stiffness of the bridge to move all its lateral natural frequencies out of
the range that could be excited by the lateral footfall forces, and the second was
to increase the damping of the bridge to reduce the resonant response.

[do_widget id=custom_html-47]

Questions 14 – 17

Choose FOUR letters, A – H. Write the correct letters in boxes 14 – 17 on your

answer sheet.

Which FOUR of the following situation were witnessed on the opening ceremony
of the bridge?

A The frequency of oscillation increased after some time.

B All the engineers went to see the ceremony that day.

C The design of the bridge astonished the people.

D Unexpected sideways movement of the bridge occurred.

E Pedestrians had difficulty in walking on the deck.

F The bridge fell down when people tried to retain their balance.

G Vibration could be detected on the deck by the pedestrians.

H It was raining when the ceremony began.

Questions 18 – 22

Complete the following summary of the passage, using NO MORE THAN THREE
WORDS from the Reading Passage for each answer.

After the opening ceremony, the embarrassed engineers tried to find out the
reason of the bridge’s wobbling. Judged from the videotape, they thought that
18……………………. and 19……………………. might create excessive force on
the bridge. The distribution of 20……………………. resulted from human activities
could cause 21……………………. throughout the structure. This swaying
prompted people to start adjusting the way they walk, which in turn reinforced
the 22…………………….

Questions 23 – 26

Complete the table below. Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer.

Research programs launched by universities and organizations

Universities/People Activity

Test at 23……………………. Limited ability to have 7-8 footsteps

Walking on the spot at Southampton Not enough data on 24……………………

 Crowd test conducted by
Aim to verify 26…………………….
25…………………….

Also check:

 IELTS Reading
 IELTS Reading tips
 True False Not Given IELTS Reading
 IELTS Reading recent actual test
 IELTS past paper pdf

Section 3

The Exploration of Mars

A In 1877, Giovanni Schiaparelli, an Italian astronomer, made drawings and maps

of the Martian surface that suggested strange features. The images from
telescopes at this time were not as sharp as today’s. Schiaparelli said he could
see a network of lines, or canali. In 1894, an American astronomer, Percival
Lowell, made a series of observations of Mars from his own observations of Mars
from his own observatory at Flagstaff, Arizona, USA. Lowell was convinced a
great network of canals had been dug to irrigate crops for the Martian race! He
suggested that each canal had fertile vegetation on either side, making them
noticeable from Earth. Drawings and globes he made show a network of canals
and oases all over the planet.

B The idea that there was intelligent life on Mars gained strength in the late 19th
century. In 1898, H.G. Wells wrote a science fiction classic, The War of the
Worlds about an invading force of Martians who try to conquer Earth. They use
highly advanced technology (advanced for 1898) to crush human resistance in
their path. In 1917, Edgar Rice Burroughs wrote the first in a series of 11 novels
about Mars. Strange beings and rampaging Martian monsters gripped the public’s
imagination. A radio broadcast by Orson Welles on Halloween night in 1938 of
The War of the Worlds caused widespread panic across America. People ran into
the streets in their pyjamas-millions believed the dramatic reports of a Martian
invasion.
C Probes are very important to our understanding of other planets. Much of our
recent knowledge comes from these robotic missions into space. The first images
sent back from Mars came from Mariner 4 in July 1965. They showed a cratered
and barren landscape, more like the surface of our moon than Earth. In 1969,
Mariners 6 and 7 were launched and took 200 photographs of Mars’s southern
hemisphere and pole on fly-by missions. But these showed little more information.
In 1971, Mariner 9’s mission was to orbit the planet every 12 hours. In 1975, The
USA sent two Viking probes to the planet, each with a lander and an orbiter. The
landers had sampler arms to scoop up Maritian rocks and did experiments to try
and find signs of life. Although no life was found, they sent back the first colour
pictures of the planet’s surface and atmosphere from pivoting cameras.

D The ALH84001 meteorite was found in December 1984 in Antarctica, by

members of the ANSMET project; The sample was ejected from Mars about 17
million years ago and spent 11,000 years in or on the Antarctic ice sheets.
Composition analysis by NASA revealed a kind of magnetite that on Earth, isonly
found in association with certain microorganisms. Some structures resembling the
mineralized casts of terrestrial bacteria and their appendages (fibrils) or by-
products (extracellular polymeric substances) occur in the rims of carbonate
globules and preterrestrial aqueous alteration regions. The size and shape of the
objects is consistent with Earthly fossilized nanobacteria, but the existence of
nanobacteria itself is controversial.

E In 1965, the Mariner 4 probe discovered that Mars had no global magnetic
field that would protect the planet from potentially life-threatening cosmic radiation
and solar radiation; observations made in the late 1990s by the Mars Global
Surveyor confirmed this discovery. Scientists speculate that the lack of magnetic
shielding helped the solar wind blow away much of Mars’s atmosphere over the
course of several billion years. After mapping cosmic radiation levels at various
depths on Mars, researchers have concluded that any life within the first several
meters of the planet’s surface would be killed by lethal doses of cosmic radiation.
In 2007，it was calculated that DNA and RNA damage by cosmic radiation would
limit life on Mars to depths greater than 7.5 metres below the planet’s surface.
Therefore, the best potential locations for discovering life on Mars may be at
subsurface environments that have not been studied yet. Disappearance ofthe
magnetic field may played an significant role in the process of Martian climate
change. According to the valuation of the scientists, the climate of Mars gradually
transits from warm and wet to cold and dry after magnetic field vanished.
F No Mars probe since Viking has tested the Martian regolith specifically for
metabolism which is the ultimate sign of current life. NASA’s recent missions have
focused on another question: whether Mars held lakes or oceans of liquid water
on its surface in the ancient past. Scientists have found hematite, a mineral that
forms in the presence of water. Thus, the mission of the Mars Exploration Rovers
of 2004 was not to look for present or past life, but for evidence of liquid water on
the surface of Mars in the planet’s ancient past. Liquid water, necessary for Earth
life and for metabolism as generally conducted by species on Earth, cannot exist
on the surface of Mars under its present low atmospheric pressure and
temperature, except at the lowest shaded elevations for short periods and liquid
water does not appear at the surface itself. In March 2004, NASA announced that
its rover Opportunity had discovered evidence that Mars was, in the ancient past,
a wet planet. This had raised hopes that evidence of past life might be found on
the planet today. ESA confirmed that the Mars Express orbiter had directly
detected huge reserves of water ice at Mars’south pole in January 2004.

G Two metres below the surface of the Atacama Desert there is an ‘oasis’of
microorganisms. Researchers from the Center of Astrobiology (Spain) and the
Catholic University of the North in Chile have found it in hypersaline substrates
thanks to SOLID, a detector for signs of life which could be used inenvironments
similar to subsoil on Mars. “We have named it a ‘microbial oasis’because we
found microorganisms developing in a habitat that was rich in rock salt and other
highly hygroscopic compounds that absorb water”, explained Victor Parro,
researcher from the Center of Astrobiology (INTACSIC, Spain) and coordinator of
the study. “If there are similar microbes on Mars or remains in similar conditions to
the ones we have found in Atacama, we could detect them with instruments like
SOLID”Parro highlighted.

H Even more intriguing, however, is the alternative scenario by Spanish scientists:

If those samples could be found to have organisms that use DNA, as Earthly life
does, as their genetic code. It is extremely unlikely that such a highly specialised,
complex molecule like DNA could have evolved separately on the two planets,
indicating that there must be a common origin for Martian and Earthly life. Life
based on DNA first appeared on Mars and then spread to Earth, where it then
evolved into the myriad forms of plants and creatures that exist today. If this was
found to be the case, we would have to face the logical conclusion: we are all
Martian. If not, we would continue to search the life of signs.

Questions 27-32
The reading Passage has seven paragraphs A-H.
Which paragraph contains the following information?
Write the correct letter A-H, in boxes 27-32 on your answer sheet.
NB You may use any letter more than once.

27 Martian evidence on Earth

28 Mars and Earth may share the same life origin
29 certain agricultural construction was depicted specifically
30 the project which aims to identify life under similar condition of Mars
31 Mars had experienced terrifying climate transformation
32 Attempts in scientific investigation to find liquid water

Questions 33-36

Choose the correct letter, A,B,C or D.

Write your answers in boxes 33-36 on your answer sheet.
33 How did Percival Lowell describe Mars in this passage?
A Perfect observation location is in Arizona.
B Canals of Mars are broader than that of the earth.
C Dedicated water and agriculture trace is similar to the earth.
D Actively moving Martian lives are found by observation.

34 How did people change their point of view towards Mars from 19th century?
A They experienced Martian attack.
B They learned knowledge of mars through some literature works
C They learned new concept by listening famous radio program.
D They attended lectures given by famous writers.

35 In 1960s, which information is correct about Mars by a number of Probes sent

to the space?
A It has a landscape full of rock and river
B It was not as vivid as the earth
C It contained the same substance as in the moon
D It had different images from the following probes

36 What is the implication of project proceeded by technology called SOLID in

Atacama Desert?
A It could be employed to explore organisms under Martian condition.
B This technology could NOT be used to identify life on similar condition of Mars.
C Atacama Desert is the only place that has a suitable environment for
organisms.
D Life had not yet been found yet in Atacama Desert.

Questions 37-40

Do the following statements agree with the information given in Reading Passage
1?
In boxes 37-40 on your answer sheet, write
TRUE if the sataement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

37 Technology of Martian creature was superior than what human had at that time
in every field according to The War of the Worlds.
38 Proof sent by Viking probes has not been challenged yet.
39 Analysis on meteorite from Mars found a substance which is connected
tosome germs.
40 According to Victor Parro, their project will be deployed on Mars after they
identified DNA substance on earth.