MOCK TEST PAPER 3

Time : 3 Hours Total Marks : 300

General Instructions :
1. There are three subjects in the question paper consisting of Physics (Q. no. 1 to 30), Chemistry (Q. no. 31 to 60) and Mathematics
(Q. no. 61 to 90).
2. Each subject is divided into two sections. Section A consists of 20 multiple choice questions & Section B consists of 10 numerical
value type questions. In Section B, candidates have to attempt any five questions out of 10.
3. There will be only one correct choice in the given four choices in Section A. For each question 4 marks will be awarded for correct
choice, 1 mark will be deducted for incorrect choice for Section A questions and zero mark will be awarded for not attempted
question.
4. For Section B questions, 4 marks will be awarded for correct answer and zero for unattempted and incorrect answer.
5. Any textual, printed or written material, mobile phones, calculator etc. is not allowed for the students appearing for the test.
6. All calculations / written work should be done in the rough sheet is provided with Question Paper.

Physics

Section A
2
Q. 1. A projectile is fired with a speed u at an angle é m1 ù é m1 ù
q above the horizontal field. The coefficient (1) d ê ú (2) d ê ú
of restitution between the projectile and ëê ( m1 + m2 ) ûú ëê ( m1 + m2 ) ûú
field is e. Find the position from the starting é ( m1 + m2 )2 ù é m2 ù
2

(3) d ê ú (4) d ê ú
point when the projectile will land at its êë m2 úû êë ( m1 + m2 ) úû
second collision
Q. 3. At an instant t, the coordinates of a particle
e 2 u2 sin 2q are x = at2, y = bt2 and z = 0, then its velocity
(1)
g at the instant t will be :
(1) t a 2 + b 2
(1 - e ) u
2 2
sin 2q (2) 2t a 2 + b 2
(2) 2
g (3) a 2 + b 2 (4) 2t a 2 + b 2
(1 - e ) u2 sin q cos q Q. 4. What is the average velocity of a projectile
(3) between the instants it crosses half the
g
maximum height, if it is projected with a
(4)
(1 + e ) u 2
sin 2q speed u at an angle θ with the horizontal :
g (1) u sin θ (2) u cos θ
Q. 2. Two pendulums each of length l are initially
(3) u tan θ (4) u
situated as shown in figure. The first
pendulum is released and strikes the second. Q. 5. A force - time graph for the motion of a
Assume that the collision is completely body is shown in figure. Change in linear
inelastic and neglect the mass of the string momentum between 0 and 8 s is :
and any frictional effects. How high does
the centre of mass rise after the collision?
F
+2
(in N)
0 2 6 8
4
l l
m1
–2
d
t in s
m2
 (1) zero (2) 4 N-s turns. Find the ratio of magnetic induction
(3) 8 N-s (4) None at centre in above two cases.
2
Q. 6. For the arrangement shown in figure, the (1) 4 : n (2) 1 : n2
2 2
tension in the string to prevent it from (3) 1 : n (4) 2 : n
sliding down, is : Q. 11. Two plane mirrors are parallel to each other
and spaced 20 cm apart. An object is kept
m = 1 kg in between them at 15 cm from A. Out of
the following at which point image is not
µ = 0.8 formed in mirror A (distance measured from
mirror A) :
37° (1) 15 cm (2) 25 cm
(3) 45 cm (4) 55 cm
(1) 6 N (2) 6.4 N Q. 12. In a certain double slit experimental
(3) 0.4 N (4) None of these arrangement, interference fringes of width
Q. 7. Two small balls each having equal positive 1.0 mm each are observed when light of
charge Q are suspended by two insulating wavelength 5000 Å is used. Keeping the
strings at equal length L metre, from a set-up unaltered if the source is replaced by
hook fixed to a stand. The whole set-up is another of wavelength 6000 Å, the fringe
taken in a satellite into space where there is width will be :
no gravity. Then the angle θ between two (1) 0.5 mm (2) 1.00 mm
strings and tension in each string is : (3) 1.2 mm (4) 1.5 mm
Q. 13. In a vernier callipers, ten smallest divisions
Stand
of the vernier scale are equal to nine smallest
division on the main scale. If the smallest
L L division on the main scale is half millimeter,
then the Least Count of Vernier Callipers is :
Q
(1) 0.5 mm (2) 0.1 mm
Q
(3) 0.05 mm (4) 0.005 mm
kq 2 kq 2 Q. 14. Two media I and II are separated by a plane
(1) 0, (2) p, 8
L2 2 L2 surface having speeds of light 2 × 10 m/s
8
and 2.4 ×10 m/s, respectively. What is the
kq 2 p kq 2 critical angle for a ray going from I medium
(3) p, (4) ,
4 L2 2 2 L2 to II ?
Q. 8. A charge Q is uniformly distributed over a
–1 æ 1 ö æ5ö
large plastic plate. The electric field at a point (1) sin ç ÷ (2) sin–1 ç ÷
2
è ø è6ø
P close to the centre of the plate is 10 V/m.
If the plastic plate is replaced by a copper æ 1 ö
æ 5 ö
plate of the same geometrical dimensions (3) sin–1 ç ÷ (4) sin–1 ç ÷
and carrying the same charge Q, the electric è 12 ø è 2ø
Q. 15. A ray of light is incident on a prism ABC
field at the point P will become :
(AB = BC) and travels as shown in figure.
(1) Zero (2) 5 V/m The refractive index of the prism material
(3) 10 V/m (4) 20 V/m should be at least :
Q. 9. In copper, each copper atom releases one A
electron. If a current of 1.1 A is flowing in
the copper wire of uniform cross-sectional 90º
area of diameter 1 mm, then drift velocity of
electrons will approximately be : (Density of 90º
3 3
copper = 9 × 10 kg /m , Atomic weight of
copper = 63) 90º
B
C
(1) 10.3 mm/s (2) 0.1 mm/s
(3) 0.2 mm/s (4) 0.2 cm/s 4
(1) (2) 2
Q. 10. A wire of length L carrying current i is bent 3
into circular loop with (i) one turn (ii) n (3) 1.5 (4) 3
Q. 16. A trapezium is made up of sides of length Section B
5cm, 5cm, 5cm and 10 cm. A ray is incident
Q. 21. A motor car is travelling at 60 m/s on a circular
road of radius 1200 m. It is increasing its
speed at the rate of 4 m/s2. The acceleration
On the Slant face of the trapezium such of the car is ............ m/s2.
that it emerges through the other slant face. Q. 22. A 10 kg block is initially at rest on a horizontal
(Given that i=e=45°) what is the angle of surface for which the coefficient of friction
deviation of the ray ? is 0.5. If a horizontal force F is applied such
that it varies with time as shown in figure.
(1) 60° (2) 30° The work done (in joule) in first 5 s is 225 α.
The value of α is ............ J. (g = 10 ms–2)
(3) 37° (4) 53°
F (in N)
Q. 17. If n >1, then the dependence of frequency
of a photon, emitted as a result of transition 100
of electron from nth orbit to (n–1)th orbit, on
n will be :
1 1 t (in s)
(1) υ ∝ (2) υ ∝ 2 6
n n 0 2 4
1 1 Q. 23. In the figure below, a uniformly piece of
(3) υ ∝ 3 (4) υ ∝ 3 wire is bent in the form of a semicircular
n v
arc as shown. Find the distance (in cm) of
Q. 18. A proton moving with velocity v0 moves
center of mass of the wire from the origin
towards a proton initially at rest and free to
is .......... cm, if radius of the semicircular ring
move. Find the distance of closest approach.
is R = 3π cm.
e2 e2 y
(1) (2)
2 pe 0 mv02 4 pe0 mv02

e2
(3) (4) None of these
pe 0 mv02
Q. 19. Photoelectric emission is observed from x
a metallic surface for frequencies ν1 and
ν2 of the incident light rays (ν1 > ν2). If the Q. 24. Figure shows the variation of the moment
maximum values of kinetic energy of the of inertia of a uniform rod, about an axis
photoelectrons emitted in the two cases passing through its centre and inclined at an
are in the ratio of 1 : k, then the threshold angle θ to the length. The moment of inertia
frequency of the metallic surface is : (in kg-m2) of the rod about an axis passing
n - n2 k n1 - n2 through one of its ends and making an angle
(1) 1 (2) p 2
k -1 k -1 q = rad will be ............ kg-m .
3
k n2 - n1 n2 - n1
(3) (4)
k -1 k 1
Q. 20. A source of frequency n and an observer are I(kg-m2)
moving on a straight line with velocities a
and b, respectively. If the source is ahead
of the observer and if the medium is also
moving in the direction of their motion with π θ(rad)
velocity c (the velocity of sound being v) Q.25. Binary stars of comparable masses m1 and
then the apparent frequency of sound heard m2 rotate under the influence of each other’s
by the observer would be gravity with angular velocity ω. If they are
æv-c+bö stopped suddenly in their motions, their
æv+c+bö
(1) ç ÷ (2) ç ÷n relative velocity when they collide with each
è v + c + a ø èv-c+aø a b
é 2G ( m + m ) æ w2 ö ù
æ v-c-bö æ v+c-bö other is ê 1 2
-ç ú
(3) ç ÷n (4) ç ÷n ê ( R1 + R 2 ) ç G ( m + m ) ÷÷ ú
èv-c-aø èv+c-aø ë è 1 2 ø
û
 where R1 and R2 are radii of stars and G is loses its contact with the platform when its
the universal gravitational constant. The angular frequency is 5 rad/s. The amplitude
3
æ 1 1ö of vibration can not be less than ‘A’ cm, then
value of ç + ÷ is ...........
èa bø The value of A is ............ cm.
Q.26. A rubber cord has a cross–sectional area Q.29. A thermometer has a spherical bulb of
3 3
1 mm2 and total unstretched length 10 cm. volume 1 cm having 1 cm of mercury. A
It is stretched to 12 cm and then released to long cylindrical capillary tube is connected
project a mass of 5 g. The Young's modulus to spherical bulb. Volumetric coefficient
–4 –1
for rubber is 5 × 108 N–m2. The velocity of of expansion of mercury is 1.8 × 10 K ;
–4
mass is ........... m s–1. cross-section area of capillary is 1.8 × 10
2
Q. 27. A U-tube having uniform cross-section cm . Ignoring expansion of glass, .......... cm
but unequal arm length l1 = 100 cm and far apart on the stem are marks indicating
1K temperature change.
l2 = 50 cm has same liquid of density r1 filled
in it upto a height h = 30 cm as shown in
figure. Another liquid of density r2 = 2r1 is
poured in arm A. Both liquids are immiscible.
The length of the second liquid is .......... (in
cm) should be poured in A so that second
overtone of A is in unison with fundamental n
tone of B. (Neglect end correction)
A

B Q. 30. A uniform disc of radius R having charge

Q distributed uniformly all over its surface
1 is placed on a smooth horizontal surface. A
2
1 2 magnetic field B = Kxt , where K = constant,
x is the distance (in metre) from the centre
h
of the disc and t is the time (in second) is
switched on perpendicular to the plane of
Q. 28. A block is placed on a horizontal the disc. The torque (in N-m) acting on the
platform vibrating up and down, simple disc after 15 sec. (Take 2 KQ = 1 S.I. unit and
harmonically. It is observed that the block R = 1 metre) is ...........N-m.

Chemistry

Section A Q. 33. Calculate the ground state energies of the

+ 2+
electron (in eV) in the case of He and Li
Q. 31. A reaction required three atoms of Mg (RH = 13.6 eV)
for two atoms of N. How many g of N are (1) – 13.60 eV and –54.40 eV
required for 3.6 gm of Mg ? (2) –54.40 eV and –13.60 eV
(1) 2.43 (2) 4.86 (3) –54.40 eV and –122.40 eV
(3) 1.4 (4) 4.25 (4) –13.60 eV and –122.40 eV
Q. 32. Which of the following pairs of specis have Q. 34. The element Z = 107 and Z = 109 have been
the same bond order made recently; element Z = 108 has not yet
(1) N2, NO+ (2) O2, NO+ been made. Indicate the group in which you
-
(3) N 2 , O2 (4) CO, NO will place the above elements.
(1) 7, 8, 9 (2) 5, 6, 7
(3) 8, 9, 10 (4) 4, 5, 6
Q. 35. CO
P= 7 atm
V= 10 00 ml
Q. 41. The correct name of (CO)3 Fe – CO – Fe(CO)3
P= 10 atm
is :
V= 800 ml CO
Fig I Fig II (1) Tri-µ-carbonyl bis (tricarbonyl iron (0)
In the above figures a doll is entrapped (2) Hexacarbonyl iron (III) µ-tricarbonyl
within a piston and cylinder containing ferrate (0)
gas. Initial and final conditions are shown (3) Tricarbonyl iron (0) µ-tricarbonyl iron (0)
Figure I and Figure II respectively. The tricarbonyl
volume of doll is : (4) Nonacarbonyl iron
15000
(1) 1000 ml (2) ml Q. 42. The complex that has lowest magnetic
17
moment is:
1000 1000 2–
(3) ml (4) ml (1) [NiCl4] (2) [CoF6]3–
3 15
(3) [Mn (Cn)6]3– (4) [Ni (CO)4]
Q. 36. Enthalpy of fusion of a liquid is 1.435 kcal
Q. 43. Concentration of ore of Aluminium is done by
mol–1 and molar entropy change is 5.26 cal
(1) Froth floatation
mol–1K–1. Hence melting point of liquid is :
(2) Gravity separation
(1) 100°C (2) 0°C
(3) Baeyer’s process
(3) 373°C (4) –273°C
(4) Magnetic separation
Q. 37. In Fe 4 éë Fe ( CN )6 ùû 3 the O.N. of the complexed
Q. 44. The major product of the following reaction
iron is : is:
(1) + 3 (2) + 2
(3) + 4 (4) + 6
Q. 38. For the gas phase reaction
C2H4 + H2  C2H6, DH = –32.7 kcal carried
(1)
out in a vessel, the equilibrium concentration
of C2H4 can be increased by CH3
(1) Increasing the temperature |
(2) CH — NH2
(2) Increasing concentration of H2
(3) Decreasing temperature
(4) Increasing pressure (3)
Q. 39. The following equilibrium is established
when hydrogen chloride is dissolved in
acetic acid HCl + CH3COOH  Cl– +
CH3 COOH2+. The set that characterises the
conjugate acid-base pairs is : (4)
(1) (HCl, CH3COOH) and (CH3COOH2+, Cl–)
(2) (HCl, CH3COOH2+) and (CH3COOH, Cl–) Q. 45. The product formed when adipic acid is
(3) (CH2COOH2+, HCl) and (Cl–, CH3COOH) heated :
(4) (HCl, Cl–) and (CH3COOH2+, CH3COOH)
(1) COOH (2) C=O
Q. 40. Ethyl methyl vinyl amine has the structure :
(1) CH3CH2–N–CH2CH=CH2 O COOH
CH3 (3) O (4)
(2) CH3CH2–N–CH=CH2 COOH
O
CH3
(3) CH2=CH–N–CH=CH2 Br2 / KOH A
Q. 46. C – NH2
CH3 O
(4) CH3–N–CH=CH2 product (A) is

CH3
 Q. 55. A mineral of iron contains an oxide
(1) COOH (2) NH2 containing 72.36% iron by mass and has a
density of 5.2 g/cc. Its unit cell is cubic with
(3) Br (4) None of these edge length of 839 pm. The total number
of atoms (ions) present in each unit cell is
Q. 47. (C6H12O5)n + nH2O ¾(¾
X)
®
........... (Fe-56, O-16)
C12H22O11 + H2O ¾(¾ Y)
® 2C6H12O6
Q. 56. An organic liquid, A, is immiscible with
Enzymes X and Y are :
water. When boiled together with water,
(1) Zymase and Invertase
the boiling point is 90ºC at which the partial
(2) Diatase and Maltase
vapour pressure of water is 526 mm Hg. The
(3) Maltase and Diatase
atmospheric pressure is 736 mm Hg. The
(4) Diatase and Zymase
weight ratio of the liquid and water collected
Q. 48. Pure chlorine is obtained :
(1) by heating PtCl4 is 2.5 : 1. The molecular weight of the liquid
(2) by heating MnO2 with HCl is ........... gm.
(3) by heating bleaching powder with HCl Q. 57. Graph between log x/m and log p is straight
(4) by heating mixture of NaCl, MnO2 and line inclined at an angle of 45°. When pressure
Conc. H2SO4 is 0.5 atm and lnk = 0.693, the amount of
Q. 49. In the Hunsdiecker reaction : solute adsorbed per gm of adsorbent will
(1) Number of carbon atoms decrease be ...........
(2) Number of carbon atoms increase Q. 58. Fixed amount of an ideal gas contained
(3) Number of carbon atoms remain same in a sealed rigid vessel (V = 24.6 litre)
(4) None of the above at 1.0 bar is heated reversibly from 27°C
Q. 50. In the reaction sequence, CaC2 H2 O A
dil. H2SO4 H2 to 127°C. The change in Gibb's energy
B C, the product C is :
Hg +2
Ni is ........... J (| ∆G | in Joule) if entropy of gas
–2
(1) CH3OH (2) CH3CHO S = 10 + 10 T (J/K)
(3) C2H5OH (4) C2H4 Q. 59. The following sequence of reaction occurs
in commercial production of aqueous nitric
Section B acid.
Q. 51. Given that the temperature coefficient 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g) → 4NO(g) + 6H2O(l)
for the saponification of ethyl acetate by DH = –904 kJ   ... (1)
NaOH is 1.75. The activation energy for the
2NO(g) + O2(g) → 2NO2(g)
saponifiocation of ethyl acetate is ...........
K. cal mol–1. DH = –1124 kJ   ... (2)
Q. 52. Cyclohexane-1,4-dione is a polar compound, 3NO2(g) + H2O(l) → 2HNO3(aq) + NO(g)
having dipole moment value of 1.2 D. If mol DH = –140 kJ   ... (3)
fraction of its chair form is 0.80, the dipole
The total heat liberated (in kJ) at constant
moment of twisted boat form will be ...........
pressure for the production of exactly
Q. 53. For 24Na, t1/2 = 14.8 hours. A sample of
1 mole of aqueous nitric acid by this
this substance lose 90% of its radioactive
process, is .......... kJ/mol.
intensity will take .......... hr.
Q. 54. The potential of the standard Iron- Q. 60. The quantity of benzene, when 91.2 gm of
Cadmium cell is .......... V, after the reaction Phenylmagnesium iodide is treated with
has proceeded to 80% completion. Initially 4.2 gm of Pent-4-yn-1-ol at STP would be
1 M of each taken and Eº for cell = 0.04 V. produced ........... .
 Mathematics

Section A (3)
1
(log a + log b + 4 log 2)
2
sin 7 x + 6 sin 5x + 17 sin 3x + 12 sin x
Q.61 = 1
sin 6 x + 5 sin 4 x + 12 sin 2 x (4) (log a – log b + 4 log 2)
2
(1) cos x (2) 2 cos x Q. 67 Graph of the function f(x) = Ax2 – Bx + C,
(3) sin x (4) 2 sin x where
Q. 62. The general solution of x when A = (sec q – cos q) (cosec q – sin q) (tan q + cot q),
2cos x . cos 2x = cos x is : B = (sin q + cosec q)2 + (cos q + sec q)2 – (tan2 q +
p p cot2 q) and C = 12, can be represented by :
(1) np + or kπ ± , n, k ∈ I
2 6 y
(1)
p
(2) nπ ± π or kπ ± , n, k ∈ I
3
p x
(3) (2n + 1)π or kπ ± , n, k ∈ I
2
p p
(4) np + or k p ± , n, k ∈ I
4 3 (2) y
é æ 1 öù
Q. 63. The value of sin êarc cos ç - ÷ ú is :
ë è 2 øû
1
(1) (2) 1 x
2
3
(3) (4) 3
2
(3) y
a2 - b 2
Q. 64. If in a triangle ABC, in usual notation 2
a + b2
sin ( A - B )
= , then the triangle is :
sin ( A + B ) x
(1) Right angled or isosceles
(2) Right angled and isosceles
(3) Equilateral (4) y
(4) Isosceles only
æp pö
Q. 65. For any θ ∈ ç , ÷ the expression
è4 2ø x
4 2 6
3(sinθ – cos θ) + 6(sin θ + cos θ) + 4sin θ
equals:
Q. 68. The sum of all even positive integers less
(1) 13 – 4cos2θ + 6sin2θcos2θ than 200 which are not divisible by 6 is :
(2) 13 – 4cos6θ (1) 6534 (2) 6354
(3) 13 – 4cos2θ + 6cos4θ (3) 3456 (4) 6454
(4) 13 – 4cos4θ + 2sin2θ cos2θ Q. 69. If the angle between the circles x2 + y2 – 2x
2 2 + 4y – 4 = 0 and x2 + y2 – 8x – 2y + 8 = 0 is
Q. 66. If a + 4b = 12ab, then log (a + 2b) =
q, then the value of cos 2q is :
1 -1
(1) (log a + log b – log 2) (1) 1 (2)
2 2
a b
(2) log + log + log 2 3
2 2 (3) 0 (4)
2
Q. 70. The numerically greatest terms in the
1 (1) 400 2 (2) 800 2
expansion of (3 – 5x)15 when x = are :
5 400
(1) T4, T5 (2) T5, T6 (3) 0 (4)
2
(3) T6, T7 (4) T3, T4
Q. 75. The area (in sq. units) of the region A =
ì p pü
Q. 71. If A = íx : £ x £ ý and {(x, y) : (x – 1) [x] ≤ y ≤ 2 x , 0 ≤ x ≤ 2}, where
î 6 3þ
[t] denotes the greatest integer function, is :
f(x) = cos x – x (1 + x) then f(A) is equal to :
8 1 4
ép pù (1) 2- (2) 2 +1
(1) ê , ú 3 2 3
ë6 3û

é p pù 8 4 1
(2) ê - , - ú (3) 2 -1 (4) 2-
ë 3 6û 3 3 2

é ù Q. 76. The differential equation of the family of

(3) ê 1 - p æç 1 + p ö÷ , 3 - p æç 1 + p ö÷ ú 2
ë2 3 è 3ø 2 6è 6 øû curves, x = 4b(y + b), b ∈ R, is:
2 2
é ù (1) x(y') = x + 2yy' (2) x(y') = 2yy′ – x
(4) ê 1 + p æç 1 - p ö÷ , 3 + p æç 1 - p ö÷ ú 2
ë2 3 è 3ø 2 6è 6 øû (3) xy'' = y' (4) x(y') = x – 2yy′
100

Q. 72. If a function f(x) defined by

Q. 77. The value of åi
n=0
n!
equals (where i = -1 )
(1) –1 (2) i
ìae + be
x -x
, -1 £ x < 1 (3) 2i + 95 (4) 97 + i
ïï
( x ) í cx 2
f f(x) , 1£x £3 æ 0 0 -1 ö
ï 2 ç ÷
Q. 78. Let A = ç 0 -1 0 ÷ . The only correct
ïî ax + 2 cx , 3>x£4
ç -1 0 0 ÷
è ø

be continuous or some a, b, c ∈ R and f′(0) + statement about the matrix A is

2
f′(2) = e, then the value of a is : (1) A = I
1 e (2) A = (–1) I, where I is a unit matrix
(1) 2 (2) 2
e - 3e + 13 e - 3e - 13 –1
(3) A does not exist
e e
(3) (4) (4) A is a zero matrix
e 2 + 3e + 13 e 2 - 3e + 13
é 4 2ù
Q. 79. If A = ê then (A– 2I) (A – 3I) equals :
dx -1 1 úû
2 ë
Q. 73 ò 3 + sin 2x equals : (1) A + 6I (2) I

1 æ 2 tan x ö (3) Zero matrix (4) 6I

(1) tan -1 ç ÷+c        
2 3 è 3 ø Q. 80. Points a + b + c , 4 a + 3b , 10 a + 7 b - 2 c are :
1 æ tan x ö (1) collinear (2) non-coplanar
(2) tan -1 ç ÷+c
3 è 3 ø (3) non-collinear (4) form a triangle
1
(3) tan–1 (2 tan x) + c
2 Section B
(4)
1
2
(
tan -1 3 tan x + c ) Q. 81. If 'k' is the least distance between the curves
2 2 2
400 p y = 6x and x + y – 16x + 60 = 0, then the
Q. 74 ò
0
1 - cos 2 x dx is equal to : value of [k], is ..........., where [.] denotes the
greatest integer function.
Q. 82. If the area of the quadrilateral formed by the derivable in [–3, 3] is equal to ........... (where
2 2
common tangents of the circle x + y = 25 [.] denotes greatest integer function and {.}
x 2
y 2
denotes fractional part function)
and the ellipse + = 1 is A. Then the
36 16 Q. 87. Let ƒ(x) = (lnx)x + ln(xx) + xlnx, then ƒ'(e) is
( )
value of 3 11A - 1 is ........... equal to ...........
Q. 88. If m is the slope of a line which is tangent to
Q. 83. If area of the triangle formed by latus rectum y3 = x4 and a normal to x2 – 2x + y2 = 0, then
and tangents at the end points of latus 3
æ 3m ö is equal to ........... (m ≠ 0)
x2 y2 ç 4 ÷
rectum of - = 1 is A, then 80 A is .......... è ø
16 9 Q. 89. Out of m errors in a computer program Mr.
Q. 84. Given a regular tetrahdedron OABC with A found 200 errors and Mr. B found 125
side length 1 unit. Let D and E are mid points errors. 50 errors are common in finding of
m
of AB and OC respectively. If DE + AC = p both A and B, if probability of "neither A
n 2
(where m and n are coprime), then (m + n) nor B" found any error is , then value of
7
is ........... 'm' is ...........
Q. 85. An unbiased coin is tossed indefinitely.
Q. 90. Maximum distance between the plane
Probability that the fourth head is obtained on 2x + y + 2z = 3 and the circle on the xy-plane
k
the sixth toss is , then 'k' is equal to ........... 2 2 a
32 x + y – 2x – 2y + 1 = 0 is , then the
b
Q. 86. Let ƒ(x) = [[x] + {x2}] + {[x2] + {x}}, then value of (a + b) is ........... (a, b are coprime
number of points where |ƒ(x)| is non- natural numbers)