MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

OPTIMIZATION TECHNIQUES
BCA IV SEM

UNIT-1
LINEAR PROGRAMMING PROBLEM

1. Operations Research (OR) , which is a very powerful tool for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Research
b) Decision – Making
c) Operations
d) None of the above
Answer :b )

2. Who coined the term Operations Research?

a) J.F. McCloskey
b) F.N. Trefethen
c) P.F. Adams
d) Both A and B
Answer : d)

3. Operations Research is a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Science
b) Art
c) Mathematics
d) Both A and B
Answer :d )

4. Which technique is used in finding a solution for optimizing a given objective, such as profit
maximization or cost minimization under certain constraints?
a) Quauing Theory
b) Waiting Line
c) Both A and B
d) Linear Programming
Answer : d)

5. What aim s at optimizing inventory levels?

a) Inventory Control
b) Inventory Capacity
c) Inventory Planning
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

6. What can be defined as a useful idle resource which has economic value eg; raw materials, spare
parts, finished items, etc?
a) Inventory Control
b) Inventory
c) Inventory Planning
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

7. Linear Programming technique is used to allocate scarce resources in an optimum manner in

problems of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ ?
a) Schedule
b) Product Mix
c) Both A and B
d) Servicing Cost
Answer : c)

8. Operations Research techniques helps the directing authority in optimum allocation of various
limited resources, such as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Men and Machine
b) Money
c) Material and Time
d) All of the above
Answer : d)

9. Operations Research study generally involves how many phases ?

a) Three
b) Four
c) Five
d) Two
Answer : a)

10. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models involves the allocation of resources to activities in such a manner that some
measure of effectiveness is optimized.
a) Sequencing
b) Allocation Models
c) Queuing Theory
d) Decision Theory
Answer :b )

11. Allocation problems can be solved by

a) Linear Programming Technique
b) Non – Linear Programming Technique
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

12. In ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models, everything is defined and the results are certain,
a) Deterministic Models
b) Probabilistic Models
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Answer :a )

13. In ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ models there is risk and uncertainty

a) Deterministic Models
b) Probabilistic Models
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

14. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are expressed is n the form of inequities or equations

a) Constraints
b) Objective Functions
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Answer :a )

15. The objective functions and constraints are linear relationship between ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Variables
b) Constraints
c) Functions
d) All of the above
Answer : a)

16. Assignment problem helps to find a maximum weight identical in nature in a weighted ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Tripartite graph
b) Bipartite graph
c) Partite graph
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

17. All the parameters in the linear programming model are assumed to be ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Variables
b) Constraints
c) Functions
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

18. Graphic method can be applied to solve a LPP when there are only ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ variable
a) One
b) More than One
c) Two
d) Three
Answer :c )

19. If the feasible region of a LPP is empty, the solution is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Infeasible
b) Unbounded
c) Alternative
d) None of the above
Answer : a)

20. The variables whose coefficient vectors are unit vectors are called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Unit Variables
b) Basic Variables
c) Non basic Variables
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

21. Any column or row of a simplex table is called a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Vector
b) Key column
c) Key Raw
d) None of the above
Answer : a)

22. A minimization problem can be converted into a maximization problem by changing the sign of
coefficients in the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Constraints
b) Objective Functions
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

23. If in a LPP , the solution of a variable can be made infinity large without violating the constrai the
solution is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ nts,
a) Infeasible
b) Unbounded
c) Alternative
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

24. In maximization cases , ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ are assigned to the artificial variables as their coefficients in the
objective function
a) +m
b) –m
c) 0
d) None of the above
Answer :a )

25. In simplex method , we add ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ variables in the case of ‘=’

a) Slack Variable
b) Surplus Variable
c) Artificial Variable
d) None of the above
Answer : c)
26. In simplex method, if there is tie between a decision variable and a slack (or surplus) variable, ‐‐‐ ‐‐‐‐‐
‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ should be selected
a) Slack variable
b) Surplus variable
c) Decision variable
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

27. A BFS of a LPP is said to be ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ if at least one of the basic variable is zero
a) Degenerate
b) Non‐degenerate
c) Infeasible
d) Unbounded
Answer :a )

28. In LPP, degeneracy occurs in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ stages

a) One
b) Two
c) Three
d) Four
Answer : b)

29. Every LPP is associated with another LPP is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Primal
b) Dual
c) Non‐linear programming
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

30. As for maximization in assignment problem, the objective is to maximize the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Profit
b) optimization
c) cost
d) None of the above
Answer : a)

31. If there are more than one optimum solution for the decision variable the solution is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Infeasible
b) Unbounded
c) Alternative
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

32. Which LP method involves solving a series of linear equation to reach the optimal solution?
a) Graphical solution method
b) Simplex algorithm
c) Big- M method
d) Dual simplex method
Answer : b)

33. Operations Research approach is

a) Multi‐disciplinary
b) Scientific
c) Initiative
d) All of the above
Answer : c)

34. For analyzing the problem , decision – makers should normally study
a) Its qualitative aspects
b) Its quantitative aspects
c) Both A and B
d) Neither A and B
Answer :a )

35. Decision variables are

a) Controllable
b) Uncontrollable
c) Parameters
d) None of the above
Answer : d)

36. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is one of the fundamental combinatorial optimization problems.

a) Assignment problem
b) Transportation problem
c) Optimization Problem
d) None of the above
Answer :a )

37. An optimization model

a) Mathematically provides the best decision
b) Provides decision within its limited context
c) Helps in evaluating various alternatives constantly
d) All of the above
Answer : d)

38. The quantitative approach to decision analysis is a

a) Logical approach
b) Rational approach
c) Scientific approach
d) All of the above
Answer :c )

39. Operations Research approach is typically based on the use of

a) Physical model
b) Mathematical model
c) Iconic model
d) Descriptive model
Answer : b)

40. In a manufacturing process, who takes the decisions as to what quantities and which process or
processes are to be used so that the cost is minimum and profit is maximum?
a) Supervisor
b) Manufacturer
c) Producer
d) Production manager
Answer :d )

41. Linear programming has been successfully applied in ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Agricultural
b) Industrial applications
c) Both A and B
d) Manufacturing
Answer :c )

42.Which LPP is used to handle situations where there is no feasible solution?

a) Graphical solution method
b) Simplex algorithm
c) Big- M method
d) Transportation method
Answer : c)

43. Any feasible solution which optimizes (minimizes or maximizes) the objective function of the LPP is
called its ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Optimal solution
b) Non‐basic variables
c) Solution
d) Basic feasible solution
Answer :a )

44. A non – degenerate basic feasible solution is the basic feasible solution which has exactly m positive
Xi (i=1,2,…,m), i.e., none of the basic variable is ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Infinity
b) One
c) Zero
d) X
Answer : c)

45. What is also defined as the non‐negative variables which are added in the LHS of the constraint to
convert the inequality ‘< ‘ into an equation?
a) Slack variables
b) Simplex algorithm
c) Key element
d) None of the above
Answer : a)
46. Which method is an iterative procedure for solving LPP in a finite number of steps ?
a) Simplex algorithm
b) Slack variable
c) M method
d) Simplex method
Answer : d)

47. In simplex algorithm , which method is used to deal with the situation where an infeasible starting
basic solution is given?
a) Slack variable
b) Simplex method
c) M‐ method
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

48.In a LP,what does the term “feasible solution”refer to?

a) A solution that minimizes the objective function
b) A solution that satisfies all constraints simultaneously
c) A solution that introduces penalties for infeasibility
d) A solution that handles degeneracy
Answer : b)

49. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ is another method to solve a given LPP involving some artificial variable ?
a) Big M method
b) Method of penalties
c) Two‐phase simplex method
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

50. An objective function which states the determinants of the quantity to be either maximized or
minimized is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Feasible function
b) Optimal function
c) Criterion function
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

51. A set of values X1, X2,…Xn which satisfies the constraints of the LPP is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Solution
b) Variable
c) Linearity
d) None of the above
Answer :a )

52. A basic solution which also satisfies the condition in which all basic variables are non ‐negative is
called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Basic feasible solution
b) Feasible solution
c) Optimal solution
d) None of the above
Answer : a)

53. All the constraints are expressed as equations and the right hand side of each constraint and all
variables are non‐negative is called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Canonical variable
b) Canonical form
c) Canonical solution
d) Both A and B
Answer : b)

54. An objective function is maximized when it is a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ function

a) Passive
b) Profit
c) Cost
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

55. LPP is exactly used in solving what kind of resource allocation problems?
a) Production planning and scheduling
b) Transportation
c) Sales and advertising
d) All of the above
Answer : d)

56. Currently, LPP is used in solving a wide range of practical ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Business problems
b) Agricultural problems
c) Manufacturing problems
d) None of the above
Answer :a )

57. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ refers to the combination of one or more inputs to produce a particular output.
a) Solution
b) variable
c) Process
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

58. An optimum solution is considered the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ among feasible solutions.

a) Worst
b) Best
c) Ineffective
d) None of the above
Answer :b )
59. ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ which is a subclass of a linear programming problem (LPP)
a) Programming problem
b) Transportation problem
c) Computer problem
d) Both are incorrect
Answer :b )

60. The solution of any transportation problem is obtained in how many stages?
a) Five
b) Four
c) Three
d) Two
Answer :d )

61. An optimal solution is the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ stage of a solution obtained by improving the initial solution
a) Third
b) First
c) Second
d) Final
Answer : c)

62. MODI method is used to obtain ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Optimal solutions
b) Optimality test
c) Both A and B
d) Optimization
Answer :c )

63. For solving an assignment problem, which method is used?

a) Hungarian
b) American
c) German
d) Both are incorrect
Answer : a)

64. To make an unbalanced assignment problem balanced, what are added with all entries as zeroes?
a) Dummy rows
b) Dummy columns
c) Both A and B
d) Dummy entries
Answer : c)

65. Any set of non‐negative allocations (Xij>0) which satisfies the raw and column sum (rim requirement
)is called a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Linear programming
b) Basic feasible solution
c) Feasible solution
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

66. A feasible solution is called a basic feasible solution if the number of non‐negative allocations is
equal to ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) m‐n+1
b) m‐n‐1
c) m+n‐1
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

67. Any feasible solution to a transportation problem containing m origins and n destinations is said to
be ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Independent
b) Degenerate
c) Non‐degenerate
d) Both A and B
Answer : c)

68. A path formed by allowing horizontal and vertical lines and the entire corner cells of which are
occupied is called a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Occupied path
b) Open path
c) Closed path
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

69. Transportation algorithm can be used for minimizing the transportation cost of ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ from O
origins and D destinations
a) Goods
b) Products
c) Items
d) None of the above
Answer :a )

70. If demand is lesser than supply then dummy demand node is added to make it a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Simple problem
b) Balanced problem
c) Transportation problem
d) None of the above
Answer :b )

71. Basic cells indicate positive values and non‐ basic cells have ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ value for flow .
a) Negative
b) Positive
c) One
d) zero
Answer : d)
72. According to transportation problem number of basic cells will be exactly ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) m+n‐0
b) n+m‐1
c) m+n‐1
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

73. Which method is suitable for solving the Transportation Problem when the number of sources is not
equal to the number of destination
a) Big-M method
b) Hungarian method
c) Modified distribution method
d) Simplex algorithm
Answer: c)

74. In which phase is optimization done and how does that phase also checks for optimality conditions?
a) Phase II
b) Phase I
c) Phase II
d) None of the above
Answer : c)

75. Optimality conditions are expressed as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ incase all non‐basic cells?
a) Negligent costs
b) Advanced costs
c) Reduced costs
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

76. For maximization in TP , the objective is to maximize the total ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Solution
b) Profit Matrix
c) Profit
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

77. To find the optimal solution, we apply ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) LPP
b) VAM
c) MODI Method
d) Rim
Answer : c)

78. After determining every basic cell with in this cycle, adjustment is obtained as minimum value in
basic cells . this is known as ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Adjustment amount
b) aa
c) Both A and B
d) Alternatives
Answer :c )

79. Optimal solution is a feasible solution (not necessarily basic ) which minimizes the ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Time taken
b) Partial cost
c) Total cost
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

80. The allocated cells in the transportation table are called ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Occupied cells
b) Empty cells
c) Both A and B
d) Unoccupied cells
Answer : c)

81. VAM stands for ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐

a) Vogeal’s Approximation Method
b) Vogel’s Approximate Method
c) Vangel’s Approximation Method
d) Vogel’s Approximation Method
Answer : d)

82. Once the initial basic feasible solution has been computed , what is the next step in the problem
a) VAM
b) Modified distribution method
c) Optimality test
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

83. One can find the initial basic feasible solution by using ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ ?
a) VAM
b) MODI
c) Optimality test
d) None of the above
Answer : a)

84. What do we apply in order to determine the optimum solution ?

a) LPP
b) VAM
c) MODI Method
d) None of the above
Answer :c )

85. In the assignment problem, what does an assignment with a zero cost signify?
a) An optimal assignment
b) A degenerate solution
c) An infeasible solution
d) An unassigned source or destination
Answer : a)

86. A given TP is said to be unbalanced, if the total supply is not equal to the total ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Optimization
b) Demand
c) Cost
d) None of the above
Answer : b)

87. If the total supply is less than the total demand, a dummy source (row) is included in the cost matrix
with ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐
a) Dummy Demand
b) Dummy Supply
c) Zero Cost
d) Both A and B
Answer :c )

88.In the assignment problem,what does a non-basic variable represent?

a) An unassigned source
b) An unassigned destination
c) A basic feasible solution
d) A degenerate solution
Answer :b )

89. Vogel's Approximation Method (VAM) prioritizes allocation to cells with:

a) The lowest cost
b) The highest cost
c) The largest penalty (difference between the two smallest costs)
d) Zero cost
Answer: c) The largest penalty (difference between the two smallest costs)

90. When the number of allocations in a basic feasible solution of an m×n transportation problem is less
than m+n−1, the situation is called:
a) Balanced
b) Unbalanced
c) Degeneracy
d) Optimality
Answer: c)

91. The Modified Distribution (MODI) method uses dual variables ui and vj to calculate:
a) Initial allocation
b) Transportation cost
c) Opportunity cost for empty cells
d) Total supply and demand
Answer: c)

92. In the context of assignment problems, opportunity cost refers to:

a) The actual cost of assignment
b) The profit gained from an assignment
c) The cost of not assigning a resource to a particular task
d) The average cost of all assignments
Answer: c)

93.The method of finding an initial solution based upon opportunity cost is called_______.
a) North-West corner rule
b)Vogel’s Approximation
c) Jhonson’s method
d) Hungarian method
Answer: b)

94.MODI stands for

a) Modern distribution method
b)Mondel distribution method
c) Modified distribution method
d) Monzilla distribution method
Answer:c )

95. Which of the following problems can be modeled as an assignment problem?

a) Determining the shortest route between cities.
b) Scheduling jobs on machines.
c) Deciding the optimal product mix.
d) Managing inventory levels.
Answer: b)

96. The Hungarian algorithm is based on the principle of:

a) Duality in linear programming
b) Matrix reduction and finding a set of independent zeros
c) Network flow optimization
d) Dynamic programming
Answer: b)

97. The optimal solution of an LPP always occurs at:

a) The interior of the feasible region
b) The boundary of the feasible region
c) A corner point (vertex) of the feasible region
d) The origin
Answer: c)

98.Artificial variables are used in the Simplex method to:

a) Find an initial basic feasible solution when the origin is not feasible
b) Deal with unbounded objective functions
c) Convert inequalities into equalities
d) Simplify the calculations
Answer: a)

99.If all the replacement ratios (calculated in the Simplex method for determining the leaving variable)
are negative or undefined, it indicates:
a) An infeasible solution
b) An unbounded solution
c) An optimal solution
d) Degeneracy
Answer: b)

100. If the objective function can be increased or decreased indefinitely without violating any
constraints, the LPP has:
a) A unique optimal solution
b) Multiple optimal solutions
c) An unbounded solution
d) An infeasible solution
Answer: c)
UNIT-2
QUEUING THEORY

1.In a queuing system,___refers to those waiting in a queue or receiving service

a) Service provider
b)Client
c)Customer
d)Patron
Answer : c)

2. A queue is formed when the demand for a service

a) Exceeds the capacity to provide that service
b) Is less than the capacity to provide that service
c) Is equal to the capacity to provide that service
d) There is no relation of service capacity and queue
Answer : a)

3. Commonly assumed probability distribution of arrival pattern is

a) Poisson distribution
b) Binomial distribution
c) Normal distribution
d) Beta distribution
Answer : a)

4. Commonly assumed probability distribution of service pattern

a) Poisson distribution
b) Exponential distribution
c) Normal distribution
d) Beta distribution
Answer : b)

5.A customer's behavior of jumping from one queue to another is called

a) Jockying
b) Reneging
c) Collusion
d) Balking
Answer : a)
6. The indicates the order in which members of the queue are selected for service.
a)Queue discipline
b) Arrival pattern
c) Service Pattern
d) Customer behaviour
Answer : a)

7. Traffic intensity in Queuing Theory is also called

a) Service factor
b) Arrival factor
c)Utilization factor
d) Consumption factor
Answer : c)

8. A calling population is considered to be infinite when

a) The capacity of the system is infinite
b) Arrivals are dependent upon each other
c) All customers arrival at once
d)Arrivals are independent of each other
Answer : d)

9. In waiting line theory, number of customers waiting in the queue is referred to as

a) Queuing system
b) Traffic intensity
c) Queue length
d) System length
Answer : c)

10. An M/D/5 system is a system with a

a) generic M channel system, exponential arrivals, and constant service time.
b) five channel system, Poisson arrivals, and normally distributed service time
c)five channel system, Poisson arrivals and constant service time.
d) D channel system with Exponential arrivals and Poisson service times.
Answer : c)

11. The presence of a group of customers who arrive randomly to receive some service is identified by:
a) Reneging
b) Queuing
c) Arrival
d. Service Mechanism
Answer : b)

12.The distribution of the time between two successive arrivals is known as

a. Arrival time
b. Inter-arrival time
c. Poisson distribution
d. Service time
Answer : b)

13.The time spent in a queuing system before the service starts is known as
a. Server time
b. Arrival time
c. Service time
d. Waiting time
Answer : d)

14._____refers to the number of persons in the system at any time

a. Service order
b. Queue length
c. Waiting time in queue
d. None of the above
Answer : b)

15.If the customer enters a queue but decides to leave before being served, this behaviour is known as
a) Reneging
b. Faffing
c Jockeying
d. Balking
Answer : a)

16.If a customer decides not to enter a waiting line as it is too long and has no time to wait, this
behavior is known as
a. Reneging
b. Faffing
c. Jockeying
d. Balking
Answer : d)

17.When there are two or more parallel queues and the customer moves from one queue to another is
called as
a. Reneging
b. Faffing
c. Jockeying
d. Ballking
Answer : c)
18.The degree to which the capacity of service station is utilized is determined by the
a. Arrival pattern
b. Service mechanism
c. Traffic intensity
d. Queue discipline
Answer : c)

19.Which of the following is used to know the probability that no one is in the system?
a. 1-λ/μ
b. λ/μ
c. λ/μ-λ
d. 1/μ-λ
Answer : a)

20.The utilization factor for a system represents-

a. The steady state average waiting time
b. The probability that no one is in the system
c. The probability that the service facility is being used
d. The average number of customers in the queue
Answer : c)

21.Which of the following is used to know the average number of customers in the queue system when
arrival rate is denoted by λ and service rate by u?
a. λ/μ
b. 1/(μ-λ)
c. λ/μ(μ-λ)
d. λ/(μ-λ)
Answer : d)

22.Which of the following is used to know the average time a customer spends in the queue system
when arrival rate is denoted by 2. and service rate by u?
a. λ/μ
b. 1/(μ-λ)
c. λ/μ(μ-λ)
d. λ/(μ-λ)
Answer : b)

23. Which of the following characteristics apply to queuing system

a) Customer population
b) Arrival process
c) Both a & b
d) None
Answer : c)

24. Which of the following is not a key operating characteristic for a queuing system
a) Utilization factor
b) Percent idle time
c) Average time spent waiting in the system and queue
d) None
Answer : d)

25. Priority queue discipline may be classified as

a) Finite or infinite
b) Limited or Unlimited
c) Pre-emptive or non-pre-emptive
d) All
Answer : c)

26. Which symbol describes the interarrival time distribution

a) D
b) M
c) G
d) All
Answer : d)

27. The calling population is assumed to be infinite when

a) Arrivals are independent of each other
b) Capacity of the system is infinite
c) Service rate is faster than arrival rate
d) All
Answer : a)

28. Which of the cost estimated and performance measures are not used for economic analysis of a
queuing system
a) Cost per server per unit of time
b) Cost per unit of time for a customer waiting in the system
c) Average number of customer in the system
d) Average waiting time of customer in the system
Answer : d)

29. A calling population is considered to be infinite when

a) All customers arrive at once
b) Arrivals are independent of each other
c) Arrivals are dependent upon each other
d) All
Answer : b)

30. The cost of providing service in a queuing system decreases with

a) Decreased average waiting time in the queue
b) Decreased arrival time
c) Increased arrival rate
d) None
Answer : d)
31.Service mechanism in a queuing system is characterised by
a) Server's behaviour
b) Customer's behaviour
c) Customer in the system
d) All
Answer : a)

32. Which of the following relationships is not true

(a) ws = wq + 1/μ
(b) Ls = λ ws
(C) Ls = Lq + 1/ λ
(d) Ls = λ ws
Answer : c)

33. As per queue discipline, the following is not a negative behavior of a customer:
(a) Balking
(b) Reneging
c)Boarding
d) Collusion
Answer : c)

34. The expediting or follow up function in production control is an example of

a) LIFO
b) FIFO
c) SIRO
d) Preemptive
Answer : d)

35. In M/M/S: N/FIFO the following does not apply

a) Poisson arrival
b) Limited service
c) Exponential service
d) Single server
Answer : d)

36. The dead bodies coming to a burial ground is an example of

a) Pure Birth Process
b) Pure death Process
c) Birth and Death Process
d) Constant rate of arrival
Answer : a)

37. The system of loading and unloading of goods usually follows:

a) LIFO
b) FIFO
c) SIRO
d) SBP
Answer : a)

38. A steady-state exist in a queue if:

a) λ > μ
b) λ < μ
c) λ>μ
d) λ≤ μ
Answer : c)

39. If the operating characteristics of a queue are dependent on time, then is said to be:
a) Transient state
b) Busy state
c) Steady-state
d) Explosive state
Answer : a)

40. The characteristics of a queuing model are independent of

a) Number of service stations
b) Limit of the length of the queue
c) Service Pattern
d) Queue discipline
Answer : d)

41. The unit of traffic intensity is:

a) Poisson
b) Markow
c)Erlang
d) Kendall
Answer : c)

42. The queue discipline in stack of plates is:

a) LIFO
b) SIRO
c) Non-Pre-Emptive
d) FIFO
Answer : a)
 UNIT-3
REPLACEMENT THEORY

1. What is the primary goal of replacement theory?

(a) To maximize the lifespan of an asset.
(b) To minimize the operating costs of an asset.
(c) To determine the most economical time to replace an asset.
(d) To improve the efficiency of an asset.
Answer: (c)

2. Which of the following costs is typically considered in replacement analysis?

(a) Original purchase cost only.
(b) Operating costs only.
(c) Both original purchase cost and operating costs.
(d) Sunk costs only.
Answer: (c)

3.What is a sunk cost in the context of replacement theory?

(a) The estimated future value of an asset.
(b) The cost that has already been incurred and cannot be recovered.
(c) The cost of a new replacement asset.
(d) The ongoing operating expenses.
Answer: (b)

4.The economic life of an asset is the period that:

(a) Maximizes its physical lifespan.
(b) Minimizes the total average annual cost.
(c) Maximizes its resale value.
(d) Minimizes its maintenance costs.
Answer: (b)

5. Which of the following is a common reason for replacing an asset?

(a) Increased resale value.
(b) Decreased operating costs.
(c) Technological obsolescence.
(d) Increased availability of spare parts.
Answer: (c)

6.What does the term "deterioration" refer to in replacement analysis?

(a) A sudden and unexpected failure of an asset.
(b) The gradual decline in an asset's performance or efficiency over time.
(c) An increase in the market value of an asset.
(d) A decrease in the maintenance requirements of an asset.
Answer: (b)

7. In replacement analysis, the time value of money is often considered using:

(a) Simple interest.
(b) Compound interest or discounting techniques.
(c) Inflation rates only.
(d) Depreciation rates only.
Answer: (b)

8.What is the present worth criterion used for in replacement decisions?

(a) To calculate the annual operating cost.
(b) To determine the future value of an asset.
(c) To compare the equivalent present value of different replacement alternatives.
(d) To estimate the salvage value of an asset.
Answer: (c)

9. The Annual Equivalent Cost (AEC) method is used to:

(a) Calculate the total cost over the entire lifespan of an asset.
(b) Determine the present worth of all costs.
(c) Convert all costs to an equivalent uniform annual series.
(d) Estimate the depreciation expense.
Answer: (c)

10.What is the salvage value of an asset?

(a) Its original purchase price.
(b) Its market value at the end of its useful life.
(c) Its total operating costs.
(d) Its accumulated depreciation.
Answer: (b)

11.What is the concept of "challenger" and "defender" in replacement analysis?

(a) Challenger is the old asset, and defender is the new asset.
(b) Defender is the old asset, and challenger is the potential replacement asset.
(c) Both terms refer to different methods of replacement analysis.
(d) These terms are related to asset maintenance schedules.
Answer: (b)

12.What is the impact of a higher discount rate on the present worth of future costs?
(a) It increases the present worth.
(b) It decreases the present worth.
(c) It has no impact on the present worth.
(d) The impact depends on the lifespan of the asset.
Answer: (b)

13.Which of the following is NOT a typical assumption made in basic replacement analysis? (a) Future
costs and benefits can be reasonably estimated.
(b) The technology of the replacement asset will remain constant over its lifespan.
(c) The discount rate will remain constant over the study period.
(d) Inflation will significantly impact all cost components equally.
Answer: (d)
14. The capital recovery factor is used to:
(a) Calculate the present worth of a future sum.
(b) Calculate the future value of a present sum.
(c) Convert a present sum into a series of equal annual payments over a specified period.
(d) Calculate the interest rate.
Answer: (c)

15.What is the future worth criterion used for in replacement analysis?

(a) To calculate the initial investment cost.
(b) To determine the present value of all costs.
(c) To compare the equivalent future value of different replacement alternatives.
(d) To estimate the annual operating cost.
Answer: (c)

16.What is the book value of an asset?

(a) Its current market price.
(b) Its original cost minus accumulated depreciation.
(c) Its estimated salvage value.
(d) Its total operating costs to date.
Answer: (b)

17.In a situation where an asset fails suddenly and unexpectedly, the replacement decision is often
driven by:
(a) Economic analysis alone.
(b) The book value of the asset.
(c) The immediate need to restore operations.
(d) The availability of a technologically superior replacement.
Answer: (c)

18. Which of the following is a situation where a group replacement policy might be more economical
than individual replacement?
(a) When assets are expensive and have long individual lifespans.
(b) When assets are numerous, inexpensive, and failure of one leads to significant disruption.
(c) When maintenance costs are very high for individual assets.
(d) When the technology of the assets is rapidly changing.
Answer: (b)

19.What is the main challenge in implementing replacement theory in practice?

(a) Difficulty in understanding the mathematical formulas.
(b) Resistance from employees to new equipment.
(c) Uncertainty in estimating future costs, benefits, and technological changes.
(d) Lack of readily available replacement options.
Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following is a key input required for most replacement analysis techniques? (a) The
brand name of the asset.
(b) The color of the asset.
(c) The expected lifespan of the asset.
(d) The weight of the asset.
Answer: (c)
21. What is the primary focus when analyzing the replacement of an asset that fails gradually?
(a) Minimizing the initial investment cost of the new asset.
(b) Balancing the increasing operating and maintenance costs of the old asset with the cost of a new
one.
(c) Maximizing the resale value of the old asset.
(d) Ensuring uninterrupted operation at all costs.
Answer: (b)

22. In replacement analysis, what does the term "opportunity cost" refer to?
(a) The cost of missing out on a potential resale value.
(b) The cost of not replacing an asset sooner and incurring higher operating costs.
(c) The potential return that could be earned from investing the money used for a new asset elsewhere.
(d) The cost of training employees to use a new asset.
Answer: (c)

23.In the context of group replacement, what is a key factor to determine the optimal replacement
interval?
(a) The initial purchase cost of each individual item.
(b) The cost of individual replacement versus the cost of group replacement.
(c) The resale value of the items being replaced.
(d) The brand of the items being replaced.
Answer: (b)

24. In replacement analysis, a low salvage value at the end of an asset's life tends to:
(a) Make keeping the old asset more attractive.
(b) Make replacing the old asset sooner more attractive.
(c) Have no impact on the replacement decision.
(d) Increase the annual equivalent cost of the new asset.
Answer: (b)

25.When money value changes with time at 20%, the discount factor for the 2nd year is
(a) 1
(b)0.833
(c) 0
(d)0.6955
Answer: (b)

26.Which cost of the following is irrelevant to replacement analysis?

(a) Purchase cost of the machine
(b) Operating cost of the machine
(c) Maintenance cost of the machine
(d) Machine hour rate of the machine
Answer: (d)

27.The type of failure that usually occurs in old age of the machine is
 (a) Random failure
(b)Early failure
(c) Chance failure
(d)Wear - out failure
Answer: (d)

28.Which of the following is the correct assumption for replacement policy when money value does not
change with time?
(a) No Capital cost
(b) No scrap value
(c) Constant scrap value
(d Zero maintenance cost
Answer: (c)

29. Replacement Model is a ‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐‐ model

a) Static Models
b) Dynamic Models
c) Both A and B
d) None of the above
Answer: (b)

30. In replacement analysis, the discount rate is used to:

a) Account for inflation
b) Calculate the present worth of future costs and benefits
c) Estimate the salvage value of the asset
d) Determine the optimal operating life
Answer: b)

UNIT-4
INVENTORY THEORY
1.Which of the following is not an inventory?
a. Machines
b. Raw material
c. Finished products
d. Consumable tools
Answer:a)

2.The following classes of costs are usually involved in inventory decisions except
a.Cost of ordering
b.Carrying cost
c.Cost of shortages
d. Machining cost
Answer :d)
3.The cost of insurance and taxes are included in
a.Cost of ordering
b.Set up cost
c.Inventory carrying cost
d.Cost of shortages
Answer :c)

4.'Buffer stock' is the level of stock

a. Half of the actual stock
b. At which the ordering process should start
c. Minimum stock level below which actual stock should not fall
d. Maximum stock in inventory
Answer: c)

5.The minimum stock level is calculated as

a.Reorder level (Nornal consumption x Normal delivery time)
b.Reorder level + (Nornal consumption x Normal delivery time)
c.(Reorder level + Nornal consumption) x Normal delivery time
d.(Reorder level + Nornal consumption) / Normal delivery time
Answer: a)

6.Which of the following is true for Inventory control?

a. Economic order quantity has minimum total cost per order
b. Inventory carrying costs increases with quantity per order
c.Ordering cost decreases with lo size
d. All of the above
Answer:d)

7.The time period between placing an order its receipt in stock is known a
a. Lead time
b. Carrying time
c. Shortage time
d. Over time
Answer: a)

8.Re-ordering level is calculated as

a. Maximum consumption rate x Maximum re-order period
b. Minimum consumption rate x Minimum re-order period
c. Maximum consumption rate x Minimum re-order period
d.Minimum consumption rate x Maximum re-order period
Answer: a)

9.Average stock level can be calculated as

a Minimum stock level + 1/2 of Re-order level
b. Maximum stock level + 1/2 of Re-order level
c. Minimum stock level + 1/3 of Re-order level
d.Maximum stock level + 1/3 of Re-order level
Answer: a)

10.The Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) is calculated as

a. (2D S / h )^ 1/2
b.(DS /h)^ 1/2
c. (D S / 2 h )^1/2
d.(D S / 3h)^ /2

Where, D-Annual demand (units), S-Cost per order, h=Annual carrying cost per unit
Answer: a)

11.The order cost per order of an inventory is Rs. 400 with an annual carrying cost of Rs. 10 per unit. The
Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) for an annual demand of 2000 units is
a. 400
b. 440
c.480
d. 500
Answer: a

12. The primary objective of inventory management is to:

a) Minimize the cost of goods sold.
b) Maximize sales revenue.
c) Balance inventory costs and customer service levels.
d) Ensure continuous production at all costs.
Answer: c)

13.Which of the following costs is directly associated with holding inventory?

a) Ordering costs.
b) Setup costs.
c) Carrying costs.
d) Shortage costs.
Answer: c)

14. Costs incurred each time an order is placed are known as:
a) Holding costs.
b) Shortage costs.
c) Ordering costs.
d) Unit costs.
Answer: c)

15.The cost resulting from demand exceeding the available inventory is called:
a) Holding cost.
b) Ordering cost.
c) Setup cost.
d) Shortage cost.
Answer: d)
 16. In the Economic Order Quantity (EOQ) model, which of the following assumptions is typically
made?
a) Demand is variable.
b) Lead time is uncertain.
c) Orders are received instantaneously.
d) Unit cost varies with order quantity.
Answer: c)

17. The EOQ formula aims to minimize the total _________________ costs.
a) Purchasing and production.
b) Ordering and holding.
c) Holding and shortage.
d) Ordering and shortage.
Answer: b)

18.The reorder point is the inventory level at which:

a) Demand equals supply.
b) A new order should be placed.
c) Holding costs are minimized.
d) Shortage costs are maximized.
Answer: b)

19. Safety stock is maintained to:

a) Minimize ordering costs.
b) Meet unexpected increases in demand.
c) Reduce holding costs.
d) Ensure zero inventory levels.
Answer: b)

20. The Economic Production Quantity (EPQ) model is used when:

a) Orders are received instantaneously.
b) Production and consumption occur simultaneously.
c) Demand is probabilistic.
d) Multiple products are involved.
Answer: b)

21.In the EPQ model, the maximum inventory level is always _________________ the EOQ.
a) Equal to.
b) Greater than.
c) Less than.
d) Unrelated to.
Answer: c)

22. The Just-In-Time (JIT) inventory system aims to:

a) Maintain large buffer inventories.
b) Receive materials just as they are needed for production.
c) Minimize ordering frequency.
d) Maximize work-in-progress inventory.
Answer: b)

23.The number of orders placed per year is calculated as:

a) Annual demand multiplied by order quantity.
b) Annual demand divided by order quantity.
c) Order quantity divided by annual demand.
d) Square root of (2 * annual demand * ordering cost / holding cost).
Answer: b)

24. The average inventory level in the basic EOQ model is:
a) The order quantity.
b) Half of the order quantity.
c) Safety stock plus order quantity.
d) Annual demand divided by 2.
Answer: b)

25. Lead time is the:

a) Time between placing an order and receiving it.
b) Duration of the production cycle.
c) Time for which inventory is held in stock.
d) Time taken to process a customer order.
Answer: a)

26.In inventory models with probabilistic demand, the reorder point is calculated by adding safety stock
to the:
a) Average demand during lead time.
b) Maximum possible demand.
c) Economic Order Quantity.
d) Minimum possible demand.
Answer: a)

27. Service level in inventory management refers to the probability of:

a) Receiving an order on time.
b) Meeting customer demand from available inventory.
c) Minimizing holding costs.
d) Avoiding placing new orders.
Answer: b)

28.Which of the following is a quantitative technique used for inventory optimization?

a) Vendor-managed inventory (VMI).
b) Cross-docking.
c) Economic Order Quantity (EOQ).
d) Cycle counting.
Answer: c)

29.Vendor-managed inventory (VMI) is an approach where:

a) The buyer manages the supplier's inventory.
b) The supplier manages the buyer's inventory at the buyer's location.
c) Inventory levels are decided jointly by the buyer and supplier.
d) Each party manages their own inventory independently.
Answer: b)

30.Cycle counting is a method of:

a) Ordering inventory in fixed cycles.
b) Counting a small portion of inventory on a regular basis.
c) Reviewing inventory levels at fixed intervals.
d) Determining the economic order quantity.
Answer: b)

31.A periodic review inventory system orders inventory at:

a) Fixed quantity intervals.
b) Variable time intervals.
c) Fixed time intervals.
d) Variable quantity intervals.
Answer: c)

32.In a fixed-order quantity system, the order quantity is:

a) Constant.
b) Variable.
c) Dependent on demand rate.
d) Determined by the review period.
Answer: a)

33.Which of the following is a key input for calculating the Economic Production Quantity (EPQ)?
a) Setup cost per production run.
b) Ordering cost per order.
c) Shortage cost per unit.
d) Transportation cost per unit.
Answer: a)

34. If the annual demand for an item doubles, the EOQ will:
a) Remain the same.
b) Double.
c) Increase by a factor of 2.
d) Decrease by a factor of 2.
Answer: c)

35.Which of the following is a qualitative factor that might influence inventory decisions?
a) Holding costs.
b) Ordering costs.
c) Supplier reliability.
d) Demand rate.
Answer: c)

36. Economic order quantity is that quantity at which cost of holding and carrying inventory is:
a) Maximum and equal
b) Minimum and equal
c) It can be maximum or minimum depending upon case to case
d) Minimum and unequal
Answer: b)

37. Which of the following describes the behavior of total ordering costs?
a) Rise as the order quantity rises
b) Equal the number of orders placed times the cost of placing an order
c) Rise as the average stock level rises
d) Fall with the per period usage rate
Answer: b)

38. Which of the following describe the behavior of total holding costs?
a) They always exceed total ordering costs.
b) They decline as the cost of the inventory item rises
c) Rise as the order quantity rises
d) They decline with the average stock level
Answer: c)

UNIT-5
JOB SEQUENCING

1. Job sequencing primarily aims to:

a) Minimize production costs.
b) Optimize resource allocation.
c) Determine the order in which jobs are processed.
d) Improve employee satisfaction.
Answer: c)

2. Which of the following is a common objective in job sequencing?

a) Maximizing the number of idle machines.
b) Minimizing the makespan.
c) Increasing the average flow time.
d) Delaying job completion.
Answer: b)

3. The total time required to complete all jobs in a system is known as:
a) Flow time.
b) Lateness.
c) Makespan.
d) Tardiness.
Answer: c)

4. The time a job spends in the system from arrival to completion is called:
a) Processing time.
b) Waiting time.
c) Flow time.
d) Completion time.
Answer: c)

5. The difference between the completion time and the due date of a job is:
a) Flow time.
b) Lateness.
c) Makespan.
d) Processing time.
Answer: b)

6. If a job is completed after its due date, it is said to be:

a) Early.
b) On time.
c) Tardy.
d) Efficient.
Answer: c)

7. Which rule sequences jobs based on the shortest processing time first?
a) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
b) Shortest Processing Time (SPT)
c) Earliest Due Date (EDD)
d) Longest Processing Time (LPT)
Answer: b)

8. Which rule prioritizes jobs with the earliest promised delivery date?
a) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS)
b) Shortest Processing Time (SPT)
c) Earliest Due Date (EDD)
d) Longest Processing Time (LPT)
Answer: c)

9. The First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) rule is often perceived as:

a) Highly efficient in terms of makespan.
b) Fair to all customers.
c) Optimal for minimizing tardiness.
d) Best for minimizing average flow time.
Answer: b)

10. The Longest Processing Time (LPT) rule is often used to:
a) Minimize the number of tardy jobs.
b) Maximize machine utilization, especially in parallel processing.
c) Reduce the average flow time.
d) Ensure fairness among jobs.
Answer: b)

11. Johnson's rule is specifically designed for sequencing jobs in a:

a) Single-machine environment.
b) Two-machine flow shop environment.
c) Multiple parallel machine environment.
d) Job shop environment.
Answer: b)

12. The primary objective of Johnson's rule is to:

a) Minimize the average flow time.
b) Minimize the makespan in a two-machine flow shop.
c) Minimize the total tardiness.
d) Maximize machine utilization.
Answer: b)

13. In Johnson's rule, the job with the smaller processing time is scheduled:
a) Earlier, regardless of the machine.
b) Earlier if it's on the first machine, later if it's on the second.
c) Later if it's on the first machine, earlier if it's on the second.
d) Later, regardless of the machine.
Answer: b)

14. Gantt chart is applicable to

a) Time study
b) Production Scheduling
c) Sales forcasting
d) Motion Study
Answer: b)

15. Which sequencing rule is most effective in minimizing the maximum tardiness?
a) FCFS
b) SPT
c) EDD
d) LPT
Answer: c)

16. The performance of a job sequencing rule can be evaluated based on metrics like:
a) Makespan, average flow time, and total cost.
b) Number of employees, machine efficiency, and profit margin.
c) Material usage, energy consumption, and customer satisfaction.
d) Production volume, inventory levels, and marketing spend.
Answer: a)

17. In job shop scheduling, which sequence of operation typically result in optimal resource utilization
and minimization of job waiting time:
a) FCFS(First come first serve)
b) SPT(Short processing time)
c) EDD(Earliest due date)
d) LPT (Longest processing time)
Answer: b)
18. Which of the following environments involves jobs flowing through a fixed sequence of machines?
a) Job shop.
b) Flow shop.
c) Open shop.
d) Flexible manufacturing system.
Answer: b)

19. In which environment can jobs be processed on machines in any order?

a) Job shop.
b) Flow shop.
c) Open shop.
d) Assembly line.
Answer: c)

20. Which environment is characterized by different jobs requiring processing on different machines in
different sequences?
a) Job shop.
b) Flow shop.
c) Open shop.
d) Cellular manufacturing.
Answer: a)

21.The total time required to complete all the jobs in a job sequence problem is known as ______
a) Processing time
b) Idle time
c) Elapsed time
d) Lead time
Answer: c)

22. Which of the following is an analytical method for solving job sequencing problems?
a) Shortest Processing Time (SPT) rule.
b) Earliest Due Date (EDD) rule.
c) Johnson's rule.
d) First-Come, First-Served (FCFS) rule.
Answer: c)

23. The concept of "critical ratio" is often used in:

a) Johnson's rule.
b) The FCFS rule.
c) Priority sequencing rules that consider both due date and remaining processing time.
d) The LPT rule.
Answer: c)

24. A critical ratio less than 1 indicates that the job is:
a) Ahead of schedule.
b) On schedule.
c) Behind schedule.
d) Of low priority.
Answer: c)

25. Which of the following is NOT a common assumption made in basic job sequencing problems?
a) Machines are continuously available.
b) Setup times are negligible.
c) Preemption is allowed.
d) Jobs are independent of each other.
Answer: c)

26. The process of rearranging jobs to optimize one or more objectives is known as:
a) Production planning.
b) Capacity planning.
c) Job sequencing.
d) Inventory control.
Answer: c)

27. In a two-machine flow shop using Johnson's rule, if a job has a shorter processing time on the
second machine, it should be placed:
a) Towards the beginning of the sequence.
b) Towards the end of the sequence.
c) In the middle of the sequence.
d) Its position doesn't matter.
Answer: b)

28. Which of the following rules is dynamic, meaning the priority of jobs can change as they are
processed?
a) SPT
b) EDD
c) Critical Ratio
d) LPT
Answer: c)

29. When setup times are significant and sequence-dependent, the simple sequencing rules may:
a) Perform better than more complex algorithms.
b) Still provide optimal solutions.
c) Lead to suboptimal schedules.
d) Become easier to implement.
Answer: c)

30. The ultimate goal of effective job sequencing is to:

a) Keep all workers busy.
b) Utilize all machines to their maximum capacity at all times.
c) Meet customer due dates and optimize resource utilization.
d) Minimize the number of jobs in the system, regardless of completion times.
Answer: c)

31. Gantt Chart provide information about:

 a) Break even point analysis
b) Material handling layout
c) Production schedule
d) Determining selling price.
Answer: c)

32.In a job sequencing problem, which of the following criteria is typicallyNOT considered for minimizing
completion time?
a) Earliest due date
b) Critical ratio
c) Shortest processing time
d) Latest due date
Answer: d)

33. If there are n jobs to be performed one at a time on each of m machine the possible sequences
would be:
a) (n!)m
b) (m!)n
c) nm
d) mn
Answer:a )
34. What is the maximum total profit

Job Deadline Profit

J1 2 60
J2 1 100
J3 3 20
J4 2 40
J5 1 20
J6 3 30
J7 2 10

a) 190
b) 210
c) 180
d) 200
Answer:a )