Psychology Guide
Psychology Guide
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Contents
Introduction............................................................................................................................................................. 4
4. Example response........................................................................................................................................... 10
6. Useful resources............................................................................................................................................... 67
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Learner Guide
Introduction
This guide explains what you need to know about your Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990 course
and examinations.
Following a Cambridge International AS & A Level programme will help you to develop abilities that universities value
highly, including a deep understanding of your subject; higher order thinking skills (analysis, critical thinking, problem
solving); presenting ordered and coherent arguments; and independent learning and research.
Studying Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology will provide you with opportunities to explore key concepts
and debates that underpin the subject of psychology and to develop the skills of knowledge and understanding,
application, analysis, and evaluation while studying a range of stimulating topics and real-world issues.
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This section gives you an outline of the syllabus content for this course.
There are two components for the AS Level and four components for A Level. For A Level you will study two of the four
listed options. Your teacher will tell you which two options you are studying. Make sure you always check the latest
syllabus, available from the School Support Hub.
Prior knowledge
There is no assumed prior knowledge needed to study Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990.
However, a good grasp of English, Mathematics and Science is preferable.
Key concepts
Key concepts are essential ideas that will help you develop a deep understanding of your subject and make links
between different aspects of the course. The key concepts for Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology are:
Nature versus nurture – A key focus of contemporary psychology is to consider the relative contributions of nature
versus nurture. Behaviours could be seen as resulting from innate, genetic factors (nature) or behaviours could be
explained in terms of the environmental influences that begin to shape us from conception (nurture). You should be
aware of this debate while planning studies and evaluating studies as part of this course.
Ethics – Ethics must be considered when planning a psychological investigation to ensure that data is gathered without
compromising the wellbeing of the participant(s). The approach to ethics in psychological research has changed
over time as our understanding has developed and attitudes towards ethical and moral implications change. As a
result, some of the earlier studies that were the basis of the subject no longer meet the current guidelines. We should
continually evaluate the ethical and moral implications of psychological research.
Research methods – Every research method has strengths and weaknesses, and a psychologist must evaluate how
the method they have chosen contributes to the validity and reliability of their specific investigation as well as to wider
psychological research.
No one view in psychology is definitive – Psychological research is influenced by the approach of the researcher
and the time and context they are working in. Any topic is likely to be studied from the perspective of more than one
psychological approach, and each approach has its own assumptions.
Relevance of psychology in contemporary society – By understanding psychology, we can improve how we live
our lives and society in general. Every study is undertaken with a specific purpose in mind which can then be applied
in everyday life – whether it is improving how we learn, understanding how groups of people behave or treating a
disorder. You should be able to recognise how psychological studies of a specific area can be applied to other scenarios
in everyday life.
These concepts are embedded in the syllabus through the studies and topics chosen.
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Cambridge International AS Psychology makes up the first half of the Cambridge International A Level course in
Psychology and provides a foundation for the study of Psychology at Cambridge International A Level.
Find out from your teacher which papers you will be taking, and when you will be taking them.
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Paper 3 1 hour 30 AO1 Knowledge and Candidates answer questions 25% of A Level
Specialist minutes understanding from two specialist options.
Options: 60 marks AO2 Application
Approaches,
AO3 Analysis and evaluation
Issues and
Debates
Paper 4 1 hour 30 AO1 Knowledge and Section A: Candidates answer 25% of A Level
Specialist minutes understanding questions from two specialist
Options: 60 marks AO2 Application options.
Application Section B: A planning question
AO3 Analysis and evaluation
and Research divided into several parts.
Methods
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The examiners will take account of the following assessment objectives (AOs) in the examinations.
AO1 Knowledge and This AO is about demonstrating knowledge and Paper 1 (53% of marks)
understanding understanding of: Paper 2 (22% of marks)
• psychological terminology, concepts, theories, Paper 3 (26% of marks)
studies, evidence and methodology including
Paper 4 (26% of marks)
research methods, issues and debates
• the theoretical, ethical and practical considerations
that influence the planning and conduct of
psychological research
• psychological techniques used by psychologists in
everyday life.
AO2 Application This AO is about using knowledge and understanding Paper 1 (17% of marks)
of psychology, as listed above, so that it can be applied Paper 2 (50% of marks)
to a range of scenarios. Scenarios could be familiar or
Paper 3 (26% of marks)
unfamiliar and may be taken from a range of everyday life
or theoretical contexts. Paper 4 (44% of marks)
This includes:
• explaining how psychology is applicable to a
particular scenario, context or issue
• using and applying information in words or using
other forms of presentation
• using relevant psychology to support points or
develop arguments
• demonstrating awareness of the links between
psychology used to support points or develop
arguments
• using knowledge and understanding to plan an
investigation.
AO3 Analysis and This AO is about analysing and evaluating psychological Paper 1 (30% of marks)
evaluation concepts, theories, studies, evidence and methodology in Paper 2 (28% of marks)
terms of issues and debates. This includes:
Paper 3 (48% of marks)
• recognising bias in psychological data, research and
Paper 4 (30% of marks)
studies
• explaining the strengths and weaknesses of
psychological concepts, theories, studies and
methodology and of candidates’ plans for
investigations
• being able to use a range and/or variety of evidence
to demonstrate the complexity of psychological
issues and debates
• reaching conclusions about arguments based on a
reasoned consideration of available evidence.
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It is important that you know the different weightings (%) of the assessment objectives, as this affects how the
examiner will assess your work.
AO2 Application 35 35
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4. Example response
This section takes you through a question and example response to Specimen Paper 1 Question 10. It will help you
to see how to identify the command words within questions and to understand what is required in your response.
Understanding the questions will help you to know what you need to do with your knowledge. For example, you might
need to state something, calculate something, find something or show something.
All information and advice in this section is specific to the example question and response being demonstrated. It
should give you an idea of how your responses might be viewed by an examiner, but it is not a list of what to do in all
questions. In your own examination, you will need to pay careful attention to what each question is asking you to do.
Question
Command words have been highlighted and their meaning
explained. This will help you to understand clearly what is
required.
Example response
This is a sample answer written by Cambridge of a middle
standard. Good points and problems have been highlighted.
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Another strength of this study is that it used a The strength provided is correct, and a brief
longitudinal design which retested the participants. context provided that is linked to the study.
This meant researchers could wait for the mindfulness
intervention to have an effect on participant brain
plasticity and changes weren’t because of using lots of A valid strength is raised and provides some
different participants like in a cross-sectional study. depth in terms of adding context from the
study.
Lab experiments also have a standardised procedure
with high levels of controls so it can be replicated and
tested for reliability. This is a correct third strength of the study,
but does not give context of Hölzel et al.
On the other hand, the experiment had some ethical
issues which could be a weakness. They used an MRI
scanner which is noisy and a small space which could A correct weakness is raised and provides
be stressful for some participants, so the participants depth with an example from the study.
weren’t protected from harm in fact two participants
were so uncomfortable they withdrew from the study.
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This advice will help you revise and prepare for the examinations. It is divided into general advice and specific advice
for each of the papers.
Use the tick boxes to keep a record of what you have done, what you plan to do or what you understand.
General advice
Before the examination
Find out when the examinations are and plan your revision, so you have enough time for each topic. A revision
timetable will help you.
Find out how long each paper is, questions you must answer.
Know the meaning of the command words used in questions and how to apply them to the information given.
Highlight the command words in past papers and check what they mean using the list provided in the syllabus.
Work for short periods then have a break. Revise small sections of the syllabus at a time.
Make sure you practise lots of past examination questions so that you are familiar with the format of the
examination papers. You could time yourself when doing a paper so that you know how quickly you need to work
in the real examination.
Look at mark schemes to help you to understand how the marks are awarded for each question
Make sure you are familiar with the mathematical notation that you need for this syllabus. Your teacher will be able
to advise you on what is expected.
Check the number of marks for each question or part question. This helps you to judge how long you should be
spending answering each question, so you do not run out of time.
Use any time you have left in the examination to review your answers and return to any questions you have not
answered.
For questions that are worth higher marks and require a longer answer, consider planning your answer before you
start writing.
You do not have to answer the questions in the order they are printed in the answer booklet. You may be able to do
a later question more easily, then come back to an earlier one for another try.
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Read all parts of a question before starting your answer. Think carefully about what is needed for each part. You
will not need to repeat material.
Answer the question. It is important to use your knowledge and understanding of psychology throughout each
answer.
Do not cross out any work until you have replaced it by trying again. Even if you know it’s not correct, you may still
be able to get method marks. If you have made two or more attempts, make sure you cross out all except the one
you want marked.
Make sure all your numbers are clear, for example make sure your ‘1’ does not look like a ‘7’.
If you need to change a word or a number, or even a sign (+ to – for example), it is better to cross out your work and
rewrite it. Do not try to write over the top of your previous work as it will be difficult to read, and you may not get
the marks.
Avoid writing your answers in the columns of the page. The answer spaces provided correspond to the number of
marks each question is worth. If you require extra space, please use a continuation booklet.
The features of a sample include the characteristics of the sample, as well as the sampling technique (how
participants were recruited).
For results, a meaningful comparison is needed to gain full marks (e.g. comparing one group to another group of
participants).
A conclusion should be based on the results but should not contain any actual results.
When describing the debates, you must label each side of your description (e.g. nature versus nurture - you must
tell the examiner which is nature, and which is nurture).
If a question ends with ‘…in this study’ then it is expected that you use an example from the study as part of your
answer.
In the extended response ensure that you write about two strengths and two weaknesses using examples from the
named study. You must ensure at least one of your evaluation points is the named issue in the question.
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If a question ends with ‘…in this study’ or makes a direct reference to a scenario, use an example or evidence from
the study as part of your answer.
When referring to the unfamiliar/novel scenario, your answer must be meaningful. For example, rather than just
repeating the name of the person from the scenario, explain what it is about their situation that makes your
answer relevant.
If a question asks for you to mention two concepts, e.g. similarities and differences, both need to be included.
If a question only asks for only one concept, do not waste time writing about what is not required. If you are told
not to refer to a concept in your answer, avoid doing so, e.g. ‘Do not refer to ethics in your answer’.
You will be required to design an original study for a novel research question. This is a creative process and
requires practice. You can develop this skill by:
• Thinking about possible studies on day-to-day psychology questions, such as ‘Do males and females differ in
behaviour X?’ or ‘Is there a correlation between cognition Y and emotion Z?’
• Try to imagine different research methods being used to investigate a range of questions.
You also need to be able to identify practical/methodological and ethical strengths and weaknesses of your
designs. Consider:
• Would the results be valid and reliable in real life?
• If not, why not?
• What could be done about the problem?
Your evaluation of study design must be directly relevant to the actual procedure you have described or has been
presented to you in the scenario provided. This is the difference between a ‘generic’ and a ‘specific/linked’ answer.
Make sure you know the five topic areas from within each of the two options you have studied from the syllabus.
You will need to know which studies, theories, research methods, issues and debates go with each.
Practise evaluation/analysis for several issues for every bullet point (e.g. reductionism, determinism, study issues
like validity, ethics), rather than just learning the content. This will help you to ‘think like a psychologist’ and
become more skilled at applying your knowledge.
When evaluating issues and debates, practise writing more in-depth answers. Use specific examples to support the
points you make in your answer rather than giving generic statements like ‘the sample was unrepresentative’, as
this could be applied to many studies.
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Ensure that for Section B you answer the question for only one of the options you have studied.
When evaluating one strength and one weaknesses for four marks, two marks maximum will be available for the
strength and two mark maximum for the weakness.
Pay attention to what each question requires so you avoid writing too much or not enough. If a question requires
you to explain one weakness but you write about more than one, only the highest scoring weakness will earn you
marks.
In the 10 mark ‘Plan a study’ questions, ensure that you cover the main features of the research method presented
in the question (or for one you have chosen if the question does not specify one).
In the 10 mark ‘Plan a study’ questions, you should include general features when answering about any method
such as sample, sampling technique, ethics, types of data, reliability, and validity.
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Revision checklists
In the next part of this guide we have provided some revision checklists. These include information from the syllabus that you should revise. They don’t contain all the detailed
knowledge you need to know, just an overview. For more detail see the syllabus and talk to your teacher.
Here is a list of the topics Here are some suggestions of how to You can use the tick boxes to show when you have You can:
you need to cover and practise your skills revised an item and how confident you feel about • add more information about the details for
work on. it. each point
R = RED means you are really unsure and lack • add additional notes
confidence; you might want to focus your revision
• include a reference to a useful resource
here and possibly talk to your teacher for help
• highlight areas of difficulty or things that
A = AMBER means you are reasonably confident
you need to talk to your teacher about or
but need some extra practice
look up in a textbook.
G = GREEN means you are very confident.
As your revision progresses, you can concentrate
on the RED and AMBER items in order to turn them
into GREEN items. You might find it helpful to
highlight each topic in red, orange or green to help
you prioritise.
Note: the tables below cannot contain absolutely everything you need to know, but it does use examples wherever it can.
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Issues and debates consider in relation to each of the core studies, the following
issues, and debates:
• the application of psychology to everyday life
• individual and situational explanations
• nature versus nurture
• the use of children in psychological research
• the use of animals in psychological research.
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Case studies • describe the case study method, including the main
features: a single participant/unit; studied in detail
• evaluate the use of case studies in psychological research
• apply knowledge of case studies to a given novel
research scenario.
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operationalise:
• an independent variable
• a dependent variable
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Paper 3 Specialist Options: Approaches, Issues and Debates and Paper 4 Specialist Options: Applications and Research
Methods
This checklist is for all four options available for A Level Psychology. Remember to only complete the checklists for the two options that you have studied at A Level.
Clinical Psychology
Topic You should be able to R A G Comments
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psychological explanations:
• Beck’s cognitive theory of depression
• learned helplessness/attributional style, including a
study, e.g. Seligman et al. (1988).
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psychological explanations:
• behavioural: positive reinforcement
• cognitive: Miller’s feeling-state theory.
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Anxiety disorders and fear- Diagnostic criteria for anxiety disorders and fear-related
related disorders disorders
diagnostic criteria (ICD-11) of anxiety disorders and fear-
related disorders:
• generalised anxiety disorder
• agoraphobia
• specific phobia (blood-injection-injury).
psychological explanations:
• behavioural (classical conditioning), including a study,
e.g. Watson and Rayner (1920) ‘Little Albert’
• psychodynamic, including a study, e.g. Freud (1909)
‘Little Hans’
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Anxiety disorders and fear- Treatment and management of anxiety disorders and
related disorders fear-related disorders
continued • behavioural therapy: systematic desensitisation applied
to any fear-related disorder.
psychological therapy
• cognitive-behavioural therapy (CBT)
• applied tension focusing on treating blood/injection/
injury phobia.
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measures:
• Maudsley Obsessive-Compulsive Inventory (MOCI)
• Yale-Brown Obsessive-Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS).
psychological explanations:
• cognitive (thinking error)
• behavioural (operant conditioning)
• psychodynamic.
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Questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of postal questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of rating scales; forced/
fixed choice.
Psychometric tests
• describe and evaluate psychometric tests.
Hypotheses
• write and apply knowledge of null hypotheses and
alternative directional (one-tailed) and non-directional
(two-tailed) hypotheses.
Validity
• describe and evaluate studies based on their validity,
including temporal validity.
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Consumer Psychology
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Choice heuristics
• heuristics focusing on availability, representativeness,
recognition, take-the-best, and anchoring, including
explanations and examples of each.
• point of purchase decisions including multiple unit
pricing and suggestive selling, including a study, e.g.
Wansink et al. (1998).
• applying heuristics to decision-making styles, including a
study, e.g. del Campo et al. (2016).
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Questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of postal questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of rating scales; forced/
fixed choice.
Psychometric tests
• describe and evaluate psychometric tests.
Hypotheses
• write and apply knowledge of null hypotheses and
alternative directional (one-tailed) and non-directional
(two-tailed) hypotheses.
Validity
• describe and evaluate studies based on their validity,
including temporal validity.
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Health Psychology
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Measuring non-adherence
• subjective measures including clinical interviews and
semi-structured interviews, including a study,
e.g. Riekert and Drotar (1999).
• objective measures focusing on pill counting and
medication dispensers, including a study, e.g. Chung and
Naya (2000).
• biological measures including blood and urine samples.
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Measuring pain
• subjective measures including clinical interview.
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Measures of stress
biological measures:
• recording devices for heart rate and brain function (fMRI),
including a study, e.g. Wang et al. (2005)
• sample tests for salivary cortisol, including a study,
e.g. Evans and Wener (2007).
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Questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of postal questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of rating scales; forced/
fixed choice.
Psychometric tests
• describe and evaluate psychometric tests.
Hypotheses
• write and apply knowledge of null hypotheses and
alternative directional (one-tailed) and non-directional
(two-tailed) hypotheses.
Validity
• describe and evaluate studies based on their validity,
including temporal validity.
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Organisational Psychology
Cognitive theories
• Latham and Locke’s goal-setting theory including goal-
setting principles and SMART goals.
• Vroom’s VIE (expectancy) theory.
Motivators at work
• extrinsic motivators at work: types of reward systems
including pay, bonuses, profit-sharing, performance-
related pay.
• intrinsic motivators at work: non-monetary rewards
including praise, respect, recognition, empowerment,
and a sense of belonging.
• Deci and Ryan’s self-determination theory including
competence, autonomy, and relatedness
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Leadership style
• Muczyk and Reimann’s four styles of leader behaviour.
• Scouller’s levels of leadership including public, private,
and personal levels
• leadership style and gender
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Conflict at work
• levels of group conflict (intra-individual, inter-individual,
intra-group, and inter-group). Causes of organisational
and interpersonal group conflict.
• Thomas–Kilmann’s five conflict-handling modes.
• bullying at work; types, phases, and causes, including a
study, e.g. Einarsen (1999).
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Measuring job-satisfaction
• job satisfaction rating scales and questionnaires focusing
on the job descriptive index (JDI).
• Walton’s quality of working life (QWL) including eight
conditions and QWL evaluation scale.
Attitudes to work
• workplace sabotage including methods and reasons for
sabotage
• Blau and Boal’s absenteeism and organisational
commitment model including types of absence,
categories of commitment.
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Questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of postal questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of rating scales; forced/
fixed choice.
Psychometric tests
• describe and evaluate psychometric tests.
Hypotheses
• write and apply knowledge of null hypotheses and
alternative directional (one-tailed) and non-directional
(two-tailed) hypotheses.
Validity
• describe and evaluate studies based on their validity,
including temporal validity.
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6. Useful resources
The endorsed textbook is a useful resource to help you study for your Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology
9990 course.
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Cambridge Assessment International Education
The Triangle Building, Shaftesbury Road, Cambridge, CB28EA, United Kingdom
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Why choose Cambridge International?
Cambridge International prepares school students for life, helping them develop an informed curiosity and a
lasting passion for learning. We are part of the University of Cambridge.
Our Cambridge Pathway gives students a clear path for educational success from age 5 to 19. Schools can
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We review all our syllabuses regularly, so they reflect the latest research evidence and professional teaching
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We consult with teachers to help us design each syllabus around the needs of their learners. Consulting with
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Our mission is to provide educational benefit through provision of international programmes and qualifications
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Key benefits
The best motivation for a student is a real passion for the
subject they’re learning. By offering students a variety of
Cambridge International AS & A Levels, you can give them the
greatest chance of finding the path of education they most
want to follow. With over 50 subjects to choose from, students
can select the ones they love and that they’re best at, which
helps motivate them throughout their studies. Cambridge
learner
Following a Cambridge International AS & A Level programme
helps students develop abilities which universities value highly,
including:
• a deep understanding of their subjects
• higher order thinking skills – analysis, critical thinking,
problem solving
• presenting ordered and coherent arguments
• independent learning and research.
Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology encourages learners to think like a psychologist. The
syllabus provides opportunities to explore key concepts and debates that underpin the subject of psychology
and to develop the skills of interpretation, application, analysis and evaluation while studying a range of
stimulating topics and real-world issues.
Our approach in Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology encourages learners to be:
confident, communicating psychological ideas and arguments to others, and exploring contemporary social
issues with maturity and insight
responsible, considering the ethical and moral implications of what they learn and being able to apply it
responsibly
reflective, about one’s own and others’ behaviour and mental processes
innovative, developing informed views about real-world issues, and an ability to think psychologically to
understand problems and respond to different situations
engaged, debating issues and using research findings to understand the world around them.
Key concepts
Key concepts are essential ideas that help students develop a deep understanding of their subject and make
links between different aspects. Key concepts may open up new ways of thinking about, understanding or
interpreting the important things to be learned.
Good teaching and learning will incorporate and reinforce a subject’s key concepts to help students gain:
• a greater depth as well as breadth of subject knowledge
• confidence, especially in applying knowledge and skills in new situations
• the vocabulary to discuss their subject conceptually and show how different aspects link together
• a level of mastery of their subject to help them enter higher education.
The key concepts identified below, carefully introduced and developed, will help to underpin the course you will
teach. You may identify additional key concepts which will also enrich teaching and learning.
The key concepts for Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology are:
• Nature versus nurture
A key focus of contemporary psychology is to consider the relative contributions of nature versus
nurture. Behaviours could be seen as resulting from innate, genetic factors (nature) or behaviours could
be explained in terms of the environmental influences that begin to shape us from conception (nurture).
Students should be aware of this debate while planning studies and evaluating studies as part of this
course.
• Ethics
Ethics must be considered when planning a psychological investigation to ensure that data is gathered
without compromising the wellbeing of the participant(s). The approach to ethics in psychological
research has changed over time as our understanding has developed and attitudes towards ethical and
moral implications change. As a result, some of the earlier studies that were the basis of the subject no
longer meet the current guidelines. We should continually evaluate the ethical and moral implications of
psychological research.
• Research methods
Every research method has strengths and weaknesses, and a psychologist must evaluate how the method
they have chosen contributes to the validity and reliability of their specific investigation as well as to wider
psychological research.
• No one view in psychology is definitive
Psychological research is influenced by the approach of the researcher and the time and context they are
working in. Any topic is likely to be studied from the perspective of more than one psychological approach,
and each approach has its own assumptions.
• Relevance of psychology in contemporary society
By understanding psychology, we can improve how we live our lives and society in general. Every study
is undertaken with a specific purpose in mind which can then be applied in everyday life – whether it is
improving how we learn, understanding how groups of people behave or treating a disorder. Students
should be able to recognise how psychological studies of a specific area can be applied to other scenarios
in everyday life.
UK NARIC, the national agency in the UK for the recognition and comparison of international qualifications and
skills, has carried out an independent benchmarking study of Cambridge International AS & A Level and found
it to be comparable to the standard of AS & A Level in the UK. This means students can be confident that their
Cambridge International AS & A Level qualifications are accepted as equivalent, grade for grade, to UK AS & A
Levels by leading universities worldwide.
Cambridge International AS Level Psychology makes up the first half of the Cambridge International A Level
course in psychology and provides a foundation for the study of psychology at Cambridge International A Level.
The AS Level can also be delivered as a standalone qualification. Depending on local university entrance
requirements, students may be able to use it to progress directly to university courses in psychology or some
other subjects. It is also suitable as part of a course of general education.
Cambridge International A Level Psychology provides a foundation for the study of psychology or related
courses in higher education. Equally it is suitable as part of a course of general education.
For more information about the relationship between the Cambridge International AS Level and Cambridge
International A Level see the ‘Assessment overview’ section of the Syllabus overview.
We recommend learners check the Cambridge recognition database and university websites to find the most
up-to-date entry requirements for courses they wish to study.
School feedback: ‘The depth of knowledge displayed by the best A Level students makes
them prime targets for America’s Ivy League universities.’
Feedback from: Yale University, USA
Supporting teachers
We provide a wide range of resources, detailed guidance and innovative training and professional development
so that you can give your students the best possible preparation for Cambridge International AS & A Level. To
find out which resources are available for each syllabus go to www.cambridgeinternational.org/support
The School Support Hub is our secure online site for Cambridge teachers where you can find the resources
you need to deliver our programmes. You can also keep up to date with your subject and the global Cambridge
community through our online discussion forums.
Sign up for email notifications about changes to syllabuses, including new and revised products and services at
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• Introductory Training – face-to-face or online
• Extension Training – face-to-face or online
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Find out more at www.cambridgeinternational.org/events
2 Syllabus overview
Aims
The aims describe the purposes of a course based on this syllabus.
Content overview
Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology provides candidates with opportunities to consider the
approaches, issues and debates and research methodology that underpin all aspects of psychology.
Each approach is exemplified though 12 core studies. The core studies illustrate a wide range of research
methods used in psychology, such as experiments, self-reports, case studies, observations, correlations and
longitudinal studies. By exploring the relationship between the content of the study and the research methods,
candidates will gain a broad understanding of how psychologists study experiences and behaviours and why
the research took place.
Candidates for Cambridge International A Level Psychology study the AS Level content and two of the
following specialist options:
1 Clinical Psychology
This option considers the diagnostic criteria, symptoms, explanations and treatments for a variety of mental
and behavioural disorders/conditions.
2 Consumer Psychology
This option reflects consumer society and looks at both consumers and sellers as well as the design of
consumer environments.
3 Health Psychology
This option focuses on the psychological factors that influence health, considers ways to measure and treat
conditions such as pain and stress, and ways to influence behaviours around health and health choices.
4 Organisational Psychology
This option considers workplaces and organisations and how individuals and groups within an organisation
function, influence each other and have an impact on the organisation.
These A Level options are diverse but each specialist option is balanced and equivalent in terms of content and
demand. A number of key studies are specified for each specialist option, along with some additional studies
which may be useful as examples of research in each area.
School feedback: ‘Cambridge International AS & A Levels prepare students well for university
because they’ve learnt to go into a subject in considerable depth. There’s that ability to really
understand the depth and richness and the detail of a subject. It’s a wonderful preparation for
what they are going to face at university.’
Feedback from: US Higher Education Advisory Council
Assessment overview
AS Level candidates take two compulsory papers, Papers 1 and 2. A Level candidates take four compulsory
papers, Papers 1, 2, 3 and 4.
Paper 1 Paper 3
And: And:
Paper 2 Paper 4
There are three routes for Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology:
Route Paper 1 Paper 2 Paper 3 Paper 4
* Candidates carry forward their AS Level result subject to the rules and time limits described in the Cambridge
Handbook. See Making entries for more information on carry forward of results.
Candidates following an AS Level route are eligible for grades a–e. Candidates following an A Level route are
eligible for grades A*–E.
Assessment objectives
The assessment objectives (AOs) are:
AO2 Application
Using knowledge and understanding of psychology, as listed above, so that it can be applied to a range of
scenarios.
Scenarios could be familiar or unfamiliar and may be taken from a range of everyday life or theoretical contexts.
This includes:
• explaining how psychology is applicable to a particular scenario, context or issue
• using and applying information in words or using other forms of presentation
• using relevant psychology to support points or develop arguments
• demonstrating awareness of the links between psychology used to support points or develop arguments
• using knowledge and understanding to plan an investigation.
This includes:
• recognising bias in psychological data, research and studies
• explaining the strengths and weaknesses of psychological concepts, theories, studies and methodology
and of candidates’ plans for investigations
• being able to use a range and/or variety of evidence to demonstrate the complexity of psychological issues
and debates
• reaching conclusions about arguments based on a reasoned consideration of available evidence.
AO2 Application 35 35
AO2 Application 17 50 26 44
3 Subject content
This syllabus gives you the flexibility to design a course that will interest, challenge and engage your learners.
Where appropriate you are responsible for selecting topics, subject contexts, resources and examples to
support your learners’ study. These should be appropriate for the learners’ age, cultural background and
learning context as well as complying with your school policies and local legal requirements.
Candidates for Cambridge International AS Level should study the AS Level content for Papers 1 and 2.
Candidates for Cambridge International A Level should study the AS Level content and two of the specialist
options in the A Level subject content for Papers 3 and 4.
Biological
• Dement and Kleitman (sleep and dreams)
• Hassett et al. (monkey toy preferences)
• Hölzel et al. (mindfulness and brain scans)
Cognitive
• Andrade (doodling)
• Baron-Cohen et al. (eyes test)
• Pozzulo et al. (line-ups)
Learning
• Bandura et al. (aggression)
• Fagen et al. (elephant learning)
• Saavedra and Silverman (button phobia)
Social
• Milgram (obedience)
• Perry et al. (personal space)
• Piliavin et al. (subway Samaritans)
The requirements are the same for each of the four approaches at AS Level.
For each of the core studies, candidates should show understanding of:
• the psychology that is being investigated
• the background to the study
• the aim(s) of the study
• the procedure of the study, including all methodology as appropriate, such as the research methods used,
sample size and demographics [if known] and sampling technique [if known], experimental design, controls,
question types, research technique for data collection and measured and manipulated variables
• the ethical issues relating to the study
• the results of the study, including the main/significant quantitative findings, the main qualitative findings
and how they are or could be represented and interpreted
• the conclusion(s) the psychologist(s) drew or that could be drawn from the study
• the strengths and weaknesses of all elements of the study.
Biological approach
Cognitive approach
Andrade (doodling)
Andrade, J (2010), What does doodling do? Applied Cognitive Psychology, 24(1): 100–6
The study by Andrade explored the idea that doodling can assist a person’s concentration and memory. This
was investigated in a laboratory experiment.
The psychology being investigated includes: attention; memory.
Learning approach
Social approach
Milgram (obedience)
Milgram, S (1963), Behavioral Study of Obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4): 371–78
The study by Milgram investigated the conflict between obedience to authority and personal conscience
and how far a person would go in obeying an instruction if it meant harming another person. This includes
considering dispositional and situational hypotheses. A laboratory setting was used to measure obedience,
described as a ‘dependent variable’ but there was no independent variable in the main study. The study
used observations and an interview as techniques.
Please Note: Milgram conducted many variations on this study. This study did not provide the ‘teacher’ with
voice-feedback from the ‘victim’.
The psychology being investigated includes: obedience; social pressure.
See section 4 Details of Assessment for more information on what candidates should be able to do with the
subject content in this section for the planning studies questions in Paper 2 on page 50.
Research methods
Experiments
Candidates should be able to:
• describe the main features of each type of experiment:
– laboratory
– field
• evaluate each type of experiment, in terms of:
– reliability
– validity
– ethics
• describe and evaluate experimental designs as used in psychological research (independent measures,
matched pairs and repeated measures)
• describe and evaluate concepts relating to experimental designs including counterbalancing, random
allocation, order effects (fatigue and practice)
• evaluate the use of experiments in psychological research, including the use of experimental and control
groups / control conditions
• apply knowledge of experiments to a given novel research scenario.
Self-reports
Candidates should be able to:
• describe the main features of each type of self-report:
– questionnaire, including technique (paper and pencil / online) and question format (open and closed
questions)
– interview, including format (structured / unstructured / semi-structured), technique (telephone / face-to-
face) and question format (open and closed questions)
• evaluate the use of self-reports in psychological research
• apply knowledge of self-reports to a given novel research scenario.
Case studies
Candidates should be able to:
• describe the case study method, including the main features: a single participant/unit; studied in detail
• evaluate the use of case studies in psychological research
• apply knowledge of case studies to a given novel research scenario.
Observations
Candidates should be able to:
• describe the main features of an observation (e.g. overt / covert, participant / non-participant,
structured / unstructured, naturalistic / controlled)
• evaluate the use of observations in psychological research
• apply knowledge of observations to a given novel research scenario.
Correlations
Candidates should be able to:
• describe correlations, positive and negative correlations and strength of correlations
• identify and give operational definitions for co-variables (measured variables)
• evaluate the use of correlations in psychological research, including lack of causality
• apply knowledge of correlations to a given novel research scenario.
Longitudinal studies
Candidates should be able to:
• describe longitudinal studies, including experiments with longitudinal designs
• evaluate the use of longitudinal studies, including experiments with longitudinal designs
• apply knowledge of longitudinal studies, including experiments with longitudinal designs, to a given novel
research scenario.
Methodological concepts
Aims and hypotheses
Candidates should be able to:
• describe and write aims
• describe and recognise null hypotheses and alternative hypotheses including directional (one-tailed) and
non-directional (two-tailed) hypotheses.
Variables
Candidates should be able to:
• describe what is meant by an independent variable and a dependent variable
• describe how dependent variables can be measured
• identify independent variables and dependent variables in studies
• understand what is meant by an ‘operational definition’
• operationalise:
– an independent variable
– a dependent variable
• apply knowledge of variables to a novel research situation.
Controlling of variables
Candidates should be able to:
• describe how psychologists can control variables (use ‘controls’) in a study
• understand control of variables / standardisation of a procedure
• understand uncontrolled, participant and situational variables
• apply knowledge of control of variables (‘controls’) to a novel research situation.
Types of data
Candidates should be able to:
• describe what is meant by quantitative and qualitative data and subjective and objective data
• evaluate the use of types of data as collected in psychological research
• apply knowledge of types of data to a novel research situation.
Sampling of participants
Candidates should be able to:
• describe what is meant by the sample and population, and the sampling techniques of opportunity
sampling, random sampling and volunteer (self-selecting) sampling
• evaluate different sampling techniques as used in psychological research, including generalisations
• apply knowledge of sampling techniques to a novel research situation.
Ethics
Candidates should be able to:
• describe ethical guidelines as used in psychological research, in relation to human participants:
– minimising harm (and maximising benefit)
– valid consent including informed consent
– right to withdraw
– lack of deception
– confidentiality
– privacy
– debriefing
• describe ethical guidelines as used in psychological research, in relation to animals:
– minimising harm (and maximising benefit)
– replacement
– species
– numbers
– procedures
○ pain, suffering and distress
○ housing
○ reward, deprivation and aversive stimuli
• evaluate studies based on ethical guidelines
• apply knowledge of ethical guidelines to a novel research situation.
Validity
Candidates should be able to:
• describe validity, including ecological validity
• evaluate studies based on their validity:
– subjectivity / objectivity
– demand characteristics
– generalisability
• apply knowledge of validity to a novel research situation.
Data analysis
Candidates should be able to:
• present and interpret data in tables
• understand the meaning of ‘measure of central tendency’
• name, recognise and know how to find measures of central tendency:
– mode
– median (no calculation necessary)
– mean (no calculation necessary)
• understand the meaning of ‘measure of spread’
– name, recognise and know how to find range
– recognise, interpret and understand standard deviation
• name, recognise, draw, change and interpret data from a:
– bar chart
– histogram
– scatter graph.
See section 4 Details of Assessment for more information on what candidates should be able to do with the
AS and A Level Research Methodology subject content for the planning studies questions in Paper 4 on
page 52.
Experiments
Candidates should be able to:
• describe and evaluate the main features of randomised control trials.
Questionnaires
Candidates should be able to:
• describe and evaluate the use of postal questionnaires
• describe and evaluate the use of rating scales; forced/fixed choice.
Methodological concepts which are relevant to all of the A Level specialist options.
Psychometric tests
Candidates should be able to:
• describe and evaluate psychometric tests.
Hypotheses
Candidates should be able to:
• write and apply knowledge of null hypotheses and alternative directional (one-tailed) and non-directional
(two-tailed) hypotheses.
Validity
Candidates should be able to:
• describe and evaluate studies based on their validity, including temporal validity.
Use of studies
Psychology is an applied subject and teachers are encouraged to illustrate the theory and application of the
concepts, theories, evidence and research through the use of studies where appropriate.
There are key studies associated with each topic. We have listed the specific aspects of key studies that a
candidate will be expected to know and understand. These aspects are listed at the start of each specialist
option. It is not necessary for candidates to read the original study but you must provide them with a detailed
summary of the key study which must cover all the aspects listed.
To aid teaching and ensure candidates can see how psychological research relates to the subject content
we have provided some examples of studies which might be useful to you in your teaching. Where we say,
‘including a study, e.g.’, candidates will not be asked questions which require a specific knowledge of these
studies, however candidates should use an example in their responses. Where an example is provided, it does
not necessarily cover all the relevant content and you may provide a different example if you know of one which
sufficiently covers the subject content using appropriate research methodology.
A full reference to all the key studies and example studies can be found in the Reference List for 9990
AS & A Level Psychology, available on the website.
After each topic there is a list of issues and debates and research methodology which are most relevant to the
topic. This list is not exhaustive and teachers may use other relevant issues and methodology in their teaching.
At A Level we assume knowledge of the approaches studied at AS Level (biological, cognitive, learning and
social) but we introduce the following terms for this option.
• Biological
– explanations (genetic, biochemical)
– measures (such as blood pressure)
– treatments (such as electro-convulsive therapy)
• Psychological
– explanations (behavioural, cognitive and psychodynamic)
– therapies (such as systematic desensitisation)
Key Studies
Freeman, D, Slater, M, Bebbington, P E, Garety, P A, Kuipers, E, Fowler, D, Met, A, Read, C, Jordan, J and
Vinayagamoorthy, V (2003), Can virtual reality be used to investigate persecutory ideation? The Journal of
Nervous and Mental Disease, 191(8): 509–14
Grant, J E, Kim, S W, Hollander, E and Potenza, M N (2008), Predicting response to opiate antagonists and
placebo in the treatment of pathological gambling. Psychopharmacology, 200(4): 521–27
Chapman, L K and DeLapp, R C (2013), Nine Session Treatment of a Blood–Injection–Injury Phobia With
Manualized Cognitive Behavioral Therapy: An Adult Case Example. Clinical Case Studies, 20(10): 299–312
Lovell, K, Cox, D, Haddock, G, Jones, C, Raines, D, Garvey, R, Roberts, C and Hadley, S (2006), Telephone
administered cognitive behaviour therapy for treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder: randomised
controlled non-inferiority trial. BMJ: British Medical Journal, 333(7574): 883
For each of the key studies, candidates should show knowledge and understanding of:
• the context of the study and relationship to other studies
• the main theories/explanations included in the study
• the aim(s) and hypotheses of the study [if stated]
• the design of the study, including all methodology as appropriate, such as the research method(s) used,
sample size and demographics [if known] and sampling technique [if known], procedure, technique for data
collection
• the results, findings and conclusions of the study
• the main discussion points of the study.
Note: for the purposes of the subject content and assessment material we will use the terms used in ICD-11.
We are aware that this set of guidelines is not used universally and will accept alternative terms if used
appropriately.
1.1 Schizophrenia
1.1.1 Diagnostic criteria for schizophrenia
• diagnostic criteria (ICD-11) of schizophrenia, including symptoms (positive and negative). A case study of
schizophrenia.
• types of delusions focusing on investigating delusions using virtual reality (exemplified by the following
key study).
Key study using virtual reality to investigate persecutory ideation: Freeman et al. (2003).
elevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
R
use of children in research, idiographic versus nomothetic, case studies, generalisations from findings.
• biological explanations:
– genetic
– biochemical (the dopamine hypothesis).
• psychological (cognitive) explanation.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
nature versus nurture, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus
nomothetic.
• biological treatments:
– biochemical including typical and atypical antipsychotics
– electro-convulsive therapy.
• psychological therapy: cognitive-behavioural therapy, including a study, e.g. Sensky et al. (2000).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: idiographic versus nomothetic,
experiments, longitudinal studies, generalisations from findings, ethics.
• diagnostic criteria (ICD-11) of mood disorders: depressive disorder (unipolar) and bipolar disorders
including manic and depressive episodes.
• measure of depression: Beck depression inventory.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
cultural differences, quantitative and qualitative data, psychometrics, validity.
• biological explanations:
– biochemical
– genetic (exemplified by the following key study).
Key study on association analysis of genetics of depressive disorder: Oruč et al. (1997).
• psychological explanations:
– Beck’s cognitive theory of depression
– learned helplessness/attributional style, including a study, e.g. Seligman et al. (1988).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: nature versus nurture, reductionism
versus holism, determinism versus free-will, experiments, reliability.
• biological treatments including the use of anti-depressants (tricyclics, MAOIs and SSRIs).
• psychological therapies:
– Beck’s cognitive restructuring
– Ellis’s rational emotive behaviour therapy (REBT).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, generalisations from
findings.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: idiographic versus nomothetic,
questionnaires, case studies, quantitative and qualitative data, objective and subjective data.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, nature versus nurture, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life,
reductionism versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic, interviews, generalisations from findings.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: questionnaires, psychometrics,
subjective and objective data, validity, reliability.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: nature versus nurture, determinism
versus free-will, case studies, longitudinal studies, validity.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: idiographic versus nomothetic, case
studies, self-reports, longitudinal studies, generalisations from findings.
• diagnostic criteria for obsessive-compulsive disorder (ICD-11) focusing on types of obsessions and
compulsions, including a study, e.g. Rapoport (1989) ‘Charles’.
• measures:
– Maudsley Obsessive-Compulsive Inventory (MOCI)
– Yale-Brown Obsessive-Compulsive Scale (Y-BOCS).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: interviews, case studies, quantitative
and qualitative data, psychometrics, validity.
• biological explanations:
– biochemical
– genetic.
• psychological explanations:
– cognitive (thinking error)
– behavioural (operant conditioning)
– psychodynamic.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
nature versus nurture, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus
nomothetic.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
cultural differences, use of children in research, case studies, reliability.
After each topic there is a list of issues and debates and research methodology which are most relevant to the
topic. This list is not exhaustive and teachers may use other relevant issues and methodology in their teaching.
Key Studies
North, A C, Shilcock, A and Hargreaves, D J (2003), The Effect of Musical Style on Restaurant Customers’
Spending. Environment and Behavior, 35(5): 712–18
Robson, S K, Kimes, S E, Becker, F D and Evans, G W (2011), Consumers’ Responses to Table Spacing in
Restaurants. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 52(3): 253–64
Hall, L, Johansson, P, Tärning, B, Sikström, S and Deutgen, T (2010), Magic at the marketplace: Choice
blindness for the taste of jam and the smell of tea. Cognition, 117(1): 54–61
Becker, L, van Rompay, T J, Schifferstein, H N and Galetzka, M (2011), Tough package, strong taste: The
influence of packaging design on taste impressions and product evaluations. Food Quality and Preference,
22(1): 17–23
Snyder, M and DeBono, K G (1985), Appeals to image and claims about quality: Understanding the psychology
of advertising. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 49(3): 586–97
For each of the key studies, candidates should show knowledge and understanding of:
• the context of the study and relationship to other studies
• the main theories/explanations included in the study
• the aim(s) and hypotheses of the study [if stated]
• the design of the study, including all methodology as appropriate, such as the research method(s) used,
sample size and demographics [if known] and sampling technique [if known], procedure, technique for data
collection
• the results, findings and conclusions of the study
• the main discussion points of the study.
• types of store exterior design including storefront, window displays and landscaping, including a study,
e.g. Mower et al. (2012).
• types of store interior design including grid, freeform and racetrack layouts; use of virtual store layouts,
including a study, e.g. Vrechopoulos et al. (2004).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: cultural differences, questionnaires,
quantitative and qualitative data, objective and subjective data, ecological validity.
• music in restaurants focusing on how background music influences the amount spent on food and drink
(exemplified by the following Key Study).
Key study on musical style and restaurant customers’ spending: North et al. (2003).
• background noise focusing on how sound and noise affect the perception of food taste including
reasons why sound influences taste, including a study, e.g. Woods et al. (2011) study 1 or study 2.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, generalisations from findings, validity.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, questionnaires, quantitative and qualitative data, objective and subjective data.
• wayfinding in shopping malls; factors affecting wayfinding such as signs and you are here maps,
including a study, e.g. Dogu and Erkip (2000).
• shopper behaviour focusing on spatial movement patterns including types of trip (short, round, central
and wave) and the five types of spatial behaviour patterns (specialist, native, tourist, explorer, raider); the
use of CCTV tracking, including a study, e.g. Gil et al. (2009).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: reductionism versus holism, idiographic
versus nomothetic, questionnaires, generalisations from findings, reliability.
• menu design focusing on the features of menu design which have positive and negative impacts and
ways to study this, including the use of eye-tracking, e.g. Pavesic (2005).
• the effect of primacy and recency and menu item position on menu item choice, including a study,
e.g. Dayan and Bar-Hillel (2011).
• the effect of food name on menu item choice, including a study, e.g. Lockyer (2006).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, field
experiments, objective and subjective data, generalisations from findings, validity.
• personal space at restaurant tables including Hall’s four zones; functions such as overload, arousal and
behaviour constraint (exemplified by the following key study).
Key study on consumers responses to table spacing: Robson et al. (2011).
• defending place in a queue including nature of intrusion, number of intrusions, social structure of a
queue, responses of people queuing, including a study, e.g. Milgram et al. (1986).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
cultural differences, observations, quantitative and qualitative data, ethics.
• models of consumer decision-making focusing on explanations and examples of utility theory, satisficing,
prospect theory.
• strategies of consumer decision-making focusing on explanations and examples of compensatory,
non-compensatory and partially compensatory strategies including explanations and examples of each.
• decision-making strategies applied to internet shopping focusing on website design, including a study,
e.g. Jedetski et al (2002).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus nomothetic.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, experiments, quantitative and qualitative data, objective and subjective data.
• thinking fast and thinking slow/system 1 and system 2 including explanations and examples of each,
e.g. Shleifer (2012).
• choice blindness, preferences and defending a choice (exemplified by the following key study).
Key study for choice blindness when tasting food items: Hall et al. (2010).
• consumer memory for advertising including how retroactive and proactive interference affect memory,
including a study, e.g. Burke and Srull (1988).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
determinism versus free-will, experiments, interviews, reliability.
• gift-wrapping including beliefs of giver and recipient: why gifts are wrapped, types of wrapping.
• food package design (exemplified by the following key study).
Key study on food package design and taste perceptions: Becker et al. (2011).
• attention and shelf position including planograms, central gaze cascade effect, use of eye-tracking,
including a study, e.g. Atalay et al. (2012).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: reductionism versus holism,
determinism versus free-will, generalisations from findings, objective and subjective data, validity.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus nomothetic, field experiments.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: cultural differences, reductionism
versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic, objective and subjective data, validity.
2.5 Advertising
2.5.1 Types of advertising and advertising techniques
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, objective and subjective data, generalisations from findings, validity.
• advertising and consumer personality including self-monitoring (exemplified by the following Key Study).
Key study on consumer personality and advertising: Snyder and DeBono (1985), focus on study 3, specifics
of methodology for study 1 and study 2 will not be needed.
• how product placement in films affects choice including examples and explanations for choice, such as
mere exposure and reminders, including a study, e.g. Auty and Lewis (2004).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: use of children in research, determinism
versus free-will, self-reports, quantitative and qualitative data, validity.
• brand recognition in children including how children acquire an understanding of advertising via logo
recognition, including a study, e.g. Fischer et al. (1991).
• brand awareness, brand image and effective slogans including types and function of slogans; guidelines
for creating effective slogans, e.g. Kohli et al. (2007).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, use of
children in research, determinism versus free-will, experiments, interviews.
After each topic there is a list of issues and debates and research methodology which are most relevant to the
topic. This list is not exhaustive and teachers may use other relevant issues and methodology in their teaching.
Key Studies
Savage, R and Armstrong, D (1990), Effect of a general practitioner’s consulting style on patients’ satisfaction: a
controlled study. BMJ: British Medical Journal, 301(6758): 968–70
Yokley, J M and Glenwick, D S (1984), Increasing the immunization of preschool children; an evaluation of
applied community interventions. Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, 17(3): 313–25
Brudvik, C, Moutte, S D, Baste, V and Morken, T (2016), A comparison of pain assessment by physicians,
parents and children in an outpatient setting. Emergency Medicine Journal, 34(3): 138–44
Bridge, L R, Benson, P, Pietroni, P C and Priest, R G (1988), Relaxation and imagery in the treatment of breast
cancer. BMJ: British Medical Journal, 297: 1169–72
Shoshani, A and Steinmetz, S (2014), Positive Psychology at School: A School-Based Intervention to Promote
Adolescents’ Mental Health and Well-Being. Journal of Happiness Studies, 15(6): 1289–1311
For each of the key studies, candidates should show knowledge and understanding of:
• the context of the study and relationship to other studies
• the main theories/explanations included in the study
• the aim(s) and hypotheses of the study [if stated]
• the design of the study, including all methodology as appropriate, such as the research method(s) used,
sample size and demographics [if known] and sampling technique [if known], procedure, technique for data
collection
• the results, findings and conclusions of the study
• the main discussion points of the study.
• non-verbal communications with a focus on practitioner clothing, including a study, e.g. McKinstry and
Wang (1991).
• verbal communications with a focus on understanding medical terminology, including a study,
e.g. McKinlay (1975).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: idiographic versus nomothetic,
experiments, questionnaires, quantitative data, generalisations from findings.
• practitioner diagnosis focusing on making a diagnosis (disclosure of information, false positive and false
negative diagnosis) and presenting a diagnosis.
• practitioner style: doctor-centred (directed) and patient-centred (sharing) consultation (exemplified by the
following key study).
Key study for the effect of practitioner style on patient satisfaction: Savage and Armstrong (1990).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, cultural differences, determinism versus free-will, validity.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: reductionism versus holism, idiographic
versus nomothetic, interviews, case study, generalisations from findings.
• types of non-adherence (failure to follow treatments and failure to attend appointments) and problems
caused by non-adherence.
• explanations of why patients do not adhere:
– rational non-adherence, including a study, e.g. Laba et al. (2012)
– Health Belief Model.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, reductionism versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic, generalisations
from findings.
• subjective measures including clinical interviews and semi-structured interviews, including a study,
e.g. Riekert and Drotar (1999).
• objective measures focusing on pill counting and medication dispensers, including a study, e.g. Chung
and Naya (2000).
• biological measures including blood and urine samples.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, idiographic
versus nomothetic, quantitative and qualitative data, validity, reliability.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: use of children in research,
experiments, questionnaires, generalisations from findings, validity.
3.3 Pain
3.3.1 Types and theories of pain
• functions of pain; types of pain: acute and chronic pain. Focus on phantom limb pain and mirror
treatment to include a case study, e.g. MacLachlan et al. (2004).
• theories of pain: specificity theory, gate control theory.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
nature versus nurture, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, case study.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: idiographic versus nomothetic,
quantitative and qualitative data, interviews, observations, psychometrics, generalisations from findings.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus nomothetic,
objective and subjective data.
3.4 Stress
3.4.1 Sources of stress
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus nomothetic, generalisations
from findings.
• biological measures:
– recording devices for heart rate and brain function (fMRI), including a study, e.g. Wang et al. (2005)
– sample tests for salivary cortisol, including a study, e.g. Evans and Wener (2007).
• psychological measures: self-report questionnaires, including tests of Friedman and Rosenman’s Type A
personality and Holmes and Rahe’s life events questionnaire.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: questionnaires, psychometrics,
subjective and objective data, validity, reliability.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, determinism versus free-will, generalisations from findings, ethics.
• fear arousal: use of fear to improve health, including a study, e.g. Janis and Feshbach (1953).
• providing information: giving information so people know how to improve their health, including a study,
e.g. Lewin et al. (1992).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
cultural differences, longitudinal studies, objective and subjective data, ethics.
• schools with a focus on healthy eating, including a study, e.g. Tapper et al. (2003).
• worksites with a focus on health and safety, including a study, e.g. Fox et al. (1987).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: use of children in research,
experiments, longitudinal studies, quantitative and qualitative data, generalisations from findings.
• unrealistic optimism: reason for disregarding positive health advice, including a study, e.g. Weinstein
(1980).
• positive psychology: defining positive psychology. Three focuses: pleasant life, good life, meaningful life,
including a study, e.g. Seligman (2004).
• application of positive psychology (exemplified by the following key study).
Key study on using positive psychology in schools to improve mental health: Shoshani and Steinmetz
(2014).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
cultural differences, idiographic versus nomothetic, psychometrics, generalisations from findings.
After each topic there is a list of issues and debates and research methodology which are most relevant to the
topic. This list is not exhaustive and teachers may use other relevant issues and methodology in their teaching.
Key Studies
Landry, A T, Zhang, Y, Papachristopoulos, K and Forest, J (2019), Applying Self-Determination Theory to
understand the motivational impact of cash rewards: New evidence from lab experiments. International Journal
of Psychology, 55(2): 487–98
Cuadrado, I, Morales, J F and Recio, P (2008), Women’s access to managerial positions: an experimental study
of leadership styles and gender. The Spanish Journal of Psychology, 11(1): 55–65
Claypoole, V L and Szalma, J L (2019), Electronic Performance Monitoring and sustained attention: Social
facilitation for modern applications. Computers in Human Behavior, 94: 25–34
Swat, K (1997), Monitoring of Accidents and Risk Events in Industrial Plants. Journal of Occupational Health,
39(2): 100–04
Giacalone, R A and Rosenfeld, P (1987), Reasons for Employee Sabotage in the Workplace. Journal of
Business and Psychology, 1(4): 367–78
For each of the key studies, candidates should show knowledge and understanding of:
• the context of the study and relationship to other studies
• the main theories/explanations included in the study
• the aim(s) and hypotheses of the study [if stated]
• the design of the study, including all methodology as appropriate, such as the research method(s) used,
sample size and demographics [if known] and sampling technique [if known], procedure, technique for data
collection
• the results, findings and conclusions of the study
• the main discussion points of the study.
• Maslow’s hierarchy of needs including five needs, including a study, e.g. Saeednia (2011).
• McClelland’s theory of achievement motivation including need for achievement, affiliation and power.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, cultural differences, determinism versus free-will, validity.
• Latham and Locke’s goal-setting theory including goal-setting principles and SMART goals.
• Vroom’s VIE (expectancy) theory.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
cultural differences, reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus nomothetic.
• extrinsic motivators at work: types of reward systems including pay, bonuses, profit-sharing,
performance-related pay.
• intrinsic motivators at work: non-monetary rewards including praise, respect, recognition, empowerment
and a sense of belonging.
• Deci and Ryan’s self-determination theory including competence, autonomy and relatedness (exemplified
by the following key study).
Key study for applying self-determination theory to motivational rewards: Landry et al. (2019), focus on
study 1, specifics of methodology from study 2 will not be needed.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
reductionism versus holism, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus nomothetic, generalisations
from findings.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, nature versus nurture, reductionism versus holism, generalisations from
findings.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, reductionism versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic, generalisations
from findings.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, idiographic versus nomothetic, self-reports, psychometrics.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, reductionism versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic, generalisations
from findings.
• individual and group performance focusing on social facilitation and social loafing including definitions,
drive theory and evaluation apprehension, social impact theory.
• group performance across cultures focusing on social loafing in individualistic and collectivist cultures,
including a study, e.g. Earley (1993).
• performance monitoring of employee productivity (exemplified by the following key study).
Key study looking at concentration levels when being monitored: Claypoole and Szalma (2019), focus on
experiment 1, specifics of methodology for experiment 2 will not be needed.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, determinism versus free-will, idiographic versus nomothetic, quantitative and qualitative data.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, cultural differences, reductionism versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic.
• impact of physical work conditions on productivity and the Hawthorne effect, e.g. Kompier (2006).
• impact of the design of the work environment focusing on open plan offices, including a study,
e.g. Oldham and Brass (1979).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: determinism versus free-will,
experiments, questionnaires, longitudinal studies, quantitative and qualitative data.
• design of work: shiftwork: rapid rotation and slow rotation, on-call and flexitime including definitions and
examples of each.
• effects of shiftwork on health and accidents, including a study, e.g. Gold et al. (1992).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, determinism
versus free-will, questionnaires, quantitative and qualitative data, validity.
• accidents at work focusing on human errors (errors of omission, commission, sequencing and timing)
and system errors in operator–machine systems (machine controls and displays).
• reducing accidents at work: token economy, including a study, e.g. Fox et al. (1987).
• monitoring accidents (exemplified by the following key study).
Key study on the monitoring of accidents and risk events: Swat (1997).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
idiographic versus nomothetic, longitudinal studies, objective and subjective data, generalisations from
findings.
• theories of job satisfaction: Herzberg’s two factor theory including hygiene and motivational factors.
• Hackman and Oldham’s job characteristics theory including job characteristics and psychological states.
• techniques of job design: enrichment, rotation and enlargement, e.g. Belias and Sklikas, (2013).
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, cultural
differences, reductionism versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic, generalisations from findings.
• job satisfaction rating scales and questionnaires focusing on the job descriptive index (JDI).
• Walton’s quality of working life (QWL) including eight conditions and QWL evaluation scale.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: individual and situational explanations,
quantitative and qualitative data, psychometrics, validity, reliability.
• workplace sabotage including methods and reasons for sabotage (exemplified by the following key
study).
Key study reasons for sabotage in the workplace: Giacalone and Rosenfeld (1987).
• Blau and Boal’s absenteeism and organisational commitment model including types of absence,
categories of commitment.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: application to everyday life, individual
and situational explanations, reductionism versus holism, idiographic versus nomothetic, generalisations
from findings.
For AS Level, candidates take Papers 1 and 2. Both papers must be taken at the same exam series.
For A Level, candidates take Papers 1, 2, 3 and 4. Papers 1 and 2 must be taken at the same exam series, but
Papers 3 and 4 may be taken at a later exam series. Both Papers 3 and 4 must be taken in the same exam
series.
The paper tests candidates’ knowledge of the core studies. Candidates will also be asked questions based on
the four approaches (biological, cognitive, learning and social) and the AS Level issues and debates.
The paper will focus on knowledge and application of research methods and methodological concepts and
how these relate to the core studies.
For the planning question, candidates will apply their knowledge of the research methods and practical issues
and methodological concepts to plan an investigation. Some aspects of the investigation will be provided for
candidates as part of the question and candidates will be required to plan the other aspects of the investigation.
This paper contains four specialist options. Candidates answer questions from the two options they have
studied.
Candidates answer all the questions from these two specialist options.
There are four questions for each specialist option. Each specialist option will consist of:
• Short answer questions. There will be three questions consisting of structured short answer questions
worth a total of 14 marks.
• Structured essay question, divided into two parts. There are 6 marks for the part (a) ‘describe’ question and
10 marks for the part (b) ‘evaluate’ question. The question will be based on a different topic area from those
tested in the short answer questions.
Questions will require candidates to consider the subject content of the specialist options and approaches,
issues and debates. The questions will be based on three topics or sub-topics within the studied specialist
options. The topic areas for each specialist option will be different to the topic areas assessed in Paper 4.
Section A – candidates answer questions on the two specialist options they have studied.
There will be two structured questions on each of the specialist options, and candidates will answer all parts of
the questions from the two specialist options they have studied.
Questions will require candidates to consider the subject content and Key Studies of the specialist options,
research methods and methodological concepts. The questions are based on two topics or sub-topics within
the studied specialist options. The topic areas for each specialist option will be different to the topic areas
assessed in Paper 3.
Section B – candidates answer one planning question from a choice of four (one for each specialist option). In
the planning question candidates must plan a study (10 marks) and answer structured questions to evaluate the
plan (14 marks).
For the planning question, candidates will apply their knowledge of research methods and practical issues
and methodological concepts to plan an investigation. Candidates will be required to specify both the general
features which will apply to all research methods and the specific features which apply to the research
method used.
plan studies to include a range of different aspects according to the research method being used
plan studies using specific features in sufficient detail for replication, to include but not be limited to:
Command words
Command words and their meanings help candidates know what is expected from them in the exam. The table
below includes command words used in the assessment for this syllabus. The use of the command word will
relate to the subject context.
Analyse examine in detail to show meaning, identify elements and the relationship between
them
Describe state the points of a topic / give characteristics and main features
Explain set out purposes or reasons / make the relationships between things clear / say why
and/or how and support with relevant evidence
Identify name/select/recognise
Suggest apply knowledge and understanding to situations where there are a range of valid
responses in order to make proposals / put forward considerations
Phrases such as ‘Plan an experiment / investigation / study to ...’ may also be seen in the assessment for this
syllabus.
This section is an overview of other information you need to know about this syllabus. It will help to share the
administrative information with your exams officer so they know when you will need their support. Find more
information about our administrative processes at www.cambridgeinternational.org/eoguide
You can view the timetable for your administrative zone at www.cambridgeinternational.org/timetables
You can enter candidates in the June and November exam series. If your school is in India, you can also enter
your candidates in the March exam series.
Check you are using the syllabus for the year the candidate is taking the exam.
Private candidates can enter for this syllabus. For more information, please refer to the Cambridge Guide to
Making Entries.
Making entries
Exams officers are responsible for submitting entries to Cambridge International. We encourage them to work
closely with you to make sure they enter the right number of candidates for the right combination of syllabus
components. Entry option codes and instructions for submitting entries are in the Cambridge Guide to Making
Entries. Your exams officer has a copy of this guide.
Exam administration
To keep our exams secure, we produce question papers for different areas of the world, known as
administrative zones. We allocate all Cambridge schools to one administrative zone determined by their
location. Each zone has a specific timetable. Some of our syllabuses offer candidates different assessment
options. An entry option code is used to identify the components the candidate will take relevant to the
administrative zone and the available assessment options.
Candidates can carry forward the result of their Cambridge International AS Level assessment from one series
to complete the Cambridge International A Level in a following series, subject to the rules and time limits
described in the Cambridge Handbook.
Regulations for carrying forward entries for staged assessment (Cambridge International AS & A Level) can be
found in the Cambridge Handbook for the relevant year of assessment at
www.cambridgeinternational.org/eoguide
Language
This syllabus and the related assessment materials are available in English only.
Access arrangements
Access arrangements (including modified papers) are the principal way in which Cambridge International
complies with our duty, as guided by the UK Equality Act (2010), to make ‘reasonable adjustments’ for
candidates with special educational needs (SEN), disability, illness or injury. Where a candidate would otherwise
be at a substantial disadvantage in comparison to a candidate with no SEN, disability, illness or injury, we
may be able to agree pre-examination access arrangements. These arrangements help a candidate by
minimising accessibility barriers and maximising their opportunity to demonstrate their knowledge, skills and
understanding in an assessment.
Important:
• Requested access arrangements should be based on evidence of the candidate’s barrier to assessment
and should also reflect their normal way of working at school; this is in line with The Cambridge Handbook
www.cambridgeinternational.org/eoguide
• For Cambridge International to approve an access arrangement, we will need to agree that it constitutes
a reasonable adjustment, involves reasonable cost and timeframe and does not affect the security and
integrity of the assessment.
• Availability of access arrangements should be checked by centres at the start of the course. Details of our
standard access arrangements and modified question papers are available in The Cambridge Handbook
www.cambridgeinternational.org/eoguide
• Please contact us at the start of the course to find out if we are able to approve an arrangement that is not
included in the list of standard access arrangements.
• Candidates who cannot access parts of the assessment may be able to receive an award based on the
parts they have completed.
Grades a, b, c, d or e indicate the standard a candidate achieved at Cambridge International AS Level. ‘a’ is the
highest and ‘e’ is the lowest grade.
‘Ungraded’ means that the candidate’s performance did not meet the standard required for the lowest grade
(E or e). ‘Ungraded’ is reported on the statement of results but not on the certificate. In specific circumstances
your candidates may see one of the following letters on their statement of results:
• Q (PENDING)
• X (NO RESULT).
These letters do not appear on the certificate.
If a candidate takes a Cambridge International A Level and fails to achieve grade E or higher, a Cambridge
International AS Level grade will be awarded if both of the following apply:
• the components taken for the Cambridge International A Level by the candidate in that series included all
the components making up a Cambridge International AS Level
• the candidate’s performance on the AS Level components was sufficient to merit the award of a Cambridge
International AS Level grade.
On the statement of results and certificates, Cambridge International AS & A Levels are shown as General
Certificates of Education, GCE Advanced Subsidiary Level (GCE AS Level) and GCE Advanced Level (GCE
A Level).
School feedback: ‘Cambridge International A Levels are the ‘gold standard’ qualification. They
are based on rigorous, academic syllabuses that are accessible to students from a wide range
of abilities yet have the capacity to stretch our most able.’
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How students, teachers and higher education can use the grades
Cambridge International A Level
Assessment at Cambridge International A Level has two purposes:
• to measure learning and achievement
The assessment:
– confirms achievement and performance in relation to the knowledge, understanding and skills specified
in the syllabus, to the levels described in the grade descriptions.
Grade descriptions
Grade descriptions are provided to give an indication of the standards of achievement candidates awarded
particular grades are likely to show. Weakness in one aspect of the examination may be balanced by a better
performance in some other aspect.
Grade descriptions for Cambridge International A Level Psychology will be published after the first assessment
of the A Level in 2024. Find more information at www.cambridgeinternational.org/alevel
You must read the whole syllabus before planning your teaching programme.
Changes to syllabus The syllabus content has been reviewed and revised.
content The assessment objectives have been updated and the weighting in each
paper has been adjusted slightly.
In AS Level, we have replaced five of the core studies with new studies which
support the issues and debates and research methodology content more
effectively.
The new studies are:
• Biological – Hassett et al. (monkey toy preferences) and Hölzel et al.
(mindfulness and brain scans)
• Cognitive – Pozzulo et al. (line-ups)
• Learning – Fagen et al. (elephant learning)
• Social – Perry et al. (personal space).
In the research methodology section we have reviewed the content for clarity.
The main changes are:
• removal of natural experiments
• addition of longitudinal studies
• revision of the ethics in animal studies to reflect the new core studies
• reorganisation of data analysis.
In A Level, we have changed the titles of the specialist options and reviewed
all the content.
We have reviewed the issues and debates. The changes are:
• longitudinal studies and psychometrics have moved into research
methodology
• use of animals has been removed from A Level, as this is not relevant to
A Level studies
• idiographic versus nomothetic has been added.
Other changes The Reference List for 9990 AS & A Level Psychology will include full
references to all the core studies at AS Level, the key studies and the example
studies at A Level.
In addition to reading the syllabus, you should refer to the updated specimen papers. The specimen papers will
help your students become familiar with exam requirements and command words in questions. The specimen
mark schemes explain how students should answer questions to meet the assessment objectives.
Any textbooks endorsed to support the syllabus for examination from 2024 are suitable for use
with this syllabus.
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Contents
Introduction ..................................................................................................................... 4
A Level studies................................................................................................................. 7
Clinical Psychology 8
Consumer Psychology 9
Health Psychology 11
Organisational Psychology 13
Presenting studies..........................................................................................................15
AS Level core studies 15
A Level studies 15
Example summaries of key studies 16
Example summaries of example studies 22
Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990 – Reference List for first assessment 2024.
Introduction
An essential part of teaching psychology is the delivery of core studies (AS Level) and key study summaries
and example studies (A Level). Students should be able to use studies to support their understanding and
demonstrate their knowledge. Learning, applying and evaluating study information is fundamental to the
development of students’ skills and teaches them to use a wide variety of resource materials.
This reference list will provide full references for the core studies and key studies listed in the syllabus. It will also
provide full references for the example studies which are only listed by author and year in the syllabus.
It will also provide some guidance on the use of studies in teaching and what candidates need to know about
each type of study.
More information on using research studies in your teaching can be found in the support document AS &
A Level Psychology Teaching Research Studies. In addition, the AS & A Level Psychology Scheme of Work
identifies a number of sources of information for each unit of the syllabus.
At AS Level, students should be familiar with and should have read all of the 12 core studies. Students need to
have a detailed understanding of the 12 core studies outlined in the syllabus.
For each of the core studies, candidates should show understanding of:
• the psychology that is being investigated
• the background to the study
• the aim(s) of the study
• the procedure of the study, including all methodology as appropriate, such as the research methods used,
sample size and demographics (if known) and sampling technique (if known), experimental design, controls,
question types, research technique for data collection and measured and manipulated variables
• the ethical issues relating to the study
• the results of the study, including the main/significant quantitative findings, the main qualitative findings
and how they are or could be represented and interpreted
• the conclusion(s) the psychologist(s) drew or that could be drawn from the study
• the strengths and weaknesses of all elements of the study.
Biological approach
Dement, W and Kleitman, N (1957), The relation of eye movements during sleep to dream activity: An
objective method for the study of dreaming. Journal of Experimental Psychology, 53(5): 339–46
Hassett, J M, Siebert, E R and Wallen, K (2008), Sex differences in rhesus monkey toy preferences parallel
those of children. Hormones and Behaviour, 54(3): 359–64
Cognitive approach
Andrade, J (2010), What does doodling do? Applied Cognitive Psychology, 24(1): 100–6
Baron-Cohen, S, Wheelwright, S, Hill, J, Raste, Y and Plumb, I (2001), The ‘Reading the Mind in the Eyes’
Test revised version: a study with normal adults, and adults with Asperger syndrome or high-functioning
autism. Journal of Child Psychology and Psychiatry, 42(2): 241–51
Pozzulo, J D, Dempsey, J, Bruer, K and Sheahan, C (2011), The Culprit in Target-Absent Lineups:
Understanding Young Children’s False Positive Responding. Journal of Police and Criminal Psychology,
27(1): 55–62
Learning approach
Bandura, A, Ross, D and Ross, S A (1961), Transmission of aggression through imitation of aggressive
models. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 63(3): 575–82
Fagen, A, Acharya, N and Kaufman, G E (2014), Positive Reinforcement Training for a Trunk Wash in Nepal’s
Working Elephants: Demonstrating Alternatives to Traditional Elephant Training Techniques. Journal of
Applied Animal Welfare Science, 17(2): 83–97
Saavedra, L M and Silverman, W K (2002), Case study: disgust and a specific phobia of buttons. Journal of
the American Academy of Child and Adolescent Psychiatry, 41(11): 1376–79
Social approach
Milgram, S (1963), Behavioral Study of Obedience. Journal of Abnormal and Social Psychology, 67(4): 371–78
Perry, A, Mankuta, D and Shamay-Tsoory, S G (2015), OT promotes closer interpersonal distance among
highly empathic individuals. Social, Cognitive and Affective Neuroscience, 10(1): 3–9
Piliavin, I M, Rodin, J and Piliavin, J A (1969), Good Samaritanism: An Underground Phenomenon? Journal of
Personality and Social Psychology, 13(4): 289–99
A Level studies
In each specialist option there is a full reference for both key studies and example studies.
Key studies
It is not necessary for students to read the original study but you must provide them with a detailed summary
of the key study which must cover all the aspects listed.
For each of the key studies, candidates should show knowledge and understanding of:
• the context of the study and relationship to other studies
• the main theories/explanations included in the study
• the aim(s) and hypotheses of the study [if stated]
• the design of the study, including all methodology as appropriate, such as the research method(s) used,
sample size and demographics [if known] and sampling technique [if known], procedure, technique for data
collection
• the results, findings and conclusions of the study
• the main discussion points of the study.
Example studies
Example studies are provided to help teachers find suitable examples of the way psychologists have
investigated psychological theories and concepts, and the research methodology used in these types of
investigation. Example studies will not be directly assessed.
They are provided for topics when it is useful for students to be familiar with a study in order to understand the
content. Candidates will not be asked questions which require a specific knowledge of these example studies,
however candidates should use an example in their responses.
Candidates are not expected to read the original study, a summary is sufficient. The focus should not be
on the details of the study but rather what it might tell us about this topic of psychology. Where a research
technique such as eye-tracking is specifically mentioned in the subject content, or where a research method or
a methodological issue such as validity is mentioned in the relevant issues at the end of each topic, this should
be a feature of the summary you provide for students.
If there is a good summary available on the internet or in a textbook this might be acceptable as long as it
covers the required psychological topic and any required research methodology.
Where an example is provided, it does not necessarily cover every part of the content of the topic.
You can use a different example if you know of one which sufficiently covers the subject content using
appropriate research methodology.
Clinical Psychology
References for key studies
Freeman, D, Slater, M, Bebbington, P E, Garety, P A, Kuipers, E, Fowler, D, Met, A, Read, C, Jordan, J and
Vinayagamoorthy, V (2003), Can virtual reality be used to investigate persecutory ideation? The Journal of
Nervous and Mental Disease, 191(8): 509–14
Grant, J E, Kim, S W, Hollander, E and Potenza, M N (2008), Predicting response to opiate antagonists and
placebo in the treatment of pathological gambling. Psychopharmacology, 200(4): 521–27
Chapman, L K and DeLapp, R C (2013), Nine Session Treatment of a Blood–Injection–Injury Phobia With
Manualized Cognitive Behavioral Therapy: An Adult Case Example. Clinical Case Studies, 20(10): 299–312
Lovell, K, Cox, D, Haddock, G, Jones, C, Raines, D, Garvey, R, Roberts, C and Hadley, S (2006), Telephone
administered cognitive behaviour therapy for treatment of obsessive compulsive disorder: randomised
controlled non-inferiority trial. BMJ: British Medical Journal, 333(7574): 883
1.2 Mood (affective) disorders: depressive disorder (unipolar) and bipolar disorder
Seligman, M E, Castellon, C, Cacciola, J, Schulman, P, Luborsky, L, Ollove, M and Downing, R (1988),
Explanatory style change during cognitive therapy for unipolar depression. Journal of Abnormal Psychology,
97(1): 13–18
Blaszczynski, A and Nower, L (2003), Imaginal Desensitisation: A Relaxation-Based Technique for Impulse
Control Disorders. Journal of Clinical Activities, Assignments & Handouts in Psychotherapy Practice, 2(4): 1–14
Öst, L G (1992), Blood and injection phobia: background and cognitive, physiological, and behavioural
variables. Journal of Abnormal Psychology, 101(1): 68–74
Watson, J B and Rayner R (1920), Conditioned emotional reactions. Journal of Experimental Psychology, 3(1)
Freud, S (1909), Analysis of a phobia of a five year old boy. The Pelican Freud Library (1977), Vol 8, Case
Histories 1: 169–306
Lehmkuhl, H D, Storch, E A, Bodfish, J W and Geffken, G R (2008), Brief Report: Exposure and Response
Prevention for Obsessive Compulsive Disorder in a 12-year-old with Autism. Journal of Autism and
Developmental Disorders, 38(5): 977–81
Consumer Psychology
References for key studies
North, A C, Shilcock, A and Hargreaves, D J (2003), The Effect of Musical Style on Restaurant Customers’
Spending. Environment and Behavior, 35(5): 712–18
Robson, S K, Kimes, S E, Becker, F D and Evans, G W (2011), Consumers’ Responses to Table Spacing in
Restaurants. Cornell Hospitality Quarterly, 52(3): 253–64
Hall, L, Johansson, P, Tärning, B, Sikström, S and Deutgen, T (2010), Magic at the marketplace: Choice
blindness for the taste of jam and the smell of tea. Cognition, 117(1): 54–61
Becker, L, van Rompay, T J, Schifferstein, H N and Galetzka, M (2011), Tough package, strong taste: The
influence of packaging design on taste impressions and product evaluations. Food Quality and Preference,
22(1): 17–23
Snyder, M and DeBono, K G (1985), Appeals to image and claims about quality: Understanding the psychology
of advertising. Journal of Personality and Social Psychology, 49(3): 586–97
Vrechopoulos, A P, O’Keefe, R M, Doukidis, G I and Siomkos, G J (2004), Virtual store layout: an experimental
comparison in the context of grocery retail. Journal of Retailing, 80(1): 13–22
Chebat, J C and Michon, R (2003), Impact of ambient odors on mall shoppers’ emotions, cognition, and
spending: A test of competitive causal theories. Journal of Business Research, 56(7): 529–39
Machleit, K A, Eroglu, S A and Mantel, S P (2000), Perceived Retail Crowding and Shopping Satisfaction: What
Modifies This Relationship? Journal of Consumer Psychology, 9(1): 29–42
Gil, J, Tobari, E, Lemlij, M, Rose, A and Penn, A R (2009), The Differentiating Behaviour of Shoppers Clustering
of Individual Movement Traces in a Supermarket. In Koch, D, Marcus, L and Steen, J (eds) Proceedings of the
7th International Space Syntax Symposium. Royal Institute of Technology (KTH): Stockholm, Sweden
Pavesic, D (2005), The Psychology of Menu Design: Reinvent Your ‘Silent Salesperson’ to Increase Check
Averages and Guest Loyalty. Hospitality Faculty Publications, paper 5, Georgia State University
Dayan, E and Bar-Hillel, M (2011), Nudge to nobesity II: Menu positions influence food orders. Judgment and
Decision Making, 6(4): 333–42
Lockyer, T (2006), Would a restaurant menu item by any other name taste as sweet? Hospitality Review, 24(1): 3
Milgram, S, Liberty, H J, Toledo, R and Wackenhut, J (1986), Response to intrusion into waiting lines. Journal of
Personality and Social Psychology, 51(4): 683–89
Wansink, B, Kent, R J and Hoch, S (1998), An Anchoring and Adjustment Model of Purchase Quantity
Decisions. Journal of Marketing Research, 35(1): 71–81
del Campo, C, Pauser, S, Steiner, E and Vetschera, R (2016), Decision making styles and the use of heuristics
in decision making. Journal of Business Economics, 86(4): 389–412
Shleifer, A (2012), Psychologists at the Gate: A Review of Daniel Kahneman’s Thinking, Fast and Slow. Journal
of Economic Literature, 50(4): 1–12
Burke, R R and Srull, T K (1988), Competitive Interference and Consumer Memory for Advertising. Journal of
Consumer Research, 15(1): 55–68
Kardes, F R, Fennis, B M, Hirt, E R, Tormala, Z L and Bullington, B (2007), The role of the need for cognitive
closure in the effectiveness of the disrupt‐then‐reframe influence technique. Journal of Consumer Research,
34(3): 377–85
Sinha, P K, Banerjee, A and Uniyal, D P (2002), Deciding Where to Buy: Store Choice Behaviour of Indian
Shoppers. Vikalpa, 27(2): 13–28
Nordvall, A C (2014), Consumer Cognitive Dissonance Behavior in Grocery Shopping. International Journal of
Psychology and Behavioral Sciences, 4(4): 128–35
2.5 Advertising
Ciceri, A, Russo, V, Songa, G, Gabrielli, G and Clement, J (2020), A Neuroscientific Method for Assessing
Effectiveness of Digital vs. Print Ads Using Biometric Techniques to Measure Cross-Media Ad Experience and
Recall. Journal of Advertising Research, 60(1): 71–86
Auty, S G and Lewis, C (2004), Exploring children’s choice: The reminder effect of product placement.
Psychology and Marketing, 21(9): 697–713
Fischer, P M, Schwartz, M P, Richards, J W, Goldstein, A O and Rojas, T H (1991), Brand Logo Recognition
by Children Aged 3 to 6 Years Mickey Mouse and Old Joe the Camel. JAMA: Journal of American Medical
Association, 266(22): 3145–48
Kohli, C, Leuthesser, L and Suri, R (2007), Got slogan? Guidelines for creating effective slogans. Business
Horizons, 50(5): 415–22
Health Psychology
References for key studies
Savage, R and Armstrong, D (1990), Effect of a general practitioner’s consulting style on patients’ satisfaction: a
controlled study. BMJ: British Medical Journal, 301(6758): 968–70
Yokley, J M and Glenwick, D S (1984), Increasing the immunization of preschool children; an evaluation of
applied community interventions. Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, 17(3): 313–25
Brudvik, C, Moutte, S D, Baste, V and Morken, T (2016), A comparison of pain assessment by physicians,
parents and children in an outpatient setting. Emergency Medicine Journal, 34(3): 138–44
Bridge, L R, Benson, P, Pietroni, P C and Priest, R G (1988), Relaxation and imagery in the treatment of breast
cancer. BMJ: British Medical Journal, 297: 1169–72
Shoshani, A and Steinmetz, S (2014), Positive Psychology at School: A School-Based Intervention to Promote
Adolescents’ Mental Health and Well-Being. Journal of Happiness Studies, 15(6): 1289–1311
McKinlay, J B (1975), Who is Really Ignorant – Physician or Patient? Journal of Health and Social Behavior,
16(1): 3–11
Safer, M A, Tharps, Q J, Jackson, T C and Leventhal, H (1979), Determinants of Three Stages of Delay in
Seeking Care at a Medical Clinic. Medical Care, 17(1): 11–29
Aleem, A and Ajarim, D S (1995), Munchausen Syndrome – Presenting as Immunodeficiency: A Case Report
and Review of Literature. Annals of Saudi Medicine, 15(4): 404–6
Riekert, K A and Drotar, D (1999), Who Participates in Research on Adherence to Treatment in Insulin-
dependent Diabetes Mellitus? Implications and Recommendations for Research. Journal of Pediatric
Psychology, 24(3): 253–58
Chung, K F and Naya, I (2000), Compliance with an oral asthma medication: a pilot study using an electronic
monitoring device. Respiratory Medicine, 94(9): 852–58
Chaney, G, Clements, B, Landau, L, Bulsara, M and Watt, P (2004), A new asthma spacer device to improve
compliance in children: A pilot study. Respirology, 9(4): 499–506
3.3 Pain
MacLachlan, M, McDonald, D and Waloch, J (2004), Mirror treatment of lower limb phantom pain: A case study.
Disability and Rehabilitation, 26(14–15): 901–4
3.4 Stress
Chandola, T, Britton, A, Brunner, E, Hemingway, H, Malik, M, Kumari, M, Bradrick, E, Kivimaki, M and Marmot,
M (2008), Work stress and coronary heart disease: What are the mechanisms? European Heart Journal, 29(5):
640–48
Wang, J, Rao, H, Wetmore, G S, Furlan, P M, Korczykowski, M, Dinges, D F and Detre, J A (2005), Perfusion
functional MRI reveals cerebral blood flow pattern under psychological stress. Proceedings of the National
Academy of Sciences of the United States of America, 102(49): 17804–09
Evans, G W and Wener, R E (2007), Crowding and personal space invasion on the train: Please don’t make me
sit in the middle. Journal of Environmental Psychology, 27(1): 90–4
Budzynski, T H and Stoyva, J M (1969), An instrument for producing deep muscle relaxation by means of
analog information feedback. Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, 2(4): 231–37
Lewin, B, Robinson, I H, Clay, E L, Irving J B and Campbell, M (1992), Effects of self-help post myocardial-
infraction rehabilitation on psychological adjustment and use of health services. The Lancet, 339(8800):
1036–40
Tapper, K, Horne, P J and Lowe, C F (2003), The Food Dudes to the rescue! Psychologist, 16(1): 18–21
Fox, D K, Hopkins, B L and Anger, W K (1987), The long-term effects of a token economy on safety
performance in open-pit mining. Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, 20(3): 215–24
Weinstein, N D (1980), Unrealistic optimism about future life events. Journal of Personality and Social
Psychology, 39(5): 806–20
Organisational Psychology
References for key studies
Landry, A T, Zhang, Y, Papachristopoulos, K and Forest, J (2019), Applying Self-Determination Theory to
understand the motivational impact of cash rewards: New evidence from lab experiments. International Journal
of Psychology, 55(2): 487–98
Cuadrado, I, Morales, J F and Recio, P (2008), Women’s access to managerial positions: an experimental study
of leadership styles and gender. The Spanish Journal of Psychology, 11(1): 55–65
Claypoole, V L and Szalma, J L (2019), Electronic Performance Monitoring and sustained attention: Social
facilitation for modern applications. Computers in Human Behavior, 94: 25–34
Swat, K (1997), Monitoring of Accidents and Risk Events in Industrial Plants. Journal of Occupational Health,
39(2): 100–04
Giacalone, R A and Rosenfeld, P (1987), Reasons for Employee Sabotage in the Workplace. Journal of
Business and Psychology, 1(4): 367–78
Earley, P C (1993), East Meets West Meets Mideast: Further Explorations of Collectivistic and Individualistic
Work Groups. Academy of Management Journal, 36(2): 319–48
Einarsen, S (1999), The nature and causes of bullying at work. International Journal of Manpower, 20(1/2):
16–27
Oldham, G R and Brass, D J (1979), Employee Reactions to an Open-Plan Office: A Naturally Occurring
Quasi-Experiment. Administrative Science Quarterly, 24(2): 267–84
Gold, D R, Rogacz, S, Bock, N, Tosteson, T D, Baum, T M, Speizer, F E and Czeisler, C A (1992), Rotating shift
work, sleep, and accidents related to sleepiness in hospital nurses. American Journal of Public Health, 82(7):
1011–14
Fox, D K, Hopkins, B L and Anger, W K (1987), The long-term effects of a token economy in safety performance
in open-pit mining. Journal of Applied Behavior Analysis, 20(3): 215–24
Presenting studies
The studies have been chosen to ensure that they exemplify the approach being studied, cover a range of
research methods and issues and debates and are relatively easy to read for AS Level students.
A Level studies
At A Level there are two types of studies: key studies and example studies.
Students are not expected to have read the original study. Some are quite complex and teachers should
provide a good summary of the studies which cover the necessary points for their candidates.
The studies at A Level cover a broad range of psychological research and some of the studies cover more than
one experiment.
Where they cover more than one experiment, we indicate which one will be the focus of any questions.
Candidates should still study the context, theories and main discussion points but we will only test the design
and results of the experiment stated as the focus.
Key studies
These are the studies which students will need to understand in some depth. To help teachers we have
provided a list of things that students should know about the key studies.
We may ask questions on any of the aspects of the key studies listed in the syllabus and your summary must
include details of these aspects.
Example studies
These studies are provided to help you deliver the course using suitable examples of psychological research to
illustrate the content, research methods and issues and debates.
You do not need to use the study suggested, but should provide an example to help candidates understand
the content. If you choose to replace an example study with another study you should make sure that the
replacement study covers the content, relevant research methods and issues and debates.
Students do not need to read an original study, but may do so if you think it is appropriate. Some are quite
short and readable, while others are more complex and will need summarising by you. If there is a good
summary available on the internet or in a textbook this should be acceptable as long as it covers the required
psychological topic and any required research methodology.
There is a greater emphasis on the role of studies in furthering our understanding of psychology compared to
AS Level. Therefore the study summaries you produce are likely to have less detail about the study itself and
the way it was conducted, and instead explore the issues the study has raised in more detail.
Teachers are advised to consult the support document Teaching Research Studies which is available on the
School Support Hub at www.cambridgeinternational.org/support
Bipolar disorder is when mood alternates between episodes of manic and depressive episodes. Depressive
disorder (unipolar) is depressive episodes only. Several explanations have been proposed to explain depressive
disorder (unipolar). These are Biological explanations (biochemical and genetic) and Psychological
explanations (Beck’s cognitive theory and learned helplessness/attributional style).
Biological – biochemical: This explanation proposes that depressive disorder may be caused by neurochemicals.
Schildkraut (1965) for example suggested that too much noradrenaline causes manic episodes and too little
causes depressive episodes. It has also been found that both serotonin and noradrenaline imbalances are
involved in mood (affective) disorders.
Psychological explanations – Beck’s cognitive theory of depression (1979) proposes that people react differently
to aversive stimuli because of negative automatic thoughts (NATs). Depressive disorder results from the negative
cognitive triad, comprising unrealistically negative views about the self, the world and the future.
Psychological explanations – learned helplessness/attributional style, e.g. Seligman, et al. (1988). If a person
makes an internal attribution (they are the cause), and if they believe that this is stable and global (that the cause
is consistent and applies everywhere), then they may feel helpless and may experience depression.
Note that treatments for depressive disorder generally match explanations. For example, if the cause is
biochemical then anti-depressant biochemicals are given. If the cause is psychological (cognitive) then Beck’s
cognitive restructuring can be used.
In relation to issues and debates this study raises, the genetic explanation is nature rather than nurture. It is also
biological determinism and genetics exclude free-will. Reducing a cause to genetics alone is reductionist.
Aim: to find out whether the genes encoding for 5-HHT and 5-HTR2c are associated with susceptibility to
bipolar disorder.
Sample: 42 patients (25 female, 17 male, aged 31–70) diagnosed with bipolar disorder and 40 controls (no
personal or family history of mental ill-health).
Sampling technique: (specific technique not stated) participants recruited among in- and out-patients of two
hospitals in Croatia.
Procedure: all participants were interviewed (clinical interview) by a psychiatrist and given psychometric tests.
A clinical interview format is semi-structured (some standardised questions but flexibility for variation) and in
this case the technique was face-to-face. For inter-rater reliability all interviews were reviewed and confirmed
by a second psychiatrist. 16 participants (of the 42 with bipolar disorder) had a positive family history of mood
(affective) disorders. The diagnosis was confirmed by medical records which is an objective measure. The same
procedure was applied to the controls and all 40 had no history of mental ill-health. Participants provided a
blood sample and using the standardised procedure (a scientific, objective process) for extracting DNA (known
as an ABI automated DNA synthesizer) the specific DNA polymorphisms were identified.
Note: many academic studies include complex results and statistical analysis (such as in this study).
Findings:
(i) There was no significant association between participants with bipolar disorder in the 5-HTR2c receptor
gene or any other participant.
(ii) There was no significant association between 5-HTT and bipolar disorder.
(iii) Although just significant, evidence showed a difference between male and female participants in 5-HTR2c
(note that serotonin levels are sexually dimorphic, meaning females produce more serotonin than males
naturally).
Conclusions:
(i) A genetic basis for bipolar disorder is not supported. However, there are limitations to the procedure used,
such as the ‘power’ of the study and low sample size.
(ii) The findings suggest that females might be more susceptible to bipolar disorder than males.
Discussion 2: Oruč et al. report that ‘these results suggest that variations in these genes may be responsible
for a minor increase in susceptibility for bipolar disorder in women’. Is this a possibility? Are women more
susceptible to bipolar disorder than men? If so, are their genetics responsible or should a social explanation be
considered?
• describe and evaluate the psychological issues and debates (for AS and A Level) included in the
study.
Nature versus nurture: Because of its focus on genetics, this study is an example of the nature side of
the debate. Genes are passed from one generation to the next and so if a parent has depressive episodes
then the nature approach suggests that a person may inherit the genes that cause depressive episodes
from a parent. The findings of the Oruč et al. study do not support this claim, but it is just one study with a
limited focus. It does not mean that the nature explanation is wrong.
Reductionism versus holism: The limited focus mentioned above is that the study by Oruč et al. focused
on the serotonin transmitters and serotonin receptors only, and so this is reductionist because it does
not study other potential aspects of gene transmission and it does not consider the role of psychological
factors that may cause depressive episodes. A more holist approach would suggest that many factors
including both biological and psychological factors should be taken into consideration.
Determinism versus free-will: Focusing on genetics as the cause of depressive episodes is biological
determinism. The Oruč et al. study does not consider free-will at all. A cognitive explanation would consider
free-will.
Example 2
Key study on musical style and restaurant customers’ spending: North et al. (2003).
North, A C, Shilcock, A and Hargreaves, D J (2003), The Effect of Musical Style on Restaurant Customers’
Spending. Environment and Behavior, 35(5): 712–18
Context of the study and relationship to other studies and main theories/explanations
included in the study
Background: There are many factors in the physical environment that can affect shoppers. These include retail
atmospherics (such as odour and crowding) and retail store design. Sound has a major effect on consumers,
influencing things like how much money is spent on food and the taste of the food itself. Sound includes
noise (generally negative) and music (generally positive). Noise can occur in a shopping mall or it could be the
background noise when eating food. Background music can also be played in shopping malls and different
types of music can influence customer experience and spending in a restaurant. North et al. (2003) investigated
the effect different types of music might have on restaurant customer spending. Previous research revealed that
playing classical music resulted in customers spending more money on purchases of wine.
Sample: 393 people, approximately equal numbers of male and female. 142 were exposed to the pop music
condition, 120 to the classical and 131 to no music.
Sampling technique: opportunity sample where participants simply went to the restaurant to eat and did not
know they were participants in a study.
Design: field experiment conducted over three weeks (18 evenings, closed Sundays).
IV: classical music, pop music and no music played at a constant volume level (control) lasting for 152 minutes
(2 × 76 minute CDs) before any music was repeated (control). Participants were exposed to only one type of
music (an independent measures design).
Controls: each condition was counterbalanced by day of the week, so each type of music was played on six
different days over the three weeks.
DV: the mean amount of money (pounds sterling/GBP/£) spent per customer which could be analysed overall
(total spend) or broken down into total food and total drink. Analysis could be further broken down into starters,
main course, dessert, coffee, bar (for alcoholic and non-alcoholic drinks) and wine.
Findings: playing background classical music leads to increased spending on food and drink.
Additionally:
(i) There was very little difference in the amount spent on main course, starters or dessert.
(ii) The no music condition resulted in greatest spending on wine alone (not what was expected) but if ‘bar’
(all drinks) and ‘wine’ are put together, then spending is the greatest for classical music.
(iii) The greatest difference was spending on coffee: classical £1.06, pop £0.80 and no music £0.53.
Conclusions: the playing of background music influences customer spending in a restaurant with classical
music resulting in the greatest amount spent per person.
Note: this study includes a full results table. Numbers from the full table are not required. As shown here the
results are used to support the findings. It is logical to include the main findings, but ‘any two findings’ will
receive credit.
Discussion 2: North et al. found that one restaurant with one type of music (classical) resulted in increased
spending. What about other types of restaurant? Would classical music result in increased spending in all
types of restaurant? It may be that other types of music would result in increased spending in other types of
restaurant. In other words, to what extent can the findings of this restaurant be generalised? Further, what
about other countries? Cultural differences would suggest that the findings of this study may only apply to one
country.
• describe and evaluate the psychological issues and debates (for AS and A Level) included in the
study.
Reductionism versus holism: The results could be considered overall (holist): total spend for the three
types of music. Total spend can be broken down into food and drink. Food can be broken down into
starters, main course and dessert and drink can also be divided into types. Restaurant owners would also
break down each course, such as ‘main course’ into individual items so they would know what ingredients
to order and which items sell more than others.
Determinism versus free-will: Is increased spending behaviour determined by the music playing in the
background in the environment (environmental determinism)? The findings of this study suggest that it is.
Individual and situational explanations: The findings would suggest the specific situation the person
is in (classical music resulting in more spending than pop music or no music) rather than something that is
‘individual’.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: idiographic versus nomothetic,
experiments, questionnaires, quantitative data, generalisations from findings.
The focus is not on the details of the study but rather what it might tell us about this element of psychology.
The whole study is only shown here to demonstrate how this might lead to an evaluation sheet that would help
learners summarise the key points.
McKinstry, B and Wang, J X (1991), Putting on the style: What patients think of the way their doctor dresses.
British Journal of General Practice, 41(348): 270, 275–78
Background: psychologists are interested in the interpersonal skills shown by both patient and practitioner in
a consultation. These include verbal communications and non-verbal communications. Verbal communication
is what is said. Non-verbal communication is what is not said and includes things like hand movements, facial
gestures and the clothes the practitioner is wearing. Non-verbal feedback from a patient is important to a
practitioner because it conveys how much the patient understands, is happy or is upset. It is also important to
know how much respect and confidence a patient has in a practitioner for example, which might be caused by
the clothes the practitioner is wearing (the way they are dressed).
Aim: McKinstry and Wang (1991) investigated how acceptable patients found different styles of doctors’
clothing and whether patients felt that this influenced their respect for his or her opinion.
Sample: included 475 patients waiting to see 30 doctors in five medical practices in Scotland.
Sampling technique: opportunity sample where an interviewer asked people waiting to see a doctor to
participate.
Design: Field experiment conducted in a waiting room of a medical practice. Eight photographs (the IV) were
used of the same man and same woman. The man was dressed in five different styles: (a) white coat over
formal suit; (b) formal suit, white shirt and tie; (c) tweed jacket, informal shirt and tie; (d) cardigan, sports shirt
and slacks; and (e) denim jeans and open-neck short-sleeved shirt. The woman was dressed in three different
styles: (f) white coat over skirt and jumper (sweater/pullover); (g) skirt, blouse and woollen jumper (sweater/
pullover); and (h) pink trousers, jumper (sweater/pullover) and gold earrings. As participants looked at all eight
photographs the experimental design is repeated measures.
DV: the ‘acceptability’ of each model, from 0 (low) to 5 (high) (5-point rating scale).
Procedure: the interview format was structured (same questions in same order to all participants); the
technique was face-to-face (rather than by telephone) and the questions were closed. The first question was
‘Which doctor would you feel happiest about seeing for the first time?’, with 0–5 rating (closed question). Then
they were asked about their confidence in the ability of the doctors, whether they would be unhappy about
consulting any of them, and which one looked most like their own doctor. After that, a series of more closed
questions followed about doctors’ dress in general.
Data: quantitative because we have data on which clothing style patients preferred and subjective because
patients may not be truthful when asked by the interviewer.
Findings: patients preferred a male doctor to be wearing a formal suit, white shirt and tie and a female doctor
to be wearing a white coat over skirt and jumper (sweater/pullover).
Additionally, 41 per cent had more confidence in a formally dressed doctor. Older patients preferred a formally
dressed doctor.
Conclusions: the majority (64 per cent) of patients thought that the clothes a doctor wears in a consultation is
of some importance and so this is a relevant non-verbal factor in a patient-practitioner relationship.
Methodology Design: a field experiment with The experimenter manipulates the variables
IVs and DV using a repeated (eight different photographs) and measures the
measures design. DV (ratings of each model on a 5-point scale).
Repeated measures design eliminates participant
variables (because each participant sees all eight
photographs).
The study used interviews: Using a face-to-face interview is much more
technique: face-to-face; personal than using a telephone. The study was
format: structured with closed conducted in the waiting room of a health centre
questions (quantitative data). making it authentic for the participants.
A structured interview means that all participants are
asked the same questions in the same order and so
their answers can be compared.
The study used closed questions Closed questions and a 5-point scale is quantitative
using a 5-point rating scale data but as a participant may not be honest the
(quantitative data). data is subjective rather than objective.
Using a 5-point scale allows participants to express
variation in their answers. However, a 5-point scale
has a middle or neutral option which a 4-point scale
does not have.
The study followed ethical It is important that ethical guidelines are applied
guidelines: people waiting to see a to all participants in the conduct of psychological
doctor were invited to participate studies. For example, these participants gave
in an interview about doctors. informed consent.
Application to The study was conducted in a In a medical consultation many verbal and non-
everyday life real-life setting, not an artificially verbal communication factors apply, and this study
created laboratory environment shows how important just one of those factors is,
(high ecological validity). the way in which a doctor is dressed. Other factors
may be more or less important, but they were not
studied in this instance.
The study is a clear demonstration
of this sub-topic and shows
the importance of non-verbal
communication.
Idiographic Should we focus on what makes The aim of this study was to see if people preferred
versus us unique or on what features we the same style of appearance in a doctor and the
nomothetic all have in common? findings suggest that most people had confidence in
a doctor wearing a white coat. However, not all did,
and so perhaps a nomothetic approach does not
apply to this topic.
Generalisations Can the findings of this study be This study was conducted in five different waiting
from findings generalised to all people? rooms, but they were all in Scotland. There may be
cultural differences between preferences of people
in Scotland and other countries across the world.
Further, 475 people were studied and although this
is a reasonably large number, the sample size does
not make the sample representative.
Quantitative The study gathered quantitative Gathering quantitative data allows the analysis of the
data data using closed questions. numbers so comparisons can be made between
the conditions of the IV. Gathering qualitative data
would have allowed the participants to explain their
reasons for their choice.
Relevant issues and debates and methodology for this topic include: determinism versus free-will, experiments,
questionnaires, longitudinal studies, quantitative and qualitative data.
The focus is not on the details of the study but rather what it might tell us about this element of psychology.
The whole study is only shown here to demonstrate how this might lead to an evaluation sheet that would help
learners summarise the key points.
Oldham, G R and Brass, D J (1979), Employee Reactions to an Open-Plan Office: A Naturally Occurring Quasi-
Experiment. Administrative Science Quarterly, 24(2): 267–84
Background: The conditions of the physical (and psychological) working environment should make people feel
safe and comfortable. They should not experience any negative effects, whether physical or mental. Physical
work conditions include things like illumination, e.g. the Hawthorne studies, temperature and noise which apply
in many factories/industry. In an office environment the design (or type) of office can also affect levels of worker
concentration, productivity and satisfaction. This is environmental (or specifically architectural) determinism.
Aim: Oldham and Brass (1979): to investigate the effects of moving from a conventional office (multi-room) to an
open plan office (which has no interior walls or partitions).
The study: a naturally occurring quasi experiment using questionnaires and interviews to gather data.
Sample: 128 newspaper employees participated. They were divided into three groups.
Sampling technique: opportunity sample where workers in different types of office were invited to participate.
12 people invited did not participate (right to withdraw).
Design:
IV: (i) experimental group (n=76) who moved to the open plan office. (ii) control group (n=5) who did not move
office. (iii) Quasi-control (n=26) who were chosen at random to move office.
DV: ratings of 15 variables such as work satisfaction and internal motivation on a 7-point scale. As all
participants were exposed to only one type of office this is an independent measures design. All other factors
were controlled as much as possible.
Data: data was collected at three time intervals, T1, T2 and T3. T1 data was collected 8 weeks before the
move. T2 data was collected 9 weeks after the move and T3 data was collected 18 weeks after the move. The
study is longitudinal.
Procedure: At each time point, all workers completed the same questionnaire. The technique was paper and
pencil and the format included closed questions (using a 7-point rating scale where 1=low and 7=high). This
gathers quantitative data. Fifteen variables were measured, including (i) Work satisfaction: the degree to which
an employee is satisfied and happy with the job. (ii) Interpersonal satisfaction: the degree to which an employee
is satisfied with co-workers and supervisors at work. (iii) Internal work motivation: the degree to which an
individual experiences positive internal feelings when performing effectively on the job.
In addition, workers were interviewed, gathering qualitative data allowing workers to explain their feelings in
relation to the office move. The interview format was unstructured, the technique was face-to-face and the
questions were open-ended.
In the interviews employees described the new office space as a ‘fishbowl,’ ‘cage,’ or ‘warehouse’, showing
an inability to concentrate, develop close friendships and complete a job. It was reported as impossible in the
open plan office to engage in a private conversation with co-workers or with supervisors.
Conclusions: open plan offices, the physical work environment, does have a negative effect particularly on
the psychological well-being of workers, affecting their satisfaction, concentration, motivation and friendship
opportunities.
Methodology The study used a naturally An experiment has IV (type of office) and DV (ratings
occurring quasi experiment with on 15 variables) and so is a ‘powerful’ research
IV, DV and independent measures method.
design.
The study used questionnaires: Paper and pencil questionnaires allow workers to
technique: paper and pencil; answer the questions in their own time and with
format: closed questions using privacy.
7-point rating scale (quantitative
data).
Using closed questions and a 7-point scale
produces quantitative data but as a participant may
not be honest the data is subjective rather than
objective.
Using a 7-point scale allows participants to express
variation in their answers. This may be better than a
5-point scale. However, a 7-point scale has a middle
or neutral option which a 4-point scale does not
have.
The study used interviews: Using a face-to-face interview is much more
technique: face-to-face; personal than using a telephone.
format: unstructured with open Open questions allow a participant to say as much
questions (qualitative data). or as little as they wish; it allows expansion of any
views the participant has.
The study followed ethical It is important that ethical guidelines are applied
guidelines: workers were invited to to all participants in the conduct of psychological
participate and 12 exercised their studies.
right to withdraw. Other guidelines
do not apply; no deception for
example.
Sampling technique was The sample may be representative of any worker
opportunity sample because working in an open plan office.
office workers involved in the
office move were invited to
participate.
Approach n/a
Application to The study was conducted in a Many workers work in different types of office, so
everyday life real-life setting, not an artificially it is important to know which type of office (i) is the
created laboratory environment most productive and (ii) allows workers appropriate
(high ecological validity). physical and psychological working conditions.
Some workers like to socialise (open plan better) but
others prefer not to be distracted (traditional office
better).
The study was conducted with The study was not artificially created, but involved
office workers moving office, not real workers moving permanently from one office
participants with no experience of type to another.
office work.
The study is a clear demonstration
of this sub-topic and the wider
topic of the effect of physical
working conditions on worker
behaviour.
Determinism Does the environment in which we This study suggests that it does. This is
versus free-will work determine our behaviour? environmental determinism. For example, an open
plan office with increased noise levels results in
lower levels of concentration. The worker may have
the choice to wear headphones to reduce the noise.
The implications of office design are evident.
Longitudinal The study was longitudinal as Gathering baseline data (T1) is important for any
studies data was collected at T1 8 weeks comparison. Gathering data after the move is also
before the move, T2 9 weeks after important (T2) but gathering data after 18 weeks
the move and T3 18 weeks after (T3) allows workers to express their views after they
the move. have settled into their new environment.
Quantitative and The study gathered both Gathering quantitative data allows the analysis of
qualitative data quantitative data (closed the numbers. Gathering qualitative data allows
questions) and qualitative data participants to express the way they feel and explain
(open questions). the reasons for the ratings they chose.
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Cambridge Assessment International Education, The Triangle Building, Shaftesbury Road, Cambridge, CB2 8EA, United Kingdom
t : +44 (0)1223 553554 email : [email protected] www.cambridgeinternational.org
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge University Press & Assessment.
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are permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use. However, we cannot give
permission to centres to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use
within a centre.
Contents
Contents............................................................................................................................................ 3
Introduction ....................................................................................................................................... 4
Details of assessment ....................................................................................................................... 5
Question 9......................................................................................................................................... 6
Question 10....................................................................................................................................... 9
Specimen Paper Answers
Introduction
These specimen answers have been produced by Cambridge ahead of the examination in 2024 to exemplify
standards for those teaching Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990. We have provided
examples of high and either middle or low-level answers from Specimen Paper 01, Section B, questions
9(a), 9(b) and 10.
The marks given are for guidance only and are accompanied by a brief commentary explaining the
strengths and weaknesses of the answers. Comments are given to indicate where and why marks were
awarded, and how additional marks could have been obtained.
The mark schemes for the Specimen Papers are available to download from the School Support Hub.
Past exam resources and other teaching and learning resources are available from the School Support Hub.
4
Specimen Paper Answers
Details of assessment
The syllabus for Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology is available at
www.cambridgeinternational.org
Paper 1 tests candidates’ knowledge of the core studies. Candidates will also be asked questions based on
the four approaches (biological, cognitive, learning and social) and the AS Level issues and debates.
5
Specimen Paper Answers
Question 9
(a) Describe what was recorded by the female observers in the study by Piliavin et al. (subway
Samaritans). [4]
of the observers also noted the race and sex of all people in the critical area. The race of every
Examiner comment
The candidate was awarded 1 mark per statement as each one was correct and were some of the
information recorded by the female observers in the study by Piliavin et al. As these 4-mark questions use a
points-based mark scheme, the candidate needed to make one more valid point to be awarded the fourth
and final available mark.
know where to look or how to help’ or ‘I cannot help’. Males helped more often.
Examiner comment
These 4-mark questions use a points-based mark scheme. The only marks that can be awarded are in the
first half of the first sentence. The remainder of the answer is describing what was found (a result) which is
not relevant to the question. This question is about the procedure and not the results. To improve, the
candidate needed to write about what was recorded, such as the race and sex of all passengers or the
recording of the latency time before help was given.
Common mistakes
• Candidate do not write the same number of points as there are marks for the question.
• By giving results from a study when the question is about what was recorded rather than describing a
result.
6
Specimen Paper Answers
(b) Explain one similarity and one difference between the study by Piliavin et al. and one other
core study from the social approach. [8]
deception to fulfil the aims of the study. Piliavin deceived passengers into thinking that the
event was real and that the victims really were drunk or ill. Also, they thought the model was
a real person who helped the victim when needed. Milgram deceived his participants by
letting them think that Mr Wallace was giving real responses and also getting electric shocks if
One difference is the technique used to recruit participants. Milgram used volunteer sampling
and advertised in a local newspaper. He stated what types of participants he wanted like only
being male. Therefore, they chose to want to take part. Piliavin used people in a subway
Examiner comment
The 8-mark questions are marked using levels-based mark schemes, with 4 marks for the similarity and 4
marks for the differences. The similarity is very good and meets the requirements for Level 4 of the mark
scheme. The idea of deception is well explained, and the candidate uses both studies as clear examples to
explain why it is a similarity. The difference is not quite as good and meets the criteria for Level 3. The
difference is explained in terms of the (sampling) technique used in the studies. However, it is only named
for one of the studies (Milgram) with an outline so only one study has been used as a clear example. The
candidate needed to state the technique used by Piliavin with a brief explanation as to why it was an
opportunity in order to meet the criteria for Level 4.
Both studies had a difference in that they did use stooges but in different ways.
Examiner comment
The 8-mark questions are marked using levels-based mark schemes, with four marks for the similarity and
with four marks for the differences.
The similarity is brief and only uses Milgram as a brief example of how participants were deceived.
Therefore, it is a Level 2 response. To improve, the candidate needed to explain, in more detail, who the
participants thought they were shocking. Also, an example from Piliavin would be needed and explained in
detail to get into Level 4.
The difference is a Level 1 response. It is brief, and correct, but there are no examples from either study. To
improve, the candidate needed to provide examples from both studies to show how the stooges were used in
different ways.
7
Specimen Paper Answers
Common mistakes
• Candidates do not use both studies as examples.
• By not explicitly stating what the similarity/difference is. The examiner needs candidates to make this
explicit before they can award marks.
• Candidates choose a study that is not from the approach asked for in the question.
8
Specimen Paper Answers
Question 10
Evaluate the study by Hölzel et al. (mindfulness and brain scans) in terms of two strengths and
two weaknesses. At least one of your evaluation points must be about generalisations. [10]
affecting DV). These included the criteria needed to be met to be able to participate and they
had chosen the regions of interest in the brain, Hölzel could be confident that it was the
mindfulness program (the independent variable) itself that was causing a change in brain grey
The study was standardised for all participants. Hölzel had a standardised procedure including
the contents of the MBSR mindfulness program, and when the participants were brain
scanned before and after the mindfulness. This means another researcher could easily replicate
The sample was mainly Caucasian. This makes it difficult to generalise to other groups of
With questionnaires, participants can sometimes give socially desirable answers as they want
to look good to a researcher rather than telling the truth. This could lower validity. The
completion of the FFMQ before and after the program might have made some participants
rate differently based on wanting to look good for the purposes of the study (especially those
in the MBSR group) rather than it being about the program making people feel better.
Examiner comment
The 10-mark questions are marked using a levels-based mark scheme.
The first paragraph is in detail. The idea of cause and effect is clear in this response, and the candidate uses
correct examples from the study by Hölzel et al.
The second paragraph is also in detail. The candidate mentions standardisation, replication, reliability and
provides two examples from the study that are correct.
The third paragraph covers the named issue, but it is only brief. The candidate correctly presents a potential
generalisability issue with the study but does not then explain why exclusively using Caucasians may affect
generalisability. The candidate would need to do this to make this paragraph in detail.
The final paragraph is in detail too. The candidate presents a potential weakness of questionnaires and uses
an example from the study by Hölzel et al. to explain why it is weakness.
Overall, this is a top end Level 4 response as there are three points in detail with one brief, and the named
issues is covered. The majority of points are in detail and evidence is used from the study by Hölzel et al.
throughout.
9
Specimen Paper Answers
affecting DV). These included the criteria which needed to be met to be able to participate in
There was a standardised procedure. For example, the program content for the mindfulness
The magnetic scanning may have caused some psychological stress to participants as they
They collected quantitative data which means that it was probably objective and could be used
Examiner comment
The first paragraph is brief but in context. The use of controls is presented as a creditworthy strength and
there is an attempt at using the study as an example, but it only names a control. To improve, the candidate
needed to explicitly state what the IV and DV was in this study.
The second paragraph is also brief but has some context. Standardisation and reliability are presented as
the strength and gain credit. There is a brief example from the study. However, to improve the candidate
needed to mention the idea of replication and give a further example of standardisation from the study to
make the point in detail.
The third paragraph is also brief with some context. The idea of psychological stress in an MRI scanner is
creditworthy but it is not in detail. To improve, the candidate needed to explain in more detail what the stress
problems could be with the participant being in a scanner.
The fourth paragraph has no context. Whilst the point is correct, the candidate has not provided an example
from the study to support their claim. To improve, the candidate needed to provide evidence from the study
that quantitative data were collected and how it was analysed.
The named issue of generalisations has not been covered.
The candidate presented four evaluation points but three are strengths and only one is a weakness.
Therefore, the best two strengths (first and second paragraphs) and the only weakness (third paragraph) are
accepted. The fourth paragraph cannot therefore be used to help place the answer into the correct level.
There are three points in brief but all have context, so the answer is awarded a bottom end Level 3 mark.
The omission of the named issue means the maximum mark that could have been awarded was top end
Level 3.
Common mistakes
• Candidates do not cover the named issue. A response cannot get above Level 3 if it does not use the
named issue.
• The candidate answer describes aspects of the study outside the focus of the question, e.g. aims,
procedure, and results. This question is about evaluation not description.
• Candidates do not cover the four points (two strengths and two weaknesses) with equal detail.
• Examples from the study are not used to explain why something is a strength or a weakness.
• Candidates do not always follow the question instructions to provide two strengths and two weaknesses,
e.g. giving three strengths and one weakness.
10
Cambridge Assessment International Education
The Triangle Building, Shaftesbury Road, Cambridge, CB2 8EA, United Kingdom
t: +44 1223 553554
e: [email protected] www.cambridgeinternational.org
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge University Press & Assessment.
Cambridge University Press & Assessment is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Cambridge University Press & Assessment retains the copyright on all its publications. Registered centres
are permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use. However, we cannot give
permission to centres to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use
within a centre.
Contents
Contents............................................................................................................................................ 3
Introduction ....................................................................................................................................... 4
Details of assessment ....................................................................................................................... 5
Question 10(a) .................................................................................................................................. 6
Specimen Paper Answers
Introduction
These specimen answers have been produced by Cambridge ahead of the examination in 2024 to exemplify
standards for those teaching Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990. We have provided
examples of high and middle-level answers for Specimen Paper 02, Section B, question 10(a).
The marks given are for guidance only and are accompanied by a brief commentary explaining the
strengths and weaknesses of the answers. Comments are given to indicate where and why marks were
awarded, and how additional marks could have been obtained.
The mark schemes for the Specimen Papers are available to download from the School Support Hub.
Past exam resources and other teaching and learning resources are available from the School Support Hub.
4
Specimen Paper Answers
Details of assessment
The syllabus for Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology is available at
www.cambridgeinternational.org
5
Specimen Paper Answers
Question 10(a)
Dr Felix believes that adults between the ages of 55 and 65 cope less well with their job regardless
of whether they stay in the same job or change jobs. Dr Felix plans to use a sample of adults
aged 55 at the beginning of the study. She will re-contact the participants by telephone as she
has a record of each individual’s telephone number and will be following appropriate ethical
guidelines.
(a) Describe how Dr Felix could conduct a longitudinal study to investigate how well adults
between the ages of 55 and 65 cope with their jobs.
Do not describe how Dr Felix would re-contact her participants, the sample/sampling technique or
ethical issues/guidelines in your answer. [10]
participants by email in January every year until they are 65, so 11 times in total. Each year
she will use the same questionnaire. It would be online so that she can access all the same
people even if they move around. Her questionnaire needs to have questions about coping and
whether they have changed jobs. She also needs a way to know who is who, by giving them a
Her first question will be how old are you which they answer in months and years. This is a
closed question: How old are you? Years ___, months ____. Then there will be a set of closed
questions about the job: ‘Are you in the same job as last year? Yes/No’, ‘If no, is the new job
in a similar career? Yes/No’, ‘Is the new job a promotion? Yes/No’, ‘Is the new job similar
The participants are given instructions with the questionnaire telling them to spend no more
than 15 minutes answering the questions. When Dr Felix and a colleague analyse the answers,
they will use a set of definitions to help them to be consistent. She should aim to work with
the same colleague each year to standardise the way they analyse the answers to the open
questions. For example, to interpret a question asking ‘Describe a situation at work you coped
with well.’, there could be lots of possible answers so they could have a list of positive words
such as ‘effective’, ‘friendly’ and ‘productive’ to look for in the responses. Another question
could ask ‘If you find any other employees difficult to work with, explain why’. There could be
closed questions on this questionnaire too, such as ‘Rate how well you feel you are coping at
work’. It is important when the data is being analysed to consider whether if an individual
participant is coping less well, this is because they are older than last time or because they
have changed their job and the new job is harder to cope with. The findings from these
6
Specimen Paper Answers
questions can be compared with the quantitative answers to the questions about how hard
their job is, which can just be totalled up as 2, 1 or 0, and an average calculated for each age
group, e.g. as ‘same job’ is easier to cope with, that’s 2; if the new job is similar that’s 1 as it’s
harder to cope but not as hard as if it’s different, which score 0. Also, they may have other
issues in their lives that make it harder for them to cope with their job, such as children or
Examiner comment
The 10-mark questions are marked using a levels-based mark scheme. It is worth noting the focus on
required features. These features for each type of study (experiment, observation, etc.) are listed in the
Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990 syllabus.
This is a very good answer, tackling each of the four required elements in detail.
The task is clearly a questionnaire in two parts, one about the job and one about coping. At the end, the
candidate adds a further idea, about other factors affecting coping, which is also relevant to this. The details
of the task are also good. It is identified as an online questionnaire, with open and closed questions and
appropriate examples of each are given, covering both of the key ideas of the job and coping.
The suggested questions about other factors affecting coping, mentioned at the end, could have included
more details or examples, and the question ‘Rate how well you feel you are coping at work’ needed a scale,
e.g. ‘…from 0-10, where 0 is not coping at all and 10 is coping perfectly’.
Scoring is also tackled well, with good information about analysis of the open questions and about totalling
and averaging the quantitative data. Some further details of the quantitative data would have been useful,
especially as the scoring for the rating scale was absent.
The frequency of testing over time is stated, and matches the demand of the question, plus the use of the
same questionnaire and co-coder for the interpretation is given. Irrelevant material is included about emailing
the participants; this is not credited but also does not result in a lower mark. This is not required as the
question states that Dr Felix contacted them by telephone and the rubric states ‘Do not describe how Dr
Felix would re-contact her participants’.
Several control/standardisation measures were described, including the testing at fixed intervals (yearly),
maintaining records to identify each participant (confidentially), the use of the same colleague to help with
the analysis of the qualitative data, plus strategies such as the word list to help to improve consistency
between them. Also, the instruction to participants to spend no more than 15 minutes would act as a
standard feature.
The response meets the requirements for Level 5; all required features are described in detail showing good
application to the situation and methodological knowledge. The only thing that stops it from being awarded
full marks is the lack of detail about rating scale used by participants when answering questions and there
could have been more detail or examples of questions.
7
Specimen Paper Answers
contacts them by phone she will interview them face-to-face. Face-to-face interviews are
better because they give you lots more information from the body language. But there is the
weakness that it might put people off talking to someone directly, so Dr Felix might end up
collecting less data than if she used an online or telephone interview. She will ask them lots of
questions about their job and how they cope with it, such as:
2. Do you have the same colleagues as last year or different ones? If they are different ones,
3. Do you ever worry about your job when you should be asleep? Never = 0, Often =5.
5. Is this worse than your worst day last year? Here Dr Felix can prompt them with what
they said last year if they have forgotten and ask them more questions about it.
6. When you cope well at work you probably feel good. Explain why.
7. Have you had any experiences this year that have affected how well you coped at work and
These are open and closed questions producing qualitative and quantitative data. They can be
When Dr Felix interviews the participants, she needs to make sure she dresses the same each
year and that she always sounds the same and smiles as much, otherwise the participants
might respond differently because of her, not how well they are coping. She should also time
her interviews. Question 2 is important because if they now have nasty colleagues that could
explain why they aren’t coping, so Dr Felix needs to take this into account in her results.
participants.
8
Specimen Paper Answers
Examiner comment
This is a middle range answer which makes some attempt to tackle each of the four required elements,
although not all are discussed in detail.
The task is well described, as a semi-structured interview (which it clearly is, as the response indicates with
question 5) that is conducted face-to-face. However, the evaluation which follows this is irrelevant. The time
spent on this would have been better used on details about the questions or a description of analysis.
The suggested questions are clear, varied and relevant, demonstrating a good understanding of both
question techniques and applying them to the topic. They do indeed include ‘open and closed questions
producing qualitative and quantitative data’ but the response does not indicate which are open/closed or
which produce qualitative/quantitative data. These details would have improved this answer.
Details of scoring are very limited. The reference to questions that ‘can be analysed by counting up the
scores and averaging them’ is correct and appropriate, but it does not indicate which questions could be
analysed in this way or how this could be done. A brief reference is made with regard to how analysis might
be affected by responses to question 2 (‘if they now have nasty colleagues that could explain why they aren’t
coping, so Dr Felix needs to take this into account in her results’), but no indication is given of how this would
be accounted for (e.g. by adjusting the coping scores for participants with nastier new colleagues).
The frequency of testing over time is not clear and, although it is implicit that she will interview the
participants repeatedly, no detail is given of when this would happen or over what length of time. It is not
clear whether the interviews could vary from year to year.
The details about control/standardisation measures are very good. Points include standardising clothing,
voice and facial expression. Although reference is made to timing the interviews, this needs to be extended
to say that the aim of this would be to spend the same amount of time on each interview. Finally, question 2
could also have an impact on the standardisation of scores, although this is not made explicit.
This response demonstrates features of Level 3 of the marking grid, making some attempt to tackle each of
the four required elements with some detail for some features but information on frequency is implicit rather
than explicit. Good detail on controls and variety of questions demonstrating good understanding of question
techniques and application to the scenario give this response the higher mark in Level 3.
Common mistakes
• Unnecessary repetition which takes up too much time. Time is better spent on expanding other areas of
the question.
• A lack of organisation and planning is a common mistake that candidates typically make. A few moments
identifying what needs to be said for each of the ‘elements’ for the research method required by the
question helps to give the answer direction and cohesion (these can be found in the syllabus on the grid
entitled ‘Planning studies for Paper 2’, located after the Details of the assessment for Paper 2). It is
critical that each of these research method-specific elements is covered in the response.
• It is important to follow the rubric of the question. The specimen answer – high in this booklet, correctly
follows the instruction not to include information about sampling or ethics, but unnecessarily refers to
how Dr Felix would re-contact her participants. This was specifically not required, so does not earn any
credit.
• Omitting the obvious is a common mistake. This is a longitudinal study, so the response must make
explicit reference to the required element of repeated testing.
• In an effort to describe choices within the candidate’s plan, some responses include irrelevant
evaluation.
• The listing of terminology is only creditworthy if it is anchored into the response, i.e. it demonstrates an
understanding of the meaning of the terms given.
• The listing of terminology is one type of incomplete idea. Another is to make a relevant point without
indicating why it is relevant. For example, the specimen answer – middle in this booklet includes the
sentence ‘She should also time her interviews’, without indicating that this is necessary in order for her to
control the length of each interview and a similar omission is made with regard to the inclusion of
question 2.
9
Cambridge Assessment International Education
The Triangle Building, Shaftesbury Road, Cambridge, CB2 8EA, United Kingdom
t: +44 1223 553554
e: [email protected] www.cambridgeinternational.org
Cambridge Assessment International Education is part of Cambridge University Press & Assessment.
Cambridge University Press & Assessment is a department of the University of Cambridge.
Cambridge University Press & Assessment retains the copyright on all its publications. Registered centres
are permitted to copy material from this booklet for their own internal use. However, we cannot give
permission to centres to photocopy any material that is acknowledged to a third party even for internal use
within a centre.
Contents
Contents............................................................................................................................................ 3
Introduction ....................................................................................................................................... 4
Details of assessment ....................................................................................................................... 5
Question 1......................................................................................................................................... 6
Question 2......................................................................................................................................... 7
Question 3......................................................................................................................................... 8
Question 4....................................................................................................................................... 10
Specimen Paper Answers
Introduction
These specimen answers have been produced by Cambridge ahead of the examination in 2024 to exemplify
standards for those teaching Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990. In this booklet, we
have provided examples for Specimen Paper 03 structured and essay questions; a high response for the
structured questions 1, 2, 3, and a high and middle-level answer for the essay questions 4(a) and (b).
The marks given are for guidance only and are accompanied by a brief commentary explaining the
strengths and weaknesses of the answers. Comments are given to indicate where and why marks were
awarded, and how additional marks could have been obtained.
The mark schemes for the Specimen Papers are available to download from School Support Hub.
Past exam resources and other teaching and learning resources are available from the School Support Hub
4
Specimen Paper Answers
Details of assessment
The syllabus for Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology is available at
www.cambridgeinternational.org
5
Specimen Paper Answers
Question 1
James has a mood (affective) disorder and has started to receive rational emotive behaviour
therapy (REBT). At the first session, James tells the therapist that he has been having problems at
work. He feels that he has nothing to contribute in his team. He also thinks that his manager does
not like him and this is causing him distress.
Explain how REBT can help James with his distress. [4]
contribute and that his manager doesn’t like him. The therapist will work with James to
challenge these beliefs. James will be given homework each week and he can keep track of
instances where he feels like he has nothing to contribute to the team (the activating agent
and beliefs). The therapist can talk to James about why he feels he has nothing to contribute
and challenge whether this is true. It could be that James did have ideas to contribute but
Examiner comment
This response meets the criteria for 3–4 marks as there is good understanding of REBT shown and the
response applies REBT to James’ distress at work which is the requirement of this AO2 question. To
improve on this response, the candidate does not need to restate the information in the question about
James’ beliefs about work. This does not gain any marks and if done for every question it will waste time
which could be used answering the question. The response does explain how the therapist can challenge
James’ feelings and offers a possible alternative explanation that James did have ideas to contribute. To
improve the response the candidate should then refer to the effect that this alternative belief would have on
reducing James’ distress.
Common mistakes
• A common mistake is to provide a general outline of REBT without specific reference to James or what is
causing his distress. This response manages to avoid this by relating the response to the situation
throughout but does waste some time by restating information provided in the question.
• Another error is to explain how therapy might help James, without specific reference to REBT.
6
Specimen Paper Answers
Question 2
(a) Outline what is meant by the nature versus nurture debate. [2]
Examiner comment
The response correctly identifies the two sides of the debate. In each instance, they describe the correct
definition of the debate. The response is clear with a focus on description for this AO1 question and is
awarded full marks.
Common mistakes
• Candidates must describe both sides. A response which only defines nature or nurture would only score
a single mark.
• Another error is to state nature is genetics and nurture is environment without relating this to human
behaviour. This would be an incomplete response.
(b) Explain one weakness of explanations for impulse control disorders from the nature side of the
debate. [2]
Specimen answer – high
One weakness is that the nature side of the debate suggests that impulse control disorder is
caused by genetic factors. Our genetics is something that is outside of our control so a person
with impulse control disorder has no control over developing it. This explanation is
deterministic and therefore the person would not benefit from any talking therapy to help
Examiner comment
This response is a detailed explanation of the weakness in context and is awarded full marks for this AO3
question. The response starts by restating that the nature side of the debate would imply genetic factors, but
then correctly identifies that a deterministic explanation is a potential weakness in the context of impulse
control disorder. The response shows understanding of a deterministic explanation of impulse control
disorder by stating ‘a person with impulse control disorder has no control over developing it’ and gives details
of why this would be a weakness ‘the person would not benefit from any talking therapy’.
Common mistakes
• A common mistake in this type of question is to give a general outline of a weakness of the nature side
of the debate without specific reference to impulse control disorder or without an explanation of why this
would be a weakness.
• Another mistake is for the candidate to give a general outline of a weakness of an explanation for
impulse control disorder without any reference to the nature side of the debate.
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Specimen Paper Answers
Question 3
(a) Asha is a student at school who has been diagnosed with bipolar disorder.
Explain how two characteristics of this disorder might affect Asha at school. [4]
for Asha to behave while in her lessons at school. Her impulsiveness might mean she finds it
She also will experience a low-mood phase that will make her feel depressed and she won’t
want to do anything. Asha may stay at home during her low-mood phase and not attend
Examiner comment
This is an AO2 Application question where candidates are expected to demonstrate how psychology is
applicable to this particular scenario. This question asks for two characteristics and is marked with up to two
marks available for each explanation.
This response explains two different characteristics of bipolar disorder and how they might affect Asha at
school. This response clearly identifies which phase of bipolar disorder each characteristic is associated with
but could equally effectively have used two examples from either the high- or low-mood phases.
There are also good explanations of the effects that the characteristic would have on Asha at school. It is
important that the response states the effect on Asha’s schooling and states at the end that Asha would ‘not
attend school so miss out on all her classes’ rather than just stating that she would stay at home.
Common mistakes
• Candidates identify only one characteristic or focus on one characteristic and do not provide a good
explanation of the second characteristic.
• Candidates do not link the effect of the characteristic to Asha at school (e.g. so miss out on all her
classes).
• Candidates explain the effect without identifying the characteristic (e.g. someone with bipolar would stay
at home and not attend school so miss out on all the classes) without explaining why this is a
characteristic of bipolar disorder (e.g. a low-mood that will make her feel depressed and she won’t want
to do anything).
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Specimen Paper Answers
(b) Explain one strength of the diagnostic guidelines of mood (affective) disorders. [2]
experts in Psychology. They provide clear symptoms of various mood disorders such as low
mood including both unipolar and bipolar disorder. Therefore, the patient is going to be given
Examiner comment
This question is an AO3 evaluation question asking for one strength of the diagnostic guidelines of mood
(affective) disorders. This response has provided three strengths (objective, created by experts and clear
symptoms). The best of the three strengths has been credited (clear symptoms). This strength is put into the
context of mood (affective) disorders and is further explained by outlining that an accurate diagnosis can be
reached which would lead to a treatment plan. To improve, the candidate should focus on one strength in
more detail.
Common mistakes
• Candidates do not put the strength into the context of mood (affective) disorders or state a strength
without and explanation.
• Candidates identify more than one strength of the diagnostic guidelines but don’t include an explanation.
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Specimen Paper Answers
Question 4
(a) Describe the psychological explanations (cognitive, behavioural and psychodynamic) of
obsessive-compulsive disorder (OCD). [6]
are very distressing. An example of this is that they will become severely ill if they touch any
surfaces. The patient believes that the thought is true and will obsess over it. The more the
patient pays attention to these intrusive thoughts the more likely it is that they will recur as
This is connected to the behavioural explanation as the patient will act on their intrusive
thoughts. In the example above, they will avoid situations where they have to touch surfaces
and also clean themselves extensively after touching anything. This behaviour helps them to
feel less anxious and acts as a negative reinforcement for the behaviour, so it is repeated over
and over again and becomes compulsive. The worry about becoming ill is removed due to
Finally, there is the psychodynamic explanation which suggests OCD can start at the anal
stage of development. It is suggested that someone can become stuck at this stage and
engages in compulsive behaviour later in life in order to resolve the conflict that did not get
resolved during the anal stage. The child may have been taught that defecating is unhygienic
and the super-ego demands that the patient, later in life, engage in compulsive cleaning in
Examiner comment
The 6-mark questions are marked using a levels-based mark scheme.
This response achieves in the top level as it addresses the requirements of this AO1 question with accurate
and detailed description of the cognitive, behavioural and psychodynamic explanations of obsessive-
compulsive disorder (OCD).
The description of the cognitive explanation of OCD has a very good focus on the cognitive features of the
disorder by stating that the patient experiences ‘intrusive thoughts’. The description provides some detail
through an example and clearly explains why the intrusive thought develops into OCD by stating that ‘the
patient believes the thought is true’ and also that ‘the more the patient pays attention to these intrusive
thoughts the more likely it is that they will recur.’ This shows that the candidate understands that it is not just
intrusive thoughts that cause OCD, but it is the paying attention to and worrying about these thoughts that
can lead to this disorder.
The description of the behavioural explanation of OCD is also clear. There is good use of psychological
terminology by describing negative reinforcement and how acting on intrusive thoughts can become
compulsive. It is useful for this candidate to continue with their example from the cognitive explanation when
describing the behavioural explanation to highlight the differences between these explanations. The
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Specimen Paper Answers
candidate shows an excellent understanding that the behavioural explanation of OCD has a focus on the
behaviour of the patient and how obsessive behaviour leads to a reduction in anxiety and therefore is
repeated.
The final description given in the response for the psychodynamic explanation is brief, but clear. Excellent
use is made of appropriate terminology, which helps this candidate to show their understanding of this
explanation and how it applies to OCD. To improve, this candidate could have explained how the cleaning
behaviour is an ego-defence mechanism.
The answer shows very good knowledge and understanding of the three explanations and has fulfilled the
elements laid out in the mark scheme.
keep themselves clean. These thoughts are very upsetting for the person and in order to
reduce these thoughts they will try to keep things clean. However, the thoughts will continue
The behavioural explanation of OCD is that due to negative reinforcement the person with
OCD continues to do the compulsive behaviour. For example, for someone with cleaning OCD
they would feel distressed so would excessively clean their home. This would make them feel
better temporarily so it would reinforce the cleaning behaviour. The next time they feel
The psychodynamic explanation of OCD is that the super-ego and id are in conflict with each
other. The compulsive behaviour is how the ego resolves this conflict.
Examiner comment
The 6-mark questions are marked using a levels-based mark scheme.
This response achieves a mark in the 3–4 mark level as the descriptions for this AO1 question are
sometimes accurate but lack in detail. There is some good understanding, but this is inconsistent throughout
the response. In addition, there is some use of accurate psychological terminology which is sometimes
explained as in the behavioural section but sometimes used without explanation such as in the
psychodynamic section.
The description of the cognitive explanation of OCD does have some accurate details; it mentions upsetting
obsessive thoughts and that these thoughts will be repeated. To improve, the candidate could explain that
stressful situations would make the obsessive thoughts increase. In addition, the candidate could explain
that although most people have intrusive thoughts it is the paying attention to and believing the thoughts that
can lead to the development of OCD.
The description of the behavioural explanation of OCD is the best of the three explanations. It uses
appropriate terminology (‘negative reinforcement’) and gives a clear outline of how this would affect
someone with OCD in the example.
The description of the psychodynamic explanation is accurate but very brief. To improve, the candidate could
give an example of a conflict between the super-ego and id in the context of OCD. It should then explain how
the obsessional behaviour is an ego-defence mechanism used by the ego to resolve this conflict. An
example would help the candidate to explain this.
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Specimen Paper Answers
Common mistakes
• Candidates give a general outline of cognitive, behavioural and/or psychodynamic explanations without
specific reference to OCD.
• Very lengthy descriptions of the three explanations which do achieve full marks but leave less time to
answer the other questions in the exam paper.
explanations. The behavioural explanation can be seen to be situational as the patient with
OCD will experience anxiety due to the situation that they are in such as seeing unclean
surfaces. If the patient with OCD avoids these situations, then their anxiety will be lower.
However, this explanation can also be seen as individualistic as each individual will be different
in terms of what causes them anxiety. Some patients may feel anxious in disordered
environments and others may feel anxious in unclean environments. To conclude, this
explanation offers both an individual and situational explanation and also highlights how these
two explanations intersect. The situation that causes anxiety will be different for each
individual but the reaction to that situation will be the same (high levels of anxiety). The
cognitive explanation is similar in offering both individual and situational explanations. The
type of obsessive thinking will be unique to each person (e.g. thoughts about hygiene, order,
etc.) and is therefore individualistic. However, stressful situations can cause all patient with
A second issue that can be applied is the nature versus nurture debate. The behavioural
explanation is on the nurture side of the debate. It explains how OCD can develop through
learning via negative reinforcement. The patient learns that anxiety can be reduced by doing
compulsive behaviour and so repeats this behaviour every time they feel anxious. Patients with
OCD can become hyperaware of the parts of their environment that are linked to their OCD
and this can cause anxiety to become worse overtime. So that patient continues to engage in
compulsive behaviour more and more as they have learned this will reduce their anxiety. The
the early life experiences during the anal phase of development that affect whether a person
develops OCD later in life. If these experiences are positive and the anal phase is successful in
childhood, OCD will not develop. However, if there are unresolved conflicts then OCD can
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Specimen Paper Answers
also supports the nature side of the debate. It suggests that everyone will experience the
psychosexual stages of development. Everyone will go through the anal phase of development
which suggests this is innate. To conclude, the behavioural explanation is solely on the nature
side of the debate whereas the psychodynamic explanation supports both sides of the debate.
The final evaluation point is determinism versus free-will. The cognitive explanation supports
both sides of this debate. It suggests that the thoughts are ‘intrusive’ so the patient doesn’t
have control over them. In addition, stressful situations (which often the patient can’t control)
can make these thoughts more frequent or of greater intensity. However, the patient can
learn some control over their condition by going for therapy such as exposure and response
prevention. The patient has the free-will to expose themselves to the things they are
frightened of and can then experience their anxiety levels lowering. As the anxiety levels drop,
the patient will experience fewer obsessive thoughts. In contrast, the psychodynamic
explanation offers a deterministic explanation as it suggests that the cause of OCD occurs
during childhood. The anal phase of development happens when we are very young so we
would not have much control over how we are treated during this phase. To conclude, the
cognitive explanation offers both a deterministic and free-will explanation suggesting that
OCD cause is deterministic due to the obsessional thinking but the patient can gain control
over their disorder with the help of therapy. The psychodynamic explanation is more
deterministic as it suggests the disorder develops in childhood where we have less free-will.
Examiner comment
The 10-mark questions are marked using a levels-based mark scheme.
This response achieves a mark in the top level as it addresses the requirements of this AO3 question by
providing a detailed evaluation of the three psychological explanations (cognitive, behavioural and
psychodynamic) described in part (a) and included a discussion of individual and situational explanations as
well as a good range of other issues.
The response starts with the named issue and a clear explanation of why the behavioural explanation can be
considered both situational and individual is given. Good examples back up the points made. A clear
comparison is made to the cognitive explanation which provides the analysis required for this question. Brief,
but clear examples are given for the cognitive explanation. To improve, the candidate could have started
their paragraph with a definition of the issue, although for this candidate it is clear from their response that
they understand the meaning of situational and individual explanations. There could also have been another
example given for the cognitive explanation but as the evaluation of the behavioural explanation is detailed
this isn’t necessary in order for this to be considered a full mark response.
The response then continues with two more evaluation issues. This meets the Level 5 requirement of a
range of issues. Clear examples are given for both the behavioural and psychodynamic explanation as to
why they support the nurture side of the debate. The response then gives a comparison which meets the
requirement for analysis, for why the psychodynamic explanation could also be considered to support the
nature side of the debate. There is also a conclusion at the end to summarise the issue.
The final evaluation point of determinism versus free-will is detailed and very clear with good examples given
for both cognitive and the psychodynamic explanations. The analysis is very good with the examples
explaining why the cognitive explanation is somewhat deterministic as the patient with OCD cannot control
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Specimen Paper Answers
their intrusive thoughts. It is useful that the candidate has brought in the therapy to show how the patient can
gain some control and is a good example to explain their point that the explanation can also be considered
from the free-will point of view. To improve, the candidate could give a definition of the debate at the
beginning of the paragraph although similar to the other issues, it is clear that this candidate understands
both of these terms.
person with OCD has learned to do their compulsive behaviour due to their
contrast, the psychodynamic explanation is individual as the conflict that exists between the
super-ego and id will be unique to everyone. The type of compulsive behaviour that the ego
uses will also be different (e.g. some people will clean, others will check things obsessively).
The second issue is the nature versus nurture debate. Nature is what we are born with and
nurture is what we learn through experience. The behavioural explanation is on the nurture
side of the debate as OCD is learned through negative reinforcement. The person learns that
cleaning, for example, lowers their anxiety so they continue to do this behaviour until it
The third issue is idiographic versus nomothetic. The psychodynamic explanation offers both
an idiographic and nomothetic approach to the development of OCD. The explanation has a
general law that everyone with OCD will have it because of their unresolved conflict between
the id and the super-ego. However, it also suggests that everyone will have their own
individual experience of this conflict and so there are different types of OCD. In contrast, the
cognitive explanation is nomothetic as it gives a general law that it is the obsessive thoughts
The fourth issue is reductionism. The behavioural explanation is reductionist as it ignores the
The fifth issue is determinism. The cognitive explanation is deterministic as the person has no
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Specimen Paper Answers
Examiner comment
The 10-mark questions are marked using a levels-based mark scheme.
This response achieves a mark in Level 3 with some detailed evaluation, but with limited analysis and
including a discussion of individual and situational explanations along with several other issues in varying
levels of detail.
The first evaluation point is the named issue and there is some detailed explanation given as to why the
behavioural and psychodynamic explanations are either situational or individual. The selection of evidence is
appropriate and is effective. There is also some limited analysis as the candidate correctly identifies that the
two explanations are ‘in contrast’ to each other in terms of this issue. To improve, the candidate could give a
definition of the issue at the beginning of their answer to show understanding of the issue. In addition, the
candidate could provide a comparison within one (or both) of the explanations that the explanation can be
considered to be both situational and individual with some examples to explain why this is the case. Or the
candidate could explain a strength and a weakness of having a situational/individual explanation and apply
this to the behavioural and psychodynamic explanations.
The second evaluation point, nature versus nurture, starts well with a definition of the issue and a clear
example of why the behavioural explanation supports the nurture side of the debate. There is an indication of
analysis through a comparison with psychodynamic, but the example given is not correct as this explanation
is that we are born with an id and our ego and super-ego develop later in childhood. To improve, this
candidate needs to give an example of how the psychodynamic explanation support the nature side of the
debate (e.g. everyone has an id, ego and super-ego and these will develop during childhood and everyone
experiences the psychosexual stages of development). In addition, the psychodynamic explanation also
supports the nurture side of the debate (e.g. through childhood experiences which effect the id, ego and
super-ego).
The third evaluation point, idiographic versus nomothetic, does give a good explanation of why the
psychodynamic explanation supports both approaches and a clear comparison is made. There is a very brief
evaluation of the cognitive explanation for OCD which could be extended with an example. In addition, this
candidate could explain how the cognitive explanation is also idiographic in a similar way to the
psychodynamic explanation.
The fourth and fifth evaluation issues are very brief and do not give any examples to explain why the
candidate thinks the explanations are reductionist or deterministic. To improve, this candidate is also under
the impression that explanations are either reductionist or not or deterministic or not and could use examples
to present a more balanced view. In addition, it would be better for this candidate to focus on the first three
evaluation issues and give more examples to back up their points rather than attempting to cover five.
Common mistakes
• Candidates cover the named issue in detail but no other issues.
• Candidates do not cover the named issue at all.
• When candidate give too few examples to explain evaluation points.
• Candidates do not give definitions of the issue (and it is unclear from the evaluation that the candidate
understands this issue).
• There is no analysis or very limited analysis (e.g. using the phrases ‘similarly’ and ‘in contrast’ without
explaining why the explanations, treatments, theories, etc. are similar or in contrast).
• An extreme view is presented (e.g. an explanation is fully deterministic) rather than a balanced
explanation of how an explanation could be considered to support both sides of an issue or debate.
15
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Contents
Contents............................................................................................................................................ 3
Introduction ....................................................................................................................................... 4
Details of assessment ....................................................................................................................... 5
Question 5......................................................................................................................................... 6
Question 6......................................................................................................................................... 8
Question 10..................................................................................................................................... 10
Specimen Paper Answers
Introduction
These specimen answers have been produced by Cambridge ahead of the examination in 2024 to exemplify
standards for those teaching Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990. In this booklet, we
have provided examples for Specimen Paper 04 structured questions and essay questions, a mixture of high
and middle-level responses for the structured question 5 and question 6 and a high and either middle or low-
level answer for essay questions 10(a), (b) and (c).
The marks given are for guidance only and are accompanied by a brief commentary explaining the
strengths and weaknesses of the answers. Comments are given to indicate where and why marks were
awarded, and how additional marks could have been obtained.
The mark schemes for the Specimen Papers are available to download from the School Support Hub.
Past exam resources and other teaching and learning resources are available from the School Support Hub.
4
Specimen Paper Answers
Details of assessment
The syllabus for Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology is available at
www.cambridgeinternational.org
5
Specimen Paper Answers
Question 5
From the key study by Yokley and Glenwick (1984) on community interventions:
(a) Outline two of the experimental conditions used in the study. [4]
participants received a prompt stating that ‘your child needs vaccinations’. The second was
the monetary incentive group where as well as the general prompt, information was given
Examiner comment
This question asks for two experimental conditions and is marked with up to two marks available for each
condition.
The answer correctly identifies one condition, the general prompt group, and outlines what happened to this
group. For the first part of the answer, 2 marks can be awarded out of 4.
The answer then identifies a second condition, monetary incentive group, and provides an outline of what
happens to this group and also makes it clear how it is different from the first group. This second part of the
answer is also awarded 2 marks out of 2, with the answer scoring full marks overall.
Common mistakes
A common mistake is to identify but not to outline, and this question requires an outline setting out the main
points of the things being identified. An example of this would be to write ‘one condition is the general prompt
group’ and nothing else. This would score 1 mark out of 2, because the condition has been correctly
identified, but it would not score the second mark because there is no outline of the main points of what this
condition involves.
(b) Suggest why Yokley and Glenwick included two control conditions in their study. [2]
due to the IV. Another reason is that the control conditions can be compared to the
experimental conditions.
Examiner comment
This is an example of a response which makes an appropriate suggestion but without applying it to the
question.
This answer has several weaknesses. Firstly, there is no mention of the Yokley and Glenwick study; the
answer is general and could apply to any study. Secondly, the question has been misinterpreted. Instead of
focussing on why two controls were used, two reasons have been provided. A better approach would have
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Specimen Paper Answers
been a single suggestion which has been applied to the question. In this case, 1 mark out of 2 can be
awarded for either of the suggestions.
Common mistakes
• Suggest questions require application of knowledge and understanding to the situation, in this case the
Yokley and Glenwick study.
• A common mistake is not to read the question fully. In this instance, the question does not require two
reasons for controls, as in the part (a) question, but a suggestion of why Yokley and Glenwick included
two controls.
(c) Explain two weaknesses of conducting field experiments to study participation in immunisation
interventions in communities. [4]
extraneous variables controlled. But this is reductionist and for a field experiment there might
be many extraneous variables that affect the DV that cannot be controlled. For example, the
money incentive group offers $175, but the family might have lots of money and so this is
not an incentive at all. Further, in a field experiment, participants do not know they are
Examiner comment
This question asks for two weaknesses and is marked with up to 2 marks available for each weakness.
This answer appears to begin incorrectly with an advantage, but it then becomes apparent that the answer is
explaining an appropriate weakness. There is then a good example which relates the weakness to the study
by Yokley and Glenwick and knowledge from the study is evident, such as referring to the money incentive
group and $175. The first part of this answer can be awarded 2 marks out of 2.
The second part of the response, participants not knowing that they are taking part in an experiment, is not a
weakness, but a strength. The statement is accurate because in many instances participants do not know
they are participating in a field experiment, but this is a strength rather than a weakness. The answer is not
related to the context of immunisation interventions in communities at all. No marks can be awarded for the
second half of the answer.
Common mistakes
It is important to remember that question parts (a), (b) and (c) all relate to the same question, introduced in
the stem (the question introduction). For this question the stem referred to the key study by Yokley and
Glenwick and so answers to all question parts must relate to this study or context.
7
Specimen Paper Answers
Question 6
The UAB pain behaviour scale can be used with patients in hospital. It uses repeated observations
to measure changing levels of pain.
(a) Describe how this scale is used with a patient in hospital. [2]
hospital is in. The scale includes verbal and non-verbal complaints and these can be rated as
Examiner comment
This is a good answer because not only does the answer describe what the UAB is used for, there is brief
detail about what is rated and the rating categories. This answer would be awarded 2 marks out of 2. Note
that other aspects of the UAB could have been included, such as rating the pain each day over a period of
time to see whether it was easing or not, or there could be examples of the verbal or non-verbal behaviour,
such as groans, gasps or body posture. These additional aspects could be used as alternative description,
but all the features would not be needed to achieve full marks.
Common mistakes
Candidates assume that a question allocated 2 marks requires a very brief answer. If, for example, an
answer was ‘The UAB scale can be used by a doctor or nurse to find out how much pain the patient is
experiencing’ this would score 1 mark out of 2 because there is no description. By adding a little extra detail
(as shown in the high-level answer above) can earn full marks.
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Specimen Paper Answers
(b) Suggest why is it important to use repeated observations to measure changing levels of pain.
[2]
Examiner comment
This answer begins by repeating the question. The second half of the answer is correct because this is a
reason why repeated observations are used, but there is no elaboration or further detail. Only 1 mark out of 2
can be awarded.
Common mistakes
• Candidates re-write the question. This wastes valuable writing time, especially if it is done for every
answer.
• Candidates do not add enough detail to their answers. The answer above could have gone on to write
(for example), ‘Repeated observation means that the amount of pain medication being administered can
be increased or decreased and if there is no pain recorded then the patient can be sent home’ which
would have been awarded the second mark.
(c) Explain one strength and one weakness of using this scale to measure pain behaviour. [4]
pain of a patient. If the patient were to assess their own pain, they may exaggerate, but a
medical expert would assess the pain accurately using numbers which can be compared each
day. A weakness is that the scale only assesses how much pain the patient is in. This has two
problems. Firstly it does not assess what type of pain the patient is in and secondly it only has
three categories: none, occasional and frequent. A wider scale could be used, such as a type of
5-point scale.
Examiner comment
This question asks for one strength and one weakness and is marked with up to two marks available for
each.
This answer has a strength which has elaboration and a weakness which also has elaboration. The answer
shows knowledge and understanding of the UAB pain measure and the evaluative points are clearly
explained. This answer scores full marks.
Common mistakes
Candidates do not provide one strength and one weakness. Sometimes answers will incorrectly include two
strengths or two weaknesses. Reading the question, understanding what is required and then putting it into
action is essential examination technique.
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Specimen Paper Answers
Question 10
A pleasant odour, such as the smell of flowers, could be the most important retail atmospheric to
influence the behaviour of consumers. However, some people do not like the smell of flowers,
instead preferring the smell of fruit.
(a) Plan an experiment to investigate the influence of different odours in a retail environment on
the behaviour of customers.
Your plan must include details about:
• A sampling technique
• A directional or non-directional hypothesis.
[10]
Specimen answer – high
I would conduct a field experiment, specifically outside two different flower shops located in
different parts of a shopping mall. The IV would include two conditions: the smell of flowers
(congruent odour) the smell of fresh bread (incongruent odour with a flower shop). For
controls I would spray the same amount of each odour for 3 seconds every 6 minutes and I
would repeat this each day for 1 week. However, I would not be able to control some
extraneous variables such as other odours in the background. The DV would be the number of
participants entering each flower shop, because the different odours would cause them to
enter the shop or not. The directional hypothesis would be that ‘participants smelling a
congruent odour will enter a flower shop significantly more than participants smelling an
incongruent odour’. The experimental design is independent groups because there are two
different flower shops each with a different odour. The study would be entirely ethical because
participants are doing their normal shopping, although it could be argued that as I’m
mall, ecological validity is high. Data would be gathered using a naturalistic, covert and
structured observation. This means that the observers would not be seen by the participants
and it is structured because the behavioural response categories would simply be ‘enters the
store’ and ‘does not enter the store’. The sampling technique would be opportunity, because I
would take the opportunity to observe a participant smelling the smell and entering the shop
or not. Data would be quantitative and the total number of people entering each shop could
be calculated.
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Specimen Paper Answers
Examiner comment
The 10-mark questions are marked using a levels-based mark scheme. It is worth noting the focus on
method-specific features. These features for each type of study (experiment, observation, etc.) are listed in
the Cambridge International AS & A Level Psychology 9990 syllabus.
This is a very good answer. This response meets the criteria for Level 5 in the marking grid for this question.
From the mark scheme: the answer does use a method as required by the question; it has a good range of
method-specific details which are described clearly (it has IV, DV, controls, design and location). It describes
a range of general methodological features well, such as ecological validity, the how data is collected and
the type of data. It also meets the requirements to include sampling technique, although some could be more
detailed (such as features of the observation or how the data would be analysed) and a hypothesis. It shows
very good understanding of what is required and why it is important for a valid and reliable experiment and is
a coherent design. This study could be replicated fairly easily as there is enough detail about the method
specific and general features. Appropriate knowledge and terminology is evident in the plan.
flowers and a citrus smelling odour. My study would be done in a shopping mall. The
participants would be people in the shopping mall. This would make the sampling technique
an opportunity sample. The study would be ethical. At the exit to the shopping mall I would
ask people to complete a questionnaire asking about whether they could smell the smell or
not, and whether they thought this improved their shopping experience. The hypothesis would
be that participants smelling a flower smell would rate the shopping experience higher than
participants smelling citrus. The results could be analysed and mean scores calculated and a
Examiner comment
This response meets the criteria for Level 2 of the marking grid for this question. From the mark scheme: the
answer uses an appropriate method as required by the question and states the sampling technique and
hypothesis. It has some method-specific details but these lack detail and a lot of terminology is absent, for
example there is no mention of IV, DV or controls. It shows very limited understanding of methodological
features specific to the plan of a field experiment and the study would be very difficult to replicate because of
the lack of method specific detail. There is little attempt to apply knowledge of psychological methodology
and terminology such as IV, DV, etc. (Note that this is not penalised twice, but it does confirm the level
achieved by this response).
This answer could be significantly better if explanations were provided rather than just general statements.
For example: what type of experiment is it? Why would the study be done in a shopping mall? Why is the
sampling technique opportunity? How is the study ethical? What is the IV, the DV? What is the experimental
design? What questions would be asked in the questionnaire to gather data? The answer has potential, but
absence of explanations restricts the awarding of marks.
11
Specimen Paper Answers
Common mistakes
• The most serious mistake in planning questions is not planning a study using the stated method. If the
question requires an experiment to be conducted, and a different method is used (such as an
observation, interview or questionnaire) then the response will only meet the criteria for Level 1 marks
(1–2). Note that it is appropriate to use a different method to gather data as part of the plan of the main
method (as is done in the good response above where observations are used).
• The guidance in the syllabus about the method-specific features of each type of study is extremely
important. Candidates should be familiar with these and with the other general methodological features
which create a coherent study.
• A failure to expand on methodological details (as explained above) can make the difference between a
middle-range response and a high response.
(b) For one piece of psychological knowledge on which your plan is based:
(i) Describe this psychological knowledge. [4]
They conducted a field experiment in a shopping mall. In week one there was no odour (the
control) and in the second week a light citrus scent was sprayed between two major retailers
for 3 seconds every 6 minutes. 145 participants in the scent condition and 447 in the
control condition completed a questionnaire about their spending and the quality of the mall.
Results showed that the citrus scent improved the shoppers’ mood and what they thought
Examiner comment
The mark scheme allocates 3–4 marks to answers where ‘The knowledge is appropriate. Relevant points are
correctly described in good detail.’ This answer includes the Chebat and Michon (2003) study which is the
recommended example study in the syllabus. Correct points are described in good detail. This question part
is awarded 4 marks out of 4.
Note that the example provided in this response is quite short, but has good detail listing the type of
experiment, the location, the design, the method of collecting data and the outline of the results. No further
detail is necessary.
Any psychological knowledge that is relevant to the plan (in question part (a)) can be described. This will
most likely be a specific study, but it could also be knowledge from the wider topic area. It could also be a
theory or a model. Candidates can use this question part to tell the examiner what they have learned on this
topic.
scents, one of which was a citrus smell, led people to buy more products. Other studies have
found that lighting and colour can also affect shopper behaviour.
Examiner comment
The answer correctly names Chebat and Michon and the location of the shopping mall and the comment that
they used a citrus odour in their study is also correct. However, Chebat and Michon did not look at whether
people bought more products or not. The comments about lighting and colour are from the same topic area,
but receive no credit because there is no explanation of how lighting and colour are relevant.
Common mistakes
• The most common mistake is answers that do not focus on the question. The answer must focus on a
relevant piece of psychological knowledge. To score 4 marks the response must be accurate and have
some detail.
• If what is described is not from the relevant topic area, and an examiner cannot see how the information
described is relevant, then no marks can be awarded.
(b)(ii) Explain how you used two features of this psychological knowledge to plan your experiment.
[4]
Specimen answer – high
Firstly, Chebat and Michon conducted their study in a shopping mall because this is a natural
environment for shoppers and not an artificial lab environment. This is the reason why I
decided to conduct my study outside flower shops in a shopping mall rather than in a lab.
Secondly, Chebat and Michon sprayed their odour for 3 seconds every six minutes and I
assume they did this because it maintained a constant level of odour. I decided to do the same
as Chebat and Michon because I have no evidence that any different timings would be better.
Examiner comment
This question asks for two features and is marked with up to 2 marks available for each feature.
This question is where the link between existing research and the plan is explained. The purpose of this
question part is to show how the candidate applies existing research knowledge to something different, or
something new.
The mark scheme for 2 marks answers states: ‘Suitable answer that identifies a feature and explains how
the feature was used, expanded or modified to make it appropriate to the plan. The knowledge has clearly
been applied to the plan.’
This answer includes two features both of which are clearly explained and show how the plan in part (a) was
based on the study by Chebat and Michon (2003). This question part receives 4 marks out of 4.
13
Specimen Paper Answers
in a shopping mall. The study by Chebat and Michon used a citrus odour, so I also used a
citrus odour.
Examiner comment
This question asks for two features and is marked with up to two marks available for each feature.
Both these comments are correct and each scores 1 mark. However, there is no elaboration and no
explanation for either decision. The consequence of this is that no further marks can be awarded.
Common mistakes
• The most common mistake is answering question part (a), the plan, without application of relevant
psychological knowledge. Candidates need to be aware that the second part of the planning question
requires them to state what psychological knowledge they used to plan the study and explain how they
used it. Otherwise, they might not be able to answer this question fully.
• It would be inappropriate to refer to a published study for every aspect of methodology that applies to
every study. For example, it would not be appropriate to write ‘I used a volunteer sample because the
Milgram (1963) did’.
• To gain more marks a response should always include an explanation of why the decision was made.
Even a single sentence may be sufficient to score a further mark. ‘Explain’ questions always require the
student to say why or how and support with relevant evidence.
• As with other questions if the question asks for two features, a response will not have access to all the
marks if they do not provide two features.
(c)(i) State two reasons for your choice of sampling technique. [2]
there because of their own choice to be there and they would behave naturally because they
did not know they were participating in an experiment. Secondly, if the participants agree to
do the study, they are more likely to be enthusiastic and less likely to withdraw.
Examiner comment
This answer is excellent because it provides two clear reasons. They are both stated well and are
appropriate to the study planned above.
This is a good way to structure a response with two reasons evident.
14
Specimen Paper Answers
time because I would have to advertise on a poster or in a newspaper and then I would have
Examiner comment
The answer gives a good and detailed reason why an opportunity sample was chosen. However, two
reasons are required and as this answer only gives one reason only 1 mark can be awarded.
Common mistakes
If a question requires two things (reasons in this instance) then two must be given, otherwise full marks
cannot be awarded.
participants smelling the different odours of the IV actually were. For example, there was no
control over age, gender, type of shopper (as outlined by Gil et al.). This would then restrict
any generalisation I might make because I did not record any feature of any participant, just
Examiner comment
This answer has an appropriate weakness, being no control of participant variables. If the answer were to be
just ‘no control over participant variables’ then 1 mark would be awarded. However, this answer adds further
detail and suggests what those participants’ variables might be. This answer clearly links to the plan and the
shows very good understanding when considering an implication (inability to generalise) of the weakness of
the sample. Impressively, the answer refers to the Gil et al. study which looked at different types of shoppers
and this is an appropriate participant variable to mention.
questionnaire I might choose people who I think might answer the questions in the way that
supports my study.
Examiner comment
This answer has an appropriate weakness, that of experimenter bias when using an opportunity sample and
so scores 1 mark. However, there is no link to what the study being planned is about and so the second
mark cannot be awarded.
15
Specimen Paper Answers
Common mistakes
A weakness must be explained in context of the plan not just stated to be awarded full marks.
(c)(iii) Explain one reason for your choice of directional or non-directional hypothesis. [2]
study. I predicted that congruent smells (smell of flowers outside a flower shop) would
encourage people to enter the shop rather than if they smelled an incongruent smell (bread
outside a flower shop). My directional hypothesis is based on the idea that a congruent smell
triggers the impulse to buy flowers and therefore enter the shop when an incongruent smell
would not.
Examiner comment
For this question the mark scheme allocates 1 mark for an appropriate reason and 1 further mark if the
reason is explained. The answer above states that the hypothesis is directional because a prediction is being
made. This is correct and 1 mark can be awarded. The answer then goes on to explain why a prediction was
made. The reasoning in this answer is logical, links directly to the plan and so 1 further mark can be
awarded.
experience higher than participants smelling citrus. This is a directional hypothesis because
there is the prediction that a flower smell will be rated higher than a citrus smell.
Examiner comment
The answer includes the hypothesis that appeared in part (a), the plan. This alone would score no marks and
it has already received credit in part (a). Similarly writing ‘This is a directional hypothesis’ would score no
marks because no reason for the choice is provided. However, there is then the comment about a prediction
being made and the flower smell rated higher. This reason would score 1 mark. However, there is no
explanation about why a flower smell will be rated higher and so the second mark cannot be awarded.
Common mistakes
• The direction of the hypothesis stated in question part (a) the plan, must match the reason stated in this
question part.
• Stating a reason ‘directional because I was making a prediction’ is only a partial answer. Explanation is
needed for full marks.
16
Cambridge Assessment International Education
The Triangle Building, Shaftesbury Road, Cambridge, CB2 8EA, United Kingdom
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PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/11
Paper 1 Approaches, Issues and
Debates
Key messages
Candidates need to know all components of every core study as listed in the syllabus. Questions can be
asked about any part of a core study.
Candidates need to read the whole question carefully to ensure that their responses are fulfilling the
demands of each one. For example, the question may require data, a named issue to be included or relate
back to a previous answer. To achieve full marks, these need to be correctly present in their responses. The
essay (final question) requires four evaluation points to be in depth (two strengths and two weaknesses) with
at least one of these about the named issue. ‘In depth’ tends to mean having two examples of a particular
concept or to support an evaluative point. Credit is limited if the named issue is omitted or just described.
Candidates need to be careful about how they are presenting the results of studies. For example, they need
to know if the results are about how many participants performed a task correctly or on how many trials the
participant was correct. This can have a large impact on the interpretation of results and whether a response
can gain credit.
Candidates also need to engage with any stimulus material presented in a question (for example, a novel
situation) to ensure they can access all available marks. In addition, when a question refers to ‘in this study’
the answer requires contextualisation with an explicit example from that study.
Candidates need to be able to explain similarities and/or differences between studies based on psychology.
Brief, rudimentary responses can rarely be credited.
Candidates need to appreciate the difference between a result and a conclusion. The former is factual and
based on collected data. The latter is a generic comment based on the results reported in any core study.
Candidates also need to know the set procedure of studies in the order presented in the original journal
article. Questions can be based around just part of a procedure and the candidate must be able to produce
an answer that is directed and concise rather than writing about the whole of the procedure. This can
sometimes mean a candidate may run out of time for other questions.
There is enough time for answers to be planned to ensure that the response given by a candidate is focused
on the demands of each question. This is a crucial skill to develop as some candidates appear to have good
knowledge of a study but do not apply this effectively to the question(s) set.
General comments
The marks achieved by the candidates sitting this examination covered a wide spread of possible marks.
Some candidates provided a range of excellent answers to many of the questions and could explain
psychological terminology well, providing evidence that they were prepared for the examination.
Stronger overall responses followed the demands of each question with explicit use of psychological
terminology and logical, well-planned answers in evidence. Appropriate examples were used from studies
when the question expected it and there was evidence of candidates being able to apply their knowledge to
real-world behaviours in terms of what and how.
There was a number of blank responses (every single question had blank responses). As positive marking is
used, candidates should attempt all questions even if they are unsure of the answer they are providing.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) A minority of responses correctly identified the group. It is important for candidates to clearly label
which answer they are choosing on multiple choice questions, especially if they change their initial
response. There were multiple instances where a candidate had chosen more than one answer.
(b) Stronger responses could clearly outline the category of ‘ignores’ from the named study. Common
points made by candidates included the participant making no verbal comments and only working
on their questionnaire. However, the majority of responses were not correct. Common errors
included writing about the ‘ignorant group’ in the study or giving a generic definition of ‘ignore’.
When a question states ‘in this study’ the response must be focused on the named study.
Question 2
(a) Features of a sample are any element related to the sample used in the named study. There were
many correct responses to this question with popular choices being the number of participants, the
gender imbalance, and the participant panel. Common errors included identifying features from a
different study and providing incorrect features of the sample used in the study by Andrade.
(b) The question required an identification of a strength, so no explanation was needed. Common
correct responses focused on the potential generalisability of the sample or that they were already
fatigued/bored. There were a minority of responses that provided a correct strength of the study but
not the sample so could not be awarded credit. It is important for candidates to read questions
carefully.
Question 3
(a) The majority of responses could describe part of the Disgust/Fear hierarchy. Popular choices
included the that it was a list of different buttons and the scale used to rate each of these buttons.
There were some responses that clearly described three points about the hierarchy. However,
some responses presented information about the therapy sessions or attempted to describe the
difference between disgust and fear, neither of which could be credited. Again, it is crucial for
candidates to read questions carefully.
(b) There were many correct responses to this question in terms of at least identifying and explaining a
weakness of the hierarchy. Popular choices included subjectivity and social desirability. However,
there were a significant minority of responses that explained a correct weakness but did not explain
why it was a weakness using evidence from the study. It is important for candidates to note the
number of marks assigned, and the number of problems that need to be addressed (e.g. one), as
this typically represents how the marks can be awarded. In this type of question, one mark is for
identifying a potential weakness and the second mark must come from explicit example(s) from the
study.
Question 4
(a) Stronger responses could clearly describe four aspects of the victims used in the study. Common
choices included the role of the ‘drunk’ victim and the ‘ill’ victim and the clothing worn by them.
However, there were several errors presented by candidates. There was a significant minority that
described the ‘ill’ victim as being an old man and the ‘drunk’ victim as always young, plus some
candidates claimed there were female victims. Other errors included describing the sample of
participants or what the victim had to do during a trial. Neither were answering the question set.
(b) There were some clear, detailed conclusions provided by candidates to this question, including
how helping is affected by type of victim and gender differences in helping behaviour. There were
instances where candidates wrote the same conclusion as was in the question so no credit could
be awarded. Also, there were some candidates who provided a result. Candidates need to know
the difference between a result and a conclusion (see key messages).
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 5
This question had the most blank responses on the paper. The majority of candidates could not provide
results based on the two questionnaires named in the question. Stronger responses however could present
a full result with data comparing either between-groups or within-group for either or both questionnaires.
Common errors included describing what was measured by each questionnaire or presenting results that
were not known (e.g., number of participants choosing a rating).
Question 6
The minority of responses could outline two assumptions of the cognitive approach. Popular choices focused
on the retention of information and the way we process information (input-process-output). Stronger
responses could then use an explicit example from one of the core studies from the cognitive approach to
show how it supports that assumption. Some candidates did provide an example from a study but it was not
linked to the presented assumption so no credit could be awarded. There were multiple examples of
candidates providing assumptions from a different approach, mainly biological. Assumptions are on the
syllabus and need to be known by candidates. This question had the second highest blank response rate on
the paper.
Question 7
The minority of responses could suggest two real-world applications based on Milgram. Popular choices
included teachers dressing authoritatively or using an authority figure like a doctor to present messages
about health campaigns. Like with all questions related to real-world applications, it is important for
candidates to outline what the application is and then explain how it can be achieved using evidence from
the named study, in this case Milgram. Additionally, the ‘what’ part needs to be explicit, therefore responses
that stated ‘to become more obedient’ could not be credited as this is not explicit. Some responses described
the study by Milgram with no application or suggested future research that could be based on the study.
Neither of these could be awarded credit. Finally, there were a number of responses that explained certain
behaviours in real-life rather than a real-world application. These could also not be credited. Responses
need to be prospective and not retrospective. There were very few responses that were not ethical.
Question 8
Stronger responses could clearly provide one reason why each of the people in the question is correct in
terms of validity in relation to Baron-Cohen et al. Popular examples for Danilo included high levels of internal
validity and that the revised version was designed to have increased validity. Stronger responses could
provide specific and explicit examples from the study to support the reason. Popular examples for Noah
included low levels of ecological validity and that people could still ‘guess correctly’. Again, stronger
responses could then provide specific and explicit examples. Weaker responses tended to provide more than
one reason and in this case the strongest ‘one reason’ was credited. To improve, candidates need to have
examples from each core study that appropriately support core concepts on the syllabus like validity.
Question 9
(a) The majority of responses could describe at least two features of REM sleep. Popular choices
included it being Rapid Eye Movement and that dreams occur more often in this phase of sleep.
Incorrect responses included describing the content of dreams reported in the study by Dement
and Kleitman or claiming we only dream in this phase of sleep.
(b) Stronger responses could clearly explain one similarity and one difference. Popular choices to
compare the studies on included generalisability of the sample, how brain activity was measured,
and the collection of quantitative data. To improve responses to this type of question, candidates
need to choose comparison points that can be developed and explained, using examples from both
studies to explain the similarity and/or difference. For example, explaining the different samples
can focus on the characteristics and/or sampling technique and allows for a detailed response with
a statement about generalisability. However, stating that each study had a different aim does not
allow the response to be detailed. Candidates need to choose their comparisons carefully to
ensure that they are logical and can be explained fully.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 10
The strongest responses evaluated the study by Bandura et al. in depth and in terms of two strengths and
two weaknesses, with at least one of these points covering the named issue of reliability. Common choices
included generalisability, reliability, ecological validity, ethics, and quantitative data. These strong responses
could explain why an element of the study was a strength or a weakness using specific examples from the
study by Bandura et al. to explicitly support their point. These answers tended to score Level 4 marks.
Candidates need to ensure that they follow the demands of the question, covering two strengths and two
weaknesses, all in equal depth. Some responses did cover the four evaluation points but were brief or did
not use the study by Bandura et al. as examples, which meant the response scored in the lower bands.
Other responses included three evaluation points that were thorough, logical, and well argued with a fourth
point that was brief, which meant the response did not reach the top band. Candidates need to know that
any description of the study does not gain credit in these type of questions as it is testing their evaluation
skills only. In addition, some responses appeared to follow a GRAVE approach to this question
(Generalisability, Reliability, Application, Validity, Ethics). Some responses appeared to be prepared essays
for Bandura et al. without one of their points being about reliability. A response that does not have one
evaluation point about the named issue can only score Level 3 (6 marks) maximum.
There were many responses that briefly outlined strengths and weaknesses with only some being in context,
which is a Level 2 response. Any response that has no context cannot get above a Level 1 mark. In addition,
many responses did use reliability in an evaluative sense but did not fully explain why it could be a strength
and/or a weakness. Several responses did not cover the named issue. In this series, more responses were
attempting to focus on real-world application which tended to only be awarded partial credit as this question
is evaluative in nature and not application. To be awarded credit for ‘application’, the candidate must present
an evaluative strength and then, as a result of this strength, explain what positive real-world application can
be seen as a consequence of the strength presented (e.g. good for classification of films/computer games
because Bandura et al. found…). To improve on this question, candidates need to plan carefully, choosing
two strengths and two weaknesses with one of these being the named issue, avoiding real-world application
where possible. Each strength and weakness should be of equal length with an explanation as to why it is a
strength or weakness with examples from the study to show clear understanding. An evaluation that is in
depth tends to have at least two explicit examples from the named study for every evaluative point made.
These are the requirements for a Level 4 response.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/12
Paper 1 Approaches, Issues and
Debates
Key messages
Candidates need to know all components of every core study as listed in the syllabus. Questions can be
asked about any part of a core study.
Candidates need to read the whole question carefully to ensure that their responses are fulfilling the
demands of each one. For example, the question may require data, a named issue to be included or relate
back to a previous answer. To achieve full marks, these need to be correctly present in their responses. The
essay (final question) requires four evaluation points to be in depth (two strengths and two weaknesses) with
at least one of these about the named issue. ‘In depth’ tends to mean having two examples of a particular
concept or to support an evaluative point. Credit is limited if the named issue is omitted or just described.
Candidates need to be careful about how they are presenting the results of studies. For example, they need
to know if the results are about how many participants performed a task correctly or on how many trials the
participant was correct. This can have a large impact on the interpretation of results and whether a response
can gain credit.
Candidates also need to engage with any stimulus material presented in a question (for example, a novel
situation) to ensure they can access all available marks. In addition, when a question refers to ‘in this study’
the answer requires contextualisation with an explicit example from that study.
Candidates need to be able to explain similarities and/or differences between studies based on psychology.
Brief, rudimentary responses can rarely be credited.
Candidates need to appreciate the difference between a result and a conclusion. The former is factual and
based on collected data. The latter is a generic comment based on the results reported in any core study.
Candidates also need to know the set procedure of studies in the order presented in the original journal
article. Questions can be based around just part of a procedure and the candidate must be able to produce
an answer that is directed and concise rather than writing about the whole of the procedure. This can
sometimes mean a candidate may run out of time for other questions.
There is enough time for answers to be planned to ensure that the response given by a candidate is focused
on the demands of each question. This is a crucial skill to develop as some candidates appear to have good
knowledge of a study but do not apply this effectively to the question(s) set.
General comments
The marks achieved by the candidates sitting this examination covered a wide spread of possible marks.
Some candidates provided a range of excellent answers to many of the questions and could explain
psychological terminology well, providing evidence that they were prepared for the examination.
Stronger overall responses followed the demands of each question with explicit use of psychological
terminology and logical, well-planned answers in evidence. Appropriate examples were used from studies
when the question expected it and there was evidence of candidates being able to apply their knowledge to
real-world behaviours in terms of what and how.
There was a number of blank responses (every single question had blank responses). As positive marking is
used, candidates should attempt all questions even if they are unsure of the answer they are providing.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) A minority of responses correctly identified the group. It is important for candidates to clearly label
which answer they are choosing on multiple choice questions, especially if they change their initial
response. There were multiple instances where a candidate had chosen more than one answer.
(b) Stronger responses could clearly outline the category of ‘watches’ from the named study. Common
points made by candidates included the participant making no verbal response to the stooge and
only observing the stooge. However, the majority of responses were not correct. Common errors
included giving a generic definition of ‘watches’. When a question states ‘in this study’ the response
must be focused on the named study. This question had the highest rate of blank responses on the
paper.
Question 2
(a) The majority of candidates could name at least one test used in the study by Baron-Cohen et al.
The most common choice was the Autism Spectrum Quotient. A common error was to identify the
gender in the picture, which is not a test, just a recognition exercise. A minority of candidates
identified the eyes test, but this was in the question so could not be credited. Candidates need to
read questions carefully.
(b) The question required an identification of a strength, so no explanation was needed. Common
correct responses focused on the comparability of quantitative data or that the test was
standardised and reliable. There were a minority of responses that provided a correct strength of
the study but not the test so could not be awarded credit. Again, it is important for candidates to
read questions carefully.
Question 3
(a) The majority of responses could describe part of the procedure for measuring emotional arousal.
Popular choices included the rating scale and that the participants had to press a button for their
response. There were some responses that clearly described three points about the measurement.
However, some responses presented information about the scanning procedure or the recognition
task, neither of which could be credited. Again, it is crucial for candidates to read questions
carefully.
(b) There were many correct responses to this question in terms of at least identifying and explaining a
weakness of the measurement of emotional arousal. Popular choices included subjectivity and it
used a forced-choice technique. However, there were a significant minority of responses that
explained a correct weakness but did not explain why it was a weakness using evidence from the
study. It is important for candidates to note the number of marks assigned, and the number of
problems that need to be addressed (e.g. one), as this typically represents how the marks can be
awarded. In this type of question, one mark is for identifying a potential weakness and the second
mark must come from explicit example(s) from the study.
Question 4
(a) Stronger responses could clearly describe four aspects in relation to the allocation of the children to
the experimental groups. Common choices included the pre-rating of aggression by teachers and
that a matched pairs/triplets approach was used. However, there were several errors presented by
candidates. There was a significant minority that described how many participants per group in
great detail, but the question was about how they were allocated not what the groups were as this
was in the question.
(b) There were many clear, detailed conclusions provided by candidates to this question, including
how gender affected aggression imitated and that behaviour can be imitated later in the absence of
the model. There were instances where candidates wrote the same conclusion as was in the
question so no credit could be awarded. Also, there were some candidates who provided a result,
rather than a conclusion. Candidates need to know the difference between a result and a
conclusion (see key messages).
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 5
The majority of candidates could not provide results based on the two questionnaires named in the question.
Stronger responses, however, could present a full result with data comparing either between-groups or
within-group for either or both questionnaires. Common errors included describing what was measured by
each questionnaire or presenting results that were not known (e.g. number of participants choosing a rating),
or incorrect comparisons. For the Food Preferences Questionnaire there were many responses comparing
the Love Group and the Control Group. This never happened as it was an analysis of Believers and Non-
believers. It is important for candidates to know the main results from all measures used in any core study on
the syllabus. This question had the second highest blank response rate on the paper.
Question 6
The minority of responses could outline two assumptions of the social approach. Popular choices focused on
the role of either individuals or groups on our behaviours, emotions, and cognitions. Stronger responses
could then use an explicit example from one of the core studies from the social approach to show how it
supports that assumption. Some candidates did provide an example from a study but it was not linked to the
presented assumption so no credit could be awarded. There were multiple examples of candidates providing
assumptions from a different approach, mainly learning (social learning was a common error). Assumptions
are on the syllabus and need to be known by candidates.
Question 7
The minority of responses could suggest two real-world applications based on Dement and Kleitman.
Popular choices included helping to diagnose sleeping disorders and promoting better quality sleep. Like
with all questions related to real-world applications, it is important for candidates to outline what the
application is and then explain how it can be achieved using evidence from the named study, in this case
Dement and Kleitman. Additionally, the ‘how’ part needs to be explicit, therefore responses that stated ‘using
an EEG to see if a patient has a sleeping disorder’ could not be credited as this is not explicit. Some
responses described the study by Dement and Kleitman with no application or suggested future research
that could be based on the study. Neither of these could be awarded credit. Some candidates suggested two
real-world applications but simply named two different sleep disorders but could only be credited for the best
one (this is an example of repetition; the two suggestions must be distinctly different). Finally, there were a
number of responses that explained certain behaviours in real-life rather than a real-world application. These
could also not be credited. Responses need to be prospective and not retrospective. There were very few
responses that were not ethical.
Question 8
Stronger responses could clearly provide one reason why each person in the question is correct in terms of
ethics in relation to the study by Yamamoto et al. Popular examples for Haji included using the smallest
number of chimpanzees and that they were socially housed. Stronger responses could provide specific and
explicit examples from the study to support the reason. Popular examples for Dottie included the use of
rewards for just one chimpanzee and that choosing the incorrect tool might cause distress. Again, stronger
responses could then provide specific and explicit examples. Weaker responses tended to provide more than
one reason and in this case the best ‘one reason’ was credited. A minority of candidates attempted to argue
about the chimpanzees not being in the wild but this could not gain credit as the chimpanzees were
laboratory-raised. Also, there were a minority of candidates who argued it was not ethical based on
guidelines for human participants, for example, informed consent, which clearly could not gain credit. It is
important for candidates to know the ethical guidelines in relation to animals and apply them to studies like
Yamamoto correctly. To improve, candidates need to have examples from each core study that appropriately
support core concepts on the syllabus like ethics.
Question 9
(a) The majority of responses could outline what a phobia is. Popular choices included mentioning
irrational fear and that it is towards an object/stimulus/situation. Incorrect responses included
writing about the role of disgust, naming different types of phobias, or stating it is fear of
‘something’ which is too generic and not based on psychology.
(b) The majority of candidates could not provide a correct outline of evaluative learning. Many
responses appeared to focus on it being an evaluation of a process (looking for strengths or
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
weaknesses) or that it is operant conditioning. Stronger responses could clearly outline the role of
classical conditioning and cognitive elements in this type of learning.
(c) Stronger responses could clearly explain one similarity and one difference. Popular choices to
compare the studies on included the lack of generalisability of the sample, the use of the case
study method, and the collection of quantitative data. To improve responses to this type of
question, candidates need to choose comparison points that can be developed and explained,
using examples from both studies to explain the similarity and/or difference. For example,
explaining the similarity of the case study method using examples from both studies and then
explaining why it is a similarity could be awarded Level 4. However, stating that each study had a
different aim or used a different species does not allow the response to be detailed. Candidates
need to choose their comparisons carefully to ensure that they are logical and can be explained
fully.
Question 10
The strongest responses evaluated the study by Andrade in depth and in terms of two strengths and two
weaknesses, with at least one of these points covering the named issue of independent measures. Common
choices included generalisability, reliability, ecological validity, ethics, and quantitative data. These strong
responses could explain why an element of the study was a strength or a weakness using specific examples
from the study by Andrade to explicitly support their point. These answers tended to score Level 4 marks.
Candidates need to ensure that they follow the demands of the question, covering two strengths and two
weaknesses, all in equal depth. Some responses did cover the four evaluation points but were brief or did
not use the study by Andrade as examples, which meant the response scored in the lower bands. Other
responses included three evaluation points that were thorough, logical, and well argued with a fourth point
that was brief, which meant the response did not reach the top band. Candidates need to know that any
description of the study does not gain credit in these type of questions as it is testing their evaluation skills
only. In addition, some responses appeared to follow a GRAVE approach to this question (Generalisability,
Reliability, Application, Validity, Ethics). Therefore, some responses appeared to be prepared essays for
Andrade without one of their points being about independent measures. A response that does not have one
evaluation point about the named issue can only score Level 3 (6 marks) maximum.
There were many responses that briefly outlined strengths and weaknesses with only some being in context,
which is a Level 2 response. Any response that has no context cannot get above a Level 1 mark. In addition,
many responses did use reliability in an evaluative sense but did not fully explain why it could be a strength
and/or a weakness. Several responses did not cover the named issue or could only provide a strength or
weakness in general without any examples from the study by Andrade. In this series, more responses were
attempting to focus on real-world application which tended to only be awarded partial credit as this question
is evaluative in nature and not application. To be awarded credit for ‘application’, the candidate must present
an evaluative strength and then, as a result of this strength, explain what positive real-world application can
be seen as a consequence of the strength presented (e.g. good for jobs that are repetitive but require
focused attention as Andrade found…). To improve on this question, candidates need to plan carefully,
choosing two strengths and two weaknesses with one of these being the named issue, avoiding real-world
application where possible. Each strength and weakness should be of equal length with an explanation as to
why it is a strength or weakness with examples from the study to show clear understanding. An evaluation
that is in depth tends to have at least two explicit examples from the named study for every evaluative point
made. These are the requirements for a Level 4 response.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/13
Paper 1 Approaches, Issues and
Debates
Key messages
Candidates need to know all components of every core study as listed in the syllabus. Questions can be
asked about any part of a core study.
Candidates need to read the whole question carefully to ensure that their responses are fulfilling the
demands of each one. For example, the question may require data, a named issue to be included or relate
back to a previous answer. To achieve full marks, these need to be correctly present in their responses. The
essay (final question) requires four evaluation points to be in depth (two strengths and two weaknesses) with
at least one of these about the named issue. ‘In depth’ tends to mean having two examples of a particular
concept or to support an evaluative point. Credit is limited if the named issue is omitted or just described.
Candidates need to be careful about how they are presenting the results of studies. For example, they need
to know if the results are about how many participants performed a task correctly or on how many trials the
participant was correct. This can have a large impact on the interpretation of results and whether a response
can gain credit.
Candidates also need to engage with any stimulus material presented in a question (for example, a novel
situation) to ensure they can access all available marks. In addition, when a question refers to ‘in this study’
the answer requires contextualisation with an explicit example from that study.
Candidates need to be able to explain similarities and/or differences between studies based on psychology.
Brief, rudimentary responses can rarely be credited.
Candidates need to appreciate the difference between a result and a conclusion. The former is factual and
based on collected data. The latter is a generic comment based on the results reported in any core study.
Candidates also need to know the set procedure of studies in the order presented in the original journal
article. Questions can be based around just part of a procedure and the candidate must be able to produce
an answer that is directed and concise rather than writing about the whole of the procedure. This can
sometimes mean a candidate may run out of time for other questions.
There is enough time for answers to be planned to ensure that the response given by a candidate is focused
on the demands of each question. This is a crucial skill to develop as some candidates appear to have good
knowledge of a study but do not apply this effectively to the question(s) set.
General comments
The marks achieved by the candidates sitting this examination covered a wide spread of possible marks.
Some candidates provided a range of excellent answers to many of the questions and could explain
psychological terminology well, providing evidence that they were prepared for the examination.
Stronger overall responses followed the demands of each question with explicit use of psychological
terminology and logical, well-planned answers in evidence. Appropriate examples were used from studies
when the question expected it and there was evidence of candidates being able to apply their knowledge to
real-world behaviours in terms of what and how.
There was a number of blank responses (every single question had blank responses). As positive marking is
used, candidates should attempt all questions even if they are unsure of the answer they are providing.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 1
(a) A minority of responses correctly identified the group. It is important for candidates to clearly label
which answer they are choosing on multiple choice questions, especially if they change their initial
response. There were multiple instances where a candidate had chosen more than one answer.
(b) Stronger responses could clearly outline the category of neutral from the named study. Common
points made by candidates included an irrelevant response given to the stooge. However, the
majority of responses were not correct. Common errors included giving a generic definition of
‘neutral’. When a question states ‘in this study’ the response must be focused on the named study.
This question had the second highest rate of blank responses on the paper.
Question 2
(a) The majority of candidates could name at least one of the measures observed in the study by
Piliavin et al. The most common choice was the race. A common error was to identify features of
the victim. Candidates need to read questions carefully.
(b) The question required an identification of a strength, so no explanation was needed. Common
correct responses focused on ecological validity or that the sample was generalisable. There were
a minority of responses that provided a correct weakness of the study, but the question was asking
about a strength. Again, it is important for candidates to read questions carefully.
Question 3
(a) The majority of responses could describe a small part of the procedure for the final part of the study
by Bandura et al. Popular choices included what was in the room and the response categories that
were observed. There were some responses that clearly described three points about the
measurement. However, some responses presented information about the initial part of the study,
or the part where the children got intentionally frustrated. Again, it is crucial for candidates to read
questions carefully.
(b) There were some correct responses to this question in terms of at least identifying and explaining a
weakness of the measurement of the final part of the study by Bandura et al. Popular choices
included ethics and validity of recording. However, there were a significant minority of responses
that explained a correct weakness but did not explain why it was a weakness using evidence from
the study. It is important for candidates to note the number of marks assigned, and the number of
problems that need to be addressed (e.g. one), as this typically represents how the marks can be
awarded. In this type of question, one mark is for identifying a potential weakness and the second
mark must come from explicit example(s) from that part of the study. There were many responses
that gave a generic weakness of the overall study rather than the final part of the study.
Question 4
(a) Stronger responses could clearly describe four aspects in relation to the feedback from the learner.
Common choices included that the responses were predetermined and that nothing was heard until
Shock Level 300v. However, there were several errors presented by candidates. Many responses
gave generic ideas about the procedure without any specific detail (e.g. the shock levels at which
certain activities happened) and so could only be awarded minimal credit.
(b) There were many clear, detailed conclusions provided by candidates to this question, including
obedience being linked to diffusion of responsibility and that authority figures will be followed.
There were instances where candidates wrote the same conclusion as was in the question so no
credit could be awarded. Also, there were some candidates who provided a result, rather than a
conclusion. Candidates need to know the difference between a result and a conclusion (see key
messages).
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 5
The majority of candidates could not provide results based on the two questionnaires named in the question.
Stronger responses, however, could present a full result with data comparing either between-groups or
within-group for either or both questionnaires. Common errors included describing what was measured by
each questionnaire or presenting results that were not known (e.g. number of participants choosing a rating),
or incorrect comparisons. For the Photograph Ratings there were many responses comparing the Love
Group and the Control Group. This never happened as it was an analysis of Believers and Non-believers. It
is important for candidates to know the main results from all measures used in any core study on the
syllabus. This question had the highest blank response rate on the paper.
Question 6
The minority of responses could outline two assumptions of the learning approach. Popular choices focused
on the role of social learning and operant conditioning in behavioural changes. Stronger responses could
then use an explicit example from one of the core studies from the learning approach to show how it
supports that assumption. Some candidates did provide an example from a study but it was not linked to the
presented assumption so no credit could be awarded. There were multiple examples of candidates providing
assumptions from a different approach, mainly social. Assumptions are on the syllabus and need to be
known by candidates.
Question 7
The minority of responses could suggest two real-world applications based on Baron-Cohen et al. Popular
choices included helping to diagnose AS/HFA or that the test can help improve social intelligence. Like with
all questions related to real-world applications, it is important for candidates to outline what the application is
and then explain how it can be achieved using evidence from the named study, in this case Baron-Cohen et
al. Additionally, the ‘how’ part needs to be explicit, therefore responses that stated ‘give children the eyes
test at school’ could not be credited as this is not explicit. Some responses described the study by Baron-
Cohen et al. with no application or suggested future research that could be based on the study. Neither of
these could be awarded credit. Finally, there were a number of responses that explained certain behaviours
in real-life rather than a real-world application. These could also not be credited. Responses need to be
prospective and not retrospective. There were no responses that were not ethical.
Question 8
Stronger responses could clearly provide one reason why each person in the question is correct in terms of
ethics in relation to the study by Saavedra and Silverman. Popular examples for Maria included obtaining
informed consent from the mother and boy, plus there was some level of confidentiality. Stronger responses
could provide specific and explicit examples from the study to support the reason. Popular examples for
Oscar included causing psychological distress by being exposed to buttons, plus some privacy may have
been breached. Again, stronger responses could then provide specific and explicit examples. Weaker
responses tended to provide more than one reason and in this case the best ‘one reason’ was credited. It is
important for candidates to know the ethical guidelines in relation to humans and apply them to studies like
Saavedra and Silverman correctly. To improve, candidates need to have examples from each core study that
appropriately support core concepts on the syllabus like ethics.
Question 9
(a) The majority of responses could identify one element of altruism. Popular choices included doing
something that may disadvantage yourself. Incorrect responses included giving examples of
altruism or confusing altruism with empathy.
(b) The majority of candidates could not provide a correct outline of targeting helping. Many responses
appeared to be tautological in nature, stating that targeted helping was helping in a
specific/targeted way. Stronger responses could clearly outline the role of appropriate help given
based on understanding the situation.
(c) Stronger responses could clearly explain one similarity and one difference. Popular choices to
compare the studies on included the collection of quantitative data and sampling. To improve
responses to this type of question, candidates need to choose comparison points that can be
developed and explained, using examples from both studies to explain the similarity and/or
difference. For example, explaining the similarity of collecting mainly quantitative data using
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
examples from both studies and then explaining why it is a similarity could be awarded Level 4.
However, stating that each study had a different aim or used a different species does not allow the
response to be detailed. Candidates need to choose their comparisons carefully to ensure that they
are logical and can be explained fully.
Question 10
The strongest responses evaluated the study by Dement and Kleitman in depth and in terms of two strengths
and two weaknesses, with at least one of these points covering the named issue of reliability. Common
choices included generalisability, reliability, ecological validity, ethics, and quantitative data. These strong
responses could explain why an element of the study was a strength or a weakness using specific examples
from the study by Dement and Kleitman to explicitly support their point. These answers tended to score Level
4 marks. Candidates need to ensure that they follow the demands of the question, covering two strengths
and two weaknesses, all in equal depth. Some responses did cover the four evaluation points but were brief
or did not use the study by Dement and Kleitman as examples, which meant the response scored in the
lower bands. Other responses included three evaluation points that were thorough, logical, and well argued
with a fourth point that was brief, which meant the response did not reach the top band. Candidates need to
know that any description of the study does not gain credit in these type of questions as it is testing their
evaluation skills only. In addition, some responses appeared to follow a GRAVE approach to this question
(Generalisability, Reliability, Application, Validity, Ethics). Some responses appeared to be prepared essays
for Dement and Kleitman without one of their points being about reliability. A response that does not have
one evaluation point about the named issue can only score Level 3 (6 marks) maximum.
There were many responses that briefly outlined strengths and weaknesses, with only some being in context
which is a Level 2 response. Any response that has no context cannot get above a Level 1 mark. In addition,
many responses did use reliability in an evaluative sense but did not fully explain why it could be a strength
and/or a weakness. Several responses did not cover the named issue or could only provide a strength or
weakness in general without any examples from the study by Dement and Kleitman. In this series, more
responses were attempting to focus on real-world application which tended to only be awarded partial credit
as this question is evaluative in nature and not application. To be awarded credit for ‘application’ the
candidate must present an evaluative strength and then, as a result of this strength, explain what positive
real-world application can be seen as a consequence of the strength presented (e.g. good for helping to
diagnose sleep disorders because Dement and Kleitman found…). To improve on this question, candidates
need to plan carefully, choosing two strengths and two weaknesses with one of these being the named
issue, avoiding real-world application where possible. Each strength and weakness should be of equal length
with an explanation as to why it is a strength or weakness with examples from the study to show clear
understanding. An evaluation that is in depth tends to have at least two explicit examples from the named
study for every evaluative point made. These are the requirements for a Level 4 response.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/21
Paper 2 Research Methods
Key messages
This question paper asks candidates to answer a range of questions, including ones about the core studies,
in relation to research methods, terms and concepts used to describe or evaluate research methodology,
and application of this knowledge to both familiar and unfamiliar contexts. These types of questions require
candidates to use a variety of skills. Candidates should be encouraged to prepare for each of these skills,
especially for demonstrating knowledge of concepts and the application of this knowledge.
Ability to apply knowledge and understanding to novel scenarios is essential to help candidates to
successfully complete this paper. This skill can help candidates in two ways: candidates should be able to
apply research methods, terms and concepts to scenarios presented in questions. These can include, for
example, planning, criticising or developing designs or analysing data. Candidates should be aware of
questions which require a link. When a question includes ‘in this study’, or makes a direct reference to the
scenario, responses should go beyond simply describing or evaluating. The answer must also be
contextualised in a relevant way. Practice could help candidates to learn both how to extract relevant ideas,
and how to make novel suggestions based on scenarios.
Psychological knowledge should be applied wherever possible. Anecdotal and common sense answers will
not achieve top marks.
Question 10 in this paper requires candidates to produce an original design for a novel research question.
This ‘creative’ process requires practice and it is important that candidates understand the basic research
methods well and that they respond to the question by using the method stipulated by the question.
Furthermore, to learn to identify flaws in a design (whether their own, as in Question 10, or one from a novel
scenario, for example, in Section B) candidates should have had the experience of practical problems in
conducting studies. This is a high-level skill and can be developed through practical work with designing and
conducting small studies in class, or through practice with novel scenarios. Candidates should be familiar
with the overall structure of Question 10(a), which can be closely tailored to requirements of an individual
question, such as the required research methods and the scenario.
Section A
Question 1
(a) Most candidates were able to explain the term ‘ecological validity’ which is ‘the extent to which the
findings of a study set in one situation will generalise to other situations’. An answer using these
words or similar would be awarded 1 mark. The second mark was available for any example which
illustrated ecological validity. The most common example was the Piliavin et al. ‘Subway
Samaritans’ study, being high in ecological validity, but also credit was awarded to the candidates
giving an example of a study which was low in ecological validity, such as that by Milgram.
Question 2
(a) Many candidates were awarded only 1 mark because their answer was limited to ‘both closed’. The
question asks for an explanation and candidates stating a reason why the items were both closed,
such as the details in the stem of the question, scored full marks.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(b) This question consisted of two parts: firstly, an explanation of what is meant by the term ‘critical
item’ and secondly an example from the Laney et al. study to show understanding of the term
‘critical item’. Nearly all candidates knew that asparagus was the critical item, and were awarded 1
mark, but not all candidates could explain why this was ‘critical’. A critical item is something that is
directly related to the aim, something that is related to the IV or is a crucial part of the procedure.
Question 3
(a) A number of candidates described an independent measures design, which is incorrect. Many
others correctly described a repeated measures design which is where every participant does all
the conditions of the independent variable. The second part of this question required an example
from the Canli et al. study. Only a few candidates gave the correct answer of the independent
variable being the emotive/negative and non-emotive/neutral stimuli presented in the first part of
the study. The recognition task, done three weeks later, was not part of the independent variable.
A common error: a repeated measures design is not repeating the same condition again (which is
replication) rather, it is participating in all the conditions of the IV.
(b) Those candidates describing an independent measures design in part (a) also scored no marks for
this question part. However, most candidates gave an appropriate strength of a repeated measures
design to achieve 1 mark and for the second available mark many elaborated on the strength or
provided an appropriate example from a core study.
Question 4
This question required two ‘ways’ for four marks, so candidates only providing one way could only score a
maximum of two marks. Examples of correct ways included: the number of items was the same (1 mark) and
included stick, straw, belt, etc. (2 marks); the time period to give the straw or stick was always the same
(1 mark) 5 minutes before the researcher intervened (2 marks). Other possibilities related to the room, the
familiarisation before starting the trials or any other standardised aspect of the procedure could be credited.
Question 5
Many candidates appeared to confuse reliability with replication i.e. referring to repeating a study and getting
the same results rather than the consistency of any test or task or measure. In this instance, about reliability
in experiments, several answers were acceptable. For example, if tests are inconsistent, differences between
conditions might be due to poor measurement, not the independent variable. Also acceptable was that if the
DV is not being measured reliably then the data cannot test a causal effect. A few candidates referred to
inter-rater reliability which is most frequently used in observation studies, rather than in experiments.
Question 6
There were many correct answers which received full marks. Amongst the incorrect answers, many claimed
that ‘receiving a reward’ or ‘monetary payment’ was a feature of volunteer sampling. However, many
answers also claimed this for opportunity sampling. Receiving money or course credits can apply to both and
is not a specific feature of one technique or the other. Many answers stated that ‘a feature of volunteer
sampling is that participants volunteer’. Such answers received no credit for repeating the term without
elaboration. Some answers stated that volunteer sampling involves placing an advertisement in a
newspaper. This correct answer would get 2 marks.
Question 7
(a)(i) Despite the question stating the requirement of two situational variables, many candidates wrote
about two ‘personal’ variables. Hence, answers such as ‘the participant’s mood’ and ‘their
upbringing’, were included, all of which were awarded 0 marks. A number of situational variables
also scored 0 marks, because they could apply to all types of shop. For example, ‘the weather’,
external to the shop, might affect a person’s mood, but this is before they enter the shop and so not
creditworthy. Many answers with situational variables did receive credit, such as the number of
people in the shop (crowding), and the temperature inside the shop.
(ii) In (a)(ii), credit was given for an explanation of how the situational feature might affect frustration.
For example, crowding inside the shop may frustrate a customer who cannot see or get to the
goods they want to purchase. Answers that did not refer to frustration received no credit.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
(b)(i) Most candidates were awarded 1 mark for stating that right to withdraw could not be given because
participants did not know they were in a study. The second mark could only be awarded if the
answer referred to the ‘in this study’ component of the question, and most answers did not do this.
(ii) Similar to (b)(i), question (b)(ii) required a link to the study in the question and here the answer
needed to make a reference to privacy, such as ‘shoppers might be purchasing something very
personal so observing this without consent would break the guideline of privacy’. Answers simply
restating the same as for part (i) - that privacy could not be achieved because participants did not
know they were in a study - received no credit.
Question 8
(a) This question required candidates to suggest an objective measure. At a simple level, this meant
constructing a measure to produce numerical data. However, the question stated that a self-report
rating scale could not be used, so candidates suggesting a rating scale scored 0 marks.
Candidates also scored 0 marks for suggesting an open-ended questionnaire or suggesting asking
a question that resulted in a yes or no answer (this does not produce quantitative data). Success at
learning a language could be measured with a test looking at the number of correct responses, or
the number of errors. It could also be measured by the size of vocabulary (number of words
learned). To achieve the second available mark candidates had to justify their answer. Most
candidates appeared to struggle to do this.
(b) Very few candidates scored the available mark due to omitting one aspect of the following, to
calculate a median for enjoyment of word puzzles in this study the scores/ratings need to be placed
in numerical order and the middle score needs to be identified.
(c) Most candidates achieved the maximum four marks for their answers to this question. Marks were
awarded for labelling each axis (‘language learning score’ and ‘enjoyment of word puzzles’), for
labelling the word puzzle axis from 0–5, for plotting data showing a scatter graph, for the data
showing a positive slope, and for including a line of best fit (which must be a straight line). A few
candidates drew a bar chart which scored limited credit for the labelling of the axes.
Question 9
(a) In response to this question, many candidates scored 0 marks for stating ‘a directional hypothesis
shows the direction’. A statement like this shows no understanding of what a directional hypothesis
is. A correct answer for limited credit might be ‘because Inma knows which way the results will go’.
For the second available mark, the answer needed to relate to Inma’s experiment which involved
stating the IV and the DV. A full-mark correct answer would be ‘because she believes that the
animals will be faster (to learn the maze) in the light than the dark’.
(b) There are only two ways to write a null hypothesis, and applied to Inma’s experiment these are:
‘there will be no difference between speed in the maze in the light and in the dark’ or ‘any
difference between maze learning success in the light and in the dark is due to chance’. Either of
these null hypotheses scored the one available mark. Any other wording is incorrect.
(c) This question required an advantage of using an independent measure design compared to using a
repeated measures design. This meant that any answer had to include both designs in order to
achieve full marks. Correct answers included ‘unlike a repeated measures design there will be no
fatigue/practice effects (1 mark) that are created by the animal going through the maze again’
(2 marks). This answer has the required contrast and it is related to Inma’s study.
(d) Ethical guidelines for animals are different from ethical guidelines for humans and so any answer
that included informed consent, deception or right to withdraw was awarded 0 marks. Correct
ethical guidelines could include housing, reward, no deprivation and no pain or distress. The
answer also had to be related to Inma’s experiment and included in the stem of the question was
the statement ‘If the animal does not find the food after 10 minutes, they are given food by the
experimenter’ which led most candidates to link this to the guideline of reward, no deprivation or no
harm.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 10
(a) This question required candidates to design an observational study. This meant that inclusion of a
number of essential features of an observation were required, such as whether the observation
was structured or unstructured, participant or non-participant, naturalistic or controlled, and covert
or overt. In addition, to achieve a high mark candidates could consider behavioural categories and
how these could be operationalised, whether time sampling or event sampling would be applied
and whether there would be 2 observers so the consistency of the observations could be checked
(inter-rater reliability). All of these needed to be applied to the behaviour of candidates in a library
at a university. Also relevant was who the participants would be and the location of the study on the
sampling technique. Answers achieving full marks included all of these features, clearly and in
detail. Answers including some of these features achieved mid band marks and answers including
very few or none of these features were awarded very low or no marks at all. Some candidates
include the use of questionnaires which were irrelevant to the question. Some candidates tried to
apply the features of an experiment, but this was also irrelevant. If the method stated is an
observation, that method is required, and an alternative method cannot be credited. The features of
an experiment should only be applied if the question specifically asks candidates to design an
experiment.
(b) A number of candidates suggested that ethics was a limitation or that the sample was limited, but
ethics and sampling were excluded in the question. Any limitation related to experiments also
scored 0 marks. Candidates awarded full marks often referred to a limitation of just one observer
not being able to observe every behaviour (for example) and a solution to this being to have two
observers so the consistency of the observed data could be checked. Notably, many candidates
stated that having two observers improves reliability, but it merely checks whether there is
consistency or not. Another possible limitation was that the candidates in the library might notice
they were being observed by Dr Clare and the suggested solution was to use CCTV cameras and
analyse the data at a later date.
© 2023
Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/22
Paper 2 Research Methods
Key messages
• This research methods paper asks candidates to answer a range of questions, including ones about the
core studies in relation to research methods, terms and concepts used to describe or evaluate research
methodology, and application of this knowledge to both familiar and unfamiliar contexts. Responses to
this paper demonstrated a range of ability in these skills.
• Candidates demonstrated excellent knowledge of basic concepts such as identifying independent and
dependent variables and basic strengths of sampling methods. The analytical questions, and expanding
on answers, they found more challenging. Some areas of basic concepts where knowledge was less
evident was in candidates’ ability to identify and suggest ways to measure variables. Here, candidates’
responses often lacked accurate description and/or examples.
• The ability to link accurate detail to a given scenario or context is also required on the paper. This more
difficult skill was tackled well by some candidates, but less well by many others.
General comments
Candidates were able to access marks across the whole paper. However, not all were able to accurately
and/or consistently demonstrate knowledge and understanding or to access the additional marks for linking
their response to the scenarios, thus limiting their performance as a whole. Candidates across the ability
range were able to demonstrate some knowledge of a range of aspects of research methods in this paper.
Success was greater on some straightforward questions such as Questions 1, 3(a)(i), and 9(a), 9(b) and
9(c) than on more demanding ones, such as Questions 7(c)(ii), 8(a)(i), and 10. However, there were also
some more straightforward questions which candidates found challenging, such as Questions 5, 7(a)(i) and
(ii), 7(b)(ii) and 8(b). Where questions required a link, for example to a study, candidates were often able to
earn partial marks for an initial identification of a relevant fact, such as identifying the disadvantage in
Question 7(b)(ii) but were then unable to relate this explicitly to the information in the stem. Question 10
was sometimes well answered, although responses often lacked any indication of the specific details of an
interview, such as the type of interview, type of questions and examples of questions. Such responses
therefore lacked necessary relevant detail.
As a general point, candidates can always make use of blank paper within the booklet or extra pages but it is
advisable to indicate this at the end of a response that is continued. All pages are checked but on occasions
it is difficult to establish to which question extra material belongs unless candidates have made this clear.
Section A
Question 1
In general, this question was answered well, with candidates demonstrating a good understanding of the
purpose of the familiarisation stage of the Yamamoto study.
Question 2
(a) There were a range of answers provided for this question, with stronger responses demonstrating
an excellent understanding of a non-directional hypothesis although weaker responses often
predicted that one type of conditioning would be faster than the other or referred to relationships/
correlations rather than differences/effects. Some linked to phobias and other behaviours.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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(b) Generally not well answered, with many candidates simply repeating ‘the same’ from the question
and not offering any further explanation of this. Many answers suggested that Chloe should have
used a one tailed rather than a two tailed hypothesis, which was not addressing the question.
Stronger responses were less common here, but explained that as there was no difference, the
hypothesis would need to be rejected.
Question 3
(a) (i) Candidates have a good understanding of the deceptions in this study, most commonly the
deception of telling participants they were getting a Suproxin injection when really it was adrenaline
/ a placebo. Some candidates only offered part of the answer, for example stating that participants
were told they were being given Suproxin, without explaining why this was a deception / what was
really happening.
(ii) Most candidates were able to explain that deception reduced demand characteristics. However, not
all candidates provided their answer in the context of this specific study and these responses
scored 1 mark. For the second mark, candidates needed to explicitly link the concept of demand
characteristics to this study.
(b) Most candidates referred to lowered validity / inability to record data but some misunderstood and
suggested why the problem had occurred and not why this was a problem.
Question 4
(a) Most candidates were able to draw a bar graph, although labelling was sometimes incorrect and
some candidates drew histograms rather than bar charts and so were not able to access full marks.
(b) This was a challenging question for many, with the majority of the candidates providing a
description of the data rather than a conclusion. It is important that candidates distinguish between
results (for example, that the mean rating was higher in week 2 than week 1) and conclusions (for
example, that the critical item changed the beliefs of participants, or that it is possible to implant
false memories of liking asparagus).
Question 5
This proved to be a challenging question for many candidates. Many candidates gave a great deal of detail
from the Bandura study without directly addressing the question, and there are still candidates
misunderstanding the concept of inter-rater reliability as simply having more than one observer, rather than
the level of agreement between multiple observers. Stronger candidates were able to explain that having
good inter-rater reliability meant that all observers had the same understanding of aggression and this
means that the differences between the groups are much more likely to be due to differences in the
children’s behaviour rather than differences in the way the behaviour was observed.
Question 6
Strong answers showed a good understanding of the need to control extraneous variables and the
differences between laboratory and field experiments in terms of their ability to do this. Weaker answers
focused on control groups and control (manipulation) of independent variables. Strong answers gave
detailed examples from studies such as Canli et al. and Andrade for laboratory experiments and Piliavin et
al. for field experiments.
Section B
Question 7
(a) (i) Although the majority of candidates correctly identified the IV as gender, there were a significant
number who thought that the IV was the number looking in the window, or even some characteristic
of the window such as its size or how clear it was.
(ii) As with 7(a)(i), the majority were correct in identifying the DV, but gender and other suggestions
were also seen with some frequency.
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(b) (i) There were some very strong responses to this question, many containing substantially more detail
than was required for 3 marks. Strong answers explained that a set of categories would be
predetermined and then gave examples of these. However, some candidates appeared to
misunderstand the question and explained other aspects of the observation, such as watching from
behind a screen or the need to gain consent.
(ii) Although the majority of candidates understand that the disadvantage of a structured observation is
being unable to record behaviours that do not fit the categories, most gave this generic answer
without linking this explicitly to this study. A small number of strong responses gave an example of
a behaviour that was not included in the categories and explained that this would not be recorded.
(c) (i) Most candidates were able to identify that the median is the ‘middle’ number when numbers are
listed from lowest to highest, although many repeated ‘central’ from the question and were not
awarded any marks.
(ii) Most candidates offered an appropriate alternative measure although the second mark was less
frequently awarded. Either responses were simply generic and offered no link to the study at all, or
were not creditworthy for other reasons, such as suggesting that the mode could be used to see
whether males or females looked in the window more often.
Question 8
(a) (i) This question produced a wide variety of responses. Some candidates did not offer any appropriate
suggestions for measuring vocabulary size, and simply suggested mean / median etc. Some
misunderstood the question and offered suggestions relating to the physical size in terms of
centimetres. Some candidates also seemed to struggle to understand the term ‘vocabulary’
correctly, which impacted their marks.
However, there were lots of appropriate suggestions made with some very creative ideas, ranging
from asking for definitions, to open ended questions on a variety of topics or asking candidates to
write stories. Stronger answers included explicit details of how these would produce numerical
data, such as the number of correct answers out of ten, the number of synonyms produced in a
minute etc, whereas weaker responses simply offered the idea with no indication of how this would
produce a score.
(ii) Many answers simply said that the data would be quantitative, which was not enough for a mark as
quantitative data would need to be produced for a correlation. Stronger answers said that tests
were standardised or that marking would be objective.
(b) There was also some misunderstanding of what was required here. It was not enough to simply
say that participants would be asked for their level of education, the answer needed to show how
the level of education would be measured. Other misunderstandings were to suggest that tests of
vocabulary or IQ could be used to assess level of education. The most common responses were to
suggest number of years of education completed or current grade.
(c) (i) The majority of candidates were able to identify this as a negative correlation although some did
identify this as positive.
(ii) This graph showed no correlation and although the majority of candidates were able to identify this,
a significant number used terms such as ‘difference’ or ‘effect’ in their answers here.
Question 9
(a) Generally well answered, with most candidates saying that the advantage was that it was
easy/quick because participants are available.
(b) Generally well answered with most candidates understanding that random sampling produces a
more diverse, and therefore more representative sample. Some candidates did however, give
descriptions of random sampling which did not address the question.
(c) Very well answered with most candidates identifying increased generalisability.
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Section C
Question 10
(a) There were some very strong responses to this question where candidates gave detailed
information about the type of interview, type of questions and examples of questions. However,
there were also some who simply described the procedure used by Dement and Kleitman without
recognising the need for the response to focus on the interview procedure. Where candidates did
this, they focused on aspects of laboratory experiments such as the IVs and DVs, controls such as
not having caffeine or alcohol and the equipment (EEG and EOG) at the expense of giving details
about an interview. This meant that there was little information provided on the three ‘majors’
required for this question. There seems to be some misunderstanding of ‘semi-structured’
interviews with some candidates appearing to think this means a mix of open and closed questions,
rather than a mix of prepared questions and questions asked in response to participant responses.
However, most candidates offered appropriate discussion of ethical issues.
(b) The marks candidates achieved here depended on how they had responded to part (a). If they had
focused on an experimental procedure then weaknesses to this was not creditworthy here, with the
answer needing to focus on the interview aspect of the procedure. However, when candidates did
focus explicitly on the interview, a range of strong suggestions for improvements were made. As
always, despite the question explicitly telling candidates not to refer to sampling or ethics, some
answers did exactly that.
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Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/23
Paper 2 Research Methods
Key messages
• This research methods paper asks candidates to answer a range of questions, including ones about the
core studies in relation to research methods, terms and concepts used to describe or evaluate research
methodology, and application of this knowledge to both familiar and unfamiliar contexts. Responses to
this paper demonstrated a range of ability in these skills.
• Candidates demonstrated excellent knowledge of basic concepts such as generalisation and naming
experimental designs. The analytical questions, and expanding on answers, they found more
challenging. Some areas of basic concepts where knowledge was less evident was in candidates’
understanding of random sampling, measures of spread, and inter-rater reliability. Here, candidates’
responses often lacked accurate description and examples.
• The ability to link accurate detail to a given scenario or context is also required on the paper. This more
difficult skill was tackled well by some candidates, but less well by many others.
General comments
Candidates were able to access marks across the whole paper. However, the issues identified above limited
performance for some individuals on some questions.
Candidates across the ability range were able to demonstrate knowledge of a range of aspects of research
methods in this paper. Success was greater on straightforward questions such as 2 (ethical guidelines for
animals), 4(b) (categories in Pepperberg), 5 (differences between REM and nREM sleep), 7(a)(i) and (ii)
(conditions in experiments), 8(a) (techniques for data collection), and 9(a)(i) and (ii) (questions on a
questionnaire). This was especially when they were low mark tariff, such as questions 7(a)(i) and 9(a).
However, where candidates were asked to link their answer to a context, they were less able to apply their
knowledge successfully.
Question 10 was sometimes very well answered although many responses were muddled. Either the
candidate designed a study that was not a correlation, or their measurement of one or both variables was
incomplete or inappropriate. These are both essential details for the description of a study.
There were very few papers with several questions for which the candidate provided no response at all.
Section A
Question 1
(a) The concept of random sampling was poorly understood and/or poorly expressed. Responses were
typically circular, saying the people were selected ‘randomly’ / ‘at random’ or that they ‘didn’t know
who they were’. Other incorrect responses were descriptions of opportunity sampling. Stronger
answers referred to selecting by chance, or all members of the population having an equal
possibility of being selected. There were also some competent descriptions of how this could be
done.
(b) The answers to this question part were stronger than for part (a), with some candidates able to
explain, for example, why representativeness could not be guaranteed.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Question 2
Responses to this question were fairly successful, but many candidates were unable to identify – by name or
description – guidelines relating to the use of animals. In such cases, there was either no reference to
guidelines or those that were described were not guidelines relating to animals. Those candidates who
offered the best responses tended to choose the numbers and housing guidelines.
Question 3
(a) There were very few correct answers here. Where the mark was not earned, the candidate had
typically given a circular response, using the term ‘spread’.
(b) Some candidates earned the mark for stating one other measure of spread (the range), though
fewer were able to clearly describe an advantage of standard deviation. A small number of
candidates explained an advantage of using the standard deviation in isolation from an alternative,
and were able to earn this mark alone.
Question 4
(a) Many students were able to make an attempt at suggesting that it was because these categories
have ‘lots of choices’ in them but were less often able to expand on this suggestion to earn credit
for detail.
(b) Most candidates gave a creditworthy answer here, typically saying ‘size’, although there was a
range of alternatives offered.
Question 5
Although this question was well answered, there was still a significant proportion of candidates who did not
earn full marks. The most common correct points were more dreaming in REM than nREM, more REM at the
end but more nREM at the start, rapid eye movements in REM but not in nREM. Many candidates incorrectly
stated that ‘REM sleep is deeper than nREM’.
Question 6
This question was moderately well answered, with some candidates achieving good marks. Most candidates
were able to describe the importance of making participants aware of the nature of the study so that they
could choose to participate, though fewer candidates went on to explain how this might be achieved,
(e.g. through briefing of participants by asking for written agreement). Examples of gaining consent often did
not contain sufficient detail to earn marks, although examples where consent was not obtained were more
likely to be creditworthy.
Descriptions of protection from harm were tackled more successfully, with more detail and examples.
References to inappropriate guidelines were rare.
Section B
Question 7
(a) (i) This question part was well answered. Many candidates gave one of the two obvious responses,
but there was a range of other creditworthy suggestions. The most common mistake was to make
suggestions of conditions that would only have been suitable for a different study, i.e. one testing a
different aim. These were not appropriate responses as conditions for Nigel’s study.
(ii) This question part was also well answered, with most candidates gaining at least one of the two
possible marks. Candidates who did not earn credit here typically seemed to struggle with the
concept of a control or of a comparison.
(b) Some candidates were able to give good explanations, although fewer gave successful examples.
Where examples were given, they were usually correct but sometimes the candidate had not
attempted this part of the question.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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(c) This question part was well answered, with many candidates gaining the mark. Where candidates
could name an alternative design they gained the mark.
Question 8
(a) This question part was generally well answered, although in some responses there was insufficient
detail for one, or both, suggestions to earn full credit. For example, a minority of candidates just
named techniques, or offered very brief descriptions such as ‘by asking questions’. In other cases,
the suggestions were generic, rather than being related to the scenario given.
(b) (i) Most candidates earned some credit for their response to this question, but many were unable to
explain why their suggestion was advantageous, i.e. they were unable to elaborate on their answer.
For example, an advantage of observations could be that you might gather more information by
watching than the participant is able to express. This is correct, and creditworthy, but needs detail
to earn full credit, for example by suggesting that the participant may not want to admit that they
are confused, but the observer might see them frowning, or the same idea could be given in a
generic way, simply by stating that the observer could gain extra information from facial
expressions.
(ii) As above, although the candidates appeared to find this question part somewhat easier.
Question 9
(a) (i) This question part was often very well answered. However, many candidates only earned one mark
as they did not indicate the possible ‘answers’ participants could give, which is essential for a
closed question. For example, alternative answers should be given (such as yes/no) and for rating
scales the scoring must indicate the meaning of high and low values. A minority of candidates
suggested irrelevant questions.
(ii) This question part was also well answered, although here candidates sometimes offered questions
that would not elicit descriptive answers, effectively giving closed questions without the possible
answers. A true open question invites elaboration, such as using ‘describe’ or ‘explain’. A minority
of candidates also suggested irrelevant questions here.
(b) (i) This question part was generally well answered, with most candidates scoring at least one mark.
(ii) As with part 9(b)(i), there were some good attempts for this question part, with candidates scoring
at least one mark. However, candidates were less successful in this question part than in 9(b)(i).
(c) Responses to this question were very variable, with candidates scoring the range of possible
marks. In other words, some candidates were unable to answer the question at all, whilst others
gave accurate and detailed answers. This question was also the most commonly omitted by
candidates.
Section C
Question 10
(a) This question part appeared to prove challenging for lots of candidates. Many candidates designed
experimental studies rather than correlational ones and some collected data that could not be
correlated. Study procedures were typically muddled, either in terms of the participants being used
or how the variable of animal size was being measured. Severity of the phobia was typically
measured, and described, in a more effective way. Many candidates needed to make more specific
mention of ethics in direct relation to exposing people with phobias to their feared objects.
10(b) This question part also appeared to prove challenging. As many candidates designed experimental
rather than correlation studies, responses here were often irrelevant. Many candidates did not
respond to the instruction to suggest how the study could be done differently.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/31
Specialist Options: Theory 31
Key messages
Key messages
These questions are worth 2 marks and it is important that candidates produce a brief response. The focus
here should be on terminology, theories, and disorders identified in the syllabus, to inform knowledge and
understanding of these short answer questions. Some of the responses were very strong, achieving full
marks, however, some were unable to identify and/or define the terms/concepts given in this type of
question. Revision aids and continued testing could support candidates to maximise their mark.
These questions are worth 4 marks and require a more detailed outline of a theory, study or treatment(s)
used by psychologists named in the syllabus. These questions could also ask the candidate to describe a
part of one of the named studies, such as the procedure and a result, or a summary of the key features of
the study. Candidates should be encouraged be able to identify which part of the syllabus the question is
referring to.
These questions are worth 6 marks and require the candidate to explain either two strengths, two
weaknesses, or one strength and one weakness. These questions are linked to the answer that they have
described in part (b). The responses should be in some detail showing a clear understanding of the
question. For full marks there will be a strength and a weakness, two strengths, or two weaknesses,
providing a good explanation with clear detail. Candidates need to be able to apply what they understand
about research methods to the studies outlined in the syllabus. Many excellent responses were seen which
contained detailed strengths/weaknesses with clear examples from the study listed in the question. Other
responses needed to develop more detailed and better-balanced arguments to achieve higher marks. For
example, some responses were generic and not specific to the study, theory or technique(s) named in the
question. Stronger responses gave specific examples in detail to support their points with some balance.
These questions are worth 8 marks and come from one of the bullet points in the syllabus. Candidates could
describe the three (or four) studies, theories, explanations of disorders or techniques identified in the
syllabus under the appropriate bullet point. It is important that candidates are clear of the studies from the
syllabus, so as not to use the incorrect topic area. Candidates need to outline at least two of the studies,
theories, explanations of disorders or techniques in some detail to achieve full marks. Stronger responses
demonstrated accurate and detailed descriptions with excellent understanding of the question. Other
responses needed to develop more detailed and better-balanced arguments to achieve higher marks.
These questions are worth 10 marks and ask the candidate to evaluate the theories, studies, explanations of
disorders and/or techniques described in part (a) of the question. There is a named issue that should be
included. The named issue could be better addressed at the start of the answer to meet the requirements of
the question. Alongside this, there should be at least two evaluation issues in some detail to have a range of
issues for full marks. It would be advisable to include a conclusion at the end of each issue to develop the
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response further. To achieve the requirements of the Level 3 and 4 band descriptors it would be best if the
response was structured by issue rather than by study and/or theory. Many excellent responses contained
detailed evaluation points whereas other responses needed to develop more detailed and better-balanced
arguments to achieve higher marks and analysis needs to be more sophisticated. Some responses that
considered three issues tended to achieve higher marks as these responses were able to demonstrate
comprehensive understanding with good supporting examples from the theories, studies, disorders, and
techniques described in the part (a) of the answer. The candidate must also provide some form of analysis.
This could be done by discussing the strengths and weaknesses of the issue being considered, presenting a
counterargument to the issue under discussion or comparing the issue between two studies and/or theories.
Evaluation must be comprehensive, and the range of issues covered should be highly relevant to the
question for top band answers.
General comments
Candidates were able to make good use of the time allocated for this series and most candidates attempted
all questions. Almost all candidates answered the appropriate topics and where this was not the case, the
candidate attempted to answer all the topic areas with limited success.
The most popular topic was Psychology and Abnormality followed by Psychology and Health.
Candidates appeared to be well prepared for the examination series, with particularly high levels of
knowledge and understanding of the topic areas. Some candidates appeared to be less prepared and
appeared to struggle with the questions, especially in terms of evaluation skills. These candidates often gave
generic, superficial responses which were brief.
Overall, candidates for this session were well prepared, showing good knowledge and understanding and
evaluation throughout. For some candidates more preparation is required, focusing on detail and evaluation
and analysis skills.
Question 1
(a) Some good knowledge and understanding of the term pyromania. Most responses stated that
pyromania is a desire to set fire to things and gained 1 mark for this brief point. Stronger responses
were able to gain a second mark for the point that the person feels anxiety / heightened arousal
prior to setting the fire and once they have done it the arousal reduces, or related it to a fascination
with fire.
Very few candidates wrote nothing creditworthy, except for those who confused pyromania with
another disorder.
(b) This question required candidates to describe the study by Glover (2011). Strong responses gave a
detailed answer with clear understanding of the topic area. Details such as sample, procedure,
number of sessions and results of the study by Glover (2011) that used covert sensitisation as a
treatment for kleptomania were stronger responses. Other responses understood fewer of the
details of the study and or confused some of the details.
(c) The responses to this question covered the full range of the mark scheme. Strong responses
identified a strength and a weakness of the study by Glover (2011) in some detail to highlight the
points made. Most popular responses for the strength were in-depth data / qualitative data and
effectiveness of covert sensitisation as a treatment for kleptomania. For the weakness the most
popular response was poor generalisability. Ethics for the weakness was not considered to be
creditworthy here, since the treatment was required, and consent given. To maximise marks,
candidates should be encouraged to state the strength or weakness in some detail and link to the
study by Glover to highlight why this makes a strength or a weakness.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 2
(a) This question required candidates to describe explanations of depression, using genetic and
neurochemical (Oruc et al, 1997), cognitive (Beck, 1979) and learned helplessness / attributional
style (Seligman, 1988). The stronger responses covered all three in some detail. Weaker
responses often gave limited descriptions with significant errors. The study by Seligman was often
confused with the 1965 study with dogs rather than the learned helplessness / attributional style
study. For the genetic and neurochemical explanation, some candidates discussed neurochemical
explanations (low levels of serotonin). This was credited but better responses outlined the Oruc
study in some detail. Responses varied considerably for this question and covered the full range of
the marks available. Some responses highlighted how well prepared some of the candidates were
for this exam whereas others showed very limited knowledge of this topic. Some responses were
detailed, accurate and coherent with a good use of psychological terminology.
(b) This question required candidates to evaluate explanations of depression, with the named issue
being about reductionism versus holism. There were many Level 1 and 2 responses due to limited
analysis. Candidates overall did engage with the named issue. Other responses focused on the
nature/nurture debate or the deterministic nature of the studies. The strongest responses covered
this question by structuring it by issues, along with supporting examples from the studies in 2(a)
and analysis. Candidates should be aware that if the named issue is not addressed, a maximum of
5 marks can be awarded and if only the named issue is addressed, a maximum of 4 marks can be
awarded.
Question 3
(a) This question was answered well, with responses correctly identifying the spatial behaviour
movements / patterns of movement of the study by Gil et al. (2009). Some candidates used a study
other than Gil et al., which was not creditworthy as it did not answer the question set.
(b) This question required candidates to outline any two results from the studies by Dayan and
Bar-Hillel. Strong responses gave a detailed answer with clear understanding of the results of the
study, using descriptions or percentages. Weaker responses appeared to struggle to recall any
result, particularly study 2.
(c) This question required candidates to discuss the validity of the studies by Dayan and Bar-Hillel.
The most common responses included ecological validity and population validity. Top band
answers gave clear understanding of the question and were able to explain at least two points
regarding validity with links to either study 1 or 2. Weaker responses tended to state the point
about validity but needed to include elaboration from the study by Dayan and Bar-Hillel.
Question 4
(a) This question required candidates to describe what psychologists have discovered about
retail/leisure environment design using Turley and Milliman (2000), Finlay et al. (2006) and
Vrechopoulos (2004). The stronger responses covered all three in some detail. Weaker responses
often gave limited descriptions with significant errors. Some responses highlighted how well
prepared some of the candidates were for this exam whereas others showed very limited
knowledge of this topic. Some responses were detailed, accurate and coherent with a good use of
psychological terminology. There were a lot of Level 2 responses due to the description lacking
detail and some adequate use of psychological terminology. Highly detailed descriptions of two or
more of the studies can achieve top band.
(b) This question required candidates to evaluate what psychologists have discovered about
retail/leisure environment design, with the named issue being generalisability. There were many
Level 1 and 2 responses due to limited analysis. Candidates overall did engage with the named
issue whereas other responses focused on the practical applications / usefulness. The strongest
responses covered this question by structuring it by issues, along with supporting examples from
the studies in 4(a) and analysis.
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Question 5
(a) Candidates often appeared to struggle to state the type I and type II errors the correct way around.
There were many 1-mark answers for stating ‘false negative’ or ‘false positive’ without an example
or giving a basic outline of type I and type II errors without an example. Stronger responses were
when candidates give a description of a type I and type II error with an example.
(b) Many candidates gave detailed descriptions of the procedure of the study by Robinson and West
(1992), including the sample/location. Many candidates cited other similar studies which were not
given credit. For questions such as these where the procedure is required, results were not
creditworthy.
(c) The most likely weaknesses given were lack of generalisability and social desirability bias. Top
band answers required candidates to show a clear understanding of the question and explain two
weaknesses with clear links to the study by Robinson and West (1992). Many responses would
give a weakness but not in any detail or without any link to the study. For example, just stating lack
of generalisability, without explaining why. Stronger responses would give a description from the
study, for example, lack of generalisability due to the study just looking at one type of illness and in
one GU clinic in northern UK.
Question 6
(a) This question required candidates to describe what psychologists have discovered about
management of stress. Stronger responses had a clear understanding of treatments for stress and
included correct studies that support the treatments. For neurochemical benzodiazepines (BZs)
and the effect on GABA and how this works to reduce stress, also SSRIs and dopamine, though
more explanation was needed to link to stress rather than just anxiety. Also, some clear procedures
for biofeedback and imagery with specific links to the studies by Bridge and Budzynski. Stress
inoculation was also well detailed in terms of the procedure. The stronger responses covered all
three in some detail. Weaker responses often gave limited descriptions with significant errors.
Some responses highlighted how well prepared some of the candidates were for this exam
whereas others showed very limited knowledge of this topic. Some responses were detailed,
accurate and coherent with a good use of psychological terminology. There were a lot of Level 2
responses due to the description lacking detail and some adequate use of psychological
terminology. Highly detailed descriptions of two or more of the studies can achieve top band.
(b) This question required candidates to evaluate what psychologists have discovered about stress,
with the named issue being experiments. Some candidates appeared to struggle with the named
issue and gave generic responses. Other evaluation issues were reductionism and application to
everyday life and were overall answered very well. Candidates need to link their evaluation points
to the studies described in part (a).
There were many Level 1 and 2 responses due to limited analysis. Other responses focused on the
practical applications / usefulness. The best responses covered this question by structuring it by
issues, along with supporting examples from the studies in 6(a) and analysis. Candidates should
be aware that if the named issue is not addressed, a maximum of 5 marks can be awarded and if
only the named issue is addressed, a maximum of 4 marks can be awarded.
Question 7
(a) Although the question does not require candidates to outline the Fox et al. (1987) study, many did
so and achieved full marks. This was answered well with lots of 2-mark responses for a detailed
outline of the use of token economy to reduce accidents at work.
(b) Many candidates could describe the study by Oldham and Brass (1979) in some detail, including
sample, location, procedure, and results. Weaker responses got details confused in terms of the
procedure.
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(c) The most likely strength that candidates used was in-depth data and for the weakness poor
generalisability. Top band answers required candidates to show a clear understanding of the
question and explain one strength and one weakness with clear links to the study by Oldham and
Brass (1979). Many responses would give a weakness and a strength but not in any detail or
without any link to the study.
Question 8
(a) This question required candidates to describe what psychologists have discovered about
measuring job satisfaction. The stronger responses covered all three elements listed in the syllabus
for this topic in some detail. Weaker responses often gave limited descriptions with significant
errors. Some responses gave descriptions of the questionnaires about measuring job satisfaction,
with inaccuracies, often getting the three studies muddled with each other. Responses varied
considerably for this question and covered the full range of the marks available. Some responses
highlighted how well prepared some of the candidates were for this exam whereas others showed
very limited knowledge of this topic. Some responses were detailed, accurate and coherent with a
good use of psychological terminology.
(b) This question required candidates to evaluate what psychologists have discovered about
measuring job satisfaction, with the named discussion issue being psychometrics. Stronger
responses demonstrated clear and detailed understanding of psychometrics, while others
appeared to struggle with the named issue. Other evaluation issues used were types of data,
usefulness and reductionism and holism. There were many Level 1 and 2 responses due to limited
analysis. The strongest responses covered this question by structuring it by issues, along with
supporting examples from the studies in 8(a) and analysis. Candidates should be aware that if the
named issue is not addressed, a maximum of 5 marks can be awarded and if only the named issue
is addressed, a maximum of 4 marks can be awarded.
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PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/32
Specialist Options: Theory 32
Key messages
It is important that candidates are made aware of the terminology, theories, disorders and studies identified
in the syllabus as some were unable to identify and/or define the terms/concepts given in these type of
questions. Creating a glossary of key terms, revision of terminology/theories using flash cards and class
quizzes on terminology/theories could prove useful. These questions are worth 2 marks and a brief response
is appropriate.
These questions could ask the candidate to describe a theory, study, technique or self-report used by
psychologists that is named in the syllabus. These questions could also ask the candidate to describe a part
of one of the named studies, such as the procedure or results, or a summary of the key features of the study.
This question is worth 4 marks and the candidates should write a more extended answer. It would be helpful
for candidates to create a revision flashcard or mind map of each bullet point in the syllabus. The flashcard
should be given the title used in the syllabus, for example, Anxiety disorders: explanations of phobias:
psychoanalytic (Freud, 1909) to help the candidate identify which part of the syllabus the question is referring
to as some candidates described the incorrect self-report or theory. For studies, the candidate should learn
the aim, sample (sampling method if known), method, procedure, two results (if possible) and conclusion.
These questions could require the candidate to explain up to two strengths or weaknesses of what they have
described in the part (b) of the question. The question could also ask the candidates to make a comparison
or to evaluate using a specific issue or method. This question is worth 6 marks so the candidate should write
a more extended answer for each issue raised. Some responses were very detailed for one issue but then
only briefly discussed the second issue. In addition, many of the responses were general and not specific to
the study, theory or self-report named in the question. To improve, responses should give specific examples
to support their point. As mentioned for the odd question part (b), the candidate should make a
flashcard/revision notes and could include in this strengths and weaknesses of the theory, study, technique
and self-report to help candidates prepare for these questions.
This question comes from one of the bullet points in the syllabus. Candidates could describe the three (or
four) studies, theories, characteristics/explanations/treatments of disorders or techniques identified in the
syllabus under the appropriate bullet point. For this exam, some of the answers used the incorrect topic area
in the syllabus or the description was brief. It is possible for the response to achieve full marks by describing
at least two of the studies, theories, characteristics/explanations/treatments of disorders or techniques and
this would need to be a very detailed description. It could be useful for candidates to create revision notes
with the title of each bullet point as the header. Alternatively, candidates could create a mind map and put
the bullet point in the centre.
This question asks the candidate to evaluate the studies, theories, characteristics/explanations/ treatments of
disorders or techniques described in part (a) of the question. The response must include at least two
evaluation issues, including the named issue, in order to be considered to have presented a range of issues
to achieve the top band. However, most responses that evaluated using two issues in this exam, achieved in
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the lower bands due to the response being superficial and often with little analysis. Some responses that
considered three issues tended to achieve higher marks as these responses were able to demonstrate
comprehensive understanding with strong supporting examples from the studies, theories, characteristics/
explanations/treatments of disorders or techniques described in the part (a) of the answer. The candidate
must also provide some form of analysis. This could be done by discussing the strengths and weaknesses of
the issue being considered, presenting a counter-argument to the issue under discussion or comparing the
issue between two studies and/or theories. A conclusion at the end of each issue would be helpful in order to
show excellent understanding of the issue under discussion In order to achieve the requirements of the Level
3 and 4 band descriptors it would be best to structure the response by issue rather than by study and/or
theory. It would also be ideal for the response to start with the named issue to make sure the answer covers
this requirement of the question.
Some of the candidates did not evaluate using the named issue. Quite a few of the answers were structured
by study/theory/technique rather than by the issue which often led the response to be quite superficial and
repetitive. A number of the responses did do analysis. Candidates should be aware this question is worth 10
marks and attempt to include an appropriate amount of information.
General comments
Many candidates appeared to be well prepared for the exam and showed strong knowledge, understanding
and evaluation throughout their responses. Some candidates appeared to be less prepared and showed
limited knowledge and understanding with brief, superficial and sometimes anecdotal responses. These
candidates often had limited evaluation skills.
Time management for this paper was strong for the majority candidates and most attempted all questions
that were required. A number of candidates did not respond to one or more of the questions asked in the
option area. A very small number of the candidates attempted to respond to more than two topic areas but
often did not attempt all of the questions for each option chosen. These responses achieved at the lower end
of the mark band.
The questions on abnormality were the more popular choice of option, followed by health and organisations.
Question 1
(a) There were many strong responses to this question which outlined the characteristics of a specific
phobia. Responses were varied with a choice of a wide variety of phobias including button, blood
and agoraphobia as popular choices. Popular responses included reference to extreme/high levels
of fear, physiological reactions to experiencing the phobic object/situation such as fainting or a
panic attack and also avoiding the phobic object/situation. It was common for responses to just
state that the person had a ‘fear’ of the object rather than an extreme fear which was not
creditworthy.
(b) Most responses for this question achieved in the 1–2 mark band. Many were able to identify that
the horse was considered to represent the father in the little Hans study. Some could identify
conflict between id and superego and then explain how this leads to a phobia from the
psychoanalytical perspective. There were a few strong responses that were then able to expand
their response by explaining how a phobia is a defence mechanism and the phobic object can be a
displacement of the object/person that the patient is really frightened of. There were many incorrect
explanations. Many stated there was a conflict between the ego and id which was not creditworthy.
In addition, many responses outlined the little Hans study in detail without giving any reference to
the psychoanalytical explanation of a phobia other than mentioning that the horse represented
Hans’ father. Many responses outlined that Hans had witnessed an accident involving a horse but
this is not a psychoanalytical explanation of phobias and therefore was not creditworthy. Some
responses outlined the behaviourist explanation of phobias which was also not creditworthy.
(c) Many strong responses although it was more common to score 4 marks rather than 6 marks as
most explained a strength/weakness of case studies and little Hans rather than the psychodynamic
explanation of phobias. Common points included qualitative and in-depth detail, lack of
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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generalisability, bias of the results from the study about little Hans. The strongest responses
started with a point about the explanation and then linked it to little Hans as an example before
returning to discuss the explanation of phobias at the end of the strength or weakness. One
particularly strong answer discussed how the psychodynamic explanation really would not work
with some other phobias like the dark or heights because it was hard to see a role for id
suppression causing anxiety in these cases.
Many responses did not sufficiently understand what is meant by the psychodynamic explanation
of phobias to give responses entirely focused on this. Some responses attempted to explain that
the explanation/study was not ethical but this is incorrect as Hans’ father had given consent and
therefore this type of response was not creditworthy. Some responses attempted to argue that the
explanation is reductionist but this is incorrect, unless the response clearly stated that the
explanation ignored genetic causes, and therefore was not creditworthy.
Question 2
(a) Responses varied for this question and covered the full range of the marks available. Some
responses highlighted how well prepared some of the candidates were for this exam whereas
others showed very limited knowledge of treatment and management of obsessive-compulsive and
related disorders. The strongest responses outlined three of the treatments and included details of
the studies by Lovell et al. and Lehmkuhl et al. Other common treatments included outlining how
SSRIs can reduce the symptoms of OCD and some included details of research investigating the
effectiveness of SSRIs. ECT was referred to in a few responses. This was often less clear as some
responses could explain the procedure of having ECT done but were not able to explain how it
might reduce the symptoms of OCD.
Weaker responses often gave brief descriptions and inaccurate details of some of the treatments.
Inaccuracies were often seen with SSRIs. Many responses gave an incorrect outline of how SSRIs
work or no details of how this could lead to a reduction in symptoms. In addition, many candidates
gave the side effects of treatments which is not creditworthy in part (a) of this question and should
be given in part (b). Some candidates gave lengthy descriptions of the symptoms of OCD which
was not creditworthy.
(b) Many of the responses achieved in the Level 1 or Level 2 mark band with a few providing clear
analysis and examples from part (a) to back up their evaluative points that enabled these type of
responses to achieve Level 3 and above. The vast majority of responses covered the named issue
of reductionism versus holism. Many were able to correctly explain how the SSRI treatment was
reductionist with clear evidence (reference to SSRIs altering the levels of serotonin). Stronger
responses evaluated the debate discussing how focusing on the biochemical treatment meant the
treatment might not be very effective for those whose OCD is due to cognitive reasons. Likewise,
with holism being linked to CBT and ERP, stronger responses correctly identified the reasons why
with reference to strengths and weaknesses, such as it helps individual people as their treatment is
devised for their specific symptoms and will likely be more effective. Other popular evaluation
issues used included determinism versus free-will, nature versus nurture and ethics (with a focus
on side effects).
Weaker responses had a tendency to focus on many issues per treatment rather than considering
each issue in turn which would have enabled the candidate to provide analysis. These type of
responses often defined the issue and debate but not link it to the treatment and/or study or only
stating the issue and debate applied to a treatment or study but simply stating that the study and/or
treatment supported one side of a debate (e.g. it is reductionist) with little to no explanation for why
this was the case. It was common to state that a treatment just ignored the other treatments as the
explanation for reductionism. These type of responses often achieved in the Level 1 band.
Question 3
(a) There were many strong responses to this question. Full mark responses often did a diagram of the
‘grid’ layout followed by a brief outline of it. Common descriptions included stating that there were
long/rectangular aisles that run parallel to each other. 1 mark responses usually outlined or drew
the long/rectangular aisles. These responses were frequently brief or did not label their diagram.
Some responses just stated that the layout was a ‘grid’ without further explaining what this means
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which was not creditworthy. A significant number of responses gave results from the study by
Vrechopoulos which also was not creditworthy.
(b) There were many strong responses to this question. Common details included the independent
variable, procedure, method, and results. There were some very strong responses with detail given
on the number of participants in the sample as well as the numerical results from the study
(although numerical results were not required to achieve marks for the results). Weaker responses
often had less detail with some either just outlining the procedure of the study or just giving the
results. A few responses stated that the study compared different types of music, which was not
creditworthy. In addition, a small number of responses outlined the study by North et al. on music in
restaurants which also was not creditworthy.
(c) The vast majority of responses were able to achieve marks for this question and responses
achieved marks across the full range of the mark band. Common strengths included ecological
validity, generalisability and lack of demand characteristics. Strong responses identified the
strength, explained this with an example from the study and frequently stated the effect this would
have on validity. Weaker responses were often less well developed and either did not give a clear
example from the study by Guéguen et al. or did not explain why the issue raised was a strength. A
few responses did explain weaknesses of the study which was not creditworthy.
Question 4
(a) There were some strong responses to this question. Some provided details of the theories about
‘buying the product’ including the theory of planned behaviour, black box model, consumer decision
model. There were some strong descriptions of the theory of planned behaviour that included all
elements of it. Black box model sometimes included some clear examples of the ‘stimuli’, what the
consumer may think about when considering a purchase and then the ‘response’ to either
purchase or not. Some of the descriptions of the consumer decision model included all of the steps
as well as an explanation of each. Weaker responses often lacked detail of each theory or included
some theories from other parts of the syllabus which were not creditworthy as they were not linked
in any way to the theory. For example, outlining McCarthy’s four Ps for the Black Box Model
without indicating that this is the ‘stimuli’ part of the model. There were a significant number of
responses that outlined other parts of the syllabus in their response without giving any details of the
three theories in the question. These types of responses were not creditworthy.
(b) If the response outlined creditworthy material in part (a) then the vast majority were able to access
marks in this part of their answer. Most creditworthy responses addressed the named issue of
practical applications. Many were able to give clear suggestions of how these theories could be
used by the manufacturer/retailer in order to increase sales. A few did attempt analysis but this was
frequently just stating that two theories were similar in that they both had practical applications
which is limited analysis. Instead, responses could have explained why the theory might be
impractical to the retailer. Other common issues included individual versus situational explanation,
cultural bias, reductionism (what was not considered) versus holism (the factors that were
considered). Cultural bias was also a popular option but done with more variable success as often
the arguments were not very convincing as to why this should apply to a particular model and
frequently just identified that the theory was ‘western’ without explaining why this theory might or
might not apply in other cultures.
Question 5
(a) Most responses were able to achieve limited credit by giving an example of organic pain such as
tissue damage, broken bones, pain from illness, burns, etc. Some responses gained full marked by
stating that organic pain is a physical (rather than psychological) pain. A significant number of
responses explained what is meant by chronic and/or acute pain which was not creditworthy. Some
responses outlined psychological pain and gave phantom limb pain which was also not
creditworthy.
(b) (i) There were many strong responses to this question with many giving a clear outline of the Wong-
Baker rating scale. Common details included a diagram of some/all of the faces, correct labelling of
the faces and/or outline of the 0–10 rating scale. Weaker responses often had errors including the
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
incorrect range or labels. Some simply stated that it is a measure using faces without any further
explanation or detail.
Responses that were not creditworthy included stating it is a measure of pain in children despite
this being mentioned in the question or stating that the children colour in the faces which is for the
paediatric pain questionnaire.
(ii) Most responses achieved limited credit for this question on how this scale is used to measure
children’s pain. Most stated that the children circled or indicated the face that was similar to their
pain. A few responses stated that it is used with children over the age of three. A common error
was to state it is used with children under three years. Some also indicated that it was a self-report
used by health professionals to indicate the level or severity of pain experienced in children. Some
responses re-stated what they had said in part (b)(i) which was not creditworthy.
(c) There were a number of strong responses to this question and the vast majority were able to give
at least one difference between the Wong-Baker scale and the McGill pain questionnaire. Common
differences included intensity of pain measured by Wong-Baker versus location of pain measured
by McGill, quantitative versus qualitative data collected and simplicity versus complexity of the pain
measures. Stronger responses identified the difference and gave an example from each self-report.
Weaker responses often gave an example from one of the self-reports or just indicated the
difference without any example from either Wong-Baker or McGill. A few of the responses repeated
the difference so were not able to gain credit for the second difference or stated that the difference
was that one is used with children and one is for adults which was not creditworthy.
Question 6
(a) The responses to this question covered the full range of the mark scheme. Stronger responses
gave clear and often detailed descriptions of health promotion in schools, worksites and
communities including details of the studies by Tapper et al., Fox et al. and Farquhar et al. Higher
mark responses provided clear details about the Tapper et al. study including the age range,
procedure, the duration of the study and results. For the Fox et al. study, details were given about
the two mines, the use of the stamps and what they could do with the stamps, plus results. For the
Farquhar et al. study, strong responses included details on the cities, the use of the surveys and
the results. Some included the percentages. Weaker responses when outlining the Farquhar et al.
study often did not describe the educational campaign. The responses would give an outline of the
cities and the collection of physiological data but it was unclear what the researchers actually did in
the experimental cities. A common error was to state that the researcher/employer in the Fox et al.
study took away tokens when the worker had an injury which was incorrect. Instead the employee
did not gain a token if there was an injury.
There were some responses that were generic. There were some very long responses that
included irrelevant, anecdotal description of how schools and worksites might encourage
candidates and staff to be healthy. These type of responses were not creditworthy.
(b) Most responses achieved Level 1 or Level 2 for this question. Most did the named issue of the
longitudinal research method and could apply this to at least one of the studies described in
part (a). Stronger responses were able to give some of the strengths and/or weaknesses of the
longitudinal research methods and use the studies as examples. Weaker responses tended to be
underdeveloped and often just stated how long each of the studies were without anything
evaluative being mentioned in the response. Many indicated that the Fox et al. study was snapshot
which was incorrect. Other common evaluation issues were generalisability with stronger
responses linking this to cultural bias with clear examples of how participants from another culture
may have responded differently to the study. In addition, responses included issues on practical
applications, response bias in questionnaires and ethics. Weaker responses often lacked detail
with the candidate stating that the study was either positive for the evaluation issue (e.g. it had
good ethics) or negative (e.g. it was not generalisable) without much of an explanation as to why
this was the case. These type of responses often achieved in the basic mark band.
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Question 7
(a) There were a variety of responses to this question with many being able to outline what is meant by
‘sins of commission’ and some responses simply stating it was related to information being
inaccurate. Strong, full mark responses frequently identified one of the types such as sunk cost,
hindsight bias, belief perseverance or extra-evidentiary bias with a clear definition of what the term
means. Limited responses often stated that it is ‘misuse of information’ with no additional
explanation. A few appeared to misunderstand the term and wrote about it being where groups do
not agree or groups that just automatically agree with each other. In addition, some responses
outlined what is meant by groupthink which was not creditworthy.
(b) There were many strong responses to this question with many achieving in the 3–4 mark band.
Many responses identified that there are nine roles within a team divided into 3 categories. The
categories were often identified along with the roles which were frequently defined. In addition,
some responses mentioned the Belbin team inventory and/or that roles are determined by the
personality and characteristics of each team member which often enabled these responses to
achieve full marks. Weaker responses often just identified categories and roles with no clear
description given of the theory of team roles. The vast majority of responses had some knowledge
of the roles as very few achieved no marks unless they did not attempt the question which was
rare.
(c) Most responses were able to achieve Level 1 or Level 2 for this question. Common strengths
included the practical application of the theory with examples of how organisations could use the
theory to improve team work, holistic/comprehensive theory and generalisability. Common
weaknesses included the difficulty in applying to smaller organisations and the possibility that an
employee could partially fit into more than one role.
Question 8
(a) There responses to this question covered the full range of the mark scheme. There were many
strong, detailed responses to this question. Strong responses would give a clear description of
universalist theories with an outline of the theory that the ‘leader is born’ with characteristics of
leaders including transformational and charismatic leaders. In addition, strong responses gave an
outline of the behavioural theory of leadership; leadership qualities can be learnt. Many outlined the
types of leadership according to Ohio and Michigan State studies with an explanation of each.
Descriptions of adaptive leadership were strong when they gave definitions of each of the 6
principles. For levels of leadership, there were many clear descriptions that stated all three levels
with a definition and example as well as stating the importance of personal leadership according to
Scouller.
Weaker responses often only outlined the universalist theory and either omitted the behavioural
theories or just stated that ‘leadership qualities can be learned’ but not expanding on the Ohio and
Michigan State studies. Adaptive leadership was sometimes described through listing some of the
6 principles without explanation or giving a more anecdotal definition of what it is for a leader to be
willing to change depending on the organisational environment/business environment which
achieved fewer marks for this question. Finally, weaker responses which outlined the three levels
of leadership often just identified the three levels with no explanation.
Some responses described leadership styles from other parts of the syllabus such as contingency
theory, situational leadership and/or styles of leader behaviour which was not creditworthy as the
three theories were named in the question.
(b) The marks for this question were commonly in Level 1 and Level 2. Most responses attempted the
named issue of determinism versus free-will and some were able to give a clear explanation as to
which side of this debate each of the traditional and modern theories of leadership supports. Many
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of the responses were very superficial for this issue and merely stated that each theory supported
determinism (or free-will) with no explanation given. Other common evaluation issues included
nature versus nurture, cultural bias, individual and situational explanations and practical
application. A few responses had analysis that extended beyond the limited range by providing an
evaluation that explained why theories might be similar or different in terms of the issue being
discussed. These responses sometimes achieved analysis through an explanation of why a theory
could be considered both deterministic and also free-will or both individual and situational.
However, the vast majority of responses were either basic or limited due to the response frequently
just identifying a point and then stating that the theory either supported one side of the debate or
the other without any explanation or examples to back up these points.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/33
Specialist Options: Theory 33
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/41
Specialist Options: Application 41
Key messages
(a) What has been learned from the AS component of the syllabus should be transferred to the A2
component. For example, at AS candidates learn about methodology, such as experiments, which
also apply to A2.
(b) Questions should be read carefully ensuring that the focus is on what the question asks.
(c) All components of the question should be included in answers. For example, Question part (d) for
Questions 1, 2, 3 and 4 required advantages and disadvantages (plurals) examples of each and a
conclusion.
(d) In Section B, Questions 5, 6, 7 and 8, methodological knowledge must be evident and detailed for
top marks to be accessed. The procedure, however detailed, is just one methodological aspect. For
top marks answers must explain methodology rather than merely identify it.
(e) In Section C, Questions 9, 10, 11 and 12, to access top marks, answers must include a debate
which has two sides, such as strengths/advantages and weaknesses/disadvantages. Supporting
evidence should also be provided. Description cannot be credited.
(f) Psychological knowledge should be applied wherever possible. Anecdotal and common-sense
answers will not achieve top marks.
General comments
There was evidence to suggest that many candidates had not studied two options with a few candidates
answering questions from one option only. Some candidates answered questions from three and even four
options. Whilst answers to one option were often very good, some answers to the second option were very
poor, often limited to anecdotal or common-sense responses. Further, there were some examples of weak
examination technique which candidates would benefit from improving.
Section A
(i) Candidates are advised to read the ‘stem’ of the question, the introduction or the opening words in
Section A questions as the information provided is crucial to answering each question part that
follows.
(ii) Answers must refer to the study the question is about. Many answers provided general comments
which were unrelated to the study itself.
(iii) For question part (d), many answers correctly included strengths and weaknesses but often these
were not related to the question, and so marks were limited.
Candidates should not use terms without explanation. Frequently answers stated ‘it is reductionist’
or ‘it is useful in everyday life’ without further explanation. To state ‘it is reductionist’ is merely to
identify; it is not automatically a strength or weakness. Further many candidates assume that to be
reductionist is always a weakness. It is not; any experiment is reductionist because variables are
controlled and only the IV is manipulated. Reductionism is the basis of any experiment and as such
it is a strength.
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(iv) Many conclusions repeated what had already been written, and such summaries scored no marks.
A conclusion is a ‘decision reached by reasoning’ and so as the reasoning has been done through
the advantages and disadvantages, a final decision/conclusion needs to be drawn.
(v) Candidates should think about what the question requires rather than writing pre-prepared
answers. Many questions will test the ability to apply knowledge from one thing to another,
particularly methodological knowledge.
(vi) Candidates should always provide sufficient detail to score all the available marks. A single
sentence is more likely to score 1 mark rather than 2 marks, so a little elaboration, explanation or
example that goes beyond the basic sentence is always recommended. Candidates should always
try to impress the Examiner with their psychological knowledge.
Section B
Many candidates conduct an experiment whatever the question. An interview, questionnaire or observation
are methods independent of an experiment and candidates should not try to make other methods ‘fit’ into an
experimental format. Answers to part (a) questions in this section should include an appropriate design,
have applied a range (four or five) of relevant methodological design features, each of which should be
explained fully, showing good understanding. Many answers listed features such as ‘I would have a random
sample’ and ‘It would be an independent measures design’ without explanation of why it would be a random
sample, or how this would be obtained.
In part (b), answers should explain the methodological decisions on which their part (a) design is based and
also explain the psychological evidence on which their design is based. Merely describing a relevant piece of
research from a topic area is insufficient to score full marks. The links between the research and how it
informed the design must be shown. Further, there is no need for a name (date) to be quoted for each
sentence, with some candidates writing ‘I chose a self-selecting sample because Milgram (1963) did’ for
example. This just identifies a study using that technique. It does not explain the choice of sampling
technique.
Section C
It is essential that answers focus on the question that is set. Every question in this Section invites candidates
to consider the extent to which they agree or disagree with the statement, rather than describe what they
know about that topic area, and answers that do not address the question will only achieve minimal marks.
To score marks at the top end of the mark range, answers must focus on arguments both for and against the
statement, answers must the use appropriate evidence to support the argument, and, at the very top of the
mark range, answers should show awareness of wider issues and evidence that is relevant.
Section A
Question 1
(a) Many answers were awarded full marks for explaining how SSRIs work when treating OCD (i.e. the
question was answered precisely). Some candidates thought that SSRIs block serotonin levels and
some candidates focused on the topic area of depression (rather than OCD) where SSRIs are also
used.
(b) (i) Most candidates gave an appropriate explanation of what is meant by an obsession, a recurring
and persistent thought that interferes with normal behaviour, and were awarded 1 mark. Most
candidates were able to give an appropriate example such as a fear of contamination, and were
awarded the second available mark. Some answers confused obsessions with compulsions and
some used examples from impulse control disorders which were incorrect.
(ii) For this question part most candidates gave an appropriate explanation of what is meant by a
compulsion and were awarded 1 mark. Examples such as double checking, excessive washing or
cleaning or accumulating things (hoarding) were all correct and were awarded a further mark. A
number of candidates wrote about body dysmorphic disorder (BDD) which also received credit.
Candidates writing about impulse control disorders received no credit.
(c) Many candidates described in detail the case study of Jason, outlined by Lehmkuhl et al. (2008),
often scoring maximum marks for the inclusion of specific detail related to his contamination fears
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such as doorknobs and library books. Such answers also described his exposure and response
prevention (ERP) treatment allowing Jason to touch papers for example. A number of candidates
described the case study of Charles, but while Charles had OCD he was not treated with ERP.
Some candidates described the study Saavedra and Silverman about the boy who was treated with
ERP but who did not have OCD.
(d) Answers to this question part followed the same pattern as part (d)s for all other options, which
was a lack of relating strengths and weaknesses to the question set. In this instance drug
treatments had to be related to obsessive compulsive disorder. A top mark answer typically
included: ‘drugs are easy to take, nothing more than swallowing a pill, such as swallowing an SSRI
pill for OCD’. In this answer there is a strength and that strength is related to the question. If this
process is repeated for another strength plus example and two weaknesses plus examples, then
full marks will be achieved.
Question 2
(a) Some candidates provided excellent answers explaining that choice blindness is a failure to recall a
choice immediately after we have made that choice. Quite a number of candidates did not appear
to know the term ‘choice blindness’, which is a fundamental component of the study by Hall et al.
(2010). Nearly all guesses were incorrect.
(b) A common error in response to this question was to provide a generic strength of a field experiment
but then not go on to provide an example from the study, which the question required. For
example, a candidate might write ‘the setting is high in ecological validity’, which would be awarded
1 mark, but not go on to say that ‘the Hall et al. study was conducted at a stall in a supermarket’,
when doing this would allow the second mark to be awarded. Candidates should ensure they
address the whole question if they wish to receive the full allocation of marks.
(c) All candidates could describe deception, but some struggled to relate two instances of deception in
the Hall et al. study. Some candidates gave incorrect examples and were awarded no marks,
others were awarded 1 mark for stating, for example, ‘they were deceived about the aim of the
study’ but needed elaboration for further credit. Answers achieving higher marks often extended
the deception regarding the aim and quoted from the study itself when writing ‘we recruited the
participants by asking them whether they were willing to take part in the quality control test of the
jam and tea assortment at the store’.
(d) Many answers included two strengths and two weaknesses of using an opportunity sample, but
often only scored partial marks because frequently answers were not related to the study on choice
blindness as the question required. A strength such as ‘people who are ‘readily available’ can be
chosen to participate’ (1 mark) could extend to ‘when they are passing a stall located in a
supermarket’ would have been sufficient for 2 marks. Many answers had no appropriate
conclusion.
Question 3
(a) Many candidates could explain what an independent measures design involves, although some
candidates wrote incorrectly about a repeated measures design. Some candidates explained that
the design involved different communities (cities) and top mark answers explained that there were
two independent treatment communities compared with three reference or control communities.
(b) A number of candidates appeared to be confused about the aim of this study, suggesting that cities
were chosen because of high rates of cardiovascular disease. The point of the study was to
prevent the onset of cardiovascular disease, not to treat it. This meant that answers suggesting
cardiovascular disease was one of the criteria for selection scored no marks. Some candidates
incorrectly suggested age was a factor but this is also incorrect. Two correct answers where that,
for example, the population of the community needed to exceed 30, 000 people, and that the
communities were located in Northern California.
(c) (i) Some candidates incorrectly defined the term random sample. Other candidates correctly wrote
that it might involve a computer selecting a random sample or by putting every name into a hat.
However, the question stated ‘used in this study’ and so there had to be a link to the study. Some
candidates did not do this but others suggested using electoral registers or census details to
determine which names would go into the hat or computer.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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(ii) Candidates often gave a general answer without relating it to the study in question. This meant that
answers such as ‘so every person has an equal chance of participating’, or that ‘it eliminates
researcher bias’ could only be awarded 1 partial answer mark. Candidates scoring 2 marks gave
some elaboration that was clearly related to the study such as ‘it eliminates bias of choosing people
from one specific region which may or may not be healthier than people from another’.
(d) Candidates did not always achieve marks because they did not relate strengths and weaknesses of
physiological measures to community health promotion projects as the question required. Many
candidates summarised what they had already written, rather than provide a conclusion and so no
mark could be awarded. Reference to the mark scheme shows that a conclusion is defined as a
‘decision reached by reasoning’ and this is what candidates should do.
Question 4
(a) A large number of answers were a commonsense statement such as ‘a reward without money’
without further elaboration. Candidates need to providing answers in sufficient detail to show their
knowledge and understanding. To go beyond this statement candidates could have referred to non-
monetary rewards being intrinsic rather than extrinsic or they could have given an example such as
praise or recognition. Doing either of these would show appropriate knowledge understanding of
non-monetary reward systems.
(b) Many candidates scored maximum marks for identifying and showing understanding when
explaining two types of non-monetary reward. Such rewards include praise, respect, recognition,
empowerment and sense of belonging.
(c) Candidates had to suggest how non-monetary rewards apply to two of Maslow’s needs. Many
answers cited the need for self-actualisation which can result from rewards such as praise, respect
and recognition. The need for self-esteem was commonly used and again this could result from
praise or respect or recognition for high quality work. Some candidates chose the need of love and
belongingness (social need) but did not always relate this to organisations and examples could
only be credited if it was related the need for affiliation at work with work colleagues.
(d) Candidates often gave short answers and it was unclear what was a strength or weakness or link
to motivation. For example, a candidate might write ‘workers are motivated by money’ without
further elaboration. Some candidates continued the theme of non-monetary rewards, but this
question part focused on monetary rewards.
Section B
Question 5
(a) Candidates scoring high marks sampled men and women who had undergone face-to face-therapy
for a period of time and then interviewed them over the phone asking them questions about how
the face-to-face therapy was for them. Evidence was often gathered using both closed and open
questions. Many candidates compared face-to-face therapy with telephone therapy and did not
investigate the effectiveness for women compared to the effectiveness for men, so did not address
the question set and marks were limited.
(b) The psychological evidence quoted by most candidates was a study by Lovell et al. (2006) which
concluded the therapy delivered by telephone was as effective as face-to-face therapy. What most
candidates did not do was link this study to their design as a question required. Often
methodological decisions were inappropriate for candidates designing an incorrect study. Further,
many candidates evaluated their design decisions but the question does not ask for evaluation.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Question 6
(a) This question on ‘colour choice’ appeared to be a popular choice but there were anecdotal
common-sense answers which could not be credited. Candidates could have been awarded some
marks if they had used appropriate knowledge about interviews and the type of questions that
would have been appropriate to the requirements of the study. Answers at the top of the mark
range included the type of interview (such as face-to-face), the setting (conducted in a
supermarket), sample questions (most often closed) and how these questions would be
answered/scored (often rating scales to gather quantitative data).
(b) Very few candidates wrote about the work of Grossman and Wisenblit (1999), who studied product
colour and associative learning, for their psychological knowledge. Instead answers were often
anecdotal with suggestions like ‘I included the colour green in my interview because vegetables are
green’. Many candidates incorrectly evaluated their designs.
Question 7
(a) Some candidates provided excellent answers when designing an experiment to address the
question set, often allocating participants to two conditions of the IV (those using pill counting and
those using biochemical tests). An independent measures design was apposite although some
candidates suggested a repeated measures design which was problematic because a biochemical
test would be irrelevant if patients were not taking pills. Top mark answers applied an appropriate
range of specific experimental features whereas middle and bottom band answers did not, and
were too ‘story like’.
(b) Some candidates wrote extensively about the work on pill counting by (Chung and Naya, 2000)
and on biochemical tests by (Roth and Caron, 1978). This was often substantial but according to
the mark scheme such description could only be awarded a maximum of two marks. The second
two marks are awarded for describing how this psychological knowledge informs the design in part
(a) and often this second component was not done at all by many candidates. For methodological
evidence, a significant number of candidates evaluated their designs. Candidates should explain
their design decisions, such as why they used an independent measures design rather than a
repeated measures design.
Question 8
(a) Most candidates used a questionnaire as the main method, as the question required, but often
methodological knowledge about questionnaire design was limited and often questions did not
investigate cognitive limitation/error. At this level it is expected the candidates know about question
technique and format. Questionnaire technique is whether the questions are done online or using
‘paper and pencil’ in front of an examiner. Questionnaire format is the use of open or closed
questions (or both) and this would include examples of questions, how the questions are scored
and how they will be interpreted by researchers. A second problem was that candidates often did
not appear to know about the different types of cognitive error such as those outlined by Forsyth
(2006) and this meant that designs were often very general or superficial rather than being based
on psychological knowledge.
(b) Following on from (a) above, psychological knowledge was in many instances very limited or
absent. Some candidates did write about Forsyth’s sins of commission, sins of omission or sins of
imprecision, and in top mark answers these types of error informed the questions participants were
asked, i.e. these candidates were using relevant psychological knowledge to inform their design.
Methodologically, as also mentioned in part (a), knowledge of questionnaires was limited in some
answers but was very strong in others by inclusion of many of the features of questionnaires
mentioned above.
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Section C
Question 9
Answers scoring the highest marks were those which were organised and answered the question set.
Organised answers frequently included two debates: whether the use of drugs was effective for all patients
or not (and this often included the consideration that it might be effective for some people but not others);
secondly whether the use of drugs was preferable to alternative forms of treatment for schizophrenia such as
electroconvulsive therapy or cognitive behaviour therapy. Answers at the bottom end of the mark range often
described the history of drug treatments, mentioning first, second and third generations. Other answers at
the bottom of the mark range simply gave generic strengths and weaknesses of taking drugs with no attempt
to relate these to schizophrenia.
Question 10
Many candidates described the choice heuristics of availability unrepresentativeness and sometimes these
were related to decisions about purchasing goods and sometimes they were not. There are no marks for
description in Section C questions. Descriptions can be included as part of evaluative discussion and
appropriate credit would then be awarded. Candidates rarely contrasted heuristics with alternatives. For
example, Knutson et al. studied pre-cognitive decisions where the brain has already made a decision before
a person can make a cognitive decision. Similarly candidates did not always consider that the anchors of
availability and representativeness might apply less compared to other anchors/heuristics.
Question 11
There were many very strong answers which considered the arguments both for fear arousal as a strategy
for promoting health and the arguments against the use of fear arousal. The research study of Janis and
Feshbach (1953) was often used to support the arguments being made. These answers also considered
alternative strategies such as providing information and brought in the work of Lewin (1992). Occasionally
these top band answers also included the work of Cowpe (1989) who used a combination of both fear
arousal and providing information. Answers achieving middle band marks considered nothing more than the
strengths and weaknesses of fear arousal and answers at the bottom band merely described the study by
Janis and Feshbach or anecdotally considered whether it is good or not to scare people into improving their
health.
Question 12
The most logical approach to achieve a top mark was to consider how setting goals would improve
motivation and include a debate about whether setting ‘smart’ targets would increase motivation or not. This
could be followed by bringing in alternatives to need theories. For example, goal setting would be irrelevant
for McClelland’s need for power or affiliation. Whilst this approach was taken by a small number of
candidates most merely wrote about Maslow’s hierarchy of needs and did not consider goal setting as
proposed by Latham and Locke (1994).
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/42
Specialist Options: Application 42
Key messages
(a) What has been learned from the AS component of the syllabus should be transferred to the A2
component. For example, at AS candidates learn about methodology, such as experiments, which
also apply to A2.
(b) Questions should be read carefully ensuring that the focus is on what the question asks.
(c) All components of the question should be included in answers. For example, Question part (d) for
Questions 1, 2, 3 and 4 required advantages and disadvantages (plurals) examples of each and a
conclusion.
(d) In Section B, Questions 5, 6, 7 and 8, methodological knowledge must be evident and detailed for
top marks to be accessed. The procedure, however detailed, is just one methodological aspect. For
top marks answers must explain methodology rather than merely identify it.
(e) In Section C, Questions 9, 10, 11 and 12, to access top marks, answers must include a debate
which has two sides, such as strengths/advantages and weaknesses/disadvantages. Supporting
evidence should also be provided. Description cannot be credited.
(f) Psychological knowledge should be applied wherever possible. Anecdotal and common-sense
answers will not achieve top marks.
General comments
There was evidence to suggest that many candidates had not studied two options with a few candidates
answering questions from one option only. Some candidates answered questions from three and even four
options. Whilst answers to one option were often very good, some answers to the second option were very
poor, often limited to anecdotal or common-sense responses. Further, there were some examples of weak
examination technique which candidates would benefit from improving.
Section A
(i) Candidates are advised to read the ‘stem’ of the question, the introduction or the opening words in
Section A questions as the information provided is crucial to answering each question part that
follows.
(ii) Answers must refer to the study the question is about. Many answers provided general comments
which were unrelated to the study itself.
(iii) For question part (d), many answers correctly included strengths and weaknesses but often these
were not related to the question, and so marks were limited.
Candidates should not use terms without explanation. Frequently answers stated ‘it is reductionist’ or ‘it is
useful in everyday life’ without further explanation. To state ‘it is reductionist’ is merely to identify; it is not
automatically a strength or weakness. Further many candidates assume that to be reductionist is always a
weakness. It is not; any experiment is reductionist because variables are controlled and only the IV is
manipulated. Reductionism is the basis of any experiment and as such it is a strength.
(iv) Many conclusions repeated what had already been written, and such summaries scored no marks. A
conclusion is a ‘decision reached by reasoning’ and so as the reasoning has been done through the
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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(v) Candidates should think about what the question requires rather than writing pre-prepared answers.
Many questions will test the ability to apply knowledge from one thing to another, particularly
methodological knowledge.
(vi) Candidates should always provide sufficient detail to score all the available marks. A single sentence
is more likely to score 1 mark rather than 2 marks, so a little elaboration, explanation or example that
goes beyond the basic sentence is always recommended. Candidates should always try to impress
the Examiner with their psychological knowledge.
Section B
Many candidates conduct an experiment whatever the question. An interview, questionnaire or observation
are methods independent of an experiment and candidates should not try to make other methods ‘fit’ into an
experimental format. Answers to part (a) questions in this section should include an appropriate design,
have applied a range (four or five) of relevant methodological design features, each of which should be
explained fully, showing good understanding. Many answers listed features such as ‘I would have a random
sample’ and ‘It would be an independent measures design’ without explanation of why it would be a random
sample, or how this would be obtained.
In part (b), answers should explain the methodological decisions on which their part (a) design is based and
also explain the psychological evidence on which their design is based. Merely describing a relevant piece of
research from a topic area is insufficient to score full marks. The links between the research and how it
informed the design must be shown. Further, there is no need for a name (date) to be quoted for each
sentence, with some candidates writing ‘I chose a self-selecting sample because Milgram (1963) did’ for
example. This just identifies a study using that technique. It does not explain the choice of sampling
technique.
Section C
It is essential that answers focus on the question that is set. Every question in this Section invites candidates
to consider the extent to which they agree or disagree with the statement, rather than describe what they
know about that topic area, and answers that do not address the question will only achieve minimal marks.
To score marks at the top end of the mark range, answers must focus on arguments both for and against the
statement, answers must the use appropriate evidence to support the argument, and, at the very top of the
mark range, answers should show awareness of wider issues and evidence that is relevant.
Section A
Question 1
(a) Many answers were awarded full marks for outlining how operant conditioning explains token
economy. Some candidates confused operant conditioning with classical conditioning and some
answers described token economy with no reference to operant conditioning.
(b) Most candidates were able to outline the findings of the Paul and Lentz study, often in enough
detail, or by including a range of different features, to be awarded full marks.
(c) Many answers to this question were very strong. Most answers referred to problems of cross-over
effects where one treatment would interfere with another if a repeated measures design was used
and it would not be known which technique resulted in reduction of their schizophrenia. Some
candidates referred to an independent design reducing demand characteristics. However,
participants know they have schizophrenia and they know what their treatment is. This means that
they know the ‘aim’ of the study and demand characteristics do not apply. Notably the participants
in the Paul and Lentz study were real people with a real illness.
(d) Answers to this question needed to relate the strengths and weaknesses to the question set. In this
instance answers had to be related drug treatments for schizophrenia. A top mark answer typically
included: ‘drugs are easy to take, nothing more than swallowing a pill, such as swallowing an
atypical anti-psychotic pill for schizophrenia’.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Question 2
(a) Most candidates could be awarded full marks for full and accurate answers. A few candidates
suggested there was no harm, and although there was no harm, this could not be supported with
any evidence from the study.
(b) Some candidates explained two of round trip, central trip or wave trip and were awarded full marks.
Other candidates could identify two of these, but needed to provide more detail for higher credit.
Some candidates wrote about shopper behaviour patterns (i.e. tourist, explorer raider, etc.) rather
than types of movement pattern.
(c) (i) In this instance the study involved shoppers in a supermarket and this meant that one feature of
the interview was that it was face-to-face. A second feature of the interview was that the interviews
were structured (semi structured was also credited) with a predetermined set of questions that all
participants were asked. Some candidates wrote generically about interviews, sometimes scoring
marks, but more frequently 0 marks were awarded (for example stating that the interviews were
unstructured).
(ii) If candidates had suggested a structured interview in part (c)(i) a logical strength was that all
participants were asked the same questions in the same order and so direct comparisons of
different types of shopper movement patterns could be made. Another strength is that a face-to-
face interview is more personal/friendly than other types of interview and non-verbal aspects of the
conversation can be noted. A face-to-face interview is also more likely to continue for longer than a
telephone interview.
(d) Many answers included two strengths and two weaknesses of using CCTV to investigate shopper
behaviour, but often only scored partial marks because frequently answers were not related to the
specific question set. A weakness such as ‘a CCTV camera has a limited panorama’ was a
common limited response which could have been extended to ‘so some shopper behaviours may
be missed or interpreted’ which would have been sufficient for 2 marks. Many answers needed to
include an appropriate conclusion.
Question 3
(a) Many candidates struggled to provide an answer, or appeared to guess incorrectly. A few
candidates described the GAS model but this did not answer the question set.
(b) There are generally 3 features of a Type A personality which include: being competitive, being time
conscious, and being aggressive and assertive. Identification of any two of these three achieved
limited credit and elaboration of two of these could result in being awarded full marks available. A
number of candidates referred to other features of Type A personality and these were also given
appropriate credit.
(c) (i) Many candidates were able to suggest two appropriate causes of stress, scoring 1 mark for
identifying life events and a further 1 mark for describing the features outlined by Holmes and Rahe
(1967). The second suggestion was often ‘work’ and elaboration usually came from the study by
Chandola et al. (2008). Many candidates suggested that studying A levels or having relationships is
stressful, but without supporting psychological knowledge these answers are anecdotal.
(d) Candidates did not always relate strengths and weaknesses of longitudinal studies to stress as the
question required. Answers were frequently awarded limited credit for generic points ‘longitudinal
studies often suffer from attrition’ but needed to focus on the specific question. Candidates did not
always provide a conclusion, or provided a summary instead. Reference to the mark scheme
shows that a conclusion is defined as a ‘decision reached by reasoning’
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Question 4
(a) Most candidates could not explain the term ‘job involvement’ which is the extent to which the
individual identifies psychologically with his/her/their job. Some answers incorrectly referred to
organisational commitment, job enlargement or job rotation.
(b) (i) and (ii) Answers to these two question parts resulted from considering the content in fig. 4.1. For (i)
the correct answer was low job involvement and low organisational commitment. Elaboration was
needed of these terms in order to achieve the further 1 mark, or alternatively to provide an outline
of what Blau and Boal identified as apathetic employees. For (ii) the correct answer was low job
involvement and high organisational commitment. Again, elaboration was needed in order to
achieve the further mark or to outline what Blau and Boal described as corporate citizens.
(c) This question focused on the four categories of absence identified by Blau and Boal: medical,
career-enhancing, normative and calculative. Many candidates outlined two of these clearly and in
detail, and so received full marks. Some candidates identified two types as being voluntary and
involuntary. Although these were not terms used by Blau and Boal, candidates were awarded
partial marks. A few candidates provided anecdotal answers such as ‘one category is being ill’
which could not be credited.
(d) Only a small number of candidates achieved full marks. It is essential that candidates relate the
generic point to the question specifically, in this instance absenteeism. Summaries were often
provided rather than conclusions.
Section B
Question 5
(a) A significant number of candidates answered this question incorrectly. Many candidates tried to
design an experiment but then struggled to identify an independent and dependent variable, or an
experimental design. The use of the experimental method was irrelevant to this study using an
observation. Many candidates used virtual reality. However, this would not allow the frequency of
characteristics of schizophrenia to be observed. Indeed, many designs required participants to
answer questions which again were irrelevant in the design of a study using an observation.
Candidates can only be awarded marks if their answer uses the method stated in the question.
Candidates scoring maximum marks for this question usually had nurses covertly observing
different patient behaviours recorded in behavioural categories over a period of time and then a
chart constructed to see which schizophrenic behaviours were the most common.
(b) The psychological evidence quoted by most candidates was a study by Freeman et al. which used
virtual reality to investigate persecutory ideation with non-schizophrenic patients. However, this
was only peripherally relevant to this question. Directly relevant were the ‘standard’ schizophrenic
behaviours, such as catatonia, loss of speech, lack of typical facial expressions, etc. A common
missed point was that participants must have been people with schizophrenia (people with
psychosis) and not non-schizophrenic volunteers such as students taking part in an experiment.
Question 6
(a) Most candidates opting for this question chose to design a laboratory experiment, which was a
logical choice. Most designs were appropriate and many candidates achieved high marks.
However many did not, because many candidates did not demonstrate understanding of what a
‘jingle slogan’ was, because their designs involved presenting slogans to participants with music
playing in the background (or not). Other candidates needed to include elaboration on what the
slogans involved or how they were operationalized. Designs in this question part should be based
on appropriate psychological knowledge such as the work on ‘effective slogans’ by Kohli et al.
(2007).
(b) Designs in part (a) should be based on relevant psychological knowledge and in this instance the
work of Kohli et al. was apposite. Some candidates wrote about ‘music in restaurants’ quoting the
North et al. study, which is from a different topic area, jingle slogans did not appear to be well
understood.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
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Question 7
(a) This question was answered incorrectly by many candidates. The focus of this question was stress-
prevention techniques (and whether they are more effective for women than men). The question
was not about treatments for stress. This meant that although the design of the study, often an
experiment, could be credited, when it became ‘treatments’ no marks could be awarded. Some
candidates compared treatments versus non-treatments and did not address the women versus
men comparison required by the question.
(b) Many candidates wrote about biofeedback as studied by Budzynski et al (1969) or about imagery
(Bridge, et al., 1988). Both of these studies were irrelevant because they focus on treating people
who are already stressed. Relevant psychological knowledge was preventing stress as studied by
Meichenbaum (1985). For methodological evidence a significant number of candidates evaluated
their designs. Candidates should explain their design decisions such as why they used an
independent measures design rather than a repeated measures design.
Question 8
(a) Most candidates used an experiment as the main method, as the question required, but often
methodological knowledge about questionnaire design was limited and often questions did not
investigate which type of monetary reward was the more effective motivator. Some answers were
very strong and the full range of specific experimental techniques were applied such as IV, DV,
controls, design and type of experiment. Many answers used a questionnaire to gather data from
their participants and this is an acceptable strategy.
(b) Psychological knowledge was often strong, but more detail about bonuses and performance
related pay could have been included. In top mark answers, performance-related pay was clearly
applied, such as ‘for every sale over a weekly target of 100 you will receive a 10 per cent bonus’.
Methodologically, the use questionnaires was sometimes very strong but often questions were
limited to ‘Do you prefer bonuses or performance related pay?’. Candidates often evaluated what
they had done rather than providing reasons for what they had done.
Section C
Question 9
Answers scoring the highest marks were those which were organised and which focused on the question set.
Organised answers frequently included a debate about whether impulse control disorders are caused by
high levels of dopamine or not; and if not then a discussion about what does cause impulse control disorders
followed with candidates bringing in details of the behavioural approach or the work by Miller. Some
candidates described rather than discussed the dopamine hypothesis followed by descriptions of the
behavioural approach and Miller’s feeling-state theory. Answers at the bottom end of the mark range
candidates often described different impulse control disorders such as pyromania, etc. Other answers at the
bottom of the mark range focused on the ways in which impulse control disorders could be treated rather
than focusing on causes. There are no marks for pure description in any Section C answer.
Question 10
Many candidates divided their answers into four parts: a consideration of quantitative data, a consideration of
qualitative data, knowledge about brand recognition and the use of children in psychological studies. Whilst
this gave candidates a lot to write about, answers were often disjointed because these components were
unrelated to any of the others. For example, a strength of quantitative data was given in isolation with no
reference to brand recognition, or the ethics of children in studies was described with no reference to brand
recognition or types of data. Candidates are strongly encouraged to construct a coherent answer that
focuses on the question set.
Question 11
There were many very strong evaluative answers which focused on the question. However, there were many
candidates who achieved no more than bottom-band marks because they described the study by Sherman
et al. on repeat prescriptions and then described alternative measures of adherence such as using pill
counting, biochemical tests, etc. Candidates should be aware there are no marks for description in
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
Section C questions. Descriptions should only be included as part of evaluative discussion which can then
receive appropriate credit.
Question 12
There were a few good answers, but most received limited credit because they did not answer the question
set. A typical answer would give a generic response regarding strengths and weaknesses of open-ended
questions, but did relate them to job satisfaction. The most logical approach to achieving a top mark would
be to consider how open-ended questions could be used to measure job satisfaction but then to debate
about ways in which job satisfaction is more usually measured - closed questions or rating scales. This
would bring in the JDI (Job Descriptive Index), the MSQ (Minnesota Satisfaction Questionnaire) and Walton’s
QWL (quality of work life) and allow candidates to show their psychological knowledge of job satisfaction.
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Cambridge International Advanced Subsidiary and Advanced Level
9990 Psychology June 2023
Principal Examiner Report for Teachers
PSYCHOLOGY
Paper 9990/43
Specialist Options: Application 43
© 2023