11-08-2024

1016CMD303085240003 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1)

In the given figure find acceleration of the blocks :-

(1) 4 ms–2
(2) 3 ms–2
(3) 2 ms–2
(4) 5 ms–2

2) A man of mass 60 kg is riding in a lift. The apparent weight of the man, where the lift is
accelerating upwards and downwards at 2 m/sec2, are respectively. :-

(1) 720 N and 480 N

(2) 480 N and 720 N
(3) 600 N and 600 N
(4) None

3) A particle 80 kg is supported by two cables as shown in the figure. Then the ratio of tensions T1

and T2 is :-

(1) 1 : 1
(2)
(3)
(4) 1:3

4) In the system shown mass of the man is 50 kg and mass of lift is 30 kg. If the system is in
equilibrium then force applied by man on the rope is :-

(1) 400 N
(2) 800 N
(3) 300 N
(4) 500 N

5) Three blocks of mass 1 kg, 4kg and 2kg are placed on a smooth horizontal plane as shown in the
figure. The contact force between 1kg block and 4 kg block is

(1) 100 N
(2) 120 N
(3) 50 N
(4) 110 N

6)

Find tension at point P mass of connecting string 4 kg. System is lowered by acceleration 4 ms–2.

(1) 48 N
(2) 24 N
(3) 54 N
(4) 6 N

7) In fig. if the surfaces are frictionless the ratio T1 : T2 is -

(1) :2
(2) 1 :
(3) 1 : 5
(4) 5 : 1

8) Two blocks A and B of masses 4 m and m respectively are connected by a massless and
inextensible string. The whole system is suspended by a massless spring as shown in figure. The

magnitudes of acceleration of A & B immediately after the string is cut, are respectively:-

(1) g, g

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) A person goes to market from his home with speed 4 ms–1. After finding market closed be
immediately come back to home with speed 6 ms–1 his average speed over the journey is :-

(1) 5.4 ms–1

(2) 4.8 ms–1
(3) 6.4 ms–1
(4) 5 ms–1

10) In the system shown in the figure, the acceleration of the 1 kg mass and the tension in the string

connecting between A and B is :

(1)
downwards ,

(2)
upwards,
(3)
downwards , g

(4)
upwards , g

11) A particle moves towards west with speed 5 ms–1. After 10 s its direction changes towards north
with same speed. The magnitude of average acceleration of the particle is :-

(1) N-E

(2)
N-E
(3) 2 N-W

(4)
S-W

12) The acceleration of masses with respect to lift if the whole system is moving vertically upwards

with uniform acceleration 4 m/s2 is :

(1) 1.42 m/s2

(2) 3.6 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2
(4) 2 m/s2

13) A block of mass 2 kg is placed on the floor. The coefficient of static friction is 0.4. A force of 2.8
N is applied on the block as shown in figure. The force of friction between the block and the floor is

(Take g = 10 ms ) :-
–2

(1) 2.8 N
(2) 8 N
(3) 20 N
(4) Zero

14) Acceleration of the block should be :-

(1) Zero
(2) 1 m/s2
(3) 6.6 m/s2
(4) 5 m/s2

15) A block of mass 5 kg is projected on a horizontal surface with a velocity of 10 m/s. If it comes to
rest after 2 sec, then what will be the cofficient of friction ?

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.3
(3) 0.4
(4) 0.5

16) A box of mass 20 kg is placed on the floor of a car. Coefficient of static friction is μs = 0.35. What
can be the maximum acceleration of the car up to which box does not slip on the floor.

(1) 2 ms–2
(2) 3.0 ms–2
(3) 3.5 ms–2
(4) 4 ms–2

17) A block of mass 0.1 kg is held against a wall by applying a horizontal force of 5N on the block. If
the co-efficient of friction between the block and the wall is 0.5, the magnitude of frictional force
acting on the block is-

(1) 2.5 N
(2) 1 N
(3) 4.9 N
(4) 0.49 N

18) Which of the following is not correct representation of a unit ?

(1) Newton
(2) Sec
(3) a.m.u.
(4) All of these

19) The mass and volume of a body are found to be 5.00 ± 0.05 kg and 1.00 ± 0.05 m3 respectively.
Then the maximum possible percentage error in its density is :

(1) 6%
(2) 3%
(3) 10%
(4) 5%

20) The Vernier scale of travelling microscope has 50 divisions which coincide with 49 main scale
divisions. If each mains scale division is 0.5 mm, then the least count of the microscope is :-
(1) 0.01 cm
(2) 0.5 mm
(3) 0.01 mm
(4) 0.5 cm

21) The dimensional representation of εr will be :-

(1) [MLT2A2]
(2) [M–1L–3T4A2]
(3) [ML–2T2A–2]
(4) None of these

22) In an experiment four quantities a, b, c and d are measured with percentage error 1%, 2%, 3%

and 4% respectively. Quantity P is calculated as follows P = then % error in measurement of P

is :-

(1) 4%
(2) 14%
(3) 10%
(4) 7%

23) Two identical coils of radii R and no. of turns N. Both are placed concentrically and their planes
are perpendicular to each other. If currents in both coils are I & then net magnetic field at their
common centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) A hollow cylindercal wire carries current I, having inner and outer radius R and 2R respectively.

Magnetic field at a point which is distance away from axis of the wire :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
25) 1m long wire is folded in form of a circular coil and 100 mA electric current is flowing in it, then
magnetic field at a point 1m away from its centre on its axis :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

26) A cylindrical conductor of radius ‘R’ carries a current ‘i’. The value of magnetic field at a point
which is R/4 distance inside from the surface is 10 T. Find the value of magnetic field at point which
is 4R distance outside from the surface

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

27) There are 50 turns of a wire in every cm length of a long solenoid. If 4 ampere current is flowing
in the solenoid, the approximate value of magnetic field along the axis at an internal point and at
one end will be approximately :

(1) 12.6×10–3 wb/m2 and 6.3×10–3 wb/m2

(2) 12.6 × 10–3 wb/m2 and 25.1×10–3 wb/m2
(3) 25.1 × 10–3 wb/m2 and 12.6 × 10–3 wb/m2
(4) 25.1 × 10–5 wb/m2 and 12.6 × 10–5 wb/m2

28) An electron having kinetic energy K is moving in a circular path of radius R perpendicular to a
uniform magnetic field. If kinetic energy is double and magnetic field tripled, the radius will become
:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) A proton moving with a velocity 3 × 10 m/s enters in a magnetic field of 0.3 tesla at an angle of
5
30° with the field, the radius of helix of its path will be : (e/m for proton = 10 C/kg)
8

(1) 2 cm
(2) 0.5 cm
(3) 0.02 cm
(4) 1.25 cm

30) A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are
very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. Magnetic

field at point O is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

31) If two streams of protons move parallel to each other in the same direction, then they :

(1) Do not exert any force on each other.

(2) Repel each other
(3) Attract each other
(4) Get rotated to be perpendicular to each other.

32) Given below are two statements : One is labelled as Assertion (1) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R).
Assertion (1) : In an uniform magnetic field, speed and energy remains the same for a moving
charged particle.
Reason (R) : Moving charged particle experiences magnetic force perpendicular to its direction of
motion.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the correct explanation of (A).
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
33) A uniform magnetic field is directed out of the page. A charged particle moving in the plane of
the page follows a clockwise spiral of decreasing radius as shown in the figure. A reasonable

explanation is that a :-

(1) charge is positive and slowing down

(2) charge is negative and slowing down
(3) charge is positive and speeding up
(4) charge is negative and speeding up

34) Three long straight parallel wires, carrying current, are arranged as shown in figure. The force

experienced by a 25 cm length of wire C is :

(1) 10–3 N
(2) 2.5 × 10–3 N
(3) zero
(4) 1.5 × 10–3 N

35) An ionized gas contains both positive and negative ions. If it is subjected simultaneously to an
electric field along the +x direction and a magnetic field along the +z direction, then :-

(1) Positive ions deflect towards +y direction and negative ions towards -y direction
(2) All ions deflect towards +y direction
(3) All ions deflect towards -y direction
(4) Positive ions deflect towards -y direction and negative ions towards +y direction

SECTION-B

1)

Read the following statements and select correct alternative :-

Statement-I :- Pseudo force is an imaginary force which is recognized only by a non inertial
observer to explain the physical situation according to Newton's laws.
Statement-II :- Pseudo force has no physical origin that is not caused by one of the basic
interactions in nature. It does not exist in action-reaction pair.

(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.

(2) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
(3) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.

2)

A body goes 10 km north and 20 km east. What will be the displacement from initial point.

(1)
km, tan–1 north of east.

(2)
10 km, tan
–1
east of north.
(3) 20 km, tan (3) north of east.
–1

(4) 5 km, tan–1(2) south of east.

3) At the instant when the 15 kg mass has acceleration of 6 m/sec then acceleration of 30 kg mass
2

will be :

(1) 2 m/sec2
(2) 3 m/sec2
(3) 4 m/sec2
(4) 6 m/sec2

4) In the following figure, if the table and pulley are frictionless and strings are weightless, then the

acceleration of the system will be :-

(1) 3.2 m/s2

(2) 2.5 m/s2
(3) 1.8 m/s2
(4) 1.4 m/s2

5) An athlete is running on a circle of radius 2m completes each circle in 6s. Find magnitude of
average velocity in 1 min 15s.

(1) 18 ms–1

(2)
ms–1

(3)
ms–1
(4)
ms
–1

6) The blocks A and B are arranged as shown in the figure. The pulley is frictionless. The mass of A
is 10kg. The coefficient of friction between block A and horizontal surface is 0.20. The minimum

mass of B to start the motion will be-

(1) 2 kg
(2) 0.2 kg
(3) 5 kg
(4) 10 kg

7) An insect crawls up a hemispherical surface very slowly. The coefficient of friction between the

insect and surface is . If the line joining the centre of the hemisperical surface to the insect makes
an angle α with the vertical, the maximum possible value of α is given by :

(1)

(2)
(3) sin α = 3
(4) None of these

8) A given object takes 4 times time to slide down a 45° rough incline compared to, it takes to slide
down a perfectly smooth 45° incline. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the object and the
incline is given by :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) The main scale of a Vernier calliper reads in mm and its Vernier is divided into 10 divisions which
coincide with 9 divisions of the main scale. The reading for the situation is found to be (x/10) mm.
Find the value of x. In fig (1) 8th div. of V.S. coincides with M.S.D. & in fig (2) 6th div. of V.S. coincides

with M.S.D.

(1) 104
(2) 108
(3) 114
(4) 118

10) A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b
respectively. When a current I passes through the coil, the magnetic field at its centre is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) A thin hollow copper pipe carries direct current then which is incorrect :-

(1) Magnetic filed inside the pipe is zero

(2) Magnetic field is not zero outside the pipe
(3) Electric field on the surface of pipe is not zero
(4) Electric field outside the pipe is not zero

12) An α particle and a proton travel with same velocity in a magnetic field perpendicular to the
direction of their velocities. Find the ratio of the radii of their circular path :-

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 1 : 4
(3) 2 : 1
(4) 1 : 2

13) A charge particle projected in limited magnetic field according to figure, the charge particle

does not strikes to the opposite plate provided :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The acceleration of an electron at a certain moment in a magnetic field is

 . The value of x is :-

(1) 0.5
(2) 1
(3) 2.5
(4) 1.5

15) In a mass spectrograph O , He and H are projected on a photographic plate with same
++ ++ +

momentum in uniform magnetic field then which will strike the plate farthest :-

(1) O++
(2) He++
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) H+

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Lowest energy for :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The number of chiral center in following molecule are :-

(1) 6
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 0

3) In which compound cis-trans nomenclature cannot be used :

(1) CH3–CH=CH–COOH
(2) C6H5–CH=CH–C6H5
(3) C6H5–CH=CHD

(4)
C6H5–CH=C

4) Which of following compounds are/is optically active?

(1)

(2) Cl–HC=C=CH–CH3

(3)

(4) All of these

5) has the configuration :-

(1) (2S, 3R)

(2) (2R, 3S)
(3) (2R, 3R)
(4) (2S, 3S)

6) Which of the following can not exist in diastereomeric pair ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Number of optical isomers in the open chain structure of glucose is :

(1) 16
(2) 8
(3) 32
(4) 4

8) Which of the following is achiral ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) Which one of the following series contain's electrophiles only ?

H2O, SO2, H3
(1)

(2) NH3, H2O, AlCl3

AlCl3, SO3,
(3)

(4) H O, , NH3
2

10)

Which of the following shows +I effect ?

(1) –OH
(2) –CH3
(3) –OCH3
(4) –Cl

11) Which is the correct structure of D-glyceraldehyde?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All

12) Which of the following is different amongst conformers of a molecule ?

(1) Bond angle

(2) Dihedral angle
(3) Bond length
(4) Structure

13) What is the correct IUPAC name of the following compound ?

(1) (2E, 4Z, 6Z)-4-chloro oct-2,4,6-triene

(2) (2Z, 4E, 6E)-5-chloro oct-2,4,6-triene
(3) (2E, 4E, 6Z)-4-chloro oct-2,4,6-triene
(4) (2Z, 4Z, 6E)-5-chloro oct-2,4,6-triene

14) Which is aromatic among the following :

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

15) Stability order of given carbocation is

(1) I > II > III > IV

(2) I > III > IV > II
(3) I > IV > III > II
(4) I > II > IV > III

16) In which of the following cases, lone-pair is involved in Resonance :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

17) Correct order of stability of following resonating structure is :-

(I)

(II)

(III)

(1) I > II > III

(2) I > III > II
(3) II > I > III
(4) III > II > I

18) Which of the following is correct :

(1) Value of KH increase solubility of gas decreases.

(2) Increasing temperature will cause increase in solubility for all solid in water
(3) Value of KH depends only on temperature not on the nature of gas
(4) Value of KH decrease with increase in temperature

19) If 1 mole A and 4 mole B on mixing have total pressure is 75 torr, vapour pressure of pure A is
200 torr and vapour pressure of pure B is 50 torr. Which of the following is correct :

(1) ΔSmix = +ve

(2) ΔHmix = +ve
(3) ΔGmix = +ve
(4) ΔVmix = +ve

–1
20) The mass of a non-volatile solute (molar mass 40gmol ) which should be dissolved in 114g
octane (C8H18) to reduce its vapour pressure to 80%?

(1) 10g
(2) 15g
(3) 20g
(4) 3.2g

21) Calculate molality (m) of 5 % (w/w) urea solution. (d = 1.2 g.cc–1) :-

(1) 1
(2) 0.88
(3) 1.2
(4) 0.6

22)

Which of the following concentration term depends on temperature :-

(1) Molarity
(2) Molality
(3) % w/w
(4) Mole fraction

23)

Vapour pressure diagram of some liquids plotted against temperature are shown below:-
 The most volatile liquid is :-
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D

24) If the concentration of glucose (C6H12O6) in blood is 0.9 g L–1, what will be the molarity of glucose
in blood ?

(1) 5 M
(2) 50 M
(3) 0.005 M
(4) 0.5 M

25) Match the columns:

Column-I Column-II

(A) Na-Hg Amalgam (p) gas in solid

(B) H2 in Pd (q) gas in liquid

(C) Camphor in nitrogen gas (r) liquid in solid

(D) Oxygen dissolved in water (s) solid in gas

(1) A – (q), B – (s), C – (r), D – (p)
(2) A – (r), B – (p), C – (q), D – (s)
(3) A – (r), B – (p), C – (s), D – (q)
(4) A – (s), B – (q), C – (p), D – (r)

26) Assertion : Mole fraction and molality of an aqueous solution are independent of temperature
but molarity of an aqueous solution depends on temperature. Reason : Volume of an aqueous
solution changes with temperature but mass of aqueous solution does not.

(1) Both assertion and reason are correct and the reason is a correct explanation of the assertion.
Both assertion and reason are correct but the reason is not a correct explanation of the
(2)
assertion.
(3) Assertion is correct but reason is incorrect.
(4) Assertion is incorrect but reason is correct.

27) Which of the following statement is not correct ?

(1) Solutions are homogenous mixture of two or more than two components.
(2) Unit of molarity is mol L–1.
(3) Due to addition of a non-volatile solute in liquid solvent, vapour pressure of solution increases.
(4) More volatile species has less boiling point

28) Assertion : If on mixing the two liquids, the solution becomes hot, it implies that it shows
negative deviation from Raoult.s law.
Reason : Solution which show negative deviation are accompanied by decrease in volume.

(1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(4) Both assertion and reason are false.

29) Arrhenius equation may be written as :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) Select incorrect statement regarding collision theory.

(1) Collision theory of chemical reactions is based on kinetic theory of gases

(2) In Arrhenius equation, the term e–Ea/RT is an unit less term
Arrehenius equation, predicts the value of rate constant not accurately for the reactions that
(3)
involve complex molecules.
The proper orientation of reactant molecules lead to bond formation whereas improper
(4)
orientation makes them simply bounce back and no products are formed.

31) With respect of the figure given below which of the following is correct.

(1) Ea for the forward reaction is C-B

(2) Ea for the forward reaction is B-A
(3) Ea (forward) > Ea(backward)
(4) Ea (for reverse reaction) = C-A
32) The rate constant for a first order decomposition reaction is given by log K = .
Then, what will be activation energy in kcal/mol ?

(1) 4.60
(2) 17.6
(3) 3.2
(4) 9.8

33) Azo isopropane decomposes according to the equation

(CH3)2CHN=NCH(CH3)2(g) → N2(g) + C6H14(g)
It is found to be a first order reaction. If initial pressure is P0 and pressure of the reaction mixture at
time t is Pt then rate constant K would be:

(1)
K= log

K= log
(2)

K= log
(3)

(4)
K= log

34) Which of the following factor can affect activation energy (Ea) ?

(1) Temperature
(2) Reaction stoichiometry
(3) Catalyst
(4) Both 2&3

35) During decomposition of activitated complex :

(1) Some energy is absorbed

(2) Some energy is released
(3) No energy change
(4) Both (1) and (2)

SECTION-B

1) Geometrical isomerism is not observed in:-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) & are :

(1) Enantiomers
(2) Diastereomers
(3) Meso
(4) Homomers

3) In the Newman projection for 2,2-dimethylbutane X and Y are can respectively by :

(1) H and H
(2) H and C2H5
(3) C2H5 and H
(4) C2H5 and C2H5

4) Find out the no. of compound having gauche form as more stable :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

5) Compounds which can show both optical as well as geometrical isomerism :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) Which of the following is most stable cation :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) In given compound how many show -M effect :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

8) Which of the following pairs of structures is not resonating structures ?

(1)

(2) CH3CH = CHCH3; CH3CH2CH = CH2

(3)

(4)

9) The number of mole of NaOH present in 150 gm of 0.2 molal aqueous solution is:-

(1) 0.2
(2) 0.029
(3) 0.003
(4) 0.01
10) The solubility of a specific non-volatile salt is 4g in 100g of water at 25°C. If 2.0g, 4.0g and 6.0g
of the salt is added to 100g of water at 25°C in system x, y, z respectively. The vapour pressure
would be in order:-

(1) x < y < z

(2) x > y > z
(3) z > x = y
(4) x > y = z

11) What will be molality of CH4 in benzene at 25ºC using Henry's law. When partial pressure of CH4
is 760 mm and KH is 4.27 × 105 mm Hg ?

(1) 0.023 m
(2) 9.5 m
(3) 6.5 m
(4) 28.3 m

12) If two substances A and B have = 2 : 1 and have mole fraction in solution 1 : 2 then
mole fraction of A in vapours is :-

(1) 0.33
(2) 0.25
(3) 0.52
(4) 0.20

13) According to Henry's law the partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase (p) is proportional to
the the mole fraction of the gas (x) in the solution'. For different gases the correct statement about
Henry's constant is

(1) higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas
(2) higher the value of KH at a given pressure, lower is the solubility of the gas
(3) KH is not a function of nature of gas
(4) KH value for all gases is same at a given pressure

14) Raoult's law for dilute solution ..........

(1) Relative decrease in vapour pressure of solution is proportional to amount of solute in solution.
(2) Relative decrease in vapour pressure of solution is equal to mole fraction of solute.
(3) relative decrease in vapour pressure of solution is equal to mole fraction of solvent.
(4) vapour pressure of solution is equal to mole fraction of solvent.

15) What is the activation energy for a reaction if its rate doubles when the temperature is raised
from 20°C to 35°C? (R = 8.314 J mol k )
–1 –1

(1) 15.1 kJ mol–1

(2) 342 kJ mol–1
(3) 269 kJ mol–1
(4) 34.7 kJ mol–1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1)

Our heart consists of :-

(i) Epithelial tissue (ii) Connective tissue
(iii) Muscular tissue (iv) Neural tissue

(1) Only ii
(2) i & iii only
(3) ii, iii & iv only
(4) All of these

2)

Which of the following junction helps to stop substances from leaking across a tissue ?

(1) Interdigitation
(2) Gap junction
(3) Tight junction
(4) Desmosomes

3) Epithelia in given diagram is observed in:

(1) Fallopian tube

(2) PCT
(3) Female urethra
(4) Gall bladder

4) Malpighian tubules are present at the junction ?

(1) Foregut and midgut, and help in secretion of digestive enzyme

(2) Midgut and hindgut and helps in food grinding
(3) Foregut and midgut and helps in removal of excretory product from haemolymph.
(4) Midgut and hindgut and helps in removal of excretory product from haemolymph

5) Fore wings of cockroach are :-

(1) Small, broad, thin and soft

(2) Leathery, Opaque and dark
(3) Long, Narrow, Soft
(4) Transparent, Membranous, Mesothoracic

6) On basis of excretory product cockroach is a ?

(1) Ammonotelic
(2) Ureotelic
(3) Uricotelic
(4) Both (1) and (2)

7) In female cockroach one pair ovaries situated in ?

(1) 2 to 6 Abdominal segment

(2) 2 to 8 Abdominal segment
(3) 4 to 8 Abdominal segment
(4) 4 to 6 Abdominal segment

8)

Which of the following statement is Incorrect with reference to frog :-

(I) Eyes are bulged and not covered by nictitating membrane.
(II) Membranous tympanum receives the sound signals.
(III) The frog never drinks water.

(IV) pair of nostrils is present above to mouth.

(1) I and II
(2) III and IV
(3) I and IV
(4) Only I

9) See the diagram carefully and select the correct match :

(1) (A) Anterior Aorta Help in excretion

(2) (B) Alary muscles Help in blood circulation
(3) (C) Alary muscles Help in excretion
(4) (B) Pulsatile Ampulla Help in blood formation
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Matrix of cartilage is ?

(1) Soft and pliable

(2) Soft and non pliable
(3) Solid and pliable
(4) Solid and non pliable

11) Consider the following features

a. Vascularised
b. Cells have rapid Cell division
c. Little inter cellular matrix
d. Cells are loosely arranged
How many of the given statements are correct for epithelial tissue ?

(1) One
(2) Two
(3) Three
(4) Four

12) All connective tissue cells secretes structural protein fibres except :-

(1) Cartilage
(2) Bone
(3) Blood
(4) Tendon

13) Endothelium is made up of :-

(1) Squamous cells

(2) Cuboidal cells
(3) Columnar cells
(4) Stratified epithelium

14) Which of the following is set of connective tissue only ?

(1) Blood, skin

(2) Blood, bone
(3) Bone, muscle
(4) Cartilage, muscle

15) The intestine and stomach in mammals is lined by

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Columnar epithelium
(3) Cuboidal epithelium
(4) Stratified epithelium

16) The tissue lining the inner surface of a hollow organ like a fallopian tube is:

(1) Columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Ciliated columnar epithelium
(4) Brush bordered epithelium

17) Which of the following tissue cover dry surface of skin and line moist surface of buccal cavity?

(1) Adipose tissue

(2) Dende regular connective tissue
(3) Compound epithelium
(4) Keratinised stratified squamous epithelium

18) Which epithelium is found in the lining of intestine and help in secretion and absorption ?

(1) Ciliated columnar epithelium

(2) Cuboidial epithelium with microvilli
(3) Columnar epithelium with microvilli
(4) Columnar epithelium without microvilli

19) Match the columns

Column-I Column-II

A Compound epithelium (i) Wall of blood vessels

B Simple squamous epithelium (ii) Moist surface of buccal cavity

C Simple cuboidal epithelium (iii) Proximal convoluted tubule

D Brush border epithelium (iv) Germinal epithelium

(1) A–iv, B–iii, C–i, D–ii
(2) A–iii, B–ii, C–i, D–iv
(3) A–ii, B–i, C–iv, D–iii
(4) A–i, B–ii, C–iii, D–iv

20) Pharynx have which type of epithelium ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

21) Cuboidal epithelium is commonly found in :-

(1) Walls of blood vessels and air sacs of lungs

(2) Ducts of glands and tubular parts of nephrons
(3) Lining of stomach and intestine
(4) Inner surface of bronchioles and fallopian tubes

22) Structure which is given below diagram is related with which type of epithelium and present in

which part of body?

(1) A = Simple squamous epithelium; B = Blood vessels

(2) A = Columnar epithelium; B = Stomach
(3) A = Stratified columnar epithelium; B = Pharynx
A = Cuboidal epithelium;
(4)
B = Tubular part of nephron in kidney

23) The function of villi in the intestine is :-

(1) Digestion of food

(2) Increase in the absorptive surface
(3) Control of intestinal movement
(4) Hinderance in the movement of food

24) Number of malpighian tubules present at junction of midgut and hindgut in cockroach is :-
(1) 50–60
(2) 80–90
(3) 100–150
(4) 200–250

25) Which of the following structure is responsible for sexual dimorphism in male and female
cockroach?

(1) Anal styles

(2) Abdomen
(3) Anal cerci
(4) Compound Eyes

26) The nerve cord of cockroach is :-

(1) Double, ventral and solid

(2) Double, dorsal and hollow
(3) Single, dorsal and solid
(4) Single, ventral and hollow

27) Given below the diagram of alimentary canal of Cockroach. identify a to e :-

(a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus,

(1)
(c) Crop, (d) Rectum, (e) Colon
(a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus,
(2)
(c) Mid-gut (d) Colon, (e) Rectum
(a) Buccal cavity, (b) Oesophagus,
(3)
(c) Mid-gut, (d) Colon , (e) Rectum
(a) Pharynx, (b) Oesophagus,
(4)
(c) Gizzard, (d) Colon, (e) Rectum

28) In cockroach, walking legs arises from :-

(1) prothorax and mesothorax and are two pairs.

(2) mesothorax and metathorax and are two pairs.
(3) All the thoracic segments and are three pairs.
(4) first three abdominal segments and are three pairs.

29) The 10th segment bears a pair of jointed filamentous structure called :-

(1) Anal cerci in both sexes

(2) Anal style in both sexes
(3) Anal cerci in male cockroach only
(4) Anal style in male cockroach only

30) The liquefied semidigested acidic food in frog is known as :-

(1) Bile
(2) Bolus
(3) Chyme
(4) Chyle

31) During hibernation gaseous exchange takes place through :-

(1) Skin
(2) Lungs
(3) Nostril
(4) Buccal cavity

32) How many vasa efferentia arise from testes in Rana ?

(1) 10-12
(2) 10-14
(3) 9-10
(4) 8-10

33) Which of the following structure attached testes to kidney in frog ?

(1) Mesorchium
(2) Mesovarium
(3) Nuptial pad
(4) Copulatory pad

34) Male frog can be distinguished from female frog by:

(1) Anal style

(2) Truncus arterosus
(3) Copulatory pad and vocal sacs
(4) Teeth on lower jaw

35) Choose the correct statement w.r.t frog.

(1) Ovary & testis fused with kidney both physically and physiologically
(2) Ovary & kidney fused physiologically not physically
(3) Testis & kidney fused both physically & physiologically
(4) Testis & kidney fused physically not physiologically

SECTION-B

1) Match the column and find out the correct answer.

Column-I Column-II
A Most abundant formed elements of blood (i) Platelets
B Collagen of areolar tissue is produced by (ii) Mast cells
C Tendons are composed of this tissue (iii) Dense regular
D Provide shape to external ear (iv) Elastic cartilage
(v) Hyaline cartilage
(vi) Erythrocytes
(vii) Fibroblast
(viii) Areolar tissue
(1) A-i B-viii C-iii D-v
(2) A-vi B-ii C-iii D-viii
(3) A-i B-vii C-viii D-iv
(4) A-vi B-vii C-iii D-iv

2)

Which type of tissue correctly matches with its location ?

Tissue Location

Cuboidal Bowman's
(1)
epithelium capsule

Columnar Small
(2)
epithelium intestine

compound
(3) P.C.T
epithelium

Squamous
(4) D.C.T
epithelium
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) How many statements are true in the following?

(i) Simple epithelium forms lining for body cavities, ducts and tubes.
(ii) In epithelial tissue, cells are loosely packed with little intercellular matrix.
(iii) Simple epithelium provide protection against chemical and mechanical stresses.
(iv) Gap junction perform cementing to keep neighbouring cells together.

(1) Two
(2) Three
(3) Four
(4) One

4) Read the following (A-D) statements :-

A. Connective tissue are most abundant and widely distributed in the body of complex animals
B. They are named connective tissues because of their special function of linking and supporting
other tissues/organs of the body
C. They range from soft connective tissues to specialised types, which include cartilage, bone,
adipose and blood
D. The cells of connective tissue secrete modified polysaccharides, which accumulate between cells
and fibres and act as matrix
How many of the following statements are correct about connective tissue ?

(1) Four
(2) Three
(3) Two
(4) One

5) Assertion : Gap junctions facilitate the cells to communicate with each other
Reason : Gap junctions connect the cytoplasm of adjoining cells for rapid transport of ions.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

6) Find out correct statement for Periplaneta-

(1) Oxygen is transported through blood

(2) In male, 7th sternum is boat shaped, together with 8th & 9th sterna form genital pouch
(3) In female 9th & 10th tergum together with 9th sterna form genital pouch
(4) Anal style in male arise from 9th sternum

7) When frogs heart taken out of the body continuous to beat for sometimes.
Select the true option from the following statements. Which are related to frog’s heart only
(a) Frog’s heart is autoexcitable
(b) Frog’s heart never beat without any external stimuli
(c) Frog’s heart is myogenic
(d) Frog is amphibious in nature

(1) a & b only

(2) b & d only
(3) a & c only
(4) a, b & c

8) Choose the correct statements :

(a) Bones support and protect softer tissues and organs.
(b) Weight bearing function is served by limb bones.
(c) Ligament is the site of production of blood cells.
(d) Adipose tissue is specialised to store fats.
(e) Tendons attach one bone to another.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below :

(1) (a), (b) and (d) only

(2) (b), (c) and (e) only
(3) (a), (c) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b) and (e) only

9) Consider the following figure & choose the correct option :-

Regular dense
(1) Tendon Join muscle to skin
connective tissue

Regular dense
(2) Ligament Join bone to bone
connective tissue

Irregular dense
(3) Tendon Join muscle to bone
connective tissue

Irregular dense
(4) Ligament Join muscle to bone
connective tissue
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Assertion :- Compound epithelium has a limited role in secretion and absorption.
Reason :- Compound epithelium is made of more than one layer of cells.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
11) Identify the labelling parts :

(1) A - Mast cell ; B - Macrophage ; C - Elastic fibres

(2) A - Mast cell ; B - Macrophage ; C - Collagen fibres
(3) A - Macrophage ; B - Mast cell ; C - Collagen fibres
(4) A - Macrophage ; B - Adipose cells ; C - Collagen fibre

12) Select the sternites in female cockroach which are involved in formation of brood pouch/genital
pouch :-

(1) 7th , 8th and 9th sternites

(2) 7th and 8th sternites
(3) Only boat shaped 7th sternites
(4) 8th and 9th sternites

13) The head of cockroach shows great mobility in all directions due to :-

(1) Flexible head capsule which also bears compound eyes

(2) Flexible neck which is an extension of prothorax
(3) Flexible neck which is an extension of mesothorax
(4) Flexible neck which is an extension of metathorax

14) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of reproductive organs of a female cockroach. Identify

the parts labelled as A, B, C and D choose the right option about them :-

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
15) Select the correct rout for the passape of sperms in male frogs :-

(1) Testes → Bidder's canal → Kidney → Vasa effer → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(2) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Bidder's canal → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(3) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Kidney → Seminal vesicle → Urinogenital duct → Cloaca.
(4) Testes → Vasa efferentia → Bidder's canal → Ureter → Cloaca.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) Consider the following statements (A-D):-

(A) Fusion of two gametes which are similar in size and flagellated or non-flagellated is termed as
isogamous.
(B) Fusion between one large, non motile female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete is
termed as Oogamous.
(C) Fusion of two gametes which are dissimilar in size is termed as anisogamous
(D) Both Volvox and Fucus show isogamous type of sexual reproduction.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are wrong?

(1) A, D
(2) B, C
(3) Only C
(4) Only D

2) Which one of the commercial product is used to grow microbes and in preparations of ice-creams
and jellies ?

(1) Agar
(2) Algin
(3) Carrageen
(4) Fucodin

3) Which of the following group of marine algae is used as food ?

(1) Chlamydomonas, Volvox and Gracilaria

(2) Porphyra, Laminaria and Sargassum
(3) Laminaria and Gracilaria
(4) Porphyra and Chlamydomonas

4) Which one of the following shows isogamy with non-flagellated gametes ?

(1) Sargassum
(2) Ectocarpus
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Spirogyra
5)

List of some of the plants are given below :

Cedrus, Funaria, Pinus, Cycas, Ginkgo, Pteridium, Adiantum
How many above are 'naked seed' plants ?

(1) Three
(2) Four
(3) Two
(4) Five

6) In plant (x) small specialised root other than tap roots are associated with N2 fixing cynobacteria.
The stem are unbranced and pinnate compound leaves persist for a few year. Identify the plant (x) in
the given diagrams :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

7) Select the correct options about algae :

(1) Some algae are associated with fungi and animals

(2) Great range in form and size
(3) Reproduce by vegetative, asexual and sexual method
(4) All of these

8) Cell wall is made up of inner layer of cellulose and an outer layer of pectose in :-

(1) Ectocarpus
(2) Sagassum
(3) Chara
(4) Gracilaria

9) Identify the A, B, C, D & E in given diagram :

A B C D E

(1) Stipe Frond Frond Branches Porphyra

(2) Stipe Frond Frond Porphyra Branches

(3) Frond Frond Stipe Branches Porphyra

(4) Stipe Frond Porphyra Frond Branches

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

10) Given below are two statements :

Statement I : In spirogyra, isogamy is observed.
Statement II : Atleast half of total carbondioxide fixation on Earth is carried out by algae through
photosynthesis.
Choose the correct answer from the options given below.

(1) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect

(2) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
(3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
(4) Both, statement I and statement II are correct

11) Gemmae are :-

(1) Asexual reproductive structure of moss

(2) Sexual reproductive structure of liverwort
(3) Sexual reproductive structure of moss
(4) Asexual reproductive structure of liverwort

12) Identify the unique character of bryophyta :

(1) Dependency on water for fertilization

(2) Jacketless sex organ
(3) Sporophyte depends on gametophyte
(4) Presence of vascular tissues

13) Select the incorrect statement for bryophytes :-

(1) Gametophyte is free living & autotroph

(2) Antherozoids are biflagellated.
(3) In general are of great economic importance
(4) Spores germinate to produce gametophyte

14) Which term is not related to bryophyta?

(1) Archegonium
(2) Gemma cap
(3) Rhizoids
(4) Rhizome

15)

Which of the following features is not correct for pteridophytes ?

(1) Main plant body is differentiated into root, stem and leaf
(2) Vascular tissue has xylem and phloem
(3) These plants may be homosporous or heterosporous
(4) Main plant body is gametophyte

16) Assertion : Bryophytes are also called amphibians of the plant kingdom.
Reason : Bryophyte can live in soil but are dependent on water for sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

17) The dominant phase in the life cycle of Funaria is –

(1) Protonema
(2) Leafy gametophyte
(3) Spore
(4) Sporophyte

18) Which of the following statement is incorrect :

(1) In gymnosperm antheridia is present

(2) Archegonia is absent in angiosperm
(3) Largest archegonia is found in bryophyta
(4) In Bryophytes, female sex organ called archegonium is flask-shaped and produces a single egg

19) Match the following columns :-

Column-I Column-II

A Psilopsida i Adiantum

B Lycopsida ii Equisetum

C Sphenopsida iii Selaginella

D Pteropsida iv Psilotum
(1) A → iv; B → iii; C → ii; D → i
(2) A → iii; B → ii; C → i; D → iv
(3) A → ii; B → i; C → iv; D → iii
(4) A → i; B → iv; C → iii; D → ii

20) The development of the zygote in to young embryos takes place with in the female gametophyte,
this event is a precursor of the :-

(1) Seed habit

(2) Fruit habit
(3) Vascular habit
(4) Tissue habit

21) Few statements are given below. Which of them are true for pteridophytes ?
(A) Dominant phase in their life cycle is gametophyte
(B) Their sporophyte is differentiated into foot seta and capsule
(C) Their sporophyte body has well differentiated vascular tissues
(D) Their prothallus is small but multicellular free living and mostly photosynthetic

(1) A & B
(2) B & C
(3) C & D
(4) B & D

22) Which one of the following is considered first terrestrial plants to be evolved having xylem and
phloem ?

(1) Bryophyte
(2) Gymnosperm
(3) Pteridophytes
(4) Angiosperm

23) Pteridophytes differ form bryophytes in having :-

(1) Independent gametophyte

(2) Independent sporophyte
(3) Dependent gametophyte
(4) Dependent sporophyte

24) Identify the incorrect match :-

(1) Pinus - fungal association

(2) Cycas - N2 fixation by cyanobacteria
(3) Cedrus - branched stem
(4) Cycas - Simple leaves

25) Select the correct pattern of arrangement of reproductive structure of Gymnosperms:-

(1) Spore → Sporophylls → Sporangia → Strobili

(2) Spores → Sporangia → Sporophylls → Strobili
(3) Sporangia → Sporophylls → Spores → Strobili
(4) Spores → Sporangia → Strobili → Sporophylls

26) Statement-I : All gymnosperm are heterosporous.

Statement-II : Some gymnosperm are homosporous.

(1) Statement I and II both are correct

(2) Statement I and II both are incorrect
(3) Only Statement I is correct
(4) Only Statement II is correct

27) In Bryophyta male reproductive organ is __a__ and female reproductive organ is __b__ which are
__c__ What is a, b and c :

(1) a : Antheridium; b : Archegonium; c : Multicellular

(2) a : Antheridium; b : Archegonium; c : Unicellular
(3) a : Antheridium; b : Oogonium; c : Multicellular
(4) a : Antheridium; b : Oogonium; c : Unicellular

28) The main plant body is sporophyte and differentiated in true root, true stem and true leaves, is
observed in :

(1) Bryophyta and Pteridophyta

(2) Pteridophyta and Gymnosperm
(3) Algae and Bryophyta
(4) Bryophyta and Gymnosperm

29) Antheridium and archegonum both are present in :

(1) Pteridophyta
(2) Cyanobacteria
(3) Angiosperm
(4) Algae

30) Which of the following is not correctly matched ?

(1) Chlorophyll a and b - Chlorophyceae

(2) Chlorophyll a and d - Rhodophyceae
(3) Chlorophyl a and c - Phaeophyceae
(4) Chlorophyll a and c - Chlorophyceae

31) Sex organ in mosses are present on :

(1) Protonema
(2) Leafy gametophyte
(3) Leafy sporophyte
(4) Capsule

32) Union of gamete in red algae usually occurs in :

(1) Free water

(2) Within oogonium
(3) Within archegonium
(4) Either in free water or within oogonium
33) Megaspore mother cell in gymnosperm develops from :

(1) Archegonia
(2) Nucellus
(3) Endosperm
(4) Chalaza

34) Which of the following is not matched correctly :

Dominant phase in life cycle Plant

(1) Gametophyte Moss

(2) Sporophyte Gymnosperm

(3) Sporophyte Angiosperm

(4) Gametophyte Pteridophyta

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

35) Heterospory is an advance character required for seed formation was initially evolved in ?

(1) Marchantia like bryophytes

(2) Selaginella like lycopsida
(3) Azolla like fern
(4) Cycas like gymnosperm

SECTION-B

1) Analyse the following characteristics and identify the group of organisms :-

(A) They reproduce sexually by the fusion of non-motile gametes
(B) They show complex developmental changes after fertilization
(C) Majority of organisms are marine with greater concentration found in warmer areas.
(D) They have chlorophyll a,d and phycoerythrin as major pigments

(1) Phaeophyceae
(2) Chlorophyceae
(3) Rhodophyceae
(4) Cyanophyceae

2) Assertion : In Fucus, sexual reproduction takes place through fusion between one large, non-
motile female gamete and a smaller, motile male gamete. Reason : Fucus show Oogamous type of
sexual reproduction.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

3) In which of the following is diploid ?

(1) Capsule of moss

(2) Gametophyte, archegonia & egg of moss
(3) Gametophyte, antheridia and sperm of moss
(4) Gametophyte and sperm of moss

4) Which one of the following statement is not true for Bryophytes ?

(1) Their zygote undergo reduction division immediately

(2) They have both antheridium and archgonium
(3) They show photosynthetic nature
(4) Their spore germinates and produces gametophyte

5) Protonema, gamete, spore, spore mother cell, gametophyte, zygote, embryo.

How many of above structures are haploid in mosses ?

(1) 3
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 4

6) Identify the part A and B respectively in the given diagram

(1) Archegonial branch and antheridial branch

(2) Antheridial branch and Archegonial branch.
(3) Sporophytic branch and Gametophytic branch
(4) Gametophytic branch and sporophytic branch
7) Select incorrect option with respect to given diagram :-

(1) Heterosporous fern

(2) Aquatic fern
(3) Belongs to class pteropsida
(4) Gametophytic main plant body

8) Which statement is correct about Pteridophyta ?

(1) Gametophyte is autotrophic, while sporophyte is parasitic.

(2) Sporophyte is semiparasitic and gametophyte is autotrophic
(3) Both gametophyte and sporophyte are usually autotrophic.
(4) Only sporophyte is autotrophic, while gametophyte is parasitic.

9) Which of the following is matched correctly with reference to gymnosperm :

(1) Archegonia – n
(2) Nucellus – n
(3) Megaspore mother cell – n
(4) Pollen grain – 2n

10) Consider the following four statements (a to d) & Select the option having correct statements for
gymnosperms :-
(a) Pollen grains are partially developed male gametophytes
(b) Megasporophylls are macrosporangiate
(c) Microsporangia are indehiscent
(d) Megasporangium is integumented

(1) Statements a, b & d only

(2) Statements b, c & d only
(3) Statements a, c & d only
(4) Statements a, b, & c only

11) Which of the following characters are related to gymnosperm ?

(a) In Cycas male cone and megasporophyll are born on different tree.
(b) Development of pollen grain takes place in microsporophyll
(c) Gymnosperms produce haploid microspore and megaspores.
(d) In gymnosperms seeds are covered.
(e) Pollen grain is released from the microsporangium.

(1) a, b, c, e
(2) b, c, d, e
(3) a, b, c, d, e
(4) b, c, d

12) Which of the following is true for the figure given below?

(1) It is male gametophyte of Marchantia

(2) It is female gametophyte of Marchantia
(3) Sexual reproduction occurs by multicellular gemma
(4) It is a monoecious plant

13) Prothallus is :
a. Multicellular
b. Sporophyte
c. Usually autotrophic
d. Usually dioecious

(1) a and c
(2) a and b
(3) a and d
(4) b and c

14) Reductional division just after zygote formation occurs in :

(1) Funaria
(2) Fucus
(3) Ulothrix
(4) Marchantia

15) Which of the following show sexual reproduction by fusion of non motile male and female
gametes ?

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)