Capacitance - Chemical Kinetics Matrices & Determinants
Capacitance - Chemical Kinetics Matrices & Determinants
Capacitance
A-3. Two parallel plate capacitors with different distances between the plates are
connected in parallel to a voltage source. A point positive charge Q is moved
from a point 1 that is exactly in the middle between the plates of a capacitor C 1
to a point 2 (which lie in capacitor C2) that lies at a distance from the negative
plate of C2 equal to half the distance between the plates of C1. Is any work done
in the process? If yes, calculate the work done by the field if potential at 1 and 2
are V1 and V2.
A-4. The lower plate of a parallel plate capacitor is supported on a rigid rod. The
upper plate is suspended from one end of a balance. The two plates are
joined together by a thin wire and subsequently disconnected. The balance is
Rigid rod
then counterpoised. Now a voltage V = 5000 volt is applied between the
plates. The distance between the plates is d = 5 mm and the area of each
plate is A = 100 cm 2. Then find out the additional mass placed to maintain
balance. [All the elements other than plates are massless and nonconducting]
A-5. Each plate of a parallel plate air capacitor has an area S. What amount of work has to be performed by
external agent to slowly increase the distance between the plates from x 1 to x2 if:
(i) the charge of the capacitor, which is equal to q is kept constant in the process.
(ii) the voltage across the capacitor, which is equal to V is kept constant in the process.
Capacitance
Section (B) : Circuits with capacitor and use of KCL and KVL
B-1. A capacitor of capacitance C, a resistor of resistance R and a battery of emf are connected in series
at t = 0. What is the maximum value of
(a) the potential difference across the resistor.
(b) the current in the circuit.
(c) the potential difference across the capacitor.
(d) the energy stored in the capacitor.
(e) the power delivered by the battery.
(f) the power converted into heat.
B-2. Three uncharged capacitors of capacitance C 1 = 1F, C2 = 2F and C3 = 3F are
connected as shown in the figure. The potential of point A, B and D are 10 volt,
25 volt and 20 volt respectively. Determine the potential at point O.
B-3. Find the potential difference between the points A and B (V A – VB ) as shown in
figure. (Initially all the capacitors are uncharged)
B-4._ In a circuit shown in the figure, find the potential difference between the left and
right plates of each capacitor.
C2
C3
(ii) Find out the work done by the battery during the process of charging (initially all the capacitors
are uncharged)
(iii) Find out the total energy stored in the capacitors.
C-2. If you have several 2.0 F capacitors, each capable of withstanding 200 volts without breakdown, how
would you assemble a combination having minimum number of capacitors and of given equivalent
capacitance which capable of withstanding 1000 volts ;
(a) 0.40 F (b) 1.2 F
Capacitance
C-3. Find the capacitance between the point A and B of the given assemblies.
C-4. Take the potential of the point B as shown in the figure to be 100 V.
(a) Find the potentials at the point C and D.
(b) If an uncharged capacitor is connected between C and D, then find the amount
of charge that will appear on this capacitor
C-5. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The switch S is open for a long time and
then closed and again steady state reached then
(a) Find the charge flown through the battery after the switch S is closed.
(b) Find the charge flown through the switch S from B to A.
(c) Find the work done by the battery after the switch S is closed.
(d) Find the change in energy stored in the system of capacitors.
(e) Find the heat developed in the system after the switch S is closed.
C-6. Find the final charges in steady state on the four capacitors of capacitance
2F, 4F, 6F and 8F as shown in figure. (Assuming initially they are
uncharged). Also find the current through the wire AB at steady state.
D-2. A capacitor of capacity 1F is connected in a closed series circuit with a resistance of 107 ohms, an
open key and a cell of 2 V with negligible internal resistance:
(i) When the key is switched on at time t = 0, find;
(a) The time constant for the circuit.
(b) The charge on the capacitor at steady state.
(c) Time taken to deposit charge equal to half of charge that will deposit at steady state.
(ii) If after completely charging the capacitor, the cell is shorted by zero resistance at time t = 0, find
the charge on the capacitor at t = 50 s. (Given : e–5 = 6.73 × 10–3, n2 = 0.693)
Capacitance
D-3. A capacitor of capacitance 200 F is connected across a battery of emf 10.0 V through a resistance of
40 k for 16.0 s. The battery is then replaced by a thick wire. What will be the charge on the capacitor
16.0 s after the battery is disconnected ? (Given : e–2 = 0.135)
D-4. A 5.0 F capacitor having a charge of 20 C is discharged through a wire of resistance 5.0 . Find the
heat dissipated in the wire between 25 to 50 s after the connections are made. (Given : e–2 = 0.135)
D-5.A varying voltage is applied to the clamps AB (figure a) such that the voltage across the capacitor
plates varies as shown in figure b.
D-6. A capacitor of capacitance C is charged by charge q0. At t = 0, it is connected to a battery of emf V and
internal resistance r. Find the charge on the capacitor at time t (positive plate of capacitor connected
with positive plate of battery).
1 F
D-7. Find the potential difference between the points A and B and between the
points B and C of figure in steady state. 3 F 1 F
B
3 F 1 F
A C
30
100 V 20
E-2. The parallel plates of a capacitor have an area 0.2 m 2 and are 10-2 m apart. The original potential
difference between them is 3000 V, and it decreases to 1000 V when a sheet of dielectric is inserted
between the plates filling the full space. Compute: (0 = 9 x 10-12 S. . units)
(i) Original capacitance C0.
(ii) The charge Q on each plate.
(iii) Capacitance C after insertion of the dielectric.
(iv) Dielectric constant K.
(v) Permittivity of the dielectric.
(vi) The original field E0 between the plates.
(vii) The electric field E after insertion of the dielectric.
Capacitance
E-3. A parallel plate isolated condenser consists of two metal plates of area A and separation 'd'. A slab of
thickness 't' and dielectric constant K is inserted between the plates with its faces parallel to the plates
and having the same surface area as that of the plates. Find the capacitance of the system. If
K = 2, for what value of t/d will the capacitance of the system be 3/2 times that of the condenser with air
filling the full space? Calculate the ratio of the energy in the two cases and account for the energy
change (assuming q charge on the plate to be constant).
E-4. Two parallel plate air capacitors each of capacitance C were connected in series to a battery with e.m.f.
. Then one of the capacitors was filled up with uniform dielectric with relative permittivity k. How many
times did the electric field strength in that capacitor decrease? What amount of charge flows through
the battery?
E-5. A parallel-plate capacitor of plate area A and plate separation d is charged by a ideal battery of e.m.f. V
and then the battery is disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant 2k is then inserted between the plates
of the capacitor so as to fill the whole space between the plates. Find the change in potential energy of
the system in the process of inserting the slab.
E-6. Consider the situation shown in figure. The width of each plate is b.
The capacitor plates are rigidly clamped in the laboratory and
connected to a battery of emf V. All surface are frictionless. Calculate
the extension in the spring in equilibrium (spring is nonconducting).
E-7. In figure shown, two parallel plate capacitors with fixed plates 1 2
E-8. The plates of the parallel plate capacitor have plate area A and are clamped
in the laboratory as shown in figure. The dielectric slab of mass m, length 2
and width 2 is released from rest with length inside the capacitor.
Neglecting any effect of friction or gravity, show that the slab will execute
periodic motion and find its time period. (Plates of capacitor are square
plates of side 2)
E-9. A parallel plate capacitor is filled with a dielectric up to one half of the distance
between the plates. The manner in which the potential between the plates varies
with distance is illustrated in the figure. Which half (1 or 2) of the space between
the plates is filled with the dielectric and what will be the distribution of the
potential after the dielectric is taken out of the capacitor provided that;
(a) The charges on the plates are conserved or
(b) The potential difference across the capacitor is constant.
Capacitance
E-10. Positive charge q is given to each plate of a parallel plate air capacitor having area of each plate A and
seperation between them, d. Then find
(i) Capacitance of the system.
(ii) Charges appearing on each surface of plates
(iii) Electric field between the plates
(iv) Potential diffrence between the plates
(v) Energy stored between the plates
A-2. Two isolated charged metallic spheres of radii R1 and R2 having charges Q1 and Q2 respectively are
connected to each other, then there is:
(A) No change in the electrical energy of the system
(B) An increase in the electrical energy of the system
(C) A decrease in the electrical energy of the system in any case
(D) A decrease in electrical energy of the system if Q1 R2 Q2 R1
A-3. A parallel plate capacitor is charged up to a potential of 300 volts. Area of the plates is 100 cm 2 and
spacing between them is 2 cm. If the plates are moved apart to a distance of 2.5 cm without
disconnecting the power source, then (0 = 9 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–2):
(iii) If the distance is increased after disconnecting the power source, then electric field inside the
capacitor is :
(A) 6 × 103 V/m (B) 3 × 103 V/m
(C) 12 × 103 V/m (D) 15 × 103 V/m
A-5. A parallel plate capacitor is charged and the charging battery is then disconnected. The plates of the
capacitor are now moved, farther apart. The following things happen :
(A) The charge on the capacitor increases
(B) The electrostatics energy stored in the capacitor increases
(C) The voltage between the plates decreases
(D) The capacitance increases.
Section (B) : Circuits with capacitor and use of KCl and KVL
B-1. The work done against electric forces in increasing the potential difference of a condenser from 20V to
40V is W. The work done in increasing its potential difference from 40V to 50V will be (consider
capacitance of capacitor remain constant)
3W W
(A) 4W (B) (C) 2W (D)
4 2
B-2. The magnitude of charge in steady state on either of the plates of condenser C in
the adjoining circuit is-
CER 2
(A) CE (B)
(R1 r)
CER 2 CER1
(C) (D)
(R 2 r) (R 2 r)
B-3. The plate separation in a parallel plate condenser is d and plate area is A. If it is charged to V volt &
battery is disconnected then the work done in increasing the plate separation to 2d will be–
3 0 AV 2 0 AV 2 2 0 AV 2 0 AV 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 d d d 2d
B-4. A parallel plate condenser of capacity C is connected to a battery and is charged to potential V. Another
condenser of capacity 2C is connected to another battery and is charged to potential 2V. The charging
batteries are removed and now the condensers are connected in such a way that the positive plate of
one is connected to negative plate of another. The final energy of this system is–
25CV 2 3CV 2 9CV 2
(A) zero (B) (C) (D)
6 2 2
C-2. The resultant capacity between the points A and B in the adjoining circuit will be –
(A) C (B) 2C
(C) 3C (D) 4C
C-3. The effective capacity in the following figure between the points P
and Q will be –
(A) 3F (B) 5F
(C) 2F (D) 1F
C-4. The equivalent capacitance between the terminals X and Y in the figure shown
will be–
(A) 100 pF (B) 200 pF
(C) 300 pF (D) 400 pF
C-5. The minimum number of condensers each of capacitance of 2F, in order to obtain resultant
capacitance of 5F will be :
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 10
C-6. The charge on the condenser of capacitance 2F in the following circuit will be
(A) 4.5 C (B) 6.0 C
(C) 7 C (D) 30 C
C-7. Two parallel plate condensers of capacity of 20µF and 30µF are charged to the potentials of 30V and
20V respectively. If likely charged plates are connected together then the common potential difference
will be-
(A) 100 V (B) 50 V (C) 24 V (D) 10 V
Capacitance
C-8. How the seven condensers, each of capacity 2F, should be connected in order to obtain a resultant
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capacitance of F?
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D-2. An uncharged capacitor of capacitance 8.0 F is connected to a battery of emf 6.0 V through a
resistance of 24 , then
(i) the current in the circuit just after the connections are made is :
(A) 0.25 A (B) 0.5 A (C) 0.4 A (D) 0 A
(ii) the current in the circuit at one time constant after the connections are made is :
(A) 0.25 A (B) 0.09 A (C) 0.4 A (D) 0 A
D-3. An uncharged capacitor of capacitance 100F is connected to a battery of emf 20V at t = 0 through a
resistance 10, then
(i) the maximum rate at which energy is stored in the capacitor is :
(A) 10J/s (B) 20 J/s (C) 40J/s (D) 5J/s
(ii) time at which the rate has this maximum value is
(A) (4 ln 2) ms (B) (2 ln 2) ms (C) (ln 2) ms (D) (3 ln 2) ms
Capacitance
D-4. The charge on each of the capacitors 0.16 ms after the switch S is closed
in figure is :
(A) 24 C (B) 26.8 C
(C) 25.2 C (D) 40 C
D-5. The plates of a capacitor of capacitance 10 F, charged to 60 C, are joined together by a wire of
resistance 10 at t = 0, then
(i) the charge on the capacitor in the circuit at t = 0 is :
(A) 120 C (B) 60 C (C) 30 C (D) 44 C
(ii) the charge on the capacitor in the circuit at t = 100 s is :
(A) 120 C (B) 60 C (C) 22 C (D) 18 C
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(iii) the charge on the capacitor in the circuit at t = 1.0 ms is : (take e = 20000)
(A) 0.003 C (B) 60 C (C) 44 C (D) 18 C
D-6. The switch S shown in figure is kept closed for a long time and then opened 25 F
D-8. n the following figure, the charge on each condenser in the steady state will be–
(A) 3C (B) 6C
(C) 9C (D) 12C
D-9._ In the circuit shown below the switch is closed at t = 0. For 0 < t < R (C 1 + 1
C2), the current 1 in the capacitor C1 in terms of total current is C1
2
C C
(A) 1 (B) 2 C2
C2 C1
E R
C1 C2
(C) (D)
C1 C2 C1 C2
4d K1K 2K 4K3
(C) C = (D) C =
0 A 4d
E-4. In the adjoining diagram two geometrically identical capacitors A and B are
connected to a battery. Air is filled between the plates of C 1 and a dielectric is
filled between the plates of C2, then –
(A) q1 < q2 (B) q1 > q2
(C) q1 = q2 (D) None of these
E-5. A parallel plate condenser is connected to a battery of e.m.f. 4 volt. If a plate of dielectric constant 8 is
inserted into it, then the potential difference on the condenser will be-
(A) 1/2 V (B) 2V (C) 4V (D) 32V
E-6. In the above problem if the battery is disconnected before inserting the dielectric, then potential
difference will be-
(A) 1/2 V (B) 2V (C) 4V (D) 32V
E-7. A parallel plate condenser with plate separation d is charged with the help of a battery so that U 0
energy is stored in the system. A plate of dielectric constant K and thickness d is placed between the
plates of condenser while battery remains connected. The new energy of the system will be-
U0 U0
(A) KU0 (B) K2U0 (C) (D)
K K2
E-8. In the above problem if the battery is disconnected before placing the plate, then new energy will be–
U0 U0
(A) K2U0 (B) 2
(C) (D) KU0
K K
Capacitance
PART - III : MATCH THE COLUMN
1. The circuit involves two ideal cells connected to a 1 F capacitor via a key K. Initially the key K is in
position 1 and the capacitor is charged fully by 2V cell. The key is then pushed to position 2. Column
gives physical quantities involving the circuit after the key is pushed from position 1. Column II gives
corresponding results. Match the statements in Column with the corresponding values in Column .
C=1F
2V 4V
1 2
Column Column
(P) The net charge crossing the 4 volt cell in C is (1) 2
(Q) The magnitude of work done by 4 Volt cell in J is (2) 6
(R) The gain in potential energy of capacitor in J is (3) 8
(S) The net heat produced in circuit in J is (4) 16
Codes :
P Q R S
(A) 1 3 2 1
(B) 3 2 1 4
(C) 4 2 1 3
(D) 3 4 2 1
2. In each situation of column-I, a circuit involving two non-ideal cells of unequal emf E1 and E2 (E1 > E2)
and equal internal resistance r are given. A resistor of resistance R is connected in all four situations
and a capacitor of capacitance C is connected in last two situations as shown. Assume battery can
supply infinity charge to the circuit (r, R 0, E1, E2 0). Four statements are given in column-II. Match
the situation of column-I with statements in column-II.
Column- I Column -II
(R) The capacitor is initially uncharged. (3) potential difference across cell of
After the key K is closed lower emf may be zero.
(S) The capacitor is initially uncharged. (4) current in the circuit can never be zero
After the key K is closed. (even after steady state is reached).
Capacitance
2. Choose Graph between potential and time for an isolated conductor of finite capacitance C, if its charge
varies according to the formula Q = (t + Q0) coulomb, where Q0 and are positive constant.
4. Two spherical conductors A1 and A2 of radii r1 and r2 are placed concentrically in air.
The two are connected by a copper wire as shown in figure. Then the equivalent
capacitance of the system is:
4 0 k r1.r2
(A) (B) 40 (r1 + r2)
r2 r1
(C) 40r2 (D) 40r1
5. There are two conducting spheres of radius a and b (b > a ) carrying equal
and opposite charges. They are placed at a separation d (>>> a and b). The
capacitance of system is
40 40
(A) (B)
a–b–d 1 1 1
– –
a b d
40 40
(C) (D)
1 1 1 1 1 2
– –
a b d a b d
Capacitance
6. A capacitor of capacitance C0 is charged to a voltage V0 and then isolated. An uncharged capacitor C is
then charged from C0, discharged and charged again ; the process is repeated n times. Due to this,
potential of the C0 is decreased to V, then value of C is :
(A) C0 [V0/V]1/n (B) C0[(V0/V)1/n – 1] (C) C0 [(V0/V) – 1] (D) C0 [(V/V0)n + 1]
Current through the battery immediately after key K is closed and after a long time interval is :
E E E E
(A) , (B) ,
R 1 R1 R 3 R1 R 3 R R 2 R 3
1
R 2 R3
E E E
(C) Zero , (D) ,
R1 R 2 R3 R1
R1
R 2 R3
8. (i) A 3F capacitor is charged up to 300 volt and 2F is charged up to 200 volt. The capacitor are
connected so that the plates of same polarity are connected together. The final potential difference
between the plates of the capacitor after they are connected is :
(A) 220 V (B) 160 V (C) 280 V (D) 260 V
(ii) If instead of this, the plates of opposite polarity were joined together, then amount of charge that
flows is :
(A) 6 × 10–4 C (B) 1.5 × 10–4 C (C) 3 × 10–4 C (D) 7.5 × 10–4 C
9. In the circuit shown in figure the capacitors are initially uncharged. The
current through resistor PQ just after closing the switch is :
(A) 2A from P to Q (B) 2A from Q to P
(C) 6A from P to Q (D) zero
10. Six capacitors each of capacitance 'C' is connected as shown in the figure
and initially all the capacitors are uncharged. Now a battery of emf = is
connected. How much charge will flow through the battery if the switch is on :
9C 11 C
(A) (B)
5 5
13 C 7 C
(C) (D)
5 5
12. In the arrangement of the capacitors shown in the figure, each C1 capacitor has capacitance of 3F and
each C2 capacitor has capacitance of 2F then,
(ii) If a potential difference of 48 V is applied across points a and b, then charge on the
capacitor C3 at steady state condition will be :
(A) 8 C (B) 16 C (C) 32 C (D) 64 C
14. The V versus x plot for six identical metal plates of cross-sectional area A is as shown. The equivalent
capacitance between 2 and 5 is (Adjacent plates are placed at a separation d) :
2 0 A 0 A 3 0 A 0 A
(A) (B) (C) (D)
d d d 2d
15. Each edge of the cube contains a capacitance C. The equivalent capacitance C
B
C
between the points A and B will be – C
6C 5C C C
(A) (B)
5 6 C C
C
12C 7C C
(C) (D)
7 12 C C
A
C
Capacitance
16. The potential difference between the points P and Q in the adjoining circuit will be-
(C1C4 C2C3 ) E C2C3 E
(A) (B)
(C1 C3 ) (C2 C4 ) C1C2 (C3 C4 )
(C2C3 C1C4 ) E (C2C3 C1C4 ) E
(C) (D)
(C1 C2 ) (C3 C4 ) (C1 C2 C3 C4 )
18. n resistances each of resistance R are joined with capacitors of capacity C (each) and a battery of emf
E as shown in the figure. In steady state condition ratio of charge stored in the first and last capacitor is
19. A fresh dry cell of 1.5 volt and two resistors of 10 k each are connected in series. An analog voltmeter
measures a voltage of 0.5 volt across each of the resistors. A 100F capacitor is fully charged using the
same source. The same voltmeter is now used to measure the voltage across it. The initial value of the
current and the time in which the voltmeter reading falls to 0.5 volt are respectively.
(A) 60A, 11s (B) 120A, 15s (C) 150A, 15s (D) 150A, 1.1 s
20. Refer to the circuit given below. Initially the switch S is in position 1 for 1.5 s. Then the switch is
changed to position 2. After a time t (measured from the change over of the switch) the voltage across
5 k resistance is found to be about 1.226 volt. Then, t is
1
10k
S
2
10V 22F
5k
21. The capacitance of a parallel plate condenser is C0. If a dielectric of relative permittivity r and thickness
equal to one fourth the plate separation is placed between the plates, then its capacity becomes C.
C
Then value of will be-
C0
5r 4 r 3 r 2 r
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4r 1 3 r 1 2 r 1 r 1
Capacitance
22. A parallel plate capacitor without any dielectric has capacitance C 0. A dielectric slab is made up of two
dielectric slabs of dielectric constants K and 2K and is of same dimensions as that of capacitor plates
and both the parts are of equal dimensions arranged serially as shown. If this dielectric slab is
introduced (dielectric K enters first) in between the plates at constant speed, then variation of
capacitance with time will be best represented by:
23. An isolated metallic object is charged in vacuum to a potential V 0 using a suitable source, its
electrostatic energy being W 0. It is then disconnected from the source and immersed in a large volume
of dielectric with dielectric constant K. The electrostatic energy of the sphere in the dielectric is :
W W
(A) K2 W 0 (B) K W 0 (C) 20 (D) 0
K K
24. Consider a parallel plate capacitor. When half of the space between the plates is filled with some
dielectric material of dielectric constant K as shown in Fig. (1) below, the capacitance is C 1. However, if
the same dielectric material fills half the space as shown in Fig. (2), the capacitance is C2. Therefore,
the ratio C1 : C2 is
2K 4K K 1
(A) 1 (B) (C) (D)
K 1 K 1
2
2
25. A network of six identical capacitors, each of capacitance C is formed as shown below. The equivalent
capacitance between the point A and B is
A
B
(A) 3C (B) 6C (C) 3C/2 (D) 4C/3
Capacitance
2. The particle P shown in the figure has a mass m and a charge –q. Each
mg0 A
horizontal plate has a surface area A potential difference V = n should
2qc
be applied to the combination to hold the particle P in equilibrium then find the
value of n.
4. Three conducting plates of area 500 cm 2 area kept fixed as shown. Distance
between adjacent plates is 8.85 mm. A charge of 1.0 nC is placed on the middle
plate. (a) The charge on the outer surface of the upper plate is given by n×10 –11C
then find the valu of n.(b) Find the potential difference (inV) developed between
the upper and the middle plates.
5. Consider the arrangement of parallel plates of the previous problem. If 1.0nC charge is given to the
upper plate instead of the middle, what will be the potential difference (in V) between (a) the upper and
the middle plates and (b) the middle and the lower plates?
9. In steady state, find the charge on the capacitor in (C) shown in figure. 6F 20
10 20
2V
10. Calculate the steady state current (in A) in the 2 resistor shown in the circuit
(see figure). The internal resistance of the battery is negligible and the
capacitance of the condenser C is 0.2 F.
11. Find the potential difference between points A and B (in V) of the system shown in
figure if the emf is equal to E = 110 V and the capacitance ratio C2/C1 = = 2.0.
12. (i) What is the final potential (in V) of point b with respect to ground in steady
state after switch S is closed ?
(ii) How much charge flows through switch S from b to a after it is closed in
C?
Capacitance
13. Find the equivalent capacitance in (F) of the infinite ladder shown in the
figure between the points A and B.
14. The equivalent capacitance of the combination shown in the figure between
n
the indicated points is given by F. then find the value of n.
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15. The electric field between the plates of a parallel–plate capacitance 2.0 F drops to one third of its
initial value in 4.4 s when the plates are connected by a thin wire. Find the resistance of the wire in .
(Given : n3 = 1.0986)
17. Hard rubber has a dielectric constant of 2.8 and a dielectric strength (maximum electric field) of
18 × 106 volt/meter. If it is used as the dielectric material filling the full space in a parallel plate
capacitor. Minimum area may the plates of the capacitor have in order that the capacitance be
2
7.0 × 102 F is equal to m . What should be the value of n if capacitor be able to withstand a
n
10–9
potential difference of 4000 volts. (0 = S.I unit)
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18. Two square metal plates of side 1 m are kept 0.01 m apart like a parallel plate capacitor in air in such a
way that one of their edges is perpendicular to an oil surface in a tank filled with an insulating oil. The
plates are connected to a battery of 500 V. The plates are then lowered vertically into the oil at a speed
of 0.001 ms–1. The current n×10–9A drawn from the battery during the process. Then find the value of n.
(Dielectric constant of oil = 11], (0 = 8 × 10–12 C2 N–1 m–1)
Q3 1
(C) (D) [(Q1 Q2 ) (Q3 Q4 )]
C C
3. In the figure shown the plates of a parallel plate capacitor have unequal charges. Its
capacitance is 'C'. P is a point outside the capacitor and close to the plate of charge
–Q. The distance between the plates is 'd'.
(A) A point charge at point 'P' will experience electric force due to capacitor
3Q
(B) The potential difference between the plates will be
2C
9Q2
(C) The energy stored in the electric field in the region between the plates is
8C
Q2
(D) The force on one plate due to the other plate is
2 0 d2
4. In the circuit shown in figure, each capacitor has a capacitance C. The emf C S
of the cell is E and circuit already in steady state. If the switch S is closed.
C
(A) some positive charge will flow out of the positive terminal of the cell C
(B) some positive charge will enter the positive terminal of the cell E
+ –
(C) the amount of charge flowing through the cell will be CE
4
(D) the amount of charge flowing through the cell will be CE
3
8. When a charged capacitor is connected with an uncharged capacitor, then which of the following is/are
correct option/options.
(A) the magnitude of charge on the charged capacitor decreases.
(B) a steady state is obtained after which no further flow of charge occurs.
(C) the total potential energy stored in the capacitors remains conserved.
(D) the charge conservation is always true.
2F, are connected in parallel as shown in figure. The potential difference across Row2
AB = 10 volt, then : Row3
(A) Total capacitance across AB is 4F
(B) Charge of each capacitor will be same
(C) Charge on the capacitor in the first row is more than on any other capacitor
(D) Energy of all the capacitors is 50 J
10. The figure shows a diagonal symmetric arrangement of capacitors and a battery. If
the potential of C is zero, then (All the capacitors are initially uncharged).
(A) VA = + 20 V (B) 4(VA – VB) + 2(VD – VB) = 2VB
(C) 2(VA – VD) + 2(VB – VD) = 4VD (D) VA = VB + VD
11. In the adjoining diagram all the capacitors are initially uncharged, they are
connected with a battery as a shown in figure. Then
(A) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V2
V V3
(B) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + 2
2
(C) Q1 = Q2 + Q3 and V = V1 + V3
(D) Q2 = Q3 and V = V2 + V3
12. The charge on capacitor in two different RC circuits 1 and 2 are plotted as
shown in figure.
Choose the correct statement(s) related to the two circuits.
(A) Both the capacitors are charged to the same magnitude of charge
(B) The emf's of cells in both the circuits are equal.
(C) The emf's of the cells may be different
(D) The emf E1 is more than E2
Capacitance
13. The instantaneous charge on capacitor in two discharging RC circuits is plotted q
with respect to time in figure. Choose the correct statement(s) (where E 1 and E2
qmax
are emfs of two DC sources in two different charging circuits and capacitors are 1
fully charged). 2
O t
R C
(A) R1C1 > R2C2 (B) 1 2
R 2 C1
(C) R1 > R2 if E1 = E2 (D) C2 > C1 if E1 = E2
14. Capacitor C1 of the capacitance 1 microfarad and capacitor C 2 of capacitance 2 microfarad are
separately charged fully by a common battery. The two capacitors are then separately allowed to
discharge through equal resistors at time t = 0.
(A) the current in each of the two discharging circuits is zero at t = 0.
(B) the current in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are equal but non zero.
(C) the current in the two discharging circuits at t = 0 are unequal
(D) capacitor C1 loses 50% of its initial charge sooner than C2 loses 50% of its initial charge
16. The terminals of a battery of emf V are connected to the two plates of a parallel plate capacitor. If the
space between the plates of the capacitor is filled with an insulator of dielectric constant K, then :
(A) the electric field in the space between the plates does not change
(B) the capacitance of the capacitor increases
(C) the charge stored in the capacitor increases
(D) the electrostatic energy stored in the capacitor decreases
17. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A & plate separation d is charged to a potential difference
V & then the battery disconnected. A slab of dielectric constant K is then inserted between the plates of the
capacitor so as to fill the space between the plates. If Q, E and W denote respectively, the magnitude of the
charge on each plate, the magnitude of the electric field between the plates (after the slab is inserted) & the
magnitude of the work done on the system, in the process of inserting the slab, then :
0 AV 0 KAV V 0 AV 2 1
(A) Q = (B) Q = (C) E = (D) W = 1
d d Kd 2d K
18. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor with no dielectric are connected to a voltage source. Now a
dielectric of dielectric constant K is inserted to fill the whole space between the plates with voltage
source remaining connected to the capacitor.
(A) the energy stored in the capacitor will become Ktimes
(B) the electric field inside the capacitor will decrease to K-times
(C) the force of attraction between the plates will increase to K2 – times
(D) the charge on the capacitor will increase to K-times
Capacitance
19. A parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric slab in it. The slab just fills the space inside the capacitor. The
capacitor is charged by a battery and the battery is disconnected. Now the slab is started to pull out
uniformly at t = 0. If at time t, capacitance of the capacitor is C, potential difference across plate is V, and
energy stored in it is U, then which of the following graphs are correct ?
20. A parallel plate air capacitor is connected to a battery. The quantities charge, electric field and energy
associated with this capacitor are given by Q0, V0, E0 and U0 respectively. A dielectric slab is now
introduced to fill the space between the plates with the battery still in connection. The corresponding
quantities now given by Q, V, E and U are related to the previous one as ;
(A) Q > Q0 (B) V > V0 (C) E > E0 (D) U > U0
PART - IV : COMPREHENSION
Comprehension 1
Capacitor C3 in the circuit is a variable capacitor (its capacitance can be varied). Graph is plotted
between potential difference V1 (across capacitor C1) versus C3. Electric potential V1 approaches on
asymptote of 10 V as C3 .
C1
V
C2 C3
R
C
2 E
1
K
1 1 1 1 1
(A) CE (B) CE 1 (C) CE 2 (D) CE 1 2
e e e e e
6. Then the variation of charge on capacitor with time is best represented by
q q q q
4.* In the circuit shown in the figure, there are two parallel plate
capacitors each of capacitance C. The switch S1 is pressed
first to fully charge the capacitor C1 and then released. The
switch S2 is then pressed to charge the capacitor C2. After
some time, S2 is released and then S3 is pressed. After some
time. [JEE (Advanced) 2013, 3/60]
(A) the charge on the upper plate of C1 is 2CV0
(B) the charge on the upper plate of C1 is CV0
(C) the charge on the upper plate of C2 is 0
(D) the charge on the upper plate of C2 is –CV0
5.* A parallel plate capacitor has a dielectric slab of dielectric constant K between its
plates that covers 1/3 of the area of its plates, as shown in the figure. The total
capacitance of the capacitor is C while that of the portion with dielectric in between
is C1. When the capacitor is charged, the plate area covered by the dielectric gets
charge Q1 and the rest of the area gets charge Q2. Choose the correct
option/options, igonoring edge effects. [JEE (Advanced) 2014,P-1, 3/60]
E1 E1 1
(A) 1 (B)
E2 E2 K
Q1 3 C 2K
(C) (D)
Q2 K C1 K
+ –
key 5V
(A) The voltmeter displays –5 V as soon as the key is pressed, and displays +5 V after a long time
(B) The voltmeter will display 0 V at time t = n 2 seconds
(C) The current in the ammeter becomes 1/e of the initial value after 1 second
(D) The current in the ammeter becomes zero after a long time
8. An infinite line charge of uniform electric charge density lies along the axis of an electrically
conducting infinite cylindrical shell of radius R. At time t = 0, the space inside the cylinder is filled with a
material of permittivity and electrical conductivity . The electrical conduction in the material follows
Ohm's law. Which one of the following graphs best describes the subsequent variation of the magnitude
of current density j (t) at any point in the material? [JEE (Advanced) 2016 ; P-1, 3/62, –1 ]
j (t) j (t)
(A) (B)
t t
(0, 0) (0, 0)
j (t) j (t)
(C) (D)
t t
(0, 0) (0, 0)
Capacitance
PARAGRAPH -1
Consider a simple RC circuit as shown in figure 1.
Process 1 : In the circuit the switch S is closed at t = 0 and the capacitor is fully charged to voltage V 0
(i.e., charging continues for time T>> RC). In the process some dissipation (E D) occurs across the
resistance R. The amount of energy finally stored in the fully charged capacitor is E C.
V
Process 2 : In a different process the voltage is first set to 0 and maintained for a charging time
3
2V0
T >>RC. Then the voltage is raised to without discharging the capacitor and again maintained for
3
a time T >> RC. The process is repeated one more time by raising the voltage to V 0 and the capacitor is
charged to the same final voltage V0 as in Process 1.
These two processes are depicted in figure 2.
V
Process1
V0
S 2V0/3
Process2 T>>RC
R
V0/3
V +– C
T 2T t
Figure 1 Figure 2
9. In process 1, the energy stored in the capacitor EC and heat dissipated across resistance ED are related
by :
[JEE (Advanced) 2017 ; P-2, 3/61]
1
(A) EC ED (B) EC = ED ln 2 (C) EC = 2ED (D) EC = ED
2
10. In process 2, total energy dissipated across the resistance ED is : [JEE (Advanced) 2017 ; P-2, 3/61]
1 1 1 1
(A) ED = 3 CV02 (B) ED CV02 (C) ED 3CV02 (D) ED CV02
2 3 2 2
11. Three identical capacitors C1, C2 and C3 have a capacitance of 1.0 F each and they are uncharged
initially. They are connected in a circuit as shown in the figure and C1 is then filled completely with a
dielectric material of relative permittivity r. The cell electromotive force (emf) V0 = 8V. First the switch
S1 is closed while the switch S2 is kept open. When the capacitor C3 is fully charged, S1 is opened and
S2 is closed simultaneously. When all the capacitors reach equilibrium, the charge on C3 is found to be
5C. The value of r =____________. [JEE (Advanced) 2018 ; P-1, 3/60]
Capacitance
12.* In the circuit shown, initially there is no charge on capacitors and keys S 1 and S2 are open. The values
of the capacitors are C1 = 10F, C2 = 30F, and C3 = C4 = 80F. Which statements is/are correct :
[JEE (Advanced) 2019 ; P-1, 3/62]
C4 5V 30
S1 P
S2
C1
C2 C3
70 30
10V
Q
100
(A) The key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged. Now key S2 is closed,
at this time the instantaneous current across 30 resistor (between points P & Q) will be 0.2A (round
off to 1st decimal place).
(B) If key S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged, the voltage across C1
will be 4V.
(C) At time t = 0, if the key S1 is closed, the instantaneous current in the closed circuit will be 25 mA
(D) if S1 is kept closed for long time such that capacitors are fully charged, the voltage difference
between P and Q will be 10V.
13. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance C has spacing d between two plates having area A. The region
d
between the plates is filled with N dielectric layers, parallel to its plates, each with thickness . The
N
m
dielectric constant of the mth s layer is Km = K 1 . For a very large N(> 103), the capacitance C is
N
K 0 A
. The value of will be _____ . [ 0 is the permittivity of free space]
d In 2
[JEE (Advanced) 2019 ; P-1, 3/62]
1. Let C be the capacitance of a capacitor discharging through a resistor R. Suppose t 1 is the time taken
for the energy stored in the capacitor to reduce to half its initial value and t 2 is the time taken for the
charge to reduce to one-fourth its initial value. Then the ratio t1/t2 will be [AIEEE 2010, 4/144]
1 1
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4) 2
2 4
2. A resistor 'R' and 2F capacitor in series is connected through a switch to 200 V direct supply. Across
the capacitor is a neon bulb that lights up at 120 V. Calculate the value of R to make the bulb light up 5s
after the switch has been closed. (log102.5 = 0.4) [AIEEE 2011, 4/120, –1]
(1) 1.3 × 104 (2) 1.7 × 105 (3) 2.7 × 106 (4) 3.3 × 107
Capacitance
3. Combination of two identical capacitors, a resistor R and a dc voltage source of voltage 6V is used in
an experiment on a (C – R) circuit. It is found that for a parallel combination of the capacitor the time in
which the voltage of the fully charged combination reduces to half its original voltage is 10 second. For
series combination the time needed for reducing the voltage of the fully charged series combination by
half is : [AIEEE 2011, 11 May; 4/120, –1]
(1) 10 second (2) 5 second (3) 2.5 second (4) 20 second
4. The figure shows an experimental plot discharging of a capacitor in an RC circuit. The time constant
of this circuit lies between : [AIEEE 2012 ; 4/120, –1]
5. Two capacitors C1 and C2 are charged to 120 V and 200 V respectively. It is found that by connecting
them together the potential on each one can be made zero. Then : [JEE (Main) 2013 ; 4/120, –1]
(1) 5C1 = 3C2 (2) 3C1 = 5C2 (3) 3C1 + 5C2 = 0 (4) 9C1 = 4C2
6. A parallel plate capacitor is made of two circular plates separated by a distance of 5 mm and with a
dielectric of dielectric constant 2.2 between them. When the electric field in the dielectric is 3 × 10 4 V/m,
the charge density of the positive plate will be close to : [JEE(Main) 2014 ; 4/120, –1]
(1) 6 × 10–7C/m2 (2) 3 × 10–7C/m2 (3) 3 × 104C/m2 (4) 6 × 104C/m2
7. In the given circuit, charge Q2 on the 2F capacitor changes as C is varied from 1F to 3F. Q2 as a
function of 'C' is given properly by : (figures are drawn schematically and are not to scale)
[JEE (Main) 2015; 4/120, –1]
9. A capacitance of 2F is required in an electrical circuit across a potential difference of 1.0 kV. A large
number of 1F capacitors are available which can withstand a potential difference of not more than 300 V.
The minimum number of capacitors required to achieve this is : [JEE (Main) 2017; 4/120, –1]
(1) 32 (2) 2 (3) 16 (4) 24
10. In the given circuit diagram when the current reaches steady state in the E r
circuit, the charge on the capacitor of capacitance C will be :
[JEE (Main) 2017; 4/120, –1]
r1
r1
(1) CE (2) CE
r1 r C
r1 r2
(3) CE (4) CE
r2 r r r2 r2
11. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 90 pF is connected to a battery of emf 20V. If a dielectric
5
material of dielectric constant K = is inserted between the plates, the magnitude of the induced
3
charge will be : [JEE (Main) 2018; 4/120, –1]
(1) 2.4 n C (2) 0.9 n C (3) 1.2 n C (4) 0.3 n C
12. A parallel plate capacitor has 1F capacitance. One of its two plates is given +2C charge and the
other plate, +4C charge. The potential difference developed across the capacitor is :
[JEE (Main) 2019; 4/120, –1]
(1) 5V (2) 2 V (3) 3 V (4) 1 V
13.
x
A parallel plate capacitor has plates of area A separated by distance 'd' between them. It is filled with a
dielectric which has a dielectric constant that varies as k(x) = K(1 + x) where 'x' is the distance
measured from one of the plates. If (d) << 1, the total capacitance of the system is best given by the
expression: [JEE (Main) 2020; 4/120, –1_07-01-20 (Shift-1)]
A 0 K 2 d2 A 0 K d
2
AK 0 d AK 0
1 1 1 (4) 1 d
d 2
(1) (2) (3)
d 2
d 2 d
14. Effective capacitance of parallel combination of two capacitors C 1 and C2 is 10F. When these
capacitors are individually connected to a voltage source of 1V, the energy stored in the capacitor C2 is
4 times that of C1. If these capacitors are connected in series, their effective capacitance will be:
[JEE (Main) 2020; 4/120, –1_08-01-20 (Shift-1)]
(1) 4.2 F (2) 8.4 F (3) 3.2 F (4) 1.6 F
Capacitance
A-5. (i)
q2 x 2 x1
(ii) (–) 2
0 SV 2 x1 x1
1
D-7. 25 V and 75 V.
CHEMICAL KINETICS-I
Section (A) : Rate of chemical reaction and Dependence of Rate : Basic
A-1. The oxidation of iodide ion by peroxy disulphate ion is described by the equation :
3– (aq) + S2O82– (aq) 3– (aq) + 2SO 42– (aq)
[S 2O 82] [ ]
(a) If – = 1.5 × 10 –3 Ms–1 for a particular time interval, what is the value of – for the same
t t
time interval ?
(b) What is the average rate of formation of SO 42– during that time interval ?
A-2. In the following reaction 2H2O2 (aq) 2H2O() + O2 (g) rate of formation of O 2 is 36 g min –1 ,
(a) What is rate of formation of H 2O? (b) What is rate of disappearance of H 2O2?
A-3. Hydrogenation of vegetable ghee at 25ºC reduces the pressure of 2H from 2 atm to 1.2 atm in 50
minute. Calculate the rate of reaction in terms of change :
(a) In pressure per minute. (b) In molarity per second.
A-4. The stoichiometric equation for the oxidation of bromide ions by hydrogen peroxide in acid solution is
2Br(aq) + H2O2(aq) + 2H +(aq) Br2() +2H2O()
Since the reaction does not occur in one stage, the rate equation does not correspond to this
stoichiometric equation but is rate = k[H 2O2] [H+] [Br].
(a) If the concentration of H 2O2 is increased by a factor of 3, by what factor is the rate of consumption
of Br ions increased.
(b) If, under certain conditions, the rate of consumption of Br ions is 7.2 × 10 mole dm s, what is
the rate of consumption of hydrogen peroxide. What is the rate of production of bromine.
(c) What is the effect on the rate constant k of increasing the concentration of bromide ions.
(d) If by the addition of water to the reaction mixture the total volume were doubled, what would be the
effect on the rate of change of the concentration of Br . What would be the effect on the rate constant k.
Section (B) : Integrated rate law : Zero and First Order Reaction
B-1. For the zero order reaction A 2B, the rate constant is 2 × 10 –6 M min –1. The reaction is started with
10 M of A.
(i) What will be the concentration of A after 2 days? (ii) What is the initial half-life of the reaction ?
(iii) In what time, the reaction will complete?
B-2. Substance A reacts according to a first order rate law with k = 5 x 10 5 s1.
(a) If the initial concentration of A is 1.0 M, what is initial rate .
(b) What is the rate after 1.0 hour. (Given e –0.18 = 0.84)
Chemical Kinetics
B-3. A and B are two different chemical species undergoing 1 st order decomposition with half lives equal to 5
CA t
sec. and 7.5 sec. respectively. If the initial concentration of A and B are in the ratio 3 : 2. Calculate
CBt
after three half lives of A. Report your answer after multiplying it with 100.
B-4. In the biological processes, the time taken by certain virus or bacteria to double its population, is called
generation time. In milk, at 37ºC, lactobacillus acidophilus has a generation time of about 75 min.
Calculate the population relative to the initial value at 60 min.
Section (C) : Integrated Rate law : Second Order & Pseudo first order reaction
C-1. The rate constant for a certain second order reaction is 8 10 5 M 1 min 1 . How long will it take a 1 M
solution to be reduced to 0.5 M in reactant ? How long will it take from that point until the solution is
0.25 M in reactant.
C-2. Compound A and B react to form C and D in a reaction that was found to be second-order over all and
second-order in A . The rate constant –at 30ºC is 0.622 L mol –1 min –1. What is the half-life of A when
4.10 × 10–2 M of A is mixed with excess B ?
C-3. The reaction CH 3CH2NO 2 + OH CH3 CH NO2 + H2O obeys the rate law for pseudo first order
kinetics in the presence of a large excess of hydroxide ion. If 1% of nitro ethane undergoes reaction in
half a minute when the reactant concentration is 0.002 M. What is the pseudo first order rate constant ?
(log 99 = 1.996)
Section (D) : Experimental method to calculate order and rate law of reaction and
methods to monitor the progress of reaction
D-1. The following data are for the reaction A + B products:
conc. A conc. B Initial Rate
(M) (M) (mol L1 s1)
0.1 0.1 4.0 × 104
0.2 0.2 1.6 × 103
0.5 0.1 2.0 × 103
0.5 0.5 1.0 × 102
(i) What is the order with respect to A and B for the reaction?
(ii) Calculate the rate constant.
(iii) Determine the reaction rate when the concentrations of A and B are 0.20 M and 0.35 M,
respectively.
D-2. (a) The half life period and initial concentration for a reaction are as follows. What is order of
reaction?
Initial concentration 350 540 158
t1/2 425 275 941
(b) The half-life period for the thermal decomposition of PH 3 at three different pressures are given
below
Initial pressure (mm Hg) 707 79 37.5
Half--life (seconds) 84 84 83
What is the order of the reaction ?
Chemical Kinetics
D-3. For the reaction A products, the following data is given for a particular run.
time (min.) : 0 5 15 35
1
(M–1) : 1 2 4 8
[A]
Determine the order of the reaction.
Section (E) : Method to monitor the progress of Reactions (Titration Method and
Optical Activity Method)
E-1. For a first order reaction A 2B + C. It was found that at the end of 10 minutes from the start, the
total optical rotation of the system was 60° and when the reaction is complete, it was 180°. The B and
C are only optically active and intially only A was taken.
(i) What is the rate constant of the above reaction (in hour –1) ?
(ii) At what time (in minute) from the start, total optical rotation will be 90º.
(Take log2 = 0.3, log3 = 0.48, log7 = 0.85, ln10 = 2.3)
E-2. The kinetic of hydrolysis of methyl acetate in excess dilute HCl at 25°C were followed by withdrawing 2
mL of the reaction mixture at intervals of (t), adding 50 mL water and titrating with baryta water.
Determine the velocity constant of hydrolysis.
t (in minute) 0 75 119 259
Titre value (in mL) 19.24 24.20 26.60 32.23 42.03
22.79 22.79 22.79
[ln = 0.2454, ln = 0.39, ln = 0.8439]
17.83 15.43 9.8
E-3. The decomposition of hydrogen peroxide in an aqueous solution is a first order reaction. It can be
studied by titrating quickly 10 mL portions of reactions mixture at various times from the t = 0 of reaction
against a standard solution of KMnO 4. Volume of KMnO 4 solution used in each case is proportional to
the remaining concentration of H 2O2.
From the following data calculate the rate constant of the reaction,
Time (seconds) 0 600 1200
KMnO4 solution used (mL) 22.8 13.8 8.2
Percentage of B in the product is 30%.Calculate the value of k 1 and k2. ((t1/2)over all = 100 hr))
F-2. An organic compound dissociates into n parallel first order reactions simultaneously and produces n
different products P 1, P 2, P 3, ......., P n having rate constants k, 2k, 3k, ......, nk and activation energies
E, 2E, 3E ..............., nE respectively. Calculate the overall energy of activation of the compound P.
Chemical Kinetics
CHEMICAL KINETICS-II
Section (G) : Temperature dependence of rate
G-1. From the following data for the reaction between A and B.
G-2. Find out the percentage of the reactant molecules crossing over the activation energy barrier at 325 K,
given that H325 = 0.12 kcal, E a(b) = + 0.02 kcal.
Section (H) : Catalyst dependence of rate and type of Reaction and Determination of
rate law and order with the help of given mechanism
H-1. On introducing a catalyst at 500 K, the rate of a first order increase to 1.718 times. The activation
energy in the presence of a catalyst is 6.059 KJ/mole. The slope of the plot of lnk (sec –1) against 1/T in
the absence of catalyst is (R = 8.3 J/K mol, ln 1.718 = 0.54).
2N2O5 4NO2 + O2
suggest the rate expression.
Chemical Kinetics
H-3. The reaction 2NO (g) + Br 2 (g) 2NOBr (g), obeys the following mechanism.
(i) NO (g) + Br 2 (g) NOBr2 (g)
Slow
(ii) NOBr2 (g) + NO (g) 2NOBr (g)
Suggest the rate expression.
H-4. Given the following steps in the mechanism for a chemical reaction :
A + B C (fast)
B + C D + E slow)
D + F A + E fast)
At any time [C] is directly proportional to [A].
(a) What is the stoichiometric equation for the reaction ?
(b) Which species, if any, are catalysts in this reaction ?
(c) Which species, if any, are intermediates in this reaction?
(d) Write the rate law for the rate-determining step.
(e) Write the rate law for this reaction.
(f) What is overall order of the reaction ?
I-2. Radioactive decay is a first order process. Radioactive carbon in wood sample decays with a half life of
–1
5770 years. What is the rate constant (in years ) for the decay? What fraction would remain after
11540 years.
I-3. 1 gram of 79Au198 (t1/2 = 65 hrs) decays by beta emission and produces stable mercury. How much
mercury will be present after 260 hours.
I-4. A sample of U 238 (half life = 4.5 × 10 9 year) ore is found to contain 23.8 g of U 238 and 20.6 g of Pb 206.
CHEMICAL KINETICS-I
Section (A) : Rate of chemical reaction and Dependence of Rate : Basic
A-3. Rate of formation of SO 3 in the following reaction 2SO 2 + O 2 2SO 3 is 100 g min –1. Hence rate of
disappearance of O 2 is :
(A) 50 g min -1 (B) 40 g min –1 (C) 200 g min –1 (D) 20 g min –1
A-4. aA + bB Product, dx/dt = k [A]a [B]b . If concentration of A is doubled, rate is four times. If
concentration of B is made four times, rate is doubled. What is relation between rate of disappearance
of A and that of B ?
(A) – {d [A] / dt} = – {d [B] / dt} (B) – {d [A] / dt} = – {4 d [B] / dt}
(C) – {4 d [A] / dt} = – {d [B]/ dt} (D) None of these
A-5. 2(g) N2(g) + 2H2O(g) the rate expression can be written in the
For the reaction, 2NO(g) + 2H
following ways:
{d [N2] / dt} = k 1 [NO][H 2] ; {d[H 2O] / dt} = k[NO][H 2] ; {– d[NO] / dt} = k 1 [NO] [H2] ; {–d[H 2] / dt} = k 1
[NO][H2]
The relationship between k, k 1 , k1 and k1. is :
(A) k = k 1 = k1 = k1 (B) k = 2k 1 = k1 = k1 (C) k = 2k1 = k1 = k1 (D) k = k 1 = k1 = 2 k1
A-6. For a reaction pA + qB products, the rate law expression is r = k[A] 1 [B]m, then :
(A) (p+1) < (1+ m) (B) (p + q) > (1 + m)
(C) (p + q) may or may not be equal to (1+ m) (D) (p + q) = (1 + m)
A-7. For the irreversible process, A + B products, the rate is first–order w.r.t. A and second–order
w.r.t. B. If 1.0 mol each of A and B introduced into a 1.0 L vessel, and the initial rate was 1.0 × 10 –2 mol
L–1 s–1 , rate when half reactants have been turned into products is :
(A) 1.25 × 10–3 mol L–1 s–1 (B) 1.0 × 10 –2 mol L–1 s–1
(C) 2.50 × 10 –3 mol L–1 s–1 (D) 2.0 × 10 –2 mol L–1 s–1
A-8. If rate constant is numerically the same for the three reactions of first, second and third order
respectively. Assume all the reactions of the kind A products. Which of the following is correct :
(A) if [A] = 1 then r 1 = r2 = r3 (B) if [A] < 1 then r 1 > r2 > r3
(C) if [A] > 1 then r 3 > r2 > r1 (D) All
Section (B) : Integrated rate law : Zero and First Order Reaction
B-1. The rate constant of the reaction A 2B is 1.0 × 10 –3 mol lit –1 min–1, if the initial concentration of A is
1.0 mole lit–1 what would be the concentration of B after 100 minutes.
(A) 0.1 mol lit –1 (B) 0.2 mol lit –1 (C) 0.9 mol lit –1 (D) 1.8 mol lit –1
B-2. A drop of solution (volume 0.05 mL) contains 3.0 × 10 –6 moles of H +. If the rate constant of
disappearance of H+ is 1.0 × 10 7 mole litre –1 sec–1. How long would it take for H + in drop to disappear :
(A) 6 × 10–8 sec (B) 6 × 10–7 sec (C) 6 × 10–9 sec (D) 6 × 10–10 sec
Chemical Kinetics
B-3. Graph between concentration of the product and time of the reaction A B is of the type .
B-4. What will be the order of reaction and rate constant for a chemical change having log50%
t vs log
concentration of (A) curves as :
d[A] 1
B-5. For a reaction 2A + B product, rate law is – = k[A]. At a time when t = , concentration of the
dt k
reactant is : (C 0 = initial concentration)
C0 C0 1
(A) (B) C0e (C) (D)
e e2 C0
B-6. Two substances A (t 1/2 = 5 min) and B (t 1/2 = 15 min) are taken in such a way that initially [A] = 4[B].
The time after which both the concentration will be equal is : (Assume that reaction is first order)
(A) 5 min (B) 15 min (C) 20 min (D) concentration can never be equal
B-7. A reaction follows the given concentration (M)–time graph. The rate for this reaction at 20 seconds will
be :
(A) 4 × 10–3 M s–1 (B) 8 × 10–2 M s–1 (C) 2 × 10–2 M s–1 (D) 7 × 10–3 M s–1
B-8. In a first order reaction the reacting substance has half-life period of ten minutes. What fraction of the
substance will be left after an hour the reaction has occurred ?
(A) 1/6 of initial concentration (B) 1/64 of initial concentration
(C) 1/12 of initial concentration (D) 1/32 of initial concentration
B-9. A certain zero order reaction has k = 0.025 M s–1 for the disappearance of A. What will be the
concentration of A after 15 seconds if the initial concentration is 0.50 M ?
(A) 0.50 M (B) 0.375 M (C) 0.125 M (D) 0.060 M
Section (C) : Integrated Rate law : Second Order & Pseudo first order reaction
C-1. A reaction, which is second order, has a rate constant of 0.002 L mol –1 s –1. If the initial conc. of the
reactant is 0.2 M. how long will it take for the concentration to become 0.0400 M ?
(A) 1000 sec (B) 400 sec (C) 200 sec (D) 10, 000 sec
Chemical Kinetics
C-2. Which is not true for a second order reaction ?
(A) It can have rate constant 1 × 10 –2 L mol –1 s–1
(B) Its half-life is inversely proportional to its initial concentration
(C) Time to complete 75% reaction is twice of half-life
1
(D) T 50 =
k Initial conc.
C-3. For the reaction 2NO 2 N2O2 + O2, rate expression is as follows :
d[NO 2]
– = k [NO 2]n, where k = 3 × 10 –3 mol –1 L sec –1. If the rate of formation of oxygen is 1.5 × 10 –4
dt
mol L–1 sec–1, then the molar concentration of NO 2 in mole L –1 is
(A) 1.5 × 10 –4 (B) 0.0151 (C) 0.214 (D) 0.316
C-4. At the point of intersection of the two curves shown, the conc. of B is given by.......for, A nB :
nA 0 A0 nA 0 n – 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) A0
2 n–1 n 1 n 1
C-5. A graph between log t1/ 2 and log a (abscissa) a being the initial concentration of A in the reaction
For reaction A Product, the rate law is
log a
– d[A] – d[A] – d[A] – d[A]
(A) =k (B) = k [A] (C) = k [A]2 (D) = k [A]3
dt dt dt dt
Section (D) : Experimental Method to calculate order and rate law of reaction and
Methods to Monitor the progress of Reaction
D-1. The data for the reaction A + B C is
Exp. [A]0 [B]0 initial rate
1 0.012 0.035 0.10
2 0.024 0.035 0.80
3 0.012 0.070 0.10
4 0.024 0.070 0.80
The rate law is
(A) r = k [B]3 (B) r = k [A]3 (C) r = k [A] [B] 4 (D) r = k [A] 2 [B]2 .
D-2. The kinetic data for the given reaction A(g) + 2B(g) C(g) is provided in the following table for three
experiments at 300 K.
Ex. No. [A/M] [B/M] [Initial rate (M sec –1)]
1 0.01 0.01 6.930 × 10–6
2 0.02 0.01 1.386 ×10–5
3 0.02 0.02 1.386 ×10–5
In another experiment starting with intitial concentration of 0.5 and 1 M respectively for A and B at 300
K. Find the rate of reaction after 50 minutes from start of experiment (in m/sec)?
(A) 6.93 × 10–4 (B) 0.25 × 10–7 (C) 4.33 × 10 –5 (D) 3.46 × 10 –9
Chemical Kinetics
D-3. In three different reactions, involving a single reactant in each case, a plot of rate of the reaction on the
yaxis, versus concentration of the reactant on the x axis, yields three different curves shown below.
What are the possible orders of the reactions (i), (ii), (iii).
(A) 1, 2, 3 (B) 2, 1, 1/2 (C) 0, 1, 2 (D) 0, 1, ½
D-4. At 373 K, a gaseous reaction A 2B + C is found to be of first order. Starting with pure A, the total
pressure at the end of 10 min was 176 mm of Hg and after a long time when A was completely
dissociated, it was 270 mm of Hg. The pressure of A at the end of 10 minutes was :
(A) 94 mm of Hg (B) 47 mm of Hg (C) 43 mm of Hg (D) 90 mm of Hg
D-5. The reaction A(s) 2 B(g) + C(g) is first order. The pressure after 20 min and after very long time are
150 mm Hg and 225 mm Hg. The value of rate constant and pressure after 40 min are :
(A) 0.05 In 1.5 min –1 ,200 mm (B) 0.5 ln 2 min –1 ,300 mm
(C) 0.05 In 3 min , 300 mm
–1 (D) 0.05 In 3 min –1 , 200 mm
D-6. Which integrated equation is correct for the following I st order reaction started with only A(g) in a closed
rigid vessel.
A (g) B (g) + C (g) + D (g)
Pi = initial pressure ; Pt = total pressure at time t
2.303 P 2.303 P
(A) K = log10 i (B) K = log10 t
t Pt t Pi
2.303 2Pi 2.303 3Pi
(C) K = log10 (D) K = log10
t 3Pi – Pt t 2Pi – 3Pt
D-7. The decompostion NH 3 gas on a heated tungsten surface gave the following results :
Initial pressure (mm of Hg) 65 105 y 185
Half-life (sec) 290 x 670 820
Calculate approximately the values of x and y.
(A) x = 410 sec, y = 115 mm of Hg (B) x = 467 sec , y = 150 mm of Hg
(C) x = 490 sec, y = 120 mm of Hg (D) x = 430 sec, y = 105 mm of Hg
D-8. In the reaction NH 4NO2 (aq.) N 2 (g) + 2 H 2O (l) the volume of N 2 after 20 min and after a long time is
40 ml and 70 ml respectively. The value of rate constant is :
(A) (1/20) Iog (7/4) min –1 (B) (2.303 /1200) log (7/3) sec –1
(C) (1/20) log (7/3) min –1 (D) (2.303 / 20) log (11/7) min –1
Section (E) : Method to monitor the progress of Reactions (Titration Method and
Optical Activity Method)
1
E-1. Half life of reaction : H 2O 2(aq) H 2O(l) +
O2(g) is independent of initial concentration of H 2O2
2
volume of O 2 gas after 20 minute is 5L at 1 atm and 27°C and after completion of reaction 50L. The
rate constant is
1 2.303 2.303 50 2.303 45
(A) log 10min1 (B) log 10min1 (C) log min1 (D) log min1
20 20 20 45 20 50
Chemical Kinetics
E-2. The decomposition of N 2O5 in chloroform was followed by measuring the volume of O 2 gas evolved :
2N2O5(CCI4) 2N 2O4(CCI4) + O 2(g). The maximum volume of O 2 gas obtained was 100 cm 3. In 500
minutes, 90 cm 3 of O 2 were evolved. The first order rate constant (in min –1) for the disappearance of
N2O5 is :
2.303 2.303 100 2.303 90 100
(A) (B) log (C) log (D)
500 500 90 500 100 10 500
E-3. For a reaction A B + C, it was found that at the end of 10 minutes from the start the total optical
rotation of the system was 50° and when the reaction is complete, it was 100°. Assuming that only B
and C are optically active and dextrorotatory. Calculate the rate constant of this first order reaction.
(A) 0.693 min –1 (B) 0.0693 sec –1 (C) 0.0693 min –1 (D) 0.00693 sec –1
E-4. The following data were obtained in an experiment on inversion of cane sugar (a first order kinetics)
Time (min) 0 10 After a long time
Total angle of rotation (degree) +40 +15 – 10
The rate constant (in second –1) is [ln 2 = 0.693]
(A) 0.0693 (B) 1.15 10–3 (C) 0.693 (D) 1.15 10–2
E-5.^ If no catalyst (H +) is present in acid hydrolysis of ester then rate constant k is : (Where V 0, Vt and V are
volumes of NaOH used to titrate reaction mixture at t = 0, t = t and t = )
2.303 V0 2.303 V
(A) log (B) log
t
(Vt V) t (V Vt )
2.303 V 2.303 V
(C) log 0 (D) log
t Vt t (Vt V)
F-3. For the follwing parallel chain reaction if the sum of the concentration of B and C at
dm3mol–1s–1. If the corresponding energies of activation of the parallel reactions are 60.0 kJ mol –1 and
70.0 kJ mol –1 respectively, what is the apparent overall energy of activation ?
(A) 130.0 kJ mol –1 (B) 67.5 kJ mol –1 (C) 100.0 kJ mol –1 (D) 65.0 kJ mol –1
CHEMICAL KINETICS-II
Section (G) : Temperature dependence of rate
G-1. The rate constant, the activation energy and the frequency factor of a chemical reaction at 25°C are
3.0 × 10 –4 s –1, 104.4 KJ mol –1 and 6.0 × 10 14 s –1 respectively. The value of the rate constant as T
is :
(A) 2.0 × 10 18 s–1 (B) 6.0 × 10 14 s–1 (C) infinite (D) 3.6 × 10 30 s–1
G-2. The rate constant k 1 of a reaction is found to be double that of rate constant k 2 of another reaction. The
relationship between corresponding activation energies of the two reactions at same temperature
(E1 and E2) will be represented as :
(A) E1 > E2 (B) E1 < E2 (C) E1 = E2 (D) None of these
G-3. When a graph between log k and 1/T is drawn a straight line is obtained. The point at which line cuts y -
axis and x -axis respectively correspond to the temp :
(A) 0, Ea / 2.303 R log A (B) , Ea / (R ln A)
(C) 0, log A (D) None of these
G-4. How much faster would a reaction proceed at 25°C than at 0°C if the activation energy is 65 kJ?
(A) 2 times (B) 5 times (C) 11 times (D) 16 times
G-5. For a reaction A B, E a = 10 kJ mol –1 , H = 5 kJ mol –1 . Thus, potential energy profile for this reaction
is :
PE
(A) (B)
Reaction progress
PE
(C) (D)
Section (H) : Catalyst dependence of rate and type of Reaction and Determination of
rate law and order with the help of given mechanism
H-1. The Ea of a reaction in presence of a catalyst is 4.15 kJ mol –1 and in absence of a catalyst is 8.3 kJ mol –
1.
1
What is slope of the plot of ln k vs in the absence of catalyst.
T
(A) + 1 (B) –1 (C) + 1000 (D) –1000
Chemical Kinetics
H-2. For the decomposition of H the following logarithmic plot is shown : [R = 1.98 cal/mol-K]
1
0
logk
–1
–2
–3
1.2 1.3 1.4 1.5 1.6
103/T
The activation energy of the reaction is about
(A) 45600 cal (B) 13500 cal (C) 24600 cal (D) 32300 cal
H-3. For the reaction H 2 (g) + Br 2 (g) 2HBr (g) the experiment data suggested that r = k[H 2][Br2]1/2
The molecularity and order of the reaction are respectively :
(A) 2, 3/ 2 (B) 3/2 , 3/2 (C) Not defined, 3/2 (D) 1,1/2
H-4. The reaction of NO 2 (g) and O 3 (g) is first-order in NO 2 (g) and O3 (g)
2 NO2 (g) + O 3 (g) N2O5 (g) + O2 (g)
The reaction can take place by mechanism :
I : NO2 + O3
slow
NO3 + O2
NO3 + NO2
fast
N2O5
ka fast
II : O3 O2 + [O]
kb
NO2 + O
slow
NO3
NO3 + NO2
fast
N2O5
Select correct mechanism.
(A) I only (B) II only (C) both I and II (D) None of I and II
H-5. A hypothetical reaction X 2 + Y2 2XY follows the mechanism given below.
X2 X + X [Fast]
X + Y2 XY + Y [Slow]
X + Y XY [Fast]
The order of overall reaction is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 1.5 (D) Zero
H-6. The reaction of hydrogen, and iodine monochloride is represented by the equation :
H2(g) + 2Cl(g) 2HCl(g) + 2(g)
This reaction is first–order in H 2(g) and also first–order in Cl(g). Which of these proposed mechanism
can be consistent with the given information about this reaction ?
Mechanism : H2(g) + 2Cl(g) 2HCl(g) + 2(g)
Mechanism : H 2(g) + Cl(g)
Slow
HCl(g) + H(g)
HI(g) + Cl(g)
fast
HCl(g) + I2(g)
(A) only (B) only (C) both and (D) neither nor
Chemical Kinetics
H-7. Reaction A + B D + E take place as
k
A + B
1
2C
k
C + B
2
2D
k
C + A
3
2E
The rate of disapperance of C is given by
d[C] d[C]
(A) – = k2[B][C] + k 3[A][C] – 2k 1[A][B] (B) – = k2[B][C] + k 3[E] – k1[C]
dt dt
d[C] d
(C) – = k2[D] + k 3[E] – k1[C] (D) – [C] = 2k 1[A][B] – k 2[B][C] – k 3[A][C]
dt dt
RADIO ACTIVITY
Section (I) : Radio Activity
I-1. Radioactivity is affected by :
(A) temperature (B) Pressure
(C) electric and magnetic field (D) none of these
I-2. Half life period of 10 gm radioactive element is 20 days. Then half life period of 100 gm of this element
is :
(A) 20 days (B) 200 days (C) 100 days (D) 10 days
I-3. Determine the average life of U 238 having t0.5 = 138.5 day.
(A) 138.5 day (B) 199.86 day (C) 238 day (D) None of these
I-4. A radioactive element has a half life of one day. After three days the amount of the element left will be :
(A) 1/2 of the original amount (B) 1/4 of the original amount
(C) 1/8 of the original amount (D) 1/16 of the original amount
I-5. A sample of rock from moon contains equal number of atoms of uranium and lead (t 1/2 for U = 4.5 × 10 9
years). The age of the rock would be :
(A) 9.0 × 10 9 years (B) 4.5 × 10 9 years (C) 13.5 ×10 9 years (D) 2.25 × 10 9 years
I-6. The radioactive decay is first order reaction. Its rate, on increasing 10ºC temperature
(A) increases 2-3 times (B) decreases 2-3 times
(C) does not change (D) increases 10 times
I-7. The half life of a radioactive isotope is 3 hours . If the initial mass of the isotope were 256 gm , the
mass of it remaining undecayed after 18 hours would be :
(A) 4 gm (B) 8 gm (C) 12 gm (D) 16 gm
I-8. A radioactive isotope X with half - life of 6.93 × 10 9 years decay to Y which is stable. A sample of rock
from the moon was found to contain both the element X and Y in the mole ratio 1 : 7.What is the age of
the rock?
(A) 2.079 × 10 10 years (B) 1.94 × 10 10 years
(C) 1.33 × 10 9 years (D) 1010 years
Chemical Kinetics
I-9. The half-life of 99Tc is 6.0 h. The total residual activity in a patient after receiving an injection containing
99Tc must not be more than 0.01 Ci , after 36.0 hours. What is the maximum activity (in Ci) that the
sample injected can have ?
(A) 0.06 (B) 0.16 (C) 0.32 (D) 0.64
I-10. The activity per mL of a solution of radioactive substance is x. How much water be added to 200 mL of
this solution so that the acitivity falls to x/20 per mL after 4 half-lives ?
(A) 100 mL (B) 150 mL (C) 80 mL (D) 50 mL
2. If for a reaction in which A(g) converts to B(g) the reaction carried out at
const. V & T results into the following graph.
(A) then the reaction must be A(g) 3B(g) and is a first order reaction.
(B) then the reaction must be A(g) 3B(g) and is a second order reaction.
(C) then the reaction must be A(g) 3B(g) and is a zero order reaction.
(D) then the reaction must be A(g) 3B(g) and is a first order reaction.
3. For the first-order reaction T av (average life), T 50 and T75 in the increasing order are :
(A) T 50 < Tav < T75 (B) T 50 < T75 < Tav (C) T av < T50 < T75 (D) T av = T50 < T75
1
4. Concentration of the reactant in first-order is reduced to of initial concentration after :
e2
1
(Natural life = )
K
(A) one natural life-time (B) two-natural life-time
(C) three natural life-time (D) four natural life-time
dx dx
8. A Product and = k[A] . If log
2
is plotted against log [A], then graph is of the type :
dt dt
9. The following data is for the decomposition of ammonium nitrite in aqeous solution.
Volume of N2 Time
produced in cc. (minutes)
7 10
12.6 20
35 infinity
The order of the reaction is
(A) zero (B) one (C) – one (D) – two
10. Formation of NO 2F from NO 2 and F 2 as per the reaction 2NO 2(g) + F 2(g) 2NO 2F(g) is a second
order reaction, first order with respect to NO
2 and first order with respect to 2.F If NO2 and F2 are
present in a closed vessel in ratio 2 :1 maintained at a constant temperature with an initial total
pressure of 3 atm, what will be the total pressure in the vessel after the reaction is complete?
(A) 1atm (B) 2 atm (C) 2.5 atm (D) 3 atm
11. The inversion of cane sugar proceeds with half life of 50 minute at pH = 5 for any concentration of
sugar. However if pH = 6, the half life changes to 500 minute of any concentration of sugar. The rate
law expression for the inversion of cane sugar is written as : r = k [sugar] 1 [H +]y. Determine the value of
y.
(A) r = k [sugar] 1 [H+]–1 (B) r = k [sugar] 1 [H+]2 (C) r = k [sugar] 1 [H+]1 (D) r = k [sugar] 1 [H+]0.
12. Inversion of sucrose (C 12H22O11) is first-order reaction and is studied by measuring angle of rotation at
different instant of time
+
H
C12H 22
O 11
+ H O2 C6H12O 6+ C6H12O 6
Sucrose Glucose Fructose
d d l
If (r – r 0) a and (r – r t) (a – x) (where r , r t and r are the angle of rotation at the start, at the time t
and at the end of the reaction respectively, then there is 50% inversion when :
(A) r0 = 2rt – r (B) r0 = rt – r (C) r0 = rt – 2r (D) r0 = rt + r
Chemical Kinetics
13. In a hypothetical reaction, A(aq) 2B(aq) + C(aq) (1st order decomposition)
'A' is optically active (dextro-rototory) while 'B' and 'C' are optically inactive but 'B' takes part in a
titration reaction (fast reaction) with H 2O2. Hence, the progress of reaction can be monitored by
measuring rotation of plane polarised light or by measuring volume of H 2O2 consumed in titration.
In an experiment the optical rotation was found to be = 40° at t = 20 min and = 10° at t = 50 min.
from start of the reaction. If the progress would have been monitored by titration method, volume of
H2O2 consumed at t = 15 min. (from start) is 40 ml then volume of H 2O2 consumed at t = 60 min will be:
(A) 60 ml (B) 75 ml (C) 52.5 ml (D) 90 ml
14. A.G.M. counter is used to study the radioactive process of first-order. In absence of radioactive
substance A, it counts 3 disintegration per second (dps). When A is placed in the G.M. counter, it
records 23 dps at the start and 13 dps after 10 minutes. It records x dps after next 10 minutes and A
has half-life period y minutes. x and y are :
(A) 8 dps, 10 min (B) 5 dps, 10 min (C) 5 dps, 20 min (D) 5 dps, 5 min
15. For the following parallel chain reaction what will be that value of overall
[B]t 16
half-life of A in minutes? Given that
[C]t 9
(A) 3.3 (B) 6.3
(C) 3.6 (D) None of these
16. For the follwing parallel chain reaction the overall half life of A is 12 hours If rate of
formation of C is 60% of a rate of decomposition of A then what will be half life of A while it is converting
into B ?
(A) 40 hours (B) 60 hours (C) 50 hours (D) 30 hours
18. In gaseous reactions important for the understanding of the upper atmosphere H2O and O react
bimolecularly to form two OH radicals. H for this reaction is 72 kJ at 500 K and E a is 77 kJ mol –1, then
Ea for the bimolecular recombination of two OH radicals to form H 2O and O is :
(A) 3 kJ mol –1 (B) 4 kJ mol –1 (C) 5 kJ mol –1 (D) 7 kJ mol –1
19. The Arrhenius relationship of two different reactions is shown below. Which
reaction is faster at a lower temperature and which is more sensitive to
changes of temperature ?
(A) B faster, A more sensitive (B) B in both cases
(C) A in both cases (D) A faster, B more sensitive
Chemical Kinetics
20. For the same mechanism as Problem refer to the given Fig. and choose the
correct set of identifications.
E + S ES
(enzyme) (reactant) (intermediate-1)
ES EP
(intermediate-1) (intermediate-2)
EP E + P
(intermediate-2) (enzyme) (product)
2. A substance A is mixed with equal quantities of the substance B and C. At the end of 1000 second, half
of the amount of A has reacted. What fraction of A will be left unreacted at the end of 2000 second. If
the reaction is zero order with respect to A ?
3. For a first order reaction, time required for 99.0% completion is x times for the time required for the
completion of 90% of the reaction x is :
4. A flask contains a mixture of compounds A and B. Both compounds decompose by first-order kinetics.
The half-lives are 54.0 min for A and 18.0 min for B. If the concentrations of A and B are equal initially,
how long (in minute) will it take for the concentration of A to be four times that of B ?
5. At 80% of a radioactive element undergoing decay is left over after a certain period of time t from pure
start, how many such periods should elapse from the start for just over 50% of the element to be left
over.
6. In a II order reaction, when the concentration of both the reactants are equal, the reaction is completed
20% in 500 sec. How long it would take for the reaction to go to 60% completion ? (Report your answer
terms of minutes).
7. The acid catalysed hydrolysis of an organic compound A at 30ºC has a time for half change of 100
minutes, when carried out in a buffer solution at pH 5 and of 10 minutes, when carried out at pH 4. Both
times of half change are independent of the initial concentration of A. If the rate of reaction is given by
d[A]
= k[A]a[H+]b, what are the values of (a + b) ?
dt
Chemical Kinetics
8. The rate of decomposition of a substance increases by a factor 2.25 for 1.5 times increase in
concentration of substance at same temperature. Find out order of reaction.
9. Half-life period for decomposition of NH 3 over tungsten wire are given below :
Initial Pressure in min 50 100 200
T1/2 3.52 1.82 0.93
Calculate order of reaction.
10. The rate constant for the II order neutralization of 2-nitropropane by aqueous alkali obeys the equation
3163
log10 K = + 12 T is temperature in Kelvin.
T
Time and concentration were in minute and mol litre –1 respectively. If half life at 43.3°C and for an initial
concentration of 0.001 mol litre –1 for each of the reactant is. Expresed as 10 –x, then x is :
11. The ratio of activities of two radio nuclides X and Y in a mixture at time t = 0 was found to be 4 : 1. After
two hours, the ratio of activities become 1 : 1. If the t 1/2 of radio nuclide X is 20 min then t 1/2 [in minutes]
of radio nuclide Y is :
d [C]
3. For the reaction 2A + B C with the rate law = k [A]1 [B]–1 and started with A and B in
dt
stoichiometric proportion. Which is/are true?
(A) unit of k is Ms –1 (B) [A], [B] and [C] all will be linear functions of time
(C) [C] = 2kt (D) [C] = kt
4. Decomposition of 3 A(g) 2 B(g) + 2C(g) follows first order kinetics. Initially only A is present in the
container. Pressure developed after 20 min. and infinite time are 3.5 and 4 atm respectively. Which of
the following is true.
(A) t50% = 20 min (B) t75% = 40 min (C) t99% = 64/3 min (D) t87.5% = 60 min
5. In the following gaseous phase first order reaction, A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)
initial pressure was found to be 400 mm and it changed to 1000 mm after 20 min. Then :
(A) Half life for A is 10 min
(B) Rate constant is 0.0693 min –1
(C) Partial pressure of C at 30 min is 350 mm
(D) Total pressure after 30 min is 1100 mm
Chemical Kinetics
1
6. For a second order reaction plots are made for vs time for the reaction, 2A Product. Pick up
[A]
the correct sentences. [k = Rate constant of A]
(A) the graph will show straight line with slope k
(B) the graph will show straight line with intercept [A] 0
(C) the graph will show straight line with slope [A] 0
1
(D) the graph will show straight line with intercept
[A] 0
7. Taking the reaction, A + 2B Products, to be of second order, which of the following is/are the
correct rate law expression(s) ?
dx dx dx dx
(A) k[A] 2 (B) k[A][B] 2 (C) k[A][B] (D) k1[A] k 2[B] 2
dt dt dt dt
8. For the reaction CH 4 + Br2 CH3Br + HBr the experimental data require the following rate equation :
d k1[CH 4][Br 2]
[CH3Br] =
dt 1 k 2[HBr] /[Br 2]
Which of the following is/are true regarding this ?
(A) The reaction is a single step reaction
(B) The reaction is 2nd order in the initial stages {[HBr] 0}
(C) The reaction is 2nd order in the final stages {[Br 2] 0}
(D) The molecularity of the reaction is two
9. Which of the following statements about the arrhenius equation are correct ?
(A) The pre exponential factor become equal to the rate constant of the reaction at temperature T
(B) When the activation energy of the reaction zero, the rate becomes independent of temperature.
(C) The term e E /Rt represents the fractions of the molecules having energy is excess of the threshold
a
value.
(D) On raising temperature , rate constant of the reaction of greater activation energy increases less
rapidly than that of the reaction of smaller activation energy.
10. A large increase in the rate of a reaction for a rise in temperature is due to
(A) increase in the number of collisions (B) the increase in the number of activated molecules
(C) The shortening of mean free path (D) the lowering of activation energy
11. Which of the following statement are true regarding the log K
vs. 1/T plot shown in the given diagram ?
(A) Plot P shows that the energy of activation is independent K AeEa/RT
of temperature.
(B) Plot Q describes the behaviour of temperature
dependence of energy of activation.
(C) Arrhenius behaviour is described by P.
E
(D) The slope of curve P gives the value – a .
R
2000
12. Rate constant k varies with temperature by equation , log k(min –1) = 5 – . We can conclude :
T(K)
(A) pre-exponential factor A is 5 (B) Ea is 2000 k cal
(C) pre-exponential factor A is 10 5 (D) Ea is 9.212 k cal
Chemical Kinetics
13. Activation energy of a chemical reaction can be determined by :
(A) evaluating rate constant at standard temperature
(B) evaluating velocities of reaction at two different temperatures
(C) evaluating rate constant at two different temperatures
(D) changing concentration of reactants
Pt
15. If the rate of reaction, 2SO 2(g) + O2(g) 2SO3(g) is given by :
[SO 2]
Rate = K
[SO 3] 1/ 2
which statements are correct :
(A) The overall order of reaction is –1/2
(B) The overall order of reaction is +1/2
(C) The reaction slows down as the product SO 3 is build up
(D) The rate of reaction does not depend upon concentration of SO 3 formed
PART - IV : COMPREHENSION
Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions.
Comprehension # 1
A(g) 2B(g) + C(g)
Initially at t = 0 gas A was present along with some amount of gas C. At t = 0 mole fraction of gas C is
1/3. After some time t = t 1, total pressure is half of the final total pressure at t = t x (a very long time).
Assume this decomposition is a first order, at a constant temperature. It is also given at t = t x, final total
pressure is 35 bar.
2. Rate constant (k) = (log 64 – log 49) s –1. Value of t 1 in seconds is :
(A) 2.15 s (B) 1.5 s (C) 2.3 s (D) 1.15 s
Comprehension # 3
Competing first-order reactions :
Frequently a species can react in different ways to give a variety of products. For example, toluene can
be nitrated at the ortho, meta, or para positions, We shall consider the simplest case, that of two
competing irreversible first-order reactions :
k1 k2
A C and A D
where the stoichiometric coefficients are taken as unity for simplicity. The rate law is
d[A]
= – k1[A] – k2[A] = – (k 1 + k2) [A] [A] = [A]0 e(k1 k2)t .
dt
d[C] (k1 k2)t
For C, we have = k1[A] = k1[A]0 e . Multiplication by dt and integration from time 0
dt
k1[A] 0
(where [C] 0 = 0) to an arbitary time t gives [C] = (1 e (k1 k 2)t )
k1 k 2
d[D] k 2[A] 0
Similarly, integration of gives [D] = (1 – e(k1k2)t )
dt k1 k 2
The sum of the rate constants k 1 + k2 appears in the exponentials for both [C] and [D].
[C] k
At any time we also have = 1
[D] k2
Chemical Kinetics
(A) [A]0 = [A]t +[B]t + [C]t (B) [A]0 = [A]t + 2[B]t + 3[C]t
[B]t [C] t 2
(C) [A]0 = [A]t + + (D) [A]0 = [A]t + [B]t + [C]t
2 3 3
[X] t
8. X starting with only 'X', ratio
[Y] t [Z] t
1
(A) Independent of time (B)
(e kt 1)
(C) Depends upon initial concentration of X (D) [A]0 (ekt –1)
9. At high temperature acetic acid decomposes into CO 2 & CH 4 and simultaneously into CH 2CO (ketene)
and H2O
k 3s 1
(i) CH3COOH
1
CH4 + CO2
k 4s 1
(ii) CH3COOH 2
CH2CO + H2O
What is the fraction of acetic acid reacting as per reaction (i) ?
3 3 4
(A) (B) (C) (D) none of these
4 7 7
–3
210 min –1
11._ The correct combination for reaction A B is :
(A) (II) (ii) (Q) (B) (IV) (iv) (S) (C) (I) (iv) (S) (D) (I) (iii) (R)
12._ The incorrect combination among the following is :
(A) (I) (iii) (S) (B) (II) (ii) (Q) (C) (III) (i) (P) (D) (IV) (iii) (R)
13._ For an elementary reaction 2A B, correct combination is :
(A) (I) (iv) (Q) (B) (I) (iv) (S) (C) (II) (ii) (Q) (D) (II) (ii) (R)
Chemical Kinetics
2. 238
92 U is radioactive and it emits and particles to form 206
82 Pb . Calculate the number of and
238 238 206
particles emitted in this conversion. An ore of 92 U is found to contain 92 U and 82 Pb in the weight
238
ratio of 1 : 0.9 the half life period of 92 U is 4.5 × 109 years. Calculate the age of the ore. [JEE-2000(M)]
3. A hydrogenation reaction is carried out at 500 K. If the same reaction is carried out in the presence of a
catalyst at the same rate, the temperature required is 400 K. Calculate the activation energy of the
reaction if the catalyst lowers the activation barrier by 20 kJ mol –1. [JEE-2000(M), 3/100]
4. If '' is the intensity of absorbed light and 'C' is the concentration of AB for the photochemical process,
AB + hv AB *, the rate of formation of AB * is directly proportional to [JEE-2001(S), 1/35]
(A) C (B) (C) 2 (D) C.
5. The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mole litre –1 s–1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol litre
–1 s–1 at 20
minutes after initiation. Find the half life of the reaction. [JEE-2001(M), 5/100]
7. 64Cu (half life = 12.8 hours) decays by – emission(38%), + emission(19%) and electron capture(43%).
Write the decay products and calculate partial half lives for each of the decay processes.
[JEE-2002(M), 5/60]
8. In the biologically-catalysed oxidation of ethanol, the concentration of ethanol decreases in a first order
reaction from 800 mol dm –3 to 50 mol dm –3 in 2 ×104 s. The rate constant (s –1) of the reaction is :
[JEE-2003(S), 3/84]
(A) 3.45 × 10–5 (B) 1.38 × 10–4 (C) 1.00 × 10 –4 (D) 5.00 × 10 –5
11. For a reaction 2X(g) 3Y(g) + 2Z(g) the following data is obtained.
Px (mm of Hg)
Time (min)
(Partial pressure of X)
0 800
100 400
200 200
Find order with respect to X, rate constant of the reaction, time taken for 75% completion and find the
total pressure when partial pressure of X, Px = 700 mm of Hg. [JEE-2005(M), 2/60]
Comprehension #
Carbon–14 is used to determine the age of organic material. The procedure is based on the formation
of 14C by neutron capture in the upper atmosphere.
14
7 N 0n1 146 C 1p1
14C is absorbed by living organisms during photosynthesis. The 14C content is constant in living
organism, once the plant or animal dies, the uptake of carbon dioxide by it ceases and the level of 14C
matter is 1 : 10 .
12
13. What should be the age of fossil for meaningful determination of its age? [JEE-2006, 5/184]
(A) 6 years (B) 6000 years
(C) 60,000 years (D) It can be used to calculate any age
Chemical Kinetics
14. A nuclear explosion has taken place leading to increase in concentration of 14C in nearby areas. 14C
concentration is C 1 in nearby areas and C 2 in areas far away. If the age of the fossil is determined to be
T1 and T2 at the places respectively then [JEE-2006, 5/184]
(A) The age of the fossil will increase at the place where explosion has taken place and
1 C
T1 – T2 = ln 1
C 2
(B) The age of the fossil will decrease at the place where explosion has taken place and
1 C
T1 – T2 = ln 1
C2
(C) The age of fossil will be determined to be same
T1 C1
(D)
T2 C2
15. Consider a reaction aG + bH Products. When concentration of both the reactants G and H is
doubled, the rate increases by eight times. However, when concentration of G is doubled keeping the
concentration of H fixed, the rate is doubled. The overall order of the reaction is : [JEE-2007, 3/162]
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3
16. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm –3 of a substance becomes
k1
half in 40 seconds and 20 seconds through first order and zero order kinetics, respectively. Ratio
k0
of the rate constant for first order (k 1) and zero order (k 0) of the reaction is. [JEE-2008, 3/162]
(A) 0.5 mol dm
–1 3 (B) 1.0 mol dm –3 (C) 1.5 mol dm –3 (D) 2.0 mol –1 dm3
17. For a first order reaction A P, the temperature (T) dependent rate constant (k) was found to follow
1
the equation log k = – (2000) + 6.0. The pre-exponential factor A and the activation energy a,E
T
respectively, are : [JEE-2009, 3/160]
(A) 1.0 × 10 s and 9.2 kJ mol
6 –1 –1 (B) 6.0 s and 16.6 kJ mol
–1 –1
(C) 1.0 × 10 6 s–1 and 16.6 kJ mol –1 (D) 1.0 × 10 6 s–1 and 38.3 kJ mol –1
18. The concentration of R in the reaction R P was measured as a function of time and the following
data is obtained :
[R] (molar) 1.0 0.75 0.40 0.10
t(min.) 0.0 0.05 0.12 0.18
The order of the reaction is : [JEE-2010, 3/163]
19. Plots showing the variation of the rate constant (k) with temperature (T) are given below. The plot that
follows Arrhenius equation is : [JEE-2010, 3/163]
21. An organic compound undergoes first-order decomposition. The time taken for its decomposition to 1/8
[t ]
and 1/10 of its initial concentration are t 1/8 and t1/10 respectively. What is the value of 1/ 8 10 ?
[t 1/ 10 ]
(log102 = 0.3) [JEE-2012, 4/136]
23. The initial rate of hydrolysis of methyl acetate (1M) by a weak acid (HA, 1M) is 1/100
th of that of a
24. For the elementary reaction M N, the rate of disappearance of M increases by a factor of 8 upon
doubling the concentration of M. The order of the reaction with respect to M is :
[JEE(Advanced) 2014, 3/120]
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1
time
T2 T1
% yield
% yield
T1
(A) (B) T2
time time
T1 T2
% yield
% yield
(C) T2 (D) T1
time time
Chemical Kinetics
26. In dilute aqueous H 2SO4, the complex diaquodioxalatoferrate(II) is oxidized by MnO4– . For this reaction,
the ratio of the rate of change of [H +] to the rate of change of [MnO4– ] is :[JEE(Advanced)-2015, 4/168]
28. In a bimolecular reaction, the steric factor P was experimentally determined to be 4.5. the correct
option(s) among the following is(are) [JEE(Advanced)-2017, 4/122]
(A) The activation energy of the reaction is unaffected by the value of the steric factor.
(B) Experimentally determined value of frequency factor is higher than that predicted by Arrhenius
equation.
(C) The value of frequency factor predicted by Arrhenius equation is higher than that determined
experimentally.
(D) Since P = 4.5, the reaction will not proceed unless an effective catalyst is used.
29.* For a first order reaction A(g) 2B(g) + C(g) at constant volume and 300 K, the total pressure at the
beginning (t = 0) and at time t are P 0 and Pt, respectively. Initially, only A is present with concentration
[A]0, and t1/3 is the time required for the partial pressure of A to reach 1/3 rd of its initial value. The correct
option(s) is (are)
(Assume that all these gases behave as ideal gases) [JEE(Advanced)-2018, 4/120]
In(3p0– Pt)
t1/3
(A) (B)
Time [A]0
Rate constant
In(p0 – Pt)
(C) (D)
Time [A]0
2. In the reaction of formation of sulphur trioxide by contact process 2SO 2 +O2 2SO 3 the rate of
d[O2]
reaction was measured as = –2.5 × 10 –4 mol L –1 s–1. The rate of reaction in terms of [SO 2] in mol
dt
L–1 s–1 will be : [JEE(Main) 2014 Online (11-04-14), 4/120]
(1) –1.25 × 10 –4 (2) –2.50 × 10 –4 (3) –3.75 × 10 –4 (4) –5.00 × 10 –4
3. For the reaction, 2N2O5 4NO2 + O2, the rate equation can be expressed in two ways
d [N O2 ]5 d [NO ]2
k[N2O 5] and k '[N2 O5 ] k and k' related as P:
dt dt
[JEE(Main) 2014 Online (11-04-14), 4/120]
(1) k = k' (2) 2k = k' (3) k = 2k' (4) k = 4k'
4. The rate coefficient (k) for a particular reactions is 1.3 × 10 –4 M –1s–1 at 100°C, and 1.3 × 10 –3 M –1s–1 at
150°C. What is the energy of activation (E A) (in kJ) for this reaction ?
(R = molar gas constant = 8.314 JK –1 mol–1) [JEE(Main) 2014 Online (12-04-14), 4/120]
(1) 16 (2) 60 (3) 99 (4) 132
6. The reaction 2N 2O5(g) 4NO2(g) + O2(g) follows first order kinetics. The pressure of a vessel
containing only N 2O5 was found to increase from 50 mmHg to 87.5 mm Hg in 30 min. The pressure
exerted by the gases after 60 min. wil be (Assume temperature remains constant) :
[JEE(Main) 2015 Online (10-04-15), 4/120]
(1) 125 mm Hg (2) 106.25 mm Hg (3) 116.25 mm Hg (4) 150 mm Hg
7. For the equilibrium, A(g) B(g), H is –40 kJ/mol. If the ratio of the activation energies of the
2
forward (Ef) and reverse (E b) reactions is then : [JEE(Main) 2015 Online (11-04-15), 4/120]
3
(1) Ef = 80 kJ/mol; E b = 120 kJ/mol (2) Ef = 60 kJ/mol; E b = 100 kJ/mol
(3) Ef = 30 kJ/mol; E b = 70 kJ/mol (4) Ef = 70 kJ/mol; E b = 30 kJ/mol
10. The rate law for the reaction below is given by the expression k [A][B]
A + B Product
If the concentration of B is increased from 0.1 to 0.3 mole, keeping the value of A at 0.1 mole, the rate
constant will be : [JEE(Main) 2016 Online (10-04-16), 4/120]
(1) 9 k (2) 3 k (3) k/3 (4) k
11. The rate of a reaction A doubles on increasing the temperature from 300 to 310 K. By how much, the
temperature of reaction B should be increased from 300 K so that rate doubles if activation energy of
the reaction B is twice to that of reaction A. [JEE(Main) 2017 Online (08-04-17), 4/120]
(1) 9.84 K (2) 19.67 K (3) 2.45 K (4) 4.92 K
12. The rate of a reaction quadruples when the temperature changes from 300 to 310 K. The activation
energy of this reaction is :
(Assume activation energy and pre-exponential factor are independent of temperature; ln2 = 0.693; R =
8.314 J mol –1 K–1) [JEE(Main) 2017 Online (09-04-17), 4/120]
(1) 53.6 kJ mol –1 (2) 26.8 kJ mol –1 (3) 107.2 kJ mol –1 (4) 214.4 kJ mol –1
13. N2O5 decomposes to NO 2 and O 2 and follows first order kinetics. After 50 minutes, the pressure inside
the vessel increases from 50 mm Hg to 87.5 mm Hg. The pressure of the gaseous mixture after 100
minute at constant temperature will be : [JEE(Main) 2018 Online (15-04-18), 4/120]
(1) 136.25 mm Hg (2) 106.25 mm Hg (3) 175.0 mm Hg (4) 116.25 mm Hg
1 th
14. For a first order reaction, A P, t ½ (half-life) is 10 days. The time required for conversion of A (in
4
days) is : (In 2 = 0.693, ln 3 = 1.1) [JEE(Main) 2018 Online (15-04-18), 4/120]
(1) 5 (2) 3.2 (3) 4.1 (4) 2.5
15. If 50 % of a reaction occurs in 100 second and 75 % of the reaction occurs in 200 second, the order of
this reaction is : [JEE(Main) 2018 Online (16-04-18), 4/120]
(1) 2 (2) 3 (3) Zero (4) 1
16. The following results were obtained during kinetic studies of the reaction;
2A + B Products
[A] [B] Initial Rate of reaction
Experiment –1 –1
(in mol L ) (in mol L ) (in mol L –1 min–1)
I 0.10 0.20 6.93 × 10–3
II 0.10 0.25 6.93 × 10–3
III 0.20 0.30 1.386 × 10–2
Time time (in minutes) required to consume half of A is : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) 1 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 100
Chemical Kinetics
17. For the reaction, 2A + B products, when the concentration of A and B both were doubled, the rate of
the reaction increased from 0.3 mol L–1s–1 to 2.4 mol L–1s–1. When the concentration of A alone is
doubled, the rate increased from 0.3 mol L –1s–1 to 0.6 mol L –1s–1 .
Which one of the following statements is correct? [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (09-01-19), 4/120]
(1) Order of the reaction with respect to B is 1 (2) Order of the reaction with respect to B is 2
(3) Total order of the reaction is 4 (4) Order of the reaction with respect to A is 2
18. Consider the given plots for a reaction obeying Arrhenius equation (0°C < T < 300°C) : (k and E a are
rate constant and activation energy, respectively)
Ea
(I)
Choose the correct option : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (10-01-19), 4/120]
(1) is right but II is wrong (2) Both and are wrong
(3) is wrong but is right (4) Both and are correct
K1 d[A]
19. For an elementary chemical reaction, A 2 2A the expression for
K-1 dt
[JEE(Main) 2019 Online (10-01-19), 4/120]
(1) 2k 1[A2]–k–1[A]2 (2) k 1[A2]+k–1[A]2 (3) k 1[A2]–k–1[A]2 (4) 2k 1[A2]–2k–1[A]2
20. If a reaction follows the Arrhenius equation the plot lnk vs 1/(RT) gives straight line with a gradient (–y)
unit . The energy required to activate the reactant is : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (11-01-19), 4/120]
(1) –y unit (2) y unit (3) y/R unit (4) yR unit
21. The reaction 2X B is a zeroth order reaction. If the intial concentration of X is 0.2 M, the half-life is 6
h. When the initial concentration of X is 0.5 M, the time required to reach its final concentration of 0.2 M
will be : [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (11-01-19), 4/120]
(1) 18.0 h (2) 12.0 h (3) 7.2 h (4) 9.0 h
22. Decomposition of X exhibits a rate constant of 0.05g/year. How many years are required for the
decomposition of 5 g of X into 2.5 g ? [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-01-19), 4/120]
(1) 40 (2) 25 (3) 20 (4) 50
23. For a reaction, consider the plot of ln k versus 1/T given in the figure. If the rate constant of this reaction
at 400 K is 10 –5 s–1, then the rate constant at 500 K is: [JEE(Main) 2019 Online (12-01-19), 4/120]
nk
Slope = –4606 K
1/T
(1) 10–4 s–1 (2) 4 × 10–4 s–1 (3) 2 × 10–4 s–1 (4) 10–6 s–1
Chemical Kinetics
EXERCISE - 1
PART - I
A-1. (a) 4.5 × 10 –3 M sec–1 ; (b) 3.0 × 10 –3 M sec –1 A-2. (a) 40.5 g min –1 ; (b) 76.5 g min –1
A-3. (a) 1.6 × 10 –2 atm min –1 ; (b) 1.09 × 10 –5 mol liter –1 sec –1
A-4. (a) 3; (b) Both rates are 3.6 × 10 3 mole dm 3s; (c) No effect; (d) Decreased by a factor of 8; No effect
10
B-1. (i) 9.994 M ; (ii) ; (iii) 5 × 10 6 min B-2. (a) 5 x 105 M/s ; (b) 4.2 x 10 5 M/s
2 (2 10 6 )
B-3. 0075. B-4. 1.73 time C-1. 1.25 104 min ; 2.5 104 min
D-1. (i) rate = [A] [B] ; (ii) k = 4 x 10 2M1s1 ; (iii) rate = 2.8 x 10 3M·s1
50
E-1. (i) 2.484 hr–1 ; (ii) min. E-2. 3.27 × 10–3 min–1
3
9 ln 2 14
E-3. 0.000844 sec –1 F-1. k1 = ; k2 = ln 2 F-2. Eoverall = E/3(2n+1)
2300 2300
G-1. (i) 2, 1 ; (ii) 2.67 × 10 8 mol–2 litre2 sec–1 ; (iii) 55.13 kJ mol –1 ; (iv) 1.147 × 10 18 mol –2 litre2 sec–1
H-4. (a) 2 B+F 2E; (b) A; (c) C,D; (d) rate = k [B][C]; (e) rate = k'[A][B] (f) 2.
PART - II
A-1. (A) A-2. (B) A-3. (D) A-4. (B) A-5. (B)
A-6. (C) A-7. (A) A-8. (D) B-1. (B) B-2. (C)
B-3. (C) B-4. (A) B-5. (A) B-6. (B) B-7. (D)
B-8. (B) B-9. (C) C-1. (D) C-2. (C) C-3. (D)
C-4. (C) C-5. (C) D-1. (B) D-2. (C) D-3. (B)
D-4. (B) D-5. (D) D-6. (C) D-7. (B) D-8. (B)
Chemical Kinetics
E-1. (C) E-2. (A) E-3. (C) E-4. (B) E-5. (B)
F-1. (B) F-2. (D) F-3. (D) F-4. (B) G-1. (B)
G-2. (D) G-3. (B) G-4. (C) G-5. (B) H-1. (D)
H-2. (A) H-3. (C) H-4. (C) H-5. (C) H-6. (B)
H-7. (A) I-1. (D) I-2. (A) I-3. (B) I-4. (C)
I-5. (B) I-6. (C) I-7. (A) I-8. (A) I-9. (D)
I-10. (D)
PART - III
1. (A r) ; (B s) ; (C q) ; (D p)
3. (A – r ; B – s ; C – p ; D – q)
EXERCISE - 2
PART – I
1. (C) 2. (C) 3. (A) 4. (B) 5. (B)
11. (C) 12. (A) 13. (B) 14. (A) 15. (A)
16. (D) 17. (A) 18. (C) 19. (A) 20. (B)
PART – II
1. 1 2. Zero 3. 2 4. 54 5. 3
6. 50 7. 2 8. 2 9. 2
PART – III
1. (ABD) 2. (BCD) 3. (ABC) 4. (ABD) 5. (ABCD)
11. (ABC) 12. (CD) 13. (BC) 14. (ABCD) 15. (BC)
16. (AB)
PART – IV
1. (A) 2. (D) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (C)
EXERCISE - 3
PART – I
1. (D) 2. t = 4.62 × 10 9 years. 3. EA = 100 KJ/mol
7. (t1/2)1 = 33.68 hr–1, (t1/2)2 = 67.37 hr –1, (t1/2)3 = 29.77 hr –1. 8. (B) 9. (A)
10. (a) R0 = k[A0], (b) 0.5 sec –1. 11. 950 mm of Hg 12. (C) 13. (B)
PART – II
11. (4) 12. (3) 13. (2) 14. (3) 15. (4)
16. (2) 17. (2) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (2)
Marked questions are recommended for Revision.
Section (A): Matrix, Algebra of Matrix, Transpose, symmetric and skew symmetric
matrix,
x y 1 z 1 1 4
A-2. If = , find x, y, z, w.
2x y 0 w 0 0 5
1 2
4 5 6
A-4. If A = 3 4 and B = , will AB be equal to BA. Also find AB & BA.
5 6 7 8 2
3 4 7 12
A-5. If A = , then show that A3 =
1 1 3 5
0 tan
2 cos sin
A-6. If A = show that ( + A) = ( – A)
tan 0 sin cos
2
cos x sin x 0
A-7. Given F(x) = sin x cos x 0 . If x R Then for what values of y, F(x + y) = F(x) F(y).
0 0 1
1 4 6 0 2 3 1 7 9
A-9. If C = 7 2 5 –2 0 4 4 2 8 , then trace of C + C3 + C5 + ........ + C99 is
9 8 3 –3 –4 0 6 5 3
a b c a2
(ii) b c a b2 = (a + b + c) (a b) (b c) (c a)
c a b c2
bc a a
(iii) b c a b = 4 abc
c c ab
1 a2 a4 1 1 1
(iv) If 1 b2 b4 = (a + b) (b + c) (c + a) a b c .
2 4 2 2 2
1 c c a b c
B-4. If a, b, c are positive and are the p th, q th, r th terms respectively of a G.P., show without expanding that,
loga p 1
logb q 1 = 0.
logc r 1
S0 S1 S2
B-6. If Sr = r + r + r then show that S1 S2 S3 = ( )2 ( )2 ( )2.
S2 S3 S4
ex sin x
B-8. If = A + Bx + Cx2 + ....., then find the value of A and B.
cos x n(1 x)
2 1 5 2 2 5
C-1. If A = , B = 7 4 , C = 3 8 and AB – CD = 0 find D.
3 4
C-2. (i) Prove that (adj adj A) = |A|n–2 A
(ii) Find the value of |adj adj adj A| in terms of |A|
Matrices & Determinant
3 1 1 1 2 2
C-3. If A–1 = 15 6 5 & B = 1 3 0 , find (AB)–1
5 2 2 0 2 1
0 1 2 1/ 2 1/ 2 1/ 2
C-5. If A = 1 2 3 , A–1 = 4
3 c , then find values of a & c.
3 a 1 5 / 2 3 / 2 1/ 2
3 2
D-1. For the matrix A = find a & b so that A + aA + b = 0. Hence find A .
2 –1
1 1
D-2. Find the total number of possible square matrix A of order 3 with all real entries, whose adjoint matrix B
has characterstics polynomial equation as 3 – 2 + + 1 = 0.
1 1 2
D-3. If A = 0 2 1 , show that A3 = (5A – ) (A – )
1 0 2
3 2 3
D-10. Compute A1, if A = 2 1 1 Hence solve the matrix equations
4 3 2
3 0 3 x 8 2y
2 1 0 y 1 z .
4 0 2 z 4 3y
1 5 4 0
A-2. If A = 2 and B = 0
2 1 , then
3 1 3 2
5 8 0
(A) AB = 0 4 2 (B) AB = [– 2 – 1 4]
3 9 6
1
(C) AB = 1 (D) AB does not exist
1
A-6. If A = diag (2, 1, 3), B = diag (1, 3, 2), then A2B =
(A) diag (5, 4, 11) (B) diag ( 4, 3, 18) (C) diag (3, 1, 8) (D) B
2 0
(Where is the (2 × 2) identity matrix), then the product of all elements of matrix V is
(A) 2 (B) 1 (C) 3 (D) –2
3x 2 (x 2)2 5x 22x
A-10. Let A = 1 , B = [a b c] and C = 5x
2
(x 1)2
2x
6x 2x 5x 2
(x 2)2
Where a, b, c and x R, Given that tr (AB) = tr(C), then the value of (a + b + c).
(A) 7 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4
a a
2 2
x
a x x
a x 1
b b
2 2
B-4. If a, b, c > 0 & x, y, z R, then the determinant y
b y y
b y 1 =
c c
2 2
z
c z z
c z 1
b2c 2 bc b c
B-5. If a, b & c are non-zero real numbers, then D = c 2a 2 ca c a =
a2b 2 ab a b
(A) abc (B) a2 b2 c2 (C) bc + ca + ab (D) zero
b1 c1 c1 a1 a1 b1
B-6. The determinant b2 c 2 c 2 a2 a2 b2 =
b3 c 3 c 3 a3 a 3 b3
a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1 a1 b1 c1
(A) a2 b2 c2 (B) 2 a2 b2 c2 (C) 3 a2 b2 c2 (D) none of these
a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3 a3 b3 c3
x xy xyz
B-7. If x, y, z R & = 2x 5x 2y 7x 5y 2z = 16 then value of x is
3x 7x 3y 9x 7y 3z
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 3
1 2 1 0
C-4. Let A = and B = 0 2 and X be a matrix such that A = BX, then X is equal to
3 5
1 2 4 1 2 4 2 4
(A) 3 5 (B) 3 5 (C) (D) none of these
2 2 3 5
–1 2 –3
C-5. Let A = –2 0 3 be a matrix, then (det A) x (adj A– 1) is equal to
3 –3 1
(A) O3 × 3 (B) 3
–1 2 –3 3 –3 1
(C) –2 0 3 (D) 3 0 –2
3 –3 1 –1 2 –3
C-6. If D is a determinant of order three and is a determinant formed by the cofactors of determinant D ;
then following statement is True/False
(i) = D2 (ii) D = 0 implies = 0
(iii) if D = 27, then is perfect cube (iv) if D = 27, then is perfect square
(A) FTTT (B) TFTT (C) TTTT (D) TTFT
Section (D) : Characteristic equation and system of equations
1 0 2
D-1. If A = 0 2 1 is a root of polynomial x – 6x2 + 7x + k = 0, then the value of k is
2 0 3
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) –2 (D) 1
a b
(where bc 0) satisfies the equations x + k = 0, then
D-2 If A = 2
c d
(A) a + d = 0 & k = |A| (B) a – d = 0 & k = |A|
(C) a + d = 0 & k = –|A| (D) a + d 0 & k = |A|
(b c) 2 a2 a2
9
(D) If b2 (c a)2 b2 = k abc (a + b + c)3 (s) –
8
c2 c2 (a b) 2
3 4
2. If X = , then value of X is, (where n is natural number)
n
1 1
3n 4n 2 n 5 n 3n ( 4)n 2n 1 –4n
(A) (B) (C) n (D)
n n n n 1 ( 1)n n –(2n – 1)
4. Find number of all possible ordered sets of two (n × n) matrices A and B for which AB – BA =
5. If B, C are square matrices of order n and if A = B + C, BC = CB, C 2 = O, then which of following is true
for any positive integer N.
(A) AN+1 = B N (B + (N + 1) C) (B) AN = BN (B + (N + 1) C)
N+1
(C) A = B (B + (N + 1) C) (D) A N+1 = B N (B + (N + 2) C)
6. How many 3 × 3 skew symmetric matrices can be formed using numbers –2, –1, 1, 2, 3, 4, 0 (any
number can be used any number of times but 0 can be used at most 3 times)
(A) 8 (B) 27 (C) 64 (D) 54
8. Number of 3 × 3 non symmetric matrix A such that AT = A2 – and |A| 0, equals to
(A) 0 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) Infinite
9. Matrix A is such that A2 = 2A – , where is the identity matrix. Then for n 2, An =
(A) nA – (n – 1) (B) nA – (C) 2n – 1 A – (n – 1) (D) 2n – 1 A –
3 1
1 1
10. If P = 2 2 ,A=
0 1 and Q = PAP and x = P Q P, then x is equal to
T T 2005
1 3
2 2
1 2005 4 2005 3 6015
(A) 0 (B)
1 2005 4 2005 3
1 2 3 1 1 2005 2 3
(C) (D)
4 1 2 3 4 2 3 2005
1 a2 a4 1 ab a2b 2 1 ac a2 c 2
12. = 1 ab a2b 2 1 b2 b4 1 bc b2 c 2 is equal to
1 ac a2c 2 1 bc b2c 2 1 c2 c4
(A) (a – b)2 (b – c)2 (c – a)2 (B) 2(a – b) (b – c) (c – a)
(C) 4(a – b) (b – c) (c – a) (D) (a + b + c)3
a2 1 ab ac
13. If D = ba b2 1 bc then D =
ca cb c 1
2
a3 x a 4 x a 5 x
14. Value of the = a5 x a6 x a 7 x is
a7 x a 8 x a 9 x
(A) 0 (B) (a3 – 1) (a6 – 1) (a9 – 1)
(C) (a3 + 1) (a6 + 1) (a9 + 1) (D) a15 – 1
Matrices & Determinant
2a b e f 2d e
15. If 1 = 2d e f , 2 = 2z 4x 2y , then the value of 1 – 2 is
4x 2y 2z e 2a b
y
(A) x + +z (B) 2 (C) 0 (D) 3
2
16. From the matrix equation AB = AC, we conclude B = C provided:
(A) A is singular (B) A is nonsingular (C) A is symmetric (D) A is a square
–2 7 3
17. Let A = 0 0 –2 and A4 = , then is
0 2 0
(A) – 16 (B) 16 (C) 8 (D) –8
18. If A is 3 × 3 square matrix whose characterstic polynomial equations is 3 – 32 + 4 = 0 then trace of
adjA is
(A) 0 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) – 3
a2 x 2 ab – cx ac bx x c –b
20. STATEMENT-1 : If A = ab xc b x bc ax and B = –c x
2 2
a , then |A| =|B|2.
ac – bx bc ax c 2 x 2 b –a x
STATEMENT-2 : If Ac is cofactor matrix of a square matrix A of order n then |Ac| = |A|n–1.
(A) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is correct explanation for
STATEMENT-1
(B) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is true and STATEMENT-2 is not correct explanation
for STATEMENT-1
(C) STATEMENT-1 is true, STATEMENT-2 is false
(D) STATEMENT-1 is false, STATEMENT-2 is true
(E) Both STATEMENTS are false
a 0 b x 0
21. Let A = 1 e 1 y = 0 where a,b, c, d, e {0, 1}
c 0 d z 0
then number of such matrix A for which system of equation AX = O have unique solution.
(A) 16 (B) 6 (C) 5 (D) none
INSTRUCTION :
The answer to each question is NUMERICAL VALUE with two digit integer and decimal upto two digit.
If the numerical value has more than two decimal places truncate/round-off the value to TWO decimal
placed.
(cosx
x
sinx ) , R is :
2. If A is a diagonal matrix of order 3 × 3 is commutative with every square matrix of order 3 × 3 under
multiplication and tr(A) = 10, then the value of |A| is :
3. A, is a (3×3) diagonal matrix having integral entries such that det(A) = 120, number of such matrices is
10n. Then n is :
bc c a ab
c
4. If c a ab bc > 0 , where a, b, c R+ , then is
ab
ab bc c a
a1 a2 a3
5. If a1, a2, a3 , 5, 4, a6, a7, a8, a9 are in H.P. and D = 5 4 a6 , then the value of D is
a7 a8 a9
a b 2c a b
6. If c b c 2a b = k(a + b + c)3 , then (2+)k is ( k z+)
c a c a 2b
7. If A is a square matrix of order 3 and A denotes transpose of matrix A, A A = and det A = 1, then
det (A – ) must be equal to
bc b2 bc c 2 bc
9. If a2 ac ac c 2 ac = 64, then (ab + bc + ac) is :
a2 ab b2 ab ab
n 1 5 N N
11. If Un = n2 2N 1 2N 1 and U
n 1
n =
n 1
n2 , then is
n 3
3N 2
3N 1
12. The absolute value of a for which system of equations, a3x + (a + 1)3y + (a + 2)3z = 0,
ax + (a + 1) y + (a + 2) z = 0, x + y + z = 0, has a nonzero solution is:
Matrices & Determinant
14. A1 = [ a1]
a a3
A 2= 2
a 4 a5
a6 a7 a8
A 3 a9 a10 a11 ......................An ........
a12 a13 a14
Where ar = [ log2r ] ([.] denotes greatest integer). Then trace of A10
13 3 3
1 2 3 4
1 2 5 4 3 , then is :
15. If ( A A ) = 17 10 1 for A =
2
7 11 5 7 2 9
2 0
16. Given A = 5 0 For R {a, b}, A –1 exists and A1 = A 2 5bA + cI, when = 1. The value of
0 3
a + b + c is :
17. Let a, b, c positive numbers. Find the number of solution of system of equations in x, y and z
x2 y2 z2 x2 y2 z2 x2 y2 z2
+ – = 1 ; – + = 1 ;– + + = 1 has finitely many solutions
a2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2 a2 b2 c2
1. Suppose a1, a2, a3 are in A.P. and b1, b2, b3 are in H.P. and let
a1 b1 a1 b2 a1 b3
= a2 b1 a2 b2 a2 b3 , then
a3 b1 a3 b2 a3 b 3
(A) is independent of a1, a2, a3, (B) a1 , a2 2, a3 3 are in A.P.
(C) b1 + , b2 + 2, b3 + are in H.P. (D) is independent of b1, b2, b3
cos – sin
2. Let = , X = , O is null maxtrix and is an identity matrix of order 2 × 2, and if
5 sin cos
+ X + X2 + ...... + Xn = O, then n can be
(A) 9 (B) 19 (C) 4 (D) 29
x 2y z z
3. If = y 2x z z , then
y 2y z 2x 2y z
(A) x – y is a factor of (B) (x – y)2 is a factor of
(C) (x – y)3 is a factor of (D) is independent of z
Matrices & Determinant
x a b
4. Let a, b > 0 and = b x a , then
a b x
(A) a + b – x is a factor of (B) x2 + (a + b)x + a2 + b2 – ab is a factor of
(C) = 0 has three real roots if a = b (D) a + b + x is a factor of
b c b c
5. The determinent = c d c d is equal to zero if
b c c d a3 c
(A) b, c, d are in A.P. (B) b, c, d are in G.P.
(C) b, c, d are in H.P. (D) is a root of ax3 – bx2 – 3cx – d = 0
a2(1 x) ab ac
6. The determinant = ab b2(1 x) bc is divisible by
ac bc c (1 x)
2
2sin x sin2x 0
8. Let f(x) = 1 2sin x sin2x , then
0 1 2sin x
(A) f(x) is independent of x (B) f(/2) = 0
/ 2
(C)
/ 2
f(x)dx 0 (D) tangent to the curve y = f(x) at x = 0 is y = 0
1/ x log x xn
9. Let f(x) = 1 1/ n ( 1)n , then (where fn(x) denotes nth derivative of f(x))
1 a a2
(A) f n (1) is indepedent of a
(B) f n (1) is indepedent of n
(C) f n(1) depends on a and n
(D) y = a(x - fn (1)) represents a straight line through the origin
10. Let A, B, C, D be real matrices such that A T = BCD ; B T = CDA ; C T = DAB and D T = ABC for the matrix
M = ABCD, then find M2016 ?
(A) M (B) M2 (C) M3 (D) M4
11. Let A and B be two 2 × 2 matrix with real entries. If AB = O and tr(A) = tr(B) = 0 then
(A) A and B are comutative w.r.t. operation of multiplication.
(B) A and B are not commutative w.r.t. operation of multiplication.
(C) A and B are both null matrices.
(D) BA = 0
1 1 0
12. If A –1 = 0 2 1 , then
0 0 1
(A) | A | = 2 (B) A is non-singular
1/ 2 1/ 2 0
(C) Adj. A = 1 1/ 2 (D) A is skew symmetric matrix
0
0 0 1/ 2
Matrices & Determinant
13. If A and B are square matrices of order 3, then the true statement is/are (where I is unit matrix).
(A) det ( A) = det A
(B) If AB is singular then atleast one of A or B is singular
(C) det (A + I) = 1 + det A
(D) det (2A) = 23 det A
15. If AX = B where A is 3 × 3 and X and B are 3×1 matrices then which of the following is correct?
(A) If |A| = 0 then AX = B has infinite solutions
(B) If AX = B has infinite solutions then |A| = 0
(C) If (adj(A)) B = 0 and |A| 0 then AX = B has unique solution
(D) If (adj(A)) B 0 & |A| = 0 then AX = B has no solution
0 1 b 1 1 1
16_. Let M = 1 2 d and adj M = 8 6 2
a c 1 5 3 e
than which of the following option is/are correct ?
(A) a + b + c + d + e = 8 (B) |M| = –2
(C) a = 3 (D) b = 3
2 3 6
17_. Let P = 6 2 3 , P PT is diagonal matrix, Trace of PTAP = 49, where in matrix A = [ aij ],
a b c
a11 + a22 = 0, a33 = 1, then which of the following statement is/are correct ?
(A) |Det(P)| = 343 (B) |a| + |b| + |c| = 11
(C) Tr(PPT) = 147 (D) APPT is diagonal matrix
a 1 0 a 1 1 f a 2 x
18^. If A 1 b d , B 0 d c , U
g,
V 0 ,X= y
1 b c f g h h 0 z
and AX = U has infinitely many solution. Then which of the following statement is/are correct
(A) BX = V has unique solution (B) BX = V has no unique solution
(C) if afd 0, then BX = V has no solution. (D) if afd 0, then BX = V has unique solution.
PART - IV : COMPREHENSION
Comprehension # 1
Let be the set of all 3×3 symmetric matrices whose entries are 1,1,1,0,0,0,–1, –1, –1. B is one of the
matrix in set and
x 0 1
X = y U = 0 V = 0 .
z 0 0
1. Number of such matrices B in set is , then lies in the interval
(A) (30, 40) (B) (38, 40) (C) (34, 38) (D) (25, 35)
Comprehension # 2
Some special square matrices are defined as follows :
Nilpotent matrix : A square matrix A is said to be nilpotent ( of order 2) if, A 2 = O. A square matrix is
said to be nilpotent of order p, if p is the least positive integer such that Ap = O.
Idempotent matrix : A square matrix A is said to be idempotent if, A2 = A.
1 0
e.g. is an idempotent matrix.
0 1
Involutory matrix : A square matrix A is said to be involutory if A2 = , being the identity matrix.
1 0
e.g. A = is an involutory matrix.
0 1
Orthogonal matrix : A square matrix A is said to be an orthogonal matrix if A A = = AA.
4. If A and B are two square matrices such that AB = A & BA = B, then A & B are
(A) Idempotent matrices (B) Involutory matrices
(C) Orthogonal matrices (D) Nilpotent matrices
0 2
5. If the matrix is orthogonal, then
1 1 1
(A) = ± (B) = ± (C) = ± (D) all of these
2 6 3
1 1 3
6. The matrix A = 5 2 6 is
2 1 3
(A) idempotent matrix (B) involutory matrix
(C) nilpotent matrix (D) none of these
1. The number of A in T p such that A is either symmetric or skew-symmetric or both, and det (A) divisible
by p is [IIT-JEE 2010, Paper-1, (3, –1), 84]
(A) (p – 1)2 (B) 2 (p – 1) (C) (p – 1)2 +1 (D) 2p – 1
2. The number of A in Tp such that the trace of A is not divisible by p but det (A) is divisible by p is
[Note : The trace of matrix is the sum of its diagonal entries.] [IIT-JEE 2010, Paper-1, (3, –1), 84]
(A) (p – 1)(p2 – p + 1) (B) p3 – (p – 1)2 (C) (p – 1)2 (D) (p – 1)(p2 – 2)
3. The number of A in Tp such that det (A) is not divisible by p is [IIT-JEE 2010, Paper-1, (3, –1), 84]
(A) 2p2 (B) p3 – 5p (C) p3 – 3p (D) p3 – p2
4. The number of all possible values of , where 0 < < , for which the system of equations
(y + z) cos 3 = (xyz) sin 3
2cos3 2 sin3
x sin 3 = +
y z
(xyz) sin 3 = (y + 2z) cos 3 + y sin 3
have a solution (x0, y0, z0) with y0 z0 0, is [IIT-JEE 2010, Paper-1, (3, 0), 84]
5. Let k be a positive real number and let [IIT-JEE 2010, Paper-2, (3, 0), 79]
2k 1 2 k 2 k 0 2k 1 k
A= 2k 1 2k and B = 1 2k 0 2 k . If det (adj A) + det (adj B) = 10 6, then
2 k 2k 1
k 2 k 0
[k] is equal to
(Note : adj M denotes the adjoint of a square matrix M and [k] denotes the largest integer less than or
equal to k].
6. Let M and N be two 2n × 2n non-singular skew-symmetric matrices such that MN = NM. If P T denotes
the transpose of P, then M2 N2 (MT N)–1 (MN–1)T is equal to [IIT-JEE 2011, Paper-1, (4, 0), 80]
(A) M2 (B) – N2 (C) – M2 (D) MN
Comprehension (7 to 9)
Let a, b and c be three real numbers satisfying
1 9 7
[a b c] 8 2 7 = [0 0 0] ...........(E)
7 3 7
7. If the point P(a, b, c), with reference to (E), lies on the plane 2x + y + z = 1, then the value of 7a + b + c
is [IIT-JEE 2011, Paper-1, (3, –1), 80]
(A) 0 (B) 12 (C) 7 (D) 6
8. Let be a solution of x 3 – 1 = 0 with m () > 0. if a = 2 with b and c satisfying (E), then the value of
3 1 3
+ b + c is equal to [IIT-JEE 2011, Paper-1, (3, –1), 80]
a
(A) – 2 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) – 3
9. Let b = 6, with a and c satisfying (E). If and are the roots of the quadratic equation ax 2 + bx + c = 0,
n
1 1
then
n0
is
[IIT-JEE 2011, Paper-1, (3, –1), 80]
6
(A) 6 (B) 7 (C) (D)
7
Matrices & Determinant
1 a b
10. Let 1 be a cube root of unity and S be the set of all non-singular matrices of the form, 1 c
2 1
where each of a, b and c is either or 2. Then the number of distinct matrices in the set S is
[IIT-JEE 2011, Paper-2, (3, –1), 80]
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 8
12. Let P = [aij] be a 3 × 3 matrix and let Q = [bij], where bij = 2 i+jaij for 1 i, j 3. If the determinant of P is 2,
then the determinant of the matrix Q is [IIT-JEE 2012, Paper-1, (3, –1), 70]
(A) 210 (B) 211 (C) 212 (D) 213
13. If P is a 3 × 3 matrix such that P = 2P + I, where P T is the transpose of P and I is the 3 × 3 identity
T
x 0
matrix, then there exists a column matrix X = y 0 such that
z 0
[IIT-JEE 2012, Paper-2, (3, –1), 66]
0
(A) PX = 0 (B) PX = X (C) PX = 2X (D) PX = – X
0
1 4 4
14*. If the adjoint of a 3 × 3 matrix P is 2 1 7 , then the possible value(s) of the determinant of P is
1 1 3
(are)
[IIT-JEE 2012, Paper-2, (4, 0), 66]
(A) –2 (B) –1 (C) 1 (D) 2
15.* For 3×3 matrices M and N, which of the following statement(s) is (are) NOT correct ?
[JEE (Advanced) 2013, Paper-1, (4, – 1)/60]
(A) NT M N is symmetric or skew symmetric, according as M is symmetric or skew symmetric
(B) M N – N M is skew symmetric for all symmetric matrices M and N
(C) M N is symetric for all symmetric matrices M and N
(D) (adj M) (adj N) = adj(MN) for all invertible matrices M and N
17*. Let M and N be two 3 × 3 matrices such that MN = NM. Further, if M N2 and M2 = N4, then
[JEE (Advanced) 2014, Paper-1, (3, 0)/60]
(A) determinant of (M2 + MN2) is 0
(B) there is a 3 × 3 non-zero matrix U such that (M2 + MN2)U is the zero matrix
(C) determinant of (M2 + MN2) 1
(D) for a 3 × 3 matrix U, if (M2 + MN2)U equals the zero matrix then U is the zero matrix
Matrices & Determinant
18*. Let X and Y be two arbitrary, 3 × 3, non-zero, skew-symmetric matrices and Z be an arbitrary 3 × 3,
non-zero, symmetric matrix. Then which of the following matrices is (are) skew symmetric ?
[JEE (Advanced) 2015, Paper-1 (4, –2)/88]
(A) Y3Z4 – Z4Y3 (B) X44 + Y44 (C) X4Z3 – Z3X4 (D) X23 + Y23
(1 )2 (1 2 )2 (1 3 )2
19*. Which of the following values of satisfy the equation (2 )2 (2 2 )2 (2 3 )2 = – 648 ?
(3 ) 2 (3 2 )2 (3 3 )2
[JEE (Advanced) 2015, Paper-1 (4, –2)/88]
(A) – 4 (B) 9 (C) – 9 (D) 4
3 1 2
20. Let P = 2 0 , where R. Suppose Q = [qij] is a matrix such that PQ = k , where k R, k 0
3 5 0
k k2
and is the identity matrix of order 3. If q23 = – and det (Q) = , then
8 2
[JEE (Advanced) 2016, Paper-1 (4, –2)/62]
(A) = 0, k = 8 (B) 4 – k + 8 = 0 (C) det (P adj (Q)) = 29 (D) det (Q adj (P)) = 213
x x2 1 x3
21. The total number of distinct x R for which 2x 4x 2 1 8x 3 = 10 is
2 3
3x 9x 1 27x
[JEE (Advanced) 2016, Paper-1 (3, 0)/62]
1 0 0
22.
Let P = 4 1 0 and be the identity matrix of order 3. If Q = [q ij] is a matrix such that P 50 – Q= ,
16 4 1
q q32
then 31 equals [JEE (Advanced) 2016, Paper-2 (3, –1)/62]
q21
(A) 52 (B) 103 (C) 201 (D) 205
23. Let a, , R. Consider the system of linear equations
ax + 2y =
3x – 2y = [JEE (Advanced) 2016, Paper-2 (4, –2)/62]
Which of the following statement(s) is(are) correct ?
(A) if a = – 3, then the system has infinitely many solutions for all values of and
(B) If a –3, then the system has a a unique solution for all values of and
(C) If + = 0, the the system has infinitely many solutions for a = –3
(D) If + 0, then the system has no solution for a = –3
24. Which of the following is(are) NOT the square of a 3 × 3 matrix with real entries?
[JEE(Advanced) 2017, Paper-1,(4, –2)/61]
1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0
(A) 0 1 0 (B) 0 1 0 (C) 0 1 0 (D) 0 1 0
0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1 0 0 1
25. For a real number , if the system [JEE(Advanced) 2017, Paper-1,(3, 0)/61]
1 2 x 1
1
1 y =
2 1 z 1
of linear equations, has infinitely many solutions, then 1 + + 2 =
26. How many 3 × 3 matrices M with entries from {0, 1, 2} are there, for which the sum of the diagonal
entries of MT M is 5 ? [JEE(Advanced) 2017, Paper-2,(3, –1)/61]
(A) 198 (B) 162 (C) 126 (D) 135
Matrices & Determinant
b1
27. Let S be the set of all column matrices b2 such that b1, b2, b2 R and the system of equation (in real
b3
variables)
– x + 2y + 5z = b1
2x – 4y + 3z = b2
x – 2y + 2z = b3
has at least one solution. Then, which of the following system(s) (in real variables) has (have) at least
b1
one solution for each b2 S ? [JEE(Advanced) 2018, Paper-2,(4, –2)/60]
b3
(A) x + 2y + 3z = b1, 4y + 5z = b2 and x + 2y + 6z = b3
(B) x + y + 3z = b1, 5x + 2y + 6z = b2 and – 2x – y – 3z = b3
(C) – x + 2y – 5z = b1, 2x – 4y + 10z = b2 and x – 2y + 5z = b3
(D) x + 2y + 5z = b1, 2x + 3z = b2 and x + 4y – 5z = b3
28. Let P be a matrix of order 3 × 3 such that all the entries in P are from the set {–1, 0, 1}. Then, the
maximum possible value of the determinant of P is _____ . [JEE(Advanced) 2018, Paper-2,(3, 0)/60]
sin 4 1 sin2 1
29. Let M = 2 I M
1 cos cos4
Where () and () are real numbers and is the 2 × 2 identity matrix.
If * = is the minimum of the set {a () : [0, 2]} and
* = is the minimum of the set {() : [0, 2)} [JEE(Advanced) 2019, Paper-1,(4, –1)/62]
Then the value of * + * is
37 29 31 17
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 16 16 16
0 1 a – 1 1 – 1
30. Let M = 1 2 3 and adj M = 8 – 6 2
3 b 1 – 5 3 – 1
where a and b are real numbers. Which of the following options is/are correct ?
(A) det(adj M2) = 81 (B) a + b = 3
1
(C) If M = 2 , then – + = 3 (D) (adj M)–1 + adj M–1 = – M
3
[JEE(Advanced) 2019, Paper-1,(4, –1)/62]
31. Let x R and let [JEE(Advanced) 2019, Paper-2 ,(4, –1)/62]
1 1 1 2 x x
P = 0 2 2 , Q = 0 4 0 and R = PQP–1 . Then which of the following is/are correct
0 0 3 x x 6
(A) there exists a real number x such that PQ= QP
2 x x
(B) det R = det 0 4 0 + 8 for all x R
x x 5
0
(C) For x = 1 there exists a unit vector î ĵ k̂ for which are R 0
0
1 1
(D) For x = 0 if R a = 6 a then a + b = 5
b b
Matrices & Determinant
1 0 0 1 0 0 0 1 0
32. Let P1 = = 0 1 0 , P2 = 0 0 1 , P3 = 1 0 0 ,
0 0 1 0 1 0 0 0 1
0 1 0 0 0 1 0 0 1
P4 = 0 0 1 , P5 = 1 0 0 , P6 = 0 1 0 ,
1 0 0 0 1 0 1 0 0
6 2 1 3
and X = Pk 1 0 2 PkT. [JEE(Advanced) 2019, Paper-2 ,(4, –1)/62]
k 1 3 2 1
Where PkT denotes the transpose of matrix Pk. Then which of the following options is/are correct ?
(A) X is a symmetric matrix
(B) The sum of diagonal entries of X is 18.
1 1
(C) If X 1 = 1 , then = 30
1 1
(D) X – 30 is an invertible matrix
2. Let A be a 2 × 2 matrix with non-zero entries and let A2 = I, where I is 2 × 2 identity matrix.
Tr(A) = sum of diagonal elements of A and |A| = determinant of matrix A. [AIEEE 2010 (4, –1), 144]
Statement -1 : Tr(A) = 0
Statement -2 : |A| = 1
(1) Statement -1 is true, Statement-2 is true ; Statement -2 is not a correct explanation for Statement -1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(3) Statement -1 is false, Statement -2 is true.
(4) Statement -1 is true, Statement -2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
3. Consider the system of linear equations : [AIEEE 2010 (4, –1), 144]
x1 + 2x2 + x3 = 3
2x1 + 3x2 + x3 = 3
3x1 + 5x2 + 2x3 = 1
The system has
(1) exactly 3 solutions (2) a unique solution (3) no solution (4) infinite number of solutions
4. Let A and B be two symmetric matrices of order 3. [AIEEE 2011, I, (4, –1), 120]
Statement-1 : A(BA) and (AB)A are symmetric matrices.
Statement-2 : AB is symmetric matrix if matrix multiplication of A with B is commutative.
(1) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for
Statement-1.
(2) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is true; Statement-2 is not a correct
explanation for Statement-1.
(3) Statement-1 is true, Statement-2 is false.
(4) Statement-1 is false, Statement-2 is true.
Matrices & Determinant
5. The number of values of k for which the linear equations [AIEEE 2011, I, (4, –1), 120]
4x + ky + 2z = 0
kx + 4y + z = 0
2x + 2y + z = 0
posses a non-zero solution is :
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) zero
0
6. If 1 is the complex cube root of unity and matrix H = , then H is equal to -
70
0
[AIEEE 2011, I, (4, –1), 120]
(1) 0 (2) – H (3) H2 (4) H
7. If the trivial solution is the only solution of the system of equations [AIEEE 2011, II, (4, –1), 120]
x – ky + z = 0
kx + 3y – kz = 0
3x + y – z = 0
then the set of all values of k is :
(1) R – {2, –3} (2) R – { 2 } (3) R – { –3 } (4) {2, –3}
1 0 0 1 0
9. Let A = 2 1 0 . If u1 and u2 are column matrices such that Au1 = 0 and Au2 = 1 , then u1 + u2 is
3 2 1 0 0
equal to : [AIEEE-2012, (4, –1)/120]
1 1 1 1
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 1 (4) 1
0 1 0 1
11. The number of values of k, for which the system of equations : [AIEEE - 2013, (4, – 1) 120 ]
(k + 1)x + 8y = 4k
kx + (k + 3)y = 3k – 1
has no solution, is
(1) infinite (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3
1 3
12. If P = 1 3 3 is the adjoint of a 3 × 3 matrix A and |A| = 4, then is equal to :
2 4 4
[AIEEE - 2013, (4, – 1) 120 ]
(1) 4 (2) 11 (3) 5 (4) 0
Matrices & Determinant
3 1 f(1) 1 f(2)
13. If , 0 and f(n) = n + n and 1 f(1) 1 f(2) 1 f(3) = K (1 – )2 (1 – )2 ( –)2 , then K is equal
1 f(2) 1 f(3) 1 f(4)
to [JEE(Main) 2014, (4, – 1), 120]
1
(1) 1 (2) –1 (3) (4)
14. If A is an 3 × 3 non-singular matrix such that AA = AA and B = A–1A, then BB equals :
1 2 2
15. If A = 2 1 –2 is a matrix satisfying the equation AA T = 9, where is 3 × 3 identity matrix, then the
a 2 b
ordered pair (a, b) is equal to : [JEE(Main) 2015, (4, – 1), 120]
(1) (2, – 1) (2) (–2, 1) (3) (2, 1) (4) (–2, – 1)
16. The set of all value of for which the system of linear equations : [JEE(Main) 2015, (4, –1), 120]
2x1 – 2x2 + x3 = x1
2x1 – 3x2 + 2x3 = x2
– x1 + 2x2 = x3
has a non-trivial solution,
(1) is an empty set (2) is a singleton
(3) contains two elements (4) contains more than two elements
17. The system of linear equations [JEE(Main) 2016, (4, –1), 120]
x + y – z = 0
x –y –z = 0
x +y – z = 0
has a non-trivial solution for :
(1) Exactly one value of . (2) Exactly two values of .
(3) Exactly three values of . (4) Infinitely many values of .
5a – b T
18. If A = and A adj A = A A , then 5a + b is equal to [JEE(Main) 2016, (4, –1), 120]
3 2
(1) 5 (2) 4 (3) 13 (4) – 1
19. It S is the set of distinct values of ‘b’ for which the following system of linear equations
x+y+z=1 [JEE(Main) 2017, (4, –1), 120]
x + ay + z = 1
ax + by + z = 0
has no solution, then S is :
(1) an empty set (2) an infinite set
(3) a finite set containing two or more elements (4) a singleton
2 – 3 2
20. If A = , then adj (3A + 12A) is equal to [JEE(Main) 2017, (4, –1), 120]
– 4 1
72 – 84 51 63 51 84 72 – 63
(1) (2) (3) (4)
– 63 51 84 72 63 72 – 84 51
Matrices & Determinant
21. If the system of linear equations [JEE(Main) 2018, (4, –1), 120]
x + ky + 3z = 0
3x + ky – 2z = 0
2x + 4y – 3z = 0
xz
has a non-zero solution (x, y, z), then is equal to :
y2
(1) – 30 (2) 30 (3) –10 (4) 10
x 4 2x 2x
22. If 2x x 4 2x = (A + Bx) (x–A)2 then the ordered pair (A, B) is equal to :
2x 2x x4
[JEE(Main) 2018, (4, –1), 120]
(1) (–4, 5) (2) (4, 5) (3) (–4, –5) (4) (–4, 3)
23. The system of linear equations [JEE(Main) 2019, Online (09-01-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
x+y+z=2
2x + 3y + 2z = 5
2x + 3y + (a2 – 1)z = a + 1
(1) is inconsistent when a = 4 (2) has infinitely many solutions for a = 4
(3) is inconsistent when |a| = 3 (4) has a unique solution for |a| = 3
cos sin
, then the matrix A when =
–50
24. If A = , is equal to :
sin cos 12
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (09-01-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
1 3 3 1 3 1 1 3
(1) 2 2 (2) 2 2 (3) 2 2 (4) 2 2
3 1 1 3 1 3 3 1
2 2
2 2 2 2 2 2
2 4d (sin 2)
25.
Let d R, and A = 1 (sin ) 2 d , [0, 2]. If the minimum value of det(A) is 8,
5 (2 sin) d ( sin ) 2 2d
then a value of d is : [JEE(Main) 2019, Online (10-01-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
(1) –5 (2) 2( 2 + 2) (3) 2( 2 +1) (4) –7
0 2q r
26. Let A = p q – r . If AAT = 3, then |p| is [JEE(Main) 2019, Online (11-01-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
p – q r
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 6 2
cos – sin 0 – 1
27. Let A = , ( R) such that A 32 . Then a value of is :
sin cos 1 0
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (08-04-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
(1) (2) (3) 0 (4)
16 32 64
1 1 1 2 1 3 1 n – 1 1 78 1 n
28. If . . ............... , then the inverse of is :
0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1 0 1
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (09-04-19),P-1 (4, – 1), 120]
1 0 1 0 1 – 12 1 – 13
(1) (2) (3) (4)
12 1 13 1 0 1 0 1
Matrices & Determinant
0 2y 1
30. The total number of matrices A 2x y 1 , (x, yR, x y) for which ATA = 3I3 is :
2x y 1
[JEE(Main) 2019, Online (09-04-19),P-2 (4, – 1), 120]
(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 6 (4) 2
33. Let A = [aij] and B = [bij] be two 3 × 3 real matrices such that bij = (3)(i + j – 2)aji, where i, j = 1, 2, 3. If the
determinant of B is 81, then the determinant of A is:
[JEE(Main) 2020, Online (07-01-20),P-2 (4, –1), 120]
(1) 1/9 (2) 1/81 (3) 3 (4) 1/3
Matrices & Determinant
EXERCISE - 1
PART - I
Section (A):
1 0
3 2 2 –1/ 2
A-1. A-2. (x, y, z, w) = (1, 2, 4, 5) A-3. 4
–1
5 4
18 11 10
49 24
A-4. AB = 16 47 10 , BA = A-7. yR A-9. Zero
62 23 42 7 58
Section (B) :
3
B-1. 0, , B-2. (i) 0 (ii) 0 (iii) 0 (iv) 5(3 2 5 3)
4
B-5. (i) x = 2 b/a (ii) 4 B-8. A = 0, B = 0
Section (C) :
9 3 5
191 110 3
2 1 0
C-1. 77 C-2. (ii) | A |(n 1) C-3. C-5. a = 1, c = – 1
44
1 0 2
Section (D) :
1 2
D-1. a = – 4, b = 1, A–1 = D-2. 0
1 3
5k 8 2k 1
D-4. (i) x = 3, y = 4, z = 6 (ii) x= – , y =– – , z = k, where k R
3 3 3 3
D-5. x = 7, y = 4
1 4
D-6. for c = 0, x = 3, y = 3; for c = 10, x = ,y=
2 3
D-7. (i) x = 2, y = 2, z = 2 (ii) x = 1, y = 3, z = 5
D-9. x = 3, y = – 2, z = – 1
1 5 1
1
D-10. x = 1, y = 2, z = 3, A = –1
8 6 9
17
10 1 7
D-11. S1, S3, S4
PART - II
Section (A):
A-1. (A) A-2. (D) A-3. (A) A-4. (A) A-5. (C) A-6. (B) A-7. (C)
A-8. (A) A-9. (A) A-10. (A) A-11. (A)
Section (B) :
B-1. (B) B-2. (A) B-3. (D) B-4. (D) B-5. (D) B-6. (B) B-7. (C)
B-8. (B) B-9. (B)
Matrices & Determinant
Section (C) :
C-1. (A) C-2. (C) C-3. (A) C-4. (A) C-5. (C) C-6. (C)
Section (D) :
D-1. (A) D-2 (A) D-3. (D) D-4. (B) D-5. (C)
PART - III
1. (A) (s), (B) (p), (C) (p), (D) (p)
2. (A) (q), (B) (p), (C) (s), (D) (q)
EXERCISE - 2
PART – I
1. (D) 2. (D) 3. (C) 4. (D) 5. (A) 6. (C) 7. (A)
8. (A) 9. (A) 10. (A) 11. (B) 12. 13. (A) 14. (A)
15. (C) 16. (B) 17. (B) 18. (A) 19. (A) 20. (A) 21. (B)
22. (A)
PART - II
1. 02.00 2. 37.03 or 37.04 3. 36.00 4. 00.50 5. 02.38 6. 16.00
7. 00.00 8. 63.00 9. 04.00 10. 22.92 or 22.93 11. 02.00
12. 01.00 13. 03.14 14. 80.00 15. 39.00 16. 12.20 17. 08.00
PART - III
1. (ABCD) 2. (ABD) 3. (AB) 4. (ABC) 5. (BD) 6. (AC)
7. (BCD) 8. (BCD) 9. (ABD) 10. (BD) 11. (AD) 12. (BC)
13. (ABD) 14. (AC) 15. (BCD) 16. (AB) 17. (ABC) 18. (BC)
PART - IV
1. (AC) 2. (AC) 3. (AC) 4. (A) 5. (D) 6. (C)
EXERCISE - 3
PART - I
1. (D) 2. (C) 3. (D) 4. 3 5. 4
6. C (In JEE this question was bonus because in JEE instead of 2n × 2n, 3 × 3 was given and we know
that there is no non-singular 3×3 skew symmetric matrix).
7. (D) 8. (A) 9. (B) 10. (A) 11. 9 12. (D) 13. (D)
14. (AD) 15. (CD) 16. (CD) 17. (AB) 18. (C,D) 19. (B,C) 20. (B,C)
21. 2 22. (B) 23. (B,C,D) 24. (A,C) 25. (1) 26. (A) 27. (AD)
28. (4) 29. (B) 30. (BCD) 31. (BD) 32. (ABC)
PART - II
1. (3) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1)
8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (4)
15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (3) 18. (1) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (4)
22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (2) 25. (1) 26. (4) 27. (4) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (1) 33. (1)
Matrices & Determinant
3. If a1, a2, a3 are distinct real roots of the equation px3 + px2 + qx + r = 0 such that
1 a1 1 1
r
1 1 a2 1 = 0, then Prove that <0
p
1 1 1 a3
x1 x 2 y1 y 2
2 2
a2 x1 y1 1
2
x 2 x3 y 2 y3
2 2
6. If b2 , prove that 4 x2 y2 1 = (a + b + c) (b + c a) (c + a b)(a + b c).
2
x 3 x1 y 3 y 1 c x3 y3 1
2 2
9. If , be the real roots of ax2+ bx+c = 0 and sn= n + n, then prove that asn + bsn–1 + csn–2 = 0 for all
3 1 s1 1 s2
n 2, n N. Hence or otherwise prove that 1 s1 1 s2 1 s3 > 0 for all real a, b, c.
1 s 2 1 s3 1 s 4
Matrices & Determinant
1 1 1
a a (a d) (a d) (a 2d)
10. Let a > 0, d > 0. Find the value of determinant 1 1 1
(a d) (a d) (a 2d) (a 2d) (a 3 d)
1 1 1
(a 2d) (a 2d) (a 3 d) (a 3 d) (a 4 d)
11. Let a r xr ˆi yr jˆ zr k,
ˆ r = 1, 2, 3 be three mutually perpendicular unit vectors, then find the value of
x1 x2 x3
y1 y2 y3
z1 z2 z3
xk xk 2 xk 3
1 1 1
12. If yk yk 2 yk 3 = (x y) (y z) (z x) , then find the value of k.
x y z
zk zk 2 zk 3
a p x u f
13. If the determinant b q m y v g splits into exactly K determinants of order 3, each
c r n z w h
element of which contains only one term, then find the value of K =
a a3 a4 1
14. If a, b, c are all different and b b3 b 4 1 = 0, then find the value of abc (ab + bc + ca) – (a + b + c).
c c3 c 4 1
0 b c
15. If a, b, c are complex numbers and z = b 0 a then show that z is purely imaginary.
c a 0
f(x)g(x) [f(x)] g( x ) 1
2 2 2 g( x2)
16. If f(x) = log10x and g(x) = eix and h(x) = f(x )g(x ) [f(x )] 0 , then find the value of h(10).
3 3 3 g( x3)
f(x )g(x ) [f(x )] 1
a 1 2i 3 5i
17. If a, b, c, are real numbers, and D = 1 2i b 7 3i then show that D is purely real.
3 5i 7 3i c
1 a 1
18. If A then find nlim A n
0 1 n
cos 9 sin 9
19. Let P = and be non-zero real numbers such that p6 + p3 +
– sin cos
9 9
is the zero matrix. Then find value of (2 2
2 )( – )( – )( – )
20. Consider an odd order square symmetric matrix A = [a i j ]nxn. It's element in any row are 1, 2, ......, n in
some order, then prove that a11, a22, ..........., ann are numbers 1, 2, 3, ......, n in some order.
Matrices & Determinant
1 1 1 2 –1 –1
21. Let A = 1 1 1
; B = –1 2 –1 and C = 3A + 7B
1 1 1 –1 –1 2
Prove that
(i) (A + B)2013 = A2013 + B2013
(ii) Prove that An = 3n – 1 A ; Bn = 3n – 1 B ; Cn = 32n – 1 A + 7.21n – 1 B.
22. Let 'A' is (4×4) matrix such that sum of elements in each row is 1. Find out sum of all the elements in
A10.
x x x
23.
Let A = x x x , then prove that A–1 exists if 3x + 0, 0
x x x
24. Prove that if A and B are n × n matrices, then det (n – AB) = det (n – BA).
25. Let A be an n × n matrix such that An = A where is a real number different from 1 and – 1. Prove that
the matrix A + n is invertible.
26. Let p and q be real numbers such that x 2 + px + q 0 for every real number x. Prove that if n is an odd
positive integer, then X2 + pX + qn 0n for all real matrices X of order n × n.
27. Let A, B, C be three 3 × 3 matrices with real entries. If BA + BC + AC = and det(A + B) = 0 then find
the value of det(A + B + C – BAC).
1 1
z z 2 z1 z2 12 0
28. If |z1| = |z2| = 1, then prove that 1 =
z2 z1 z
2 z1 0
1
2
29. If A and B are two square matrices such that B = –A–1 BA, then show that (A +B)2 = A2 + B2
30. If the system of equations x = cy + bz, y = az + cx and z = bx + ay has a non-zero solution and at least
one of a, b, c is a proper fraction, prove that a3 + b3 + c3 < 3 and abc > – 1.
31. If D = diag {d1, d2,........., dn}, then prove that f(D) = diag {f(d1), f(d2),........, f(dn)}, where f(x) is a
polynomial with scalar coefficient.
–1 3 5
32. Given the matrix A = 1 3 5 and X be the solution set of the equation Ax = A, where
1 3 5
x3 1
x N – {1}. Evaluate ; where the continued product extends x X.
x 3–1
Comprehension (Q. NO. 33 to 35)
Any non-zero vector, X, is said to be characteristic vector of a matrix A, if there exist a number such
that AX = X. And then is said to be a charactristic root of the matrix A corresponding to the
characteristic vector X and vice versa.
Also AX = X (A – )X = 0
Since X 0 |A – | = 0
Thus every characteristic root of a matrix A is a root of its characteristic equation.
33. Prove that the two matrices A and –1
P AP have the same characteristic roots and hence show that
square matrices AB & BA have same characteristic roots if at least one of them is invertible.
|A|
34. If q is a characteristic root of a non singular matrix A, then prove that is a characteristic root of a
q
adj A.
Matrices & Determinant
35. Show that if 1, 2, ........, n are n characteristic roots of a square matrix A of order n, then the roots of
the matrix A2 be 12, 22,......... n2.
36. IF threre are three square matrices A, B, C of same order satisying the equation3 =
A A–1 and let
n (n 4)
B A 3 and C A 3 then prove that det(B + C) = 0, n N
y a b c
(ii)
If the matrix A = a yb c has rank 3, then y – (a + b + c) and y 0
a b y c
(iii) If A & B are two square matrices of order 3 such that rank of matrix AB is two, then atleast one
of A & B is singular.
4d 4
7. 3 10. 11. 1 12. k=1
a(a d) (a 2d) 3 (a 3 d)2 (a 4 d)
2
0 a
13. 8 14. 0 16. 0 18. 0 0 19. 1
22. 4 27. 0