Comprehension Passages

1. Read the passage given below:

1. Detachment is not physically renouncing our possessions, profession, home and family as many
of us think. It is the ability to let go of all the desires, habits, emotions, thoughts, speech and
behaviour patterns that are negative or detrimental to our well-being in any way. Detachment and
discrimination are inter-dependent; they mutually strengthen each other and empower us. The
more we are able to discriminate, the more we are able to segregate our harmful desires and
discard them. The more mental trash we discard this way, the more we empower our faculty of
discrimination.
2. There is a simple technique we can all practice to strengthen our discrimination and detachment
and get rid of unnecessary desires. This will generate the awareness we need to control our senses
and mind and make them stop churning out desires every moment. To practice this technique, we
should select a quiet place when we have some leisure time.
3. Sit down with a few sheets of paper and a pen or a computer and make two lists. In the first list,
understand and write down your most important goal or agenda in this life. Then meticulously
add all the other goals that you would like to achieve. While you make this list, you shouldn’t
think only about yourself. Include what you would like to contribute for the welfare of your
dependents, children and their forthcoming generations.
4. Once you complete this, set it aside and begin the second list. List all your desires here. They may
be big or small, important or insignificant, right or wrong, demonic or divine. Just remove the lid
on the Pandora’s Box and allow them all to spill out freely. Don’t try to censor or edit the list of
desires at this stage. Complete the list first. After you have made an exhaustive list, go over it to
see which of these desires are truly necessary, conducive to your meditation, helpful and
favourable to you and beneficial to others.
5. If you have been serious and honest in doing this exercise, you will have long lists of goals and
desires and many of them may be selfish or detrimental to your goal of meditation, visualisation,
self-realisation, peace, happiness and bliss. This exercise will help you develop frankness and
honesty with yourself. You will touch your true feelings and bring many of your hidden
ambitions and desires into the open.
1.1. On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following questions by choosing
the most appropriate answer.
i. According to the passage, detachment is _________
a. not physically renouncing of material things.
b. physically renouncing of all the material things
c. attachment to the family
d. none of the above
ii. According to the passage, detachment is the ability__ __
a. to let go all the negative desires b. to focus on mental health
c. to be away from negativity d. all of the above
iii. According to the passage, our behavior pattern affects ________
a. our well-being b. our mental health
c. our happiness d. all of the above
iv. Detachment and discrimination _______
a. are inter-dependent b. don’t strengthen each other
c. don’t empower us d. are independent
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 v. According to the passage, developed faculty of discrimination __ _____
a. helps in discarding negative thoughts b. is detrimental to our well-being
c. does not help in segregating negative thoughts d. none of the above
vi. According to the passage, to get rid of unnecessary desires we need _______
a. strong faculty of discrimination b. will power
c. medication d. meditation
vii. The faculty of discrimination can be strengthened _______
a. by discarding positive thoughts b. by discarding mental trash
c. by reading good books d. by medication
viii. To practice the strengthening, the faculty of discrimination and detachment we need ___ _
a. quite place and leisure time b. few sheets of papers and a pen
c. both a & b d. none of the above
ix. According to the passage, in the first list, we should write _____ _
a. the most important goal or agenda of life b. our desires
c. our negative thoughts d. none of the above
x. In the second list, we should write ________
a. all our desires b. the most important goal of our life
c. our suppressed wish d. none of the above
xi. According to the passage, the exercise will help us ________
a. to develop frankness and honesty with ourselves
b. to touch our true feelings and bring many of your hidden ambitions and desires into the open.
c. both of the above d. none of the above
xii. Pick out the word from para 1 that means the same as ‘damaging’.
a. detrimental b. detachment c. discrimination d. meticulously

2. Read the following passage carefully:

6. Storytelling, songs, festivals and initiations are just some of the many ways people of the past tried
to preserve their traditions and memories. People marked items as a means of passing information
to others, this included marking of stone, indents in clay, knotted lengths of cord and scratching
plates of lead, copper and wood using iron.
7. Babylonians wrote astronomical observations on bricks of clay. According to the testimony of
ancient historian Hellanicus, the first recorded handwritten letter (epistle) was by Persian Queen
Atossa, daughter of Syrus, mother of Xerxes, around 500 BC.
8. The leaves of plants and the bark of trees advanced the use of writing. The linden tree was
particularly good because the bark could be folded just like a letter. Egyptian papyrus made
possible the ancient libraries of Alexandria and Pergamum. The Roman Emperor Claudius
developed a new stronger type of cross-layered papyrus which was not damaged by the use of the
calamus (reed).
9. Papyrus became so popular a writing material that law was introduced preventing it leaving its
country of origin in the East. This caused a shortage of papyrus in the West which led to the
introduction of new writing materials, vellum and parchment produced from animal skins. Saxons
of the dark ages used the bark of the beech tree, called back whence comes the word ‘book’.
10. The style (pen) used in ancient times was made from wood, metal or a bone shaped to a point. A
reed was used on papyrus and parchment dipped in Indian/Chinese ink, made from the secretion of
cuttlefish. The 5th century saw the use of (goose) quills in Saxon, England.
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 11. Lead pencils were used in ancient Greece but only as a temporary marker to be rubbed out later. It
wasn’t until the 14th century that pencils made from a lead composite became popular and in
common use for writing implement.
12. About the 10th century from the Far East to the West came cotton paper which was in common use
by the 12th century. A great advance in writing material came in the 14th century with the
introduction of paper made from linen rags. This method of making paper continued for several
hundred years.
2.1. On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following questions by choosing the
most appropriate answer.
i. People of the past tried to preserve their tradition and memories through _______
a. storytelling b. songs c. festivals d. all of the above
ii. Which one of the following items was not used for passing information?
a. books b. stones c. clay d. wood
iii. According to the passage, the Babylonians used to write
astronomical observations on ___ __
a. bricks of clay b. barks c. copper plates d. none of the above
iv. According to the passage, writing was advanced by the use of ________
a. bark of trees b. leaves c. both of the above d. none of the above
v. What is Papyrus?
a. a water plant b. a stone c. reed d. none of the above
vi. Which one of the following writing material was not produced from the trees?
a. The linden tree b. Egyptian Papyrus c. Vellum d. beech leaves
vii. According to the passage, what caused the shortage of papyrus in the west?
a. excess demand b. ban on supply from the east
c. less home production d. none of the above
viii. According to the passage, the pen used in ancient times was not made from_______
a. wood b. metal c. bone d. plastic
ix. According to the passage, the ink in the ancient time was made of ____________
a. secretion of cuttlefish b. goose quills
c. both of the above d. none of the above
x. Lead pencils became popular as a writing implement in the _______
a. 15th century b. 14th century c. 13th century d. 19th century
xi. Pick out the word from para 1 that means the same as ‘save’.
a. preserve b. testimony c. papyrus d. calamus
xii. Pick out the word from para 6 that means the opposite of ‘permanent’.
a. temporary b. prevent c. parchment d. composite

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3. Read the passage given below and complete the sentences that follow:
1. Broadly speaking, Reading Comprehension (RC) passages can be classified into a few categories. Fact
based RC is the simplest form of RC. These types of passages have a lot of information in the form of
names, numbers, etc. In this type of passages one should read very fast.
2. Inference based RC is the toughest form of RC. Here the passage is fairly tough to understand. This
includes passages on topics like Religion, Spirituality, Philosophy, etc. Most of the students will not be
comfortable attempting these passages at least in RC. The reading speed is fairly slow in this type of
passages. The way to master this type of passages is to read them again and again while practicing.
3. Topic based RC includes passages on any particular topic like economics, astrology, medical science,
etc. Generally what makes these passages tough is usage of technical terms. If a topic is new to us then
the presence of technical terms scares us even if they are defined in the passage. For success in this type
of passages we need to have an understanding of the definition of the term if it is defined in the
passage. Read that definition twice if you need to. But don’t worry about technical terms if they are not
defined in the passage. Assume them to be non- existent and proceed. The key principle in tackling
these passages is not to go to the next line unless the previous line is clear.
4. Reading the passage first and then questions is the most popular strategy for RC. While answering the
question you may come back to the passage to find answer as you have just read the passage initially
and not crammed it. But you should not come back for each and every question. If you come back for
majority of questions then you haven’t read the passage properly. The key to success for this strategy is
that you should understand the passage very well. We will suggest students to follow this technique
from the beginning and work upon this.
5. Reading questions first and then the passage is the strategy followed by a few students. They just look
at the questions and not options. The objective is that after seeing the questions when you read the
passage then you read only that part carefully where the answer is given. The flaw with this is that you
will not be able to remember all the questions.
6. Besides this, this strategy fails when there are questions that require understanding of the passage.
3.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.
i) Most students find Reading Comprehension difficult because…………………
(i) the language is tough (ii) the vocabulary is difficult
(iii) the style is too involved (iv) the topics are unrelated to their interest
ii) Choose the option that describes the central idea in the following quotes.
I. II. III. IV.
Once you learn to The more that you read, To learn to read is to Comprehension is
read, you are the more things you will light a fire; every the goal between
forever free. know. The more that you syllable that is spelled the reader and the
- Frederick learn, the more places out is a spark. –Victor text. - Unknown
Douglas you’ll go. - Dr.Seuss. Hugo
i) Option I ii) Option II iii) Option III iv) Option IV
iii) Which of the characteristics given below are apt in the case of fact based reading
comprehensions?
1. simple 2. dull 3. Brief
4. Informative 5. for fast reading 6. fact based
i) 2 and 3 ii) 4 and 6 iii) 2 and 5 iv) 4 and 1
iv) Suggest an appropriate title for the passage from the following:
i) Reading writing and arithmetic ii) Tackling reading comprehension
iii) How to read and comprehend iv) Read, comprehend and answer.
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 v) The phrase ‘toughest form of reference to context’ refers to passage that are
i) tough to understand ii) tough to read
iii) tough to answer iv)tough to define
vi) Select the sentence that makes the correct use of word ‘passage’, as used in given text, to
fill in the black spaces.
i) The cricket team was ...................... through India on their way to New Zealand.
ii) The dictation .................. was very tough.
iii) The pupil has the class x examination
iv) Only trucks with the medical supplies were through the bombed city.
vii) The author tries to the readers in this passage
(i)inform (ii)infer (iii)intimidate (iv) intuit
viii) The author of the passage uses the abbreviation ‘RC’ to describe reading comprehension.
Pick the word which is not a standard abbreviation.
ix) DIY ii)abbrev iii)ASOP iv)ASAP
ix) The word ‘inference’ in para 2 means ...................
a. similar ii)same iii) conclusion iv)assumption
x) What does the phrase ‘most popular strategy’ means?
a. a commonly adopted plan for answers ii)a sharp plan to solve answers
iii)an easy plan to write answers iv)a tested method of writing answers
xi) Choose the option that correctly states the use of the most popular strategy for answering
Reference to Context questions.
a. read question first and then the passage
b. read passage first and the questions
c. understand the passage and then answer questions
d. read only part of the passage which pertains to the question asked.
xii) The main thrust of this passage is on........................
a. types of reference to context passage
b. methods of tackling questions in reference to context
c. Strategise reading and answering of reference to context
d. choose a personal style for reference to context work

4. Read the following passage carefully:

1. I have often thought it would be a blessing if each human being was stricken blind and deaf for a few
days at some time during his adult life. Darkness would make him more appreciative of sight, silence
would teach him the joy of sound. Now and then I have tested my seeing friends to discover what they
see. Recently I asked a friend, who had just returned from a long walk in the woods, what she has
observed. "Nothing in particular," she replied.
2. How was it possible I asked myself to walk for an hour through the woods and see nothing worthy of
note. I, who cannot see find hundreds of things to interest me through mere touch. I feel the delicate
symmetry of leaf. I pass my hands lovingly about the smooth skin of a silver birch or the rough, shaggy
bark of a pine. In spring I touch the branches of trees hopefully in search of a bud, the first sign of
awakening nature after her winter's sleep. Occasionally if I am fortunate and place my hand gently on a
small tree and feel the happy quiver of a bird in full song.
3. At times my heart cries out with longing to see all these things. If I can get so much pleasure from mere
touch, how much more beauty must be revealed by sight.

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 4. And I have imagined what I should must like to see if I were given the use of my eyes, say, just for
three days.
5. I should divide the period into three parts. On the first day, I should want to see the people whose
kindness and gentleness and companionship have made my life worth living. First I would like to gaze
upon the face of my dear teacher, Mr. Anne Sullivan Macy. She came to see me when I was a child.
She opened the other world for me.
4.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.
a) What would make one's blindness more appreciative of sight?
i) blackness ii) whiteness iii) darkness iv) joyfulness
b) What would silence teach one's deafness?
i) joy of music ii) joy of voice iii) joy of sound iv)joy of speaking
c) Where did her friend go?
i) to a village ii) to a town iii) to a city iv) to the woods
d) How could Helen Keller find hundreds of things?
i) by touch ii) by voice iii) by sound iv) by listening
e) Whom would she like to see first if she was given sight?
i) her father ii) her teacher iii) her mother iv) her brother
f) Give the noun form of 'observe'?
i) Observation ii) Observasion iii) Obserwation iv) Obserwasion
g) The base verb form of ‘thought’ is .
i) think ii) thinked iii) thinks iv) to think
h) Writer divided the period into parts.
i) one ii) two iii) three iv) four
i) Where does the writer go for a walk?
i) in woods ii) on road iii) in cave iv) in a town
j) On what things writer passes his hand?
i) a silver birch ii) a toy iii) a painting iv) a child
k) What makes writer more appreciative in sight?
i) darkness ii) light iii) touch iv) sunlight
i) The word ‘symmetry’ in para2 is closest in meaning to
i) irregular ii) asymmetrical iii) imbalance iv) equal

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5. Read the passage given below.
a. Spice plants, such as coriander, cardamom or ginger, contain compounds which, when added
to food, give it a distinctive flavour. Spices have been used for centuries in the preparation of
both meat dishes for consumption and meat dishes for long-term storage. However, an initial
analysis of traditional meat-based recipes indicated that spices are not used equally in
different countries and regions, so we set about investigating global patterns of spice use.
b. We hypothesized initially that the benefit of spices might lie in their anti- microbial
properties. Those compounds in spice plants which give them their distinctive flavours
probably first evolved to fight enemies such as plant-eating insects, fungi, and bacteria.
Many of the organisms which afflict spice plants attack humans too, in particular the bacteria
and the fungi that live on and in dead plant and animal matter. So if spices kill these
organisms, or inhibit their production of toxins, spice use in food might reduce our own
chances of contracting food poisoning.
c. The results of our investigation supported this hypothesis. In common with other researchers,
we found that all spices for which we could locate appropriate information have some
antibacterial effects: half inhibit more than 75% of bacteria, and four (garlic, onion, allspice
and oregano) inhibit 100% of those bacteria tested. In addition, many spices are powerful
fungicides.
d. Studies also show that when combined, spices exhibit even greater anti- bacterial properties
than when each is used alone. This is interesting because the food recipes we used in our
sample specify an average of four different spices. Some spices are so frequently combined
that the blends have acquired special names, such as ‘chilli powder’ (typically a mixture of
red pepper, onion, paprika, garlic, cumin and oregano) and ‘oriental five spice’ (pepper,
cinnamon, anise, fennel and cloves). One intriguing example is the French ‘quatre epices’
(pepper, cloves, ginger and nutmeg) which is often used in making sausages. Sausages are a
rich medium for bacterial growth, and have frequently been implicated as the source of death
from the botulism toxin, so the value of anti-bacterial compounds in spices used for sausage
preparation is obvious.
e. A second hypothesis we made was that spice use would be heaviest in areas where foods
spoil most quickly. Studies indicate that rates of bacterial growth increase dramatically with
air temperature. Meat dishes that are prepared in advance and stored at room temperatures
for more than a few hours, especially in tropical climates, typically show massive increases
in bacterial counts. Of course temperatures within houses, particularly in areas where food is
prepared and stored, may differ from those of the outside air, but usually it is even hotter in
the kitchen.
f. Our survey of recipes from around the world confirmed this hypothesis: we found that
countries with higher than average temperatures used more spices. Indeed, in hot countries
nearly every meat-based recipe calls for at least one spice, and most include many spices,
whereas in cooler ones, substantial proportions of dishes are prepared without spices, or with
just a few. In other words, there is a significant positive correlation between mean
temperature and the average quantity of spices used in cooking.
g. But if main function of species is to make food safer to eat, how did our ancestors know
which ones to use in the first place? It seems likely that people who happened to use spice
plants to meat during preparation, especially in hot climates, would have been less likely to
suffer from food poisoning than those who did not. Spice users may also have been able to
store foods for longer before they spoiled, enabling them to tolerate longer.
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 h. Another question which arises is why did people develop a taste for spicy foods? One
possibility involves learned taste aversions. It is known that when people eat something that
makes them ill, they tend to avoid that taste subsequently. The adaptive value of such
learning is obvious. Adding a spice to a food that caused sickness might alter its taste enough
to make it palatable again (i.e. it tastes like a different food), as well as kill the micro-
organisms that caused the illness, thus rendering it safe for consumption. By this process,
food aversions would more often be associated with unspiced (and therefore unsafe) foods,
especially in places where foods spoil rapidly. Over time people would have developed a
natural preference for spicy food.
i. Of course, spice use is not the only way to avoid food poisoning. Cooking, and completely
consuming wild game immediately after slaughter reduces opportunities for the growth of
micro-organisms. However, this is practical only where fresh meat is abundant year-round.
In areas where fresh meat is not consistently available, preservation may be accomplished by
thoroughly cooking, salting, smoking, drying and spicing meats. Indeed, salt has been used
worldwide for centuries to preserve food. We suggest that all these practices have been
adopted for essentially the same reason: to minimize the effects of harmful, food-borne
organisms.
5.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
i) Which paragraph contains the following information?
‘a comparison between countries with different climate types’
a. F b. A c. G d. E
ii) According to the writers, what might the use of spices in cooking help people to avoid?
a. food digestion b. food poisoning c. food aversion d. food allergy
iii) What proportion of bacteria in food do four of the spices tested destroy? a. 100 %
b. 75% c. 10% d. 7.5%
iv) Which food often contains a spice known as ‘quatre epices’?
a. sauce b. mayonnaise c. sausage d. macaroni
v) Which types of country use the fewest number of spices in cooking?
a. hotter ones b. cooler ones c. tropical ones d. sub-tropical ones
vi) What might food aversions often be associated with?
a. spicy foods b. unspiced foods c. thawed foods d. fast foods
vii) Apart from spices, which substance is used in all countries to preserve food?
a. honey b. salt c. sauce d. margarine
viii) Which is the best title for the Reading Passage?
a. The function of spices in food preparation
b. A history of food preservation techniques
c. Traditional recipes from around the world
d. An analysis of the chemical properties of the spice plants
ix) Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of ‘slaughter’, as used in the
passage.
a. the killing of animals for skin
b. the killing of animals for food
c. the killing of animals for deity
d. the killing of animals for sport
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 x) What does the survey suggests in the last paragraph of the passage?
a. to minimise the effects of harmful, water-borne organisms
b. to minimise the effects of harmful, air-borne organisms
c. to minimise the effects of harmful, food-borne organisms
d. to minimise the effects of harmful, animal-borne organisms
xi) Rates of bacterial growth increases with .
a. land temperature b. air temperature
c. water temperature d. body temperature
xii) In paragraph (h), means ‘pleasant to taste’.
a. palatable b. aversion c. adaptive d. rendering

6. Read the passage given below.

When another old cave is discovered in the south of France, it is not usually news. Rather, it is an
ordinary event. Such discoveries are so frequent these days that hardly anybody pays heed to them.
However, when the Lascaux cave complex was discovered in 1940, the world was amazed. Painted
directly on its walls were hundreds of scenes showing how people lived thousands of years ago. The
scenes show people hunting animals, such as bison or wild cats. Other images depict birds and, most
noticeably, horses, which appear in more than 300 wall images, by far outnumbering all other animals.
Early artists drawing these animals accomplished a monumental and difficult task. They did not limit
themselves to the easily accessible walls but carried their painting materials to spaces that required
climbing steep walls or crawling into narrow passages in the Lascaux complex. Unfortunately, the
paintings have been exposed to the destructive action of water and temperature changes, which easily
wear the images away. Because the Lascaux caves have many entrances, air movement has also
damaged the images inside. Although they are not out in the open air, where natural light would have
destroyed them long ago, many of the images have deteriorated and are barely recognizable. To prevent
further damage, the site was closed to tourists in 1963, 23 years after it was discovered.
6.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
i) Which title best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
a. Wild animals in art b. hidden prehistoric paintings
c. exploring caves respectfully d. determining the age of French Caves
ii) In line 3, the words pays heed to are closest in meaning to .
a. discovers b. watches c. notices d. buys
iii) Based on the passage, what is probably true about the south of France?
a. It is home to rare animals. b. It has a large number of caves.
c. It is known for horse-racing events. d. It has attracted many famous artists.
iv) According to the passage, which animals appear most often on the cave walls?
a. Birds b. Bison c. Horses d. Wild cats
v) In line 7, the word depict is closest in meaning to .
a. show b. hunt c. count d. draw
vi) Why was painting inside the Lascaux complex a difficult task?
a. It was completely dark inside.
b. The caves were full of wild animals.
c. Painting materials were hard to find.
d. Many painting spaces were difficult to reach.
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vii) In line 9, the word ‘they’ refers to .
a. walls b. artists c. animals d. materials
viii) According to the passage, all of the following have caused damage to the paintings
except .
a. temperature changes b. air movement
c. water d. light
ix) What does the passage say happened at the Lascaux caves in 1963?
a. Visitors were prohibited from entering.
b. A new lighting system was installed.
c. Another part was discovered.
d. A new entrance was created.
x) The synonym of the word ‘deteriorate’ in the passage is .
a. ravish b. worse c. ruin d. demolish
xi) The word which means the same as ‘to be greater than someone or something’ in the
passage is .
a. outnumbering b. heed c. depict d. accomplish
xii) Lascaux cave paintings show how people lived hundreds of years ago. (TRUE/ FALSE)

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7. Read the following passage:
1. During our growing up years we as children were taught - both at home and school - to worship the
photos and idols of the Gods of our respective religions. When we grew a little older, we were to read holy
books like the Bhagwad Gita, Bible and Quran; we were told that there are a lot of life lessons to be learnt
from these holy books. We were then introduced to stories from our mythologies which taught us ethics and
morality- what is good and what is bad. I also learnt to be respectful towards my parents who made my life
comfortable with their hard work and love and care, and my teachers who guided me to become a good
student and a responsible citizen.
2. Much later in life, I realised that though we learn much from our respective holy books, there is a lot to
learn from our surroundings. This realization dawned upon me when I learnt to enquire and explore.
Everything around us- the sun, the moon, the stars, rain, rivers, stones, rocks, birds, plants and animals -
teach us many valuable life lessons.
3. No wonder that besides the scriptures, in many cultures nature is also worshipped. The message that we
get is to save our environment and maintain ecological balance. People are taught to live in harmony with
nature and recognize that there is God in all aspects of nature.
4. Nature is a great teacher. A river never stops flowing. If it finds an obstacle in its way in the form of a
heavy rock, the river water fights to remove it from its path or finds an alternative path to move ahead. This
teaches us to be progressive in life, and keep the fighting spirit alive.
5. Snakes are worshipped as they eat insects in the field that can hurt our crops, thus protecting the grains for
us. In fact, whatever we worship is our helper and makes our lives easy for us. There are many such
examples in nature, but we are not ready to learn a lesson. Overcome with greed, we are destroying nature.
As a result, we face natural disasters like droughts, floods and landslides. We don’t know that nature is
angry with us. However, it is never too late to learn. If we learn to respect nature, the quality of our life will
improve.
7.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
1.We are told to worship photos and idols of Gods during our _________.
a. childhood b. adulthood c. growing up years d. none of these
2. Parents should be worshiped because __________
a. they gave us Holy books to read b. they taught us what is good and what is bad
c. they work hard to make our lives easier d. they have read many mythical stories
3.One can learn life lessons from _________
1. Mythology , 2. Reading Holy books
3. Nature , 4. Worshiping photos and idols of God
a. 1,2,4 b. 1,3,4 c. 1,2,3 d. 2,3,4
4.A river teaches us to be ___________ .
a. Stubborn b. Obstinate c. Progressive d. Docile
5. We should respect nature to-----------------------
a. To improve our health b. To improve our strength
c. To improve our quality of life d. None of the above
6.To save nature we should --------------------.
a. Overcome with greed b. Overcome with anger
c. Overcome with tiredness d. Control the population
7. Which word in the para 2 is similar in meaning to ‘apprehend’?

a. realised b. explore c. lesson d. valuable

8. Which word in the para 3 is not similar in meaning to ‘discord’?

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 a. aspect b. harmony c. ecological d. save
9. Which word is similar in meaning to ‘greed’?
a. generosity b. moderation c. content d. avarice
10. Which word is not similar in meaning to ‘alternative’?
a. unusual b. marginal c. unorthodox d. conventional

8. Read the following passage:

In praise of fathers: the making of the modern dad
1. Once seen as breadwinners and disciplinarians, the role of dads has changed beyond recognition in the
past 50 years. Today, fathers no longer want to be limited to the role of family breadwinner and
disciplinarian; they want to be co-parents, providing nurture and care to their children. This change is due in
part to the rise of two-earner households, reductions in hospital-based post-birth care, and an absence of
geographically close extended family; thus, requiring the ‘dad’ to step in.
2. We tend to believe that mums are instinctive parents and that dads must learn when in fact, dads are as
biologically primed to parent a child as mums. The paternal relationship between a father and a child is as
innate and biological as the maternal relationship between a mother and a child. He is a co-parent.
3. Dads build profound and powerful bonds with their children which are as strong as, but crucially different
from, those built between a mother and child. Both mums and dads build their bonds based on nurture, but
culturally, dads are believed to add an element of challenge and this reflects their role in scaffolding a
child’s entry into the world beyond the family. Fathers are seen to push developmental boundaries and
introduce their children to risk and challenge, which help them build the mental and physical resilience they
need to survive in our fast-changing and challenging world. And, one of the most effective ways they do this
is through ‘play’.
4. All of us recognize rough and tumble play. These are ‘fast and furious’ activities where children get
thrown into the air, swooped round the room like an aeroplane, and are tickled into submission, all to a
cacophony of shrieks and giggles. And this form of play is almost entirely carried out by dads. It releases a
tidal wave of bonding hormones in all participants. Due to its challenging and risky nature, it starts to build
reciprocity, empathy, risk assessment, and the ability to overcome challenges that all kids need to
imbibe.
5. Largely, dads play a unique role in assisting their child’s entry into the world beyond the family, which
means that at some points their input is as integral to development as mum’s. In particular, fathers have a
crucial role during the transition to pre-school. Their input enhances the development of language skills and
pro-social behaviours such as sharing, caring and helping and brings an impact onto their teen years by way
of establishing a bond with their kids which ends up being the foundation for good mental
health and transition into adulthood. Teenagers who have secure attachments to their fathers and share
activities with them have higher self-esteem, report less loneliness and lower rates of anxiety and
depression. The relationship between fathers and daughters is even more crucial as their inputs influence
educational attainment, career success, and the health of their daughter’s future relationships. Therefore, as
we see, Dads fulfil their role in myriad ways.
(Anna Machin is an evolutionary anthropologist and author of The Life of Dad: The Making of the Modern
Father (Simon & Schuster).
8.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
1. The role of a father is no longer limited to
(i) Co-parenting (ii) Breadwinners and disciplinarians
(iii) Rough and tumble way (iv) Nurture provider
2. The role of dad is now important because
(A) rise of two-earner households (B) reductions in hospital-based post-birth care
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(C) fast and furious activities (D) an absence of geographically close extended family
(i) (A), (B), (C) (ii) (A), (B), (D) (iii) (A), (B) (iv) (A), (D)
3. Higher self-esteem in teenagers results when
(i) Their mothers push development boundaries. (ii) There is a release of hormones.
(iii) There is proper development of language skills. (iv) They have secure attachments with their fathers.
4. The main idea in the third para is
(i) The bond built between a mother and child is tender.
(ii) Father is a co-parent.
(iii) The relationship between fathers and daughters is more crucial.
(iv) Dads are believed to add an element of challenge.
5. Infer the meaning of the given statement “mums are instinctive parents”
(i) Mothers will always be the first parent to a child.
(ii) Mothering is embedded in the biological framework.
(iii) Mothers are effective parents.
(iv) Mothers make better parents
6. Which word in para 5 is similar in meaning to ‘angst’?
(i) enhance (ii) self-help (iii) anxiety (iv) attainment
7. Choose the word which is not similar in meaning to ‘challenges’
(i) encounters (ii) dares (iii) trials (iv) all of these
8. Choose the word from para 2, which is similar in meaning to ‘intuitive’
(i) primed (ii) instinctive (iii) maternal (iv) none of these
9. Read the passage given below : 8
Kausani is situated at a height of 6,075 feet in the Central Himalayas. It is anunusally attractive little town. It
covers just about 5.2 sq. kms. It lies to the north of Almora in Uttarakhand's picturesque kumaon region.
Kausani provides the 300-km wide breathtaking view of the Himalayas. It is the most striking aspect of the
place. Snow-capped peaks are spread in a stately row. They stare at you in silvery white majesty. The most
famous peak on view is Nanda Devi, the second highest mountain in India. It is situated at a height of
25.645 feet and 36 miles away as the crow les. The other famous peaks on view are choukhamba (23,420
feet) and Trishul (23,360 feet). Then there are also Nilkanth, Nandaghunti, Nandaghat and Nandakot. On a
clear day, the blue of the sky makes a splendid background to these peaks. At sunrise and at sunset, when
the colour changes to a golden orange, the scene gets etched in your memory.
When Gandhiji visited this place in 1929, its scenic beauty held him spellbound. He named it the
'Switzerland of Indian'. He prolonged his two-day stay to fourteen days, making time to write a book,
'Anashakti Yoga'. The place where he was staying was originally a guest-house of the tea estate. It was
renamed 'Anashakti Ashram' after the book.
Kausani is the birthplace of Sumitranandan Pant, India's poet laureate. Its natural surroundings inspired
many of his poems. Its tea gardens mingle with dense pine forests and fruit orchards. The area is also host to
many fairs and religious ceremonies. If Uttaranchal is the abode of gods, Kausani is God's own backyard.
There is no trac, no one is in a hurry. If serenity could be put on a canvas, the picture would resemble
Kausani.
9.1. On the basis of your reading of the above passage, answer the following questions:
(i) Kausani is situated at a height of ________ feet in the Central Himalayas.
a) 7125 b) 6075 c) 6175 d) 4275
(ii) In which year did Gandhi visit Kausani?
a) 1914 b) 1925 c) 1935 d) 1929
(iii) At sunrise and at sunset the colour of the sky changes to_____.
a) silverfish grey b) golden orange c) blue d) black
(iv) Gandhi prolonged his two days stay to _____
a) one week b) ten days c) fourteen days d) fifteen days
(v) __________ is the abode of gods.
a) Uttrakhand b) Kausani c) Switzerland d) Almora
(vi) Kausani is situated in ______ Himalayas.

13
 a) Central b) Northern c) Southern d) Eastern
(vii) Sumitranandan Pant was norn is Kausani. (True/False)
(viii) Gandhi named Kausani as__________.
10. Read the passage given below:
If you are addicted to coffee, and doctors warn you to quit the habit, don’t worry and just keep relishing the
beverage, because it’s not that bad after all! In fact, according to a new study, the steaming cup of Java can
beat fruits and vegetables as the primary source of antioxidants. Some studies state that coffee is the number
one source of antioxidants in American diet, and both caffeinated and decaf versions appear to provide
similar antioxidant levels.
Antioxidants in general have been linked to a number of potential health benefits, including protection
against heart diseases and cancer, but Vinson, a dietitian said that their benefits ultimately depend on how
they are absorbed and utilized in the body. The research says that coffee outranks popular antioxidant
sources like tea, milk, chocolate and cranberries. Of all the foods and beverages studied, dates actually have
the most antioxidants based solely on serving size, but since dates are not consumed anywhere near the level
of coffee, the drink comes as the top source of antioxidants, Vinson said.
Besides keeping you alert and awake, coffee has been linked to an increasing number of potential health
benefits, including protection against liver and colon cancer, type 2 diabetes, and Parkinson’s disease,
according to some recently published studies.
The researchers, however, advise that one should consume coffee in moderation, because it can make you
jittery and cause stomach pains.
10.1.On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the following questions:
(i) Who is Vinson in the paragraph 2?
a. A Doctor b. A health consultant c. A nutritionist d. A dietician
(ii) Of all the foods and beverages studied, __________ actually have most antioxidants.
a. Dates b. Tea c. Cranberries d. coffee
(iii) Which beverage helps in preventing liver and colon cancer?
a . Tea b. Milk c. Coffee d. Hot Chocolate
(iv) It is a _______ diabetes.
a. Type 5 b. Type 4 c. Type 3 d. Type 2
(v) The synonym of ‘chief’ as given in para 1 is_______.
a. New b. Primary c. Version d. similar
(vi) consuming ______ coffee can make a person jittery.
a. Less b. More c. Moderate d. No
(vii) Coffee does not keep one alert and awake. (True/False)
(viii) Doctors warn coffee addicts to _________.

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11. Read the following passage and answer the following questions:-
Mirrors have been used for ages. It is said that Archimedes used huge mirrors to focus the heat of the sun’s
rays on enemy ships to burn them. The same principle is used in solar cookers where mirrors are used to
reflect and focus the sun’s rays on to cooking containers. Astronomers use huge concave mirrors to focus
starlight. The mirrors used in telescopes are polished by giving a thin coat of silver or aluminium to the
glass. With the telescopes, astronomers can see the heavenly bodies but even without the telescopes, one can
see the moon. A full moon shining overhead is a beautiful sight. But it is also a puzzle because if the sun and
the moon both give the same sunlight, then why is the moonlight more pleasant?
The reason is that the moon reflects very little sunlight, in fact, only seven per cent of the light it receives.
The earth reflects about half of the radiation that it receives from the sun. Imagine how bright the earth must
be looking from the moon? One can even read a book on the moon in the earthlight. However, you do not
have to travel all the way to the moon to realize how strong the earth light is. Observe the crescent moon
soon after all the new moon. The bright crescent is illuminated by the sun. The rest of the moon is
illuminated by earthlight. In other words, the light reflected by the earth is falling on the moon. This is being
reflected back to us and is strong enough to show the moon faintly. As the crescent increases in size, this
effect disappears.
Fresh snow is the best reflector of sunlight in nature. As a highly reflective substance, snow dramatically
increases UV-B exposure near the Earth’s surface as it reflects most of the radiation back into the
atmosphere where it is then scattered back towards the surface by aerosols and molecules. Fresh snow can
reflect much as 9.4 per cent of the incoming UV radiation. The bright light reflected by it can dazzle and
harm your eyes. Mountaineers, therefore, use dark glasses.
11.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions:
(i) Mirrors used in telescope are polished by:
a) Silver b) Aluminium c) Both (a) and (b) d) None of these
(ii) _______ is the best reflector of sunlight in nature:
a) Raindrops b) Sun rays c) Fresh snow d) Full moon
(iii) The earth reflects _______ of the radiation received from the sun.
a) About one-fourth b) About three-fourth c) About two-third d) About half
(iv) The principle of focusing the sun rays is used in:
a) Solar cooker b) Pressure cooker c) Inverter d) None of the above
(v) The dim part of the crescent moon is lit by:
a) Sunlight b) Mercury light c) Stars light d) Earth light
(vi) With the __________, astronomers can see the heavenly bodies.
a) Satellite b) Lens c) telescope d) Television
(vii) Mountaineers wear ____________ while climbing mountains.
(viii) The bright light reflected by fresh snow can harm our eyes. (True/False)

12. Read the passage and answer the questions:

Dissociative Identity Disorder or DID (previously known as multiple personality disorder) is thought to be
an effect of severe trauma during early childhood, usually extreme, repetitive physical, sexual or emotional
abuse. Most of us have experienced mild dissociation, which produces a lack of connection in a person’s
thoughts, memories, feelings, actions or sense of identity. Dissociative Identity Disorder is thought to stem
from trauma experienced by the person with the disorder. The dissociative aspect is thought to be a coping
mechanism – the person literally dissociates himself from a situation or experience that’s too violent,
traumatic or painful to assimilate within his conscious self.

15
Dissociative Identity Disorder is characterized by the presence of two or more distinct or split identities or
personality states that continually have power over the person’s behavior. With Dissociative Identity
Disorder, there are also highly distinct memory variations, which fluctuate with the person’s split
personality.
The ‘alters’ or different identities have their own age, sex or race. Each has his or her own postures,
gestures, and distinctive way of talking. Sometimes the ‘alters ‘are imaginary people; sometimes they are
animals. As each personality reveals itself and controls the individual’s behaviors and thoughts, it’s called
‘switching’.
Switching can take seconds to minutes to days. While there’s no ‘cure’ for Dissociative Identity Disorder
long-term treatment can be helpful if the patient stays committed. Effective treatment includes talk therapy
of psychotherapy, hypnotherapy and adjunctive therapies such as art or movement therapy. There are no
established medication treatments for Dissociative Identity Disorder; making psychologically based
approached the mainstay of therapy.
12.1. Answer the following:
1. Multiple personality disorder is now known as …………. Disorder.
a) Disturbed Identity b) Dissociative Identity
c) Dissociative Idiot d) Destructive Intent
2. Dissociation is a mental process which produces a ……… in a person’s thoughts, memories, feelings,
actions or sense of identity.
a) disturbance b) synthesis c) lack of connection d) sense of unity
3. DID is thought to stem from some ……….…. experienced in life by the person having the disorder.
a) trauma b) happy experience c) injury d) torture
4. DID is characterized by the presence of distinct or split identities that continually have power over the
person’s behavior.
a) three b) a few c) slightly d) two or more
5. Each personality revealing itself and controlling the individual’s behaviors and thoughts is
called……………
6. Is there any cure for DID? (Yes / No)
7. What therapies can be done to cure people suffering from DID?
8. There are no established …….. treatments for DID.

16
13. Read the passage given below.
I. Despite the economic crunch worldwide that saw pulverization of some of the largest banking and finance
giants, Indian banking houses have managed to show positive growth this quarter.
II. Some of India’s leading national banks have posted a net profit rise of more than 40% over the last
quarter amid global turmoil. This would come as a big shot in the arm for the investors and consumers of
these banks even though apprehension is mounting on other banking and broking firms worldwide.
III. One of the main reasons behind the success of these banks this quarter, would be their direct backing by
the Government of India. People take solace in their investments in public sector watching the bailout
packages being cashed out by governments all over the world to save big business houses.
IV. Other private banks in India have also reported a substantial net profit over the last quarter. Given the
internal and domestic scenario, one cannot put this down as a mundane achievement. While others are on a
cost-cutting spree and firing employees, Indian companies are actually working on boosting staffing in
banking and broking sector.
V. This can be seen as a big boon in the days to come when the current recession eases and the economy
gradually comes back on to the fast track. The finance minister has assured Indian public about the sound
health of all Indian banks. This could also be evident from the fact that there have been no mergers and
takeovers in Indian banking sector in a contrast to world scenario where finance houses are looking for
mergers to cut costs on operations.
VI. We definitely are not looking to thrive; rather we are looking for growth. It is just that the pace of
growth is a little slow now as compared to a year or two before. These are hard times to test the hard. The
weak in business and career will be weeded out and it is sometimes very beneficial for business in the long
run.
13.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
1. According to the author, what is the reason for the success of Indian national banks in this quarter?
(a) Indian national banks do not have any commitments in troubled foreign markets.
(b) These banks can never face financial crisis because of their sheer size.
(c) These banks are ready to give loans at a very low rate of interest.
(d) The public is ready to invest in these banks because of the knowledge that these banks get strong
support from Government.
2. What does the phrase ‘shot in the arm’ as used in the passage mean?
(a) Shock (b) Fear (c) Encouragement (d) Anxiety
3. According to the author, how is the current recession beneficial?
(a) Worldwide companies have realized that India is a strong power to reckon with.
(b) India is surging ahead of the other Companies throughout the world.
(c) After the recession is over international companies will turn to India for investment.
(d) None of these
4. According to the author, what will be a big boon in the days to come?
(a) The economy coming back on the fast track
(b) The slowing down of the economy
(c) Increased hiring in Indian financial sector in times of economic slowdown
(d) None of these
5. Which of the following statements is/are definitely true in the context of the passage?
A. India has not been affected by the economic slowdown.
B. India banks are showing growth in this quarter despite the recession.
C. While banking industry in the West was severely affected by recession in the past, it is now
gradually recovering and showing a positive growth.

17
 (a) Only A (b) Only B (c) Only C (d) Only A and B
6. Which of the following strengthens the finance minister’s statement about the sound health of Indian
banks with respect to the passage?
A. There have been no acquisitions and mergers of Indian banks.
B. The Indian banks are recording a positive growth.
C. Layoffs have been observed worldwide.
(a) Only A and B (b) Only A and C (c) Only A (d) All A, B and C
7. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
TURMOIL
(a) danger (b) shock (c) sadness (d) chaos
8. Choose the word which is most similar in meaning to the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
PULVERIZATION
(a) polarisation (b) mashing (c) debasement (d) crushing
9. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
THRIVE
(a) succeed (b) deteriorate (c) worry (d) tremble
10. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold as used in the passage.
MUNDANE
(a) extraordinary (b) regular (c) severe (d) visionary

14. Read the passage given below.

I. Uttarakhand is located at the foothills of the Himalayan mountain ranges. The state shares borders with
China (Tibet) in the north and Nepal in the east and inter- state boundaries with Himachal Pradesh in the
west and northwest and Uttar Pradesh in the south. Hindi, Garhwal and Kumaoni are commonly spoken in
the state. English is the medium of education in many of its schools. Uttarakhand has diverse geographical
features ranging from snowcapped mountain peaks in the north to tropical forests in the south; its climate
and vegetation vary accordingly. The state was formed in November 2000 by carving out the 13 hill districts
of Uttar Pradesh. It was formerly named Uttaranchal.
II. The main railway stations in the state are Dehradun, Haridwar, Roorkee, Kotdwar, Kashipur, Udham
Singh Nagar, Haldwani, Ramnagar and Kathgodam. Uttarakhand had 339.80 km of rail routes. The state is
focusing on increasing the share of railways in cargo and passenger transport. Initiatives have been
undertaken to start monorails at Dehradun, Haridwar and Rishikesh, on the inter-city linkage routes.
III. The state has two domestic airports: one at Jolly Grant in the Dehradun district and another at Pant
Nagar in the Udham Singh Nagar district. The state intends to position air transport as a reliable all-weather
transport option for the hills. With Uttarakhand emerging as a hot tourist and industrial destination, the state
government is focusing on upgrading the Jolly Grant airport as an international airport, in coordination with
Airports Authority of India. In 2018-19, Dehradun airport handled 7,374 aircraft movements and 709,227
passengers, approximately.
VISION 2022
Transport • Strengthen road network in urban areas and upgrade national highways.
• Develop two major all-weather airports with connectivity to metro cities.
Health • Affordable healthcare with focus on disease prevention.
• Provide state funded maternal and child healthcare, especially in rural areas.
Tourism • Promote the state as a global tourist destination by showcasing its spiritual, cultural and
adventure tourism
• Target 0.5 million international tourists by 2022.
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Agriculture • Improve yield and quality by providing irrigation facilities and latest technology.
• Create cold chain infrastructure and success to market intelligence for farmers.
Infrastructure • Harness hydro-power for 100% electrification in the state and supply power to other states.
• Connect major cities through multi-lane highways and proper roads for villages.
Environment • Promote the state as a green economy by focusing on section such as IT. Agriculture,
tourism, hydro-power and education.
• 100% solid waste management, waste water treatment and recycling.
Industries • Become a world leader in green energy by leveraging hydro-power potential.
• Promote micro and small enterprises.
Education of skill development
• Quality primary education to be provided to all children.
• Job oriented vocational training facilities and establishment of higher education institutions
14.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, the questions by choosing the correct option.
1. Which of the following language is not a commonly spoken language in Uttarakhand?
(a) Kumaoni (b) Hindi (c) Punjabi (d) Garhwali
2. The state of Uttarakahnd was formed by:
(a) passing a special legislation to give a minor community an independent state.
(b) joining two or more union territories in north India.
(c) equally dividing the former large state of Uttar Pradesh.
(d) carving out the 13 hill districts of Uttar Pradesh.
3. Which of the following states/countries do not surround Uttarakhand from any side?
(a) Uttar Pradesh (b) Nepal (c) China (d) Bangladesh
4. Choose an option that mentions a feature that is not related to Uttarakhand.
(a) It has a Hindi-based education system. (b) Its climate and vegetation vary quite a lot.
(c) It has diverse geographical features. (d) It was formerly named Uttaranchal.
5. When talking about environment, by 2022, Uttarakhand wants to:………….
I. have perfect waste water management in the state
II. harness hydropower for 100 % electricity in the state
III. have a 100 % solid waste management in the state
IV. promote the state as a green economy
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) II, III and IV (d) I, III and IV
6. Choose an option that lists the main factors considered in Uttarakhand’s vision of 2022.
1. Education 2. Agriculture 3. Development 4. Transport
5. Tourism 6. Mining 7. Environment
(a) 1, 2, 4, 5 and 7 (b) 2, 3, 4, 5 and 7 (c) 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7 (d) 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7
7. Uttarakhand is emerging as a hot tourist and industrial destination, thus the state government is focusing
on:
(a) balancing the travel and pollution so that the natural beauty of the state is not harmed.
(b) managing the road and air traffic better.
(c) improving the environmental rules and regulations already set in place.
(d) upgrading the Jolly Grant airport as an international airport.
8. Choose an option that is not something that the government wants to do to build up the education and
skills level in the state.
(a) making quality primary education available to all
(b) establishing higher education institutions
(c) improving the quality of facilities already available

19
(d) providing job related vocational training facilities

20
15. Read the passage given below.
I. Keep your watch accurate. For some people, moving up the time on their watch will help them get up
earlier. For others, they will remember that the time on the watch is wrong and will disregard it altogether. It
may be helpful to set your watch just two minutes ahead instead of five or ten.
II. Keep a clock, phone, computer or anything that displays time in each room of your house. One of the
easiest ways to run late is simply by not realising that the time is passing as quickly as it is.
III. Set all your clocks and watches to the same time. Don’t be an optimist. Things usually take longer than
what you’d expect, even without major delays. If you have a dinner appointment at 7:30 p.m., don’t think
you can work till 7 p.m., then take a bath, dress and reach on time. Realistically, calculate the time you will
take at each step and then add 10 minutes more to allow for unexpected delays, or you cannot get to your job
done in time.
IV. Wake up when you are supposed to wake up. Don’t hit the snooze button, keep on lying in bed, and
watch TV at the very start of your day. May be you can try even setting your clock 10 minutes earlier than
you need. If you have difficulty with this, move your alarm clock to somewhere away from your bed; that
way, you will have to get up to turn it off. Commit yourself to being 15 minutes early for everything. If you
have to reach your place of work at 8:00, don’t even tell yourself this. Just tell yourself (and everyone else
who listens - but don’t annoy them or make them think that they are late or early!) “I have to be at work at
7:45.” If you do this, you will be on time even with little unforeseen delays. You will be on time even with a
traffic jam.
15.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. We should be _______ in approach with time management.
(a) optimistic (b) pessimistic (c) realistic (d) utopian
2. It is good to commit yourself for everything.
(a) to be late (b) to delay (c) to being 15 minutes early (d) to search the last moment
3. The passage highlights
(a) the value of time (b) the importance of being ahead of time
(c) the value of being up to time (d) the value of calculating time
4. To be punctual we should .
(a) hit the snooze button of the alarm clock (b) get up at the right time
(c) start watching TV in the morning (d) keep on lying in bed
5. The narrator does not deny which of the following activity just after waking up:
(a) hitting snooze button (b) keep on lying in bed
(c) watch TV (d) wake up when you actually have to
6. What does the author mean when he uses the word ‘delay’?
(a) Late (b) Turn off (c) Disregard (d) Accurate
7. One of the major reasons for being delayed is
(a) absence of clock, phone or computer (b) being overindulged in work
(c) not realising that time passes quickly (d) not keeping a margin in the expected time of work
8. Being ahead by minutes should be everyone’s commitment.
(a) 10 minutes (b) 15 minutes (c) 5 minutes (d) 30 minutes
9. Which word conveys the opposite of ‘realistically’?
(a) Impracticable (b) Rational (c) Achievable (d) Pragmatic
10. The narrator denies us to:
(a) be realistic (b) be optimistic
(c) keeping our watch accurate (d) wake up when we are supposed to

21
22
16. Read the passage given below.
I. Traditional TV and YouTube both play important roles in a changing viewing landscape, but some
children feel that there is not enough content that reflects their lives.
II. Live viewing on the TV set remains an important part of children’s lives. The TV set is still used by more
children than any other device for watching content, and most of this viewing is made up of live TV, with
early evening family entertainment from the BBC and ITV dominating the top ten most-watched
programmes among 4-15s. For younger children, TV on the TV set makes up the largest proportion of their
media time, and although there has been a decline over the last decade in the number of hours children spend
watching, 2017 has seen an increase in the number of hours parents of younger children say their child
spends watching TV on the TV set.
III. For older children the picture is more mixed. The 12- 15s who watch TV on a TV set spend nearly 14
and a half hours a week viewing, similar to younger children. However, this is part of their larger overall
media consumption, and they spend more hours online and using their mobiles in a typical week than
watching on a TV set. This age group are also most likely not to watch on a TV set at all: around one in ten
12- 15s say that they don’t watch any television on a TV set, higher than last year, while the number who
say this is the device they mostly use to watch TV has decreased since last year to around six in ten. This
change in the habits of older children is part of wider changes in the media landscape.
IV. For example, more 3-11s are online than in 2016, with much of this growth coming from increased use
of tablets. Unsurprisingly, tablets and other portable, connected devices are also playing an important role in
TV viewing, with increases in the numbers of children who ever watch TV on a device other than a TV set,
and nearly a quarter of 12-15s mostly watching on either a tablet or a mobile phone.
V. The other important factor in the changing content consumption landscape is YouTube. Double digit
increases this year 2017 mean that half of 3-4s and more than eight in ten 5-15s now use YouTube. It is the
most recognized content brand among 12-15s, and the one they are most likely to think includes their age
group in its target audience, saying either that it is aimed specifically at their age group or at everyone. It is
the one they would turn to first for all types of content they say is important to them, and the one they say
they would miss the most if it was taken away. More 8-11s and 12-15s also say they prefer watching content
on YouTube than TV programmes on the TV set. Some of what children are watching on YouTube includes
whole programmes, but there is huge variety, and younger children are most likely to be using it to watch
cartoons, mini-movies or songs, while older children are most likely to watch music videos and funny or
prank videos.
VI. Despite the wide range of available content and services, however, around a third of 8-11s say that there
are not enough programmes that show children that look like them, and four in ten 12-15s say there are not
enough programmes that show children living in the same part of the country as them.
Media Lives By Age:

23
16.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. For younger children, TV on the TV set makes up
(a) the best portion of their daily lives. (b) the only source of entertainment.
(c) the largest proportion of their media time. (d) the time where they can watch what they
want.
2. 12 to 15 year olds spend more hours in a typical week than watching on a TV set.
(a) online and using their mobiles (b) playing outside
(c) paying games online (d) doing their homework
3. 90% of 12 to 15 year olds use YouTube to
I. watch music videos II. learn extracurricular activities
III. watch funny videos or pranks IV study about their course
(a) I and II (b) I and III (c) III and IV (d) II and III
4. Which of the following is a device that the 8 to 11 year olds would miss the most?
(a) gaming console (b) mobile (c) tablet (d) computer
5. Which content brand includes 12 to 15 years age group in its target audience and is the most recognized
content brand for the 12-15s?
(a) YouTube (b) Twitter (c) Facebook (d) Instagram
6. Which of the following statement is not true about the 3 to 4 year olds?
(a) 1% have their own smartphone (b) 50 % go online for nearly 8 hours a week
(c) 40 % play games for nearly 6 hours a week (d) 41% watch TV on other devices
7. Around a third of 8 to 11 year olds complain about media that:
(a) there are not enough educational programmes that cater to their needs.
(b) there are not enough programmes that show children that look like them.
(c) there are not enough funny programmes online for children their age.
(d) there are not enough new skill learning programmes that can make them versatile.
8. Which of the following statements is not true in the context of the passage?
(a) Early evening family entertainment from the BBC and ITV dominate the top ten most-watched
programmes among 4-15s.
(b) 3% of 5 to 7 year olds have social media profiles.
(c) 90% of 12 to 15 year olds go online for nearly 21 hours a week.
(d) In this year 2017 half of 3-4s and more than eight in ten 5-15s now use YouTube.

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25
17. Read the passage given below.
The film industry is facing the challenge of the television screen which, because of its ready availability and
nearness to entertainment seekers, is becoming very popular, particularly in the West where television
programmes are as indispensable to people as newspaper material. Sustained entertainment for multitudes
lasting two or three hours is possible only in big cinema halls. Scenic beauty, background effects and colour
techniques which have made the products of cinema industry so attractive and delightful may not be
reproduced by television programme organisers, and therefore, this important invention in the field of
wireless communication, in spite of having become a big rival of the cinema, may not succeed in replacing
it.
The motion picture has also stepped into the international sphere as an agent of goodwill and co-operation
among nations. Cultural contacts which tend to reduce tension in the world and bring harmony in
international relations have been established through the medium of films. The more people understand and
appreciate the past history, present aims, customs, habits and beliefs of men and women in foreign lands, the
more will they realise that their interests can best be served by establishing friendly relations with them and
by removing those irritants which breed distrust, lack of co-operation and the desire to punish those whose
views and attitudes are such as they do not like.
As cultural agents' movies can cement ties of love and brotherhood among nations and teach them to confer
on each other the benefits of all the rich and glorious achievements of the present enlightened age. In recent
years, artists of the film world have been visiting foreign lands with a view to presenting before audience in
those countries the best products of their cultural heritage. Film festivals which many European and Asian
countries have been organising from time to time have also proved to be of immense value in reducing
social barriers, colour prejudices and other causes of friction between nations.
17.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the questions:
1. The film industry is facing the challenge of:
(a) the theatre (b) financial crunch
(c) waning people's interest (d) the television screens
2. The TV has become popular because of:
(a) its entertaining programme (b) its educative value
(c) its ready availability and nearness (d) its wide appeal
3. Three things which make cinema so attractive are:
(a) scenic beauty, background effects and beautiful faces
(b) scenic beauty, good sets and colour techniques
(c) scenic beauty, gaudy dresses and colourful techniques
(d) scenic beauty, background effects and colour techniques
4. Films have become agents of:
(a) pioneering (b) providing (c) conferring (d) goodwill and cooperation
5. Which of these reduces the tension of the people and bring harmony?
(a) film industry (b) television programme (c) beauty of nature (d) cultural context
6. The artists of the film industry visit foreign lands with the purpose of:
(a) establishing friendly relations with them (b) presenting best products of their cultural heritage
(c) bringing harmony in international relations (d) getting better opportunity.
7. Film festivals have proved to be of immense value in reducing social barriers and colour .
(a) discrimination (b) prejudices (c) differences (d) management
8. Irritants only breed mistrust and conflicts among nations.
(a) True (b) False
9. Find the word that means 'monumental' in the passage?

26
 (a) immense (b) sustained (c) delightful (d) friction
10. What is the meaning of the word enlightened?
(a) ignorant (b) benighted (c) informed (d) tyrant

18. Read the passage carefully

One day Gandhiji and Vallabhbhai Patel were talking in the Yeravda jail when Gandhiji remarked, "At
times even a dead snake can be of use." And he related the following story to illustrate his point: Once a
snake entered the house of an old woman. The old woman was frightened and cried out for help. Hearing
her, the neighbours rushed up and killed the snake. Then they returned to their homes. Instead of throwing
the dead snake far away, the old woman flung it onto her roof.
Sometime later a kite flying overhead spotted the dead snake. In its beak, the kite had a pearl necklace
which it had picked up from somewhere. It dropped the necklace and flew away with the dead snake. When
the old woman saw a bright, shining object on her roof she pulled it down with a pole. Finding that it was a
pearl necklace she danced with joy!
One day a bania found a snake in his house. He could not find anyone to kill it for him and had not the
courage to kill it himself. Besides, he hated killing any living creature. So, he covered the snake with a pot
and let it there.
As luck would have it, that night some thieves broke into the bania's house. They entered the kitchen and
saw the overturned pot. "Ah", they thought, "the bania has hidden something valuable here." As they lifted
the pot, the snake struck. Having come with the object of stealing, they barely left with their lives.
Once he came out of jail, Gandhiji went from city to city, village to village collecting funds for the Charkha
Sangh. During one of his tours, he addressed a meeting in Orissa.
After his speech a poor old woman got up. She was bent with age, her hair was grey and her clothes were in
tatters. The volunteers tried to stop her, but she fought her way to the place where Gandhiji was sitting. "I
must see him," she insisted and going up to Gandhiji touched his feet.
Then from the folds of her sari, she brought out a copper coin and placed it at his feet. Gandhiji picked up
the copper coin and put it away carefully.
The Charkha Sangh funds were under the charge of Jamnalal Bajaj. He asked Gandhi for the coin but
Gandhi refused.
18.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the questions:
1. On seeing the __________ the thieves ran for their life from the Bania's house.
(a) necklace (b) dead snake (c) woman (d) snake
2. Gandhiji went to Orissa for.
(a) a meeting (b) collecting funds (c) the old woman (d) volunteer.
3. _______was in charge of the Charkha Sangh funds.
(a) Jamnalal Bajaj (b) Gandhiji (c) Vallabhbhai Patel (d) Volunteers
4. The kite dropped:
(a) a snake (b) a pot (c) a pearl necklaces (d) a copper coins
5. The Bania could not kill the snake because:
(a) he was kind to living creature (b) he could not find anyone
(c) he had no courage to kill it himself (d) all of these
6. The thieves thought the Bania had hidden something valuable:
(a) under a stone (b) in a box (c) under a pot (d) in a hole
7. The volunteers tried to stop the poor woman from……...
(a) going to the place where Gandhiji was siting (b) seeing Gandhiji
(c) touching Gandhiji’s feet (d) offering a coin.

27
8. When the poor woman came to Gandhiji, Gandhiji touched her feet.
(a) True (b) False
19. Read the passage given below.
I. Amartya Sen wrote about the Indian tradition of skepticism and heterodoxy of opinion that led to high
levels of intellectual argument. The power sector in India is a victim of this tradition at its worst.
Instead of forcefully communicating, supporting and honestly and firmly implementing policies,
people just debate them. It is argued that central undertakings produce power at lower tariffs and must
therefore build most of the required extra capacities. This is a delusion. They no longer have access to
low-cost government funds.
II. Uncertainty about payment remains a reason for the hesitation of private investment. They had to sell
only to SEBs (State Electricity Boards), SEB balance sheets are cleaner after the “securitisation” of the
Rs. 40,000 crore or so owed by SEBs to central government undertakings, now shown as debt
instruments. But state governments have not implemented agreed plans to ensure repayment when due.
The current annual losses of around Rs. 28,000 crore make repayment highly uncertain. The central
undertakings that are their main suppliers have payment security because the government will come to
their help. Private enterprises do not have such assurance and are concerned about payment security
that must be resolved.
III. By the late 1990s, improving the SEB finances was recognized as fundamental to power reform.
Unbundling SEBs, working under corporate discipline and even privatization and not vertically
integrated state enterprises, are necessary for efficient and financially viable electricity enterprises.
Since government will not distance itself from managing them, privatizing is an option. The Delhi
model has worked. But it receives no public support.
IV. The Electricity Act 2003, the APRDP (Accelerated Power Reform and Development Programme) with
its incentives and penalties, and the creation of creation of independent regulatory commissions, were
the means to bring about reforms to improve financial viability of power sector. Implementation has
been half-hearted and results disappointing. The concurrent nature of electricity in the Constitution
impedes power sector improvement. States are more responsive to populist pressures than the central
government, and less inclined to take drastic action against electricity thieves.
V. Captive power would add significantly to capacity. However, captive generation, three years after the
Act enabled it, has added little to capacity because rules for open access were delayed. Redefined
captive generation avoids state vetoes on purchase or sale of electricity except to state electricity
enterprises. Mandating open access on state-owned wires to power regardless of ownership and
customer would encourage electricity trading. The Act recognized electricity trading as a separate
activity. A surcharge on transmission charges will pay for cross-subsidies. These were to be
eliminated in time. Rules for open access and quantum of surcharge by each state commission (under
broad principles defined by the central commission) have yet to be announced by some. The few who
have announced by some. The few who have announced the surcharge have kept it so high that no
trading can take place.
19.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. The author thinks it appropriate to .
(a) Discuss any policy in details and make it fool proof instead of implementing it hastily.
(b) follow Indian tradition meticulously as skepticism is essential for major decisions.
(c) divert our energies from fruitlessly contracting policies to supporting its implementation
wholeheartedly.
(d) intellectual arguments and conceptualization of every policy is definitely better than its
enforcement.

28
2. Why are the Central undertakings not capable of generating power at low cost?
a) Due to paucity of low-cost funds b) Due to their access to Government funds
c) Due to their delusion about government funds d) Because of their extra capacities
3. Which of the following is the reason for apathy of private investors in power sector?
a) Their hesitation b) Uncertainty of their survival
c) Cut-throat competition d) Lack of guarantee of timely returns
4. What was the serious omission on the part of the State Government?
(a) Agreement for late recovery of dues
(b) Reluctance to repay to private investors as per agreed plan
(c) Non-implementation of recovery due to unplanned and haphazard policies
(d) Lack of assurance from private enterprises
5. Which of the following is/are considered necessary for improving performance of electricity
enterprises?
a) Corporate work culture b) Privatisation
c) Properly integrated State enterprises d) None of these
6. The example of ‘Delhi Model’ quoted by the author underlines his feelings of .
A. happiness about its success.
B. unhappiness for lack of public support.
C. disgust towards privatisation.
a) A and B only b) B and C only c) A and C only d) None of these
7. Why were the results of the power sector reforms not as had been anticipated?
(a) The means to bring about reforms were ill- conceived
(b) The enforcement of the reform means was inadequate and apathetic.
(c) The Act and the reform measures were contradicting with each other.
(d) The incentives on the one hand and penalties on the other created dissatisfaction.
8. What serious drawback of the States is pointed out by the author of the passage?
(a) The incentives and penalties enforced by the States were disproportionately incomparable
(b) The enforcement of the provisions of the acts was drastic and harsh
(c) Their vulnerability to fall prey to populist pressures
(d) Imposition of penalties were not judicious and incentives were not free from partiality
9. Choose the word or group of words which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word printed in
bold DELUSION
a) Proper understanding b) Wrong prediction c) False belief d) Unrealistic optimism
10. Choose the word which is most opposite in meaning of the word printed in bold IMPEDES
a) Interferes b) Grows c) Excels d) Promotes

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20. Read the passage given below.
I. In today’s idea-driven economy, the cost of time is what really matters. With the constant pressure to
innovate, it makes little sense to waste countless collective hours commuting. So, the most efficient
and productive regions are those in which people are thinking and working-not sitting in traffic.
II. The auto-dependent transportation system has reached its limit in most major cities and mega- regions.
Commuting by car is among the least efficient of all our activities - not to mention among the least
enjoyable, according to detailed research by the Nobel Prize - winning economist Daniel Kahneman
and his colleagues. Though one might think that the economic crisis beginning in 2007 would have
reduced traffic (high unemployment means fewer workers traveling to and from work), the opposite
has been true. Average commutes have lengthened, and congestion has gotten worse, if anything. The
average commute rose in 2008 to 25.5 minutes, “erasing years of decreases to stand at the level of
2000, as people had to leave home earlier in the morning to pick up friends for their ride to work or to
catch a bus or subway train,” according to the U.S. Census Bureau, which collects the figures. And
those are average figures. Commutes are far longer in the big West Coast cities of Los Angeles and
San Francisco and the East Coast cities of New York, Philadelphia, Baltimore, and Washington D.C.
In many of these cities, gridlock has become the norm, not just at rush hour but all day, every day.
III. The costs are astounding. In Los Angeles, congestion eats up more than 485 million working hours a
year; that’s seventy hours, or nearly two weeks, of full- time work per commuter. In D.C., the time
cost of congestion is sixty-two hours per worker per year. In New York it’s forty-four hours. Average
it out, and the time cost across America’s thirteen biggest city regions is fifty-one hours per worker per
year. Across the country, commuting wastes 4.2 billion hours of work time annually - nearly a full
work-week for every commuter. The overall cost to the U.S. economy is nearly $90 billion when lost
productivity and wasted fuel are taken into account. At the Martin Prosperity Institute, we calculate
that every minute shaved off America’s commuting time is worth $19.5 billion in value added to the
economy. The numbers add up fast: five minutes is worth $97.7 billion; ten minutes, $195 billion;
fifteen minutes, $292 billion.
IV. It’s ironic that so many people still believe the main remedy for traffic congestion is to build more
roads and highways, which of course only makes the problem worse. New roads generate higher levels
of “induced traffic,” that is, new roads just invite drivers to drive more and lure people who take mass
transit back to their cars. Eventually, we end up with more clogged roads rather than a long-term
improvement in traffic flow.
V. The coming decades will likely see more intense clustering of jobs, innovation, and productivity in a
smaller number of bigger cities and city-regions. Some regions could end up bloated beyond the
capacity of their infrastructure, while others struggle, their promise stymied by inadequate human or
other resources.

30
20.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. The average commute rose in 2008 to .
a) 15.5 minutes (b) 20.5 minutes (c) 25.5 minutes (d) 30.5 minutes
2. Which of the following is not an East Coast city?
a) New York (b) Philadelphia (c) Washington D.C. (d) Los Angeles
3. The passage most strongly suggests that researchers at the Martin Prosperity Institute share which
assumption?
(a) Employees who have longer commutes tend to make more money than employees who have
shorter commutes.
(b) Employees who work from home are more valuable to their employers than employees who
commute.
(c) Employees whose commutes are shortened will use the time saved to do additional productive
work for their employers.
(d) Employees can conduct business activities, such as composing memos or joining conference calls,
while commuting.
4. As used in the passage, ‘intense’ most nearly means
a) determined b) emotional c) concentrated d) brilliant
5. Which claim about traffic congestion is supported by the graph?
(e) Commuters in Detroit spend more time delayed annually by traffic congestion than do commuters
in Houston, Atlanta, and Chicago.
(f) New York City commuters spend less time annually delayed by traffic congestion than the average
for very large cities.
(g) Los Angeles commuters are delayed more hours annually by traffic congestion than are
commuters in Washington D.C.
(h) Commuters in Washington D.C., face greater delays annually due to traffic congestion than do
commuters in New York City.
6. In Washington D.C., the time cost of congestion is per worker per year.
a) Sixty two hours b) Seventy two hours c) Fifty one hours d) Sixty five hours
7. What is the overall cost to the U.S. economy when lost productivity and wasted fuel are taken into
account?
a) $20 billion b) $50 billion c) $70 billion d) $90 billion
8. Which of the following statements is not true?
(i) In today’s idea-driven economy, the cost of time is what really matters.
(j) In Los Angeles, congestion eats up more than 485 million working hours a year.
(k) Commutes are far longer in the big East Coast cities of Los Angeles and San Francisco.
(l) The coming decades will likely see more intense clustering of jobs, innovation, and productivity in
a smaller number of bigger cities and city-regions.

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21. Read the passage given below:
1 All people, but ladies in particular, watch out. The next time you purchase cosmetics, ensure that you
are safe, Contrary to all the promises made by the industry, a number of cosmetics are health hazards and
may turn you ugly instead of prettier
2 Constant research and studies have shown that cosmetics are toxic, containing chemicals and other
ingredients which may cause cancer. Some brands of talcum powders are said to contain asbestos.
Unfortunately, consumers, particularly women, are carried away by telling and attractive advertisements.
Very rarely do they read the contents of the cosmetics they use.
3. Take, for instance, the shampoo used for cleaning hair. Hundreds of brands are available in the
market, each one promising something special and noble. It is a common belief that using soap to clean your
hair is harmful. But a comparative research carried out by a doctor with the help of a consumer union in
Japan has found that shampoo can damage your hair and result in hair loss.
4. Research has revealed that the thickest hair among the shampoo users was only 0.097 mm, whereas
soap users had 0.115 mm. Similarly, shampoo users also had hair as thin as 0.072 mm as compared to soap
users who had 0.1 mm thin hair.
5. Years ago, people used to dye their hair black. But nowadays women dye their hair in different
colours, ignoring the harmful effects it has on health. You can find women not only with dark brown and
light violet coloured hair, but just about any colour that one can think of. The latest trend is to get streaks of
different colours on one's hair. For this aluminium foil is used. Men are not far behind-they too, get their hair
coloured in different hues and streaks.
6. Hair dyes, which may be bleaches, temporary dyes, semi-permanent dyes and permanent dyes,
chemicals like ammonia and hydrogen peroxide, P-phenylenediamine and toluene diamines. Hydrogen
Peroxide is said to have a damaging effect on hair.
7. According to a report in Utusan Konsumer, temporary dyes contain metallic substances like lead,
which are toxic and can be absorbed through the scalp into the body. These temporary dyes are derived from
benzidine known to produce bladder cancer.

21.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the questions:
1. What should one see while purchasing cosmetics?
(a) Its retail price (b) Date of expiry (c) Its contents (d) Date of manufacture
2. What is a common belief regarding soaps?
(a) It is harmful for hair (b) It is harmful for skin
(c) It is harmful for nails (d) All of the above
3. What is the recent trend in hair style?
(a) Spikes (b) Razor cut (c) Smoothening (d) Streaks
4. A word in para 5 that means the same as "disregard":
(a) streaks (b) harmful (c) ignore (d) hues
5. The word ‘derived’ in the last paragraph means………..
(a) stolen (b) purchased (c) obtained (d) loaned
6. The women should be cautious while choosing cosmetics because they ………..
(a) contain toxic
(b) they may cause cancer
(c) they can damage hair
(d) All of these.
7. The hair thickness is more for the …………… users.
(a) shampoo (b) soap (c) foil (d) none of these

32
8. Some cosmetics contain toxins like ……… that cause cancer in bladders was found out by Utusan
Konsumer.
(a) lead (b) phenylenediamine (c) diamines (d) aluminium
9. Find out the word which means the same as ‘virtuous’in para 3.
(a) special (b) harmful (c) noble (d) none of these
10. ……… get their hairs coloured in different colours.
(a) men (b) women (c) both A&B (d) none of these.

22. Read the passage given below:

1. The outer solar system is the name of
the planets beyond the asteroid belt. These
planets are called gas giants because they
are made up of gas and ice. They contain
ninety- nine per cent of the mass in our
entire solar system!
2. The first stop of our tour is the fifth
planet, Jupiter. Jupiter is bigger than three
hundred Earths! Made up of hydrogen and
helium and a few other gases, there are
violent wind storms that circle around Jupiter. The most famous storm is called the Great Red Spot. It has
been churning for more than four hundred years already. A last count, Jupiter has sixty-three known moons
and a faint ring around it too.
3. Next in our space neighbor-hood comes Saturn. It is well-known for the series of beautiful rings that
circle it. They are made up of tiny bits of frozen dirt and ice. Like Jupiter, Saturn is made up of mostly
hydrogen and helium. It is smaller though, only ninety-five times the size of Earth! Saturn has sixty-two
moons!
4. The seventh planet, Uranus and its twenty seven moons orbit very far from the sun. In addition to
helium and hydrogen, Uranus atmosphere also contains ammonia ice and methane ice. It is a very cold
planet, with no internal heat source. One of the strangest things about Uranus is that it is tipped over and
orbits the sun on its side at a ninety degree angle. The twenty-seven moons that it has, orbit from top to
bottom, instead of left to right like our moon.
5. The eighth planet is Neptune. Like Uranus, it's made up of hydrogen, helium, ammonia ice and
methane ice. But unlike Uranus, Neptune does have an inner heat source. It radiates twice as much heat as it
receives from the sun. Neptune's most distinctive quality is its blue colour. Thirteen moons circle around
Neptune. Because it is so far away, scientists haven't studied Neptune very much. Most of the information
we know about it came from the Voyager-2 spacecraft passing close by it in 1989.
22.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions:
11. …….are the two gases which make up most of the planets Jupiter and Saturn.
(a) Ammonia and hydrogen (b) Helium and hydrogen
(c) Ammonia and helium (d) Methane and helium.
12. Saturn's rings are made up of …………..
(a) tiny bits of frozen dirt (b) ice (c) dirt and ice (d) tiny bits of frozen dirt and ice.
13. The most famous storm in Jupiter is ……
(a) The Great Red Spot (b) The Great Yellow Spot
(c) Asteroid Belt (d) Faint Ring
14. The word which means the same as a 'vehicle able to travel in space' is wsdd4dd

33
 (a) spacecraft (b) orbit (c) Voyager-2 (d) radiate
15. The most distinctive quality of ……..its blue colour.
(a) Uranus (b) Saturn (c) Neptune (d) Jupiter
16. Which word is not similar in meaning to ‘strangest’?
(a) bizarre (b) typical (c) perplexing (d) eccentric
17. Choose the word which is not similar in meaning to ‘giant’.
(a) colossal (b) titan (c) monster (d) diminutive
18. Jupiter is surrounded by ………..moons.
(a) 63 (b) 64 (c) 65 (d) none of these

23. Read the passage given below.

The government has finally managed to spark interest in the strategic
disinvestment of Air India, having received multiple expressions of
interest, according to the secretary of the department of investment
and public asset management (DIPAM).
1. Why is Air India seeing greater interest now? The union
government has sweetened the deal for investors as the Air India Ltd.
sale evoked no response initially. This could have possibly
encouraged interested buyers. For one, 100% of Air India is up for
grabs, compared to just 76% earlier. The Government also made a
change in the terms of bidding by allowing potential investors to bid
on the basis of enterprise value, which is equity value plus net debt. As a result, investors can determine the
amount of Air India’s debt that they would want to take on, rather than being saddled with a fixed quantum
of debt determined by the government.
2. Who are the potential bidders for the airline? The names of the bidders have not been officially
disclosed. Reports have said the Tata Group and a Section of Air India’s staff, along with the US-based firm
Interups Inc. are among the suitors for the airline. Some reports suggest that low-cost carrier Spice Jet Ltd
has also expressed interest. Getting hold of Air India will give the Tata Group and Spice Jet a strong
domestic presence, with the second highest market share by far, after Indigo. Vistara can catch up on
network coverage if it buys Air India’s operations and can leverage its image of being an aspirational airline,
said analysts at Kotak Institutional Equities.
3. What all does debt-laden Air India bring to the table? Air India’s international operations and slots are
the most coveted by potential acquirers, noted Kotak Institutional Equities analysts. The airline also has
reasonable reach and network coverage in domestic market, which will help potential acquirers gain
Considerable scale. The airline brings a lot of debt too but most of it is likely to be borne by the government.
4. What will be the likely impact of AI-Tata deal? If the Tata group bags Air India, it could pave way for
consolidation in the aviation sector, say analysts Tata Sons holds a 51% stake in Vistara and a majority stake
in Air Asia India. Air India, Air Asia and Vistara accounted for a combined domestic market share of 22.9%
in October according to data of the DGCA. The deal could make Tatas the second largest player in the sector
after Indigo, which enjoys a market share of 55.5%. However, the Tatas would have to first simplify
structures with partners in existing airlines.
5. Are there any hurdles for potential bidders? Every asset is valuable only at a certain price. If the eventual
bids are high relative to the asset value, turning the airline around could be challenging. In any case, the
acquirer will need to make radical operational changes and cut costs to make the business viable. A group
such as the Tatas, with deep pockets and a love for the aviation business, could well be willing to incur
losses for longer than others. However, unless it streamlines its various aviation operations, it may only be

34
setting up for a bigger failure with Air India acquisition. —By Pallavi
Pengonda
23.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer any eight of ten that follow:
(1) The word ‘potential’ in Para 1 does not mean the same as:
(i) possible (ii) impractical (iii) prospective (iv) likely
(2) The suitors for Air India does not include:
(i) Tata group (ii) US-based firm (iii) Spice jet (iv) Indigo
(3) On the basis of the pie chart the highest market share in domestic business is of:
(i) Tata Group (ii) Go Air (iii) Air India (iv) Indigo
(4) The word ‘suitors’ in Para 2 means the same as:
(i) suppliant (ii) opponent (iii) benefactor (iv) donor
(5) Air India debt is likely to be borne by:
(i) Tata Group (ii) The government (iii) Indigo (iv) Vistara
(6) By bagging the Air India deal Tata Sons will:
(i) get consolidation in the aviation sector.
(ii) get reasonable reach and network leverage in the domestic market.
(iii) get of being an aspirational airline leverage.
(iv) all the above
(7) To make business viable the acquirer will need to:
(i) cut costs (ii) increase asset value. (iii) make radical operational changes (iv) both (i) & (iii).
(8) Choose the option that lists statements that is NOT TRUE.
(i) The investors are not allowed to bid on the basis of enterprise value.
(ii) Air India has reasonable reach in the domestic market.
(iii) Tata Sons holds 51% stake in Vistara.
(iv) Every asset is valuable at a certain price.
(9) The word ‘coveted’ in Para 3 means the same as:
(i) Sought after (ii) Unenviable (iii) Unwanted (iv) Ineligible
(10) Tatas will set up for bigger failure with Air India acquisition if:
(i) it does not simplify structures. (ii) it does not streamline its aviation operations.
(iii) its assets are not valuable. (iv) they agree to incur losses.

35
24. Read the following passage carefully:
1. While coronavirus cases continue to rise at an alarming rate in
North America and Europe, one of the creators of the Covid-
19 vaccine developed by Pfizer and Germany’s BioNTech
says normal life will return by next winter.
2. BioNTech CEO Ugur Sahin said he was “very confident
that transmission between people will be reduced by such a
highly effective vaccine, may be not 90% but may be 50%”.
3. It’s essential that all immunisation programmes are
finished before the autumn, he said on Sunday on the BBC’s Andrew Marr Show.
4. North Dakota earlier became the 35th US state to require face coverings be worn in public as governors
across the country are grappling with a surge in coronavirus infections. North Dakota joined 38 other states
this month in reporting record daily jumps in new cases.
5. New cases nationwide rose on Friday to a daily record of over 1,77,000 the fourth straight day an all-
time high was set, according to a Reuters tally of figures from US public health agencies.
6. The US Center for Disease Control and Prevention has recommended mask wearing, and a widely cited
model estimated that a nationwide mandate could save 68,000 lives by next spring.
7. In France, the number of confirmed new cases and deaths rose sharply in the last 24 hours. France
registered 32,095 new cases and deaths in hospitals from Covid-19 rose by 359.
8. Ten people died on Saturday in a fire at a Romanian hospital treating coronavirus patients the country
agency for emergency situations said. The blaze broke out in the ICU of the Piatra Neamt country hospital
and spread to an adjoining room.
24.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
(1) Reuters tally of figures reported:
(i) an all-time spike in cases on the fourth straight day (ii) a rise in new cases nationwide.
(iii) mandatory mask wearing. (iv) 68,000 lives could be saved.
(2) The word ‘grappling’ in Para 4 DOES NOT mean the same as:
(i) struggling (ii) strenuous attempt (iii) laboured effort (iv) managing
(3) Ten people died at a Romanian hospital:
(i) while treating coronavirus patients (ii) due to fire
(iii) due to coronavirus (iv) none of the above
(4) Brazil is at the ............ position among the worst nations super ceding France and Russia.
(i) second (ii) fifth (iii) fourth (iv) third
(5) The word ‘ recommended’ in Para 6 means the same as:
(i) proposed (ii) advised (iii) advocated (iv) all the above
(6) There is not too much difference between the number of Covid cases in France and Russia but the
number of deaths are .............. in France.
(i) higher (ii) lower (iii) decreasing (iv) increasing
(7) According to the passage normal life will return by:
(i) before autumn (ii) next winter (iii) next year (iv) next spring
(8) The word ‘blaze’ in Para 8 does not mean the same as:
(i) shine (ii) fire (iii) raging flames (iv) inferno
25. Read the passage given below.
I. Overpowering prey is a challenge for creatures that do not have any limbs. Some species like Russell’s
viper, inject poison into their prey. Some others opt for an alternative non-chemical method-rat snake, for
instance, catch and push their prey against the ground to immobilize them, while pythons use their muscle

36
 power to crush their prey to death. But snakes can’t be neatly divided into poisonous and non-poisonous
categories.
II. Even species listed as non-poisonous aren’t completely free of poison. The common Sand Boa, for
instance, produces secretions particularly poisonous and dangerous to birds. So, the species does not prefer
to take any chance-it crushes its prey and injects poison as an extra step.
III. Do vipers need poison powerful enough to kill hundreds of rats with just one drop? After all, they eat
only one or two at a time.
IV. While hunting, animals try their best to kill as efficiently as possible while their prey will put in all the
efforts, use any trick to avoid getting caught and becoming a meal, such as developing immunity to the
poison. For instance, California ground squirrels are resistant to Northern pacific rattle snake getting
caught and poison.
V. Competition with prey is not the only thing driving snakes to evolve more and more deadly poison.
Snakes also have to struggle to avoid becoming prey themselves.
VI. Some snake killers are prone to have partial immunity to poison. Famously, mongooses are sure;
highly resistant to poison of cobra, and with their speed and agility, they can kill snakes fearlessly and are
relatively unharmed. It would be mean definite death of cobras as a species if they did not evolve a more
deadly poison to stop and resist the mongooses.
VII. Poison has another very important role. It has an extreme meat softening property; their specific
enzymes break up the insides of the prey. Normally, a reptile depends on the sun’s warm rays to aid it in
its digestion.
VIII. But I wonder if we cannot use the venom in our favour. In remote parts of India, local hospitality
there often involves serving leather-tough meat. I chew and chew until my jaws start aching. If I spit it out
or refuse, our hosts would be offended; I swallow like a python stuffing a deer, down its throat and hope I
don’t choke. If only I had poison.
25.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
1. How do Russell vipers attack their prey?
A. Inject poison B. Crush their prey C. Push their prey against the ground D. Bite their prey
2. Rat snakes attack their prey by —.
A. injecting poison B. crushing their prey
C. pushing their prey against the ground D. biting their prey
3. How many rats do vipers consume at a time?
A. One or two at a time B. three to four at a time C. five to six at a time D. seven to eight at a time
4. What immunity does California ground squirrels have?
A. They have grown bigger in size. B. They inject poison
C. They have become resistant to northern pacific rattle snake poison. D. They can run extremely fast.
5. Poison has one important role, it
A. makes the meat sweet B. reduces the size of the meat
C. its acts as a preservative D. makes the meat soft
6. The writer wished he had poison because——-.
A. he wanted to hurt someone. B. he wanted to know how the poison works.
C. he wanted to make the meat soft. D. none of these.
7. The synonym of the word ‘another’ in Para I is
A. opt B. alternative C. a creature D. against
8. One word for ‘liquid substances released from glands’:
A. secretions B. species C. injects D. poisonous
9. The synonym of ‘particular’ in Para 7 is —.
A. extreme B. enzymes C.aid D. specific

37
10. The word which means the same as ‘poison’ in Para 8 is ——.
A. venom B. remote C. offended D. choke
26. Read the following passage carefully:
I. Tourists to Jammu and Kashmir have another attraction-a floating post office on the Dal lake in
Srinagar, the first country. Floating Post office, Dal Lake-claimed to be the only one such post office in
the world – is built on an intricately carved maroon houseboat, fastened on the western edge of the Dal
Lake.
II. This post office lets you avail of all the regular postal services available in the country while being
afloat. The seal used on everything posted from Floating Post Office is unique- along with the date and
address. It bears the design of a boatman rowing a Shikara on the Dal Lake. The special feature of this post
office is that letters posted from here carry a special design which has the picturesque scenery of Dal Lake
and Srinagar city. These pictures reach wherever these letters are posted to and hence promote Kashmir as
a tourist destination across the world.
III. This is actually a heritage post office that has existed since British times. It was called Nehru Park Post
Office before 2011. But after that the chief postmaster John Samuel renamed it as ‘Floating Post Office’.
IV. The post office’s houseboat has two small rooms- one serves as the office and the other a small
museum that traces the philatelic history of the state postal department. It has a shop that sells postage
stamps and other products.
V. But for the locals, Floating Post Office is more than an object of fascination. Rupees 1-2 crore is
deposited per month in Floating Post Office by communities living in and around the Dal Lake. The lake
has several islets that are home to more than 50,000 people.
VI. The greatest difficulty is the recurrence of 2014 like floods in which the houseboat had gone for a toss
uncontrollably pushed by the flood. Rescue teams had to anchor it using special mechanism at a nearby
highland. Then it was brought back on the Dal after the water receded. The biggest boon is that at no time
of the year, you need a fan in this post-office!
26.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the following:
1. Before 2011, this post office was called——-.
A. Jawahar Park Post Office B. Nehru Park Post Office
C. British Post Office D. Floating Post Office
2. The seal used in the floating Post office is unique because——-.
A. It bears the design of a boatman rowing a Shikara. B. it is used by the local people.
C. There is no date and address on it. D. it is available throughout the country.
3. Floating Post Office is fastened on which edge of the Dal Lake?
A. Eastern B. Northern C. Western D. Southern
4. In which year flood struck floating Post Office?
A. 2014 B. 2004 C. 1994 D. 1894
5. The monthly deposits per month in Floating Post Office is ——-.
A. 4-5 crore B. 3-4 crore C. 2-3 crore D. 1-2 crore
6. ——— is claimed to be the only one such in the world.
A. the museum of the state postal department B. the shop that sells postage stamps
C. Floating Post Office situated on Dal Lake D. All the above
7. John Samuel, who renamed it floating Post Office, was a ———.
A. Postman B. Postmaster C. Chief Postmaster D. Chief postman
8. Which of the following statement is true?
A. Floating Post Office, Dal Lake- claimed to be the only one such post office in the world
B. Floating Post Office, Dal Lake is the largest post office in the world
C. Floating Post Office, Dal Lake is the oldest post office in the world
38
 D. Floating Post Office, Dal Lake is busiest post office in the world

27. Read the passage given below.

1. Philosophy of Education is a label applied to the study of the purpose, process, nature and ideals of
education. It can be considered a branch of both philosophy and education. Many educationalists consider it
a weak and woolly field, too far removed from the practical applications of the real world to be useful.
2. Plato is the earliest important educational thinker, and education is an essential element in "The Republic"
(his most important work on philosophy and political theory, written around 360 B.C.). In it, he advocates
some rather extreme methods: removing children from their mothers' care and raising them as wards of the
state, and differentiating children suitable to the various castes, the highest receiving the most education, so
that they could act as guardians of the city and care for the less able. He believed that education should be
holistic, including facts, skills, physical discipline, music and art.
3. Aristotle considered human nature, habit and reason to be equally important forces to be cultivated in
education, the ultimate aim of which should be to produce good and virtuous citizens. He proposed that
teachers lead their students systematically, and that repetition be used as a key tool to develop good habits,
unlike Socrates' emphasis on questioning his listeners to bring out their own ideas. He emphasized the
balancing of the theoretical and practical aspects of subjects taught, among which he explicitly mentions
reading, writing, mathematics, music, physical education, literature, history, and a wide range of sciences, as
well as play, which he also considered important.
4. During the Medieval period, the idea of Perennialism was first formulated by St. Thomas Aquinas in his
work "De Magistro". Perennialism holds that one should teach those things deemed to be of everlasting
importance to all people everywhere, namely principles and reasoning, not just facts (which are apt to
change over time), and that one should teach first about people, not machines or techniques. It was originally
religious in nature, and it was only much later that a theory of secular perennialism developed.
5. During the Renaissance, the French skeptic Michel de Montaigne (1533 - 1592) was one of the first to
critically look at education. Unusually for his time, Montaigne was willing to question the conventional
wisdom of the period, calling into question the whole edifice of the educational system, and the implicit
assumption that university-educated philosophers were necessarily wiser than uneducated farm workers, for
example.
27.1. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions:
1. Philosophy of Education is a branch of both ___________
A. Psychology and Education B. Philosophy and Education
C. Psychology and Teaching D. None of the above
2. What is the difference between the approaches of Socrates and Aristotle?
A. Aristotle felt the need for repetition to develop good habits in students; Socrates felt that students
need to be constantly questioned
B. Aristotle felt the need for rote-learning; Socrates emphasized on dialogic learning
C. There was no difference

39
 D. Aristotle emphasized on the importance of paying attention to human nature; Socrates emphasized
upon science
3.Why do educationists consider philosophy a ‘weak and woolly’ field?
A. It is not practically applicable B. Its theoretical concepts are easily understood
C. It is irrelevant for education D. None of the above
4.What do you understand by the term ‘Perennialism’ from the given passage?
A. It refers to something which is of ceaseless importance
B. It refers to something which is quite unnecessary
C. It refers to something which is abstract and theoretical
D. It refers to something which existed in the past and no longer exists now
5.‘The Republic’ is an important work on
A. Philosophy B. Political Theory C. Education D. both a and b above
6. Plato believed that -
A. only the rich have the right to acquire education B. education should be holistic
C. only a select few are meant to attend schools D. all pupils are not talented
7. According to Aristotle ultimate aim of education is
A. Produce virtuous citizens B. Produce intelligent citizens
C. Produce good citizens D. both (A)and (C)
8. Why did Aquinas propose a model of education which did not lay much emphasis on facts?
A. Facts are not important B. Facts do not lead to holistic education
C. Facts change with the changing times D. Facts are frozen in time
9. Who questioned the assumption that university-educated philosophers were necessarily wiser than
uneducated farm workers?
A. Plato B. Aristotle C. Montaigne D. Socrates
10. Choose the word which is most nearly the same in meaning as the word given in bold. ‘Skeptic’(Para 6)
A. believer B. doubter C. optimist D. disciple

28. Read the passage given below.

I. When plastic waste is burnt, a complex weave of toxic chemicals is released. Breaking down Poly Vinyl
Chloride, (PVC) is used for packaging, toys and coating electrical wires. It produces dioxin, an
organochlorine which belongs to the family of Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs). A recent Dioxin
Assessment Report brought out by the United States Environment Protection Agency (USEPA) says the risk
of getting cancer from dioxin is ten times higher than reported by the agency in 1994.
II. Yet the Delhi government is giving the green signal to a gasification project which will convert garbage
into energy without removing plastic waste. Former transport minister Rajendra Gupta, the promoter of this
project, says this is not necessary. He claims no air pollution will be caused and that the ash produced can be
used as manure. An earlier waste-to-energy project set-up in Timarpur failed. The new one, built with
Australian assistance, will cost 200 crore. It will generate 25 megawatts of power and gobble 1,000 tonnes
of garbage every day.
III. “Technologies like gasification are a form of incineration,” says Madhumita Dutta, central coordinator
with Toxics Link, New Delhi. Incineration merely transfers hazardous waste from a solid form to air, water
and ash, she points out. Toxins produced during incineration include acidic gases, heavy metals as well as
dioxins and furans. “The ‘manure’ will be hazardous and a problem to dispose,” says Dutta.
IV. Municipal solid waste contains a mix of plastics. Breaking down this waste emits hydrochloric acid
which attacks the respiratory system, skin and eyes, resulting in coughing, vomiting and nausea.
Polyethylene generates volatile compounds like formaldehyde and acetaldehyde, both suspected

40
carcinogenic. Breathing styrene from polystyrene can cause leukaemia. Polyurethane is associated with
asthma. Dioxin released by PVC is a powerful hormone disrupter and causes birth defects and reproductive
problems. There is no threshold dose to prevent it and our bodies have no defense against it.
V. “Even the best run incinerators in the world have to deal with stringent norms, apart from contaminated
filters and ash, making them hugely expensive to operate,” says Dutta. In Germany, air pollution devices
accounted for two-thirds the cost of incineration. Despite such efforts, the European Dioxin Inventory noted
that the input of dioxin into the atmosphere was the highest from incineration.
VI. How has global plastic waste disposal method changed over time? In the chart, we see the share of
global plastic waste that is discarded, recycled or incinerated from 1980 through to 2015.
Prior to 1980, recycling and incineration of plastic was negligible; 100 percent was therefore discarded.
From 1980 for incineration and 1990 for recycling, rates increased on average by about 0.7 percent per year.
In 2015, an estimated 55 percent of global plastic waste was discarded, 25 percent was incinerated and 20
percent recycled.
VII. “India does not have the facility to test dioxin and the cost of setting one up is prohibitively expensive,”
says Dutta. Besides, Indian garbage has a low calorific content of about 800 cal/kg, since it has high
moisture and requires additional fuel to burn. Toxics link calculates that the electricity generated from such
technology will cost between 5-7 per unit, which is six times higher than conventional energy. India has
chosen a dioxin preventive route and burning of chlorinated plastics is prohibited under Municipal Solid
Waste and Biomedical Rules. Nearly 80 percent of Indian garbage is recyclable or compostable. Resident
associations, the informal sector and the municipal corporation can make Delhi’s garbage disappear in a
sustainable manner. “Instead, the government promotes end of pipeline solutions,” says Dutta.

28.1. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions:
(1) Dioxine causes ………………..
(A) cancer (B) heart attack (C) hypertension (D) sickness
(2) Which statements are NOT TRUE according to the passage?
41
 1. India has adopted a preventive measure under which burning of chlorinated plastics is prohibited.
2. USEPA says that the risk of getting cancer from dioxin is hundred times higher than reported by the
agency in 1994.
3. Incineration merely transfers hazardous waste from a solid form to air, water and ash.
4. Hydrochloric acid attacks the digestive system, nose and eyes which results in diabetes and nausea.
(A) 2 and 4 (B)1 and 3 (C)3 and 4 (D)1 and 2
(3) Garbage can be converted into energy by ……………….
(A) gasification (B) gratification (C) a chemical process (D) incinators
(4) Based on the graphical chart in the passage, chose the option that correctly states the ratio between
discarded waste to recycled global plastic waste in 2015.

(A) option 1 (B) option 2 (C) option 3 (D) option 4

(5) Before 1980, how much global plastic waste was discarded?
(A) 40% (B) 60% (C) 80% (D) 100%
(6) Based on the given graphical representation of data in the passage, choose the option that lists the
statements that are TRUE.
1. In the year 2015, the incinerated plastic waste disposal was 80%.
2. In the year 1980, share of discarded plastic waste was 100%.
3. Discarded plastic waste was 60% in the year 2010.
4. Recycled plastic waste in the year 2000 was less than 70%.
(A) 1 and 3 (B) 2 and 3 (C) 1 and 4 (D) 3 and 4
(7) By 2015, how much global plastic waste has been incinerated?
(A) 55% (B) 25% (C) 20% (D) 0.7%
(8) Arrange the sentences in the order in which they occurred year wise.
1. From 1980, rates increased on average by about 0.7 percent per year for incineration.
2. 20 percent waste was recycled in 2015.
3. Prior to 1980, recycling and incineration of plastic was negligible.
4. In 2015, an estimated 55 percent of global plastic waste was discarded.
(A) 2, 1, 4, 3 (B) 4, 2, 3, 1 (C) 1, 3, 4, 2 (D) 3, 1, 4, 2

42
29. Read the passage given below.
1. No student of a foreign language needs to be told that grammar is complex. By changing word sequences
and by adding a range of auxiliary verbs and suffixes, we are able to communicate tiny variations in
meaning. We can turn a statement into a question, state whether an action has taken place or is soon to take
place, and perform many other word tricks to convey subtle differences in meaning. Nor is this complexity
inherent to the English language. All languages, even those of so-called ‘primitive’ tribes have clever
grammatical components. The Cherokee pronoun system, for example, can distinguish between ‘you and I’,
‘several other people and I’ and ‘you, another person and I’. In English, all these meanings are summed up
in the one, crude pronoun ‘We’. Grammar is universal and plays a part in every language, no matter how
widespread it is. So, the question which has baffled many linguists is—who created grammar?
2. At first, it would appear that this question is impossible to answer. To find out how grammar is created,
someone needs to be present at the time of a language’s creation, documenting its emergence. Many
historical linguists are able to trace modern complex languages back to earlier languages, but in order to
answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to observe how
languages started from scratch. Amazingly, however, this is possible.
3. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the Atlantic slave trade. At that time, slaves from a
number of different ethnicities were forced to work together under colonizer’s rule. Since, they had no
opportunity to learn each other’s languages, they developed a make-shift language called a pidgin. Pidgins
are strings of words copied from the language of the landowner. They have little in the way of grammar, and
in many cases, it is difficult for a listener to deduce when an event happened, and who did what to whom.
Speakers need to use circumlocution in order to make their meaning understood. Interestingly, however, all
it takes for a pidgin to become a complex language is for a group of children to be exposed to it at the time
when they learn their mother tongue. Slave children did not simply copy the strings of words uttered by their
elders; they adapted their words to create a new, expressive language. Complex grammar systems which
emerge from pidgins are termed creoles and they are invented by children.
4. Further evidence of this can be seen in studying sign languages for the deaf. Sign languages are not
simply a series of gestures; they utilise the same grammatical machinery that is found in spoken languages.
Moreover, there are many different languages used worldwide. The creation of one such language was
documented quite recently in Nicaragua. Previously, all deaf people were isolated from each other, but in
1979 a new government introduced schools for the deaf. Although children were taught speech and lip
reading in the classroom, in the playgrounds they began to invent their own sign system, using the gestures
that they used at home. It was basically a pidgin. Each child used the signs differently, and there was no
consistent grammar. However, children who joined the school later, when this inventive sign system was
already around, developed a quite different sign language. Although it was based on the signs of the older
children, the younger children’s language was more fluid and compact, and it utilised a large range of
grammatical devices to clarify meaning. What is more, all the children used the signs in the same way? A
new creole was born.
5. Some linguists believe that many of the world’s most established languages were creoles at first. The
English past tense –ed ending may have evolved from the verb ‘do’. ‘It ended’ may once have been ‘It end-
did’. Therefore, it would appear that even the most widespread languages were partly created by children.
Children appear to have innate grammatical machinery in their brains, which springs to life when they are
first trying to make sense of the world around them. Their minds can serve to create logical, complex
structures, even when there is no grammar present for them to copy.
29.1. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions:
1. Complexity in language is inherent to......
A. all the languages B. English C. tribal languages D. primitive languages

43
2. The Cherokee pronoun system can distinguish between......
A. You and I B. Several other people and I
C. You, another person and I D. All of these
3. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the correct sequence of the
sentences associated with the formation/ creation of grammar.
1. In order to answer the question of how complex languages are actually formed, the researcher needs to
observe how languages started from scratch.
2. Slaves developed a make-shift language called a pidgin.
3. Some linguists believe that many of the world’s most established languages were creoles at first.
4. To find out how grammar is created; someone needs to be present at the time of a language’s creation.
A. 1, 2, 3, 4 B. 3, 4, 1, 2 C. 4, 1, 2, 3 D. 2, 1, 3, 4
4. All the following sentences about Nicaraguan sign language are true except:
A. the language has been created since 1979
B. the language is based on speech and lip reading
C. the language incorporates signs which children used at home
D. the language was perfected by younger children
5. Which option represents who partly invented the complex grammar system even for the most widespread
languages?

A. image 1 B. image 2 C. image 3 D. image 4

6. Some of the most recent languages evolved due to the......
A. Atlantic slave trade B. complex grammar system
C. weak pronunciation D. none of these
7. What is common to all languages?
A. basic grammar B. the sign rules
C. grammar is common to all languages D. series of gestures
8. According to the passage what can be attributed as a consequence of the Atlantic slave trade?
A. language’s creation and documenting its emergence
B. evolution of some of the most recent languages
C. many word tricks can be performed to convey subtle differences in meaning
D. a statement can be turned into a question
9. What are creoles?
A. sign languages of deaf
B. complex grammar systems which emerge from pidgins
C. strings of words copied from the language of the landowner
D. logical grammar invented by children
10. Pick the option that correctly tells how the younger children’s mind work in the absence of grammatical
knowledge.
1. They create logical structures.
2. They imitate others.
3. They have innate grammatical machinery in their brains.
44
4. They learn other languages.
A. 2 and 3 B. 1 and 3 C. 2 and 4 D. 3 and 4
30. Read the passage given below.
Loch Ness, the largest lake in the British Isles and the largest in Europe, is the principal basin of the Great
Glen. Any possible underground passage from the Loch to the North Sea has long ago, been dammed by
some two miles of river-bought silt, thus changing the original sea Loch into a fresh water lake. It has no
curving outlines made by an indented shore or shallow bays: but instead, its riparian walls slice straight
down, giving the appearance of an enormous ditch widening to 1.5 miles and extending approximately 23
miles from Inverness in the North to Fort Augustus at the southern end, where the Caledonian Canal
continues into the Atlantic. Its depth exceeds 700 feet over much of its length, with the deepest point so far
discovered of 975 feet. The coldest water remains at a fairly, constant 42 degrees warm enough to provide a
home for literally millions of migration eels, which, according to ichthyologists have made their home here
instead of going to the sea. Along the rocky shoreline, reddishbrown algae adheres to the stones, and in the
shallows around the mouths of tributary rivers is an abundance of fresh water weeds and organic detritus, all
a possible food source for eels brown trout, salmon and stickle bags. Hence, the biomass of the Loch is
thought sufficient to support a population of large animals. The Loch inherits its name from the Greek water
Goddess Nesa, whose spirit was thought to cause the many ‗unnatural‘ occurrences in the area. If “Ness” is
given to feminine diminutive ending, it becomes “Nessie‘ – the sobriquet for the Loch Ness Monster. The
scientific name of, Nessiteras rhombopteryx has been applied to Nessie by Sir Peter Scott, Chancellor of
Birmingham University. The word Nessiteras combines the name of the Loch with the Greek word teras,
genitive of teratos, which means a ‗marvel of wonder, arousing awe, amazement and often fear ‗. The word
rhombopteryx is a combination of Greek rhombus, meaning a diamond or rhomboid shape, applies to any
animal or group of animals known to science but applies specifically to the creature first recorded by St.
Columbia in A.D. 565. From a zoological point of view, to base a name on photographs rather than the
remains of an animal is quite unsatisfactory, however, justified by the urgency to protect an endangered
species and therefore permitted by the international Code of Zoological Nomenclature.

30.1. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions:
1. It can be, assumed from the passage that the Loch Ness Monster was thought to be _________.
A. a warm water creature B. observed in AD 565
C. created during the ice age D. fabricated during the middle ages
2. According to the passage, which of the following has been offered as evidence of existence of the Loch
Ness Monster ____________ .
A. photographs of the creature
B. the lake‘s organic contents which are suitable food for such creatures.
C. observations b zoologists
D. discovery of the creature‘s remains
3. The word riparian refers to the
A. base of the river B. depth of the river C. bank of the river D. sludge in the river
4. When the author uses the ‗ ichthyologists‘, he is referring to ______ .
A. Zoologists who study fish B. Conservationists
C. Wildlife experts D. Geologists
5. Loch Ness is _____.
A. naturally formed B. formed from underground passage.
C. formed by a dam made by river silt D. man made
6. The creatures of the Loch feed on __________.

45
 i) red algae and water weeds ii) organic detritus
iii) water weeds and silt iv) none of the above
Choose the right option:
A. i and ii B. ii and iii C. i and iii D. iv
7. Which diagram represents the loch‘s shoreline:

(A) (B) (C) (D)

8 Which picture given below correctly depicts the LOCH.

(A) (B) (C) (D)

31. Read the passage given below:
1. All of Earth's oceans share one thing in common: plastic pollution. Discarded plastic bags, cups, and
bottles make their way into the sea. Today, it seems that no part of the ocean is safe from plastic
trash. In recent years, oceanographers have searched in vain for a pristine marine environment. They
have found plastic everywhere they have looked. "It is a common global problem, we can't point to a
single habitat or location with no plastic."
2. Plastic harms wildlife and introduces dangerous chemicals into marine Eco systems - communities of
organisms interacting with their surroundings. Once plastic enters the environment, it lasts a long
time. Scientists are working to prevent plastic pollution from entering the sea.
3. When people litter, or when trash is not properly disposed of, things like plastic bags, bottles, straws,
foam beverage cups get carried to the sea by winds and waterways. About 80 percent of ocean plastic
originates on land. The rest comes from marine industries such as shipping and fishing.
4. In 2015, engineer Jenna Jambeck at the University of Georgia and other researchers calculated that at
least 8 million tons of plastic trash is swept into the ocean from coasts every year. That's the
equivalent of a full garbage truck of plastic being dumped into the sea every minute. If current trends
in plastic production and disposal continue, that figure will double by 2025. A report published by
the World Economic Forum last year predicts that by 2050, ocean plastic will outweigh all the fish in
the sea.
5. In today's world, plastic is everywhere. It's found in shoes, clothing, household items, electronics,
and more. There are different types of plastics, but one thing they all have in common is that they're
made of polymers - large molecules made up of repeating units. Their chemical structure gives them

46
 a lot of advantages: they're cheap and easy to manufacture, lightweight, water-resistant, durable, and
can be moulded into nearly any shape.
6. Unfortunately, some of the properties that make plastics great for consumer goods also make them a
problem pollutant. Plastic's durability comes in part from the fact that unlike paper or wood, it
doesn't biodegrade, or break down naturally. Instead it just fragments, or breaks into tiny pieces over
time. These tiny pieces, known as micro plastic, can potentially stick around for hundreds or perhaps
even thousands of years.
7. Another problem with plastics is the other chemicals they contain, like dyes and flame retardants.
When plastic isn't disposed of properly, these additives end up in the environment. Plastic also tends
to absorb harmful chemicals from its surroundings. "It's like a sponge for persistent organic
pollutants." These long lasting, toxic substances include pesticides and industrial chemicals. If plastic
absorbs the chemicals, and marine organisms eat the plastic, they may be exposed to higher
concentrations of these contaminants.
8. One of the biggest impacts of plastic pollution is its effect on sea life. Seals, sea turtles, and even
whales can become entangled in plastic netting. They can starve to death if the plastic restricts their
ability to move or eat. Or the plastic can cut into the animals' skin, causing wounds that develop
severe infections.
9. Sea turtles eat plastic bags and soda-can rings, which resemble jellyfish, their favourite food.
Seabirds eat bottle caps or chunks of foam cups. Plastic pieces may make an animal feel full, so it
doesn't eat enough real food to get the nutrients it needs. Plastic can also block an animal's digestive
system, making it unable to eat.
10. Plastic and its associated pollutants can even make it into our own food supply. Scientists recently
examined fish and shell-fish bought at markets in California and Indonesia. They found plastic in the
guts of more than a quarter of samples purchased at both locations. In organisms that people eat
whole, such as sardines and oysters that means we're eating plastic too. In larger fish, chemicals from
plastic may seep into their muscles and other tissues that people consume.
11. One way to keep the ocean cleaner and healthier is through cleanup efforts. A lot of plastic waste
caught in ocean currents eventually washes up on beaches. Removing it can prevent it from blowing
out to sea again. Beach clean-up is ocean clean-up.
12. Cleanup efforts can't reach every corner of the ocean or track down every bit of micro plastic. That
means it's critical to cut down on the amount of plastic that reaches the sea in the first place.
Scientists are working toward new materials that are safer for the environment. For example,
Jambeck and her colleagues are currently testing a new polymer that breaks down more easily in
seawater.
13. "Individual actions make a big difference," says Jambeck. Disposing of plastic properly for recycling
or trash collection is a key step. "And simple things like reusable water bottles, mugs, and bags really
cut down on waste," she says. Skipping straws or using paper ones helps too. Ocean pollution can
seem overwhelming, but it's something everyone can help address. This is a problem we can really
do something about.
31.1. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions:
1. Litter and trash get carried into the sea by:
a) truck (b) winds and waterways (c) fish (d) disposed by people
2. All the fish in the sea will be outweighed by ocean plastic as a result of-
a) a report (b) plastic trash swept into ocean
(c) dumping of a full garbage truck (d) prediction by World Eco Forum.
3. Plastic is not biodegradable because it is made up of :

47
 a) low atomic particles (b) tiny particles
c) strong big particles (d) large molecule polymers
4. Sea turtle's favourite food :
a) bottle caps (b) jellyfish c) plastic bags and soda-can rings (d) chunks of foam cups
5. Out of the samples, scientists collected, they found plastic in
a) whole of the sample (b) a quarter of samples
c) more than a quarter of the samples (d) a third of the samples
6. Which of these are biodegradable
(i) straw (ii) paper (iii) foam cups (iv) wood
(a) (i) & (iii) (b) (ii) & (iii) (c) (ii) & (iv) (d) (i) & (iv)
7. Find the word similar in meaning to - unspoiled (para 1)
a) habitat (b) vain (c) discarded (d) pristine
8. Scientists are looking for solution like
a) beach cleaning (b) manufacturing water resistant polymers
c) blowing out (d) manufacturing easily breakable polymer
9. Man too is landing up consuming plastic when he has
a) Sea weeds & shell fish (b) Sea turtle & river fish
(c) Shell fish & snakes (d) Sardines & shell fish
10. Pick out the words/phrases from the passage which are similar in meaning to the following :
i) possibly/capable of becoming (para 6) ii) a form of life (para 10)
a) potentially, organism b) problems, pollutants
c) durability, sardines d) fragments, consume

32. Read the passage given below.

The Ganges is one of the largest rivers in Asia. It rises in the Himalaya Mountains and flows over 2500 km
through India and Bangladesh into the Bay of Bengal. However, the Ganges, India's holy river, is also one
of the most polluted in the world. The Ganges River basin has a size of over 1 million square km. It lies in
one of the most populous regions on earth. About 500 million people, half of India's overall population,
live in the Ganges river plains.
There are many causes of Ganges river pollution. About 2 million Hindus battle in the river every day.
During religious ceremonies, up to a hundred million people clean their sins away in the Ganges River.
They believe that bathing in the river will make them pure. In addition, thousands of bodies are cremated
near the river, especially around the holy city, Varanasi. The ashes are often released into Ganges.
The Ganges also provides water for farming land, which is increasing at a tremendous rate. Irrigation
projects cause water levels to go down along the river. More and more dams are being erected along
India's holy river, mainly to produce energy for Delhi and other large cities in the area. The river flows
through 30cities with a population of over 100,000 each. Every day, 3 billion litres of untreated water from
these big cities pass into the Ganges river, along with remains of animals.
Ganges River Pollution: A case Study of Causes
of Ganges River Pollution.
Because of India's lax environmental
regulations, industries along the river release
chemicals and other poisonous material into the
Ganges. In some places they are a thousand
times over the allowed limit. Especially India's
traditional leather industry needs great amounts

48
of water. In addition, fertilizers from the fields find their way into the ground water, and ultimately flow
into the river. Altogether, the amount of Industrial pollution has doubled in the past 20 years.
This wide spread pollution of the Ganges river has also led to major health problems. Many diseases are
common, including cholera, hepatitis and diarrhea. While India's population keeps growing, more and
more people are leaving the countryside and moving to big cities along the Ganges. As a result, the river
will not be able to cope with even more people.
Life in the river is also at risk. Recent reports have shown that there is a high level of mercury in some
fish. The construction of dams is destroying forests and vegetation, killing off many animals and plants.
Indian authorities are fighting an upward battle towards cleaning up Ganges river. International
organization shave offered help. The World Bank has agreed to give India a loan of up to a million dollars
to clean up the Ganges river.
32.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. From which of the following neighbouring countries, the Ganges flows through India into the Bay of
Bengal?
a) China (b) Bhutan (c) Bangladesh (d) Sri Lanka
2. How many people (in million) clean their sins away in the Ganges River?
(a) 2 (b) 100 (c) 500 (d) 750
3. According to the passage, which disease in not common due to the wide spread pollution of the
Ganges River?
a) Influenza (b) Diarrhea (c) Hepatitis (d) Cholera
4. According to the passage, which industry in India needs great amount of water?
a) Lock (b) Dyeing (c) Cloth (d) Leather
5. Which International organisation has agreed to give India a loan of a billion dollar to clean up the
Ganges River?
a) The World Bank (b) IMF (c) ADB (d) IDA
6. The bar graph shows that the River Ganges has got polluted badly. The sewage treatment plants had
been established. Which of the following is true?
(a) The treatment capacity is equal to the sewage generation
(b) The sewage generation is less than the treatment plant.
(c) The sewage generation is more than the treatment capacity installed.
(d) The treatment plant is sufficient.
7. How can we say that life in the river is at risk?
a) dam built (b) high level of mercury in fish c) killing birds (d) low water level
8. The bar graph shows that the River Ganges has got polluted badly. The sewage treatment plants had
been established. Which of the following is true?
(a) The treatment capacity is equal to the sewage generation
(b) The sewage generation is less than the treatment plant.
(c) The sewage generation is more than the treatment capacity installed.
(d) The treatment plant is sufficient.

49
33. Read the passage given below:
I. In the book "Lives of the Most Eminent English Poets (1179-1781)", the author Samuel Johnson made the
first use of the word Metaphysical Poetry. He used the term Metaphysical poets to define a loose group of
the poets of 17th century. The group was not formal and most of the poets put in this category did not know
or read each other's writings. This group's most prominent poets include John Donne, Andrew Marvell,
Abraham Cowley, George Herbert, Henry Vaughan, Thomas Traherne, Richard Crashaw, etc. He noted in
his writing that all of these poets had the same style of wit and conceit in their poetry.
II. Metaphysical poetry is a genre of poetry that deals with deep and profound subjects like spirituality,
religion, etc. It asks questions that science cannot answer. It takes one beyond the physical world and gives
new perspectives through its imagery, wit and paradox.
III. Metaphysical poetry talks about deep things. It talks about soul, love, religion, reality etc. You can never
be sure about what is coming your way while reading a metaphysical poem. There can be unusual
philosophies and comparisons that will make you think and ponder.
IV. The most important characteristics of metaphysical poetry is "undissociated sensibility" (the
combination of feeling and thoughts).
V. Even though it talks about serious stuff, it talks about it in a humorous way. The tone is sometimes light.
It can be harsh sometimes too. The purpose is to present a new idea and make the reader think.
VI. Another characteristic of such poetry is that it is unclear. Because it provides such complicated themes,
the idea of metaphysical poems is somewhat not definite. It depends on the perception and experiences of
the reader.
VII. The unusual comparison of things in poetry is one of its unique and most interesting characteristics. All
the metaphysical have ability for unusual witty comparison, juxtaposition, and imagery. These unusual
comparisons are metaphysical conceits. As Donne in Twicknam Garden uses expression "spider love" that is
contrary to the expectations of the readers. In the same poem, Donne also compares lovers' tears to wine of
love that is unusual use of juxtaposition. Conceit compares very dissimilar things. For example bright
smoke, calling lovers as two points of compass, taking soul as dew drop, etc.
VIII. The metaphysical poetry is brain-sprung, not heart-felt. It is intellectual and witty.
IX. According to Grierson, the two chief characteristics of metaphysical poetry are paradoxical ratiocination
and passionate feelings.
X. Another feature of the metaphysical poetry is its fantastic lyrics style. As A. C. Word said: "The
metaphysical style is a combination of two elements, the fantastic form and style, and the incongruous in
matter manner". The versification of the metaphysical poetry is also coarse and jerky like its diction. The
main intention of the metaphysicals was to startle the readers. They deliberately avoided conventional poetic
style to bring something new to the readers. (486 words)
33.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. Select the option that suggests someone who is not a Metaphysical Poet.
(a) Ben Johnson (b) Abraham Cowley (c) George Herbert (d) Richard Crashaw
2. According to Grierson, what are the two chief characteristics of metaphysical poetry?
(a) Passion and reason (b) Intelligence and wit
(c) Romanticism and passion (d) Paradoxical ratiocination and passionate feelings
3. Select the name of the literary personality who first used the term Metaphysical Poetry.
(a) Samuel Johnson (b) Ben Johnson (c) Oliver Goldsmith (d) John Greene
4. The unusual comparison used in Metaphysical Poetry is termed as:
(a) Metaphysical comparison (b) Metaphysical antonyms
(c) Metaphysical contrast (d) Metaphysical conceits
5. The versification of Metaphysical Poetry is and .

50
 (a) coarse, jerky (b) smooth, balanced (c) rough, neglected (d) coarse, balanced
6. Select the meaning of the phrase 'undissociated sensibility'.
(a) Assimilation of feelings and thoughts
(b) Separation of feelings and thoughts
(c) Unconsolidated spiritual thoughts
(d) Unorganized thoughts and feelings
7. Why the Metaphysical Poets are termed as loose group of poets of the 17th century?
(a) The group was not official and did not have a name.
(b) It was a secret group.
(c) The members lived in different parts of the world.
(d) It was not a formal group of poets and the members were unknown and unfamiliar to each other
and their writings.
8. The poetry written by the Metaphysical Poets was part of
(a) 18th century literature (b) 17th century literature
(c) 21st century literature (d) 20th century literature
9. Metaphysical poetry deals with…. Select the correct option.
(a) Science and physics (b) Love and romance
(c) Spirituality and religion (d) History and humanity
10. What is the meaning of the term conceits?
(a) An ingenious or fanciful comparison or metaphor (b) Simile between two objects
(c) Paradox between two objects, events and the like (d) Irony of fate

34. Read the given passage to answer the questions that follow.
I. The density of population is expressed as the number of persons per square kilometer.
II. The average density of population in India is 382 persons/ square km. (Census 2011)
III. Areas of Extremely Low Density:
• Areas having 100 persons per sq km and less than that at Included in this class.
• They include Arunachal Pradesh (17), Mizoram (52), Andaman and Nicobar Islands (46), and Sikkim
(86). Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram are located in remote and inaccessible parts of northeast India.
• Sikkim is also a mountainous area with a low density of population. Andaman and Nicobar Islands is
situated far away from the Indian mainland. The hot and humid climate of these islands is injurious to
health and very little economic development has taken place here.
IV. Areas of Low Density:
• Areas having a population density of 101 to 250 persons per sq km are included in this class.
• These states are Nagaland (119), Manipur (122), Himachal Pradesh (123), Jammu and Kashmir (124),
Meghalaya (132), Chhattisgarh (189), Uttarakhand (1891), Rajasthan (201), and Madhya Pradesh (236).
Meghalaya, Manipur, and Nagaland are hilly, forested, and dissected areas of northeast India.
• These areas suffer from almost the same problems as those of Arunachal Pradesh and Mizoram,
although to a lesser extent. Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand are parts of the north-western
Himalayan region and have very little level land to support high population density.
• Jammu and Kashmir have
• Vast areas devoid of population. Only some parts of the Jammu region and Kashmir valley are thickly
populated. Large stretches of Leh (Ladakh) and Kargil have a population density of less than ten
persons per sq km.
• Most of Rajasthan is a sandy desert lacking in water resources and does not support high population
density. Western parts of the state is having even less than 50 persons per sq km whereas eastern and

51
 northeastern parts of this state have sufficient resources and have a comparatively high density of
population.
• Madhya Pradesh is a part of the Deccan Plateau and is having rugged topography of hard rocks. It is
largely inhabited by the tribal people. As such, the population density in this state also is low
V. Areas of Moderate Density
• This class includes those areas which are having 251 to 500 persons per sq km.
• Odisha (269), Gujarat (308), Andhra Pradesh including Telangana (308), Karnataka (319), Tripura
(350), Maharashtra (345), Goa (394), Assam (397), and Jharkhand (414) are included in this category.
• These areas are wide apart from one another and there are different reasons for moderate density of
population in different areas. For example. Assam has tea estates whereas Andhra Pradesh, Telangana,
Odisha, Karnataka, and Jharkhand have agricultural and mineral resources.
• Maharashtra is a highly urbanized and industrialized state. The neighboring state of Gujarat also has
urban and industrial growth.
• Among North Eastern states Tripura has sufficient level land which supports moderate population
density.
VI. Areas of High Density:
• These are areas having a population density of 501 to 1000 per sq km. States and union territories
included in this category are Punjab (550), Tamil Nadu (555), Haryana (573), Dadra & Nagar Haven
(698), Uttar Pradesh (828), and Kerala (859).
• Punjab and Haryana have highly developed agriculture.
• Similarly, Tamil Nadu's population is based on agriculture and industries. The coastal plain of Kerala
is also very fertile. However, Kerala has started showing a decline in the growth rate of the population.
• Uttar Pradesh is located in the fertile Ganga Plain and supports high population density.
VII. Areas of Very High Density:
• Areas having more than 1000 persons per sq km are termed as areas of very high population density.
• West Bengal (1029), Bihar (1102), Lakshadweep (2013), Daman & Diu (2169) Pondicherry (2548).
Chandigarh (9252) and Delhi (11,297) have a very high density of population due to different factors
operating in different areas.
• Like Uttar Pradesh, Bihar is located in the fertile plain of Ganga and supports a very high population
density.
• It seems that measures to control for
population growth have not given the desired
results and Bihar has now surpassed West
Bengal as the state with the highest density of
population among the major states.
• West Bengal is located in the Ganga delta
which is one of the most fertile areas of the
world, producing 3-4 crops of rice in a year.
• In addition, India's biggest industrial cluster
is located in the Hugli basin.
• Among the union territories, Delhi has
experienced one of the fastest population
growths as a result of which its population
density has increased considerably. People
migrate to Delhi in large numbers in search of
livelihood, and better amenities of life.

52
34.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. Select the option that suggests the state having the highest population density.
(a) West Bengal (b) Gujarat (c) Rajasthan (d) Chandigarh
2. Select the option that shows the union territory having the highest population density.
(a) Pondicherry (b) Daman and Diu (c) Andaman and Nicobar (d) Delhi
3. Select the correct option that gives the range of population density of Lakshadweep (refer to Fig.1).
(a) 101-250 (b) 1001 and above (c) 501-1000 (d) 251-500
4. Select the correct set of cause and effect.
(a) Cause: Kargil is a dry and cold area with lack of basic amenities.
Effect: Kargil has high density of population.
(b) Cause: Most of Rajasthan is a sandy desert lacking in water resources.
Effect: Rajasthan has high density of population.
(c) Cause: Punjab and Haryana have highly developed argicultural amenities.
Effect: The states have high density of population.
(d) Cause: Uttar Pradesh is located in the fertile plains of Ganga.
Effect: Uttar Pradesh cannot sustain high density of population.
5. Select the option that suggests the average density of population in India.
(a) 823 persons per sq. km. (b) 328 persons per sq. km.
(c) 382 persons per sq. km. (d) 392 persons per sq. km.
6. Select the option that suggests the population density of Karnataka.
(a) 320 (b) 319 (c) 322 (d) 324
7. Select the correct option.
(a) Maharashtra is neither an urbanized nor industrial state.
(b) Maharashtra is a highly urbanized and industrial state.
(c) Maharashtra is a highly urbanized state but not industrialized.
(d) Maharashtra is a backward and poor state.
8. Select the correct option.
(a) West Bengal has both agricultural and industrial facilities to support population.
(b) West Bengal has neither agricultural nor industrial facilities to support population.
(c) West Bengal has only agricultural facility to support population.
(d) West Bengal has only industrial facilities to support population.
35. Read the passage given below:
1. The discovery that language can be a barrier to communication is quickly made by all who travel,
study, govern or sell. Whether the activity is tourism, research, government policing, business, or data
dissemination, the lack of a common language can severely impede progress or can halt it altogether.
'Common language' here usually means a foreign language, but the same point can be applied in principle to
any encounter with unfamiliar dialects or styles within a single language. "They don't talk the same
language" has a major metaphorical meaning alongside its literal one.
2. Although communication problems of this kind must be happening thousands of times each day,
very few such as strikes, lost orders, legal problems, or fatal accidents - even, at times, war go unreported.
One reported instance of communication failure took place in 1970, when several Americans ate a species of
poisonous mushrooms. No remedy was known, and two of the people died within days. A radio report of the
case was heard by a chemist who knew of treatment that had successfully used in 1959 and published in
1963. Why had the American doctors not heard of it seven years later? Presumably because the report of the
treatment had been published only in a journal written in European languages other than English.

53
3. Several comparable cases have been reported. But isolated examples do not give an impression of the
size of the problem. In the English speaking scientific world, for example, surveys of books and documents
consulted in libraries and other information agencies have shown that very little foreign language material is
ever consulted. Library requests in the field of science and technology showed that only 13 per cent were for
foreign language periodicals.
4. The language barrier presents itself in stark form to firms who wish to market their products in other
countries. British industry, in particular, has in recent decades often been criticized for its linguistic
insularity - for its assumption that foreign buyers will be happy to communicate in English, and that
awareness of other languages is not therefore a priority. In the 1960s, over two-thirds of British firms
dealing with non-English speaking customers were using English for outgoing correspondence; many had
their sales literature only in English and as many as 40 per cent employed no one able to communicate in the
customers' languages.
5. The criticism and publicity given to this problem since 1960s seems to have greatly improved the
situation. Industrial training schemes have promoted an increase in linguistic and cultural awareness. Many
firms now have their own translation services; to take just one example in Britain, Rowntree Mackintosh
now publish their documents in six languages (English, French, German, Dutch, Italian and Xhosa). Some
firms run part-time language courses in the languages of the countries with which they are most involved;
some produce their own technical glossaries to ensure consistency when material is being translated. It is
now much more readily appreciated that marketing efforts can be delayed, damaged, or disrupted by a
failure to take account of the linguistic needs of the customer.

6. The changes in awareness have been most marked in English speaking countries, where the
realization has gradually dawned that by no means everyone in the world knows English well enough to
negotiate in it.
35.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage, answer the following questions by choosing the most
appropriate option.
1. What are the major effects of the language barrier on the progress of a nation?
(a) It can slow down or stop progress. (b) It can affect tourism.
(c) It can affect the foreign exchange situation. (d) None of these
2. When is communication failure publicized ?
(a) When the country revenues fall (b) When a war breaks out
(c) When major consequences occur (d) All of these
3. What makes linguistic programme successful ?
(a) Industrial training schemes (b) Popularity of English courses
(c) Lack of induction courses
4. What is the meaning of 'Linguistic insularity'?
(a) very interested in languages (b) slightly interested in languages
(c) lack of interest in other languages
5. What evidence has been collected from the survey of libraries in the English speaking scientific
world? That
(a) a lot of varied literature is read (b) Mostly one language journals exist
(c) very little foreign language material is ever consulted.
6. How have British companies tried to solve the problems of language barrier since the 1960s? By…..
(a) an increase in linguistic courses. (b) translation services
(c) Both (a) and (b)
7. The realization that English speaking nations have had is

54
 (a) English is common (b) negotiations happen in English
(c) not everyone knows enough English
DIRECTIONS (Qs. 8-10): Find the word in the passage which means the same as the following. [1×3=3]
8. (a) Hinder (para 1)
(i) halt (ii) barrier (iii) dissemination
9. (b) Barrier (para 1)
(i) halt (ii) lack (iii) impede
10. (c) Sharp clarity (para 4)
(i) priority (ii) assumption (iii) stark

36. Read the passage given below:

1. Obesity in India has more than doubled in children and tripled in adults between 1980 and 2015, as
shown in an analysis of data from 195 countries from the Global Burden of Disease Study. According to the
study published in the latest issue of The New England Journal of Medicine, India's 180 million adults,
including 14.4 million children between the ages of 2 and 19 years, are obese. Overweight and obese
children rose from 1.3% in 1980 to 3% in 2015. The corresponding rise in men was from 1% to close to 5%,
and from 2% to 7% in women.
2. "The rate at which obesity is growing in children is quite alarming as it means we will be faced with
a large number of obese adults, prone to non-communicable diseases such as diabetes, cardiovascular
diseases and even certain types of cancer," said Dr VK Bahl, Head of Cardiology Department at AIIMS.
3. India's National Family Health Survey-4 (NFHS-4), which is a pan-India survey that provides
information on population, health and nutrition, shows 2.8% of the women surveyed had very high blood
sugar levels. In men, the figure was 3.8%.
4. Hypertension is also a huge health concern, with 0.7% women and 0.9% men suffering from it.
Epidemiologic studies have identified high Body Mass Index (BMI - the weight in kilograms divided by the
square of the height in metres) as a risk factor for an expanding set of chronic diseases, including
cardiovascular disease, diabetes mellitus, chronic kidney disease, cancer, and musculoskeletal disorders.
5. In 2015, an estimated 107.7 million children, and 603.7 million adults were obese worldwide. The
overall prevalence of obesity was 5.0% among children and 12.0% among adults.
6. The peak in the prevalence of obesity was observed between the ages of 60 and 64 years among
women and between the ages of 50 and 54 years among men. From 1990 to 2015, there was a relative
increase of 28.3% in the global rate of deaths related to high BMI. From 41.9 deaths per 100,000 population
in 1990, the number jumped to 53.7 deaths per 100,000 population in 2015. However, India's obesity
prevalence is significantly lower than the levels seen in several western countries such as America, where
more than 30% of adults and 12% of children were obese in 2015.

55
36.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. According to the passage, obesity among Indian children from 1980 to 2015
(a) had been quite gradual and there was no reason to worry.
(b) had doubled.
(c) had not changed significantly.
(d) had not been much of a concern for their health.
2. The rate of growth of obesity among children is worrying because
(a) it could lead to lethargic adults in the future workforce.
(b) it could make the entire adult population weak and unproductive.
(c) a large number of adults will not be able to enter the workforce.
(d) it could put a large number of obese adults prone to non-communicable diseases.
3. The data collected from 195 countries during the period from 1980 to 2015, shows that obesity
among adults has
(a) declined by 50% (b) risen by 80% in men
(c) doubled in men (d) risen by 50%
4. India's National Family Health Survey - 4 showed blood sugar levels in
(a) women exceeded than that of men by 1%
(b) men exceeded than that of women by 1%
(c) men reduced than that of women by 10%
(d) women more than that of men by 3%
5. Choose the statement that is TRUE according to the passage:
(a) BMI is a value based on a person's height in centimetres divided by weight in grams.
(b) BMI is a value based on a person's weight in kilograms divided by height in metres.
(c) BMI is a value based on a person's height in metres divided by weight in kilograms.
(d) BMIis a value based on a person's weight in kilograms divided by the square of height in
metres.
6. "The peak in the prevalence of obesity years among men." This is mainly a reference to
(a) the age group where maximum occurrence of obesity was observed in men and women.
(b) the type of men and women where obesity was found to be common.
(c) the age group where men and women could find themselves at risk of cardiovascular
diseases.
(d) the connection between advancing age and obesity among people.
7. Based on the graphical representation of data in the passage, choose the option that lists the
statements that are TRUE with reference to the increase in percentage of obesity among adults in the period
of 1980 to 2015.
1. Women's percentage increased from 10% to 15%
2. Men's percentage increased from 10% to 15%
3. Women's percentage increased from 5% to 10%
4. Men's percentage increased from 5% to 10%
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 2 and 3 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 4
8. Which of the following statement is NOT substantiated by information in paragraph 1?
(a) Child obesity in India more than doubled in the period, 1980 to 2015.
(b) Obesity among adults tripled between 1980 and 2015.

56
 (c) This study is an analysis of data from 195 countries across the world.
(d) 14.4 million children between the ages of two and ten years were found to be obese.

37. Read the passage given below:

1. As a rule, it's difficult to pinpoint the exact start of a major literary movement. With the English Romantic
Movement, however, a single book is cited as the impetus. In 1798, two young poets, William Wordsworth
and Samuel Taylor Coleridge, needed money to finance a trip to Germany, so they pooled some of the
verses into a book, Lyrical Ballads. The collection was amazingly popular, and it enjoyed numerous re
printings. Most of the poems in Lyrical Ballads were penned by Wordsworth - only four were written by
Coleridge. These two poets are usually referred to as the first generation romantic poets. They were soon
followed by the second generation romantic poets - John Keats, Lord Byron, and Percy Bysshe Shelley.
Other poets often included in this period are William Blake, Robert Burns, Walter Savage Landor, Leigh
Hunt, and Robert Southey.
2. The use of myth and the supernatural. Several romantic authors were fascinated by the unusual, the exotic
and mythology. Even literary works that weren't focused on mythology, for example, often included
allusions to classical mythology. An example of this is Wordsworth's mention of Proteus and Triton, both
sea-gods from Greek mythology, in "The World is Too Much with us."
3. Lord Byron, a second generation romantic poet, led a tumultuous, scandalous life and is often referred to
as a flesh- and-blood romantic hero. A romantic hero is a rebel who rejects the "proper" rules of society and
is fiercely independent. Others might characterize the romantic hero as being powerful, brooding, and
isolated. Romantic heroes are generally ruled by their emotions and intuition instead of by reason and logic.
Sometimes society as a whole views these individuals as lacking morals.
4. Wordsworth and Coleridge were very close friends, and they often worked together. Even though both
were romantic writers, they often used starkly different themes and explored different topics. Wordsworth
saw positive power and inspiration in Nature, while Coleridge sometimes depicted Nature as violent and
destructive. Also, Wordsworth enjoyed making the mundane appear fascinating, while Coleridge often
attempted to make the supernatural and fantastic believable.
37.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. Select the option that suggests the name of a poet who is not a Romantic.
(a) William Wordsworth (b) P.B. Shelly (c) Matthew Arnold (d) Lord Byron
2. Select the option that suggests the characteristic features of Romantic poetry.
(a) Myth and supernatural (b) Logic and reason
(c) Benefits of industrial revolution (d) Science and physics
3. Select the option that approximately suggests the year of the beginning of Romantic Poetry.
(a) 1978 (b) 1798 (c) 1799 (d) 1897
4. Name the book that apparently marked the beginning of the Romantic poetry.
(a) Lyrical Ballads (b) Collection of Romantic Poems
(c) Songs of Innocence (d) Songs of Experience
5. Who was not a second generation Romantic poet?
(a) Lord Byron (b) William Wordsworth (c) John Keats (d) P.B. Shelly
6. Define the romantic hero in accordance to the passage.
(a) A traditional who accepts the 'proper' rules of society and acts according to it.
(b) A rebel who rejects the 'proper' rules of society and is very independent.
(c) A person is confused whether to accept and reject the norms of the society.
(d) A person who accepts some and rejects some of the proper rules of society.
7. Name the poem of William Wordsworth with the mention of sea-gods, Proteus and Triton from Greek
mythology.
(a) Daffodils (b) I Wandered Lonely as a Cloud
(c) The World is Too Much with Us (d) The Prelude

57
8. Sometimes society as a whole views these individuals as lacking . Select the correct option to fill the
blank.
(a) manners (b) morals (c) etiquette (d) logic
9. Select the correct option that appropriately fills the blanks. William portrayed Nature as positive power
and, while Coleridge depicted Nature as violent and
(a) destructive, aspiring (b) inspiration, destructive
(c) constructive, volatile (d) motivating, mundane
10. Select the correct pair of poets who sometimes worked together.
(a) John Keats, William Blake (b) William Wordsworth, S.T. Coleridge
(c) Leigh Hunt, William Wordsworth (d) P.B. Shelly, Robert Southey
38. Read the passage given below:
1. The high rates of illiteracy among Indian women-and the corollary gender gap in literacy attainment-are
attributable to many social, economic and cultural factors. Even as the benefits of female education are
public-including a more productive workforce, lower fertility and lower infant mortality-the costs such as
tuition fees and school supplies as well as opportunity costs of forgone child labour, are privately borne by
households. This leads to under investment in women's schooling. Accentuating the disadvantage for women
are the social restrictions on their mobility that prevent an educated woman from entering the labour force
and offering support to her household. The educational gender gap, therefore, is not only a reflection of the
low economic returns to female education but is also a symptom of the entrenched biases that discourage the
aspirations of women and other marginalised communities.
2. Data shows that the gender gaps in education, occupation and wages have shrunk sharply between 1983
and 2010 in most indicators; the gaps have narrowed most sharply for the youngest cohorts in the
workforce.However, these data are aggregate India-wide; given the variation in policies and outcomes across
states, it would be worthwhile to analyse dis aggregated data to better identify the causal channels at
work.This brief examines the gender gap in literacy in both national and state levels. It uses National Sample
Survey Office (NSSO) data from rounds 43, 50, 55 and 64 of the Employment and Unemployment Survey,
round 71 of the Social Consumption (Education) Survey and the Periodic Labour Force Survey (2017-18).
3. About three decades ago, the adult male literacy rate in India was almost twice that for adult females.
While this gap has narrowed substantially over the years, adult male literacy rate still surpasses the adult
female literacy rate by 17 percentage points.

1987- 1993- 1999- 2007- 2014 2017-

88 94 00 08 18
Male Literacy Rate 60.5 65.5 69.2 76.6 80.3 81.5
Female Literacy 31.7 37.9 43.8 54.9 61.8 64.6
Rate
38.1. Gap 28.8 27.6 25.4 21.7 18.5 16.9 Based on
your
understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. On what does educational gender gap reflect upon, other than low economic returns of female education?
(a) Encouragement of woman education
(b) Encouraging women to be career-oriented
(c) Discouraging the aspirations of women and other marginalized communities.
(d) Emancipation of women's position in society.
2. Between which years, the gender gaps between education, occupation and wage have sharply narrowed
down?
(a) 1993-20 20 (b) 1924- 2012 (c) 1983 - 2010 (d) 1973- 2006

58
3. According to Table 1, the literacy gap between male and female is the lowest in which year (s)?
(a) 2007-08 (b) 2014 (c) 1987-88 (d) 2017-18
For the Visually Impaired Candidates
State the approximately figure of number that suggests how many females in India still cannot read and
write in any language.
(a) 186 million (b) 189 million (c) 188 million (d) 187 million
4. About three decades ago, the adult male literacy rate in & India was almost________that for adult
females. Select the option that suitably fills the blank.
(a) thrice (b) twice (c) four times (d) six times
5. Select the option that states the percentage points by which male literacy rate exceeds female literary rate.
(a) 18 (b) 16 (c) 17 (d) 19.
6. By reading the passage, we can perceive the educational gender gap has its root in the-
(a) households (b) schools (c) colleges (d) offices
7. Select an option that states one of the reasons why women cannot join the labour force.
(a) Preventing their mobility (b) Pursuing higher education
(c) Will to learn more (d) Travel enthusiasm
8. The corollary gender gap in literacy attainment are attributed to-
(a) only economic factors (b) social and cultural factors
(c) only social factors (d) social, economic and cultural factors

39. Read the passage given below:

1. The drama before Shakespeare, found its full flowering with the dramatists called the 'University Wits'.
2. They wrote in the closing years of the 16'th century. This name of University Wits was given them
because they were nearly all educated at Oxford or Cambridge University Wit was the synonym for scholar.
3. All the University Wits have several features in common. They had stormy careers. All of them were
actively associated with the theatre. They were usually actors as well as dramatists. They understood the
requirements of the stage and felt the pulse of the audience. They often worked in collaboration with each
other. Their store material was also common. With these dramatists English drama reached the highest point
of glory. In many ways they developed English drama.
4. Christopher Marlowe was the most shining star among the university wits. Others were Lyly, Peele,
Greene, Lodge, Nashe and Kyd.
5. John Lyly: As a dramatist Lyly occupies a peculiar position. He selected classical themes and stories for
his plays. He himself was a courtier and wrote for countries. He wrote eight plays in all. They are-
Campaspe, Sapho and Phao, Gallathea,The Man in the Moon, Midas, Mother Bombie, Love's
Metamorphosis and Woman in the Moon. He was a comic playwright. He gave shape to romantic comedy.
Suitable blank verse was used in his comedies. He added to drama the qualities of delicacy, grace, charm
and subtlety. He is well known as originator of Euphustic style of prose writing.
6. George Peele: Peele was one of the greatest University Wits. His The Old Wives Tales is the first English
play of dramatic criticism. His important plays are Arraignment of Pairs, The Battle of Alcazar, The Famous
Chronicle of King Edward the first, The Love of King David and Fair Bathsheba and The Old Wives Tales.
The list shows Peele's versatility as a dramatist. In his plays we notice a high level of poetic attainment. As a
humorist he showed the way to Shakespeare.
7. Robert Greene: Greene was a playwright and novelist in one. He attained high excellence in both arts. His
best plays are-The Comical History of Alphonsus, Friar Bacon and Friar Bungay and James IV. He was a
master of his craft in the art of plotting. With him the love story became central in the art of drama. He
contributed much to the development of romantic comedy.

59
8. Thomas Kyd: The English tragedy moves on its way with Kyd. He adhered to the Senecan school. It is he
who popularised the blood and thunder element in drama. His 'The Spanish Tragedy' occupies an important
place. It is a landmark in English tragedy. It is a well-constructed play. Kyd brought the revenge theme to
the stage.
9. Christopher Marlowe: Marlowe was the central sun of the University Wits. He is the true founder of the
popular English drama. His contribution to the English tragedy is very vital. His main works are
Tamburlaine, Dr. Faustus, Edward II, The Jew of Malta and The Tragedy of Dido. With Marlowe the
English drama reached the highest point of its glory. He raised the subject matter of drama to a higher level.
He gave life and reality to his characters. He made the blank verse smoother and gave unity to drama. Thus
in many ways, he showed a path to Shakespeare.
10. Thus the University Wits contributed much to the English drama. They prepared the ground for drama.
In the spheres of comedy and tragedy they made notable contribution and prepared the way for Shakespeare.
39.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. Select the option that suggests a synonym for 'wit'.
(a) Teacher (b) Scholar (c) Researcher (d) Professor
2. Name the group of scholars who paved the way for Shakespeare as a dramatist.
(a) University Wits (b) Metaphysical Poets
(c) Romantic Poets (d) Neo-classical Poets
3. Select the option which does not list one of the plays written by John Lyly.
(a) Sapho and Phao (b) Midas (c) The Battle of Alcazar (d) Mother Bombie
4. Who is the most notable dramatist among the University Wits?
(a) William Shakespeare (b) Christopher Marlowe
(c) Thomas Kyd (d) Robert Greene
5. Who among the University Wits brought revenge theme on the stage?
(a) Christopher Marlowe (b) William Shakespeare
(c) Ben Johnson (d) Thomas Kyd
6. Who showed William Shakespeare the way as a humourist?
(a) George Peele (b) Thomas Kyd (c) Lodge (d) Nashe
7. Which among the following was not a feature of the University Wits all-together?
(a) Acting (b) Novel writing
(c) Well educated (d) Understanding of the requirement of stage
8. Select the option that states the type of plays written by Robert Greene.
(a) Tragic-comedy (b) Tragedy (c) Romantic comedy (d) Revenge
9. Who can be considered as the true founder of the popular English drama?
(a) Christopher Marlowe (b) Thomas Kyd
(c) Robert Greene (d) George Peele
10. Select the option that states who did not belong to the University Wits?
(a) Thomas Kyd (b) William Shakespeare
(c) George Peele (d) Lodge

40. Read the passage below:

1. The crude birth rate (CBR) at all India level had declined from 36.9 in 1971 to 33.9 in 1981, registering a
fall of about 8 per cent. During 1991-2016, the decline has been about 31 percent, from 29.5 to 20.4. The
rural-urban differential has also narrowed over these years. However, the CBR has continued to be higher in
rural areas compared to urban areas in the last three decades. The total fertility rate (TFR) has declined from
5.2 to 4.5 during 1971 to 1981 and from 3.6 to 2.3 during 1991 to 2016. The TFR in rural areas has declined
from 5.4 to 2.5 from 1971 to 2016 whereas the corresponding decline in urban areas has been from 4.1 to 1.8
during the same period. In 2016, around 80.8 percent of the deliveries were institutional which includes
Government as well as private hospitals. The percentage of institutional deliveries in urban areas is 94.2 as
against about 76.1 percent recorded in rural areas.
60
2. Apart from the fertility indicators at State and National levels, the SRS report 2016 also provides
estimates of birth rates at sub-State, viz. NSS Natural Division Level. NSS natural divisions have been
formed taking into consideration the geography of the State and by grouping contiguous districts having
similar topography, population density, cropping pattern and rainfall etc. The Table 11 of this report
contains data on birth rate besides death and infant mortality rate for 71 Natural Divisions of 22 bigger
States/UTs.
3. The CBR at national level is 20.4 varying from 22.1 in rural to17.0 in urban areas. Andhra Pradesh, Delhi,
Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Karnataka, Kerala, Maharashtra, Odisha, Punjab, Tamil Nadu,
Telangana, Uttarakhand and West Bengal are the States having birth rate below 20 both in rural and urban
areas. On the other hand, Bihar has the highest birth rate in rural areas (27.7) and Uttar Pradesh has the
highest birth rate in urban areas (22.8) areas, followed by Uttar Pradesh (27.3) and Rajasthan (21.6) in rural
and urban areas respectively. The lowest CBR was recorded in rural areas of Kerala (14.3) and in urban
areas of Himachal Pradesh (10.5). Based on the figures in the Statement 14 given below, the graphical
representation of birth rate of bigger States/UTs by residence is depicted in Chart 26. Chart 27 gives the
distribution of bigger States/UTs by values of birth rate for rural and urban areas.
4. At the national level, the rate of decline in birth rate between the periods 2004-06 and 2014-16 for India
and bigger States/UTs separately for rural and urban areas is 13.0 percent. The rate of decline in average
birth rate varies from 17.6 percent in West Bengal to 2.0 percent in Kerala. Such decline in rural areas is
from 18.9 percent in West Bengal to 3.3 percent in Kerala. In Andhra Pradesh, Assam, Jharkhand, Kerala
and Uttarakhand, the 3-year average crude birth rate in urban areas has increased in by 1.8 percent, 2.0
percent. 2.2 percent, 0.7 percent and 0.6 percent respectively. The 3- year average crude birth rate of Kerala
and Tamil Nadu is nearly same in rural and urban areas during 2014-16.

40.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:

1. At the national level, the rate of decline in birth rate between the periods 2004-06 and 2014-16 in India is-
(a) 14% (b) 13% (c) 18% (d) 16%
2. Apart from the fertility indicators at state and national level, what other estimation does SRS provide?
(a) Mortality rate at national level (b) Birth rates at sub-state, viz., NSS National Division Level
(c) Death rate at state level (d) None of the above
3. In the years, 2004-06, which state had the highest birth rate according to Fig.1?
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra (c) Bihar (d) Uttar Pradesh
For the Visually Impaired Candidates
What is the full form of CBR?
61
 (a) Crude Birth Rate (b) Crude Birth Ratio
(c) Common Birth Rate (d) Common Birth Ratio
4.The 3-year average crude birth rate of Kerala and Tamil Nadu is on rural and urban areas during 2014-16.
(a) More (b) Less (c) nearly same (d) Exactly the same
5. Decline in birth rate in rural areas of West Bengal between the periods 2004-06 and 2014-2016 is- (a)
14% (b) 17.8% (c) 17.5% (d) 17.6%
6. Select the option that mentions the name of the state(s) whose birth rate is below 20 both in rural and
urban areas for 2016.
(a) Andhra Pradesh (b) Kerala (c) West Bengal (d) All the states mentioned above
7. What is the full form of TFR?
(a) Total Fertility Ratio (b) Tally Fertility Ratio
(c) Total Fertility Rate (d) Total Fertile Rate
8. What is the percentage of institutionalized deliveries in 2016?
(a) 80.8 (b) 80 (c) 80.9 (d) 80.7
41. Read the passage given below:
I. The Elizabethan period was responsible for the characterization of women. In this period of History,
upper- class women were viewed as subservient to men without being relevant to society. Marriages were
the key to establish alliances with other powerful families and a wealthy welfare. Upper class women at this
time were limited, and it is impossible to imagine about all the things they were able to do to reach an
established and wealthy family based on morality. Things such as to stay at home governing a household,
taking care of children and performing duties were daily life plans. There were some exceptions as is the
case of Elizabeth Bennet, a character that appears in "Pride and Prejudice".
II. In one of the most famous books she wrote "Pride and Prejudice", she portrays in a sarcastic way the role
of women in the golden age society. Austen's powers of subtle discrimination and shrewd perceptiveness is
revealed in this interesting book, and through it she is able to convey such a complex message using a
simple, yet witty, style. Passion and reason were the perfect ingredients that Austen combined in order to
produce a dramatic story that reflects society in the 18th century.
III. In "Pride and Prejudice", Austen denounced the elements of marriage and society that she found
distasteful. As women were not able to decide their own future or make their own choices and men ruled the
world and depicted women to be weak and passive, Literature was a way for strong-willed women to share
their opinions and peacefully suggest societal changes, therefore Jane Austen is the perfect example of this.
In her book Jane tries to portray women as self- confident, able to think for themselves and able to hold their
own beliefs, drawing a fantastic picture of society, breaking rules with something that was far from being
true. The feminist view of Austen was delivering the message that women were puppets of a monotonous
society.
IV. On the other hand, 'Pride and Prejudice' reflects the idea that society in the 18th century was drawing
attention only towards people's belongings instead of feelings and senses as was the case of many marriages.
It is important to mention that, Austen was thinking about female dependence over male genre, through
'Pride and Prejudice', she tries to portray marriages as the safest way to social standing and economic
security. Jane also, portrays the idea of moral issues in her works.She believed that breaking rules was a way
of expressing disagreement about society and it was reflected in the security with which she developed her
book.
V. Women's intellectual power is also represented in the story of Jane Austen`s book. In the plot she tries to
figure out the idea of power controlled by a woman and this woman is represented through Elizabeth.She
was changing a man`s mind so, that was a triumph for Austen, mainly because she was demonstrating that
love can change everything and is the best weapon to fight against prejudices that are present in society.
41.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. Daily life plans of women of the Elizabethan period included-

62
 (a) going to work, home-making
(b) staying at home governing a household, taking care of children and performing duties
(c) taking care of own parents, earning money, making a household
(d) studying, painting, dancing, singing
2. What are the perfect ingredients that Jane Austen mixed to create a dramatic story of the 18th-century
society-
(a) Values and traditions (b) Passion and reason (c) Family and friends (d) Love and society
3. In the novel 'Pride and Prejudice', Austen was witnessed speaking against-
(a) Love (b) Education (c) Institution of marriage (d) Society
4. The theme of the novel discussed in the above passage states the view of Jane Austen's-
(a) Realistic outlook (b) Idealistic outlook
(c) Feminist outlook (d) Post-modernist outlook
5. The class of society talked about in the novel 'Pride and Prejudice' is-
(a) Upper-middle class (b) Lower-middle class
(c) Lower class (d) Aristocratic class
6. The writing style adapted by Jane Austen was-
(a) Bold and complex (b) Complicated yet funny
(c) Simple yet witty (d) Authoritative yet humourous
7. From the above passage who do you think is the protagonist of the novel 'Pride and Prejudice'?
(a) Jane Eyre (b) Elizabeth Bennet (c) Anne Steele (d) Emily Bronte
8. Select an option that shows the appropriate synonym for 'prejudice'-
(a) Partiality (b) Sympathy (c) Pleasing (d) Justice
9. Do you think Jane Austen is progressive regarding women's emancipation?
(a) No, Austen showed a rather regressive outlook towards women's upliftment
(b) She remained neutral regarding women's emancipation.
(c) Yes, Austen showed a very positive outlook towards the progression of women.
(d) Through the novel, Austen's reaction was unclear regarding women emancipation
10. According to Jane Austen, what should be the primary element for marriage?
(a) Norms of society (b) Money (c) Social Status (d) Love

42. Read the passage below.

I. In financial year 2020, the yield of rice across India was estimated to be approximately 2.7 thousand
kilograms per hectare. A consistent increase in the yield of rice was noted since fiscal year 1991. Rice is a
staple food grain in India, with the yield competing with China's. The increasing Indian population is
reflected by the growing rice demand across the country, as well as production and consumption volumes. ?
II. Along with other food grains, rice is arguably the most important part of an Indian meal at least once in a
day, regardless of region. India was the largest global rice producer in terms of the area harvested. Although
some of this is exported, these numbers were reached in order to meet the demand for the crop - a demand
from about 1.3 billion people. Despite the cultivation of wheat and other products, rice was the most
consumed agricultural product and had the highest market value in 2016.

63
III. Agriculture, the backbone of the Indian economy and the reason for over 60 percent of the population's
livelihood, gets arguably not as much assistance as it needs. Even in the face of governmental efforts to
improve methods and to introduce education and development programs to ensure a more productive, less
labor-intensive process, recent years have proved difficult for farmers. Excessive rain leading to flooding,
droughts from unpredictable heat waves, in addition to the recent slump in the economy have led to
challenging circumstances. High-yielding plants, agrochemicals and the use of technology might be
solutions, reflected in an increasingly funded agro-technology market in the country.

42.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:

1. Select the option that lists the appropriate observation that can be made from the last paragraph.
(a) Farmers of rice cultivation are experiencing setbacks as less labour-intensive technology is being
adapted for farming and erratic monsoon adds up to the difficulty.
(b) Farmers are happy with the technological development in the field of agriculture as their work is
lessened and they can spend most time with their family.
(c) Technological change in the field of agriculture did not affect the farmers at all.
(d) Farmers are now shifting their work from agriculture to the industrial fields after the introduction
of technology in the field of agriculture.
2. "High-yielding plants, agrochemicals and the use of technology might be solutions, reflected in an
increasingly funded agro-technology market in the country."- What can be inferred from this line?
(a) Introduction of these new methods will make farming difficult as the farmers are uneducated.
(b) Introduction of these new methods will make cultivation easier for farmers and would not be a
threat to their livelihood.
(c) Introduction of these new methods will make the farmers lazy thus production of rice will reduce.
(d) Introduction of these new methods in agriculture will not affect cultivation at all.
3. The yield of rice according to Fig. 1, shows-
(a) A steady and gradual growth in rice production throughout
(b) A steady growth in yield of rice, then a gradual decline and then a growth in production of rice.
(c) A gradual decline in the rice production throughout from 1991 to 2020.
(d) The graph shows a straight line meaning no change in rice production.
For the Visually Impaired Candidates
Select the option that lists the appropriate answer to the question, what for majority of rice is cultivated in
India-
(a) Export to other countries
(b) Consumption for the people of the country
(c) Half for the consumption of the people and half for export
(d) For the consumption of the farmers only

64
4. Select the option that lists the name of the country with which India is competing in rice production-
(a) U.S.A. (b) China (c) Nigeria(d) Bangladesh
5. Select the option that displays the correct cause-effect relationship.
(a) Cause: India does not provide suitable conditions to grow wheat.
Effect: Rice is the staple food of the country.
(b) Cause: Rice is the staple food of India and is consumed at least once a day.
Effect: Though other food crops are also cultivated in India, rice was the most consumed
agricultural product in 2016.
(c) Cause: There prevail erratic monsoon conditions in India.
Effect: Rice is not grown in India.
(d) Cause: There is too much governmental interference in agricultural fields.
Effect: Crops cannot be grown.
6. Based on your reading of paragraph I, select the appropriate counter- argument to the given argument.
Argument- "The increasing Indian population is reflected by the growing rice demand across the country, as
well as production and consumption volumes."
(a) With the increase in population, demand for rice decreased as people started to consume more
wheat products.
(b) With the increase of population, rice could not meet the demands for consumption.
(c) Rice production decreased due erratic monsoon conditions.
(d) With the increase in population, rice production in the country remained constant but imports of
the same increased.
7. Select the option that lists the correct statement in accordance to the above paragraph-
(a) The yield of rice in the financial year of 2020 was more than the yield in fiscal year 1991.
(b) The yield of rice in the financial year of 2020 was same as the yield in fiscal year 1991.
(c) The yield of rice of the financial year of 2020 decreased from the yield of fiscal year 1991.
(d) The yield of rice of the financial year of 2020 did not change much from the yield of fiscal year
1991.
8. Read the statements and list the option that states which one is correct.
(1) Government's interference to make agriculture less labour-intensive has affected the livelihood of
farmers.
(2) Rains at appropriate intervals have ruined the rice cultivation process.
(3) Unpredictable heat waves have badly affected agriculture of rice.
(a) (1) and (2) (b) All the points (c) (1) and (3) (d) Only (1)

43. Read the passage given below:

I. 'Look Back in Anger' gives us a glimpse into the mood and temper of England after World War II. The
British Labor Party after coming to power introduced some social reform to build up a welfare state in their
country. Yet some young idealists were not satisfied. The people found themselves in precisely the same
situation that Jimmy Porter the hero of the play faces.
II. When the play opens we find Jimmy speaking in a discontented, restless manner. He is discontented with
the Sunday newspapers; he is discontented with his wife Alison and he is dissatisfied with his friend Cliff.
The Sunday newspaper, he complains, makes one feel ignorant. His wife Alison, he complains, hardly
listens to him but goes to sleep when he begins to speak. As for Cliff, he is too ignorant to understand what
the newspapers have to say. Jimmy then goes on to make fun of the Bishop of Bromley and of the woman
who in her religious fervor got four of her ribs broken and got kicked in the head at a religious assembly. He

65
cynically declares that those who ostensibly make sacrifices-whether of their careers, their beliefs of sexual
pleasures-never wanted those things in the first place.
III. Jimmy is also against class-distinctions. He himself comes from a working-class family, while his wife
comes from a rich middle class family. Alison's parents had opposed her marriage to Jimmy, and Jimmy has
never been able to forget this fact even though four years have passed. He keeps criticizing not only Alison
but also her father's family.
IV. Throughout the play we find Jimmy raging against things, persons, and institutions. The ringing of
church-bells annoys him because he is opposed to formal religion and its ritual. He feels very irritated with
Alison when he learns that under Helena's influence, she is going to church. (306 words)
43.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
1. 'Look Back in Anger' portrays the condition of England post-
(a) World War I (b) World War II (c) Sepoy Mutiny (d) Cold War
2. The feeling of Jimmy Porter upon the conditions of England post War can be appropriately described as
___________.
(a) Contentment (b) Disgust (c) Hopeful (d) Sorrow
3. Select the option that lists the elements of disgust of Jimmy Porter-
(1) Newspaper (2) His wife, Alison (3) His friend, Cliff
(4) The post-war societal condition (5) The indifferent attitude of people
(a) All 1-5 (b) 2 and 3 (c) Only (5) (d) (2), (3) and (5)
4. Is Jimmy a religious person? Select the option which suggests the correct answer.
(a) Jimmy is very religious and goes to church every Sunday
(b) Jimmy is neutral when it comes to religion
(c) Jimmy is not at all religious as he is seen to get angry when Alison goes to Church with Helena
(d) Jimmy is religious but does not go to Church
5. Select the option that would appropriately fill the spaces in the sentence, Jimmy belonged to the class
whereas Alison belonged to class.
(a) Lower middle, Upper middle (b) Working, Upper middle
(c) Aristocratic, Working (d) Upper middle, Aristocratic
6. Which party introduced some social reforms for the welfare of the state?
(a) The British Labour Party (b) The Democrats
(c) The Republican (d) The Congress Party
7. Select the appropriate synonym for 'cynical'
(a) Skeptical (b) Trustful (c) Optimistic (d) Idealistic
8. Jimmy is seen making fun of matters of church focusing on-
(a) Pope of Vatican City (b) Pope of France
(c) Bishop of Bromley (d) Pope of Italy
9. Select the option that appropriately describes Jimmy Porter with the suitable adjective-
(a) Hopeless, disgusted, pessimistic, irritated (b) Hopeful, cheerful, happy
(c) Pessimistic but happy (d) Sadistic yet sometimes cheerful
10. Select an option that appropriately suggests the antonym of 'raging'-
(a) Calming (b) Agonizing (c) Storming (d) Foaming
44. Read the passage below:
1. The rising share of working age population creates a potential for many benefits: first, an increase in the
labor force who produce more than they consume. Second, lower fertility rate induces greater participation
of females in the labor market. Third, greater investment in health, education, and skills of the population as
lower resources are needed to be diverted for child caring and rearing. Fourth, household savings increase as
working age people are more capable of saving than the dependents and accord capital for investment
purposes. The fifth argument follows from the LifeCycle Hypothesis which states that people in the working
age save more for their retirement due to improvements in life expectancy (Bloom, Canning, & Sevilla,
66
2003; Bloom, 2011; James, 2008; Kumar, 2013). However, the realization of DD is conditional on the
existing policy environment such as better education, skills, and health, and disability outcomes, growing
employment opportunities for a rapidly growing young population, trade openness, etc. Also, this dividend
is transitory in nature and vanishes over time with further demographic changes.
2. An analysis of India's population since 1856 reveals that there has been a marginal increase in the
population before independence but it rises tremendously thereafter to 1.2 billion in 2011. Its size is
estimated to rise further to reach 1.7 billion people by 2060 but after this, a downfall in population size is
estimated. The trends in the exponential growth rate of the population at all India level displays an inverted
U-shaped pattern with continuously falling population growth rate recorded since 1990-91 (Fig. 1). This
pattern of decreasing exponential growth rate of population is also discernible in all the states of India,
except for Tamil Nadu where the growth rate of population is small and the present increase in its population
growth is mainly attributed to its inward migration. Therefore, to comprehend this eccentric pattern of
demographic change in India, one has to delve into the underlying forces of fertility and mortality (James
and Goli, 2016).

44.1. Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:

1. Select the option that lists the advantages of potential rise in working age population.
(1) An increase in labour force
(2) Low fertility rate inducing more females to work in the labour market
(3) Low mortality rate
(4) Greater investment in health, education, skills of the population
(5) Greater investment for primary schools
(a) All 1 to 5 (b) (1), (3) and (5) (c) (2) and (3) (d) (1), (2) and (4)
2. An analysis of India's population since 1856 reveals that there has been a increase in the population
before independence. Select the option that suggests the correct answer to fill in the blank.
(a) Drastic (b) Marginal (c) Rapid (d) Eventual
3. Describe the trend of exponential growth rate of population of India according to Fig.1. Select the most
appropriate option:
(a) A gradual growth with steep decline (b) A steep growth with gradual
(c) A somewhat steep growth with a gradual decline (d) A gradual growth
For the Visually Impaired Candidates
For what reason there is growth in the population of Tamil Nadu in recent years? Select the option that
appropriately answers the question.
(a) Inward migration (b) Growth in birth rate
(c) Sudden advancement in medical facilities (d) Low death rate
4. What was the population of India in 2011 and how much is expected in 2060? Select an option that lists
the answers for both the parts of the question.
(a) 1.2 billion, 1.7 billion (b) 2.9 billion, 3.6 billion

67
 (c) 1.3 billion, 1.6 billion (d) 1.9 billion, 2.1 billion
5. Select the option that suggests the shape of the pattern that displays the trends in the exponential growth
rate of the population at all India level.
(a) Inverted U-shaped (b) U-shaped (c) V- shaped (d) C-shaped
6. After which year a decline in population is expected ? Select the option that states the appropriate answer
to the question.
(a) 2035 (b) 2050 (c) 2060 (d) 2056
7. To comprehend this eccentric pattern of demographic change in India, one needs to study the details of
changing and Select the option that suggests the correct answer to fill in the blank.
(a) Life expectancy, job market (b) Fertility rate, mortality rate
(c) Demand, supply (d) Sex pyramid, pie graphs
8. What does the passage mostly talk about? Select the most appropriate option to answer the question.
(a) Change in demographic features for the last few decades and probable change in the future
(b) Distribution of population throughout India
(c) Reasons for unequal distribution of population
(d) Change in demographic features for the past few decades

68
45. Read the passage given below.
(1) That large animals require luxuriant vegetation has been a general assumption which has
passed from one work to another; but I do not hesitate to say that it is completely false, and that it
has vitiated the reasoning of geologists on some points of great interest in the ancient history of the
world. The prejudice has probably been derived from India, and the Indian islands, where troops of
elephants, noble forests, and impenetrable jungles, are associated together in everyone’s mind. If,
however, we refer to any work of travels through the southern parts of Africa, we shall find
allusions in almost every page either to the desert character of the country, or to the numbers of
large animals inhabiting it. The same thing is rendered evident by the many engravings which have
been published of various parts of the interior.
(2) Dr. Andrew Smith, who has lately succeeded in passing the Tropic of Capricorn, informs me
that, taking into consideration the whole of the southern part of Africa, there can be no doubt of its
being a sterile country. On the southern coasts there are some fine forests, but with these exceptions,
the traveler may pass for days together through open plains, covered by a poor and scanty
vegetation. Now, if we look at the animals inhabiting these wide plains, we shall find their numbers
extraordinarily great, and their bulk immense.
(3) It may be supposed that although the species are numerous, the individuals of each kind are
few. By the kindness of Dr. Smith, I am enabled to show that the case is very different. He informs
me, that in lat. 24’, in one day’s march with the bullock-wagons, he saw, without wandering to any
great distance on either side, between one hundred and one hundred and fifty rhinoceroses - the
same day he saw several herds of giraffes, amounting together to nearly a hundred.
(4) At the distance of a little more than one hour’s march from their place of encampment on the
previous night, his party actually killed at one spot eight hippopotamuses, and saw many more. In
this same river there were likewise crocodiles. Of course it was a case quite extraordinary, to see so
many great animals crowded together, but it evidently proves that they must exist in great numbers.
Dr. Smith describes the country passed through that day, as ‘being thinly covered with grass, and
bushes about four feet high, and still more thinly with mimosa-trees.’
(5) Besides these large animals, anyone the least acquainted with the natural history of the Cape
has read of the herds of antelopes, which can be compared only with the flocks of migratory birds.
The numbers indeed of the lion, panther and hyena and the multitude of birds of prey, plainly speak
of the abundance of the smaller quadrupeds: one evening seven lions were counted at the same time
prowling round Dr. Smith’s encampment. As this able naturalist remarked to me, the carnage each
day in Southern Africa must indeed be terrific! I confess it is truly surprising how such a number of
animals can find support in a country producing so little food.
(6) The larger quadrupeds no doubt roam over wide tracts in search of it; and their food chiefly
consists of underwood, which probably contains much nutriment in a small bulk. Dr. Smith also
informs me that the vegetation has a rapid growth; no sooner is a part consumed, than its place is
supplied by a fresh stock. There can be no doubt, however, that our ideas respecting the apparent
amount of food necessary for the support of large quadrupeds are much exaggerated. The belief that
where large quadrupeds exist, the vegetation must necessarily be luxuriant, is more remarkable,
because the converse is far from true.
(7) Mr. Burchell observed to me that when entering Brazil, nothing struck him more forcibly
than the splendour of the South American vegetation contrasted with that of South Africa, together
69
with the absence of all large quadrupeds. In his travels, he has suggested that the comparison of the
respective weights (if there were sufficient data) of an equal number of the largest herbivorous
quadrupeds of each country would be extremely curious. If we take on the one side, the elephants,
hippopotamus, giraffe, bos caffer, elan, five species of rhinoceros; and on the American side, two
tapirs, the guanaco, three deer, the vicuna, peccari, capybara (after which we must choose from the
monkeys to complete the number), and then place these two groups alongside each other it is not
easy to conceive ranks more disproportionate in size.
(8) After the above facts, we are compelled to conclude, against anterior probability that among
the mammalia there exists no close relation between the bulk of the species, and the quantity of the
vegetation, in the countries which they inhabit.
45.1. On the basis of your understanding of the above passage, answer the questions:
(i) The author is primarily concerned with .
(a) discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in
their habitats
(b) contrasting ecological conditions in India and Africa
(c) proving that large animals do not require much food
(d) describing the size of animals in various parts of the world
(ii) According to the author, the ‘prejudice’ (Para 1) has lead to.
(a) errors in the reasoning of biologists
(b) false ideas about animals in Africa
(c) incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists
(d) doubt in the mind of the author
(iii) The flocks of migratory birds (Para 5) are mentioned to .
(a) describe an aspect of the fauna of South Africa
(b) illustrate a possible source of food for large carnivores
(c) contrast with the habits of the antelope
(d) suggest the size of antelope herds
(iv) Darwin quotes Burchell’s observations in order to .
(a) counter a popular misconception (b) describe a region of great splendor
(c) prove a hypothesis (d) illustrate a well-known phenomenon
(v) Among the mammalia, there is no close relation between .
(a) bulk of the species (b) quantity of the vegetation
(c) countries they inhabit (d) all of these
(vi) The prejudice that large animals require luxuriant vegetation came from .
(a) India (b) Africa (c) America (d) Sri Lanka
(vii) Pick the option in which the meaning of ‘vitiated’ is not the same as it is in the passage.
(a) Production managers vitiated the machines, ruining them through overloading during
production.
(b) A mistake of fact in some circumstances could vitiate the contract.
(c) There are several seasons why the pound has vitiate against the euro.
(d) The recent study has vitiated the earlier theories.
(viii) Dr. Andrew Smith, behind calling the whole of southern part of Africa, a sterile country was
intended to say that
70
 (a) it is an undeveloped country. (b) it lacks proper vegetation.
(c) its people are barren and cannot reproduce. (d) it lacks all the natural beauty.
(ix) The narrator states that, the carnage each day in southern Africa must indeed be terrific!
Carnage here means.
(a) massacre (b) preserving (c) reconciliation (d) cessation
(x) Pick out the option that correctly states about what happened after Mr. Burchell reached
South America.
(a) He became grief-stricken to see the barren land.
(b) He became so excited to see the ice covered mountains there.
(c) He was awestruck by the splendour of the country vegetation.
(d) He finds it amazing that the country was densed with large quadrupeds.
(xi) Pick out the option that correctly describes the final outcome or the conclusion of the
passage.
(a) A country’s vegetation and its inhabitants are closely related to each other.
(b) A country which has large number of fauna always had a greater extent of vegetation.
(c) A country’s vegetation and its bulk of species had no relation between them.
(d) A country’s inhabitants has nothing to do with its vegetation.

Answers:
1. (i) (a) discussing the relationship between the size of mammals and the nature of vegetation in their
habitats
(ii) (c) incorrect assumptions on the part of geologists
(iii) (d) suggest the size of antelope herds
(iv) (c) prove a hypothesis
(v) (d) all of these
(vi) (a) India
(vii) (a) Production managers vitiated the machines,ruining them through overloading during
production.
(viii) (b) it lacks proper vegetation.
(ix) (a) massacre
(x) (c) He was awestruck by the splendour of thecountry vegetation.
(xi) (c) A country’s vegetation and its bulk of specieshad no relation between them.

46. Read the passage given below.

(1) Classical dance evolved from Tamil Nadu’s temples across centuries. The revived and
reformed Bharatanatyam keeps the art born of these ancient temples alive even to this day. Once
sustained and nurtured in temples as part of a rich and vibrant temple tradition, classical dance in
South India has remained over centuries a dynamic, living tradition that is continuously renewed.
(2) Even 2000 years ago, dance in India was a highly evolved and complex art. It was an
integral part of ancient Indian theatre as established by the Natya Shastra, the oldest and exhaustive
treatise on theatre and dramaturgy. Dance dramas were performed in temple precincts. Dance
movements were crystallised in stone as karanas in temple sculpture. Following the Bhakti
movement in the 6th century, dance and music became powerful vehicles of veneration. The deity
was treated like a much-loved king, praised and royally entertained with music and dance, as part
of the daily sacred rituals of worship. Gifted, highly educated temple dancers or devadasis were

71
supported by the temples that were richly endowed by the rulers. Some 400 temple dancers were
dedicated to and maintained by the Brihadeswarar Temple in Thanjavur. Dance evolved as a
composite art in temples as dancers, nattuvanars (dance gurus), musicians, poets, composers,
architects, sculptors and painters shared a holistic approach to all the arts.
(3) The evolution of Bharatanatyam derives from the invaluable contribution of The Tanjore
Quartet. The four Pillai brothers – Chinnayya, Ponnayya, Sivanandam and Vadivelu – served as
court musicians at the kingdom of Maratha king, Serfoji II in the early 19th century. Their legacy
to Bharatanatyam has been their restructuring of the dance repertoire into the margam format and
their vast and diverse music compositions set specifically for dance. Some of their descendants like
Guru Meenakshisundaram Pillai evolved the famous Pandanallur bani (style) and trained many
eminent dancers.
(4) From the temples, dance made its way into the courts of kings and dancers were not just
devadasis, but also rajanartakis. By the early 17th century dance forms like sadir or china melam
precursors to Bharatanatyam as we know it today had become popular in the courts of the Maratha
rulers in Thanjavur. However, in the 19th century, colonial propaganda perceived such dance as
vulgar and immoral. It led to the Anti-Nautch Movement and legislation against temple dance and
dancers. Divested of all patronage and temple support, devadasis were thrown into dire straits. In
the early 20th century, thanks to enlightened visionaries like EV Krishna Iyer and later, Rukmini
Devi Arundale, and the dedication of a handful of devadasis and nattuvanars, classical dance was
resuscitated and revived as bharatanatyam. Today, apart from a few cultural festivals in some
temples, dance has left the temple for the proscenium stage.
46.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the questions:
(i) According to the passage, what kept Bharatnatyam alive even to the present day ?
(a) Its connection to the temples. (b) The perfection of the artist
(c) Its revived and reformed form (d) The perfect moves of the dance form
(ii) Pick the option that lists statements that are not true according to the passage.
1. In India, dance has always been an integral part of ancient theatre.
2. Dancing forms has never been changed or reformed but it is liked by all in its nascent stage only.
3. Although the classical dance has evolved so much that its forms like sadir or chinna reached from
temples to courts but it was perceived as vulgar by the colonials.
4. Today, apart from few cultural festivals dance is restricted to the temples only.
(a) 2 and 4 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 3 and 4 (d) 1 and 3
(iii) The word ‘repertoire’, as used in paragraph 3, means the same as
(a) legacy (b) movement (c) collection (d) perception
(iv) As given in the passage, the word ‘nattuvanars’ means
(a) karanas (b) artform (c) dance gurus (d) disciples
(v) Pick out the option which is not stated correctly according to the passage.
(a) The Guru Meenakshisundaram, descendent of Pillai brothers has evolved dance style,
called pandanallur bani.
(b) The Pillai brothers served the kingdom of Maratha King in the early 12th century.
(c) Dance movements were also crystallised in stone as karanas in the structure of temples.
(d) In south India, classical dance has remained over centuries a dynamic and living tradition.
(vi) ... dance has left the temple for the proscenium stage” The phrase proscenium stage refers to
72
 (a) the back view of the stage. (b) the frontage of the stage.
(c) the popularity of the stage. (d) the vast variety of dance, performed on the stage.
(vii) ...the dedication of a handful of devadisis and nattuvanars classical dance was resuscitated and
revived as Bharatnatyam.”
Pick out the option in which the meaning of ‘resuscitate(ed)’ is the same as it is in the passage.
(a) Due to the day’s hard worked, both men collapsed but were resuscitated.
(b) Hopefully the water will resuscitate the drooping plants.
(c) The doctor tried to resuscitate him, but he did not regain consciousness.
(d) She submitted a bid to resuscitate her already existing best-seller.
(viii) ‘... the Bhakti movement in the 6th century, dance and music became powerful vehicles of
veneration.” the phrase ‘vehicles of veneration’ here referred to as
(a) the medium to gain respect (b) the rich and vibrant tradition
(c) the evolving art form (d) the handful of devadasis
(ix) According to the passage, In India, Dance was established by
(a) gurus (b) musicians (c) Rukmini Devi (d) Natya shastra
(x) The word ‘evolve(d)’ in the 1 paragraph has the same meaning as
(a) decrease (b) diminish (c) slacken (d) progress
(xi) Pick out the option that correctly describes the given lines.
‘Today, apart from a few cultural festivals in some temples, dance has left the temple for the
proscenium stage.”
(a) Dance is performed only in temples.
(b) Dance is performed in the theatres only since it was banned in temples.
(c) Dance is completely banished from everywhere now.
(d) Dance is performed in temples only occasionally, and it has occupied the forefront of the
stage.

Answers
(i) (c) Its revived and reformed form
(ii) (d) 1 and 3
(iii) (c) collection
(iv) (c) dance gurus
(v) (b) The Pillai brothers served the kingdom ofMaratha King in the early 12th century.
(vi) (b) the frontage of the stage.
(vii) (d) She submitted a bid to resuscitate her alreadyexisting best-seller.
(viii) (b) the rich and vibrant tradition
(ix) (d) Natya shastra
(x) (d) progress
(xi) (d) Dance is performed in temples only occasionally, and it has occupied the forefront of the stage.

47. Read the passage given below.

The report, progress on household drinking water, sanitation and hygiene (2000-2017): Special
focus on inequalities, is the most recent publication by the WHO/UNICEF Joint Monitoring
Programme, which tracks global progress in achieving the water and sanitation portion of the UN’s
Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs). The 17 SDGs aim is to “end poverty in all its forms

73
everywhere” by 2030. Goal 6 calls for universal access to safe and adequate access to drinking
water and sanitation services.
According to the new report, progress has been made since 2000, yet billions of people are still
underserved. The report delineates between access to basic services, which has greatly improved,
and access to “safely managed” services, which is inadequate in many parts of the world. Only
about 45 per cent of the global population has access to safely- managed sanitation services. In
2017, an estimated 673 million people continued to openly defecate, most of them in 61 “high
burden” countries where the practice remained common among more than 5 per cent of the
population.
To qualify as being “safely managed”, drinking water must meet three criteria: be accessible on the
premises, be available for at least 12 hours per day, and be free from E. coil, arsenic, or fluoride
contamination. Sanitation is considered safely managed when facilities are not shared with other
households, and waste is safely treated on-site or at an off-site facility.
In 2017, an estimated 5.3 billion people had access to safely-managed drinking water. Of that
number, 1.4 billion used basic services, 206 million used limited services, 435 used unimproved
sources, and the remaining 144 million relied on untreated surface water.
Poor and rural populations are at the greatest risk of being left behind. In 2017, urban access to basic
drinking water services was at 97 per cent, while rural coverage was at 81 per cent. In terms of
sanitation, an estimated 2.1 billion people gained access to basic services between 2000 and 2017,
but 2 billion remain without access. The report also focuses on improvements in eliminating open
defecation. Between 2000 and 2017, the global rate of open defecation fell from 21 percent to 9 per
cent.

47.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions:
(a) The given passage focuses on:
(i) drinking water (ii) hygiene (iii) sanitation (iv) All of these
(b) What is the percentage of population which has access to sanitation services?
(i) 45% (ii) 21% (iii) 5% (iv) 9%
(c) Which type of water is considered as safely managed and drinking water?
(i) Accessible everytime when needed (ii) Available for at least 12 hours per day
(iii) Free from harmful substances (iv) All of the above
(d) What target has been set by UN’s Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) programme?
(i) End poverty in all its forms everywhere
74
 (ii) Access to safe and adequate access to drinking water
(iii) No open defecation
(iv) All of the above
(e) What percentage of people in urban areas have access to drinking water?
(i) 45% (ii) 5% (iii) 97% (iv) 81%
(f) Which countries have the maximum access to safely managed water?
(i) Australia and New Zealand (ii) Europe and North America
(iii) Small Island Developing states (iv) Northern Africa and Western Asia
(g) Which country has the least accessibility to basic drinking water?
(i) Oceania (ii) Sub-Saharan Africa
(iii) Latin America and the Caribbean (iv) Europe and North America
(h) Rank the following countries from the highest to the lowest accessibility to surface water:
A — Latin America and the Caribbean B — Oceania
C — Sub-Saharan Africa D — Europe and North America
(i) BCDA (ii) BACD (iii) BCAD (iv) BADC
(i) Which country has maximum access to basic drinking water?
(i) Australia and New Zealand (ii) Europe and North America
(iii) Sub-Saharan Africa (iv) Central and South Asia
(j) What is the number of population that is still tended to open defecation?
(i) 673 million (ii) 61 million (iii) 5.3 million (iv) 206 million
(k) When is sanitation considered as safely managed?
(i) Sanitation facility is not shared with other households
(ii) Waste is safely treated
(iii) When there is no open defecation
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
(l) What is the number of population that has gained access to basic services by 2017?
(i) 2.1 billion (ii) 2 billion (iii) 1.4 billion (iv) 5.3 billion
48. Read the passage given below.
Man does not live by food alone. Water is vital to human health and fitness. Although it is not a
nutrient per se as are carbohydrates, fats, proteins, vitamins and minerals. It, in fact, is a key nutrient
as no life is possible without it. Whereas we can do for weeks without food, we cannot live without
water longer than a couple of days.
Water approximates 60 per cent of the body weight of human adults. The total amount of water in a
man weighing 70 kilograms is approximately a little over 40 litres. It is an excellent solvent—more
substances are soluble in water than in any other liquid known so far. This makes it an ideal
constituent of the body fluids which sustain life supporting chemical reactions. It dissolves varied
products of digestion and transports them to the rest of the body. Likewise, it dissolves diverse
metabolic wastes and helps drain them out of the body. Besides, it performs a variety of functions—
some well known and well understood while others not so well appreciated yet vital.
The no less important role of water is to distribute/dissipate the body heat efficiently, thereby
regulating body’s temperature. Water accomplishes this role ideally because it has high thermal
conductivity ensuring rapid heat transfer from one part to the other. Above all, water has a high-
specific heat, implying that it takes a lot of heat to raise the temperature of water and likewise much
heat must be lost to lower its temperature. Drinking a lot of water is an inexpensive way to stay
healthy. Even excess of water is harmless.

75
Water therapy— drinking a litre or so the first thing in the morning is kidney-friendly. The water
regulation in the body is affected by hypothalamus in two ways i.e., (i) by creating the sensation of
thirst which makes us drink water and (ii) by controlling the excretion of water as urine. If water
regulation fails, medical emergency ensues.
48.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions:
(a) Water is vital to human health and fitness because:
(i) man does not live by food alone
(ii) it is an excellent solvent
(iii) we cannot survive for more than a couple of days without it
(iv) it controls thirst and excretion of water as urine
(b) Water is called a key nutrient because:
(i) it dissolves different products of digestion
(ii) no life is possible without it
(iii) it carries products to the rest of the body
(iv) it raises temperature of the body
(c) Water is an ideal constituent of the body fluids because:
(i) it is an excellent solvent (ii) it dissolves metabolic wastes
(iii) it drains wastes out of the body (iv) it regulates excretion of urine
(d) Water regulates body temperature efficiently as:
(i) it circulates easily (ii) it has high-specific heat
(iii) it dissolves food easily (iv) it has high thermal conductivity
(e) What does the author means when he uses the word ‘regulation’ in the last para?
(i) Official rule (ii) Control (iii) Device for fair use (iv) Worn or used as per rules
(f) Which component is an inexpensive way to stay healthy?
(i) Water (ii) Minerals (iii) Vitamins (iv) Proteins
(g) Which of the following statements is not true?
(i) Water regulates body temperature (ii) Excess water is not harmless
(iii) Excess water is not harmful (iv) Water transports nutrients to the body
(h) Which activity is considered as water therapy?
(i) Its high thermal conductivity ensuring rapid heat transfer from one part to another
(ii) Drinking a litre of water in the morning
(iii) Drinking excess quantity of water
(iv) All of the above
(i) What is the per cent of water content in a human body?
(i) 60% (ii) 40% (iii) 80% (iv) 70%
(j) Which word in para 2 conveys the opposite of ‘similar’?
(i) Dissipate (ii) Ideal (iii) Accomplished (iv) Diverse
(k) Which word in para 4 is a synonym or undamaging’?
(i) Excess (ii) Harmless (iii) Therapy (iv) Friendly
(l) Which word in para 2 is a synonym of ‘maintain’?
(i) Supporting (ii) Sustain (iii) Diverse (iv) Varied

49. Read the passage given below.

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The chart below gives information about the amount of carbon emissions in different countries
during three different years. Summarise the information by selecting and reporting the main
features,and make comparisons where relevant.

The bar chart compares the emission of carbon dioxide into the atmosphere of six countries,
including two of them coming from emerging nations, for three decades starting from 1975 until
2005. As an overall assessment, it can clearly be seen that only Germany and United Kingdom
managed to reduce the carbon emissions compared to the other countries.
USA, being the number one polluter of all, emitted 1,200,000 thousand metric tonnes in 1975 and
this count increased to 1,300,000 and 1,600,000 thousand metric tonnes in 1990 and 2005
respectively. In contrast, the carbon emissions of China was nearly 300,000 thousand metric tones
in 1975 and it rose by nearly 100% in 1990 and surged dramatically to just below 1,600,000
thousand metric tonnes in 2005. In terms of the percentage increase, China was the largest
contributor in carbon emissions of all.
The figures for Germany and the United Kingdom remained relatively stable throughout the period
of time, and so were for Canada until 1990. The carbon dioxide emissions in India increased
exponentially from around 100,000 in 1975 to just below 400,000 thousand metric tonnes in 2005.
49.1. On the basis of your understanding of the passage, answer the following questions:
(a) The given data compares the amount of emission of:
(i) carbon dioxide (ii) oxygen (iii) nitrogen (iv) None of these
(b) In terms of the percentage increase, which country was the largest contributor in carbon
emissions of all in year 2005?
(i) China (ii) USA (iii) India (iv) Both (i) and (ii)
(c) Which country is the most polluter country?
(i) China (ii) USA (iii) India (iv) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) What do you think can be the reason for surging of CO2 emission in million tonnes?
(i) Fast paced industrialisation

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 (ii) Lack of sustainable development
(iii) The urge to become world’s top powerful economies
(iv) All of the above
(e) Which country has the lowest emission of CO2 in the graph?
(i) Germany (ii) United Kingdom (iii) Canada (iv) India
(f) Which country has observed a dramatic rise over its years in CO2 emission?
(i) China (ii) USA (iii) India (iv) Both (i) and (ii)
(g) Which country had the same level of CO2 emission in the first and the second decade?
(i) Germany (ii) Canada (iii) Both (i) and (ii) (iv) None of these
(h) What is the highest quantity unit of global emission of CO2 by different countries?
(i) 1,600,000 (ii) 1,570,000 (iii) 1,300,000 (iv) None of these
(i) Which country had the minimum CO2 emission during 1975?
(i) Germany (ii) The United Kingdom (iii) China (iv) India
(j) Which countries reported gradual growth in reduction of global CO2 emission?
(i) Germany and India (ii) USA and China
(iii) The United Kingdom and USA (iv) Germany and The United Kingdom
(k) Which of the following statements is true?
(i) The countries have achieved meteoric rise in CO2 emission
(ii) The countries have not been able to reduce their CO2 emission significantly
(iii) USA seems to leave behind China in coming years
(iv) Both (i) and (ii)
(l) Which country has been the major polluter in these three decades?
(i) USA (ii) India (iii) China (iv) Both (i) and (ii)

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50. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. Maybe you’re bored of bananas, apples and grapes and need a fresh produce pick? A nutrient-rich
serving of kiwi fruit may be just what you need. A serving of kiwi fruit (2 kiwis) has twice the
vitamin C of an orange, as much potassium as a banana and the fiber of a bowl of whole grain
cereal—all for less than 100 calories!
2. The fuzzy fruit is sky-high in both soluble and insoluble fiber, both of which are essential for
promoting heart health, regulating digestion, and lowering cholesterol levels—that’s a winning
trifecta. Kiwi fruit has also been considered a “nutritional all-star,” as Rutgers University
researchers found that kiwi fruit has the best nutrient density of 21 commonly consumed fruits.
3. Along with vitamin C, kiwi fruits are rich in many bioactive compounds that have antioxidant
capacity to help to protect against free radicals, harmful by-products produced in the body. If you
want clean energy, think of kiwi fruit because they’re rich in magnesium, a nutrient essential to
convert food into energy.
4. A kiwi fruit also doubles as a peeper-keeper by supplying your eyes with protective lutein, a
carotenoid that’s concentrated in eye tissues and helps protect against harmful free radicals. Kiwi
fruit is also packed with blood pressure-lowering potassium. In fact, a 100-gram serving of kiwi
fruit—that’s about one large kiwi—provides 15% of the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of
potassium.
5. Kiwi fruit has been growing in New Zealand for over 100 years. Once the fruit gained in
popularity, other countries started to grow them including Italy, France, Chile, Japan, South Korea
and Spain. At first, kiwis were referred to as ‘Yang Tao’ or ‘Chinese Gooseberry,’ but the name was
ultimately changed to kiwi fruit so that everyone would know where the fruit came from.
6. A ripe kiwi fruit will be plump and smooth-skinned, and free of wrinkles, bruise, and punctures.
If you find that your kiwi is a little too firm after buying it, simply let it ripen at room temperature
for three to five days. The firmer the fruit, the more tart it will taste. To speed up the ripening
process, you can also place kiwis in a paper bag with an apple or banana. If you want to store the
fruit longer, you should keep in a plastic bag in the refrigerator.
50.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.
(a) What does a serving of kiwi off er?
(i) vitamin C (ii) vitamin E (iii) vitamin A (iv) vitamin K
(b) Kiwi has been considered as a “nutritional all-star” because it:
(i) has the best antioxidant capacity
(ii) has the best nutrient density
(iii) provides 25% of the Recommended Daily Allowance (RDA) of potassium
(iv) is packed with blood pressure-lowering potassium.
(c) Kiwi fruit is helpful for the eyes as:
(i) it is packed with potassium ii) it has best antioxidant capacity
(iii) it supplies eyes with protective lutein (iv) it is rich in magnesium
(d) To make a kiwi fruit ripen:
(i) place it in a gunny bag (ii) place it in a paper bag
(iii) place it in a paper bag with an apple or banana (iv) none of these
(e) A kiwi has as much potassium as:
(i) a banana does (ii) two bananas do
(iii) half a banana does (iv) none of these
(f) A ripe kiwi fruit has:
(i) wrinkles (ii) bruise (iii) punctures (iv) smooth skin
(g) At fi rst, kiwis were referred to as ‘Yang Tao’ or ‘ _____’
(h) Kiwi fruit is also packed with blood pressure-lowering calcium. (True/False)

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51. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. Nobel Peace Prize winner Jose Ramos-Horta took office as East Timor’s new prime minister on
Monday, a move aimed at ending weeks of political turmoil in Asia’s newest nation. President
Xanana Gusmao swore in Ramos- Horta under the watchful gaze of rifl e-carrying Australian
commandos heading a 2,500-strong international peace-keeping force in East Timor. The two men,
architects of independence from the Indonesian rule, then put their signatures to paper to cement the
appointment. Ramos- Horta, dressed in a dark suit and no tie, took his oath in the president’s office
along with his two new deputy premiers. During his inauguration speech, made in a hall with
unpainted concrete ceilings and bare plywood walls, he promised to send more funds to the poor
and maintain security. “The focus has to be on security so that our people, our fathers and mothers
and the poor can return to their homes,” said Ramos-Horta, 56, who spent years abroad as a
spokesman for East Timor’s struggle for independence from Indonesia. He told a news conference
later on Monday that his cabinet would be sworn in and start work this week. “We will work very
hard,” he said, promising to cooperate with the World Bank to speed up development in rural areas.
2. East Timor descended into chaos nearly three months ago when the then premier Mari Alkatiri
dismissed about 600 members of the 1,400-strong army when they protested about discrimination.
Gusmao named Ramos-Horta premier on Saturday, around 2 weeks after Alkatiri stepped down
after being broadly blamed for recent crisis in the tiny Pacific nation. When rival army and police
factions fought, the violence turned into arson and looting that ended only with the intervention of
the Australia-led peacekeepers. At least 20 people died and 100,000 became homeless in the
violence.
3. The swearing-in ceremony was seen by various officials and dignitaries, but was not attended by
Alkatiri. Prosecutors have said they intend to question the former prime minister over his alleged
role in the violence. One East Timor political leader said at the weekend that Ramos- Horta could
face opposition from a section of Fretilin, the dominant party with 55 seats in the 88-member
parliament. Ian Martin, a UN special envoy, who arrived in East Timor about two weeks ago to
assess the country’s need for further UN help, has welcomed Ramos-Horta’s appointment, saying he
hoped it would bring peace and stability to the young country.
51.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.
(a) Ramos- Horta in his inauguration speech promised to:
(i) bring peace (ii) ensure stability (iii) stop violence
(iv) send more funds to the poor and maintain security
(b) Ramos-Horta, 56, spent years abroad:
(i) as a spokesman for East Timor’s struggle for independence from Indonesia
(ii) as an offi cial (iii) as the President (iv) as a person raising funds
(c) Mari Alkatiri dismissed
(i) about 600 members of the 1,400-strong army (ii) 1,400-strong army
(iii) about 300 members of the strong army
(iv) about 400 members of the 1,200-strong army
(d) Who among the following resigned from the premiership?
(i) Gusmao (ii) Ramos-Horta (iii) Alkatiri (iv) none of these
(e) The violence in East Timor lead to:
(i) struggle for independence (ii) chaos for nearly three months
(iii) the intervention of the Australia-led peacekeepers (iv) both (i) & (ii)
(f) ‘watchful eye’ means
(i) to watch (ii) alert eyes (iii) observant (iv) keen
(g) Was a UN special envoy, who arrived in East Timor about two weeks ago to assess the country’s
need for further UN help.
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(h) Ramos- Horta could face opposition from a section of Fretilin (True/False)

52. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. Mt. Everest has continued to attract ever since June 8, 1924, when two members of a British
expedition George Mallory and Andrew Irvine, had first attempted to climb the summit. The two
men were last spotted “going strong” for the top, until the clouds perpetually swirling around
Everest, engulfed them. They then vanished.
2. Mallory’s body was not found for another 75 years, in May 1999. Ten more expeditions were to
follow before the historic climb of Everest for the first time, by Edmund Hillary, a New Zealand
beekeeper, and Tenzing Norgay, an acclaimed Sherpa climber. The news of the climb reached
England at the time of the coronation of Queen Elizabeth and Hillary became famous overnight, in
all of the British Empire. Tenzing on the other hand, became a symbol of national pride across both
Nepal and India.
3. Today, Mt Everest is drawing attention for all the negative reasons. The entire route that the
climbers follow to reach the top is littered with rubbish and in sore need of cleaning up. The rubbish
strewn all over the mountain includes oxygen cylinders, human waste, and even climbers’ bodies
which do not decompose in the extreme cold.
4. Under the new regulations passed by the Nepalese government, climbers scaling Everest will
have to bring back eight kilograms of garbage. This amounts exclusive of the climbers’ own
garbage weight. This measure is taken to restore the pristine nature of the peak.
5. The rule will be applicable to those climbers of Mt Everest who will ascend beyond Everest’s
base camp, from April onwards. Climbers who fail to comply with this new rule are likely to be
charged and legal action would be taken against them. The action would involve the paying of a
fine, or other penalty.
6. Expeditions returning to the base will have to submit their trash at an office to be set up in the
precincts of the Everest Base Camp.
52.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.
(a) The first attempt to scale Mt Everest was made by:
(i) one Britisher (ii) George Mallory and Andrew Irvine
(iii) Andrew Irvine (iv) both (i) and (ii)
(b) The rubbish strewn all over the mountain includes _____ which do not decompose in the
extreme cold.
(i) oxygen cylinders (ii) human waste
(iii) climbers’ bodies (iv) all of these
(c) The news of the climb reached England:
(i) Mt Everest is drawing attention for all the negative reasons
(ii) the coronation of Queen Elizabeth
(iii) new regulations were passed by the Nepalese government
(iv) both (i) and (ii)
(d) Climbers who fail to comply with this new rule are likely
(i) to be put in prison
(ii) pay a fi ne
(iii) to be charged and legal action would be taken against them
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 (iv) both (i) and (ii)
(e) George Mallory and Andrew Irvine became the victims of :
(i) intense heat of sunlight (ii) storm
(iii) heavy rain (iv) swirling clouds around Everest
(f) Every climber of the Mt Everest has to bring a certain amount of garbage. It:
(i) proves that he/she reached the mountain peak
(ii) maintains cleanliness of the mountain peak
(iii) proves that he/she indeed has strength
(iv) is done to create a new mountain
(g) Mallory’s body was not found for another _____years, in May 1999.
(h) Under the new regulations passed by the Nepalese government, climbers scaling Everest will
have to bring back ten kilograms of garbage. (True/False)

53. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The Power of Thoughts
1. Ideas rule the world. You shape your fate and decide your destiny by your thoughts. You have to
think high to rise. You have to believe and be sure of yourself to win a prize. Life’s battles do not
always go to the stronger or the faster man. But, sooner or later, the man who wins is the man who
thinks he can.
2. Success starts with your thoughts. Whatever your mind can conceive and believe, it can achieve.
And your mind is nothing more than a bundle of thoughts. Since you have the power to shape your
thoughts, you automatically have the power to fashion your fate and decide your destiny. Thus, your
thoughts are the most potent, powerful and prime source of your success.
3. For your thoughts to blossom into success, they should be combined with definiteness of purpose,
perseverance and a burning, pulsating strong desire to translate them into action. Believe that you
will succeed and believe it firmly. You will then do whatever is necessary to bring success about.
4. Faith in yourself as well as the confidence that you can and will succeed are the key to your
success in any venture. If you keep your mind riveted on your goal and focus your thoughts on the
great and splendid things that you wish to have, you will find yourself unconsciously seizing upon
the opportunities that are required for the fulfillment of your desires.
5. Thoughts are supreme. Preserve the right mental attitude of courage, frankness and good cheer.
Think of success in your work and you will then do automatically and unconsciously, the things
necessary to bring success about. If your desire is weak and your efforts are erratic your
achievements will also be slight and fleeting. But, if you go after your goal with the single-
mindedness of a bulldog after a cat, nothing and nobody under the sun can stop you. Your goal
should also be well-defined, clear-cut and specific and should be linked to a fixed timeframe so that
your definite energies and efforts can be focussed and forcefully directed towards its attainment.
53.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions.
(a) The basic triggers of achieving success are:
(i) Be sure of yourself (ii) Think high (iii) Have the power (iv) Both (i) & (ii)
(b) The suitable heading for para 3 is:
(i) Be positive (ii) Dream big (iii) Success only depends on you (iv) Streamline your life
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(c) Which of these plays the most important role in achieving our success?
(i) our health (ii) our thoughts (iii) hardwork (v) confi dence
(d) In order to change our thoughts into success, we must also have:
(i) defi niteness of purpose (ii) Perseverance (iii) Strong desire (iv) All of these
(e) If you go after your goal with the _____, you will achieve success.
(i) In a hurry (ii) Think about obstacles (iii) Be alert (iv) Single-mindedness
(f) The key to your success in any venture is:
(i) Faith (ii) Confi dence (iii) Both (i) & (ii) (iv) None of these
(g) Preserve the right mental attitude of courage, frankness and _____
(h) Thoughts are not that important. (True/False)
54. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. Walter Elias “Walt” Disney was born on December 5, 1901, in Hermosa, Illinois. He lived most
of his childhood in Marceline, Missouri, where he began drawing, painting and selling pictures to
neighbours and family friends. Disney attended McKinley High School in Chicago, where he took
drawing and photography classes and was a contributing cartoonist for the school paper. At night,
he took courses at the Chicago Art Institute.
2. When Disney was 16, he dropped out of school to join the army but was rejected for being
underage. Instead, he joined the Red Cross and was sent to France for a year to drive an ambulance.
When Disney returned from France in 1919, he moved back to Kansas City to pursue a career as a
newspaper artist. His brother Roy got him a job at the Pesmen-Rubin Art Studio, where he met
cartoonist Ubbe Eert Iwwerks, better known as Ub Iwerks. From there, Disney worked at the
Kansas City Film Ad Company, where he made commercials based on cutout animation. Around
this time, Disney began experimenting with a camera, doing hand-drawn cell animation, and
decided to open his own animation business. From the ad company, he recruited Fred Harman as his
first employee.
3. Walt and Harman made a deal with a local Kansas City theater to screen their cartoons, which
they called Laugh-O-Grams. The cartoons were hugely popular, and Disney was able to acquire his
own studio, upon which he bestowed the same name. Laugh-O-Gram hired a number of employees,
including Harman’s brother Hugh and Iwerks. They did a series of seven-minute fairy tales that
combined both live action and animation, which they called Alice in Cartoonland. By 1923,
however, the studio had become burdened with debt, and Disney was forced to declare bankruptcy.
4. Disney and his brother, Roy, soon pooled their money and moved to Hollywood. Iwerks also
relocated to California, and there the three began the Disney Brothers’ Studio. Their first deal was
with New York distributor Margaret Winkler, to distribute their Alice cartoons. They also invented
a character called Oswald the Lucky Rabbit, and contracted the shorts at $1,500 each.
54.1. On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following questions:
(a) Why was Walt not selected in the army?
(i) For being overweight (ii) For being underage
(iii) For being colour blind (iv) For being underweight
(b) The first employee of the Ad Company was:
(i) Fred Harman (ii) Ubbe Eert Iwwerk (iii) Roy (iv) Hugh
(c) The studio was burdened by debt in:
(i) 1927 (ii) 1926 (iii) 1923 (iv) None of these
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(d) Walt Disney moved back to Kansas City to pursue a career as a:
(i) Newspaper (ii) Cartoonist (iii) Studio artist (iv) distributor
(e) Walt and Harman made a deal with a local Kansas City theater to:
(i) act as their distributor (ii) screen their cartoons
(iii) Self their cartoons (iv) become a studio artist
(f) Walt Disney learnt to _____ in his childhood.
(i) do woodwork (ii) be a mimic (iii) paint (iv) sing
(g) Disney worked at the Kansas City Film Ad Company, where he made commercials based on.
(h) Their first deal was with New York distributor Margaret Winkler, to distribute their Alice
cartoons. (True/false)
55. Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
1. The small village of Somnathpur contains an extraordinary temple, built around A.D. 1268 by the
Hoyasalas of Karnataka—one of the most prolific temple-builders. Belur and Helebid are among
their-better-known works. While these suffered during the invasions of the 14th century, the
Somnathpur temple stands more or less intact in near-original condition.
2. This small temple captivates with the beauty and vitality of its detailed sculpture, covering almost
every inch of the walls, pillars, and even ceilings. It has three shikharas and stands on a starshaped,
raised platform with 24 edges. The outer walls have a profusion of detailed carvings : the entire
surface run over by carved plaques of stone. There were vertical panels covered by exquisite figures
of god and goddesses, with many incarnations being depicted.
3. There were nymphs too, some carrying an ear of maize (a symbol of plenty and prosperity). The
elaborate ornamentation, very characteristic of Hoyasalas sculptures, was a remarkable feature. On
closer look—and it is worth it—the series of friezes on the outer walls revealed intricately carved
caparisoned elephants, charging horsemen, stylised fl owers, warriors, musicians, crocodiles, and
swans.
4. The temple was actually commissioned by Soma Dandanayaka or Somnath (he named the village
after himself), the minister of Hoyasala king, Narasimha the Third. The temple was built to house
three versions of Krishna. The inner center of the temple was the kalyana mandapa. Leading from
here were three corridors, each ending in a shrine, one for each kind of Krishna-Venugopala,
Janardana and Prasanna Keshava, though only two remain in their original form. In the darkness of
the sanctum sanctorum, I tried to discern the diff erent images. The temple’s sculptural perfection is
amazing and it includes the doors of the temple and the three elegantly carved towers.
55.1 On the basis of your reading of the passage given above, answer the following question.
(a) The Somnath temple was built to house the three.
(i) prolifi c temple builders (ii) symbols of prosperity
(iii) versions of Krishna (iv) Hoyasalas of Karnataka
(b) The outer walls of the temple have a profusion of detailed:
(i) carvings (ii) captivates (iii) invasions (iv) shikharas
(c) The temple stands on a star-shaped platform having 24 edges and _____
(i) god and goddesses (ii) nymphs (iii) captivities (iv) 3 shikharas
(d) The beauty of the temple lies its detailed carrings on the:
(i) outer walls (ii) ceiling (iii) pillars (iv) all of these
(e) The temple stands on a:
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 (i) star-shaped platform (ii) moon-shaded platform
(iii) V-shaped platform (iv) U-shaped platform
(f) The series of friezes on the outer walls displayed:
(i) caprisoned elephants (ii) charging horseman (iii) warriors (iv) all of these
(g) Each corridor leading from Kalyan a mandapa was ending in a _____
(h) The towers of the temple had no attraction at all. (True/False)
Extra Comprehension Passages
1. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Once, the Maharaja of Travancore ordered a grand dinner in his palace. In the afternoon before the dinner,
the Maharaja entered the kitchen to survey the dishes that had been prepared for the feast. “What are you
going to do with those vegetable scraps?” he asked the cook, pointing to the basket of scraps near the cook.
i. Who ordered the grand dinner?
a. The cook b. Maharaja of state
c. Maharaja of Travancore d. Maharani of Travancore
Answer c. Maharaja of Travancore
ii. Where did the Maharaja enter?
a. The kitchen b. The court c. The palace d. The store room
Answer a. The Kitchen
iii. “What are you going to do with those vegetable scraps?” Who said this?
a. The cook b. The maharaja c. The maharani d. The guest
Answer b. The Maharaja
iv. What was kept in the basket?
a. Fruits b. Vegetable c. Flowers d. Scraps
Answer d. Scraps
v. Which of the following words is not a Noun?
a. Grand b. Basket c. Vegetable d. Travancore
Answer a. Grand (It is an Adjective which means Impressive, large and important)

2. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:

Rambo was a little grasshopper. He loved music and dancing all the time. He never worked or planned. His
friend Jolly, the ant was a hard worker. She was always busy. When it began to snow in the winter,
grasshoppers had no food to eat. Jolly gave him food to eat. Rambo promised to work from then on.
i. What did Rambo, the grasshopper do all day?
a. Danced only b. Listened to music only c. Hard work d. Both A and B
Answer d. Both A and B
ii. Who was Jolly?
a. Another grasshopper b. An ant c. Rambo’s pet d. A musician
Answer b. an ant
iii. What happened to the grasshopper in the winter?
a. He had no food to eat b. He fell sick c. He died d. He danced with joy
Answer a. He had no food to eat
iv. Who helped the grasshopper?
a. He helped himself b. His brother c. Jolly, the ant d. All the ants
Answer: c. Jolly the ant
v. What did Rambo promise?
a. To play all day b. To dance all day c. To eat all day d. To work from then on
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Answer: d. To work from then on

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3. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Traditionally, beauty pageants focused on the physical attributes of the contestants. Pageants have now
evolved to include inner beauty counting on personality, intelligence, talent, character, and social and
charitable involvement. In the year 1994, Sushmita Sen created history by winning the Ms Universe title for
the first time for India. In 2021, Harnaz Kaur Sandhu is the third entrant from India to win Miss Universe
after Lara Dutta.
Sandhu is a model from Chandigarh, Punjab in India. She has already won several beauty contests such as
Miss Diva 2021, and Femina Miss India Punjab 2019, and she was also among the top 12 in Femina Miss
India 2019. Among all her wins 70th Miss Universe beauty pageant in Israel, the Southern Red coastal city
of Eliyat on December 30 in 2021 got her worldwide recognition.
Beauty pageants are known for their tricky questions as well as inspiring answers. Sandhu’s quick reply in
the first round has brought back the crown to India after over two decades. The Internet is abuzz with
pictures, quotes, and videos for all the right reasons.
Host Steve Harvey asked the 21-year-old Sandhu – “what advice she would give to young women on how to
deal with the pressure they face today”. She eloquently replied, “well I think the biggest pressure the youth
of today is facing is to believe in yourself. You know that you are unique and that’s what makes you
beautiful. Stop comparing yourself with others and let’s talk about more important things that are happening
worldwide. I think this is what you need to understand. Come out, speak for yourself, because you are the
leader of your life, you are the voice of your own life and I believe in myself and that’s why I am standing
here today.
In an earlier round, Sandhu was asked what she would do to convince people who believe climate change is
a hoax. Harnaz quickly replied, “My heart breaks to see how nature is going through innumerable problems
and it is all due to our irresponsible behaviour. I feel that this is the time to take action and talk less because
every action of ours can either kill or save nature. To prevent and protect is better than repent and repair and
this is what I would like to convince you today”. Thundering applause followed her answer and she was
declared Miss Universe 2021.
Essayshout exclusive content Words: 400 (approx)

Answer the following questions based on your reading of the passage.

1 Which of the following beauty contests Harnaaz has never won
a. Miss Diva 2021 b. Miss India Punjab 2019
c. Femina Miss India 2019 d. Miss Universe
Answer: c. Femina Miss India 2019
2 Find the correct chronology of Miss Universe winners from India.
a. Lara Dutta < Harnaz Sandhu < Sushmita Sen
b. Sushmita Sen < Lara Dutta < Harnaz Sandhu
c. Harnaz Sandhu < Sushmita Sen < Lara Dutta
d. Lara Dutta < Sushmita Sen < Harnaz Sandhu
Answer: b. Sushmita Sen < Lara Dutta < Harnaz Sandhu
3 Two decades is a period of
a. 2 days b. 2 years c. 20 years d. 200 years
Answer: c. 20 years
4 ‘eloquently’ means to speak in an expressive way. Which of the following is not a synonym of eloquently?
a. persuasive b. expressive c. fluent d. stammering
Answer: d. stammering

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5 “Internet is a buzz with pictures, quotes and videos for all the right reasons”. What reasons is being talked
about in the above statement?
a. Harnaz won the Miss World 2021
b. Harnaz won the Miss Universe 2021
c. Lara Dutta won Miss Universe title after 21 years
c. all above
Answer: b. Harnaz won the Miss Universe 2021

6 Put yourself in Harnaz’s shoes and answer the following question – What would you do to convince
people who believe climate change is a hoax?
ANS: The rational approach is to convince them by showing facts. But for most people climate change
seems like something that is happening far away and it is a natural tendency to downplay distant problems
that are not directly affecting them. So, I will use the following approach – Instead of talking about global
effects, it can be marketed towards their personal loss or benefit. For example use of solar energy can be
popularized as a way to reduce their electricity bill rather than a way to save energy
The green actions should be simple enough to be followed by people. Complexity, unavailability and
inconvenience would force people to pull back their support.

Q 7 What do you think about beauty pageants?

ANS: A beauty pageant is like any other form of competition. People compete with others to excel in the
field of education to become good doctors, engineers or entrepreneurs. Similarly, a beauty pageant is also an
exam that tests the participants’ style, dressing sense, beauty and of course brain.

Q 8 Why do people participate in beauty pageants?

ANS: People participate in any competition to win the prize money or award. The following benefits are
associated with the beauty pageants –
 scholarship to colleges
 a voice on issues that they are passionate about
 they get an opportunity to travel the whole world
 publicity, advertisements, movies, sponsorships, brand ambassadorship etc.

Q 9 If you were in place of Harnaz what advice would you give to young women on how to deal with the
pressure they face today?
ANS: The biggest pressure on today’s women is to maintain a balance between their personal and
professional life. I would suggest them not to let interfere one part with the other. Professional life should
not enter the house and personal life should never exit the house.

Q 10 What do you think about Sandhu’s answer to the nature question?

ANS: I am partially satisfied with her answer. She replied about what we should do to stop climate change.
However, Steve Harvey wanted to know from her some suggestions to convince the non-believers to take
green actions.

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4. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Some teenagers live in a world of their own. Various causes can be found for this state of affairs but the first
in importance is clearly the lack of parental authority in the home. This depended, more than a century ago,
upon the convention of the husband being master in his own house. The wife gave him formal obedience,
realising that upon this depended her authority, in turn, over the children.
She was likely to see much more of them and her own efforts to maintain discipline might thus be weakened
by familiarity. It was always her best plan, therefore, to fall back on the authority of an absent husband,
saying, ‘Your father has forbidden it,’ often with the inference that she herself would have been more
indulgent. It was only by accepting her husband’s sway that she could gain obedience from the young. The
decision might be hers but the unpopularity was his, the more easily borne in that he might not be there. To
precepts about subordination she thus added the potent force of an example. Children and servants were in
this way taught to know their place.
In the twentieth century, children became fewer and the feminist revolt was the result. With discipline no
longer the chief problem, the pattern of the family life underwent a change. Granted a small number of
children carefully spaced out, there might, it was thought, be time to reason with them. There might even be
time to read books on child psychology. Father’s word had no longer the authority of holy writ and given the
Bible itself was relegated to high shelf quite unsuitable for the young. Why should women accept their
subordinate rule? Why indeed? With some hesitation, their claim to equality was conceded. Among the
intelligent, there would henceforth be an easier relationship, a more casual comradeship and co-operation
with love to take the place of fear. Married women now retained their identity and some of them even
pursued separate careers; and most men welcomed the change, readily dropping their role of an infallible
tyrant in the home.
What people were slow to observe was that the emancipation of the wife destroyed the parent’s authority
over the children. The mother did not exemplify the obedience upon which she still tried to insist. There was
more room now for disagreement between the parents, enabling the child to appeal from one to the other,
eventually ignoring both. In bringing the man down from his pedestal the wife and mother deprived herself,
in fact, of the means of discipline.
Objectionable lines in the passage –
1. Children and servants were in this way taught to know their place.
2. What people were slow to observe was that the emancipation of the wife destroyed the parent’s authority
over the children.
3. The mother did not exemplify the obedience upon which she still tried to insist.
4. In bringing the man down from his pedestal the wife and mother deprived herself, in fact, of the means of
discipline.

1 The title of this passage could be:

a. Who is responsible for indiscipline among children?
b. Collapse of discipline at home
c. Place of children and servants at home.
d. Child Psychology
Answer: a. Who is responsible for indiscipline among children?

2 The writer
a. seems to be a male chauvinist pig/an arrogant person.
b. takes a light-hearted approach to life.
c. is a disgruntled husband

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 d. has his family’s welfare at his heart
Answer: d. has his family’s welfare at his heart
3 Earlier, a wife was obedient to her husband:
a. so that she could discipline her children.
b. so that she could control her entire household.
c. as he was the bread-earner.
d. as men are physically stronger than women.
Answer: a. so that she could discipline her children.
4 Study the following statements:
(i) mother spent most of her time at home.
(ii) Element of familiarity decreased her control over her children.
Choose the correct option:
a. only (i) is true and represents an assertion
b. (ii) is false and follows the assertion in (i)
c. (i) is false but represents an assertion.
d. (ii) is true and follows the assertion in (i)
Answer: d. (ii) is true and follows the assertion in (i)
5 Study the following statements:
(i) Wife asserted her authority through her husband.
(ii) Firm steps were taken by the wife in the name of her husband.
(iii) Wife made the decisions and husband took the blame.
Choose the correct option:
a. (i) and (ii) are true and (iii) is false.
b. (ii) and (ii) are true and (i) is false.
c. (iii) is true and follows the assertion in (ii).
d. (i) is true and follows the assertion in (iii).
Answer: c. (iii) is true and follows the assertion in (ii).
6 Study the following statements:
(i) It gives mothers more time to talk to children.
(ii) Mothers had more freedom and more time.
(iii) Mothers could discuss matters with their children.
(iv) In the twentieth-century families had fewer children.
Which event leads to which?
a. (i) –>(ii) –> (iii) –> (iv) b. (ii) –> (i) –> (iv) –> (iii)
c. (iv) –>(ii) –> (i) –> (iii) d. (iii) –> (iv) –> (ii) –> (i)
Answer: c. (iv) –>(ii) –> (i) –> (iii)

7. “even the Bible was relegated to a higher shelf” the figure of speech used in this expression is
a. irony b. metonymy c. personification d. metaphor
Answer: a. irony
8 The Bible was unsuitable for the young as
a. it was symbolic of religious authority.
b. it talked of male superiority.
c. the young did not like to believe in God.
d. the scientific temper goes against religious beliefs.
Answer: b. it talked of male superiority.

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9 Study the following statements:
(i) Now intelligent men and women have developed a comfortable relationship.
(ii) wives’ fear of the husbands has turned into a feeling of mutual love.
Choose the correct option
a. (i) is right but (ii) is wrong and (i) is the result of (ii).
b. (ii) is right but (i) is wrong and (ii) is the result of (i).
c. (i) and (ii) are both right and (ii) is the result of (i).
d. (i) and (ii) are both wrong and (i) is the result of (ii).
Answer: c. (i) and (ii) are both right and (ii) is the result of (i).
10 “their role of “infallible tyrant”
The phrase “infallible tyrant” means a cruel person
a. who sometimes fails b. never fails
c. sometimes makes a mistake d. never makes a mistake
Answer: d. never makes a mistake

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5. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
In most societies that have any glimmering of civilization, a person accused of wrong doing is given at least
a nominal chance of proving his innocence. The Romans had a highly sophisticated/comprehensive system
of courts and the members of their legal profession were well educated but the Saxons who followed them to
rule Britain used rougher methods.
From about the sixth-century A.D.to the eleventh, the majority of the trials were in the form of cruel
physical torture (carrying a piece of red hot iron, stepping barefoot and blindfold across a floor covered with
red hot coals or sometimes by a gentler method of oath – swearing.
The accused was ordered to bring to the Saxon authorities, a police officer or a priest could be persuaded to
swear on oath or still a number of persons who would say that the accused was of good character and thus
innocent. The number of persons who swore depended on the crime. A noble / a landlord or a priest counted
for up to half a dozen ordinary peasants. As almost everyone lived in small villages, where almost everyone
knew everyone else and very few would risk telling a lie on oath (the people were mostly religious), the
truth was generally told. If the accused could not produce enough oath helpers, he was found guilty and
punished.
In the 11th century, the Normans introduced trial by battle in certain cases. The accused and accuser fought
with special weapons until one was dead or surrendered. It was believed that God would know the guilty and
give the innocent the power to win. The whole idea became ridiculous when both the parties were allowed to
hire champions who would fight on their behalf. It seemed likely whoever could pay the more for a stronger
professional fighter stood a good chance of winning and judged innocent. This may sound unfair to us but
there is a parallel with a wealthy person today who can hire a costly and brilliant barrister to defend him.
In the early middle ages when England was a land of small villages remote from each other, crime tended to
be basic and direct: beating up, theft, sex and murder being the main offences. But as towns and
manufacturing and commerce grew, the possibilities for cheating and fraud soared. The whole organisation
of society became more complex and opened the door to a world of more sophisticated wickedness. With no
regular police force, spies and informers were offered rewards when they brought in criminals.
Based on the understanding of the passage answer the following questions:
1 England (or Britain) turn-by-turn came under the rule of
a. Saxons; Romans; Normans b. Normans; Saxons; Romans
c. Romans; Saxons; Normans d. Normans; Romans and Saxons
Answer c. Romans; Saxons; Normans
2 The article describes:
a. the development of the system of justice in England
b. Civilized societies and justice
c. justice v/s civilization
d. Rule of justice in England
Answer a. the development of the system of justice in England
3 Study the following statements:
(A) Romans were proud of their judicial system.
(B) There is not much difference between the Normans and the modern system of justice.
a. (A) is right and (B) is wrong b. (B) is right and (A) is wrong
c. both (A) and (B) are right d. both (A) and (B) are wrong
Answer c. both (A) and (B) are right
4 Match the following:
(A) Romans i. A priest to swear for the accused
(B) Saxons ii. Highly paid lawyers can win a case

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 (C) Modern iii. Educated judges and lawyers
(D) Normans iv. The winner in a battle declared innocent
a. (A) iv ; (B) ii ; (C) i ; (D) iii ; b. (A) iii ; (B) i ; (C) ii ; (D) iv ;
c. (A) i ; (B) iii ; (C) iv ; (D) ii ; d. (A) ii ; (B) i ; (C) iii ; (D) iv ;
Answer: b. (A) iii ; (B) i ; (C) ii ; (D) iv ;
5 Study the following statements:
(A) In a trial by battle money played the main role.
(B) God helps the innocent win the battle.
a. (A) is right and (B) is wrong
b. (B) is right and (A) is wrong
c. both (A) and (B) are right and (A) was the conclusion
d. both (A) and (B) are right and (A) was not the conclusion.
Answer: c. both (A) and (B) are right and (A) was the conclusion
6 Study the following statements:
(A) Saxon system of trial was nobler than that of Romans
(B) Saxon system had two aspects – rough and noble.
(C) the rich Saxons could hire champions to argue their case.
(D) Even an innocent person would be held guilty if enough people did not swear for him.
The following are correct:
a. A and B b. B and C c. C and A d. B and D
Answer d. B and D
7 Study the following statements:
(A) Earlier England comprised small villages each with a small population.
(B) Crimes like cheating and fraud were rare.
a. (A) is an assertion and (B) is the response
b. (B) is an assertion and is (A) is the response
c. both A and B are unrelated assertions.
d. both A and B are responses to some other assertions.
Answer a. (A) is an assertion and (B) is the response
8 Which of the following statements are true:
The rich have always enjoyed an advantage in the judicial system because
(A) they were physically strong so would win the trial by fighting.
(B) they could hire the strongest champion.
(C) they can hire the best lawyers.
(D) they could persuade the priest to swear on their behalf.
a. (A) and (B) b. (B) and (C) c. (C) and (D) d. (A) and (D)
Answer: b. (B) and (C)
9 Which of the following statements are not true:
(A) In the quest for justice, the guilty often went unpunished.
(B) For 700 years from the sixth-century trial was mostly rough.
(C) swearing value of a priest was equal to a dozen ordinary peasants.
(D) Use of champions in a trial by battle finds an equivalent in modern times.
a. (A) and (C) b. (B) and (C) c. (C) and (D) d. (A) and (B)
Answer: b. (B) and (C)
10 ‘any glimmering of civilization’
Glimmering in the above expression has been used as a metaphor. Glimmering stands for

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 a. a slight suggestion b. a great hope c. some fear d. a little confidence
Answer: b. a great hope
6. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. Caged behind thick glass, the most famous dancer in the world can easily be missed in the National
Museum, Delhi. The Dancing Girl of Mohenjo-Daro is that rare artefact that even school children are
familiar with. Our school textbooks also communicate the wealth of our 5000-
year heritage of art. You have to be alert to her existence there, amid terracotta
animals to rediscover this bronze image.
2. Most of us have seen her only in photographs or sketches, therefore, the
impact of actually holding her is magnified a million times over. One discovers
that the dancing girl has no feet. She is small, a little over 10 cm tall – the length
of a human palm – but she surprises us with the power of great art – the ability
to communicate across centuries.
3. A series of bangles – of shell or ivory or thin metal – clothe her left upper arm
all the way down to her fingers. A necklace with three pendants bunched
together and a few bangles above the elbow and wrist on the right-hand display
almost modern art.
4. She speaks of the undaunted, ever-hopeful human spirit. She reminds us that it is important to visit
museums in our country to experience the impact that a work of art leaves on our senses, to find among all
the riches one particular vision of beauty that speaks to us along.

Answer the following multiple-choice questions based on the passage given above.
1 The dancing girl belongs to
(a) Mohenjo-Daro (b) Greek culture (c) Homosapiens (d) Tibet
Answer: (a) Mohenjo-Daro
2 In the museum she is kept among
(a) dancing figures (b) Bronze statues (c) terracotta animals (d) books
Answer: (c) terracotta animals
3 Which information is not given in the passage?
(a) The girl is caged behind glass
(b) She is a rare artefact
(c) School books communicate the wealth of our heritage
(d) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze
Answer (d) She cannot be rediscovered as she’s bronze
3 Why the dancing girl can easily be missed in the National Museum?
(a) There are various statues in the museum (b) It is very small
(c) It does not impress (d) It is placed among old sketches
Answer (b) It is very small
4 ‘Great Art’ has power because :
(a) it appeals to us despite the passage of time. (b) it is small and can be understood.
(c) it’s seen in pictures and sketches. (d) it’s magnified a million times.
Answer (a) it appeals to us despite the passage of time.
5 The jewellery she wears :
(a) consists of bangles of shell, ivory or thin metal. (b) is a necklace with two pendants.
(c) both (i) and (ii) are correct. (d) neither (i) nor (ii) is correct.
Answer (i) consists of bangles of shell, ivory or thin metal.

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6 She reminds us
(a) of the never-say-die attitude of humans.
(b) why museums in our country are exciting.
(c) why she will make us come into money.
(d) of dancing figures.
Answer (a) of the never-say-die attitude of humans.
7 The synonym of the word “among” in para 1 is __.
(a) in between (b) out of all (c) all of them (d) out of two
Answer b. out of all
8 The size of the dancing girl is equal to the length of the human palm.
(a) True (b) False
Answer True
9 According to the given passage, the art ………………..
(a) leaves an impression on one’s senses (b) gives us hope
(c) does not communicate (d) speaks about textbooks
Answer (a) leaves an impression on one’s senses
10 The passage attempts to ………………… the readers.
(a) provoke (b) evoke (c) rebuke (d) warm
Answer: b evoke

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7. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
Cricket is a global passion, played everywhere from Test match arenas to village greens, tropical beaches
and dusty back lots. Cricket is the world’s second most popular spectator sport after football.
The origin of cricket is somewhere in the Dark Ages. All research concedes that the game derived from a
very old, widespread and uncomplicated pastime by which one player served up an object, be it a small
piece of wood or a ball, and another hit it with a suitably fashioned club. Cricket was first recorded in 16th-
century England and it was played in grammar schools, farm communities and everywhere in between. But
things really took off when 18th-century nobles realised it was a great sport.
The oldest surviving set of cricket laws date from 1744 – printed on a handkerchief, naturally. It’s now in
the MCC Museum at Lord’s in London. The oldest permanent fixture is the annual Eton v Harrow match,
played since 1805. A young Lord Byron turned out for Harrow in the first match, though history doesn’t
record how poetic – or “mad, bad and dangerous” – his bowling was.
The first international match was in 1877 when Australia beat England in Melbourne. The match was
dubbed a ‘Test’ since the gruelling nature of playing over five days was deemed the ultimate “test” for any
side. But it was Australia’s first win on English soil – in 1882 at The Oval in London – that led to matches
between the two nations being christened the Ashes. Following the defeat, newspapers published an obituary
mourning “the death of English cricket”, adding that “the body will be cremated and the ashes taken to
Australia”.
A One Day International (ODI) is a form of limited-overs cricket, played between two teams with
international status, in which each team faces a fixed number of overs, usually 50. The Cricket World Cup is
played in this format. The international one-day game is a late-twentieth-century development. The first ODI
was played on 5 January 1971 between Australia and England at the Melbourne Cricket Ground.

Answer the following multiple-choice questions based on the above passage.

1 According to the passage when did the game of Cricket originate?
a. 17th-century b. 16th-century c. the dark ages d. the light ages
2 The oldest set of cricket laws can be found in
a. at Lords b. at the Oval c. in Melbourne d. in Sydney
3 When was the first international cricket match played?
a. 1805 b. 1877 c. 1882 d. none of these.
4 How many overs are there in the one day international (ODI) games?
a. 20 overs b. 40 overs c. 50 overs d. 60 over
5 India won its first World Cup in which of the following years?
a. 1893 b. 1983 c. 2011 d. 2003
6 The matches between Australia and England were titled the Ashes because
a. an obituary in a newspaper read that the ashes of the England cricket would be taken to Australia.
b. ashes were blown into the air.
c. the match was played on ashes day
d. it was England’s second defeat to Australia.
7 The cricket World Cup is played in which of the following formats?
a. Test match b. One-day match c. T-20 match d. IPL
8 One-day internationals are also called
a. Limited over matches b. unlimited over matches
c. 20-20 matches d. few over matches
9 What is the shape of the Ashes trophy?
a. urn b. vase c. Goblet d. fire pit

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10 When did Australia record its first win against England?
a. 1882 at The Oval in London b. 1882 at the Eden Garden
c. 1882 at the Lords d. 1882 at the Sharjah
11 What is the purpose of an obituary in a newspaper?
a. it is an advertisement
b. informing people about somebody’s death and its details
c. matrimony and obituary serve the same purpose
d. none of the above
12 Why was the first cricket match called a test?
a. it was grueling b. it tested skills and patience
c. it tested strength d. people required physical strength to play these matches.

ANSWERS
1. c the dark ages
2. a at Lord’s
3. b 1877
4. c 50 overs
5. b 1983
6. an obituary in a newspaper read that……
7. b One day match
8. a limited over matches
9. an Urn
10. a 1882 at The Oval in London
11. b informing people about somebody’s death and giving its details
12. c it was grueling

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8. Read the following passage carefully and answer the questions that follow:
(1) These days, it is not unusual to see people listening to music or using their electronic gadgets while
crossing busy roads or travelling on public transport, regardless of the risks involved. I have often wondered
why they take such risks; is it because they want to exude a sense of independence, or is it that they want to
tell the world to stop bothering them? Or is it that they just want to show how cool they are? Whether it is a
workman or an executive, earphones have become an inseparable part of our lives, sometimes even leading
to tragic-comic situations.
(2) The other day, an electrician had come to our house to fix something. We told him in detail what needed
to be done. But after he left, I found that the man had done almost nothing. It later turned out that he could
not hear our directions clearly because he had an earphone on. Hundreds of such earphone addicts commute
by the Delhi Metro every day. While one should not begrudge anyone their moments of privacy or their love
for music, the fact is that ‘iPod oblivion’ can sometimes be very dangerous.
(3) Recently, I was travelling with my wife on the Delhi Metro. Since the train was approaching the last
station, there weren’t too many passengers. In our compartment, other than us, there were only two women
sitting on the other side of the aisle. And then suddenly, I spotted a duffel bag. The bomb scare lasted for
several minutes. Then suddenly, a youth emerged from nowhere and picked up the bag. When we tried to
stop him, he looked at us, surprised. Then he took off his earpieces, lifted the bag, and told us that the bag
belonged to him and that he was going to get off at the next station.
(4) We were stunned but recovered in time to ask him where he was all this while. His answer: he was in the
compartment, leaning against the door totally immersed in the music. He had no clue about what was going
on around him. When he got off, earplugs in his hand, we could hear strains of the song.

(A) Read the above passage and answer the questions that follow: (1×5 = 5 marks)
1 The reason for people listening to music or using their electronic gadgets while crossing busy roads or
travelling on public transport is that day
a. they do not want to be disturbed. b. they want to show how fashionable they are.
c. they want to show their Independence. d. all of these
2 Why had the electrician done nothing? because…
a. he had not heard them.
b. he was listening to music.
c. he was not interested in the job.
d. because he could not understand what needed to be fixed.
3 Which of the following correctly lists the tone with which the author had written the passage?
1 humorous 2 sarcastic 3 serious 4 informative 5 resentful
a. 1 and 5 b. 2 and 4 c. 3 and 5 d. 1 and 4
4 The author says that we should not resent people
a. indulging in their love for music b. wanting privacy
c. both A and B d. neither a nor b
5 The bomb scare happened because…
a. it was a better bag. b. no one came to claim it.
c. it consisted of wires. d. it was suspicious-looking.
6 The passengers were stunned because…
a. the youth was careless.
b. the bag contained a bomb.
c. the youth had not been visible anywhere near the bag earlier.
d. None of the above.

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7 Pick the option showing the correct use of ‘stunned’ as used in the passage.
a. the animals are stunned before slaughter.
b. the robbers stunned the guard by banging him on the head.
c. many cinema-goers were stunned by the film’s violent and tragic end.
d. the impact of the ball had stunned her.
8 The word in the passage is an antonym for absorbing.
a. exude b. bothering c. commute d. stunned
9 ‘iPod Oblivion’ can be defined as
a. the popularity of music
b. the carelessness of people in Metro
c. the carelessness of people while listening to music
d. the forget fullness of people.
10 The synonym of absorbed used in paragraph 4 is
a. recovered b. immersed c. stunned d. soaked

ANSWERS
1. d
2. a
3. c
4. c
5. b
6. c
7. c
8. a
9. c
10. b

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9. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
The Rajasthan Set of a Netflix film is Now Producing Champion Skaters. Skater Girl’s set, which is now a
public park in Khempur, is training village children to skate for free. This Desert Dolphin Skate Park is
located in Khempur, which is about 40km from Udaipur. Film sets usually die soon after a movie has been
wrapped up. The set of the Netflix original movie, Skater Girl (released on 11 June 2021), has lived on and
is producing sports stars. The movie revolves around a 16-year-old girl from a Rajasthan village who is
introduced to skating through a chance encounter with a British-Indian woman, in Khempur, a village about
40km from Udaipur.
The sport changes her life in the movie, and the park is changing the lives of many other children in the
village. Since the movie wrapped in 2019, the Desert Dolphin Skate Park has been the ground for training
hundreds of village children to skate for free. Four kids from Khempur have gone on to represent Rajasthan
in the National Skateboarding Championship in Chandigarh. A boy who was earlier considered “slow” took
part in the competition and topped his district in Sanskrit. “He’s an expressive and creative child who just
needed a catalyst to unleash his real talent and build his confidence. These kids who had never stepped on a
skateboard before the skatepark was made, are now in state jerseys travelling for the first time outside their
villages to take part in a national level championship,” says Manjari Makijany, the maker of Skater Girl and
also the daughter of Mac Mohan, who played Sambha in the movie Sholay.
This Park sprawls across 14,500sq. ft and is open to all and has become a personal endeavour for Makijany
and her producing partners. The family has set up a trust called The Living Grace Foundation to support the
project. The organisation has been providing skateboards, safety equipment and training for free, to the
children. Zeroing on the location was no easy task.
The filmmaker travelled thousands of kilometres through scorching summers to find the right location.
While the vibrancy and picturesque backdrop of Rajasthan was one of the reasons they chose the state, they
also wanted to pick a place where people would take to skating.”We had three prerequisites to lock a place:
it had to have a rustic backdrop; have concrete roads so kids could skate, and there had to be over a thousand
kids in and around the village so the skatepark could be beneficial to the local community after the film,”
says Makijany. Khempur checked all three boxes for them. “The children of Khempur were some of the
most creative ones we met—they had made makeshift skateboards out of wood and scrap material. We feel
incredibly proud of these kids and how they’ve excelled overall at school and in skating.
Based on your understanding of the passage answer the following questions:
1 Pick the option that suitably paraphrases the following excerpt from the text.
Film sets usually die soon after a movie has been wrapped up. The set of the netflix original movie has lived
on…
A. A.The personnel who worked on constructing the skate park shall continue to live in the memory of
all.
B. The skate park set continues to be used since it was not dismantled after the shooting of the movie.
C. The shooting of the movie involved bringing a dead skate park to life and using it as a set.
D. D.The villagers of the movie destination felt alive during the shooting of the movie.
Answer: B. The skate park set continues to be used since it was not dismantled after the shooting of the
movie.
2 One of the reasons why Makijany chose Khempur is because she was aware that …..
A. its summer would bring out the uncomfortable living conditions.
B .the village had children who were creative and fit.
C. lack of concrete roads would make village scenes seem authentic.
D. a large number of children would eventually benefit from the created set.
Answer D. a large number of children would eventually benefit from the created set.

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3 Pick the feature of a dolphin that makes it an appropriate choice for being included in the name of the
desert skate park at Khempur.
A. Dolphins have a tapered streamlined body that’s thick near the centre and tapers down towards the
ends.
B. Dolphins communicate through clicks, whistles, and slapping the water’s surface with their tail
and bodies.
C. Dolphins are playful and are known for the aerial acrobatics they do out of the water.
D. Dolphins must rise regularly to the surface to breathe.
Answer C. Dolphins are playful and are known for the aerial acrobatics they do out of the water.
4 According to the lines given below, what kind of people are Makijany and her producing partners? This
park …is open to all and has become a personal endeavour for Makijany and her producing partners.
A. philanthropists. B. Stalwarts C. Consultants D. Socialites
Answer A. philanthropists.
5 Select the option with an appropriate cause-effect relationship, as per the text.
CAUSE EFFECT

A. Boy excelled overall at school Skateboarding built confidence

B. Boy topped in Sanskrit Creative and confident

C. Creative and confident boy excelled overall, at school

D. Skateboarding built confidence boy topped in Sanskrit

Answer
CAUSE EFFECT

D. Skateboarding built confidence Skateboarding built confidence

101
10. Read the passage given below.
(1) Have you ever failed at something so miserably that the thought of attempting to do it again was the last
thing on your mind?
(2) If your answer is yes, then you should understand that you are not a robot. Unlike robots, we human
beings have feelings, emotions, and dreams. We are all meant to grow despite our circumstances and
limitations. Flourishing and trying to make our dreams come true feels great when life goes our way. But
what happens when it does not? What happens when you fail despite all your hard work? Do you stay down
and accept defeat or do you get up again? If you tend to persevere and keep going, you have what experts
call ‘grit’.
(3) Falling down or failing is one of the most agonising, embarrassing, and scary human experiences. But it
is also one of the most educational, empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life.
Did you know that perseverance (grit) is one of the seven qualities that has been described as the key to
personal success and betterment in society? The other six are curiosity, gratitude, optimism, self-control,
social intelligence, and zest. Thomas Edison is an example of grit for trying more than 1,000 times to invent
the light bulb. If you are reading this with the lights on in your room, you will realise the importance of his
success. When asked why he kept going despite hundreds of failures, he merely stated that they had not been
failures, they were hundreds of attempts toward creating the light bulb. This statement not only revealed his
grit but also his optimism for looking at the bright side.
(4) Grit can be learnt to help you become more successful. One of the techniques that help is mindfulness.
Mindfulness is a practice that makes an individual stay at the moment by bringing awareness of his or her
experience without judgement. This practice has been used to quieten the noise of fears and doubts. Through
this simple practice of mindfulness, individuals have the ability to stop the self-sabotaging downward spiral
of hopelessness, despair, and frustration.
(5) What did you do to overcome the negative and self-sabotaging feelings of failure? Reflect on what you
did, and try to use those same powerful resources to help you today.
Moral: Learn from your Mistakes

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1*10

(A) The reason why you are not a robot is that:

(a) You fail miserably at tasks (b) Failure and success can affect your emotions
(c) You work hard (d) You have limitations
(B) Choose the option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the given quotes.

“Failure should be our “A person who

“What is the point of teacher, not our undertaker. never made a
being alive if you don’t “Mistakes are Failure is delay, not defeat. mistake never
at least try to do the portals of It is a temporary detour, not tried anything
something remarkable?” discovery.” a dead end.” new.”
(1) (2) (3) (4)
—John Green —James Joyce —Denis Waitley —Albert Einstein
(C) What is the tone of the following context: “Falling down or failing is one of the most… educational,
empowering, and essential parts of living a successful and fulfilling life.”?
(a) Humorous (b) Optimistic (c) Horrifying (d) Solemn
(D) Which of the following is relevant for the title of the passage?
(a) Dreams Always Come True (b) Failure and Grit Go Hand in Hand
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 (c) Humans vs Robots (d) Falling Down and Getting Up
(E) ……………… was created after many attempts.
(a) electricity (b) light bulb (c) current (d) tube light
(F) Which of the following sentences makes the correct use of “grit”, as used in the passage?
(a) Get rid of that grit in your shoes. (b) She had a bit of grit in her eye.
(c) The road had been covered with grit. (d) Her grit never made her give up.
(G) To develop perseverance one must:
(a) become more aware (b) work hard
(c) be in the moment and be aware without judgement (d) seek guidance
(H) How does mindfulness help?
(a) It creates awareness (b) It quietens the noise of fears and doubts
(c) It helps one become successful (d) It helps develop focus
(I) What do you understand from this line, “Falling down or failing is one of the most agonising,
embarrassing, and scary human experiences.”?
(a) Falling down makes us angry. (b) Failure can deeply affect our emotions
(c) Stay positive and be optimistic (d) Self-control is empowering
(J) Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of ‘social intelligence’ as implied in the passage:
(a) Knowing others (b) Knowing oneself and others
(c) Knowing oneself (d) Knowing one’s surroundings
(K) The importance of perseverance and optimism for a successful and fulfilling life is explained using the
example of?
(a) Thomas Edison (b) Flourishing (c) Grit (d) Limitations
(L) What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) Always aim for the best
(b) Live life king size
(c) Through mindfulness we can overcome the negative impact of failure
(d) Social intelligence is crucial for a successful life
Smart Trick to Score Full Marks in Unseen Passage
Latest Unseen Passage for 2023

ANSWER KEY
A – (b) B – (c) C – (b) D – (d) E – (b)
F – (d) G – (c) H – (b) I – (b) J – (b)
K – (a) L – (c)

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11. Read the passage and answer the questions that follow:
1. Education in India is primarily provided by public schools (controlled and funded by the government at
three levels: central, state and local) and private schools. Under various articles of the Indian Constitution,
free and compulsory education is provided as a fundamental right to children aged 6 to 14. The approximate
ratio of public schools to private schools in India is 7:5.
2. India has made progress in increasing the attainment rate of primary education. In 2011, approximately
75% of the population, aged between 7 and 10 years, was literate. In the 2011 Census, about 73% of the
population was literate, with 81% for males and 65% for females. National Statistical Commission surveyed
literacy to be 77.7% in 2017–18, 84.7% for males and 70.3% for females. This compares to 1981 when the
respective rates were 41%, 53% and 29%. In 1951 the rates were 18%, 27% and 9%. India’s improved
education system is often cited as one of the main contributors to its economic development. Much of the
progress, especially in higher education and scientific research, has been credited to various public
institutions.
3. At the primary and secondary level, India has a large private school system complementing the
government-run schools, with 29% of students receiving private education in the 6 to 14 age group Certain
post-secondary technical schools are also private. The private education market in India had a revenue of
US$450 million in 2008 but is projected to be a US $40 billion market.
Minister of Education Ramesh Pokhriyal

National education budget

Budget 3.6% of GDP ($ 120 billion) [1]

General details

Primary languages English, Indian languages

System type Federal, state and private

Established
Compulsory education 1 April 2010

Literacy (2017-18[3])

Total 77.7%[2]

Male 84.7%

Female 70.3%

Enrollment

Total (N/A)

Primary 95%[4]

Secondary 69%[4]

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 Postsecondary 25%[4]
4. As per the Annual Status of Education Report (ASER) 2012, 96.5% of all rural children between the ages
of 6-14 were enrolled in school. This is the fourth annual survey to report enrollment above 96%. India has
maintained an average enrolment ratio of 95% for students in this age group from the year 2007 to 2014. As
an outcome, the number of students in the age group 6-14 who are not enrolled in school has come down to
2.8% in the year academic year 2018 (ASER 2018). Another report from 2013 stated that there were 229
million students enrolled in different accredited urban and rural schools of India, from Class I to XII,
representing an increase of 23 lakh students over 2002 total enrolment, and a 19% increase in girl’s
enrolment.
5. While quantitatively India is inching closer to universal education, the quality of its education has been
questioned particularly in its government-run school system. While more than 95 per cent of children attend
primary school, just 40 per cent of Indian adolescents attend secondary school (Grades 9-12). Since 2000,
the World Bank has committed over $2 billion to education in India. Some of the reasons for the poor
quality include the absence of around 25% of teachers every day.[14] The states of India have introduced
tests and education assessment systems to identify and improve such schools.
6. Although there are private schools in India, they are highly regulated in terms of what they can teach, in
what form they can operate (must be a non-profit to run any accredited educational institution) and all the
other aspects of the operation. Hence, the differentiation between government schools and private schools
can be misleading.
7. In January 2019, India had over 900 universities and 40,000 colleges.[17] In India’s higher education
system, a significant number of seats are reserved under affirmative action policies for the historically
disadvantaged Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. In universities,
colleges, and similar institutions affiliated with the federal government, there is a maximum of 50% of
reservations applicable to these disadvantaged groups, at the state level it can vary. Maharashtra had 73%
reservations in 2014, which is the highest percentage of reservations in India.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1*10

(a) The approximate ratio of public schools to private schools in India is……
(i) 5 : 7 (ii) 1 : 9 (iii) 7 : 5 (iv) 9 : 7
Ans: (iii) 7:5

(b)Pick the option that lists the statements that are NOT TRUE according to the passage.
1. India’s improved education system is often cited as one of the main contributors to its economic
development.
2. At the primary and secondary levels, India has a large private school system.
3. Report from 2013 stated that there were 329 million students enrolled in different accredited urban
and rural schools of India.
4. Maharashtra had 33% reservations in 2014 which is the lowest percentage of reservations in India.
(i) 3and4 (ii) 2 and 4 (iii) I and 2 (iv) I and 3
Ans: (i) 3 and 4

(c) India’s improved education system is often cited as one of the main contributors to its______
(i) overall development (ii) social development
(iii) Economic development (iv) Political development
Ans: (iii) Economic Development
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(d) Based on the statistical data in the passage, which option represents the correct graphical representation
of enrolment rate in primary and Secondary schools?

(i) Image 1 (ii) Image 2 (iii) Image 3 (iv) Image 4

Ans: (ii) Image 2
(e) According to the table what was the literacy rate of females in the year 2011?
(i) 74% (ii) 82.2% (iii) 65% (iv) 69%
Ans: (iii) 65%
(f) Based on the statistical data in the passage, choose the option that lists the statements that are TRUE with
respect to the education policy.
1. enrolment in secondary schools was 69%.
2. National Education Budget passed by the ministry was 3.1%.
3. The literacy rate of women was 69.5% in 2011.
4. As per the 2011 census, the total literacy rate was 82.2%.
(i) 1 and 4 (ii) 2 and 4 (iii) 3 and 4 (iv) 1 and 3
Ans: (i) 1 and 4
(g) Much of the progress especially in higher education and scientific research has been attributed
to________
(i) Private Institutions (ii) Public Institutions
(iii) Government Institutions (iv) Semi-Government Institutions
Ans: (ii) Public Institutions
(h) One of the reasons for the poor quality of government-run schools in India is _____
(i) Poor Infrastructure
(ii) Absence of around 25% teachers every day.
(iii) Low enrolment of girls
(iv) No aid given by the government.
Ans: (ii) Absence of around 25% teachers every day.
(i) Mark the state of India with the highest percentage of reservations in college and universities.
(i) Maharashtra (ii) Odisha (iii) Bihar (iv) Uttar Pradesh
Ans: (i) Maharashtra
(J) Which word in the passage means the same as ‘Registered’ (Para 4)
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 (i) Survey (ii) Accredited (iii) enrolled (iv) Representing
Ans: (iii) enrolled
(k) Arrange the given sentences in the sequence in which they appeared in the passage.
1. In universities, colleges and similar institutions, there is a maximum of 50% of reservations applicable
to the disadvantaged group.
2. Certain post-secondary technical schools are also private.
3. The approximate ratio of public schools to private schools is 7:5.
4. While more than 95% of children attend primary schools, just 40% of adolescents attend secondary
schools.
(i) 1, 2, 4, 3 (ii) 4, 1, 2, 3 (iii) 3, 2, 4, 1 (iv) 3, 1, 4, 2
Ans: (iii) 3, 2, 4, 1

107
12. Observe the following data and read the passage given. Answer the multiple-choice questions.

Each day, most of us depend on caffeine to wake up and be ready for the day to cope with the fast-paced
life. Consumption of caffeine is an old habit. In fact, this natural stimulant is one of the most commonly
consumed beverages in the world. Though caffeine is known for its ill effects on health, it’s one of the best
sources to provide us with that extra “energy” that makes us get going. Many of us rely on caffeine to stay
alert and improve concentration. Despite all these apparent benefits, the quantity of caffeine intake should be
kept under check.
Adults are still considered safe to have a dose of caffeine, adolescents and young adults should be very
cautious while consuming it. So the bottom line lies with the fact “when is it safe to start the consumption of
caffeine” and “how much to consume”. If we’re careful enough to keep in mind these two questions, we
shall definitely be awarded the title ‘Conscious Consumer’ of caffeine.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1*10

(a) Which age group has the highest consumption of soft drinks?
(i) Ages 13-17 (ii) Ages 2-5
(iii) Ages 6-12 (iv) All the age groups mentioned above
Ans: (i) Ages 13-17
(b) Which beverage is the least popular among teenagers?
(i) Coffee (ii) Tea (iii) Soft drinks (iv) Energy drinks
Ans: (iv) Energy drinks
(c) Which age group of children, as per the data, has the best habits concerning beverages?
(i) Ages 13-17 (ii) Ages 2-5 (iii) Ages 6-12 (iv) None of the above
Ans: (iv) None of the above
(d) Which beverage contains the most amount of caffeine?
(i) Coffee (ii) Tea (iii) Energy drinks (iv) Soft drinks
Ans: (iii) Energy Drinks
(e) Which beverage is least popular among the age group 6-12?
(i) Tea (ii) Coffee (iii) Soft drinks (iv) Energy drinks
Ans: (iv) Energy Drinks
(f) Which beverage is most popular among all the age groups put together?
(i) Tea (ii) Coffee (iii) Soft drinks (iv) Energy drinks
Ans: (iii) Soft Drinks
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(g) Which beverage is the least popular among all the age groups?
(i) Tea (ii) Coffee (iii) Soft drinks (iv) Energy drinks
Ans: (iv) Energy Drinks
(h) What does caffeine do to our brain?
(i) Fatigue (ii) Headaches (iii) Induces sleep (iv) Brings alertness
Ans: (iv) Brings Alertness
(i) Caffeine intake is not advised
(i) if your blood pressure level is within normal range.
(ii) if your blood pressure level is low.
(iii) if your blood pressure tends to be on the higher side.
(iv) None of the above.
Ans: (iii) if your blood pressure tends to be on the higher side.
(j) Which of the following doesn’t influence the caffeine content in a beverage?
(i) Processing time. (ii) Brewing time. (iii) The shelf life. (iv) None of the above.
Ans: (ii) Brewing Time
(k) The key to consuming caffeine in our daily life :
(i) In moderation. (ii) As per the market promotions.
(iii) Addiction. (iv) No consumption at all.
Ans: (i) In moderation

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13. Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
1. Chess is called the game of kings. It has been around for a long time. People have been playing it for over
500 years. Chess is based on an even older game from India. The chess we play today is from Europe.
2. Chess is a two-player game. One player uses the white pieces while the other uses the black pieces. Each
piece moves in a special way. One piece is called the king. Each player has one. The players take turns
moving their pieces. If a player lands on a piece, he or she takes it. The game ends when a player loses his or
her king. There are a few more rules, but these are the basics.
3. Some people think that chess is more than a game. They think that it makes the mind stronger. Good
chess players use their brains. They take their time. They think about what will happen next. These skills are
useful in life and in chess. Chess is kind of a workout for the mind.
4. You don’t always have lots of time to think when playing chess. There is a type of chess with short time
limits. It’s called blitz chess. In blitz chess, each player gets ten minutes to use for the whole game. Your
clock runs during your turn. You hit the time clock after your move. This stops your clock. It also starts the
other player’s clock. If you run out of time, you lose. Games of blitz chess are fast-paced.
5. Chess is not just for people. Computers have been playing chess since the 1970s. At first, they did not
play well. They made mistakes. As time went on they grew stronger. In 1997, a computer beat the best
player in the world for the first time. It was a computer called Deep Blue. Deep Blue was big. It took up a
whole room. By 2006 a cell phone could beat the best players in the world. Chess sure has come a long way.
Don’t you think so?

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1*10

i. What is the author’s purpose in writing the second paragraph?

a. To explain the rules of chess b. To compare different types of games
c. To talk about game pieces d. To persuade people to play chess
ii. Which is not a reason that chess is a good workout for the mind according to the text?
a. Good chess players think about what will happen next.
b. Good chess players take a lot of risks.
c. Good chess players take their time.
d. Good chess players use their brains.
iii. How long have people been playing chess?
a. Over 100 years b. Over 500 years c. Over 1000 years d. Over 5000 years
iv. Where did the game that chess is based on come from?
a.Europe b. India c. America d. All of these
v. Which best describes the main idea in the fourth paragraph?
a. This paragraph argues that players should think less.
b. This paragraph explains how blitz chess is played.
c. This paragraph explains how time clocks work.
d. This paragraph describes many different ways to play chess.
vi. How does a game of chess end according to the text?
a. One player takes all of the other player’s pieces. b. One player makes it to the end of the board.
c. One player becomes king. d. One player loses his or her king.
vii. Which happened first?
a. Computers did not play chess well b. Deep Blue won an important game.
c. Cell phones got good at playing chess. d. Deep Blue took up a whole room.
viii. How is blitz chess different from regular chess?
a. Each player has two kings. b. Players are blindfolded.
110
 c. Players only have ten minutes to play. d. Players start from a random position.
ix. If it’s your turn in blitz chess, what happens when you hit the clock?
a. Both your clock and the other person’s clock keep running
b. The other person’s clock stops running and yours starts.
c. Both clocks stop running.
d. Your clock stops running and the other person’s clock begins.
x. When did a computer first beat a strong human player in chess?
a. 2006 b. 1997 c. 1970 d. 1976
xi. What is the meaning of the word “Blitz”?
a. a sudden effort or attack on somebody/something b. to dive fast
c. very happy d. annoyed

ANSWER KEY–
(i) a
(ii]b
[iii]b
[iv]b
[v]b
[vi]d
[vii]a
[viii]c
[ix]d
[x]b
[xi]a

111
14. Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
(1)What is discipline? Is it absolute freedom to do what a person wants? Is freedom regardless of
consequences? Does it mean corrective action after a problem occurs or wrong is done? Is it imposition? Is it
abuse? Does it take away freedom?
(2) The answer is none of the above. Discipline does not mean that a person takes a belt and beats up kids.
That is madness. Discipline is loving firmness. It is direction. It is prevention before a problem arises. It is
harnessing and channelling energy for a great performance. Discipline is not something you do to yourself
but you do it for those you care about.
(3) Discipline is an act of love. Sometimes, you have to be unkind to be kind. Not all medicines are sweet,
and not all surgeries are painless, but we have to take them. We need to learn from nature. We are all
familiar with the big animal, the giraffe. A female giraffe gives birth to a baby giraffe standing. All of a
sudden, the baby falls to the ground from the cushion of its mother’s womb and sits on the ground. The first
thing the mother giraffe does is get behind the baby and give it a hard kick. The baby gets up but sits down
again. The mother keeps kicking till the baby gets up on its feet and starts moving. Why? Because she
knows that the only chance of survival for the baby in the jungle is to be on its feet. Otherwise, it will be
eaten up by wild cats.
(4) Children brought up in a loving yet disciplined environment to end up respecting their parents more and
become law-abiding citizens. The reverse is just as true. Good parents are not afraid of momentary dislike by
children to enforce the subject. Allowing a child to eat a box of chocolate could lead to sickness. At the
same time, the discipline of eating one or two pieces a day can be an enjoyable experience for a longer time.
Our instinct makes us do whatever we want regardless of the consequences. Freedom is not procured by the
full enjoyment of what is desired but by the control of desire.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1*10
(A) What according to the writer, is not discipline?
(a) To provide absolute freedom to the children.
(b) To have lovingly stern behaviour with the children.
(c) To allow children to disobedience.
(d) To follow prevention before the problem.
Ans: (c) To allow children for disobedience
(B) Choose the option that best captures the central idea of the passage from the given quotes.
I am prepared for the worst, let’s hope for the best. —Benjamin Disraeli (1)
With constant self-discipline and self-control, you can develop greatness of character.-Grenville Ikleie (2)
Freedom, in any case, is only possible by constantly struggling for it. —Albert Einstein (3)
An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of wise. —Benjamin Franklin (4)
a) option 1 b) option 2 c) option 3 d) option 4
Ans: b) option 2
(C)Which of the characteristics are apt about the writer in the following context, “Discipline is loving
firmness. It is direction. It is prevention before a problem arise”.
1. Impatient 2. Clarity in Thoughts 3. Abusive 4. Ignorant
5. Determined 6. spontaneous
(a) (1) and (3) (b) (4) and (5) (c) (2) and (5) (d) (6) and (4)
Ans: (c) (2) and (5)
(D) Which of the following will be the most appropriate title for the passage?
(a) Discipline: The Need for Era (b) Discipline: The Need of Society
(c) Value of Discipline (d) Understand the True Meaning of Discipline.
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Ans: (d) Understand the True Meaning of Discipline
(E) How can channelling energy help?
(a) by providing your future. (b) by preparing our future.
(c) by preparing us to face difficult times efficiently. (d) by preparing it for great scores.
Ans: (c) by preparing us to face difficult times efficiently
(F) The phrase “law-abiding citizens” refers to the children who:
(a) are loyal to the nation.
(b) follow the rules laid down for them.
(c) have parents that were not moved by momentary dislikes of their kids.
(d) help in forming laws.
Ans: (c) have parents that were not moved by momentary dislikes of their kids
(G) Select the option that makes the correct use of “enforce”, as used in the passage, to fill in the blank
space.
(a) The sun was trying to ………………… its way through the curtains.
(b) All attempts to ………………… the British commercial regulation were ineffectual.
(c) You were trying to ………………… me off the bed.
(d) He was not ………………… of anything.
Ans: (b) All attempts to ………………… the British commercial regulation were ineffectual.
(H) If not the family, where else can learn discipline from?
(a) The people around us. (b) The school where students study and learn.
(c) Nature. (d) The giraffe.
Ans: (c) Nature
(I) What does the author mean when he says, the act of love?
(a) warm gesture. (b) a gesture of love.
(c) the intense emotion of affection. (d) to hug one
Ans: (b) a gesture of love
(J) Choose the option that correctly states the meaning of Channeling, as used in the passage.
(a) murring (b) forwarding (c) Distillating (d) emitting
Ans: (c) Distillating
(K) The author explains the importance of discipline and freedom in our lives having the example of:
(a) medicines and teachers. (b) medicines and chocolate box.
(c) surgeries and giraffe. (d) giraffe and kangaroo.
Ans: (b) medicines and chocolate box
(L) What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) Children should obey their parents.
(b) Children should eat two chocolate a day.
(c) Children should use freedom by controlling desires.
(d) Children should be provided with proper freedom.
Ans: (c) Children should use freedom by controlling desires

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15. Read the given passage and answer the following questions:
Evolution has designated vultures to be the ultimate scavengers. Enormous wingspans allow them to circle
in the air for hours. Their beaks, while rather horrifying, are weak by bird standards, made to scoop and eat
flesh. However unappealing they may seem, vultures serve an important role in the ecological cycle:
processing the dead bodies of animals.
Only 20 years ago, India had plenty of vultures—flocks so enormous they darkened the skies. But by 1999,
their numbers had dropped due to a mysterious kidney ailment. By 2008, 99.9 per cent of India’s vultures
were gone. It was finally discovered that they had been killed by a drug called diclofenac (a pain reliever
along the lines of aspirin or ibuprofen).
Indians revere their cows, and when a cow showed signs of pain, they treated it with diclofenac. After the
animal died, the vultures would eat the corpse. And though they boast perhaps the world’s most efficient
digestive system, vultures cannot digest the drug.
India banned the use of diclofenac for veterinary use in 2006, but it’s still widely used. The near-extinction
of vultures has caused disease in the country, as rats and dogs moved in to take their place—spreading
pathogens that would have otherwise been destroyed by the vultures.
Vultures need large ranges to scan for food and undisturbed areas in which to nest. They also need an
abundance of prey species since they rely more on chance than their own hunting skills to eat. All of these
things have been reduced by human activity. Meanwhile, there is a dramatic increase in secondary
poisoning. Vultures feed on carcasses laced with poison, intended to kill jackals or other predatory
carnivores. Or they are poisoned by the lead in animals left behind by hunters.

Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1*10

1 Vultures serve an important role in the ecological cycle as

a. they eat less b. they process dead bodies of animals
c. they help to maintain food webs d. they clear grounds with their wings
ANS 1. b. they process the dead bodies of animals
2. Choose the best option that suits the central idea of the paragraph from the given quotes-
a. “It is not the strongest species that survive nor the most intelligent; but the one most responsive to
change”. (Charles Darwin)
b. Death is nature’s way of saying, ” your table is ready”. (Robert Williams)
c. “Hunger is the best sauce in the world” (Miguel De Cervantes)
d. “Just remember that it is the bird that suffers and not the hunter”.(George W Bush)
ANS 2. Option (a)
3. Which of the following is apt about the writer in the following context- Meanwhile, there is a dramatic
increase in secondary poisoning. Vultures feed on carcasses laced with poison, intended to kill jackals or
other predatory carnivores. Or they are poisoned by the lead in animals left behind by hunters.
1. negligent 2. Concerned 3. Caring 4. Patient 5. Worried 6. Informative
(a) 1 and 3 (b) 4 and 5 (c) 2 and 5 (d) 3 and 6
ANS 3. (c) 2 and 5
4. Which of the following is the most suitable title for the passage-
(a) Mystery of vultures (b) Survival of the fittest
(c) The Extinct Species (d) Bird standards
ANS 4. (b) Survival of the fittest
5. The reason behind vultures dying is
(a) they feed on carcasses laced with poison, intended to kill jackals or other predatory carnivores.
(b) they are hunted (c) they do not get enough food (d) they are diseased
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ANS 5. (a) they feed on carcasses laced with poison, intended to kill jackals or other predatory carnivores.
6. What does the phrase ‘moved in to take their place’ mean in the passage?
(a) contributed to the task (b) helped them
(c) Replaced them (d) Removed them
ANS. 6 (c) Replaced them
7. Why are the vultures’ beaks considered weak?
(a) they are of no use (b) they are meant to scoop and eat flesh only
(c) they are used to kill their prey (d) none of them
ANS 7. (b) they are meant to scoop and eat flesh only
8. The author attempts to make the readers ______ through this write-up.
(a) concerned (b) inspired (c) awakened (d) aware
ANS 8. (d) aware
9. What is an interesting fact given in the passage about the vultures?
(a) they eat corpse (b) they can not digest drugs
(c) they are enormous (d) they have weak beaks
ANS9. (b) they can not digest drugs
10. Choose the option that correctly states the two meanings of ‘boast’ as used in the passage-
1. to brag about oneself 2. to exaggerate 3. to talk very proudly
4. to show off 5. to show pride and arrogance
(a) 2 and 3 (b) 1 and 2 (c) 4 and 5 (d) 3 and 1
ANS 10. (b) 1 and 2
11. Select the option that makes the correct use of ‘designated’ as used in the passage to fill in the blanks.
(a) He was ____ as prime minister.
(b) Uttrakahand is ____ as the land of gods.
(c) Reeta was _____ as the chief secretary of her club.
(d) The ____ officer did not reach the accident site.
ANS 11. (b) Uttrakhand is ____ as the land of gods.
12. What is the message conveyed in the last paragraph of the passage?
(a) Human activities need to be controlled to provide vultures open space to scan for food and nest.
(b) Jackals kill vultures.
(c) Vultures are an extinct species now.
(d) Vultures themselves are responsible for their own extinction.
ANS 12. (a) Human activities need to be controlled to provide vultures open space to scan for food and nest.

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16. Read the passage given below:
The UN’s 2017 International Year tells that sustainable tourism is an important tool for development, most
importantly in poor communities and countries. Today sustainability – environmental, social, and economic
– is increasingly recognised as the benchmark for all tourism businesses. As noted by the UN World
Tourism Organisation, 57% of international tourist arrivals will be in emerging economies, by 2030. The
various ‘Tourism Terms’ are defined as follows:

Based on data collected by a survey by Travel Bureau, the following market profile of an ecotourist was
constructed: –
Age: 35 – 54 years old, although age varied with activity and other factors such as cost. Gender: 50%
female and 50% male, although clear differences based on activity were found.
Education: 82% were college graduates, a shift in interest in ecotourism from those who have high levels of
education to those with less education was also found, indicating an expansion into mainstream markets.
Household composition: No major differences were found between general tourists and experienced
ecotourists**
Party composition: A majority (60%) of experienced ecotourism respondents stated they prefer to travel as a
couple, with only 15% stating they preferred to travel with their families, and 13% preferring to travel alone.
(** experienced ecotourists = Tourists that had been on at least one “ecotourism” oriented trip.)
Trip duration: The largest group of experienced ecotourists- (50%) preferred trips lasting 8-14 days.
Expenditure: Experienced ecotourists were willing to spend more than general tourists, the largest group
(26%).
Important elements of the trip: Experienced ecotourists’ top three responses were:
(a) wilderness setting,
(b) wildlife viewing,
(c) hiking/trekking.
Motivations for taking the next trip: Experienced ecotourists’ top two responses were (a) enjoying
scenery/nature, and (b) new experiences/places.
Based on your understanding of the passage, answer the questions given below. 1*10
i. In the line “……recognised as the benchmark”, the word “benchmark” DOES NOT refer to
a) a basis for something. b) the criterion required.
c) the ability to launch something new. d) a standard point of reference.
Ans: c) the ability to launch something new.
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ii. The World Tourism Organisation of the UN, in an observation, shared that
a) emerging economies of the world will gain 57% of their annual profits from International tourists.
b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in
the next decade.
c) a large number of international tourists in 2030 will be from developing countries.
d) barely any tourist in the next decade shall travel from an economically strong nation to a weak
one.
Ans: b) countries with upcoming economies shall see maximum tourist footfall from all over the world in
the next decade.
iii. One of the elements that are important to ecotourists on trips is
a) wild and untouched surroundings. b) cultural exchange.
c) car and bus rides. d) fully furnished flats.
Ans: a) wild and untouched surroundings.
iv. Choose the option that lists the correct answers for the following:
1. Asha Mathew, an NRI, loves animals and wishes to travel to places that safeguard their rights and
inculcate awareness of their rights. What kind of tourist is she?
2. Gurdeep Singh from the UK is an environmental scientist and has always chosen to travel to places that
are examples of a symbiotic relationship between man and nature. What kind of tourist is he?
a) (1) is an ecotourist and (2) is a geotourist
b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist
c) (1) is a sustainable tourist and (2) is a pro-poor tourist
d) (1) is a geotourist and (2) is a responsible tourist
Ans: b) (1) is an ethical tourist and (2) is a geotourist
v. Based on your understanding of the passage, choose the option that lists the inherent qualities of
geotourism.
1. (showcases adventure sports) 2. (promotes landscape appreciation)
3. (promises luxurious travel) 4. ( includes being environmentally responsible)
5. (believes in commercializing forests) 6. (initiates donations for the underprivileged)
a) 1 &2 b) 5&6 c) 2&4 d) 3&5
Ans: c) 2&4
vi. In the market profile of an ecotourist, the information on gender indicates that
a) female ecotourists were more than male ecotourists.
b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males.
c) the choice of things to do on a trip was quite similar for both genders.
d) male ecotourists were frequent travellers.
Ans: b) the activity preferences were varied in females and males.
vii. The education aspect in the market profile of the ecotourist revealed that
a) mainstream market trends were popular with undergraduates.
b) ecotourists were only those who had basic education.
c) mainstream markets were popular tourist destinations for educated ecotourists.
d) ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers.
Ans: d) ecotourism was no more limited to the small group of highly educated travellers
viii. According to the survey conducted by the Travel Bureau, the total percentage of experienced ecotourists
who DID NOT prefer to travel alone was
a) 60%. b) 75%. c) 15%. d) 13%.
Ans: b) 75%.

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ix. According to the survey, one of the most powerful driving forces leading experienced ecotourism to
invest in new trips was
a) setting up work stations in new places.
b) the chance to go camping in the wild.
c) competing with other ecotourists as frequent travellers.
d) the opportunity to travel to new places.
Ans: d) the opportunity to travel to new places.
x. Choose the option that lists statement that is NOT TRUE.
a) Economically backward countries will benefit from sustainable tourism.
b) The tourism business currently recognizes sustainability as an important factor.
c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future.
d) The sustainability factor in tourism is a significant means for development.
Ans: c) Emerging economies will receive negligible international tourists in the near future.
xi. The survey clearly showed that the age range of ecotourists:
a) remained the same for the choice of tourist- attractions to visit.
b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip.
c) fluctuated due to the male-female ratio.
d) was constant across various features of the trip.
Ans: b) changed with the monetary requirements for the trip.
xii. Who isn’t an experienced ecotourist?
a) The person who has travelled as an ecotourist once earlier.
b) The person who is yet to travel even once as an ecotourist.
c) The person who is a regular ecotourism enthusiast and traveller.
d) The person who is not regularly travelling on ecotourism trips.
Ans: b) The person who is yet to travel even once as an ecotourist.

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