AECC - MCQs

Unit 1

1. Which of the following is not typically considered a demographic characteristic?

A. Age
B. Religion
C. Language
D. Intelligence
Answer: D
2. The main aim of India’s National Population Policy is:
A. To increase migration
B. To ensure 100% employment
C. To stabilize population growth
D. To reduce poverty only
Answer: C
3. What is a primary concern related to India’s population growth?
A. Increased international trade
B. Decrease in birth rate
C. Pressure on resources and services
D. Decline in education levels
Answer: C
4. Which sector employs the largest percentage of the Indian population?
A. Industry
B. Services
C. Agriculture
D. Mining
Answer: C
5. A high dependency ratio in a population means:
A. Most people are working professionals
B. There are more dependents than working-age people
C. Every family owns land
D. The literacy rate is high
Answer: B
6. Which age group is generally considered the ‘working population’?
A. 0–14 years
B. 15–59 years
C. 60+ years
 D. All age groups
Answer: B
7. Which Indian state has the highest population density as per recent data?
A. Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. West Bengal
D. Bihar
Answer: D
8. Language diversity in India is primarily a result of:
A. Religious conversion
B. Colonial influence only
C. Regional and cultural variation
D. Economic disparity
Answer: C
9. Which religious group has the second-largest population in India?
A. Christians
B. Muslims
C. Sikhs
D. Buddhists
Answer: B
10. The term “demographic dividend” refers to:
A. The tax collected from working individuals
B. A temporary increase in elderly population
C. Economic growth potential from a young workforce
D. Pension benefits to retired workers
Answer: C
11. Which government document outlines India's strategy for population control?
A. National Education Policy
B. National Health Policy
C. National Population Policy
D. National Rural Employment Policy
Answer: C
12. Which factor is not a direct contributor to population growth?
A. High birth rate
B. Low death rate
C. High literacy rate
D. Immigration
Answer: C
13. Census in India is conducted every:
A. 5 years
B. 7 years
C. 10 years
 D. 12 years
Answer: C
14. What is the primary reason for linguistic diversity in India?
A. Migration from neighboring countries
B. Colonial divisions
C. Vast geographical and ethnic variety
D. Urbanization
Answer: C
15. Occupational structure in India shows that a majority of people are involved in:
A. Tertiary activities
B. Primary sector jobs
C. Secondary sector jobs
D. Formal sector jobs
Answer: B
16. Which of the following best describes India’s population trend over the last
century?
A. Gradual decline
B. Rapid growth followed by stabilization
C. Stable with minor fluctuations
D. Constant exponential growth
Answer: B
17. The sex ratio in India is defined as:
A. Number of children per family
B. Number of males per 1,000 females
C. Number of females per 1,000 males
D. Number of working women per household
Answer: C
18. Which demographic characteristic is crucial for calculating dependency ratio?
A. Urban-rural divide
B. Employment status
C. Age distribution
D. Education level
Answer: C
19. Which of these languages is officially recognized in the Indian Constitution?
A. Bhojpuri
B. Maithili
C. English only
D. Hindi and 21 others
Answer: D
20. Which factor is most directly responsible for regional disparities in population
density across India?
A. Population policies
B. Type of religion
 C. Climate and natural resources
D. Number of languages spoken
Answer: C
21. Which of the following best describes India’s population trend in recent decades?
A. Declining rapidly
B. Growing at a decreasing rate
C. Completely stable
D. Shrinking in urban areas
Answer: B
22. Which occupational category includes farming, fishing, and forestry?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Quaternary
Answer: A
23. The sex ratio in a population refers to the number of:
A. Males per 1000 females
B. Females per 1000 males
C. Children per 1000 adults
D. Elders per 1000 youth
Answer: B
24. An increasing population can have which of the following negative effects?
A. Decreased labor force
B. Surplus of housing
C. Strain on education and healthcare
D. Decline in cultural diversity
Answer: C
25. The concept of 'population explosion' refers to:
A. An abrupt decline in population
B. The ideal population level
C. A rapid and unchecked rise in population
D. The relocation of rural populations
Answer: C
26. Which of the following is a major challenge posed by rapid population growth?
A. Increase in biodiversity
B. Higher employment rates
C. Environmental degradation
D. Improved standard of living
Answer: C
27. The term "birth rate" refers to:
A. Number of children born per family
B. Number of live births per 1000 people per year
C. Number of hospitals in a region
 D. Ratio of men to women in society
Answer: B
28. Which Indian language is spoken by the highest number of people?
A. Bengali
B. Telugu
C. Hindi
D. Tamil
Answer: C
29. Which occupation falls under the tertiary sector?
A. Agriculture
B. Textile manufacturing
C. Banking
D. Mining
Answer: C
30. The population policy of India aims to achieve which of the following goals by
encouraging smaller families?
A. Economic slowdown
B. Resource conservation and improved quality of life
C. Increase in dependency ratio
D. Reduced education levels
Answer: B
31. Which indicator best reflects population pressure on land?
A. Birth rate
B. Literacy rate
C. Population density
D. Infant mortality rate
Answer: C
32. The population pyramid of a developing country like India typically has:
A. A narrow base and wide top
B. A uniform rectangular shape
C. A wide base and narrow top
D. No specific pattern
Answer: C
33. A census includes data collection on all of the following except:
A. Population size
B. Literacy
C. Employment
D. Political opinion
Answer: D
34. A high birth rate combined with a declining death rate results in:
A. Population stabilization
B. Negative growth
C. Rapid population increase
 D. Migration
Answer: C
35. Occupational distribution in India shows a trend of increasing:
A. Dependence on agriculture
B. Shift towards tertiary sector
C. Preference for manual labor
D. Migration to forests
Answer: B
36. Which term describes the movement of people from rural to urban areas?
A. Immigration
B. Emigration
C. Internal migration
D. Urbanization
Answer: D
37. Which of the following is a major cause of population growth in India?
A. Low fertility rate
B. High mortality rate
C. Improved healthcare and medical facilities
D. Late marriages
Answer: C
38. Which Indian state is known for having the highest literacy rate?
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Punjab
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: B
39. Sex ratio imbalance in India is often attributed to:
A. Equal education for all genders
B. Migration of females
C. Societal preference for male children
D. Higher mortality in males
Answer: C
40. What does population density measure?
A. Number of families in a region
B. Number of people per square kilometer
C. Births per year
D. Resources per capita
Answer: B
41. Which of the following directly contributes to a declining death rate?
A. Increased industrial pollution
B. Better healthcare and sanitation
C. Higher taxes
 D. Frequent natural disasters
Answer: B
42. Which sector is considered least developed in terms of employment in India?
A. Agriculture
B. Manufacturing
C. Services
D. Construction
Answer: B
43. Which of the following states has a relatively low population density?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. Arunachal Pradesh
D. West Bengal
Answer: C
44. Which demographic group in India is the largest by age?
A. 0–14 years
B. 15–59 years
C. 60+ years
D. 80+ years
Answer: B
45. Which national-level body is responsible for conducting the Census in India?
A. National Development Council
B. Ministry of Human Resource Development
C. Registrar General and Census Commissioner of India
D. Planning Commission
Answer: C
46. A stable population is achieved when:
A. Death rate exceeds birth rate
B. Birth rate equals death rate
C. Migration increases rapidly
D. Population growth doubles every decade
Answer: B
47. In India, most of the working population is engaged in:
A. Organized sector jobs
B. Public sector industries
C. Informal and unorganized sectors
D. Military services
Answer: C
48. Which of the following would help reduce population growth effectively?
A. Increasing marriage age
B. Providing universal health care
C. Reducing literacy
 D. Encouraging early childbirth
Answer: A
49. Which component is not typically included in demographic data?
A. Age
B. Gender
C. Political views
D. Occupation
Answer: C
50. Which of these is a direct effect of population explosion?
A. Resource surplus
B. Urban overcrowding
C. Low literacy rates
D. Decline in birth rate
Answer: B
51. The urban population in India is growing because of:
A. High rural employment
B. Industrialization and migration
C. Decline in birth rate
D. Increase in natural disasters
Answer: B
52. Demographic data is not useful for:
A. Policy planning
B. Urban development
C. National security decisions
D. Personal horoscope prediction
Answer: D
53. Which factor does not influence occupational structure?
A. Education
B. Geography
C. Religion
D. Technology
Answer: C
54. Which region of India is most linguistically diverse?
A. Western
B. Northern
C. Southern
D. North-Eastern
Answer: D
55. Which demographic measure indicates the number of children a woman is likely
to have in her lifetime?
A. Birth rate
B. Fertility rate
C. Infant mortality rate
 D. Dependency ratio
Answer: B

UNIT - 2
1. Which sector is known as the backbone of the Indian economy?
A. Industrial
B. Agricultural
C. Service
D. Foreign trade
Answer: B
2. Which sector has shown the fastest growth in India in recent decades?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. Informal
Answer: C
3. Which of the following is a feature of the Indian economy?
A. High per capita income
B. Predominantly rural
C. High export-dependency
D. Fully industrialized
Answer: B
4. The secondary sector primarily includes:
A. Farming and fishing
B. Trade and communication
C. Manufacturing and construction
D. Banking and insurance
Answer: C
5. Which sector contributes the most to India’s GDP currently?
A. Agriculture
B. Manufacturing
C. Services
D. Mining
Answer: C
6. Which type of employment is most prevalent in rural India?
A. Organized
B. Informal
C. Corporate
D. Government
Answer: B
 7. The informal sector in India includes:
A. Central government jobs
B. Registered factories
C. Street vendors and daily wage laborers
D. PSU employees
Answer: C
8. Underemployment refers to:
A. People without jobs
B. People working in jobs that don’t use their skills fully
C. Retired individuals
D. Students seeking part-time work
Answer: B
9. Which statement about sectoral employment in India is true?
A. Agriculture employs fewer people than services
B. Industrial sector provides jobs to the majority
C. A large portion still depends on agriculture for livelihood
D. All employment is formal and well-paid
Answer: C
10. Structural transformation in India refers to:
A. Changes in religious composition
B. Shift of population from rural to urban
C. Shift from agriculture to industry and services
D. Decay of traditional arts
Answer: C
11. Which one of the following sectors is least capital-intensive?
A. Heavy industries
B. IT sector
C. Agriculture
D. Automobiles
Answer: C
12. Which plan or policy aimed at increasing employment in rural India?
A. National Skill Development Mission
B. Make in India
C. MGNREGA
D. Start-up India
Answer: C
13. Which of the following is a characteristic of disguised unemployment?
A. No one is working
B. More people are employed than necessary
C. People are overpaid
D. All employees are highly productive
Answer: B
14. Which of these sectors is most affected by seasonal unemployment?
A. IT sector
B. Manufacturing
C. Agriculture
D. Retail
Answer: C
15. In economic terms, a developing economy like India is marked by:
A. Low population growth
B. Dominance of tertiary sector
C. High per capita income
D. Unequal distribution of wealth
Answer: D
16. Which of the following policies aimed to liberalize and open up the Indian
economy in 1991?
A. Green Revolution
B. Five-Year Plans
C. New Economic Policy
D. Foreign Trade Policy
Answer: C
17. A major reason for the growth of the services sector in India is:
A. High agricultural subsidies
B. Growth in education and IT
C. Decline in population
D. Increase in mining
Answer: B
18. What is the term for working without a legal job contract or benefits?
A. Full employment
B. Informal employment
C. Organized employment
D. Structural employment
Answer: B
19. Which of the following sectors is classified as "organized"?
A. Small family businesses
B. Street food vendors
C. Registered IT companies
D. Self-employed artisans
Answer: C
20. Which term refers to the economy’s total production in monetary terms over a
period?
A. GDP
B. NITI Aayog
C. HDI
 D. CPI
Answer: A
21. Which of the following best defines the term "unorganized sector"?
A. Sector with strict labor laws and formal wages
B. Sector registered under company law
C. Sector without job security, formal wages, or regulations
D. Sector with high investment and advanced machinery
Answer: C
22. Which sector is most directly affected by monsoon conditions in India?
A. Retail
B. Agriculture
C. Information Technology
D. Banking
Answer: B
23. What does “jobless growth” mean?
A. Growth in unemployment with no GDP increase
B. Economic growth without a corresponding rise in employment
C. Employment with no economic output
D. Decline in population and workforce
Answer: B
24. Which state in India is known for its rapid growth in the services sector?
A. Bihar
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Rajasthan
Answer: C
25. A major contributor to India’s secondary sector is:
A. Fishing
B. Construction
C. Hospitality
D. Financial services
Answer: B
26. The primary objective of the 'Make in India' initiative is to:
A. Promote foreign education
B. Increase imports
C. Boost manufacturing and create jobs
D. Privatize agriculture
Answer: C
27. Which employment trend is increasing among educated youth in urban areas?
A. Self-employment in agriculture
B. Government farming
C. Start-up and gig economy jobs
 D. Rural migration
Answer: C
28. India’s economic structure has been shifting toward:
A. Primary sector dominance
B. Heavy industrialization
C. Services sector dominance
D. Agricultural labor expansion
Answer: C
29. Which of the following is not a challenge of the Indian economy?
A. Rising unemployment
B. Uneven regional development
C. Excess foreign exchange
D. Inflation
Answer: C
30. Employment elasticity refers to:
A. Ability to switch jobs
B. Rate of self-employment
C. Rate at which employment responds to economic growth
D. The total unemployment rate
Answer: C
31. Which economic indicator measures inequality of income distribution?
A. GDP
B. Gini coefficient
C. CPI
D. Employment rate
Answer: B
32. Which of the following is a sign of underdevelopment in an economy?
A. High literacy rate
B. Low per capita income
C. Dominance of the services sector
D. Balanced regional development
Answer: B
33. The Indian economy is referred to as a mixed economy because:
A. It combines industrial and agricultural output
B. It involves both foreign and local businesses
C. It includes both private and public sectors
D. It imports and exports goods
Answer: C
34. Which of the following does not fall under the tertiary sector?
A. Banking
B. Education
C. Transport
 D. Steel manufacturing
Answer: D
35. Which of the following best describes informal employment?
A. Permanent jobs with fixed salaries
B. Government sector jobs
C. Jobs without contracts or social security
D. High-paying skilled jobs
Answer: C
36. The Indian government’s focus on skilling youth is primarily meant to address:
A. Aging population
B. Structural unemployment
C. Migration
D. Budget deficit
Answer: B
37. Which committee is associated with employment generation programs in India?
A. Narasimham Committee
B. Rangarajan Committee
C. Tendulkar Committee
D. NITI Aayog Panel
Answer: B
38. Which sector's contribution to GDP has declined the most since independence?
A. Primary
B. Secondary
C. Tertiary
D. IT sector
Answer: A
39. Which state in India has the highest percentage of workforce in agriculture?
A. Maharashtra
B. Punjab
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Kerala
Answer: C
40. Which of the following best describes disguised unemployment in agriculture?
A. Workers migrate seasonally
B. Fewer people work due to mechanization
C. More people are employed than needed for a task
D. High wages despite low output
Answer: C
41. Which government scheme promotes self-employment and entrepreneurship
among youth?
A. MGNREGA
B. PMKVY
C. PMEGP
 D. Ujjwala Yojana
Answer: C (Prime Minister's Employment Generation Programme)
42. Which of these sectors is most likely to generate formal employment in India?
A. Construction
B. Agriculture
C. Public administration
D. Street vending
Answer: C
43. Sectoral shift in India has mainly occurred from agriculture to:
A. Manufacturing
B. Construction
C. Services
D. Mining
Answer: C
44. What is one major consequence of high informal employment in India?
A. Lower productivity
B. High job security
C. Low taxation
D. Industrial automation
Answer: A
45. Which among the following is a structural problem in Indian employment?
A. High literacy rate
B. Technological advancement
C. Mismatch between skills and jobs
D. Urbanization
Answer: C
46. Which is a direct result of sectoral imbalance in employment?
A. High GDP
B. Rural depopulation
C. Disguised unemployment
D. Export growth
Answer: C
47. Which organization is responsible for data on employment and unemployment in
India?
A. SEBI
B. NITI Aayog
C. NSSO
D. RBI
Answer: C (National Sample Survey Office)
48. Which state in India is known for high urban employment in services?
A. Odisha
B. Gujarat
C. Tamil Nadu
 D. Delhi
Answer: D
49. Which indicator reflects the share of working-age population in the economy?
A. Dependency ratio
B. Fiscal deficit
C. Literacy rate
D. GNP
Answer: A
50. Which of the following trends reflects modernization in Indian economy?
A. Rising share of agriculture in GDP
B. Decrease in literacy
C. Increase in service sector employment
D. Migration to villages
Answer: C

Unit - 3
1. Who was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian Constitution?
A. Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Rajendra Prasad
C. B.R. Ambedkar
D. Sardar Patel
Answer: C
2. Which of the following is not mentioned in the Preamble of the Indian
Constitution?
A. Sovereign
B. Secular
C. Federal
D. Democratic
Answer: C
3. Which part of the Indian Constitution contains the Fundamental Rights?
A. Part I
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part V
Answer: B
4. How many Fundamental Duties are listed in the Constitution of India?
A. 8
B. 10
C. 11
 D. 12
Answer: C
5. Which Article of the Indian Constitution deals with the Right to Equality?
A. Article 14 to 18
B. Article 12 to 13
C. Article 19 to 22
D. Article 25 to 28
Answer: A
6. Directive Principles of State Policy are listed in which part of the Constitution?
A. Part II
B. Part III
C. Part IV
D. Part V
Answer: C
7. Which Fundamental Right cannot be suspended even during an emergency?
A. Right to Education
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Right to Life and Personal Liberty
Answer: D
8. The Indian Constitution was adopted on:
A. 15th August 1947
B. 26th January 1950
C. 26th November 1949
D. 2nd October 1947
Answer: C
9. How many Schedules are there in the Indian Constitution?
A. 10
B. 12
C. 14
D. 15
Answer: B
10. Which Article empowers the President to declare Emergency in India?
A. Article 320
B. Article 352
C. Article 370
D. Article 356
Answer: B
11. Which of the following is a Fundamental Duty as per Article 51A?
A. Right to vote
B. To develop scientific temper
C. Right to property
 D. Right to speech
Answer: B
12. The Directive Principles of State Policy aim to:
A. Establish legal obligations
B. Ensure individual wealth
C. Promote social and economic democracy
D. Strengthen military power
Answer: C
13. Which of the following bodies is not part of the Indian Parliament?
A. Lok Sabha
B. Rajya Sabha
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Answer: D
14. What is the tenure of the Rajya Sabha members?
A. 5 years
B. 4 years
C. 6 years
D. Till age 65
Answer: C
15. Who has the power to dissolve the Lok Sabha?
A. Prime Minister
B. Vice-President
C. Speaker
D. President
Answer: D
16. The President of India is elected by:
A. Direct vote of citizens
B. Lok Sabha members only
C. Electoral College
D. Chief Ministers
Answer: C
17. Which constitutional amendment lowered the voting age from 21 to 18?
A. 42nd Amendment
B. 44th Amendment
C. 52nd Amendment
D. 61st Amendment
Answer: D
18. The Supreme Court of India is located in:
A. Kolkata
B. Delhi
C. Mumbai
 D. Hyderabad
Answer: B
19. Which Article of the Constitution guarantees the Right to Education?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21A
D. Article 32
Answer: C
20. How many judges (including Chief Justice) are there in the Supreme Court of
India (as per constitutional limit)?
A. 25
B. 31
C. 34
D. 21
Answer: C
21. Which of the following is not a feature of the Indian Constitution?
A. Parliamentary system
B. Federal structure with unitary bias
C. Presidential form of government
D. Independent judiciary
Answer: C
22. The term ‘Secular’ in the Indian Constitution implies:
A. Equal respect for all religions
B. State religion is Hinduism
C. Religion-based laws only
D. Ban on religious practices
Answer: A
23. The constitutional body responsible for conducting elections in India is:
A. Election Commission
B. CAG
C. NITI Aayog
D. UPSC
Answer: A
24. Which of the following is not a part of the Directive Principles of State Policy?
A. Equal pay for equal work
B. Free legal aid
C. Uniform civil code
D. Right to strike
Answer: D
25. Which of the following Articles deals with the Right to Constitutional Remedies?
A. Article 14
B. Article 21
C. Article 32
 D. Article 44
Answer: C
26. Who appoints the Chief Justice of India?
A. Prime Minister
B. President
C. Lok Sabha
D. Rajya Sabha
Answer: B
27. Which schedule of the Constitution contains the Anti-Defection Law?
A. 8th Schedule
B. 10th Schedule
C. 7th Schedule
D. 12th Schedule
Answer: B
28. Which amendment is known as the ‘Mini Constitution’?
A. 24th Amendment
B. 42nd Amendment
C. 44th Amendment
D. 61st Amendment
Answer: B
29. How many types of emergencies are mentioned in the Indian Constitution?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Answer: C (National, State, Financial)
30. Who has the final authority to interpret the Constitution of India?
A. Parliament
B. Prime Minister
C. President
D. Supreme Court
Answer: D
31. Which part of the Constitution of India deals with Panchayati Raj Institutions?
A. Part IX
B. Part VI
C. Part XI
D. Part IV
Answer: A
32. Who is known as the ‘Father of the Indian Constitution’?
A. Mahatma Gandhi
B. B.R. Ambedkar
C. Jawaharlal Nehru
 D. Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
Answer: B
33. Which body advises on the distribution of tax revenue between Centre and
States?
A. Finance Commission
B. Planning Commission
C. NITI Aayog
D. RBI
Answer: A
34. The concept of Fundamental Duties was taken from the Constitution of:
A. USA
B. UK
C. USSR (now Russia)
D. France
Answer: C
35. Which Article of the Constitution allows the Supreme Court to issue writs?
A. Article 21
B. Article 32
C. Article 14
D. Article 226
Answer: B
36. In India, a Money Bill can be introduced only in:
A. Rajya Sabha
B. Both Houses
C. Lok Sabha
D. Joint Sitting
Answer: C
37. Who can remove a High Court judge before term expiry?
A. Chief Minister
B. Governor
C. President (with Parliament approval)
D. Prime Minister
Answer: C
38. Which of the following is not an essential feature of democracy?
A. Universal adult franchise
B. Periodic elections
C. Judicial review
D. Hereditary rule
Answer: D
39. The ‘Right to Property’ is now a:
A. Fundamental Right
B. Directive Principle
C. Constitutional Right
 D. Legal Right
Answer: C
40. Who has the power to make laws on subjects in the Concurrent List?
A. State Legislature
B. Parliament
C. Both State and Parliament
D. Supreme Court
Answer: C
41. Which of the following is not a constitutional body in India?
A. Election Commission
B. UPSC
C. Finance Commission
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: D
42. Which Indian state was the first to implement the Panchayati Raj system?
A. Rajasthan
B. Kerala
C. Maharashtra
D. Tamil Nadu
Answer: A
43. The President of India addresses the Parliament under which Article?
A. Article 80
B. Article 112
C. Article 86
D. Article 87
Answer: D
44. The ‘Right to Freedom of Religion’ is guaranteed under which Articles?
A. 12–15
B. 19–22
C. 25–28
D. 30–32
Answer: C
45. Which amendment granted constitutional status to municipalities?
A. 42nd
B. 73rd
C. 74th
D. 61st
Answer: C
46. Which article provides for the formation of a new state in India?
A. Article 1
B. Article 3
C. Article 5
 D. Article 15
Answer: B
47. The power of judicial review in India lies with:
A. President
B. Prime Minister
C. Supreme Court and High Courts
D. Attorney General
Answer: C
48. Which Article provides for the protection of the interests of minorities?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 29
D. Article 32
Answer: C
49. How many types of writs can be issued by the Supreme Court?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 9
Answer: B (Habeas Corpus, Mandamus, Prohibition, Certiorari, Quo-Warranto)
50. Which of the following statements is true about the Preamble of India?
A. It is not part of the Constitution
B. It can’t be amended
C. It is legally binding
D. It reflects the ideals and philosophy of the Constitution
Answer: D

UNIT - 4
1. Which gas is primarily responsible for global warming?
A. Nitrogen
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon Dioxide
D. Helium
Answer: C
2. The term ‘sustainable development’ was popularized by which report?
A. Brundtland Report
B. Kyoto Protocol
C. Earth Summit Report
D. Green Revolution Report
Answer: A
3. Which of the following is not a greenhouse gas?
A. Methane
B. Carbon Dioxide
C. Nitrous Oxide
D. Oxygen
Answer: D
4. Which layer of the atmosphere contains the ozone layer?
A. Troposphere
B. Stratosphere
C. Mesosphere
D. Thermosphere
Answer: B
5. Which of the following pollutants is responsible for acid rain?
A. CO₂ and CO
B. SO₂ and NOx
C. CH₄ and CFCs
D. O₃ and Lead
Answer: B
6. Which year was the Kyoto Protocol adopted?
A. 1992
B. 1995
C. 1997
D. 2005
Answer: C
7. Which of the following is an example of non-renewable energy source?
A. Wind
B. Solar
C. Natural Gas
D. Tidal
Answer: C
8. The ‘3Rs’ in waste management stand for:
A. Reduce, Reuse, Recycle
B. Reduce, Recycle, Remove
C. Reuse, Remove, Restore
D. Recycle, Reclaim, Recheck
Answer: A
9. Which Indian constitutional Article deals with the protection and improvement of
the environment?
A. Article 21
B. Article 51A(g)
C. Article 32
D. Article 15
Answer: B
10. Which international agreement succeeded the Kyoto Protocol in addressing
climate change?
A. Rio Declaration
B. Paris Agreement
C. Copenhagen Accord
D. Bali Action Plan
Answer: B
11. What does ‘biodiversity’ refer to?
A. The variety of crops grown in an area
B. The number of forests in a country
C. The variety of life forms on Earth
D. The amount of rainfall in a region
Answer: C
12. Which type of pollution is caused by excessive use of loudspeakers?
A. Water pollution
B. Soil pollution
C. Noise pollution
D. Air pollution
Answer: C
13. Which of the following is a renewable resource?
A. Coal
B. Petroleum
C. Solar energy
D. Natural gas
Answer: C
14. Deforestation causes:
A. Soil conservation
B. Increase in biodiversity
C. Climate stability
D. Soil erosion
Answer: D
15. Which Indian movement aimed at forest conservation?
A. Narmada Bachao Andolan
B. Chipko Movement
C. Swadeshi Movement
D. Salt Satyagraha
Answer: B
16. Which among these gases is primarily responsible for ozone layer depletion?
A. CO₂
B. CH₄
C. CFCs
D. NO₂
Answer: C
17. Which organization releases the “State of the World’s Forests” report?
A. WHO
B. UNEP
C. FAO
D. IPCC
Answer: C
18. Which of the following is the best method to dispose biodegradable waste?
A. Landfilling
B. Composting
C. Incineration
D. Dumping in rivers
Answer: B
19. The Paris Agreement came into force in:
A. 2014
B. 2015
C. 2016
D. 2017
Answer: C
20. What is ‘carbon footprint’?
A. Footprint left by animals in forests
B. Marks left by fossil fuels on land
C. Total greenhouse gases emitted directly or indirectly by activities
D. Footprint of coal-based industries
Answer: C
21. Which of the following is an in-situ method of biodiversity conservation?
A. Botanical gardens
B. Zoos
C. Biosphere reserves
D. Seed banks
Answer: C
22. Which Indian city was the first to implement a metro system as a step toward
sustainable urban transport?
A. Delhi
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Bengaluru
Answer: C
23. What is the main cause of eutrophication in water bodies?
A. Oil spills
B. Solid waste dumping
C. Excess nutrients from fertilizers
D. Radioactive waste
Answer: C
24. Which of these is a goal of sustainable development?
A. Economic growth only
B. Social equity only
C. Environmental protection only
D. Balance of economic, social, and environmental goals
Answer: D
25. Which day is celebrated as World Environment Day?
A. April 22
B. May 5
C. June 5
D. July 11
Answer: C
26. Which country emits the highest amount of carbon dioxide (CO₂) currently (as
per global reports)?
A. India
B. USA
C. China
D. Russia
Answer: C
27. Vermicomposting uses which organisms to decompose organic matter?
A. Bacteria
B. Fungi
C. Earthworms
D. Insects
Answer: C
28. Which Indian law governs the control of water pollution?
A. Water (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1974
B. Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981
C. Environment Protection Act, 1986
D. Forest Conservation Act, 1980
Answer: A
29. Which of the following is not an objective of the Paris Agreement?
A. Limit global temperature rise below 2°C
B. Promote fossil fuel consumption
C. Strengthen climate resilience
D. Provide financial support to developing nations
Answer: B
30. Which sustainable development goal (SDG) focuses specifically on clean water
and sanitation?
A. SDG 3
B. SDG 6
C. SDG 9
 D. SDG 12
Answer: B
31. Which of the following pollutants is most associated with photochemical smog?
A. Particulate matter
B. Sulphur dioxide
C. Nitrogen oxides (NOx)
D. Carbon monoxide
Answer: C
32. Which Indian city topped the air pollution list globally as per recent reports?
A. Chennai
B. Bengaluru
C. Delhi
D. Hyderabad
Answer: C
33. The Earth Summit of 1992 was held in:
A. Geneva
B. Kyoto
C. Rio de Janeiro
D. Paris
Answer: C
34. Which practice is most sustainable in agriculture?
A. Monoculture farming
B. Use of chemical pesticides
C. Organic farming
D. Slash-and-burn farming
Answer: C
35. What is the primary cause of groundwater depletion?
A. Construction of buildings
B. Rainwater harvesting
C. Over-extraction for irrigation and domestic use
D. Earthquake activity
Answer: C
36. Which of the following is a bioindicator of air pollution?
A. Cactus
B. Lichen
C. Neem
D. Pine tree
Answer: B
37. Carbon trading is a mechanism to:
A. Trade fossil fuels
B. Promote carbon emissions
C. Buy and sell carbon credits to reduce emissions
 D. Increase taxation on industries
Answer: C
38. Which Indian mission addresses climate change directly?
A. National Solar Mission
B. National Literacy Mission
C. Swachh Bharat Mission
D. Digital India Mission
Answer: A
39. Which of the following is a source of indoor air pollution?
A. Agricultural burning
B. Vehicular exhaust
C. Cooking with biomass fuels
D. Industrial waste
Answer: C
40. Which of the following is a major effect of rising sea levels?
A. Earthquakes
B. Desertification
C. Submergence of coastal areas
D. Acid rain
Answer: C
41. Which of these is an international organization focused on the environment?
A. IMF
B. WHO
C. UNEP
D. WTO
Answer: C (United Nations Environment Programme)
42. Which of these is a major consequence of climate change?
A. Increase in literacy rates
B. Stable weather patterns
C. Melting of polar ice caps
D. Lower sea levels
Answer: C
43. Which sector is the largest contributor to greenhouse gas emissions globally?
A. Transportation
B. Agriculture
C. Industry
D. Energy production
Answer: D
44. The term “carbon neutral” refers to:
A. Stopping all carbon emissions
B. Burying carbon in the ground
C. Balancing emitted carbon with offsetting measures
 D. Using only electric vehicles
Answer: C
45. Environmental Impact Assessment (EIA) is required for:
A. All school buildings
B. Large-scale infrastructure projects
C. Farming activities
D. Import-export procedures
Answer: B
46. Which country was not part of the original Kyoto Protocol signatories?
A. Japan
B. Russia
C. India
D. USA
Answer: D (USA signed but later withdrew)
47. Which activity directly supports sustainable forest management?
A. Logging without limits
B. Clear-cutting
C. Agroforestry
D. Mining
Answer: C
48. Which form of pollution is directly caused by excessive use of fertilizers in
agriculture?
A. Radioactive pollution
B. Thermal pollution
C. Nutrient pollution (leading to eutrophication)
D. Noise pollution
Answer: C
49. Which of the following is an outcome of ozone layer depletion?
A. Increased global temperatures
B. Acid rain
C. Skin cancer due to UV radiation
D. Deforestation
Answer: C
50. Which of the following best describes “ecological footprint”?
A. The number of forests in a region
B. The human demand on nature and natural resources
C. The area under cultivation
D. The extent of deforestation in a year
Answer: B

UNIT 5
1. The Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was adopted in:
A. 1945
B. 1947
C. 1948
D. 1950
Answer: C
2. Which article of the Indian Constitution guarantees the Right to Equality?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
D. Article 25
Answer: A
3. The National Human Rights Commission (NHRC) of India was established in:
A. 1991
B. 1993
C. 1995
D. 2000
Answer: B
4. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right under the Indian Constitution?
A. Right to Property
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Freedom
D. Right to Constitutional Remedies
Answer: A
5. The UDHR consists of how many articles?
A. 20
B. 30
C. 25
D. 40
Answer: B
6. Which of the following is an example of a civil right?
A. Right to vote
B. Right to marry
C. Right to own property
D. All of the above
Answer: D
7. Ethics can best be defined as:
A. A list of laws
B. Principles of right and wrong that guide individual behavior
C. A form of government control
 D. Religious beliefs
Answer: B
8. Which of these is a feature of professional ethics?
A. Personal opinion
B. Religious obligation
C. Standards governing the conduct of professionals
D. Political agenda
Answer: C
9. Which of these falls under the scope of cyber ethics?
A. Plagiarism
B. Hacking
C. Digital privacy
D. All of the above
Answer: D
10. Which of the following bodies is responsible for protecting human rights in India?
A. Election Commission
B. CBI
C. NHRC
D. Planning Commission
Answer: C
11. Which of these is not a type of human right?
A. Civil rights
B. Political rights
C. Economic rights
D. Supernatural rights
Answer: D
12. Right to education in India is ensured under which Article?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21A
D. Article 32
Answer: C
13. The Indian Constitution adopted Fundamental Rights from the Constitution of:
A. USA
B. UK
C. France
D. Canada
Answer: A
14. Environmental ethics mainly focuses on:
A. How nature affects business
B. Moral relationship between humans and the environment
C. How humans dominate nature
 D. Spiritual values
Answer: B
15. Which of the following is a contemporary ethical issue?
A. Wearing school uniforms
B. Cyberbullying
C. Gardening methods
D. Studying abroad
Answer: B
16. Which is not a function of the National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)?
A. Inquiring into complaints of human rights violations
B. Granting bail to prisoners
C. Promoting human rights awareness
D. Reviewing constitutional safeguards
Answer: B
17. The term “gender equality” promotes:
A. Superiority of one gender
B. Equal rights and opportunities for all genders
C. Ignoring gender differences
D. Gender-based reservations
Answer: B
18. Ethics is primarily concerned with:
A. Legal procedures
B. Religious texts
C. Moral principles
D. Government policies
Answer: C
19. Who can approach the NHRC in case of a human rights violation?
A. The victim
B. A third party
C. NGOs
D. All of the above
Answer: D
20. Which right is considered the “heart and soul” of the Indian Constitution?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right to Constitutional Remedies
D. Right to Education
Answer: C
21. Which article in the Indian Constitution allows individuals to move the Supreme
Court for enforcement of fundamental rights?
A. Article 14
B. Article 19
C. Article 21
 D. Article 32
Answer: D
22. Which of the following is an ethical issue in media?
A. Objectivity in reporting
B. Advertisement placement
C. Employee attendance
D. Printing costs
Answer: A
23. The Right to Information Act (RTI) was passed in India in:
A. 2002
B. 2005
C. 2010
D. 2012
Answer: B
24. Ethical values help in:
A. Increasing profit
B. Enhancing personal and professional integrity
C. Reducing taxes
D. Influencing politics
Answer: B
25. Which of the following rights is protected under Article 21 of the Indian
Constitution?
A. Right to speech
B. Right to property
C. Right to life and personal liberty
D. Right to vote
Answer: C
26. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution promises:
A. Monarchy and elitism
B. Liberty, equality, and fraternity
C. Religious dominance
D. None of the above
Answer: B
27. Which term is closely associated with professional ethics?
A. Nepotism
B. Code of conduct
C. Censorship
D. Judicial activism
Answer: B
28. Which of the following is an unethical practice in academics?
A. Class participation
B. Group discussions
C. Plagiarism
 D. Online learning
Answer: C
29. Which fundamental right includes the abolition of untouchability?
A. Right to Equality
B. Right to Freedom
C. Right against Exploitation
D. Cultural and Educational Rights
Answer: A
30. Cyberbullying is a violation of:
A. Only internet laws
B. Both ethical and human rights principles
C. Economic rights
D. Religious rights
Answer: B
31. Which of the following is essential for maintaining ethical behavior in society?
A. Bribery
B. Fear of law
C. Moral education and awareness
D. Political campaigns
Answer: C
32. The term “code of ethics” is most commonly associated with:
A. Politics
B. Business and professions
C. Agriculture
D. Warfare
Answer: B
33. Which of these is a principle promoted by the UDHR?
A. Death penalty
B. Racial segregation
C. Freedom of speech
D. Child labor
Answer: C
34. Which of the following institutions can’t be approached for human rights
violations?
A. National Human Rights Commission (NHRC)
B. Supreme Court
C. State Human Rights Commission
D. Election Commission
Answer: D
35. Right against exploitation prohibits:
A. Child labor and human trafficking
B. Private employment
C. Government jobs
 D. Foreign investments
Answer: A
36. Which of the following is an unethical online activity?
A. Creating original blogs
B. Posting respectful opinions
C. Cyberstalking
D. Online education
Answer: C
37. Which one of the following values is not directly linked with ethics?
A. Honesty
B. Compassion
C. Arrogance
D. Responsibility
Answer: C
38. What is the primary goal of ethical behavior in professional settings?
A. Making more money
B. Winning competitions
C. Gaining trust and upholding standards
D. Political influence
Answer: C
39. Discrimination based on gender violates which fundamental right?
A. Right to Religion
B. Right to Equality
C. Right to Property
D. Right to Information
Answer: B
40. Which document inspired the inclusion of fundamental rights in the Indian
Constitution?
A. Magna Carta
B. American Bill of Rights
C. UN Charter
D. Russian Constitution
Answer: B
41. Which of the following ethical principles emphasizes doing no harm?
A. Beneficence
B. Non-maleficence
C. Justice
D. Autonomy
Answer: B
42. Which constitutional body protects the rights of minorities in India?
A. NHRC
B. Election Commission
C. National Commission for Minorities
 D. Planning Commission
Answer: C
43. Which is considered an ethical dilemma in modern workplaces?
A. Promotions
B. Bribery for deals
C. Celebrations
D. Salary negotiation
Answer: B
44. The Right to Constitutional Remedies empowers citizens to:
A. Break unjust laws
B. Approach the court if rights are violated
C. Create new laws
D. Change the Constitution
Answer: B
45. Freedom of Religion in India is ensured under which articles?
A. Articles 14–18
B. Articles 25–28
C. Articles 30–32
D. Articles 19–21
Answer: B
46. Which of the following acts as a watchdog of democracy and human rights?
A. Lok Sabha
B. NHRC
C. RBI
D. NITI Aayog
Answer: B
47. Respecting individual privacy online is a part of:
A. Legal policy only
B. Cyber ethics
C. Government propaganda
D. Internet speed regulation
Answer: B
48. Which article deals with protection of interests of minorities in educational
institutions?
A. Article 21
B. Article 25
C. Article 30
D. Article 35
Answer: C
49. A profession with clearly defined ethical codes is:
A. Politics
B. Medicine
C. Farming
 D. Social media
Answer: B
50. The practice of making moral decisions in daily life is known as:
A. Legal analysis
B. Civil rights enforcement
C. Ethical reasoning
D. Religious discipline
Answer: C