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JODHPUR I
JAIPUR I NORTH DELHI | SOUTH DELHI
I
GURGAON I
NOIDA | PATNA I
AHMEDABAD | MUMBAI
LUCKNOW I KANPUR | AGRA I VARANASI | PRAYAGRAJ I
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CONTENTS OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. Nos. Page No.

English Language 1-24 03 - 07

Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25 - 52 08 -14

Legal Reasoning 53– 84 15 –31

Logical Reasoning 85-108 32- 37

Quantitative Techniques 109 – 120 38-39

Time Total Correct Incorrect Net

Section Attempts Attempts Attempts
Allotted Score
English Language

Current Affairs &

General Knowledge

Legal Reasoning

Logical Reasoning

Quantitative
Techniques

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English Language

One evening – it was our last day- in Tours, we had dinner in a brightly-lit restaurant where the walls
were lined with mirrors, frequented by a sophisticated clientele. My father and were seated at the end of
I

a long table set up for the group. The waiters were paying little attention to us; we had to wait a long time
between courses. At a small table nearby sat a girl aged fourteen or fifteen, suntanned, in a low-cut dress,
and an elderly man who appeared to be her father.
They were talking and laughing quite freely, completely at ease, oblivious of other people. She was
dipping into a thick milky substance in a glass - some years later Ilearnt this was yogurt, which people
like us had never heard of. caught sight of myself in the mirror, pale and sad-looking with my spectacles,
I

silently sitting beside my father, who was staring into the far distance. I could see everything that
separated me from that girl yet I wouldn't have known what to do to resemble her.
Afterward, my father complained with unusual vehemence about this restaurant, where he claimed we had
been served mashed potatoes made with "pig slop," white and tasteless. Several weeks later, he was still
venting his anger over the meal and its disgraceful "pig slop." Although he never actually said so - it was
probably then that began decoding his speech- it was his way of expressing resentment at having been
I

treated with contempt because we were not chic customers who ate "à la carte."
Source: Excerpted from Shame by Annie Ernaux

1. How does the author view the girl at the nearby table?
(a) As carefree and socially superior to herself. ON telegram @ clatedge360(click here)
(b) As irresponsible and careless toward others.
(c) As someone oblivious to the struggles of the working class.
(d) As an equal, but with more sophisticated tastes.

2. What might the restaurant setting symbolize in the context of the author's experience?
(a) A space of inclusivity where everyone feels welcome.
(b) A reminder of the social and cultural gap between the sophisticated and the ordinary.
(c) A place where people like the author's family thrived.
(d) A demonstration of the father's interest in luxurious dining.

3. What does the phrase "l began decoding his speech" imply about the author's perception of her father?
(a) She realized he conveyed hidden meanings indirectly through his words.
(b) She found his speech confusing and overly complicated.
(c) She struggled to connect with his sense of humour.
(d) She discovered that his irritation was primarily food-related.

4. Based on the passage, which of the following best describes the author's tone?
(a) Optimistic and cheerful about her growth.
(b) Melancholic and deeply reflective about her experiences.
(c) Detached and unemotional in recounting events.
(d) Critical and accusatory toward her father.

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5. What is the most appropriate synonym for "vehemence as used in the passage?
(a) Intensity (b) Restraint
(c) Hesitation (d) Tranquility

6. Why does the father repeatedly complain about the mashed potatoes?
(a) To highlight his dissatisfaction with the restaurant's food.
(b) To vent his frustration about being treated with indifference due to their status.
(c) To acknowledge his dissatisfaction with dining out.
(d) To justify not revisiting such restaurants in the future.

II. Remember the movie Billy Jack starring Tom Laughlin? The film and its sequels have long since
decamped to cable, but Tom Laughlin is still very much around. In addition to his movie work, he's a
lecturer and author and a Jungian-schooled psychologist whose specialty is working with people who
have been diagnosed with cancer. Tom Laughlin teaches and leads workshops; here's a paraphrase of
something heard him say:
I

The moment a person learns he's got terminal cancer, a profound shift takes place in his psyche. At one
stroke in the doctor's office he becomes aware of what really matters to him. Things that sixty seconds
earlier had seemed all-important suddenly appear meaningless, while people and concerns that he had till
then dismissed at once take on supreme importance.
Maybe, he realizes, working this weekend on that big deal at the office isn't all that vital. Maybe it's more
important to fly cross-country for his grandson's graduation. Maybe it isn't so crucial that he have the last
word in the fight with his wife. Maybe instead he should tell her how much she means to him and how
deeply he has always loved her. www.lawpreptutorial.com
Source: An excerpt from Steven Pressfield's book, The War of Art

7. Tom Laughlin is described as:

(a) A cancer specialist who focuses on treatments
(b) An athor, lecturer, and psychologist
(c) A filmmaker who has given up his other professions
(d) None of the above

8. What shift happens to a cancer patient upon learning their diagnosis?

(a) They develop a new appreciation for their professional life
(b) They begin to question the worth of their personal relationships
(c) They focus on what truly matters to them
(d) They become indifferent to emotions

9. The author uses the example of attending the grandson's graduation to highlight:
(a) The rejection of mundane concerns in favor of personal joys
(b) The importance of fulfilling professional responsibilities till the end
(c) A growing interest in travel and relaxation
(d) The tendency to distance oneself from conflicting priorities

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10. According to the passage, the primary theme revolves around:

(a) The psychological and emotional impact of terminal illness
(b) The inevitability of death and society's reaction to it
(c) The prioritization of familial responsibilities over professional ones
(d) None of the above

11. What is the significance of the fight with the wife in the context of the passage?
(a) It shows that terminally ill individuals avoid all confrontations
(b) It highlights that trivial conflicts lose importance when life priorities shift
(c) It reflects that terminally ill individuals seek to assert dominance in relationships
(d) It indicates that people focus more on their professional lives

12. Why might the author mention "sixty seconds earlier" in the passage?
(a) To emphasize how quickly a terminal diagnosis changes perspectives
(b) To show the fleeting nature of human life
(c) To highlight the unimportance of time in these moments
(d) To reflect on the author's own experience with loss

III. To see the possibility, the certainty, of ruin, even at the moment of creation: it was my temperament.
Those nerves had been given me as a child in Trinidad partly by our family circumstances: the half-ruined
or broken-down houses we lived in, our many moves, our general uncertainty. Possibly, too, this mode of
feeling went deeper, and was an ancestral inheritance, something that came with the history that had
made me: not only India, with its ideas of a world outside men's control, but also the colonial plantations or
estates of Trinidad, to which my impoverished Indian ancestors had been transported in the last century–
estates of which this Wiltshire estate, where I now lived, had been the apotheosis.
Fifty years ago there would have been no room for me on the estate; even now my presence was a little
unlikely. But more than accident had brought me here. Or rather, in the series of accidents that had
brought me to the manor cottage, with a view of the restored church, there was a clear historical line. The
migration, within the British Empire, from India to Trinidad had given me the English language as my own,
and a particular ind of education. This had partly seeded my wish to be a writer in a particular mode, and
had committed me to the literary career I had been following in England for twenty years.
The history I carried with me, together with the self-awareness that had come with my education and
ambition, had sent me into the world with a sense of glory dead; and in England had given me the rawest
-
stranger's nerves. Now ironically– or aptly living in the grounds of this shrunken estate, going out for my
walks, those nerves were soothed, and in the wild garden and orchard beside the water meadows I found
a physical beauty perfectly suited to my temperament and answering, besides, every good idea l could
have had, as a child in Trinidad, of the physical aspect of England.
The estate had been enormous, I was told. It had been created in part by the wealth of empire. But then
bit by bit it had been alienated. The family in its many branches flourished in other places. Here in the
valley there now lived only my landlord, elderly, a bachelor, with people to look after him. Certain physical
disabilities had now been added to the malaise which had befallen him years before, a malaise of which I

had no precise knowledge, but interpreted as something like accidia, the monk's torpor or disease of the

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Middle Ages - which was how his great security, his excessive worldly blessings, had taken him. The
accidia had turned him into a recluse, accessible only to his intimate friends. So that on the manor itself,
as on my walks on the down, I had a kind of solitude.
Source: Excerpt from The Enigma of Arrival; (Chapter: Jack's Garden, page: 52-53)

13. The author's temperament was shaped by:

(a) His childhood experiences in Trinidad (b) His life in the Wiltshire estate
(c) His education in England (d) His family's wealth and status

14. How did migration within the British Empire influence the author?
(a) It prevented him from gaining an education
(b) gave him the English language and shaped his literary aspirations
It

(c) created resentment toward colonial powers

It

(d) It offered hima direct path to wealth

15. What does the author find soothing in Wiltshire?

(a) His solitary walks and the physical beauty of the estate
(b) The grandeur of the family manor
(C) The company of his landlord's friends

(d) The wealth and security of the estate's history

16. What effect did the history and education carried by the author have on him?
(a) It gave him a sense of optimism about the future
(b) It made him proud of his colonial roots
(c) It sent him into the world feeling like an outsider with "raw nerves"
(d) It encouraged him to pursue material wealth

17. The landlord is described as:

(a) A sociable person admired by everyone (b) A philosopher who enjoys solitude
(c) A lonely recluse affected by his blessings (d) A strict and authoritarian figure

18. What does the author mean by "glory dead"?

(a) The loss of cultural pride due to colonialism
(b) The realization of the limits of material wealth
(c) A sense of alienation and loss in the modern world
(d) The decay of the Wiltshire estate

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IV. When we drove out of Eddyville, headed for the Oregon Country, our train consisted of but one wagon,
two yoke of four-year old steers, and one yoke of cows. We also had one extra cow. This cow was the
only animal we lost on the whole journey; she strayed away in the river bottom before we crossed the
Missouri.
Now as to the members of our little party. William Buck, who had joined us as partner for the expedition,
was a man six years my senior. He had had some experience on the Plains, and he knew what outfit was
needed; but he had little knowledge in regard to a team of cattle. He was an impulsive man, and to some
extent excitable; yet withal a man of excellent judgment and honest as God makes men.
No lazy bones occupied a place in Buck's body. He was scrupulously neat and cleanly in all his ways;
courteous to every one; always in good humour and always looking upon the bright side of things. A better
trail mate could not have been found.
Source: "Taking the Trail for Oregon" from the book Ox Team Days on the Oregon Trail

19. What yoke of animals made up the train?

(a) Horses and donkeys (b) Cows and oxen
(c) Buffaloes and cows (d) Sheep and goats

20. Why did the party lose a cow during the journey?
(a) It was stolen by raiders (b) It got sick and died
(c) It wandered away in the river bottom (d) It was left behind due to old age

21. What personality trait of William Buck is highlighted?

(a) Optimism and good humour (b) Laziness and carelessness
(c) Excitability and dishonesty (d) Timidity and indecisiveness

22. Which word in the passage is closest in meaning to "impulsive"?

(a) Calm (b) Excitable
(c) Rational (d) Lazy

23. What is the tone of the passage?

(a) Melancholic and regretful (b) Humorous and sarcastic
(c) Reflective and descriptive (d) Critical and accusatory

24. Which is the antonym of "courteous" as used in the passage?

(a) Rude (b) Polite
(c) Kind (d) Humble

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General Knowledge including Current Affairs

V. Passage: The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on Thursday (January 16, 2025) announced liberalised norms
to encourage use of Indian Rupee and local/national currencies to settle cross border transactions. The
decision comes at a time when the domestic currency is sliding and touched an all-time low of 86.70. The
Reserve Bank has already signed Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the central banks of the
United Arab Emirates, Indonesia and Maldives to encourage cross-border transactions in local currencies,
including Indian Rupee. The Enforcement Directorate (ED) on February 21, 2025 issued an adjudication
order levying a penalty of over 3.44 crore on BBC World Service (WS) India, along with a fine of 5,000
per day after October 15, 2021, till the date of compliance, for the alleged violation of the FEMA
provisions, according to agency sources. The agency noted that on September 18, 2019, the Department
for Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT) had issued a press note stipulating a 26% Foreign
Direct Investment (FDI) cap for digital media under the government approval route. The Insurance
Regulatory and Development Authority of India (|RDAI) has formed a high-powered committee, led by
Dinesh Khara, former chairman of State Bank of India, to scrutinise various aspects of the Insurance Act
1938 and suggest amendments. This move has come at a time when the Indian government is gearing up
to introduce the Insurance Amendment Bill in Parliament, which proposes allowing 100 per cent foreign
direct investment (FDI) in the insurance sector.
Source: Multiple news articles published in the Indian Express and The Hindu

25. Union Minister of Rural Development and Agriculture had inaugurated the NAKSHA program in Raisen,
Madhya Pradesh. What is the purpose of such an initiative? here)
tegranclatedge360(click
(a) To create modern bank records using satellite citizens.
(b) To create and update land records in urban areas using geospatial technology.
(c) To track the movement of wild animals using aerial photography.
(d) To create the disaster management planning and funding for challenging topography.

26. The Regional Rural Banks have been giving remarkable achievements and profits totalling up to Rs 7571
crore. On whose recommendations, these banks were setup in India?
(a) Talukdar Committee (b) Tendulkar Committee
(c) Sachar Committee (d) Narasimhan Committee

27. Dinesh Khara has been given the responsibility to chair a committee aiming to revolution which among the
following sectors through modernisation, regulations, enhancing consumer protection and boosting
investment?
(a) Insurance (b) Banking
(c) Environment (d) Tourism

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28. Recently, Enforcement Directorate has issued an adjudication order imposing a penalty of over Rs 3.44
crore on BBC World Service India for alleged violations of FEMA, 1999. What is its full form?
(a) Foreign Engagement and Management Authority
(b) Free Exchange and Maintenance Act
(c) Foreign Engagement and Maintenance Authority
(d) Foreign Exchange and Management Act

29. Who among the following is the new Finance Commissioner of India?
(a) Dr Arvind Panagariya (b) Sanjay Malhotra
(c) Nachikant Desai (d) Heeralal Samariya

30. Which among the following Ministries in India has conducted the first Chief Information Officer Conference
2025 in New Delhi?
(a) Ministry of Health and Family Welfare
(b) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting
(c) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(d) Ministry of Home Affairs

VI. Passage: It's the dreaded faux pas perhaps among the most common in the digital age. First, there
is a niggling thought, a feeling that there was something awry in the message just sent. After all, in the
frantic switching from app to app on the smartphone, there is often little mindfulness. Then, the creeping
realisation that the message meant for a significant other or the snide remark made to one colleague
about another or even an NSFW meme has been sent to the wrong person. The nightmare? It's gone to a
group. The message is then deleted in a hurry, with the hope that you did so before anyone saw it. Now,
imagine that embarrassment on an international scale. Earlier this month, an American journalist found
himself added to a group chat on Signal an app that is encrypted, but not approved for discussions on
national security. lt did not feature office gossip, or annoying "good morning" messages a la family groups.
On it, it seems, were top-ranking members of Donald Trump's administration discussing the pros and cons
as well as details of the US attack on Yemen. Secretary of Defence Pete Hegseth and National Security
Advisor Michael Waltz, among other luminaries of the strategic establishment, were in the group. In fact,
Jeffrey Goldberg, editor-in-chief of The Atlantic, reportedly received the invite from Hegseth. Like any
good reporter, he reported on what he saw on the group chat. The Democrats, predictably, are trying to
hold the US executive to account for a "security breach" and Trump, equaly predictably, is downplaying
the incident. In allthe talk of digital security and hygiene, the blame games and jokes at the Republicans'
expense, the simplest solutions are being missed out. First, it might be better to have an old-fashioned
meeting, in person, on sensitive matters. Second, if the written word is indeed needed, there's an
unhackable technology that has been in use for a few thousand years. Just write down on a piece of
paper and deliver it to the right person.
Source: The Indian Express Editorials published on March 28", 2025

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31. Who among the following is the President of Signal messaging app on which official communication
related to Yemen air strikes of USA was leaked to the media?
(a) John Atkinson (b) Meredith Whittaker
(c) Dan Watts (d) Brian Acton

32. United States of America has launched air strikes into Yemen. What is the capital of Yemen?
(a) Sanaa (b) Tbilisi
(c) Aden (d) Dhamar

33. Houthi rebels have continued to attack US Naval carriers including USS Harry S Truman. Which among
the following international sea routes has come under direct attack by these rebels from Yemen?
(a) Caspian Sea (b) Red Sea
(c) Mediterranean Sea (d) Black Sea

34. Who among the following is the current President of Iran?

(a) Masoud Pezeshkian (b) Ayatollah Ali Khameini
(c) Hassan Rouhani (d) Qassem Soleimani

35. What is the name of the mission led by Indian navy to ensure maritime security for Indian flagged vessels
passing through shipping routes in Arabian Sea, Gulf of Aden and waters off Somalia?
(a) Operation Brahma (b) Operation Sadbhavna
(c) Operation Sagar (d) Operation Sankalp

VII. Passage: A petition has been filed in the Karnataka high court by X (formerly Twitter) challenging use of
Section 79(3)(b) of the Information Technology Act by the Indian government. The petition argues that
despite a 2015 judgment of the Supreme Court saying that content could only be blocked through a
Competent court order or under Section 69A's structured process, the use of Section 79(3)(b) not sets up
an illegal parallel content-blocking process in violation to the 2015 court order, reported Hindustan Times.
-
According to Section 79(3)(b), an intermediary can lose its safe harbour which protects platforms from
liability for third-party content - if it fails to remove or disable access to content upon being informed by
the "appropriate" government or its agency. X also wants protection from the court for not onboarding an
employee on Sahyog, a portal that has been created by the Indian Cyber Crime Coordination Centre (14C)
to "streamline" Section 79(3)(b)orders. X has termed this portal a "censorship portal". In its petition, X has
said that this provision does not grant the government blocking powers and that government authorities
are misusing this section to bypass the safeguards of Section 69A and arbitrarily cernsor online content.
After hearing the petition on March 17, Justice M. Nagaprasanna allowed X to approach the court if the
government took any "precipitative action" against it.
Source: https://thewire. in/law/x-moves-karnataka-hc-challenging-union-govts-use-of-it-act-to-remove
content

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36. Which among the following explains the safe harbour provision as mentioned in the passage?
(a) It protects the creator of the content from absolute liability www.lawpreptutorial.com
(b) It grants immunity to the social media company for any content which is shared over its platform.
(c) It grants immunity to the media channels airing any information which is not true.
(d) It refers to the safe and sound conditions of ports in India as they provide safe harbour to international
merchant vessels.

37. The October 2022 Amendments to the IT Rules 2021 has been brought up by the Ministry under
Government of India. Name the Ministry.
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs (b) Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
(c) Ministry of Ungentlemanly Warfare (d) Ministry of Information and Broadcasting

38. Which among the following laws have been introduced in the Parliament by the Government of India to
replace the Information Technology Act, 2000?
(a) Digital India Act
(b) General Data Protection Regime Act
(c) Social Media Intermediaries and Digital Media Ethics Code
(d) Information Technology (Amendment) Act

39. On which among the following days do we observe National Technology Day tO commemorate the
successful nuclear tests at Pokhran in 1998?
(a) 11" April (b) 11" May
(c) 23° August (d) 29" August

40. In which among the following High Courts, petition has been filed by X against the content blocking orders
of the Government of India?
(a) Delhi High Court (b) Karnataka High Court
(c) Patna High Court (d) Prayagraj High Court

VIlI. Passage: A global effort to frame legislation tackling cybercrime cleared a major hurdle earlier this month,
despite stiff opposition from tech companies, industry coalitions, academic institutions, human rights
activists, and other stakeholders. The draft of the United Nations Cybercrime Convention which has been
under negotiation for the past three years, was unanimously approved by UN members at the end of a
two-week session in New York, US, on August 9. The first-ever, 41 page-long draft UN cybercrime treaty
proposes a legislative framework to boost international cooperation among law enforcement agencies and
offer technical assistance to countries that lack adequate infrastructure for combating cybercrime. It also
contains provisions addressing illegal interception, money laundering, hacking, and online child sexual
abuse material.
Source: https://indianexpress.com/article/technology/tech-news-technology/un-cybercrime-treaty-key
features-and-pressing-concerns-9518068

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41. Which among the following statements is/are correct about UN Convention against Cyber Crime?
(a) It is the first global legally binding treaty to regulate global cyber issues.
(b) UNOffice on Drugs and Crime is the implementing body.
(c) The final ceremony was held at Hanoi, Vietnam where 193 countries had signed the convention.
(d) Allof the above

42. Which among the following institutions/bodies in India is responsible for responding to cybersecurity
incidents?
(a) CERT-In (b) CNAP
(c) CLAP (d) C-DoT

43. Which among the following is the correct statement with respect to Council of Europe Convention on
Cybercrime 2001?
(a) India is a signatory to the framework
(b) It is also known as Budapest Convention which specifically addresses crimes committed via internet.
(c) It is the predecessor to EU's General Data Protection Regulation.
(d) Allof the abOve.

44. Which among the following statements is/are correct with respect to situation of cybercrime in India?
(a) India has been ranked as 2" most targeted country for cyberattacks globally in 2024.
(b) Delhi was leading with 755 cases followed by Haryana and Telangana.
(c) Government of India has established Indian Gomputer Emergency Response Team in 2004 for
responding to computer security incidents.
(d) All of the above

45. On which among the following years, the Government of lndia had launched the Digital India initiative?
(a) 2014 (b) 2015
(c) 2016 (d) 2017

IX. Passage: The brutal murder of an independent young journalist, Mukesh Chandrakar, in Chhattisgarh,
has once again highlighted the threats to life and the precarious nature of journalism at the district and
mofussil levels. Journalists at the grass-root level in many parts of the country face similar challenges.
Police and other reports suggest that Mukesh was murdered by a local contractor who was enraged by
the journalist's reports questioning the quality of a road built by the contractor. This case brings to mind
the killing, in 1988, of another young journalist, Umesh Dobhal, from Uttarakhand's Garhwal town, who
was allegedly murdered by the powerful and politically connectedliquor mafia that was angered by his
exposés. Mukesh's murder has also exposed the irony that Chhattisgarh is probably the first and only
State to have enacted a law, namely The Chhattisgarh Protection of Media Persons Act, 2023, to prevent
violence and ensure the safety and the security of journalists while carrying out their duties. This case
shows that laws alone are not enough to save independent and courageous journalists such as Mukesh,
who was actively reporting from Bastar, Chhattisgarh, and exposing wrongdoing and corruption in
developmental work in the region. There is no doubt that district-level or mofussil journalists such as

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Mukesh and Umesh play a crucial role in bringing "unseen and unheard" stories from the hinterland. They
are truly the "voice of the voiceless" as they belong to local communities, understand their pain,
grievances, and struggles, and are deeply moved by stories of suffering and deprivation. Most of these
journalists are not formally trained in journalism schools. Yet, they pursue their journalism out of a passion
and a commitment to raising local issues and exposing corruption and wrongdoing in developmental work.
Source: The imperilled life of the district journalist in India authored by Anand Pradhan, published in The
Hindu, 8" January 2025.

46. Which among the following is the purpose of The Chhattisgarh Protection of Media Persons Act, 2023, as
per the information given in the passage?
(a) To protect media freedom.
(b) To ensure seamless outreach of journalism.
(c) To ensure safety and protection of journalists from hooliganism.
(d) To ensure that media is regulated absolutely by the government.

47. Consider that you are a judge of a High Court and a media person is approaching for the freedom of
media before you. Which among the following Articles in Constitution of India willprotect such a freedom?
(a) Article 12 (b) Article 18
(c) Article 19 (d) Article 21

48. What was India's position in World Press Freedom Index published in 2024 by Reporters sans Borders?
(a) 159 out of 180 countries. (b) 159 out of 193 countries.
(c) 161 out of 180 countries. (d) 121 out of 180 countries.

49. Statement 1: Padma awards are one of the highest civilian awards in India in various disciplines/ fields of
activities, viz.- art, social work, public affairs, science and engineering, trade and industry, medicine,
Iiterature and education, sports, civil service, etc.
Statement 2: Journalism as a field is not covered within the ambit of Padma awards.
Which among the following options is/are correct?
(a) Both $1 and S2 are true and S2 is the correct explanation of $1.
(b) Both S1 and $2 are true but S2 is not the correct explanation of S1.
(c) Only S1 is true.
(d) Only S2 is true.

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50. Which among the following statements would be an incorrect inference based on the information given in
the passage?
(a) States with Left Wing Extremism and partisan politics must proide safety to independent journalism.
(b) All the journalists in the country must be trained professionally in journalism schools.
(c) Some of the journalists who are driven out of passion must be encouraged to pursue their passion
independently.
(d) All of the above.

51. On which among the following days, World Press Freedom Day is observed?
(a) 3° May (b) 3° June
(c) 11" December (d) 22 December

52. Which among the following awards in the world are considered the highest award for investigative
journalism?
(a) Bloomberg awards for Journalist Activism. (b) Pulitzer Prize.
(c) Booker Prize. (d) Ramon Magsaysay Award.

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Legal Reasoning

X. Indian Contract Act-Agency: Agency in the context of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, is a fundamental
aspect of business law, crucial for understanding how legal relationships are structured in commercial
settings. Defined in Section 182 of the Act, an "agent" is an individual authorized to act on behalf of
another, termed the "principal," to engage with third parties. This relationship is vital as it enables
businesses, regardless of size, to operate efficiently through representatives, making the law of agency
pivotal in business transactions globally.
PAelegram@clatedge360(click hre)
Chapter X of the Indian Contract ACt elaborates on thelaws governing agency, specifying that both the
agent and the principal must be competentmeaning they must be of majority age and sound mind as
affirmed by Sections 183 and 184. Notably, the Act asserts that no consideration is required to establish
an agency (Section 185), which stands out as an exception in contract law where typically a contract
without consideration is void.
Agency can arise in several ways. The most straightforward is through direct appointment, where the
principal explicitly appoints the agent either verbally or in writing, thereby granting express authority.
However, agency can also emerge implicitly through the necessity or conduct of the parties, such as in
emergencies where decisions must be made swiftly without direct authorization, or through estoppel
where a person's actions lead others to believe someone is their agent.
Furthermore, agency relationships can vary in nature. They might involve a special agent appointed for a
specific task, a general agent for broader authority within a business, or even sub-agents and co-agents
depending on the complexity of the tasks and the range of authority granted. Understanding these
distinctions is essential for determining liabilities and responsibilities within various business scenarios.
The rights and duties of agents are also well-defined under the Act. Agents are entitled to remuneration
and must be indemnified against actions taken in good faith within the scope of their authority.
Conversely, they cannot typically delegate their responsibilities unless specifically allowed by the principal
or under circumstances where delegation is necessary.
Inlandmark cases like Syed Abdul Khader v. Rami Reddy, the Indian judiciary has interpreted these
provisions to clarify the nuances of agency law, reinforcing the responsibilities that agents hold towards
their principals and third parties. This legal framework ensures that agents act within the bounds of the
authority granted to them, maintaining the trust and integrity essential to the principal-agent relationship.
Agency law thus not only supports the structure of business operations but also ensures a framework
where delegated authority is used responsibly, maintaining a balance between autonomy and
accountability within commercial transactions. This legal understanding is crucial for anyone engaged in
business, whether in India or globally, as it dictates how agents should act and be treated in the scope of
their duties.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, https://Mawbhoomi. com/agency-under-indian-contract-act
concept-parties-essentials-and-creation

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53. Rahul, aged 22 and recent university graduate, decides to open a travel agency in Goa. He approaches
his nephew, Ravi, who is 17 years old but known in his family for his exceptional organizational skills and
a sharp mind. Rahul wants Ravi to act as his agent in Delhi to negotiate and finalize travel deals on his
behalf. Rahul and his nephew discuss the terms, and they agree verbally. Ravi starts working, engaging
with several clients and securing a few contracts. One of the contracts, worth 5 lakh, is with a major
corporate client. Rahul, however, later refuses to honour the contract, arguing that Ravi was not
competent to act as an agent due to his age. Will Ravi's actions as an agent be legally binding on Rahul?
(a) Yes, because Raviwas acting within the scope of the authority verbally granted by Rahul.
(b) Yes, because Ravi secureda contract that wWould benefit Rahul, demonstrating his ability to act as an
agent.
(c) No, because Ravi, being under 18, does not meet the competency requirements under the Indian
Contract Act.
(d) No, because the contract was not in writing, and thus, not enforceable under the Indian Contract Act.

54. Rajesh verbally appoints Sunita as his agent to manage his rental properties. After several months, Sunita
enters into a lease agreement with a tenant on behalf of Rajesh. However, when a dispute arises between
the tenant and Rajesh over the lease terms, Rajesh denies that Sunita had any authority to act on his
behalf, claiming that he only believes in written contracts for such appointments. Rajesh argues that since
there was no written agreement with Sunita, the lease agreement should be considered invalid. Is
Rajesh's denial of Sunita's agency valid under the law?
(a) Yes, because Rajesh explicitly mentioned his preference for written contracts, which invalidates any
verbal agreements.
(b) No, because express authority can be granted verbally, and Sunita acted within the scope of her
appointed duties.
(c) Yes, because the contract of agency must be in writing to be enforceable.
(d) No, because the tenant was not aware of the verbal nature of Sunita's appointment and acted in good
faith.

55. Ramesh is the proprietor of a reputed hospital in Chennai and is currenly attending an international
medical conference. One evening, the hospital experiences a sudden power failure affecting critical life
support equipment. Sunil, the hospital's senior administrator, immediately contacts a certified generator
service provider and authorizes the urgent installation of a temporary generator to safeguard patients'
lives. Ramesh, unaware of this emergency during his absence, returns a week later and disputes the
transaction, arguing that he never expressly appointed Sunil as his agent to enter into such contracts. The
service provider, however, claims that Sunil acted as an agent by necessity under the circumstances. ls
the contract for the installation of the temporary generator binding on Ramesh? www.lawpreptutorial.com
(a) Yes, because Sunil had a long-standing role as an administrator, which automatically grants him
express authority to bind Ramesh.
(b) Yes, because the necessity created an implied agency, binding Ramesh to the contract due to Sunil's
actions.

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(c) No, because only a direct appointmentin writing can grant an agent the authority to enter into
contracts on a
behalf of principal.
(d) No, because Ramesh did not give any express consent, so no agency relationship was established.

56. Mr. Narayan, a prominent businessman in Delhi, appoints his trusted associate, Ajay, as his agent to
negotiate major supply contract with a leading electronics manufacturer. Although there is no formal
a
written contract detailing Ajay's compensation, Mr. Narayan clearly instructs Ajay to secure the best
possible terms. Acting diligently and in good faith, Ajay finalizes the deal which results in significant cost
savings and favourable terms for Mr. Narayan. Later, when Mr. Narayan reviews the transactions, he
refuses to pay any remuneration to Ajay or reimburse him for the expenses incurred during the
negotiations, arguing that there was no explicit agreemnent on such payments. Ajay decides to pursue
legal action for his remuneration and indemnity for the expenses incurred while acting within the scope of
his authority.
Will Ajay likely succeed in claiming his remuneration and indemnity?
(a) Yes, because the Act defines agents' rights to remuneration and indemnity for actions taken in good
faith within their authority.
(b) Yes, because any benefits secured by an agent automatically guarantee remuneration even if not
explicitly mentioned.
(c) No, because a written agreement is essential to establish an agent's entitlement to remuneration and
indemnity.
(d) No, because indemnity is only available when an agent exceeds his authority, not when acting
within it.

57. Rohit is appointed by Suresh as an agent to manage Suresh's chain of retail stores across India. The
agreement between them does not mention anything about appointing sub-agents. Due to the vastness of
operations, Rohit, without consulting Suresh, appoints Priya as a sub-agent to oversee the southern
region's stores. Priya, in turn, delegates her responsibilities to Karan without informing Rohit or Suresh.
Karan mismanages the operations, leading to significant financial losses. Suresh discovers this chain of
delegation and seeks to hold Rohit liable for the losses incurred due to Karan's actions. Is Rohit liable for
the losses caused by Karan's mismanagement?
(a) Yes, because Rohit appointed Priya without Suresh's consent, but he is not responsible for the act of
Suresh, as he did not delegated him as an agent.
(b) No, because Rohit had implied authority to appoint sub-agents due to the vast operations.
(c) Yes, because both Rohit and Priya delegated their responsibilities without proper authorization,
making Rohit liable for the subsequent losses.
(d) No, because Karan's actions were independent, and Rohit cannot be held responsible for Karan's
mismanagement.

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58. Ravi, a retired businessman, owns a chain of grOcery stores across Mumbai but Iives in Pune. Due to his
age and inability to manage daily affairs, he requests his long-time friend, Arjun, a school teacher, to
handle the business operations in Mumbai on his behalf. Arjun agrees out of goodwill and starts acting as
Ravi's agent, managing supplier contracts and overseeing financial transactions. However, Arjun never
receives any remuneration or financial benefit for his role. After six months, Ravi decides to replace Arjun
with a professional manager and refuses to acknowledge any of Arjun's actions taken during this period,
arguing that there was no valid contract of agency since no consideration was given. Can Arjun's actions
as an agent be legally enforced against Ravi?
(a) Yes, because an agency does not require consideration to be valid under the Indian Contract Act.
(b) Yes, because Arjun's work benefited Ravi's business, implying a valid contractual relationship.
(c) No, because without monetary remuneration, an agency relationship cannot be established.
(d) No, because an agent must receive formal appointment in writing to act on behalf of the principal.

59. Ravi is the owner of a large garment showroom. He often travels abroad for business. During his
absences, his friend Arjun, who frequently visits the showroom and is well-versed in the business, is seen
interacting with suppliers and customers. On several occasions, Ravi was present when Arjun placed
orders and gave assurances on Ravi's behalf, and Ravinever objected.
Ramesh, a fabric supplier, enters into a contract with Arjun believing him to be Ravi's authorised agent.
Later, Ravi refuses to honour the contract, stating that Arjun was never officialy appointed as his agent.
Ramesh sues Ravi claiming that an agency relationship was created by estoppel. Is Ravi bound by the
contract entered by Arjun?
(a) No, as he never explicitly authorised Arjun as his agent.
(b) Yes, as this is an agency created by estoppel.
(c) No, as there is no formal written agreement between Ravi and Arjun.
(d) Yes, as all friends are agents by default.

XI. Indian Evidence Act-Dying Declaration: A dying declaration is a statement made by an individual who,
believing their death is imminent, details the cause or circumstances leading to their demise. Such
declarations are considered exceptions to the hearsay rule and are admissible as evidence in court due to
the presumption that a personon the verge of death is unlikely to lie.
For a dying declaration to be admissible, certain criteria must be met:
Competency of the Declarant: The individual must be mentally sound and capable of understanding
the implications of their statement.
Imminence of Death: The declarant should believe that death is impending, which can be inferred
from their medical condition or statements acknowledging their critical state.
Voluntariness: The statement must be made freely, without coercion or undue influence.
Relevance to Cause of Death: The content should pertain directly to the events or reasons leading to
the declarant's death.
Consistency: The declaration should align with other evidence presented; significant discrepancies
may affect its credibility.

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Dying declarations can be conveyed in various forms, including oral statements, written notes, gestures
(especially when the victim cannot speak), or through a question-and-answer format. In situations where a
victim files a First Information Report (FIR) before succumbing to injuries, that FIR can serve as a dying
declaration.
The responsibility of recording a dying declaration isn't confined to magistrates; police officers, doctors, or
even ordinary citizens present at the time can document it. However, when possible, having a magistrate
record the statement adds to its credibility. Doctors play a crucial role by certifying the mental fitness of
the declarant, ensuring they are in a sound state of mind while making the declaration. It's essential to
distinguish between a dying declaration and a dying deposition. While both are statements made by
individuals nearing death, a dying deposition is recorded by a magistrate in the presence of the accused's
lawyer, allowing for cross-examination. This process offers more reliability but is less commonly used due
to practical constraints.
If the declarant survives after making the statement, it no longer qualifies as a dying declaration. However,

it can still be used as evidence under other provisions of the law, such as admissions or previous
statements, depending on the context. The legal maxim "Nemo moriturus praesumitur mentiri," meaning
"no one on the point of death should be presumed to lie," underpins the acceptance of dying declarations
in the legal system. Courts operate under the belief that individuals facing imminent death are unlikely to
fabricate statements, making such declarations a potent form of evidence.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from, https://blog.ipleaders.in/all-you-need-to-know-about
dying-declaration

60. Vijay, a 42-year-old man, suffered a severe head injury in a workplace accident at a construction site. He
was rushed to the hospital, where his condition was critical but stable. A day later, his condition
deteriorated, and he slipped into a semi-conscious state. Before losing consciousness, Vijay murmured a
statement to his brother, Rohit, who was present at his bedside. Vijay mentioned that his supervisor, Mr.
Sharma, had previously tampered with the safety equipment, which led to his accident. Rohit recorded this
statement on his mobile phone. Given Vijay's medical condition and the nature of the statement, the court
needs to decide this statement qualifies as a dying declaration.
Will
Vijay's statement be considereda competent dyingdeclaration?
(a) Yes, because Vijay was aware of his critical condition and his statement pertained directly to the
cause of his injury.
(b) No, because Vijay was not in a sound state of mind to understand the implications of his statement
due to his semi-conscious state.
(c) Yes, because Vijay's statement was recorded by his brother, making it a reliable source of
information.
(d) No, because the statement was not recorded in the presence of a magistrate.

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61. Jyoti, a 35-year-old school teacher, was brutally assaulted while returning home from work. During the
attack, she sustained injuries that left her with a fractured larynx, rendering her unable to speak. While
unconscious moments later, Jyoti was briefly revived in the emergency ward, where a police officer, along
with a doctor, initiated a rapid questioning process to record any statements regarding the identity of her
assailants. Despite her inability to speak, Jyoti used deliberate hand gestures and nods to indicate that the
perpetrator was her neighbour, Mr. Kumar, who had been seen fleeing the scene. The investigating team
recorded her non-verbal cues as part of the evidence, categorizing them as a dying declaration. Mr.
Kumar's defense contends that since Jyoti did not verbally articulate her statement, her non-verbal
communication cannot be deemed a valid dying declaration.
WillJyoti's
gesture-based declaration qualify as a valid dying declaration?
(a) Yes, because a dying declaration must be recorded in writing or verbally, and gestures do not suffice.
(b) No, because the declaration was not made in a question-and-answer format, which is the only
acceptable form.
(c) Yes, because dying declarations can be conveyed in various forms, including gestures, especially
when the victim cannot speak.
(d) No, because the use of gestures indicates that Jyoti was not fully conscious, thereby undermining the
reliability of her declaration.

62. Raghav, a businessman, was attacked by unknown assailants outside his office late at night. He was
rushed to the hospital with severe injuries, where the doctors declared that his condition was critical.
Believing he might not survive, Raghav recorded a statement before the police officer stating that his
former business partner, Vikram, had sent men to kill him due to a financial dispute. The police registered
this statement as a dying declaration. However, aftera prolonged medical treatment, Raghav miraculously
recovered.
Later, during the trial, the prosecution sought to rely on Raghav's recorded statement as a dying
declaration to convict Vikram. Vikram's defense lawyer objected, arguing that the statement no longer
qualified as a dying declaration.
Will
Raghav's statement be admissible as a dying declaration in court?
(a) Yes, because the statement was made when Raghav believed he was dying, and it directly implicates
Vikram.
(b) No, because since Raghav survived, the statement does not qualify as a dying declaration.
(c) Yes, because the statement was recorded by a police officer and remains a valid dying declaration as
per the rules of evidence.
(d) No, because the statement can only be used if recorded by a magistrate, not a police officer.

63. Meera was critically injured in an acid attack. While in the hospital, her brother-in-law, a senior police
officer in plain clothes, visited her and insisted she name her husband as the attacker. The doctor
observed that the brother-in-law was quite forceful in his questioning. Meera, who was in extreme pain
and had been told she might not survive, eventually named her husband. She died the following day.
When this statement is presented in court as a dying declaration, the defense is most likely to challenge
its admissibility on which grounds?

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(a) Lack of competency of the declarant due to extreme pain

(b) Absence of imminence of death awareness by Meera
(c) Lack of voluntariness due to undue influence from the brother-in-law
(d) Inconsistency with other evidence in the case

64. Sanjay, a 60-year-old man with a history of heart problems, was involved in a car accident that led to
severe injuries and rapid deterioration of his health. Upon reaching the hospital, he was informed by the
doctors that his chances of survival were slim due to his pre-existing conditions compounded by the
accident. Believing his death was imminent, Sanjay told his lawyer, who was visiting him in the hospital,
that his business partner, Rajeev, had been embezzling funds from their joint venture. This statement was
recorded in writing by his lawyer. Despite the grave prognosis, Sanjay miraculously survived after
extensive surgery and long-term medical care.
In a subsequent lawsuit concerning the embezzlement, Rajeev's defense argues that Sanjay's statement

should not be admitted as evidence under the pretext of a dying declaration.

Will Sanjay's statement be admitted as a dying declaration?
(a) Yes, because Sanjay's statement about Rajeev's embezzlement was made under the belief that his
death was imminent.
(b) No, because the statement cannot be considered a dying declaration as it did not relate directly to the
events or reasons leading to the Sanjay's death.
(c) Yes, because the statement was recorded by a lawyer, which guarantees its legality and accuracy.
(d) No, because Sanjay's medical condition at the time doesn't clearly indicate an understanding of his
critical state.

65. Deepak, a 45-year-old factory worker, was critically injured during a machinery malfunction at his
workplace. While awaiting the arrival of emergency services, a concerned coworker, Priya, stayed by his
side. Aware of his grave condition, Deepak whispered to Priya that the accident was due to the negligence
of the factory manager, who had ignored multiple requests to service the aging machinery. Priya, using
her mobile phone, recorded Deepak's statement and also wrote down his words. Deepak succumbed to
his injuries before the paramedics arrived. During the subsequent investigation into workplace safety
violations, Priya submitted the recording and the written note as evidence. The factory's legal team
objected, arguing that Priya was not authorized to record a dying declaration.
Will Priya's recording and note be admissible as Deepak's dying declaration?
(a) Yes, because the responsibility of recording a dying declaration is not confined to magistrates and can
be done by anyone presernt at the time.
(b) No, because only a legal or medical professional can officially record a dying declaration.
(c) Yes, because Priya used both a recording and a written note, which strengthens the credibility of the
dying declaration.
(d) No, because the statement must be recorded formally in a legal setting to be considered a valid dying
declaration.

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XII. Law of Torts-Defamation: Defamation is a legal concept defined as the act of damaging someone's
reputation through false and malicious statements, as described in the Black Law Dictionary. It manifests
in two forms: libel and slander. Libel refers to written statements, typically permanent and visible, Such as

those in print or pictures, which are addressed to the eyes. Slander, conversely, involves spoken words or
audible expressions, impacting the ears, and often proving more transient and ephemeral.
In legal terms, libel is considered a more severe offense. It is actionable per se, meaning it inherently
causes harm and can be pursued legally without direct proof of damages. Slander, however, typically
requires the plaintiff to demonstrate actual harm or loss, categorized as "special damages," unless it falls
into slander per sestatements so egregious that damage is presumed, such as accusations of a crime
or Contagious disease.
The foundation of a defamation case hinges on several key elements:
1
The defamatory statement must be made and published to a third party.
2 It should be clearly about the plaintiff, either directly or indirectly identifiable.

3 The statement must be false, as truthfulness is a strong defence.

4. lt should explicitly damage the reputation, meaning it would lower the plaintiff in the estimation of the
community or deter third parties from associating with them.
Notable cases like Ram Jethmalani v. Subramanian Swamy and Arun Jaitley v. Arvind Kejriwal underline
the seriousness of defamation, where the courts have sided with the plaintiffs after establishing the
defamatory nature of the statements involved.
Defences in defamation cases include truth, as the absolute defence under civil law; fair and bona fide
comments, particularly when it concerns matters of public interest without malice; and privilege. Privileged
communications are of two types: absolute and qualified. Absolute privilege applies in specific scenarios
where freedom of speech is protected regardless of the statement's truth, such as in parliamentary
proceedings or judicial contexts. Qualified privilege covers statements made in good faith in certain
circumstances, requiring the absence of malice to be proven by the defendant.
Furthermore, the concept of publication in defamation involves the dissemination of the statement beyond
the immediate parties involved. For example, in Mahendra Ram v. Harnandan Prasad, a defamatory
statement was considered published when a third party read a letter intended for the plaintiff, highlighting
the breadth of how defamation can be established.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from https:/Mawbhoomi.com/concept-of-defamation-under-law
of-torts/

66. Harish, a manager at a large corporation, writes a confidential email to his supervisor alleging that Priya, a
fellow employee, has been embezzling company funds. The email was marked as confidential and
intended only for the supervisor's eyes. However, the email was accidentally forwarded to a group of
Priya's colleagues due to an error by Harish's assistant. Priya becomes aware of these allegations when
her colleagues start treating her differently and eventually confronts her about the email. Priya sues
Harish for defamation. Should Harish be held liable for defamation?
(a) Yes, because the email was read by third parties, thereby meeting the publication requirement for
defamation.
(b) No, because Harish did not intend for the email to be read by anyone other than his supervisor.

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(c) Yes, because Harish was negligent in ensuring the security of the communication, which directly led
to its unauthorized disclosure.
(d) No, because the statement was made within a professional context and was related to Priya's job
performance.

67. Ananya, a renowned chef in Mumbai, discovers that a food critic, Raj, has written a scathing review about
her new restaurant, "Spice Symphony," on his personal blog. The review alleges that Ananya uses
substandard ingredients and has poor hygiene practices in her kitchen. Raj's blog has a modest following,
and the post receives minimal engagement. However, a local newspaper, "The Mumbai Gazette," picks
up Raj's review and publishes an article summarizing his criticisms, attributing them to Raj's blog.
Following the newspaper's publication, Ananya notices a significant decline in her restaurant's patronage
and decides to sue for defamation. Who can Ananya hold liable for defamation?
(a) Only Raj, since he authored the original defamatory content on his blog.
(b) Only "The Mumbai Gazette," as their publication led to the widespread dissemination causing actual
harm. www.lawpreptutorial.com
(c) Both Raj and "The Mumbai Gazette," since both published the defamatory statements to third parties.
(d) Neither Raj nor "The Mumbai Gazette," because the statements are considered opinions protected
under free speech.

68. Aryan, an investigative journalist, publishes an article in a leading newspaper, The Daily Truth, alleging
that Vikram, a well-known businessman, has been engaging in fraudulent financial activities and has been
laundering money through offshore accounts. The article contains detailed accusations, citing
"anonymous sources" but does not provide concrete evidence. Within hours of publication, multiple news
agencies and online media platforms pick up the story, and Vikram's reputation suffers severely. His
business partners begin withdrawing their investments, and his stock value plummets.
Vikram, maintaining that the allegations are completely false and fabricated, decides to sue Aryan and
The Daily Truth for defamation. Which of the following is the correct answer?
(a) Vikram cannot sue Aryan for defamation because the article was based on anonymous sources,
which is common in investigative journalism.
(b) Vikram can sue Aryan for libel because the allegations were published in a permanent and visible
format, causing harm to his reputation.
(c) Vikram cannot sue for defamation as long as Aryan can prove that he had reasonable suspicion to
believe the allegations were true.
(d) Vikram can only sue The Daily Truth, not Aryan, because the newspaper published the article, and
liability falls solely on the publisher.

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69. Dr. Meera, a respected surgeon in Mumbai, reads an article in The City Chronicle that claims, "Some
doctors in our city are performing unnecessary surgeries purely for financial gain." The article is vague
and does not name any individual; it merely refers to "some doctors" without offering further identification
or evidence linking any specific physician to this practice. Concerned about her professional reputation,
she considers filing a defamation suit. WillDr. Meera likely succeed in her claim?
(a) No, because the statement is ambiguous and does not clearly refer to Dr. Meera, so she is not
sufficiently identifiable.
(b) Yes, because the statement covers all doctors in the city, including Dr. Meera, making her indirectly
identifiable.
(c) Yes, because any negative remark about doctors in general can be imputed to her as a member of
that group.
(d) No, because defamation claims only succeed if the statement explicitly names the plaintiff, which is
not the case here.

70. During a neighbourhood gathering in Mumbai, Prakash, a local shop owner, loudly proclaims in front of
several customers that his rival, Ramesh, is secretly infected with a dangerous contagious disease.
Prakash further claims that Ramesh's business should be boycotted because he could spread the illness
to unsuspecting customers. As a direct result, several patrons begin avoiding Ramesh's shop, and his
sales plummet. Ramesh insists that Prakash's accusation is completely false and seeks to file a suit for
defamation.
WillRamesh
succeed without proving special damages?
(a) No, because slander automatically requires proof of special damages, regardless of the type of
statement made.
(b) Yes, because the statement accuses Ramesh of having a contagious disease, which is considered
slander per se, presuming damage.
(c) No, because slander only applies to statements written and circulated in permanent form, and spoken
statements do not fall under this category.
(d) Yes, because accusing someone in front of their customers automatically amounts to libel without any
additional requirements.

71. Ravi, a journalist in Delhi, publishes an article alleging that Priya, a prominent businesswoman, has been
involved in embezzling funds from her company. Ravi's article is based on verified financial records and
credible sources, all pointing towards Priya's misconduct. Upon publication, Priya files a defamation
lawsuit against Ravi, claiming that the article has tarnished her reputation. Will Priya's defamation claim
succeed?
likely
(a) Yes, because the publication of such damaging information harms Priya's reputation, regardless of its
truthfulness.
(b) No, because journalists have absolute immunity from defamation claims when reporting on matters of
public interest.
(c) Yes, because even true statements can be defamatory if they cause harm to someone's reputation.
(d) No, because Ravi's article is based on verified information, and truth is a strong defence against
defamation claims.

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XIII. Family Law Cruelty: Marriage, often revered as a sacred union, can be marred by conflicts,
misunderstandings, and cruelty. In Indian matrimonial law, cruelty is a significant ground for divorce under
the Hindu Marriage Act, which has seen considerable evolution in its interpretation and application.
Cruelty in marriage encompasses both physical and psychological harm that makes cohabitation
unreasonable. Recognized forms include physical iolence, mental agony through persistent abuse or
humiliation, adultery, economic abuse by denying financial independence, sexual cruelty, and non
disclosure of serious illnesses. Each case is judged on its unique circumstances, reflecting the spouses'
backgrounds and sensitivities.
Historically, the Hindu Marriage Act of 1955 did not initially include cruelty as a ground for divorce, which
was only possible through judicial separation as per Section 10. This changed with the 1976 amendment,
which introduced Section 13(1)(ia), simplifying the criteria for proving cruelty by removing the necessity to
demonstrate "reasonable apprehension of harm" and acknowledging both persistent and repeated
instances of cruelty as grounds for divorce.
Judicial interpretations have expanded the understanding of cruelty. Landmark cases like Narayan
Ganesh Dastane v. Sucheta Narayan Dastane (1975) established that cruelty includes psychological
distress sufficient to make continued cohabitation unreasonable. Further, Samar Ghosh v. Jaya Ghosh
(2007) and Mayadevi v. Jagdish Prasad (2007) outlined mental cruelty with examples such as refusal to
have sexual relations, verbal abuse, and unilateral significant decisions affecting the marriage without
consent. These cases emphasize that mental cruelty, like its physical counterpart, is a valid ground for
divorce.
Physical cruelty is straightforward, involving acts of violence such as beatings or threats. Under other laws
like the Muslim Marriage Act, 1939, habitual assault is grounds for dissolution. Mental cruelty, however, is
more nuanced and harder to prove, often lacking tangible evidence, and includes behaviours like
persistent insults or emotional neglect.
Economic and sexual cruelty also fall under the umbrella of matrimonial cruelty, where the former involves
restricting financial independence and the latter encompasses forced sexual acts or deprivation without
valid reasons. These forms of cruelty, particularly when repetitive and debilitating, are grounds for divorce.
Section 498A of the IPC addresses cruelty in a criminal context, specifically protecting married women
from cruelty by their husbands or in-laws, which includes harassment for dowry and behaviours likely to
drive the woman to suicide. While this section is crucial for the protection of women, its misuse has also
been highlighted in cases like Reema Aggarwal v. Anupam & Ors (2004), pointing to the challenges in
legal interpretations of cruelty.
Source.: Extracted with edits and revisions from, https:/Mawbhoomi.com/cruelty-as-a-ground-for-divorce/

72. Rahul and Priya, a married couple iving in a metro city in India, have been experiencing severe marital
issues. Priya, a software engineer, claims that Rahul has been consistently subjecting her to emotional
and economic abuse. According to Priya, Rahul, who handles the family finances, has restricted her
access to their joint bank accounts and credit cards, to an amount barely enough for survival. Additionally,
Rahul is accused of engaging in verbal abuse, often publicly ridiculing her work and social skills, which
Priya finds humiliating and isolating. Feeling aggrieved by this sustained behaviour, Priya considers filing
for divorce on grounds of cruelty. Will Priya likely Succeed in her divorce claim based on the described
behaviour?

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(a) Yes, because Rahul's actions constitute economic and mental cruelty by restricting financial
independence and persistent public humiliation.
(b) No, because marital disagreements over finances do not typically qualify as economic abuse under
the Hindu Marriage Act.
(c) No, because verbal disagreements and criticisms between spOuses are common and not sufficient for
claims of mental cruelty.
(d) Yes, because Priya feels isolated, which alone is enough to claim mental cruelty under the Hindu
Marriage Act.

73. Simran and Arjun have been married for six years and have a shared house in Mumbai. Over the past
three years, Arjun has consistently refused to engage in any form of sexual relations with Simran.
Additionally, he has unilaterally sold a jointly-owned piece of land in their honmetown without consulting
her, using the proceeds for his personal investments. When Simran confronted him, Arjun dismissed her
concerns, stating that "financial matters are none of her business." Simran feels humiliated and isolated by
his behaviour, leading her to experience severe anxiety. She now contemplates filing for divorce on the
grounds of mental cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act. Will Simran likely succeed in establishing mental
cruelty?
(a) Yes, because the courts recognize that disagreements over finances can always amount to cruelty.
(b) No, because Simran must show that Arjun's unilateral financial decisions caused her significant
financial loss before she can claim mental cruelty.
(c) Yes, because sustained refusal of sexual relations and unilateral decisions affecting the marriage
without consent are recognized forms of mental cruelty under Indian matrimonial law.
(d) No, because mental cruelty must be accompanied by physical violence or explicit verbal abuse to be
legally actionable.

74. Anita filed for divorce from Sunil, citing cruelty as the ground under Section 13(1)(ia) of the Hindu
Marriage Act, as amended in 1976. She claims that Sunil's behaviour, which includes verbal abuse and
threats, has persisted since before their marriage and continued unchanged throughout their marriage.
Sunil argues that since the behaviour was known to Anita before marriage and she still consented to the
marriage, it cannot be considered as grounds for cruelty under the amended law. ls Sunil's argument
likely to succeed in court?
(a) Yes, because Anita was aware of Sunil's behaviour before marriage, and her acceptance implies
Consent to such behaviour, negating the claim of cruelty.
(b) No, because the amendment allows for any persistent and repeated instances of cruelty, regardless
of their onset, to be grounds for divorce.
(c) Yes, because behaviour that predates the marriage and continues unchanged cannot be considered
as grounds for divorce under the amended statute.
(d) No, because the persistence of the behaviour itself is not sufficient under the law unless it escalates
after the marriage.

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75. Mina has filed for divorce from Arjun on the grounds of physical cruelty, specifically citing multiple
instances where Arjun threatened her with physical harm. In one instance, during an argument, Arjun
raised a kitchen knife and threatened to harm Mina if she did not agree to his financial demands regarding
their joint business. Arjun contends that since he never actually carried out any physical harm and the
knife was not in immediate reach during their arguments, his actions should not constitute physical cruelty.
Is Arjun's defense likely to succeed in court?
(a) Yes, because physical cruelty requires actual physical harm to have occurred, and mere threats do
not meet this criterion.
(b) Yes, because the absence of physical injury in this case diminishes the severity of the threat made
with a weapon.
(c) No, because the threats were linked to specific demands, indicating a purpose beyond mere
intimidation or control.
(d) No, because threats of physical harm, especially involving weapons, are considered acts of physical
cruelty under the law.

76. Anita, married to Vikram for three years, has been relentlessly harassed by her in-laws. They repeatedly
demand additional dowry, using demeaning language and issuing threats of social ostracism if their
demands are not met. Their continuous verbal harassment has escalated to the point where Anita is
deeply depressed and has even contemplated suicide. Despite her repeated pleas for help, Vikram
remains indifferent, leaving Anita isolated in her distress. Consequently, she decides to file a criminal
complaint under the IPC. Will Anita's complaint likely succeed?
(a) No, because Section 498A only covers cases of physical violence and not verbal harassment or
dowry demands.
(b) Yes, because the protection under Section 498A of the IPC applies only when both the husband and
in-laws jointly participate in the cruelty and harassment for dowry.
(c) No, because unless there is evidence of actual suicide atempts, the harassment cannot be deemed
likely to drive a woman to suicide under Section 498A.
(d) Yes, because Section 498A of the IPC protects married women from cruelty by their husbands or in
laws, which includes harassment for dowry and behaviours likely to drive the woman to suicide.

77. Simran has filed for divorce from Raj, alleging both economic and sexual cruelty. She claims that Raj has
always controlled her access to financial resources and demanded sexual activities that she is
uncomfortable with, behaviours that began before their marriage and continued thereafter. Raj argues that
since Simran was aware of these behaviours before marrying him and did not object then, they cannot be
grounds for divorce under claims of cruelty.
Consider the following statements about this case:
1. Simran's awareness of Raj's behaviours before marriage automatically negates her claims of
economic and sexual cruelty.
2 Economic cruelty can only be claimed if there was a change in the financial dynamics after marriage.

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3 Sexual cruelty involves forcing a spouse into sexual acts against their will, regardless of the marriage
duration.
4. A spouse's behaviour prior to marriage is irrelevant when assessing cruelty if it persists after
marriage.
Which of the statements are false?
(a) 1 and 2 (b) 1
and 3

(c) 2 and 4 (d) 3 and 4

78. Meera and Kunal have been married for six years. Over the past year, Kunal has frequently insulted
Meera in front of their friends and family, calling her "incompetent" and "a burden." He also regularly
accuses her of being unfaithful without any basis. Though he has never physically harmed her, Meera has
become depressed and anxious due to the mental stress. She files a petition for divorce on the ground of
cruelty under the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955.
Kunal argues that since he never physically hurt Meera, it cannot amount to cruelty. VWho is correct?
(a) Meera, as even mental cruelty is a ground for divorce.
(b) Kunal, as cruelty always requires an act of physical violence to qualify as a ground for divorce.
(c) The court will grant judicial separation as cruelty is not a ground for divorce.
(d) Meera, as any person feeling depressed automatically amounts to cruelty.

XIV. Other Major Laws-IPR-Trademark: Trademarks are pivotal in conveying the origin and quality of goods,
distinguishing them in the business landscape. Under the Trademarks Act of 1999, protection extends not
only to registered marks but also to unregistered ones through passing off actions, ensuring businesses
can safeguard their reputation against deceptive practices.
Passing off, based on common law, addresses the misrepresentation that causes confusion between
goods or businesses, potentially harming the plaintiff's goodwill. It isn't defined explicitly in the Trademarks
Act, 1999 but is acknowledged under sections 27(2), 134(1)(c), and 135. Notably, passing off can apply to
goods, services, and even non-trading activities, with the focus on preventing confusion and protecting the
distinctive elements used in trade.
The criteria for a passing off action include the nature and similarity of the marks, the goods' nature, the
resemblance of goods, customer classes, purchasing methods, and any other relevant circumstances.
Defendants in such cases can argue against claims by demonstrating their use of the mark is not
deceptive or confusing, among other defenses like prior use or the mark being used in good faith to
describe their goods.
Conversely, infringement actions under the Trademarks Act specifically protect registered trademarks.
Section 27(1) stipulates that owners of registered marks can sue for infringement if another party uses a
similar or identical mark deceitfully. The essence of infringement is the likelihood of confusion created by
unauthorized use, which can be directly actionable without proving the mark's reputation.
Despite their differences, both legal frameworks aim to protect traders and consumers from confusion and
deception in the marketplace. While passing off relies on the goodwill associated with a mark,
infringement focuses on the exclusive rights granted by registration. Procedurally, infringement claims
require demonstrating that the defendant's use of a mark is likely to cause confusion, with no need for
evidence if the marks are nearly identical.

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Combining both actions, plaintiffs with a registered trademark can pursue infringement claims alongside
passing off actions, leveraging comprehensive legal protection to guard against unauthorized and
misleading use of their marks. This dual approach ensures robust safeguarding of intellectual property in
commercial settings, reinforcing fair trade practices and consumer trust.
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from https:/IMawbhoomi.com/linfringement-and-passing-off-of
trademarks-under-trademarks-act-meaning-and-difference/

79. Rajeev owns a small yet popular coffee shop in Bangalore named "Brew Crew," which has garnered a
loyal customer base due to its unique blend of locally sourced coffee beans. Seeing the success of "Brew
Crew," another entrepreneur, Anand, decides to open a café nearby under the name "Brew Krew,"
offering similar coffee products. Anand's café logo and branding closely resemble those of Rajeev's shop.
Rajeev, worried about his customers getting confused between the two coffee shops, considers taking
legal action to protect his business interests and the goodwill associated with "Brew Crew." Although
Rajeev never registered "Brew Crew" as a trademark, he wonders if he can still challenge Anand's use of
a similar name and branding under the Trademarks Act of 1999. Can Rajeev successfully challenge
Anand's use of the name and branding under the passing off action?
(a) Yes, Rajiv can successfully sue Anand's use of the similar branding conditional upon getting his
trademark registered under the Trademarks Act, 1999.
(b) No, because the logos are only visually similar, and passing off actions require identical marks.
(c) Yes, because the unregistered trademark "Brew Crew'" can be protected under the Trademarks Act
through passing off actions, as it likely causes confusion among customers.
(d) No, because passing off actions are only applicable to registered trademarks under the Trademarks
Act of 1999.

80. Ritu has built a reputable organic skincare brand, "PureAura," over the past eight years, establishing a
distinctive script and a unique leaf emblem that resonates with her health-conscious clientele. Recently,
Sameer launched a new range of herbal supplements under the name "PureAura Naturals." His
packaging features a similar leaf motif and a comparable script, though with minor alterations. As a result,
several consumers mistakenly associate Sameer's herbal supplements with Ritu's skincare products.
Facing a potential passing off claim, Sameer argues that his use of the mark is not intended to deceive
because it is used in good faith as a description of the natural ingredients in his products, and he had
already been using the name for two years prior to any legal action. Does Sameer have a valid defence?
(a) No, because the similarity in marks and customer confusion alone establishes passing off irrespective
of Sameer's defences.
(b) Yes, because Sameer's defence of using the mark in good faith to describe his goods, supported by
his prior use, may negate the infringement.
(c) No, because prior use is not a valid defence in passing off actions if consumer confusion exists.
(d) Yes, because the products-skincare and herbal supplements-are unrelated, thus any similarity in
marks is immaterial in the context of deception.

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81. Arjun, a well-known environmental activist, has been running a non-profit organization named "Green
Future Foundation" (GFF) for over a decade. GFF conducts nationwide tree plantation drives, eco
awareness campaigns, and partners with schools to promote sustainable practices. Over the years, GFF
has built a strong reputation, and its green leaf logo has become widely associated with environmental
activism in India. Recently, a corporate entity, "Green Future Enterprises" (GFE), launched a paid
consultancy service advising businesses on eco-friendly manufacturing processes. GFE uses a similar
green leaf logo and branding that resembles GFF's well-known identity. Many people started associating
GFE's services with GFF, assuming it to be an initiative of the non-profit. Concerned about this confusion
and potential damage to its goodwill, GFF decides to take legal action against GFE for passing off,
arguing that the corporate entity is unfairly benefiting from GFF's established reputation.
Can GFF succeed in its claim of passing off against GFE?
(a) No, because passing off applies only to commercial businesses selling goods, not non-profit
organizations engaged in social activities.
(b) No, because GFF is not engaged in trade, and passing off does not apply to non-trading activities
under the Trademarks Act, 1999.
(c) Yes, because passing off can apply to goods, services, and even non-trading activities, and GFE's
actions are likely to cause confusion and harm GFF's goodwill.
(d) No, because GFE is providing a different service and is not directly competing with GFF, which means
there is no likelihood of confusion.

82. Rajesh is the owner of a renowned electronics brand with the registered trademark "TechGuru" that
covers a wide range of consumer electronics including smartphones, laptops, and accessories. His brand
is synonymous with quality and innovation. Recently, Suresh, an up-and-coming entrepreneur, launched
his own electronics venture using the mark "TechGuru Pro". Suresh's branding features a logo and color
scheme that are strikingly similar to Rajesh's established identity, and his promotional materials have led
many consumers to mistakenly believe that "Tech Guru Pro" is an extension or an authorized variant of
Rajesh's brand. Rajesh contends that Suresh's use of a similar mark is deceitful and constitutes
trademark infringement under Section 27(1) of the Trademarks Act, 1999.
Which of the following best supports Rajesh's claim for infringement?
(a) Rajesh can sue for infringement under Section 27(1), owners of registered marks can take legal
action if another party uses a similar or identical mark deceitfully.
(b) Rajesh cannot sue for infringement because the addition of the word "Pro" makes Suresh's mark
sufficiently distinct from the registered trademark "TechGuru".
(c) Rajesh cannot sue for infringement because Section 27(1) only protects identical marks and not those
that are merely similar.
(d) Rajesh can sue for infringement because any use ofa similar mark by a competitor, regardless of the
intention, constitutes infringement under Section 27(1).

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83. Vikram has been running a highly successful clothing line, "ZenWear," specializing in organic yoga attire
and wellness merchandise, for over five years. His distinct circular logo with stylized lotus petals has
become easily recognizable among yoga enthusiasts and health-conscious shoppers. Recently, Ananya,
a new entrepreneur, launched her brand named "ZenWeave," selling similar organic yoga clothing.
Despite minor alterations, her logo also features a circular shape with stylized petals, strikingly similar to
Vikram's ZenWear symbol.
Customers, especially those shopping online, have begun questioning if ZenWeave is an extension or
subsidiary of ZenWear because of the nearly identical naming and logo design. Concerned about the
confusion, Vikram contemplates bringing a passing off action against Ananya, contending that her
branding closely mimics ZenWear's established identity and misleads potential buyers.
WillVikram
succeed in his passing off claim?
(a) No, because the names ZenWear and ZenWeave differ slightly, making them visually distinct, which
rules out any possibility of confusion.
(b) No, because passing off only considers the similarity in marks and ignores the nature of goods or the
target customers.
(c) Yes, because the overall similarity of marks, the nearly identical nature of the goods, and overlapping
customer classes create a high likelihood of confusion. www.lawpreptutorial.com
(d) Yes, because using any word that starts with Zen' automatically results in a successful passing off
claim, irrespective of the goods involved.

84. Rajesh owns "Herbal Bliss," a registered trademark for his Iine of organic skincare products. Priya
operates "Herbal Bliss Café," a local coffee shop specializing in herbal teas and organic snacks. Rajesh
believes that Priya's use of "Herbal Bliss" infringes on his trademark and files a lawsuit.
Does Priya's use of "Herbal Bliss" for her café constitute trademark infringement against Rajesh's skincare
products?
(a) Yes, because the marks are identical, leading to inevitable consumer confusion.
(b) Yes, because both businesses emphasize organic products, increasing the likeliho0d of confusion.
(c) No, because Priya operates in a different geographic region, eliminating any potential confusion.
(d) No, because the goods and services are unrelated, reducing the likelihood of consumer confusion.

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Logical Reasoning

XV. A persistentissue in the Supreme Court hearings is the compensation of construction workers whose
wage was affected due to the implementation of the Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP). The GRAP
measures restricted construction activities in the region to curb pollution. In the hearing, the Court was
examining how registered workers should be compensated if their bank accounts were not linked to their

aunaON telegram® clatedge360(click here)

Justice Oka directed the Delhigovernment to clarify its stance. He stated that there should be someone to
verify whether the labourers "were actively working on some site" during the time GRAP IV was
implemented in the region. He questioned how verified workers can be denied amounts payable on the
ground that their accounts are not linked with Aadhaar. This was concerning as it could exclude legitimate
claimants. The Court also instructed the Centre for Holistic Development to submit a list of affected
workers and sought an affidavit from the Delhi government within a week.
On 28 February 2025, the Court took cognisance of the payment of compensation to construction workers
across all NCR States during the enforcement of GRAP IV. Haryana, Uttar Pradesh and Rajasthan had
informed the Court that they had identified and compensated all eligible workers. However, the Delhi
government highlighted issues related to worker verification. In response, the Court directed Delhi to
complete the verification process and compensate the remaining workers accordingly. The state
government had to then submit an affidavit confirming compliance. Additionally, the Court mandated that
the Delhigovernment must compensate Such workers whenever GRAP IV is imposed in the region.
Source: Extracted and Edited from: https:/www.scobserver. injournal/delhi-pollution-crisis-sc-clamps
down-on-regulatory-delays-in-power-plants-and-waste-management/

85. What is the central issue discussed in the passage?

(a) Steps taken by the Supreme Court to curb pollution in NCR states.
(b) Difficulties faced by workers due to Aadhaar linkage requirements.
(c) Compensation for construction workers affected by GRAP measures.
(d) Verification issues in identifying legitimate construction workers.

86. Which of the following, if true, would best strengthen Justice Oka's stance about not denying payment to
workers whose accounts are not linked to Aadhaar?
(a) A large percentage of affected workers do not have access to bank accounts.
(b) Most states already compensate workers without requiring Aadhaar linkage.
(c) Verified bank accounts linked to Aadhaar have been used for fraud in other states.
(d) The government has previously compensated workers using alternate forms of verification.

87. From the passage, what can be inferred about the Delhi government's approach to compensating
workers?
(a) It is stricter than other NCR states in terms of verification.
(b) It has been more efficient than other states in compensating workers.
(c) It does not plan to compensate workers affected by GRAP IV.
(d) It prioritizes pollution control over worker compensation.

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88. Which statement is the Court most likely to agree with?

(a) Aadhaar linkage should be mandatory for worker payments.
(b) Construction workers' compensation should be verified by a third party.
(c) Legitimate workers should not be excluded from compensation due to Aadhaar-related issues.
(d) Delhi government's delay in verification is justifiable given the circumstances.

89. What was the direct result of the Delhi government raising issues about worker verification during the
hearing?
(a) The Court dismissed the case for lack of evidence.
(b) The Court directed that the verification process be expedited and compensation paid.
(c) Haryana, Uttar Pradesh, and Rajasthan delayed their compensation processes.
(d) Justice Oka ruled out Aadhaar as a basis for compensation.

90. What underlying assumption does Justice Oka's argument about Aadhaar linkage rely on?
(a) Allaffected workers have access to Aadhaar-linked bank accounts.
(b) Worker activity during GRAP IV can be verified without Aadhaar linkage.
(c) Aadhaar linkage is an essential step for ensuring compensation legitimacy.
(d) Verified workers can only be compensated if their Aadhaar is linked to their acCounts.

XVI. Western philosophy has long had a habit of drawing a tight circle around itself, declaring that true
philosophy happens only within its borders. For centuries, some of its most influential thinkers have
dismissed the idea that deep, rigorous thought could flourish outside the West. Immanuel Kant, speaking
from his desk in Königsberg, didn't mince words: "Philosophy is not to be found in the whole Orient." Two
centuries later, Martin Heidegger doubled down, as if time had done nothing to widen the circle. He
argued that calling it Western-European philosophy was redundant-after all, he claimed, "philosophy is
Greek in its nature." Even in 2001, long after global intellectual exchange had become the norm, Jacques
Derrida left his Chinese hosts stunned when he declared that "Philosophy is something of European form"
and that "China does not have any philosophy, only thought."
These bold declarations might seem, at first glance, extreme or outdated relics of another era. But take a
closer look at the standard Bachelor's degree in Philosophy, and you'll hear their echo loud and clear. The
curriculum offers a highly selective menu: a grand tour through Ancient Greek, Medieval, Modern, and
Contemporary European thought-seasoned generously with Kant, spiced with Descartes, and served
with a side of Wittgenstein. Want to venture beyond Europe? Unless you're at one of the rare
experimental universities, you'll need to stray from the philosophy department altogether and enroll in a
specialized Asian Studies program just to glimpse the intellectual traditions of half the world.
That doesn't mean cross-cultural philosophy is entirely missing. Books and articles on Asian traditions
exist, but they tend to be written by specialists-philosophers determined to bridge worlds that academia
prefers to keep apart. And history isn't completely one-sided. Arthur Schopenhauer, the 19th-century
German philosopher, stands out as an outlier. He didn't just dabble in Eastern thought-he devoured it,
ranking the Buddha and the Upanishads right alongside Plato and Kant as humanity's greatest intellectual
achievements. One can imagine the raised eyebrows of his European peers.
Source: htps://bigthink.com/thinking/lis-philosophy-oo-western-for-its-own-good/

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91. What does the author primarily criticize about Western philosophy?
(a) Its inability to develop rigorous thought compared to Eastern traditions.
(b) Its tendency to dismiss non-European intellectual traditions.
(c) Its failure to produce philosophers like Schopenhauer in modern times.
(d) Its preference for Kant, Descartes, and Wittgenstein over Greek philosophers.

92. Which statement, if true, would weaken Heidegger's claim that "philosophy is Greek in its nature"?
(a) Ancient Greek philosophers borrowed heavily from Egyptian and Persian thought.
(b) Chinese intellectual traditions included rigorous analyses of metaphysics and ethics.
(c) Greek philosophy focused on abstract reasoning rather than practical applications.
(d) European philosophy after the Renaissance rejected Greek foundational ideas.

93. What can be inferred about Schopenhauer's view of philosophy compared to his peers'?
(a) He dismissed European philosophy in favor of Eastern traditions.
(b) He valued Eastern and Western philosophical traditions equally.
(c) He believed the Upanishads were superior to Greek philosophy.
(d) He considered Eastern thought irelevant to the evolution of philosophy.

94. The author mentions universityy curricula in philosophy to suggest that:

(a) Cross-cultural philosophy is thriving in modern academic institutions.
(b) Asian philosophical thought is excluded from mainstream philosophy programs.
(c) Ancient Greek philosophy no longer holds a central position in academia.
(d) Specialized Asian Studies programs fail to emphasize philosophical rigor.

95. What is the likely purpose of contrasting Schopenhauer with other European philosophers?
(a) To demonstrate that European philosophy always valued cross-cltural exchange.
(b) To show that the dismissal of non-European thought has exceptions.
(c) To argue that Eastern philosophy influenced all prominent European thinkers.
(d) To suggest that Schopenhauer misunderstood the nature of true philosophy.

96. What would be the most appropriate title for this passage?
(a) "The Supremacy of Western Philosophy: A Persistent Tradition"
(b) "Philosophy's Global Divide: Exclusion of Eastern Thought"
(c) "Schopenhauer: The Bridge Between East and West"
(d) "The Evolution of Philosophy Beyond Ancient Greece"

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XVII. Passage: Very few of us expected liberalism to have such rocky 21st century. At the turn of the 20th,
liberal ideology and liberal democratic political institutions seemed more legitimate and secure than ever
before. Liberals had defeated their great geopolitical rivals on the fascist Right and the communist Left.
How things change.
Over the past few decades, discontent and disdain for liberalism have spread across huge swathes of the
globe, led by a resurgent Right-wing populism that denounced its materialism, universalism and libertine
decadence. Wannabe strongmen declared they were constructing new kinds of illiberal democracy' - a
half truth, since the regimes would be illiberal, but not particularly democratic. Theories about what had
gone wrong multiplied. Liberalism was too atomistic, too alienating, too antidemocratic, too democratic for
its own good, too beholden to the ignorant masses, too elitist, even too boring and politically correct for its
OWn good.
What was often lost in the discourse around iberalism in the 21st century was whether it could
simultaneously be worth saving while also having deserved the ignominy into which it was falling. From
the 1970s onwards, many liberal politicians and theorists had backed away from the more progressive
and transformative propensities of the tradition. The era of big liberal dreams about establishing a 'great'
or just' society was over.
Internalising a host of conservative arguments, liberals argued that big dreams were dangerous and
contrary to liberalism, its revolutionary past aside. The best one could hope for was a competitive and
highly inequitable neoliberal society defined by ordered liberty and at most a minimal welfare state. That
such a consciously deflated vision became associated with technocratic aloofness, a lack of principled
conviction and a wariness of democratic accountability came as a surprise only to neoliberals. If liberals
couldn't rediscover how to not just fearmonger, but inspire, they were unlikely to see their doctrine survive
much longer and, 'anyway, survival is not good enough.'
Source: Extracted with edits and revisions from: https://aeon.co/essays/the-case-for-liberal-socialism-in
the-21st-century

97. Which of the following best represents the main argument of the passage?
(a) Liberalism has lost appeal due to its limitations.
(b) Liberalism is declining because it lacks inspiring political ideals.
(c) Liberalism is struggling because of opposition from authoritarian regimes.
(d) Right-wing populism is the main reason for liberalism's failure.

98 Which of the following statements is necessarily false based on the passage?

(a) The liberal vision has consistently remained ambitious and transformative.
(b) Liberalism is struggling because it has been too resistant to change.
(c) Right-wing populism has capitalized on liberalism's weaknesses.
(d) Fear-based narratives have not helped liberalism maintain its influence.

99. Which of the following statements would the author most likely disagree with?
(a) Neoliberal policies have made liberalism seem disconnected and elitist.
(b) Liberalism's decline is solely due to opposition from external forces.
(c) Liberalism's success in the 20th century led to complacency in the 21st century.
(d) To regain relevance, liberalism needs a more inspiring and visionary approach.

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100. Which of the following is most likely to be an outcome based on the author's description of liberalism's
trajectory in the 21st century?
(a) Right-wing populism will collapse as liberalism reasserts itself.
(b) Liberalism will become more conservative to align with public sentiment.
(c) lliberal democracies will eventually transition into authoritarian regimes.
(d) Liberalism continue to exist but with diminished influence.
wil

101. Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the author's argument about liberalism's decline?
(a) Recent political movements have accepted liberal ideals to promote social progress.
(b) The public's dissatisfaction with liberalism is due to economic issues, not ideological failings.
(c) Governments across the world continue to uphold liberal democratic principles
(d) Political surveys show that younger generations are increasingly rejecting illiberal values.

102. WVhat does the author suggest is necessary for liberalism to survive in the 21st century?
(a) Avoiding democratic accountability and embracing technocracy
(b) Rediscovering its ability to inspire rather than relying on fearmongering
(c) Expanding the welfare state to counter neoliberalism
(d) Embracing conservative ideals to adapt to modern politics

XVIII. Directions for Q103 - 108: Study the following information carefully to answer the given questions.
AB, C, D, E F, G and Hare sitting around a circular table at equal distances between each other, but not
necessarily in the same order. Some of the people are facing the centre while some face outside.
D sits third to the right of B. E sits second to the left of B. Immediate neighbours of B face the same
direction (i.e., if one neighbour faces the centre the other neighbour also faces the centre and vice-versa).
C
sits second to the left of E. E faces the centre.F sits third to the right ofC. G sits second to the left of H.
H is not an immediate neighbour of B. G faces the same direction as D. Immediate neighbours of E face

opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces the centre the other neighbour faces outside and vice
versa). Immediate neighbours of F face opposite directions (i.e., if one neighbour faces the centre the
other neighbour face outside and vice-versa).

103. How many people are sitting between G and C when counted in clockwise direction from G?
(a) Two (b) Three
(c) One (d) Four

104. Which of the following is TRUE regarding E as per the given seating arrangement?
(a) H sits second to the left of E
(b) G faces inside
(c) Only two people sit between E and F when counted in clockwise direction from E
(d) C is one of the immediate neighbors of E

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105. Three of the following four are alike in a certain way based on the given seating arrangement and so form
a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
(a) B (b) E
(c) F (d) C

106. How many people are facing the centre?

(a) 2 (b) 3
(c) 4 (d) 5

107. What is G's position with respect to F?

(a) Third to the left (b) Immediate right
(c) Third to the right (d) Second to the left

108. Who are the immediate neighbours ofE?

(a) A and C (b) Hand G
(c) B
and A (d) F and C

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Quantitative Techniques

XIX. A local shopkeeper deals in four distinct products A, B, C, andD– each having its own pricing and
discount structure.
Starting with product B, it is sold for Rs. 1020 with a profit margin of 6.25%. Its cost price therefore can be
inferred from this margin. Interestingly, the cost price of product A is Rs. 320 less than that of product B.
Across all four products, the average cost price is maintained at Rs. 720, suggesting varying cost values
that balance each other. Focusing on marked prices, the average marked price of products B and C is Rs.

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When it comes todiscounts, the shopkeeper applies a single discount of 15% on product B, while product
C is sold with twO Successive discounts -
first 10%, followed by 20%. For product D, a single discount of
25% is offered, yet the shopkeeper manages to earn a 50% profit on it, revealing a substantial mark-up on
its cost price. www.lawpreptutorial.com
For product A, the shopkeeper marks up its cost price by 12.5% and offers a single discount of 5.55%,
revealing a relatively conservative pricing approach compared to others.
Lastly, the average discount given across products B, C, and D comes to Rs. 220, highlightingthe overall
discount strategy adopted by the shopkeeper on higher-valued items.

109. What is the average selling price of each of the four products?
(a) Rs. 752 (b) Rs. 753
(c) Rs. 754 (d) Rs. 755

110. What is the average marked price of each of

the four products?
a) Rs. 910 (b) Rs. 920
(c) Rs. 930 (d) Rs. 940

111. What is the ratio of marked price of product A and cost price of product C respectively?
(a) 7:11 (b) 8:11
(c) 9:11 (d) 10: 11

112. What is the average profit earned by the shopkeeper on selling products A, B, and D?
(a) Rs. 100 (b) Rs. 200
(c) Rs. 300 (d) Rs. 400

113. Loss occurred by the shopkeeper on selling product C is how much percent less/more than the discount
allowed on product A?
(a) 200% (b) 300%
(c) 400% (d) 500%

114. What is the ratio of the selling price of product C

to the marked Price of product D?
(a) 9:10 (b) 15:12
(c) 7:9 (d) 36:50

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XX. Three biryani vendors P, Q, and R operate independently, selling three varieties of biryani:
vegetarian, chicken, and egg. The sales data reveals an interesting distribution of preferences and
quantities.
Starting with P, the number of vegetarian biryanis sold by this vendor is 25% more than the number of egg
biryanis sold by R. Additionally, P sold exactly 520 chicken biryanis, a figure that is 280 less than the
number of egg biryanis sold by Q.
For Q, the number of chicken biryanis sold maintains a ratio of 4:3 compared to the number of vegetarian
biryanis sold by P. Further, Q's vegetarian biryani sales exceed P's egg biryani sales by 240 units.
Collectively, Q and R together sold 2000 chicken biryanis. Meanwhile, R alone recorded total sales of
1920 biryanis across all three types.
The conmbined total of vegetarian biryanis sold by P, Q, and R amounts to 2112, while the total number of
egg biryanis sold by all three vendors is 2048.

115. Find the ratio of the number of egg biryani sold by 'P' to the number of veg biryani sold by 'R.
(a) 7:5 (b) 8:3
(c) 10:9 (d) 15:4

116. The number of chicken biryani sold by 'R is how much percent more/less than the number of veg biryani
sold by 'P?
(a) 20% (b) 25%
(c) 30% (d) 10%

117. Find the difference between the total number of three types of biryani sold by 'p and that of 'R.
(a) 10 (b) 40
(c) 25 (d) 15

118. Find the average number of chicken biryani sold by all three persons.
(a) 960 (b) 840
(c) 760 (d) 1120

119. The number of egg biryani sold by 'P is of only two types (steamed and fried), and are in the ratio 7:8,
respectively. Find the sum of the number of fried egg biryani sold by 'P' and the number of veg biryanisold
by 'Q.
(a) 688 (b) 1024
(c) 184 (d) 976

120. What was the ratio between the total number of chicken biryani sold by shopkeeper Q to the total number
of egg biryani sold by P&Q together?
(a) 7:6 (b) 1:2
(c) 1:1 (d) 3:2

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