Assignment 2 Networks Memo
Assignment 2 Networks Memo
a.
Bandwidth is the theoretical potential for data to transmit during a given period
of time.
b.
Throughput refers to the number of data bits (0s and 1s) that are actually
received across a connection each second.
c.
Bandwidth is also referred to as payload rate or effective data rate.
d.
Throughput and bandwidth are measured in Mbps (megabits per second) or
Gbps (gigabits per second)
Feedback
The correct answers are: Bandwidth is the theoretical potential for data to
transmit during a given period of time., Throughput refers to the number of data
bits (0s and 1s) that are actually received across a connection each second.,
Throughput and bandwidth are measured in Mbps (megabits per second) or
Gbps (gigabits per second)
Question 2
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2. Which one of the following statements describes a transmission flaw that is
occurring due to attenuation?
a.
A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to large distance from the
transmitting device.
b.
A network switch interface is dropping due to a powerful radio transmitter in the
adjacent room.
c.
A customer's video conferencing application is experiencing delay in audio and
video that comes and goes.
d.
Two network interfaces are experiencing problems at the same time due to the
cables having adjacent runs.
Feedback
The correct answer is: A customer modem is continuously losing signal due to
large distance from the transmitting device.
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3. Which statements regarding simplex, half-duplex and duplex transmission are
FALSE (More than one statement applies)?
a.
When signals are free to travel in both directions over a medium simultaneously,
the transmission is considered duplex.
b.
A football coach calling out orders to his team through a megaphone is using
half-duplex communication.
c.
An apartment's intercom system that requires you to press a "talk" button to
allow your voice to be transmitted over the wire uses duplex communication.
d.
Modern NICs (Network Interface Cards) use half-duplex by default.
Feedback
The correct answers are: A football coach calling out orders to his team through
a megaphone is using half-duplex communication., An apartment's intercom
system that requires you to press a "talk" button to allow your voice to be
transmitted over the wire uses duplex communication., Modern NICs (Network
Interface Cards) use half-duplex by default.
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4. Netcom Solutions is an Internet Service Provider that has purchased a
wholesale bandwidth from network service provider GT&P. Netcom Solutions has
been using duplex technologies running through copper wires for its distribution.
It now wants to upgrade to multiplexing technologies using fiber-optic cables so
that it can allow multiple signals to travel simultaneously. Which one of the
following types of multiplexing technologies Netcom should choose in this
situation for its connection with GT&P so that it can operate with more
channels?
a.
WDM (Wavelength Division Multiplexing)
b.
FDM (Frequency Division Multiplexing)
c.
TDM (Time Division Multiplexing)
d.
DWDM (Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing)
Feedback
The correct answer is: DWDM (Dense Wavelength Division Multiplexing)
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5. Which one of the following statements regarding twisted pair cable is FALSE?
a.
CAT 5 (Category 5) – A twisted-pair cabling standard with a maximum supported
bandwidth of 100 Mbps and a maximum rated frequency of 100 MHZ.
b.
The following diagram depicts a STP (Shielded Twisted Pair) cable.
c.
STP and UTP (Unshielded Twisted Pair) can both transmit data at 10 Mbps, 100
Mbps, 1 Gbps, and 10 Gbps, depending on the grade of cabling and the
transmission method in use.
d.
UTP is more noise resistant than STP.
Feedback
The correct answer is: UTP is more noise resistant than STP.
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6. When viewing the pinout for T568B, what is the correct order of wire colours,
starting at pin 1?
a.
white/green; green; white/orange; blue; white/blue; orange; white/brown; brown
b.
blue; white/blue; green; white/green; orange; white/orange; brown; white/brown
c.
white/orange; orange; white/green; blue; white/blue; green; white/brown; brown
d.
white/brown; brown; white/green; blue; white/blue; green; orange; white/orange
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The correct answer is: white/orange; orange; white/green; blue; white/blue;
green; white/brown; brown
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7. You have successfully followed the cabling procedures for a new network
connection at a primary school. The only task left is to connect the
administrative computer to the console port of the router. Which one of the
following cables will you choose to connect the console port of the router to the
computer?
a.
Rollover cable
b.
Straight-through cable
c.
Crossover cable
d.
Fiber-optic cable
Feedback
The correct answer is: Rollover cable
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8. Which one of the following statements regarding the PoE (Power over
Ethernet) standard is INCORRECT?
a.
The amount of power provided is 15.4 watts for standard PoE devices.
b.
PoE requires CAT6 or better copper cable.
c.
Electric current may run over a pair of wires used for data transmission.
d.
A device that supplies power for PoE is known as PSE (Power Sourcing
Equipment).
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The correct answer is: PoE requires CAT6 or better copper cable.
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9. You have been tasked to set up a 10GBASE-T standard Fast Ethernet for JJ
Mills Corporation. While doing so, you have managed to follow all the specified
standards, and the only thing left to do is to purchase and plug the twisted-cable
pairs. Which one of the following pairs of twisted cables will you use in this
scenario?
a.
Cat 5e
b.
Cat 5
c.
Cat 6
d.
Cat 7
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The correct answer is: Cat 7
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10. You are working as a network engineer for an ISP (Internet Service Provider).
A ticket has been raised that states that the SMF (Single Mode Fiber) and the
MMF (Multimode Fiber) cables have come apart at the FDP (fiber distribution
panel). On checking the situation, you realize that you will need to melt the tips
of the two fibers together so that light can pass cleanly through the joint. Which
one of the following kits will you require in this scenario?
a.
Fiber stripper
b.
Fiber cleaver
c.
Fusion splicer
d.
Ferrule
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The correct answer is: Fusion splicer
Question 11
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11. Which statements regarding fiber-optic cabling are INCORRECT (More than
one statement applies)?
a.
Fiber-optic cabling has a low resistance to signal noise.
b.
1000Base-LX and 1000Base-SX are 10-Gigabit Ethernet standards for fiber-optic
cable.
c.
Fiber-optic cable is cheaper than copper cabling.
d.
Older fiber networks might use ST (Straight Tip) or SC (Standard Connector)
connectors.
Feedback
The correct answers are: Fiber-optic cabling has a low resistance to signal
noise., Fiber-optic cable is cheaper than copper cabling.
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12. Jack is a new trainee at LM&J who has been sent to a client location to patch
up cables connecting the switch to the data center. While doing so, Jack is
unable to decide which connector to consider while connecting the ferrules of an
SMF (Single Mode Fiber) cable that measures 1.25 mm. Which one of the
following connectors should Josh opt for under the circumstances so that there
are minimum back reflections?
a.
LC (Local Connector)
b.
SC (Subscriber Connector)
c.
ST (Straight Tip)
d.
MT-RJ (Mechanical Transfer-Registered Jack)
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The correct answer is: LC (Local Connector)
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13. Monica, a network engineer at J&K Infotech Solutions, has been contracted
by a small firm to set up a network connection. The requirement of the network
backbone for the connection is of a couple of switches needing fiber-optic
connections that might be upgraded later. Which one of the following
transceivers should Monica use when the maximum transmission speed is of 8
Gbps?
a.
SFP (Small Form-Factor Pluggable)
b.
XFP (10 Gigabit Small Form-Factor Pluggable)
c.
SFP+-
d.
QSFP (Quad Small Form-Factor Pluggable)
Feedback
The correct answer is: XFP (10 Gigabit Small Form-Factor Pluggable)
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14. Mr. Anderson had to set up an Ethernet network segment that can transmit
data at a bandwidth of 1000 Mbps and cover a distance of 2000 m per segment.
The available fiber-optic cable in the market was an SMF (Single Mode Fiber)
cable. Which one of the following fiber Ethernet standards should he follow
under such circumstances?
a.
100BASE-SX
b.
100BASE-FX
c.
1000BASE-SX
d.
1000BASE-LX
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The correct answer is: 1000BASE-LX
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15. What type of fiber cable problem is caused when pairing a 50-micron core
cable with a 62.5 micron core cable?
a.
Fiber type mismatch
b.
Dirty connectors
c.
Wavelength mismatch
d.
TX/RX reverse
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The correct answer is: Fiber type mismatch
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16. Identify the cable troubleshooting tool in the table below.
a.
(i) tone generator; (ii) multimeter; (iii) (OPM) Optical Power Meter
b.
(i) tone locator; (ii) cable tester; (iii) light meter
c.
(i) probe; (ii) cable checker; (iii) TDR (Time Domain Reflectometer)
d.
(i) toner; (ii) continuity tester; (iii) OTDR (Optical Time Domain Reflectometer)
Feedback
The correct answer is: (i) tone generator; (ii) multimeter; (iii) (OPM) Optical
Power Meter
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17. A user swipes her smartphone across a tag on a poster to obtain show times
for a movie she wants to see later that evening. Which wireless technology
transmitted the data?
a.
NFC (Near-Field Communication)
b.
Bluetooth
c.
Z-Wave
d.
ANT+
Feedback
The correct answer is: NFC (Near-Field Communication)
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18. Z-Wave transmissions offer a range of up to 50m per hop and can tolerate
up to 8 hops through repeaters.
a.
True
b.
False
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The correct answer is: False
Question 19
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19. DreamSparks Ltd., who is your client, has raised a ticket complaining of loss
in signal strength since the new upgrade. Earlier, the connection was
established using wired transmission, which has now been upgraded to a
wireless connection. Which one of the following will you use to amplify the
power of the transmission in this scenario so that the issue can be resolved?
a.
Wireless range extender
b.
Signal propagation
c.
FHSS (Frequency Hopping Spread Spectrum)
d.
RSSI (Received Signal Strength Indicator)
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The correct answer is: Wireless range extender
Question 20
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20. Warner is employed as a network engineer and part of his job requires him
to measure the RSSI (Received Signal Strength Indicator) on the receiver's end.
Warner is required to measure the RSSI and fill out a form indicating whether
the signal is acceptable or not. During one such visit, the client's device's RSSI
level reads -80 dBM. What should Warner report in such a scenario?
a.
Mark the rating as excellent
b.
Mark the rating as good
c.
Mark the rating as acceptable
d.
Mark the rating as not good
Feedback
The correct answer is: Mark the rating as not good
Question 21
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21. How does refraction affect the propagation of a wireless transmission?
a.
The wave's direction, speed, and wavelength are altered.
b.
It splits the signal into secondary waves that continue in the direction in which
they split.
c.
It causes the signal to be returned towards the source of the origin.
d.
It causes the signal to be absorbed by the refracting material.
Feedback
The correct answer is: The wave's direction, speed, and wavelength are altered.
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22. Which statements regarding the 802.11 wireless standards are FALSE
(Select all the correct options)?
a.
802.11a is the most preferred 802.11 standard.
b.
802.11b separates the 3.4-GHz band into 26 MHz channels.
c.
802.11n boasts a maximum throughput of 600 Mbps, making it a realistic
platform for telephone and video signals.
Feedback
The correct answers are: 802.11a is the most preferred 802.11 standard.,
802.11b separates the 3.4-GHz band into 26 MHz channels.
Question 23
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23. The Habitat Centre is one of the most well-known places for holding
conferences. It has contracted you to fix its network issue-connections to
various Wi-Fi clients are dropping during meetings. After inspecting, you realize
that the wireless standard needs to be upgraded to a faster standard using the
BSS (basic service set) coloring technique to provide more network clients with
higher speeds at the same time. Which one of the following standards will you
use in this situation?
a.
802.11g
b.
802.11a
c.
802.11n
d.
802.11ax
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The correct answer is: 802.11ax
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24. Wheys Solutions has contracted you to subdivide an 802.11ax 20-MHz
channel into smaller frequency allocations so that the access points can transfer
multiple small frames to multiple clients at one time using parts of the channel.
Which one of the following innovations of the 802.11 standard is ideal for this
scenario?
a.
Channel bonding
b.
MIMO (Multiple Input-Multiple Output)
c.
OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access)
d.
MU-MIMO (Multiuser MIMO)
Feedback
The correct answer is: OFDMA (Orthogonal Frequency Division Multiple Access)
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25. JW Communications has hired you to install a Wi-Fi network on its floor. To
provide a seamless network connection, you have decided to install a
centralized wireless controller to manage AP (Access Point) redundancy by
directing wireless traffic to alternate APs when an AP fails. Which one of the
following protocols will you apply to direct all the wireless frames to the
controller?
a.
ICMP (Internet Control Message Protocol)
b.
LWAPP (Lightweight Access Point Protocol)
c.
POP3 (Internet Control Message Protocol)
d.
EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
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The correct answer is: LWAPP (Lightweight Access Point Protocol)
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26. What happens when one of the following scenarios occur:
a.
association
b.
reassociation
c.
passive scanning
d.
active scanning
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The correct answer is: reassociation
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27. How does the 802.11 data frame indicate how a large packet should be
fragmented?
a.
It uses the preamble header to estimate the ideal packet size.
b.
The frame check sequence dictates the calculated packet size.
c.
The sequence control field indicates how a large packet is fragmented
d.
The duration field determines how long the station can transmit a packet, which
then determines how it is divided.
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The correct answer is: The sequence control field indicates how a large packet is
fragmented
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28. Study the following statements and figure. Which wireless topology is
described by the statements and figure?
a.
infrastructure topology
b.
ad hoc topology
c.
proprietary topology
d.
open-source topology
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The correct answer is: ad hoc topology
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29. Which one of the following devices will help users to adjust temperature
settings based on daily schedules in response to voice commands?
a.
Security camera
b.
Smart thermostat
c.
Smart refrigerator
d.
Smart doorbell
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The correct answer is: Smart thermostat
Question 30
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30. The most secure Wi-Fi communication is made possible by combining a
RADIUS (Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service) server with WPA (Wi-Fi
Protected Access) or WPA2 (Wi-Fi Protected Access, Version 2), known as WPA-
Enterprise or WPA2-Enterprise, respectively.
a.
True
b.
False
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The correct answer is: True
Question 31
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31. Which of the following versions of EAP (Extensible Authentication Protocol)
uses PKI (Public-Key Infrastructure) certificates to exchange public keys and
authenticate both the supplicant and the server through mutual authentication?
a.
PEAP (Protected EAP)
b.
EAP-TLS (EAP-Transport Layer Security)
c.
EAP-FAST (EAP-Flexible Authentication via Secure Tunneling)
d.
EAP-MSCHAPv2
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The correct answer is: EAP-TLS (EAP-Transport Layer Security)
Question 32
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32. You are setting up a home network for your neighbor, who is a music
teacher. She has students visiting her home regularly for lessons and wants to
provide Internet access for their parents while they are waiting on the children.
However, she is concerned about keeping her own data private. What wireless
feature can you configure on her AP (Access Point) to meet her requests?
a.
A home network
b.
A global network
c.
A guest network
d.
A peer-to-peer network
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The correct answer is: A guest network
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33. James has been contracted to set up a wireless network for a supermarket.
The IT department of the supermarket wants James to develop a mesh network
of APs (Access Points) to offer customers Internet access and selective discount
coupons. James has decided that he will have to add additional security options
for this purpose. Which one of the following will help James fix the issue?
a.
Use Geofencing security technique
b.
Establish a guest network with a separate SSID (Service Set Identifier)
c.
Use wireless client isolation
d.
Use captive portal
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The correct answer is: Use Geofencing security technique
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34. Which one of the following security threats involves an interception of the
network keys communicated between clients and access points?
a.
WPA attack
b.
WPS attack
c.
War chalking
d.
War driving
Feedback
The correct answer is: WPA attack
Question 35
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35. Which of the following are wireless configuration pitfalls to avoid (More than
one pitfall applies)?
a.
interference
b.
overlapping channels
c.
jitter
d.
incorrect passphrase
Feedback
The correct answers are: interference, overlapping channels, incorrect
passphrase
Question 36
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36. Ross is running a small data entry back office, for which he has contracted
you for network management. Ross has made it very clear that because he has
just started the company, he wants to cut down on expenses wherever he can.
One such option involves the router. He wants to exchange the router with a
similar but less expensive alternative. Which one of the following will you refer
to Ross in such a situation?
a.
A root port
b.
An SDN (Software-Defined Networking) controller
c.
A Layer 3 switch
d.
Storm control
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The correct answer is: A Layer 3 switch
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37. Krypton Spares and Parts deals in motorcycle spare parts. The
administration department of the company has constantly been complaining of
severe network issues, and you have been hired to fix the issues. On inspection,
it has come to your notice that these network fluctuations are primarily because
of flooding attacks from broadcast and multicast traffic. Which one of the
following do you plan on using to fix this issue?
a.
A BPDU (Bridge Protocol Data Unit) guard
b.
Storm control
c.
A root guard
d.
A BPDU filter
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The correct answer is: Storm control
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38. Lewis has been hired as an assistant to the head network administrator. He
needs to understand the basic functioning of certain STP (Spanning Tree
Protocol) features that will block BPDUs (Bridge Protocol Data Units) on any port
serving network hosts. Which one of the following will he use for such purposes?
a.
A BPDU guard
b.
A BPDU filter
c.
A root guard
d.
A root bridge
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The correct answer is: A BPDU guard
Question 39
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39. What information does the switchport port-security command use to restrict
access to a switch’s interface?
a.
MAC (Media Access Control) address
b.
Port number
c.
IP (Internet Protocol) address
d.
Broadcast address
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The correct answer is: MAC (Media Access Control) address
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40. A ________switch connects all other devices in the rack to the rest of the
network.
a.
ToR (Top of Rack) switch
b.
Spine switch
c.
EoR (End of Row) switch
d.
Core switch
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The correct answer is: ToR (Top of Rack) switch
Question 41
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41.What software allows you to define VMs (Virtual Machines) and manage
resource allocation and sharing among VMs on a host computer?
a.
Hypervisor
b.
NFV (Network Functions Virtualization)
c.
SDN (software-defined networking)
d.
Terminal emulation
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The correct answer is: Hypervisor
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42. Which virtual, logically defined device operates primarily at the data link
layer to pass frames between nodes?
a.
Virtual firewall
b.
vSwitch (Virtual switch)
c.
Virtual router
d.
Virtual load balancer
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The correct answer is: vSwitch (Virtual switch)
Question 43
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43. In bridged mode, a VM (Virtual Machine) obtains IP (Internet Protocol)
addressing information from its host rather than from a server or router on the
physical network.
a.
True
b.
False
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The correct answer is: False
Question 44
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44. How MANY of the following are ADVANTAGES offered by virtualization?
a.
3
b.
4
c.
5
d.
7
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The correct answer is: 4
Question 45
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45. As a network administrator, you want to modernize your network with
modular software running on standard server platforms. You want to start by
replacing traditional, custom-designed network equipment. You also wish to
have flexible, cost-saving options for many types of network devices, including
virtual servers, data storage, load balancers, and firewalls. Which one of the
following will you use in such a scenario?
a.
SDN (Software Defined Networking)
b.
NFV (Network Functions Virtualization)
c.
FCoE (Fibre Channel over Ethernet)
d.
vSwitch (virtual Switch)
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The correct answer is: NFV (Network Functions Virtualization)
Question 46
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46. Which cloud characteristic allows a provider to limit or charge by the amount
of bandwidth, processing power, storage space, or client connections available
to customers?
a.
Rapid elasticity
b.
Resource pooling
c.
Measured service
d.
Broad network access
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The correct answer is: Measured service
Question 47
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47. End users, the largest group of cloud computing consumers, can easily
access and use ________ products without much setup, whereas ________
products require extensive preparation by a much smaller group of more skilled
network architects and administrators, who provide systems for their end users.
a.
SaaS (Software as a Service); IaaS (Infrastructure as a Service)
b.
PaaS (Platform as a Service); XaaS (Anything as a Service or Everything as a
Service)
c.
SaaS; PaaS
d.
XaaS; IaaS
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The correct answer is: SaaS (Software as a Service); IaaS (Infrastructure as a
Service)
Question 48
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48. The Centre for Equity Studies is a not-for-profit organization in Staten Island,
New York, working in the human rights sector. Currently, because of the
pandemic, the employees work from home. They work in association with three
other initiatives, all of them involved in the same sector. Hence, there are a lot
of resources that are routinely shared among all of them but not with the public.
You have been assigned the task of selecting one cloud model, keeping in mind
the working conditions and the requirements of the users. Which one of the
following would suit this organization the most?
a.
A private cloud
b.
A public cloud
c.
A community cloud
d.
A hybrid cloud
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The correct answer is: A community cloud
Question 49
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49. You have been working with an ISP (Internet Service Provider) as a network
engineer. You have made multiple WAN (wide area network) connections over a
period. Recently, you have received complaints from various clients about
network failure, which is influencing their day-to-day business. This network
failure is primarily caused by some bugs in a few of the network devices. To
protect your clientele, you have decided to provide an additional information
sheet that will specifically state the amount of time you will take to fix the issue.
Which one of the following will you use to calculate the average amount of time
required to repair the faulty device?
a.
MTTR (Mean Time To Repair)
b.
MTBF (Mean Time Between Failures)
c.
CARP (Common Address Redundancy Protocol)
d.
LACP (Link Aggregation Control Protocol)
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The correct answer is: MTTR (Mean Time To Repair)
Question 50
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50. What is the network ID with CIDR (Classless Interdomain Routing) notation
for the IP (Internet Protocol) address 172.16.32.108 whose subnet mask is
255.255.255.0?
a.
172.16.32.108/22
b.
172.16.32.108/26
c.
172.16.32.108/24
d.
172.16.32.108/28
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The correct answer is: 172.16.32.108/24
Question 51
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51. You have been appointed to design a subnet mask for a network. The
current IP address of the network is 192.168.89.0. You have been requested by
the network administrator to divide this local network into nine subnets to
correspond to the organization's nine different floors. How many bits will you
borrow from the host portion of the ID address in this scenario?
a.
Three bits
b.
Two bits
c.
Four bits
d.
Five bits
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The correct answer is: Four bits
Question 52
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52. The subnet mask 255.255.255.0 in binary is .
a.
11111111.00000000.00000000.00000000
b.
11111111.11111111.00000000.00000000
c.
11111111.11111111.11111111.11111111
d.
11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000
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The correct answer is: 11111111.11111111.11111111.00000000
Question 53
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53. You are working as a network engineer for ABC Ltd. You have been
instructed to translate the slash notation /20 into a subnet mask. Which one of
the following will you select?
a.
255.255.255.248
b.
255.255.224.0
c.
255.255.240.0
d.
255.255.255.192
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The correct answer is: 255.255.240.0
Question 54
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54. What will be the number of hosts per subnet in a 255.255.255.240 IPv4 class
C subnet mask?
a.
30
b.
14
c.
62
d.
126
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The correct answer is: 14
Question 55
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55. A network administrator is configuring the 172.16.40.0/22 network for a new
building. Which one of the following is the number of hosts that will be
supported on this network?
a.
510
b.
512
c.
1022
d.
1024
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The correct answer is: 1022
Question 56
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56. In the IPv6 address 2001:0db8:85a3:0000:0000:8a2e:0370:7334, the site
prefix is ________ .
a.
2001:0db8
b.
2001:0db8:85a3
c.
2001:0db8:85a3:0000
d.
0000:8a2e:0370:7334
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The correct answer is: 2001:0db8:85a3:0000
Question 57
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57. Rodri has been contracted by an ISP (Internet Service Provider) to set up an
IPv6 address for MIL Ltd. The RIR (Regional Internet Registry) has assigned the
ISP a block of 32-bit routing prefix. The ISP will provide MIL Ltd. with a /48 site
prefix. Which one of the following scenarios will help Rodri in calculating the
total number of possible subnets?
a.
MIL Ltd. can create up to 65,536 subnets.
b.
MIL Ltd. can create up to 256 subnets.
c.
MIL Ltd. can create only one single subnet.
d.
Rodri should use the 2n = Y formula to calculate the subnet.
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The correct answer is: MIL Ltd. can create up to 65,536 subnets.
Question 58
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58. Which one of the following terms is commonly used to describe a VLAN
(Virtual Local Area Network) configuration in which one router connects to a
switch that supports multiple VLANs?
a.
router-on-a-stick
b.
branched router
c.
router overloading
d.
router-on-a-branch
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The correct answer is: router-on-a-stick
Question 59
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59. Globcom is a call center operating in California. It has hired you as a network
administrator to set up a voice VLAN (Virtual Local Area Network) to ensure the
quality of voice transmissions. Which one of the following will not be of
immediate priority while setting up the VLAN connection?
a.
High bandwidth
b.
Flexible routing
c.
Minimized latency
d.
Untagged frames
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The correct answer is: Untagged frames
Question 60
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60. Which are some common configuration errors that can occur when
configuring VLANs (Virtual Local Area Networks) (More than one error applies)?
a.
incorrect port mode
b.
incorrect VLAN assignment
c.
VLAN isolation
d.
VLAN aggregation
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The correct answers are: incorrect port mode, incorrect VLAN assignment, VLAN
isolation