0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views

edited_selfstudys_com_file (1)

The document is a test paper for JEE Advanced 2025, consisting of three main sections with various types of questions including MRQ, MCQ, NUM, and MATCH. Each question type has specific marking schemes and instructions for answering. The test covers a range of topics in Mathematics and Physics, with detailed questions and options provided.

Uploaded by

aakashrraj2
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
0% found this document useful (0 votes)
12 views

edited_selfstudys_com_file (1)

The document is a test paper for JEE Advanced 2025, consisting of three main sections with various types of questions including MRQ, MCQ, NUM, and MATCH. Each question type has specific marking schemes and instructions for answering. The test covers a range of topics in Mathematics and Physics, with detailed questions and options provided.

Uploaded by

aakashrraj2
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
You are on page 1/ 29

JEE Advanced 2025

Test Paper - 1

Time Allowed: 3 hours Maximum Marks: 180


General Instructions:
This question paper has THREE main sections and four sub-sections as below.
MRQ
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these
four option(s) is(are) the correct answer(s).
You will get +4 marks for the correct response and -2 for the incorrect response.
You will also get 1-3 marks for a partially correct response.
MCQ
Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and (D). ONLY ONE of these four options is
the correct answer.
You will get +3 marks for the correct response and -1 for the incorrect response.
NUM
The answer to each question is a NON-NEGATIVE INTEGER.
You will get +4 marks for the correct response and 0 marks for the incorrect response.
MATCH
FOUR options are given in each Multiple Choice Question based on List-I and List-II and
ONLY ONE of these four options satisfies the condition asked in the Multiple Choice
Question.
You will get +3 marks for the correct response and -1 for the incorrect response.
Mathematics (MRQ)
1. The tangent PT and the normal PN to the parabola y2 = 4ax at a point P on it meet its axis [4]
at points T and N, respectively. The locus of the centroid of the triangle PTN is a parabola
whose

a) directrix is x = 0 b) focus is (a, 0)

c) vertex is ( 2a

3
, 0) d) latus rectum is 2a

2. Let h(x) = min {x, x2}, for every real number of x, Then [4]

a) h is continuous for all x b) h is differentiable for all x

c) h is not differentiable at two values d) h’(x) = 1, for all x > 1


of x

3. The option(s) with the values of a and L that satisfy the following equation is(are) [4]

t 6 4

?
∫ e (sin at+cos at)dt
0

π
= L
t 6 4
∫ e (sin at+cos at)dt
0

a) a = 2, L = e

π
+1
b) a = 4, L = 4π
e
π
−1

e +1 e −1
c) a = 4, L = 4π
e
π
+1
d) a = 2, L =

e
π
−1

e +1 e −1

Mathematics (MCQ)
4. Coefficient of t24 in (1 + t2)12 (1 + t12)(1 + t24) is [3]

a) 12
C6 b) 12
C6 + 1

c) 12
C6 + 2 d) 12
C6 + 3

5. Let f(x) = (1 + b2)x2 + 2bx + 1 and let m(b) be the minimum value of f(x). As b varies, the [3]
range of m(b) is

a) [0, 1] b) [0, 1]

c) [0, ] 1

2
d) [ , 1]
1

6. A straight line L through the point (3, -2) is inclined at an angle 60° to the line √3 x + y = [3]

1. If L also intersects the X-axis, then the equation of L is

a) √3 y - x + 3 + 2√3 = 0 b) y - √3 x + 2 + 3√3 = 0
– – – –

c) y + √3 x + 2 - 3√3 = 0 d) √3 y + x - 3 + 2√3 = 0
– – – –

⎧ −1,
⎪ x < 0 [3]
7. Let g (x) = 1 + x - [x] and f(x) = ⎨ 0, x = 0 , then for all x, f[f(x)) is equal to


1, x > 0

a) 1 b) x

c) f(x) d) g(x)

Mathematics (NUM)
r

[4]
8. Let 75 ⋯ 57 denote the (r + 2) digit number where the first and the last digits are 7 and
98

the remaining r digits are 5. Consider the sum S = 77 + 757 + 7557 + ... + 75 ⋯ 57. If S =
99


75⋯57 +m

n
, where m and n are natural numbers less than 3000, then the value of m + n is

9. If the variable line 3x + 4y = α lies between the two circles (x - 1)2 + (y - 1)2 = 1 and (x - [4]

9)2 + (y - 1)2 = 4, without intercepting a chord on either circle, then the sum of all the
integral values of α is ________.

10. Consider a triangle ABC and let a, b and c denote the lengths of the sides opposite to [4]
vertices A, B and C respectively. Suppose a = 6, b = 10 and the area of the triangle is
15√3 , if ∠AC B is obtuse and if r denotes the radius of the incircle of the triangle, then r
– ˙ 2

is equal to
11. If the vectors a^i + ^j + k , i + b j + k and i + j + ck (a ≠ b ≠ c ≠ 1) are coplanar, then the
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^ [4]
value of +
1

(1−a)
+ = ________.
(1−b)
1 1

(1−c)

x
[4]
12. The total number of distinct x ∈ [0, 1] for which ∫ dt = 2x - 1 is:
2
t
4
1+t
0

13. The number of values of θ in the interval, (− π

2
,
π

2
) such that θ ≠ nπ

5
for n = 0, ±1, ±2 and [4]
tan θ = cot 5θ as well as sin 2θ = cos 4θ is

Mathematics (MATCH)
14. Let zk = cos( 2kπ

10
) + i sin(
2kπ

10
) ; k = 1, 2, ..., 9. [3]

List-I List-II
(1)
(P) For each zk there exists as zj such that zk.zj = 1
True
(Q) There exists a k ∈ {1, 2, ..., 9} such that z1.z = zk has no solution z in the set (2)
of complex numbers False

(R) equal (3) 1


|1−z1 ||1−z2 |…||1−z9 ∣

10

(S) 1 − ∑ cos(
2kπ

10
) equal (4) 2
k=1

a) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (3), (S) - (4) b) (P) - (2), (Q) - (1), (R) - (3), (S) - (4)

c) (P) - (2), (Q) - (1), (R) - (4), (S) - (3) d) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (4), (S) - (3)

15. Let H: , here a > b > 0, be a hyperbola in the xy-plane whose conjugate axis [3]
2 2
x y

2
− 2
= 1
a b

LM subtends an angle of 60o at one of its vertices N. Let the area of the triangle LMN be
4√3 .

List I List II
P. The length of the conjugate axis of H is 1. 8

Q. The eccentricity of H is 2. 4

√3

R. The distance between the foci of H is 3. 2

√3

S. The length of the latus rectum of H is 4. 4

a) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2 b) P → 4; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3

c) P → 4; Q → 1; R → 3; S → 2 d) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1

16. Let p, q, r be nonzero real numbers that are, respectively, the 10th, 100th and 1000th [3]
terms of a harmonic progression. Consider the system of linear equations
x+y+z=1
10x + 100y + 1000z = 0
qr x + pr y + pq z = 0.
List-I List-II
(P) x = 0, y = 10
,z=− 1
as a
(I) If = 10, then the system of linear equations has
q
9 9

solution
r

(II) If 100, then the system of linear equations


p

r
(Q) x = 10
, y = − , z = 0 solution
1

has 9 9

(III) If 10, then the system of linear equations


p

q
(R) infinitely many solutions
has
(IV) If = 10, then the system of linear equations
p

q
(S) no solution
has
(T) at least one solution

a) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (S); (IV) b) (I) → (Q); (II) → (R); (III) → (P); (IV)
→ (R) → (R)

c) (I) → (T); (II) → (R); (III) → (S); (IV) → d) (I) → (T); (II) → (S); (III) → (P); (IV)
(T) → (T)

17. Let ℓ and ℓ be the lines r ⃗ = λ(^i + ^j + k ) and r ⃗ = ( j − k ) + μ( i + k ) , respectively. Let X [3]
^ ^ ^ ^ ^
1 2 1 2

be the set of all the planes H that contain the line ℓ . For a plane H, let d(H) denote the
1

smallest possible distance between the points of ℓ and H. Let H0 be a plane in X for
2

which d(H0) is the maximum value of d(H) as H varies over all planes in X.
Match each entry in List-I to the correct entries in List-II.
List -
List - I
II
(P) The value of d(H0) is (1) √3

(Q) The distance of the point (0, 1, 2) from H0 is (2) 1

√3

(R) The distance of origin from H0 is (3) 0


(S) The distance of origin from the point of intersection of planes y = z, x = 1 and
(4) √2

H0 is

(5) 1

√2

a) (P) → (5), (Q) → (1), (R) → (4), (S) → b) (P) → (5), (Q) → (4), (R) → (3), (S)
(2) → (1)

c) (P) → (2), (Q) → (1), (R) → (3), (S) → d) (P) → (2), (Q) → (4), (R) → (5), (S)
(2) → (1)

Physics (MRQ)
18. A rod of mass m and length L, pivoted at one of its ends, is hanging vertically. A bullet of [4]
the same mass moving at speed v strikes the rod horizontally at a distance x from its
pivoted end and gets embedded in it. The combined system now rotates with angular
speed ω about the pivot. The maximum angular speed ω M
is achieved for x = xM Then

a) ω = b) ω
3vx v –
M
= √3
2 2 2L
L +3x

c) ω = 12vx
2 2
d) x M
=
L

L +12x √3

19. A block M hangs vertically at the bottom end of a uniform rope of constant mass per unit [4]
length. The top end of the rope is attached to a fixed rigid support at O. A transverse wave
pulse (Pulse 1) of wavelength λ is produced at point O on the rope. The pulse takes time
0

TOA to reach point A. If the wave pulse of wavelength λ is produced at point A (Pulse 2)
0

without disturbing the position of M it takes time TAO to reach O. Which of the following
options is/are correct?

a) The w avelength of Pulse 1 b) The time TAO = TAO


becomes longer when it reaches
point A

c) The velocity of any pulse along the d) The velocities of the two pulses
rope is independent of its (Pulse 1 and Pulse 2) are the same
frequency and wavelength at the midpoint of rope

20. Two metallic rings A and B, identical in shape and size but having different resistivities ρ [4] A

and ρ , are kept on top of two identical solenoids as shown in the figure. When current I is
B

switched on in both the solenoids in identical manner, the rings A and B jump to heights
hA and hB, respectively, with hA > hB. The possible relation(s) between their resistivities
and their masses mA and mB is(are)

a) ρ < ρ and mA < mB


A B
b) ρ > ρ and mA = mB
A B

c) ρ < ρ and mA = mB
A B
d) ρ > ρ and mA > mB
A B
Physics (MCQ)
21. The unit of surface tension may be expressed as: [3]

a) joule metre-2 b) newton metre-2

c) joule metre d) newton metre

22. A ball of mass (m) 0.5 kg is attached to the end of a string having length (l) 0.5 m. The ball [3]
is rotated on a horizontal circular path about vertical axis. The maximum tension that the
string can bear is 324 N. The maximum possible value of angular velocity of ball (in rad/s)
is

a) 27 b) 36

c) 9 d) 18

23. The radius of a planet is 1

4
of the earth’s radius and its acceleration due to gravity is [3]
double that of the earth’s acceleration due to gravity. How many times will the escape
velocity at the planet’s surface be as compared to its value on the earth’s surface?

a) 2 b) √2

c) d) 2√2
1

√2

24. Which of the following configurations of electric lines of force is not possible? [3]

a) b)
c) d)

both and

Physics (NUM)
25. The focal length of a thin biconvex lens is 20 cm. When an object is moved from a distance [4]
of 25 cm in front of it to 50 cm, the magnification of its image changes from m25 to m50.
The ratio is is
m 25

m 50

26. A container with 1 kg of water in it is kept in sunlight, which causes the water to get [4]
warmer than the surroundings. The average energy per unit time per unit area received
due to the sunlight is 700 Wm-2 and it is absorbed by the water over an effective area of
0.05 m2. Assuming that the heat loss from the water to the surroundings is governed by
Newton's law of cooling, the difference (in °C) in the temperature of water and the
surroundings after a long time will be ________.
(Ignore effect of the container, and take constant for Newton’s law of cooling = 0.001 s-1,
Heat capacity of water = 4200 Jkg-1 K-1)

27. A horizontal circular platform of radius 0.5 m and mass 0.45 kg is free to rotate about its [4]
axis. Two massless spring toy-guns, each carrying a steel ball of mass 0.05 kg are attached
to the platform at a distance 0.25 m from the centre on its either sides along its diameter
(see figure). Each gun simultaneously fires the balls horizontally and perpendicular to the
diameter in opposite directions. After leaving the platform, the balls have horizontal speed
of 9 ms-1 with respect to the ground. The rotational speed of the platform in rad s-1 after
the balls leave the platform is

28. A cylindrical furnace has height (H) and diameter (D) both 1 m. It is maintained at [4]
temperature 360 K. The air gets heated inside the furnace at constant pressure Pa and its
temperature becomes T = 360 K. The hot air with density ρ rises up a vertical chimney of
diameter d = 0.1 m and height h = 9 m above the furnace and exits the chimney (see the
figure). As a result, atmospheric air of density ρ = 1 .2 kg m-3, pressure Pa and
a

temperature Ta = 300 K enters the furnace. Assume air as an ideal gas, neglect the
variations in ρ and T inside the chimney and the furnace. Also ignore the viscous effects.
[Given: The acceleration due to gravity g = 10 ms-2 and π = 3.14]

Considering the air flow to be streamline, the steady mass flow rate of air exiting the
chimney is ________ gm s-1.

29. The Bohr radius of the fifth electron of phosphorous atom (atomic number = 15) acting as [4]
o

a dopant in silicon (relative dielectric constant =12 ) is ________ A.

30. A particle, of mass 10-3 kg and charge 1.0 C, is initially at rest. At time t = 0, the particle [4]

comes under the influence of an electric field E⃗ (t) = E0 sin ωt^i , where E0 = 1.0 NC-1 and
ω = 10
3 rad s-1. Consider the effect of only the electrical force on the particle. Then the

maximum speed, in ms-1, attained by the particle at subsequent times is ________.

Physics (MATCH)
31. One mole of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes four thermodynamic processes as shown [3]
schematically in the PV-diagram below. Among these four processes, one is isobaric, one
is isochoric, one is isothermal and one is adiabatic. Match the processes mentioned in List-
I with the corresponding statements in List-II.

LIST - I LIST - II
P. In process I 1. Work done by the gas is zero
Q. In process II 2. Temperature of the gas remains unchanged
R. In process III 3. No heat is exchanged between the gas and its surroundings
S. In process IV 4. Work done by the gas is 6P0V0

a) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2 b) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 2; S → 1

c) P → 1; Q → 3; R → 2; S → 4 d) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2

32. A right angled prism of refractive index μ is placed in a rectangular block of refractive
1
[3]
index μ , which is surrounded by a medium of refractive index μ , as shown in the figure. A
2 3

ray of light e enters the rectangular block at normal incidence. Depending upon the
relationships between μ , μ , and μ , it takes one of the four possible paths ef, eg, eh or
1 2 3

ei.
Match the paths in List I with conditions of refractive indices in List II and select the correct
answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(P) e → f (1) μ

1
> √2 μ2

(Q) e → g (2) μ
2
> μ1 and μ 2
> μ3

(R) e → h (3) μ
1
= μ2

(S) e → i (4) μ and μ



2
< μ1 < √2 μ2 2
> μ3

a) (P) - (2), (Q) - (3), (R) - (1), (S) - (4) b) (P) - (2), (Q) - (3), (R) - (4), (S) - (1)

c) (P) - (4), (Q) - (1), (R) - (2), (S) - (3) d) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (4), (S) - (3)

33. List-I shows different radioactive decay processes and List-II provides possible emitted [3]
particles. Match each entry in List-I with an appropriate entry from List-II, and choose the
correct option.
List - I List - II
(P) 238
92
U →
234
91
Pa (1) one a particle and one β particle +

(Q) 214
82
Pb →
210
82
Pb (2) three β particles and one a particle

(R) 210
81
Tl →
206
.82
Pb (3) two β particles and one a particle

(S) 228
91
Pa →
224
88
Ra (4) one a particle and one β particle −

(5) one a particle and two β particles +

a) P → 5, Q → 1, R → 3, S → 2 b) P → 5, Q → 3, R → 1, S → 4

c) P → 4, Q → 3, R → 2, S → 1 d) P → 4, Q → 1, R → 2, S → 5

34. A musical instrument is made using four different metal strings 1,2,3 and 4 with mass per [3]
unit length μ , 2μ ,3μ and 4μ respectively. The instrument is played by vibrating the strings
by varying the free length in between the range L0 and 2L0. It is found that in string-1 (μ )
at free length L0 and tension T0 the fundamental mode frequency is f0.
List - I gives the above four strings while list - II lists the magnitude of some quantity.
List-I List-II
(I) String - 1 (μ ) (P) 1
List-I List-II
(II) String - 2 (2μ ) (Q) 1

(III) String - 3 (3μ ) (R) 1

√2

(IV) String - 4 (4μ ) (S) 1

√3

(T) 3

16

(U) 1

16

The length of the strings 1,2,3 and 4 are kept fixed at L0, , , and , respectively.
3L0 5L0 7L0

2 4 4

Strings 1, 2, 3, and 4 are vibrated at their 1st, 3rd, 5th, and 14th harmonics, respectively
such that all the strings have same frequency The correct match for the tension in the four
strings in the units of T0 will be

a) (I) → (T), (II)→ (Q), (III)→ (R), (IV)→ b) (I) → (P), (II)→ (R), (III)→ (T), (IV)→
(U) (U)

c) (I) → (P), (II)→ (Q), (III)→ (T), (IV)→ d) (I) → (P), (II)→ (Q), (III)→ (R), (IV)→
(U) (T)

Chemistry (MRQ)
35. Which of the following will undergo aldol condensation? [4]

a) trideuteroacetaldehyde b) benzaldehyde

c) propanaldehyde d) acetaldehyde

36. In the decay sequence, [4]


−x 1 −x 2 −x 2 −x 4
238

92
U ⟶
234

90
Th ⟶
234

91
Pa ⟶
234
Z ⟶
230

90
Th x1, x2, x3 and x4 are particles/radiation
emitted by the respective isotopes. The correct option(s) is (are)

a) x3 is γ- ray b) Z is an isotope of uranium

c) x2 is β -ray d) x1 will deflect towards negatively


charged plate

37. For an ideal gas, consider only P- V work in going from an initial state X to the final state [4]
Z. The final state Z can be reached by either of the two paths shown in the figure. Which of
the following choice(s) is (are) correct? [Take ΔS as change in entropy and was work done].

a) wX→Y →Z
= wX→Y b) w X→Z
= wX→Y + + wY →Z
c) ΔS X→Y →Z = ΔSX→Y d) ΔS X→Z = ΔSX→Y + ΔSY →Z

Chemistry (MCQ)
38. The correct order of increasing C—O bond length of CO, CO 2−

3
, CO2 is [3]

a) CO < CO 2−
3
< CO2 b) CO2 < CO 2−
3
< CO

c) CO < CO2 < CO 2−


3
d) CO 2−
3
< CO2 < CO

39. For the reversible reaction, N 2


(g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) at 500° C, the value of Kp is 1.44 × [3]
10-5 when partial pressure is measured in atmosphere. The corresponding value of Kc with
concentration in mol/L is

a) 1.44×10
−5

−3
b) 1.44×10
−5

−2
(0.082×773) (0.082×773)

c) 1.44×10
−5

−2
d) 1.44×10
−5

−2
(0.082×500) (8.314×773)

40. The compounds which gives the most stable carbonium ion on dehydration is [3]

a) b) OH

CH 3 − C H − CH 2 CH 3

c) CH3CH2— CH2— CH2OH d) CH 3


− C H − CH2 OH
|

CH3

41. Hydrogen bonding is maximum in [3]

a) triethylamine b) ethanol

c) diethyl ether d) ethyl chloride

Chemistry (NUM)
42. 20 mL of calcium hydroxide was consumed when it was reacted with 10 mL of unknown [4]
solution of H2SO4. Also 20 mL standard solution of 0.5 M HCl containing 2 drops of
phenolphthalein was titrated with calcium hydroxide the mixture showed pink colour
when burette displaced the value of 35.5 mL whereas the burette showed 25.5 mL initially.
The concentration of H2SO4 is ________ M (Nearest Integer)

43. The vapour pressure of pure benzene is 639.7 mm of mercury and the vapour of a solution [4]
of a solute in benzene at the same temperature is 631.9 mm of mercury. Calculate the
molality of the solution.

44. From the following data, calculate the enthalpy change for the combustion of [4]
cyclopropane at 298 K. The enthalpy of formation of CO2(g), H2O(l) and propene(g) are
-393.5, -285.8 and 20.42 kJ mol-1 respectively. The enthalpy of isomerisation of
cyclopropane to propene is -33.0 kJ mol-1.

45. What is the maximum number of electrons that may be present in all the atomic orbitals [4]
with principal quantum number 3 and azimuthal quantum number 2?

46. The rate of a first-order reaction is 0.04 mol litre-1 s-1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol litre-1 [4]

s-1 at 20 minutes after initiation. Find the half-life of the reaction.

47. The maximum number of isomers (including stereoisomers) that are possible on mono- [4]
chlorination of the following compound, is CH3CH2CH(CH3)CH2CH2

Chemistry (MATCH)
48. Match List-I with List-II: [3]
List-II
List-I
(Compound with functional group
(Reagents used)
detected)
(A) Alkaline solution of copper sulphate and
(I)
sodium citrate

(B) Neutral FeCl3 solution (II)

(C) Alkaline chloroform solution (III)

(D) Potassium iodide and sodium hypochlorite (IV)

a) A - IV, B - I, C - II, D - III b) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I

c) A - III, B - IV, C - I, D - II d) A - II, B - IV, C - III, D - I

49. Match each coordination compound in List-I with an appropriate pair of characteristics [3]
from List- II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists. {en =
H2NCH2CH2NH2;. atomic numbers : Ti = 22 ; Cr = 24; Co = 27 ;Pt = 78}

List-I List-II
(A) [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (p) Paramagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism
(B) [Ti(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 (q) Diamagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism
(C) [Pt(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3 (r) Paramagnetic and exhibits cis-trans isomerism
(D) [Co(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3 (s) Diamagnetic and exhibits ionisation isomerism

a) A - (q), B - (p), C - (r), D - (s) b) A - (p), B - (r), C - (s), D - (q)

c) A - (r), B - (p), C - (s), D - (q) d) A -(s), B - (q), C - (r), D - (p)

50. An aqueous solution of X is added slowly to an aqueous solution of Y as shown in List I. [3]
The variation in conductivity of these reactions is given in List II. Match list I with List II and
select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List-I List-II
(P) (1) Conductivity decreases and then increases
KI(0.1M)
(Q) +
X (2) Conductivity decreases and then does not change
AgNO 3 (0.01M) much
Y

(R) CH 3
COOH + KOH
(3) Conductivity increases and then does not change
X
Y
much
(S) NaOH + H (4) Conductivity does not change much and then
X Y
increases

a) (P) - (1), (Q) - (4), (R) - (3), (S) - (2) b) (P) - (3), (Q) - (4), (R) - (2), (S) - (1)

c) (P) - (4), (Q) - (3), (R) - (2), (S) - (1) d) (P) - (2), (Q) - (3), (R) - (4), (S) - (1)

51. Match the reactions (in the given stoichiometry of the reactants) in List-I with one of their [3]
products given in List-II and choose the correct option.
List- I List- II
(P) P2O3 + 3H2O → (1) P(O)(OCH3)Cl2

(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → (2) H3PO3

(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → (3) PH3

(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → (4) POCl3

(5) H3PO4

a) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 5 b) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 5

c) P → 3; Q → 5; R → 4; S → 2 d) P → 5; Q → 2; R → 1; S → 3
JEE Advanced 2024
Sample Paper - 3
Solution
Mathematics (MRQ)
1. (b) focus is (a, 0)
(c) vertex is ( , 0) 2a

Explanation: Let P(at2, 2at) be any point on the parabola y2 - 4 ax.


∴ Tangent to the parabola at P is y= + at, x

which meets the axis of parabola i.e x-axis at T (-at2, 0).


Also normal to parabola at P is t x + y = 2at + at3
which meets the axis of parabola at N(2a + at2, 0)
Let G (x, y) be the centriod of ΔPTN, then
and y =
2 2 2
at −at +2a+at 2at
x =
3 3

...(i) and y = ...(ii)


2
2a+at 2at
⇒ x =
3 3

Eliminating t from (i) and (ii), we get the locus of centriod G


2

as 3x = 2a + a ( ,
3y 4a 2
2
) ⇒ y = (x − a)
2a 3 3

which is a parabola with vertex ( 2a

3
, 0) , directrix as x − 2a

3
= −
a

3
, latus rectum as 4a

3
and focus
as (a, 0).
2. (a) h is continuous for all x
(c) h is not differentiable at two values of x
(d) h’(x) = 1, for all x > 1
Explanation: From the figure it is clear that
⎧ x, if x ≤ 0
2
h(x) = ⎨ x , if 0 < x < 1

x, if x ≥ 1

From the graph it is clear that h is continuous for all x ∈ R, h' (x) = 1 for all x > 1 and h is not
differentiable at x = 0 and 1 as there are sharp turns at x = 0 and 1.
3. (b) a = 4, L =

e −1
π
e −1

(d) a = 2,

e −1
L = π
e −1

Explanation: Let f(t) = e t


(sin
6
at + cos
4
at)

kπ+t 6 4 kπ
∴ f (kπ + t) = e (sin a(kπ + t) + cos a(kπ + t)) = e f (t)

4π t 6 4
∫ e (sin at+cos at)dt
0
∴ π
t 6 4
∫ e (sin at+cos at)dt
0

π 2x 3π π t 6 4
(1+e +e +e ) ∫ e (sin at+cos at)dt 4π
0 π 2π 3π e −1
= π
= 1 + e + e + e = π

t
e (sin
6
at+cos
4
at)dt e −1
0
Mathematics (MCQ)
4.
(c) 12
C6 + 2

Explanation: Here, Coefficient of t24 in {(1 + t2)12 (1 + t12) (1 + t24)}


= Coefficient of t24 in {(1 + t2)12 ⋅ (1 + t12 + t24 + t36)}
= Coefficient of t24 in {(1 + t2)12 + t12(1 + t2)12 + t24(1 + t2)12}; [neglecting t36 (1 + t2)12]
= Coefficient of t24 = (12C12 + 12C6 + 12C0) = 2 + 12C6
5.
(b) [0, 1]
Explanation: f(x) = (1 + b2)x2 + 2bx + 1
It is a quadratic expression with coefficient of x2 = 1 + b2 > 0.
∴ f(x) represents an upward parabola whose minimum value is . Here D is being the
−D

4a

discriminant.
2 2
4b −4(1+b )
1
∴ m(b) = − 2
= 2
4(1+b ) 1+b

Now, 1+b
1
2
> 0 and b2 ≥ 0 ⇒ 1 + b2 ≥ 1

1
2
≤ 1 . Hence m(b) = (0, 1]
1+b

6.
(b) y - √3 x + 2 + 3√3 = 0
– –

Explanation: A straight line passing through P and making an angle of α = 60o, is given by
y−y
1
= tan(θ ± α)
x−x 1

x+y=1

⇒ √3

⇒ y = -√3 x + 1, then tan θ = −√3


– –

y+2 tan θ±tan α


⇒ =
x−3 1∓tan θ tan α

y+2 −√3+√3
=
x−3 1−(−√3)(√3)

and
y+2 −√3−√3
=
x−3 1+(−√3)(√3)

⇒ y+2=0
and
y+2 −2√3 –
= = √3
x−3 1−3

y + 2 = √3 x − 3√3
– –

Neglecting, y + 2 = 0, as it does not intersect Y-axis.


7. (a) 1
Explanation: g (x)= 1 + x - [x] is greater than 1
since x - [x] > 0
f[g(x)] = 1, since f(x) = 1 for all x > 0
Mathematics (NUM)
8. 1219.0
Explanation:
98


Given S = 77 + 757 + 7557 + ... + 75 … 57


98


10 S= 770+7570+…+75….570+75…570

−9 S=77−13−13…−13 −75…570
 
98 times 98

9 S = −77 + 13 × 98 + 75 … . .57 + 13

99

99


75…57 +1210
S =
9

⇒ m = 1210 and n = 9 ⇒ m + n = 1219


9. 165.0
Explanation:

We can say line lies between the two circles or both centres should lie on either side of the
line as well as line can be tangent to circle.
(3 + 4 - α)⋅(27 + 4 - α) < 0
(7 - α)⋅(31 - α) < 0 ⇒ a ∈ (7, 31) ... (i)
d1 = distance of (1, 1) from line
d2 = distance of (9, 1) from line
...(ii)
|7−α|
d 1 ≥ r1 ⇒ ≥ 1 ⇒ α(−∞, 2] ∪ [12, ∞)
5

...(iii)
|31−α|
d2 ≥ r2 ⇒ ≥ 2 ⇒ α ∈ (−∞, 21] ∪ [41, ∞)
5

(i) ∩ (ii) ∩ (iii) ⇒ α∈ [12, 21]


Sum of integers = 12 + 13 +...+ 21 = 165
10. 3.0
Explanation:
We know that area of triangle = ab sin C 1

1 – √3
⇒ × 6 × 10 × sin C = 15√3 ⇒ sin C =
2 2

⇒ C = 120

as C is obtuse angle.
Now cos C , [cosine rule]
2 2 2
a +b −c
=
2ab

2
∘ 36+100−c
∴ cos 120 =
120

2 a+b+c
⇒ c = 196 ⇒ c = 14, ∴ s = = 15
2

Hence radius of incircle, r = △ 15√3 –


= = √3
s 15

2
∴ r = 3

11. 1.0
Explanation:
Given that the vectors a⃗ = a^i + ^j + k
^ ⃗ ^ ^ ^
, b = i + bj + k

and c ⃗ = ^i + ^j + ck
^
where a ≠ b ≠ c ≠ 1 are coplanar
∣a 1 1∣
⃗ ∣ ∣
∴ [a b
⃗ c ]⃗ = 0 ⇒ 1 b 1 = 0
∣ ∣
∣1 1 c ∣

Applying C 1
= C1 − C2 , C2 = C2 − C3

∣a − 1 0 1∣
∣ ∣
1 − b b − 1 1 = 0
∣ ∣
∣ 0 1 − c c∣

Taking (1 - a), (1 - b), (1 - c) common from R 1


, R2 and R respectively, we get
3

1
∣ −1 0 ∣
1−a
∣ ∣
⇒ (1 − a)(1 − b)(1 − c) ∣ 1 −1
1−b
1
∣ =0
∣ ∣
c
∣ 0 1 ∣
1−c

Applying R 2
→ R2 + R1

1
⎡ −1 0
1−a ⎤

⎢ 1 1 ⎥
⇒ (1 − a)(1 − b)(1 − c)⎢ 0 −1 + ⎥ = 0
⎢ 1−b 1−a ⎥
c
⎣ 0 1 ⎦
1−c

c 1 1
⇒ (1 − a)(1 − b)(1 − c)(−1)[− − − ] = 0
1−c 1−b 1−a

1 1 c
⇒ (1 − a)(1 − b)(1 − c) [ + + ] = 0
1−a 1−b 1−c

(1−c)−1
1 1
⇒ (1 − a)(1 − b)(1 − c) [ + − ] = 0
1−a 1−b 1−c

1 1 1
⇒ (1 − a)(1 − b)(1 − c) [ + + − 1] = 0
1−a 1−b 1−c

But a ≠ b ≠ c ≠ 1
1 1 1 1 1 1
∴ + + − 1 = 0 ⇒ + + = 1
1−a 1−b 1−c 1−a 1−b 1−c

12. 1
Explanation:
x

Let f(x) = ∫ dt - 2x + 1
2
t
4
1+t
0

- 2 < 0 ∀ x ∈ [0, 1]
2
′ x
⇒ f (x) = 4
1+x

∴ f is decreasing on [0, 1]
Also f(0) = 1
1

and f(1) = ∫ dt - 1
2
t
4
1+t
0

For 0 ≤ t ≤ 1 ⇒ 0 ≤
2
t 1
4
<
1+t 2

1
2
t 1
∴ ∫ 4
dt <
1+t 2
0

⇒ f(1) < 0
∴ f(x) crosses x-axis exactly once in [0, 1]
∴ f(x) = 0 has exactly one root in [0, 1]
13. 3
Explanation:

tan θ = cot 5θ, θ ≠
5

⇒ cos θ cos 5θ − sin 5θ sin θ = 0 ⇒ cos 6θ = 0


−5π −3π −π π 3π 5π
⇒ 6θ = , , , , ,
2 2 2 2 2 2

−5π −π −π π π 5π
⇒ θ = , , , , ,
12 4 12 12 4 12

Again sin 2θ = cos 4θ = 1 − 2 sin 2



2 1
⇒ 2 sin 2θ + sin 2θ − 1 = 0 ⇒ sin 2θ = −1,
2

−π π 5π −π π 5π
⇒ 2θ = , , ⇒ θ = , ,
2 6 6 4 12 12

So, common solutions are θ = −π

4

π

12
and 5π

12

∴ Number of solutions = 3
Mathematics (MATCH)
14. (a) (P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (3), (S) - (4)
Explanation: (P) → (1) : z_k = cos + i sin , k = 1 to 9 2kπ

10
2kπ

10

2kπ
i
∴ zk = e 10

Now z
2kπ
1 −i
¯
¯¯¯¯
k
zj = 1 ⇒ zj = = e 10
= zk
zk

We know if zk is 10th root of unity so will be z̄ . k

∴ For every zk, there exist zi = z̄ k


Such that z ⋅ z = z ⋅ z̄ = 1 k j k k

Hence the statement is true.


(Q) → (2) z1= zk ⇒ z = for z zk

z1
1
≠ 0

∴ We can always find a solution of z1.z = zk


Hence the statement is false.
(R) → (3): We know z10 -1 = (z - 1)(z - z1)...(z - z9)
(z - z1) (z - z2)...(z - z9) =
10
z −1

z−1

= 1 + z + z2 + ...z9
For z = 1, we get (1 - z1) (1 - z2)...(1 - z9) = 10
=1
|1−z1 ||1−z2 |….|1−z9 |

10

(S) → (4): 1, Z1, Z2, ..., Z9 are 10th roots of unity.


∴ Z -1=0
10

From equation 1 + Z1 + Z2 +...+ Z9 = 0,


Re(1) + Re(Z1) + Re(Z2) +...+ Re(Z9) = 0
⇒ Re(Z1) + Re(Z2) + ... Re(Z9) = -1
9 9

⇒ ∑ cos
2kπ

10
= −1 ⇒ 1 − ∑ cos
2kπ

10
=2
K =1 K =1

Hence ((P) - (1), (Q) - (2), (R) - (3), (S) - (4)) is the correct option.
15. (a) P → 4; Q → 3; R → 1; S → 2
Explanation: Area of △LMN = 4√3 (given)

LM × ON = 4√3 (2b)(√3 b) = 4√3


1 – 1 – –
⇒ × ⇒
2 2
∴ b2 = 4 ⇒ b = 2
So, length of the conjugate axis of hyperbola = 2b = 4
Now tan 30o = ​⇒ a = √3 b ⇒ a = 2√3
– –
OL a
=
ON b

∴ b2 = a2 (e2 - 1) ⇒ 4 = 12(e2 - 1) ⇒ e2 = 1 + 1

3
= 4

∴ The eccentricity of hyperbola = e = 2

√3
and
The distance between the foci of hyperbola = 2ae
= 2 × 2√3 × = =8
– 2

√3

And length of latus ractum of hyperbola


=
2
2b 2×4 4
= =
a 2√ 3 √3

16. (a) (I) → (Q); (II) → (S); (III) → (S); (IV) → (R)
Explanation: We have system of linear equations
x + y + z = 1 ...(i)
10x + 100y + 1000z = 0
x + 10y + 100z = 0 ...(ii)
qrx + pry + pqz = 0 ...(iii)
= 0 (∵ p, q, r ≠ 0)
x y z
⇒ + +
p q r

Let p = a+9d
1
,q= 1

a+99d
,r= a+999d
1

Now, equation (iii) is


(a + 9d)x + (a + 99d)y + (a + 999d)z = 0
∣ 1 1 1 ∣

Δ =∣ ∣
1 10 100


=0
∣ a + 9d a + 99d a + 999d ∣

∣1 1 1 ∣

Δx = ∣0 ∣
10 100


= 900(d - a)
∣0 a + 99d a + 999d ∣

∣ 1 1 1 ∣

Δy =∣ ∣
1 0 100


= 990(a - d)
∣ a + 9d 0 a + 999d ∣

∣ 1 1 1∣

Δz =∣ ∣
1 10 0


= 90(d - a)
∣ a + 9d a + 99d 0∣

Let option I: If q

r
= 10 ⇒ a = d
Δ =Δ =Δ =Δ =0 x y z

Since eq. (i) and eq. (ii) represents non-parallel planes and eq. (ii) and eq. (iii) represents same
plane
⇒ Infinitely many solutions

So, option I → P, Q, R, T
Option II: ≠ 100 ⇒ a ≠ d
p

Δ = 0, Δ , Δ , Δ ≠ 0 x y z

No solution
So, option II → S
Option III: ≠ 10 ⇒ a ≠ d
p

No solution
So, option III → S
Option IV: If = 10 ⇒ a = d
p

Infinitely many solution


Hence, IV → P, Q , R , T
17.
(b) (P) → (5), (Q) → (4), (R) → (3), (S) → (1)
Explanation: For largest possible distance between plane H0 and I2, the line I2 must be
parallel to plane H0.
∴ H0 will be the plane containing the line l1 and parallel to l2
∣^ ^ ^∣
i j k
→ ∣ ∣
Normal vector n = ∣1 1
^ ^
1∣ = i − k
∣ ∣
∣1 0 1∣

∴ H0 : x - z = c

(0,0,0)
⇒ c=0
∴ H0 : x - z = 0
(P) Distance of point (0,1, -1) from H0.
d (H0) = ∣∣
0−(1)
∣ 1
=
√2 ∣ √2

(Q) The distance of the point (0, 1, 2) from H0 = ∣∣ 0−2 ∣ –


= √2
√2 ∣

(R) The distance of origin from H 0


=


0 ∣

=0
√2

(S) Point of intersection of planes y = z, x = 1 and H0 is (1, 1, 1).


Distance = √1 + 1 + 1 .
−−−−−−− –
= √3

Physics (MRQ)
18. (a) ω = 2
3vx

2
L +3x

(b) ω v –
M
= √3
2L

(d) x M =
L

√3

Explanation: From angular momentum conservation about the pivoted point.


2
mL 2
mvx = ( + mx ) ω
3

[As the combined system rotates with angular speed ω about the pivot]

∴ ω = 2
mvx
=
3vx
2 2
mL 2 L +3x
+mx
3

3vx
ω = 2 2
L +3x

Hence option (ω = 3vx


2 2
) is correct.
L +3x

For maximum angular velocity, dω

dx
=0
2
d L
( + 3x) = 0
dx x

2
L L
⇒ 2
+ 3 = 0 ⇒ x =
x √3

L
∴ Xm =
√3
So option (x M
=
L

√3
) is correct.
L
3v
3vx √3 √3
ωm = = 2
= V
2 2 2L
L +3x 2 L
L +3( )
√3

Hence option (ω ) is correct.


v –
M
= √3
2L

19. (b) The time TAO = TAO


(c) The velocity of any pulse along the rope is independent of its frequency and wavelength


Explanation: Wavelength of pulse, λ = or, T ∝ √T
v 1 T −

= √
f f μ

Where T = tension of string.


Here T1 > T2 ∴ λ > λ 1 2

The velocities of the two pulses cannot be same at midpoint as velocity being vector quantity
has direction.


V = √
T

μ
, so speed at any position will be same for both pulses, therefore time taken by both
pulses will be same ie., TAO = TOA
20. (a) ρ < ρ and mA < mB
A B

(c) ρ < ρ and mA = mB


A B

Explanation: Induced emf e = − . For identical rings induced emf will be same. But current

dt

will be different. Given hA > hg.


Hence, V
2
v
A > VB as (h = )
2g

If ρ A > ρB , then, IA < IB. In this case given condition can be fulfilled if mA < mB.
If ρ A
< ρB , then, IA > IB. In this case given condition can be fulfilled if mA ≤ mB.
Physics (MCQ)
21. (a) joule metre-2
Explanation: Unit of surface tension is Nm-1
Also J m-2 = Nmm-2 = Nm-1
22.
(b) 36
Explanation:

Tcosθ component will cancel mg.


Tsinθ component will provide necessary centripetal force to
the ball towards centre C.
∴ Tsinθ = mrω = m (Isinθ )ω or T -
2 2 m
2
ω

−−
T
∴ ω = √
ml


− −
− −−−−−
or ω
T max 324
max
= √ = √ = 36rad/s
ml 0.5×0.5

23.
(c) 1

√2

Explanation: Vs = √2gR

− −

−−−− −−−−−−
VS g R1 (2g)(R/4)
1 1 1
= √ = √ =
VS g2 R2 (g)R √2
2

VS
2
VS =
1
√2

24.
(c)

both and

Explanation:

both and

Physics (NUM)
25. 6.0
Explanation:
When u = -25 cm
= + =
1

v
1

f
+
1

u 20
1 1

−25
= 100
1
⇒ v = 100 cm
m25 = −v

u
= −100

−25
=4
When u = -50 cm
1

v
= + = 1

f
+
1

u 20
1 1

−50
= 100
3
⇒ v= 100

3
cm
m50 = = =
−v −1000 −1 2
×
u 3 50 3

So, = =6
m 25 4

m 50 2

26. 8.33
Explanation:
Rate of loss of heat,
= σeA(T
dQ 4 - T ) ...(i) 4
dt 0

= e (T = σT
dQ 4 ΔT
4 4
⇒ 0
+ ΔT) − T ) [(1 + ) − 1]
Adt 0 0 T0

= eσT 0
4
[(1 + 4
ΔT

T0
) − 1]
= σeT ...(ii)
dQ 3
⋅ 4ΔT
Adt 0

Now from eq. (i)


ms = σeA(T
dQ 4 - T ) [∵ Q = msΔT] 4
dt 0


dT

dt
=
σeA

ms
[(T0 - ΔT)4 - T ] 4
0

= σeA

ms
4
T0 × [(1 +
ΔT

T0
) − 1]

dT

dt
= σeA

ms
T0
4
⋅ 4ΔT

; (K = Constant for Newton's law of cooling)


4σeAT
dT 0
= K ΔT
dt ms

⇒ 4σeAT
0
3
=
K

A
(ms)
From eq. (i)
dQ
3
= eσT0 ⋅ 4ΔT
Adt

Since, rate of loss of heat = heat received per second


700 = (K/A) (ms) ΔT [K × ms = 4200 × 10-3]
= =
−2
700×A 700×5×10 50 25
⇒ ΔT = =
K ×ms −3 6 3
10 ×4200

∴ ΔT = 8.33

27. 4
Explanation:
Applying conservation of angular momentum

=0
2
MR
2mvr −
2

4mvr
ω =
2
MR

Substituting the values, we get


−2 1
(4)(5×10 )(9)( )

= = 4 rad/s
4

ω ⇒ ω
−2 1
45×10 ×
4

28. 47.10
Explanation:
Since, pressure P = constant ρ = ρT a Ta

⇒ 1.2 × 300 = ρ(360) ∴ ρ = 1 kg/m


3
Applying Bernoullis theorem between upper and bottom point
Assuming velocity of hot air inside the furnace ≃ 0
Pa + 0 + 0 = Pa - ρ g(h) + ρg( h) + ρV a
1

2
2

−−−−−−−−
V=√ = √2(0.2)90 = 6
2(ρ a −ρ)g×9 −−−−−−−

ρ

Therefore the steady mass flow rate of air existing the chimney
2

Q = ρπ ( = 1 × 3.14
2
d ×(0.1)
)V × 6
4 4

= 0.0471 kg/s = 47.10 gms-1


29. 3.81
Explanation:
The fifth valence electron of phosphorous is in its third shell, i.e., n = 3. For phosphorous, Z =
15.
∴ Bohr's radius for n
th orbit
o o

rn = ( r0 = 0.529 A = 3.81 A
2 2
n 3
εr ) × 12×
Z 15

30. 2
Explanation:
∵ F = ma ∴ qE = m
dv

dt

dv = = (∵ E = sin 103 t ^i given)


^
qEdt q sin 1000t i
⇒ dt
m m

π
v a

sin 1000t dt [max. speed is at ]


q T 2π
∴ ∫ dv = ∫ =
m 2 ω×2
0 0

(∵ m 10-3 kg, q = 1C, E0 = 1 NC-1 and w = 103 rads-


π ω

V=− =−
q [cos 1000t]
cos 1000t ω 1 0
[ ] ×
m 1000 0
−3 1000
10

1 given)

∴ V = -[cos 1000 × π

1000
- cos 0] = -[-1-1] = 2 ms-1
Hence maximum speed attained by the particle.
Physics (MATCH)
31. (a) P → 3; Q → 4; R → 1; S → 2
Explanation: Process I is adiabatic therefore ΔQ = 0
Process II is isobaric P = constant therefore W = P(V2 - V1)
= 3P0(3V0 - V0) = 6P0V0
Process III is isochoric V = constant therefore
W - P(V2 - V1) = 0
Process IV is isothermal, temperature T = constant, ∴Δu = 0
32.
(b) (P) - (2), (Q) - (3), (R) - (4), (S) - (1)
Explanation: e → f. When the ray enters from the rectangular block to prism then angle of
incidence > angle of refraction, so μ > μ The ray then moves away from the normal when it
2 1

emerges out of the rectangular block. Therefore μ > μ . 2 3

e → g. As there is no deviation of the ray as it emerges out of the prism, ∴ μ = μ . 2 1

e → h. As the ray emerges out of prism, it moves away from the normal. ∴ μ < μ . And the 2 1

ray moves away from the normal as it emerges out of the rectangular block, ∴ μ > μ . 2 3

e → i. At the prism surface, total internal reflection has taken place.


∴ Critical angle 45
o > C ⇒ sin 45o > sin C
1 μ2 –
⇒ > ∴ μ1 > √2 μ2
μ
√2 1

33.
(c) P → 4, Q → 3, R → 2, S → 1
Explanation: In α-decay mass number (A) decreases by 4 units and atomic number (Z)
decreases by 2 units. In β decay A does not change but Z increases by 1 unit.

In β decay A does not change but Z decreases by 1 unit.


+

(P) U → Pa
92
238
91
234

238−234
N1 = = 1 → 1α
4

4 −
N2 − N3 = (92 − 91) − ( ) = −1 → 1β
2

∴ 1α and 1β emission. −

(Q) 82
Pb
214
→ 82 Pb
210
214−210
N1 = = 1 → 1α
4

4 −
N2 − N3 = (82 − 82) − ( ) = −2 → 2β
2

∴ 1α and 2β emission.

(R) 81
Tℓ
210
→ 82 Pb
206

210−206
N1 = = 1 → 1α
4

4 −
N2 − N3 = (81 − 83) − = −3 → 3β
2

∴ 1α and 3β emission.

228 224
(S) 91
Pa → 88 Ra

228−224
N1 = = 1α
4

4 +
N2 − N3 = (91 − 88) − = 1β
2

∴ 1α and 1β emission.
+

34.
(c) (I) → (P), (II)→ (Q), (III)→ (T), (IV)→ (U)
−−
Explanation: As v =
2 2
p T v ℓ m
√ ∴ T = 2
2ℓ m p

String - 1 T
2
f 4 L μ
0 0

0 = 2

2
2 3 2
f 4( ) L (2μ)

String - 2 T
0 0
2 T0
2 = 2
=
2
(3)

2
2 5 2
f 4( ) L (3μ)

String - 3 T
0 0
2
3
3 = 2
= T0
16
5

2
2 7 2
f 4( ) L (4μ)

String - 4 T
0 0
4 T0
4 = 2
=
16
(14)

Chemistry (MRQ)
35. (a) trideuteroacetaldehyde
(c) propanaldehyde
(d) acetaldehyde
Explanation: Carbonyl compounds having α - H or α - D undergo aldol condensation.
α

a. C H3 C H O
α

b. C H 3
C H2 C H O

c.

d. C D3 C H O

(α − D present )

36. (b) Z is an isotope of uranium


(c) x2 is β -ray
(d) x1 will deflect towards negatively charged plate
Explanation: 238

92
U ⟶
234

90
Th +
4
2
He; x 1 = α

234 234 0
Th ⟶ Pa + e; x 2 = β
90 91 −1

234 234 0
Pa ⟶ Z + e; x 3 = β
91 92 −1

234 230 4
Z ⟶ Th + He; x 4 = α
92 90 2

37. (a) w X→Y →Z


= wX→Y

(d) ΔS X→Z
= ΔSX→Y + ΔSY →Z
Explanation: ΔS X→Z
= ΔSX→Y + ΔSY →Z [Entropy is a state function, hence additive]
wX→Y →Z = wX→Y [Work done inY → Z is zero because it is an isochoric process].

Chemistry (MCQ)
38.
(d) CO 2−

3
< CO2 < CO
Explanation: Bond length ∝ 1

Bond order

Bond order : CO, = 2, CO = 3, CO 2−


3
= 1 +
1

3
=
4

Therefore, order of bond length is CO 2−


3
< CO2 < CO

39.
(b)
−5
1.44×10
−2
(0.082×773)

Explanation: N 2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g) Δn = −2

Δn
K p = K c (RT )

=
Kp −5
1.44×10
Kc = Δn −2
(RT ) (0.082×773)

40. (a)

C H3 C H3

(3o, most stable alkyl carbocation)


+
| H |

Explanation: C H 3
− C − OH −−−→ C H3 − C
+

| |
−H 2 O

C H3 C H3

41.
(b) ethanol
Explanation:
Ethanol is capable in forming intermolecular H-bonds:

Chemistry (NUM)
42. 1.0
Explanation:
Reaction with HCl
Ca(OH)2 + 2HCl → CaCl2 + 2H2O
Volume of Ca(OH)2 = 10 ml, Volume of HCl = 20 ml
Concentration of HCl = 0.5 M
No. of millimoles of HCl = 10, No. of milli moles of Ca(OH)2 = 5
i.e. M Ca(OH)
2
= no. of milli moles

V(ml)
=
5

10
= 0.5 M
Reaction with H2SO4
Ca(OH)2 + H2SO4 → CaSO4 + 2H2O
No. of milli moles of Ca(OH)2 = 20 × 0.5 = 10
i.e. no. of milli moles of H2SO4 = 10
⇒ MH
2
SO 4 = no. of milli moles

V(ml)
=
10

10
=1M
43. 0.156
Explanation:
[Raoult’s Equation]
O
P −P n
o
=
P N

Let the molality of the solution = m


Now, the solution contains ‘m’ moles of solute per 1000 g of benzene.
Vapour pressure of benzene, P° = 639.7 mm
Vapour pressure of solution, P = 631.9 mm
Moles of benzene (Mol. wt. 78), N = 1000

78

Moles of solute, n = ?
Substitute these values in the Raoult’s equation
or
O
P −P n 639.7−631.9 n×78
o
= =
P N 639.7 1000

or 7.8

639.7
=
78n

1000

∴ n= 1000×7.8

78×639.7
= 0.156
Hence, molality of solution = 0.156 m
44. -2091.32
Explanation:

(g) → CH3CH=CH2(g);

Δ H = -33.0 kJ ...(i)
C(s) + O2(g) → CO2(g); ΔH = -393.5 kJ ...(ii)
H2(g) + O2(g) → H2O(l); ΔH = -285.8 kJ ...(iii)
1

3C(s) + 3H2(g) → CH3-CH=CH2(g); ΔH = 20.42 kJ ...(iv)


The required reaction is

+ O2 → 3CO2 + 3H2O; ΔH = ?
9

To calculate the value of ΔH follow the following steps,


(iv)-(i) yields

3C + 3H2 → ; ΔH = 53.42 kJ ...(v)

[3 × (ii) + 3 × (iii)] - (v) yields]

+ ( )O2 → 3CO2 + 3H2O;


9

Δ H = -2091.32 kJ
45. 10
Explanation:
For n = 3 and 1 = 2 (i.e., 3d orbital), the values of m varies from -2 to +2, i.e. -2, -1, 0, +1, +2
and for each m there are 2 values of s, i.e. + and - . 1

2
1

∴ The maximum no. of electrons in all the five d-orbitals is 10.


46. 24.14
Explanation:
r1 = kc1 and r2 = kc2
Since, rate of first-order reaction is directly proportional to the concentration of its reactant,
r1 c1 0.04
∴ = =
r2 c2 0.03

According to first-order reaction


k= 2.303 c1
log
t 20 −t 10 c2
On substituting the various values k = 0.0287 min-1
t1=
0.693
=
k
= 24.14 min
0.693

0.0287
2

47. 8
Explanation:

I has one chiral carbon = two isomers


II has two chiral carbons and no symmetry = four isomers.
III and IV have no chiral carbon, no stereoisomers.
Chemistry (MATCH)
48.
(b) A - III, B - IV, C - II, D - I
Explanation:
A. Alkaline solution of copper sulphate and sodium citrate is known as Benedict’s solution
and it is used to test aliphatic aldehydes. Hence it can be used to test compound (III)
B. Neutral FeCl3 solution is used to test phenolic compound (IV)
C. Alkaline chloroform solution is used to test primary amines (II)
D. 2KI + NaOCl + H2O → NaCl + I2 + 2KOH
Potassium iodide and sodium hypochlorite gives (I2 + KOH) which is used to test those
O
OH

|| |

compounds which have CH 3


− C − or CH3 − CH − group(iodof orm test).

Hence the compound is (I)


49.
(c) A - (r), B - (p), C - (s), D - (q)
Explanation:
Complex Magnetic character Isomerism
A. [Cr(NH3)4Cl2]Cl Cr3+ is d3 hence paramagnetic cis-trans

B. [Ti(H2O)5Cl](NO3)2 Ti3+ i s d1, hence paramagnetic ionization

C. [Pt(en)(NH3)Cl]NO3 Pt2+ is d8, complex is square planar, all electrons are ionization
paired, hence diamagnetic
D. Co3+ is d6, all electrons are paired due to strong cis-trans
[Co(NH3)4(NO3)2]NO3 ligands, hence diamagnetic
50.
(b) (P) - (3), (Q) - (4), (R) - (2), (S) - (1)
Explanation: (P) (C 2
H5 )3 N + CH3 COOH ⟶ (C2H5)3NH+CH3COO-
X Y

Initially conductivity increases because on neutralisation ions are created. After that it
becomes practically constant because X alone cannot form ions.
(Q) K I (0.1M) + AgNO (0.01M) →Agl ↓ +K N O
3 3
X
Y

Number of ions in the solution remains constant as only AgNO3 precipitated as Agl.
Thereafter, conductance increases due to increase in number of ions.
(R) Initially conductance decreases due to the decrease in the number of O
¯ -
H ions as OH is

getting replaced by CH3COO- which has poorer conductivity. Thereafter, it slowly increases
due to the increase in number of H+ ions.
(S) Initially it decreases due to decrease in H+ ions and then increases due to the increase in
OH- ions.
51.
(b) P → 2; Q → 3; R → 4; S → 5
Explanation: (P) P2O3 + 3H2O → 2H3PO3
(Q) P4 + 3NaOH + 3H2O → 3NaH2PO2 + PH3
(R) PCl5 + CH3COOH → CH3COCl + POCl3 + HCl
(S) H3PO2 + 2H2O + 4AgNO3 → 4Ag + 4HNO3 + H3PO4

You might also like