19-05-2024

9610ZMD801235240002 MD

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

1) Find the value of using Binomial theorem

(1) 1.001
(2) 8.008
(3) 2.002
(4) 3.003

2) Correct expression for is

(1) 3 loge a – 5 loge b – 2 loge C

(2) 3 loge a + 5 loge b + 2 loge C
(3) –3 loge a – 5 loge b + 2 loge C
(4) 3 loge a + 5 loge b – 2 loge C

3) The value of 5(sin 100° cos27° + cos100° sin27°) is :

(1)

(2)

(3) 4
(4) 3

4) Sum of is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

5) If then the value of sin θ + cos θ is–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) If y = x(x – 2)–1 then is–

(1) zero

(2)

(3) 2(x – 2)2

(4)

7) If 2 sin2 A = 1 – cos 60° then find the value of A

(1) 60°
(2) 30°
(3) 120°
(4) 15°

8) Sum of roots of equation 2x2 + x + 2 is–

(1)

(2)

(3) 2
(4) –2

9) If and then what is the value of :-

(1) 4 (A2 + B2)

(2) A2 – B2
(3) 2 (A2 + B2)
(4) 2 (A2 – B2)

10) If then ?

(1)
(2) 1
(3) 0
(4) 2

11) If is the unit vector in direction of , then is equal to :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The angle between and is -

(1) 0°
(2) 60°
(3) 120°
(4) 180°

13) Find resultant of given vectors.

(1) 17 N
(2) 14 N
(3) 11 N
(4) 21 N

14) Which of the following cannot be the resultant of 5 N and 8 N ?

(1) 5 N
(2) 10 N
(3) 13 N
(4) 0 N
15) If the sum of two unit vectors is unit vector then angle between given unit vectors is :

(1)
rad

(2)
rad

(3)
rad

(4)
rad

16) Two equal positive charges are fixed at the points [–a, 0] and [a, 0] on the x-axis. A negative
charge is released from rest at the points [0, 2a] on the y-axis. The charge will

(1) Move to the origin and remain at rest

(2) Move to infinity
(3) Execute oscillatory but not SHM
(4) Execute SHM

17) The linear charge density on the semicircular ring in magnitude is same. The electric field at the
centre is

(1) Along +x-axis

(2) Along –x-axis
(3) Along +y-axis
(4) Along –y-axis

18) Two charges +1C and +4C are placed along x-axis. If other charge q is placed in between the
two charges, such that this system is in equilibrium. The magnitude of charge q is

(1)
C

(2)

(3)

(4)
19) Which of the following represents the variation of electric field (E) vs distance (r) along the axis
from the centre of uniformly charged ring?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

20) Two point charges of + 2 μC and + 6μC repel each other with a force of 12 N. If each is given an
additional charge of – 4 μC, then force will become :–

(1) 4N (attractive)
(2) 60 N (attractive)
(3) 4 N (Repulsive)
(4) 12 N (attractive)

21) A particle of mass m and charge +q1 moves diametrically through a uniformly charged sphere of
radius R with total charge –q2. If +q1 performs SHM, then its time period is

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

22) Assertion (A):- If a proton and an electron are placed in the same uniform electric field they
experience accelerations of different magnitudes. Reason (R):- Electric force on a charge is
independent of its mass.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the correct explanation of (A)
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(4) (A) is false but (R) is true

23) The electric field in a region of space is given by E = (5 + 2 ) N/C. The electric flux through an
area of 2 m2 lying in the YZ plane, in S.I. units is :–

(1) 10
(2) 20
(3) 10
(4) 2

24) Consider a regular cube with positive point charge +Q in all corners except for one which has a
negative point charge -Q. Let the distance from any corner to the center of the cube be r. What is the

magnitude of electric field at point P, the center of the cube?

(1) E = 0
(2) E = 1kQ/r2
(3) E = 2kQ/r2
(4) E = 6kQ/r2

25) Surface charge density of a thin disc having radius R varies with distance r from centre as σ = σ0

, (r ≠ 0) then total charge of disc is.

3
(1) 2πσ0R
(2) πσ0R2
(3)
2
(4) 2πσ0R
26)
A thin conducting ring of radius R is given a charge +Q. The electric field at the centre O of the ring
due to the charge on the part AKB of the ring is E. The electric field at the centre due to the charge
on the part ACDB of the ring is (K is mid point of AB) :-

(1) E along KO
(2) 3E along OK
(3) 3E along KO
(4) E along OK

27) An insulated sphere of radius R has a uniform volume charges density ρ. The electric field at a
point P inside the sphere at a distance r from the centre is

(1)

(2)

(3) Zero

(4)

28) A hollow cylinder has a charge q coulomb within it. If is the electric flux in units of V-m
associated with the curved surface B, the flux linked with the plane surface A in unit of V-m will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

29) An electric dipole with dipole moment C-m is placed in an electric field
(N/C). An external agent turns the dipole slowly until its electric dipole moment becomes
× 10–30 C-m. The work done by the external agent is equal to :–

(1) 4 × 10–28 J
(2) –4 × 10–28 J
(3) 2.8 × 10–26 J
(4) –2.8 × 10–26 J

30) The electric potential at a point (x, y, z) is given by : V = 5x + 4y – 6z. What is the electric field at
that point ?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) Three infinitely charged sheets are kept parallel to X, Y-plane having charge densities as shown

in figure. Then, the value of electric field at 'P' is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

32) For the isolated charged conductor shown in fig. the potential at points A, B, C and D are VA, VB,

VC and VD respectively. Then :-

(1) VA = VB > VC > VD

(2) VD > VC > VB = VA
(3) VD > VC > VB > VA
(4) VD = VC = VB = VA

33) Four equal charges q0 each, are kept fixed on the vertices of a square of side 'a'. Charge q1 is
kept at the center of the square as shown in the figure. Then which statement is correct. (here
charge q1 is restricted to move perpendicular to XY plane i.e. along z-axis)
(1) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium.
(2) charge q1 is in unstable equilibrium.
(3) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have different (opposite) signs.
(4) charge q1 is always in stable equilibrium only if q1 and q0 have same signs.

34) Let ‘e’ be charge of an electron. Let point charges be present at vertices of a cube of side ‘a’ &
let ‘F’ be magnitude of force between two electrons separated by distance ‘a’. Which of the following
cannot be the force exerted by any of the charge on any other charge present on vertices of the
cube.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) F

35) The net electric field on two sides of a large charged nonconducting sheet kept in an external
electric field is shown in the figure. The charge density on the sheet in S.I. Units is given by (ε0 is the

Permittivity of free space in S.I. Units) :-

(1) 2ε0
(2) 4ε0
(3) 10ε0
(4) Zero

SECTION-B

1) Find the value of θ for which is maximum or minimum–

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

2) A particle moves along the curve y = x3. Which coordinate changes at faster rate at x = 1 ?

(1) x–coordinate
(2) y–coordinate
(3) Both x and y–coordinate
(4) Data insufficient

3) If vector and are such that then may be equated to -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

4) Which of the following is true statement -

(1) β > α
(2) α > β
(3) α = β
(4) None

5) If then n = ?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

6) A hemispherical surface of radius R is located in a uniform electric field E as given in the figure.
The flux of electric field through the hemispherical surface is
(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

7) The force between two short electric dipoles separated by a distance r is directly proportional to

(1) r
(2) r2

(3)

(4)

8) Three particles, each having a charge of 10µC are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle
of side 10 cm. The electrostatic potential energy of the system is

(1) Zero
(2) Infinite
(3) 27 J
(4) 100 J

9) When a negative charge is released in electric field, it moves towards a position of :-

(1) Lower electric potential and lower potential energy

(2) Lower electric potential and higher potential energy
(3) Higher electric potential and lower potential energy
(4) Higher electric potential and higher potential energy

10) An uncharged metal sphere is placed between two equal and oppositely charged metal plates.
The nature of lines of force will be.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Two insulated charged metalic spheres P and Q have their centres separated by a distance of 60
cm. The radii of P and Q are negligible compared to the distance of separation. The mutual force of
electrostatic repulsion if the charge on each is 3.2 × 10–7 C is :-

(1) 5.27 × 10–4 N

(2) 2.56 × 10–3 N
(3) 1.56 × 10–3 N
(4) 3.56 × 10–4 N

12) For the irregular shaped conductor which of the following statements are true

(1) Electric field lines originate tangentially at the surface of conductor.

(2) Conductor is an equipotential surface

(3)
Electric field near the surface of conductor will be
(4) None

13) Two equal point charges are fixed at x = –a and x = +a on the x-axis. Another point charge Q is
placed at the origin. The change in the electrical force on Q, when it is displaced by a small distance
x along the x-axis, is approximately proportional to :-

(1) x
(2) x2
(3) x3

(4)

14) The density of charge at point P on the conductor is σ C/m2. The resultant electric field near P
(just outside) will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) Three point charges lie at the vertices of an equilateral triangle as shown. All three charges have
the same magnitude, but charge A and B are positive and charge C is negative. The net electric force

that charges B and C exert on A.

(1) is in the +x–direction

(2) is in the –x–direction
(3) is in the +y–direction
(4) is in the –y–direction

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

1) Which units are appropriate for a reaction rate ?

(1) mol. L–1.s–1

(2) mol. L–1
(3) mol. L.s–1
(4) L mol–1s–1

2) For a reaction pA + qB → products, the rate law expression is r = k [A]l [B]m, then:

(1) (p + l) < (l + m)
(2) (p + q) > (l + m)
(3) (p + q) may or may not be equal to (l + m)
(4) (p + q) = (l + m)

3) In a first order reaction the reacting substance has Half-life period of ten minutes. What fraction
of the substance will be left after an hour the reaction has occurred?

(1) 1/6 of initial concentration

(2) 1/64 of initial concentration
(3) 1/12 of initial concentration
(4) 1/32 of initial concentration

4) Half life in a first order and zero order reaction are same then ratio of initial rates in Ist and zero
order is: (Given initial concentration is same)

(1) 0.693 : 1
(2) 1.386 : 1
(3) 0.693 : 2
(4) 1 : 0.693

5) The incorrect statement is

(1) Rate law is an experimental fact whereas law of mass action is a theoretical proposal.
(2) Rate law is always different from the expression of law of mass action.
(3) Rate law is more informative than law of mass action for the development of mechanism.
(4) Order of a reaction is equal to the sum of powers of concentration terms in the rate law.

6) The half life period of a first order reaction is 55 days. How much time it will take to go upto
99.9% completion :-

(1) 550 days

(2) 350 days
(3) 275 days
(4) 175 days

7) The slope of is obtained by the plot of :-

(1) log K v/s log A

(2) log K v/s T
log K v/s
(3)

(4)
K v/s

8) Following mechanism is proposed for

2A + B → C + D
Mechanism :

2A C + E (Fast)

E+B D (Slow)
Overall order for reaction is :

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 1
(4) Zero

9) The Ea of a reaction in presence of a catalyst is 4.15 kJ mol–1 and in absence of a catalyst is 8.3 kJ

mol–1. What is slope of the plot of ln k vs

(1) +1
(2) –1
(3) +1000
(4) –1000

10) With respect to the figure given below, which choice correctly identifies all of the numbered
position’s?

No.-1 : Catalyst
No.-2 : Catalyst
(1)
No.-3 : Activated complex
No.-4 : Product
No.-1 : Reactants
No.-2 : Activated complex
(2)
No.-3 : Intermediate
No.-4 : Product
No.-1 : Reactants
No.-2 : Activated complex
(3)
No.-3 : Catalyst
No.-4 : Product
No.-1 : Reactants
No.-2 : Intermediate
(4)
No.-3 : Activated complex
No.-4 : Product
11) The decomposition of N2O5 occurs as, 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2, and follows first order kinetics; hence

(1) The reaction is bimolecular

(2) The recation is unimolcular
(3) t1/2 α a°
2
(4) t1/2 α a

12) The rate constant for a reaction is 10.8 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1 The reaction obeys –

(1) First order

(2) Zero order
(3) Second order
(4) All are wrong

13) Correct statement about first order reaction is :-

(1) tcompletion = finite

(2)
t1/2 ∝
(3) Unit of K is mole lit–1 s–1
(4) t1/2 × K = at constant temperature

14) The rate constant of a first order reaction depends on the :–

(1) Concentration of the reactant

(2) Concentration of the product
(3) Volume of the reaction container
(4) Temperature

15) The rate of the reaction, 2NO + Cl2 → 2NOCl is given by the rate equation rate = k[NO]2[Cl2] the
value of rate constant can be increased by :

(1) Increasing the concentration of NO

(2) Increasing the concentration of the Cl2
(3) Increasing the temperature
(4) All of these

16) Which one of the following statements for the order of a reaction is incorrect ?

(1) Order can be determined only experimentally

(2) Order is not influenced by stoichiometric coefficient of the reactants
Order of reaction is sum of power to the concentration terms of generally reactants to express
(3)
the rate of reaction
(4) Order of reaction is always whole number

17) The addition of a catalyst during a chemical reaction alters which of the following quantities ?
(1) Entropy
(2) Internal energy
(3) Enthalpy
(4) Activation energy

18) An increase in the concentration of the reactants of a reaction leads to change in :

(1) Collision frequency

(2) Activation energy
(3) Heat of reaction
(4) Threshold energy

19) An aqueous solution of glucose is labelled as 0.05 m. Which of the following options correctly
represent the concentration of the solution if density of solution is 1.009 g/mL is:

(1) 0.05 M

(2)
Xglucose =
(3) % w/v = 0.9%
% w/w =
(4)

20) All the water in a 0.20 M solution of NaCl was evaporated and a 0.150 mol of NaCl was obtained.
What was the original volume of the sample?

(1) 30 mL
(2) 333 mL
(3) 750 mL
(4) 1000 mL

21) pH of 0.1 M monobasic acid is found to be 2. Hence its osmotic pressure at a given temp. T K is :

(1) 0.1 RT
(2) 0.11 RT
(3) 1.1 RT
(4) 0.01 RT

22) The osmotic pressure of equimolar solution of BaCl2, NaCl and glucose will be in the order :

(1) glucose > NaCl > BaCl2

(2) BaCl2 > NaCl > glucose
(3) NaCl > BaCl2 > glucose
(4) NaCl> glucose> BaCl2

23) If P0 and P are vapour pressures of a solvent and its solution respectively and N1 and N2 are the
mole fractions of the solvents and non-volatile solute respectively, then correct relation is :

(1) P = P0N2
(2) P = P0N1
(3) P0 = PN1

(4) 0
P=P

24) Consider the following terms (m =molarity):

(P) mKb (Q) mKbi (R) (S) Kb

Terms which can be expressed in degree (temperature) are:

(1) R, S
(2) P, Q
(3) P, Q, R
(4) P, R

25) The freezing point of aqueous solution that contains 3% urea, 7.45% KCl and 9% of glucose is
(given Kf of water = 1.86 and assume molality = molarity) :

(1) 290 K
(2) 285.5 K
(3) 266 K
(4) 250 K

26) Ebullioscopic constant (Kb) and cryoscopic constant (Kf) depend on following factor:

(1) mole of solute added in solvent

(2) molar mass of solute added
(3) freezing point and boiling point of solvent respectively.
(4) latent heat of vaporisation and fusion of solvent respectively

27) An example of colligative property :-

(1) Freezing point

(2) Boiling point
(3) Vapour pressure
(4) Osmotic pressure

28) Which of the following is correct expression for cryoscopic constant.

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

29) Which of the following 0.1 M aqueous solutions will have the lowest freezing point :

(1) Potassium Sulphate

(2) Sodium Chloride
(3) Urea
(4) Glucose

30) Which of the following solutions will have highest boiling point ?

(1) 1% Glucose in water

(2) 1% Sucrose in water
(3) 1% NaCl in water
(4) 1% Urea in water

31) Which one has same Van't Hoff factor i as that of Hg2Cl2 :-

(1) NaCl
(2) Na2SO4
(3) Al(NO3)3
(4) Al2(SO4)3

32) pA and pB are the vapour pressure of pure liquid components, A and B, respectively of an ideal
binary solution. If xA represents the mole fraction of component A, the total pressure of the solution
will be.

(1) pB + xA (pB – pA)

(2) pB + xA (pA – pB)
(3) pA + xA (pB – pA)
(4) pA + xA (pA – pB)

33) Which one of the following is incorrect for ideal solution ?

(1) ΔP = Pobs – Pcalculated by Raoult's law = 0

(2) ΔGmix = 0
(3) ΔHmix = 0
(4) ΔUmix = 0

34) KH value for some gases at the same temperature 'T' are given :
gas KH/k bar
Ar 40.3
CO2 1.67
HCHO 1.83 × 10–5
CH4 0.413
where KH is Henry's Law constant in water. The order of their solubility in water is :-

(1) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO

(2) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO
(3) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar
(4) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar

35) Given below are two statements; one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason(R).
Assertion (A) : Isotonic solutions does not show net phenomenon of osmosis.
Reason (R) : Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given
below :

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).

SECTION-B

1)

For the reaction: xA ⟶ yB,

If the value of log102 = 0.3, the value of x:y is:

(1) 2:1
(2) 1:2
(3) 3:2
(4) 5:2

2) The rate data given were obtained for the reaction,

2NO(g) + 2H2(g) → N2(g) + 2H2O(g)
What is the rate law for this reaction ?

NO Pressure (atm) H2 Pressure (atm) Rate (atm . sec–1)

0.375 0.500 4.43 × 10–4

0.375 0.250 2.15 × 10–4

0.188 0.500 1.15 × 10–4

(1) Rate = k PNO
 Rate =
(2)

(3) Rate =
Rate =
(4)

3) A gaseous reaction, 2A(g) → B(g) + 5C(g) shows increase in pressure of B from 80 mm to 100 mm
in 5 minutes. The rate of disappearance of A is :-

(1) 4 mm min–1
(2) 8 mm min–1
(3) 16 mm min–1
(4) 2 mm min–1

4) Half life of a Ist order reaction is 12 hour. If initial amount of A = 100 kg, then amount of A
converted into product at the end of 1st day will be :-

(1) 12.5 kg
(2) 18.75 kg
(3) 93.75 kg
(4) 25 kg

5) For a reaction 2A + 2B + C → products

with the help of the following table, find order w.r.t A, B, C
[A] [B] [C] rate of reaction
0.010 0.005 0.010 5 × 10–3
0.010 0.005 0.015 5 × 10–3
0.010 0.010 0.010 1 × 10–2
0.005 0.005 0.010 2.5 × 10–3

(1) 3, 2, 0
(2) 1, 1, 0
(3) 3, 2, 1
(4) 2, 2, 1

6) The initial rate of reaction A + 5B + 6C → 3L + 3M has been determined by measuring the rate of
disappearance of A under the following conditions:-

Experiment No. [A]0 (M) [B]0 (M) [C]0 (M) Initial rate (M min–1)

1. 0.02 0.02 0.02 2.08 × 10–3

2. 0.01 0.02 0.02 1.04 × 10–3

3. 0.02 0.04 0.02 4.16 × 10–3

4. 0.02 0.02 0.04 8.32 × 10–3

Determine the rate law.
(1) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]2
(2) Rate = k[A] [C]2
(3) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]
(4) Rate = k[A] [B] [C]1/2

7) For a certain gaseous reaction rise of temperature from 25° C to 35° C doubles the rate of
reaction. What is the value of activation energy :–

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

8) The given graph is a representation of kinetics of a reaction.

The y and x axes for zero and first order reactions, respectively are

Zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = rate constant and x =
(1)
concentration)
(2) Zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = t1/2 and x = concentration)
(3) Zero order (y = rate and x = concentration), first order (y = rate and x = t1/2)
(4) Zero order (y = concentration and x = time), first order (y = t1/2 and x = concentration)

9) Match the following :

(1) (a) → (r), (b) → (q), (c) → (p), (d) → (s)

(2) (a) → (s), (b) → (r), (c) → (p), (d) → (q)
(3) (a) → (s), (b) → (r), (c) → (q), (d) → (p)
(4) (a) → (q), (b) → (s), (c) → (p), (d) → (r)

10) The vapour pressure of pure benzene, C6H6 at 50° C is 268 torr. How many moles of non-volatile
solute per mol of benzene is required to prepare a solution of benzene having a vapour pressure of
167 torr at 50° C?

(1) 0.377
(2) 0.605
(3) 0.623
(4) 0.395

11) 0.2 molal solution each of glucose (I), magnesium chloride (II) and aluminium sulphate (III) is
taken.
The correct order freezing point of the solutions will be :

(1) all same

(2) (freezing point)I < (freezing point)II < (freezing point)III
(3) (freezing point)III < (freezing point)I < (freezing point)II
(4) (freezing point)I < (freezing point)II < (freezing point)III

12) For a binary ideal liquid solution, the total pressure of the solution is given as :

(1) P =
total

(2) P =
total

(3) P =
total

(4) P =
total

13) What will be the degree of dissociation of 0.1 M Mg(NO3)2 solution if van't Hoff factor is 2.74?

(1) 75%
(2) 87%
(3) 100%
(4) 92%

14) 0.5 mole of Na2SO4 is dissolved in 500 grams of water. Determine the freezing point and boiling
point of the solution:-
(Given :- = 1.8 K kg/mol, = 0.5 K kg/mol)

(1) –1.8°C, 100.5°C

(2) –5.4°C, 101.5°C
(3) –5.4°C, 98.5°C
(4) 0°C, 100°C

15) Formula of Van’t Hoff factor will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

1) The areolar connective tissue contains -

(1) Fibroblasts
(2) Macrophages
(3) Mast cell
(4) All of the above

2) Following diagram represents which type of connective tissue ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

3) Where among the following you would expect to find brush bordered epithelium ?

(1) Gall bladder

(2) Trachea
(3) Alveoli
(4) Pericardium
4) Cartilage have :

(1) Slightly pliable matrix due to calcium salts.

(2) Slightly pliable matrix due to chondroitin salts.
(3) Very hard matrix due to calcium salts.
(4) Very hard matrix due to chondroitin salts.

5) Connective tissues includes :-

(a) Cartilage (b) Bone
(c) Adipose tissue (d) Blood

(1) a, b, and d
(2) a, b and c
(3) b and d
(4) All a,b,c and d

6) Among given statement which of the following is not associated with given epithelium

(1) Multiple cell layers are found

(2) Nucleus present in centre
(3) Found in lining of glands
(4) Main function secretion and absorption

7) Which of the following epithelium cells have irregular boundaries?

(1) Squamous epithelium

(2) Cuboidal epithelium
(3) Columnar epithelium
(4) Ciliated columnar epithelium

8) How many pairs of spiracles present in thorax in cockroach ?

(1) 10
(2) 2
(3) 8
(4) 6
9) Identify the correctly labelled part in alimentary canal of cockroach :-

(1) Salivary Reservoir

(2) Stomach
(3) Crop
(4) Hepatic Caeca

10) Match the following regarding the morphology of Cockroach and choose the correct option :-

List-I List-II

(i) Tergites (A) Fore wings

(ii) Tegmina (B) Upper lip

(iii) Hypopharynx (C) Dorsal Sclerite

(iv) Labium (D) Tongue

(v) Labrum (E) Lower lip

(1) (i)-D, (ii)-E, (iii)-C, (iv)-B, (v)-A
(2) (i)-B, (ii)-C, (iii)-E, (iv)-D, (v)-A
(3) (i)-E, (ii)-A, (iii)-C, (iv)-D, (v)-B
(4) (i)-C, (ii)-A, (iii)-D, (iv)-E, (v)-B

11) Mark the false statement with respect to cockroach

(1) Excretion is performed by Malpighian tubules

(2) Cockroach is uricotelic
(3) Blood vascular system of cockroach is closed type
(4) Respiratory system consists of a network of trachea

12) Which of the following is the correct statement of the structure labelled 'A' in the diagram ?

(1) A pair of anal styles present in females

(2) A pair of anal cerci, arise from 10th segment present in both the sexes
(3) Phallomere, external genitalia of male cockroach
(4) Ovipositor in female

13) The nerve cord of cockroach is -

(1) Double ventral and solid

(2) Double dorsal and hollow
(3) Single dorsal and solid
(4) Single ventral and hollow

14) Malpighian tubules are present at the junction of :

(1) Foregut and migdut, and helps in the secretion of digestive enzyme
(2) Midgut and hindgut, and helps in the grinding the food particles
(3) Foregut and midgut, and helps in the removal of excretory products from haemolymph
(4) Midgut and hindgut, and helps in the removal of excretory products from haemolymph

15) The thin walled urinary bladder is present __A__ to the rectum which opens into the __B__.
Identify A and B for Rana tigrina :-

(1) A – Dorsal B – Urater

(2) B – Cloaca A – Dorsal
(3) A – Ventral B – Cloaca
(4) B – Ureter A – Lateral

16) The figure given below is a male reproductive system of frog labelled A, B, C, D and E :-

Find out correct sequences of sperms passage:-

(1) A → B → C → D → D
(2) C → B → A → E → D
(3) C → B → D → A → E
(4) C → D → E → A → D

17) A triangular structure that joins the right auricle in frog is called :

(1) Sinus venosus and receives blood from the vena cava
(2) Conus arteriosus and receives blood from pulmonary artery
(3) Sinus venosus and receives blood from pulmonary artery
(4) Truncus arteriosus and receives blood from pre and post caval veins
18) Assertion : A frog live in water or near water.
Reason : Water is provide suitable enviornment for the fertilisation in frog and it is essential for
fertilisation.

(1) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(2) Assertion and reason both are true and the reason is not correct explanation of assertion.
(3) Assertion is true but reason is wrong.
(4) Assertion and reason both are wrong.

19) The excretory system of frog consists of a pair of ____A____ ureters ____B____ and ____C____.

(1) A - Cloaca, B - Kidneys, C - uriniferous tubules

(2) A - Cloaca, B - Urinary bladder, C - Uriniferous tubules
(3) A - Kidneys, B - Cloaca, C - Urinary bladder
(4) A - Uriniferous tubules, B - Kidneys, C - Cloaca

20) Statement-I : Partially digested food called chyme.

Statement-II : Chyme is passed from stomach to the small intestine, the Ileum.

(1) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.

(2) Both statement-I and statement-II are false.
(3) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(4) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

21) Which of the following matching is incorrect with reference to Rana tigrina?

(1) Sinus Venosus - Triangular structure joins the right atrium.

(2) RBCs - Oval and nucleated.
(3) Hearing - Tympanum with external ears.
Hepatic portal system - There is a special venous combination between the liver and the
(4)
intestine.

22) Fatty acids are :-

(1) Constituent of lipid

(2) They may be saturated & unsaturated
(3) Unit of carbohydrate
(4) Both (1) and (2)

23) Which amino acid is non essential for human body?

(1) Glycine
(2) Phenyl alanine
(3) Leucine
(4) Methionine

24) Which type of lipids are most abundant in protoplasm ?

(1) Triglycerides
(2) Phospholipids
(3) Glycolipids
(4) Steroids

25) Which type of linkage is present in Maltose :-

(1) α 1-4 glycosidic linkage

(2) α 1-6 glycosidic linkage
(3) α 1- β 2 glycosidic linkage
(4) β 1-4 glycosidic linkage

26) The protein structure that gives a 3-D view is :-

(1) α-helix
(2) Primary structure
(3) Tertiary structure
(4) β-pleated sheath

27) Pick out lectin from those given below :-

(1) Gum
(2) Diterpenes
(3) Concavalin A
(4) Curcumin

28) Adult human haemoglobin consists of ?

(1) 2 subunits (α, α)

(2) 2 subunits (β, β)
(3) 4 subunits (2α, 2β)
(4) 3 subunits (2α, 1β)

29) Which of the following is incorrectly matched ?

(1) Protein – Peptide bond

(2) Lipid – Ester bond
(3) Nucleic acid – Phosphodiester bond
(4) Carbohydrate – Disulphide bond

30) Which is present in acid soluble pool ?

(1) Ions
(2) Protein
(3) Nucleic acid
(4) Lipid
31) Which amino acid contains two — NH2 groups and one — COOH group ?

(1) Aspartic acid

(2) Lysine
(3) Valine
(4) Tyrosine

32) Enzyme that catalyse the linking together of two compound by expenditure of energy :-

(1) Lyases
(2) Ligases
(3) Hydrolase
(4) Transferase

33)

The protein part of enzyme is known as :-

(1) Holoenzyme
(2) Apoenzyme
(3) Cofactor
(4) All of the above

34) Given below are the examples of few amino acids:

Glutamic acid, lysine, valine, tyrosine, phenylalanine, tryptophan.
How many of the above are aromatic amino acids?

(1) 4
(2) 2
(3) 5
(4) 3

35) Identify A and B bonds in the following diagrammatic representation of a portion of glycogen –
(1) A = 1-4 α – glycosidic bonds, B = 1-6 α – glycosidic bonds
(2) A = 1-6 α –glycosidic bonds, B = 1-4 α – glycosidic bonds
(3) A = 1-1 α – glycosidic bonds, B = 1-1 α – glycosidic bonds
(4) A = 1-4 α – glycosidic bonds, B = 1-4 α – glycosidic bonds

SECTION-B

1) Match list I with list II and find the correct option:-

List - I List-II
(Epithelial tissue) (Location)

(A) Cuboidal 1 Epidermis of skin

(B) Ciliated 2 Inner lining of blood vessels

Brush-Border
(C) 3 Inner surface of gall bladder
Columnar

(D) Squamous 4 Inner lining of Fallopian tube

(E) Keratinized squamous 5 Lining of pancreatic duct

(1) (A)–(5), (B)–(4), (C)–(2), (D)–(3), (E)–(1)
(2) (A)–(3), (B)–(4), (C)–(5), (D)–(2), (E)–(1)
(3) (A)–(5), (B)–(4), (C)–(3), (D)–(2), (E)–(1)
(4) (A)–(3), (B)–(4), (C)–(5), (D)–(1), (E)–(2)

2) Which tissue support, strengthen, protect and insulate other tissues in the body ?

(1) Epithelia
(2) Connective tissue
(3) Muscular tissue
(4) Single Tissue with all these properties cannot exist

3) Which of the following connective tissue often serves as support framework for epithelium ?

(1) Areolar tissue

(2) Adipose tissue
(3) Dense regular connective tissue
(4) Dense irregular connective tissue

4) In female cockroach, how many ovarian tubules or ovarioles are present ?

(1) 8
(2) 16
(3) 14-16
(4) 9-10
5) Identify the names A, B, C & D in the given figure

A B C D

(1) Mandible Ocellus Maxilla Labrum

(2) Mandible Compound eye Maxilla Labium

(3) Mandible Maxilla Ocellus Labrum

(4) Mandible Labrum Maxilla Ocellus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

6) Find the incorrect match from the following related to cockroach.

(1) Mandibles → 1 Pair

(2) Ovarioles → 8 Pair
(3) Anterior aorta → 1 Pair
(4) Labium → Single

7) Which option is not correct for adult Rana tigrina?

(1) Excretory product – Ammonia

(2) Respiratory organ – Lungs and skin
(3) Heart – 3 chambered
(4) Food – Carnivorous

8) Which structure help to recognised male and female frog ?

(1) Only vocal sac

(2) Only copulatory pad
(3) Fat Body
(4) Both (1) and (2)

9)
Read the following statement carefully about frog :-
(A) The skin is smooth and slippery due to presence of mucus.
(B) Body is divisible into head, trunk and tail.
(C) Copulatory pad on the first digit of the hind limbs are present only in male frog.
(D) Frogs do not exhibit sexual dimorphism.
(E) The Indian bull frog, Rana tigrina is the common frog found in India.

Find out correct option :-

(1) only A, C, D are correct statements
(2) only B, C, D are incorrect statements
(3) only A, E are incorrect statements
(4) All are correct statements

10) Which of the two groups of the structure of an amino acid given below are involved in peptide
bond formation ?

(1) (i) and (iii)

(2) (ii) and (iv)
(3) (iii) and (iv)
(4) (i) and (iv)

11)
This reaction takes place in which medium :-

(1) Acidic
(2) Basic
(3) Neutral
(4) Isolectric point

12) Match the column I (organic compound) with column II (examples) and choose the correct
combination from the given options.

Column-I Column-II
(Organic Compounds) (Examples)

A. Fatty acid I Glutamic acid

B. Phospholipid II Tryptophan

C. Aromatic amino acid III Lecithin

 D. Acidic amino acid IV Palmitic acid
(1) A-I; B-II; C-III, D-IV
(2) A-IV; B-III; C-II, D-I
(3) A-II; B-III; C-IV, D-I
(4) A-III; B-IV; C-I, D-II

13) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching :-

(1) a–serine, b–glycine, c–alanine

(2) a–glycine, b–serine, c–alanine
(3) a–glycine, b–alanine, c–serine
(4) a–alanine, b–serine, c–glycine

14) Study the following graph and identify the A, B, C, D respectively :-

A – Free energy
B – Activation energy without enzyme
(1)
C – Activation energy with enzyme
D – Transition state
A – Activation energy without enzyme
B – Transition state
(2)
C – Activation energy with enzyme
D – Free energy
A – Free energy
B – Transition state
(3)
C – Activation energy without enzyme
D – Activation energy with enzyme
A – Transition state
B – Activation energy without enzyme
(4)
C – Activation energy with enzyme
D – Free energy

15) What does a and b represent in the given graph?

(1) a - pH, b - substrate concentration
(2) a - velocity of reaction, b - substrate concentration
(3) a - temperature, b - substrate concentration
(4) a - substrate concentration, b - temperature.

BIOLOGY-II

SECTION-A

1) In eukaryotic cells, there is a extensive compartmentalization of cytoplasm :-

(1) Due to the presence of fibres

(2) Due to the presence of so many organelles
(3) Due to the presence of membranous organelles
(4) All of the above

2) Identify the A, B, C and D in the given diagram

A B C D

(1) Centriole Mitochondria Nucleus SER

(2) Golgi apparatus Centriole Nuclear envelope RER

(3) Centriole Mitochondria Nuclear envelope RER

(4) Microtubules Centriole Nucleus Golgi apparatus

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) One of the most important function of the plasma membrane is :-

(1) Formation of nuclear membrane

(2) Transport of molecules across it
(3) Export of macromolecules
(4) Detoxification

4) One of the most important function of cell membrane is the transport of molecules across it. In
passive transport proteins are used to :-

(1) Transport of non polar molecules, against concentration gradient

(2) Transport of polar molecules, along concentration gradient
(3) Transport of polar molecules, against concentration gradient
(4) Transport only non polar molecules along the concentration gradient.

5) Which of the following is true for mitochondria?

(A) Mitochondria are easily visible under the microscope.
(B) Single stranded circular DNA is present in matrix.
(C) Protein synthesis occurs in mitochondrial matrix.
(D) Outer membrane forms a number of infolding called the cristae.

(1) A, C and D only

(2) A, B and D only
(3) Only C
(4) A and D only

6) Find the correct one.

(1) Non polar molecule can not cross lipid bilayer of plasma membrane
(2) Polar molecule can cross lipid bilayer of plasma membrane
(3) Polar molecule can not cross lipid bilayer of plasma membrane
(4) Polar and non polar molecule cannot cross lipid bilayer of plasma membrane

7) Arrange the following cells in decreasing order of their size :

(A) Bacteria (B) RBC
(C) Mycoplasma (D) Ostrich egg

(1) B > D > A > C

(2) D > B > A > C
(3) A > B > D > C
(4) D > A > B > C

8) Which of the following structure is similar in bacteria and animal cell ?

(1) Cell wall
(2) Ribosome
(3) Nucleus
(4) Cell membrane

9) Plasma membrane is :-

(1) Completely impermeable

(2) Selectively permeable
(3) Semipermeable
(4) Completely permeable

10) Which of the following statement is incorrect ?

(1) Unicellular organisms are capable of independent existance

(2) Any structure less than a complete structure of a cell does not ensure independent living
Matthias schleiden, a German zoologist, proposed that body of animals are composed of cells
(3)
and product of cells
(4) Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory

11) In plant cells vacuoles can occupy how much volume of the cell :-

(1) 90%
(2) Up to 90%
(3) More than 90%
(4) Less than 90%

12) Lipids are arranged within cell membrane with

(1) Non-polar heads towards outer side and the hydrophobic tails towards outer side
(2) Both heads and tails towards outer side.
(3) Polar heads towards outer side and inner hydrophobic tails towards in side.
(4) Both heads and tails towards inner side.

13) Glycosylation is mainly the function of :-

(1) RER
(2) SER
(3) Golgi complex
(4) Ribosome

14) Which one of the following is not correct for mesosome ?

(1) Help in cell wall formation

(2) Help to increase the surface area of the plasma membrane
(3) Help in DNA replication
(4) Help in photosynthesis

15) Difference in gram +ve and gram –ve bacteria is due to :-

(1) Cell envelopes

(2) Cell membrane
(3) Ribosome
(4) Cytoplasm

16) Find out the correct match from the following table.

Column-I Column-II Column-III

Passive High concentration to low ATP is not

(i)
transport concentration required

Active Low concentration to high

(ii) ATP is required
transport concentration

Facilitated Transport through ATP is not

(iii)
diffusion proteins required

Option :-
(1) (i), (ii), (iii)
(2) (i), (ii) only
(3) (ii), (iii) only
(4) (i), (iii) only

17) Nucleus was discovered by :

(1) Purkinje
(2) Nageli
(3) Robert Brown
(4) Hofmeister

18) Membrane bound structure formed by the process of packaging in the golgi apparatus.

(1) Vacuoles
(2) Lysosome
(3) Mitochondria
(4) Leucoplast

19) Recognise the figure and find out the correct matching.
 a– Nerve cell (long and narrow)
(1)
b– Tracheid (long and elongated)
a– Nerve cell (long and branched)
(2)
b– Tracheid (long and narrow)
a– Nerve cell (branched and long)
(3)
b– Columnar epithelial cell (elongated)
a– Nerve cell (long and branched)
(4)
b– Columnar epithelial cell (long and narrow)

20) Middle lamella is mainly composed of :

(1) Hemicellulose
(2) Calcium pectate
(3) Muramic acid
(4) Phosphoglycerides

21) Which of the following structure is not found in prokaryotic cells?

(1) Plasma membrane

(2) Nuclear envelope
(3) Ribosome
(4) Mesosome

22) Which of the following is correctly matched ?

(1) SER – Synthesis of protein

(2) RER – Synthesis of steroidal hormone
(3) Golgibody – Formation of nuclear membrane
(4) Lysosome – Digestion of Nucleic acid

23) Select the incorrect statement regarding S-phase of interphase.

(1) Occurs between G1 and G2

(2) DNA replicates in the nucleus
(3) Centrioles duplicates in the cytoplasm
(4) As DNA is doubled and number of chromosomes are also double

24) Cytokinesis in plant cells occur by ______ method in ______ direction.

From the following options choose the correct terms for above blanks respectively :-

(1) Furrowing, centrifugal

(2) Cell plate, centrifugal
(3) Furrowing, centripetal
(4) Cell plate, centripetal

25) Read the following terms :-

(a) Crossing over
(b) Synapsis
(c) Terminalisation of chiasmata
(d) Division of centromere
(e) Nuclear membrane disappear
Which term are related to prophase-I ?

(1) a, b, c, d and e
(2) a, b, c and d
(3) a, b, d and e
(4) a, b, c and e

26) Find out the correct statement :

(a) Division of centromeres takes place during anaphase–I of meiosis
(b) Spindle fibres disappear completely in telophase of mitosis
(c) Nucleoli reappears at telophase of mitosis
(d) Synapsis of homologous chromosomes takes place during prophase–I of meiosis

(1) Only b
(2) a, b, c only
(3) a, b, d only
(4) b, c, d, only

27) How many of the following is observed in the interphase nucleus ?

Centriole, Nucleolus, Centromere, Kinetochore

(1) Three
(2) One
(3) Four
(4) Two

28) In which phase of meiosis the chromosomes do undergo some dispersion but they do not reach
the extremely extended state of the interphase nucleus:-

(1) Prophase-I
(2) metaphase-I
(3) Telophase-I
(4) Prophase-II

29) Which phase of meiosis, begins with the simultaneous splitting of the centromere of each
chromosome :

(1) Anaphase-II
(2) Anaphase-I
(3) Metaphase-II
(4) No any meaning of this statement

30) In a diploid cell after S-phase quantity of DNA is 20 pico gram then after anaphase-II situation
will be in each daughter nucleus :-

(1) Diploid, 10 pico gram DNA

(2) Haploid, 10 pico gram DNA
(3) Haploid, 5 pico gram DNA
(4) Diploid, 5 pico gram DNA

31) Cell cycle is regulated by :-

(1) Cyclins
(2) ATPase
(3) Cohesins
(4) Rennin

32) A somatic cell that has just completed the S phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of the
same species, has :-

(1) Same number of chromosomes but twice the amount of DNA

(2) Twice the number of chromosomes and four times the amount of DNA
(3) Fur times the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA
(4) Twice the number of chromosomes and twice the amount of DNA

33) After telophase I of meiosis, the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell is

(1) Diploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid

(2) Diploid, and each chromosome is composed of two chromatids
(3) Haploid, and each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid
(4) Haploid, and each chromosome is composed of two chromatids

34) During cell division when karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis as a result of which
___(A)___ conditon arises leading to the formation of ___(B)___

(1) A – Polyploidy ; B – Polytene chromosomes

(2) A – Multinucleated ; B – Syncytium
(3) A – Multinucleated ; B – Polyploidy
(4) A – Polytene chromosomes ; B – Syncytium

35) Which of the following is proper sequence of stages in mitosis?

(1) Metaphase, telophase, prophase & anaphase.

(2) Prophase, metaphase, anaphase & telophase.
(3) Anaphase, metaphase, telophase & prophase
(4) Telophase, anaphase, metaphase & prophase

SECTION-B
1) Movement of water across the plasma membrane from higher to lower concentration occurs by :

(1) Diffusion
(2) Osmosis
(3) Active transport
(4) All of these

2) Given below is the diagrammatic sketch of fluid mosaic model of plasma membrane. Identify the
parts labelled A,B,C and D and select the right option about them :-

Options :-

Part A Part B Part C Part D

(1) Protein Sugar Lipid bilayer Cholesterol

(2) Sugar Protein Lipid bilayer Cholesterol

(3) Sugar Protein Cholesterol Lipid bilayer

(4) Sugar Protein Lipid bilayer Integral protein

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) According to the fluid mosaic model, the A nature of lipids enables lateral movement of B
within the bilayer.

(1) A-Solid, B-Proteins

(2) A-Quasi-Fluid, B-Lipids
(3) A-Quasi Fluid, B-Proteins
(4) A- Solid, B-Lipids

4) Which one of the following organelle in the figure correctly matches with its function ?
(1) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, protein synthesis
(2) Rough endoplasmic reticulum, formation of lipid
(3) Golgi apparatus, protein synthesis
(4) Golgi apparatus, formation of glycolipids

5) Neutral solutes may move across the membrane by the process of :-

(1) Osmosis
(2) Simple diffusion along the concentration gradient
(3) Simple diffusion against the concentration gradient
(4) Active transport

6) Arrangement of golgi apparatus in a cell is :-

(1) Convex Cis/forming face is towards cell membrane

(2) Concave Cis/forming face is towards cell membrane
Convex Cis/forming face is towards nucleus while concave trans or maturing face is towards
(3)
plasma membrane.
Convex Cis/forming face is towards plasma membrane while concave trans or maturing face is
(4)
towards nucleus.

7) Which one of the following options gives the correct categorisation in living cells?

A B C

(1) 70s Ribosome 60s rRNA Prokaryotic cell

(2) 80s Ribosome 60s rRNA Eukaryotic cell

(3) 20s Ribosome 70s Ribosome Eukaryotic cell

(4) 70s Ribosome Inclusion bodies Prokaryotic cells

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) In the chromoplasts fat soluble carotenoid pigments are :-

(1) Carotene
(2) Xanthophylls
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(4) Amyloplasts

9) "Bodies of animals and plants are composed of cells and product of cells" hypothesis proposed by
:-

(1) Rudolf virchow

(2) Schwann
(3) Schleiden
(4) Flemming

10) Choose the correct option for the stage at which morphology of chromosome is easily studied :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

11) Which one of the following option gives the correct categorisation of cellular events according to
their respective phase (A, B, C).

A B C
(Diakinesis) (Pachytene) (Diplotene)

(1) Synapsis Crossing over Chiasmata appear

Terminalisation of Recombination Dissolution of

(2)
chiasmata nodule synaptonemal complex
 Activity of recombinase
(3) Synapsis Crossing over
enzyme

(4) Bouquet stage Crossing over Chiasmata appear

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

12)

Meiosis-I and meiosis-II are characterised by the separation of ______ and __ respectively.

(1) Homologous chromosome, sister chromatids

(2) Sister chromatids, homologous chromosomes
(3) Centromere, telomere
(4) Telomere, centromere

13) Meiosis-I results in formation of ______ of cells with ________ of chromosomes in each cell as
compare to mother cell.

(1) Tetrad, half number

(2) Dyad, half number
(3) Tetrad, same number
(4) Dyad, double number

14)

Which of the following initiates the start of metaphase?

(1) Completion of bivalent chromosome formation

(2) Assemblage of microtobules of nucleoplasm
(3) Complete disintegration of nuclear envelope
(4) Duplication of chromosome

15) If mitotically dividing vegetative cell of flowering plant has 40 chromosome with 80 pg DNA in G1
phase then anaphasic cell will have :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

SECTION-A

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 4 3 1 4 2 2 2 1 3 1 4 1 4 2 3 4 3 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
A. 1 2 1 3 4 4 2 4 3 1 1 4 3 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 36 37 38 39 40 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
A. 3 2 4 1 3 1 4 3 3 2 2 2 1 3 4

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A

Q. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
A. 1 3 2 2 2 1 3 1 4 4 3 2 4 4 3 4 4 1 1 3
Q. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 2 3 3 4 4 4 1 3 2 2 2 1 4

SECTION-B

Q. 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 1 4 2 4 2 1 4 2 2 2 4 2 2 2 1

BIOLOGY-I

SECTION-A

Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 3 1 2 4 1 1 2 1 4 3 2 1 4 3 3 1 1 3 1
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130 131 132 133 134 135
A. 3 4 1 2 1 3 3 3 4 1 2 2 2 4 1

SECTION-B

Q. 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 3 2 1 2 1 3 1 4 2 2 2 2 3 3 2

BIOLOGY-II
 SECTION-A

Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 3 1 2 2 3 3 2 4 2 3 2 3 3 4 1 1 3 2 4 2
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180 181 182 183 184 185
A. 2 4 4 2 4 4 4 3 1 3 1 2 4 2 2

SECTION-B

Q. 186 187 188 189 190 191 192 193 194 195 196 197 198 199 200
A. 2 2 3 1 2 3 4 3 2 3 2 1 2 3 3
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

= 2×[1 + 0.001]
= 2×[1.001] = 2.002

2)

= 3 loge a + 5 loge b – 2 loge C

3)

5(sin 100° cos27° + cos100° sin27°)

⇒ 5 sin(100° + 27°)
⇒ 5 sin127°
⇒ 5 sin (180° – 53°)
⇒ 5 sin 53°

⇒ =4

4)

5)

P=2

B=3
 6)

y = x(x – 2)–1

7)

⇒
⇒ A = 30°

8)

Sum of roots

9)

...........(i)

...........(ii)
add equation (i) and (ii)

Multiply both side by 2

 10)

[θ = 0°]

11)

Unit vector of

12)

and are in opposite direction

so θ = 180°

13)

Sum of 3 N & 3 N ⇒
R1 = 2 × 3 cos 60° = 3 N
Direction 60° anticlock wise from X

sum of

Direction 60° anticlockwise from X

Resultant of all vector
= 5 + 3 + 9 = 17 N

14)
Rmin ≤ R ≤ Rmax
|A – B| ≤ R ≤ |A + B|

15)

16)

For SHM F = –kx

17)

Along –y axis

18)

Force on 4C is zero

19)

20)

F1 = = 12N repulsion
After adding charge (–4µC)

F2 = = 4N attractive

21)
Force on q1 at distance x < R from the centre is

22)

As magnitude of charge on both e- and protons is same, so they experience same electric force but
since their masses are different, their acceleration are different.

23)

N/C
= 2m in y-z plane = 2m2
2

= 10 units

24)

By symmetry, electric field at P due to all shown positive charges is zero.

So

25)

Let us assume an elemental ring of radius 'r' & thickness 'dr', then charge on ring

dQ = σ (Area of shaded region)

= σ (2πrdr)

0
dQ = σ 2π r dr

0
= 2π σ R
Q = 2πR2 σ0

26)

Electric field at O is zero. Electric field at O due to AC DB is equal and opposite to electric field at O
due to AKB, i.e. E along OK.

27)

Einside =

28)

29)

Work done =

30)

31)

The electric field due to an infinite plane sheet of charge is uniform that is distance independent. So,
at point P, by principle of superposition of electric field,

Or .

32) Surface of conductor is equipotential surface.

33)

q1 is in unstable eqilibrium if q0 & q1 have same signs.

As charge moves toward the (+) ve z-axis or –ve z-axis, then net force on charge will be along the
displace direction& would not come ever.
q1 is in stable equlibrium if q1 & q0 have difference signes
In this case as charge moves away from centre then net force on the charge opposite to displace
direction.

34)

For cube distance between two charges can be a, ,

so force can be
Here q1 = n1e, q2 = n2e & n1, n2 will be integer

and ,

F2 = (n1, n2)

so, denominator can't be 4

35)

E0 – E = 8
E0 + E = 12
∴ 2E = 4

σ = 4ε0

36)

⇒ cos θ – sin θ = 0
⇒ tan θ = 1
⇒θ=

37)

y = x3 ⇒ dy = 3x2dx ⇒

Therefore at x = 1, , y– coordinate changes at faster rate.

38)

then θ = 120°

39)

then α < β

40)

.........(i)
form Δ AOB
.........(ii)
form Δ AOC
.........(iii)
form Δ AOD
.........(iv)
In square ABCD

.........(v)
Put value of equation (ii) to (iv) in equation (i)

.........(vi)
Put value of equation (v) in equation (vi)

Negative vectors
so

[n = 4]

41)

f = EA

42)

43)

For pair of charge

= 27 J

44)

Theoretical

45)

There is no electric field inside a conductor, and at surface, lines of forces are perpendicular to the
conductor at any point.

46)

Here, q1 = q2 = 3.2 × 10–7 C, r = 60 cm = 0.6 m

Electrostatic force, F =

=
= 2.56 × 10–3 N

47)

Potential at all the points are equal.

48) For very small x << a as given in question.

 =
Since a2 – b2 – (a – b) (a + b)

=
for x << a.

49) Resultant field near surface of conductor is .

50) The component of forces will be in -y direction only So, answer is (4).

CHEMISTRY

51) mol. L–1.s–1

52) (p + q) may or may not be equal to (l + m)

53)

54)

55)

Rate law is same as law of mass action.

56)
 For 1st order r × n t99.9 equals 10 times of
t99.9% = 10 ×
= 10 × 55

57)

log K = log A

graph . logK vs

slope is →

58)

For slow reaction r = K2 [E] [B] …..(1)

For fast reaction ⇒ …..(2)

From eq. (1) and (2)

r=
r = K2 · Keq [A]2 [B]1 [C]–1
order of reaction = 2 + 1 – 1 = 2

59)

slope = = = –1000

60)

1 & 4 are respectively reactants and products. 2 lies in between the peaks so it must be
intermediate. 3 is the most unstable activated complex.

61) 2N2O5 → 4NO2 + O2, 1st order

This reaction is complex reaction and molecularity is not define for complex reaction. In 1st
0
order reaction half lite ∝ (Initial concentration)

62) Given: K = 10.8×10–5 mol L–1S–1, order (n) = ?

General unit of K = mol1–n Ln–1 time–1
On comparing power of mole
1–n = 1
(order) n = 0
 63) Given : 1st order
t100% = tcompletion = infinite

Unit of K = time–1
t1/2 × K = 0.693 (constant)

64) Given : 1st order

rate constant depends upon activation energy and temperature. It don’t depends on concentration of
any reactant or product and volume of container.

65)

As T↑

In rate constant No concentration terms present so its value can be change by changing any
concentration. Its value can be increases by increasing temperature or decreasing activation energy.

66)

Order is an experimental value and it is not influenced stoichiometric of the reactant. In rate law,
order is sum of power to the concentration terms. Order may be positive, negative, zero or fraction.

67) When catalyst added to a chemical reaction, its activation energy decreases.

68)

When Concentration of the reactant of a reaction increase then number of reactant molecule’s per
unit volume increases and collision frequency increases.

70)

= 0.150 ⇒ V = 750 mL

71)

[H+] = cα; 10–2 = 0.4 × α

⇒ α = 0.1; i = 1 + α = 1.1;
π = 0.1 × 1.1 × R × T

72)

If conc. is same then, π ∝ i.

73)
Psolution = xsolvent × Psolvent ⇒ P = N1 × P0

75)

Weight of solvent = 100 – 3 – 7.45 – 9 = 80.55g

ΔTf =
= 6.93 K
Tf = 273 – 6.93 = 266 K

77)

Osmotic pressure

78)

79)
(maximum)
Hence K2SO4 will have lowest Freezing point.

80)
for glucose : (i = 1)

For 1% NaCl (i=2)

For 1% Ca3(PO4)2
(i=5)

For 1% urea (i=1)

For (NaCl), ΔTb is maximum & hence maximum boiling point.

81) For Hg2Cl2 i=3

For Na2SO4 i=3
Hg2Cl2 → Hg2 + 2Cl–
2+

82) PS = PAXA + PBXB

= PAXA + PB(1–XA)
= PAXA+PB–PBXA
 = PB+XA(PA–PB)

83)

For spontaneous process

ΔGmix is Always less than zero

84)

Greater tha value of KH for a gas, lesser is its solubility in water. So, order of solubility of gases
in water is –
Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO

85)

π1 = π2 (for isotonic solution)

Hence there is no net movement of solvent particles.

86)

xA → yB

87)

88)

2A(g) → B(g) + 5C(g)

Rate =
Zero order reaction → mm min–1
Rate = K

Rate = ⇒ ⇒ 4 mm min–1

= 4 mm min–1 ⇒ = 8 mm min–1

89)
The half life of 1st order

time = 1 day = 24 hr

90)

R = K[A]x [B]y [C]z

5 × 10–3 = K [0.010]x [0.005]y [0.010]z ……(1)
5 × 10–3 = K [0.010]x [0.005]y [0.015]z ……(2)
1 × 10–2 = K [0.010]x [0.010]y [0.010]z ……(3)
2.5 × 10–3 = K [0.005]x [0.005]y [0.010]z ……(4)

Eq. 1/2

⇒z=0
Eq. 1/4

⇒ (2)1 = (2)x ⇒ x = 1
Eq. 1/3

⇒y=1

1, 1, 0

91)

Let r = K[A]x[B]y[C]z
Using (1) & (2)

2=
⇒
 Using (2) & (3)

Similarly, using (1) & (2) are find that

∴ r = K[A]1[B]1[C]2

92)

For 10°C rise of temp. 25°C to 35°C rate of given reaction is double.

∴ Temp. coefficient of reaction =2

log =

log2 =

Ea =

93)

Zero order First order

r=K
T = constant t1/2 = constant
T = constant

0
[A]t = [A] – Kt
K = constant

First order
 T = constant
(A) = constant

94)

(a) slope of ln K Vs is (a) → (s)

(b) ETH–ER = Eaf = Ea (b) → (r)
(c) Fraction of molecule’s with energy ≥ Ea
⇒ e–Ea/RT (c) → (p)
(d) ΔH = Eaf–Eab (d) → (q)

95)

⇒ n = 0.605

96)

As i , ΔTb , hence, Tf ↓

97)

Total pressure of solution for a binary liteal liquid solution.

Ptotal =

98)

Given
Molarity = 0.1 M
Van't Hoff factor (i) = 2.74
Since i > 1 it means solute is undergoing dissociation
 Degree of dissociation = 0.87
It means 87%

99)

Na2SO4 → 2NA+ +
i=2+1=3
ΔTb = Kb × m × i

=
= 0.5 × 3
ΔTb = 1.5, boiling point = 100 + 1.5 = 101.5°C
ΔTf = i × Kf × m

= 5.4°C
Tf = 0 – 5.4°C
Tf = – 5.4° C

100)

BIOLOGY-I

101)

NCERT XI Page No. # 103

104)

NCERT XI Pg. # 309

108)

NCERT XI Pg. # 113

109) NCERT XI Pg. # 113

110)

NCERT XI Pg. # 111, 112 (E)

113)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 55

115)

NCERT Pg. # 118

 116)

NCERT Pg. # 119, fig. 7.21

120)

NCERT - Pg. # 117

127)

NCERT Pg.#146

129)

NCERT XI Pg. # 144,151

137)

NCERT XI, Pg # 120

138) NCERT P.g No 103

139)

NCERT XI (E) Pg. # 114

141)

Old NCERT Pg. # 112, 113 - Edition 2022-23

144)

NCERT Pg.# 116,121

BIOLOGY-II

151)

NCERT Pg.#129

152)

NCERT XI Pg. # 130

153)

NCERT XI pg.# 132

154)

NCERT- XI Pg. # 132

155)
NCERT XI Pg.#135, 8.5.4

156) NCERT Pg. No. 94

157)

NCERT XI Pg. # 126, 127

158) NCERT XI, Pg. # 128

159)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 131

160)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 125,126

162)

NCERT XI Pg. # 131, (8.5.1)

163)

NCERT XI Pg. # 134, (8.5.3.2)

164)

NCERT Page # 128, 129

165)

NCERT Page # 128

166) NCERT XI Pg # 132

169)

NCERT XI Pg. # 127

171)

NCERT Pg. # 129

172)

NCERT-XI, Pg. # 133,134

173)

NCERT Pg. # 163

 174)

NCERT XI Eng Pg. 166

175) NCERT Pg # 186

183) NCERT Pg # 169

184)

NCERT XI Pg.#166

185) NCERT pg-164

187) NCERT XI Page No. 131

188)

NCERT XI Pg. # 132

189)

NCERT-XI Pg. # 133

190)

NCERT Pg. # 132

191)

NCERT Pg#133

192) NCERT XI, Pg. # 136

193) NCERT pg-134

194)

NCERT, Pg#126, para-8.2

198) NCERT Pg # 167

199) Pg. No. 123 - XI NCERT

200) NCERT 11th pg no.163