20-04-2025

3010CMD303021250002 MD

PHYSICS

1) The mass number of He is 4 and that for sulphur is 32. The radius of sulphur nucleus is larger
than that of helium, by times :-

(1)
(2) 4
(3) 2
(4) 8

2) The number of photons per sec on an average emitted by the source of light of wavelength 400
nm. When it delivers the power of 1MW will be :-

(1) 1018
(2) 2 × 1024
(3) 2 × 1026
(4) 2 × 1021

3) A nucleus with mass number 240 breaks into two fragments of mass number 110 and 130 having
binding energy per nucleon 7.8 MeV and 8.0 MeV respectively. If binding energy per nucleon of
unfragmented nuclei is 7.5 MeV. The energy released in the process is :-

(1) 216 MeV

(2) 153 MeV
(3) 124 MeV
(4) 98 MeV

4) Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason
(R).
Assertion (A) : In photoelectric effect, on increasing the intensity of light, both the number of
electrons emitted and kinetic energy of each of them get increased but photoelectric current
remains unchanged.
Reason (R) : The photoelectric current depends only on wavelength of light.

(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but the (R) is not the correct explanation of the (A).
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(3) (A) and (R) both are false.
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation of the (A).

5) Match the columns :

Column-I Column-II
 Photoelectric current is directly
i. p. Frequency of light
proportional to

Maximum kinetic energy of

Intensity of light of a
ii. photoelectron increases linearly with q.
given frequency
increase in

Photoelectric current becomes zero in

iii. r. Threshold frequency
experiment

Certain minimum frequency of light

iv. below which no photo electron emission s. Stopping potential
takes place

Now, select the correct option from the codes given below :
(1) i-r, ii-p, iii-s, iv-q
(2) i-p, ii-q, iii-r, iv-s
(3) i-q, ii-p, iii-s, iv-r
(4) i-p, ii-r, iii-p, iv-q

6) Energy released as mass of 2 amu is converted into energy is :-

(1) 1.5 × 10–10 J

(2) 3 × 10–10 J
(3) 1863 J
(4) 931.5 MeV

7) The mass defect in a nucleus is 3.5 amu then the binding energy of the nucleus is :-

(1) 32.58 MeV

(2) 325.85 MeV
(3) 3260.25 MeV
(4) 3.258 MeV

8) The radius of electron in a H-atom changes from 2.12 Å to 4.77 Å. The H-atom has :-

(1) Absorbed a photon of energy 1.51 eV

(2) Absorbed a photon of energy 1.89 eV
(3) Emitted a photon of energy 10.2 eV
(4) Emitted a photon of energy 1.04 eV

9) The de-Broglie wavelength of a thermal neutron at 927°C is λ. It's wavelength at 327°C will be:-

(1) λ/2
(2)
(3)
(4) 2λ
10) The minimum intensity of light to be detected by human eye is 10–10 W/m2. For vision the number
of photons of wavelength 5.6 × 10–7 m entering (per second) the eye, with pupil area 10–6 m2 will be
nearly :-

(1) 100
(2) 280
(3) 350
(4) 400

11) Two identical photo-cathodes receive light of frequencies f1 and f2 (f1 > f2 > f0). If the velocities of
the photo electrons (of mass m) coming out are respectively v1 and v2 then :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) In a photoelectric emission, electrons are ejected from metals X and Y by light of frequency f.
The potential difference V required to stop the electrons is measured for various frequencies. If Y
has a greater work function than X, which graph illustrates the expected results :-

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

13) In Bohr model of hydrogen, the force on electron depends on the principal quantum number as :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14) The threshold wavelength of lithium is 8000 Å. When light of wavelength 9000 Å is made to be
incident on it, then the photo electrons :-

(1) Will not be emitted

(2) Will be emitted
(3) Will sometimes be emitted and sometimes not
(4) Data insufficient

15) In the experiment of photoelectric effect saturation current (is) is 5mA and stopping potential (vs)
is 10V. If intensity (number of photons per unit time) and frequency of light both are doubled then :

(1) is = 5mA and Vs = 10V

(2) is = 10mA and Vs = 20V
(3) is = 5mA and Vs > 20V
(4) is = 10mA and Vs > 20V

16) Figure shows the stopping potential VS versus frequency ν for photo-electric emission from two

metals A and B. Choose the correct statement from the following:

(1) work function of A is greater than that of B
(2) the slope tan θ = hv/e

(3) the ratio of intercepts on negative y-axis is where ϕA and ϕB are the work function of A
and B respectively
(4) All of the above

17) The binding energies per nucleon for a deuteron and an α-particle are x1 and x2 respectively.
What will be the energy Q released in the reaction
2 2 4
1H + 1H 2He + Q

(1) 4 [x1 + x2]

(2) 4 [x2 – x1]
(3) 2 [x1 + x2]
(4) 2 [x2 – x1]

18) An electron and a proton have the same De Broglie wavelength. Then the kinetic energy of the
electron is :

(1) zero
(2) Infinity
(3) Equal to kinetic energy of proton
(4) Greater than the kinetic energy of proton

19) De Broglie equation for an electron shows is :

(1) Particle nature

(2) Wave nature
(3) Dual nature
(4) None of these

20) What will happen to De Broglie's wavelength if the velocity of electron is increased :

(1) It will increase

(2) It will decrease
(3) It will remain same
(4) It will become twice

21) Which of the following is weakest force :-

(1) Gravitational force

(2) Electric force
(3) Magnetic force
(4) Nuclear force

22) If given particles are moving with same velocity, then maximum de-Broglie wavelength for :
(1) Proton
(2) α - particle
(3) Neutron
(4) β - particle

23) The volume occupied by an atom is greater than the volume of the nucleus by a factor of about :-

(1) 101
(2) 105
(3) 1010
(4) 1015

24) The mass number of a nucleus is

(1) always less than its atomic number

(2) always more than its atomic number
(3) may equal to its atomic number
(4) sometimes less than and sometimes more than its atomic number

25) A nucleus represented by the symbol has :-

(1) Z protons and A – Z neutrons

(2) Z protons and A neutrons
(3) A protons and Z – A neutrons
(4) Z neutrons and A – Z protons

26) Energy levels A,B and C of a certain atom correspond to increasing values of energy i.e.
EA < EB < EC . If λ1 ,λ2 and λ3 are wave lengths of radiations corresponding to transitions C to B, B
to A and C to A respetively, which of the following relations is correct :–

(1) λ3 = λ1 + λ2

(2)
λ3 =
(3) λ1 + λ2 + λ3 = 0
(4)

27) If electron in a hydrogen atom has moved from n = 1 to n = 10 orbit, the potential energy of the
system has

(1) increased
(2) decreased
(3) remained unchanged
(4) become zero

28) The figure shows a plot of photo current versus anode potential for a photo sensitive surface for
three different radiations. Which one of the following is a correct statement ?

(1) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of same frequency having same intensity
(2) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities
(3) curves (a) and (b) represent incident radiations of same frequency but of different intensities
(4) curves (b) and (c) represent incident radiations of different frequencies and different intensities

29) An electron of stationary hydrogen atom passes from the fifth energy level to the ground level.
The velocity that the atom acquired as a result of photon emission will be :
(m is the mass of the atom, R, Rydberg constant and h Planck's constant)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

30) For photoelectric emission from certain metal the cutoff frequency is ν. If radiation of frequency
2ν impinges on the metal plate, the maximum possible velocity of the emitted electron will be (m is
the electron mass) :-

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

31) What is the ratio of the shortest wavelength of the Balmer series to the shortest wavelength of
the Lyman series ?

(1) 4 : 1
(2) 4 : 3
(3) 4 : 9
(4) 5 : 9

32) When a metallic surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength λ, the stopping potential is

V. If the same surface is illuminated with radiation of wavelength 2λ, the stopping potential is . The
threshold wavelength for the metallic surface is :-
(1) 4λ
(2) 5λ

(3)

(4) 3λ

33) The frequency of the incident light falling on a photosensitive metal plate is doubled, the kinetic
energy of the emitted photoelectrons is

(1) Double of the earlier value

(2) Unchanged
(3) More than double
(4) Less than double

34) Threshold wavelength for photoelectric emission from a metal surface is 5200 Å. photoelectrons
will be emitted when this surface is illuminated with monochromatic radiation from.

(1) 1 W IR lamp
(2) 50 W UV lamp
(3) 50 W IR lamp
(4) 10 W IR lamp

35) Two particles move at right angle to each other. Their de-Broglie wavelengths are λ1 and λ2
respectively. The particles suffer perfectly inelastic collision. The de-Broglie wavelength λ, of the
final particle, is given by :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

36) Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1 and m2 (m1 < m2) have the same de-Broglie wavelength
then.

(1) their momenta are not same

(2) their energies are same
(3) energy of A1 is less than the energy of A2
(4) energy of A1 is more than the energy of A2

37) Light with intensity of 21 W/cm2 falls on a perfectly reflecting surface at normal incidence. If
surface has an area of 20cm2 the force due to the radiation on the surface is :

(1) 0.6 × 10–6 N

(2) 1.4 × 10–6 N
(3) 2.8 × 10–6 N
(4) 3.2 × 10–5 N

38) According to the Bohr theory of Hydrogen atom, the speed of the electron, its energy and the
radius of its orbit varies with the principal quantum number n, respectively, as

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

39) The de Broglie wavelength associated with an electron, accelerated by a potential difference
of 81 V is given by:

(1) 13.6 nm
(2) 136 nm
(3) 1.36 nm
(4) 0.136 nm

40) The maximum kinetic energy of the emitted photoelectrons in photoelectric effect is independent
of :

(1) work function of material

(2) intensity of incident radiation
(3) frequency of incident radiation
(4) wavelength of incident radiation

41) The graph which shows the variation of the de broglie wavelength (λ) of a particle and inverse of
its associated momentum (p) is.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)

42)

Threshold wavelength of a metal surface is 5 × 10–7 m. When it is illuminated by light of wavelength

3 × 10–7m , stopping potential is V0. What will be stopping potential, if wavelength of incident light
is doubled :-

(1)

(2) 2V0
(3) V0
(4) Zero

43) The radius of the smallest orbit of electron in hydrogen-like ion is metre; then
it is :-

(1) hydrogen atom

(2) H+
(3) Li2+
(4) Be3+
44) Angular momentum of an electron in hydrogen atom is . Wavelength of this electron is
approx:-

(1) 1Å
(2) 10 Å
(3) 100 Å
(4) 150 Å

45) An unknown nucleus contains 70 neutrons and has twice the volume of the nickel nucleus.
Identify the unknown nucleus in the form .

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

CHEMISTRY

1)
What is 'Q' ?

(1) isobutane
(2) isopropane
(3) tert. butyl chloride
(4) propane

2) Product
Product is –

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

3) Observe the following reactions and predict the nature of A and B.

(1)

A and B both are

(2)

A and B both are

(3)
A is and B is

A is and B is
(4)

4) 1-Alkyne and 2-Alkyne distinguished by :

(1) Ammonical Cu2Cl2

(2) Baeyer's reagent
(3) Tollen's Reagent
(4) Both (1) and (3)

5)
Major product (A) is :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

6) CH3–CH = CH2 +
This reaction is classified as

(1) Electrophilic substitution reaction

(2) Free radical substitution reaction
(3) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(4) Electrophilic addition reaction

7) Which of the following reaction does not give aldehyde as a product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) 2 & 3 both

8)
product is –
(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

9) In which of the following reaction product is not correct :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) What is the main product of this reaction?

CH3 – C ≡ CH ?

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

11) What is the order of reactivity with HBr :

(1) a > b > c

(2) b > a > c
(3) c > b > a
(4) b > c > a

12) Product will be

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

13) (Major) The structure of Q is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

14)

Ph–C≡C–CH3 A, A is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

15) How many of following will rearrange

(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 5

16) ,
Product (B) is :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

17) Which of the following alkanes is not obtained from Wurtz reaction ?

(1) Methane
(2) Ethane
(3) Propane
(4) Butane

18) Which statement is true regarding electrophilic addition reaction :-

(1) Carbocation is formed in R.D.S.

(2) Carbocation rearrangement is observed
(3) Reaction is intiated by electrophile
(4) All

19) can be converted to by :

(1) Red P + HI
(2) Wolf Kishner reduction
(3) Clemmensen reaction
(4) All

20) Tertiary alcohol is obtained as major product in:

(1)
(CH3)2CH–CH=CH2
(CH3)3C–CH=CH2
(2)

(3)
(CH3)2CH–CH=CH2
(4) all of the above
21)

Reactivity order towards Electrophilic addition reaction ?

(1) a > c > b > d

(2) a > b > c > d
(3) d > c > b > a
(4) b > a > c > d

22) The reactivity of alkyl halides in E2 elimination reactions follows the order

(1) R–I < R–Br < R–Cl < R–F

(2) R–F < R–Cl < R–Br < R–I
(3) R–I > R–Cl > R–Br < R–F
(4) R–I < R–Br < R–F < R–Cl

23)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

24) Compound Find structure of X :-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

25) Major product is -

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None

26) The product obtained when this substrate is subjected to E2 reaction will be :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) All of these

27)
Which is correct statement abount (X) and (Y).
(1) X is product of ionic reaction and Y is product of free radical reaction
(2) X and Y both are product of ionic reaction
(3) X and Y both are product of radical reaction
(4) X is product of radical reaction and Y is product of ionic reaction.

28) In the given reaction ‘X’ is

(1) 1, 3-propandial
(2) Butane-1,4-dial
(3) pentane 1,5 dial
(4) Butane 1,3-dial

29)

Which of the following does not give test of unsaturation with Br2 in CCl4 ?

(1) CH3–CH=CH2
(2) CH3–C≡CH

(3)

(4)

30) Which of the species below is an intermediate in the reaction ?

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

31)
Product B is :

(1) HCHO
(2) CH3CHO
(3) CH3OH

(4)

32) Product
product is :

(1)

(2) CH3CH2–CHO

(3)

(4)

33) (Major Product):-

(1)

(2)
(3)

(4)

34) Which of the following reagent can be used for following conversion

(1) Zn – Hg/HCl
(2) Red P + HI
(3) NH2 – NH2/KOH
(4) All of them

35) Me3CMgCl on reaction with D2O produces :

(1) Me3CD
(2) Me3COD
(3) (CD3)3CD
(4) (CD3)3COD

36) Product (A) is

(1)

(2)

(3)
(4)

37) ; Y is :-

(1) CH3–(CH2)4–CH=0

(2)

(3) CH3–CH2–CH=0

(4)

38)

(1) CH3CH2COONa
(2) CH3CH2CH2COONa

(3)

(4) CH3CH2CH2ONa

39) In the presence of peroxide, HCl and Hl do not give anti-Markownikoff's addition to alkenes
because :

(1) One of the steps is endothermic in HCl and Hl.

(2) Both HCl and Hl are strong acids.
(3) HCl is oxidizing and the Hl is reducing
(4) All the steps are exothermic in HCl and Hl.

40) When ethyl chloride and n-propyl chloride undergoes wurtz reaction which is not obtained

(1) n-butane
(2) n-pentane
(3) n-hexane
(4) isobutane

41) Ph-CH2–CH=CH2 'X' is :

(1) Ph–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH
(2)

(3)

(4) Ph–CH2–OH

42) Major product :-

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

43) Predict the product ‘C’ obtained in the following reaction of 1-butyne :

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

44) CH3–CH=CH–CH3 X Y; Y is :-

(1) CH3–CH3
(2) CH3–CH2–Cl
(3) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3

(4)
45)
Which of the following alkene does not give desired product.

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

BIOLOGY

1) Which of the following immunity is responsible for the graft rejection

(1) Physical barrier

(2) Humoral immunity
(3) Cell mediated immunity
(4) Physiological barrier

2) Identify the correct match.

Column I Column II

(1) Rhino virus Plague

(2) Yersinia pestis Plague

(3) Bacillus anthracis Dengue

(4) S. typhi Cholera

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

3) Active artificial immunity is induced by the administration of

a. Mother's milk
b. Bacteria
c. Vaccine
d. Antibody

(1) a,b, c, d
(2) a, b, c only
(3) b, c only
(4) c only

4)

What is true about T - lymphocyte in mammals

(1) These are produced in thyroid.

(2) Main types killer T - cells, NK cell, helper T - cells, Suppressor T - cells
(3) These originate in Bone marrow.
(4) Produce antibody

5) Study the given flow chart and identify correct option which related with A.

(1) Specific
(2) Interferons
(3) Antibody
(4) TH-Cell

6) What will happen to the body of an adult man if thymus is removed ?

(1) Erythrocytes production will be lowered

(2) C.M.I. collapse
(3) Filtration of dead erythrocytes will not be there
(4) There would be no effect

7) Which one of the following is not the criteria for successful organ transplantation?

(1) Immunosuppressive therapy

(2) MHC matching
(3) Antivenom therapy
(4) Blood group matching

8) Hepatitis - B vaccine produced from -

(1) Helminth
(2) Yeast
(3) lysosome
(4) Both 2 and 3

9) Pick up the gland which located near the heart :

(1) Tonsils
(2) Thymus
(3) Spleen
(4) Peyer's patches

10) In case of snakebites, the injection which is given to the patients contain preformed.

(1) Antigens
(2) Enzyme
(3) Antibodies
(4) Interferons

11)

Which of the following is not involved in an Allergic reaction ?

(1) Mast cells

(2) Allergen
(3) Histamine
(4) Neutrophils

12) Read the following statements (A - D) & select incorrect option.

(1) When people are healthy they are more efficient at work.
Health for a long time, was considered as a state of body and mind where there was a balance
(2)
of certain humors.
(3) William Harvey disproved good humor hypothesis
(4) Pathogens are non-disease causing agents.

13) Read the following (a–d)

(a) Avoid storage of water in and around residential areas.
(b) Regular cleaning of household coolers
(c) Introducing fishes like Gambusia in ponds that feed on mosquito larvae.
(d) Spraying of insecticides
Above preventive measures are used for control of :-

(1) Malaria
(2) Typhoid
(3) Tetanus
(4) 1 and 3 both

14) Disease with symptoms-fever, pain in joints, whose causative organism is of virus family and
transferred by mosquito (Aedes aegypti). Identify the disease?

(1) Enteric fever

(2) Chikungunya
(3) Rheumatic arthritis
(4) Common Cold
15) Which of the following statement is false for the structure labelled as "A" in the figure given
below?

(1) Here maturation of T-lymphocytes takes place

(2) Located near the small intestine
(3) Located near the heart
(4) It is an example of primary lymphoid organ.

16)

Find out the correct matching of a disease, pathogen and mode of transmission :-

Disease Pathogen Transmission

(1) Pneumonia Streptococus heamolyticus Infected food and water

(2) Filariasis Wuchereria bancrofti Male culex mosquito

(3) Malaria Plasmodium Female Aedes mosquito

(4) Typhoid Salmonella typhi Infected food and water

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

17) Which of the following is not true w.r.t. typhoid ?

(1) Mary Mallon - carrier of typhoid

(2) Intestinal perforation and death may occur in severe cases
(3) Generally affects stomach & liver
(4) Sustained high fever - (39-40°C)

18) Antigen binding site located in

(1) Light chains - constant region

(2) Variable region of light chain only
(3) heavy chains - constant region
(4) Variable regions of light & heavy chain

19) The antibody and T-lymphocytes provide which type(s) of acquired immunity :

(1) Humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity respectively

(2) Humoral immunity
(3) Cell mediated immunity
(4) Antibody mediated immunity

20) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A : In severe cases of pneumonia, the lips and finger nails turn grey to bluish in colour.
Reason R : The level of O2 increases in blood in pneumonia.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the options given below?

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

21) Given below are two statements:

Statement I: Different species of Plasmodium like plasmodium vivax, Plasmodium malariae and
plasmodium falciparum are responsible for malaria.
Statement II: The Plasmodium falciparum causes most serious malignant malaria.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below ?

(1) Both statement first and statement second are incorrect.

(2) Both statements first and second are correct.
(3) Statement first is incorrect and statement second is correct.
(4) Statement first is correct and the statement second is incorrect.

22) Which of the following pairs is correctly matched ?

(1) Elephantiasis – Plasmodium

(2) Plague – Trichophyton
(3) Plague – Protozoa
(4) Diphtheria – Bacteria

23) Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion A and other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: The use of vaccines programmes have enabled us to completely eradicate a deadly
disease like polio.
Reason R: Polio is caused by protozoa.

(1) Both A and R are correct but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is correct but R is incorrect.
(4) A is incorrect but R is correct.

24) Cyclosporine A obtain from

(1) Bacteria
(2) Virus
(3) Fungus
(4) Protozoa

25) Health is affected by

(1) Genetic disorder

(2) Bacterial infection
(3) Life style
(4) All

26) Which of the following disease is transmitted by culex mosquito

(1) Elephantiasis
(2) Ascariasis
(3) Dengue
(4) Malaria

27) Which of the following cell able to perform phagocytosis?

(1) TH-cell
(2) PMNL
(3) Tk
(4) Plasma cell

28) Identify the components of innate immunity

(1) Antibody
(2) Mucosa
(3) Interferon
(4) Both 2 & 3

29) Widal test used for the diagnosis of

(1) Diphtheria
(2) Tuberculosis
(3) Typhoid
(4) Tetanus

30) Dengue is caused by

(1) Rhino virus
(2) Flavi arbo virus
(3) Protozoa
(4) Helminth

31) Which of the following statement is associated with rheumatoid arthritis

(1) Caused by IgG

(2) Articular cartilage is damaged by pannus particle
(3) Autoimmune disease
(4) Both 2 & 3

32)

Which of the following cause amoebiasis?

(1) Entamoeba histolytica

(2) Salmonella typhi
(3) Rhino virus
(4) Plasmodium vivax

33) Which statement is correct about given diagrame :-

(a) Microsporum, Trichophyton and Epidermophyton are responsible for this.

(b) Allergic reactions.
(c) Caused by Wuchereria bancrofti.
(d) Heat and moisture help these to grow.

(1) a, c, d
(2) b, c, d
(3) a, d
(4) a, b, c, d

34) How many of the following are bacterial diseases?

Pneumonia, Common cold, Plague, Malaria, Tetanus, AIDS, Typhoid, Diphtheria

(1) Four
(2) Five
(3) Six
(4) Seven

35)
Consider the following four statements (A–D) and select the incorrect option.

(1) Interferons are secreted by virus infected cells.

Balanced diet, personal hygiene and regular exercise are very important to maintain good
(2)
health.
(3) Health also increases longevity of people.
Health simply means 'absence of disease' or 'physical fitness' and it does not require any other
(4)
factor.

36) Assertion :- mites in dust can cause allergic reactions like difficulty in breathing, sneezing and
watering eyes.
Reason :- These allergic reactions occurs due to release of histamine.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True.

(2) Both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Assertion is False but Reason is True.

37) In which disease intestinal passage blockage occurs

(1) Typhoid fever

(2) Pneumonia
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Ring worms

38)
Identify (A) & (B) and choose correct option :-

A = Anamnestic response
(1)
B = Slow response
A = Anamnestic response
(2)
B = Anamnestic response
A = Slow response
(3)
B = Slow response
A = Slow response
(4)
B = Anamnestic response

39) acid in stomach & saliva in the mouth forms ...... barrier of innate immunity :-

(1) Physiological
(2) Physical
(3) Cellular
(4) Inflammatory

40) Formula which represented IgG

(1) H1L1
(2) H4L4
(3) H2L2
(4) H10L10

41) Which antibody show pertamer form

(1) IgG
(2) IgM
(3) IgD
(4) IgA

42) In malaria, parasite stage perform asexual reproduction in

(1) Liver cell

(2) Stomach of mosquito
(3) RBC
(4) Both 1 & 3

43) Symptoms like nasal congestion, nasal discharge & sore throat occurs in

(1) Dengue
(2) Common cold
(3) Chikungunya
(4) Plague

44) Housefly act as mechanical carrier for

(1) Dengue virus

(2) Polio virus
(3) Entamoeba histolytica
(4) Plague pathogen

45) Which of the following constitutes about 50 percent of lymphoid tissue in human body:-

(1) Lymph nodes

(2) Spleen
(3) MALT
(4) Appendix

46)
Vaccines are

(1) treated bacteria or viruses or one of their proteins

(2) MHC proteins
(3) Curative medicines
(4) Homoclonal antibodies

47) Find the mismatch

(1) Round worm – Ascariasis

(2) P. Vivax – Common cold
(3) Common cold – Virus
(4) Dysentry – Bacteria

48) Which graft has least chance of rejection

(1) Allograft
(2) Autograft
(3) Xenograft
(4) All of these

49) Which of the following lymphocyte does not participate in acquired immunity ?

(1) T-lymphocyte
(2) Antibody
(3) Macrophage
(4) Both (1) and (2)

50) Anti-tetanus antibody injection provides :-

(1) Natural active innate immunity

(2) Natural passive innate immunity
(3) Artificial active immunity
(4) Artificial passive immunity

51) Macrophage & neutrophil form_______ barrier of innate immunity :-

(1) Physical
(2) Physiological
(3) Cellular
(4) Cytokine

52) Which one of the followings is not a food borne disease ?

(1) Typhoid
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Ringworm

53)

Which of the following is not a secondary lymphoid organ ?

(1) Lymph node

(2) Payer's patches
(3) Pancreas
(4) Spleen

54) Number of antigen binding site in IgA antibody.

(1) 10
(2) 4
(3) 6
(4) 2

55) Which of the following is not example of passive immunity ?

(1) Colostrum
(2) Antibodies through placenta
(3) Both 1 & 2
(4) Vaccination

56) Which of the following disease can be treated by interferon ?

(1) Tuberculosis
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Viral infection
(4) Typhoid

57) True about plasma cells?

(1) Are derived from T–cells

(2) Develop into Tk–cells
(3) Secrete large amount of Beta interferones.
(4) Specifically form antibodies against particular pathogen.

58) Which of the following disease is the eg. of auto-immune disease?

(1) Pneumonia
(2) Pertussis
(3) Rheumatoid arthritis
(4) Emphysema
59) Which statement is correct ?

(1) Antibodies are formed by mast cells

(2) B-lymphocytes are matured in thymus
(3) Histamine acts as inflammatory agent
(4) CMI is mediated by B-lymphocytes

60) Slowly developing chronic inflammation of the organ in which they live for many years, usually
the lymphatic vessels of the lower limbs and the genital organs are also often affected.
Above statement is related to :-

(1) Filariasis
(2) Amoebiasis
(3) Malaria
(4) All above

61) The chills and high fever in Malaria are associated with release of.................from the RBCs.

(1) Merozoites
(2) Haemozoin
(3) Schuffner's dots
(4) Gametocytes

62) Which labelling is correct for antigen binding site :-

(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) F

63) What is indicated by ‘c’ in the figure?

(1) Lymph vessels
(2) Thymus
(3) Lymph valves
(4) Lymph

64) Which of the following is not a viral disease ?

(1) Mumps
(2) Hepatitis B
(3) Plague
(4) Polio

65) Which of the following sets of disease is caused by bacteria

(1) Tetanus and mumps

(2) Hepatitis B & Dengue
(3) Diphtheria and tetanus
(4) Typhoid and chikungunya

66) Which of the following reduce the symptoms of allergy

(1) Anti-histamine
(2) Interferon
(3) Adrenaline
(4) Both 1 & 3

67) Vaccination is based on the property of

(1) Autoimmunity
(2) Allergy
(3) Memory
(4) Non-specificity

68) Which of the following vector is associated with dengue & chikungunya

(1) Aedes moquito

(2) Anopheles moquito
(3) Culex mosquito
(4) Housefly

69) Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease

(1) Vitiligo
(2) Psoriasis
(3) Hashimoto
(4) Ascariasis

70) Asthma may be attributed to

(1) Bacterial infection of lung

(2) Allergic reaction of mast cell in the lungs
(3) Inflammation of the trachea
(4) Accumulation of fluid in pharynx

71) Plasmodium enters the human body as

(1) Haemozoin
(2) Trophozoite
(3) Haematin
(4) Sporozoite

72) T-lymphocyte full maturation occurs in

(1) Thyroid
(2) Thymus
(3) Thalamus
(4) Tonsil

73) Fluid filled alveoli are feature of

(1) Amoebiasis
(2) Pneumonia
(3) Ascariasis
(4) Typhoid
74) Common examples of allergens are

(1) Mites in dust

(2) Pollen grain
(3) Animal Dander
(4) All of these

75) Light chain and heavy chain of antibody are joined with the help of

(1) H-H bond

(2) S-S bond
(3) Ionic bond
(4) Phosphodiester bond

76) Lysozyme that are present in saliva & tear destroys

(1) All virus

(2) Certain types of bacteria
(3) All fungi
(4) All Protozoa

77) Assertion :- IgG Antibody molecule has four polypeptide chains two small called light chains
and two longer called heavy chains.
Reason :- IgG antibody is represented as H2L10.

(1) Both Assertion & Reason are True & the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(2) Both Assertion & Reason are True but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) Both Assertion & Reason are False.

78) 'A healthy person acquires the infection by using towels, clothes or comb of the infected
individual and the infection occurs easily in moist and warm conditions' Above statement is
applicable to -

(1) Viral infections

(2) Bacterial infections
(3) Fungal infections
(4) Helminthic infections

79) Assertion (A) : Innate immunity is specific type of defence.

Reason (R) : It consists of antibody barriers.

(1) If both Assertion & Reason are True.

(2) If both Assertion & Reason are False.
(3) If Assertion is True but the Reason is False.
(4) If Assertion is False but the Reason is True.
80) Choose the incorrect option :

(1) Hashimoto disease is example of Autoimmunity.

(2) Spleen is a secondary lymphoid organ.
(3) Bone marrow is a primary lymphoid organ.
(4) Elephantiasis causes by female anopheles mosquitoes.

81) The most active phagocytic WBCs are

(1) Eosinophil & Lymphocyte

(2) Neutrophil & Macrophage
(3) Mast cell & Neutrophil
(4) Macrophage & Mast cell

82) Vaccination is a part of

(1) Treatment
(2) Passive immunity
(3) Diagnosis
(4) Prevention

83) Pneumonia is transmitted by

(1) Culex
(2) Anopheles
(3) Soil
(4) Droplet

84) Vector host is absent in the infection of

(1) Filariasis
(2) Dengue
(3) Pneumonia
(4) Plague

85) The ......... is quite large the time of birth but keep reducing in size with age

(1) Spleen
(2) Thymus
(3) Peyer's patches
(4) Lymph node

86) Which of the following antibody is associated with allergy

(1) IgA
(2) IgG
(3) IgE
(4) IgM

87) Sexual stage (gametocyte) of plasmodium occurs in

(1) Salivary gland of mosquito

(2) Human RBC
(3) Gut of human
(4) Human liver

88) BCG vaccine used for the prevention of

(1) Tetanus
(2) Tuberculosis
(3) Typhoid
(4) Trachoma

89) Which of the following antibody is associated with colostrum

(1) IgA
(2) IgM
(3) IgG
(4) IgE

90) Which of the following sets include all helminth disease

(1) Filariasis & Ring worm

(2) Elephantiasis and malaria
(3) Amoebiasis & malaria
(4) Elephantiasis & Ascariasis
 ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 3 2 4 3 3 2 3 2 3 2 2 1 2 1 4 3 2 4 3 2
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 4 4 3 1 2 1 3 3 4 1 4 3 2 4 4 3 1 4 2
Q. 41 42 43 44 45
A. 3 4 4 2 4

CHEMISTRY

Q. 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60 61 62 63 64 65
A. 4 1 3 4 3 2 4 2 3 4 2 3 3 2 2 2 1 4 4 2
Q. 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80 81 82 83 84 85
A. 2 2 4 3 2 1 1 1 4 2 2 2 3 3 1 3 2 2 1 4
Q. 86 87 88 89 90
A. 3 3 3 1 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
A. 3 2 3 3 2 2 3 2 2 3 4 4 1 2 2 4 3 4 1 3
Q. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
A. 2 4 3 3 4 1 2 4 3 2 4 1 3 2 4 1 3 4 1 3
Q. 131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140 141 142 143 144 145 146 147 148 149 150
A. 2 4 2 3 3 1 2 2 3 4 3 4 3 2 4 3 4 3 3 1
Q. 151 152 153 154 155 156 157 158 159 160 161 162 163 164 165 166 167 168 169 170
A. 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 1 4 2 4 2 2 4 2 2 3 3 2 4
Q. 171 172 173 174 175 176 177 178 179 180
A. 2 4 4 3 2 3 2 2 1 4
 SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

1)

r ∝ (A)1/3

2) = 5 × 1024 × pλ
n = 5 × 1024 × 106 × 400 × 10–9
n = 2 × 1024

3)
Q = (B.E)product – (B.E)reactant
= [(7.8 × 110) + (8 × 130)] – [240 × 7.5]
= (858 + 1040) – 1800
= 1898 – 1800 = 98 MeV

4) On increasing the intensity of incident light, the current in photoelectric cell will increase.
The energy of the photons (hv) will, however not increase with increase in intensity, and hence
the kinetic energy of the emitted electrons will not increase.

5) According to the results of lenard experiment

6) E = mc2
= 2 × 1.66 ×10–27 × (3 ×108)2 E = 3 × 10–10 J

7) Binding Energy = Δm × 931.5 MeV

= 3.5 × 931.5
= 3260.25 MeV

8) R = n2a0
2.12 = n12 × 0.53
n1 = 2
4.77 = n22 × 0.53
n2 = 3

E = 13.6 =

9)

Use : KE ∝ temperature ∝ (momentum)2

10) I = 10–10 W/m2
λ = 5.6 × 10–7 m
A = 10–6 m2
no. of photons per second = n = 5 × 1024 p λ
n = 5 × 1024 IA λ
= 5 × 1024 × 10–10 × 10–6 × 5.6 × 10–7
= 280

11) Kmax = E – ϕ

12) Work function of 'Y' is greater than 'X' and slope of V versus f is h/e.

13) [Electrostatic force]

r ∝ n2

14) Ans. (1)

15) As number of photons incident per second doubles number of electrons emitted also
doubles so saturation current doubles.
But eVS1 = hν – ϕ
eVS2 = 2hν – 2ϕ + ϕ
eVS2 = 2 eVS1 + ϕ
VS2 > 2VS1
Stopping potential > 20 V

16) From Einstein's photoelectric equation

0 0
hv = hv + mv2max = hv + eVS

VS = v+

So the slope m = tanθ =

the intersection of the line on y-axis is

∴ CA << CB
∴ ϕA < ϕB

17)
Before reaction BEi = 2 × 2× x1 = 4x1
after reaction BEf = 4 × x2 = 4x2
Q = BEf – BEi = 4 ( x2 – x1)

18) Explanation: In this question we have to tell the Kinetic energy of the electron whose de
broglie wavelength is same as Mat of the photon.
Concepts:- The relation between de broglie wavelength ' ' and Kinetic energy 'E' is given by

here λelectron = λProton

h = Planck's constant

∵ Melectron < MProton

∴ Eelectron > EProton

Formula:-
Conclusion:- The correct answer is option-4

19) Explanation: In this question we have to tell about the nature of electron which is shown
by De broglie equation
Concept:- The debroglie equation for wavelength is

Or ∵
Where E = kinetic energy
Also E = hv ( which shows wave nature)
h = Planck's constant
V = frequency
E = me2 ( given by Einstein which shows Particle nature)
Therefore it shows dual nature
Conclusion:- The correct answer is option-3

20) Explanation: In this question we have to tell the dependency of debroglie wavelength on
the velocity of the electron.

Concepts: The debroglie wavelength is given by

mv → mass of electron
So it the veracity of the electron increases, The de broglie wavelength decreases.

Formula:
Conclusion: The correct answer is option-2

21) Explanation:- In this question we have to tell that which among the following is the
weakest force.
Concept:- Gravitational force is the weakest force in nature among the fundamental forces.
The value of Gravitational Constant is also very less.
Formula:- Not required (theoretical)
Calculation:- Not required (theoretical)
Conclusion:- The correct answer is option -1

22)

Key Concept:

De Broglie wavelength : wave nature of particles.

· Momentum and Mass Relation: Momentum depends on mass and velocity.

Formula

De Broglie wavelength (λ)

Planck’s constant (h)
Mass (m)Velocity (v)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:
Velocity (v) is constant
λ ∝ 1/m: Wavelength is inversely proportional to mass.
Beta-particles (electrons) have the smallest mass.
Beta-particles have the maximum de Broglie wavelength

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

23)

Question is Asking About :- The ratio of volume of atom to the nucleus.

Given Data :- Nucleor physics (Radius, density)

Formula :-

Solution/Explanation/Calculation :-
Hence, option (4) is correct.

24)

Question Asking About:

We need to determine whether the mass number (A) of a nucleus can be equal to , greater
than or less than its atomic number(Z).

Key Concept:
• The mass number (A) is the total number of protons and neutrons
• The atomic number (Z) is the number of protons
• Since neutrons (N) can be zero in some cases we get A =Z+N
• If N = 0 then A =Z (e.g. Hydrogen -1 where A =1.Z = 1).

Formula
A=Z+N
Since it follows that However when N = 0 we get A = Z

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

25) Solution/Explanation:
In This question we have to tell that what the symbol A and Z represents in a nucleus.

Concept:
2 → Atone number It represents no total number of protons in the nucleus
A → Mass number = Number of protons + number of number
A = Z number of neutrons
It mean A - Z represents no neutrons in the neucleus of atom.
Therefore it has Z protons and A – Z neutrons.

26)

EC – EB = ...(1)

EB – EA = ...(2)

EC – EA = ...(3)
on add equation (1) and (2)

EC – EA = hc

= hc ⇒ λ3 =
27) rn ∝ n2 in Bohr atom model.

Potential energy =

For the 10th orbit, it is =

times less than the potential in the first orbit.

Potential energy will decrease but will negative sign. Therefore, when an electron in hydrogen
atom jump from n = 1 to n = 10 orbit, the potential enrgy of the system will increase.

28)

For curve a and b stopping potential or maximum KE of photoelectron is same. So, curve a and
b have same frequency while curve b and c have same saturation current so, same intensity.

29) Energy of photon =

Momentum of photon =
= Momentum of atom

Velocity of atom = where m = mass of atom.

30) h(2ν) = hν + mv2max ⇒

31) For a Balmer series

.......(i)
where n = 3, 4, .........
By putting n = ∞ in equation (i), we obtain the series limit of the Balmer series. This is the
shortest wavelength of the Balmer sereies. or

λB =
For a Lyman series

.....(i)
where n = 2, 3, 4.........
By putting n = ∞ in equation (i), we obtain the series limit of the Lyman series. This is the
shortest wavelength of the Lyman series.

or λL = .....(ii)

From (i) and (ii), we get

32) eV = ...(i)

...(ii)
From equation (i) and (ii)

⇒4= On solving λ = 3λ

33) We know that

hν = K.E.+ ϕ ......(1)
∴ hν1= K1 + ϕ ......(2)
and hν2 = K2 + ϕ

Dividing

⇒ ⇒ 2 (K1 + ϕ ) = K2 + ϕ
⇒ K2 = f + 2 K1
Hence K.E. will become slightly more than double.

34)

1. Asking About :
Which lamp will emit photoelectron, λ threshdd = 5200A°

2. Concept :
First find energy of photon. wavelength will be redvad then energy will increase.

3. Solution / Explanation :
As per given option 5200A° is wave length of colour light. So photoelectron can be emitted by
ray of wavelength which have less wavelength from thi so only wavelength is U. V. ray . Rest
all add In fraed Ray.

35)

&
Using momentum conservation
36)

37)

38)

39)

Question Asking About:

An electron accelerates through 81V, gaining kinetic energy. We need to calculate its
corresponding de Broglie wavelength which relates particle momentum to wavelength.

Key Concept:
• De Broglie : Wave-particle duality of matter.
• Kinetic Energy of Accelerated Electron: Energy gained from potential difference.

Formula

De Broglie Wavelength of electron (in Å)

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

= 1.36

= 0.136 nm

Conclusion:
Hence, option (4) is correct.

40) Asking About :- independency of Kmax of emitted petaelectron

Concept :- Einstein photoelectric eqn.
Formula :- Kmax = hf –ϕ
Soln / Explanation :- Kmax depends only on frequency or wave then of photon & work function
of material not on Intensity (No. of photon), not on energy of photon.

41)

Question Asking About:

We need to determine the graph showing the relationship between de-Broglie wavelength λ

and the inverse of momentum .

Key Concept:
The de-Broglie wavelength is given by:

This implies λ is directly proportional to .

Formula

Solution/Explanation/Calculation:

Since λ is directly proportional to the graph will be a straight line passing through the origin
with a positive slope.
Thus, the correct graph will be a straight line through the origin with an increasing trend.

Conclusion:
Hence, option (3) is correct.

42) If wavelength of light is doubled it will be 6 × 10–7 m which is more than threshold
wavelength 5 × 10–7 m of metal, so there will be no. electron emission, stopping potential will
be zero.

43) For hydrogen-like atom, the radius of nth orbit is

Where r0 = 0.51 × 10–10 metre

Here, metre
In the ground state, n = 1

∴
∴ Z=4
 So, the atom is triply ionised beryllium.

44)

mvr =

λD =

=
λD = 6π(0.529Å)
≈ 10Å

45) V = =
V' = 2V ⇒ A' = 2A = 120
⇒ Z = 50

CHEMISTRY

50) Kolbe's electrolysis.

60)

61)

66)

Reactivity towards EAR ∝ e– density in

(C = C) of alkene system ∝
In (a) → +H, (b) → No group (c) → –I
(d) → –M
 71)

78)
(Anti markovnikov rule)

87)

BIOLOGY

91) NCERT (XII) Pg. # 151, Para–8.2.2

100) NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 152 (Para 8.2.4)

106)

NCERT (XIIth) Pg. # 149

107) NCERT Pg. # 146-147

109) NCERT XII Pg. # 151

127) NCERT Pg. # 146-149

139) NCERT XI Pg.# 151

145) NCERT XII, Page # 152

167) NCERT XII Page No. # 151 (E), 163 (H)