Final JEE Mains Examination- 4th Attempt- AUGUST, 2021

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

ALL SHIFTS QUESTION PAPER+ ANSWER KEY+ SOLUTIONS-

AUGUST- JEE MAINS, 2021 (Including Official Answer key from NTA)

INDEX
26-08-2021-Physics-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ············································································· 1
26-08-2021-Chemistry-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ······································································· 10
26-08-2021-Mathematics-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ··································································· 17
26-08-2021-Physics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ··········································································· 26
26-08-2021-Chemistry-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ······································································· 36
26-08-2021-Mathematics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ··································································· 43
27-08-2021-Physics-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ··········································································· 51
27-08-2021-Chemistry-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ······································································· 59
27-08-2021-Mathematics-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ··································································· 66
27-08-2021-Physics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ··········································································· 74
27-08-2021-Chemistry-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ······································································· 83
27-08-2021-Mathematics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ··································································· 91
31-08-2021-Physics-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ········································································· 101
31-08-2021-Chemistry-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ····································································· 111
31-08-2021-Mathematics-Paper-With-Solutions-Morning.pdf ································································· 118
31-08-2021-Physics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ········································································· 126
31-08-2021-Chemistry-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ····································································· 135
31-08-2021-Mathematics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ································································· 143
01-09-2021-Physics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ········································································· 152
01-09-2021-Chemistry-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ····································································· 162
01-09-2021-Mathematics-Paper-With-Solutions-Evening.pdf ································································· 168

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Thursday 26th August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A y
1. The fractional change in the magnetic field C A
intensity at a distance 'r' from centre on the axis of
45° 30°
current carrying coil of radius 'a' to the magnetic x
O 60°
field intensity at the centre of the same coil is :
(Take r < a) B
2 2
3a 2a
(1) (2) (1  3  2)
2 r2 3 r2 (1) tan 1
(1  3  2)
2 r2 3 r2
(3) (4)
3 a2 2 a2
(2) tan 1
 3 1  2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 1  3  2
 0iR 2
 3 1  2
Sol. Baxis 
2R2  x2 
3/2
EN (3) tan 1
1  3  2
 0i
Bcentre 
2R
(4) tan 1
1  3  2

 Bcentre 
 0i 1  3  2
LL
2a
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
 0ia 2
C
 Baxis 
2 a2  r2 
3/2
A
45° 30°
Sol.
 fractional change in magnetic field = 60°
A

 0i  0ia 2

2a 2  a 2  r 2 3/2 1 B
 1
 0i   r 2 
3/2

2a 1   2   Let magnitude be equal to .

  a 
 3 1 
 3 r2  3 r2 OA   cos 30ˆi  sin 30ˆj    ˆi  ˆj
 1  1  2
 2  2 2 
 2a  2a
1 3 ˆ
 r2 
3/2
 3 r2  OB   cos 60ˆi  sin 60jˆ     ˆi  j
Note : 1  2   1  2  2 2 
 a   2a 
[True only if r << a]    
 1 ˆ 1 ˆ
OC   cos 45 ˆi  sin 45jˆ     
 2
i j
2 
Hence option (4) is the most suitable option
 OA  OB  OC
2. The magnitude of vectors OA , OB and OC in
the given figure are equal. The direction of  3  1 1   1 3 1  ˆ
     ˆi      j
OA  OB  OC with x-axis will be :-  2 2 2 2 2  

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  Angle with x-axis Sol. Inside a spherical shell, gravitational field is zero
1 3 1  and hence potential remains same everywhere
   
1 2
tan 
2 2   tan 1  2  6  2  Hence option (1)
  5. Two narrow bores of diameter 5.0 mm and 8.0 mm
 3 1 1   6  2  2
 2 2  are joined together to form a U-shaped tube open
 2
at both ends. If this U-tube contains water, what is
1  3  2 
1
= tan   the difference in the level of two limbs of the tube.
 3 1 2  [Take surface tension of water T = 7.3 × 10–2 Nm–1,
Hence option (1) angle of contact = 0, g = 10 ms–2 and density of
3. Car B overtakes another car A at a relative speed water = 1.0 × 103 kg m–3]
–1
of 40 ms . How fast will the image of car B (1) 3.62 mm (2) 2.19 mm
appear to move in the mirror of focal length 10 cm
(3) 5.34 mm (4) 4.97 mm
fitted in car A, when the car B is 1.9 m away from
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
the car A?
r1 r2
(1) 4 ms–1 (2) 0.2 ms–1
(3) 40 ms–1 (4) 0.1 ms–1
Official Ans. by NTA (4) EN
VB VA h
Sol. B A
x
Mirror used is convex mirror (rear-view mirror) PA PB
Sol.
 VI/m  m VO/m2
LL

Given, We have PA = PB. [Points A & B at same

VO/m  40m / s horizontal level]
f 10 10 2T 2T
m    Patm   g  x  h   Patm   gx
f  u 10  190 200 r1 r2
A

1
 VI/m    40  0.1m / s 1 1 
400 gh  2T   
 r1 r2 
 Car will appear to move with speed 0.1 m/s.
Hence option (4)  1 1 
 2  7.3 102  
4. Inside a uniform spherical shell :  2.5 10
3
4 103 
(a) the gravitational field is zero 2  7.3 102 103  1 1
(b) the gravitational potential is zero h   2.5  4 
103 10
(c) the gravitational field is same everywhere
= 2.19 × 10–3m = 2.19 mm
(d) the gravitation potential is same everywhere
Hence option (2)
(e) all of the above
6. An electric appliance supplies 6000 J/min heat to
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
options given below : the system. If the system delivers a power of 90W.
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only How long it would take to increase the internal
(2) (e) only energy by 2.5 × 103 J ?
(3) (a), (b) and (c) only (1) 2.5 × 102 s (2) 4.1 × 101s
(4) (b), (c) and (d) only (3) 2.4 × 103 s (4) 2.5 × 101s
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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Sol. Q  U  W A B X Y Z
Q U W 1 1 0 0 0
 
t t t Sol. 1 0 0 1 0
6000 J 2.5 10 3
0 1 1 0 0
  90
60 sec t 0 0 1 1 1
t = 250 sec
Option (3)
Option (1)
7. An inductor coil stores 64 J of magnetic field 10. A particular hydrogen like ion emits radiation of
energy and dissipates energy at the rate of 640 W frequency 2.92 × 1015 Hz when it makes transition
when a current of 8A is passed through it. If this from n = 3 to n = 1. The frequency in Hz of
coil is joined across an ideal battery, find the time radiation emitted in transition from n = 2 to n = 1
will be :
constant of the circuit in seconds :
(1) 0.44 × 1015 (2) 6.57 × 1015
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.8 (3) 0.125 (4) 0.2
(3) 4.38 × 1015 (4) 2.46 × 1015
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
1 2
Sol. U Li  64  L  2 1 1 
2 Sol. nf1  k   2 
i2R = 640 1 3 
640 EN  1
R  10 nf 2  k 1  2 
 8
2
 2 
L 1 f1 8 / 9
   0.2   f 2  2.46 1015
R 5 f2 3 / 4
Option (4)
Option (4)
8. A series LCR circuit driven by 300 V at a
LL

frequency of 50 Hz contains a resistance R = 3 k, 11. In a photoelectric experiment ultraviolet light of

an inductor of inductive reactance XL = 250  wavelength 280 nm is used with lithium cathode
and an unknown capacitor. The value of having work function  = 2.5 eV. If the wavelength
capacitance to maximize the average power should
of incident light is switched to 400 nm, find out the
be : (Take 2 = 10)
A

(1) 4 µF (2) 25 µF (3) 400 µF (4) 40 µF change in the stopping potential. (h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js,
Official Ans. by NTA (1) c = 3 × 108 ms–1)
Sol. For maximum average power
(1) 1.3 V (2) 1.1 V (3) 1.9 V (4) 0.6 V
XL  XC Official Ans. by NTA (1)
1 hc
250  Sol. KE max  eVS  
2  50  C 

C  4 106 1240
 eVS   2.5  1.93eV
Option (1) 280
9. Identify the logic operation carried out by the  VS1  1.93V … (i)
given circuit :-
X 1240
A  eVS2   2.5  0.6eV
400
Z
B  VS2  0.6V … (ii)
Y
V  VS1  VS2  1.93  0.6  1.33V
(1) OR (2) AND (3) NOR (4) NAND
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Option (1)

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12. In the given figure, the emf of the cell is 2.2 V and 13. A solid metal sphere of radius R having charge q is
if internal resistance is 0.6. Calculate the power enclosed inside the concentric spherical shell of
dissipated in the whole circuit : inner radius a and outer radius b as shown in
4 figure. The approximate variation electric field E
4
A B as a function of distance r from centre O is given
2 8 by

8
b OR
a
2.2 V, r=0.6

(1) 1.32 W (2) 0.65 W

(1)
(3) 2.2 W (4) 4.4 W
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
4
EN R a b r
4 4
A B
2 8 (2)

Sol. 8

R a b r
LL

2.2 V, r=0.6 (3)

4

8
A

R a b r

12
(4)

6

r = 0.6
R a b r
2.2 V
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
1 1 1 1 1 6  3  2  4 15 Official Ans. by ALLEN (1 or 2)
     
R eq 4 8 12 6 24 24 Sol. Considering outer spherical shell is non-
24 conducting
R eq   1.6  R T  1.6  0.6  2.2
15 Electric field inside a metal sphere is zero.
r<RE=0
V 2  2.2 
2

P   2.2W
RT 2.2 kQ
rRE
r2
Option (3)

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 E 15. In a Screw Gauge, fifth division of the circular
scale coincides with the reference line when the
ratchet is closed. There are 50 divisions on the
circular scale, and the main scale moves by
r=R r 0.5 mm on a complete rotation. For a particular
observation the reading on the main scale is 5 mm
Option (2)
and the 20th division of the circular scale coincides
Considering outer spherical shell is conducting
with reference line. Calculate the true reading.
+Q
(1) 5.00 mm (2) 5.25 mm
–Q (3) 5.15 mm (4) 5.20 mm
+Q Official Ans. by NTA (3)
0.5
Sol. Least count (L.C) =
R 50
b
0.5 0.5
True reading  5   20  5
a 50 50
0.5
 5 15   5.15mm
50
r < R, E = 0

Rra E
kQ
EN 16.
Option (3)
What equal length of an iron wire and a
copper-nickel alloy wire, each of 2 mm diameter
r2
a  r  b, E=0 connected parallel to give an equivalent resistance

kQ of 3?
rb E 2 (Given resistivities of iron and copper-nickel alloy
r
LL

wire are 12  cm and 51  cm respectively)

E
(1) 82 m (2) 97 m
(3) 110 m (4) 90 m
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
r
A

r=R r=a r=b R1R 2

Sol. 3
R1  R 2
Option (1)
14. The rms speeds of the molecules of Hydrogen, 12 10 6
 10 2  4

 5110 6
 10 2  4
Oxygen and Carbondioxide at the same   2   10 6   2   10 6
2 2

temperature are VH, VO and VC respectively then :

63  10 6  10 2   4
(1) VH > VO > VC (2) VC > VO > VH
  2   10 6
2

(3) VH = VO > VC (4) VH = VO = VC

Official Ans. by NTA (1)   97m
Option (2)
3RT
Sol. VRMS  17. The initial mass of a rocket is 1000 kg. Calculate at
MW
what rate the fuel should be burnt so that the rocket
1 is given an acceleration of 20 ms–2. The gases
At the same temperature VRMS 
Mw come out at a relative speed of 500 ms–1 with
 VH  VO  VC respect to the rocket :[Use g = 10 m/s2]
(1) 6.0 × 102 kg s–1 (2) 500 kg s–1
Option (1) (3) 10 kg s–1 (4) 60 kg s–1
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

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 Ft C = 2 × 10–12 F
V = 40 V
a K = 56
Sol.
t
mg q q 
i  0 e k0
 dm  k0 k0
Fthrust    Vrel 
 dt  2 1012  40
i max 
 dm  200  50  8.85 1012
 Vrel  mg   ma 80
 dt   4  903A  0.9mA
10  8.85
 dm  Option (3)
   500  10 10  10  20
3 3

 dt  20. Statement-I : By doping silicon semiconductor

dm with pentavalent material, the electrons density
  60kg / s  increases.
dt
Statement-II : The n-type semiconductor has net
Option (4)
negative charge.
18. If E, L, M and G denote the quantities as energy, In the light of the above statements, choose the
angular momentum, mass and constant of most appropriate answer from the options given
gravitation respectively, then the dimensions of P
in the formula P = EL2M–5G–2 are :-
(1) [M0 L1 T0] (2) [M–1 L–1 T2]
EN below :
(1) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false.
(2) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true.
(3) [M1 L1 T–2] (4) [M0 L0 T0] (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false.
Sol. E  ML2T2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
LL

L  ML2T1 Sol. Pentavalent activities have excess free e–

So e– density increases but overall semiconductor
m=M
is neutral.
G  M1L3T2 Option (1)
A

EL2 SECTION-B
P
M5 G 2 1. A uniform chain of length 3 meter and mass 3 kg
overhangs a smooth table with 2 meter laying on
 ML T  M L T   M L T
2 2 2 4 2

P  0 0 0 the table. If k is the kinetic energy of the chain in

M M L T 
5 2 6 4
joule as it completely slips off the table, then the
value of k is ........... . (Take g = 10 m/s2)
Option (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (40)
19. The material filled between the plates of a parallel
2kg
plate capacitor has resistivity 200 m. The value
2m
of capacitance of the capacitor is 2 pF. If a
potential difference of 40 V is applied across the Sol. 1m, 3m,
plates of the capacitor, then the value of leakage 1kg 3kg
current flowing out of the capacitor is : (given the
value of relative permitivity of material is 50)
(1) 9.0 A (2) 9.0 mA
(3) 0.9 mA (4) 0.9 A From energy conservation
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Ki + Ui = kf + Uf
Sol.  = 200 m

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  1  3 O
0   110    k f   3 10   S
 2  2 Sol.
VS = 20m/s VO = 20m/s
–5 = kf – 45
kf = 40 J  C  V0 
f 'f 
Ans. 40.00  C  Vs 
2. The electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave
 340  20 
is given by 1800  f  
 340  20 
 0.5  103   11 rad  V
E  200cos   x  1.5 10  t   ˆj f = 2025 Hz
 m   s  m
Ans. 2025
If this wave falls normally on a perfectly reflecting
4. Two spherical balls having equal masses with
surface having an area of 100 cm2. If the radiation
radius of 5 cm each are thrown upwards along the
pressure exerted by the E.M. wave on the surface
same vertical direction at an interval of 3s with the
x N
during a 10 minute exposure is 9 2 . Find the same initial velocity of 35 m/s, then these balls
10 m
value of x. collide at a height of .......... m. (Take g = 10 m/s2)

Official Ans. by NTA (354)

Sol. E0 = 200
EN Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (50)
35m/s 35m/s

1
I  0 E 02  C
2 t = 0 (1) (2) t = 3sec

Radiation pressure
LL

2I
P When both balls will collied
C
y1 = y 2
 2  1 
   0 E 02C  1 1
35t   10  t 2  35  t  3   10   t  3
2
 C  2 
A

2 2
  0 E 02
1 1
12
35t   10  t 2  35t  105  10  t 2
 8.85 10  200
2
2 2

 8.85 108  4 1 1
  10  32   10  6t
2 2
354
 0 = 150 – 30 t
109
Ans. 354.0 t = 5 sec

3. A source and a detector move away from each  Height at which both balls will collied
other in absence of wind with a speed of 20 m/s 1
h  35t  10  t 2
with respect to the ground. If the detector detects a 2
frequency of 1800 Hz of the sound coming from
1
the source, then the original frequency of source  35  5   10  52
2
considering speed of sound in air 340 m/s will be
h = 50 m
........ Hz.
Ans. 50.00
Official Ans. by NTA (2025)
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5. A soap bubble of radius 3 cm is formed inside the 7. Two short magnetic dipoles m1 and m2 each having
another soap bubble of radius 6 cm. The radius of magnetic moment of 1 Am2 are placed at point O
an equivalent soap bubble which has the same and P respectively. The distance between OP is
1 meter. The torque experienced by the magnetic
excess pressure as inside the smaller bubble with
dipole m2 due to the presence of m1 is ...... × 10–7 Nm.
respect to the atmospheric pressure is ........ cm.
Official Ans. by NTA (2) m2
m1
P
O
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. r2=3cm M1
Req
M2
r1=6cm Sol. B1

Excess pressure inside the smaller soap bubble   M2  B1

4S 4S
P   …. (i)   M 2 B1 sin 90
r1 r2
EN 0 M1
The excess pressure inside the equivalent soap  1 1
4 13
bubble
= 10–7 N.m
4S
P  … (ii) Ans. 1.00
R eq
8. Two travelling waves produces a standing wave
From (i) & (ii)
LL
represented by equation,
4S 4S 4S y = 1.0 mm cos(1.57 cm–1) x sin(78.5 s–1)t.
 
R eq r1 r2 The node closest to the origin in the region x > 0
will be at x = ......... cm.
1 1 1
  Official Ans. by NTA (1)
R eq r1 r2
A

Sol. For node

1 1
  cos 1.57cm1  x  0
6 3
Req = 2 cm 1.57cm  x  2
1

Ans. 2.00

6. An amplitude modulated wave is represented by x cm  1cm
2 1.57 
Cm(t) = 10(1 + 0.2 cos12560t) sin(111 × 104t) volts.
Ans. 1.00
The modulating frequency in kHz will be ....... .
9. White light is passed through a double slit and
Official Ans. by NTA (2) interference is observed on a screen 1.5 m away.
Sol. Wm  12560  2f m The separation between the slits is 0.3 mm. The
first violet and red fringes are formed 2.0 mm and
12560 3.5 mm away from the central white fringes. The
fm 
2 difference in wavelengths of red and voilet light is
= 2000 Hz ......... nm.

Ans. 2.00 Official Ans. by NTA (300)

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 D
Sol. Position of bright fringe y  n
d
D r Sol.
y1 of red   3.5mm
d
(5/2)r
d
3
 r  3.5  10
D I I1 I2
(13/2)r
d
Similarly  v  2  10 3
D  5     13r  
2 2

I   I1  M  r     I 2  M   
 0.3 103    2     2  
 r   v  1.5 10  
3

 1.5 
 M  36r 2  M  25r 2    Mr 2 169Mr 2 
   
= 3 × 10–7 = 300 nm
 12 4   2 4 
Ans. 300.0
= 52 Mr2
10. Consider a badminton racket with length scales as
shown in the figure. Ans. 52.00

P
EN
A

r
2
LL
6r 2r

If the mass of the linear and circular portions of the

badminton racket are same (M) and the mass of the
threads are negligible, the moment of inertia of the
racket about an axis perpendicular to the handle
A

r
and in the plane of the ring at, distance from the
2
end A of the handle will be ........ Mr2.
Official Ans. by NTA (52)

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Thursday 26th August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 4. The major products formed in the following
1. Which one of the following complexes is violet in
colour? reaction sequence A and B are :
(1) [Fe(CN)6]4– (2) [Fe(SCN)6]4–
(3) Fe4[Fe(CN6)]3H2O (4) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4– O
Official Ans. by NTA (4) CH3 Br2
A+B
Sol. (1) [Fe(CN)6]  Pale yellow solution
4– KOH

(2) [Fe(SCN)6]  Blood red colour

4–

(3) Fe4[Fe(CN6)]3H2O  Prussian blue O

(1) A = C , B=CHBr3
(4) [Fe(CN)5NOS]4–  Violet colour
OK
2. Which one of the following is correct for the EN
adsorption of a gas at a given temperature on a
solid surface? O O

(1) H > 0, S > 0 (2) H > 0, S < 0 (2)A= C–CH2–Br ,B= C–CH2–OH

(3) H < 0, S < 0 (4) H < 0, S > 0 Br Br

Official Ans. by NTA (3)
LL

Sol. (i) Adsorption of gas at metal surface is an O

exothermic process so H < 0 (3) A= C–CBr3 , B= CHO
(ii) As the adsorption of gas on metal surface
reduces the free movement of gas molecules thus
A

restricting its randomness hences S < 0 Br HO

O O
3. Which one of the following when dissolved in
(4) A= C–CH3 , B= C–CH3
water gives coloured solution in nitrogen
atmosphere? Br HO
(1) CuCl2 (2) AgCl
(3) ZnCl2 (4) Cu2Cl2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2
Sol. (1) CuCl2 + nH2O  Cu (aq.) Br2
Sol. C–CH3 A+B
+KOH
blue colour O
(2) AgCl + nH2O  Insoluble
2
(3) ZnCl2 + nH2O  Zn (aq.) O
(1) C , B=CHBr3
Colourless
OK
(4) Cu2Cl2 + nH2O  Insoluble

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5. The major product formed in the following 2 4 HBr
Sol.
reaction is : 1 3 Br
(excess) 1,4addition product
COOH
SOCl2, CH3OH (major product)
Major 7. The polymer formed on heating Novolac with
N NH2 product formaldehyde is :
H
(1) Bakelite (2) Polyester
CO2CH3 (3) Melamine (4) Nylon 6,6
(1) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
N NH2HCl Sol. Novolac + formaldehyde  Bakelite
HHCl 8. Given below are two statements :
Cl CO2Me Statement I : The limiting molar conductivity of
KCl (strong electrolyte) is higher compared to that
(2) of CH3COOH (weak electrolyte).
N NH2
Statement II : Molar conductivity decreases with
H
decrease in concentration of electrolyte.
CO2 CH3 In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) most appropriate answer from the options given
NH2HCl below :
N
H
EN (1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
COCl
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(4)
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
N NH2
Official Ans. by NTA (4 )
H
Sol. Ion H+ K+ Cl– CH3COO–
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
LL
 2 349.8 73.5 76.3 40.9
m Scm /mole
O
COOH C–Cl So m CH3COOH  m (H )  m CH COO
Sol. SOCl2, + HCl
3

NH2 CH OH NH2 = 349.8 + 40.9

N 3 N
H H = 390.7 Scm2/mole
A

+HCl CH3OH m KCl  m (K )  m (Cl )

O
= 73.5 + 76.3
C–OCH3
= 149.3 Scm2/mole
NH2HCl
N So statement-I is wrong or False.
H
As the concentration decreases, the dilution
6. The major product formed in the following increases which increases the degree of
dissociation, thus increasing the no. of ions, which
reaction is : increases the molar conductance.
HBr Major product So statement-II is false.

(excess) 420
400
Br 365

(1) (2) 250

Br 200
Br KCl
140
CuSO4
Br O CH3COOH
(3) (4) Br
0 0.2 0.4
Br
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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9. The correct options for the products A and B of Statement I: In the titration between strong acid
the following reactions are : and weak base methyl orange is suitable as an
OH indicator.
Statement II: For titration of acetic acid with
Br2 (Excess) Br2
A B NaOH phenolphthalein is not a suitable indicator.
H2O CS2, < 5°C
In the light of the above statements, choose the
OH OH most appropriate answer from the options given
Br Br Br below:
(1) A= , B= (1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
Br Br (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
OH OH (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Br Br Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(2) A= , B= Sol. Titration curve for strong acid and weak base
initially a buffer of weak base and conjugate acid
Br Br is :
Rapid tall of pH to start
OH OH pH 14
with, but the rate of tall
Br Br Br EN 12 slows down.
11
A= , B=
(3) 10
9
Br 8
Br 7
6
5
OH OH 4 equivalence point
3 Methyl orange
2
, B= Indicator range.
(4) A=
LL
1
0

volume of acid added (cm3)

Br Br
Formed, thus pH falls slowly and after equivalence
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
point, so the pH falls sharply so methyl arrange,
OH OH OH having pH range of 3.2 to 4.4 will weak as
A

Br Br
Br2 Br2 indicator. So statement-I is correct.
Sol. A B
H2O CS2,<5°C pH 14

Br Br
equivalence point
10. The conversion of hydroxyapatite occurs due to 7
pH range for
presence of F– ions in water. The correct formula
phenolpthaleine
of hydroxyapatite is:
(1) [3Ca3(PO4)2 · Ca(OH)2] 0
25
(2) [3Ca(OH)2 · CaF2] volume of alkali added (cm3)

(3) [Ca3(PO4)2 · CaF2] Titration curve for weak acid and strong base
(NaOH)
(4) [3Ca3(PO4)2 · CaF2]
Initially weak acid will form a buffer so pH
Official Ans. by NTA (1) increases slowly but after equivalence point. it
Sol. The F ions make the enamel on teeth much harder rises sharply covering range of phenolphthalein so
by converting hydroxyapatite,[3(Ca3(PO4)2].Ca(OH)2], it will be suitable indicator so statement-II is false.
the enamel on the surface of the teeth into much
harder fluroappatite. [3Ca3(PO4)2.CaF2]
11. Given below are two statements.
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12. Among the following compounds I-IV, which one Sol. Given statement-I is true as in a number of
forms a yellow precipitate on reacting sequentially processes, one element is used to reduce the oxide
with (i) NaOH (ii) dil. HNO3 (iii) AgNO3? of another metal. Any element will reduce the
Cl Cl Br Cl oxide of other metal which lie above it in the
Ellingham diagram because the free energy change
H3C CH3 CH2I will become more negative.
CH3 Given statement-II is false as the value of S is
I II III IV
decreases from left to right in Ellingham diagram.
(1) II (2) IV 15. What are the products formed in sequence when
(3) I (4) III excess of CO2 is passed in slaked lime?
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (1) Ca(HCO3)2, CaCO3
Cl (2) CaCO3, Ca(HCO3)2
(i) NaOH
Sol. AgI ppt is (3) CaO, Ca(HCO3)2
(ii) HNO3 found which is
CH2I (iii) AgNO3 (4) CaO, CaCO3
yellow colour
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Other compounds halide can't be removed because
Sol. Ca(OH)2 + CO2 CaCO3 + H2O
corresponding C+ is highly unstable.
CaCO3+ CO2 + H2O  Ca(HCO3)2
13. Which one of the following methods is most EN 16. Given below are two statements.
suitable for preparing deionized water?
Statement I: According to Bohr's model of an
(1) Synthetic resin method
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of
(2) Clark's method
electron increases with decrease in positive charges
(3) Calgon's method
on the nucleus as there is no strong hold on the
(4) Permutit method
electron by the nucleus.
LL
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Statement II: According to Bohr's model of an
Sol. Pure demineralised (de-ionized) water free from all
atom, qualitatively the magnitude of velocity of
soluble mineral salts is obtained by passing water
electron increases with decrease in principal
successively through a cation exchange (in the H+
quantum number.
form) and an anion exchange (in the OH– form)
A

In the light of the above statements, choose the

resins.
most appropriate answer from the options given
14. Given below are two statements.
below:
Statement I: The choice of reducing agents for (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
metals extraction can be made by using Ellingham (2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
diagram, a plot of G vs temperature. (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
Statement II: The value of S increases from left (4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
to right in Ellingham diagram. Official Ans. by NTA (3)
In the light of the above statements, choose the Sol. Velocity of electron in Bohr's atom is given by
most appropriate answer from the options given Z
V
below: n
(1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true Z = atomic number of atom, corresponds to +ve
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true charge so as Z increase velocity increases so
(3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false statement-I is wrong.
(4) Statement I is true but Statement II is false and as 'n' decreases velocity increases so
Official Ans. by NTA (4) statement-II is correct.

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17. The correct sequential addition of reagents in the 20. Excess of isobutane on reaction with Br2 in
preparation of 3-nitrobenzoic acid from benzene is: presence of light at 125°C gives which one of the
(1) Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4, Mg/ether, CO2, H3O+ following, as the major product?
(2) Br2/AlBr3, NaCN, H3O+, HNO3/H2SO4 Br
+
(3) Br2/AlBr3, HNO3/H2SO4, NaCN, H3O (1) CH3 – C – CH2 – Br
+
(4) HNO3/H2SO4, Br2/AlBr3, Mg/ether, CO2, H3O
CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(2) CH3 – CH – CH2Br
NO2 NO2
CH2Br
Sol. HNO3 Br2
+ H2SO4 + AlBr3 (3) CH3 – CH – CH2Br
Br
CH3
Mg(Ether)
CH3
NO2 NO2
(4) CH3 – C – Br
CO2
CH3
H+
CO2H MgBr Official Ans. by NTA (4)
3–nitrobenzoic acid
EN CH3 CH3
18. Given below are two statements. Br2
Sol. CH3–CH–CH3 CH3–C–CH3
Statement I: Frenkel defects are vacancy as well (excess isobutane) h/
Br
as interstitial defects.
Statement II: Frenkel defect leads to colour in SECTION-B
ionic solids due to presence of F-centres. 1. AB3 is an interhalogen T-shaped molecule. The
Choose the most appropriate answer for the number of lone pairs of electrons on A is _______.
LL

statements from the options given below: (Integer answer)

(1) Statement I is false but Statement II is true Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true Sol. T-shaped molecule means 3 sigma bond and 2 lone
(3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false pairs of electron on central atom.
A

(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false B

Official Ans. by NTA (3)
B——A
Sol. Theory based.
19. The incorrect statement is: B
(1) Cl2 is more reactive than ClF.
2. These are physical properties of an element
(2) F2 is more reactive than ClF.
(3) On hydrolysis ClF froms HOCl and HF. (A) Sublimation enthalpy
(4) F2 is a stronger oxidizing agent than Cl2 in (B) Ionisation enthalpy
aqueous solution (C) Hydration enthalpy
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (D) Electron gain enthalpy
Sol. (i) Reactivity order : The total number of above properties that affect the
F2 > ClF (inter halogen) > Cl2 reduction potential is _________ (Integer answer)
(ii) ClF + H2O  HOCl + HF Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(iii) Oxidizing power in aqueous solution Sol. Sublimation enthalpy, Ionisation enthalpy and
F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 hydration enthalpy affect the reduction potential.

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3. Of the following four aqueous solutions, total (Integer answer)
number of those solutions whose freezing point is Official Ans. by NTA (5)
lower than that of 0.10 M C2H5OH is ________ Sol. (5)
(Integer answer) Mohr's salt : (NH4)2 Fe(SO4)2.6H2O
The number of water molecules in Mohr's salt = 6
(i) 0.10 M Ba3(PO4)2
Potash alum : KAl(SO4)2.12H2O
(ii) 0.10 M Na2SO4
The number of water molecules in potash alum = 12
(iii) 0.10 M KCl So ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr's
(iv) 0.10 M Li3PO4 6
salt and potash alum =
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 12
1
Sol. As 0.1 M C2H5OH is non-dissociative and rest all =
2
salt given are electrolyte so in each case effective
= 0.5
molarity > 0.1 so each will have lower freezing
= 5 × 10–1
point.
7. The following data was obtained for chemical
–
4. The OH concentration in a mixture of 5.0 mL of reaction given below at 975 K.
0.0504 M NH4Cl and 2 mL of 0.0210 M NH3 EN 2NO(g)  2H2(g)  N2(g)  2H2 O(g)
–6
solution is x × 10 M. The value of x is _______.
[NO] [H2] Rate
(Nearest integer) mol L–1 mol L–1 mol L–1s–1
–14 –5
[Given Kw = 1 × 10 and Kb = 1.8 × 10 ] (A) 8 × 10
–5
8 × 10
–5
7 × 10
–9

Official Ans. by NTA (3) (B) 24 × 10–5 8 × 10 –5

2.1 × 10–8
(C) 24 × 10–5 32 × 10–5 8.4 × 10–8
Sol. NH4   0.0504 &  NH 3   0.0210
LL
The order of the reaction with respect to NO is
[NH 4 ] [HO ] _______. [Integer answer]
So Kb = Official Ans. by NTA (1)
[NH3 ]
Sol. 7 × 10–9 = K × (8 × 10–5)x (8 × 10–5)y …….(1)
K b  [NH3 ] 2 210
[HO–] =  1.8 10 5   2.1 × 10–8 = K × (24 × 10–5)x (8 × 10–5)y …….(2)
A


[NH4 ] 5 504 x
1 1
  x 1
= 3 × 10–6 3  3 
5. The number of 4f electrons in the ground state 8. The Born-Haber cycle for KCl is evaluated with
2+
electronic configuration of Gd is ________. the following data :
[Atomic number of Gd = 64]  f H for KCl = – 436.7 kJ mol 1;

Official Ans. by NTA (7)  sub H for K = 89.2 kJ mol–1;

Sol. The electronic configuration of ionization H for K = 419.0 kJ mol–1; electron H for Cl(g)
gain
7 1 2
Gd : [Xe] 4f 5d 6s
64
= –348.6 kJ mol–1; bond H for Cl2 = 243.0 kJ mol–1
So the electronic configuration of
The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in kJ mol–1 is
2+ 7 1 0
64
Gd : [Xe] 4f 5d 6s _______ (Nearest integer)
i.e. the number of 4f electrons in the ground state Official Ans. by NTA (718)
2+
electronic configuration of Gd is 7. 1
Sol.  f HKCl  sub H(K)   ionization H (K)   bond H (Cl2 )
6. The ratio of number of water molecules in Mohr's 2
salt and potash alum is ________ × 10–1.

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 –1
+  electron gain H (Cl)   latticeH (KCl) 10. An aqueous KCl solution of density 1.20 g mL
has a molality of 3.30 mol kg–1. The molarity of the
1
 –436.7 = 89.2 + 419.0 + (243.0)  {348.6} –1
solution in mol L is ________ (Nearest integer)
2
[Molar mass of KCl = 74.5]
+  lattice H ( KCl )
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
–1
  lattice H ( KCl ) = –717.8 kJ mol
Sol. 1000 kg solvent has 3.3 moles of KCl
The magnitude of lattice enthalpy of KCl in 1000 kg solvent 3.3 × 74.5 gm KCl
–1
kJ mol is 718 (Nearest integer).
 245.85
9. The total number of negative charge in the
Weight of solution = 1245.85 gm
tetrapeptide, Gly-Glu-Asp-Tyr, at pH 12.5 will be
1245.85
________. (Integer answer) Volume of solution = ml
1.2
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
3.3  1.2
So molarity =  1000  3.17
Sol. 1245.85
CH2– COOH
NH2–CH2–C–NH–CH–C–NH–CH–C–NH–
O O
CH2–CH2–C–OH
O
EN
CH2

O
pH=12.
OH
O
LL

CH2–C– COO
NH2–CH2–C–NH–CH–C–NH–CH–C–NH–
O O O CH2
CH2–CH2–C–O
A

Total negative charge produced = 4.

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Thursday 26th August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 210
Now correct x= = 10.5
1. The sum of solutions of the equation 20

cos x
1 + sin x
æ p pö p p
= | tan 2x | , x Î ç - , ÷ - , -
è 2 2ø 4 4
is :{ } again given S.D = 2.5 (s)

Sx i 2
s2 = – (10)2 = (2.5)2
11p p 20
(1) - (2)
30 10 or Sxi = 2125 (incorrect)
2

7p p or Sxi = 2125 – 25 + 35
2 2 2
(3) - (4) -
30 15
= 2725 (Correct)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2725
- (10.5)
2
cos x \ correct s 2 =
Sol. =| tan 2x | 20
1 + sin x
s2 = 26
2 2
cos x / 2 - sin x / 2 EN
Þ =| tan 2x | or s = 26
( cos x / 2 + sin x / 2)
\ a = 10.5, b = 26
æ p xö
Þ tan2 ç - ÷ = tan2 2x x 2 y2
è 4 2ø 3. On the ellipse + = 1 let P be a point in the
8 4
æ p xö second quadrant such that the tangent at P to the
Þ 2x = np ± ç - ÷
LL
è 4 2ø
ellipse is perpendicular to the line x + 2y = 0. Let S
-3p -p p and S' be the foci of the ellipse and e be its
Þx= , ,
10 6 10 eccentricity. If A is the area of the triangle SPS'
-11p then, the value of (5 – e2). A is :
or sum = .
6
A

(1) 6 (2) 12
2. The mean and standard deviation of 20 (3) 14 (4) 24
observations were calculated as 10 and 2.5
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
respectively. It was found that by mistake one data
value was taken as 25 instead of 35. If a and b P
Sol.
are the mean and standard deviation respectively
S S'
for correct data, then (a, b) is :
(1) (11, 26) (2) (10.5, 25)
(3) (11, 25) (4) (10.5, 26) Equation of tangent : y = 2x + 6
Official Ans. by NTA (4) at P
Sol. Given : \ P(–8/3, 2/3)
Sx i
Mean ( x=
) = 10 e=
1
20 2
or Sxi = 200 (incorrect) S & S' = (–2, 0) & (2, 0)
or 200 – 25 + 35 = 210 = Sxi (Correct)

1
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1 2 Sol. P(Exactly one of A or B)
Area of D SPS' = ×4×
2 3 5
= P ( A Ç B ) + P ( A Ç B=
)
4 9
A=
5
3
= P ( A ) P ( B ) + P ( A ) P ( B=
)
1 4 9
\ (5 – e2)A = (5 – ) =6
2 3 5
Þ P(A)(1–P(B)) + (1–P(A))P(B) =
9
4. Let y = y(x) be a solution curve of the differential
5
equation (y + 1) tan2x dx + tanx dy + y dx = 0, Þ p(1 – 2p) + (1 – p) 2p =
9
æ pö
x Î ç 0, ÷ . If lim xy ( x ) = 1, then the value of Þ 36p2 – 27 p + 5 = 0
è 2ø x® 0+
1 5
æ pö Þp= or
y ç ÷ is : 3 12
è 4ø
5
pmax =
p p 12
(1) - (2) -1
4 4 æ pö
6. Let q Î ç 0, ÷ . If the system of linear equations
p p è 2ø
(3) + 1 (4)
4 4 (1 + cos2q)x + sin2 q y + 4 sin3 q z = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (4) EN cos2q x + (1 + sin2 q) y + 4 sin3 q z = 0
2
Sol. (y + 1)tan x dx + tanx dy + y dx = 0 cos2q x + sin2 q y + (1 + 4 sin3 q) z = 0
dy sec 2 x has a non–trivial solution, then the value of q is :
or + .y= - tan x
dx tan x 4p 7p p 5p
(1) (2) (3) (4)
sec 2 x 9 18 18 18
ò dx
IF = e tan x = e ln tan x = tan x Official Ans. by NTA (2)
LL

Sol. Case–I
\ y tanx = – ò tan2 xdx
1 + cos2 q sin2 q 4sin 3q
or y tanx = – tan x + x + C 2
cos q 1 + sin q2
4sin 3q =0
x C 2 2
or y = – 1 + + cos q sin q 1 + 4sin 3q
tan x tan x
A

C1 ® C1 + C2
x2 Cx
or lim xy= - x + + = 1
x®0 tan x tan x 2 sin 2 q 4 sin 3q
or C = 1 2 1 + sin 2 q 4 sin 3q =0
y(x) = cot x + x cot x – 1 1 sin 2 q 1 + 4sin 3q
æ pö p
yç ÷ = R1 ® R1 – R2, R2 ® R2 – R3
è 4ø 4
0 -1 0
5. Let A and B be independent events such that
1 1 -1 =0
P(A) = p, P(B) = 2p. The largest value of p, for
2 3
1 sin q 1 + 4sin q
5
which P (exactly one of A, B occurs) = , is :
9 or 4 sin 3q = – 2
1 2 1
(1) (2) sin 3q = –
3 9 2

4 5 7p
(3) (4) q=
9 12 18

Official Ans. by NTA (4)

2
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æ æ 1- x öö 1 2101
Let f(x) = cos ç 2 tan -1 sin ç cot -1 ÷, S+ =
x ÷ø ø
7.
è è 1 - x 1 - x2101

0 < x < 1. Then : Put x = 2

(1) (1 – x)2 f'(x) – 2(f(x))2 = 0 2101
S = 1- 101
(2) (1 + x)2 f'(x) + 2(f(x))2 = 0 22 -1
2 2
(3) (1 – x) f'(x) + 2(f(x)) = 0 Not in option (BONUS)
2 2
(4) (1 + x) f'(x) – 2(f(x)) = 0 9. If 20Cr is the co-efficient of xr in the expansion of
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 20

æ æ 1- x öö
(1 + x)20, then the value of å r 2 20C r is equal to :
Sol. f(x) = cos ç 2 tan -1 sin ç cot -1 ÷
r =0
è è x ÷ø ø
(1) 420 × 219 (2) 380 × 219
1- x (3) 380 × 218 (4) 420 × 218
cot -1 = sin -1 x
x
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
–1
or f(x) = cos (2tan x) 20

æ 2 xö
–1
Sol. å r 2 .20 Cr
= cos tan ç ÷
EN r =0
è 1- xø

f(x) =
1- x å ( 4 ( r - 1) + r) .20 Cr
1+ x
-2 20 ´ 19 20
Now f'(x) = å r ( r - 1) . r ( r - 1) .18 Cr + r. r .å 19 Cr -1
(1 + x )2
LL

æ1- xö
2 Þ 20 × 19.218 + 20.219
2
or f'(x) (1 – x) = – 2 ç
è 1 + x ÷ø Þ 420 × 218
or (1 – x)2 f'(x) + 2(f(x))2 = 0. 10. Out of all the patients in a hospital 89% are found
The sum of the series
A

8.
to be suffering from heart ailment and 98% are
2 100
1 2 2 2
+ 2 + 4 + ..... + 100 when x = 2 suffering from lungs infection. If K% of them are
x +1 x +1 x +1 x 2
+1
suffering from both ailments, then K can not
is :
belong to the set :
2101 2100
(1) 1 + 101 (2) 1 + 101 (1) {80, 83, 86, 89} (2) {84, 86, 88, 90}
4 -1 4 -1
(3) {79, 81, 83, 85} (4) {84, 87, 90, 93}
2100 2101
(3) 1 - (4) 1 -
4100 - 1 4101 - 1 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Sol. n(A È B) ³ n(A) + n(B) – n(A Ç B)
Allen Ans. (BONUS)
100 ³ 89 + 98 – n(A È B)
1 2 22 2100
Sol. S= + 2 + 4 + .... 100 n(A È B) ³ 87
x +1 x +1 x +1 x2 + 1
1 1 1 2 2 87 £ n(A È B) £ 89
S+ = + + .... = + + ...
1- x 1- x x +1 1- x 2
1 + x2
Option (3)

3
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æ z -1ö p 13. If a line along a chord of the circle
11. The equation arg ç ÷= represents a circle
4x2 + 4y2 + 120x + 675 = 0, passes through the
è z +1ø 4
with: point (–30, 0) and is tangent to the parabola
(1) centre at (0, –1) and radius y2 = 30x, then the length of this chord is :
2
(1) 5 (2) 7 (3) 5 3 (4) 3 5
(2) centre at (0, 1) and radius 2
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(3) centre at (0,0) and radius 2
Sol. Equation of tangent to y2 = 30 x
(4) centre at (0,1) and radius 2
30
Official Ans. by NTA (2) y = mx +
Im
4m
30
Z Pass thru (–30, 0) : a = –30m + Þ m2 = 1/4
4m
p/4 1 1
Sol. z+1
C
z–1 Þ m= or m = -
R 2 2
B p/2 p/4 A Re 1 x
–1 0 1 (1,0) At m= : y = + 15 Þ x – 2y + 30 = 0
2 2

In DOAC EN (–15,0)
æ pö 1 R 15
sin ç ÷ = P=
è 4 ø AC x – 2y + 30 = 0 5
A B
Þ AC = 2
p OA 225 225
1 l AB = 2 R 2 - P 2 = 2 -
Also, tan = = 4 5
4 OC OC
LL

1 15
Þ OC = 1 Þ l AB = 30. = =3 5
20 5
\ centre (0, 1) ; Radius = 2 1 1
r r r 2 æ æ x + 1 ö2 æ x - 1 ö2 ö 2
12. Let a = ˆi + ˆj + kˆ and b = ˆj - kˆ . If c is a vector 14. The value of ò çç ÷ +ç ÷ - 2÷ dx is:
çè x -1ø è x +1 ø ÷
r r r r r r
A

rr -1 è ø
such that a ´ c = b and a.c = 3 , then a.(b ´ c) is 2

equal to : (1) loge 4 (2) loge16

(1) –2 (2) –6 (3) 6 (4) 2 (3) 2loge16 (4) 4loge (3 + 2 2 )
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
r rr r r r r r
Sol. | a |= 3; a.c = 3; a ´ b = -2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ , a ´ c = b 1
1
2
r 2 ææ x +1 x -1 ö 2ö
Cross with a .
r r r r r
Sol. I= ò çç
ç
- ÷ ÷÷ dx
a ´ (a ´ c) = a ´ b -1 è è x -1 x + 1 ø ø
2
rr r r r r
Þ (a.c)a - a 2 c = a ´ b 1
2
1
2
r r 4x x
Þ 3a - 3c = -2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ I= ò 2
x -1
dx Þ I = 2.4 ò 2
x -1
dx
-1 0
r 2
Þ 3iˆ + 3ˆj + 3kˆ - 3c = -2iˆ + ˆj + kˆ
1
2
r 5iˆ 2ˆj 2kˆ 2x 1
ò
2
Þ c= + + Þ I = -4 dx Þ I = -4 ln x - 1 2
3 3 3 0 x2 - 1 0

r r r r r r -10 2 2
\ a.(b ´ c) = (a ´ b).c = + + = –2 Þ I = 4 ln 2 Þ I = ln 16
3 3 3

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15. A plane P contains the line æ 1 2 ö æ 1 -2 ö
ç 5 ÷ ç ÷
x + 2y + 3z + 1 = 0 = x – y – z – 6, 5÷ 5 5÷
Sol. AA T = ç ç
and is perpendicular to the plane –2x + y + z + 8 = 0. ç -2 1 ÷ ç 2 1 ÷
ç ÷ ç ÷
Then which of the following points lies on P ? è 5 5ø è 5 5ø

(1) (–1, 1, 2) (2) (0, 1, 1) æ1 0ö

AAT = ç ÷=I
(3) (1, 0, 1) (4) (2, –1, 1) è0 1ø

Official Ans. by NTA (2) Q2 = ATBA ATBA = ATBIBA

Sol. Equation of plane P can be assumed as Þ Q2 = AT B2A

Q3 = ATB2AATBA Þ Q3 = ATB3A
Similarly : Q2021 = AT B2021 A ...... (1)

P æ1 0 ö æ1 0 ö æ 1 0 ö
Now B2= ç ÷ç =
÷ ç ÷
è i 1 ø è i 1 ø è 2i 1 ø

2x–y–z–8 = 0 æ 1 0 ö æ1 0 ö 3 æ 1 0ö
B3 =
ç ÷ç ÷ Þ B =ç ÷
è 2i 1 ø è i 1 ø è 3i 1 ø
P : x + 2y + 3z + 1 + l (x – y – z – 6) = 0 æ 1 0ö
Similarly B2021 = ç ÷
Þ P : (1 + l)x + (2 – l)y + (3 – l)z + 1 – 6l = 0 EN è 2021i 1 ø
r
Þ n1 = (1 + l )iˆ + (2 – l)ˆj + (3 – l)kˆ \ AQ2021 AT = AAT B2021 AAT = IB2021I
r r æ 1 0ö
\ n1.n 2 = 0 Þ AQ2021 AT = B2021 = ç ÷
è 2021i 1 ø
Þ 2(1 + l) – (2 – l) – (3 – l) = 0
-1
3 æ 1 0ö æ 1 0ö
Þ 2 + 2l – 2 + l – 3 + l = 0 Þ l = \ (AQ 2021 T –1
A) =ç ÷ =ç ÷
LL

4 è 2021i 1 ø è -2021i 1 ø

7x 5 9z 14 17. If the sum of an infinite GP a, ar, ar2, ar3,... is 15

Þ P: + y+ - =0
4 4 4 4 and the sum of the squares of its each term is 150,

Þ 7x + 5y + 9z = 14 then the sum of ar2, ar4, ar6, ... is :

A

5 1
(0, 1, 1) lies on P (1) (2)
2 2
æ 1 2 ö
25 9
ç 5 5÷ æ 1 0ö (3) (4)
16. If A = ç ÷ , B=ç ,i= -1 , and 2 2
ç -2 1 ÷ è i 1÷ø
çè ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (2)
5 5ø
Sol. Sum of infinite terms :
Q = ATBA, then the inverse of the matrix
a
A Q2021 AT is equal to : = 15 ........(i)
1- r
æ 1 ö Series formed by square of terms:
-2021
ç 5 ÷ æ 1 0ö
(1) ç ÷ (2) ç a2, a2r2, a2r4, a2r6 .....
ç 2021 1 ÷ è -2021 i 1÷ø
çè ÷ a2
5 ø Sum = = 150
1 - r2
æ 1 0ö æ 1 -2021 iö
(3) ç (4) ç a a a
è 2021 i 1÷ø è0 1 ÷ø Þ . = 150 Þ 15. = 150
1- r 1+ r 1+ r
Official Ans. by NTA (2) a
Þ = 10 ......... (ii)
1+ r

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1 æ a - 3 b +1ö
by (i) and (ii) a = 12 ; r = \ Mç , lies on 2x + y – 3 = 0
5 è 2 2 ÷ø
Now series : ar2, ar4, ar6
Þ 2a + b = 11 ........... (i)

Sum =
ar 2
=
( )
12. 1
25 = 1 Q C lies on 7x – 4y = 1
1- r 2
1- 1 2
25 Þ 7a – 4b = 1 ......(ii)
1 2n -1 n 2 \ by (i) and (ii) : a = 3, b = 5
18. The value of lim
n ®¥ n
år = 0 n + 4r
2 2
is:
Þ C(3, 5)
1 1
(1) tan ( 2 ) (2) tan -1 ( 4 )
-1
\ mAC = 2/3
2 2
Also, mCD = 7/4
1
(3) tan ( 4 ) (4) tan 1 ( 4 )
-1 -

4 2 4
-
q 3 4 q 1
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Þ tan = Þ tan =
2 1+ 14 2 2
1 2 n -1 1 12
Sol. L = lim .å 2
n ®¥ n
r =0 ærö 1
1+ 4ç ÷ 2.
ènø EN 4
Þ tan q = 2 =
1 3
2
1 1-
Þ L=ò 2
dx 4
0 1 + 4x
20. If the truth value of the Boolean expression
2
1 1
Þ L = tan -1 (2x) Þ L = tan -1 4
2 0 2
(( p Ú q ) Ù (q ® r ) Ù (~ r )) ® ( p Ù q ) is false,
LL

19. Let ABC be a triangle with A(–3, 1) and then the truth values of the statements p, q, r

p respectively can be:

ÐACB = q, 0 < q < . If the equation of the
2 (1) T F T (2) F F T
median through B is 2x + y – 3 = 0 and the (3) T F F (4) F T F
A

equation of angle bisector of C is 7x – 4y – 1 = 0,

Official Ans. by NTA (3)
then tanq is equal to:
p q r Ú q q{
p{ ® r a Ù b ~ r a14243
Ù b Ù (~ r) {
pÙq c ®d
1 3 Sol. a b c d
(1) (2) T F T T T T F F F T
2 4 F F T F T F F F F T
T F F T T T T T F F
4
(3) (4) 2 F T F T F F T F F T
3
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
SECTION-B
Sol.
1- i 3
A(–3, 1) 1. Let z = , i = -1 . Then the value of
2
M æ 1ö æ
3
1ö æ
3
1ö
3
æ 1 ö
3

D 21 + ç z + ÷ + ç z 2 + 2 ÷ + ç z 3 + 3 ÷ + ... + ç z 21 + 21 ÷
Let C(a, b) è zø è z ø è z ø è z ø
is _______.
B C(a,b) Official Ans. by NTA (13)

6
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p 3. Let the line L be the projection of the line
1 - 3i -i
Sol. Z= =e 3
2
x -1 y - 3 z - 4
= =
1 æ pö rp 2 1 2
zr + r
= 2 cos ç - ÷ r = 2cos
z è 3 ø 3
in the plane x – 2y – z = 3. If d is the distance of
21 3
Þ 21 + å æç z r + 1 ö÷ = 8 æ 3 rp ö æ rp ö
ç cos 3 ÷ = 2 ç cos rp + 3cos 3 ÷ the point (0, 0, 6) from L, then d2 is equal to
r
r =1 è z ø è ø è ø
_______.
3 3 3
æ 1ö æ 1 ö æ 1 ö
Þ 21 + ç z + ÷ + ç z 2 + 2 ÷ + ....... ç z21 + 21 ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (26)
è 2ø è z ø è z ø
21
æ 1ö
3 x -1 y - 3 z - 4
= 21 + å ç zr + r ÷ Sol. L1 : = =
2 1 2
=r 1 è z ø
21
rp ö for foot of ^ r of (1, 3, 4) on x – 2y – z – 3 = 0
æ
= 21 + å ç 2 cos rp + 6 cos ÷
=r 1 è 3ø (1 + t) – 2(3 –2t) – (4 – t) – 3 = 0
= 21 – 2 – 6
Þ t=2
= 13 EN So foot of ^ r A (3, –1, 2)
2. The sum of all integral values of k (k ¹ 0) for
2 1 2 & point of intersection of L1 with plane
which the equation - = in x has no
x -1 x - 2 k is (–11, –3, –8)
real roots, is ________.
dr's of L is <14, 2, 10>
LL
Official Ans. by NTA (66)
@ <7, 1, 5>
2 1 2
Sol. - =
x -1 x - 2 k
A (0,0,6)
x Î R – {1, 2}
d
A

Þ k(2x – 4 – x + 1) = 2 (x2 – 3x + 2)
Þ k(x – 3) = 2(x2 – 3x + 2) q B(3,–1,2) L
æ 2 ö
for x ¹ 3, k = 2ç x - 3 + + 3÷
è x-3 ø
ˆi ˆj kˆ
2
x -3+ ³ 2 2, "x > 3 3 -1 -4
x-3
7 1 5
2 d=
ABsin q =
| |
& x-3+ £ -2 2, "x < -3 72 + 12 + 52
x -3

æ
Þ 2ç x - 3 +
è
2
x-3
ö
ø
(
+ 3 ÷ Î -¥, 6 - 4 2 ù È é6 + 4 2, ¥
û ë ) Þ d2 =
12 + (43)2 + (10)2
49 + 1 + 25
= 26

for no real roots

4. If 1 P1 + 2·2 P2 + 3·3 P3 + ... + 15 · 15P15 = qPr – s, 0 £ s £ 1,
k Î (6 - 4 2,6 + 4 2) - {0}
then q+sCr–s is equal to ________.
Integral k Î {1, 2….. 11}
Official Ans. by NTA (136)
Sum of k = 66

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Sol. 1
P1 + 2·2 P2 + 3·3 P3 + ... + 15 · 15P15 6. The area of the region

= 1! + 2.2! + 3.3! + ….15 × 15! S = {(x, y) : 3x2 £ 4y £ 6x + 24} is __________.

15 Official Ans. by NTA (27)
= å ( r + 1 - 1) r!
=r 1 B
y=3/4x2
y= x +6
15
= å ( r + 1)!- ( r )!
=r 1 A
Sol.
= 16! – 1
= 16P16 – 1
Þ q = r = 16, s = 1
q+s
Cr–s = 17C15 = 136 For A & B

5. A wire of length 36 m is cut into two pieces, one of 3x2 = 6x + 24 Þ x2 – 2x – 8 = 0

the pieces is bent to form a square and the other is Þ x = –2, 4
bent to form a circle. If the sum of the areas of the
4
æ3 3 2ö
two figures is minimum, and the circumference of EN Area = ò çè 2 x + 6 - 4 x ÷ø dx
-2
æ4 ö
the circle is k (meter), then ç + 1 ÷ k is equal to
èp ø é 3x 2
4
x3 ù
_________. = ê + 6x - ú = 27
êë 4 4 úû
-2
Official Ans. by NTA (36)
7. The locus of a point, which moves such that the
LL
Sol. Let x + y = 36
sum of squares of its distances from the points
x is perimeter of square and y is perimeter of circle
(0, 0), (1, 0), (0, 1) (1, 1) is 18 units, is a circle of
side of square = x/4
diameter d. Then d2 is equal to ________.
y
radius of circle = Official Ans. by NTA (16)
A

2p
Sol. Let P(x, y)
2 2
æ xö æ yö
Sum Areas = ç ÷ + p ç ÷ x2 + y2 + x2 + (y – 1)2 + (x – 1)2 + y2 + (x – 1)2 + (y – 1)2;
è 4ø è 2p ø
Þ 4(x2 + y2) – 4y – 4x = 14
=
x 2
+
(36 - x ) 2

16 4p 7
Þ x2 + y2 – x – y – =0
2
For min Area :
144 1 1 7
x= d= 2 + +
p+4 4 4 2

144 Þ d2 = 16
Þ Radius = y = 36 –
p+4 8. If y = y(x) is an implicit function of x such that
36p d 2y
Þk= loge(x + y) = 4xy, then at x = 0 is equal to
p+4 dx 2
æ4 ö _______.
ç p + 1 ÷ k = 36
è ø Official Ans. by NTA (40)

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Sol. ln(x + y) = 4xy (At x = 0, y = 1) 10. Let a, b Î R, b ¹ 0, Define a function
4xy
x+y=e
ì p( )
dy æ dy ö ïï a sin 2 x - 1 , for x £ 0
Þ 1+ = e 4xy ç 4x + 4y÷ ( )
f x =í
dx è dx ø
ï tan 2x - sin 2x , for x > 0.
dy ïî bx 3
At x = 0 =3
dx If f is continuous at x = 0, then 10 – ab is equal to
2
æ d2 y ö
d2 y 4xy æ dy ö 4xy _________.
= e 4x
çè dx + 4y ÷ø + e ç 4x + 4y ÷
dx 2 è dx 2 ø Official Ans. by NTA (14)
d2 y ì p
ïï a sin 2 ( x - 1) , x £ 0
At x = 0, 2
= e0(4)2 + e0(24)
dx
Sol. f (x) = í
d2 y ï tan 2x - sin 2x , x > 0
Þ = 40 ïî bx3
dx 2
9. The number of three-digit even numbers, formed For continuity at '0'
by the digits 0, 1, 3, 4, 6, 7 if the repetition of lim f ( x ) = f(0)
digits is not allowed, is ________. x® 0+

Official Ans. by NTA (52)

Sol. (i) When '0' is at unit place
EN Þ lim
x®0+
tan 2x - sin 2x
bx 3
= -a

0
­ ­ 8x3 8x3
5 4 +
Þ lim 3 3 3! = -a
Number of numbers = 20 x ®0 + bx
LL

(ii) When 4 or 6 are at unit place

æ1 1ö
Þ 8 ç + ÷ = – ab
OX 4,6 è 3 3! ø
4 × 4
­
2
Þ 4 = – ab
Number of numbers = 32
A

So number of numbers = 52 Þ 10 – ab = 14

9
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Thursday 26th August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A h h
Sol. , mv 2mE
1. The temperature of equal masses of three different mv 2mE
liquids x,y and z are 10ºC, 20ºC and 30ºC 1
respectively. The temperature of mixture when x is E
mixed with y is 16ºC and that when y is mixed
2 E1 3
with z is 26ºC. The temperature of mixture when x , 2 = 0.75 1
1 E2 4
and z are mixed will be : 2
E1 3
(1) 28.32º C (2) 25.62º C
E2 4
(3) 23.84ºC (4) 20.28ºC
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 16 16
E2 E1 E (E1 = E)
Sol. X Y Z 9 9
m1 = m m2 = m m3 = m 16 7
Extra energy given = E E E
9 9
T1 = 10°C T2 = 20°C T3 = 30°C EN Ans. 2
s1 s2 s3
3. A particle of mass m is suspended from a ceiling
when x & y are mixed, Tf1 16 C
through a string of length L. The particle moves in
m1s1T + m2s2T2 = (m1s1 + m2s2)Tf1 L
a horizontal circle of radius r such that r = .The
s1 × 10 + s2 ×20 = (s1 + s2) × 16 2
2 speed of particle will be :
s1 s2 ….(i)
LL

3 rg
(1) rg (2) 2rg (3) 2 rg (4)
when y & z are mixex, Tf2 26 C 2
m2s2T + m3s3T3 = (m3s3 + m3s3)Tf2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. Conical pendulum
s2 × 20 + s3 ×30 = (s2 + s3) × 26
A

3
s3 s2 .....(ii)
2
when x & z are mixex T Tcos
m1s1T1 + m3s3T3 = (m1s1 + m3s3)Tf r
2 2 2 3 Tsin
s2 10 s2 20 s2 s2 Tf mg
3 3 3 2
Tf = 23.84°C r
Ans (3) 2
2. The de-Broglie wavelength of a particle having r 1
sin
kinetic energy E is . How much extra energy must 2
be given to this particle so that the de-Broglie = 45°
wavelength reduces to 75% of the initial value ? mv 2
T sin
1 7 r
(1) E (2) E Tcos = mg
9 9
16 v2
(3) E (4) E tan v rg
9 rg
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Ans. 1

1
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
4. A cylindrical container of volume 4.0 × 10–3 m3 Sol.
contains one mole of hydrogen and two moles of
carbon dioxide. Assume the temperature of the 120
60°
mixture is 400 K. The pressure of the mixture of
gases is :
[Take gas constant as 8.3 J mol–1 K–1]
(1) 249 × 101 Pa (2) 24.9 × 103 Pa 60°
(3) 24.9 × 105 Pa (4) 24.9 Pa
Angle between A and B , = 60°
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Angle betwenn A and A B
Sol. V = 4 × 10–3 m3
n = 3 moles Bsin
tan
A Bcos
T = 400K
nRT 3
B
PV = nRT P 2
V =
1
A B 2
3 8.3 400 2
P EN
4 10 3
3B
= 24.9 ×105 Pa tan
2A B
Ans 3 Ans 3
5. The angle between vector A and A – B is : x
6. A light beam is described by E = 800 sin t–
c
LL

n electron is allowed to move normal to the

propagation of light beam with a speed of 3 × 107

120º
ms–1. What is the maximum magnetic force exerted
A

on the electron ?
(1) 1.28 × 10–18 N
(2) 1.28 × 10–21 N
B (3) 12.8 × 10–17 N
–
(1) tan–1 2
(4) 12.8 × 10–18 N
3
A–B
2 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
A E0
(2) tan–1 0.7 B Sol. B0
C

3B Fmax eB0 V
(3) tan–1
2A – B
19 800
= 1.6 10 8
3 10 7
Bcos 3 10
(4) tan–1
A – Bsin = 12.8 × 10–18N
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Ans. 4

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
7. The two thin coaxial rings, each of radius 'a' and 2
having charges +Q and –Q respectively are Sol. 6 8
separated by a distance of 's'. The potential A B
difference between the centres of the two rings is :
4
Q 1 1
(1)
2 0 a s2 a 2

Q 1 1
(2)
4 0 a s 2
a2 Ans 4
9. The solid cylinder of length 80 cm and mass M has
Q 1 1
(3) –
4 0 a s a2
2 a radius of 20 cm. Calculate the density of the
material used if the moment of inertia of the
Q 1 1
(4) –
2 a s a2
2 cylinder about an axis CD parallel to AB as shown
0

in figure is 2.7 kg m2.

Official Ans. by NTA (4)
+Q –Q EN A C

Sol. A B
L M L/2

r B D
LL
KQ KQ
VA
a a2 s2 (1) 14.9 kg / m3 (2) 7.5 × 101 kg / m3

KQ KQ (3) 7.5 × 102 kg/m3 (4) 1.49 × 102 kg / m3

VB
a a2 s2 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
A

2KQ 2KQ Sol. Parallel axis theorem

VA VB
a a2 s2 I = ICM + Md2
Q 1 1 2
Mr 2 L
2 a s 2
a 2 I M
0 2 2
Ans 4 2
(0.2)2 0.8
8. If you are provided a set of resistances 2 , 4 , 2.7 M M
2 2
6 and 8 . Connect these resistances so as to
2 16
46 2.7 M
obtain an equivalent resistance of . 100 100
3
M = 15kg
(1) 4 and 6 are in parallel with 2 and 8 in series
M 15
(2) 6 and 8 are in parallel with 2 and 4 in series
r2 L (0.2)2 0.8
(3) 2 and 6 are in parallel with 4 and 8 in series
= 0.1492 × 103
(4) 2 and 4 are in parallel with 6 and 8 in series
Ans. 4
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
10. A parallel - plate capacitor with plate area A has 11. A bomb is dropped by fighter plane flying
horizontally. To an observer sitting in the plane,
separation d between the plates. Two dielectric
the trajectory of the bomb is a :
slabs of dielectric constant K1 and K2 of same area (1) hyperbola
(2) parabola in the direction of motion of plane
A/2 and thickness d/2 are inserted in the space
(3) straight line vertically down the plane
between the plates. The capacitance of the (4) parabola in a direction opposite to the motion of plane
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
capacitor will be given by :

+ + + + + + + +Q

K1
d
K2 Sol.
– – – – – – – –
Q vB u 0 ˆi gtjˆ
v B/ P vB v P
0 A 1 K1 K 2 v B/ P 8tjˆ
(1) EN
d 2 K1 K 2
straight line vertically down
Ans.3
0 A 1 K1K 2 12. At time t = 0, a material is composed of two
(2)
d 2 2 K1 K 2 radioactive atoms A and B, where NA(0) = 2NB(0).
The decay constant of both kind of radioactive
LL

A 1 K1 K 2 atoms is . However, A disintegrates to B and B

0
(3)
d 2 K1 K 2 disintegrates to C. Which of the following figures
represents the evolution of NB(t) / NB(0) with
respect to time t ?
A 1 0
2 K1 K2
(4)
A

NA 0 No. of A atoms at t 0
d 2 K1K2
NB 0 No. of B atoms at t 0

Official Ans. by NTA (1)

1
A
2
0 A 0 K1K 2 (1)
Sol. C eq
d d K1 K 2

A 0 1 K 1K 2 t
=
d 2 K1 K 2

A/2 1
A/2 K1 d/2
d A/2 (2)
K2 d/2
t
1/

Ans.1
4
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
d1 d2
h2
1 Sol. h1 R
(3)

t
1/2 dt 2Rh 1 2Rh 2

2R h1 h2
1
(2 6400 10 3 )1/2 50 80
(4)
= 3578 ( 7.07 + 8.94)
= 57.28 Km
t
1/2 14. A refrigerator consumes an average 35 W power to
operate between temperature –10°C to 25°C. If
Official Ans. by NTA (3) there is no loss of energy then how much average
Sol. heat per second does it transfer ?
A B, B C (1) 263 J/s (2) 298 J/s (3) 350 J/s (4) 35 J/s

dN B
dt
NA NB
EN Official Ans. by NTA (1)

TL
dH
Sol. = C.O.P. = dt
dN B t TH TL dW
2 N B0 e NB
dt dt
263 dH
dN B 35
LL
t t t
e NB 2 N B0 e e 35 dt
dt
dH
= 263 watts
d t dt
NB e 2 N B0 , on integrating
dt Ans.1
N Be t
2 tN B0 N B0 15. An electric bulb of 500 watt at 100 volt is used in a
A

circuit having a 200 V supply. Calculate the

t
NB N B0 [1 2 t]e resistance R to be connected in series with the bulb
dN B so that the power delivered by the bulb is 500 W.
t t
0 at [1 2 t)e 2 e 0 (1) 20 (2) 30 (3) 5 (4) 10
dt
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
1
N Bmax at t 500 watt at 100 v
2 R
13. A transmitting antenna at top of a tower has a 100 100
height of 50 m and the height of receiving antenna
is 80 m. What is range of communication for Line
Sol. 200
of Sight (LoS) mode ?
P = Vi
[use radius of earth = 6400 km] 500 = Vi
(1) 45.5 km (2) 80.2 km i = 5 Amp
V=i×R
(3) 144.1 km (4) 57.28 km
R = 20
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Ans. 1

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
16. Four NOR gates are connected as shown in figure. 17. Match List–I with List–II.
List-I List-II
The truth table for the given figure is :
(a) Magnetic Induction (i) ML2T–2A–1
A (b) Magnetic Flux (ii) M0L–1A

Y (c) Magnetic (iii) MT–2A–1

Permeability
B (d) Magnetization (iv) MLT–2A–2
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
A B Y A B Y
0 0 1 0 0 0 options given below :
(1) 0 1 0 (2) 0 1 1 (1) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(iii)
1 0 1 1 0 1 (2) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
1 1 0 1 1 0
(3) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)

A B Y A B Y (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)

0 0 0 0 0 1 EN Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(3) 0 1 1 (4) 0 1 0 Sol. (a) Magnetic Induction = MT–2A–1
1 0 0 1 0 0
(b) Magnetic Flux = ML2T–2A–1
1 1 1 1 1 1
(c) Magnetic Permeability = MLT–2A–2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (d) Magnetization = M0L–1A
LL
Sol. Ans. 4
18. In the given circuit the AC source has
A = 100 rad s–1. Considering the inductor and
capacitor to be ideal, what will be the current I
A

Y
flowing through the circuit?

B 100 µF 100

y (A A B) (B A B)
I
0.50 50
y (A A B).(B A B)
200 V
A B y (1) 5.9 A
0 0 1
(2) 4.24 A
0 1 0
1 0 0 (3) 0.94 A
1 1 1 (4) 6 A
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Ans.4 Official Ans. by ALLEN (Bonus)

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
2
1 Sol. T 2
Sol. ZC R2 g
C
T 1
2
1 2 T 2
6
100
100 100 10 1 0.1
T 24 3600
2 100
ZC (100)2 (100) 2
T = 43.2
100 2 Ans. 3
20. Two blocks of masses 3 kg and 5 kg are connected
ZL ( L)2 R2
by a metal wire going over a smooth pulley. The
2 2
(100 0.5) 50 24
breaking stress of the metal is × 102 Nm–2.
= 50 2
What is the minimum radius of the wire?
200 200
iC 2 (Take g = 10 ms–2)
zC 100 2

200 200
iL 2 2 EN
zL 50 2

100 1
cos 1 1 = 45° 3kg
10 2 2
5kg
50 1
cos 2 2 = 45°
50 2 2 (1) 125 cm (2) 1250 cm
LL
(3) 12.5 cm (4) 1.25 cm
IC
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
45°
45°
A

IL T
3kg T
I I 2C I 2L
5kg
Sol.
= 2 8
2m 1 m 2 g 2 3 5 10
= 10 T
m1 m 2 8
I = 3.16 A 75
=
Ans. 3.16 2
19. If the length of the pendulum in pendulum clock T
Stress =
A
increases by 0.1%, then the error in time per day is:
24 75
(1) 86.4 s 10 2
2 R2
(2) 4.32 s 75 3
R2
(3) 43.2 s 2 24 100 8 24
(4) 8.64 s R = 0.125 m

Official Ans. by NTA (3) R = 12.5 cm

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
SECTION-B I 3I
cos 2
1. Two waves are simultaneously passing through a 2 8
string and their equations are : 3
cos 2
y1 = A1 sin k(x–vt), y2 = A2 sin k(x–vt + x0). Given 4
amplitudes A1 = 12 mm and A2 = 5 mm, 3
cos2
x0 = 3.5 cm and wave number k = 6.28 cm–1. The 2
amplitude of resulting wave will be .......... mm. = 30
Official Ans. by NTA (7) Ans. 30

Sol. y1 = A1sink(x –vt) 3. If the maximum value of accelerating potential

y1 = 12 sin 6.28 (x – vt) provided by a ratio frequency oscillator is 12 kV.
y2 = 5 sin 6.28 (x – vt + 3.5) The number of revolution made by a proton in a
2 cyclotron to achieve one sixth of the speed of light
( x)
is ............
= K( x) [mp = 1.67 × 10–27 kg, e = 1.6 × 10–19 C,
7 Speed of light = 3 × 108 m/s]
= 6.28 × 3.5 = 2 7
2
EN Official Ans. by NTA (543)
A net A12 A 22 2A1 A 2 cos
Sol. V = 12 kV
2 2
A net (12) (5) 2(12)(5)cos(7 ) Number of revolution = n
1
= 144 25 120 n 2 qP V m P v 2P
2
Ans. 7
n[2× 1.6 × 10–19 × 12 × 103
LL
2. A source of light is placed in front of a screen. 2
1 27 3 108
Intensity of light on the screen is I. Two Polaroids = 1.67 10
2 6
P1 and P2 are so placed in between the source of
light and screen that the intensity of light on screen n(38.4×10–16) = 0.2087 × 10–11
is I/2. P2 should be rotated by an angle of ........... n = 543.4
A

(degrees) so that the intensity of light on the screen Ans. 543

3I 4. The acceleration due to gravity is found upto an
becomes .
8
accuracy of 4% on a planet. The energy supplied to
Official Ans. by NTA (30) a simple pendulum to known mass 'm' to undertake
I0 oscillations of time period T is being estimated. If
Sol. I cos2
2 time period is measured to an accuracy of 3%, the
P1 P2 accuracy to which E is known as ..........%
Official Ans. by NTA (14)

I0 T2 g
Sol. T 2
g 4 2
2
T2 2
P1 P2 E mg mg 2 2
2 8
dE dg dT
2
I0 E g T

= (4 + 3) = 14%

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
5. A circular coil of radius 8.0 cm and 20 turns is
rotated about its vertical diameter with an angular Sol.
B
–1
speed of 50 rad s in a uniform horizontal
10 cm
magnetic field of 3.0 × 10–2 T. The maximum
emf induced the coil will be .......... ×10–2 volt M B = MBsin90°
2
i 3
(rounded off to the nearest integer) = MB B
4
Official Ans. by NTA (60) = 3 10 5 N m
Ans. 3
Sol. Maximum emf = N AB
8. For the given circuit, the power across zener diode
N = 20, = 50, B = 3 ×10–2T is ............ mW.
= 20 × 50 × × (0.08)2 × 3 × 10–2 = 60.28 × 10–2 1k
Rounded off to nearest integer = 60
IZ
Ans.60 24 V RL = 5k
VZ = 10 V
6. Two simple harmonic motions are represented by
the equations

x1 = 5 sin 2 t
EN
and x2 = 5 2 (sin 2 t + cos2 t).
Official Ans. by NTA (120)
1k
I
4 Sol. i
IZ
The amplitude of second motion is .............. times 24 V RL = 5k
VZ = 10
the amplitude in first motion. V
LL

Official Ans. by NTA (2) 10V

i 2mA
5k
1 1
Sol. x2 5 2 sin 2 t cos 2 t 2 14V
2 2 I 14mA
1k
A

Iz = 12mA
= 10 sin 2 t P = IzVz = 120 mW
4
Ans. 120
A2 10
2 9. An object is placed at a distance of 12 cm from a
A1 5
convex lens. A convex mirror of focal length
15 cm is placed on other side of lens at 8 cm as
Ans. 2
shown in the figure. Image of object coincides with
7. A coil in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side the object.
10 cm lies in a vertical plane between the pole
Image
pieces of permanent magnet producing a horizontal
Object Image in
magnetic field 20 mT. The torque acting on the the absence
12 cm 8 cm of mirror
coil when a current of 0.2 A is passed through it
When the convex mirror is removed, a real and
and its plane becomes parallel to the magnetic field
inverted image is formed at a position. The
will be x 10 –5 Nm. The value of x is........... distance of the image from the object will be
........(cm)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (50)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session

Sol. Image
C of mirror
Object
12 8 cm 30 cm

For the object to coincide with image, the light

must fall perpendicularly to mirror. Which means
that the light will have to converge at C of mirror.
Without the mirror also, the light would coverage
at C.
So the distance is : 12 + 8 + 30 = 50 cm

10. The coefficient of static friction between two

blocks is 0.5 and the table is smooth. The
maximum horizontal force that can be applied to
move the blocks together is .......N.
(take g = 10 ms–2) EN
Table 1 kg µ=0.5
2kg F

Official Ans. by NTA (15)

LL

Table 1 kg µ=0.5
2kg F
Sol.
F = 3a (For system) ….(i)
A

1 fsmax

fsmax 1a (for 1kg block) ….(ii)

µ×1×g=a
5=a

F = 15N

10
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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Thursday 26th August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A Sol. Photochemical smog causes cracking of rubber, the
1. Which one of the following phenols does not give common component of photochemical smog are
colour when condensed with phthalic anhydride in ozone, nitric oxide, acrolein, formaldehyde and
presence of conc. H2SO4 ? peroxyacetyle nitrate (PAN).
OH 3. The interaction energy of London forces between
(1)
two particles is proportional to rx, where r is the
OH distance between the particles. The value of x is :
(1) 3 (2) –3
(2)
(3) –6 (4) 6
CH3 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
OH
Sol. For london dispersion forces.
(3) 1
E
OH r6
OH Hence x = –6
OH
4. The number of non-ionisable hydrogen atoms
(4)
present in the final product obtained from the
Official Ans. by NTA (2) hydrolysis of PCl5 is :
Sol. Only p-methyl, phenol does not give any colour (1) 0 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 3
with phthalic anhydroxide with cons. H2SO4. Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as Sol. PCl5 + H2O  POCl3 + 2HCl
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). + 3H2O
Assertion (A) : Photochemical smog causes
cracking of rubber. H3PO4 + 3HCl
O
Reason (R) : Presence of ozone, nitric oxide,
acrolein, formaldehyde and peroxyacetyl nitrate in In P + HCl
O O
photochemical smog makes it oxidizing. H O
H H
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
all hydrogens are ionisable
options given below :
 Ans is zero.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the
5. The bond order and magnetic behaviour of O 2 ion
true explanation of (A)
are, respectively :
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true. (1) 1.5 and paramagnetic
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false (2) 1.5 and diamagnetic
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true (3) 2 and diamagnetic
explanation of (A) (4) 1 and paramagnetic
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
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Sol. O2  (1s )2 (1s* )2 (2s ) 2 (*2s ) 2 (2pz ) 2 H3O+
Sol. CH3–C–O–CH2CH3 CH3CO2H+CH3CH2OH

 2
2px  2
2py  
*2
2px *1
2py  O

10  7 CH3–C–O–CH3 DIBALH/H2O CH3CHO

Bond order = = 1.5 –78ºC
2 O
and paramagnetic SnCl2+HCl CH CH=O
CH3–CN 3
6. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as /H2O
Assertion (A) and other is labelled as Reason (R). O
Assertion (A) : Sucrose is a disaccharide and a CH3MgBr (1eq)
CH3–CN
non-reducing sugar. /H3O+
8. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Reason (R) : Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage
between C1 of -glucose and C2 of -fructose. Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (R).
options given below : Assertion (A) : Barium carbonate is insoluble in
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true water and is highly stable.
explanation of (A) Reason (R) : The thermal stability of the
(2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
carbonates increases with increasing cationic size.
(3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is the true
(4) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true
explanation of (A)
explanation of (A)
(2) (A) is true but (R) is false
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is not the
Sol. Surcrose is example of disaccharide & non
reducing sugar true explanation of (A)
Assertion : correct (4) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Sucrose involves glycosidic linkage between C1 of Official Ans. by NTA (1)
-D-glucose C2 of -D-fructose
Sol. In IIA group on moving down the group size of
Reason : Incorrect
cation increases and show thermal stability of
7. Match List-I with List-II : carbonate increases.
List-I List-II NH2
(Chemical Reaction) (Reagent used)

(a) CH3COOCH2CH3 CH3CH2OH 

(CH3CO)2 O
(i) CH3MgBr / H3O+ 9. NH2
P
(Major product)
(1.equivalent)
(b) CH3COOCH3  CH3CHO O
(ii) H2SO4 / H2O
The major product in the above reaction is :
(c) CH3C N  CH3CHO NHCOCH3 NH2
(iii) DIBAL-H/H2O
O

(d) CH3C  N  CH3 CH3 (1) (2)

(iv) SnCl2, HCl/H2O NHCOCH3 NHCOCH3

Choose the most appropriate match : O O


(1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i NH3CH3COO–
NHCOCH3

(2) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d-i

(3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i (3) NHCOCH3 (4)
NH2
(4) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv O
O
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
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 NH2 NH–C–CH3 Sol. Sphalerite-ZnS, copper glance - Cu2S two sulphide
O ores can be separated by adjusting proportions of
Ac2O
Sol. NH2 (CH CO) O NH2 oil to water or by using ' Depressants '
3 2

O O 13. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

10. Indicate the complex/complex ion which did not Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
show any geometrical isomerism : (R).
(1) [CoCl2(en)2] (2) [Co(CN)5(NC)]3– Assertion (A) : Heavy water is used for the study
(3) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3] (4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]+ of reaction mechanism.
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Reason (R) : The rate of reaction for the cleavage
Sol. (1) [CoCl2(en)2] show of O - H bond is slower than that of O-D bond.
Cis-trans isomerism Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) [Co(CN)5(NC)]–3 can't options given below :
Show G.I.
(1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the true
(3) [Co(NH3)3(NO2)3]
explanation of (A).
Show fac & mer isomerism
(4) [Co(NH3)4Cl2] show cis & trans isomerism (2) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the true
11. The sol given below with negatively charged explanation of (A).
colloidal particles is : (3) (A) is false but (R) is true.
(1) FeCl3 added to hot water (4) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(2) KI added to AgNO3 solution Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(3) AgNO3 added to KI solution Sol. D2O in used for the study of reaction mechanism.
(4) Al2O3.xH2O in water Rate of reaction for the cleavage of O–H bond >

Official Ans. by NTA (3) O-D bond.

14. Arrange the following Cobalt complexes in the
Sol.
12. Given below are two statements : order of increasing Crystal Field Stabilization

Statement I : Sphalerite is a sulphide ore of zinc Energy (CFSE) value.

and copper glance is a sulphide ore of copper. Complexes : [CoF6 ]3 ,[Co(H 2 O)6 ]2  ,[Co(NH 3 )6 ]3
A B C

Statement II : It is possible to separate two

and[Co(en)3 ]3
sulphide ores by adjusting proportion of oil to
Choose the correct option :
water or by using 'depressants' in a froth flotation
(1) A < B < C < D (2) B < A < C < D
method.
(3) B < C < D < A (4) C < D < B < A
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
options given below :
Sol. (i) CFSE  charge or oxidation no. of central metal
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
ion.
(2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(ii) CFSE  strength of ligand
(3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
en > NH3 > H2O > F–
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.  order of CFSE
Official Ans. by NTA (2) III III III II
[Co(en)3 ]3  Co(NH 3 )6 ]3  [CoF6 ]3  [Co(H 2 O) 6 ]2

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15. H 18. The number of stereoisomers possible for 1,2-
N dimethyl cyclopropane is :
N=C CH3
H (1) One (2) Four
C
+ (3) Two (4) Three
Cl C=N H
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
O–

Sol. + +
Chlordiazepoxide
The class of drug to which chlordiazepoxide with A B C
above structure belongs is :
(1) Antacid (2) Analgesic
(3) Tranquilizer (4) Antibiotic O OH
"X" CN
Official Ans. by NTA (3) H HCN,H O H
2
19.
Sol. The drug named chlordiate poxide is example of 
tranquilizer. "Y" LiAlH4
+
(Major Product) H3O
16. Chalcogen group elements are :
(1) Se, Tb and Pu. (2) Se, Te and Po. Consider the given reaction, Identify 'X' and 'Y' :
(3) S, Te and Pm. (4) O, Ti and Po. OH
(1) X – NaOH Y – NH
Official Ans. by NTA (2) H
Sol. Group 16/oxygen family is known as Chalcogens OH
the members are O, S, Se, Te, Po
(2) X – HNO3 Y –
H NH2
17. Which one of the following compounds is not
OH
aromatic ?
(3) X – NaOH Y –
(1) (2) H NH2
OH
:

 
NH2
(4) X – HNO3 Y –
H
: :

O
H
(3) (4) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol.
Official Ans. by NTA (3) O OH
NaOH(x)
Sol. : Non aromatic H HCN/H2O CN
H
X NaOH
OH All are LiAlH4


; ; aromatic OH OH
Y NH2 NH2
(+)
H H
(major product)

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 O OR
Br2
AlBr3(C2H5)2O
'A' O.C.  BaSO4
WOC 0.471g 1.44g
(Major product)
20.
1.44
Consider the given reaction, the product A is :  ns = n BaSO 4 
233
O
O Br 1.44
 ws   32g
233
(1) (2)
Br
Ws 1.44  32
therefore %S   100   100
WO.C. 233  0.471
O O 46.08
  100  41.98 42
109.743
(3) (4)
Br 2. The equilibrium constant Kc at 298 K for the
Br
reaction A + B C+D
Official Ans. by NTA (3) is 100. Starting with an equimolar solution with
O concentrations of A, B, C and D all equal to 1M,
CH2–CH2–CH2–CH3 the equilibrium concentration of D is_____ × 10–2
Sol.
M. (Nearest integer)
(m–directing)
Official Ans. by NTA (182)
Br2+AlBr3(El2O)
Sol. A + B C + D : Keq = 100
O 1M 1M 1M 1M
First check direction of reversible reaction.
[C][D]
Since QC =  1 < Keq.  reaction will
Br [A][B]
move in forward direction to attain equilibrium
SECTION-B
state.
1. In the sulphur estimation, 0.471 g of an organic  A + B C + D : Keq = 100
compound gave 1.44 g of barium sulphate. The to 1 1 1 1
teq. 1–x 1–x 1+x 1+x
percentage of sulphur in the compound is _____%.
  
(Nearest integer) Now : Keq = 100 = 1  x 1  x
1  x 1  x 
(Atomic Mass of Ba = 137 u) 1 x 
2
 100   
Official Ans. by NTA (42) 1 x 
1 x 
Sol. Molecular mass of BaSO4 = 233 g (i) 10 =  
1 x 
 233 BaSO4 contain  32 g sulphur  10 – 10x = 1+x
 11 x = 9
32
1.44 g BaSO4 contain  × 1.44 g sulphur 9
233  x
11
 given : 0.471 g of organic compound
1 x
32  1.44 (ii) –10 =
% of S = × 100 = 41.98%  42% 1 x
233  0.471
 –10 + 10x = 1 + x

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  –9x = –11 hc 1
  h0  mv 2
 2
11
 x 6.63  10 34  3  108 1
9   6.63  10 34  4.3  1014  mv 2
500  10 9 2
 'x' cannot be more than one, therefore not valid.
.63  30  10 20 1
therefore equation concretion of (D) = 1 + x   6.63  4.3  10 20  mv 2
5 2
9 20
1  1
11 11  11.271 × 10–20 J = × 9 × 10–31 × 2
2
= 1.8181 = 181.81 × 10–2
182 × 10–2    5 105 m / sec.
3. For water vap H = 41 kJ mol–1 at 373 K and 1 bar 5. For the galvanic cell,
pressure. Assuming that water vapour is an ideal
Zn(s) + Cu2+ (0.02 M)  Zn2+ (0.04 M) + Cu(s),
gas that occupies a much larger volume than liquid
water, the internal energy change during Ecell =_______ × 10–2 V. (Nearest integer)
evaporation of water is_____kJ mol–1 0 0
[Use : E Cu /Cu 2 = –0.34 V, E Zn / Zn 2 =+0.76 V,
[Use : R = 8.3 J mol–1 K–1]
2.303 RT
Official Ans. by NTA (38) = 0.059 V]
F
Sol. Given equation is
Official Ans. by NTA (109)
kJ
H2O()  H2O(g) : H = 41 Sol. Galvanic cell:
mol
2
Zn (s)  Cu (aq.)  Zn 2  Cu(s)
 From the relation : H = U + ngRT 0.02M
0.04 M

kJ 8.3 0.059 [2n 2 ]

 41  U  (1)   373 Nernst equation = Fcell = Eocell  log
mol 1000 2 [Cu 2 ]
 DU = 41 – 3.0959
0.059 0.04
 E cell  E ocell  E oZn 2 / Zn   log
= 38 kJ/mol 2 0.02
4. A metal surface is exposed to 500 nm radiation. 0.059 2
 E cell  0.34   0.76   log
The threshold frequency of the metal for 2

photoelectric current is 4.3 × 1014 Hz. The velocity 0.059

 E cell 1  1   0.3010
2
of ejected electron is ________× 105 ms–1 (Nearest
= 1.0911 = 109.11 × 10–2
integer)
= 109
[Use : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, me = 9.0 × 10–31 kg] 6. 100 mL of Na3PO4 solution contains 3.45 g of
Official Ans. by NTA (5) sodium. The molarity of the solution is _____×10–2

e– mol L–1 . (Nearest integer)

=500nm
[Atomic Masses - Na : 23.0 u, O : 16.0 u, P : 31.0 u]

Official Ans. by NTA (50)

Sol.
Na3PO4 Na3PO4 3Na
Sol. 3.45g
 : speed of electron having max. K.E.
100ml Sol.
 from Einstein equation : E =  + K.E.max

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 therefore molarity of Na3PO4 Solution =
n Na3 PO4
volume of solution in L
1 3.45
 mol 9. The reaction rate for the reaction
 3 23
0.1L
[PtCl4]2– + H2O [Pt(H2O)Cl3]– + Cl–
–2
= 0.5 = 50 × 10
was measured as a function of concentrations of
7. The overall stability constant of the complex ion
different species. It was observed that
[Cu(NH3)4]2+ is 2.1 × 1013. The overall
d  PtCl 4  
2
dissociations constant is y × 10–14. Then y is
  = 4.8 × 10–5  PtCl 2   –2.4 ×
____.(Nearest integer) dt  4


Official Ans. by NTA (5)

10–3  Pt(H2 O)Cl3   Cl –  .


 
Sol. Given kf = 2.1 × 1013
1 where square brackets are used to denote molar
Kd =  4.7  10 14
kf concentrations. The equilibrium constant

 y = 4.7  5 Kc=_____. (Nearest integer)

8. 83 g of ethylene glycol dissolved in 625 g of water. Official Ans. by NTA (50)

The freezing point of the solution is _______K. Sol. [PtCl4]–2 + H2O [Pt(H2O)Cl3]– + Cl–
(Nearest integer) d[Pt Cl 4 ]2
 4.8 × 10–5 [PtCl4–2] – 2.4 × 103
dt
[Use : Molal Freezing point depression constant of
o
water = 1.86 K kg mol–1] [Pt(H2O)Cl3][ u ]
Freezing Point of water = 273 K k f 4.8  10 5
 K eq    0.02
k b 2.4  10 3
Atomic masses : C : 12.0 u, O : 16.0 u, H : 1.0 u]
10. A chloro compound "A".
Official Ans. by NTA (269)
(i) forms aldehydes on ozonolysis followed by the
Sol. kf = 1.86 k. kg/mol
hydrolysis.
Tfo = 273 k
solvent : H2O(625 g) (ii) when vaporized completely 1.53 g of A, gives
 CH2  CH 2  448 mL of vapour at STP.
Solute : 83 g  | |   Non dissociative
  The number of carbon atoms in a molecule of
 OH OH 
compound A is _______.
solute
 Tf = kf × m Official Ans. by NTA (3)
83 / 62 Sol. 448 ml of A  1.53 gm A
  Tfo  Tf1   1.86 
624 / 1000 1.53
22400 ml of A  × 22400 gm A = 7650
1.86  83  1000 154380 445
 273 – Tf1 = 
62  625 38750 O3
H3CHC–CH–Cl CH3–CH=O
 273 – T  4 It has 3 carbon atoms Zn /H2O
1
f Aldehyde

 Tf1  259 K & mm is 36 + 5 + 35.5 = 76.5

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Thursday 26th August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A é0 0 0 ù
1. Let [t] denote the greatest integer less than or equal A 2025
-A 2020
= êê 5 0 0 úú
to t. Let f(x) = x – [x], g(x) = 1 – x + [x], and êë 0 0 0 úû

h(x) = min{f(x), g(x)}, x Î [–2, 2]. Then h is : é0 0 0 ù

(1) continuous in [–2, 2] but not differentiable at A - A = êê 5 0 0 úú
6

more than four points in (–2, 2) êë 0 0 0 úû

(2) not continuous at exactly three points in [–2, 2] 3. The local maximum value of the function
(3) continuous in [–2, 2] but not differentiable at x2
æ2ö
exactly three points in (–2, 2) f(x) = ç ÷ , x > 0 , is
èxø
(4) not continuous at exactly four points in [–2, 2] e
1
æ 4 ö4
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (1) ( 2 e ) e
(2) ç ÷
è eø
Sol. min{x – [x], 1 – x + [x]}
h(x) = min{x – [x], 1 – [x – [x])}
EN (3) ( e ) e
2
(4) 1
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
x2
æ2ö
Sol. f(x) = ç ÷ ; x>0
èxø
LL

–2 –1 1 2
ln f(x) = x2 (ln2 – lnx)

Þ always continuous in [–2, 2] f'(x) = f(x) {–x + (ln 2 – ln x)2x}

but non differentiable at 7 Points
f '(x) = f(x).
{ { x (2
144l n 24 2 l n x -3
-2444 1)
A

æ1 0 0ö + + g(x)
2. Let A= ç 0 1 1 ÷ . Then A2025 – A2020 is equal to :
ç1 0 0÷
è ø g(x) = 2l n2 – 2l n x–1
(1) A6 – A (2) A5
4 2
(3) A5 – A (4) A6 = ln 2
-1 = 0 Þ x =
x e
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
é1 0 0 ù é1 0 0 ù + –
Sol. A = ê 0 1 1 ú Þ A = êê1 1 1 úú
ê ú 2

êë 1 0 0 úû êë1 0 0 úû O inc. dec.

.
é1 0 0 ù é1 0 0 ù
A = ê 2 1 1 ú Þ A = êê3 1 1 úú
3 ê ú 4
LM =
2
êë 1 0 0 úû êë1 0 0 úû e
4
2
é 1 0 0ù æ 2 öe
Local maximum value = ç ÷ Þ e
e

A = ê n - 1 1 1 úú
n ê è2/ e ø
êë 1 0 0 úû

1
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
5
x + [x] Sol. P( -2 6, 3) lies on hyperbola
4. If the value of the integral ò x -[ x]
dx = ae -1 + b ,
e
0
24 3
Þ - =1 .......(i)
where a, b Î R, 5a + 6b = 0, and [x] denotes the a2 b2
greatest integer less than or equal to x; then the 5 æ5 ö
e = Þ b2 = a2 ç - 1 ÷ Þ 4b2 = a2
value of (a + b) is equal to : 2
2 è4 ø
(1) 100 (2) 25 6 3
Put in (i) Þ 2
- 2 =1 Þ b = 3
(3) 16 (4) 36 b b
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Þ a = 12
5
x + [x]
Sol. I=ò x -[x]
dx
0 e
x 2 y2
1 2 3 5 - =1
x x +1 x+2 x+4 12 3
ò ex dx + ò ex -1 dx + ò e x-2 dx +.....ò e x -4 dx
0 1 2 4

ß ß ß Tangent at P :
x=t+1 x=z+2 x=y+4 -x y
- =
1 Þ Q (0, 3)
6 3
1

ò
t +2
0 e
t
z+4
1
y +8
dt + ò z dz + ..... + ò y dx
0 e 0 e
1
EN Slope of T= -
1
2
5 1
5x + 20 x+4
Þ ò x
dt = 5ò x dx Normal at P :
0 e 0 e
y - 3 =2(x + 2 6)
LL
1
Þ 5ò (x + 4)e - x dx Þ R = (0,5 3)
0
QR = 6 3
-x 30
Þ 5e (- x - 5) |10 Þ - + 25 6. Let y(x) be the solution of the differential equation
e
A

a = –30 2x 2 dy + (e y - 2x)dx = 0, x > 0. If y(e) = 1, then

b = 25 Þ 5a + 6b = 0 y(1) is equal to :
(1) 0 (2) 2
(a + b)2 = 52 = 25
(3) log e 2 (4) log e (2e)
5. The point P ( -2 6, 3 ) lies on the hyperbola
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
x 2
y 2
5 Sol. 2x2dy + (ey – 2x)dx = 0
2
- 2 = 1 having eccentricity . If the tangent
a b 2 dy e y - 2x dy e y 1
+ = 0 Þ + - =0
and normal at P to the hyperbola intersect its dx 2x 2 dx 2x 2 x

dy e - y 1
conjugate axis at the point Q and R respectively, e- y - = - 2 Þ Put e = z
–y

dx x 2x
then QR is equal to :
-dz z 1 dx
- = - 2 Þ xdz + zdx =
(1) 4 3 (2) 6 dx x 2x 2x
dx 1
(3) 6 3 (4) 3 6 d(xz) = Þ xz = loge x + c
2x 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
1 9. A fair die is tossed until six is obtained on it. Let X
xe - y = log e x + c , passes through (e,1)
2 be the number of required tosses, then the

Þ C=
1 conditional probability P ( X ³ 5 X > 2 ) is :
2
125 11 5 25
loge ex (1) (2) (3) (4)
xe - y = 216 36 6 36
2
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
-y 1
e = Þ y = log e 2 P(x ³ 5)
2 Sol. P(x ³ 5 | x > 2) =
P(x > 2)
7. Consider the two statements : 4 5
æ5ö 1 æ5ö 1
(S1) : (p ® q) Ú (~ q ® p) is a tautology. ç 6 ÷ . 6 + ç 6 ÷ . 6 + ....... + ¥
è ø è ø
2 3
(S2) : (p Ù ~ q) Ù (~ p Ú q) is a fallacy. æ5ö 1 æ 5ö 1
ç 6 ÷ 6 ç 6 ÷ . 6 + ...... + ¥
. +
è ø è ø
Then :
4
(1) only (S1) is true. æ 5ö 1
ç6÷ .6
è ø
(2) both (S1) and (S2) are false. 5
1- 2
(3) both (S1) and (S2) are true. 6 = æ5ö 25
2 ç ÷ =
(4) only (S2) is true. EN æ5ö 1 è ø 6 36
ç6 ÷ .6
Official Ans. by NTA (3) è ø
5
Sol. S1 : (~ p Ú q) Ú (q Ú p) = (q Ú ~ p) Ú (q Ú p) 1-
6
50
S1 = q Ú (~ p Ú p) = qvt = t = tautology 1
10. If å tan -1 2 = p , then the value of tan p is :
r= 1 2r
S2 : (p Ù ~ q) Ù (~ p Ú q) = (p Ù ~ q) Ù ~ (p Ù ~ q) = C
101 50 51
(1) (2) (3) 100 (4)
LL

= fallacy 102 51 50
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
æ1+ x ö
8. The domain of the function cosec -1 ç ÷ is : 50
æ 2 ö 50 æ (2r + 1) - (2r - 1) ö
è x ø Sol. å tan -1 ç 2 ÷ = å tan -1 ç ÷
r =1 è 4r ø r =1 è 1 + (2r + 1)(2r - 1) ø
æ 1ù é 1 ö 50
(1) ç -1, - ú È (0, ¥ ) (2) ê - , 0 ÷ È [1, ¥ )
å tan -1(2r + 1) - tan -1(2r - 1)
A

è 2û ë 2 ø
r =1

æ 1 ö é 1 ö 50
(3) ç - , ¥ ÷ - {0} (4) ê - , ¥ ÷ - {0} tan -1 (101) - tan -1 1 Þ tan -1
è 2 ø ë 2 ø 51
11. Two fair dice are thrown. The numbers on them
Official Ans. by NTA (4) are taken as l and m, and a system of linear
1+ x equations
Sol. Î (-¥, -1] È [1, ¥) x+y+z=5
x
x + 2y + 3z = m
1 x + 3y + lz = 1
Î ( -¥, -2] È [0, ¥ )
x is constructed. If p is the probability that the
é 1 ö system has a unique solution and q is the
x Î ê - ,0 ÷ È (0, ¥)
ë 2 ø probability that the system has no solution, then :
é 1 ö 1 1 5 5
x Î ê - , ¥ ÷ - {0} (1) p= and q = (2) p = and q =
ë 2 ø 6 36 6 36
5 1 1 5
(3) p= and q = (4) p= and q =
6 36 6 36
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
1 1 1 p 2 3p
sin 2 sin
Sol. D¹0Þ 1 2 3 ¹ 0 Þl¹5 8 8
1 3 l p p
sin 2 cos2
For no solution D = 0 Þ l = 5 8 8
1 1 5 1 2 æ pö 1
sin ç ÷ =
D1 = 1 2 m ¹ 0 Þ m ¹ 3 4 è 4ø 8
( 3 + i)
100
1 3 1 14. If = 2 99 ( p + iq ) , then p and q are roots
5 of the equation :
p=
6 (1) x 2 - ( 3 - 1) x - 3= 0
1 5 5
q= ´ = (2) x 2 + ( 3 + 1) x + 3= 0
6 6 36
Option (2) (3) x 2 + ( 3 - 1) x - 3= 0
12. The locus of the mid points of the chords of the
2 2
(4) x 2 - ( 3 + 1) x + 3= 0
hyperbola x – y = 4, which touch the parabola
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
y2 = 8x, is :
(1) y 3 (x - 2)= x 2 (2) x 3 (x - 2)= y 2 EN Sol. (2e )ip /6 100
= 299 ( p + iq )
æ 50 p 50p ö
(3) y 2 (x - 2)= x 3 (4) x 2 (x - 2)
= y3 2100 ç cos + i sin = 299 ( p + iq)
è 3 3 ÷ø
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
æ 2p 2p ö
Sol. T = S1 p + iq = 2 ç cos + i sin ÷
xh – yk = h2 – k2
è 3 3ø

xh h - k
2 2
( ) p = –1, q = 3
LL
y= -
k k x – ( 3 – 1) x – 3 = 0.
2

a 15. A hall has a square floor of dimension 10m × 10m

this touches y2 = 8x then c = (see the figure) and vertical walls. If the angle
m GPH between the diagonals AG and BH is
æ k 2 - h 2 ö 2k 1
çè k ÷ø = h cos -1 , then the height of the hall (in meters) is :
A

5
E F
2y2 = x(y2 – x2)
y2(x – 2) = x3
13. The value of H G
æ p ö æ 2p ö æ 3p ö æ 5p ö æ 6p ö æ 7p ö
2sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷
è8ø è 8 ø è 8 ø è 8 ø è 8 ø è 8 ø
P
is :
B
1 1 A
(1) (2) 10 m
4 2 4 C
D 10 m
1 1
(3) (4) (1) 5 (2) 2 10
8 8 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (3) 5 3 (4) 5 2
Sol. æ p ö æ 2p ö æ 3p ö æ 5p ö æ 6p ö æ 7p ö Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2 sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷ sin ç ÷
è 8ø è 8 ø è 8 ø è 8 ø è 8 ø è 8 ø
Sol. A ( ˆj) . B (10iˆ )
p 2p 2 3p
2 sin 2 sin 2 sin H ( hjˆ + 10kˆ )
8 8 8
G (10iˆ + hjˆ + 10kˆ )
4
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
uuur
AG = 10iˆ + hjˆ + 10kˆ From figure.
uuur
BH = -10iˆ + hjˆ + 10kˆ 1
uuur uuur sin b =
AG BH 5
cos q = uuur uuur
AG BH 1
\ tan b =
1 h2 2
= 2
5 h + 200
tan (a + b) = 2
4h2 = 200 Þ h = 5 2
Let P be the plane passing through the point (1,2,3) tan a + tan b
16. =2
and the line of intersection of the planes 1 - tan a·tan b
r ˆ ˆ r
r × ( i + j + 4kˆ ) = 16 and r × ( - ˆi + ˆj + kˆ ) = 6 . Then 1
tan a +
which of the following points does NOT lie on P ? 2 =2
æ1ö
(1) (3, 3, 2) (2) (6, –6, 2) 1 - tan a ç ÷
è2ø
(3) (4, 2, 2) (4) (–8, 8, 6)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 3
tan a =
Sol. ( x + y + 4z - 16 ) + l ( -x + y + z - 6 ) = 0 4
Passes through (1,2,3)
-1 + l ( -2 ) Þ l = -
1 æ3ö
2
EN a = tan1 ç ÷
è4ø
2 ( x + y + 4z - 16 ) - ( - x + y + z - 6 ) = 0
p
3x + y + 7z – 26 = 0 2
æ 1 + sin 2 x ö
17. A 10 inches long pencil AB with mid point C and a 18. The value of òp çè 1 + psin x ÷ø dx is
small eraser P are placed on the horizontal top of a -
2
table such that PC= 5 inches and
-1
ÐPCB= tan (2). The acute angle through which p 5p
LL
(1) (2)
the pencil must be rotated about C so that the 2 4
perpendicular distance between eraser and pencil 3p 3p
becomes exactly 1 inch is : (3) (4)
4 2
P
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
in
5

p
A B (1 + sin 2 x ) psin x (1 + sin 2 x )
2

5 in C 5 in Sol. I= ò0 (1 + psin x ) + (1 + psin x ) dx

æ3ö
(1) tan -1 ç ÷ (2) tan -1 (1) p
è4ø I = ò 2 (1 + sin 2 x )dx
0

æ4ö æ1ö p p 1 3p
(3) tan -1 ç ÷ (4) tan -1 ç ÷
è3ø è2ø I= + · =
2 22 4
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
19. A circle C touches the line x = 2y at the point (2,1)
Sol. and intersects the circle C 1 : x2 + y2 + 2y – 5 = 0 at
P two points P and Q such that PQ is a diameter of
1 C1. Then the diameter of C is :
(1) 7 5 (2) 15
B¢
5
b (3) 285 (4) 4 15
a
B
A 5 M Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
7744
Sol. (x – 2) + (y – 1) + l(x – 2y) = 0
2 2
2. Let a and b respectively be the points of local
2 2
C : x + y + x(l – 4) + y (–2 – 2l) + 5 = 0 maximum and local minimum of the function
C1 : x2 + y2 + 2y – 5 = 0 f(x) = 2x3 – 3x2 – 12x. If A is the total area of the
region bounded by y = f(x), the x-axis and the lines
S1 – S2 = 0 (Equation of PQ)
x = a and x = b, then 4A is equal to ________.
(l– 4)x – (2l + 4) y + 10 = 0 Passes through (0,–1)
Official Ans. by NTA (114)
Þ l = –7
Sol. f'(x) = 6x2 – 6x – 12 = 6(x – 2) (x + 1)
2 2
C : x + y – 11x + 12y + 5 = 0
Point = (2,–20) & (–1,7)
245
=
4
2
Diometer = 7 5
–1
æ 9
x ö
20. lim ç å ÷ is equal to :
x ®2 ( ) 2
( )
è n =1 n n + 1 x + 2 2n + 1 x + 4 ø
0 2
9 5 A = ò ( 2x 3 - 3x 2 - 12x ) dx + ò (12x + 3x 2 - 2x 3 ) dx
(1) (2)
44 24 EN -1 0

0 2
1 7 æ x4 ö æ x4 ö
(3) (4) A = ç - x 3 - 6x 2 ÷ + ç 6x 2 + x 3 - ÷
5 36 è 2 ø-1 è 2 ø0
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 4A = 114
9
x
Sol. S = lim å 3. If the projection of the vector ˆi + 2ˆj + kˆ on the
x®2 ( ) 2
( )
n =1 n n + 1 x + 2 2n + 1 x + 4
LL

sum of the two vectors 2iˆ + 4ˆj - 5kˆ and

9
2 1 æ 1 1 ö
9
S=å = åç - ÷ -lˆi + 2 ˆj + 3kˆ is 1, then l is equal to ______.
n =1 4 ( n + 3n + 2 ) 2 n =1 è n + 1 n + 2 ø
2

Official Ans. by NTA (5)

1æ1 1 ö 9
S= ç - ÷= r
a = ˆi + 2ˆj + kˆ
2 è 2 11 ø 44
A

Sol.
r
b = ( 2 - l ) iˆ + 6ˆj - 2kˆ
r r
SECTION-B a×b r r
r = 1, a × b = 12 - l
1. The sum of all 3-digit numbers less than or equal |b|
r r
to 500, that are formed without using the digit "1"
( ar × b ) = | b |2
and they all are multiple of 11, is _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (7744) l2 – 24l + 144 = l2 – 4l + 4 + 40

So1. 209, 220, 231, ..., 495 20 l = 100 Þ l = 5.

27 4. Let a1, a2,....,a10 be an AP with common difference

Sum = ( 209 + 495 )= 9504
2 –3 and b1, b2,...., b10 be a GP with common ratio 2.
2 3 1 Let ck = ak + bk, k = 1,2,..., 10. If c2 = 12 and
Number containing 1 at unit place 3 4 1 10

4 5 1
c3 = 13, then åc
k =1
k is equal to _____.
3 1 9
Number containing 1 at 10th place Official Ans. by NTA (2021)
4 1 8
Sol. c2 = a2 + b2 = a1 – 3 + 2b1 = 12
Required = 9501 – (231 + 341 + 451 + 319 + 418)

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
a1 + 2b1 = 15 ____(1) Official Ans. by NTA (18)
c3 = a3 + b3 = a1 – 6 + 4b1 = 13 Sol. 3a2 – 10a + 27 l = 0 _____(1)
a1 + 4b1 = 19 ____(2) a2 – a + 2l = 0 _____(2)
from (1) & (2) b1 = 2, a1 = 11 (1) – 3(2) gives
10 10 10 10

å c =å ( a
k k + bk ) = å a k + å bk –7 a + 21l = 0 Þ a = 3l
k =1 k =1 k =1 k =1
Put a= 3l in equation (1) we get
10 2 ( 210 - 1)
= ( 2 ´ 11 + 9 ´ ( -3 ) ) + 9l2 – 3l + 2l - 0
2 2 -1
= 5(22 – 27) + 2(1023) 1
9 l2 = l Þ l = as l ¹ 0
= 2046 – 25 = 2021 9
5. Let Q be the foot of the perpendicular from 1
the point P(7,–2,13) on the plane containing the Now a = 3l Þ l =
3
x +1 y -1 z - 3 x -1 y - 2 z - 3
lines = = and = =
6 7 8 3 5 7 a + b = 1 Þ b = 2/3
. Then (PQ)2, is equal to _______.
10
Official Ans. by NTA (96) a+g= Þ g=3
3
x +1 y -1 z - 3
2
Sol. Containing the line 6
3
7
5
8
7
= 0
EN bg 3
l
=
´3
1
= 18

9(x + 1) – 18 (y – 1) + 9(z– 3) = 0 9

x – 2y + z = 0 8. Let the mean and variance of four numbers

7 + 4 + 13 3, 7, x and y(x > y) be 5 and 10 respectively. Then
PQ = = 4 6
LL

6 the mean of four numbers 3 + 2x, 7 + 2y, x + y and

PQ2 = 96 x – y is _______.

ìæ n ö Official Ans. by NTA (12)

ænö é n ù ïç ÷ , if 0 £ k £ n
6. Let ç ÷ denotes nCk and ê k ú = íè k ø 3+ 7+ x + y
A

èkø ë û ï 0, otherwise Sol. 5= Þ x + y = 10

î 4

æ 9 ö é 12
9
ù 8 æ 8 ö é 13 ù 32 + 7 2 + x 2 + y2
If A k = å ç ÷ ê ú + åç ÷ê ú Var(x) = 10 = - 25
i = 0 è i ø ë12 - k + i û i = 0 è i ø ë13 - k + i û
4

and A4 – A3 = 190 p, then p is equal to : 140 = 49 + 9 + x2 + y2

Official Ans. by NTA (49) x2 + y2 = 82
9 8
Sol. A k = å 9 Ci 12
C k - i + å 8 Ci 13
C k -i x + y = 10
i=0 i=0
Þ (x,y) = (9,1)
A k = 21Ck + 21Ck = 2 × 21Ck
A 4 - A 3 = 2 ( 21 C4 -21 C3 ) = 2 ( 5985 - 1330 ) Four numbers are 21,9,10,8
190 p = 2(5985 – 1330) Þ p = 49. 48
Mean = = 12
4
7. Let l ¹ 0 be in R. If a and b are the roots of the
equation x2 – x + 2l = 0, and a and g are the roots 9. Let A be a 3 × 3 real matrix.

bg If det(2Adj(2 Adj(Adj(2A)))) = 241, then the value

of equation 3x2 – 10x + 27l = 0, then is equal
l
of det(A2) equal _____.
to ________.

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/26-08-2021/Evening Session
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. adj (2A) = 22 adjA
Þ adj(adj (2A)) = adj(4 adjA) = 16 adj (adj A)
= 16 |A| A
Þ adj (32 |A| A) = (32 |A|)2 adj A
12(32|A|)2 |adj A| = 23 (32|A|)6 |adj A|
23.230 |A|6 . |A|2 = 241
|A|8 = 28 Þ |A| = ±2
|A|2 = |A|2 = 4

10. The least positive integer n such that

( 2i )n
,i = -1 is a positive integer, is ______.
(1 - i )n -2

Official Ans. by NTA (6)

( 2i )n ( 2i )n
Sol.
(1 - i )n - 2

n+2
=
( -2i )
n-2
2

n +2 n + 2
EN
;
( 2i ) 2 2 2
i 2
= n -2
= n -2
( -1) 2 ( -1) 2

This is positive integer for n = 6

LL
A

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Friday 27th August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 2. There are 1010 radioactive nuclei in a given
1. A uniformly charged disc of radius R having radioactive element, Its half-life time is 1 minute.
surface charge density  is placed in the xy plane How many nuclei will remain after 30 seconds ?
with its center at the origin. Find the electric field  2  1.414 
intensity along the z-axis at a distance Z from
(1) 2 × 1010
origin :-
(2) 7 × 109
  Z 
(1) E  1  2  (3) 105
20  (Z  R 2 )1/2 
(4) 4 × 1010
  Z  Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(2) E  1  2 2 1/2 
20  (Z  R )  t
N  1  t1/2
20  1  Sol. = 
(3) E   Z N0  2 

 
 2
  (Z  R )

1
2 1/2

1 

EN N  1  60
= 
30

(4) E   2  2 10 10
20  (Z  R ) Z 
2 2
1
Official Ans. by NTA (1)  1  2 1010
10
 N = 10 ×   =  7 × 109
2
LL
Sol. Consider a small ring of radius r and thickness dr 2
on disc. 3. Which of the following is not a dimensionless
quantity ?
dr
(1) Relative magnetic permeability (r)
r (2) Power factor
z axis
A

Z (3) Permeability of free space (0)

(4) Quality factor
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
area of elemental ring on disc 
Sol. [r] = 1 as r =
m
dA = 2rdr
[power factor (cos )] = 1

charge on this ring dq = dA B0

0 = (unit = NA–2) : Not dimensionless
H

kdqz [0] = [MLT–2 A–2]

dEz =
z 
3/2
2
r 2

Energy stored
quality factor (Q) =
Energy dissipated per cycle
R
  z 
E =  dE z  1 – 
0
2 0  R z 
2 2
So Q is unitless & dimensionless.

1
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4. If E and H represents the intensity of electric field 6. A balloon carries a total load of 185 kg at normal
and magnetising field respectively, then the unit of pressure and temperature of 27°C. What load will
E/H will be : the balloon carry on rising to a height at which the
(1) ohm (2) mho barometric pressure is 45 cm of Hg and the
(3) joule (4) newton temperature is –7°C. Assuming the volume
Official Ans. by NTA (1) constant ?

E volt / metre volt (1) 181.46 kg (2) 214.15 kg.

Sol. Unit of is = = ohm
H Ampere / metre Ampere (3) 219.07 kg (4) 123.54 kg
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
5. The resultant of these forces OP, OQ, OR, OS and
Sol. Pm = RT
OT is approximately ...... N.
P1 1T1
  
[Take 3  1.7, 2  1.4 Given î and ˆj unit P2 2 T2
vectors along x, y axis]
1 P T  76  266
 1 2   
P 2 P2 T1  45  300
20N
T 15N y
1 M 76  266
EN  1
Q 2 M2 45  300
60° 30° 10N
30° 45  300  185
x
 M2  kg
x' 45° O 45° 76  266
7. An object is placed beyond the centre of curvature
15N
20N C of the given concave mirror. If the distance of
S y' R
LL

the object is d1 from C and the distance of the

(1) 9.25iˆ  5jˆ (2) 3iˆ  15jˆ image formed is d2 from C, the radius of curvature

(3) 2.5iˆ  14.5jˆ (4) 1.5iˆ  15.5jˆ of this mirror is :

2d1d 2
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (1)
A

d1  d 2

2d1d 2
(2)
15 cos 60º d1  d 2
20 cos 30º
d1d 2
10 sin 30º (3)
15 COS 45º d1  d 2
Sol. O
15 Sin 60º 10 cos 30º 20 sin 30º 20 cos 45º X
d1d2
15 sin 45º
(4)
d1 – d 2
20 sin 45º
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
 3 1  1   1   3  Sol. Using Newton''s formula
Fx   10   20    20 
 2  
 – 15   – 15  i

 2 2  2  2    f  d1  f – d 2   f 2
= 9.25 i f2 + fd1 – fd2 – d1d2 = f2
dd
 
Fy =  15  1   20  3   10  1  – 15  1  – 20  1   j
f = 1 2
  2   2  2     d1 – d 2
      2  2 
2d1d 2
 R = 
=5j d1 – d 2

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8. A huge circular arc of length 4.4 ly subtends an Sol. According to perpendicular Axis theorem.
angle '4s' at the centre of the circle. How long it Iy
would take for a body to complete 4 revolution if
its speed is 8 AU per second ?
Ix
Given : 1 ly = 9.46 × 1015 m
1 AU = 1.5 × 1011 m
(1) 4.1 × 108 s (2) 4.5 × 1010 s
(3) 3.5 × 106 s (4) 7.2 × 108 s Ix + Iy = Iz
Official Ans. by NTA (2) m 2 m 2
Iz  +
3 3
Sol. R = 2m 2
 =
3
4  2 R 4  2   
Time = =  11. For a transistor in CE mode to be used as an
v v    amplifier, it must be operated in :
put  = 4.4 × 9.46 × 1015 (1) Both cut-off and Saturation
(2) Saturation region only
v = 8 × 1.5 × 1011 (3) Cut-off region only
4  (4) The active region only
= × rad. Official Ans. by NTA (4)
3600 180
Sol. Active region of the CE transistor is linear region
we get time = 4.5 × 1010 sec
and is best suited for its use as an amplifier
9. Calculate the amount of charge on capacitor of 3
12. An ideal gas is expanding such that PT =

4F 6
2F
EN
4 F. The internal resistance of battery is 1 :
constant. The coefficient of volume expansion of
the gas is :
1 2 4 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5V T T T T
2F Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. PT3 = constant
LL
 nRT  3
4  v  T = constant
 
(1) 8 C (2) zero T4 V–1 = constant
(3) 16 C (4) 4 C T4 = kV
Official Ans. by NTA (1) T V
 4 = .........(1)
A

Sol. On simplifying circuit we get T V

4F 4F V= VT.............(2)
comparing (1) and (2)
5v we get
A B 4
1 =
T
13. In a photoelectric experiment, increasing the
4 intensity of incident light :
No current in upper wire. (1) increases the number of photons incident and
5 also increases the K.E. of the ejected electrons
  VAB = × 4 = 4 v. (2) increases the frequency of photons incident and
4 1
increases the K.E. of the ejected electrons.
   = (Ceq)v (3) increases the frequency of photons incident and
 2 × 4 = 8C the K.E. of the ejected electrons remains
10. Moment of inertia of a square plate of side l about unchanged
the axis passing through one of the corner and (4) increases the number of photons incident and the
perpendicular to the plane of square plate is given K.E. of the ejected electrons remains unchanged
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
by :
Sol.  Increasing intensity means number of incident
Ml 2 Ml 2 2 photons are increased.
(1) (2) Ml2 (3) (4) Ml 2
6 12 3 Kinetic energy of ejected electrons depend on the
Official Ans. by NTA (4) frequency of incident photons, not the intensity.
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14. A bar magnet is passing through a conducting loop 15. Two ions of masses 4 amu and 16 amu have
of radius R with velocity . The radius of the bar charges +2e and +3e respectively. These ions pass
magnet is such that it just passes through the loop. through the region of constant perpendicular
The induced e.m.f. in the loop can be represented magnetic field. The kinetic energy of both ions is
by the approximate curve : same. Then :
l (1) lighter ion will be deflected less than heavier ion
R (2) lighter ion will be deflected more than heavier ion
(3) both ions will be deflected equally
N S (4) no ion will be deflected.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
loop  P 2mk
Sol. r = 
qB qB
emf Given they have same kinetic energy
(1) m
t r
l/ q
r1 4 3 3
= × =
r2 2 16 4
4r1
r2  (r2 is for hearier ion and r1 is for lighter ion)
emf 3
(2)
EN x x x
t  R
l/ x x x
d
x x x
emf
l/ x x x
LL

(3) d
t sin  =
R
Deflection
1

R
A

(R  Radius of path)
emf
l/ R2 > R1 2 < 1
(4)
t 16. Find the distance of the image from object O,
formed by the combination of lenses in the figure :

f =+10cm f =–10cm f =+30cm

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Sol. N S
O

 When magnet passes through centre region of

solenoid , no current / Emf is induced in loop.
30cm 5cm 10cm
While entering flux increases so negative
induced emf (1) 75 cm (2) 10 cm
(3) 20 cm (4) infinity
While leaving flux decreases so positive
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
induced emf.

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 1 1 1 25
Sol.   Sol. i1 =
V1 30 10 5 R
1 2 5
  V1 = 15 cm i2 =
V1 30 1
R
1 1 1 5
– =–
V2 10 10  1
i1 = i2  5  R    5  R
1  5
=0 V2 = 
V2
4R = 4
  V3 = 30 cm
OV3 = 75 cm R =1

20. The variation of displacement with time of a

17. In Millikan's oil drop experiment, what is viscous
particle executing free simple harmonic motion is
force acting on an uncharged drop of radius
2.0 × 10–5 m and density 1.2 × 103 kgm–3 ? Take shown in the figure.
viscosity of liquid = 1.8 × 10–5 Nsm–2. (Neglect
x
buoyancy due to air).
(1) 3.8 × 10–11 N (2) 3.9 × 10–10 N EN O A B t
C
(3) 1.8 × 10–10 N (4) 5.8 × 10–10 N
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Viscous force = Weight
The potential energy U(x) versus time (t) plot of
4 
=  ×  r 3  g
 3  the particle is correctly shown in figure :
LL

= 3.9 × 10–10
U(x)
18. Electric field in a plane electromagnetic wave is
given by E = 50 sin(500x – 10 × 1010t) V/m (1) O t
A B C
The velocity of electromagnetic wave in this
medium is :
A

(Given C = speed of light in vacuum) U(x)

A B
3 2 C (2) O t
(1) C (2) C (3) C (4) C
2 3 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
 10 1010 U(x)
Sol. V = = = 2 × 108 (3)
K 500 A B t
O
C
C
V= .
3
19. Five identical cells each of internal resistance 1 U(x) A B
and emf 5V are connected in series and in parallel (4) O t
C
with an external resistance 'R'. For what value of
'R', current in series and parallel combination will
remain the same ? Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(1) 1  (2) 25  Sol. Potential energy is maximum at maximum distance
(3) 5  (4) 10  from mean.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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 SECTION-B 24a
Sol. In triangle shape N t  8
3a
1. A body of mass (2M) splits into four masses
{m, M – m, m, M – m}, which are rearranged to 24a
In square Ns  6
4a
form a square as shown in the figure. The ratio of
M t N t IA t
M
for which, the gravitational potential energy of  [I will be same in both]
m M3 Ns IAs

the system becomes maximum is x : 1. The value 3

8  a2
of x is ...... .  4
6  a2
m M–m
Mt 1

d Ms 3

y3
M–m m
d 4. A circuit is arranged as shown in figure. The
Official Ans. by NTA (2) output voltage V0 is equal to ....... V.
Sol. Energy is maximum when mass is split equally so
M
=2
EN D1
R R
V0

m 5V
D2
2. The alternating current is given by R
5V
  2  
LL
i   42 sin  t   10  A
  T  

The r.m.s. value of this current is ........ A. Official Ans. by NTA (5)
Official Ans. by NTA (11) Sol. As diodes D1 and D2 are in forward bias, so they
A

2 2 2
Sol. frms  f1rms  f2rms acted as neligible resistances

2
 42  Input voltage become zero
=  10 2
 2 
 
V0
= 121 frms = 11 A
R R
0V 0V 5V
3. A uniform conducting wire of length is 24a, and
resistance R is wound up as a current carrying coil R
in the shape of an equilateral triangle of side 'a' and 5V

then in the form of a square of side 'a'. The coil is 0V 0V

connected to a voltage source V0. The ratio of

Input current is zero
magnetic moment of the coils in case of equilateral
triangle to that for square is 1 : y where y is ...... .  Output current is zero

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

 V0 = 5 volt

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5. First, a set of n equal resistors of 10  each are 7. If the velocity of a body related to displacement x
connected in series to a battery of emf 20V and is given by   5000  24x m / s , then the
internal resistance 10 . A current I is observed to acceleration of the body is ...... m/s2.
flow. Then, the n resistors are connected in parallel
Official Ans. by NTA (12)
to the same battery. It is observed that the current
is increased 20 times, then the value of n is ......... . Sol. V  5000  24x
Official Ans. by NTA (20) dV 1 12
  24 
Sol. In series dx 2 5000  24x 5000  24x
Req = nR = 10 n dV
now a = V
20 2 dx
is = =
10  10n 1 n
12
 5000  24x 
in parallel 5000  24x
10
Req = a  12m/s2
n
20 2n 8. A rod CD of thermal resistance 10.0 KW–1 is
ip = =
10 1 n joined at the middle of an identical rod AB as
 10
n shown in figure, The end A, B and D are
maintained at 200°C, 100°C and 125°C
ip
is
 20
EN respectively. The heat current in CD is P watt. The
value of P is ....... .
 2n  A B
1 n 
   20
200°C C 100°C
 2 
1 n 
 
LL

n = 20 125°C D

6. Two cars X and Y are approaching each other with Official Ans. by NTA (2)
velocities 36 km/h and 72 km/h respectively. The Sol.
frequency of a whistle sound as emitted by a 200°C T B
A C 100°C
A

passenger in car X, heard by the passenger in car Y

is 1320 Hz. If the velocity of sound in air is
340 m/s, the actual frequency of the whistle sound D
produced is ........ Hz. 125°C
Official Ans. by NTA (1210) Rods are identical so
RAB = RCD = 10 Kw–1
Sol. Vx Vy C is mid-point of AB, so
x y
RAC = RCB = 5 Kw–1
at point C
Vx = 36 km/hr = 10 m/s 200  T T  125 T  100
 
Vy = 72 km/hr = 20 m/s 5 10 5
by doppler's effect 2(200 – T) = T – 125 + 2(T – 100)
400 – 2 T = T – 125 + 2T – 200
 V  V0  725
F '  F0   T  145C
5
 V  Vs 
145  125 20
Ih  w w
 40  20  10 10
1320  F0    F0 = 1210 Hz I h  2w
 340  10 

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9. Two persons A and B perform same amount of 10. A transmitting antenna has a height of 320 m and
work in moving a body through a certain distance
d with application of forces acting at angle 45° and that of receiving antenna is 2000 m. The maximum
60° with the direction of displacement
respectively. The ratio of force applied by person distance between them for satisfactory
1 communication in line of sight mode is 'd'. The
A to the force applied by person B is . The
x
value of x is ....... . value of 'd' is ........ km.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (224)
Sol. Given WA = WB
FAdcos 45° = FBdcos60° Sol. d m  2Rh T  2Rh R
1 1
FA   FB 
2 2 dm   2  6400  103  320  2  6400  103  2000 m
FA 2 1
 
FB 2 2 d m  224km

x2
EN
LL
A

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Friday 27th August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A
1. In the following sequence of reactions, the final 2. The structure of the starting compound P used in
the reaction given below is :
product D is :
OH
1. NaOCl
OH P
2. H3O+
Br CH3 O
H2/Pd–C
CH3–CC–H+NaNH2 A B C CrO3 D
H
(1) (2)
O O O
(1) H3C–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–C–H
O
(2) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–CH2–CH2–COOH O
(3) (4)
(3) H3C–CH=CH–CH(OH)–CH2–CH2–CH3 EN Official Ans. by NTA (1)
O
Sol.
(4) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–C–CH3
O O
NaOCl
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
H3O+ OH + CHCl3
[P] chloroform
Sol.
LL
Methyl ketone

CH3–CCH + NaNH2  CH3–CC—Na+ + NH3

(A) NaOCl is used in haloform reaction as reagent.
OH
3. Match List–I with List–II :
Br CH3 List–I List–II
A

OH (Species) (Number of lone pairs of

H
CH3–CC–CH2–CH2–CH–CH3 electrons on the central
(B)
atom)
H2/Pd–C
(a) XeF2 (i) 0
(b) XeO2F2 (ii) 1
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH–CH3 (c) XeO3F2 (iii) 2
(C)
CrO3 OH (d) XeF4 (iv) 3
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–CH2–C–CH3 (D)
options given below :
O (1) (a)–(iv), (b)–(i), (c)–(ii), (d)–(iii)
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)
(3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. Species (Number of lone pairs of electrons

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 on the central atom) 6. Which refining process is generally used in the
purification of low melting metals ?
F
(1) Chromatographic method
XeF2 3 Xe (2) Liquation

F (3) Electrolysis
(4) Zone refining
F
O Official Ans. by NTA (2)
XeO2F2 1 Xe Sol. Liquation method is used to purify those impure
O
F metals which has lower melting point than the
melting point of impurities associated.
F
 This method is used for metal having low melting
O
XeO3F2 0 Xe = O point.
O
F 7. Match items of List–I with those of List–II :
List–I List–II

F F EN (Property) (Example)
XeF4 2 Xe (a) Diamagnetism (i) MnO
F F
(b) Ferrimagnetism (ii) O2

4. In which one of the following molecules strongest (c) Paramagnetism (iii) NaCl

back donation of an electron pair from halide to (d) Antiferromagnetism (iv) Fe3O4
LL
boron is expected? Choose the most appropriate answer from the

(1) BCl3 (2) BF3 options given below :

(3) BBr3 (4) BI3 (1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv)

Official Ans. by NTA (2) (2) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)

A

Sol. Type of back bonding (3) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(ii), (d)–(i)

BF3 BCl BBr3 BI3 (4) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)

(2p–2p) (2p–3p) (2p–4p) (2p–5p) Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Therefore back bonding strength is as follows 8. CH3

BF3 > BCl > BBr3 > BI3 N CH3
N O
5. Deuterium resembles hydrogen in properties but :
(1) reacts slower than hydrogen N
Cl
(2) reacts vigorously than hydrogen
HO O
OH
(3) reacts just as hydrogen
(A) (B)
(4) emits + particles
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

Sol. The bond dissociation energy of D2 is greater than

H2 and therefore D2 reacts slower than H2.

2
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 CH3 O
alc. NH3
N CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–C–Cl
CH2CH2NH2
HO
CH3
CH3 O
N
H NaOH, Br2
H3CO O CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–C–NH2
(C) OH
(D)
NaNO2,HCl
CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–NH2
The correct statement about (A), (B), (C) and (D)
CH3
is :
Sol. CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–N+Cl–
(1) (A), (B) and (C) are narcotic analgesics
CH3
(2) (B), (C) and (D) are tranquillizers H2O

(3) (A) and (D) are tranquillizers CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–OH

(4) (B) and (C) are tranquillizers CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
10. Which of the following is not a correct statement
Sol. B and C are tranquilizers EN for primary aliphatic amines?
9. The major product of the following reaction is :
(1) The intermolecular association in primary
CH3 O
(i) alcoholic NH3 amines is less than the intermolecular
CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–C–Cl (ii) NaOH, Br2 Major association in secondary amines.
(iii) NaNO2,HCl product
(iv) H2O (2) Primary amines on treating with nitrous acid
LL
solution form corresponding alcohols except
Br
methyl amine.
(1) CH3–CH–CH–CH2OH (3) Primary amines are less basic than the
CH3 secondary amines.
(2) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–CH2OH (4) Primary amines can be prepared by the Gabriel
A

CH3 phthalimide synthesis.

Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(3) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2OH Sol. The intermolecular association is more prominent
in case of primary amines as compared to
CH3
secondary, due to the availability of two hydrogen
(4) CH3–CH–CH2–CH2–Cl atom.
11. Acidic ferric chloride solution on treatment with
CH3
excess of potassium ferrocyanide gives a Prussian
Official Ans. by NTA (3) blue coloured colloidal species. It is :
(1) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3 (2) K5Fe[Fe(CN)6]2
(3) HFe[Fe(CN)6] (4) KFe[Fe(CN)6]
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. FeCl3 + K4 [Fe(CN)6] (excess)

K Fe[Fe(CN)6]
Colloidal species

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12. The gas 'A' is having very low reactivity reaches to 15. Out of following isomeric forms of uracil, which
stratosphere. It is non–toxic and non–flammable but one is present in RNA ?
dissociated by UV—radiations in stratosphere. The
OH
intermediates formed initially from the gas 'A' are :
N
    (1)
(1) ClO C F2Cl (2) Cl O  CH 3
HO N
   
(3) C H 3  CF2Cl (4) C l  CF2Cl OH
Official Ans. by NTA (4) N
(2)
Sol. In stratosphere CFCs get broken down by powerful
O N
UV radiations releasing Cl  H

CF2Cl2 (g) 

U.V.
 Cl (g) CF2Cl(g) O
13. The number of water molecules in gypsum, dead HN
(3)
burnt plaster and plaster of paris, respectively are: HO N

(1) 2, 0 and 1 (2) 0.5, 0 and 2 EN O

(3) 5, 0 and 0.5 (4) 2, 0 and 0.5 (4) HN

Official Ans. by NTA (4) O N
H
Sol. Gypsum CaSO4.2H2O
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
LL
1 Sol. Isomeric form of uracil present in RNA
Plaster of Paris CaSO4. H 2O
2
O
Dead burnt plaster CaSO4
HN
14. The nature of oxides V2O3 and CrO is indexed as
A

'X' and 'Y' type respectively. The correct set of X O NH

and Y is: 16. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as

(1) X = basic Y = amphoteric Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).

(2) X = amphoteric Y = basic Assertion (A): Synthesis of ethyl phenyl ether may
be achieved by Williamson synthesis.
(3) X = acidic Y = acidic
Reason (R): Reaction of bromobenzene with
(4) X = basic Y = basic
sodium ethoxide yields ethyl phenyl ether.
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Sol. V2O3 basic
most appropriate answer from the options given
CrO basic
below:

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the

correct explanation of (A)

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 (2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct 18. The unit of the van der Waals gas equation

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct  an 2 

parameter 'a' in  P  2  (V  nb)  nRT is :
 V 
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT
–2 3 –1
(1) kg m s (2) dm mol
the correct explanation of (A)
(3) kg m s–1 (4) atm dm6 mol–2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
– +
O Na O–Et an 2 dm 6
Sol. = atm  a = atm ×
V2 mol 2
Sol. + Et –Br
19. In polythionic acid, H2SxO6(x = 3 to 5) the
Sodium Phenoxide Ethyl Phenyl ether oxidation state(s) of sulphur is/are :
(1) + 5 only (2) + 6 only
(3) + 3 and + 5 only (4) 0 and + 5 only
Br
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

+ Et –O–Na+ X O O
Sol. +5 0 +5
EN HO –S–—(S)n–—S–—OH
Partial double bond character (n = 1 to 3) O
O
17. In the following sequence of reactions the P is : 20. Tyndall effect is more effectively shown by :
Cl
 Mg dry
[A] 
ethanol
 P (1) true solution (2) lyophilic colloid
ether (Major Pr oduct )
(3) lyophobic colloid (4) suspension
LL

(1) Official Ans. by NTA (3)

O–CH2CH3 Sol. Tyndall effect is observed in lyophobic colloids

(2) SECTION-B
CH2CH3 1. In Carius method for estimation of halogens, 0.2 g
A

(3) of an organic compound gave 0.188 g of AgBr.

The percentage of bromine in the compound is
(4)
________ . (Nearest integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
[Atomic mass : Ag = 108, Br = 80]
Cl  MgCl
Mg
Sol. Official Ans. by NTA (40)
Dry ether
0.188g
Sol. n AgBr   10 3 mol
C2H5–OH 188g / mol
(ethanol)
 nBr = nAgBr = 0.001 mol
Acid Base reaction   massBr = (0.001 × 80) gm = 0.08 gm
0.08  100
  mass % =  40%
0.2

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2. The reaction that occurs in a breath analyser, a Sol. Let mass of water initially present = x gm
device used to determine the alcohol level in a Mass of sucrose = (1000 - x) gm
person's blood stream is
 1000  x 
2K2Cr2O7 + 8H2SO4 + 3C2H6O  2Cr2(SO4)3 +  moles of sucrose =  
 342 
3C2H4O2 + 2K2SO4 + 11H2O
If the rate of appearance of Cr2(SO4)3 is 2.67 mol  1000  x 
 342 
–1
min at a particular time, the rate of disappearance 0.75 =    x  1000  x
of C2H6O at the same time is ________ mol min .
–1  x  1000 342  0.75
 1000 
(Nearest integer)  
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 256.5 x = 10 – 1000x
6

 Rateof disappearanceof C2 H6O  x = 795.86 gm

Sol.  
 3  moles of sucrose = 0.5969
 Rateof appearanceof Cr2 (SO4 )3  New mass of H2O = a kg
= 
 2  0.5969
 4   1.86  a = 0.2775 kg
 2.67mol / min 3  a
   = rate of disappearance of
 2  ice separated = (795.86 – 277.5) = 518.3 gm
C2H6O.
Rate of disappearance of C2H6O = 4.005
EN 5. 1 mol of an octahedral metal complex with formula
MCl3 · 2L on reaction with excess of AgNO3 gives
mol/min 1 mol of AgCl. The denticity of Ligand L is
3. The kinetic energy of an electron in the second Bohr
________ . (Integer answer)
2
h Official Ans. by NTA (2)
orbit of a hydrogen atom is equal to . The value
LL
xma 20
Sol. MCl3.2L octahedral
of 10x is ________ . (a0 is radius of Bohr's orbit)
MCl3 .2L 
Ex.AgNO3
1mole of AgCl
(Nearest integer) [Given :  = 3.14] 1mole

Its means that one Cl– ion present in ionization

Official Ans. by NTA (3155)
A

sphere.
nh
Sol. mvr   formula = [MCl2L2]Cl
2
For octahedral complex coordination no. is 6
n2h2 4h 2
K.E.  2 2  2
8 mr 8 m(4a 0 )2  L act as bidentate ligand
6. The number of moles of CuO, that will be utilized
 4  h2
 2 
 8 16  ma 0
2
in Dumas method for estimation nitrogen in a

x = 315.507 sample of 57.5g of N, N-dimethylaminopentane is

10x = 3155 (nearest integer) ________ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)

4. 1 kg of 0.75 molal aqueous solution of sucrose can Official Ans. by NTA (1125)

be cooled up to –4°C before freezing. The amount Sol. Moles of N in N,N - dimethylaminopentane
of ice (in g) that will be separated out is ________ .  57.5 
=   0.5mol
(Nearest integer)  115 

[Given : Kf(H2O) = 1.86 K kg mol ]

–1 45 17 1 45
 C7H17N + CuO 7CO2 + H O + N2+ Cu
2 2 2 2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (518)
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 n CuO reacted n C 7H17N reacted 9. The number of moles of NH3, that must be added
=
 45  1 to 2 L of 0.80 M AgNO3 in order to reduce the
 2 
  + –8
concentration of Ag ions to 5.0 × 10 M (Kformation
 45  for [Ag(NH3)2]+ = 1.0 × 108) is ________ . (Nearest
nCuO reacted =    0.5  11.25
 2  integer)
7. The number of f electrons in the ground state [Assume no volume change on adding NH3]
electronic configuration of Np (Z = 93) is ________. Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(Nearest integer) Sol. Let moles added = a
Official Ans. by NTA (4)  
Ag(aq.)  2NH3(aq.) Ag(NH3 )2(aq.)
Allen Ans. (18)
a
Sol. Np = 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p6 5s2 4d10 5p6 6s2 t=0 0.8 2
 
4f 14 5d 6p 7s 5f 4 6d
10 6 2 1

a 
– –
t =  5 × 10–8  2  1.6  0.8
Total no. of 'f' electron = 14 e + 4e = 18  
8. 200 mL of 0.2 M HCl is mixed with 300 mL of 0.8
2
 108
0.1 M NaOH. The molar heat of neutralization of a 
this reaction is –57.1 kJ. The increase in
EN (5 10 8 )   1.6 
 2 

temperature in °C of the system on mixing is x × 10–2. a

  1.6 = 0.4  a = 4
The value of x is ________ . (Nearest integer) 2

[Given : Specific heat of water = 4.18 J g–1 K–1 10. When 10 mL of an aqueous solution of KMnO4
LL

Density of water = 1.00 g cm–3] was titrated in acidic medium, equal volume of 0.1
M of an aqueous solution of ferrous sulphate
(Assume no volume change on mixing)
was required for complete discharge of colour.
Official Ans. by NTA (82)
The strength of KMnO 4 in grams per litre is
Sol.  Millimoles of HCl = 200 × 0.2 = 40
A

________ × 10–2. (Nearest integer)

 Millimoles of NaOH = 300 × 0.1 = 30
[Atomic mass of K = 39, Mn = 55, O = 16]
 30 
 Heat released =   57.1  1000  = 1713 J Official Ans. by NTA (316)
 1000 
Sol. Let molarity of KMnO4 = x
 Mass of solution = 500 ml × 1 gm/ml = 500 gm
KMnO4 + FeSO4  Fe2(SO4)3 + Mn2+
q 1713J
 T =  = 0.8196K n=5 n=1
m  C 500g  4.18 J
gK (Equivalents of KMnO4 reacted) = (Equivalents of
–2
= 81.96 × 10 K FeSO4 reacted)
 (5 × x × 10 ml) = 1 × 0.1 × 10 ml
 x = 0.02 M
Molar mass of KMnO4 = 158 gm/mol
 Strength = (x × 158) = 3.16 g/

7
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Friday 27th August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 2 (1 + 2 + 3 + ... + y ) 4
Sol. =
1. If 0 < x < 1, then
3 2 5 3 7 4
x + x + x + ..... , is equal
3 (1 + 2 + 3 + ... + y ) log10 x
2 3 4
Þ log10x = 6 Þ x = 106
to : Now,

x ) + ( log x ) + ( log x ) + ..¥

æ1+ x ö 1 1
(1) x ç ÷ + loge (1 - x) y= ( log10 3 9
è1- x ø 10 10

æ1- x ö æ 1 1 ö
(2) x ç ÷ + loge (1 - x) = ç 1 + + + ...¥ ÷ log10 x
è1+ x ø è 3 9 ø
1- x æ 1 ö
(3) + log e (1 - x) =ç log x = 9
1+ x 1 ÷ 10
ç1- ÷
1+ x è 3ø
(4) + log e (1 - x)
1- x EN So, (x,y) = (106,9)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 3. Let A be a fixed point (0, 6) and B be a moving
point (2t, 0). Let M be the mid-point of AB and the
3 2 5 3 7 4
Sol. Let t = x + x + x + ....¥ perpendicular bisector of AB meets the y-axis at C.
2 3 4
The locus of the mid-point P of MC is :
æ 1ö æ 1ö æ 1ö
= ç 2 - ÷ x 2 + ç 2 - ÷ x3 + ç 2 - ÷ x 4 (1) 3x2 – 2y – 6 = 0 (2) 3x2 + 2y – 6 = 0
è 2ø è 3ø è 4ø
LL
(3) 2x2 + 3y – 9 = 0 (4) 2x2 – 3y + 9 = 0
+….¥ Official Ans. by NTA (3)
æ x 2 x3 x 4 ö Sol. A(0,6) and B(2t,0)
2 ( x 2 + x 3 + x 4 + ...¥ ) - ç + + + ...¥ ÷
=
è 2 3 4 ø
A

2x 2
= - ( ln (1 - x ) - x )
1- x A M B
(0,6)
2x 2
Þt = + x - ln (1 - x )
1- x
M =(t,3)
x (1 + x )
Þ t= - ln (1 - x ) Perpendicular bisector of AB is
1- x
t
2. If for x, y Î R, x > 0, ( y - 3) = ( x - t )
3
y = log10x + log10x1/3 + log10x1/9 + ..... upto ¥ terms
æ t2 ö
2 + 4 + 6 + .... + 2y 4 So, C= ç 0,3 - ÷
and = , then the ordered è 3ø
3 + 6 + 9 + .... + 3y log10 x
Let P be (h,k)
pair (x, y) is equal to :
t æ t2 ö
(1) (106, 6) (2) (104, 6) h= ;k = ç3- ÷
2 è 6ø
(3) (102, 3) (4) (106, 9)
4h 2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Þ k = 3- Þ 2x 2 + 3y - 9 = 0 option (3)
6

1
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session
4. If (sin -1 x)2 - (cos-1 x)2 = a; 0 < x < 1, a ¹ 0, then 6. The distance of the point (1, –2, 3) from the plane
2
the value of 2x – 1 is : x – y + z = 5 measured parallel to a line, whose
æ 4a ö æ 2a ö direction ratios are 2, 3, –6 is :
(1) cos ç ÷ (2) sin ç ÷
è p ø è pø (1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 2 (4) 1
æ 2a ö æ 4a ö
(3) cos ç ÷ (4) sin ç ÷ Official Ans. by NTA (4)
è pø è pø
A(1,–2,3)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Given a = ( sin -1 x ) - ( cos -1 x )
2 2

= (sin–1x + cos–1x) (sin–1x – cos–1x)

pæp -1 ö
= ç - 2 cos x ÷
2è2 ø
(1 + 2l, – 2 + 3l,3–6l)
p 2a x–y+z=5
Þ 2 cos-1 x = -
2 p Sol.
p 2a (1 + 2l ) + 2 - 3l + 3 - 6l = 5
Þ cos -1 ( 2x 2 - 1) = -
2 p
1
æ p 2a ö Þ 6 - 7l = 5 Þ l =
Þ 2x 2 - 1 = cos ç - ÷ option (2) 7
è2 p ø
æ 9 11 15 ö
5. If the matrix A = ç
æ0 2 ö
è K
then the value of K is :
-1 ø
3
EN
÷ satisfies A(A + 3I) = 2I, so, P = ç , - , ÷
è7 7 7 ø
2 2 2
æ 9ö æ 11 ö æ 15 ö
(1)
1
(2) -
1
(3) –1 (4) 1 AP = ç 1 - ÷ + ç -2 + ÷ + ç 3 - ÷
2 2 è 7ø è 7ø è 7ø
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
æ 4 ö 9 36
LL

é0 2ù AP = ç ÷ + + =1
Sol. Given matrix A = ê è 49 ø 49 49
ëk -1úû
A4 + 3 IA = 2I
Þ A4 = 2I – 3A
7. If S= {
zΣ :
z-i
z + 2i }
Î ¡ , then :

Also characteristic equation of A is (1) S contains exactly two elements

A

|A – lI| = 0
(2) S contains only one element
0-l 2
Þ =0 (3) S is a circle in the complex plane
k -1 - l
(4) S is a straight line in the complex plane
Þ l + l2 – 2k = 0
Þ A + A2 = 2K.I Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Þ A2 = 2KI – A z-i
Þ A4 = 4K2I + A2 – 4AK
Sol. Given ÎR
z + 2i
Put A2 = 2KI – A
and A4 = 2I – 3A æ z-i ö
Then arg ç ÷ is 0 or P
2I – 3A = 4K2I + 2KI – A – 4AK è z + 2i ø
Þ I(2 – 2K – 4K2) = A(2– 4K)
Þ -2I ( 2K 2 + K - 1) = 2A (1 - 2K )
(0,1)
Þ -2I ( 2K - 1)( K + 1 ) = 2A (1 - 2K )
Þ ( 2K - 1)( 2A ) - 2I ( 2K - 1)( K + 1) = 0
Þ ( 2K - 1) [ 2A - 2I ( K + 1)] = 0
1 (0,–2)
Þ K=
2 Þ S is straight line in complex

2
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session
8. Let y = y(x) be the solution of the differential 2 n
æ 1 ö æ 22 ö æ n2 ö
dy 10. If U n = ç 1 + 2 ÷ çç 1 + ÷ .... çç1 + 2 ÷÷ , then
equation
dx
= 2 (y + 2 sin x – 5) x – 2 cosx such è n ø è n2 ÷ø è n ø
-4
that y(0) = 7. Then y(p) is equal to : 2
2 2 lim (U n ) n is equal to :
(1) 2e p + 5 (2) e p + 5 n ®¥
2 2 e2 4 16 4
(3) 3e p + 5 (4) 7e p + 5 (1) (2) (3) 2 (4)
16 e e e2
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
dy
Sol. - 2xy = 2 ( 2 sin x - 5 ) x - 2 cos x æn
r2 ö
r

dx Sol. U n = Õ ç1 + 2 ÷
- x2 r =1 è n ø
IF = e
L = lim ( U n )
-4/ n 2
so, y.e
- x2
= òe - x2
( 2x ( 2 sin x - 5 ) - 2 cos x ) dx n ®¥
r
Þ y.e - x = e - x ( 5 - 2 sin x ) + c
2 2
-4 n æ r2 ö
log L = lim 2 å log ç1 + 2 ÷
2 n ®¥ n
r =1 è n ø
Þ y = 5 - 2sin x + c.e x
n
4r 1 æ r2 ö
Given at x = 0,y = 7 Þ log L = lim
n ®¥
å- . log ç 1 + 2 ÷
n n è n ø
Þ 7 = 5+c Þ c = 2 r =1
2 1
So, y= 5 - 2 sin x + 2e Þ log L Þ -4 x log (1 + x 2 ) dx
x
EN ò
Now at x = p, 0

y = 5 + 2e p
2
put 1 + x = t 2

Now, 2xdx = dt
2 2
9. Equation of a plane at a distance from the
= -2 ò log ( t ) dt = -2 [ t log t - t ]1
2
21
origin, which contains the line of intersection of 1

the planes x – y – z – 1 = 0 and 2x + y – 3z + 4 = 0, Þ log L = -2 ( 2 log 2 - 1)

LL

is : -2 ( 2 log 2 -1)
\ L=e
(1) 3x – y – 5z + 2 = 0 (2) 3x – 4z + 3 = 0 æ æ 4 öö
-2ç logç ÷ ÷
(3) –x + 2y + 2z – 3 = 0 (4) 4x – y – 5z + 2 = 0
=e è è e øø
Official Ans. by NTA (4) -2
æ4ö
log ç ÷
Sol. Required equation of plane
=e èeø
A

P1 + lP2 = 0 2
(x – y – z – 1) + l(2x + y – 3z + 4) = 0 æeö e2
=ç ÷ =
2 è 4 ø 16
Given that its dist. From origin is 11. The statement (p Ù (p ® q) Ù (q ® r)) ® r is :
21
(1) a tautology
4l - 1 2 (2) equivalent to p ® ~ r
Thus =
(3) a fallacy
( 2l + 1)2 + ( l - 1)2 + ( -3l - 1)2 21
(4) equivalent to q ® ~ r
Þ 21 ( 4l - 1) = 2 (14l 2 + 8l + 3 )
2
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Þ 336l 2 - 168l + 21 = 28l 2 + 16l + 6 Sol. ( p Ù ( p ® q ) Ù (q ® r )) ® r
Þ 308l 2 - 184 l + 15 = 0 º ( p Ù (~ p Ú q ) Ú (~ q Ú r )) ® r
Þ 308l 2 - 154l - 30 l + 15 = 0 º (( p Ù q ) Ù (~ p Ú r )) ® r
Þ ( 2l - 1)(154l - 15 ) = 0
º (p Ù q Ù r) ® r
1 15
Þ l = or º~ ( p Ù q Ù r ) Ú r
2 154
1 º (~ p ) Ú (~ q ) Ú (~ r ) Ú r
for l= reqd. plane is
2 Þ tautology
4x – y – 5z + 2 = 0

3
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session
12. Let us consider a curve, y = f(x) passing through Sol.
the point (–2, 2) and the slope of the tangent to the curve A
at any point (x, f(x)) is given by f(x) + xf'(x) = x2.
P
Then : x=–2
(1) x2 + 2xf(x) – 12 = 0
directrix
B
3
(2) x + xf(x) + 12 = 0 A
3
(3) x – 3xf(x) – 4 = 0
(2,–
(4) x2 + 2xf(x) + 4 = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (3) y2 = 8x
xdy Equation of tangent at (2,–4) (T = 0)
Sol. y+ = x 2 (given)
dx –4y = 4(x + 2)
dy y x + y + 2 = 0 …(1)
Þ + =x
dx x
1
equation of normal
ò dx
If = e x = x x–y+l=0
Solution of DE EN
Þ y.x = ò x.x dx ¯(2,–4)

x3 c l = –6
Þ xy = +
3 3
Passes through (–2,2), so thus x – y = 6 …(2) equation of normal
–12 = – 8 + c Þ c = –4
\ 3xy = x3 – 4 POI of (1) & x = – 2 is A(–2,0)
LL

ie. 3x.f(x) = x3 – 4 POI of (2) & x = – 2 is A(–2,8)

20
å ( 20 Ck )
2
13. is equal to : Given AQBP is a sq.
k=
0
A(–2,0)
(1) 40C21 (2) 40C19 (3) 40C20 (4) 41C20
A

Official Ans. by NTA (3) P(2,–4)

20
(a,b) Q
Sol. å
k =0
20
C k . 20 C 20 -k
(0,–
sum of suffix is const. so summation will be
40 B(–2,–8)
C20
14. A tangent and a normal are drawn at the point
Þ m AQ .m AP = -1
P(2, – 4) on the parabola y2 = 8x, which meet the
directrix of the parabola at the points A and B æ b öæ 4 ö
Þç ÷ ç ÷ = -1 Þ a + 2 = b …(1)
è a + 2 ø è -4 ø
respectively. If Q(a, b) is a point such that AQBP
is a square, then 2a + b is equal to : Also PQ must be parallel to x-axis thus
(1) –16 (2) –18 (3) –12 (4) –20 Þ b = -4
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
\ a = –6

Thus 2a + b = – 16
4
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session
sin A sin(A - C) 17. When a certain biased die is rolled, a particular
15. Let = , where A, B, C are angles
sin B sin(C - B) 1
face occurs with probability - x and its opposite
of a triangle ABC. If the lengths of the sides 6
opposite these angles are a, b, c respectively, then : 1
face occurs with probability + x . All other faces
(1) b2 – a2 = a2 + c2 6
(2) b2, c2, a2 are in A.P. 1
(3) c2, a2, b2 are in A.P. occur with probability . Note that opposite faces
6
(4) a2, b2, c2 are in A.P. 1
Official Ans. by NTA (2) sum to 7 in any die. If 0 < x < , and the
6
sin A sin ( A - C ) probability of obtaining total sum = 7, when such a
Sol. =
sin B sin ( C - B ) 13
die is rolled twice, is , then the value of x is:
As A,B,C are angles of triangle 96
A+B+C=p 1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
A = p – (B + C) 16 8 9 12
So, sinA = sin(B + C) …(1) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Similarly sinB = sin(A + C) …(2) Sol. Probability of obtaining total sum 7 = probability
From (1) and (2) of getting opposite faces.
Probability of getting opposite faces
sin ( B + C ) sin ( A - C )
= éæ 1 öæ 1 ö 1 1 1 1ù
sin ( A + C ) sin ( C - B ) EN = 2 êç - x ÷ ç + x ÷ + ´ + ´ ú
sin(C + B). sin(C – B) = sin(A – C) sin(A + C) ëè 6 øè 6 ø 6 6 6 6û
sin 2 C - sin 2 B = sin 2 A - sin 2 C éæ 1 öæ 1 ö 1 1 1 1 ù 13
Þ 2 êç - x ÷ ç + x ÷ + ´ + ´ ú =
ëè 6 øè 6 ø 6 6 6 6 û 96
{Qsin ( x + y ) sin ( x - y ) = sin 2
x - sin 2 y}
(given)
2 sin 2 C = sin 2 A + sin 2 B 1
x=
By sine rule 8
LL

2c2 = a2 + b2 18. If x2 + 9y2 – 4x + 3 = 0, x, y Î ¡ , then x and y

Þ b2,c2 and a2 are in A.P. respectively lie in the intervals:
16. If a, b are the distinct roots of x2 + bx + c = 0, é 1 1ù é 1 1ù
(1) ê - , ú and ê - , ú
e 2 ( x 2 + bx + c )
- 1 - 2 ( x 2 + bx + c ) ë 3 3û ë 3 3û
then lim is equal é 1 1ù
( x - b)
2
x ®b
(2) ê - , ú and [1, 3]
A

ë 3 3û
to:
(3) [1, 3] and [1, 3]
(1) b2 + 4c (2) 2(b2 + 4c)
é 1 1ù
(3) 2(b2 – 4c) (4) b2 – 4c (4) [1, 3] and ê - , ú
Official Ans. by NTA (3) ë 3 3û
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
- 1 - 2 ( x 2 + bx + c )
( 2
+ bx + c )
e2 x Sol. x2 + 9y2 – 4x + 3 = 0
Sol. lim
( x - b) (x2 – 4x) + (9y2) + 3 = 0
x ®b 2

(x2 – 4x + 4) + (9y2) + 3 – 4 = 0
æ 2 ( x 2 + bx + c ) 2 2 ( x 2 + bx + c )2 ö (x – 2)2 + (3y)2 = 1
1ç1 + + + ... ÷ - 1 - 2 ( x 2 + bx + c )
è 1! 2! ø
Þ lim
x ®b
( x - b)
2 ( x - 2 )2 y2
+ = 1 (equation of an ellipse).
(1)2 æ1ö
2
2 ( x + bx + 1)
2 2

Þ lim ç ÷
è3ø
( x - b)
x ®b 2
As it is equation of an ellipse, x & y can vary
inside the ellipse.
2 ( x - a ) ( x - b)
2 2

Þ lim é 1 1ù
x ®b
( x - b )2 So, x - 2 Î [ -1,1] and y Î ê - , ú
ë 3 3û
Þ 2 ( b - a ) = 2 ( b 2 - 4c )
2
é 1 1ù
x Î [1,3] y Î ê - , ú
ë 3 3û

5
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session
16
loge x 2 Sol. Let the wire is cut into two pieces of length x and
19. ò log
6 x 2 + log e ( x 2 - 44x + 484 )
dx is equal to: 20 – x.
e

(1) 6 (2) 8

(3) 5 (4) 10 x/4

Official Ans. by NTA (3)
x/4
16
loge x 2 æxö
2
Sol. Let I = ò log x 2 + log e ( x 2 - 44x + 484 )
dx Area of square = ç ÷ Area of regular hexagon
6 e è4ø
2
16 3 æ 20 - x ö
loge x 2 =
6´ ç ÷
I=ò dx …(1) 4 è 6 ø
6 log x 2
+ log ( x - 22 ) 2

x 2 3 3 ( 20 - x )
e e 2

Total area = A ( x ) = +
We know 16 2 36
2x 3 3 ´ 2
A '(x) = ( 20 - x ) ( -1)
b b
+
ò f ( x ) dx = ò f ( a + b - x ) dx (king)
a a
16 2 ´ 36
40 3
A'(x) = 0 at x =
So I=
16

ò log
6 e
log e ( 22 - x )
2

( 22 - x )2 + log e ( 22 - ( 22 - x ) )
EN 2
3+2 3
Length of side of regular Hexagon =
1
( 20 - x )
6
16
loge ( 22 - x )
2
1æ 4. 3 ö
I=ò dx …(2) = ç 20 - ÷
0 log e x + log e ( 22 - x )
2 2 6è 3+2 3 ø
LL

10
(1) + (2) =
2+2 3
16
2I = ò 1.dx = 10 SECTION-B
6 r r
Let a = ˆi + 5ˆj + akˆ , b = ˆi + 3ˆj + bkˆ and
A

1.
I=5 r
c = - ˆi + 2 ˆj - 3kˆ be three vectors such that,
20. A wire of length 20 m is to be cut into two pieces. r r r r
b ´ c = 5 3 and a is perpendicular to b . Then
One of the pieces is to be made into a square and r2
the greatest amongst the values of a is _______.
the other into a regular hexagon. Then the length of Official Ans. by NTA (90)
rr
the side (in meters) of the hexagon, so that the Sol. since, a.b = 0
1 + 15 + ab = 0 Þ ab = –16 …(1)
combined area of the square and the hexagon is
Also,
minimum, is: r r2
b ´ c = 75 Þ (10 + b2 )14 - ( 5 - 3b ) = 75
2

5 10
(1) (2) Þ 5b2 + 30b + 40 = 0
2+ 3 2+3 3
Þ b = -4, -2
5 10 Þ a = 4,8
(3) (4)
3+ 3 3+2 3 r2
Þ a max = ( 26 + a 2 )max = 90
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

6
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session
2. The number of distinct real roots of the equation dx = a tan–1 æ 2x + 1 ö + b æç 22x + 1 ö÷ + C,
3x4 + 4x3 – 12x2 + 4 = 0 is _________.
5. If
ò (x 2
+ x + 1)
2 ç
è
÷
3 ø è x + x +1 ø
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
x > 0 where C is the constant of integration, then
Sol. 3x4 + 4x3 – 12x2 + 4 = 0
So, Let f(x) = 3x4 + 4x3 – 12x2 + 4 the value of 9 ( 3a + b ) is equal to ________.
\ f'(x) = 12x(x2 + x – 2) Official Ans. by NTA (15)
= 12x (x + 2) (x – 1)
dx
f '(x) = – + – + Sol. I=ò 2
éæ 1 ö 3ù
2

x= –2 0 1 êç x + ÷ + ú
ëè 2 ø 4û
y = f(x)
dt æ 1 ö
4
òæ ç Put x + = t ÷
3ö è 22
ø
çt + ÷
2

–2
0 è 4ø
–1
3 sec 2 q dq æ 3 ö
2 ò 9 sec 4 q
= ç Put t = tan q ÷
–28 è 2 ø
16
Let the equation x2 + y2 + px + (1 – p)y + 5 = 0
3.
represent circles of varying radius r Î (0, 5]. Then
the number of elements in the set S = {q : q = p2
EN =
4 3
9 ò
(1 + cos 2q ) dq
and q is an integer} is _________.
Official Ans. by NTA (61) 4 3 é sin 2q ù
= q+ +c
9 êë 2 úû
p 2 (1 - p )
2
2p 2 - 2p - 19
LL
Sol. r = + -5 =
4 4 2 4 3 é -1 æ 2x + 1 ö 3 ( 2x + 1) ù
= ê tan ç ÷ + 2 ú
+c
Since, r Î ( 0, 5]
9 ë è 3 ø 3 + ( 2x + 1) û

So, 0 < 2p2 – 2p – 19 < 100 4 3 æ 2x + 1 ö 1 æ 2x + 1 ö

= tan -1 ç ÷+ ç 2 ÷+c
é 1 - 239 1 - 39 ö æ 1 + 39 1 + 239 ù so, number 9 è 3 ø 3 è x + x +1 ø
A

Þ pÎê , ÷Èç , ú
ë 2 2 ø÷ çè 2 2 û
of integral values of p2 is 61 Hence, 9 ( 3a + b ) = 15

4. If A = {x Î R: |x – 2| > 1}, B = {x Î R : x 2 - 3 > 1} , 6. If the system of linear equations

C = {x Î R :| x - 4 | ³ 2} and Z is the set of all 2x + y – z = 3
integers, then the number of subsets of the set x–y–z=a
(A Ç B Ç C)C Ç Z is ___________. 3x + 3y + bz = 3
Official Ans. by NTA (256)
has infinitely many solution, then a + b – ab is
Sol. A = ( -¥,1) È ( 3, ¥ ) equal to _________.
B = ( -¥, -2 ) È ( 2, ¥ ) Official Ans. by NTA (5)
C = ( -¥, 2 ] È [ 6, ¥ ) Sol. 2 × (i) – (ii) – (iii) gives :
– (1 + b)z = 3 – a
So, A Ç B Ç C = ( -¥, -2 ) È [6, ¥ )
For infinitely many solution
z Ç ( A Ç B Ç C ) ' = {-2, -1, 0, -1, 2, 3, 4, 5}
b + 1 = 0 = 3 – a Þ (a,b) = (3,–1)
Hence no. of its subsets = 28 = 256.
Hence, a + b – ab = 5

7
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Morning Session
7. Let n be an odd natural number such that the d2 y dy
variance of 1, 2, 3, 4, ..., n is 14. Then n is equal to 10. If y1/4 + y–1/4 = 2x, and ( x 2 - 1) 2 + ax + by = 0,
dx dx
________.
Official Ans. by NTA (13) then |a – b| is equal to __________.

n2 - 1 Official Ans. by NTA (17)

Sol. = 14 Þ n = 13
12 1
1
Sol. y4 + 1
= 2x
8. If the minimum area of the triangle formed by a
y 4

2 2
x y
Þ ( y ) - 2xy
tangent to the ellipse 2
+ 2 = 1 and the 1 2 æ1 ö
b 4a 4
ç ÷
è4ø
+1 = 0
co-ordinate axis is kab, then k is equal to _______.
1
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Þ y = x + x 2 - 1 or x - x 2 - 1
4

Sol. Tangent 1 1 dy x
So, 3
= 1+
x cos q y sin q 4 4 dx x2 - 1
+ =1 y
b 2a
1
1 1 dy y4
Þ =
EN 4 y3/ 4 dx

dy 4y
x2 - 1

Þ = …(1)
dx x2 - 1
0

( x 2 - 1 ) y '-
yx
LL
2
d y x2 - 1
Hence, = 4
dx 2 x2 - 1

( x 2 - 1) y '- xy
( )
Þ x - 1 y" = 4
2

1 b 2a x2 - 1
So, area ( DOAB ) = ´ ´
A

2 cos q sin q
æ xy ö
Þ ( x 2 - 1) y" = 4 ç x 2 - 1y '- ÷
2ab è x2 -1 ø
= ³ 2ab
sin 2q
æ xy ' ö
Þk=2 Þ ( x 2 - 1) y " = 4 ç 4y - ÷ (from I)
è 4 ø
9. A number is called a palindrome if it reads the
Þ ( x 2 - 1) y "+ xy '- 16y = 0
same backward as well as forward. For example
285582 is a six digit palindrome. The number of So, |a– b| = 17
six digit palindromes, which are divisible by 55, is
_________.
Official Ans. by NTA (100)

Sol. 5 a b b a 5

It is always divisible by 5 and 11.

So, required number = 10 × 10 = 100

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Friday 27th August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 2. The boxes of masses 2 kg and 8 kg are connected
1. Curved surfaces of a plano-convex lens of by a massless string passing over smooth pulleys.

refractive index 1 and a plano-concave lens of Calculate the time taken by box of mass 8 kg to

refractive index 2 have equal radius of curvature strike the ground starting from rest. (use g = 10 m/s2)

as shown in figure. Find the ratio of radius of

curvature to the focal length of the combined
lenses.

8kg

20cm 2kg
1 2 EN (1) 0.34 s (2) 0.2 s
(3) 0.25 s (4) 0.4 s

1 Official Ans. by NTA (4)

(1) (2) 1 – 2
2  1 2T T
LL

1 2a
(3) (4) 2 – 1 8kg 2kg
1  2 Sol. a

Official Ans. by NTA (2) m1g m 2g

(m1g – 2T) = m1a – (1)

A

Sol. T – m2g = m2(2a)

f1 f2 2T – 2m2g = 4m2 a – (2)

1 1 m1g – 2m2g = (m1 + 4m2) a

 (µ1  1)  
f1 R
(8  4)g 4 g
a=  g
1  1 (8  8) 16 4
 (µ2  1)   
f2  R
10
a= m/s2
1 1 1 (µ1  1)  (µ 2  1)
4
  
f1 f2 feq R
1 2
S= at
2
1 (µ1  µ2 )

feq R 0.2  2  4 2
t
10
R
 (µ1  µ2 )
feq t = 0.4 sec

1
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 IC Sol. 3
3. For a transistor  and  are given as  = and
IE h
32 H=9.8
I
 = C . Then the correct relation between  and 
IB 1

will be :
1 2
1 H= gt
(1)   2

9.8  2 2
t
 9.8
(2)  
1 
t= 2 sec
(3)  = 1
t: time interval between drops
 1
(4)   h= g( 2  t)2
1 2
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 1
0= g( 2  2t)2
IC I 2
Sol.  ,   C ; IE = IC + IB EN
IE IB 1
t =
2
IC I /I 
  C B +
IC  IB IC  1 1  1  1
2
1 9.8
1
IB h = g 2     9.8    2.45m
2  2 2 2 4
1 1 H – h = 9.8 – 2.45
1 
LL

 
= 7.35 m
1 1– 
 5. Two discs have moments of intertia I1 and I2 about
 
their respective axes perpendicular to the plane and

= passing through the centre. They are rotating with
A

1– 
angular speeds, 1 and 2 respectively and are
4. Water drops are falling from a nozzle of a shower
brought into contact face to face with their axes of
onto the floor, from a height of 9.8 m. The drops
rotation coaxial. The loss in kinetic energy of the
fall at a regular interval of time. When the first system in the process is given by :
drop strikes the floor, at that instant, the third drop I1I2
 1 2 
2
(1)
begins to fall. Locate the position of second drop (I1  I2 )

from the floor when the first drop strikes the floor. (I1  I 2 )2 12
(2)
(1) 4.18 m 2(I1  I2 )

I1I2
(2) 2.94 m (3)  1  2  2
2(I1  I2 )
(3) 2.45 m
(1  2 )2
(4)
(4) 7.35 m 2(I1  I 2 )

Official Ans. by NTA (4) Official Ans. by NTA (3)

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Sol.
 From conservation of angular momentum we get  V
q2 = (V – VD) C2 =  V   (6 µF)
I11 + I22 = (I1 + I2)  3

I11  I 2 2 q2 = (4V) µF

I1  I2 V
q3 = (VD – 0) C3 =  12µF  4VµF
1 2 1 3
ki = I11  I 2 22
2 2 q1 = (V – 0) C1 = V(2µF)

1 q1 : q 2 : q 3 = 2 : 4 : 4
kf = (I1  I 2 )2
2 q1 : q 2 : q 3 = 1 : 2 : 2

1 2 (I11  I 2  2 )2  7. The colour coding on a carbon resistor is shown in

k i  k f   I11  I 2 2 
2

2 I1  I 2  the given figure. The resistance value of the given

Solving above we get resistor is :

1  I1I 2 
 (1  2 )
2
k i – kf = 
2  I1  I 2 
Gold
6. Three capacitors C1 = 2F, C2 = 6 F and Red
EN Green
C3 = 12 F are connected as shown in figure. Find Violet
the ratio of the charges on capacitors C1, C2 and C3
(1) (5700 ± 285) 
respectively :
(2) (7500 ± 750) 
D
(3) (5700 ± 375) 
A C2 C3 B
LL

(4) (7500 ± 375) 

C1 Official Ans. by NTA (4)

v Sol. R = 75 × 102 ± 5% of 7500

R = (7500 ± 375)
A

(1) 2 : 1 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 : 3
8. An antenna is mounted on a 400 m tall building.
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 (4) 3 : 4 : 4
What will be the wavelength of signal of signal
Official Ans. by NTA (3) that can be radiated effectively by the transmission
tower upto a range of 44 km?
Sol. D
(1) 37.8 m
VD
A C2 C3 B (2) 605 m
V 0
(3) 75.6 m
C1
0 (4) 302 m
V
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(VD – V) C2 + (VD –0) C3 = 0 Sol. h : height of antenna
(VD – V) 6 + (VD –0) 12 = 0  : wavelength of signal
VD–V + 2VD = 0 h<
>h
V
VD =  > 400 m
3

3
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9. If the rms speed of oxygen molecules at 0°C is
A 100 kg
160 m/s, find the rms speed of hydrogen molecules
r
at 0°C. 50 m
Sol.
(1) 640 m/s (2) 40 m/s 50 kg
(3) 80 m/s (4) 332 m/s
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
 GM1 GM2 
VA =  – 
Sol. Vrms =
3KT  r R 
M
 50 100 
= – G  G
(Vrms )O2 M H2 2  25 50 
 
(Vrms )H2 M O2 32 = –4G
12. For full scale deflection of total 50 divisions,
(Vrms )H2  4   Vrms O 50 mV voltage is required in galvanometer. The
2

resistance of galvanometer if its current sensitivity

= 4 × 160 is 2 div/mA will be :
= 640 m/s (1) 1  (2) 5  (3) 4  (4) 2 
10. A constant magnetic field of 1 T is applied in theEN Official Ans. by NTA (4)
50
x > 0 region. A metallic circular ring of radius 1m Sol. Imax =  25mA
2
is moving with a constant velocity of 1 m/s along
V 50mV
the x-axis. At t = 0s, the centre of O of the ring is R=   2
I 25mA
at x = – 1m. What will be the value of the induced 13. A monochromatic neon lamp with wavelength of
emf in the ring at t = 1s? (Assume the velocity of 670.5 nm illuminates a photo-sensitive material
LL

which has a stopping voltage of 0.48 V. What will

the ring does not change.)
be the stopping voltage if the source light is
changed with another source of wavelength of
474.6 nm?
O (1) 0.96 V (2) 1.25 V (3) 0.24 V (4) 1.5 V
A

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

x=0 x hc
Sol. kEmax = 
i
(1) 1 V (2) 2V
hc
(3) 2 V (4) 0 V or eVo = 
i
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
when i = 670.5 nm ; Vo = 0.48
Sol. emf = LV when i = 474.6 nm ; Vo = ?
= 1.(2R) .1 1240
So, e(0.48) = + ...(1)
670.5
=2V
1240
11. A mass of 50 kg is placed at the centre of a e(Vo) =  ...(2)
474.6
uniform spherical shell of mass 100 kg and radius (2) – (1)
 1 1 
50 m. If the gravitational potential at a point, 25 m e(Vo – 0.48) = 1240    eV
 474.6 670.5 
from the centre is V kg/m. The value of V is :
 670.5 – 474.6 
Vo = 0.48 + 1240   Volts
(1) – 60 G (2) + 2 G  474.6  670.5 
(3) – 20 G (4) – 4 G Vo = 0.48 + 0.76
Vo = 1.24 V 1.25 V
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
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14.
 Match List-I with List-II. 16. A coaxial cable consists of an inner wire of radius
List-I List-II 'a' surrounded by an outer shell of inner and outer

(a) RH (Rydberg constant) (i) kg m–1 s–1 radii 'b' and 'c' respectively. The inner wire carries
an electric current i0, which is distributed
(b) h(Planck's constant) (ii) kg m2 s–1
uniformly across cross-sectional area. The outer
(c) B (Magnetic field (iii) m–1
shell carries an equal current in opposite direction
energy density) and distributed uniformly. What will be the ratio of
–1 –2
(d) (coefficient of viscocity) (iv) kg m s the magnetic field at a distance x from the axis
Choose the most appropriate answer from the when (i) x < a and (ii) a < x < b ?

options given below : x2 a2

(1) (2)
a2 x2
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
x2 b2 – a 2
(2) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i) (3) (4)
b2 – a 2 x2
(3) (a)–(iv), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iii)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(ii), (c)–(i), (d)–(iv)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. SI unit of Rydberg const. = m–1
EN io
SI unit of Plank's const. = kg m s 2 –1 io

SI unit of Magnetic field energy density= kg m–1s–2 Sol. a b

SI unit of coeff. of viscosity = kg m–1s–1 c
LL

15. If force (F), length (L) and time (T) are taken as
the fundamental quantities. Then what will be the
when x < a
dimension of density :
 i  2
(1)[FL–4 T2] B1 (2x) = µo  o 2  x
A

 a 
(2) [FL–3 T2]
µo i o x 2
(3) [FL–5 T2] B(2x) =
a2
(4) [FL–3 T3]
µo i o x
Official Ans. by NTA (1) B1 = ...(1)
2 a 2
Sol. Density = [FaLbTc]
when a < x < b
–3 a a –2a b c
[ML ] = [M L T L T ]
B2(2x) = µoio
1 –3 a a+b –2a+c
[M L ] = [M L T ]
µo i o
B2 = ...(2)
a=1 ; a + b = –3 ; –2a + c = 0 2 x

1 + b = –3 c = 2a x
µo i o 2
B1 2 a 2 = x

b=–4 c=2 B2 µo i o a2
2 x
So, density = [F1L–4T2]

5
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17. The height of victoria falls is 63 m. What is the 19. The light waves from two coherent sources have
difference in temperature of water at the top and at same intensity I1 = I2 = I0. In interference pattern
the bottom of fall ? the intensity of light at minima is zero.What will
[Given 1 cal = 4.2 J and specific heat of water be the intensity of light at maxima ?
= 1 cal g–1 ºC–1] (1) I0 (2) 2 I0 (3) 5 I0 (4) 4 I0
(1) 0.147º C Official Ans. by NTA (4)

 
2
(2) 14.76º C Sol. Imax = I1  I2

(3) 1.476º = 4Io

20. Figure shows a rod AB, which is bent in a 120º
(4) 0.014º C
circular arc of radius R. A charge (–Q) is
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. Change in P.E. = Heat energy uniformly distributed over rod AB. What is the

mgh = mST electric field E at the centre of curvature O ?

gh
T =
S y
A
10  63 EN
=
4200J / kgC
= 0.147°C
O 60º 120º
18. A player kicks a football with an initial speed of 60º x
25 ms–1 at an angle of 45º from the ground. What
R
are the maximum height and the time taken by the
LL

football to reach at the highest point during

B
motion ? (Take g = 10 ms–2)
(1) hmax = 10 m T = 2.5 s
(1)
3 3Q
80 R 2

i (2)
3 3Q
820 R 2

i
(2) hmax = 15.625 m T = 3.54 s
A

(3) hmax = 15.625 m T = 1.77 s

(3)
3 3Q
1620 R 2
i  (4)
3 3Q
 
8 2  0 R 2
–i

(4) hmax = 3.54 m T = 0.125 s Official Ans. by NTA (2)

2k    ˆ
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Sol.  = sin   (–i)
R 2
U 2 sin 2 
Sol. H =  
2g
 –Q   –Q 
=  =  
(25)2 .(sin 45)2  R   R. 2  
=  
2  10  3 

= 15.625 m
–3Q
 
Usin  2R
T=
g
2k –3Q
25  sin 45 = . .sin(60)(– ˆi)
= R 2 R
10
= 2.5 × 0.7 3 3Q
= ( ˆi)
= 1.77 s 82 o R 2

6
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 SECTION-B 3. X different wavelengths may be observed in the
1. A heat engine operates between a cold reservoir at
spectrum from a hydrogen sample if the atoms are
temperature T2 = 400 K and a hot reservoir at
exited to states with principal quantum number
temperature T1. It takes 300 J of heat from the hot
reservoir and delivers 240 J of heat to the cold n = 6 ? The value of X is _______.
reservoir in a cycle. The minimum temperature of
Official Ans. by NTA (15)
the hot reservoir has to be _________K.
Official Ans. by NTA (500) n(n  1)
Sol. No. of different wavelengths =
2
Sol. Qin = 300 J ; Qout = 240 J
Work done = Qin – Qout = 300 – 240 = 60 J 6  (6  1) 6  5
=   15
2 2
W 60 1
Efficiency =  
Qin 300 5 4. A zener diode of power rating 2W is to be used as
T2 a voltage regulator. If the zener diode has a
efficiency = 1–
T1
breakdown of 10 V and it has to regulate voltage
1 400 400 4
5
1
T1

T1

5
EN fluctuated between 6 V and 14 V, the value of Rs

T1 = 500 k for safe operation should be _______ .

2. Two simple harmonic motion, are represented by
Rs
 
the equations y1 = 10 sin  3t  
LL

 3 Unregulated Regulated
voltage voltage
y2 = 5 (sin 3t + 3 cos 3t)

Ratio of amplitude of y1 to y2 = x : 1. The value of

Official Ans. by NTA (20)
A

x is ________.
Sol. When unregulated voltage is 14 V voltage across
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
zener diode must be 10 V So potential difference
 
Sol. y1 = 10 sin  3t    Amplitude= 10
 3 across resistor VRs = 4V

y2 = 5 (sin 3t + 3 cos 3t )

and Pzener = 2W
1 3 
y2 =10  sin3t  cos3t  VI = 2
2 2 
 
    2
y2 = 10  cos sin3t  sin cos3t  I= = 0.2 A
 3 3  10

 
y2 = 10 sin  3t    Amplitude = 10 VRs = I Rs
 3

10 40
So ratio of amplitudes = =1 4 × 0.2 Rs  Rs =  20
10 2
7
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5. Wires W1 and W2 are made of same material
having the breaking stress of 1.25 × 109 N/m2.
0.5 m
W1 and W2 have cross-sectional area of Sol.
10g
8 × 10–7 m2 and 4 × 10–7 m2, respectively. Masses
Vmin=V
of 20 kg and 10 kg hang from them as shown in the
V '  5gR  5  10  0.5
figure. The maximum mass that can be placed in
V' = 5 m/s
the pan without breaking the wires is ____ kg.
m1V = m2 × 5 – m1 × 100
(Use g = 10 m/s2)
10 10
V  5–  100
1000 1000
W1
20 kg V = 400 m/s
W2
10 kg 7. An ac circuit has an inductor and a resistor of
resistance R in series, such that XL = 3R. Now, a
pan capacitor is added in series such that XC = 2R. The
EN ratio of new power factor with the old power factor
Official Ans. by NTA (40) of the circuit is 5 :x . The value of x is _____.
T1max Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. B.S1 =  T1 max = 8 × 1.25 × 100
8  10 –7
R XL=3R R XL XC = 2R
= 1000 N
Sol.
T2max
B.S2 =  T2max  4  1.25  100
LL

4  10 –7
= 500 N R R
cos = cos' =
500  100 R  3R
2 2
R  R2
2
m=  40 kg
10
1 1
A

= =
6. A bullet of 10 g, moving with velocity , collides 10 2
head-on with the stationary bob of a pendulum and cos ' 10 5
  x = 1
recoils with velocity 100 m/s. The length of the cos  2 1

pendulum is 0.5 m and mass of the bob is 1 kg. 8. The ratio of the equivalent resistance of the

The minimum value of  = _____ m/s so that the network (shown in figure) between the points
a and b when switch is open and switch is closed is
pendulum describes a circle. (Assume the string to
x : 8. The value of x is _______.
be inextensible and g = 10 m/s2)
R 2R

0.5m a S b

10g 1 kg 2R R

Official Ans. by NTA (400) Official Ans. by NTA (9)

8
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 3R 10. A tuning fork is vibrating at 250 Hz. The length of
Sol. Req open =
2 the shortest closed organ pipe that will resonate
R  2R 4R with the tuning fork will be _____ cm.
Req closed = 2 × 
3R 3
(Take speed of sound in air as 340 ms–1)
R eq open 3R 3 9
   Official Ans. by NTA (34)
R eq closed 2 4R 8

x=9 

9. A plane electromagnetic wave with frequency of

30 MHz travels in free space. At particular point in
Sol.
space and time, electric field is 6 V/m. The

magnetic field at this point will be x × 10–8 T. The  4
4
value of x is _____.
V V
f= 
Official Ans. by NTA (2)  4
|E| 6 340
Sol. |B| =  
C 3  108 EN 4
= 2 × 10–8 T 34
   0.34m
 x = 2 4  25
 34cm
LL
A

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Friday 27th August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A In the light of the above statements, choose the
1. Choose the correct statement from the following : most appropriate answer from the options given
(1) The standard enthalpy of formation for alkali below :
metal bromides becomes less negative on (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
descending the group. (2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(2) The low solubility of CsI in water is due to its (3) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
high lattice enthalpy. (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(3) Among the alkali metal halides, LiF is least Official Ans. by NTA (3)
soluble in water. Sol. Statement 1 is true
(4) LiF has least negative standard enthalpy of But it consume 3 moles of G R
formation among alkali metal fluorides. So statement 2 is false.
Official Ans. by NTA (3) O

bromides becomes more negative on desending

EN
Sol. 1. Standard enthalpy of formation for alkali metal H–CC–CH2–CH2–C–OEt

down the group. CH3Mg,Br(3moles) –EtOMgBr


+
OMgBr
2. In case of CsI, lattice energy is less, but Cs is 
Br MgC  C–CH2–CH2–C–CH3
having less hydration enthalpy due to which it is
LL

less soluble in water. CH3

HOH
OH
3. For alkali metal fluorides, the solubility in water
HCC–CH2–CH2–C–CH3
increases from lithium to caesium. LiF is least
CH3
soluble in water.
A

4. Standard enthalpy of formation for LiF is most

negative among alkali metal fluorides. 4. In stratosphere most of the ozone formation is

2. The addition of dilute NaOH to Cr3+ salt solution assisted by :

will give : (1) cosmic rays. (2) –rays.

(1) a solution of [Cr(OH)4]– (3) ultraviolet radiation. (4) visible radiations.
(2) precipitate of Cr2O3(H2O)n Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(3) precipitate of [Cr(OH)6]3– Sol. Ozone in the stratosphere is a product of UV
(4) precipitate of Cr(OH)3 radiations acting on dioxygen (O2) molecules.
Official Ans. by NTA (2) UV
O2 (g) O(g) O(g)
3
Sol. Cr NaOH Cr2O3 .(H2O) n UV
dil. precipitate O(g) O2 (g) O3 (g)
3. Given below are two statements :
Statement I : Ethyl pent–4–yn–oate on reaction
with CH3MgBr gives a 3°–alcohol.
Statement II : In this reaction one mole of ethyl
pent–4–yn–oate utilizes two moles of CH3MgBr.
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5. The compound/s which will show significant 8. Which one of the following reactions will not yield
intermolecular H–bonding is/are : propionic acid?
NO2 H (1) CH3CH2COCH3 + OI–/H3O+
OH N CH3 (2) CH3CH2CH3 + KMnO4 (Heat),OH–/H3O+
(3) CH3CH2CCl3 + OH–/H3O+
O (4) CH3CH2CH2Br + Mg, CO2 dry ether/H3O+
HO OH
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. All gives propanoic acid as product but option 4
(a) (b) (c)
(1) (b) only (2) (c) only gives butanoic as product
(3) (a) and (b) only (4) (a), (b) and (c)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Mg
CH3CH2CH2Br CH3CH2CH2MgBr
Sol. (a) Shows intra molecular H-bonding Dry ether

(b) Shows significant intermolecular H-bonding CO2

O
(c) It do not show intermolecular H-bonding due to CH3–CH2–CH2–C–OMgBr
steric hindrance.
6. Which one of the following chemicals is H3O+
O
responsible for the production of HCl in the
stomach leading to irritation and pain? CH3–CH2–CH2–C–OH
CO Butanoic acid
(1) NH EN 9. The correct order of ionic radii for the ions, P3–, S2–,
SO2 Ca2+, K+, Cl– is :
HN (1) P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
(2)
(2) Cl– > S2– > P3– > Ca2+ > K+
3– 2– – 2+ +
N NH2 (3) P > S > Cl > Ca > K
(4) K > Ca > P > S > Cl–
+ 2+ 3– 2–

HO NH2 Official Ans. by NTA (1)

(3) Sol. P3– > S2– > Cl– > K+ > Ca2+
LL

N (Correct order of ionic radii)

H
all the given species are isoelectronic species.
H
NNH2 In isoelectronic species size increases with increase
(4) of negative charge and size decreases with increase
in positive charge.
A

Official Ans. by NTA (2) 10. Which one of the following is the major product of
Sol. Histamine stimulate the secretion of HCl the given reaction?
HN CH3
NC O
N NH2 (i) 2CH3MgBr
Major product
CH3 (ii) H3O+
Histamine structure (iii) H2SO4, heat

7. The oxide that gives H2O2 most readily on O CH3

treatment with H2O is : CH3
(1) PbO2 (2) Na2O2 (1) CH3
(3) SnO2 (4) BaO28H2O CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
CH3
Sol. 1. PbO2 + 2H2O  Pb(OH)4 NC CH3
2. Na2O2 + 2H2O  2NaOH + H2O2 (2)
this reaction is possible at room temperature CH3
3. SnO2 + 2H2O  Sn(OH)4
4. Acidified BaO2.8H2O gives H2O2 after
evaporation.
2
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 CH3 (3) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–OH
NC CH3
(3)
CH3
O CH3 (4) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–OCH3
CH3
(4) CH3
CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol.
Sol.

CH3 H

O 2CH3MgBr CH3 – CH2 – C – CH2 – Br
CH3O / CH3OH
CH3
CH3 E2
  CH3  
BrMgN=C OMgBr H2C CH2
CH3 C
H3C
CH3
EN
H3O
CH3 Major product (A)
CH3
C OH
O CH3 12. Which one of the following is used to remove most
CH3 of plutonium from spent nuclear fuel?
H2SO4 –H2O
LL
(1) ClF3 (2) O2F2 (3) I2O5 (4) BrO3
CH3 CH Official Ans. by NTA (2)
CH3
Sol. O2F2 oxidises plutonium to PuF6 and the reaction is
O
used in removing plutonium as PuF6 from spent
CH3
A

nuclear fuel.
13. Lyophilic sols are more stable than lyophobic sols
11. The major product (A) formed in the reaction
given below is : because :

CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–Br (1) there is a strong electrostatic repulsion between

the negatively charged colloidal particles.
+ CH3O CH3OH A
(2) the colloidal particles have positive charge.
(Major product)
(3) the colloidal particles have no charge.
(1) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2Br
(4) the colloidal particles are solvated.
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. In the lyophilic colloids, the colloidal particles are
OCH3
extensively solvated.
(2) CH3–CH2–C=CH2

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14. The major product of the following reaction, if it 16. Which one of the following tests used for the
occurs by SN2 mechanism is : identification of functional groups in organic
OH compounds does not use copper reagent ?
(1) Barfoed's test
Br  
K 2 CO3
+ acetone
(2) Seliwanoff's test

O (3) Benedict's test

(1)
(4) Biuret test for peptide bond
O
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. In Seliwanoff's reagent, Cu is not present.
In Barfoed, Biuret and in Benediet reagent Cu is
O
present.
(2)
17. Hydrolysis of sucrose gives :
(1) -D-(–)-Glucose and -D-(–)-Fructose
(3) O
(2) -D-(+)-Glucose and -D-(–)-Fructose
EN (3) -D-(–)-Glucose and -D-(+)-Fructose
O
(4) (4) -D-(+)-Glucose and -D-(–)-Fructose
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. Sucrose is formed by –D(+) . Glucose + –D (–)
Sol.
Fructose.
LL

O–H O we obtain these monomers on hydrolysis.
Base 18. Match List-I with List – II :
+ Br
List-I List-II
SN2
(Name of ore/mineral) (Chemical formula)
A

O (a) Calamine (i) Zns

(b) Malachite (ii) FeCO3
(c) Siderite (iii) ZnCO3
15. Potassium permanganate on heating at 513 K gives
(d) Sphalerite (iv) CuCO3 · Cu(OH)2
a product which is :
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) paramagnetic and colourless options given below :
(2) diamagnetic and green (1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
(3) diamagnetic and colourless (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
(4) paramagnetic and green
(4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(i)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. (Name of ore/mineral)
Sol. 2KMnO 4 K 2 MnO 4 MnO2 O2
200 C
Green Black
(a) Calamine ZnCO3
(b) Malachite CuCO3.Cu(OH)2
In K2MnO4, manganese oxidation state is +6 and (c) Siderite FeCO3
hence it has one unpaired e–. (d) Sphalerite ZnS

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19.
 Which one of the following is formed (mainly) Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol.
when red phosphorus is heated in a sealed tube at
803 K ? OH OH O O
(1) White phosphorus O
H2/Pd
(2) Yellow phosphorus C2H5OH 1 Eq. SNAE
O
(3) -Black phosphorus
NO2 NH2 –CH3–C–OH
(4) -Black phosphorus (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
OH
Sol. When red phosphorus is heated in a sealed tube at
803 K, -black phosphorus is formed.
20. The correct structures of A and B formed in the
following reactions are :
OH O O NH
O
H2/Pd O
A B CH3
C2H5OH 1.0 eq. (Major Product) (B)
Major Product
NO2
OH OH O
EN 1.
SECTION-B
The first order rate constant for the decomposition
(1) A : , B: CH3 of CaCO3 at 700 K is 6.36 × 10–3s–1 and activation
energy is 209 kJ mol–1. Its rate constant (in s–1) at
600 K is x × 10–6. The value of x is _______.
NH2 NH2
(Nearest integer)
LL

O O [Given R = 8.31 J K–1 mol–1; log 6.36 × 10–3 = –2.19,

–4.79 –5
10 = 1.62 × 10 ]
O CH3 O CH3 Official Ans. by NTA (16)

(2) A : , B: Sol. K700 6.36 10 –3 s–1;

A

K600 x 10 –6 s–1
NH2 NH CH3
Ea = 209 kJ/mol
O
O Applying ;

OH O CH3 K T2 –Ea 1 1
log
K T1 2.303R T2 T1
(3) A : , B:
K 700 –Ea 1 1
log
NH2 NH2 K600 2.303R 700 600
OH OH
6.36 10 3 209 1000 100
log
(4) A : , B: K 600 2.303 8.31 700 600

NH2 NH CH3 log(6.36 × 10–3) – logK600 = 2.6

 logK600 = –2.19 – 2.6 = –4.79

O

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  K600 = 10–4.79 = 1.62 × 10–5 (14 300 60)
 T
= 16.2 × 10 –6
15
= x × 10–6  T = 284 K (final temperature)

 x = 16  If the final pressure = P

2. The number of optical isomers possible for 3.0
[Cr(C2O4)3]3– is ______.  (n I n II )final
28
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. The number of optical isomers for [Cr(C2O4)3]3– is P 3.0gm
 (VI VII )
two. RT 28gm / mol
3 J 284K bar
ox ox P mol 8.31 3 3
10 5
28 mol K 3 10 m Pa
 0.84287 bar
o
ox Cr+3 Cr +3
ox
 84.28 × 10–2 bar
 84
ox ox
4. 100 g of propane is completely reacted with 1000 g

3. Two flasks I and II shown below are connected by

EN of oxygen. The mole fraction of carbon dioxide in
a valve of negligible volume. the resulting mixture is x × 10–2. The value of x is

0.2 g N2 _______. (Nearest integer)

2.8 g N2
300 K 60 K [Atomic weight : H = 1.008; C = 12.00; O = 16.00]
1L 2L
Official Ans. by NTA (19)
I II
LL
Sol. C3H8(g) + 5O2(g)  3CO2(g) + 4H2O()
When the valve is opened, the final pressure of the
t = 0 2.27 mole 31.25 mol
–2
system in bar is x × 10 . The value of x is ______.
t=  0 19.9 mol 6.81 mol 9.08 mol
(Integer answer)
mole fraction of CO2 in the final reaction mixture
A

[Assume–Ideal gas; 1 bar = 105 Pa; Molar mass of

(heterogenous)
N2 = 28.0 g mol–1 ; R = 8.31 J mol–1K–1]
6.81
Official Ans. by NTA (84) XCO2
19.9 6.81 9.08
Sol. Applying ; (nI + nII)initial = (nI + nII)final
= 0.1902 = 19.02 × 10–2
 Assuming the system attains a final temperature  19
of T (such that 300 < T < 60)
5. 40 g of glucose (Molar mass = 180) is mixed with

Heat lost by Heat gained by 200 mL of water. The freezing point of solution is
 _____ K. (Nearest integer)
N2 of container N2 of container
I II [Given : Kf = 1.86 K kg mol–1 ; Density of water =
 nI Cm (300–T) = nII Cm (T–60) 1.00 g cm–3; Freezing point of water = 273.15 K]
2.8 0.2 Official Ans. by NTA (271)
 (300 T) (T – 60)
28 28 40
mol
 14(300–T) = T–60 180 10
Sol. molality molal
0.2Kg 9

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 10 8. When 5.1 g of solid NH4HS is introduced into a
Tf Tf Tf ' 1.86
9 two litre evacuated flask at 27°C, 20% of the solid
10 decomposes into gaseous ammonia and hydrogen
Tf ' 27315  1.86
9 sulphide. The Kp for the reaction at 27°C is x × 10–2.
= 271.08 K The value of x is _______. (Integer answer)
271 K (nearest-integer) [Given R = 0.082 L atm K–1 mol–1]

6. The resistance of a conductivity cell with cell Official Ans. by NTA (6)
–1
constant 1.14 cm , containing 0.001 M KCl at 298 K 5.1g
Sol. moles of NH4HS initially taken =
is 1500 . The molar conductivity of 0.001 M KCl 51g / mol

solution at 298 K in S cm2 mol–1 is_______. = 0.1 mol

(Integer answer) volume of vessel = 2

Official Ans. by NTA (760)
  NH4HS(s) NH3(g) H 2S(g)
1 1
Sol. K A 1.14 S cm 1 t=0 0.1 mol
R 1500
EN t= 0.1(1–0.2) 0.1×0.2 0.1×0.2
1.14
1500  partial pressure of each component
m 1000 S cm 2mol –1
0.001 nRT 0.1 0.2 0.082 300
P
= 760 S cm mol 2 –1
V 2
 760 = 0.246 atm
LL

7. The number of photons emitted by a kP PNH3 PH2S (0.246)2 0.060516

monochromatic (single frequency) infrared range = 6.05 × 10
–2

finder of power 1 mW and wavelength of 1000 nm,

13
 6
in 0.1 second is x × 10 . The value of x is _____.
9. The number of species having non–pyramidal
A

(Nearest integer)
shape among the following is_______.
(h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js, c = 3.00 × 108 ms–1)
Official Ans. by NTA (50) (A) SO3 (B) NO3

Sol. Energy emitted in 0.1 sec. (C) PCl3 (D) CO 32 

J
0.1 sec. 10 3 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
s
= 10–4 J
If 'n' photons of  = 1000 nm are emitted,

4 hc
then ; 10 n

n 6.63 10 34 3 108

10 4
1000 10 9
 n = 5.02 × 1014 = 50.2 × 1013

 50 (nearest integer)

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Sol. 10. Data given for the following reaction is as follows:

O O O FeO(s) + C(graphite)  Fe(s) + CO(g)

S N C Substance H° S°

O O –
O – – –
O O O
Trigonal planar Trigonal planar Trigonal planar (kJ mol–1) (J mol–1K–1)

 FeO(s) –266.3 57.49

P C(graphite) 0 5.74
Cl Cl
Cl
Fe(s) 0 27.28
Pyramidal
CO(g) –110.5 197.6
Hence non-pyramidal species are SO3, NO3 and
The minimum temperature in K at which the
CO32 .
reaction becomes spontaneous is ________ .
(Integer answer)
Official Ans. by NTA (964)
0
EN Sol. Tmin 0
H
S
0 0 0
Hrxn f H(Fe) f H(CO)

0 0
f H(FeO) f H(C(graphite) )
LL

= [0 – 110.5] – [–266.3+0]
= 155.8 kJ/mol
0 0 0
Srxn S(Fe) S(CO)
A

0 0
S(FeO) S(C(graphite) )

= [27.28 + 197.6] – [57.49 + 5.74]

= 161.65 J/mol-K

155.8 103 J / mol

Tmin 963.8K
161.65J / mol K

 964 k (nearest integer)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Friday 27th August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A [ x + 1] [ x + 2 ] [ x + 3]
1. The angle between the straight lines, whose Sol. [ x ] [ x + 3] [ x + 3] = 192
direction cosines are given by the equations [ x ] [ x + 2] [ x + 4]
2l + 2m – n = 0 and mn + nl + lm = 0, is :
R1 ® R1 – R3 & R2 ® R2 – R3
p 4ö -1 æ
(1) (2) p - cos ç ÷
2 è9ø é1 0 -1 ù
æ8ö p ê0 1 -1 ú = 192
(3) cos -1 ç ÷ (4) êë[ x ] [ x ] + 2 [ x ] + 4 úû
è9ø 3
Official Ans. by NTA (1) 2[x] + 6 + [x] = 192 Þ [x] = 62
Sol. n = 2 (l + m)
3. Let M and m respectively be the maximum and
lm + n ( l + m ) = 0
minimum values of the function f(x) = tan–1 (sinx + cosx)
lm + 2 ( l + m ) = 0
2

2l2 + 2m2 + 5ml = 0

ælö
2
ælö
EN é pù
in ê 0, ú , Then the value of tan(M – m) is equal
ë 2û
2 ç ÷ + 2 + 5 ç ÷ = 0. to:
èmø èmø
2t2 + 5t + 2 = 0 (1) 2 + 3 (2) 2 - 3
(t + 2) (2t + 1) = 0
LL

1 (3) 3 + 2 2 (4) 3 - 2 2
Þ t = -2; -
2 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
l l 1
(i) = -2 (ii) =- æ pö
m m 2 Sol. Let g(x) = sin x + cos x = 2 sin ç x + ÷
è 4ø
A

n n = –2l
= -2
m g(x)Î éë1, 2 ùû for x Î [ 0, p / 2 ]
(l, –2 l , –2 l )
( -2m,m, –2m )
(1, –2, –2) ép ù
(–2, 1, –2) ƒ (x) = tan–1 (sin x + cos x) Î ê , tan –1 2 ú
ë4 û
-2 - 2 + 4 p
cos q = =0Þ0=
9 9 2 p 2 -1 2 -1
tan (tan–1 2 – )= ´ = 3-2 2
æ [x + 1] [x + 2] [x + 3] ö 4 1+ 2 2 -1
ç ÷
2. Let A= ç [x] [x + 3] [x + 3] ÷ , where [t]
ç [x] [x + 2] [x + 4] ÷ 4. Each of the persons A and B independently tosses
è ø
denotes the greatest integer less than or equal to t. three fair coins. The probability that both of them
If det(A) = 192, then the set of values of x is the get the same number of heads is :
interval:
1 5 5
(1) [68, 69) (2) [62, 63) (1) (2) (3) (4) 1
8 8 16
(3) [65, 66) (4) [60, 61)
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Official Ans. by NTA (3)

1
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/27-08-2021/Evening Session
Sol. C – I '0' Head 6. If two tangents drawn from a point P to the
3 3 parabola y2 = 16(x – 3) are at right angles, then the
æ1ö æ1ö 1
TTT ç ÷ ç ÷ = locus of point P is :
è 2 ø è 2 ø 64
(1) x + 3 = 0 (2) x + 1 = 0
C – II '1' head
(3) x + 2 = 0 (4) x + 4 = 0
æ 3 öæ 3 ö 9 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
HTT ç ÷ç ÷ =
è 8 ø è 8 ø 64 Sol. Locus is directrix of parabola
C – III '2' Head x – 3 + 4 = 0 Þ x + 1 = 0.
æ 3 öæ 3 ö 9 7. The equation of the plane passing through the line
HHT ç ÷ç ÷ =
è 8 ø è 8 ø 64 r
C–IV '3' Heads
(
of intersection of the planes r. ˆi + ˆj + kˆ = 1 and )
r ˆ ˆ ˆ
æ 1 öæ 1 ö 1 ( )
r. 2i + 3j - k + 4 = 0 and parallel to the x-axis is:
HHH ç ÷ç ÷ =
è 8 ø è 8 ø 64 r r
5
( )
(1) r. ˆj - 3kˆ + 6= 0 ( )
(2) r. ˆi + 3kˆ + 6= 0
Total probability = . r r
16 (3) r. ( ˆi - 3kˆ ) + 6= 0 (4) r. ( ˆj - 3kˆ ) - 6= 0
5. A differential equation representing the family of
EN Official Ans. by NTA (1)
parabolas with axis parallel to y-axis and whose
Sol. Equation of planes are
length of latus rectum is the distance of the point
r ˆ ˆ ˆ
(2, –3) form the line 3x + 4y = 5, is given by : r . ( i + j + k ) -1 = 0 Þ x + y + z – 1 = 0
d2y d2x r
(1) 10 = 11
dx 2
(2) 11 =
dy 2
10 ( )
and r . 2iˆ + 3jˆ - kˆ + 4= 0 Þ 2x + 3y – z + 4 =

0
LL

d2 x d2 y
(3) 10 2= 11 (4) 11 = 10 equation of planes through line of intersection of
dy dx 2
these planes is :–
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(x + y + z – 1) + l ( 2x + 3y – z + 4) = 0
3 ( 2 ) + 4 ( -3 ) - 5 11
Sol. a. R = =
A

5 5 Þ (1 + 2 l) x + (1 + 3 l) y + (1– l) z – 1 + 4 l = 0
But this plane is parallel to x–axis whose direction
( x - h ) = 11 ( y - k )
2
are (1, 0, 0)
5
\ (1 + 2 l)1 + (1 + 3 l) 0 + (1 – l) 0 = 0
differentiate w.r.t 'x' : – 1
l =-
11 dy 2
2(x - h) =
5 dx \ Required plane is
æ 3ö æ 1ö æ -1 ö
again differentiate 0 x + ç1 - ÷ y + ç1 + ÷ z – 1 + 4 ç ÷=0
è 2ø è 2ø è 2 ø
11 d 2 y -y 3
2= Þ + z -3 = 0
5 dx 2 2 2
11d 2 y Þ y – 3z + 6 = 0
= 10 .
dx 2 r
( )
Þ r. ˆj - 3kˆ + 6 = 0 Ans.

2
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8. If the solution curve of the differential equation 10. Let [l] be the greatest integer less than or equal to
(2x – 10y3) dy + ydx = 0, passes through the points l. The set of all values of l for which the system
(0, 1) and (2, b), then b is a root of the equation: of linear equations x + y + z = 4, 3x + 2y+ 5z = 3,
9x + 4y + (28+ [l])z = [l] has a solution is:
(1) y5 – 2y – 2 = 0 (2) 2y5 – 2y – 1 = 0
5 2 (1) R
(3) 2y – y – 2 = 0 (4) y5 – y2 – 1 = 0 (2) ( -¥, -9) È (-9, ¥)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) (3) [–9, –8)
Sol. (2x – 10y3) dy + ydx = 0 (4) ( -¥, -9) È [ -8, ¥)
dx æ 2 ö Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Þ + ç ÷ x = 10y 2
dy è y ø 1 1 1
Sol. D = 3 2 5 = –24 – [l]+15 =– [l] – 9
9 4 28 + [ l ]
2
ò y dy
I. F. = e = e 2 ln ( y ) = y2
Solution of D.E. is if [l] + 9 ¹ 0 then unique solution
if [l] + 9 = 0 then D1 = D2 = D3 = 0

ò (10y ) y .dy
2 2 so infinite solutions
\ x. y =
Hence l can be any red number.
11. The set of all values of k > –1, for which the
10y 5 equation (3x2 + 4x + 3)2 – (k +1) (3x2 + 4x + 3)
xy2 = + C Þ xy2 = 2y5 + C
5 (3x2 + 4x + 2) + k(3x2 + 4x + 2)2 = 0 has real roots,
is :
It passes through (0, 1) ® 0 = 2 + C Þ C = – 2
æ 5ù
EN (1) ç 1, ú (2) [2, 3)
\ Curve is xy = 2y - 2
2 5
è 2û
Now, it passes through (2,b) é 1 ö æ 1 3ù
(3) ê - ,1 ÷ (4) ç , ú - {1}
2b2 = 2b5 – 2 Þ b5 – b2 – 1 = 0 ë 2 ø è 2 2û
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
\ b is root of an equation y - y - 1 = 0 Ans.
5 2
Sol. (3x2 + 4x + 3)2– (k + 1) (3x2 + 4x + 3) (3x2 + 4x + 2)
+ k ( 3x2 + 4x + 2)2 = 0
9. Let A(a, 0), B(b, 2b +1) and C(0, b), b ¹ 0, |b| ¹ 1, Let 3x2 + 4x + 3 = a
LL

be points such that the area of triangle ABC is 1 sq. and 3x2 + 4x + 2 = b Þ b = a – 1
unit, then the sum of all possible values of a is : Given equation becomes
-2b 2b Þ a2 – ( k +1) ab + k b2 = 0
(1) (2) Þ a ( a – kb) – b ( a – kb) = 0
b +1 b +1
Þ (a – kb) (a – b) = 0 Þ a = kb or a = b (reject)
2b2 -2b 2
A

(3) (4) Q a = kb
b +1 b +1 Þ 3x2 + 4x + 3 = k (3x2 + 4x + 2)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Þ 3 ( k – 1) x2 + 4 ( k – 1) x + (2k – 3) = 0
for real roots
1a 0 1
Sol. b 2b + 1 1 = 1 D³0
20 b 1 Þ 16 ( k –1)2– 4 (3(k–1)) (2k – 3) ³ 0
Þ 4 (k –1) {4 (k –1) – 3 (2k – 3)} ³ 0
a 0 1 Þ 4 ( k –1) {– 2k + 5} ³ 0
Þ b 2b + 1 1 = ±2
Þ –4 ( k –1) {2k – 5} ³ 0
0 b 1
Þ ( k – 1 ) ( 2k – 5) £ 0
Þ a ( 2b + 1 – b) – 0 + 1 ( b2 – 0) = ± 2 + – +
k
±2 - b 2 1 5/2
Þa=
b +1
é 5ù
2 - b2 -2 - b 2 \ k Î ê1, ú
\ a= and a = ë 2û
b +1 b +1 Q k¹1
sum of possible values of 'a' is
æ 5ù
-2b 2 \ k Î ç 1, ú Ans.
= Ans. è 2û
a +1

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12. A box open from top is made from a rectangular 13. The Boolean expression (p Ù q) Þ ((r Ù q) Ù p) is
sheet of dimension a × b by cutting squares each of
side x from each of the four corners and folding up equivalent to :
the flaps. If the volume of the box is maximum,
(1) (p Ù q) Þ (r Ù q) (2) (q Ù r) Þ (p Ù q)
then x is equal to :
a + b - a 2 + b2 - ab (3) (p Ù q) Þ (r Ú q) (4) (p Ù r) Þ (p Ù q)
(1)
12
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
a + b - a 2 + b2 + ab
(2) Sol. (p Ù q) Þ ( (r Ù q ) Ù p )
6
a + b - a 2 + b2 - ab ~ ( p Ù q ) Ú (( r Ù q ) Ù p)
(3)
6 ~ ( p Ù q) Ú ( ( r Ù p ) Ù ( p Ù q)
2 2
a + b + a + b - ab Þ [ ~ (p Ù q) Ú ( p Ù q) ] Ù ( ~ (p Ù q) Ú (r Ù p))
(4)
6
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Þ t Ù [~ ( p Ù q) Ú ( r Ù p) ]
x x
Sol. x x Þ ~ ( p Ù q) Ú ( r Ù p)

Þ (p Ù q) Þ ( r Ù p )
b – 2x
a – 2x Aliter :

x
x x
x
EN given statement says
" if p and q both happen then
V = l. b. h = ( a – 2x) ( b – 2x ) x p and q and r will happen"
Þ V(x) = (2x – a) ( 2x – b) x
it Simply implies
Þ V(x) = 4x3– 2 ( a + b) x2 + abx
d
LL
" If p and q both happen then
Þ v(x) = 12x2 – 4 (a + b) x + ab
dx 'r' too will happen "
d
( v(x)) = 0 Þ 12x2 – 4 (a + b) x + ab = 0 <ba i.e.
dx
" if p and q both happen then r and p too will
4 ( a + b ) ± 16 ( a + b ) - 48ab
2

Þx=
A

2 (12 ) happen
( a + b ) ± a 2 + b 2 - ab i.e.
=
6 (p Ù q) Þ ( r Ù p)
( a + b ) + a 2 + b 2 - ab
Let x = a = 14. Let ¢ be the set of all integers,
6
A = {(x, y) Î ¢ × ¢ : (x – 2)2 + y2 £ 4},
( a + b ) - a + b - ab
2 2
b=
6 B = {(x, y) Î ¢ × ¢ : x2 + y2 £ 4} and
Now, 12 (x – a) ( x – b) = 0
C = {(x, y) Î ¢ × ¢ : (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 £ 4}
+ – +
x
b a If the total number of relation from A Ç B to

minima A Ç C is 2p, then the value of p is :

Maxima
(1) 16 (2) 25
\ x=b (3) 49 (4) 9
a + b - a 2 + b2 - ab
= Official Ans. by NTA (2)
b

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æ ö p
16. If y(x) = cot -1 ç 1 + sin x + 1 - sin x ÷ , x Î æç , p ö÷ ,
è 1 + sin x - 1 - sin x ø è 2 ø
dy 5p
(1,1) then at x = is:
dx 6
1 1
(1) - (2) –1 (3) (4) 0
Sol. O (1,0) (2,0) 2 2
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
é x x x xù
ê cos + sin + sin - cos ú
(1,–1) Sol. y (x) = cot–1 ê 2 2 2 2
x x x xú
ê cos + sin - sin + cos ú
ë 2 2 2 2û
(x – 2 )2 + y2 £ 4 æ xö p x
y (x) = cot–1 ç tan ÷ = –
x2 + y2 £ 4 è 2ø 2 2
No. of points common in C1 & C2 is 5. -1
y' (x) =
(0, 0) , (1, 0) , (2, 0) , ( 1, 1), (1, –1) 2
Similarly in C2 & C3 is 5. 17. Two poles, AB of length a metres and CD of
length a + b (b ¹ a) metres are erected at the same
No. of relations = 25×5 = 225.
horizontal level with bases at B and D. If BD = x
15. The area of the region bounded by the parabola EN 1
(y–2)2 = (x–1), the tangent to it at the point whose and tan ACB = , then:
2
ordinate is 3 and the x-axis is : (1) x2 + 2(a + 2b)x – b(a + b) = 0
(1) 9 (2) 10 (3) 4 (4) 6 (2) x2 + 2(a + 2b)x + a(a + b) = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (3) x2 – 2ax + b(a + b) = 0
Sol. y = 3 Þ x = 2 (4) x2 – 2ax + a(a + b) = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Point is ( 2,3) C
LL

Diff. w.r.t x q
a b
2 ( y – 2) y' = 1
1 A
Þ y' =
2 ( y - 2)
Sol.

1
A

Þ y '( 2,3) =
2 a
y -3 1
Þ = Þ x - 2y + 4 = 0 a
x-2 2
D

ò (( y - 2) )
3
B
+ 1 - ( 2y - 4 ) dy
2 x
Area =
0 1
tan q =
= 9 sq. units 2
x x
tan (q + a) = , tan a =
(2,3) b a+b
1 x
Þ +
2 a+b
1 x
+
x
Þ 2 a+b = .
1 x b
(–4,0) (5,0 1- ´
2 a+b
Þ x2 – 2ax + ab + b2 = 0

5
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1 2 2 3 3 4 1
x
18. If 0 < x < 1 and y = x + x + x + ..., then Sol. I=ò dx
2 3 4
0
(1 + x ) (1 + 3x )( 3 + x )

1 Let x = t2 Þ dx = 2t.dt
the value of e1+y at x = is:
2 1
t ( 2t )
I=ò dt
(1)
1 2
e (2) 2e
( )(
0 t + 1 1 + 3t
2 2
)( 3 + t 2 )
2
1
( 3t 2 + 1) - ( t 2 + 1)
(3)
1
e (4) 2e2
ò
I=
( 2 )( 2 )( 2 )
0 3t + 1 t + 1 3 + t
dt
2
1 1
dt dt
Official Ans. by NTA (1) I=ò 2 -ò
( )(
0 t +1 3 + t
2
) 0 (1 + 3t )(3 + t 2 )
2

æ 1ö 2 æ 1ö 3
Sol. y = ç 1 - ÷ x + ç 1 - ÷ x + ..... 1 1 ( 3 + t 2 ) - ( t 2 + 1) 1 1 (1 + 3t 2 ) - 3 ( 3 + t 2 )
è 2ø è 3ø
2 ò0 ( t 2 + 1)( 3 + t 2 ) 8 ò0 (1 + 3t 2 )( 3 + t 2 )
= dt + dt

æ x 2 x3 x 4 ö
= ( x 2 + x 3 + x 4 + ....... ) - ç + + + .... ÷ 1 1 dt 1 1 dt 1 1 dt 3 1 dt
è 2 ø
2 ò0 1 + t 2 2 ò0 t 2 + 3 8 ò0 t 2 + 3 8 ò0 (1 + 3t 2 )
3 4 EN = - + -

x2 æ x 2 x2 ö
= + x - ç x + + + ... ÷ 1 1 dt 3 1 dt 3 1 dt
1- x è ø = ò 2
2 0 t + 1 8 ò0 t 2 + 3 8 ò0 1 + 3t 2
2 3 - -

x
= + ln (1 - x ) 1
1- x 1 3 æ -1 æ t ö ö
=( tan -1 ( t ) ) 0 -
1
ç tan ç ÷÷
LL
2 8 3è è 3 ø ø0
1
x= Þ y = 1 – ln2
2 3
( tan ( 3t ) )0
1
-1
-
8 3
1+y 1+1-ln2
e =e
1æpö 3 æpö 3æpö
A

= ç ÷- ç ÷- ç ÷
e2 2è4ø 8 è6ø 8 è3ø
= e 2 - ln 2=
2
p 3
= - p
1 8 16
x dx
19. The value of the integral ò (1 + x ) (1 + 3x )( 3 + x )
0 pæ 3ö
= ç1 - ÷
8è 2 ø
is:
20. If lim ( x 2 - x + 1 - ax ) = b , then the ordered
pæ 3ö pæ 3ö x ®¥
(1) ç 1 - ÷ (2) ç 1 - ÷
8è 2 ø 4è 6 ø pair (a, b) is:

pæ 3ö pæ 3ö æ 1ö æ 1ö
(1) ç 1, ÷ (2) ç 1, - ÷
(3) ç 1 - ÷ (4) ç 1 - ÷ è 2ø è 2ø
8è 6 ø 4è 2 ø
æ 1ö æ 1ö
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (3) ç -1, ÷ (4) ç -1, - ÷
è 2ø è 2ø
Official Ans. by NTA (2)]

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Sol. (2) 2. Let S be the mirror image of the point Q(1, 3, 4)
lim ( x 2 - x + 1 ) - ax = b (¥ - ¥ ) with respect to the plane 2x – y + z + 3 =0 and let
x ®¥

Þa>0 R (3, 5, g) be a point of this plane. Then the square

( x2 - x +1- a2x2 ) of the length of the line segment SR is
Now, lim = b
x ®¥
x - x + 1 + ax
2
__________.
(1 - a ) x - x + 1
2 2
Þ lim =b Official Ans. by NTA (72)
x ®¥
x 2 - x + 1 + ax
(1 - a 2 ) x 2 - x + 1 Sol. Since R (3,5,g) lies on the plane 2x – y + z + 3 = 0.
Þ lim =b
x ®¥ æ 1 1 ö Therefore, 6 – 5 + g + 3 = 0
x ç 1- + 2 + a ÷
è x x ø
Þg=–4
Þ 1 – a2 = 0 Þ a = 1
Now,
-x + 1
Now, lim = b F
x ®¥ æ 1 1 ö dr's of line QS
x ç 1- + 2 + a ÷
è x x ø are 2, –1,1 G
-1 1
Þ =bÞ b=- equation of line QS is
1+ a 2 EN x -1 y - 3 z - 4
æ 1ö = = = l (say)
(a,b) = ç 1, - ÷ 2 -1 1
è 2ø
SECTION-B Þ F(2l + 1, – l + 3, l + 4)

1. Let S be the sum of all solutions (in radians) of the F lies in the plane
equation sin q + cos q – sinq cosq = 0 in [0, 4p].
4 4
Þ 2(2l + 1) – (–l + 3) + (l + 4) + 3 = 0
LL

8S
Then is equal to ________. Þ4l +2+l–3+l +7=0
p
Þ 6 l + 6 = 0 Þ l = –1.
Official Ans. by NTA (56)
Þ F(–1,4,3)
Sol. Given equation
A

sin4 q + cos4 q – sin q cos q = 0 Since, F is mid-point of QS.

Þ 1 – sin2 q cos2 q – sin q cos q = 0 Therefore, co-ordinated of S are (–3,5,2).

Þ 2 – (sin 2q)2 – sin 2 q = 0 So, SR= 36 + 0 + 36= 72
Þ (sin 2q) + (sin 2q) – 2 = 0
2
SR2 = 72.
Þ (sin 2q + 2) (sin 2 q –1) = 0
3. The probability distribution of random variable X
Þ sin 2q = 1 or sin 2q = -2
( not possible ) is given by:
p 5p 9p 13p
Þ 2q = , , , X 1 2 3 4 5
2 2 2 2
p 5p 9p 13p
Þ q= , , , P(X) K 2K 2K 3K K
4 4 4 4
p 5p 9p 13p Let p = P(1 < X < 4 | X < 3). If 5p = lK, then l
Þ S= + + + = 7p
4 4 4 4
equal to ________.
8S 8 ´ 7 p
Þ = = 56.00
Official Ans. by NTA (30)
p p

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Sol. å P(X) = 1 Þ k + 2k + 2k + 3k + k = 1 Aliter :
1 Let z1 = x1 + iy1 ; z2 = x2 + iy2
Þk=
9 z1 – z2 = (x1 – x2) + i(y1 – y2)
2k p æ y -y ö p
kX < 4 ö P ( X = 2) \ arg (z1 – z2) = Þ tan -1 ç 1 2 ÷=4
Now, p= P æç 9k 2
÷ = ( = = 4 è x1 - x 2 ø
è X<3 ø P X < 3) k 2k 3
+
9k 9k y1 – y2 = x1 – x2 ______(1)
2 |z1 – 3| = Re(z1) Þ (x1 – 3)2 + y1 = x1 __ (2)
2 2
Þp=
3
|z2 – 3| = Re(z2) Þ (x2 – 3)2 + y2 = x2 __(2)
2 2

Now, 5p = lk
sub (2) & (3)
Þ (5) æç ö÷ = l (1 / 9 )
2
(x1 – 3)2 –(x2 – 3)2 + y1 – y2 = x1 – x2
2 2 2 2
è3ø
Þ l = 30 (x1 – x2) (x1 + x2 – 6) + (y1 – y2) (y1 + y2)
4. Let z1 and z2 be two complex numbers such that = (x1 – x2) (x1 + x2)
p x1 + x2 – 6 + y1 + y2 = x1 + x2 Þ y1 + y2 = 6.
arg (z1 – z2) = and z1, z2 satisfy the equation
4
5. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 9}. Then the number of
|z – 3| = Re(z). Then the imaginary part of z1 + z2 is
equal to _________. elements in the set T = {A Í S : A ¹ f and the sum
Official Ans. by NTA (6) of all the elements of A is not a multiple of 3} is
Sol. |z – 3| = Re(z) EN _________.
let Z = x = iy
Þ (x – 3)2 + y2 = x2 Official Ans. by NTA (80)
Þ x2 + 9 – 6x + y2 = x2 Sol. 3n type ® 3, 6, 9 = P
Þ y2 = 6x – 9 3n – 1 type ® 2, 5 = Q
Þ y = 6 æç x - ö÷
3
2
3n – 2 type ® 1,4 = R
è 2ø
LL
number of subset of S containing one element
Þ z1 and z2 lie on the parabola mentioned in eq.(1)
p which are not divisible by 3 = 2C1 + 2C1 = 4
arg(z1 – z2) =
4 number of subset of S containing two numbers
Þ Slope of PQ = 1. whose some is not divisible by 3
P (Z1) = 3 C1 ´ 2 C1 + 3 C1 ´ 2 C1 + 2 C2 + 2 C= 14
A

number of subsets containing 3 elements whose

sum is not divisible by 3
p/4 = 3 C2 ´ 4 C1 + ( 2 C2 ´ 2 C1 ) 2 + 3C1 ( 2 C2 + 2 C2 ) = 22
æ3 ö
ç , 0÷ number of subsets containing 4 elements whose
è2 ø
sum is not divisible by 3
= 3 C3 ´ 4 C1 + 3 C2 ( 2 C 2 + 2 C 2 ) + ( 3 C12 C1 ´ 2 C 2 ) 2
Q (Z2)
= 4 + 6 + 12 = 22.
æ3 3 ö æ3 3 ö number of subsets of S containing 5 elements
Let P ç + t12 ,3t 1 ÷ and Q ç + t 22 ,3t 2 ÷
è2 2 ø è2 2 ø
whose sum is not divisible by 3.
3 ( t 2 - t1 )
Slope of PQ =
3 2 2
= 1 = 3 C3 ( 2 C2 + 2 C2 ) + ( 3 C2 2 C1 ´ 2 C2 ) ´ 2 = 2 + 12 = 14
( t1 - t 1 )
2 number of subsets of S containing 6 elements
2
Þ =1 whose sum is not divisible by 3 = 4
t2 + t 2
Þ Total subsets of Set A whose sum of digits is
Þ t2 + t 1 = 2
Im(z1 + z2) = 3t1 + 3t2 = 3(t1 + t2) = 3 (2) not divisible by 3 = 4 + 14 + 22 + 22 + 14 + 4 = 80.
Ans. 6.00

8
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6. Let A (secq, 2tanq) and B (secf, 2tanf), where 8. 3 × 722 + 2 × 1022 – 44 when divided by 18 leaves
q + f = p/2, be two points on the hyperbola
2x2 – y2 = 2. If (a, b) is the point of the intersection the remainder __________.
of the normals to the hyperbola at A and B, then
Official Ans. by NTA (15)
(2b)2 is equal to ___________.
Official Ans. by NTA (36)
Sol. 3(1 + 6)22 + 2×(1 + 9)22 – 44 = (3 + 2 – 44) = 18 .I
ALLEN Ans. (Bonus)
Sol. Since, point A (sec q, 2 tan q) = –39 + 18.I
lies on the hyperbola
2x2 – y2 = 2 = (54 – 39) + 18(I – 3)
Therefore, 2 sec2 q – 4 tan2 q = 2 = 15 + 18 I1
Þ 2 + 2 tan2 q – 4 tan2 q = 2
Þ tan q = 0 Þ q = 0 Þ Remainder = 15.
Similarly, for point B, we will get f = 0.
p 9. An online exam is attempted by 50 candidates out
but according to question q + f =
2
which is not possible. of which 20 are boys. The average marks obtained
Hence it must be a 'BONUS'.
by boys is 12 with a variance 2. The variance of
7. Two circles each of radius 5 units touch each other EN
at the point (1, 2). If the equation of their common marks obtained by 30 girls is also 2. The average
tangent is 4x + 3y = 10, and C1(a, b) and C2 (g, d),
C1 ¹ C2 are their centres, then |(a + b) (g + d)| is marks of all 50 candidates is 15. If m is the average
equal to ___________.
Official Ans. by NTA (40) marks of girls and s2 is the variance of marks of 50
4
Sol. Slope of line joining centres of circles = = tan q candidates, then m + s2 is equal to _________.
LL
3

Official Ans. by NTA (25)

(a,b)
C1
Sol. s2b = 2 (variance of boys) n1 = no. of boys
A

(1,2) x b = 12 n2 = no. of girls

s2g = 2

(g,d) 50 ´15 - 12 ´ s b 750 – 12 ´ 20

xg = = = 17 = m
30 30
C2
variance of combined series
3 4
Þ cos q = ,sin q =
5 5 n 1s2b + n 2 sg2 n1 × n 2
( x b - xg )
2
Now using parametric form s2 = +
n1 + n 2 ( n1 + n 2 )
2

x -1 y - 2
= = ±5
cos q sin q
20 ´ 2 + 30 ´ 2 20 ´ 30
Å ( x, y ) = (1 + 5cos q,2 + 5sin q ) s2 = + (12 - 17 ) 2
20 + 30 ( 20 + 30 ) 2
( a, b) = (4,6)
Q ( x, y) = ( g, d ) = (1 - 5cos q, 2 - 5sin q ) s2 = 8.
( g,s ) = ( -2, -2)
Þ m + s2 = 17 + 8 = 25
Þ |(a + b) (g + d)| = |10x – 4| = 40

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2e x + 3e - x 1
10. If ò -x
dx= (ux + v loge(4ex + 7e–x))+ C,
4e + 7e
x
14
where C is a constant of integration, then u + v is
equal to __________.
Official Ans. by NTA (7)
2e x e-x
Sol. ò 4e x
+ 7e -x
dx + 3ò x
4e + 7e - x
dx

2e 2x e -2 x
=ò dx + 3ò dx
4e + 7
2x
4 + 7e -2 x
Let 4e2x + 7 = T Let 4 + 7e–2x = t
8 e2x dx = dT –14 e–2x dx = dt
dT dt
2e 2x dx = e -2x dx = -
4 14
dT 3 dt
ò 4T - 14 ò t

1 3
= log T - log t + C

=
4
1
14
3
log(4e 2x + 7) - log ( 4 + 7e -2x ) + C
EN
4 14
1 é1 13 ù
= log ( 4e x + 7e - x ) + x ú + C
14 êë 2 2 û
LL
13 1
u= ,v = Þ u + v = 7
2 2
Aliter :
2ex + 3e–x = A (4ex + 7e–x) + B(4ex – 7e–x) + l
2 = 4A + 4B ; 3 = 7A – 7B ; l=0
A

1
A+B=
2
3
A-B =
7

1 æ 1 3 ö 7 + 6 13
A= ç + ÷= =
2è2 7ø 28 28
3 13 3 13 - 12 1
B=A- = - = =
7 28 7 28 28

13 1 4e x - 7e - x
ò 28 28 ò 4e x + 7e- x dx
dx +

13 1
x + ln | 4e x + 7e - x | +C
28 28
13 1
u= ;v =
2 2
Þ u+v=7

10
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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A A A·B
Sol. B
1. A helicopter is flying horizontally with a speed 'v'
at an altitude 'h' has to drop a food packet for a Y
man on the ground. What is the distance of
A+B
helicopter from the man when the food packet is
dropped? Y   A  B   A  B
2
2ghv  1
(1) (2) 2ghv2  h 2 Y  0,0  1
h2
2v 2 h 2gh Y  0,1  1
(3)  h2 (4) 2
 h2
g v
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Y 1,0  1
helicopter
Y 1,1  0
v EN Option (3) is correct
3. Two particles A and B having charges 20 C and
h D
Sol. –5 C respectively are held fixed with a separation
of 5 cm. At what position a third charged particle
should be placed so that it does not experience a
LL
Man
R net electric force?
2h
R v 20C –5C
g 5 cm
A B
D R h 2 2
A

(1) At 5 cm from 20 C on the left side of system

2
 2h  (2) At 5 cm from – 5 C on the right side
   v   h 2
 g  (3) At 1.25 cm from – 5 C between two charges
(4) At midpoint between two charges
2hv2
D  h2 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
g
Option (3) is correct Sol. 20C –5C
2. In the following logic circuit the sequence of the
inputs A, B are (0, 0), (0,1), (1, 0) and (1, 1). The Null point is possible only right side of –5µC
output Y for this sequence will be : 20µC –5µC N
A x
B P
Y k  5C  k  20C 
Q EN    0
5  x 
2
x2
(1) 1, 0, 1, 0 (2) 0, 1, 0, 1
x = 5 cm
(3) 1, 1, 1, 0 (4) 0, 0, 1, 1
Official Ans. by NTA (3)  option (2) is correct

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 1 Sol.
4. A reversible engine has an efficiency of . If the
4
temperature of the sink is reduced by 58°C, its f

efficiency becomes double. Calculate the

temperature of the sink : U=–f

(1) 174°C (2) 280°C 1 1 1 1 2

   
(3) 180.4°C (4) 382°C
V U f V f

Official Ans. by NTA (1) f

V
2
Official Ans. by ALLEN (Bonus)
Sol. T2 = sink temperature V 1
m 
U 2
T2
  1 f
T1 distance =
2
1 T
 1 2 Option (3)
4 T1
6. A sample of a radioactive nucleus A disintegrates
T2 3 to another radioactive nucleus B, which in turn
 … (i)
T1 4
1 T  58
EN disintegrates to some other stable nucleus C. Plot
of a graph showing the variation of number of
 1 2
2 T1 atoms of nucleus B vesus time is :
T2 58 1 (Assume that at t = 0, there are no B atoms in the
 
T1 T1 2
LL
sample)

3 58 1
  No. of atoms
No. of atoms

4 T1 2
(1) (2)
1 58
  T1  232
A

4 T1 time time
3
T2   232
No. of atoms
No. of atoms

4
T2 = 174 K (3) (4)
5. An object is placed at the focus of concave lens
having focal length f. What is the magnification time time

and distance of the image from the optical centre Official Ans. by NTA (2)
of the lens? Sol. A B C (stable)
(1) 1,  (2) Very high,  Initially no. of atoms of B = 0 after t = 0, no. of
1 f 1 f atoms of B will starts increasing & reaches
(3) , (4) ,
2 2 4 4 maximum value when rate of decay of B = rate of
Official Ans. by NTA (3) formation of B.
After that maximum value, no. of atoms will starts
decreasing as growth & decay both are exponential
functions, so best possible graph is (2)
Option (2)
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7. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form MV1
V2  , V0  2V1 cos 
of a spiral with inner and outer radii 'a' and 'b' m
respectively. Find the magnetic field at centre,
From energy conservation
when a current I passes through coil :
0 IN  I a  b
1 1 1
(1)
b
loge   (2) 0  MV02  MV12  MV22
2(b  a) a 8  a  b  2 2 2

0 I  1 1  0 I  a  b  Substituting value of V2 & V0, we will get

(3)  (4)
4(a  b)  a b  8  a  b  M
 1  4 cos 2   4
Official Ans. by NTA (1) m
i M
3
m
Sol.
a Option (3)
9. The masses and radii of the earth and moon are
b
(M1, R1) and (M2, R2) respectively. Their centres
N
No. of turns in dx width = dx are at a distance 'r' apart. Find the minimum escape
ba
b
velocity for a particle of mass 'm' to be projected
 N  i
 dB  a  b  a  dx 2x0
EN from the middle of these two masses:

1 4G (M1  M2 )
N 0i b (1) V 
B n  2 r
2b  a   a 
Option (1) 4G(M1  M2 )
(2) V 
r
LL
8. A body of mass M moving at speed V0 collides
elastically with a mass 'm' at rest. After the 1 2G (M1  M 2 )
(3) V 
collision, the two masses move at angles 1 and 2 2 r
with respect to the initial direction of motion of the
2G (M1  M2 )
body of mass M. The largest possible value of the (4) V 
A

r
ratio M/m, for which the angles 1 and 2 will be
equal, is : Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(1) 4 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 2 M1R1 M2R2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
V1 Sol.
V0 1
M M r/2
Sol. m  r
V=0 m
2
V2 1 GM1m GM 2 m
mV 2   0
2 r/2 r/2
given 1 = 2 = 
1 2Gm
from momentum conservation mV 2   M1  M 2 
2 r
in x-direction MV0  MV1 cos   mV2 cos 
in y-direction 0  MV1 sin   mV2 sin  4G  M1  M2 
V
Solving above equations r
Option (2)

3
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10. A small square loop of side 'a' and one turn is V
placed inside a larger square loop of side b and one
turn (b >> a). The two loops are coplanar with their +3
(3) t
centres coinciding. If a current I is passed in the –3
square loop of side 'b', then the coefficient of
mutual inductance between the two loops is :
0 a2 0 8 2 V
(1) 8 2 (2)
4 b 4 a
+3
 b2  8 2 (4) t
(3) 0 8 2 (4) 0 –3
4 a 4 b
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. b Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by ALLEN (1)
a
I Sol. When Vi > 3 volt, VR > 0
Because diode will be in forward biased state
When Vi  3volt ; VR = 0
 I 
B 0
 4 b / 2
 I
 2sin 45  4

EN 12.
Because diode will be in reverse biased state.
A uniform heavy rod of weight 10 kg ms–2, cross-
  2 2 0  a2 sectional area 100 cm2 and length 20 cm is hanging
 b
from a fixed support. Young modulus of the
 2 20a 2 0 a2
M    8 2 material of the rod is 2 × 1011 Nm–2. Neglecting the
I b 4 b
LL

Option (1) lateral contraction, find the elongation of rod due

11. Choose the correct waveform that can represent the to its own weight.
voltage across R of the following circuit, assuming
the diode is ideal one: (1) 2 × 10–9 m (2) 5 × 10–8 m
D (3) 4 × 10–8 m (4) 5 × 10–10 m
A

Official Ans. by NTA (4)

R Sol.
Vi=10 sint ~
+
– 3V

+3
(1) t
–3 We know,
WL
 
2AY
V
10 1
   100  104  2  1011
+3 25
(2) t
–3 1
   109  5  10 10 m
2
Option (4)

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13. Two plane mirrors M1 and M2 are at right angle to Sol. torque   ML2T2 (III)
each other shown. A point source 'P' is placed at 'a'
and '2a' meter away from M1 and M2 respectively. Impulse I  MLT1 (I)
The shortest distance between the images thus Tension force  MLT2 (IV)
formed is : (Take 5 = 2.3)
Surface tension  MT 2 (II)
a P
Option (1)
M1 15. For an ideal gas the instantaneous change in
2a
pressure 'p' with volume 'v' is given by the
dp
M2 equation = –ap. If p = p0 at v = 0 is the given
dv
boundary condition, then the maximum
(1) 3a (2) 4.6 a
temperature one mole of gas can attain is :
(3) 2.3 a (4) 2 10 a
(Here R is the gas constant)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
p0 ap 0
a (1) (2)
I2 a aeR eR
(3) infinity (4) 0ºC
Sol. 2a
2a
EN Official Ans. by NTA (1)
p
dp
v

M2 Sol. p P  a 0 dv
0
2a 2a
a
 p
a n    av
LL
I3 I1
 p0 
Shortest distance is 2a between I1 & I3 p  p 0 e  av
But answer given is for I1 & I2
For temperature maximum p-v product should be
 4a    2a 
2 2
maximum
A

pv p0 ve av
a 20 T 
nR R
4.47 a
dT p
Option (2)  0  0 e  av  ve  av  a 
dv R
14. Match List-I with List-II.
p0e av
List-I List-II 1  av  0
(a) Torque (i) MLT–1 R
(b) Impulse (ii) MT–2 1
v  ,
(c) Tension (iii) ML2T–2 a
(d) Surface Tension (iv) MLT–2
p 01 p
Choose the most appropriate answer from the T  0
option given below : Rae Rae
(1) (a)–(iii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii) at v = 
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(i), (c)–(iv), (d)–(iii)
T=0
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(ii)
(4) (a)–(iii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(i), (d)–(ii) Option (1)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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16. Which of the following equations is dimensionally Sol. v
incorrect ?
Where t = time, h = height, s = surface tension,
 = angle,  = density, a, r = radius, g = acceleration
L  mvr
due to gravity, v = volume , p = pressure, W = work
done,  = torque, = permittivity, E = electric field, And direction will be upward & remain constant

J = current density, L = length. Option (2)

18. In an ac circuit, an inductor, a capacitor and a
 pa 4 2scos 
(1) v = (2) h =
8L r g resistor are connected in series with XL = R = XC.

E Impedance of this circuit is :

(3) J =  (4) W = 
t (1) 2R2 (2) Zero
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (3) R (4) R 2
pa 4 dv Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. (i)  = Volumetric flow rate
8L dt
 X L  XC 
2
EN Sol. Z  R2 = R XL  XC
(poiseuille’s law)
Option (3)
2s
(ii) hg  cos  19. A moving proton and electron have the same de-
r
Broglie wavelength. If K and P denote the K.E.
1 a 1 q 1
(iii) RHS       2 and momentum respectively. Then choose the
40 r 2  t r
LL

correct option :
I
 2  IL2 (1) Kp < Ke and Pp = Pe
L
(2) Kp = Ke and Pp = Pe
LHS
(3) Kp < Ke and Pp < Pe
A

I
T   IL2 (4) Kp > Ke and Pp = Pe
A
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(iv) W = 
h h
Sol. P  e 
Option (1) PP Pe
17. Angular momentum of a single particle moving
P  e
with constant speed along circular path :
 PP  Pe
(1) changes in magnitude but remains same in the
PP2
direction  K P 
2m P
(2) remains same in magnitude and direction
Pe2
(3) remains same in magnitude but changes in the  K e 
2m e
direction
(4) is zero KP < Ke as mP > me

Official Ans. by NTA (2) Option (1)

6
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20. Consider a galvanometer shunted with 5 2. A particle of mass 1 kg is hanging from a spring of
force constant 100 Nm–1. The mass is pulled
resistance and 2% of current passes through it.
slightly downward and released so that it executes
What is the resistance of the given galvanometer ? free simple harmonic motion with time period T.
The time when the kinetic energy and potential
(1) 300  (2) 344 
T
energy of the system will become equal, is .The
(3) 245  (4) 226  x
value of x is ________.
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Official Ans. by NTA (8)
i 0.02i
G
Sol.
0.98i
Sol. k=100N/m

5
1kg
0.02i Rg = 0.98i × 5
KE = PE
Rg = 245 
A
y  A sin t
Option (3)

SECTION-B
EN 2

1. When a rubber ball is taken to a depth of

__________m in deep sea, its volume decreases by

LL
45°
0.5%. A°

(The bulk modulus of rubber = 9.8 × 108 Nm–2

Density of sea water = 103 kgm–3 T T

t 
A

8 x
g = 9.8 m/s2)
x=8
Official Ans. by NTA (500) 3. If the sum of the heights of transmitting and
receiving antennas in the line of sight of
P gh
Sol. B  communication is fixed at 160 m, then the
 V   V 
    maximum range of LOS communication is
 V   V 
_____km.
V (Take radius of Earth = 6400 km)
B
 V h Official Ans. by NTA (64)
g
Sol. hT = hR = 160 … (i)

9.8 108  0.5 d  2Rh T  2Rh R

h
100 103  9.8
d  2R  h T  h R 
h = 500
d  2R  x  160  x 

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 d d  n  1 V  500
0 … (ii)
dx 2
V
1 1 1 (ii) (i)  50
 0 2
2 x 2 160  x
1000
  10
1 1 2  50

x 160  x
6. The voltage drop across 15 resistance in the
x = 80 m
given figure will be______V.
 80 20  4 15
d max  2  6400    2
 1000 1000 
4 10
80 2  2 80
 8 12
10 10

 8  2  2  2 2 = 64 km 8 12
4. A square shaped wire with resistance of each side
3 is bent to form a complete circle. The EN 12 V 1
resistance between two diametrically opposite
points of the circle in unit of  will be ______.
Official Ans. by NTA (6)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 2
4 15
2
3
4 10
LL

3 3
6 6 8 12
Sol.
Sol.
8 12
3
A

12 V 1
Req = 3
5. A wire having a linear mass density 9.0 × 10–4 kg/m
is stretched between two rigid supports with a
tension of 900 N. The wire resonates at a  effective circuit diagram will be
frequency of 500 Hz. The next higher frequency at 4 6
which the same wire resonates is 550 Hz. The
length of the wire is ______m. i=1A
10
Official Ans. by NTA (10)
i=1A
kg
Sol.   9.0  104
m
T = 900 N i0=2 1
12V
T 900
V   1000m / s
 9 104
f1 = 500 Hz
f = 550
nV
 500 …. (i)
2

8
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   
4 A 6 Sol. E  50sin  t  .x 
 c 

10 1
Energy density = 0 E 20
2

1
Energy for volume V = 0 E 20 .V = 5.5 × 10–12
1 2
A 15 B 1
4 A 8.8  10 12  2500V  5.5  10 12
B 2
10
5.5  2
10 V  .0005m3
2500  8.8

= .0005 × 106 (c.m)3

1 = 500 (c.m)3

Point drop across 6 = 1 × 6 = 6 = VAB 9. A capacitor of 50 F is connected in a circuit as

 Hence point drop across 15 = 6 volt = VAB
shown in figure. The charge on the upper plate of
7. A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface EN
with a speed of 40 ms–1 splits into two equal parts. the capacitor is__________C.
If one of the parts moves at 60 ms–1 in the same
direction, then the fractional change in the kinetic
energy will be x : 4 where x =__________. 6V 2 k
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
2 k
Sol.
LL

40m/s v 60m/s
m  m/2 m/2 2 k
C = 50 F
Pi = Pf
m m
m × 40 =  v   60
A

2 2
v Official Ans. by NTA (100)
40   30
2
 v = 20 C
1
(K.E.)I = m   40   800m
2

2
1m 1 m
.  20   .  60  = 1000 m
2 2
(K.E.)f = 2k 2k 2k
2 2 2 2 Sol. i0
K.E.  1000m  800m  200m
K.E 200m 1 x
   i0= 1 mA 6V
 K.E.i 800m 4 4
x=1
8. The electric field in an electromagnetic wave is Pot. Diff. across each resistor = 2V
given by E = (50 NC–1) sin (t–x/c)
q = CV
The energy contained in a cylinder of volume V is
5.5 × 10–12 J. The value of V is __________cm3.
= 50 × 10–6 × 2 = 100 × 10–6 = 100 µC
 given  8.8 10
0
–12 2
CN m–1 –2

Official Ans. by NTA (500)
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10. A car is moving on a plane inclined at 30º to the
horizontal with an acceleration of 10 ms–2 parallel
to the plane upward. A bob is suspended by a
string from the roof of the car.The angle in degrees
which the string makes with the vertical is______.
(Take g = 10 ms–2)
Official Ans. by NTA (30)

a = 10

mgsin30° 
30°

Sol. ma
mgcos30°
30°

mgsin30  ma
tan  30   
mgcos30

tan  30    

1
5  10
5 3

1 2
3
EN
tan  
3  3
1
1 tan 
3
LL

3 tan   1  3  3 tan 
2 3 tan   2
1
tan  
3
A

 = 30°

10
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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A
T2 T1
1. The correct order of reactivity of the given
(1) T1 (2) T2
chlorides with acetate in acetic acid is :
P P
CH3
Cl Cl Cl CH3 CH2Cl
(1) > > > T1
T2
CH3 (3) (4) T1
T2

P P
CH3
CH2Cl Cl Cl Cl CH3
(2) > > > Official Ans. by NTA (4)

CH3 x  1 
Sol.  P1/ n  0   1 
EN m  n 
CH3
Cl CH2Cl Cl CH Cl
(3) > > > x
On Increasing temperature decreases.
m
CH3

 adsorption is generally exothermic

CH3
Cl Cl CH2Cl Cl CH3
LL
(4) > > > x/m
T2
CH3 T1 (T1 > T2)

Official Ans. by NTA (1) P

3. The major component/ingredient of Portland

A

Sol. As it is example of SN1.

Cement is :
so carbocation stability , reaction rate 
(1) tricalcium aluminate
CH3 (2) tricalcium silicate
Cl Cl Cl CH3 CH2 – Cl
> > > (3) dicalcium aluminate
(4) dicalcium silicate
+ + +
> > >
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. Major component of portland cement is

"Tricalcium silicate (51% , 3CaO.SiO2)
2. Select the graph that correctly describes the
4. In the structure of the dichromate ion, there is a :
adsorption isotherms at two temperatures T1 and T2
(1) linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
(T1 > T2) for a gas : (2) non-linear symmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
(x – mass of the gas adsorbed ; m – mass of (3) linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
adsorbent ; P – pressure) (4) non-linear unsymmetrical Cr–O–Cr bond.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

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Sol. O O Sol. Ytterbium shows +2 oxidation state with
Cr Cr diamagnetic nature
–
O O O–
O O
So ans is 2
dichromate ion contain non-linear symmetrical 8. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Cr–O–Cr Bond Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
5. Which one of the following compounds contains Reason (R).
-C1-C4 glycosidic linkage ? Assertion (A) : Aluminium is extracted from
(1) Lactose (2) Sucrose bauxite by the electrolysis of molten mixture of
(3) Maltose (4) Amylose Al2O3 with cryolite.
Reason (R) : The oxidation state of Al in cryolite
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
is +3.
Sol. In Lactose it is  C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage. In the light of the above statements, choose the
In Maltose, Amylose  C1 – C4 glycosidic linkage most appropriate answer from the options given
is present below :
6. The major products A and B in the following set of (1) (A) is true but (R) is false
reactions are : (2) (A) is false but (R) is true.

A 
LiAlH4
H O

3
OH

CN

H3O
H2SO4

B
EN (3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A)
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
OH OH correct explanation of (A)
(1) A = ,B= Official Ans. by NTA (4)
OH CHO
LL
Sol. (A) Aluminium is reactive metal so Aluminium is
OH OH
extracted by electrolysis of Alumina with molten
(2) A = ,B= mixture of Cryolite
CHO CO2H
OH (B) Cryolite, Na3AlF6
A

(3) A = ,B= COOH Here Al is in +3 O.S.

NH2
So Answer is 4
OH OH
9. The major product formed in the following
(4) A = ,B= reaction is :
NH2 CHO
CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 
conc.H 2SO 4
Major product
a few drops
CH3—C——CH—CH3
OH OH OH
Sol. LiAlH4 H3O+
H3O+ CH3 OH
CH2 – NH2 CN C–OH
O CH3—C==CH—CH2CH3
H2SO4 (1)
CH3
CO2H
CH3 CH3
7. Which one of the following lanthanides exhibits +2
oxidation state with diamagnetic nature ? (2)
(Given Z for Nd = 60, Yb = 70, La = 57, Ce =58) H3C CH3
(1) Nd (2) Yb (3) La (4) Ce
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

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 CH3 Reason (R) : Attack of water on bromonium ion
(3)
C==CH—CH3 follows Markovnikov rule and results in
CH3
1-bromopropan-2-ol.
CH3
In the light of the above statements, choose the
CH3—C——CH==CH2
(4) most appropriate answer from the options given
CH3
below :
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (1) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is NOT the
CH3 CH3 correct explanation of (A)
H+
CH3—C——CH—CH3 H3C—C——CH+—CH3
few drops (2) (A) is false but (R) is true.
Sol. CH3 OH CH3
1, 2, shift of CH3
(3) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct
H3C + CH3
C—CH explanation of (A)
H3C
–H + CH3
H3C CH3
(4) (A) is true but (R) is false
H3C C =C
CH3
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
10. Monomer of Novolac is :
OH
(1) 3-Hydroxybutanoic acid Sol. CH3–CH = CH2 Br2 CH3–CH–CH2 CH3–CH–CH2Br
(2) phenol and melamine H2O
(3) o-Hydroxymethylphenol
(4) 1,3-Butadiene and styrene
EN Br
+ M. Rule

Official Ans. by NTA (3) Its IUPAC name 1-bromopropan–2-ol

Sol. Monomer of Novolac is A and R are true and (R) is the correct explanation
CH2OH of (A)
LL
O-hydroxy methyl phenol
13. The denticity of an organic ligand, biuret is :
11. Given below are two statements :
Statement-I : The process of producing syn-gas is (1) 2 (2) 4
called gasification of coal. (3) 3 (4) 6
Statement-II : The composition of syn-gas is
A

CO + CO2 + H2 (1 : 1 : 1) Official Ans. by NTA (1)

In the light of the above statements, choose the O O
most appropriate answer from the options given Sol. NH –C–NH–C–NH
2 2

below :
(1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true M
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false Biuret :- Bidentate ligand
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
The denticity of organic ligand is 2.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 14. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
Sol. The process of producing syn-gas from coal is Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
called gasification of coal. (R).

Syn-gas having composition of CO & H2 in 1 : 1 Assertion (A) : Metallic character decreases and
12. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as non-metallic character increases on moving from
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R). left to right in a period.

Assertion (A) : Treatment of bromine water with

propene yields 1-bromopropan-2-ol.
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 Reason (R) : It is due to increase in ionisation 16. Which one of the following is the correct PV vs P
enthalpy and decrease in electron gain enthalpy, plot at constant temperature for an ideal gas ? (P
when one moves from left to right in a period. and V stand for pressure and volume of the gas
respectively)
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given PV PV
(1) (2)
below :

(1) (A) is false but (R) is true. P P

(2) (A) is true but (R) is false

PV PV
(3) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the (3) (4)
correct explanation of (A)
P P
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
correct explanation of (A)

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. PV = nRT (n,T constant)
Sol. From left to right in periodic table :-

Metallic character decreases

EN PV = constant

Non-metallic character increases PV

 It is due to increase in ionization enthalpy and

increase in electron gain enthalpy. P
LL

15. Choose the correct name for compound given 17. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
below : Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R) :

Assertion (A) : A simple distillation can be used

Br
A

to separate a mixture of propanol and propanone.

Reason (R) : Two liquids with a difference of
(1) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-4-en-2-yne more than 20°C in their boiling points can be
(2) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-4-yn-2-ene separated by simple distillations.
(3) (2E)-2-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne In the light of the above statements, choose the
(4) (4E)-5-Bromo-hex-2-en-4-yne most appropriate answer from the options given
Official Ans. by NTA (3) below :

(l.p) (1) (A) is false but (R) is true.

2
(2) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Sol. Br (h.p)
5
correct explanation of (A)
4 (II)
(h.p) (3) (A) is true but (R) is false
(l.p)

h.p.  higher priority (4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
l.p.  lower priority correct explanation of (A)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2E –2- bromo hex –2- en–4-yne

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Sol. Both assertion & reason are correct & (R) is the CH2–CH2CN
(4)
correct explanation of (A)
18. Which one of the following 0.10 M aqueous
solutions will exhibit the largest freezing point Official Ans. by NTA (1)
depression ? C–CH3
Sol. CH3–C–OH + SOCl2  CH3–C–Cl
O
(1) hydrazine (2) glucose O O
(A) (B)
(3) glycine (4) KHSO4
Official Ans. by NTA (4) CH3
C–CN
18.  Van't Hoff factor is highest for KHSO4 B + KCN
+OH– OH

 colligative property (Tf) will be highest for SECTION-B

KHSO4 1. Consider the following cell reaction :

9 9
Cd(s)+Hg2SO4(s)+ H 2 O( l ) CdSO4 . H 2O( s )  2Hg( l )
19. BOD values (in ppm) for clean water (A) and 5 5
polluted water (B) are expected respectively : 0
The value of E cell is 4.315 V at 25°C. If
(1) A > 50, B < 27 (2) A > 25, B < 17
H° = –825.2 kJ mol–1, the standard entropy
(3) A < 5, B > 17
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(4) A > 15, B > 47
EN change S° in J K–1 is ______. (Nearest integer)
[Given : Faraday constant = 96487 C mol–1]
Sol. BOD values of clean water (A) is less than 5 ppm Official Ans. by NTA (25)
So A<5 Sol. G o  nFEo  Ho  TSo
Ho  nFEo
BOD values of polluted water (B is greater than 17 
LL
T
ppm

So B > 17 
 825.2  10    2  96487  4.315
3

298
So Ans. is 3
20. The structure of product C, formed by the 825.2  10 3  832.682  10 3
A


following sequence of reactions is : 298
CH3COOH+SOCl2 A 
Benzene
AlCl
B 
KCN
 OH
C
3
7.483  10 3
NC OH   25.11 JK 1mol 1
298
(1) CH3  Nearest integer answer is 25
2. The molarity of the solution prepared by dissolving
6.3 g of oxalic acid (H2C2O4.2H2O) in 250 mL of
O
water in mol L–1 is x × 10–2. The value of x is
CH3 ________. (Nearest integer)
(2) [Atomic mass : H : 1.0, C : 12.0, O : 16.0]
Official Ans. by NTA (20)
CN
weight/M W
H COOH Sol. [H2C2O4.2H2O] =
C VL
(3) CH3
6.3 / 126
 x × 10–2 =
250 / 1000
x = 20

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3. Consider the sulphides HgS, PbS, CuS, Sb2S3, 6. For a first order reaction, the ratio of the time for
As2S3 and CdS. Number of these sulphides soluble 75% completion of a reaction to the time for 50%
in 50% HNO3 is ________. completion is _______. (Integer answer)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Pbs, CuS, As2S3, CdS are soluble in 50% HNO3
2.303 a
Sol. k log
HgS, Sb2S3 are insoluble in 50% HNO3 t ax
So Answer is 4. 2.303 100 2.303 100
log  log
4. The total number of reagents from those given t 50% 100  50 t 75% 100  75
below, that can convert nitrobenzene into aniline is
t75% = 2 t50%
______. (Integer answer)
7. The number of hydrogen bonded water molecule(s)
I. Sn – HCl
associated with stoichiometry CuSO4.5H2O is
II. Sn – NH4OH
_______.
III. Fe – HCl
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
IV. Zn – HCl
V. H2 – Pd H H
Sol. O–
VI. H2 – Raney Nickel H O
H O O H
Official Ans. by NTA (5) S
O
Cu2+
Sol. NO2 NH2

Reagents used can be

EN H O O
H
H O–
O

H H

(i) Sn + HCl One hydrogen bonded H2O molecule

(ii) Fe + HCl 8. According to the following figure, the magnitude
LL

of the enthalpy change of the reaction

(iii) Zn + HCl
A + B  M + N in kJ mol–1
(iv) H2 – Pd is equal to _________. (Integer answer)
–

(v) H2 (Raney Ni) x

A

5. The number of halogen/(s) forming halic (V) acid A+B x=20 kJ mol–1
y=45 kJ mol–1
is __________.
y z=15 kJ mol–1
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
M+N
Energy

Sol. The number of halogen forming halic (V) acid

z
HClO3
Reaction Coordinate
HBrO3
Official Ans. by NTA (45)
HIO3

So Answer is 3

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Sol. 10. A3B2 is a sparingly soluble salt of molar mass
x M (g mol–1) and solubility x g L–1 . The solubility
A+B x=20 kJ mol–1
5
y=45 kJ mol–1  x
product satisfies Ksp = a   . The value of a is
y z=15 kJ mol–1 M
M+N ________. (Integer answer)
Energy

Official Ans. by NTA (108)

z
Sol. A3B2 (s)  3A ( aq2 ) + 2B( aq3 )
Reaction Coordinate
3s 2s
H  E af  E a b
KSP = (3s)3 (2s)2
= 20 – 65 5
KSP = 108 S & s = (X/M)
= – 45 KJ/ mol 5
x
K SP  108  
|H| = 45 KJ/mol m
9. Ge(Z = 32) in its ground state electronic 5

configuration has x completely filled orbitals with x

given KSP = a  
ml = 0. The value of x is _______.
EN m
Official Ans. by NTA (7) comparing a = 108
Sol.

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s 3p6 4s2 3d10 4p2

LL
m = 0 0 –1 0 +1 0 –1 0 +1 0 –2 –1 0 +1 +2
(1) (1) (1) (1) (1) (1) (1)

Completely filled orbital with m = 0 are

= 1+1+1+1+1+1+1
A

=7

So Answer is 7

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 9 : 00 AM to 12 : 00 NOON

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. The sum of 10 terms of the series
1. Let *, Î {Ù, Ú} be such that the Boolean 3
+
5
+
7
+ .... is :
2 2 2 2
1 ´2 2 ´3 3 ´ 42
2

expression (p * ~q) Þ (p q) is a tautology. Then :

120
(1) 1 (2)
121
(1) * = Ú, =Ú (2) * = Ù, =Ù
99 143
(3) (4)
(3) * = Ù, =Ú (4) * = Ú, =Ù 100 144
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
2 2 - 12 32 - 2 2 42 - 32
Sol. S= + + + ...
Sol. (p Ù ~q) ® (p Ú q) is tautology 12 ´ 22 22 ´ 32 32 ´ 4 2

p q ~ q pÙ ~ q p Ú q ( pÙ ~ q ) ® ( p Ú q ) é1 1 ù é1 1ù é1 1ù é 1 1 ù
= ê 2 - 2 ú + ê 2 - 2 ú + ê 2 - 2 ú + ... + ê 2 - 2 ú
T T F F T T ë1 2 û ë 2 3 û ë3 4 û ë 10 11 û

T F
F T
F F
T
F
T
T
F
F
T
T
F
T
T
T
EN =1-

120
1
121

=
121
2. The number of real roots of the equation
4. Let the equation of the plane, that passes through
e4x + 2e3x – ex – 6 = 0 is : the point (1, 4, –3) and contains the line of
LL

(1) 2 (2) 4 intersection of the planes 3x – 2y + 4z – 7 = 0 and

(3) 1 (4) 0 x + 5y – 2z + 9 = 0, be ax + by + gz + 3 = 0, then
a + b + g is equal to :
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(1) –23 (2) – 15
A

Sol. Let ex = t > 0

(3) 23 (4) 15
4 3
ƒ(t) = t + 2t – t – 6 = 0 Official Ans. by NTA (1)
ƒ'(t) = 4t3 + 6t2 – 1 Sol. Equation of plane is

– + 3x – 2y + 4z – 7 + l(x + 5y – 2z + 9) = 0
0 a 1 (3 + l)x + (5l – 2)y + (4 – 2l)z + 9l – 7 = 0
passing through (1, 4, –3)
ƒ"(t) = 12t2 + 12t > 0
Þ 3 + l + 20 l – 8 – 12 + 6 l + 9l – 7 = 0
2
Þl=
3
0 a 1
2 Þ equation of plane is
–4
–6 –11x – 4y – 8z + 3 = 0
Þ a + b + g = –23
ƒ(0) = –6, ƒ(1) = –4, ƒ(2) = 24

Þ Number of real roots = 1

1
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
5. Let f be a non–negative function in [0, 1] and twice r r2
40 - 3 b = b
differentiable in (0, 1). If ò x 1 - ( f ' ( t ) )2 dt = ò x f ( t ) dt,
0 0 r2 r
Þ b + 3 b - 40 = 0
1 x
0 £ x £ 1 and f(0) = 0, then lim ò f ( t ) dt :
x® 0 x 2 0 r r
b = -8 , b =5
(1) equals 0 (2) equals 1
1 (rejected)
(3) does not exist (4) equals
2 7. The function f(x) = x 2 - 2x - 3 · e 9x
2
-12x + 4
is not
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
differentiable at exactly :
x x
1 - ( ƒ ' ( t ) ) dt = ò ƒ ( t ) dt 0 £ x £ 1
2
Sol. ò
0 0
(1) four points (2) three points
(3) two points (4) one point
differentiating both the sides
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
1 - ( ƒ '( x)) = ƒ ( x )
2
Sol. ƒ(x) = |(x – 3) (x + 1)| . e( 3x -2 )
2

Þ 1 – (ƒ'(x))2 = ƒ2(x) ì( x - 3)( x + 1) .e (3x - 2 )

2
; x Î ( 3, ¥ )
ï
ƒ '( x ) ï
ƒ ( x ) = í - ( x - 3 )( x + 1) .e( )
3x - 2
2
; x Î [ -1,3]
=1
1- ƒ (x) ï
–1
2

sin ƒ(x) = x + C
EN ïî( x - 3) . ( x + 1) .e
( 3x - 2 )2

Clearly, non-differentiable at x = –1 & x = 3.

; x Î ( – ¥, -1)

Q ƒ(0) = 0 Þ C = 0 Þ ƒ(x) = sinx

8. Three numbers are in an increasing geometric
x progression with common ratio r. If the middle
ò sin t dt
LL
æ0ö 1 number is doubled, then the new numbers are in an
ç =
0
Now lim 2 ÷
x ®0 x è0ø 2 arithmetic progression with common difference d.
r r
6. Let a and b be two vectors such that If the fourth term of GP is 3 r2, then r2 – d is equal
r r r r r r to :
2a + 3b = 3a + b and the angle between a and b
A

r (1) 7 – 7 3 (2) 7 + 3
1r
is 60°. If a is a unit vector, then b is equal to :
8 (3) 7 – 3 (4) 7 + 3 3
(1) 4 (2) 6 Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(3) 5 (4) 8 a
Sol. Let numbers be , a, ar ® G.P
Official Ans. by NTA (3) r
r r2 r r2 a a 1
Sol. 3a + b = 2a + 3b , 2a, ar ® A.P Þ 4a = + ar Þ r + = 4
r r r
r r r r
( 3ar + b ). (3ar + b ) = ( 2ar + 3b ). ( 2ar + 3b ) r =2± 3

rr rr rr rr rr rr 4th form of G.P = 3r2 Þ ar2 = 3r2 Þ a = 3

9a.a + 6a.b + b.b = 4a.a + 12a.b + 9.b.b
a
r2 rr r2 r=2+ 3 , a = 3, d = 2a –
r
=3 3
5 a - 6a.b = 8 b

( )
2

æ 1r ö r2 - d = 2 + 3 -3 3
r r2 çQ 8 a = 1÷
5(8)2 – 6.8. b cos60° = 8 b
ç ÷
ç Þ ar = 8 ÷ =7+ 4 3 -3 3
è ø
=7+ 3
2
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
9. Which of the following is not correct for relation R 11. If p and q are the lengths of the perpendiculars
on the set of real numbers ? from the origin on the lines,
(1) (x, y) Î R Û 0 < x – y £ 1 is neither x cosec a – y sec a = kcot 2a and

transitive nor symmetric. x sin a + y cosa = k sin 2a

(2) (x, y) Î R Û 0 < x - y £ 1 is symmetric and respectively, then k2 is equal to :

(1) 4p2 + q2 (2) 2p2 + q2
transitive.
(3) p2 + 2q2 (4) p2 + 4q2
(3) (x, y) Î R Û x – y £ 1 is reflexive but not
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
symmetric. x y k cos2a
Sol. First line is - =
(4) (x, y) Î R Û x - y £ 1 is reflexive and sin a cos a sin 2a
symmetric. k
Þ xcosa – ysina = cos2a
2
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Note that (1,2) and (2,3) satisfy 0 < |x – y| £ 1 k
Þp= cos a Þ 2p = |kcos2a| …(i)
2
but (1,3) does not satisfy it so
second line is xsina + ycosa = ksin2a
0 £ |x – y| £ 1 is symmetric but not transitive EN
So, (2) is correct. Þ q = |ksin2a| …(ii)

1 Hence 4p2 + q2 = k2 (From (i) & (ii))

10. The integral ò dx is equal to :
cosec18° is a root of the equation :
4
( x - 1) ( x + 2)
3 5 12.
(1) x2 + 2x – 4 = 0 (2) 4x2 + 2x – 1 = 0
(where C is a constant of integration)
(3) x2 – 2x + 4 = 0 (4) x2 – 2x – 4 = 0
LL
1 5
3æ x + 2ö 4 3æ x + 2ö 4 Official Ans. by NTA (4)
(1) ç ÷ +C (2) ç ÷ +C
4 è x -1ø 4 è x -1ø 1 4
Sol. cosec18° = = = 5 +1
1 5 sin18° 5 -1
4 æ x -1 ö4 4 æ x -1 ö4
(3) ç ÷ +C (4) ç ÷ +C Let cosec18° = x = 5 +1
3èx+2ø 3èx+2ø
A

Official Ans. by NTA (3) Þ x -1 = 5

dx Squaring both sides, we get

Sol. ò ( x - 1) ( x + 2 )
3/ 4 5/4
x2 – 2x + 1 = 5

dx Þ x2 – 2x – 4 = 0
=ò
æx+2ö
5/ 4
13. If the following system of linear equations
. ( x - 1)
2
ç x -1 ÷
è ø 2x + y + z = 5

x+2 x–y+z=3
put = t
x -1 x + y + az = b
1 dt has no solution, then :
3 ò t 5/4
=-
1 7 1 7
(1) a = – ,b¹ (2) a ¹ ,b=
4 1 3 3 3 3
= . 1/ 4 + C
3 t 1 7 1 7
(3) a ¹ – ,b= (4) a = ,b¹
4 æ x -1 ö
1/ 4 3 3 3 3
= ç +C
3 è x + 2 ÷ø Official Ans. by NTA (4)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
2 1 1 Sol. If ƒ(x) is continuous at x = 0, RHL = LHL = ƒ(0)
= 2 ( -a - 1) - 1 ( a - 1) + 1 + 1
Sol. Here D = 1 -1 1 cos2 x - sin 2 x - 1 x2 + 1 + 1 (Rationalisation)
= 1 - 3a lim ƒ ( x ) = lim+ .
1 1 a x ®0 + x ®0
x +1 -1
2
x2 + 1 + 1

2 1 5
= 2 ( - b - 3 ) - 1 ( b - 3 ) + 5 (1 + 1)
lim+ -
x ®0
2sin 2 x
x2
. ( )
x 2 + 1 + 1 = -4
D 3 = 1 -1 3
= 7 - 3b æ xö
1 1 b 1+ ÷
1 ç a
lim ƒ ( x ) = lim- ln ç ÷
1 7 x ®0 - x ®0 x x
çç 1 - ÷÷
for a= , b ¹ , system has no solutions è bø
3 3
æ xö æ xö
14. The length of the latus rectum of a parabola, whose ln ç 1 + ÷ ln ç 1 - ÷
aø è bø
vertex and focus are on the positive x–axis at a lim è +
x ®0 - æxö æ xö
ç ÷ .a ç - ÷ .b
distance R and S (>R) respectively from the origin, èaø è bø

is : 1 1
= +
a b
(1) 4(S + R) (2) 2(S – R)
1 1
(3) 4(S – R) (4) 2(S + R) So + = -4= k
EN a b
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 1 1 4
Þ + + = -4 - 1 = -5
a b k
Sol.
dy 2x + y - 2x
16. If = , y(0) = 1, then y(1) is equal to :
V F dx 2y
(R,0) (S,0) (1) log2(2 + e) (2) log2(1 + e)
LL

(3) log2(2e) (4) log2(1 + e2)

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

V ® Vertex dy 2x 2 y - 2 x
Sol. =
dx 2y
A

F ® focus
dy
VF = S – R
2y
dx
(
= 2 x 2y - 1 )
So latus rectum = 4(S – R) 2y
ò 2y - 1 dy = ò 2 dx
x

ì 1 æ 1 + xa ö
ï
ï x
log e ç
ç1- x ÷
è bø
÷ , x<0
(
ln 2 y - 1 )= 2x
+C
ï ln 2 ln 2
15. If the function f ( x ) = í k , x= 0
ï 2 2 Þ log2(2y – 1) = 2xlog2e + C
ï cos x - sin x - 1 , x > 0
ï x2 + 1 - 1 Q y(0) = 1 Þ 0 = log2e + C
î

1 1 4 C = –log2e
is continuous at x = 0, then + + is equal to :
a b k Þ log2(2y – 1) = (2x – 1) log2e
(1) –5 (2) 5 put x = 1, log2(2y – 1) = log2e
(3) – 4 (4) 4 2y = e + 1
y = log2(e + 1) Ans.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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17. lim
(
sin 2 p cos4 x ) is equal to : 19. If a r = cos
2rp
9
+ i sin
2rp
9
, r = 1, 2, 3,…, i = -1 ,
x® 0 x4
(1) p2 (2) 2 p2 a1 a 2 a 3
(3) 4 p 2
(4) 4 p then the determinant a 4 a 5 a 6 is equal to :
a 7 a8 a 9
Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Sol. lim
(
sin 2 p cos 4 x ) (1) a 2 a 6 - a 4 a 8 (2) a 9
x ®0 x4
(3) a1a 9 - a 3a 7 (4) a 5
lim
(
1 - cos 2 p cos4 x )
x ®0 2x 4 Official Ans. by NTA (3)

(
1 - cos 2p - 2p cos4 x ) 4p . sin x 1 + cos x
4 i 2p r

( )
2 2 2
lim Sol. ar = e 9
, r = 1, 2, 3, … a1, a2, a3, … are in G.P.
é 2 p (1 - cos x ) ù
2 4
x ®0 4 2x
ë û
a1 a2 a3 a1 a 22 a13 1 a1 a12
1 1 2 a16 = a1 .a14 .a17 1 a1 a12 = 0
= .4p2 . ( 2 ) = 4 p2 an a5 a 6 = a14 a15
2 2 a7 a8 a 9 a17 a18 a19 1 a1 a12
18. A vertical pole fixed to the horizontal ground is
10 10
divided in the ratio 3 : 7 by a mark on it with lower Now a1a9 – a3a7 = a1 – a1 = 0
part shorter than the upper part. If the two parts
subtend equal angles at a point on the ground 18 m
away from the base of the pole, then the height of
EN 20. The line 12x cosq + 5y sinq = 60 is tangent to which

of the following curves?

the pole (in meters) is : (1) x 2 + y 2= 169
(1) 12 15 (2) 12 10
(2) 144x 2 + 25y 2= 3600
(3) 8 10 (4) 6 10
LL

Official Ans. by NTA (2) (3) 25x 2 + 12y 2= 3600

Sol. (4) x 2 + y 2= 60

7l Official Ans. by NTA (2)

A

Sol. 12xcosq + 5ysinq = 60

3l a x cos q y sin q
+ =1
a 5 12
18 x2 y2
is tangent to + = 1
Let height of pole = 10l 25 144

3l l 144x2 + 25y2 = 3600

tana = =
18 6
10l
tan2a = SECTION-B
18
2 tan a 10l Let [t] denote the greatest integer £ t. Then the
= 1.
1 - tan a 18
2
1
l
use tana = Þl=
72 value of 8 · ò ([2x] + | x |) dx is _________.
6 5 -
1
2

height of pole = 10l = 12 10

Official Ans. by NTA (5)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
1
xy + 2y - xy + 2y
Sol. I= ò ([2x ] + x ) dx
-1/ 2
x2 - 4 + y2
=1

y=[2x] 4y = x2 – 4 + y2
x2 + y2 – 4y – 4 = 0

–1/2 locus is a circle with center (0, 2) & radius = 2 2

0 1/2 1
minimum
(0,2)
1 1
O A P
= ò [2x ] dx + ò
-1/ 2 -1/ 2
x dx

0 1
=0+ ò ( -x ) dx + ò x dx
-1/2 0
min. value = (AP)2 = (OP – OA)2

( )
2
æ x2 ö æ x2 ö
0 1
= 9 2 -2 2
= ç- ÷ + ç ÷
è 2 ø-1/2 è 2 ø0
( )
2
EN = 7 2 = 98
æ 1ö 1
= ç0 + ÷ +
è 8ø 2 3. The square of the distance of the point of
5 x -1 y - 2 z + 1
= intersection of the line = = and
8 2 3 6
8I = 5 the plane 2x – y + z = 6 from the point (–1, –1, 2)
LL

2. A point z moves in the complex plane such that is _________.

æ z -2 ö p Official Ans. by NTA (61)

arg ç ÷ = , then the minimum value of
èz+2ø 4
x -1 y - 2 z +1
Sol. = = =l
A

2 2 3 6
z - 9 2 - 2i is equal to _________.
x = 2l + 1, y = 3l + 2, z = 6l – 1
Official Ans. by NTA (98)
for point of intersection of line & plane
Sol. Let z = x + iy
2(2l + 1) – (3l + 2) + (6l – 1) = 6
æ x - 2 + iy ö p
arg ç ÷= 7l = 7 Þ l = 1
è x + 2 + iy ø 4
point : (3, 5, 5)
p
arg (x – 2 + iy) – arg (x + 2 + iy) = (distance)2 = (3 + 1)2 + (5 + 1)2 + (5 – 2)2
4
= 16 + 36 + 9 = 61
æ y ö æ y ö p
tan -1 ç ÷ - tan -1 ç ÷=
è x-2ø èx+2ø 4 4. If 'R' is the least value of 'a' such that the function

y y f(x) = x2 + ax + 1 is increasing on [1, 2] and 'S'

-
x-2 x+2 p
= tan = 1 is the greatest value of 'a' such that the function
æ y öæ y ö 4
1+ ç ÷ .ç ÷
è x-2ø è x+2ø f(x) = x2 + ax + 1 is decreasing on [1, 2], then the

value of R - S is _________.

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Sol. r2=2

Sol. ƒ(x) = x2 + ax + 1
(9,1 2 2
(x–9) +(y–1) =4
r1=1
ƒ'(x) = 2x + a
(1,1)
when ƒ(x) is increasing on [1, 2] 3x+4y=a
2 2
2x + a ³ 0 " x Î [1, 2] (x–1) +(y–1) =1

a ³ – 2x " x Î [1, 2] Both centres should lie on either side of the line as
R = –4 well as line can be tangent to circle.
when ƒ(x) is decreasing on [1, 2] (3 + 4 – a) . (27 + 4 – a) < 0
2x + a £ 0 " x Î [1, 2]
(7 – a) . (31 – a) < 0 Þ a Î (7, 31) …(1)
a £ –2 " x Î [1, 2]
d1 = distance of (1, 1) from line
S = –2
d2 = distance of (9, 1) from line
|R – S| = |–4 + 2| = 2
7-a
5. The mean of 10 numbers d1 ³ r1 Þ 1 Þ a Î (–¥, 2] È [12, ¥) …(2)
EN 5
7 × 8, 10 × 10, 13 × 12, 16 × 14, …. is _________.
31 - a
Official Ans. by NTA (398) d2 ³ r2 Þ ³ 2 Þ a Î (–¥, 21] È [41, ¥)
5
Sol. 7 × 8, 10 × 10, 13 × 12, 16 × 14 …… …(3)
Tn = (3n + 4) (2n + 6) = 2(3n + 4) (n + 3)
(1) Ç (2) Ç (3) Þ a Î [12, 21]
LL

2 2
= 2(3n + 13n + 12) = 6n + 26n + 24
Sum of integers = 165
10 10 10 10
S10 = å Tn = 6 å n 2 + 26 å n + 24 å1 7. The number of six letter words (with or without
n =1 n =1 n =1 n =1

meaning), formed using all the letters of the word

6 (10 ´ 11 ´ 21)
A

10 ´ 11
= + 26 ´ + 24 ´ 10 'VOWELS', so that all the consonants never come
6 2
= 10 × 11 (21 + 13) + 240 together, is _________.

= 3980 Official Ans. by NTA (576)

S10 3980 2 Vowels

Mean = = = 398 Sol. VOWELS
10 10
4 Consonants
6. If the variable line 3x + 4y = a lies between the two
circles (x – 1)2 + (y – 1)2 = 1 and (x – 9)2 + (y – 1)2 = 4, All Consonants should not be together
without intercepting a chord on either circle, then = Total – All consonants together,
the sum of all the integral values of a is
= 6! – 3! 4! = 576
_________.
x
If x f ( x )= ò (3t - 2 f¢(t) ) dt , x > –2, and f(0) = 4,
2
Official Ans. by NTA (165) 8.
5

then f(2) is _________.

7
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Morning Session
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Official Ans. by NTA (28)
x Sol. I1 = first unit is functioning
Sol. xf(x) = ò 3t 2 - 2f ' ( t ) dt
5 I2 = second unit is functioning

xf(x) = x3 – 125 – 2[f(x) – f(5)] P(I1) = 0.9, P(I2) = 0.8

xf(x) = x3 – 125 – 2f(x) – 2f(5) P ( I1 ) = 0.1 , P ( I2 ) = 0.2

133 0.8 ´ 0.1 8

f(0) = 4 Þ f(5) = - P= =
2 0.1 ´ 0.2 + 0.9 ´ 0.2 + 0.1 ´ 0.8 28

x3 + 8 8
f(x) = 98P = ´ 98 = 28
x+2 28

f(2) = 4

æ 36 ö
9. If ç 4 ÷ k is the term, independent of x, in the
è4 ø
12
æ x 12 ö
binomial expansion of ç - 2 ÷ , then k is equal EN
è4 x ø
to _________.

Official Ans. by NTA (55)

12
æ x 12 ö
Sol. ç 4 - x2 ÷
è ø
LL

12 - r r
æxö æ 12 ö
= ( -1) . C r ç ÷
r 12
Tr +1 ç x2 ÷
è4ø è ø
12 - r
æ1ö
= ( -1 ) . C r ç ÷ (12 ) . ( x )
12 -3r
A

r 12 r
Tr +1
è4ø

Term independent of x Þ 12 – 3r = 0 Þ r = 4
8
æ1ö 36
T5 = ( -1) . C 4 ç ÷ (12 ) = 4 .k
4 4
12

è4ø 4

Þ k = 55

10. An electric instrument consists of two units. Each

unit must function independently for the instrument
to operate. The probability that the first unit
functions is 0.9 and that of the second unit is 0.8.
The instrument is switched on and it fails to
operate. If the probability that only the first unit
failed and second unit is functioning is p, then 98 p
is equal to _________.

8
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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A  i 
B  3  0 (sin 60  sin 60) 
1. Four identical hollow cylindrical columns of mild  4r 
steel support a big structure of mass 50 × 103 kg, /2
tan 60 
The inner and outer radii of each column are 50 cm r
and 100 cm respectively. Assuming uniform local 9  10 2
Where r = M
distribution, calculate the compression strain of 2 3
each column. [Use Y = 2.0 × 1011 Pa, g = 9.8 m/s2]  B = 3 × 10–5 T
(1) 3.60 × 10–8 (2) 2.60 × 10–7 Current is flowing in clockwise direction so, B is
–3 –4
(3) 1.87 × 10 (4) 7.07 × 10 inside plane of triangle by right hand rule.
Official Ans. by NTA (2) 3. A system consists of two identical spheres each of
mg mass 1.5 kg and radius 50 cm at the end of light
Sol. Force on each column = EN
4 rod. The distance between the centres of the two
mg spheres is 5 m. What will be the moment of inertia
Strain =
4AY
of the system about an axis perpendicular to the
50  10  9.8
3
 rod passing through its midpoint ?
4  (1  0.25)  2  1011
(1) 18.75 kgm2
LL
–7
= 2.6 × 10
(2) 1.905 × 105 kgm2
2. A current of 1.5 A is flowing through a triangle, of
(3) 19.05 kgm2
side 9 cm each. The magnetic field at the centroid
(4) 1.875 × 105 kgm2
of the triangle is :
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
A

(Assume that the current is flowing in the

clockwise direction.)
(1) 3 × 10–7 T, outside the plane of triangle
r C1 A r C2
–7
(2) 2 3 × 10 T, outside the plane of triangle
Sol.
(3) 2 3 × 10–5 T, inside the plane of triangle
d d
–5
(4) 3 × 10 T, inside the plane of triangle
5m
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
5
A M = 1.5 kg, r = 0.5 m, d = m
2

i i 2 
Sol. I  2  Mr 2  Md 2 
 5 
60° r

 = 19.05 kgm2

1
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4. Statement I : Sol. For every large distance P.E. = 0
& total energy = 2.6 + 0 = 2.6 eV
Two forces  P  Q and P  Q where P  Q ,
Finally in first excited state of H atom total energy
when act at an angle 1 to each other, the = –3.4 eV
Loss in total energy = 2.6 – (–3.4)
magnitude of their resultant is 3(P 2  Q 2 ), when = 6eV
they act at an angle 2, the magnitude of their It is emitted as photon
1240
  206 nm
resultant becomes 2(P 2  Q 2 ) . This is possible 6
only when 1 < 2. 3  108
f = 1.45 × 1015 Hz
206  10 9
Statement II :
= 1.45 × 109 Hz
In the situation given above. 6. Two thin metallic spherical shells of radii r1 and r2
1 = 60° and 2 = 90° (r1 < r2) are placed with their centres coinciding.
In the light of the above statements, choose the A material of thermal conductivity K is filled in
most appropriate answer from the options given the space between the shells. The inner shell is
below :- maintained at temperature 1 and the outer shell at
(1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
EN temperature 2(1<2). The rate at which heat
(2) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true flows radially through the material is :-
(3) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false 4Kr1 r2 (2  1 ) r1 r2 (2  1 )
(1) (2)
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false. r2  r1 r2  r1
Official Ans. by NTA (2) K(2  1 ) K(2  1 )(r2  r1 )
(3) (4)
r2  r1 4r1r2
LL
Sol. A PQ
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
B P–Q PQ

| A |  | B|  P2  Q2 r
Sol.
| A  B|  2(P2  Q2 )(1  cos )
A

dr r1

For | A  B|  3(P2  Q2 )
r2
1 = 60°
Thermal resistance of spherical sheet of thickness
For | A  B|  2(P2  Q2 ) dr and radius r is
2 = 90° dr
dR 
5. A free electron of 2.6 eV energy collides with a K(4 r 2 )
H+ ion. This results in the formation of a hydrogen r2
dr
R
atom in the first excited state and a photon is r1 K(4 r )
2

released. Find the frequency of the emitted photon.

1 1 1  1  r2  r1 
(h = 6.6 × 10–34 Js) R     
4K  r 1 r 2  4K  r1 r2 
(1) 1.45 × 1016 MHz
(2) 0.19 × 1015 MHz 2  1
Thermal current (i) =
(3) 1.45 × 109 MHz R
(4) 9.0 × 1027 MHz 4Kr1 r2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) i (2  1 )
r2  r1
2
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7.
 If VA and VB are the input voltages (either 5V 8. Consider two separate ideal gases of electrons and
or 0V) and Vo is the output voltage then the two protons having same number of particles. The
gates represented in the following circuit (A) and
temperature of both the gases are same. The ratio
(B) are:-
V=5V of the uncertainty in determining the position of an
D1 RC = 1 k electron to that of a proton is proportional to :-
VA Vo 3/2
 mp  me mp mp
Vo VB =150 (1)   (2) (3) (4)
RB=100 k  me  mp me me
R=1k npn
VB
D2 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
h
Sol. x.p ≥
(A) (B) 4
(1) AND and OR Gate h 3KT
x  v
(2) OR and NOT Gate 4 mv m
(3) NAND and NOR Gate xe mp

(4) AND and NOT Gate x p me
Official Ans. by NTA (2) EN 9. A bob of mass 'm' suspended by a thread of length l
Sol. VA = 5V   undergoes simple harmonic oscillations with time
VA = 0 V  
period T. If the bob is immersed in a liquid that has
VB = 5 V  
1
VB = 0 V   density times that of the bob and the length of
4
If A = B = 0, there is no potential anywhere here
V0 = 0 the thread is increased by 1/3rd of the original
LL

If A = 1, B = 0, Diode D1 is forward biased, here length, then the time period of the simple harmonic
V0 = 5V
oscillations will be :-
If A = 0, B = 1, Diode D2 is forward biased hence
V0 = 5V 3 3 4
(1) T (2) T (3) T (4) T
If A = 1, B = 1, Both diodes are forward biased 2 4 3
A

hence V0 = 5V Official Ans. by NTA (4)

Truth table for Ist
A B Output Sol. T  2 /g
0 0 0 When bob is immersed in liquid
0 1 1 mgeff = mg – Buoyant force
1 0 1 mgeff = mg – vg ( = density of liquid)
1 1 1 
= mg – v g
 Given circuit is OR gate 4
mg 3mg
For IInd circuit = mg – =
4 4
VB = 5V, A = 1 3g
geff =
VB = 0V, A = 0 4

When A = 0, E–B junction is unbiased there is no 4 3g

T1  2  1
l    , eff 
current through it g eff 3 3 4
 V0 = 1 By solving
When A = 1, E–B junction is forward biased 4
T1 = 2  / g
V0 = 0 3
 Hence this circuit is not gate. 4T
T1 =
3
3
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10. Statement :1 12. The magnetic field vector of an electromagnetic
If three forces F1 , F2 and F3 are represented by ˆi  ˆj
wave is given by B = Bo cos(kz – t); where
three sides of a triangle and F1  F2  F3 , then 2

these three forces are concurrent forces and satisfy ˆi, ˆj represents unit vector along x and y-axis
the condition for equilibrium.
respectively. At t = 0 s, two electric charges q1 of
Statement : II
4 coulomb and q2 of 2 coulomb located at
A triangle made up of three forces F1 , F2 and F3 as
its sides taken in the same order, satisfy the    3 
 0,0, k  and  0,0, k  , respectively, have the
condition for translatory equilibrium.    

In the light of the above statements, choose the same velocity of 0.5 c î , (where c is the velocity of
most appropriate answer from the options given
light). The ratio of the force acting on charge
below:
q1 to q2 is :-
(1) Statement-I is false but Statement-II is true
(2) Statement-I is true but Statement-II is false (1) 2 2 : 1
EN
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are false
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are true.
(2) 1 :
(3) 2 : 1
2

Official Ans. by NTA (4) (4) 2 :1

Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol.
Sol. 
F  q VB 
LL

  ˆi  ˆj    
F1  4 0.5ciˆ  B0   cos  K. – 0  

  2   K  
Here F1  F2  F3  0
  ˆi  ˆj   3 
F1  F2  F3 F2  2 0.5ciˆ  B0 
A

 cos  K. – 0  
  2   K  
Since Fnet  0 (equilibrium)
Both statements correct cos = –1, cos3 = –1

11. If velocity [V], time [T] and force [F] are chosen F1
 2
F2
as the base quantities, the dimensions of the mass
will be : 13. The equivalent resistance of the given circuit

(1) [FT–1 V–1] between the terminals A and B is :

(2) [FTV–1] 2 2
A
(3) [FT2 V]
(4) [FVT–1] 5 2 3 3

Official Ans. by NTA (2) B

a b c
Sol. [M] = K[F] [T] [V]
(1) 0 (2) 3
1 1 1 –2 a 1 b 1 –1 c
[M ] = [M L T ] [T ] [L T ]
9
a = 1, b = 1, c = –1 (3)  (4) 1
2
[M] = [FTV–1] Official Ans. by NTA (4)
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
Sol. 2 2 15. A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen has volume
V A
500 cm3, temperature 300 K, pressure 400 kPa and
5 2 3 3 mass 0.76 g. The ratio of masses of oxygen to
i=0 hydrogen will be :-
B
2 (1) 3 : 8 (2) 3 : 16
A (3) 16 : 3 (4) 8 : 3
2 2 3 3 Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. PV = nRT
B
 25 
Parallel 2 Parallel 400 × 103 × 500 × 10–6 = n   (300)
 3 
A
2
n
1 3/2  25
 n = n1 + n2
B
2 M1 M 2
 
Series 25 2 32

33 / 2 9 / 2 Also M1 + M2 = 0.76 gm

R eq    1

14.
33/ 2 9/ 2
Choose the incorrect statement :
EN M2 16

M1 3
(a) The electric lines of force entering into a 16. A block moving horizontally on a smooth surface
Gaussian surface provide negative flux. with a speed of 40 m/s splits into two parts with
masses in the ratio of 1:2. If the smaller part moves
(b) A charge 'q' is placed at the centre of a cube. The
LL
at 60 m/s in the same direction, then the fractional
flux through all the faces will be the same. change in kinetic energy is :-
(c) In a uniform electric field net flux through a 1 2 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
closed Gaussian surface containing no net 3 3 8 4

charge, is zero. Official Ans. by NTA (3)

A

(d) When electric field is parallel to a Gaussian Sol. V0 V2 V1

surface, it provides a finite non-zero flux. 3M 2M M
Choose the most appropriate answer from the 3MV0 = 2MV2 + MV1
options given below 3V0 = 2V2 + V1
(1) (c) and (d) only (2) (b) and (d) only
120 = 2V2 + 60 V2 = 30 m/s
(3) (d) only (4) (a) and (c) only
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 1 1 1
MV12  2MV22  3MV02
K.E. 2 2 2
Sol. Since   E.A  EA cos  
K.E. 1 2
3MV0
2
V12  2V22  3V02

90° 3V02

3600  1800  4800


 = 90° 4800
1
 = 0 
8

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17. A coil is placed in a magnetic field B as shown 19. Statement–I :
To get a steady dc output from the pulsating
below :
voltage received from a full wave rectifier we can
connect a capacitor across the output parallel to the
Coil Induced load RL.
current
Statement–II :
To get a steady dc output from the pulsating
voltage received from a full wave rectifier we can
connect an inductor in series with RL.
A current is induced in the coil because B is :
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Outward and decreasing with time most appropriate answer from the options given
(2) Parallel to the plane of coil and decreasing with time below :
(1) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
(3) Outward and increasing with time
(2) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
(4) Parallel to the plane of coil and increasing with time (3) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Official Ans. by NTA (1) (4) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. B must not be parallel to the plane of coil for non
Sol. To convert pulsating dc into steady dc both of
zero flux and according to lenz law if B is outward
it should be decreasing for anticlockwise induced
EN mentioned method are correct.
20. If RE be the radius of Earth, then the ratio between
the acceleration due to gravity at a depth 'r' below
current.
and a height 'r' above the earth surface is :
18. For a body executing S.H.M. :
(Given : r < RE)
(a) Potential energy is always equal to its K.E. r r2 r3
LL
(1) 1   2  3
(b) Average potential and kinetic energy over any RE RE RE
given time interval are always equal. r r2 r3
(2) 1   2  3
(c) Sum of the kinetic and potential energy at any RE RE RE

point of time is constant. r r2 r3

(3) 1   2  3
A

RE RE RE
(d) Average K.E. in one time period is equal to
r r2 r3
average potential energy in one time period. (4) 1   2  3
RE RE RE
Choose the most appropriate option from the Official Ans. by NTA (4)
options given below : g
Sol. g up  2
(1) (c) and (d)  r
1
 R
 
(2) only (c)
 r
(3) (b) and (c) gdown  g 1  
 R
(4) only (b) 2
g down  r  r
Official Ans. by NTA (1)   1   1  
g up  R  R
Sol. In S.H.M. total mechanical energy remains
 r   2r r 2 
 1   1   2 
1  R  R R 
constant and also <K.E.> = <P.E> = KA2
4
r r2 r3
(for 1 time period) 1  2 3
R R R

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 SECTION-B M  250 1
Sol.   
1. A bandwidth of 6 MHz is available for A.M. M  500 2
transmission. If the maximum audio signal
1 x
frequency used for modulating the carrier wave is  x 250
2 499
not to exceed 6 kHz. The number of stations that
can be broadcasted within this band simultaneously 4. A particle is moving with constant acceleration 'a'.
without interfering with each other will be______.
Following graph shows 2 versus x(displacement)
Official Ans. by NTA (500)
plot. The acceleration of the particle is___m/s2.
Sol. Signal bandwidth = 2 fm
= 12 kHz C
80
6MHZ 6  10 6

2
 (m/s)
 N=   500 60
B
12kHZ 12  10 3
40

2
A
2. A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 200 µF is 20
connected to a battery of 200 V. A dielectric slab 0 10 20 30
of dielectric constant 2 is now inserted into the x (m)

space between plates of capacitor while the battery

Official Ans. by NTA (1)

energy in the capacitor will be_____J.

EN
remain connected. The change in the electrostatic
Sol. y = mx + C
20
Official Ans. by NTA (4) v2 = x + 20
10
1 v2 = 2x + 20
Sol. U  (C)V2
2
LL

dv
2v 2
1 dx
U  (KC  C)V2
2
dv
a=v 1
1 dx
U  (2  1)CV 2
2
A

5. In a Young's double slit experiment, the slits are

1 separated by 0.3 mm and the screen is 1.5 m away
U   200  10 6  200  200
2
from the plane of slits. Distance between fourth
U = 4 J bright fringes on both sides of central
3. A long solenoid with 1000 turns/m has a core bright is 2.4 cm. The frequency of light used
material with relative permeability 500 and volume is_____× 1014 Hz.
103 cm3. If the core material is replaced by another Official Ans. by NTA (5)
material having relative permeability of 750 with
Sol. 8 = 2.4 cm
same volume maintaining same current of 0.75 A
8 
in the solenoid, the fractional change in the = 2.4 cm
d
magnetic moment of the core would be 81.5 c
3
= 2.4 × 10–2
 x  0.310  f
approximately   . Find the value of x.
 499 
f = 5 × 1014 Hz
Official Ans. by NTA (250)

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6. The diameter of a spherical bob is measured using Sol.  = 1.5

a vernier callipers. 9 divisions of the main scale, in p1v1 = p2v2

the vernier callipers, are equal to 10 divisions of (200) (1200)1.5 = P2 (300)1.5

vernier scale. One main scale division is 1 mm. P2 = 200 [4]3/2 = 1600 kPa

The main scale reading is 10 mm and 8th division p 2 v 2  p1v1  480  240 
|W.D.| = = = 480 J
 1  0.5 
of vernier scale was found to coincide exactly with
8. At very high frequencies, the effective impendance
one of the main scale division. If the given vernier
of the given circuit will be______.
callipers has positive zero error of 0.04 cm, then

the radius of the bob is_____ × 10–2 cm. 1 0.5F 2 0.5F

0.5F
Official Ans. by NTA (52)
1 20H 2 0.5F

Sol. 9 MSD = 10 VSD

9 × 1 mm = 10 VSD
EN ~
220V

 1 VSD = 0.9 mm Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. XL = 2fL
LL
LC = 1 MSD – 1 VSD = 0.1 mm

Reading = MSR + VSR × LC f is very large

10 + 8 × 0.1 = 10.8 mm  XL is very large hence open circuit.

A

Actual reading = 10.8 – 0.4 = 10.4 mm 1

XC 
2fC
d 10.4
radius =  = 5.2 mm
2 2 f is very large.

= 52 × 10–2 cm XC is very small, hence short circuit.

7. A sample of gas with  = 1.5 is taken through an Final circuit

adiabatic process in which the volume is 2

1
compressed from 1200 cm3 to 300 cm3. If the
2
initial pressure is 200 kPa. The absolute value of
~
the workdone by the gas in the process =_____J.
22
Official Ans. by NTA (480) Zeq  1  2
22

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9.
 Cross–section view of a prism is the equilateral 10. A resistor dissipates 192 J of energy in 1 s when a
triangle ABC in the figure. The minimum current of 4A is passed through it. Now, when the
deviation is observed using this prism when the current is doubled, the amount of thermal energy
angle of incidence is equal to the prism angle. dissipated in 5 s in______J.
The time taken by light to travel from Official Ans. by NTA (3840)
–10
P (midpoint of BC) to A is______ × 10 s.
Sol. E = i2Rt
8
(Given, speed of light in vacuum = 3 × 10 m/s and
192 = 16 (R) (1)
3 R = 12 
cos30° = )
2
E1 = (8)2 (12) (5)
A = 3840 J

10 cm 10 cm

B P C

Official Ans. by NTA (5) EN

Sol. i = A = 60°
min = 2i – A
= 2 × 60° – 60° = 60°
  A
sin 1  min 
 
LL
2

 A 
sin 1  
2
 3
3 108
A

Vprism 
3
3
AP  10  10 2 
2
5  102
time   3 3
3  108
= 5 × 10–10 sec
Ans = 5

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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A O
1. Arrange the following conformational isomers of Ph OH
(3) A =
OH , B = Ph
n-butane in order of their increasing potential O
energy : Ph Ph
H CH3 H CH3 H CH3 CH H (4) A = , B=
CH3 3 H O

H
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
H CH3 H H H H H H H H H3C CH3H
Sol.
I II III IV
(1) II < III < IV < I (2) I < IV < III < II O
O – AlCl3
(3) II < IV < III < I (4) I < III < IV < II AlCl3
Official Ans. by NTA (4) O O

Sol. More stable less potential energy. EN
Stability order : I > III > IV > II O O
So [E.A.S.]
Potential energy : II > IV > III > I
2+
2. The Eu ion is a strong reducing agent in spite of
its ground state electronic configuration O
LL

(outermost) : [Atomic number of Eu = 63] C–CH2–CH2–COOH

7
(1) 4f 6s 2
(2) 4f 6
(A)
(3) 4f 7 (4) 4f 66s2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Zn – Hg HCl
A

Sol. Eu  [Xe]4f 6s 7 2

Ph – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – COOH

Eu 2  [Xe]4f 7
(B)
3. The structures of A and B formed in the following
reaction are : [Ph = – C6H5] 4. In which one of the following sets all species show
O
disproportionation reaction ?

AlCl3 (2eq)
 A 
Zn/Hg
B
+ O HCl

(1) ClO2 , F2 , MnO4 and Cr2 O27

O (2) Cr2 O27 ,MnO4 ,ClO2 and Cl 2
O O
Ph Ph (3) MnO4 ,ClO2 ,Cl2 and Mn 3
(1) A = OH , B = OH
O (4) ClO4 ,MnO4 ,ClO2 and F2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Ph Ph
(2) A = ,B=
Allen Ans. (Bonus)
O OH Sol. No option contains all species that show
disproportionation reaction.
MnO4–

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 Mn is in +7 oxidation state (highest) hence cannot O
O
be simultaneously oxidized or reduced.
NH CH3
5. Match List-I with List-II NH CH3
(1)
A= ,
List-I List-II B=
Br
(Parameter) (Unit)
(a) Cell constant (i) S cm mol
2 –1 O
O
(b) Molar conductivity (ii) Dimensionless CH3
NH CH3
(c) Conductivity (iii) m –1 NH
(2) A= ,
(d) Degree of dissociation (iv) –1 m–1 B=
of electrolyte
Br
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
NH2
NH2
options given below :
(3) A= Br
,
B=
(1) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iv), (d)-(ii)
COCH3 COCH3
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)

EN (4) A=
NH2

,
Br
NH2
Br
B=
(4) (a)-(ii), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) COCH3 COCH3
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Official Ans. by NTA (2)
LL

Sol.
 
Sol. Cell constant =    Units  m–1
A
Molar conductivity (m)  Units  Sm2 mole–1
A

Conductivity (K)  Units = S m–1

Degree of dissociation ()  Dimensionless
 (a) – (iii)
(b) – (i)
(c) – (iv)
(d) – (ii)
6. The major products A and B formed in the
following reaction sequence are :
O O
NH2
O Br2,CH3COOH
A B
Room Temperature

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  O
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
NH2 O
Sol. Oxides of nitrogen and sulphur are acidic and settle
C C
H3C O CH3 down on ground as dry deposition.
Ammonium salts in rain drops result in wet
deposition
 9. For the reaction given below :
O– O
 CHO
Ph – NH2 – C — O – C – CH3
1. NaOH, 
CH3 Product
2. H3O+
CH2OH
O O
 The compound which is not formed as a product in
Ph – NH – C – CH3 + O– – C – CH3
the reaction is a :
H
(1) compound with both alcohol and acid

functional groups
O
Ph – NH – C – CH3
Br2, CH3COOH
(A)
EN (2) monocarboxylic acid

(3) dicarboxylic acid

(4) diol
O
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
NH – C – CH3
LL
Sol.

(B) CHO CH2–OH COO–Na+

NaOH
Br +
(Major) 
A

7. Which of the following is NOT an example of CH2–OH CH2–OH CH2–OH

fibrous protein ?
H3O+
(1) Keratin (2) Albumin
(3) Collagen (4) Myosin
CH2–OH COOH
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Keratin, collagen and myosin are example of
+
fibrous protein.
8. The deposition of X and Y on ground surfaces is
CH2OH CH2–OH
referred as wet and dry depositions, respectively. X
and Y are : 10. Spin only magnetic moment in BM of
(1) X = Ammonium salts, Y = CO2
[Fe(CO)4(C2O4)]+ is :
(2) X = SO2, Y = Ammonium salts
(1) 5.92 (2) 0 (3) 1 (4) 1.73
(3) X = Ammonium salts, Y = SO2
(4) X = CO2, Y = SO2 Official Ans. by NTA (4)

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 +
Sol. [Fe(CO)4(C2O4)] Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. Option (2) is incorrect

Fe +3 G° = –RT n K
([Ar]3d5) H° – TS° = –RT n K
 H – S 
nK  –  
One unpaired electron  RT 
Spin only magnetic moment 13. Which one of the following statements is incorrect ?
= 3 B.M.  1.73BM
(1) Atomic hydrogen is produced when H2
11. Given below are two statements : one is labelled as
molecules at a high temperature are irradiated
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
with UV radiation.
Assertion (A) : Lithium salts are hydrated.
(2) At around 2000 K, the dissociation of
Reason (R) : Lithium has higher polarising power
dihydrogen into its atoms is nearly 8.1%.
than other alkali metal group members.

In the light of the above statements, choose the (3) Bond dissociation enthalpy of H2 is highest

most appropriate answer from the options given

EN among diatomic gaseous molecules which

below : contain a single bond .

(1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is NOT (4) Dihydrogen is produced on reacting zinc with

the correct explanation of (A). HCl as well as NaOH(aq).

LL
(2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct . Official Ans. by NTA (2)

(3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct. Sol. Atomic hydrogen is produced at high temperature
in an electric are or under ultraviolet radiations
(4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
The dissociation of dihydrogen at 2000 K is only
correct explanation of (A).
A

0.081%
Official Ans. by NTA (1) H–H bond dissociation enthalpy is highest for a
Sol. Lithium salts are hydrated due to high hydration single bond for any diatomic molecule.
energy of Li+ Dihydrogen can be produced on reacting Zn with
+
Li due to smallest size in IA group has highest
polarizing power. dil. HCl as well as NaOH (aq.)
12. The incorrect expression among the following is: 14. Which among the following is not a polyester ?
G System (1) Novolac (2) PHBV
(1)  T(at constant P)
STotal
(3) Dacron (4) Glyptal
H o  TSo Official Ans. by NTA (1)
(2) ln K 
RT
Sol. Novalac is a linear polymer of [Ph–OH + HCHO].
G o /RT
(3) K  e So ester linkage not present.

Vf So novalac is not a polyester.

(4) For isothermal process wreversible = – nRT ln
Vi

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15.
 Which one of the following correctly represents the
Cl
NaOH
order of stability of oxides, X2O; (X = halogen) ?
Et-OH Major
(1) Br > Cl > I (2) Br > I > Cl

(3) Cl > I > Br (4) I > Cl > Br

18. For the following :
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 1. Br2 /Fe/ 

2. Mg/dry ether
3. CH3OH
 Products
Sol. Stability of oxides of Halogens is
OCH3
I > Cl > Br
(1) + HMgBr
16. Match List-I with List-II :
List-I List-II
H
(Metal Ion) (Group in Qualitative OCH3
+ Mg
analysis) (2)
2+
Br
(a) Mn (i) Group - III
(b) As 3+
(ii) Group - IIA CH3
OH
(c) Cu2+ (iii) Group - IV (3) + Mg
Br
(d) Al3+ (iv) Group - IIB EN
Choose the most appropriate answer from the Br
H
options given below : + Mg
(4)
(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(iv) OCH3
(2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(3) (a)-(i), (b)-(iv), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iii)
(4) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) Br
LL

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Br2 + Fe Mg
Sol. Mn  III group
2+
PhMgBr
 Dry Ether
As3+  II B group CH3OH

Cu  II A group
2+
Br
A

Al  IV group
3+
+ Mg
17. The major product of the following reaction is : OCH3
CH3
19. Identify correct A, B and C in the reaction
Cl NaOH
Major Product sequence given below :
C2H5OH
conc.HNO3
CH3 
 A 
conc.H2SO4
Cl2
 B 
Fe/HCl
C
CH3 
Anhyd.AlCl3

(1) (2)
OH (1) A = NO2
, B = NO 2 Cl
, C=
Cl NH2
HO
CH3 NO2 Cl

OH CH3 NO2
(4) (2) A = , B= ,C =
(3) Cl OH

Official Ans. by NTA (3) (3) A = NO2

, B=
NO2
, C=
NH2

Allen Ans. (4) Cl Cl

Sol. NaOH + EtOH is known as alcoholic NaOH, so it
NO2 NH2

give E2 reaction with given alkyl halide. (4) A = NO2

, B= , C=
Cl OH

5
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 Official Ans. by NTA (1) (Nearest integer)
Sol. [Use log102 = 0.3010, log103 = 0.4771]
Official Ans. by NTA (128)
NO2
Sol. We know
HNO3 + H2SO4 Cl2
x
= KP ; using (x  V)
1/n
An. AlCl3
 m
[A]
10
 = K × (100)1/n …(1)
1
NH2 NO2
15 1/n
Fe/HCl
= K × (200) …(2)
1

Cl [C] Cl [B] V
= K × (300)1/n …(3)
1
Divide
20. The number of S=O bonds present in sulphurous
(2) / (1)
acid, peroxodisulphuric acid and pyrosulphuric
acid, respectively are : 15
EN = 21/n
(1) 2, 3 and 4 (2) 1, 4 and 3 10

(3) 2, 4 and 3 (4) 1, 4 and 4 3 1

log    log2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) 2 n

Sol. 1 log3– log2 0.4771– 0.3010

 
O n log2 0.3010

LL
O
S S O OH 1
O OH O S  0.585
HO n
OH O
Sulphurous O Divide
acid Peroxodisulphuric
acid (3) / (1)
A

V 1/ n
O O 3
10
1 S Bond. 4 S Bond. V 1
log    log3
 10  n
O O
V
log   = 0.585 × 0.4771 = 0.2791
S
O
S Pyrosulphuric  10 
HO OH
acid V
O O 10 0.279  V = 10 × 100.279
O 10
 V = 101.279 = 10x
4 S Bond.
 x = 1.279
 x = 128 × 10–2 (Nearest integer)
SECTION-B 2. 1.22 g of an organic acid is separately dissolved in
1. CH4 is adsorbed on 1 g charcoal at 0°C following 100 g of benzene (Kb = 2.6 K kg mol–1) and 100 g
the Freundlich adsorption isotherm. 10.0 mL of –1
of acetone (Kb = 1.7 K kg mol ). The acid is
CH4 is adsorbed at 100 mm of Hg, whereas 15.0
known to dimerize in benzene but remain as a
mL is adsorbed at 200 mm of Hg. The volume of
monomer in acetone. The boiling point of the
CH4 adsorbed at 300 mm of Hg is 10x mL. The
value of x is _______ × 10–2. solution in acetone increases by 0.17°C.

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 The increase in boiling point of solution in benzene Sol. Anode mud contains Sb, Se, Te, Ag, Au and Pt
–2
in °C is x × 10 . The value of x is 6. The pH of a solution obtained by mixing 50 mL of
_______.(Nearest integer) 1 M HCl and 30 mL of 1 M NaOH is x × 10–4. The
[Atomic mass : C = 12.0, H = 1.0, O= 16.0] value of x is __________. (Nearest integer)
[log 2.5 = 0.3979]
Official Ans. by NTA (13)
Official Ans. by NTA (6021)
Sol. With benzene as solvent
Tb = i Kb m Sol. HCl (aq.) + NaOH (aq.)  NaCl(aq.) + H2O()
1 1.22 / Mw 50 ml,1M 30ml, 1M – –
Tb   2.6  …(1) t = 0 50 mm 30 mm
2 100 /1000 t =  20 mm –
With Acetone as solvent 20 1
Tb = i Kb m  HCl  80  4 M  2.5  10 –1 M
1.22 / Mw –1
pH = –log 2.15 × 10 = 1 – 0.3979 = 0.6021
0.17 = 11.7 …(2)
100 /1000 pH = 6021 × 10–4
(1) / (2) 7. For the reaction A  B, the rate constant k(in s–1)
1 1.22 / M w is given by
 2.6 
Tb 2 100 /1000
 (2.47  10 3 )
0.17 1.22 / Mw log10 k  20.35 
1  1.7  T
100 /1000 –1
The energy of activation in kJ mol is _______.
Tb 
0.26
2
Tb = 13 × 10–2
EN (Nearest integer)
[Given : R = 8.314 J K–1 mol–1]
 x = 13 Official Ans. by NTA (47)
3. The value of magnetic quantum number of the 2.47  10 3
outermost electron of Zn+ ion is _________. Sol. Given log K  20.35 –
T
LL

Official Ans. by NTA (0)

Ea
Sol. Zn  1s 2s 2p 3s 3p 3d 4s
+ 2 2 6 2 6 10 1
We know logK  log A –
Outermost electron is in 4s subshell 2.303RT
m=0
Ea
4. The empirical formula for a compound with a   2.47  103
2.303RT
A

cubic close packed arrangement of anions and with

cations occupying all the octahedral sites in AxB.
8.314
The value of x is _________ Ea = 2.47 × 103 × 2.303 × KJ / mole
1000
(Integer answer)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) = 47.29 = 47 (Nearest integer)

Sol. Anions froms CCP or FCC (A–) = 4 A– per unit cell 8. Sodium oxide reacts with water to produce sodium
Cations occupy all octahedral voids (B+) = 4 B+ per hydroxide. 20.0 g of sodium oxide is dissolved in
unit cell 500 mL of water. Neglecting the change in
cell formula  A4B4 volume, the concentration of the resulting NaOH
Empirical formula  AB –1
solution is ____________ × 10 M. (Nearest
 (x = 1) integer)
5. In the electrolytic refining of blister copper, the
[Atomic mass : Na = 23.0, O = 16.0, H = 1.0]
total number of main impurities, from the
following, removed as anode mud is ________ Official Ans. by NTA (13)
Pb, Sb, Se, Te, Ru, Ag, Au and Pt Sol. Na2O + H2O  2NaOH
20
Official Ans. by NTA (6) moles
62
20
Moles of NaOH formed = 2
62

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 40
[NaOH]  62  1.29 M = 13 × 10 M
–1

500
1000
(Nearest integer)
9. According to molecular orbital theory, the number
of unpaired electron(s) in O22 is :
Official Ans. by NTA (0)
Sol. Molecular orbital configuration of O2–
2 is

2 *2 2 *2
1s 
1s 2s 2s 2p2x  2p2y  
*2
2px  *2
2py 
Zero unpaired electron
10. The transformation occurring in Duma's method is
given below :
 y y z  y
C2 H7N   2x   CuO  xCO2  H2O  N2   2x   Cu
 2  2 2  2  EN
The value of y is ________. (Integer answer)
Official Ans. by NTA (7)
Sol.

 y y z  y
C2 H 7 N   2x   CuO  xCO 2  H 2 O  N 2   2x   Cu
 2 2 2  2
LL

On balancing
15 7 1 15
C2 H7 N  CuO  2CO2  H2 O  N2  Cu
2 2 2 2
A

On comparing
y=7

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Tuesday 31st August, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

r r r r
SECTION-A Sol. Suppose r = xa + yb + 2c
1. If a + b + g = 2p, then the system of equations r r r
and a = b = c = k
x + (cos g)y + (cos b)z = 0 r r r r r r r r r r r r r
a ´{( r - b) ´ a} + b ´{( r - c) ´ b} + c ´{( r - a ) ´ c} = 0
(cos g)x + y + (cos a)z = 0 r
r r r r r
Þ k 2 ( r - b ) - k 2 xa + k 2 ( r - c ) - k 2 yb +
(cos b)x + (cos a)y + z = 0
r r r r
has : k 2 ( r - a ) - k 2 zc = 0
r r r r r r
(1) no solution Þ 3r - ( a + b + c ) - r = 0
r r r
(2) infinitely many solution r a+b+c
Þ r=
(3) exactly two solutions 2
(4) a unique solution 3. The domain of the function

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

Sol. a + b + g = 2p
EN æ 3x 2 + x - 1 ö
f(x) = sin -1 ç
è (x - 1) ø
2
-1 æ x - 1 ö
÷ + cos ç
è x +1ø
÷ is :

1 cos g cos b é 1ù é1 1ù
(1) ê0, ú (2) [ -2, 0] U ê , ú
cos g 1 cos a ë 4û ë4 2û
cos b cos a 1
LL
é1 1ù é 1ù
(3) ê , ú U {0} (4) ê0, ú
= 1 + 2cosa.cosb.cosg – cos a – cos b – cos g
2 2 2
ë4 2û ë 2û
= sin2g – cos2a – cos2b + (cos(a + b) + cos(a – Official Ans. by NTA (3)
b))cosg
æ 3x 2 + x - 1 ö -1 æ x - 1 ö
Sol. ƒ(x) = sin -1 ç ÷ + cos ç ÷
A

= sin g – cos a – cos b + cos g + cos(a – b)cosg

2 2 2 2

è (x - 1) ø è x +1 ø
2

= sin2a – cos2b + cos(a – b) cos(a + b)

x -1
= sin a – cos b + cos a – sin b = 0
2 2 2 2 -1 £ £1 Þ 0 £ x < ¥ …(1)
x +1
r r r
2. Let a, b, c be three vectors mutually perpendicular 3x 2 + x - 1 é -1 1 ù
-1 £ £ 1 Þ x Î ê , ú È {0} …(2)
to each other and have same magnitude. If a vector (x - 1) 2
ë 4 2û
r (1) & (2)
r satisfies.
r r r r r r r r r r r r r é1 1ù
a ´ {( r - b ) ´ a} + b ´ {( r - c ) ´ b} + c ´ {( r - a ) ´ c} = 0 , Þ Domain = ê , ú È {0}
r ë 4 2û
then r is equal to :
4. Let S = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6}. Then the probability that
1 r r r 1 r r r a randomly chosen onto function g from S to S
(1) ( a + b + c ) (2) ( 2a + b - c ) satisfies g(3) = 2g(1) is :
3 3
1 1
(1) (2)
1 (r r r) 1 (r r r
(3) a+b+c (4) a + b + 2c ) 10 15
2 2
1 1
(3) (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 5 30
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
1
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Evening Session
Sol. g(3) = 2g(1) can be defined in 3 ways P(–1,2,–2)
number of onto functions in this condition = 3 × 4!
Total number of onto functions = 6!
3 ´ 4! 1
Required probability = = L
6! 10
Q(l,0,–l)
5. Let f : N ® N be a function such that
f(m + n) = f(m) + f(n) for every m, n Î N. If f(6) = 18, uuur
DR's of PQ = (l + 1, –2, 2 – l)
then f(2) · f(3) is equal to : uuur r
(1) 6 (2) 54 Q PQ ^ r
(3) 18 (4) 36 Þ (l + 1)(1) + (–2)(0) + (2 – l)(–1) = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
1 æ 1 -1 ö
Sol. ƒ(m + n) = ƒ(m) + ƒ(n) Þ l= Þ Q ç ,0, ÷
2 è2 2 ø
Put m = 1, n = 1
34
ƒ(2) = 2ƒ(1) Þ PQ =
2
Put m = 2, n = 1
EN 7. Negation of the statement (p Ú r) Þ (q Ú r) is :
ƒ(3) = ƒ(2) + ƒ(1) = 3ƒ(1)
Put m = 3, n = 3 (1) pÙ ~ q Ù ~ r (2) ~ p Ù q Ù ~ r

ƒ(6) = 2ƒ(3) Þ ƒ(3) = 9 (3) ~ p Ù q Ù r (4) p Ù q Ù r

Þ ƒ(1) = 3, ƒ(2) = 6 Official Ans. by NTA (1)

ƒ(2).ƒ(3) = 6 × 9 = 54 Sol. Q ~(A Þ B) = A Ù ~B
LL

6. The distance of the point (–1, 2, –2) from the line

\ ~((p Ú r) Þ (q Ú r))
of intersection of the planes 2x + 3y + 2z = 0 and
= (p Ú r) Ù (~q Ù ~r)
x – 2y + z = 0 is :
= ((p Ú r) Ù (~r)) Ù (~q)
1 5
(1) (2)
A

2 2 = p Ù (~r) Ù (~q)
tan 3 x - tan x
42 34 8. If a= lim and b = lim (cos x)cot x are
(3) (4) x ®p 4 æ pö x ®0
2 2 cos ç x + ÷
è 4ø
Official Ans. by NTA (4) the roots of the equation, ax2 + bx – 4 = 0, then the
Sol. P1 : 2x + 3y + 2z = 0 ordered pair (a, b) is :
r (1) (1, –3) (2) (–1, 3)
Þ n1 = 2iˆ + 3jˆ + 2kˆ (3) (–1, –3) (4) (1, 3)

P2 : x – 2y + z = 0 Official Ans. by NTA (4)

r tan 3 x - tan x 0
Þ n 2 = ˆi - 2ˆj + k Sol. a = lim ; form
x®
p
æ pö 0
4 cos ç x + ÷
Direction vector of line L which is line of
è 4ø
intersection of P1 & P2
Using L Hopital rule
r r r
r = n1 ´ n 2 = 7iˆ - 7kˆ
3 tan 2 x sec2 x - sec2 x
a = lim
DR's of L are (1, 0, –1) x®
p
æ pö
4 - sin ç x + ÷
x y z è 4ø
Þ Equation of L : = = =l
1 0 -1 Þ a = –4
2
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Evening Session
(cos x -1)
lim dy 2x (y + 2 y )
b = lim(cos x)cot x = e x®0 tan x
Sol. = x
x ®0 dx 2 (1 + 2 y ln2 )
(1 + 2 y )ln2
- (1- cos x ) x2
lim .
Þ ò (y + 2y ) dy = ò dx
x®0 2 x
x æ tan x ö
ç ÷
b=e è x ø

æ -1 ö x
lim ç ÷. Þ ln|y + 2y| = x + c
b=e x ®0 è2 ø1
=e Þb=1
0

x = 0; y = 0 Þ c = 0
a = –4 ; b = 1
If ax2 + bx – 4 = 0 are the roots then Þ x = ln|y + 2y|
16a – 4b – 4 = 0 & a + b – 4 = 0
Þ at y = 1, x = ln3
Þa=1 & b=3
9. The locus of mid–points of the line segments Q3 Î (e, e2) Þ x Î (1, 2)

joining (–3, –5) and the points on the ellipse x 2 y2

11. An angle of intersection of the curves, + =1
x 2 y2 a 2 b2
+ = 1 is :
4 9
and x 2 + y 2 = ab , a > b, is :
(1) 9x + 4y + 18x + 8y + 145= 0
2 2
EN æa+bö æ a -b ö
(2) 36x 2 + 16y 2 + 90x + 56y + 145= 0 (1) tan -1 ç ÷ (2) tan -1 ç ÷
è ab ø è 2 ab ø
(3) 36x 2 + 16y 2 + 108x + 80y + 145= 0
æa-bö
(3) tan -1 ç ÷ (4) tan -1 ( 2 ab )
(4) 36x + 16y + 72x + 32y + 145= 0
2 2
è ab ø
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Official Ans. by NTA (3)
LL

2 2
x y x 2 y2
Sol. General point on + = 1 is A(2cosq, 3sinq) Sol. + 2 = 1 , x2 + y2 = ab
4 9 a 2
b
given B(–3, –5)
2x1 2y1y '
+ 2 =0
æ 2 cos q - 3 3sin q - 5 ö a2 b
A

midpoint C ç , ÷
è 2 2 ø
- x1 b2
Þ y1 ' = …(1)
2cos q - 3 3sin q - 5 a 2 y1
h= ; k=
2 2
\ 2x1 + 2y1y' = 0
æ 2h + 3 ö æ 2k + 5 ö
2 2

Þç ÷ +ç ÷ =1 - x1
è 2 ø è 3 ø Þ y2 ' = …(2)
y1
Þ 36x2 + 16y2 + 108x + 80y + 145 = 0
Here (x1y1) is point of intersection of both curves
dy 2 x y + 2y ·2x
10. If = x , y(0) = 0, then for y = 1, a 2b ab 2
dx 2 + 2 x + y log e 2 \ x12 = , y12 =
a+b a+b
the value of x lies in the interval:
æ1 ù - x1 b 2 x1
(1) (1, 2) (2) ç ,1ú +
è2 û y1 '- y 2 ' a 2 y1 y1
æ 1ù \ tan q = =
(3) (2, 3) (4) ç 0, ú 1 + y1 ' y 2 ' x12 b 2
è 2û 1+ 2 2
a y1
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Evening Session

-b 2 x1y1 + a 2 x1 y1 Sol. x + 1 – 2log2(3 + 2x) + 2log4(10 – 2–x) = 0

tan q =
a 2 y12 + b 2 x12 log2(2x+1) – log2(3 + 2x)2 + log2(10 – 2–x) = 0

a-b æ 2x +1.(10 - 2- x ) ö
tan q = log 2 ç ÷=0
è (3 + 2 )
x 2
ab ø

é æ y2 ö ù
2(10.2 x - 1)
fç 2 ÷ ú =1
dy ê y 2 (3 + 2 x )2
12. If y = x ê 2 + è x 2 ø ú , x > 0, f > 0, and y(1) = –1,
dx ê x æ y öú Þ 20.2x – 2 = 9 + 22x + 6.2x
ê f¢ ç 2 ÷ ú
ë è x øû
\ (2x)2 – 14(2x) + 11 = 0
æ y2 ö Roots are 2x1 & 2 x 2
then f ç ÷ is equal to :
è 4 ø
\ 2x1 .2 x 2 = 11
(1) 4 f (2) (2) 4 f (1)
x1 + x2 = log2(11)
(3) 2 f (1) (4) f (1) z-i
14. If z is a complex number such that is purely
Official Ans. by NTA (2) z -1
imaginary, then the minimum value of |z – (3 + 3i)|
Sol. Let, y = tx EN is :
dy dt (1) 2 2 – 1 (2) 3 2
=t+x
dx dx (3) 6 2 (4) 2 2

æ dt ö æ 2 j(t 2 ) ö Official Ans. by NTA (4)

\ tx ç t + x ÷ = x çt + ÷
è dx ø è j '(t 2 ) ø z-i
Sol. is purely Imaginary number
z -1
j(t 2 )
LL
dt
t 2 + xt = t2 + Let z = x + iy
dx j '(t 2 )
x + i(y - 1) (x - 1) - iy
tj '(t 2 ) dx \ ´
(x - 1) + i(y) (x - 1) - iy
ò j(t 2 ) dt = ò x
x(x -1) + y(y -1) + i(-y - x +1)
A

Let j(t2) = p Þ is purely

(x -1)2 + y2
\j'(t2)2tdt = dp
Imaginary number
dy dx
Þ ò =ò Þ x(x – 1) + y(y – 1) = 0
2p x
2 2
æ 1ö æ 1ö 1
1 Þ çx - ÷ +çy- ÷ =
lnj(t2) = lnx + lnc è 2ø è 2ø 2
2
j(t2) = x2k Y
æy ö2
P(3,3)
j ç 2 ÷ = kx 2 , j(1) = k
èx ø
æ y2 ö
j ç ÷ = 4j(1)
è 4 ø æ1 1ö
13. The sum of the roots of the equation Cç , ÷
è2 2ø
x + 1 - 2log2 (3 + 2 x ) + 2log 4 (10 - 2- x ) = 0 , is :
(1) log 2 14 (2) log 2 11
X
(3) log 2 12 (4) log 2 13 O

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Evening Session
1 5 6 1
\ |z – (3 + 3i)|min = |PC| – 1
2 3 2 1 = 12
2
=
5
-
1
=2 2 a b 1
2 2
4a – 2b = ±24 + 8
15. Let a1, a2, a3, … be an A.P. If
a1 + a 2 + ... + a10 100 a Þ 4a – 2b = +24 + 8 Þ 2a – b = 16
= 2 , p ¹ 10, then 11 is equal
a1 + a 2 + ... + a p p a10 2x – y – 16 = 0 …(1)
to : Þ 4a – 2b = –24 + 8 Þ 2a – b = –8
19 100 2x – y + 8 = 0 …(2)
(1) (2)
21 121
perpendicular distance of (1) from (0, 0)
21 121
(3) (4) 0 - 0 - 16 16
19 100 =
Official Ans. by NTA (3) 5 5
10 perpendicular distance of (2) from (0, 0) is
(2a1 + 9d) 100
2 = 2
Sol. 0-0+8 8
p
(2a1 + (p - 1)d) p =
2 5 5
(2a1 + 9d)p = 10(2a1 + (p – 1)d) The number of solutions of the equation
9dp = 20a1 – 2pa1 + 10d(p – 1)
a
EN 17.

32 tan
2
x
+ 32sec
2
x
= 81 , 0 £ x £
p
4
is :
9p = (20 – 2p) 1 + 10(p – 1)
d
(1) 3 (2) 1
a1 (10 - p) 1
= = (3) 0 (4) 2
d 2(10 - p) 2
LL
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
1
a11 a 1 + 10d 2 + 10 21 Sol. (32) tan x + (32)sec
2 2
x
= 81
\ = = =
a10 a1 + 9d 1
+ 9 19 + (32)1+ tan = 81
2 2

2 Þ (32) tan x x

16. Let A be the set of all points (a, b) such that the
A

81
=
2
area of triangle formed by the points (5, 6), (3, 2) Þ (32) tan x

and (a, b) is 12 square units. Then the least 33

possible length of a line segment joining the origin é pù
to a point in A, is : In interval ê 0, only one solution
4 16 ë 4 úû
(1) (2)
5 5 18. Let f be any continuous function on [0, 2] and
8 12 twice differentiable on (0, 2). If f(0) = 0, f(1) = 1
(3) (4)
5 5 and f(2) = 2, then
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
(1) f"(x) = 0 for all x Î (0, 2)
Sol.
(2) f"(x) = 0 for some x Î (0, 2)
(3,2)
(3) f'(x) = 0 for some x Î [0, 2]
(4) f"(x) > 0 for all x Î (0, 2)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. ƒ(0) = 0 ƒ(1) = 1 and ƒ(2) = 2
(5,6) A(a,b) Let h(x) = ƒ(x) – x has three roots

5
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/31-08-2021/Evening Session
By Rolle's theorem h'(x) = ƒ'(x) – 1 has at least two SECTION-B
roots 1. If the coefficient of a7b8 in the expansion of
h"(x) = ƒ"(x) = 0 has at least one roots
(a + 2b + 4ab)10 is K.216, then K is equal to _____.
19. If [x] is the greatest integer £ x, then
Official Ans. by NTA (315)
2
æ px ö
p2 ò ç sin ÷( x - [x]) dx is equal to :
[x]
10! a
0è
2 ø Sol. a (2b)b .(4ab) g
a !b !g !
(1) 2(p – 1) (2) 4(p – 1)
10! a+g b+g b g
a .b .2 .4
(3) 4(p + 1) (4) 2(p + 1) a !b !g !
Official Ans. by NTA (2) a + b + g = 10 …(1)
é1 px 2
px ù a+g=7 …(2)
Sol. p2 ê ò sin dx + ò sin (x - 1) dx ú
ë0 2 1
2 û b+g=8 …(3)
é 2 æ px ö æ æ 2 px ö ö
2 2
2 px ù (2) + (3) – (1) Þ g = 5
= p2 ê- ç cos ÷ + ç (x -1) ç - cos ÷ ÷ - ò - cos dx ú
ëê p è 2ø è è p 2 ø ø1 1 p 2 ûú a=2

é 2 2 2 2æ px ö ù
2 b=3
= p ê 0 + + + . ç sin
ë
2

p p p pè
= 4p – 4 = 4(p – 1)
÷ ú
2 ø1 û
EN so coefficients =
10! 3 10
2!3!5!
2 .2

The mean and variance of 7 observations are 8 and 10 ´ 9 ´ 8 ´ 7 ´ 6 ´ 5 13

20. = ´2
16 respectively. If two observations are 6 and 8, 2 ´ 3 ´ 2 ´ 5!
then the variance of the remaining 5 observations
is : = 315 × 216 Þ k = 315
LL

92 134 x-2 y-2 z+2

(1) (2) 2. Suppose the line = = lies on the
5 5 a -5 2
536 112 plane x + 3y – 2z + b = 0. Then (a + b) is equal to
(3) (4)
25 5
____.
A

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

Official Ans. by NTA (7)
Sol. Let 8, 16, x1, x2, x3, x4, x5 be the observations.
x1 + x 2 + ... + x 5 + 14 Sol. Point (2, 2, –2) also lies on given plane
Now = 8
7 So 2 + 3 × 2 – 2(–2) + b = 0
5 Þ 2 + 6 + 4 + b = 0 Þ b = –12
Þ å x i = 42
i =1
…(1)
Also a × 1 – 5 × 3 + 2 × –2 = 0

x12 + x 22 + ...x 52 + 82 + 62 Þ a – 15 – 4 = 0 Þ a = 19
Also - 64= 16
7 \ a + b = 19 – 12 = 7
5
The number of 4-digit numbers which are neither
åx
3.
Þ 2
i = 560 – 100 = 460 …(2)
i =1 multiple of 7 nor multiple of 3 is ____.
So variance of x1, x2, …, x5 Official Ans. by NTA (5143)
2300 - 1764 536
2
460 æ 42 ö Sol. A = 4 – digit numbers divisible by 3
= -ç ÷ = =
5 è 5 ø 25 25 A = 1002, 1005, …, 9999.
9999 = 1002 + (n – 1)3
6
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Þ (n – 1)3 = 8997 Þ n = 3000 1 1
Þ 3B = Þ B=
B = 4 – digit numbers divisible by 7 2 6
B = 1001, 1008, …, 9996
1
Þ 9996 = 1001 + (n – 1)7 A=-
3
Þ n = 1286
1 dt 1 2t - 1 1 dt
A Ç B = 1008, 1029, …, 9996 I=- ò + ò 2
3 1+ t 6 t - t +1
dt + ò 2
2 t - t +1
9996 = 1008 + (n – 1)21
Þ n = 429 1 1
= - ln|(1 + tanx)| + ln|tan2x – tanx + 1|
3 6
So, no divisible by either 3 or 7
= 3000 + 1286 – 429 = 3857
ææ 1öö
total 4-digits numbers = 9000 ç ç tan x - ÷ ÷
tan -1 ç è 2ø÷
1 2
required numbers = 9000 – 3857 = 5143 + .
2 3 ç 3 ÷
ç ÷
sin x è 2 ø
4. If ò sin x + cos3 x
3
dx =
1 1
2 -1 æ 2 tan x-1ö = - ln|(1 + tanx)| + ln|tan2x – tanx + 1|
a log e 1 + tan x + b log e 1 - tan x + tan x + g tan ÷ + C,

when C is constant of integration, then the value of

ç
è 3 ø
EN 3 6

1 æ 2 tan x - 1 ö
l8(a + b + g2) is _______. + tan -1 ç ÷+C
3 è 3 ø
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
1 1 1
a=- , b= , g=
LL
sinx
3 6 3
3 tan x.sec2 x
Sol. = ò cos x3 dx = ò dx
1+ tan x (tanx +1)(1+ tan2 x - tanx)
æ 1 1 1ö
18(a + b + g2) = 18 ç - + + ÷ =3
Let tanx = t Þ sec x.dx = dt
2
è 3 6 3ø
t
A

=ò dt 5. A tangent line L is drawn at the point (2, –4) on the

(t + 1)(t 2 - t + 1)
parabola y2 = 8x. If the line L is also tangent to the
æ A B(2t - 1) C ö
= òç + 2 + 2 ÷ dx
è t + 1 t - t +1 t - t +1 ø circle x2 + y2 = a, then 'a' is equal to_______.
Þ A(t2 – t + 1) + B(2t – 1)(t2 – t + 1) + C(t + 1) = t
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Þ t2(A + 2B) + t(–A + B + C) + A – B + C = 1
\ A + 2B = 0 …(1) 2
Sol. tangent of y2 = 8x is y = mx +
–A + B + C = 1 …(2) m
A–B+C=0 …(3) 2
P(2, –4) Þ –4 = 2m +
1 1 m
Þ C= ÞA–B= - …(4)
2 2
1
A + 2B = 0 Þm+ = –2 Þ m = –1
m
1
A–B= -
2 \ tangent is y = –x – 2

Þx+y+2=0 …(1)
7
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2 2
(1) is also tangent to x + y = a If b = 0, a = 0, 1 & d = 0, 1 Þ 4 ways
2 Þ Total 8 matrices
So = aÞ a= 2
2
8. If the line y = mx bisects the area enclosed by
Þa=2 3
the lines x = 0, y = 0, x = and the curve
2
7 9 13 19
6. If S= + + + + .... , then 160 S is equal y = 1 + 4x – x2, then 12 m is equal to _______.
5 52 53 54
to ______. Official Ans. by NTA (26)

Official Ans. by NTA (305) Sol.

Sol. æ 3 19 ö
ç , ÷
è2 4 ø
7 9 13 19
S=+ + + + ...
5 5 2 53 54 y = mx
1 7 9 13 (0,1
S= + + + ...
5 52 53 54
On subtracting
0 3/2
4 7 2 4 6
S = + 2 + 3 + 4 + ...
5 5 5 5 5
7 1æ 2 3 ö
EN Total area =
3/ 2

ò (1 + 4x - x
2
) dx
S = + ç 1 + + 2 + ... ÷ 0
4 10 è 5 5 ø 3/ 2
x3 39
= x + 2x - =
-2 2
7 1 æ 1ö
S = + ç1 - ÷ 3 0 8
4 10 è 5 ø
LL
39 1 3 3
& = . . m
7 1 25 61 16 2 2 2
= + ´ = 13
4 10 16 32 Þ 3m = Þ 12m = 26
2
Þ 160S = 5 × 61 = 305
9. Let B be the centre of the circle x2 + y2 – 2x + 4y + 1 = 0.
A

7. The number of elements in the set Let the tangents at two points P and Q on the circle
æ area DAPQ ö
intersect at the point A(3, 1). Then 8. ç
ïì æa bö ü
3ï
è area DBPQ ÷ø
÷ : a,b,d Î {-1,0,1} and ( I - A ) = I - A ý ,
3
íA = ç is equal to _____.
ïî è0 dø ïþ
Official Ans. by NTA (18)
where I is 2 × 2 identity matrix, is : Sol.

Official Ans. by NTA (8) A(3,1)

Sol. (I – A)3 = I3 – A3 – 3A(I – A) = I – A3

Q R
Þ 3A(I – A) = 0 or A2 = A

(–1,–2) P(3,–2)
éa 2 ab + bd ù é a b ù B(1,–2)
Þ ê ú=ê ú
ë0 d 2 û ë0 d û

Þ a2 = a, b(a + d – 1) = 0, d2 = d r=2

If b ¹ 0, a + d = 1 Þ 4 ways
8
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3
tan q =
2

Area DAPQ AR 3sin q 9

= = =
Area DBPQ RB 2 cos q 4

æ Area DAPQ ö
8ç ÷ = 18
è Area DBPQ ø

10. Let f(x) be a cubic polynomial with f(1) = –10,

f(–1) = 6, and has a local minima at x = 1, and

f'(x) has a local minima at x = –1. Then f(3) is

equal to _____.

Official Ans. by NTA (22)

Sol. F'(x) = a(x – 1)(x + 3) EN

F"(x) = 6a(x + 1)

F'(x) = 3a(x + 1)2 + b

F'(1) = 0 Þ b = –12a
LL
F(x) = a(x + 1)3 – 12ax + c

= (x + 1)3 – 12x – 6

F(3) = 64 – 36 – 6 = 22
A

9
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/01-09-2021

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Wednesday 01st September, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

PHYSICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 2. A square loop of side 20 cm and resistance 1 is

1. A cube is placed inside an electric field, moved towards right with a constant speed v0. The
right arm of the loop is in a uniform magnetic field
E 150y 2 ˆj . The side of the cube is 0.5 m and is of 5T. The field is perpendicular to the plane of the
placed in the field as shown in the given figure. loop and is going into it. The loop is connected to a
network of resistors each of value 4 . What
The charge inside the cube is :
should be the value of v0 so that a steady current of
y 2 mA flows in the loop ?
× ××× ××× ×
× ××× ××× ×
4 4 × ××× ××× ×
P
× ××× ××× ×
x × ××× ××× ×
4 Q 4 × ××× ××× ×
EN × ××× ××× ×
× ××× ××× ×
z × ××× ××× ×
0 × ××× ××× ×
(1) 3.8 × 10–11 C (2) 8.3 × 10–11 C (1) 1 m/s (2) 1 cm/s
2
(3) 3.8 × 10–12 C (4) 8.3 × 10–12 C (3) 10 m/s (4) 10–2 cm/s
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
LL
Sol. Equivalent circuit
Sol. As electric field is in y-direction so electric flux is
i
only due to top and bottom surface

Bottom surface y = 0
A

E=0 =0 4 V0B ,1

Top surface y = 0.5 m

150
E = 150 (.5)2 =
4 V0 B 5 2mA
i V0 10 2 m/s = 1 cm/s
150 2 150 4 1 5 .2
Now flux = EA = .5
4 16 Option (2)
3. The temperature of an ideal gas in 3-dimensions is
Q in
By Gauss’s law 300 K. The corresponding de-Broglie wavelength
0
of the electron approximately at 300 K, is :
150 Q in [me = mass of electron = 9 × 10–31 kg
16 0 h = Planck constant = 6.6 × 10–34 Js
kB = Boltzmann constant = 1.38 × 10–23 JK–1]
150
Q in 8.85 10 12
8.3 × 10–11 C (1) 6.26 nm (2) 8.46 nm
16
(3) 2.26 nm (4) 3.25 nm
Option (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)

1
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Sol. De-Broglie wavelength 6. A block of mass m slides on the wooden wedge,
h h which in turn slides backward on the horizontal
mv 2mE surface. The acceleration of the block with respect
Where E is kinetic energy to the wedge is : Given m = 8 kg, M = 16 kg
Assume all the surfaces shown in the figure to be
3kT
E for gas frictionless.
2
34 m
h 6.6 10
=
3mkT 31 23
3 9 10 1.38 10 300 M

= 6.26 × 10–9 m = 6.26 nm

Option (1) 30°
4. A body of mass 'm' dropped from a height 'h'
4 6 3 2
(1) g (2) g (3) g (4) g
reaches the ground with a speed of 0.8 gh . The 3 5 5 3
value of workdone by the air-friction is : Official Ans. by NTA (4)

(1) –0.68 mgh (2) mgh Sol. Let acceleration of wedge is a1 and acceleration of

(3) 1.64 mgh (4) 0.64 mgh

EN block w.r.t. wedge is a2

Official Ans. by NTA (1) a1

Sol. Work done = Change in kinetic energy
1 2 1 2 Ncos60°
Wmg + Wair-friction = m .8 gh – m 0 30°
2 2
60°
LL

.64
Wair – friction = mgh mgh =–0.68mgh
2 N M 30°

Option (1)
5. The ranges and heights for two projectiles N cos60 Ma1 16a1
A

projected with the same initial velocity at angles N = 32a1

42° and 48° with the horizontal are R1, R2 and H1, F.B.D. of block w.r.t wedge
H2 respectively. Choose the correct option :
a2
(1) R1 > R2 and H1 = H2 (2) R1 = R2 and H1 < H2 N
(3) R1 < R2 and H1 < H2 (4) R1 = R2 and H1 = H2 Pseudo force = 8a1
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
30°
u 2 sin 2 8gsin30° + 8a1cos30°
Sol. Range R and same for and 90 –
g 8g
30°
So same for 42° and 48°
u 2 sin 2
Maximum height H
2g to incline
H is high for higher N = 8g cos 30° – 8a1 sin 30° 32a1 = 4 3g 4a1
So H for 48° is higher than H for 42°
3
a1 g
Option (2) 9

2
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Along incline MgL3
Sol. y
8gsin30° + 8a1cos30° = ma2 = 8a2 4bd 3
1 3 3 2g y M 3 L b 3 d
a2 g g.
2 9 2 3 y M L b d
Option (4)
y 10 3 3 10 3
10 2 3 10 2
10 2
7. Due to cold weather a 1 m water pipe of
y 2 1 4 4 5
cross–sectional area 1 cm2 is filled with ice at
3
–10°C. Resistive heating is used to melt the ice. 10 0.5 3 2.5 7.5 2 = 0.0155
Current of 0.5 A is passed through 4 k resistance.
Option (2)
Assuming that all the heat produced is used for
melting, what is the minimum time required ? 9. Two resistors R1 = (4 ± 0.8) and R2 = (4 ± 0.4)
(Given latent heat of fusion for water/ice are connected in parallel. The equivalent
= 3.33 × 105 J kg–1, specific heat of ice = 2 × 103 J resistance of their parallel combination will be :
kg–1 and density of ice = 103 kg / m3
(1) (4 ± 0.4)
(1) 0.353 s (2) 35.3 s
(3) 3.53 s (4) 70.6 s (2) (2 ± 0.4)
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (3) (2 ± 0.3)
3 –4 –1
Sol. mass of ice m = A = 10 × 10 × 1 = 10 kg EN (4) (4 ± 0.3)
Energy required to melt the ice Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Q = ms T + mL 1 1 1
Sol.
= 10–1 (2 × 103 × 10 + 3.33 × 105) = 3.53 × 104 J R eq R1 R2
2
1
Q = i2RT 3.53 × 104 = 4 103 (t) 1 1 1
2 Req = 2
LL
R eq 4 4
Time = 35.3 sec
Option (2) R eq R1 R2
Also 2
8. A student determined Young's Modulus of R eq R 12 R 22
3
MgL R eq
elasticity using the formula Y . The value .8 .4 1.2
A

4bd 3
4 16 16 16
of g is taken to be 9.8 m/s2, without any significant
Req = 0.3
error, his observation are as following.
Least count of the Req = (2 ± 0.3)
Physical
Equipment used Observed value
Quantity Option (3)
for measurement
Mass (M) 1g 2 kg 10. The half life period of radioactive element x is
Length of bar (L) 1 mm 1m same as the mean life time of another radioactive
Breadth of bar (b) 0.1 mm 4 cm
element y. Initially they have the same number of
Thickness of bar (d) 0.01 mm 0.4 cm
Depression ( ) 0.01 mm 5 mm atoms. Then :
Then the fractional error in the measurement of Y (1) x–will decay faster than y.
is : (2) y– will decay faster than x.
(1) 0.0083 (2) 0.0155 (3) x and y have same decay rate initially and later
(3) 0.155 (4) 0.083 on different decay rate.
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (4) x and y decay at the same rate always.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

3
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Sol. t 1/2 Sol.
x y

n2 1
x = 0.693 y
x y µ=1 17.5 – H

Also initially Nx = Ny = N0
Activity A = N µ = 4/3 H
As x < y Ax < Ay
y will decay faster than x
Height of water observed by observer
Option (2)
H 3H
11. Following plots show Magnetization (M) vs 4/3 4
w
Magnetising field (H) and Magnetic susceptibility Height of air observed by observer = 17.5 – H
( ) vs temperature (T) graph : According to question, both height observed by
observer is same.
M M
3H
17.5 H
(a) (b) 4
H H
EN H = 10 cm
Option (2)
13. In the given figure, each diode has a forward bias
resistance of 30 and infinite resistance in reverse
(c) T (d)
T bias. The current I1 will be :
130
LL
Which of the following combination will be 130
represented by a diamagnetic material?
130
(1) (a), (c) (2) (a), (d)
(3) (b), (d) (4) (b), (c) I1 20
A

Official Ans. by NTA (1) 200 V

Sol. Conceptual question (1) 3.75 A (2) 2.35 A
Option (1) (3) 2 A (4) 2.73 A
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
12. A glass tumbler having inner depth of 17.5 cm is
D1 130
kept on a table. A student starts pouring water
(µ = 4/3) into it while looking at the surface of
D2 130
water from the above. When he feels that the
Sol.
tumbler is half filled, he stops pouring water. Up to D3 130
what height, the tumbler is actually filled ?
(1) 11.7 cm 200V 20
(2) 10 cm
(3) 7.5 cm
As per diagram,
(4) 8.75 cm Diode D1 & D2 are in forward bias i.e. R = 30
Official Ans. by NTA (2) whereas diode D3 is in reverse bias i.e. R = infinite
Equivalent circuit will be

4
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Applying KVL starting from point A 1 1 1 1
1
R eq 3 3 3
I1/2 D1 30 130 I1/2
Req = 1
Circuit becomes
D2 30 130 I1/2
2
I1/2
i
R= 130
1
I=0 30V
I1 I1
A
200V 20
30
i 10A
3
I1 I1 15. An object of mass 'm' is being moved with a
30 130 I1 20 200 0
2 2 constant velocity under the action of an applied
force of 2N along a frictionless surface with
– 100 I1 + 200 = 0
following surface profile.
I1 = 2

14.
Option (3)
For the given circuit the current i through the
EN D
battery when the key in closed and the steady state The correct applied force vs distance graph will be:
has been reached is_________. F
LL
2
2N
(1)
i
0.5mH 0.2 H
3 x
30V D
3 3
A

(1) 6 A (2) 25 A (3) 10 A (4) 0 A 2N

Official Ans. by NTA (3)

(2) x
Sol. In steady state, inductor behaves as a conducting
wire. –2N

So, equivalent circuit becomes

D

2 F

3 3 3 (3) D
30V x

–2N
Parallel (Req)

5
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F (1) 10 m/s2 (2) 5 m/s2
(3) 4 m/s2 (4) 9.8 m/s2
2N
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. From potential energy curve
(4) x
1 2 1 2
Umax = kA 10 = k 2
–2N 2 2
k=5
D
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Now Tspring = T pendulum
Sol. During upward motion
5 4
2 2
5 g

4
1 g = 4 on planet
g

Option (3)
17. A capacitor is connected to a 20 V battery through
EN a resistance of 10 . It is found that the potential
difference across the capacitor rises to 2 V in 1 µs.
F = 2N = (+ve) constant The capacitance of the capacitor is ....................µF.
During downward motion
10
F = 2N Given : ln 0.105
9
LL
V = constant (+ve)
(1) 9.52 (2) 0.95

mgsin (3) 0.105 (4) 1.85

Official Ans. by NTA (2)
A

t /RC
Sol. V V0 1 e
F = 2N = (–ve) constant
t / RC
Best possible answer is option (2) 2 20 1 e
16. A mass of 5 kg is connected to a spring. The
potential energy curve of the simple harmonic 1 t/RC
motion executed by the system is shown in the 1 e
10
figure. A simple pendulum of length 4 m has the
same period of oscillation as the spring system. t/RC 9
e
What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on 10
the planet where these experiments are performed?
10
e t/RC
10 9
t 10 t
n C=
10
U(J

5 RC 9
R n
9

10 6
C .95 F
0 2 4 10 .105
x(m)
Option (2)

6
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18. Four particles each of mass M, move along a circle 19. Electric field of plane electromagnetic wave
of radius R under the action of their mutual propagating through a non–magnetic medium is
gravitational attraction as shown in figure. The given by E = 20cos(2 × 1010 t–200x) V/m. The
speed of each particle is : dielectric constant of the medium is equal to :

M
(Take µr = 1)
M
R R 1
(1) 9 (2) 2 (3) (4) 3
3
R
R
90° Official Ans. by NTA (1)
M M 2 1010
Sol. Speed of wave = 108 m / s
200
1 GM 1 GM
(1) (2) (2 2 1)
2 R(2 2 1) 2 R 3 108
Refractive index = 3
108
1 GM GM
(3) (2 2 1) (4) Now refractive index =
2 R R r r

Official Ans. by NTA (2) 3 r 1

Sol. =9
EN r

M M Option (1)

R R 20. There are two infinitely long straight current

carrying conductors and they are held at right
R 2
F F1 R angles to each other so that their common ends
90°
R meet at the origin as shown in the figure given
LL
R 2
M F M below. The ratio of current in both conductor is
1 : 1. The magnetic field at point P is ____.

MV 2 y
Fnet
R
A

MV 2 P(x,y)
2F F1
R 2
I
2 1
GMM GMM MV
2 2 2
2R 2R R
O x
I
GM 1 1
V2
R 2 4 µ0I
(1) x2 y2 (x y)
4 xy
GM 4 2
V2 µ0I
R 4 2 (2) x2 y2 (x y)
4 xy
GM 4 2 µ 0 Ixy
V (3) x2 y2 (x y)
R4 2 4
µ 0 Ixy
(4) x2 y2 (x y)
1 GM 2 2 1 4
V
2 R
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Option (2)
7
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Sol. Sol. Pressure is not changing isobaric process
5nR T
U nCv T
y 2
and W = nR T
x P(x, y) U 5 x
x 25.00
I Wire (2) 2 W 2 10
1 y 2. The width of one of the two slits in a Young's
x2 y2 Wire(1)
double slit experiment is three times the other slit.
O I x
If the amplitude of the light coming from a slit is
proportional to the slit-width, the ratio of minimum
I o
to maximum intensity in the interference pattern is
Bdue to wire (1) = sin 90 sin 1
4 y x : 4 where x is _______.
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
I0 x
= 1 ……(1) Sol. Given amplitude slit width
4 y x2 y2
Also intensity (Amplitude)2 (Slit width)2
I 0
Bdue to wire (2) = sin 90 sin 2 2
4 x I1 3
9 I1 9I 2
EN I2 1
0I y
1 …..(2) 2
4 x x 2
y2 I min I1 I2 3 1
2
1 x
Total magnetic field I max I1 I2 3 1 4 4
B = B1 + B2
x = 1.00
0I 1 x 1 y 3. Two satellites revolve around a planet in coplanar
LL
B
4 y y x 2
y 2 x x x 2
y2 circular orbits in anticlockwise direction. Their
period of revolutions are 1 hour and 8 hours
0 I x y x2 y 2 respectively. The radius of the orbit of nearer
B
4 xy xy x 2 y 2 satellite is 2 × 103 km. The angular speed of the
farther satellite as observed from the nearer
A

0 I x y x2 y2
B satellite at the instant when both the satellites are
4 xy xy
closest is rad h–1 where x is ..........
0I
x
B x2 y2 x y
4 xy Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Option (1) Sol.
SECTION-B
1. The temperature of 3.00 mol of an ideal diatomic 1 2

gas is increased by 40.0 °C without changing the

pressure of the gas. The molecules in the gas rotate
but do not oscillate. If the ratio of change in
internal energy of the gas to the amount of
x
workdone by the gas is . Then the value of x
10
(round off to the nearest integer) is _______.
T1 = 1 hour
(Given R = 8.31 J mol–1 K–1)
1 = 2 rad/hour
Official Ans. by NTA (25)
T2 = 8 hours
8
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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/01-09-2021/Evening Session
a = g sin30°
2 = rad / hour
4 1 2
by S = ut + at
R1 = 2 × 103 km 2
As T2 R3 1g 2 g 2
3 2
S= T T …….(i)
R2 T2 22 4
R1 T1 µmgcos30
2 /3
R2 8 a
4 R2 8 10 3 km
R1 1
mgsin30°

V1 V 30°

On rough incline
a = g sin30° – µg cos 30°
1 2
by S = ut + at
2

V1
V2
1

2
R1
R2
4
2
10 3 km / h
10 3 km / h
EN S
1
4
g 1 3
2
T …(ii)

By (i) and (ii)

V1 V2 2 103
Relative 1 2 1
R 2 R1 6 103 gT g 1 3 2
T2
4 4
LL
= rad / hour 1 2
1 1
3 1 3g g= .
2 2
x=3 3
4. When a body slides down from rest along a smooth x = 3.00
inclined plane making an angle of 30° with the
horizontal, it takes time T. When the same body 5. The average translational kinetic energy of N2 gas
A

slides down from the rest along a rough inclined molecules at ...........°C becomes equal to the K.E.
plane making the same angle and through the same of an electron accelerated from rest through a
distance, it takes time T, where is a constant potential difference of 0.1 volt.
greater than 1. The co-efficient of friction between
(Given kB = 1.38 × 10–23 J/K)
2
1 –1
the body and the rough plane is 2 (Fill the nearest integer).
x
where x = ........... Official Ans. by NTA (500)
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Sol. Given
Sol. Translation K.E. of N2 = K.E. of electron
3
a kT eV
2
mgsin30°
3 23 19
1.38 10 T 1.6 10 0.1
2
30°
T 773k
T = 773 – 273 = 500°C
On smooth incline

9
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/01-09-2021/Evening Session
6. A uniform heating wire of resistance 36 is 1 2 1m 2 2
by energy conservation mg I
connected across a potential difference of 240 V. 2 2 3
The wire is then cut into half and potential
6g
difference of 240 V is applied across each half
separately. The ratio of power dissipation in first
case to the total power dissipation in the second Speed v = r = = 6g
case would be 1 : x, where x is...........
v 6 10 .6 6m / s
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2 9. A carrier wave with amplitude of 250 V is
V2 240 amplitude modulated by a sinusoidal base band
Sol. First case P1
R 36 signal of amplitude 150 V. The ratio of minimum
Second case Resistance of each half = 18 amplitude to maximum amplitude for the
2 2 2 amplitude modulated wave is 50 : x, then value of
240 240 240
P2 x is ...........
18 18 9
Official Ans. by NTA (200)
P1 1
Sol. Amax = AC + Am = 250 + 150 = 400
P2 4
Amin = AC– Am = 250 – 150 = 100
x = 4.00
A min 100 1 50
7. A steel rod with y = 2.0 × 1011 Nm–2 and EN A max 400 4 200
= 10–5 °C–1 of length 4 m and area of
x = 200
cross-section 10 cm2 is heated from 0° C to 400°C
without being allowed to extend. The tension 10. An engine is attached to a wagon through a shock
produced in the rod is x × 105 N where the value of absorber of length 1.5 m. The system with a total
x is ............. mass of 40,000 kg is moving with a speed of
72 kmh–1 when the brakes are applied to bring it to
Official Ans. by NTA (8)
LL
rest. In the process of the system being brought to
Sol. Thermal force F = Ay T rest, the spring of the shock absorber gets
F = (10 × 10 ) (2 × 10 ) (10–5)(400)
–4 11
compressed by 1.0 m. If 90% of energy of the
F = 8 × 105 N wagon is lost due to friction, the spring constant is
x=8 ............. × 105 N/m.
A

8. A 2 kg steel rod of length 0.6 m is clamped on a Official Ans. by NTA (16)

table vertically at its lower end and is free to rotate Sol. Work = K.E.
in vertical plane. The upper end is pushed so that 1 2
the rod falls under gravity, Ignoring the friction Wfriction + Wspring = 0 – mv
2
due to clamping at its lower end, the speed of the
90 1 1
free end of rod when it passes through its lowest mv 2 WSpring mv 2
100 2 2
position is ............ms–1. (Take g = 10 ms–2)
Official Ans. by NTA (6) 10 1 2
Wspring mv
Sol. 100 2
1 2 1
kx mv2
2 20
2
40000 20
k 2
16 10 5
10 1

10
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 FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021
(Held On Wednesday 01st September, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

CHEMISTRY TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 5. Identify A in the following reaction.
1. Water sample is called cleanest on the basis of NH2
which one of the BOD values given below
K2Cr2O7
(1) 11 ppm (2) 15 ppm A
(3) 3 ppm (4) 21 ppm
Official Ans. by NTA (3) O

Sol. Clean water could have BOD value of less than

(1)
5 ppm whereas highly polluted water could have a
BOD value of 17 ppm or more.
2. Calamine and Malachite, respectively, are the ores of : O
(1) Nickel and Aluminium NH2
(2) Zinc and Copper
(3) Copper and Iron EN (2)
(4) Aluminium and Zinc KO
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
NO2
Sol. Calamine  ZnCO3
(3)
Malachite  Cu(OH)2·CuCO3
3. Experimentally reducing a functional group
cannot be done by which one of the following NO2
LL
reagents ? (4)
(1) Pt-C/H2 (2) Na/H2 H
(3) Pd-C/H2 (4) Zn/H2O
Official Ans. by NTA (2) Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. Solution NaH2 is not reducing agent
NH2 O
4. Which one of the following given graphs
A

Sol. K2Cr2O7
represents the variation of rate constant (k) with
[O]
temperature (T) for an endothermic reaction ?
Aniline O
[A]
(1) (2) 6. In the following sequence of reactions a compound
k k
A, (molecular formula C6H12O2) with a straight
T T chain structure gives a C4 carboxylic acid. A is :
A 
LiAlH4
H O
 B 
Oxidation
 C4  carboxylic acid
3

(3) (4) (1) CH3 – CH2 – COO – CH2 – CH2 – CH3

k k
OH
T T (2) CH3–CH2–CH–CH2–O–CH=CH2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) (3) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – COO – CH2 – CH3
Sol. By observation we get this plot during measurable (4) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH = CH – CH2 – OH
temperatures Official Ans. by NTA (3)
rd
Ans. 3 Option.

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Sol. Sol. V3+  = 2 × 0.4 0
CH3–CH2–CH2–C–O–CH2–CH3 (A) [C6H12O2] eg

O = –0.8 0
t2g
(1) LiAlH4
(2) H3O+ = 2 unpaired e
–

CH3–CH2–CH2–CH2–OH + CH3 –CH2– µ = 2.89 Bm

OH (B) Co2+  [2 × 0.6 0 – 5 × 0.4 0]
eg
[O]
= –0.8 0
CH3–CH2–CH2–C–OH [C4 carboxylic acid]
3 unpaired e–  µ = 3.87 BM
t2g
O
hence d7 configuration is of Co2+ Ans.

7. Match List – I with List - II. 9. Monomer units of Dacron polymer are :
List -I List -II
(1) ethylene glycol and phthalic acid
(Colloid Preparation (Chemical Reaction)
Method)
(2) ethylene glycol and terephthalic acid
(a) Hydrolysis (i) 2AuCl3 + 3HCHO + 3H2O
 (3) glycerol and terephthalic acid
2Au(sol) + 3HCOOH + EN
6HC1 (4) glycerol and phthalic acid
(b) Reduction (ii) As2O3 + 3H2S  As2S3(sol)
+ 3H2O Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(c) Oxidation (iii) SO2 + 2H2S  3S(sol)
+2H2O Sol.
(d) Double (iv) FeCl3 + 3H2O 
Decomposition Fe(OH)3(sol) + 3HCl HO C C OH + HO CH2 CH2 OH
LL

Choose the most appropriate answer from the O O

options given below. (Terephthalic acid) (Ethylene glycol)

(1) (a)-(i), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(iv)

(2) (a)-(iv), (b)-(i), (c)-(iii), (d)-(ii)
A

C C O CH2 CH2 O
(3) (a)-(iv), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iii), (d)-(i) O O n
(4) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)
Dacron
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. According to type of reactions for preparation, 10. Which one of the following compounds is aromatic
in nature ?
colloids have been classified
8. The Crystal Field Stabilization Energy (CFSE) and (1) (2)
magnetic moment (spin-only) of an octahedral
aqua complex of a metal ion (Mz+) are –0.8  and
CH3
3.87 BM, respectively. Identify (M ) :
Z+

+
(1) V
3+
(2) Cr
3+ (3) (4)
4+ 2+
(3) Mn (4) Co Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Allen Ans. (1,4)
Sol. (1) (Acenaphthene)

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 

10 e– in cyclic conjugation C3H6 

H /H2 O
 A 
KIO
dil KOH
B + C
The compounds B and C respectively are :
Aromatic (1) CI3COOK, HCOOH (2) CI3COOK, CH3I
(3) CH3I, HCOOK (4) CHI3, CH3COOK
(2)  4e– in ring conjugation  Anti Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol.
Aromatic
OH
(3)  CH  4e– in ring conjugation  
3 H /H2O
CH3 CH CH2 CH3 CH CH3
Antiaromatic (C3H6) (A)
(4) (Iodoform) KOI/dil·KOH

 6e– in ring conjugation  Aromatic

CHI3 + CH3 C OK

Cyclopentadienyl anion O
11. In the given chemical reaction, colors of the Fe 2+ (B) (C)

and Fe3+ ions, are respectively : 15. Given below are two statements :
5Fe + MnO4 + 8H  Mn + 4H2O + 5Fe
2+ – + 2+ 3+ Statement I : The nucleophilic addition of sodium
(1) Yellow, Orange (2) Yellow, Green hydrogen sulphite to an aldehyde or a ketone
involves proton transfer to form a stable ion.
(3) Green, Orange (4) Green, Yellow
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
2+
Sol. Colour of Fe is observed green and Fe is yellow
3+
EN Statement II : The nucleophilic addition of
hydrogen cyanide to an aldehyde or a ketone yields
amine as final product.
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
12. The stereoisomers that are formed by electrophilic
appropriate answer from the options given below :
addition of bromine to trans-but-2-ene is/are : (1) Both Statement I and Statement II are true.
(2) Statement I is true but Statement II is false.
LL
(1) 2 enantiomers and 2 mesomers (3) Statement I is false but Statement II is true.
(4) Both Statement I and Statement II are false.
(2) 2 identical mesomers
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(3) 2 enantiomers Sol. Statement I : Correct

(4) 1 racemic and 2 enantiomers

O
A

NaHSO3 O
Official Ans. by NTA (2) C O C
S O H transfer
Sol. O of proton
CH3 OH
H Br C
Br2/CCl4 SO3Na
(Anti)
H Br (White crystalline
Trans-2-butene CH3 soluble ppt)
[I]
Statement II :
meso product

13. Hydrogen peroxide reacts with iodine in basic HC OH

C O C
medium to give : CN
HCN [Cyanohydrin]
(1) IO4 (2) IO– (3) I– (4) IO3

Official Ans. by NTA (3) amin Wrong statement

Sol. I2 + H2O2 + 2OH–  2I– + 2H2O + O2 (Amine not formed)

14. In the following sequence of reactions,

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16. Which one of the following gives the most stable Sol. (1) N N+ O–
Diazonium salt ? O O
NH2 N +
N +

(1) CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 (2) (2)

O– O–
CH3 O O

CH3 (3) N N unsymmetrical
NHCH3 –
(3) CH3 C NH2 (4) O

H
N O N symmetrical
Official Ans. by NTA (2) O O
+ O–
NH2 NaNO2+HCl N O
+ +
Sol. (1) N O N
(4)
NaNO2+HCl O O–
H3C NH2
(2)
19. Number of paramagnetic oxides among the
+
NN H3C following given oxides is __________.
(Most stable) +H-effect EN Li2O, CaO, Na2O2, KO2, MgO and K2O
(3) (1) 1 (2) 2
+ (3) 3 (4) 0
CH3 CH NH2 NaNO2+HCl H3C CH N
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
CH3 CH3
Sol. Li2O  2Li+ O2– MgO  Mg2+ O2–
(4)
 Ca K2O  2K
2+ 2– + 2–
CaO O O
LL

NaNO2+HCl
NH CH3 Diazonium salt Na2O2  2Na+ O22 
not form
KO2  K+ O 2
NaNO2+HCl
N CH3 (N, O 2  Complete octet, diamagnetic
alkyl nitroso
N O
A

O  1s2 1s*2  22s *2

2s  2px  2p y
2 2
22p z *2 *2
2–
amine) 2p y 2p z (dia)

O 2  1s 1s  2s  2s  22px  22p y

2 *2 2 *2
22p z *2
2p y 2p z (para) 
*1
17. The potassium ferrocyanide solution gives a
Prussian blue colour, when added to : 20. Identify the element for which electronic

(1) CoCl3 (2) FeCl2 configuration in +3 oxidation state is [Ar]3d5:

(3) CoCl2 (4) FeCl3 (1) Ru (2) Mn

Official Ans. by NTA (4) (3) Co (4) Fe

Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sol. FeCl3 + K4[Fe(CN)6]  Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
Prussian blue Sol. Fe3+ [Ar] 3d5
18. The oxide without nitrogen-nitrogen bond is :
(1) N2O (2) N2O4
(3) N2O3 (4) N2O5
Official Ans. by NTA (4)

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 SECTION-B 298(176)
G = 57.8 
1000
1. An empty LPG cylinder weighs 14.8 kg. When
G = –5.352 kJ/mole
full, it weighs 29.0 kg and shows a pressure of 3.47
|Nearest integer value| = 5
atm. In the course of use at ambient temperature,
4. The sum of oxidation states of two silver ions in
the mass of the cylinder is reduced to 23.0 kg. The
[Ag(NH3)2] [Ag(CN)2] complex is _______.
final pressure inside of the cylinder is ______atm.
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
(Nearest integer)
(Assume LPG of be an ideal gas) Sol. [Ag(NH3)2]+ [Ag(CN)2]–
+1 +1
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Sol. Initial mass of gas = 29 –14.8 = 14.2 Kg 5. The number of atoms in 8 g of sodium is x × 1023.
mass of gas used = 29 –23 = 6 Kg The value of x is________.(Nearest integer)
gas left = 14.2 – 6 = 8.2 Kg [Given : NA = 6.02 × 1023 mol–1
 14.2  103 
(1) 3.47 × V =   ×R×T Atomic mass of Na = 23.0 u]
 M 
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
 8.2  103 
(2) p × V =  ×R×T

Divide :
 M 
EN Sol. No. of atoms =
8
23
× 6.02 × 1023 = 2.09 × 1023

2 × 10
23

(1) 3.47 14.2 = x × 1023

 
(2) P 8.2
x=2
P = 2.003
6. If 80 g of copper sulphate CuSO4·5H2O is
LL

2. The molar solubility of Zn(OH)2 in 0.1 M NaOH

dissolved in deionised water to make 5 L of
solution is x × 10–18 M. The value of x is
solution. The concentration of the copper sulphate
_____(Nearest integer) –3 –1
solution is x × 10 mol L . The value of x is
(Given : The solubility product of Zn(OH)2 is _________.
A

–20
2 × 10 )
[Atomic masses Cu : 63.54 u, S : 32 u, O : 16 u, H : 1 u]
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (64)
+2 –
Sol. Zn(OH)2 (s) Zn (aq) + 2OH (aq)
80
Sol. Moles of CuSO4·5H2O =
S (0.1 + 2s) 0.1 249.54
2
Ksp = S(0.1) 80
Molarity = = 64.117 × 10–3
2 × 10–20 = s × 10–2  s = 2 × 10–18 249.54
= x × 10
–18
5
x=2 Nearest integer, x = 64

3. For the reaction 2NO2(g) N2O4(g), when 7. A 50 watt bulb emits monochromatic red light of
wavelength of 795 nm. The number of photons
S = –176.0 JK–1 and H = –57.8 kJ mol–1, the emitted per second by the bulb is x × 1020. The
magnitude of G at 298 K for the reaction is_____ value of x is _________.
kJ mol–1. (Nearest integer) [Given : h = 6.63 × 10–34 Js and c = 3.0 × 108 ms–1]
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Official Ans. by NTA (5)
Sol. Total energy per sec. = 50 J
Sol. G = H – TS

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 n  6.63  10 –34  3  108 10. A peptide synthesized by the reactions of one
50 =
795  10 9 molecule each of Glycine, Leucine, Aspartic acid
n = 1998.49 × 1017 [ n = no. of photons per second] and Histidine will have ________ peptide linkages.
= 1.998 × 1020
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
2 × 1020
= x × 1020
x=2
Sol. Glycine —leucine—Aspartic acid—Histidine

8. The spin-only magnetic moment value of B 2
peptide peptide peptide
–2
species is ________×10 BM. (Nearest integer) link link link

Total (3) peptide linkages are present

[Given : 3  1.73 ]
O O O O
Official Ans. by NTA (173) H2N–CH2–C–NH–CH–C–NH–CH–C–NH–CH–C–OH
CH2 CH2 CH2
B2  1s 1s  2s  2s  2py
2 *2 2 *2
Sol.
1
02pz CH–CH3 C–OH N
CH3 O N
 9e –

H
µ  1(1  2)  3 BM 3 peptide linkage
= 1.73 BM EN Ans. (3)
= 1.73 × 10–2 BM
9. If the conductivity of mercury at 0°C is 1.07 × 106
S m–1 and the resistance of a cell containing
mercury is 0.243 , then the cell constant of the
cell is x × 104 m–1. The value of x is
LL

_______.(Nearest integer)
Official Ans. by NTA (26)

Sol. k = 1.07 × 106 Sm–1, R = 0.243 

A

1 1
       G=   –1
R 0.243
*
k=G×G
k 1.07  10 6
G* = = 26 × 104 m–1
G 1
0.243

6
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 Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/01-09-2021/Evening Session

FINAL JEE–MAIN EXAMINATION – AUGUST, 2021

(Held On Wednesday 01st September, 2021) TIME : 3 : 00 PM to 6 : 00 PM

MATHEMATICS TEST PAPER WITH SOLUTION

SECTION-A 3. Consider the system of linear equations
1. Let ƒ : R ® R be a continuous function. Then – x + y + 2z = 0
3x – ay + 5z =1
sec2 x
p 2x – 2y – az = 7
ò f ( x ) dx
4 Let S1 be the set of all a Î R for which the system
lim 2
is equal to :
x®
p p2 is inconsistent and S2 be the set of all a Î R for
4 x - 2

16 which the system has infinitely many solutions. If

n(S1) and n(S2) denote the number of elements in S1
(1) ƒ (2) (2) 2ƒ (2)
and S2 respectively, then
(3) 2ƒ ( 2) (4) 4 ƒ (2) (1) n(S1) = 2, n(S2) = 2 (2) n(S1) = 1, n(S2) = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (2) (3) n(S1) = 2, n(S2) = 0 (4) n(S1) = 0, n(S2) = 2
sec2 x Official Ans. by NTA (3)
p
ò f ( x ) dx -1 1 2
4 2
EN Sol. D = 3 -a 5
Sol. lim
x®
p p2 2 -2 - a
4 x2 -
16 = –1(a2 + 10) –1(–3a–10) + 2(–6 + 2a)
= –a2 – 10 + 3a + 10 – 12 + 4a

lim .
2
( )
p éëf sec x .2 sec x.sec x tan x ùû D = – a2 + 7a – 12
x® 4
p 2x D = – [a2 – 7a + 12]
4
LL
D = – [(a – 3)(a – 4)]
p sin x 0 1 2
lim
x®
p 4
(
f sec2 x .sec 3 x.
x
) D1 = 1 -a 5
4 7 -2 -a
= 0 – 1 (– a – 35) + 2( – 2 + 7a)
p
( ) 4 1
3
f ( 2) .
A

2 . ´ Þ a + 35 – 4 + 14a
4 2 p 15a + 31
Now D1 = 15a + 31
Þ 2f(2)
For inconsistent D = 0 \ a = 3, a = 4
2. cos–1 (cos (–5)) + sin–1 (sin (6)) – tan–1 (tan (12)) is and for a = 3 and 4 D1 ¹ 0
n(S1) = 2
equal to :
For infinite solution : D = 0
(The inverse trigonometric functions take the
and D1 = D 2 = D 3 = 0
principal values) Not possible
(1) 3p – 11 (2) 4 p – 9 \ n(S2) = 0
4. Let the acute angle bisector of the two planes
(3) 4 p – 11 (4) 3p + 1 x – 2y – 2z + 1 = 0 and 2x – 3y – 6z + 1 = 0 be the
Official Ans. by NTA (3) plane P. Then which of the following points lies on
P?
Sol. cos–1 (cos (–5)) + sin–1 (sin (6)) – tan–1 (tan (12))
æ 1ö æ 1ö
(1) ç 3,1, - ÷ (2) ç -2, 0, - ÷
Þ (2p – 5) + (6 – 2 p) – (12 – 4 p) è 2ø è 2ø
Þ 4p – 11. (3) (0, 2, –4) (4) (4, 0, – 2)
Official Ans. by NTA (2)

1
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Sol. P1 : x – 2y – 2z + 1 = 0 Sol. Total ways of choosing square = 64C2
P2 : 2x – 3y – 6z + 1 = 0 64 ´ 63
= = 32 ´ 63
2 ´1
x - 2y - 2z + 1 2x - 3y - 6z + 1 ways of choosing two squares having common side
=
1+ 4 + 4 2 +3 +6
2 2 2
= 2 (7 × 8) = 112
112 16 1
x - 2y - 2z + 1 2x - 3y - 6z + 1 Required probability = = = .
=± 32 ´ 63 32 ´ 9 18
3 7
Ans. (2)
Since a1a2 + b1b2 + c1c2 = 20 > 0 7. If y = y (x) is the solution curve of the differential
\ Negative sign will give æ 1ö
equation x 2 dy + ç y - ÷ dx = 0 ; x > 0 and
acute bisector è xø
7x – 14y – 14z + 7 = –[6x – 9y – 18z + 3] æ1ö
y(1) = 1, then y ç ÷ is equal to :
è2ø
Þ 13x – 23y – 32z + 10 = 0
3 1 1
(1) - (2) 3 +
æ 1ö 2 e e
çè -2, 0, - ÷ø satisfy it \ Ans (2)
2 (3) 3 + e (4) 3 – e
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
5. Which of the following is equivalent to the
Boolean expression p Ù ~q ? æ 1ö
EN Sol. x 2 dy + ç y - ÷ dx = 0 : x > 0, y(1) = 1
è xø
(1) ~ (q ® p) (2) ~ p ® ~q
(3) ~ (p ® ~q) (4) ~ (p ® q) x 2 dy +
( xy - 1) dx = 0
Official Ans. by NTA (4) x
p q ~ p ~ q p - q ~ ( p ® q) q ® p ~ ( q ® p)
x 2 dy =
( xy - 1) dx
Sol. T T F F T F T F
T F F T F T T F x
F T T F T F F T
LL

F F T T T F T F dy 1 - xy
=
pÙ ~ q ~ p ®~ q p ®~ q ~ ( p ®~ q ) dx x3
F T F T dy 1 y
T T T F = 3- 2
dx x x
F F T F
F T T F dy 1 1
= 2 .y = 3
A

p Ù ~q º ~ (p ® q) dx x x
Option (4) ò
1
dx -
1

6. Two squares are chosen at random on a chessboard If e x2

= e x

(see figure). The probability that they have a side -

1
1 -1
in common is : ye x
= ò 3 .e x
x
1
- æ 1ö
ye x
= e- x ç1 + ÷ + C
64 square è xø
1.e–1 = e–1(2) + C
1
C = – e–1 = –
e
1 1
- æ 1ö 1-
ye x
= e ç1 + ÷ - x
è xø e
2 1
(1) (2) æ 1ö 1
7 18 y ç ÷ = 3 - ´ e2
è 2ø e
1 1
(3) (4)
7 9 æ 1ö
yç ÷ = 3 -e
Official Ans. by NTA (2) è 2ø

2
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8. If n is the number of solutions of the equation 9. The function ƒ(x) = x3 – 6x2 + ax + b is such that

ƒ(2) = ƒ(4) = 0. Consider two statements.

æ æp ö æp ö ö
2 cos x ç 4 sin ç + x ÷ sin ç - x ÷ - 1 ÷ = 1 ,xÎ[0, p]
è è4 ø è4 ø ø (S1) there exists x1, x2 Î (2, 4), x1 < x2, such that

and S is the sum of all these solutions, then the ƒ'(x1) = –1 and ƒ' (x2) = 0.

ordered pair (n, S) is : (S2) there exists x3, x4 Î (2, 4), x3 < x4, such that

(1) (3, 13p / 9) (2) (2, 2p / 3) ƒ is decreasing in (2, x4), increasing in (x4, 4)

(3) (2, 8p / 9) (4) (3, 5p / 3) and 2ƒ' (x3) = 3ƒ ( x 4 ) .

Official Ans. by NTA (1) Then

(1) both (S1) and (S2) are true

æ æp ö æp ö ö
Sol. 2 cos x ç 4 sin ç + x÷ sin ç - x÷ - 1÷ = 1
è è4 ø è4 ø ø (2) (S1) is false and (S2) is true

(3) both (S1) and (S2) are false

æ æ p ö ö
2 cos x ç 4 ç sin 2 - sin 2 x÷ - 1÷ = 1 (4) (S1) is true and (S2) is false
è è 4 ø ø EN Official Ans. by NTA (1)
æ æ1 ö ö
2 cos x ç 4 ç - sin 2 x÷ - 1÷ = 1 Sol. f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + ax + b
è è2 ø ø
f(2) = 8 – 24 + 2a + b = 0
(
2 cos x 2 - 4 sin x - 1 = 1
2
) 2a + b = 16 …(1)
LL

f(4) = 64 – 96 + 4a + b = 0
( )
2 cos x 1 - 4 sin 2 x = 1
4a + b = 32 …(2)

(
2 cos x 4 cos 2 x - 3 = 1) Solving (1) and (2)

a = 8, b = 0
A

1
4 cos x - 3 cos x =
3

2 f ( x) = x3 – 6x 2 + 8x

1 f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 8x
cos 3x =
2
f'(x) = 3x2 – 12x + 8
x Î [0, p] \ 3x Î [0, 3p] f"(x) = 6x – 12

Þ f'(x) is ­ for x > 2, and f'(x) is ¯ for x < 2

f'(2) = 12 – 24 + 8 = – 4

f'(4) = 48 – 48 + 8 = 8
3p
0 p/3 5p/3 2p 7p/3 f'(x) = 3x2 – 12x + 8

vertex (2, – 4)

f'(2) = –4, f'(4) = 8, f'(3) = 27 – 36 + 8

3
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Ö Ö Ö
Sol.

x1 J6+i, 3–Ji+3,3 ; i £ j
x6+ i xi+3
1 1
0 1 2 3 x2 4
Þ ò0 x3 - 1 ò0 x3 - 1
2
- 2

1/ 2 x
i +3
(
x3 - 1 )
Þ ò 0 x -13

1/2
x 3 + i +1 æ x 4+ i ö
–4 Þ =ç
3 + i + 1 è 4 + i ÷ø 0
4+i
æ1ö
f'(x1) = –1, then x1 = 3 ç ÷
2
aij = j6 + i, 3 – ji + 3, 3 = è ø
f'(x2) = 0 4+i
5
Again f'(x) < 0 for x Î (2, x4) æ 1ö
çè ÷ø 1
2
f'(x) > 0 for x Î (x4, 4) EN a11 = =
5 5.25
x4 Î (3, 4) 1
a12 =
f(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 8x 5.2 5
1
f(3) = 27 – 54 + 24 = –3 a13 =
5.25
f(4) = 64 – 96 + 32 = 0
1
a 22 =
LL

For x4(3, 4) 6.26

1
f(x4) < –3 3 a 23 =
6.2 6
and f'(x3) > –4 1
a 33 =
2f'(x3) > –8 7.27
A

é 1 1 1 ù
So, 2f'(x3) = 3 f (x4) ê 5.25 5.25 5.25 ú
Correct Ans. (1) ê ú
ê 1 1 ú
A= 0
1 ê 6.26 6.26 ú
2
xn ê ú
10. Let J n,m = ò0 xm - 1 dx, " n > m and n, m Î N . ê 0 0
1 ú
ëê 7.2 7 úû
Consider a matrix A = [aij]3 × 3 where 1 é 1 1 ù
| A |= ´
5.2 ë 6.2 7.2 7 úû
5 ê 6

a ij = { J 6 + i,3 - J i +3,3 , i £ j
0 , i>j
. Then adjA –1 is :
| A |=
1
210.218
(1) (15)2 × 242 (2) (15)2 × 234 n -1 2 1
adjA -1 = A -1 = A -1 =
(A)
2 2 36 2
(3) (105) × 2 38
(4) (105) × 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3) Þ (210.218)2
(105)2 × 238

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11. The area, enclosed by the curves y = sin x + cos x Now 3(3K – 1) + 6(6K + 1)1 + 9(9K + 1) =0
p 1
and y = cos x - sin x and the lines x = 0, x = , ÞK=
2 3
is :
Point on line Þ (0, 3, 4)
(1) 2 2 ( 2 - 1) (2) 2 ( 2 + 1)
Given point (2, –1, 6)
(3) 4 ( 2 - 1) (4) 2 2 ( 2 + 1)
Official Ans. by NTA (1) Þ Distance = 4 + 16 + 4 = 2 6
p
Sol. A=ò 2
( ( sin x + cosx ) - cosx - sin x )dx Option (3)
0

æ1 3ö
p 13. Consider the parabola with vertex ç , ÷ and the
A=ò 2
( ( sin x + cosx ) - ( cosx - sin x ) )dx è2 4ø
0

1
p directrix y = . Let P be the point where the
+ òp 2 ( ( sin x + cos x ) - ( sin x - cos x ) )dx 2
4
1
parabola meets the line x = – . If the normal to
p p 2
A = 2 ò 2 sin xdx + 2 òp 2 cos xdx
the parabola at P intersects the parabola again at

æ 1
A = -2 ç
ö
0

æ
- 1÷ + 2 ç1 -
1 ö
4
EN the point Q, then (PQ)2 is equal to :
75 125
÷ (1) (2)
è 2 ø è 2ø 8 16
25 15
A = 4 – 2 2 = 2 2 ( 2 – 1) (3) (4)
2 2
LL

Option (1) Official Ans. by NTA (2)

12. The distance of line 3y – 2z – 1 = 0 = 3x – z + 4

x=–
from the point (2, – 1, 6) is : Sol. Q

26 (2) 2 5
A

(1) P

(3) 2 6 (4) 4 2
Official Ans. by NTA (3)
Sol. 3y – 2z – 1 = 0 = 3x – z + 4
O
3y – 2z – 1 = 0 D.R¢s Þ (0, 3, –2)

3x – z + 4 = 0 D.R¢s Þ (3, –1, 0) 2

æ 3ö æ 1ö
ç y - ÷ = ç x - ÷ ... (1)
Let DR¢s of given line are a, b, c è 4ø è 2ø

Now 3b – 2c = 0 & 3a – c = 0 1
For x = –
2
\ 6a = 3b = 2c
3 7 æ 1 7ö
a:b:c=3:6:9 y- =1 Þ y = Þ Pç- , ÷
4 4 è 2 4ø
Any pt on line
æ 1ö 1
Now y=¢ 2 ç x - ÷ At x = -
3K – 1, 6K + 1, 9K + 1 è 2ø 2
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1 Here (a, b) = (2, –1) or (–1, 2)
Þ mT = – 2, mN =
2
Hence (a, b) = (–(a + b), ab)
Equation of Normal is
= (–1, –2)
7 1æ 1ö
y- = çx + ÷ (II) a = b2 – 2 and b = a2 – 2
4 2è 2ø

x Then a – b = b2 – a2 = (b – a) (b + a)
y = +2
2
Since a ¹ b we get a + b = b2 + a2 – 4
Now put y in equation (1)
a + b = (a + b)2 – 2ab – 4
2
x 3 æ 1ö
+ 2 - = çx - ÷ Thus –1 = 1 – 2 ab – 4 which implies
2 4 è 2ø
ab = –1 Therefore (a, b) = (–(a + b), ab)
1
Þx=2&–
2 = (1, –1)

Þ Q(2, 3) (III) a = a2 – 2 = b2 – 2 and a ¹ b

Now (PQ)2 =
125
16
EN Þa=–b

Thus a = 2, b = –2
Option (2)
a = – 1, b = 1
14. The numbers of pairs (a, b) of real numbers, such
LL
that whenever a is a root of the equation Therefore (a, b) = (0, –4) & (0, –1)
x + ax + b = 0 , a – 2 is also a root of this
2 2

(IV) b = a2 – 2 = b2 – 2 and a ¹ b is same as (III)

equation, is :
(1) 6 (2) 2 Therefore we get 6 pairs of (a, b)
(3) 4 (4) 8
A

Which are (2, 1), (–4, 4), (–1, –2), (1, –1) (0, –4)
Official Ans. by NTA (1)
Sol. Consider the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 Option (1)
If has two roots (not necessarily real a & b) 15. Let Sn = 1 · (n –1) + 2· (n – 2) + 3 · (n–3) +…. +
Either a = b or a ¹ b
(n –1) · 1 , n ³ 4.
Case (1) If a = b, then it is repeated root. Given
¥
æ 2Sn 1 ö
that a – 2 is also a root
2 The sum å çè
=
n 4
- ÷ is equal to :
n! ( n - 2 ) ! ø
So, a = a – 2 Þ (a + 1)(a – 2) = 0
2

e -1 e-2
Þ a = – 1 or a = 2 (1) (2)
3 6
When a = –1 then (a, b) = (2, 1)
e e
(3) (4)
a = 2 then (a, b) = (–4, 4) 3 6

Case (2) If a ¹ b Then Official Ans. by NTA (1)

(I) a = a2 – 2 and b = b2 – 2

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Sol. Let Tr = r (n – r) 17. The range of the function,
Tr = nr – r2
æ æ 3p ö æp ö æp ö æ 3p ö ö
f(x) = log 5 ç 3 + cos ç + x ÷ + cos ç + x ÷ + cos ç - x ÷ - cos ç - x ÷ ÷
n n è è4 ø è4 ø è4 ø è 4 øø
Þ Sn = å T = å ( nr - r
r
2 ) is :
(1) ( 0, 5 )
r =1 r =1
(2) [–2, 2]
n. ( n )( n + 1) n ( n + 1) ( 2n + 1) é 1 ù
Sn = - (3) ê , 5 ú (4) [0, 2]
2 6 ë 5 û
n ( n - 1)( n + 1)
Official Ans. by NTA (4)
Sn =
6 Sol. f(x) = log 5
æ æ 3p ö æp ö æp ö æ 3p öö
¥
æ 2Sn 1 ö ç 3 + cos ç + x ÷ + cos ç + x ÷ + cos ç - x ÷ - cos ç - x ÷ ÷
Now å çè - ÷
n! ( n - 2 )! ø
è è 4
é
ø è4
æpö
ø è4 ø
æ 3p ö
è 4 øø
ù
=r 4
f(x) = log 5 ê3 + 2cos ç ÷ cos ( x ) - 2sin ç ÷ sin ( x ) ú
ë è 4 ø è 4 ø û
¥
æ n ( n - 1)( n + 1) 1 ö [3 +
= å ç 2. - ÷ f(x) = log 2 ( cosx - sin x )]
6.n ( n - 1)( n - 2 )! ( n - 2 )! ø
5
r=4 è
Since – 2 £ cos x – sinx £ 2
æ1æ n -2+3ö
¥
1 ö Þ log é3 + 2 ( - 2 ) £ f ( x ) £ log éë3 + 2 ( 2 ) ùû ù
= åç ç ÷ - ë û
( n - 2 )! ÷ø
5 5
( )
r=4 è 3 è n - 2 ! ø Þ log 5 (1) £ f(x) £ log 5 ( 5)
¥
=å ·
1
r=4 3
1 1
= ( e - 1)
( n - 3) ! 3
EN So Range of f(x) is [0, 2]
Option (4)
20
4 1
18. Let a1,a2,......,a21 be an AP such that åa a= .
9
Option (1) n = 1 n n +1

If the sum of this AP is 189, then a6a16 is equal to :

16. Let P1, P2, ….., P15 be 15 points on a circle. The
(1) 57 (2) 72
(3) 48 (4) 36
LL
number of distinct triangles formed by points
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
Pi, Pj, Pk such that i + j + k ¹ 15, is : 20
1 20
1
Sol. å =å
(1) 12 (2) 419 (3) 443 (4) 455 n =1 a n a n +1 n =1 a n ( a n + d )

1 20 æ 1 1 ö
Official Ans. by NTA (3) = å -
d n =1 è a n a n + d ÷ø
ç
A

15
Sol. Total Number of Triangles = C3 1æ 1 1 ö 4
Þ ç - = (Given)
i + j + k = 15 (Given) d è a1 a 21 ÷ø 9
1æa -a ö 4
5 Cases 4 Cases 3 Cases 1 Cases Þ ç 21 1 ÷ =
d è a1a 21 ø 9
i j k i j k i j k i j k
1 2 12 2 3 10 3 4 8 4 5 6 1 æ a + 20d - a1 ö 4
Þ ç 1 ÷ = 9 Þ a1a 2 = 45 .... (1)
1 3 11 2 4 9 3 5 7 dè a1a 2 ø
1 4 10 2 5 8 21
Now sum of first 21 terms = (2a1 + 20d) = 189
1 5 9 2 6 7 2
1 6 8 Þ a1 + 10d = 9 ... (2)
For equation (1) & (2) we get
Number of Possible triangles using the vertices Pi, Pj, 3
a1 = 3 & d =
Pk such that i + j + k ¹ 15 is equal to 15C3 – 12 = 443 5
OR
3
Option (3) a1 = 15 & d = -
5
So, a6.a16 = (a1 + 5d) (a1 + 15d)
Þ a6a16 = 72
Option (2)

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19. The function f(x), that satisfies the condition Sol. The point of intersection of the curves
p /2
x2 y2
f(x) = x + ò sin x × cos y f(y)dy, is :
0 9
+ = 1 and x + y = 3 in the first quadrant is
1
2 2

2 æ3 3ö
(1) x + (p - 2)sin x (2) x + (p + 2) sinx
3 ç , ÷
è2 2 ø
p
(3) x + sin x (4) x + (p – 2) sinx
2
x2 y2
Official Ans. by NTA (4) Now slope of tangent to the ellipse + = 1 at
9 1
p
Sol. f(x) = x + ò 2 sin x cosyf ( y ) dy æ3 3ö
0
ç , ÷ is
p è2 2 ø
f ( x ) = x + sin x ò 2 cos yf ( y ) dy
144
0
2443 1
K m1 = –
3 3
Þ f(x) = x + K sin x
Þ f(y) = y + K sin y æ3 3ö
And slope of tangent to the circle at ç , ÷ is m2
p è2 2 ø
Now K = ò
2
cosy ( y + K sin y )dy EN
0
=– 3
p p

ò y cosdy + ò
2 2
K= cos y sin ydy
0
Apply IBP
0
Put sin=
y t
So, if angle between both curves is q then
p 1 1
K = ( ysin y )0 - ò 2 sin dy + K ò t dt
p /2
- + 3
0 0 m - m2 3 3
tan q = 1 =
1 + m 1m 2 æ 1 ( ö
- 3 )÷
LL
p æ1ö 1+ç-
ÞK= -1+ Kç ÷
2 è2ø è 3 3 ø

ÞK=p–2 2
=
So f(x) = x + (p – 2) sin x 3
A

Option (4) Option (2)

20. Let q be the acute angle between the tangents to
x2 y2
+ = 1 and the circle x + y = 3 at
2 2
the ellipse SECTION-B
9 1
their point of intersection in the first quadrant. 1. Let X be a random variable with distribution.
Then tanq is equal to :
x –2 –1 3 4 6
5 2
(1) (2)
2 3 3 1 1 1
P(X = x) a b
4 5 3 5
(3) (4) 2
3
If the mean of X is 2.3 and variance of X is s2,
Official Ans. by NTA (2)
then 100 s2 is equal to :

Official Ans. by NTA (781)

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Sol. x –2 –1 3 4 6 x n f (1) - f ( x )
lim = 44
x ®1 x -1
P(X = x) 1 a 1 1 b
5 3 5
9x n - ( x 6 + 2x 4 + x 3 + 2x + 3 )
lim = 44
x ®1 x -1
X = 2.3

9 9nx n -1 - ( 6x 5 + 8x3 + 3x 2 + 2 )
-a + 6b = ........ (1) lim = 44
10
x ®1 1
1 1 1
å Pi = 5 + a + 3 + 5 + b = 1 Þ 9n – (19) = 44

4 Þ 9n = 63
a+b= ........ (2)
15
From equation (1) and (2) Þn=7
1 1
a= , b= 3. If for the complex numbers z satisfying
10 6
s2 = Sp i x i2 - ( X ) |z – 2 – 2i| £ 1, the maximum value of |3iz + 6| is
2

1( ) 1 1 attained at a + ib, then a + b is equal to ________.

4 + a (1) + ( 9 ) + (16 ) + b ( 36 ) - ( 2.3 )
2

5 3 5

4
= +a +3+
16
+ 36b - ( 2.3 )
2
EN Official Ans. by NTA (5)

Sol. |z – 2 – 2i| £ 1
5 5
= 4 + a + 3 + 36b – (2.3)2 |x + iy – 2 – 2i| £ 1
2
= 7 + a + 36b – (2.3)
|(x – 2) + i(y – 2) | £ 1
LL

1
= 7 + + 6 - (2.3)2
10 (x – 2)2 + (y – 2)2 £ 1
2
1 æ 23 ö
= 13 + –ç ÷ |3iz + 6|max at a + ib
10 è 10 ø
2
A

131 æ 23 ö 6
= -ç ÷ |3i| z +
10 è 10 ø 3i
1310 - ( 23 )
2

= 3 z - 2i max
100
1310 - 529
=
100 3
781
s2 = 2 (3, 2)
100
100s2 = 781 1
2. Let f(x) = x6 + 2x4 + x3 + 2x + 3, x Î R. Then the
x n f(1) - f(x) 1 2 3
natural number n for which lim = 44
x ®1 x -1
is________.
From Figure maximum distance at 3 + 2i
Official Ans. by NTA (7)

a + ib = 3 + 2i = a + b = 3 + 2 = 5 Ans.

Sol. f(n) = x6 + 2x4 + x3 + 2x + 3

9
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4. Let the points of intersections of the lines x – y + 1 = 0, 6. All the arrangements, with or without meaning, of
x – 2y + 3 = 0 and 2x – 5y + 11 = 0 are the mid points the word FARMER are written excluding any
word that has two R appearing together. The
of the sides of a triangle ABC. Then the area of the
arrangements are listed serially in the alphabetic
triangle ABC is _______. order as in the English dictionary. Then the serial
Official Ans. by NTA (6) number of the word FARMER in this list is
______.
Sol. intersection point of give lines are (1, 2), (7, 5),
Official Ans. by NTA (77)
(2,3)
Sol. FARMER (6)
A
A, E, F, M, R, R
A
E
(1, 2) (2, 3) F A E
F A M
F A R E
B C F A R M E R
(7, 5)
5
1 2 1 - 4 = 60 - 24 = 36
1 2
D= 7 5 1
2 3
2 3 1 - 2 = 3 - 2 =1
2
=
1
2
[1( 5 - 3 ) - 2 ( 7 - 2 ) + 1( 21 - 10 )]
EN =1
1
= [ 2 - 10 + 11] =2
2
1
DDEF = ( 3) = 3 =1
LL
2 2

æ3ö 77
DABC = 4 DDEF = 4 ç ÷ = 6
è2ø
7. If the sum of the coefficients in the expansion of
5. Let f(x) be a polynomial of degree 3 such that (x + y)n is 4096, then the greatest coefficient in the
A

2 expansion is _______.
f(k) = - for k = 2, 3, 4, 5. Then the value of
k Official Ans. by NTA (924)
52 – 10 f(10) is equal to :
Sol. (x + y)n Þ 2n = 4096 210 = 1024 × 2
Official Ans. by NTA (26)
Þ 2n = 212 211 = 2048
Sol. k f(k) + 2 = l (x – 2) (x –3) (x – 4) (x – 5) …(1)
n = 12 212 = 4096
put x = 0
12 ´ 11 ´ 10 ´ 9 ´ 8 ´ 7
1 12
C6 =
we get l = 6 ´ 5 ´ 4 ´ 3 ´ 2 ´1
60
= 11 × 3 × 4 × 7
Now put l in equation (1)
= 924
Þ kf(k) + 2 =
1
(x – 2) (x – 3) (x – 4) (x – 5) r r
60 8. Let a= 2iˆ - ˆj + 2kˆ and b = ˆi + 2ˆj - k.
ˆ Let a vector
r r r r
Put x = 10 v be in the plane containing a and b. If v is
perpendicular to the vector 3iˆ + 2ˆj - kˆ and its
1 r r2
Þ 10f(10) + 2 = (8) (7) (6) (5) projection on a is 19 units, then 2v is equal to
60
_____.
Þ 52 – 10f(10) = 52 – 26 = 26
Official Ans. by NTA (1494)

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Final JEE-Main Exam August, 2021/01-09-2021/Evening Session
r
Sol. a = 2iˆ - ˆj + 2kˆ ì 3 - 2x 2 , -2 < x < -1
ï
r ï x 2
, -1 £ x < 0
b = ˆi + 2ˆj - kˆ ï
r f(x) = í 3
+1 0 £ x <1
c = 3iˆ + 2ˆj - kˆ ï 2
r r r r ï 2 1
v = xa + yb v ( 3iˆ + 2ˆj - k ) = 0 ïx + 1 + , 1£ x < 2
î 2
r
v·aˆ = 19
r r r r discontinuous at x=0 , 1
v = lc ´ ( a ´ b )
r rr r rr r
v = l éë( c.b ) a - ( c·a ) b ùû
10. A man starts walking from the point P(–3,4),

æ6-2-2ö ˆ ˆ ˆ touches the x-axis at R, and then turns to reach at

= l[(3+4+1) ( 2iˆ - ˆj + 2kˆ ) – ç ÷ ( i + 2 j + k)
è 2 ø the point Q(0, 2). The man is walking at a constant
= l[16 î – 8 ĵ + 16 k̂ – 2 î – 4 ĵ + 2 k̂ ]
speed. If the man reaches the point Q in the
r
v = l éë14iˆ - 12ˆj + 18kˆ ùû
minimum time, then 50 ( (PR)2 + (RQ)2 ) is equal
l[14 î – 12 ĵ + 18 k̂ ] ·
( 2iˆ - ˆj + 2kˆ ) = 19
4 +1 + 4 to _____.
[ 28 + 12 + 36]
l = 19 Official Ans. by NTA (1250)
3 EN
æ 76 ö
l ç ÷ = 19
è 3 ø Sol. P(–3, 4)
4
3
4l = 3 Þ l =
4 Q(0,2)
2

|2v2| = 2 ´ (14iˆ - 12ˆj + 18kˆ )

3
LL

4
R(–1,0)
9
´ 4 ( 7iˆ - 6 ˆj + 9kˆ )
2

4
= 9 (49 + 36 + 81) Q'(0,–2)
= 9 (166)
A

= 1494
9. Let [t] denote the greatest integer £ t. The number 50(PR2 + RQ2)
of points where the function
50 (20 + 5)

æ p ö
f(x) = [x] x 2 - 1 + sin ç ÷ - [x + 1],x Î ( -2,2 ) 50(25)
è [x] + 3 ø
= 1250
is not continuous is ______.

Official Ans. by NTA (2)

p
Sol. f(x) = [x] |x2 – 1| + sin – [x + 1]
[ x + 3]

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