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720 PCB Vijaypath Test Series-Test : 12(50) Time : 03 Hrs. 20 Mins.

Physics - 50 Chemistry - 50 Biology - 100

Question Booklet Version
(Write this number
Question Paper Question Booklet Sr. No.

11
P-11 on your Answer
Sheet) With Solutions
• Today’s Test Syllabus •
Physics : Current Electricity
Chemistry : Equilibrium
Biology : Cell Cycle-Cell Division + Biological Classification
• Next Test Syllabus • Date : 03/01/2024
Physics : Magnetic Effect of Electric Current + Magnetism and Matter
Chemistry : H.D.A.
Biology : Human Health and Diseases + Microbes In Human Welfare + Ecosystem
RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC

PHYSICS Sol. (1) :

Section : A
1. I–t curve is shown in figure, find the charge.

3. Across a metallic conductor of non uniform

[ NCERT Page-94]
cross section, a constant potential difference is
applied. The quantity which remains constant
along the conductor is [ NCERT Page-98]
1) 35 C 2) 40 C 3) 45 C 4) 50 C
1) current 2) drift velocity
Sol. (3) : Conceptual
3) electric field 4) current density
2. An isolated conducting sphere has a 10 cm
radius. Two wires are connected to it, one Sol. (1) :
caries a current of 1.000002 A into it and the
other carries a current of 1.000000 A out of it.
How long would it take for the sphere to
increase its potential by 900 V compared to its
initial value? [ NCERT Page-94]
1) 5 ms 2) 6 ms
3) 7 ms 4) 4 ms

PCB TEST : 12(50) 1 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
4. You have three copper wires of lengths in ratio 8. In the given circuit

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
x : y : z and mass in ratio yz : zx : xy, then ratio
internal resistance of
of their resistances is [ NCERT Page-96]
the 18 V cell is
1) x : y : z 2) x : y : z2
2 2
negligible. If R 1 =
400 , R 3 = 100 
1 1 1
3) x3 : y3 : z3 4) : : and R4 = 500  and
x y z the reading of an
ideal voltmeter across R4 is 5 V, then the value
Sol. (3) : of R2 will be [ NCERT Page-109]

1) 300  2) 450 
3) 550  4) 230 

Sol. (1):

5. On streching a wire, its radius decreases by

1%. The resistance will [ NCERT Page-96]
1) increase by 1% 2) increase by 2%
3) increase by 4% 4) remain same
Sol. (3) : Conceptual
6. A conductor with rectangular cross-section has
dimension (a × 2a × 4a),
as shown in the
figure. Resistance
across AB is x, across
CD is y, and across EF
is z. Then [ NCERT Page-96]
1) x = y = z 2) x > y > z
3) y > z > x 4) x > z > y

Sol. (4) :

9. A current flows in a wire of circular cross-

section with the free electrons travelling with
a mean drift velocity v. If an equal current
flows in a wire of twice the radius, new mean
7. Statement 1 : Internal resistance of the battery is drift velocity is [ NCERT Page-98]
connected in parallel to it in an electrical circuit.
1) v 2) v / 2
Statement 2 : Heat generated in battery is due to
the internal resistance. [ NCERT Page-113] 3) v / 4 4) none of these
1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are True Sol. (3) :
2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are False
3) Statement-1 is True but Statement-2 is False
4) Statement-1 is False but Statement-2 is True.
Sol. (4) : Conceptual
PCB TEST : 12(50) 2 Date : 01/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
10. A uniform copper wire carries a current i 14. A hot electric iron has a resistance of 80 

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
amperes and has p charge carriers per cubic and is used on a 200 V source. The electrical
metre. The length of the wire is l meters and energy spent if it is used for 2 hr, will be
its cross-section area is s square metre. If the [ NCERT Page-106]
charge on a carrier is q coulombs, the drift
1) 8000 Wh 2) 2000 Wh
velocity (in ms–1) is given by [ NCERT Page-98]
3) 1000 Wh 4) 800 Wh
1) i/lsq 2) i/psq
Sol. (3) : Conceptual
3) psq/i 4) i/pslq
15. If voltage across a bulb rated 220 V–100 Watt
Sol. (2) : drops by 2.5% of its rated value, the percentage
of the rated value by which the power would
decrease is [ NCERT Page-106]
1) 5% 2) 10%
11. The solids which have the negative temperature 3) 20% 4) 2.5%
coefficient of resistance are [ NCERT Page-102] Sol. (1) :
1) semiconductors only
2) insulators and semiconductors
3) metals 16. The charge flowing through a resistance R
4) insulators only varies with time t as Q = at –bt2, where a and
Sol. (2) : Conceptual b are positive constants, The total heat
12. In the circuit diagram, all the bulbs are produced in R is [ NCERT Page-106]
identical. Which bulb will be the brightest ? a3 R a3 R
1) 2)
3b 2b

a3 R a3 R
[ NCERT Page-107] 3) 4)
b 6b
Sol. (4) :
1) A 2) B
3) C 4) D
Sol. (3) : Conceptual
13. If an electric heater is rated at 1000 W, then
the time required to heat one litre of water from
20°C to 60°C is [ NCERT Page-127]
1) 1 min 24 sec 2) 2 min 48 sec
3) 4 min 17 sec 4) 5 min 36 sec
Sol. (2) :
17. In the circuit shown, what is the maximum
number of switches that must be closed to turn
on all the lights ?

1) 3 2) 6
3) 4 4) 5

PCB TEST : 12(50) 3 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
Sol. (3) : 20. Fi nd equi v al ent resi stance betw een A and B

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
[ NCERT Page-108]

3R 2R R 5R
1) 2) 3) 4)
5 5 5 3
18. In the given circuit diagram
Sol. (1) : Conceptual
when the current reaches
21. Match the following: [ NCERT Page-95, 115, 116]
steady state in the circuit,
the charge on the capacitor Column I Column II
of capacitance C will be a) Ohm's Law i)  V  0in a closed
[ NCERT Page-114] mesh
b) Kirchhof's ii) V  I under same
r2 r1
junction Law physical conditions
1) CE ( r  r ) 2) CE (r  r )
2 1 c) Kirchhof's iii) W = I 2 RT joule, heat
Loop Law produced in a resistance
r1
3) CE 4) CE (r  r ) d) Joule's Law iv)  I  0at any juntion
2

Sol. (1): 1) a  ii, b  iv, c  i, d  iii

2) a  i, b  iv, c  iii, d  ii
3) a  iii, b  i, c  ii, d  iv
4) a  iv, b  iii, c  i, d  ii
Sol. (1) : Conceptual
22. In the circuit shown in figure, the resistance
of voltmeter is 6 k. The voltmeter reading
will be [ NCERT Page-108]

19. Figure represents a part of the closed circuit.

The potential difference between points A and
B, (VA – VB) is [ NCERT Page-116]

1) 6 V 2) 5 V
1) + 9 V 2) – 9 V 3) 4 V 4) 3 V
3) + 3 V 4) + 6 V Sol. (2) :
Sol. (1) :

PCB TEST : 12(50) 4 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
23. The potential difference across 8 ohm 25. A cell having an emf  and internal resistance r

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
resistance is 48 volt, as shown in the figure. is connected across a variable external resistance
The value of potential difference across X and R. is increased, the plot of potential difference V
Y points will be across R is given by [ NCERT Page-114]

[ NCERT Page-109]
1) 2)

1) 160 V 2) 128 V
3) 80 V 4) 62 V
Sol. (1) :
3) 4)

Sol. (1) :

26. Find the value of x for which bridge is

balanced. [ NCERT Page-119]

24. Correct set up to verify Ohm’s law is

1)

1) 80  2) 20 
3) 160  4) 16 
2) Sol. (1) :

3)
27. The Wheat stone bridge
is balanced. Find ratio
of electric power
dissipated in (P + Q) to
(R + S)
4)
[ NCERT Page-119]
1) 1 : 1 2) R : P
Sol. (1): Conceptual 3) P2 : Q2 4) P2 : R2

PCB TEST : 12(50) 5 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
29. In the experimental set up of metre bridge

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
shown in the figure, the null point is obtained
Sol. (2) : at a distance of 40 cm from A. If a 10  resistor
is connected in series with R1, the null point
shifts by 10 cm. The resistance that should be
connected in parallel with (R1 + 10)  such
that the null point shifts back to its initial
position is [ NCERT Page-121]

1) 20  2) 40 
3) 60  4) 30 
28. Circuit diagram of a metre bridge is shown in
the figure. The null point is found at a distance 1 R 2
Sol. (3): Initially at null deflection R  3 .....(i)
of 40 cm from A . If now a resistance of 12  is 2
connected in parallel with S, the null point
Finally at null deflection, when null point is
occurs at 64 cm. Determine the value of R and S.
shifted
R1  10
 1  R1  10  R2 .....(ii)
R2
Solving equations (i) and (ii), we get
[ NCERT Page-121] 2 R2
 10  R2
3
R2
10   R2  30  and R1  20 
40 3
1)  ,20
3 Now if required resistance is R, then
30  R
10 30  R  2 R = 60 
2)  , 10
3 30 3
30. The given figure shows
3) 11 , 22 
rough sketch of meter
18 bridge. (G) deflects
4)  , 40 zero at length l cm.
3
Now, R 1 and R 2 are
interchanged, then
Sol. (1) : balancing length increases by 25 cm. Find
R1/R2. [ NCERT Page-121]

3 2
1) 2)
5 5

2 5
3) 4)
3 2

PCB TEST : 12(50) 6 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
34. In the given circuit diagram, the current I1 =

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Sol. (1) : –0.3 A, I4 = 0.8 A and I5 = 0.4 A, are flowing as
shown. The currents I2, I3 and I6, respectively,
31. Statement 1 : The drift velocity of electrons in a are [ NCERT Page-115]
metallic wire decreases when the temperature of
the wire is increased. [ NCERT Page-104]
Statement 2 : On increasing the temperature, the
conductivity of a metallic wire increases.
1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are True
2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are False
3) Statement-1 is True but Statement-2 is False
4) Statement-1 is False but Statement-2 is True.
Sol. (3) : Conceptual 1) 1.1 A, –0.4 A, 0.4 A 2) 1.1 A, 0.4 A, 0.4 A
3) 0.4 A, 1.1 A, 0.4 A 4) –0.4 A, 0.4 A, 1.1 A
32. The current i and voltage
V graph for a given Sol. (2):
metallic wire at two
different temperatures T1
and T2 are shown in the
figure. It is concluded
that [ NCERT Page-104]
1) T1 > T2 2) T1 < T2
3) T1 = T2 4) T1 = 2T2
Sol. (1): Slope2 > Slope1

1 1 35. A battery A(15 V, 1 )


R2 R1
and a battery B(10 V,
1 ) are joined to a
T1  T2
resistance of 3 as
33. The equivalent resistance between A and B shown in figure.
in the figure is [ NCERT Page-108] Match the statements
given in Column I with the entries given in
Column II and choose correct option from
codes given below. [ NCERT Page-113]

Column-I Column-II
A. Potential drop across A 1. A
B. Potential drop across B 2. B
1) R 2) (2/3)R
C. Power is supplied by battery 3. 14 V
2 5 D. Power is consumed by 4. 9V
3)   R 4)   R battery
5 2 5. 11 V
Sol. (2) : 1) A-2, B-5, C-4, D-1 2) A-5, B-4, C-3, D-1,2
3) A-3, B-5, C-1, D-2 4) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
Sol. (3): Conceptual

PCB TEST : 12(50) 7 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
Section : B 40. The current I drawn from the 5 V source

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
36. If the specific resistance of a wire is , volume will be [ NCERT Page-119]
is 3 m3 and its resistance is 3 , then its length
will be [ NCERT Page-96]

1 3 3 1
1) 2) 3) 4) 
   3

Sol. (2) : 1) 0.33 A 2) 0.5 A

3) 0.67 A 4) 0.17 A
Sol. (2) :

37. In a building there are 15 bulbs of 45 W, 15

bulbs of 100 W, 15 small fans of 10 W and 2
heaters of 1 kW. The voltage of electric main
is 220 V. The minimum fuse capacity (rated
value) of the building will be [ NCERT Page-107]
1) 10 A 2) 25 A
3) 15 A 4) 20 A
Sol. (4): Net power,
P = 15 × 45 + 15 × 100 + 15 × 10 + 2 × 1000
= 15 × 155 + 2000 W
P
Power, P = VI  I 
V
15  155  2000 41. For a cell, the graph
 I main   19.66 A  20 A
220 between the potential
38. Statement 1 : In a wire of non-uniform cross- difference (V) across
section, the current is same everywhere terminals of the cell
and the current I
Statement 2 : Current in a wire is due to the drift
drawn from the cell
of electrons along the wire. [ NCERT Page-97]
is shown in the
1) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are True figure. Then
2) Both statement-1 and statement-2 are False
a) emf of the cell is 2.5 V
3) Statement-1 is True but Statement-2 is False
b) emf of the cell is 2 V
4) Statement-1 is False but Statement-2 is True.
c) the internal resistance of cell is 0.5 
Sol. (1) : Conceptual
d) The internal resistance of the cell is 0.4 
39. The galvanometer has no deflection and the
Choose the correct statements: [ NCERT Page-114]
l ength of w i re AB is 350 cm. AC equals to
1) a, c 2) a, d
3) b, c 4) b, d
Sol. (2) :
[ NCERT Page-121]

1) 150 cm 2) 200 cm
3) 210 cm 4) 280 cm
Sol. (1) : Conceptual

PCB TEST : 12(50) 8 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
42. The resistance of the series combination of two 45. In the circuit shown in the

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
resistance is S. When they are joined in parallel, figure, the power which is
the total resistance is P. If S = nP, then the minimum dissipated as heat in the
possible value of n is [ NCERT Page-109] 6  resistor is 6 W. What
is the value of resistance R
1) 4 2) 3
in the circuit? [ NCERT Page-109]
3) 2 4) 1
1) 6  2) 10 
Sol. (1) : 3) 13  4) 24 

Sol. (4) :

43. If the ammeter in the given circuit reads (1/3)

A, the resistance R is [ NCERT Page-108]
46. In the circuit, the cells have zero internal
resistance. The currents (in Amperes) passing
through resistance R1 and R2 respectively, are

[ NCERT Page-109]
1) 8  2) 10 
3) 16  4) 20 
1) 1, 2 2) 2, 2
3) 0.5, 0 4) 0, 1
Sol. (4) :
Sol. (3):

47. A wire of resistance 4  is stretched to twice

44. Consider the four circuits, shown in the of its original length. The resistance of
figure. In which circuit the power dissipated
stretched wire would be [ NCERT Page-96]
is the greatest? (Neglect the internal resistance
1) 16  2) 2 
of the power supply) [ NCERT Page-107]
3) 4  4) 8 
Sol. (1) :

1) 2)

48. Ohm’s law in terms of current density J,

electric field E and electrical conductivity
 is [NCERT Page-97]
3) 4) 1/2
J
1)     2) J  E
 E

Sol. (1) : 
3) J  4) E  (  J )1/2
E

PCB TEST : 12(50) 9 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
50. The current through a wire depends on time as

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Sol. (2) : i = (2 + 3t) mA. The charge crossing through a
section of the wire in 1 min is [ NCERT Page-94]
1) 40.20 C 2) 24.55 C
3) 12.75 C 4) 5.52 C
Sol. (4) :

49. Find Rmax : Rmin for the given slab.

[ NCERT Page-96]

1) 60 2) 100
3) 40 4) 200

Sol. (2) :

PCB TEST : 12(50) 10 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
CHEMISTRY
SECTION : A
Sol. (1)
51. Equilibrium constant for the reaction
4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O(g) is
[NCERT Pg. 200]

 NO   H2 O 
4
 NO   H 2O 
6 54. Unit of KC for the equilibrium
1)  NH   O  2) 4 5 CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) is
 3 2  NH 3   O 2 
[NCERT Pg. 204]
–1
 4NO   6H 2O   4NH 3   5O 2  1) mol L 2) mol 2 L–2
3)  4NH   5O  4)  4NO   6H O  3) L mol–1 4) L2 mol–2
 3 2   2 

Sol. (2) Sol. (1)

52. If equilibrium constant for the reaction

N 2(g) + 3H 2(g)  2NH 3(g) is K C then the
equilibrium constant for the reaction
1 3 55. If value of KC for an equilibrium is 2.4 × 1047
NH3g   N2g  + H2 g  is [NCERT Pg. 200]
2 2 then which of the following statement is
correct? [NCERT Pg. 205]
1
1) K C 2) 1) Reactant predominate over products
KC
2) Products predominate over reactant
1 3) Reaction proceeds rarely
3) KC 4) KC 4) Both the reactants and products are presenti
n appreciable amount

Sol. (2)
Sol. (3)

53. Example of homogenous equilibrium is

[NCERT Pg. 201]
56. For the reaction N2O4(g)  2NO2(g), if initially
1) CH3COOC2H5(aq) + H2O(l) 
only 4 atm N 2 O 4 is present and at
RCC** RCC** RCC**

CH3COOH(aq) + C2H5OH(aq) equilibrium, total pressure of euilibrium

2) CaCO3(s)  CaO(s) + CO2(g) mixture is 6 atm then the value of KP is
3) Ca(OH)2(s) + (aq)  Ca2+(aq) + 2OH–(aq) [NCERT Pg. 208]
1) 2 atm 2) 4 atm
4) H2O(l)  H2O(g)
3) 8 atm 4) 16 atm

PCB TEST - 12(52) 11 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
58. Equilibrium constant depends on
[NCERT Pg. 211]
1) Concentration of reactants and products
Sol. (3) 2) Volume
3) Pressure
4) Temperature

Sol. (4)

59. Which of the following species can act as a

Lewis base? [NCERT Pg. 216]
1) H2 O 2) AlCl3
3) BF 3 4) Mg 2+

Sol. (1)

60. The degree of dissociation of a 0.1 M aqueous

solution of weak acid HA is
(Ka(HA) = 10–7 ) [NCERT Pg. 219]

57. For which of the following reaction, increase 1) 10 –1 2) 10 –2

in pressure favours the forward reaction? 3) 10 –3 4) 10 –4
[NCERT Pg. 210]
1) [Ni(CO)4](g)  Ni(s) + 4CO(g)
Sol. (3)
2) PCl5(g)  PCl3(g) + Cl2(g)

3) H2(g) + l2(g)  2Hl(g)

4) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)

Sol. (4)
RCC** RCC** RCC**

61. If Kb for NH3 is 1.8 × 10–5 then value of Ka for

NH4+ ion is [NCERT Pg. 222]
1) 1.7 × 10–9 2) 5.5 × 10–10
3) 2.3 × 10–5 4) 4.8 × 10–10

PCB TEST - 12(52) 12 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Sol. (4)
Sol. (2)

64. Solubility of AgCl in 10–2M NaCl solution is

(Ksp(AgCl) = 1.8 × 10–10) [NCERT Pg. 230]
1) 10–2 M 2) 1.8 × 10–12 M
62. The pH of 0.1 M aqueous solution of
ammonium acetate is (pKa CH3COOH = 4.76 3) 1.8 × 10–8 M 4) 1.8 × 10–2 M
pKb NH4OH = 4.75) [NCERT Pg. 226]
1) 7.005 2) 9.510
3) 4.750 4) 6.995
Sol. (3)

Sol. (1)

65. Select the correct relation[NCERT Pg. 208]

63. Which of the following mixture can act as a 1) G = G° + RT In Q

buffer solution? [NCERT Pg. 227] 2) G° = G + RT In Q
RCC** RCC** RCC**

1) HClO4 + NaClO4 3) G = G° + RT In K

2) CH3COOH + HClO4 4) G° = G + RT In K
3) NaClO4 + CH3COONa
4) CH3COONa + CH3COOH Sol. (1)

PCB TEST - 12(52) 13 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11
68. How many statement(s) is/are correct?

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
66. Ionization constants of HF, HCOOH and
HCN are as Ka(HF) > Ka(HCOOH) > Ka i) Sodium and calcium ions do not undergo
hydrolysis
(HCN) then select correct statement among the
following [NCERT Pg. 219] ii) Nitrate and perchlorate ions get hydrated
1) Aq. Solution of HF has more hydroxyl ion iii) pH of aqueous solution of sodium acetate
concentration than aq. Solution of HCN is always greater than 7 at 25°C.
2) Aq. solution of HCN has least hydroxyl ion iv) Ionization of ammonia hydroxide will be
concentration more in presence of aqueous solution of
Ferric ion [NCERT Pg. 226]
3) Aq. Solution of HCOOH has moe hydroxyl
1) 1 2) 2 3) 3 4) 4
ion concentration than aq. Solution of both
HF and HCN
4) Aq. Solution of HCOOH less hydroxyl ion Sol. (4)
concentration than HCN and less hydronium
ion cencentration than aq. solution of HF

Sol. (4)

67. Select the correct match of hydrolysis of salt

in the following [NCERT Pg. 226]
1) Sodium acetate : Cationic hydrolysis,
generates hydronium ion
2) Ammonium chloride : Anionic hydrolysis
generates hydroxide ion
3) Ammonium acetate : Cationic hydrolysis, only
generates hydronium ion
4) Sodium cyanide : Anionic hydrolysis,
generates hydroxide ion

Sol. (4)
RCC** RCC** RCC**

PCB TEST - 12(52) 14 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
69. What is the equilibrium expression for the Sol. (4)
reaction
 P O (s)?
P4(s) + 5O2(g)  4 10

1) K C = [O2]5
2) KC = [P4O10] / 5[P4] [O2]
3) KC = [P4O10] / [P4][O2]5
4) KC = 1/[O2]5
73. When the hydrogen ion concentration [H + ]
Sol. (4) changes by a factor of 1000, the value of pH of
the solution. [Old NCERT Page-218]
1) increases by 100 units
70. In which of the following reactions, an
2) decreases by 3 units
increase in the volume of the container will
favour the formation of products? 3) decreases by 2 units
[Old NCERT Page-210] 4) increases by 2 units
 4NO(g) + 6H O(l)
1) 4NH3(g) + 5O2(g)  2
Sol. (2)
 2NO(g) + O (g)
2) 2NO2(g)  2

 2O (g)
3) 3O2  3

 2HI(g)
4) H2(g) + I2(g)  74. Given below are two statements on eis labelled
Sol. (2) as Assertion A and the other is labellled as
Reason R:
71. What happens when an inert gas is added to Assertion A : The amphoteric nature of water is
an equilibrium keeping volume unchanged? explained by using Lewis acid/base concept.
[Old NCERT Page-211] Reason R : Water acts as an acid with NH3 and
1) More product will form as a base with H2S.
2) Less product will form In the light of the above statements choose the
3) More reactant will form correct answer from the options given below:
4) Equilibrium will remain unchanged [Old NCERT Page-216]
1) Both A and R are true and R true and R is the
Sol. (4)
correct explanation of A.
2) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the cor-
rect explanation of A.
72. Which of the following statements(s) is/are
correct? 3) A is true but R is false.

a) The pH of 1 × 10–8 M HCl solution is 8. 4) A is false but R is true.

b) The conjugate base H2PO4 – is HPO42– .
Sol. (4)
RCC** RCC** RCC**

c) Kw increases with increase in temperature.

Choose the correct answer from the option
given below. [Old NCERT Page-217]
1) (b), (c) 2) (a)
3) (a), (b), (c) 4) (b), (c)

PCB TEST - 12(52) 15 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
75. Arrange the following solutions in the
78. The conjugate base of hydrazoic acid is:
decreasing order of pOH:
[Old NCERT Page-216]
A. 0.01 M HCl B. 0.01 M NaOH
–3 –
C. 0.01 M CH3 COONa D. 0.01 M NaCl 1) N 2) N3 3) N2 – 4) HN3 –
[Old NCERT Page-224] Sol. (2)
1) A > C > D > B 2) A > D > C > B
3) B > C > D > A 4) B > D > C > A 79. Ka1, Ka2 and Ka3 are the respective ionization
constants for the following reaction (A), (B),
Sol. (2) and (C).
a) H2C2O4  H++ HC2 O– 4

b) HC2 O4  H+ + HC2 O2– 4

76. For the following Assertion and Reason, the c) H2C 2O 4  2H ++ C2 O2– 4
correct option is: The relationship between Ka1, Ka2 and Ka3 is
Assertion: The pH of water increases with given as [Old NCERT Page-224]
increase in temperature. 1) Ka3 = Ka1 + Ka2
Reason: The dissociation of water into H+ and
2) Ka3 = Ka1 + Ka2
OH– is an exothermic reaction.
[Old NCERT Page-218] 3) Ka3 + Ka1 / Ka2
1) Both assertion and reason are true, and the 4) Ka3 + Ka1 × Ka2
reason is the correct explanation for the
assertion. Sol. (4)
2) Both assertion and reason are false.
3) Both assertion and reason are true, but the reason
is not the correct explanation for the assertion.
4) Assertion is not true, but reason is true.

Sol. (2)

80. In some solutions, the concentration of H3O+

remains constant even when small amounts
of strong acid or strong base are added to them.
These solutions are known as:
[Old NCERT Page-227]
77. For a given endothermic rxn, KP and KP’are
1) Ideal solutions
the equilibrium constant at temp T 1 and T 2
respectively. Assuming the heat of reaction 2) Colloidal solutions
is constant in temp. range between 3) True solutions
T1 and T 2, it is readily observed and when
4) Buffer solutions
RCC** RCC** RCC**

T2 > T1 then :- [Old NCERT Page-205]

1) KP > KP’ 2) KP < KP’ Sol. (4)
1
3) KP = KP’ 4) K P 
KP '

Sol. (1)
PCB TEST - 12(52) 16 Date : 01/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
81. Given below are two statements: one is la- 83. Identify the set of correct statement
belled as Assertion (A) and the other is la-
belled as Reason (R) a) If Kc > 103 : Products predominate over re-
actant
Assertion (A) : For any chemical reaction at a
particular temperature the equilibrium con- b) If Kc < 10–3 : reactant predominate over prod-
stant is fixed and is characteristic property. uct.

Reason (R) : Equilibrium constant is indepen- c) If Kc is in the range of 10–3 to 103 : appre-
dent of temperature. ciable concentration of both reactant and prod-
uct are present.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the options d) If Qc > Kc net reaction goes from left to right.
given below: [Old NCERT Page-205] Choose the correct answer from the options
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the given below: [Old NCERT Page-205]
correct explanation of (A). 1) a, b only 2) c, d only
2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct. 3) a, b, c only 4) a, b, c, d only
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
Sol. (3)
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct
84. Match the Column–I and Column –II
Sol. (2)
82. Match List – I with List – II [Old NCERT Page-217]
[Old NCERT Page-196] Column – I Column –II
List – I List – II (Species) (Conjugate acid)
a) NH 3 i) H2 CO3
Variation in
product b) HCO 3 – ii) H2SO4
a) i) concentration
with time c) H 2 O iii) NH4 +
d) HSO 4 – iv) H3 O+
1) a  iii, b  i, c  iv, d  ii
Reaction at
b) ii) reactant 2) a  i, b  iii, c  ii, d  iv
concentration
3) a  iii, b  iv, c  i, d  ii
4) a  ii, b  i, c  iii, d  iv
Variation in Sol. (1)
c) iii) reactant 85. Out of the following which one is correct for
concentration
equilibrium state? [Old NCERT Page-237]
a. G  0 b. S  0

Reaction at c. rf  rb d. Ecell  0
d) iv) Non
equilibrium
1) a, b
RCC** RCC** RCC**

2) only b
1) a  iii, b  i, c  iv, d  ii
3) a, c and d
2) a  iii, b  i, c  ii, d  iv
3) a  i, b  iii, c  iv, d  ii 4) only c
4) a  i, b  iii, c  ii, d  iv Sol. (3)
Sol. (2)

PCB TEST - 12(52) 17 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
SECTION : B  2NH (g), K
88. (1) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  3 1

 2NO(g), K
(2) N2(g) + O2(g) 
86. Following four solutions are prepared by 2

mixing different volumes of NaOH and HCl

1
of different concentrations, pH of which one (3) H2(g) +  H O(g), K
O (g) 
2 2 2 3
of them will be equal to l?
The equation for the equilbrium constant of
M M the reaction
1) 55 mL HCl + 45 mL NaOH
10 10
5
2NH3(g) +  2NO(g) + 3H O(g), (K )
O (g) 
M M 2 2 2 4
2) 75 mL HCl + 25 mL NaOH
5 5 in terms of K1, K2 and K3 is :
[Old NCERT Page-204]
M M
3) 100 mL HCl +100 mL NaOH
5 5 K 1K 2 K 1K 32
1) K 2)
M M 3 K2
4) 60 mL HCl + 40 mL NaOH
10 10
K 2 K 33
3) K 1 K 2 K 3 4)
K1
Sol. (2)

Sol. (4)

89. How many litres of water must be added to 1

litre an aqueous solution of HCl with a pH of
1 to create an aqueous solution with pH of 2 ?
1) 0.1 L 2) 0.9 L
3) 2.0 L 4) 9.0 L

87. Which is/are incorrect? Sol. (4)

i) At equilibrium, there is no longer any free
energy left to drive the reaction
ii) Reaction for which exp(–G°/RT) > 1 is
reactant dominating
iii) Reaction for which exp(–G°/RT) < 1 is 90. Four species are listed below :
product dominating
i. HCO 3 – ii. H 3 O +
iv)Reaction for which exp(–G°/RT) = 1, must
be product dominating. iii. HSO4 – iv. HSO 3 F

[NCERT Pg. 208] Which one of the following is the correct

RCC** RCC** RCC**

sequence of their acid strength?

1) Only (iv)
[Old NCERT Page-224]
2) Only (ii) and (iv)
1) iv < ii < iii < i 2) ii < iii < i < iv
3) Only (i) and (iv)
4) Only (ii), (iii) and (iv) 3) i < iii < ii < iv 4) iii < i < iv < ii

Sol. (4)
PCB TEST - 12(52) 18 Date : 01/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Sol. (3)
Sol. (4)

91. What would be the pH of a solution obtained

by mixing 5 g of acetic acid and 7.5 g of so-
dium acetate and making the volume equal to
500 mL? (Ka = 1.75 × 10–5, pKa = 4.76)
1) pH = 4.70
2) pH < 4.70
3) pH of solution will be equal to pH of acetic 94. An acidic buffer is obtained on mixing:
acid [Old NCERT Page-227]
4) 4.76 < pH < 5.0 1) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH & 100 mL of 0.1
M NaOH
Sol. (4)
2) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl & 200 mL of 0.1 M NaCl
3) 100 mL of 0.1 M CH3COOH & 200 mL of 0.1
M NaOH
4) 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl & 200 mL of 0.1 M
CH3 COONa
Sol. (4)

92. 200 mL of 0.01 M HCl is mixed with 400 mL of

0.01 MH2SO4. The pH of the mixture is –. 95. Given below are two statements:
1) 1.14 2) 1.78 3) 2.34 4) 3.02 Statement – I : The equilibrium constant for
the reverse reaction is equla to the inverse of
Sol. (2) the equilibrium constant for the forward re-
action.
Statement – II : For the equilibrium
2NOCl (g)  2NO(g) + Cl2(g)
The value of the equilibrium constant (Kc) is
3. 75 × 10–6 at 1069 K then the value of Kp is
3.3 × 10–6
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate anser form the options
given below: [Old NCERT Page-1]
93. In order to prepare a buffer solution of pH 5.74, 1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incor-
sodium acetate is added to acetic acid. If the rect.
concentration of acetic acid in the buffer is 1.0 2) Statement I is correct but statement II is in-
M, the concentration of sodium acetate in the
correct
RCC** RCC** RCC**

buffer is ––––– M.
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
[Given : pKa (acetic acid) = 4.74]
correct.
[Old NCERT Page-227] 4) Both statement I and statements II are cor-
1) 5 2) 15 rect.
3) 20 4) 10 Sol. (2)

PCB TEST - 12(52) 19 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
96. Given below are two statements: 98. Match the Column – I and Column – II
Statement – I : The effect of temperature on [Old NCERT Page-230]
equilibrium constant is given by vant Hoffs Column – I Column – II
equation 1/7
 K sp 
Statement – II : Vant Hoff’s equation is : a) Al(OH)3 i) S =  

 6912 
K1 H  T2  T1 
log    1/ 3
 K sp 
K 2 2.303R  T1T2 
b) BaCrO 4 ii) S =  

 4 
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the options 1/ 4
 K sp 
given below: [Old NCERT Page-201] c) Zr3 (PO4 )4 iii) S =  

 27 
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are incor-
rect. d) Hg2 I2 iv) S = (Ksp)1/2
1) a  iii, b  iv, c  i, d  ii
2) Statement I is correct but statement II is in-
correct 2) a  iv, b  i, c  iii, d  ii
3) a  i, b  ii, c  iv, d  iii
3) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is
4) a  ii, b  iii, c  i, d  iv
correct.
Sol. (1)
4) Both statement I and statements II are cor- 99. At certain temperature compound AB 2(g)
rect. dissociates according to the reaction
Sol. (2)  AB(g)  B(g)
AB 2(g ) 
97. Given below are two statements:
With degree of dissociation  which is small
Statement – I : During hydrolysis of compared to unity. The expression of KP in
CH3COONH4, the ions formed undergo hy- terms of  and initial pressure P is:-
drolysis as follow [Old NCERT Page-203]
CH 3 COO – + NH 4 + + H 2 O  CH 3 COOH + P 3
1) 2) P 2
NH 4 OH 2
Statement II : The degree of hydrolysis of
3 2
CH3COONH4 is independent of concentration 3) 4)
P P
of solution.
In the light of the above statements, choose
the most appropriate answer from the options
given below: [Old NCERT Page-226] Sol. (2)

1) Statement – I & statement – II both are cor-

rect
2) Only statement – I is correct
RCC** RCC** RCC**

3) Only statement–II is correct.

4) Statement–I & statement–II both are incor-
rect
Sol. (1)

PCB TEST - 12(52) 20 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : 11

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
100. At constant temperature, K P for the
 2NO 2 is expressed by
equilibrium N 2O 4 
4 x 2P
KP  , where P = pressure, x = extent of
1  x2
decomposition. Which of the following
statement is true? [Old NCERT Page-203]
1) KP increases with increase of P
2) KP increases with increase of x
3) KP remains constant with change in P and x
4) KP increase with decrease of x
Sol. (3)
RCC** RCC** RCC**

PCB TEST - 12(52) 21 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11

Biology : Cell Cycle and Cell Division + Biological Classification

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Section-C : Biology 108. In meiosis how many cycle of DNA replication
occurs? [Old NCERT Pg. 167]
Section-A 1) One 2) Two
101. Cells of root tip of onion have 14 chromosomes 3) Three 4) No replication occurs
in each cell, how many chromosomes will the Ans. (1)
cell have at G1-phase, after S-phase, and after 109. Four different steps that occur during meiosis
M-phase respectively? [Old NCERT Pg. 163, 164] are given in the following list :
1) 7, 14, 14 2) 14, 28, 28 [Old NCERT Pg. 168]
3) 14, 14, 14 4) 7, 28, 14 i) Complete separation of chromatids
Ans. (3) ii) Pairing of homologous chromosomes.
102. The complete disintegration of the nuclear iii)Lining up of paired chromosomes on equator.
envelope leads to spreading of chromosomes in iv) Crossing over between chromatids.
the cytoplasm of the cell, marks the start of These steps would occur in the order.
[Old NCERT Pg. 165] 1) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii) 2) (iii), (ii), (iv), (i)
1) Prophase 2) Metaphase 3) (ii), (iv), (iii), (i) 4) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
3) Anaphase 4) Telophase Ans. (3)
Ans. (2) 110. Choose correct option for given diagram A, B
103. In the 24 hours average duration of cell cycle of and C : [Old NCERT Pg. 166, Fig. 10.2]
a human cell, cell division proper lasts for only
about [Old NCERT Pg. 163]
1) 5 hours 2) 1 hour
3) 19 hours 4) 10 hours
Ans. (2)
104. Liquid endosperm in coconut is resulted due to
[Old NCERT Pg. 166] 1) A-Anaphase, B-Metaphase, C-Telophase
1) Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis 2) A-Prophase, B-Anaphase, C-Metaphase
2) Failure of karyokinesis followed by single cytokinesis 3) A-Early prophase, B-Late prophase,
3) Karyokinesis followed by single cytokinesis C-Metaphase
4) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis 4) A-Anaphase, B-Telophase, C-Interphase
Ans. (4) Ans. (4)
105. Synaptonemal complex form in [Old NCERT Pg. 168] 111. A bivalent of meiosis-I consists of :
1) Leptotene 2) Zygotene [Old NCERT Pg. 168, 169, Fig. 10.3]
3) Pachytene 4) Diplotene 1) Two chromatids and one centromere
Ans. (2) 2) Two chromatids and two centromere
106. Homologous chromosome start separating in 3) Four chromatids and two centromere
[Old NCERT Pg. 169] 4) Four chromatids and four centromere
1) Anaphase-II 2) Anaphase-I Ans. (3)
3) Telophase-II 4) Telophase-I 112. The sequence of sub-stages of prophase-I are :
Ans. (2) [Old NCERT Pg. 168]
107. Which one is correct for meiosis? [Old NCERT Pg. 170] 1) Leptotene - Zygote - Pachytene - Diplotene -
1) Maintenance of a constant chromosome Diakinesis
number in particular species 2) Leptotene - Zygotene - Pachytene - Diakinesis
2) It is not responsible for variation - Diplotene
3) Produce 4 daughter cells with diploid chromosomes 3) Leptotene - Zygotene - Pachytene - Diakinesis
4) More than one is correct 4) Leptotene - Pachytene - Diplotene - Zygotene
Ans. (1) - Diakinesis
Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 12(50) 22 Date : 01/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
113. Number of meiotic divisions required to 119. In which order, cytokinesis occurs in plants:
produce 100 microspores (pollens) in an [Old NCERT Pg. 166]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
angiosperm is : [Old NCERT Pg. 167, Que. is 1) Centripetal 2) Centrifugal
designed using 2 Chapters CCD & SRFP]
3) Oblique 4) Equatorial
1) 125 2) 100
3) 50 4) 25 Ans. (2)
Ans. (4) 120. Histone protein and RNA synthesis occur in :
114. Assertion : S or synthesis phase marks the period [Old NCERT Pg. 163]
during which amount of DNA per cell doubles. 1) G1-phase 2) S-phase
Reason : Increase in the chromosome number; if 3) G2-phase 4) Early anaphase
the cell had diploid or 2n number of chromosomes
Ans. (2)
at G 1 , even after S-phase the number of
chromosomes becomes 4n. [Old NCERT Pg. 163] 121. After meiosis–I : [Old NCERT Pg. 169]
1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the 1) the two chromatids of a chromosome are
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion. genetically similar
2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason 2) the two chromatids of a chromosome are
is not correct explanation of Assertion. genetically different
3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong. 3) There occurs only one chromatid in each chromosome
4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong. 4) Four similar daughter cells are formed
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
115. Anaphase promoting complex (APC) is a protein
122. The enzyme recombinase is required at which
degradation machinery necessary for proper
stage of meiosis : [Old NCERT Pg. 168]
mitosis of animal cells. If APC is defective in a
human cell, which of the following is expected 1) Pachytene 2) Zygotene
to occur? [PYQ, NEET 2017] 3) Diplotene 4) Diakinesis
1) Chromosomes will not condense Ans. (1)
2) Chromosomes will be fragmented 123. A somatic cell that has just completed the S
3) Chromosomes will not segregate phase of its cell cycle, as compared to gamete of
4) Recombination of chromosome arms will occur the same species, has :
Ans. (3) [Old NCERT Pg. 171, Summary, NCERT Based]
116. The Garden lizard has 16 chromosomes (2n) in 1) same number of chromosomes but twice the
each cell. During interphase of mitosis if the amount of DNA
number of chromosomes at G1 phase is 16, what
2) twice the number of chromosomes and four
would be the number of chromosomes after S
times the amount of DNA
phase? [Old NCERT Pg. 163]
1) 32 2) 8 3) four times the number of chromosomes and
twice the amount of DNA
3) 16 4) 4
Ans. (3) 4) twice the number of chromosomes and twice
117. The centriole undergoes duplication during : the amount of DNA
[Old NCERT Pg. 163] Ans. (2)
1) G2-phase 2) S-phase 124. Prophase–I of meiotic division is typically longer
3) Prophase 4) Metaphase and more complex, it is subdivided into five
Ans. (2) phases, on the basis of : [Old NCERT Pg. 168]
118. During cell division, spindle fibres attach to 1) Staining
which part of chromosome?[Old NCERT Pg. 165] 2) Behaviour of chromosomes
1) Primary constriction 3) Duration
2) Secondary constriction
4) Number of chromosomes
3) Telomere 4) Satellite
Ans. (1) Ans. (2)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 23 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
125. Label the structures indicated by (i), (ii), (iii) and 129. Number of chromosome pairs at equator in
(iv) in below given diagram - metaphase-I of a diploid plant cell (for which

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
[Old NCERT Pg. 169] n= 25) shall be -
1) 50 2) 100
3) 75 4) 25
Ans. (4)
130. Assertion (A) : No replication of DNA is needed
between meiosis-I and meiosis-II.
[Old NCERT Pg. 167]
1) (i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centriole, (iii)-Centromere, Reason (R) : Chromosomes are already duplicated
(iv)-Chromosome and they already have two sister chromatids.
2) (i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centriole, (iii)- 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
Centromere, (iv)-Chromatid correct explanation of (A).
3) (i)-Chromatid, (ii)-Centromere, (iii)-Centriole, 2) (A) is correct but (R) is not correct.
(iv)-Chromosome 3) (A) is incorrect but (R) is correct.
4) (i)-Chromosome, (ii)-Centromere, (iii)
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
Centriole, (iv)-Chromatid
correct explanation of (A).
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
126. Which of the following is not a significance of
131. What does (i) and (ii) represent in the given
mitosis ? [Old NCERT Pg. 167]
flowchart?
1) Maintenance of identical genetic complement
M I M II
2) Cell repair Parent cell   2 Daughter cells   4 Daughter cells
(2n ) (i) (ii)

3) Restore nucleo cytoplasmic ratio

1) (i) = 2n, (ii) = n 2) (i) = n, (ii) = n
4) Genetic variability
3) (i) = n, (ii) = 2n 4) (i) = 4n, (ii) = 2n
Ans. (4)
Ans. (2)
127. During meiosis how many cycles of nucleus
division, DNA replication and division of 132. The second meiotic division leads to :
centromere take place respectively ? [Old NCERT Pg. 169]
[Old NCERT Pg. 167] 1) separation of sex chromosomes
1) Three, Two, One 2) fresh DNA synthesis
2) One, Two, Two 3) Splitting of centromeres and separation of
3) Two, Two, One sister chromatids
4) Two, One, One 4) separation of homologous chromosomes
Ans. (4) Ans. (3)
128. A mouse cell is treated with a chemical that 133. Due to the activity of recombinase enzyme, an
interferes with the activity of tubulin protein. X-shaped structure is observed between non-
Which of the following will probably be affected sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes.
the most? This is known as :- [Old NCERT Pg. 168]
1) Formation of spindle fibres 1) Diad
2) Division of cytoplasm 2) Bivalent
3) Chromosome duplication 3) Synaptonemal complex
4) Replication of DNA
4) Chiasmata
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 24 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
134. A cell divides every minute. At this rate of 139. Which of the following is correct regarding the
division it can fill a 100 ml of beaker in one hour. given figure?

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
How much time does it take to fill a 25 ml
beaker? [ NCERT based]
1) 15 minutes 2) 30 minutes
3) 58 minutes 4) 29 minutes
Ans. (3) Number of pairs Number of Number of
135. In an experiment, a human cell and a yeast cell of homologous chromatids centromeres
divide simultaneously. After 48 hours what will chromosomes
be the ratio of number of cell cycles completed cell may form
by yeast cell : Human cell? 1) 3 6 12
[Old NCERT Pg. 163] 2) 3 12 6
1) 32 : 1 2) 1 : 1 3) 6 6 12
3) 16 : 1 4) 2 : 32 4) 6 12 6
Ans. (3) Ans. (2)
Section-B 140. A cell at telophase stage is observed by a student
in a plant brought from the field. He tells his
136. Meiocyte have 36 chromosomes then what is the
teacher that this cell is not like other cells at
number of chromosomes in endosperm of
telophase stage. There is no formation of cell
Angiosperm? [ NCERT Based]
plate and thus the cell is containing more
1) 36 2) 18 number of chromosomes as compared to other
3) 54 4) 9 dividing cells. This would result in :
Ans. (3) [Old NCERT Pg. 166]

137. Assertion (A) : Meiosis ensures the production of 1) Aneuploidy 2) Polyploidy

haploid phase in the life cycle of sexually 3) Somaclonal variation 4) Polyteny
reproducing organism. [Old NCERT Pg. 167] Ans. (2)
Reason (R) : Meiosis involve reduction in 141. Assertion : Cell divide to restore the nucleo-
chromosome number to half as that of parent cell. cytoplasmic ratio.
1) Both Assertion and Reason are True and the Reason : Cell growth results in disturbing the ratio
Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion. between the nucleus and the cytoplasm.
2) Both Assertion and Reason are True but Reason [Old NCERT Pg. 167]
is not a correct explanation of the Assertion. 1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the
3) Assertion is True but the Reason is False. Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
4) Both Assertion and Reason are False. 2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason
is not correct explanation of Assertion.
Ans. (1)
3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong.
138. Given :
4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong.
1. Chromatid 2. Monod Ans. (1)
3. Dyad 4. Daughter chromosome 142. Number of meiotic divisions required to
The correct sequence in cell division is : produce 100 megaspore in angiosperm/egg is :
1) 1, 2, 3, 4 2) 2, 3, 1, 4 [NCERT Based, Que. is designed using 2 Ch.- CCD & SRFP]
3) 3, 2, 1, 4 4) 4, 3, 2, 1 1) 125 2) 100
Ans. (2) 3) 50 4) 25
Ans. (2)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 25 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
143. Four events A, B, C and D occurs during mitosis in 147. Meiosis ensures the production of ........... phase
the following sequence : [Old NCERT Pg. 164 to 166] in life cycle of sexually reproducing organism,

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
BDCA where as fertilisation restores ......... phase.
Choose the correct match for A, B, C and D from [Old NCERT Pg. 167]
the following : 1) diploid, haploid 2) haploid, triploid
i. Reformation of Nucleolus, ER and Golgibody 3) diploid, triploid 4) haploid, diploid
ii. Centromeres split Ans. (4)
iii. Initiation of assembly of mitotic spindle 148. How many statements are true for telophase?
iv. Starting of furrow formation in the plasma [Old NCERT Pg. 166]
membrane i) Centromeres split and chromatids separate.
1) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv 2) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i ii) Chromatids move to opposite poles.
3) A-iv, B-iii, C-i, D-ii 4) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii iii)Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle poles
Ans. (3) and their identify is lost as discrete elements.
144. Which of the following options gives the correct iv) Nuclear envelope assembles around the
sequence of events during mitosis : chromosome clusters.
[Old NCERT Pg. 165, 166] v) Nucleolus, golgi complex and ER reform.
1) Condensation  Nuclear membrane vi) The individual chromosomes can no longer be
disassembly  Crossing over  Segregation seen and chromatin material tends to collect
 Telophase in a mass in the two poles.
2) Condensation  Nuclear membrane 1) Two 2) Four
disassembly  Arrangement at equator  3) Five 4) Six
Centromere division  Segregation  Ans. (2)
Telophase 149. Statement-I : M-phase is the most dramatic phase of
cell cycle, involving a major reorganisation of virtually
3) Condensation  Crossing Over  Nuclear
all component of cell. [Old NCERT Pg. 164]
membrane disassembly  Segregation 
Telophase Statement-II : Cells in G0-stage remain metabolically
inactive but no longer proliferate unless called on to
4) Condensation  Arrangement of equator 
do so depending on the requirement of the organism.
Centromere division  Segregation 
1) Both statement I and statement II are correct
Telophase
2) Both statement I and statement II are incorrect
Ans. (2)
3) Statement I is correct but statement II is incorrect
145. If the cell is diploid in G1 than after the S phase
4) Statement I is incorrect but statement II is correct
cell remain/become : [Old NCERT Pg. 163]
Ans. (3)
1) n 2) 4n
150. Which of the following statements are true?
3) 8n 4) 2n
[Old NCERT Pg. 164]
Ans. (4)
i) Some cells in the adult animals do not appear
146. Assertion : Meiosis increases the genetic
to exhibit division.
variability in the population of organisms from
one generation to the next. ii) Many cells of animals divide only occasionally.
Reason : Meiosis involves pairing of homologous iii)These cells that do not divide further exit G1-
chromosomes and recombination between them. phase to enter an inactive stage called G0.
iv) Cells in quiescent stage remain metabolically active
[Old NCERT Pg. 167, 170]
but no longer proliferate unless called on to do so.
1) Assertion and Reason both are true and the
v) In animals, mitotic cell division is only seen in
Reason is correct explanation of Assertion.
the diploid somatic cells.
2) Assertion and Reason both are true but Reason
vi) Plants can show mitotic divisions in both
is not correct explanation of Assertion.
haploid and diploid cells.
3) Assertion is true but Reason is wrong.
1) (i), (ii) and (iii) 2) (i), (ii), (iv) and (v)
4) Assertion and Reason both are wrong.
3) (i),(ii),(iii),(v)and(vi) 4) All except (v)
Ans. (1)
Ans. (4)
PCB TEST : 12(50) 26 Date : 01/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
Section-D : Biology 156. Which of the following statement(s) is correct
for both blue-green algae and bacteria?
Section-A

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
[Old NCERT pg. 19]
151. Given the basis of inputs given, one can put the
given organism, in which of the following 1) Both show anaerobic respiration
kingdom? (as per understandings of Linnaeus) 2) Both have chlorophyll pigment
[Old NCERT pg. 17, Table 2.1] 3) Both are devoid of true nucleus
A) Cell type-Eukaryotic 4) None of the above
B) Cell wall-Present (without cellulose) Ans. (3)
C) Nuclear membrane-Present 157. The vast majority of bacteria are-
D) Body organisation-Multicellular/loose tissue 1) Photosynthetic Autotrophs
E) Mode of nutrition-Heterotrophic 2) Chemosynthetic Autotrophs
(Saprophytic/ Parasitic) 3) Heterotrophs
1) Plantae 2) Fungi
4) Both (1) and (2)
3) Animalia 4) Protista
Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)
158. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
152. In Whittaker ’s five kingdom system of correct for bacteria?
classification, eukaryotes are distributed among
[Old NCERT pg. 18, 19]
[Old NCERT pg. 17]
1) They are the members of the kingdom monera.
1) two kingdoms
2) The live in extreme habitats such as hot springs,
2) three kingdoms
deserts, snow and deep oceans.
3) four kingdoms
3) They show the most extensive metabolic
4) all the five kingdoms diversity.
Ans. (3) 4) All the above
153. Organisms of which of the following kingdom Ans. (4)
do not have nuclear membrane?
159. Which of the following statements regarding
[Old NCERT pg. 17, Table 2.1]
cyanobacteria is incorrect?
1) Protista 2) Fungi
[Old NCERT pg. 18, 19]
3) Monera 4) Plantae
1) It is also called blue green algae.
Ans. (3)
2) They are chemosynthetic autotrophs
154. Which of the following is the smallest living cell
3) It forms blooms in polluted water bodies.
and can live without oxygen?
[Old NCERT pg. 20]
4) It is unicellular, colonial or filamentous, marine
or terrestrial bacteria.
1) Mycoplasma 2) Mycorrhiza
Ans. (2)
3) Euglena 4) Trypanosoma
160. The most abundant prokaryotes helpful to
Ans. (1)
humans in making curd from milk and in
155. Which of the following statements is not correct production of antibiotics are categorised as
for methanogens? [Old NCERT pg. 19]
[Old NCERT , Pg. 19]
1) They are archaebacteria
1) cynobacteria
2) They live in marshy areas
2) archaebacteria
3) Methane is their preferred carbon source
3) chemosynthetic autotrophs
4) They are present in guts of several ruminant
animals. 4) heterotrophic bacteria
Ans. (3) Ans. (4)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 27 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
161. Bacteria are found to be primitive organisms 166. Bacteria and yeast are similar in all the following
because they features except that

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
1) are small, microscopic which are not seen with [Old NCERT pg. 22]
naked eye. 1) both are unicellular.
2) cause serious diseases to human being, 2) both are prokaryotes
domestic animals and crop plants.
3) both are capable of causing fermentation.
3) produce endospores which are very resistant
to adverse conditions. 4) both produce spores.
4) Possess incipient nucleus and show amitotic Ans. (2)
division. 167. Identify the basis of classification of fungi into
Ans. (4) phycomycetes, ascomycetes, basidiomycetes and
deuteromycetes. [Old NCERT pg. 23]
162. Which of the following processes are involved
in the reproduction of protists? i. Fruiting bodies
1) Binary fission and budding ii. Nature of habitat
2) Cell fusion and zygote formation iii. Morphology of mycelium
3) Spore formation and cyst formation iv. Mode of spore formation
4) All of the above 1) i & ii only 2) ii & iii only
Ans. (4) 3) i, iii & iv only 4) All of these
163. Plasmogamy is the fusion of Ans. (3)
[Old NCERT pg. 23] 168. Lichen indicate SO2 pollution because they
1) two haploid cells including their nuclei 1) show association between algae and fungi
2) two haploid cells without nuclear fusion 2) grow faster than others
3) sperm and egg 3) are sensitive to SO2.
4) sperm and two polr nuclei 4) flourish in SO2 rich environment.
Ans. (2) Ans. (3)
164. When a moist bread is kept exposed in air, it 169. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
becomes mouldy and black because [Old NCERT pg. 26]
1) spores are present in the water 1) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule.
2) spores are present in the bread 2) Most plant viruses are RNA viruses.
3) spores are present in the air 3) The bacteriophage has double-stranded DNA.
4) the bread decomposes 4) Most animal viruses are DNA viruses.
Ans. (2) Ans. (1)
165. Which of the following organisms is/are 170. Match the type of protozoans given in column-I
correctly assigned its/their taxonomic group? with their examples given in column-II and
[Old NCERT pg. 22] choose the correct option.
1) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same Column-I Column-II
kingdom as that of Penicillium. (Characters/Features) (Examples)
2) Lichen is a composite organism formed from a Red dinoflagellates i Rhizopus
the symbiotic association of an alga and a b Unicellular fungi used to ii Gonyaulax
protozoan. make bread and beer
3) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a c Source of antibiotics iii Yeast
fungus. d Bread mould iv Penicillium
4) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista.
1) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv 2) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-iv
Ans. (3)
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i
Ans. (3)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 28 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
171. Statement-I : Zoospores are motile and 175. Genetic material of TMV and Bacteriophage
aplanospores are non-motile in nature. Respectively : [Old NCERT , Pg. 26]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Statement-II : These spores are endogeneously 1) ds RNA and ds DNA 2) ss RNA and ds DNA
produced in sporangia. [Old NCERT pg. 23] 3) ss RNA and ss DNA 4) ss DNA and ds RNA
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect. Ans. (2)
2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect. 176. Dikaryon stage found in which class of fungi
3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct. [Old NCERT , Pg. 23]
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct. 1) Phycomycetes
Ans. (4) 2) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
172. Choose the correct statements (i-iv) regarding 3) Deuteromycetes
mycoplasma: [Old NCERT pg. 20]
4) All of these
i. Mycoplasma has no cell wall.
Ans. (2)
ii. Mycoplasma is the smallest living organism
177. Assertion : Slime moulds are saprophytic protist
known.
Reason : Slime moulds engulf dead organic
iii. Mycoplasma cannot survive without O2.
matter. [Old NCERT Pg. 21]
iv. Many Mycoplasma are pathogenic in animals
and plants. 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
1) Only (iii) 2) (i) and (iii)
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
3) (i), (ii) and (iv) 4) All of the above
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
Ans. (3)
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
173. Assertion (A) : Neurospora is commonly used in
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
biochemical and genetic work
Ans. (1)
Reason (R) : It belongs to basidomycetes fungi.
178. Which of the following scientist classify plants
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A) into Herb, Shrub and Tree and animals into
animals with RBC and animals without RBC
2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
[Old NCERT Pg. 16]
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
1) C. Linnaeus 2) Aristotle
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A). 3) Ernst Haeckel 4) R. H. Whittacker
Ans. (2) Ans. (2)
174. Match column A with column B and select 179. Which of the following spores are sexual spore
correct option. [NCERT Pg. 22, Last para] [Old NCERT Pg. 23]
1) Oospore and zygospore 2) Ascospore
Column A Column B
3) Basidiospore 4) All of these
a) Hyphae i) Cross walls in hyphae
Ans. (4)
Slender thread like
b) Mycelium ii) 180. Assertion : Ascomycetes commonly known as Sac
structure Fungi.
c) Septae iii) Network of hyphae Reason : Ascospores are produced in sac like
Coenocytic structure i.e. Asci (Ascus) [Old NCERT Pg. 23]
d) iv) Uninucleated cyfoplasser
hyphae 1) If both assertion and reason are true and the
v) Multinucleated cytoplasne reason is the correct explanation of the assertion.
1) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d-iii 2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason
is not the correct explanation of the assertion.
2) a-v, b-iii, c-i, d-ii
3) If assertion is true but reason is false.
3) a-ii, b-iii, c-i, d-v
4) If both assertion and reason are false.
4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-v
Ans. (3) Ans. (1)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 29 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
181. Given a list of diseases as follow : 185. Which of following organism are mostly found
[Old NCERT Pg. 20, 26] in marine water. [Old NCERT Pg. 21]

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
Cholera, Flu, Mumps, Citrus-canker, Small pox, 1) Diatomes 2) Desmids
Influeunza, Typoid, Tetanus, Herpes, AIDS. 3) Dinofagellates 4) Euglena
How many diseases caused by Bacteria and Ans. (3)
Virus respectively : Section-B
1) 5 : 5 2) 4 : 6 186. Read the given statements and choose the correct
option which states whether they are True or
3) 6 : 4 4) 7 : 3
False. [Old NCERT Pg. 23, 24]
Ans. (2)
I. The fungi constitutes a unique kingdom of
182. Assertion : Linchens are photosynthetic and are
heterotrophic organisms.
association of algae and fungi.
II. The common mushroom and toad stools are
Reason : In lichen, Algae provide food to fungi fungi.
and fungi provide Shelter, Water and minerals to
III. White spots seen on mustard leaves are due
the algae. [Old NCERT Pg. 27]
to presence of parasitic fungus.
1) If both assertion and reason are true and the IV. Some unicellular fungi (Ustilago) are used
reason is the correct explanation of the assertion. to make bread and beer.
2) If both assertion and reason are true but reason V. All the members of Ascomycetes are
is not the correct explanation of the assertion. multicellular.
3) If assertion is true but reason is false. VI. Penicillium yields the antibiotic penicillin.
4) If both assertion and reason are false. True False
Ans. (1) 1) I, III, III IV, V, VI
183. Match Column I (Kingdom) and Column II 2) I, II, III, VI IV, V
(Mode of Nutrition) and select the correct 3) II, III, VI I, IV, V
option. [Old NCERT Pg. 17, Table] 4) IV, V I, II, III, VI
Column I Column II Ans. (2)
a Monera i Autotrophic 187. Assertion (A) : Sporozoans includes diverse
b Protista ii Heterotrophic organism. [Old NCERT pg. 25]
c Fungi iii Both autotrophic Reason (R) : Most notorious is plasmodium.
and heterotrophic 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
d Plantae correct explanation of (A)
e Animalia 2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
1) a - iii, b - iii, c - ii, d - i, e - ii 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
2) a - ii, b - i, c - ii, d - iii, e - ii
correct explanation of (A).
3) a - iii, b - ii, c - iii, d - i, e - iii
Ans. (1)
4) a - ii, b - iii, c - ii, d - iii, e - ii 188. Which of the following statements is not correct
Ans. (1) for viruses? [Old NCERT pg. 26]
184. Which of the following sequence of event of 1) Viruses are obligate parasites
sexual reproduction in fungi are correct 2) Viruses can multiply only when they are inside
[Old NCERT Pg. 23] the living cells
1) Plasmogamy  Meiosis  Karyogamy 3) Viruses cannot pass through bacterial filters.
2) Plasmogamy  Karyogamy  Meiosis
4) Viruses are made up of protein and DNA or
3) Meiosis  Karyogamy  Plasmogamy RNA (never both DNA and RNA).
4) Karyogamy  Plasmogamy  Meiosis Ans. (3)
Ans. (2)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 30 Date : 01/01/2024

QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
189. Which of the following are the characters of 192. Assertion (A) : Two kingdom classification was
dinoflagellates? insufficient.

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
i. These organism are mostly marine and Reason (R) : Majority of organisms did not fall
photosynthetic. into either of categories in two kingdom
ii. Cell wall has stiff cellulose plates. classification.
iii. They appear yellow, green, brown, blue and 1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
red in colour. correct explanation of (A)
iv. Most of them have two flagella. 2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
v. Their toxin can kill other organism. 3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
1) (ii), (iii) and (v) only 4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
2) (ii) only
Ans. (4)
3) All of the above
193. Which of the following class of fungi is being
4) (ii) and (iv) only
described by the given statements?
Ans. (3)
[Old NCERT pg. 23]
190. Match the type of protozoans given in column-I
with their examples given in column-II and i. They are found in aquatic habitats and on
choose the correct option. decaying wood in moist and damp places.
[Old NCERT pg. 23, 24] ii. Mycelium is aseptate and coenocytic.
iii. Asexual reproduction takes place by
Column-I Column-II
zoospores (motile) or by aplanospores (non-
(Fungus name) (Commonly called)
motile).
a Puccinia i Yeast
iv. Some common examples are Mucor,
b Ustilago ii Mushroom
Rhizopus and Albugo.
c Agaricus iii Smut fungus
d Saccharomyces iv Rust fungus 1) Ascomycetes 2) Phycomycetes
3) Basidiomycetes 4) Deuteromycetes
1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv
Ans. (2)
2) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i
194. Consider the following statements.
3) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d-ii
[Old NCERT Pg. 16, 1st & 2nd Para]
4) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
Ans. (4) a. Biological classification is the scientific
ordering of organisms in a hierarchial series
191. Which of the following statement(s) is/are
of group on the basis of their morphological,
correct?
evolutionary and other relationships.
i. Reproduction in fungi can take place by
b. Linnaeus classified organisms on the basis
vegetative means- fragmentation, fission and
of autotrophic and heterotrophic mode of
budding.
nutrition.
ii. Fusion of two nuclei is called plasmogamy.
c. Aristotle divided animals into two groups
iii. Fusion of protoplasms between two motile
such as animals with red blood and without
or non-motile gametes is called karyogamy.
red blood.
iv. Meiosis in zygote results in diploid spores.
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
v. Oospores, ascospores are produced in asexual
reproduction. 1) a and b 2) a and c

1) Only (i) 2) Both (ii) and (iii) 3) b and c 3) a, b and c

3) (ii), (iii) and (iv) 4) All of these Ans. (2)
Ans. (1)
PCB TEST : 12(50) 31 Date : 01/01/2024
QUESTION BOOKLET VERSION : P-11
195. Which of the following groups of protozoan is 198. Statement-I : Aristotle divided animals, based on
not correctly matched with its feature? presence or absence of body hairs.

RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC** RCC**
[Old NCERT pg. 21] Statement-II : Aristotle classified plants into
vascular and non-vascular plants.
1) Amoeboid - Marine forms have
[Old NCERT pg. 16]
silica shells on their
1) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
surface
2) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is incorrect.
2) Flagellated - Either free living or 3) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is correct.
parasitic.
4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
3) Ciliated - Actively moving Ans. (1)
organisms due to 199. Match the type of protozoans given in column-I
presence of cilia with their examples given in column-II and
4) Sporozoans - Move and capture choose the correct option.
their prey with the Column-I Column-II
help of false feet a Potato spindle i Virus
Ans. (4) b Cr-Jacob disease (CJD) ii Viroid
196. Match the type of protozoans given in column-I c Cholera iii Prion
with their examples given in column-II and d Leaf rolling and curling iv Bacteria
choose the correct option. 1) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-iv 2) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d-i
[Old NCERT pg. 19, 21, 23 & 24] 3) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 4) a-iv, b-i, c-iii, d-ii
Ans. (3)
Column-I Column-II 200. Read the following statement about the
a Ascus i Blue-green algae Mycoplasma [Old NCERT Pg. 20]
b Basidium ii Penicillium i. Mycoplasma have well developed cell wall.
c Protista iii Agaricus ii. Mycoplasma are obligate aerobic
d Cyanobacteria iv Euglena iii. Mycoplasma are polymorphic
v Sponges iv. Mycoplasma are smallest living cell and
1) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-v 2) a-i, b-ii, c-iii, d-v causes disease to both plants and animals.
Select the correct statement
3) a-ii, b-v, c-iii, d-i 4) a-ii, b-iii, c-iv, d-i 1) iii only 2) iii and iv
Ans. (4) 3) i, iii and iv 4) ii and iii
197. Assertion (A) : Chemosynthesis is an autotrophic Ans. (2)
nutrition.
Reason (R) : Chemoautotrophs contain
chlorophyll pigments.
1) Both (A) and (R) are correct but (R) is not the
correct explanation of (A)
2) (A) is correct but (R) is incorrect
3) (A) is not correct but (R) is correct.
4) Both (A) and (R) are correct and (R) is the
correct explanation of (A).
Ans. (2)

PCB TEST : 12(50) 32 Date : 01/01/2024