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Quiz Results
Green explanations indicate questions you answered correctly.
Red explanations indicate questions you answered incorrectly.

Score 86.67%. You answered 52 out of 60 correctly.

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1. A 3/8 inch aircraft high pressure flexible hose as compared to 3/8 inch metal tubing used
in the same system will

A. have higher flow capabilities.

B. have equivalent flow characteristics.

C. usually have interchangeable applications.

Flexible hose may be used in any part of an aircraft fluid system where it has been proven
by the aircraft manufacturer to be suitable. The hose must be able to carry the pressure,
withstand the vibration, and pass the required fluid flow. The size of a flexible hose is
approximately its inside diameter in 1/16-inch increments. This refers to the outside
diameter of a rigid tube that has the equivalent flow characteristics.

2. A certain amount of slack must be left in a flexible hose during installation because, when
under pressure, it

A. expands in length and diameter.

B. expands in length and contracts in diameter.

C. contracts in length and expands in diameter.

When flexible hose is installed in an aircraft, it must be given a certain amount of slack
because when pressure is applied to the hose, it contracts in length and expands in
diameter.

3. Which of the following tools is best to use when cutting soft aluminum tubing?

A. Hand operated wheel-type tubing cutter.

B. Angle grinder with cut-off wheel.

C. Circular-saw equipped with an abrasive cutting wheel.

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A hand operated wheel-type tubing cutter is the best tool to use when cutting aluminum
tubing, or any tubing of moderately soft metal.

4. Which statement is true regarding tiedown of small aircraft?

A. The aircraft should be headed downwind in order to eliminate or minimize wing lift.

B. Leave the nosewheel or tailwheel unlocked.

C. Nylon or dacron rope is preferred to manila rope.

Manila (hemp) rope has the tendency to shrink, not stretch, when it gets wet. Nylon and
dacron rope are both superior to manila because they are stronger, and neither of them
shrink when they are wet. The airplanes should be pointed as nearly into the wind as
practicable and the tail wheel or nosewheel should be locked in their straight-ahead
position to prevent the wind from slewing the aircraft around.

5. (Refer to Figure 12.) Find the total resistance of the circuit.

A. 16 ohms.

B. 2.6 ohms.

C. 21.2 ohms.

This problem can be solved in four steps:

1. Combine resistors R(4) and R(5) in parallel.
2. Combine resistor R(2) with R(4-5) in series.
3. Combine resistors R(2-4-5) with R(3) in parallel.
4. Combine resistors R(2-3-4-5) with R(1) in series.

6. Which of the following conditions has the most potential for causing engine damage when
starting or attempting to start a turbine engine?

A. Hung start.

B. Cold start.

C. Hot start.

A hot start is one in which the EGT or TIT rises above its allowable limit. An engine can be
seriously damaged by a hot start.

7. A bolt with an X inside a triangle on the head is classified as an

A. NAS standard aircraft bolt.

B. NAS close tolerance bolt.

C. AN corrosion-resistant steel bolt.

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An NAS close-tolerance bolt has a cross or an X inside a triangle on its head. An NAS or
an AN standard aircraft bolt has a raised cross or asterisk on its head. An AN corrosion-
resistant steel bolt has a single raised dash on its head.

8. What is the operating resistance of a 30-watt light bulb designed for a 28-volt system?

A. 1.07 ohms.

B. 26 ohms.

C. 0.93 ohm.

A 30-watt light bulb operating in a 28-volt electrical system has a hot resistance (operating
resistance) of 26.13 ohms.
R = E^2 ÷ P
= 28^2 ÷ 30
= 26.12 omega

9. (1) The Federal Aviation Regulations require approval after compliance with the data of a
Supplemental Type Certificate.
(2) An installation of an item manufactured in accordance with the Technical Standard
Order system requires no further approval for installation in a particular aircraft.
Regarding the above statements,

A. only 2 is true.

B. neither 1 nor 2 is true.

C. only 1 is true.

Statement 1 is true. After an aircraft has been altered in accordance with a Supplemental
Type Certificate, it must be inspected for conformity with the information included in the
STC before it can be approved for return to service. Statement 2 is not true. Even though
a part has been manufactured according to a Technical Standard Order, it is not
necessarily approved for installation on a particular civil aircraft.

10. What is defined as a group of bits representing a complete piece of information?

A. Byte.

B. Bit.

C. Word.

A byte is composed of a group of 8 bits and represents a complete piece of information in

a binary system.

11. Galvanic corrosion is likely to be most rapid and severe when

A. the surface area of the cathodic metal is smaller than surface area of the anodic metal.

B. the surface areas of the anodic and cathodic metals are approximately the same.

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C. the surface area of the anodic metal is smaller than the surface area of the cathodic metal.

Galvanic corrosion occurs when two dissimilar metals make electrical contact in the
presence of an electrolyte. The rate at which corrosion occurs depends on the difference
in the activities of the two metals. The greater the difference, the faster the corrosion
occurs. The rate of galvanic corrosion also depends on the size of the parts in contact. If
the surface area of the corroding material, the anode, is smaller than the surface area of
the less active metal, the cathode, corrosion will be rapid and severe.

12. (1) Private aircraft are required by regulations to be weighed periodically.

(2) Private aircraft are required to be weighed after making any alteration.
Regarding the above statements,

A. neither 1 nor 2 is true.

B. only 1 is true.

C. only 2 is true.

Statement 1 is not true. No Federal Aviation Regulation requires that private aircraft be
weighed periodically. Statement 2 is not true. When a private aircraft is altered, the weight
and balance records must be updated to show any change that has been made in the
weight or in the empty weight CG location. These changes are normally found
mathematically rather than by actually weighing the aircraft.

13. Which tool is used to measure the clearance between a surface plate and a relatively
narrow surface being checked for flatness?

A. Depth gauge.

B. Thickness gauge.

C. Dial indicator.

A part is checked for flatness by putting it on a surface plate and sliding a thickness gauge
(a feeler gauge) between the part and the surface plate. The thickness of the feeler gauge
that will slip between the part and the surface plate is the amount the part lacks being flat.

14. The purpose of aircraft wing dihedral is to

A. increase lateral stability.

B. increase longitudinal stability.

C. increase lift coefficient of the wing.

Dihedral or the upward slant of the wing from the fuselage is used to increase the lateral
stability. Lateral stability is roll stability and is stability about the longitudinal axis.

15. If an engine is turning 1,965 rpm at 65 percent power, what is its maximum rpm?

A. 2,653

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B. 3,023

C. 3,242

1,965 RPM is 65% of 3,023 RPM.

1,965 ÷ 0.65 = 3,023

16. Which of the following logic gates will provide an active high out only when all inputs are
different?

A. XNOR.

B. NAND.

C. XOR.

The output of the XOR gate will only be at an active high when one and only one of the
two inputs is high. If both inputs are low, or both inputs are high, then the output of the
gate will be low.

17. In order to reconstruct lost or destroyed aircraft maintenance records, what is it necessary
to establish?

A. Dates of all maintenance, preventive maintenance and alterations.

B. Dates and/or times of all 100-hour, annual, or progressive inspections.

C. Total time-in-service of the airframe.

AC 43-9C paragraph 12 states that in order to reconstruct lost or destroyed maintenance

records, it is necessary to establish the total time-in-service of the airframe.

18. (1) A detail drawing is a description of a single part.

(2) An assembly drawing is a description of an object made up of two or more parts.
Regarding the above statements,

A. only 1 is true.

B. neither 1 nor 2 is true.

C. both 1 and 2 are true.

Statement 1 is true. A detail drawing is a description of a single part that includes enough
information to allow the part to be manufactured (fabricated). Statement 2 is also true. An
assembly drawing is a drawing that shows the way various detail parts are put together to
form an assembly or a subassembly. Assembly drawings refer to the various parts to be
assembled by the drawing number of their detail drawings.

19. When we think of aviation safety in a contemporary way, human error is

A. the starting point.

B. the ending point.

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C. the intervention point.

The "SHEL" model is another concept for investigating and evaluating maintenance
errors. The acronym SHEL represents software, hardware, environment, and liveware --
with the human as the starting point for all.

20. (Refer to Figure 38.) An aircraft reciprocating engine has a 2,800 cubic-inch displacement
and develops 2,000 brake-horsepower at 2,200 RPM. What is the brake mean effective
pressure?

A. 257.5.

B. 242.5.

C. 275.0.

1. Find the 2,000-brake-horsepower vertical line at the top of the chart and follow this line
down until it intersects the diagonal line for the 2,800-cubic-inch-displacement engine.
2. Draw a horizontal line from this intersection point to the right until it intersects the
diagonal line for 2,200 RPM.
3. From the intersection of the horizontal line and the RPM diagonal line, draw a line
vertically downward to the BMEP scale.
4. You will find that the vertical line touches the BMEP scale just about on the 257-psi-
BMEP line.

21. All of the following are consequences of human error, except

A. mental stressor.

B. catastrophic.

C. personal injury.

Human error is defined as a human action with unintended consequences. There are four
consequences of human error: little or no effect, damage to equipment/hardware, personal
injury, or catastrophic damage.

22. Which of the following is the square root of (-1776)/(-2) - 632?

A. 128

B. 256

C. 16

Solve this problem in three steps:

1. Divide -1776 by -2: -1776/-2 = 888.
2. Subtract 632 from 888: 888 - 632 = 256.
3. Find the square root of 256: 16.

23. The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between

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A. the maximum takeoff weight and basic empty weight.

B. maximum ramp or takeoff weight as applicable, and zero fuel weight.

(1) the weight of an aircraft with all seats filled, full baggage/cargo, and full fuel, and (2)
C.
aircraft weight with all seats empty, no baggage/cargo, and minimum operating fuel.
The useful load of an aircraft is the difference between the maximum takeoff weight and
the basic empty weight of the aircraft.

24. To obtain useful weight data for purposes of determining the CG, it is necessary that an
aircraft be weighed

A. in a level flight attitude.

B. with all items of useful load installed.

C. with no more than minimum fuel (1/12-gallon per METO horsepower) in all fuel tanks.

When an aircraft is being weighed, it must be placed in a level-flight attitude. When the
aircraft is in its level-flight attitude, the centers of gravity of all of the items are in their
correct locations relative to the datum.

25. What does the letter Q symbolize when measuring electrical charge?

A. Farad.

B. Electron.

C. Coulomb.

The general formula for capacitance in terms of charge and voltage is C = Q/E, where:
C = Capacitance measured in farads
E = Applied voltage measured in volts
Q = Charge measured in coulombs.

26. The speed of sound in the atmosphere

A. varies according to the frequency of the sound.

B. changes with a change in temperature.

C. changes with a change in pressure.

The speed of sound in the atmosphere varies with the temperature of the atmosphere.

27. Fayed surfaces cause concern in chemical cleaning because of the danger of

A. forming passive oxides.

B. entrapping corrosive materials.

C. corrosion by imbedded iron oxide.

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Fayed surfaces are the parts of a structure that are covered in a lap joint. It is important
when a structure is chemically cleaned that the fayed surfaces be protected so that
corrosive materials do not seep between the sheets in the lap joints. This would cause
corrosion to form in an area where it is hard to detect.

28. The method used to rapidly charge a nickel-cadmium battery utilizes

A. constant current and constant voltage.

B. constant current and varying voltage.

C. constant voltage and varying current.

Nickel-cadmium batteries can be charged rapidly by using constant voltage and varying
current.

29. What FAA-approved document gives the leveling means to be used when weighing an
aircraft?

A. Type Certificate Data Sheet.

B. AC 43.13-1B.

C. Manufacturer's maintenance manual.

The FAA-approved document that gives the leveling means to be used when weighing a
specific aircraft is the Type Certificate Data Sheet for that aircraft.

30. The amount of electricity a capacitor can store is directly proportional to the

A. distance between the plates and inversely proportional to the plate area.

B. plate area and is not affected by the distance between the plates.

C. plate area and inversely proportional to the distance between the plates.

Three factors affect the amount of electricity a capacitor can store:

1. The area of the plates. The larger the plate area, the greater the capacity.
2. The thickness of the dielectric (the distance between the plates). The closer the plates
are together, the stronger the electrical field will be and the greater the capacity.
3. The material from which the dielectric is made (its dielectric constant). The higher the
dielectric constant, the greater the capacity.

31. When a 100-hour inspection is completed, if separate maintenance records for the
airframe, powerplant(s), and propeller(s) are maintained, where is the entry for the
inspection recorded?

A. In each record.

B. In the airframe record only.

C. In any one of the records.

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AC 43-9 paragraph 10. d. states that if the owner maintains separate records for the
airframe, powerplants, and propellers, the entry for the 100-hour inspection is entered in
each, while the annual inspection is only required to be entered into the airframe record.

32. (Refer to Figure 34.) What is the dimension of the chamfer?

A. 1/16 X 37°.

B. 0.3125 + .005 -0.

C. 0.0625 X 45°.

The chamfer is the tapered end of the cylindrical body of this clevis. The drawing shows
that the end is chamfered at an angle of 45°, and the chamfer extends back for 1/16 inch.
One-sixteenth of an inch is 0.0625 inch.

33. What nondestructive testing method requires little or no part preparation, is used to detect
surface or near-surface defects in most metals, and may also be used to separate metals
or alloys and their heat-treated conditions?

A. Eddy current inspection.

B. Ultrasonic inspection.

C. Magnetic particle inspection.

Eddy current inspection requires relatively little preparation of the part being inspected. It
induces a magnetic field into the part which causes eddy currents to flow. Variations in the
magnitude of the eddy currents affect this magnetic field, and when it is analyzed
electronically, it gives information regarding such structural characteristics as flaws,
discontinuities, thickness, and alloy or heat-treated condition of the material. Eddy current
inspection is used to locate defects both on the surface and below the surface.

34. What power of 10 is equal to 1,000,000,000?

A. 10 to the sixth power.

B. 10 to the tenth power.

C. 10 to the ninth power.

An easy way to tell the power of 10 to which a number has been raised is to count the
number of places the decimal would have to be moved to leave a number between 1 and
10. In this problem, the decimal would have to be moved nine places to the left.
1,000,000,000 is 1 x 10^9

35. A fuel that does not vaporize readily enough can cause

A. vapor lock.

B. detonation.

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C. hard starting.

An ideal fuel for an aircraft reciprocating engine must vaporize (change from a liquid into a
vapor) easily, yet it must not vaporize so easily that it will form vapor locks in the fuel
system. Liquid fuel will not burn, so for it to burn, it must be changed into a fuel vapor. If
the fuel does not vaporize readily enough, it will cause the engine to be hard to start.

36. Under which conditions will the rate of flow of a liquid through a metering orifice (or jet) be
the greatest (all other factors being equal)?

A. Unmetered pressure, 18 psi; metered pressure, 17.5 psi; atmospheric pressure, 14.5 psi.

B. Unmetered pressure, 23 psi; metered pressure, 12 psi; atmospheric pressure, 14.3 psi.

C. Unmetered pressure, 17 psi; metered pressure, 5 psi; atmospheric pressure, 14.7 psi.

In answering this question, we must recognize that the atmospheric pressure acts equally
on both sides of the metering jet and therefore does not enter into the problem. The
metering jet with the greatest pressure differential across it will have the greatest rate of
flow through it.
Jet A has a pressure differential of 0.5 psi differential.
Jet B has a pressure differential of 11 psi differential.
Jet C has a pressure differential of 12 psi differential.

37. What is the total capacitance of a certain circuit containing three capacitors with
capacitances of .25 microfarad, .03 microfarad, and .12 microfarad, respectively?
(Note: C(T) = C(1) + C(2) + C(3))

A. .4 uF.

B. .04 pF.

C. .04 uF.

When three capacitors are connected in parallel, their total capacitance is the sum of the
individual capacitances.
C(T) = C(1) + C(2) + C(3)
= 0.25 + 0.03 = 0.12
= 0.4 microfarad

38. (1) Sketches are usually made with the aid of drafting instruments. (2) Sketches are
usually more complicated to make when using graph paper. Regarding the above
statements,

A. Only 1 is true.

B. Only 2 is true.

C. Neither 1 nor 2 is true.

Sketches are simple drawings made without the use of tools. It is easier to do a sketch on
graph paper where dimensions are easier to visualize without using tools such as a ruler.

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39. What aluminum alloy designations indicate that the metal has received no hardening or
tempering treatment?

A. 3003-F.

B. 5052-H36.

C. 6061-O.

In the temper designations used with aluminum alloy, these letters have the following
meanings:
F means 'as fabricated.' There has been no control over its temper.
H36 means the metal is nonheat-treatable, but it has been strain-hardened and stabilized
to its 3/4 hard state.
O means the metal has been annealed.

40. (Refer to Figure 40.) Determine the proper tension for a 3/16-inch cable (7 x 19 extra flex)
if the temperature is 87°F.

A. 135 pounds.

B. 125 pounds.

C. 140 pounds.

1. Draw a line vertically upward from a temperature of 87°F until it intersects the curve for
3/16-inch, 7 x 19 cable.
2. From this point of intersection, draw a line horizontally to the right until it intersects the
rigging load in pounds index. This intersection is at 125 pounds.

41. Where is an AN clevis bolt used in an airplane?

A. For tension and shear load conditions.

B. Where external tension loads are applied.

C. Only for shear load applications.

A clevis bolt should be used only where the load to which the bolt is applied is a shear
load. A clevis bolt is not designed to take any type of tensile load. The threaded portion of
a clevis bolt is short and there is a groove between the threads and the shank. The head
of a clevis bolt has a screwdriver slot rather than flats for the use of a wrench.

42. (Refer to Figure 4.) How much power is being furnished to the circuit?

A. 575 watts.

B. 2,875 watts.

C. 2,645 watts.

This is a resistive circuit. The power is the product of the square of the current times the
resistance.
P = I^2 x R = 23^2 x 5 = 2,645 watts

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43. What is the maximum duration of a temporary airman certificate?

A. 60 days.

B. 90 days.

C. 120 days.

14 CFR 65.13 provides for a temporary certificate and rating effective for a period of 120
days to be issued to a qualified applicant.

44. How much work input is required to lower (not drop) a 120-pound weight from the top of a
3-foot table to the floor?

A. 120 pounds of force.

B. 360 foot-pounds.

C. 40 foot-pounds.

Work is the product of the amount of force applied to an object times the distance through
which the force causes the object to move. As much force is needed to hold back an
object when it is being lowered as it does to raise the object. If 120 pounds of force is
needed to hold back a weight as it is lowered for 3 feet, 360 foot-pounds of work has been
done.

45. Who is responsible for making the entry in the maintenance records after an annual, 100-
hour, or progressive inspection?

A. The owner or operator of the aircraft.

B. The person approving or disapproving for return to service.

C. The designee or inspector representing the FAA Administrator.

According to 14 CFR 43.11(a): 'The person approving or disapproving for return to service
an aircraft, airframe, aircraft engine, propeller, or appliance after any annual, 100-hour, or
progressive inspection required by Part 91 shall make an entry in the maintenance record
of that equipment...'

46. (Refer to Figure 35.) Identify the extension line.

A. 3

B. 1

C. 4

3 is an extension line used to show the width of the paint stripe. 1 is a visible outline. 2 is a
hidden line. 4 is a center line.

47. The SHEL model is another human factors tool. The goal is to determine not only what the
problem is, but also

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A. where and why it exists.

B. how we prevent the problem.

C. how many factors contribute to the error.

The goal of the SHEL model is to determine not only what the problem is, but where and
why it exists.

48. One characteristic of a good weld is that no oxide should be formed on the base metal at
a distance from the weld of more than

A. 1/2 inch.

B. 1 inch.

C. 1/4 inch.

When making a good weld, the heat should be concentrated in the area being welded.
The oxides that form on the base metal give an indication of the amount of heat put into
the metal. Oxides formed for a distance of much more than 1/2 inch from the weld show
that too much heat was put into the metal. The metal may have been weakened.

49. Find the square root of 1,746.

A. 41.7852

B. 41.7752

C. 40.7742

The square root of a number is the number that, when multiplied by itself, gives the
number. By using an electronic calculator, we find that the square root of 1,746 is
41.785165.

50. (Refer to Figure 22.) Which illustration is correct concerning bias application and current
(positive charge) flow?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

In 1, the base of this N-P-N transistor is positive with respect to the emitter (the emitter-
base junction is forward biased). Base-emitter current flows and therefore collector emitter
current flows as is shown by the current-flow arrow. In 2, the base and emitter of this N-P-
N transistor have the same polarity and no emitter-base current flows. There is no flow
between the emitter and the collector. In 3, the base and emitter of this P-N-P transistor
have the same polarity, and no emitter-base current flows. There is no flow between the
emitter and the collector.

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51. Diodes are used in electrical power supply circuits primarily as

A. switches.

B. rectifiers.

C. relays.

A diode (either a semiconductor diode or an electron-tube diode) is an electron check

valve. A diode allows electrons to pass in one direction, but blocks their flow in the reverse
direction. This is the action of a rectifier.

52. Which statement concerning heat and/or temperature is true?

A. There is an inverse relationship between temperature and heat.

B. Temperature is a measure of the kinetic energy of the molecules of any substance.

C. Temperature is a measure of the potential energy of the molecules of any substance.

Heat is a form of energy, and temperature is a measure of the intensity of the kinetic
energy of the molecules in a substance. Heat energy, in the form of latent heat, can be
added to an object or taken from it without changing its temperature. But, the temperature
of an object changes directly with the amount of sensible heat put into it or taken from it.

53. The main rotor system on a helicopter is classified in three groups. Which of those listed is
NOT one of these groups?

A. The fully articulated rotor system.

B. The flexible-beam rotor system.

C. The semi-rigid rotor system.

The classification of main rotor systems is based on how the blades move relative to the
main rotor hub. The principal classifications are known as fully articulated, semi-rigid, and
rigid.

54. Which statement is true regarding the use of FAA Form 337?

A. FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with both U.S. and foreign registered aircraft.

FAA Form 337 is authorized for use with U.S. registered aircraft, and foreign registered
B.
aircraft when located in the United States.

C. FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use with other than U.S. registered aircraft.

AC 43.9-1F paragraph 7.d. states that FAA Form 337 is not authorized for use on other
than U.S.-registered aircraft.

55. Characteristics of detonation are

cylinder pressure remains the same, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a
A.
decrease in engine power.
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rapid rise in cylinder pressure, excessive cylinder head temperature, and a decrease in
B.
engine power.

rapid rise in cylinder pressure, cylinder head temperature normal, and a decrease in
C.
engine power.

Detonation is an uncontrolled burning, or explosion, of the fuel/air mixture within the

cylinder of a reciprocating engine. The fuel/air mixture ignites and burns normally. But as it
burns, it compresses and heats the mixture ahead of the flame front. When the heated
and compressed mixture reaches its critical pressure and temperature, it releases its
energy almost instantaneously (it explodes). It is the explosions inside the cylinder that
cause the cylinder-head temperature to go up, the cylinder pressure to go up, and the
engine power to decrease.

56. Spilled mercury on aluminum

A. greatly increases susceptibility to hydrogen embrittlement.

B. may cause impaired corrosion resistance if left in prolonged contact.

C. causes rapid and severe corrosion that is very difficult to control.

Mercury spilled in an aircraft requires immediate action for its isolation and recovery to
prevent it from causing corrosion damage and embrittlement of the aluminum structural
components. Mercury is highly toxic and spreads very easily from one surface to another.

57. Solve the equation.

4 - 3[-6(2 + 3) + 4] =

A. 82

B. -25

C. -71

1. Begin this problem by working the inside parentheses, and then work outward.
(2 + 3) = 5
(-6 x 5) = -30
(-30 + 4) = -26
2. Next, the multiplication is done.
3 x -26 = -78
3. Now, perform the subtraction.
4 - (-78) = 82

58. When installing a castle nut, and the nut castellation does not align with the cotter pin hole
in the bolt within the torque range, the acceptable practice is to

A. back the nut off and align it to the nearest hole.

B. continue tightening the nut to the next hole.

C. change the nut or washer and try again.

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4/22/25, 10:52 PM Prepware

When tightening castellated nuts on bolts, the cotter pin holes may not line up with the
slots in the nuts for the range of recommended values. Except in cases of highly-stressed
engine parts, the nut may not be over-torqued. Remove hardware and realign the holes.

59. The maximum weight as used in weight and balance control of a given aircraft can
normally be found

by adding the weight of full fuel, pilot, passengers, and maximum allowable baggage to
A.
the empty weight.

B. in the Aircraft Specification or Type Certificate Data Sheet.

C. by adding the empty weight and payload.

Type Certificate Data Sheets or Aircraft Specifications include the maximum certificated
gross weight of an aircraft.

60. Corrosion caused by galvanic action is the result of

A. excessive anodization.

B. contact between two unlike metals.

C. excessive etching.

Galvanic corrosion is caused by an electrolytic action that takes place when two metals
that have a different place in the galvanic scale are in contact with each other and are
covered with an electrolyte. The more anodic of the metals reacts with the electrolyte and
some of it changes into salts (it corrodes).

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