NEET AIR (2025)

TEST - 02

DURATION ::180
DURATION Minutes
90 Minutes LATEST PATTERN M.MARKS : 720

Topics Covered
Physics: Full Syllabus.
Chemistry: Full Syllabus.
Botany: Full Syllabus.
Zoology: Full Syllabus.

General Instructions:
1. Immediately fill in the particulars on this page of the test booklet.
2. The test is of 3 hours duration.
3. The test booklet consists of 180 questions. The maximum marks are 720.
4. There are four Section in the Question Paper, Section I, II, III & IV consisting of Section-I (Physics), Section-II
(Chemistry), Section-III (Botany) & Section IV (Zoology) and having 45 Questions in each Subject. All questions
are compulsory.
5. There is only one correct response for each question.
6. Each correct answer will give 4 marks while 1 Mark will be deducted for a wrong response.
7. No student is allowed to carry any textual material, printed or written, bits of papers, pager, mobile phone, any
electronic device, etc. inside the examination room/hall.
8. On completion of the test, the candidate must hand over the Answer Sheet to the Invigilator on duty in the
Room/Hall. However, the candidates are allowed to take away this Test Booklet with them.
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 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

SECTION-I (Physics) before attaining a speed of 8ms–1 starting from

rest is nearly (take, g = 10 ms–2)
1. An electron and a proton with equal momentum (1) 8 m (2) 4 m
enter perpendicularly into a uniform magnetic (3) 10 m (4) 16 m
field, then
(1) the path of proton shall be more curved than 7. When a metallic surface is illuminated with
that of electron radiation of wavelength , the stopping potential
is V. If the same surface is illuminated with
(2) the path of proton shall be less curved than
radiation of wavelength 2, the stopping
that of electron
potential is V/4. The threshold wavelength for the
(3) Both are equally curved
metallic surface is
(4) path of both will be straight line
5
(1) 5λ (2) 
2
2. To reduce the resonant frequency in an L–C–R
(3) 3λ (4) 4λ
series circuit with a generator
(1) the generator frequency should be reduced 8. Four capacitors of equal capacitance have an
(2) another capacitor should be added in parallel equivalent capacitance C1 when connected in
to the first series and an equivalent capacitance C2 when
(3) the iron core of the inductor should be C
connected in parallel. The ratio 1 is
removed C2
(4) dielectric in the capacitor should be 1 1
(1) (2)
removed 4 16
1 1
(3) (4)
3. The output of a NAND gate is 0, 8 12
(1) if both inputs are 0
(2) if one input is 0 and the other input is 1 9. Given below are two statement: one is labelled as
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R).
(3) if both inputs are 1
Assertion (A): In the x–t graph of a particle in
(4) either if both inputs are 1 or if one of the
SHM acceleration of particle at time t0 is positive
inputs is 1 and the other 0
but velocity is negative.

4. If 'muscle times speed equals power', then what

is the ratio of the SI unit and the CGS unit of
muscle?
(1) 105 (2) 103
(3) 10 7
(4) 10–5 Reason (R): a –x and velocity is slope of x–t graph.
Where a is acceleration and x is displacement.
5. A uniform cube is subjected to volume In the light of the above statements, choose the
compression. If each side is decreased by 1%, correct answer from the options given below.
then bulk strain is (1) A is true but R is false.
(1) 0.01 (2) 0.06 (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) 0.02 (4) 0.03 (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
explanation of A.
6. The coefficient of friction between the tyres and (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
road is 0.4. The minimum distance covered correct explanation of A.

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NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

10. The speed of electromagnetic wave in vacuum Assertion (A): The images formed by total
(1) increases as we move from –rays to radio internal reflection are much brighter than those
waves formed by mirrors or lenses.
Reason (R): There is no loss of intensity in total
(2) decreases as we move from –rays to radio
internal reflection.
waves
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) is same for all of them
correct answer from the options given below.
(4) None of these (1) A is true but R is false.
(2) A is false but R is true.
11. A spring 40 mm long is stretched by the (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
application of a force. If 10 N force is required to explanation of A.
stretch the spring through 1 mm, then the work (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
done in stretching the spring through 40 mm is correct explanation of A.
(1) 84 J (2) 68 J
(3) 23 J (4) 8 J 16. In an AC, series L-C-R circuit, R = XL = XC and
applied AC voltage is V. then match the
following two columns and choose the correct
12. Calculate the amount of charge flowed in 2 min
option from codes given below.
through a wire of resistance 10 Ω, when a
(Vxy = potential difference across x and y)
potential difference of 20 V is applied across its
List–I List–II
ends. (A) VR (I) zero
(1) 120 C (2) 240 C (B) 2VC (II) V
(3) 20 C (4) 4 C (C) VRL (III) 2V
(D) VCL (IV) 2 V
13. From a disc of radius R and mass M, a circular Choose the correct answer from the options
hole of diameter R, whose rim passes through the given below.
centre is cut. What is the moment of inertia of the (1) A–II, B–IV, C–III, D–I
remaining part of the disc about a perpendicular (2) A–I, B–IV, C–II, D–III
axis, passing through the centre ? (3) A–II, B–I, C–III, D–IV
(1) 13 MR2/32 (2) 11 MR2/32 (4) A–II, B–III, C–IV, D–I
(3) 9 MR2/32 (4) 15 MR2/32
17. Which of the following has negative temperature
coefficient of resistance?
14. The ratio of kinetic energy to the total energy of an
(1) Copper (2) Aluminium
electron in a Bohr orbit of the hydrogen atom is
(3) Iron (4) Germanium
(1) 2 : –1 (2) 1 : –1
(3) 1 : 1 (4) 1 : –2 18. A particle of mass 2 kg is moving along a circular
path of radius 1 m. If its angular speed is 2 rad
15. Given below are two statement: one is labelled s–1, the centripetal force on it is
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (1) 4π N (2) 8π N
Reason (R). (3) 4π N 2
(4) 8π2 N

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 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02
235
19. When a uranium isotope 92 U is bombarded with 24. Moment of a force of magnitude 20 N acting
a neutron, it generates 89
Kr , three neutrons and along positive x–direction at point (3m, 0, 0)
36
91 101
about the point (0, 2m, 0) in N–m is
(1) Zr (2) Kr
40 36 (1) 20 (2) 60
103 144
(3) 36 Kr (4) 56 Ba (3) 40 (4) 30

20. The ratio of escape velocity at earth (ve) to the 25. The figure shows a network of currents. The
escape velocity at a planet (vp) whose radius and current i will be
mean density are twice as of earth is
(1) 1: 2 2 (2) 1 : 4
(3) 1: 2 (4) 1 : 2
21. When a glass rod is rubbed with silk, it
(1) gains electrons from silk
(2) gives electrons to silk
(3) gains protons from silk (1) 3 A (2) 13 A
(4) gives protons to silk (3) 23 A (4) –3 A

22. A current carrying infinitely long wire is kept 26. The fundamental frequency of a closed organ
along the diameter of a circular wire loop, pipe of length 20 cm is equal to the second
without touching it, the correct statement(s) overtone of an organ pipe open at both the ends.
is(are); The length of organ pipe open at both the ends is
A. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the (1) 80 cm (2) 100 cm
current is constant. (3) 120 cm (4) 140 cm
B. The emf induced in the loop is finite if the
27. If the frequency of light in a photoelectric
current is constant.
experiment is doubled, then the stopping
C. The emf induced in the loop is zero if the
potential will
current decreases at a steady rate.
(1) be doubled
Choose the most appropriate answer from the (2) be halved
options given below. (3) become more than double
(1) A only (4) become less than double
(2) B only
(3) A and C 28. The dimensional formula for electric flux is
(4) A, B and C (1) [ML3I–1T–3] (2) [M2L2I–1T–2]
–
(3) [ML3I1T 3] (4) [ML–3I–1T–3]
23. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 mm
and illuminated with light of wave length λ = 29. A spherical conductor of radius 2 m is charged to
6000 Å. If the screen is placed 2.5 m from the a potential of 120 V. It is now placed inside
slits. The distance of the third bright image from another hollow spherical conductor of radius 6 m.
the centre will be Calculate the potential to which the bigger sphere
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 3 mm would be raised.
(3) 6 mm (4) 9 mm (1) 20 V (2) 60 V
(3) 80 V (4) 40 V

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NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

30. The kinetic energy acquired by a body of mass m 35. Figure shows a composite system of two uniform
in travelling a certain distance starting from rest, rods of lengths as indicated. Then the coordinates
under a constant force is of the centre of mass of the system of rods are
(1) directly proportional to m
(2) directly proportional to m
(3) inversely proportional to m
(4) independent of m

31. A long solenoid has 500 turns. When a current of

2A is passed through it, then the resulting  L 2L   L 2L 
(1)  ,  (2)  , 
magnetic flux linked with each turn of the 2 3  4 3 
solenoid is  L 2L  L L
4 × 10–3 Wb. The self–inductance of the solenoid (3)  ,  (4)  , 
6 3  6 3
is
(1) 1.0 H (2) 4.0 H
36. Steam at 100°C is passed into 20 g of water at
(3) 2.5 H (4) 2.0 H
10°C. When water acquires a temperature of
80°C, the mass of water present will be [Take,
32. The refractive indices of glass and water with
specific heat capacity of water 1 cal g–1 °C–1 and
respect to air are 3/2 and 4/3, respectively. The
latent heat of steam = 540 cal g–1]
refractive index of glass with respect to water will
(1) 24 g
be
(2) 31.5 g
(1) 8/9 (2) 9/8
(3) 42.5 g
(3) 7/6 (4) 2
(4) 22.5 g
33. A cube of side a is placed in a uniform electric
37. Given below are two statements.
field E = E0iˆ + E0 ˆj + E0 kˆ. Total electric flux Statement-I: Susceptibilities of paramagnetic
passing through the cube would be and ferromagnetic substances increase with
(1) E0 a 2 (2) 2E0 a 2 decrease in temperature.
(3) 6E0 a 2 (4) zero Statement-II: Diamagnetism is a result of orbital
motions of electrons developing magnetic
34. If voltage across a zener diode is 6V, then find out moments opposite to the applied magnetic field.
the value of maximum resistance in this In the light of the above statements, choose the
condition. most appropriate answer from the options given
below.
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct.
(1) 2 kΩ (2) 3 kΩ (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) 5 kΩ (4) 4 kΩ incorrect.

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 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

38. P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line 42. The variation of velocity of a particle with time
passing through origin. The molar heat capacity moving along a straight line is illustrated in the
of the gas in the process will be adjoining figure. The distance travelled by the
(1) 4R particle in 4s is
(2) 2.5R
(3) 3R
4R
(4)
3

39. For a parallel beam of monochromatic light of

wavelength  diffraction is produced by a single
(1) 60 m (2) 55 m
slit whose width a is of the order of the
wavelength of the light. If D is the distance of the (3) 25 m (4) 30 m
screen from the slit, the width of the central
maximum will be 43. The horizontal range of a projectile is 4 3 times
2D D of its maximum height. The angle of projection
(1) (2)
a a will be
Da 2Da (1) 60º (2) 37º
(3) (4)
  (3) 30º (4) 45º

40. A current i ampere flows in a circular arc of 44. The electric and the magnetic field associated
radius R, which subtends an angle 3/2 radian at with an E.M. wave, propagating along the
its centre. The magnetic induction B at the centre +z-axis, can be represented by;
is
(1)  E = E0iˆ, B = B0 ˆj 

(2)  E = E0 kˆ, B = B0iˆ

 
(3)  E = E0 ˆj , B = B0iˆ 

(4)  E = E0 ˆj, B = B0 kˆ 
 

0i 0i 45. A rod of weight w is supported by two parallel

(1) (2)
R 2R knife edges A and B and is in equilibrium in a
2 0 i 3 0 i horizontal position. The knives are at a distance
(3) (4)
R 8R d from each other. The centre of mass of the rod
is at distance x from A. The normal reaction on
41. Two point charges +8q and –2q are located at A is
x = 0 and x = L respectively. The location of a
wx wd
point on the X-axis at which the net electric field (1) (2)
d x
due to these two point charges is zero, is
(1) 8L (2) 4L w( d − x) w( d − x)
(3) (4)
(3) 2L (4) L/4 x d

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NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

SECTION-II (Chemistry) 51. What is the maximum amount of nitrogen

46. The correct order of decreasing polarizability of dioxide that can be produced by mixing 4.2 g of
ion are; NO(g) and 3.2 g of O2(g)?
(1) 4.60 g (2) 2.30 g
(1) Cl– > Br– > I– > F–
(3) 3.22 g (4) 6.44 g
(2) F– > I– > Br– > Cl–
(3) I– > Br– > Cl– > F– 52. Given below are two statements:
(4) F– > Cl– > Br– > I– Statement-I: First ionization energy of P is
greater than S.
47. The electron affinity value are negative for: Statement-II: First ionization energy of Na is
A. Be → Be– B. N → N– lesser than Mg.
C. O → O2– D. Na → Na– In the light of the above statements, choose the most
E. Al → Al– appropriate answer from the options given below:
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
incorrect.
options given below:
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(1) (D) and (E) only correct.
(2) (A), (B), (D) and (E) only (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(3) (A) and (D) only correct.
(4) (A), (B) and (C) only (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
incorrect.
48. The conjugate base of H 2 PO 4− is:
53. Which of the following is an aromatic
(1) H3PO4 (2) H 2 PO 4− compound?

(3) HPO 24− (4) PO 34− (1) (2)

49. Daniell cell is represented as:
(1) Zn(s) | Zn+2(aq) || Cu+2(aq) | Cu(s)
(2) Cu(s) | Cu+2(aq) || Zn+2(aq) | Zn(s) (3) (4)
(3) Zn(s) | Zn+2(aq) || Zn+2(aq) | Zn(s)
(4) Cu(s) | Cu+2(aq) || Cu+2(aq) | Cu(s)
54. What will be the molality of a solution having
50. For the reaction, N2 + 3H2 → 2NH3, rate is
18 g glucose (mol. wt. = 180 g mol–1) is dissolved
expressed as: in 500 g of water?
1 d  N2  1 d H2  d  NH3  (1) 1 m (2) 0.5 m
(1) =− =3
3 dt 2 dt dt (3) 0.2 m (4) 2 m
d  N2  1 d  H 2  1 d  NH3 
(2) − =− = 55. The standard reduction potential values of three
dt 3 dt 2 dt
metallic cations X, Y and Z are 0.52, –3.03 and
d  N2  d H2  d  NH3 
(3) − = −3 =2 –1.18 V respectively. The order of reducing
dt dt dt power of the corresponding metal is:
d  N2  d  H 2  d  NH3  (1) Y > Z > X (2) X > Y > Z
(4) − =− =
dt dt dt (3) Z > Y > X (4) Z > X > Y

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 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

56. Which of the following is the most stable 60. The pH of an aqueous solution of 1.0 M
conformation of 1-bromopropane? ammonium formate assuming complete
dissociation is: (pKa of formic acid = 3.8 and pKb
of ammonia = 4.8)
(1) (2) (1) 7.0 (2) 7.5
(3) 6.5 (4) 4.3

61. It takes 10 min for the decomposition of 50%

H2O2. If the reaction is of first order, the rate
(3) (4)
constant will be:
(1) 0.693 (2) 0.00693
(3) 0.0693 (4) 6.93
57. EDTA is an example of;
(1) monodentate ligand 62. Match List-I with List-II.
(2) bidentate ligand List-I List-II
(3) tridentate ligand (Compound) (Nature)
(4) hexadentate ligand (A) Na2O (I) Neutral
(B) Al2O3 (II) Basic
58. Which of the following is/are V-shaped? (C) N2O (III) Acidic
(I) SO2 (II) I 3− (D) Cl2O7 (IV) Amphoteric
Choose the correct answer from the options
(III) NO +2 (IV) I 3+
given below:
(1) III and IV (2) II and IV (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(3) I and IV (4) I and II
(2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
59. Given below are two statements:
(4) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Statement-I: The number of unpaired electrons
in Fe3+ are 5.
63. The IUPAC name of [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 is:
Statement-II: The number of unpaired electrons
(1) Cobalthexaaminechloride
in Cr2+ is 4.
(2) Hexaamminecobalt (III) chloride
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) Hexaamminocobalto chloride
most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) Hexaaminocobaltate chloride
below:
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
64. Resonance is not possible in:
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (1)
correct.
(2)
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct. (3)
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (4)
incorrect.

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NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

65. In a chemical reaction: A + B → AB,

If B is acting as a limiting reagent, then choose
the correct option.
A B 69.
dichloromethane
(1) 50 atoms 100 atoms
(2) 100 atoms 200 atoms
What is the major product (A) in the above
(3) 50 atoms 30 atoms
(4) 50 atoms 200 atoms reaction?
(1)
66. Given below are two statement: one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (2)
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Hydrolysis of ethyl acetate is a (3)
pseudo first order reaction.
Reason (R): Water is present in large excess and
therefore its concentration remain constant (4)
during the course of reaction.
In the light of the above statements, choose the X
correct answer from the options given below: 70. CH3CH 2 − C  N ⎯⎯→ CH3CH 2 − CHO
(1) A is true but R is false. The reagent ‘X’ used here is (are):
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) SnCl2/HCl, H2O/boil
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (2) H2/Pd-BaSO4
explanation of A.
(3) LiAlH4/ether
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
(4) NaBH4/ether, H3O+
correct explanation of A.

67. What would be the product when isopropyl 71. What current strength in ampere will be required
chloride reacts with KCN? to liberate 10 g of chlorine from sodium chloride
(1) Propene solution in one hour?
(2) 2-Methylpropanenitrile (1) 7.55 ampere
(3) Propyne (2) 7.15 ampere
(4) Propanenitrile (3) 7.50 ampere
(4) 7.45 ampere
68. The volume of a system becomes twice its
72. What will be the product form when 1-bromo-3-
original volume on the absorption of 300 cal of
chlorocyclobutane reacts with two equivalents of
heat. The work done on the surrounding was
found to be 200 cal. What is the change in metallic sodium in ether?
internal energy (U) of the system?
(1) 500 cal (1) (2)
(2) 300 cal
(3) 100 cal
(4) –500 cal (3) (4)

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 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

73. Given below are two statement: one is labelled 77. For a process to be spontaneous at constant T and P;
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as (1) (G)system must be negative
Reason (R): (2) (G)system must be positive
Assertion (A): Aromatic carboxylic acids do not (3) (S)system must be zero
undergo Friedel-Craft reaction.
(4) (S)system must be negative
Reason (R): Carboxyl group is meta-directing group.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 78. Which of the following mixture does not show
correct answer from the options given below: positive deviation from the Raoult‟s law?
(1) A is true but R is false. (1) Benzene + acetone
(2) A is false but R is true. (2) Acetone + ethanol
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) Acetone + chloroform
explanation of A. (4) Water + benzene
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A. 79. Which of the following statement (s) are correct?
A. Nitrogen atom of amines is trivalent and
carries an unshared pair of electrons.
B. Nitrogen orbitals in amines are sp3
74. A hybridised.
C. The geometry of amines is pyramidal.
D. The angle C–N–E, (where E is C or H) is
The major product (A) in the above reaction is:
more than 109.5°.
(1) A, B and C (2) A and D
(3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D
(1) (2)
80. The orbital diagram in which the Aufbau
principle is violated:

(1) (2)

(3) (4) (3) (4)

81. Which of the following statement (s) are

correct?
75. If wavelength is equal to the distance travelled by
the electron in one second, then: A. n-pentane has higher boiling point than
h neopentane.
h
(1)  = (2)  = B. The rate of reaction of alkanes with halogens
p m
is F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2.
h h
(3)  = (4)  = C. Rate of replacement of hydrogens of alkanes
p m is : 3° > 2° > 1°.
D. Boiling point increases with increase in
76. Glucose reduces: branching.
(1) tollen’s reagent (2) fehling’s solution
(1) A, B and C (2) A and D
(3) benedict’s solution (4) all of these
(3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D

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NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

82. In the given reaction: 85. Given below are two statement: one is labelled
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Ammonolysis of alkyl halides is
[X] will be: not suitable method for the preparation of pure
(1) LiAlD4/D2O (2) NaBD4/H2O primary amines.
(3) LiAlD4/HOH (4) NaBH4/D2O Reason (R): Ammonolysis of alkyl halides
yields mainly secondary amines.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
83. Which of the following pairs of compounds are
correct answer from the options given below:
not position isomers?
(1) A is true but R is false.
(1) (2) A is false but R is true.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
(3)

(4) 86. product;

The type of above reaction is;

(1) Electrophilic addition reaction
84. Match List-I with List-II.
(2) Nucleophilic addition reaction
List-I List-II (3) Nucleophilic substitution reaction
(Structure) (Common name) (4) Electrophilic substitution reaction
(A) (I) Neopentyl
alcohol 87. In the reaction:
(B) (II) Neopentyl thiol MnO −4 + xH + + ne− → Mn 2+ + yH 2 O.

(C) O (III) Formaldehyde What is the value of n?

|| (1) 5 (2) 8
H − C− H
(3) 6 (4) 3
(D) (IV) Isopentane
88. The colour of ppt. formed in sulphate ion test is:
(1) yellow (2) white
(3) black (4) red
Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
89. What is the molarity of NaOH solution if 250 mL
(1) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV of it contains 1 mg of NaOH?
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II (Given molar mass of NaOH = 40 g/mol)
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV (1) 10–1 M (2) 10–2 M
(4) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (3) 10 M–4
(4) 10–3 M

11 [ Contd…
 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

90. Wilkinson’s catalyst is: 95. Given below are two statements:
(1) TiCl4 and Al(C2H5)3 Statement-I: In some flowers, the calyx and
(2) [Rh(Cl)(PPh3)3] corolla are not distinct and are termed as perianth.
(3) TiCl4 and (C6H5)3P Statement-II: In compound leaves, incisions of
(4) Al(C2H5)3, TiCl4 and (C6H5)3P the lamina reach up to the midrib, breaking it into
a number of leaflets.
SECTION-III (Botany)
In the light of the above statements, choose the most
91. Isogamous type of sexual reproduction takes appropriate answer from the options given below:
place in; (1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(1) Volvox. (2) Fucus. incorrect.
(3) Eudorina. (4) Spirogyra. (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
92. Select correct option w.r.t the cells which lack correct.
nucleus at maturity in humans and plants, (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
respectively. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(1) Erythrocytes and sieve tube cells
96. Sequence the following events according to their
(2) Cheek cells and sieve tube cells
(3) Erythrocytes and mesophyll cells occurrence in the light reaction of photosynthesis:
(4) Cheek cells and mesophyll cells (a) ATP synthesis
(b) Water splitting
93. Identify the placentation from the given diagrams (c) Electron transfer to NADP+
and give one example of each. (d) Excitation of electrons by light
(e) Release of oxygen
Choose the correct sequence from the options
given below:
(1) (d)-(b)-(a)-(c)-(e) (2) (d)-(b)-(e)-(a)-(c)
(3) (b)-(d)-(e)-(a)-(c) (4) (b)-(d)-(a)-(c)-(e)
A B C
(1) Marginal, Parietal, Basal, wheat 97. Given below are some statements (A-D).
pea Argemone A. RNAi takes place in all prokaryotic
(2) Axile, Basal, Free central, organisms as a method of cellular defense.
lemon marigold Dianthus B. The proteins encoded by the genes cryIAc
(3) Basal, Parietal, Free central, pea and cryIIAb control the cotton bollworms.
sunflower marigold C. The source of complementary RNA in
(4) Parietal, Basal, maize Marginal, tomato RNAi could be from an infection by viruses
radish having RNA genomes.
D. Using retrovirus, the nematode-specific genes
94. Gene regulation in eukaryotes exerted at: were introduced into the tobacco plant.
(1) transcriptional level. Choose the incorrect statements from the
(2) processing level. options given below:
(3) translational level. (1) A and C only (2) A and B only
(4) All of these (3) C and D only (4) A and D only

12 [ Contd…
NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

98. Find out the correct option on the basis of 101. Given below are two statements:
following diagrams. Statement-I: Double stranded polynucleotide
chains of DNA have anti-parallel polarity.
Statement-II: In RNA, every nucleotide residue
has an additional –OH group present at 2' -
position in the ribose.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(1) A-Satellite, B-Secondary constriction incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
C-Short arm, D- Long arm
correct.
(2) A-Satellite, B-Centromere, C-Short arm, (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
D- Long arm (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(3) A-Secondary constriction, B - Satellite
C-Long arm, D - Short arm 102. Telophase is characterized by all the following
(4) A-Centromere, B-Secondary constriction except;
(1) chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle
C-Short arm, D-Long arm
poles.
(2) identity of chromosomes is lost as discrete
99. What type of pollination takes place in elements.
Vallisneria? (3) nuclear envelope develops around the
(1) Male flowers are carried passively by water chromosome clusters at each pole.
currents to female flowers at surface of (4) nucleolus, golgi complex and ER disappear.
water.
103. Identify the labellings from A to C in the given
(2) Pollination occurs in submerged condition
diagram, respectively.
in water.
(3) Flowers emerge above surface of water and
pollination occurs by insects.
C
(4) Flowers emerge above water surface and
pollen is carried by wind. A
B

100. In C3 plant, when O2 concentration is more, the (1) A-Sporogenous tissue, B-Tapetum,
O2 binds to RuBisCO and RuBP gets changed to; C-Epidermis
(1) 2 molecules of PGA. (2) A-Sporogenous tissue, B-Epidermis,
(2) 2 molecules of phosphoglycerate. C-Tapetum
(3) 2 molecules of phosphoglycolate. (3) A-Epidermis, B-Sporogenous tissue,
C-Tapetum
(4) one molecule each of phosphoglycerate and
(4) A-Tapetum, B-Sporogenous tissue,
phosphoglycolate. C-Epidermis

13 [ Contd…
 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

104. Which bacterium helps in the production of Statement-II: Exarch condition is the common
‘Swiss cheese’? feature of the root system.
(1) Propionibacterium sharmanii In the light of the above statement, choose the
(2) Trichoderma polysporum most appropriate answer from the option given
(3) Saccharomyces cerevisiae below:
(4) Aspergillus niger (1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
105. In Mendel’s experiments with garden pea, round (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
seed shape (RR) was dominant over wrinkled correct.
seeds (rr), yellow seed colour (YY) was dominant (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
over green seed colour (yy). correct.
What is/are the expected phenotypes in the F1 (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
generation of the cross RRYY × rryy? incorrect.
(1) All wrinkled green coloured seeds.
(2) All wrinkled yellow coloured seeds. 108. Given below are two statements.
(3) All round yellow coloured seeds. Statement-I: Auxin and cytokinins are
(4) 50% round yellow coloured seeds and 50% antagonistic to each other in case of apical
wrinkled green colour seeds. dominance.
Statement-II: Auxin is not a plant growth
106. A. The productivity of the oceans is greater regulator.
than land. In the light of the above statements, choose the
B. By the process of leaching, water-soluble most appropriate answer from the options given
inorganic nutrients go down into the soil below.
horizon and get precipitated as unavailable (1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
salts. incorrect.
C. Catabolism is the process in which bacterial (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
and fungal enzymes degrade detritus into correct.
simpler inorganic substances. (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
D. The humus is further degraded by some (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
microbes and release of inorganic nutrients
occur by the process known as 109. Identify the correct statement about the diagram.
mineralisation.
Choose the correct code;
(1) A and B only
(2) B and C only
(3) B, C and D only
(1) The flower of this family consists of a
(4) A, B, C and D
capitulum or head.
(2) The flower of this family consists of a free
107. Given below are two statements: anther but fused filaments.
Statement-I: Endarch and exarch are the terms (3) The flower of this family lacks pappus.
often used for describing the position of (4) The flower of this family consists
secondary xylem in the plant body. gynoecium of bilocular basal placentation.

14 [ Contd…
NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

110. Match List-I with List-II: C. Walter III. Proposed the laws of
List-I List-II Sutton and inheritance in living
(A) Agrobacterium (I) Fungus cell Theodore organisms
tumefaciens wall digesting Boveri
enzyme D. Alfred IV. Discovered the basis
(B) Cellulase (II) Cloning
Sturtevant for the variation that
vector
(C) Ribonuclease (III) Plant cell wall sexual reproduction
digesting produced
enzyme Choose the correct answer from the options
(D) Chitinase (IV) RNA digesting given below:
enzyme (1) A-IV, B-III, C-I, D-II
Choose the correct answer from the options (2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III
given below: (3) A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
(1) A- I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(2) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I (4) A-II, B-IV, C-III, D-I
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 114. What factors contribute to the variability of
primary productivity among different
111. What is true about BOD? ecosystems?
(1) BOD is directly proportional to the organic (a) Type of plant species present
matter. (b) Climatic conditions
(2) BOD is inversely proportional to organic (c) Photosynthetic capacity of plants
matter. (d) Animal species present
(3) Greater the BOD of waste water, less it’s (e) Availability of nutrients
align potential. Correct Answer Options:
(4) All of these.
(1) (a), (b), (c) and (e) (2) (b), (c) and (d)
(3) (a), (c), (d) and (e) (4) (c), (d) and (e)
112. How many true-breeding pea plant varieties did
Mendel select as pairs, which were similar except
115. Which of the following is correct about
in one character with contrasting traits?
venation?
(1) 18 only (2) 19 only
A. Parallel venation is generally found in
(3) 14 only (4) 13 only
monocot.
113. Match the List-I with List-II. B. Parallel venation is generally found in dicot.
List-I List-II C. Reticulate venation is generally found in
A. Gregor I. Mapped gene positions monocot.
Mendel on chromosomes using D. Reticulate venation is generally found in
recombination dicot.
frequencies Choose the most appropriate answer from the
B. Thomas II. Noted the behaviour of options given below:
Hunt chromosomes was (1) A and D only (2) B and C only
Morgan parallel to the (3) B and D only (4) A and C only
behaviour of genes

15 [ Contd…
 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

116. Given below are two statements: one is labelled 120. Introduction of an alien DNA into plants is
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as achieved by:
Reason (R): (1) competent with bivalent ions.
Assertion (A): Gas vacuoles are found in blue
(2) using microinjection.
green and purple and green photosynthetic
(3) using a gene gun.
bacteria.
Reason (R): Gas vacuoles are not the part of (4) using lysozymes and chitinase.
inclusion bodies.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 121. The relation between species richness and area
correct answer from the options given below. for a wide variety of taxa (angiosperm plants,
(1) A is true but R is false. birds, bats, freshwater fishes) turns out be a;
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) rectangular parabola.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(2) rectangular hyperbola.
explanation of A.
(3) straight line/linear.
(4) Both A and R are true, but R is the not
correct explanation of A. (4) sigmoid.

117. Find the incorrect Statement-In relation to 122. Identify the role of filiform apparatus that is
glycolysis. found in ovule of flowering plants.
(1) Occur in all organisms. (1) It guides the entry of pollen tube into
(2) Generates net 2ATP from one glucose.
synergids.
(3) Occur in mitochondria and cytoplasm.
(2) It recognises the suitable pollen grain that
(4) Involve 2 substrate level phosphorylation.
falls on the stigma.
118. Consider the following figure and identify the (3) It produces nectar.
correct phase of M phase. (4) It stimulates division of the generative cell.

123. Match List-I with List-II.

List-I List-II
A. Citric acid I. Trichoderma
(1) Metaphase (2) Anaphase
B. Cyclosporin - A II. Clostridium
(3) Prophase (4) Telophase
C. Statins III. Aspergillus
119. Which one of the following statements regarding D. Butyric acid IV. Monascus
post-fertilization development in flowering Choose the correct answer from the options
plants is incorrect? given below:
(1) Ovary develops into fruit. (1) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(2) Zygote develops into embryo.
(2) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(3) The PEN undergoes successive nuclear
divisions. (3) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(4) Ovules develop into embryo sac. (4) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II

16 [ Contd…
NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

124. Agar used in the preparations of ice-creams and 128. Identify the incorrect statement(s).
jellies are obtained from; A. Pollination by wind is more common
(1) Gelidium and Gracilaria. amongst abiotic pollinations.
(2) Gelidium and Porphyra. B. Wind-pollination is rare in grasses.
(3) Porphyra and Gracilaria. C. Pollination by water is quite rare in
(4) Gelidium and Sargassum. flowering plants and is limited to about 30
genera, mostly monocotyledons.
D. Only a few flowering plants use a range of
125. Identify the correct statement regarding
animals as pollinating agents.
geitonogamy.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(1) Pollination is achieved within the same options given below:
flower. (1) B and C (2) B and D
(2) Geitonogamy is functionally self- (3) A and C (4) A and B
pollination.
(3) It does not involve pollinating agent. 129. Select the correct labelling for a and b from the
(4) Genetically it is similar to autogamy since given diagram.
the pollen grains come from the same plant.

126. Some vascular bundles are described as open

because these;
(1) are not surrounded by pericycle.
(2) are surrounded by pericycle but no
endodermis.
(3) are capable of producing secondary xylem
and phloem. a b
(4) possess conjunctive tissue between xylem (1) Continuous synthesis Discontinuous
synthesis
and phloem.
(2) Discontinuous synthesis Template DNA
(3) Template DNA Continuous
127. Given below are two statements: synthesis
Statement-I: The process of copying genetic (4) Template DNA Discontinuous
information from one strand of the DNA into synthesis
RNA is termed as transcription.
Statement-II: A transcription unit in DNA is 130. Given below are two statements:
defined primarily by the two regions in the DNA. Statement-I: Law of segregation is based on the
fact that the alleles do not show any blending.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
Statement-II: A gamete receives only one of the
most appropriate answer from the options given
two factors during segregation.
below: In the light of the above statements, choose the
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is most appropriate answer from the options given
incorrect. below:
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
correct. incorrect.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct. correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
incorrect. (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.

17 [ Contd…
 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

131. Which of the following statement(s) is correct 134. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
w.r.t translation.? as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
A. The amino acids are joined by a peptide Reason (R):
bond. Assertion (A): Mutation that arises due to the
B. The ribosome consists of structural RNAs change in a single base pair of DNA is known as
and about 80 different proteins. point mutation.
C. The cellular factory responsible for Reason (R): Deletions and insertions of one or
synthesising proteins is the ribosome. two bases of DNA, causes frame-shift mutations.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
D. The presence of a catalyst would enhance
correct answer from the options given below:
the rate of hydrogen bond formation.
(1) A is true but R is false.
Choose the most appropriate answer from the
(2) A is false but R is true.
options given below. (3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct
(1) A and B only (2) All except D explanation of A.
(3) A, C and D only (4) B and C only (4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the
correct explanation of A.
132. In which of the following both pairs have correct
combination? 135. Match List-I with List-II.
(1) In situ conservation: Seed Bank List-I List-II
Ex situ conservation: National Park A. Meristem I. Photosynthesis,
storage
(2) In situ conservation: Tissue culture
B. Parenchyma II. Mechanical
Ex situ conservation: Sacred groves
support
(3) In situ conservation: National Park
C. Collenchyma III. Actively dividing
Ex situ conservation: Botanical Garden cells
(4) In situ conservation: Cryopreservation D. Sclerenchyma IV. Sclereids
Ex situ conservation: Wildlife Sanctuary Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
133. Identify A and B respectively in the given figure. (1) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
(2) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
(3) A-II, B-I, C-III, D-IV
(4) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV

SECTION-IV (Zoology)

136. Signals from a fully developed foetus and

placenta ultimately lead to parturition which
requires the release of:
(1) Radial spoke; Hub (1) estrogen from growing follicles.
(2) Hub; Radial spoke (2) oxytocin from maternal pituitary.
(3) Central sheath; Radial spoke (3) oxytocin from foetal pituitary.
(4) Radial spoke; Central sheath (4) relaxin from Leydig cells.

18 [ Contd…
NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

137. Which of the following hormones is used in 140. Which of the following statements is incorrect?
transplantation surgery to suppress immune (1) An ideal contraceptive should be user-friendly,
response and thus chances of organ rejection by easily available and effective.
the recipient’s body can be avoided? (2) Natural methods work on the principle of
(1) Thyroxine avoiding chances of ovum and sperm meeting.
(3) Oral administration of small doses of either
(2) Cortisol
progestogens or progestogen–estrogen
(3) Aldosterone
combinations is another contraceptive method
(4) Steroid hormone used by females.
(4) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy
138. Match List-I with List-II: (Amendment) Act was enacted in 2019 by the
List-I List-II government of India to reduce the incidence of
(A) Origin of the (I) 4.5 billion illegal abortion.
universe years ago
(B) Origin of earth (II) 3 billion 141. Given below are two statements:
years ago Statement-I: The ventral portion of the midbrain
(C) First non- (III) 2000 million consists mainly of two round swellings called
corpora quadrigemina.
cellular life years ago
Statement-II: Midbrain, pons and medulla form
form
the brain stem.
appearance In the light of the above statements, choose the
(D) First cellular (IV) 20 billion most appropriate answer from the options given
life form years ago below:
appearance (1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
Choose the correct answer from the options incorrect.
given below: (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
(1) A- I, B-IV, C-II, D-III correct.
(2) A-IV, B-I, C-II, D-III (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct.
(3) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III (4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are incorrect.
(4) A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II 142. Which of the following is the most accepted
definition of biotechnology by the European
139. Which of the following sense organs in frogs are Federation of Biotechnology?
composed primarily of cellular aggregations (1) Maintenance of sterile ambience for
around nerve endings? enabling growth of desired
(a) Eyes microbe/eukaryotic cell in large quantities.
(2) Technique of using live organisms or
(b) Tympanum with internal ears
enzymes from organisms to produce
(c) Sensory papillae
products and processes useful to animals.
(d) Taste buds (3) Process which uses genetically engineered
(e) Nasal epithelium animals only on a large scale for the benefit
(1) (c), (d), and (e) only of mankind.
(2) (a), (b), and (c) only (4) The integration of natural science and
(3) (d) and (e) only organisms, cells, parts thereof and molecular
(4) (b), (c), and (d) only analogous for products and services.

19 [ Contd…
 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

143. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as 146. Given below are some statements (A-D).
Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason (R): A. During swallowing glottis can be covered by
Assertion (A): All amino acids contain a a thick elastic cartilaginous flap called
hydroxyl group and an acidic group as epiglottis.
substituents on the same carbon. B. The exchange part is the site of the actual
Reason (R): In amino acids, the α-carbon has diffusion of O2 and CO2 between blood and
four substituent groups - a hydrogen atom, a atmospheric air.
carboxyl group, an amino group, and a variable C. The conducting part transports the
group. atmospheric air to the alveoli.
In the light of the above statements, choose the D. The lungs are situated in the abdominal
correct answer from the options given below: cavity.
(1) A is true but R is false. Choose the incorrect statements from the
(2) A is false but R is true. options given below:
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (1) A and C only
explanation of A. (2) B and D only
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the (3) C and D only
correct explanation of A. (4) A and D only
144. Arrange the following events in the order they
occur in the Renin-Angiotensin mechanism: 147. Which of the following statements is correct
(a) Conversion of angiotensinogen to regarding DNA polymerase used in PCR?
angiotensin I and then to angiotensin II (1) It is isolated from a virus.
(b) Release of renin by JG cells (2) It remains active at high temperatures.
(c) Activation of adrenal cortex to release (3) It is used to ligate introduced DNA in
Aldosterone recipient cells.
(d) Increase in blood pressure (4) It serves as a selectable marker.
(e) Reabsorption of Na+ and water from the
distal parts of the tubule 148. Given below are some statements (A-D).
Choose the correct sequence from the options A. The heart is an endodermally derived organ.
given below: B. In an adult human, the size of a heart is of
(1) (a)-(b)-(d)-(c)-(e) (2) (a)-(b)-(c)-(d)-(e) clenched fist.
(3) (b)-(a)-(c)-(e)-(d) (4) (b)-(a)-(c)-(d)-(e) C. It is protected by a double-walled
membranous bag called the pericardium.
145. Read the following and identify the number of
D. The small upper two chambers of the human
incorrect statement(s) related to biological
heart are called ventricles.
classification of humans.
Choose the correct statements from the options
A. They belong to the genus Homo.
given below:
B. They belong to the class Primata.
(1) B and C only
C. They belong to the order Mammalia.
(2) A, B and C only
D. They belong to the phylum Chordata.
(3) A, B and D only
(1) One (2) Two
(4) A, B, C and D
(3) Three (4) Four

20 [ Contd…
NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

149. Match List-I with List-II: (1) The curve is called the oxygen dissociation
List-I List-II curve.
(A) Filarial worm (I) Cnidaria (2) The part ‘A’ represents percentage
(B) Canal system (II) Echinodermata saturation of haemoglobin with oxygen.
(C) Nematocysts (III) Aschelminthes (3) The part ‘B’ represents partial pressure of
(D) Brittle star (IV) Porifera carbon dioxide.
Choose the correct answer from the options (4) This curve is highly useful in studying the
given below: effect of factors like pCO2, H+
(1) A- IV, B-III, C-II, D-I concentration, etc., on the binding of O2 with
(2) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
haemoglobin.
(3) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
(4) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
152. Read the following statements (A-E).
A. Decline in death rate.
150. Given below are two statements: one is labelled
B. The rapid increase in MMR and IMR
as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as
C. Rapid decline in MMR and IMR
Reason (R):
D. Increase in the number of people in the
Assertion (A): Spermatogenesis starts at the age
reproductive age group.
of puberty due to a significant increase in the
E. The rapid increase in the death rate.
secretion of gonadotropin-releasing hormone
Choose the option that includes factors that help
(GnRH).
Reason (R): FSH acts on the Sertoli cells and in population growth.
stimulates the secretion of some factors that help (1) A, B and D only (2) A, C and D only
in the process of spermiogenesis. (3) C, D and E only (4) A, B, C, D and E
In the light of the above statements, choose the
correct answer from the options given below: 153. A competitive inhibitor of succinate
(1) A is true but R is false. dehydrogenase is:
(2) A is false but R is true. (1) glutamic acid. (2) malonate.
(3) Both A and R are true and R is the correct (3) succinate. (4) serine.
explanation of A.
(4) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the 154. Place the following events in chronological order
correct explanation of A. according to Darwin's theory of evolution:
(a) Extinction of those species that are less
151. Which of the following is incorrect about the adapted
given graph? (b) Appearance of new life forms
(c) Variations within a population
(d) Natural selection
Choose the correct sequence from the options
given below:
(1) (c), (d), (b), (a) (2) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(3) (d), (c), (a), (b) (4) (b), (a), (d), (c)

21 [ Contd…
 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

155. Given below are two statements: 158. Which of the following statements is correct for
Statement-I: Muscle contraction is initiated by a ‘X’ in the given diagram?
signal sent by the central nervous system via a
sensory neuron.
Statement-II: Scapula is a large triangular flat
bone situated in the dorsal part of the thorax
between the second and the seventh ribs.
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given
below:
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
incorrect.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
correct. (1) It is the transition state.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (2) It is a competitive inhibitor.
correct. (3) It is a cofactor.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (4) It is an apoenzyme.
incorrect.
159. Red muscle fibres:
156. Which of the following statements is/are correct (1) contain less quantity of myoglobin.
regarding the process by which PTH increases (2) possess a high amount of sarcoplasmic
Ca2+ level in blood? reticulum.
(1) By acting on bones and stimulating the (3) only depend on anaerobic processes for
process of bone resorption. energy.
(2) By reabsorption of Ca2+ from the renal tubules. (4) can utilise a large amount of oxygen for ATP
(3) By increasing Ca2+ absorption from the production due to plenty of mitochondria.
digested food.
(4) All of these 160. Which of the following statements are correct
about thermoregulation?
157. Which of the following characteristics are unique (a) Thermoregulation is energetically expensive
to the kingdom Animalia? for many large animals.
(a) Multicellular (b) Small animals have a larger surface area
(b) Heterotrophic relative to their volume.
(c) Cell walls (c) Small animals tend to lose body heat very
(d) Holozoic nutrition fast when it is cold outside.
(e) Production of spores (d) For smaller organisms maintaining body
(f) Copulation temperature requires less energy.
(1) (a), (b) and (c) only Select the correct option:
(2) (a), (b), (d) and (f) only (1) (a), (b), (c) (2) (b), (c)
(3) (b), (c), (d) and (e) only (3) (a), (b) (4) (a), (c), (d)
(4) (c), (d) and (f) only

22 [ Contd…
NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

161. Given below are two statements: Choose the correct answer from the options
Statement-I: Lymph is a colourless fluid given below:
containing specialised erythrocytes which are (1) A- IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
responsible for the immune system of the body. (2) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
Statement-II: Plasma transports CO2 and RBCs (3) A-II, B-III, C-I, D- IV
transport oxygen only. (4) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D- II
In the light of the above statements, choose the
most appropriate answer from the options given 165. Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) has a
below: protein coat and a genetic material, that is:
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (1) one double-stranded RNA.
incorrect. (2) two double-stranded DNA.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (3) one single-stranded DNA.
correct. (4) two single-stranded RNA.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
correct. 166. Which one of the following statements is
incorrect about the menstrual cycle?
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(1) The first menstruation begins at puberty and
incorrect.
is called menarche.
(2) Lack of menstruation may also occur due to
162. In which of the following phylums’ segmentation some environmental factors like stress, and
in the body is observed first? poor health.
(1) Aschelminthes (2) Arthropoda (3) The corpus luteum secretes large amounts of
(3) Annelida (4) Platyhelminthes progesterone which is essential for the
maintenance of endometrium.
163. Which one of the following is an incorrect match? (4) In the presence of fertilisation, the corpus
(1) Myometrium - Exhibits strong contractions luteum degenerates in the luteal phase.
during delivery of the baby
167. Consider the following effects related to ADH
(2) Endometrium - Undergoes cyclical changes
activity.
during menstrual cycle
Which combination correctly lists the effects
(3) Perimetrium - External thin membranous of when there is an increase in ADH due to a
uterus decrease in blood volume?
(4) Uterus - Birth canal (a) Constriction of blood vessels
(b) Increase in urine output
164. Match List-I with List-II: (c) Decrease in blood pressure
List-I List-II (d) Increase in water reabsorption from the
(A) Mushroom (I) 6 to 8th abdominal
th kidneys
gland segment (e) Increase in glomerular blood flow
(B) Ovaries (II) 6 to 8 in number Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(C) A pair of (III) 2nd to 6th abdominal
(1) (a), (d), and (e) only
spermatheca segment
(2) (a), (b), and (c) only
(D) Hepatic (IV) 6th segment (3) (a), (d), and (c) only
caeca (4) (b), (c), and (e) only

23 [ Contd…
 PHYSICS WALLAH NEET AIR Test-02

168. Which of the following are related to protein 171. It is a diagrammatic sectional view of the male
structure? reproductive system. Identify the ejaculatory
(a) Glycosidic bond duct which is formed by the fusion of a duct of
seminal vesicle and vas deferens.
(b) Homopolymer
(c) Disulphide bond
(d) Hydrogen bond
(e) Phosphodiester bond
(f) Lecithin
(g) Haemoglobin
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d)
(2) (c), (d), (g) (1) A (2) B
(3) (d), (e), (f), (g) (3) D (4) C
(4) (b), (d), (e), (g)
172. Which of the following statements is correct
about repolarisation?
169. Given below are two statements: (1) Sodium ions rapidly move inside the cell.
Statement-I: The first amphibians on land and (2) Sodium ions rapidly move out of the cell.
water were lobefins. (3) Potassium ions rapidly move inside the cell.
Statement-II: Lobefins were ancestors of (4) Potassium ions rapidly move out of the cell.
salamanders.
In the light of the above statements, choose the 173. An American company prepared two DNA
sequences corresponding to A and B chains of
most appropriate answer from the options given
human insulin and introduced them through a
below: plasmid into:
(1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is (1) Bacillus thuringiensis.
incorrect. (2) Escherichia coli.
(2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is (3) Salmonella typhimurium.
correct. (4) Haemophilus influenzae.
(3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
174. Match List-I with List-II:
correct.
List-I List-II
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are (A) Earthworm (I) Moist cuticle
incorrect. (B) Arthropods (II) Gills
(C) Fishes (III) Lungs
170. Globulins present in human blood plasma are (D) Birds (IV) Tracheal tube
primarily involved in: Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
(1) osmotic balance of body fluids.
(1) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
(2) oxygen transport in the blood.
(2) A-I, B-IV, C-II, D-III
(3) clotting of blood. (3) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
(4) defense mechanisms of body. (4) A-I, B-II, C-IV, D-III

24 [ Contd…
NEET AIR Test-02 PHYSICS WALLAH

175. In a resting neuron, the axonal membrane is: (1) Statement-I is correct but Statement-II is
(1) nearly impermeable to potassium ions. incorrect.
(2) impermeable to positively charged proteins (2) Statement-I is incorrect but Statement-II is
present in the axoplasm. correct.
(3) comparatively more permeable to K+. (3) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
(4) completely permeable to sodium ions. correct.
(4) Both Statement-I and Statement-II are
176. Choose the correct pair. incorrect.
(1) Lysozyme - Bacterial cell wall
digesting enzyme 179. Which of the following diseases is an
(2) Polymerases - Break the DNA into autoimmune disorder?
fragments (1) Rheumatoid arthritis
(3) Nucleases - Separate the two strands (2) Arthritis
of DNA (3) Osteoporosis
(4) Exonucleases - Make cuts at specific (4) Gout
positions within DNA
180. Given below are some statements (A-E).
177. Lippes loop is a: A. When any plane passing through the central
(1) diaphragm. axis of the body divides the organism into
(2) contraceptive pill. two identical halves, it is called radial
(3) non-medicated IUDs. symmetry.
(4) hormone-releasing IUDs. B. Coelenterates are triploblastic animals.
C. Animals belonging to the Aschelminthes
178. Given below are two statements: phylum are pseudocoelomates.
Statement-I: The osmolarity in the cortex is D. Notochord is a mesodermally derived.
300mOsmolL–1 and in the inner medulla is 1200 E. The property of a living organism to emit
mOsmolL–1. light is well-marked in ctenophores.
Statement-II: NaCl is transported by the Choose the correct statements from the options
ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is given below.
exchanged with the descending limb of vasa (1) A, B and D only
recta. (2) A, C and D only
In the light of the above statements, choose the
(3) A, C, D and E only
most appropriate answer from the options given
(4) B and D only
below:
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