BITSAT

PAPER # 07

READ THE INSTRUCTIONS CAREFULLY

Important Instructions:
1. This paper contains a total number of 130 questions.
2. The Questions appearing in the paper are based on Physics, Chemistry, English Prof iciency and Logical
Reasoning and Mathematics.
3. Duration of the test is 3 hours.

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 BEWARE OF NEGATIVE MARKING
PHYSICS
This section contains 30 questions (All questions are mandatory).
Each question has 4 options out of which only ONE option is correct.
For each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +3 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

1. A particle is placed at the origin and a force F = kx is acting on it (where k is a positive constant). If U(0) = 0,
the graph of U(x) versus x will be (where U is the potential energy function)

(1) (2)

(3) (4)

2. If ∣→ → ∣ → → , the magnitude of → + B
A → is :-
∣A × B∣ = A. B

(1) A + B (2) √ A2 + B 2 (3) √ A2 + B2 + √2 AB (4) A – B

A√ x
3. The potential energy of a particle u varies with distance x as u = . The dimensions of AB are:-
x+B
(1) ML5/2T –2 (2) M1L2T –2 (3) M3/2L3/2T –2 (4) M1L7/2T –2

4. A body is executing Simple Harmonic Motion.At a displacement x its potential energy is E1 and at a
displacement y its potential energy is E2.The potential energy E at displacement (x + y) is :-
(1) √ E = √E1 − √E2

(2) √ E = √ E1 + √E2

(3) E = E1 − E2

(4) E = E1+ E2

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5. A circular platform is mounted on a frictionless vertical axle passing through centre. Its radius R = 2m and
moment of inertia about the axis is 200 kg-m2. It is initially at rest. A 50 kg man stands on the edge of platform
and begins to walk along the edge at speed of 1m/sec relative to the ground. Time taken by the man to complete
one revolution is:-
(1) 2 π sec (2) π sec (3) π sec (4) 3π
sec
2 2

6. A solid sphere of mass m is lying at rest on a rough horizontal surface. The coefficient of friction between the
ground and sphere is µ. The maximum value of F, So that the sphere will not slip, is equal to :

(1) 7 (2) 4 (3) 5 7

μ mg μ mg μ mg (4) μ mg
5 7 7 2

7. Consider a block and trolley system as shown in figure. If the coefficient of kinetic friction between the trolley
and the surface is 0.04, the acceleration of the system in ms –2 is :
(Consider that the string is massless and unstretchable and the pulley is also massless and frictionless) :

(1) 3 (2) 4 (3) 2 (4) 1.2

8. All surfaces are smooth. Wedge is moving with acceleration a as shown. If block of mass m doesn't slide over
wedge, then value of acceleration of wedge, a is : (g = 10 m/s2)

(1) 6 m/s2 (2) 13.33 m/s2 (3) 7.5 m/s2 (4) 8 m/s2

9. A particle is moving eastward with a velocity of 5 m/second. In 10 seconds, the velocity changes to 5 m/second
northward. The average acceleration in this time is :-
1
(1) Zero (2) m/sec2 towards north-west
√ 2
1 1
(3) m/sec2 towards north-east (4) m/sec2 towards north-west
√ 2 √ 2

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10. A particle is projected from the ground with an initial speed of ν at an angle θ with horizontal. The magnitude of
average velocity of the particle between its point of projection and highest point of trajectory is :-
(1) ν √
1 + 2cos2 θ (2) ν √
1 + cos2 θ (3) ν √
1 + 3cos2 θ (4) ν cos θ
2 2 2

11. An aluminium rod and a copper rod of equal length 1.0 m and cross-sectional area 1 cm2 are welded together as
shown in figure. One end is kept at a temperature of 20°C and the other at 60°C. Calculate the amount of heat taken
out per second from the hot end. Thermal conductivity of aluminium = 200 W/m – °C and of copper = 390 W/m – °C

(1) 1.2 J (2) 2.36 J (3) 3.8 J (4) None of these

12. From the following statements, concerning ideal gas at any given temperature T, select the correct one :-
(1) The coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure is same for all ideal gases
(2) The average translational kinetic energy per molecule of oxygen gas is 3KT (K being Boltzmann
constant)
(3) In a gaseous mixture, the average translational kinetic energy of the molecules of each component is
same
(4) The mean free path of molecules increases with the increase in pressure

13. Two containers of equal volume contain the same gas at the pressure P1 and P2 and absolute temperature T1 and
T2 respectively. On joining the vessels, the gas reaches a common pressure P and a common temperature T. The
ratio P/T is equal to :

1 P1 P P1 T 2 + P2 T 1 P1 T 2 − P2 T 1
(1) P1 P (2) [ + 2] (3) (4)
+ 2 2 T1 T2 T1 + T2 T1 − T2
T1 T2

14. Consider two solid spheres of radii R1 = 1m, R2 = 2m and masses M1 and M2, respectively. The gravitational
M1
field due to sphere (1) and (2) are shown. The value of is :
M2

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 1 (4) 1

2 3 3 6

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15. A cube of edge length 10 cm is just balanced at the interface of two liquids A and B as shown in figure. If A and
B has specific gravity 0.6 and 0.4 respectively, then mass of cube is :-

(1) 240 g (2) 360 g (3) 480 g (4) 540 g

16. One end of uniform wire of length L and of weight W is attached rigidly to a point in the roof and a weight W1 is
L
suspended from its lower end. If s is the area of cross-section of the wire, the stress in the wire at a height
4
from its lower end is : –
W
W1 [ W1 + 4
]
(1) (2)
s s
3W
[ W1 + 4
] W1 + W
(3) (4)
4
s

17. If a particle of mass m is moving in a horizontal circle of radius r with a centripetal force ( – k / r2), the total
energy is
(1) k (2) k
− −
2r r
(3) 2k (4) 4k
− −
r r

18. In the circuit, the potential difference between A and B is :-

(1) 6 V
(2) 1 V
(3) 3 V
(4) 2 V

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19. Find the capacitance of the system shown in figure.

25 ε 0 A 25 ε 0 A 24 A 5 ε 0A
(1) (
26 d
) (2) (
24 d
) (3) (
25 d
) (4) (
24 d
)

20. As shown, a uniform magnetic field B pointing out of the paper plane is confined in the shaded area of radius r.
At a distance R (R > r) from the center of the shaded area there is a point particle of mass m and carrying charge
q. Speed of the particle if the magnetic field in the region is quickly changed to zero will be

qBr2 qBr2 2qBr2

(1) V = (2) 0 (3) V = (4) v=
2mR mR mR

21. The edge of a cube is a = 1.2 × 10 –2m. Then its volume will be recorded as :
(1) 1.7 × 10 –6m3 (2) 1.70 × 10 –6m3 (3) 1.70 × 10 –7m3 (4) 1.78 × 10 –6m3

22. Three charges exist as shown. Q is placed at C (mid-point of AB). A and B are fixed.

Then in which case will charge at C execute oscillations.

(1) Q is displaced along AB, Q being negative.

(2) Q is displaced perpendicular to AB, Q being positive.
(3) Q is displaced along AB, Q being positive.
(4) In all cases it is possible.

9610ZBS107116230011 5/23
23. Electric field of plane electromagnetic wave propagating through a non – magnetic medium is given by E =
20cos(2 × 1010 t – 200x) V/m. The dielectric constant of the medium is equal to :
(Take µr = 1)
(1) 9 (2) 2 1 (4) 3
(3)
3

24. Figure shows a concavo-convex m2. What is the condition on the refractive indices so that the lens is diverging?

(1) 2 μ 3 < μ 1 + μ 2 (2) 2 μ 3 > μ 1 + μ 2 (3) μ 3 > ( μ 1 + μ 2) (4) None of these

25. A hollow cylinderical wire carries a current I, having inner and outer radii 'R' and 2R respectively. Magnetic
field at a point which 3R/2 distance away from its axis is :-
(1) 5 μ 0I (2) μ 0I (3) 5 μ 0I (4) 5 μ 0I
18 π R 36 π R 36 π R 9πR

26. Energy level of a hypothetical atom are given as shown. Which transition will give photon of wavelength 275 nm ?

(1) A (2) B (3) C (4) D

27. In a photoelectric experiment, with light of wavelength λ , the fastest electron has speed v. If the exciting
wavelength is changed to 3 λ , the speed of the fastest emitted electron will become -
4
3 4
(1) v√ (2) v√
4 3
4 4
(3) less than v √ (4) greater than v √

3 3

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28. The kinetic energy (in keV) of the α – particle, when the nucleus 210
84 P O (polonium) at rest undergoes α – decay
is (apporoximately)
[masses of atoms are given as 24He= 4.002603u, 82206Pb = 205.974455u, 84210Po = 209.982876 u]
(1) 5319 (2) 5422 (3) 5707 (4) 5818

29. A train is moving on a straight track with speed 20 ms –1. It is blowing its whistle at the frequency of 1000 Hz.
The percentage change in the frequency heard by a person standing near the track as the train passes him is
(speed of sound = 320 ms –1 close to:
(1) 6% (2) 12% (3) 18% (4) 24%

30. The angular width of the central maximum in a single slit diffraction pattern is 60°. The width of the slit is 1 μ m.
The slit is illuminated by monochromatic plane waves. If another slit of same width is made near it, Young's
fringes can be observed on a screen placed at a distance 50 cm from the slits. If the observed fringe width is 1cm,
what is slit separation distance? (i.e. distance between the centres of each slit).
(1) 25 μ m (2) 50 μ m (3) 75 μ m (4) 100 μ m

9610ZBS107116230011 7/23
 CHEMISTRY
This section contains 30 questions (All questions are mandatory).
Each question has 4 options out of which only ONE option is correct.
For each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +3 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

31. Bakelite is obtained from phenol by reacting with

(1) CH3CHO (2) CH3COCH3 (3) HCHO (4) (CH2OH)2

32. Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a mixture of :

(1) isoprene and styrene (2) neoprene and sulphur
(3) isoprene and sulphur (4) neoprene and styrene

33. Which of the following is structure of a separating funnel?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

34. Aspirin is known as :

(1) Acetyl salicylic acid
(2) Phenyl salicylate
(3) Acetyl salicylate
(4) Methyl salicylic acid

35. The oxidation of toluene with hot KMnO4 gives -

(1) Benzoic acid (2) Benzaldehyde (3) Benzene (4) Benzyl alcohol

36. In which of the following compound can show geometrical isomerism :

(1) CH3 — CH = CH2 (2) CH3 — CH = CH — Cl
(3) CH3 — CH2CH = CH2 (4) Ph — CH = CH2

37. Which of the following is not an essential amino acid :

(1) Valine (2) Leucine (3) Lysine (4) Tyrosine

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38.
Correct IUPAC name of compound is :
(1) 1,2-dimethyl cyclobutene (2) 2,3-dimethyl cyclobutene
(3) 1,2-dimethyl cyclobut-2-ene (4) 1,4-dimethyl cyclobutene

39. The hybridisation of carbon atoms in C – C single bond of HC ≡ C – CH=CH2

(1) sp3 – sp3 (2) sp2 – sp3 (3) sp – sp2 (4) sp2 – sp2

Zn/H ⊕

40. CH3CH2CH2Cl −−−−→ (P)

Product (P) of the above reaction is : -
(1) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2CH3 (2) CH3CH = CH2
(3) CH3CH2CH3 (4) Both (i) and (iii)

41. Using the following information calculate the heat of formation of CH4.
CH4(g) + 2 O2(g) → CO2(g) + 2 H2O(l) ; Δ H° = – 890.4 kJ
Given : Δ H°f CO2(g) = – 393.5 kJ/mole
Δ H°f H2O(l) = – 285.9 kJ/mole
(1) – 98.6 (2) – 65.5 (3) – 74.9 (4) – 43.5

42. If the wavelength of series limit of Lyman series for He+ ion is X Angstrom, then what will be the wavelength of
series limit of Balmer for Li2+ ion ?
9x 0 16x 0 5x 0 4x 0
(1) A (2) A (3) A (4) A
4 9 4 7

43. A vessel at 1000 K contains CO2 with a pressure of 0.5 atm. Some of the CO2 is converted into CO on the
addition of graphite. The value of equilibrium constant if the total pressure at equilibrium is 0.8 atm is :
(1) 1.8 atm (2) 3 atm (3) 0.3 atm (4) 0.18 atm

44. Hydrogenation of vegetable ghee at 25°C reduces pressure of H2(g) from 2 atm to 1.2 atm in 50 min. The
average rate of reaction in terms of molarity per second is (Assume no change in volume and temperature)
(1) 1.09 × 10 –6 (2) 1.09 × 10 –7 (3) 1.09 × 10 –5 (4) 1.09 × 10 –9

45. If 500 ml, 2 M glucose solution is diluted then its final molarity becomes 0.5 M then added volume of solvent
will be :
(1) 2000 ml (2) 1000 ml (3) 1500 ml (4) 500 ml

9610ZBS107116230011 9/23
46. The EM0 3+/M 2+ values for Cr, Mn Fe and Co are – 0.41, + 1.57, 0.77 and + 1.97 V respectively. For which one of
these metals the change in oxidation state from +2 to +3 is easiest ?
(1) Cr (2) Mn (3) Fe (4) Co

47. A 50 ml solution of strong acid of pH = 1 is mixed with a 50 ml solution of strong acid of pH = 2. The pH of the
mixture will be nearly (log 5.5 = 0.74)
(1) 1.74 (2) 1.26 (3) 4.26 (4) 5.74

48. If the density of a gas sample is 4 g/L at pressure 1.2 x 105 Pa, the value of vrms will be :
(1) 600 m/s (2) 300 m/s (3) 150 m/s (4) 450 m/s

49. For a dilute solution, Raoult's law state that :

(1) the lowering of vapour pressure is equal to mole fraction of solute
(2) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
(3) the relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution
(4) the vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of solvent

50. An organic substance containing carbon, hydrogen and oxygen gave the following percentage composition.
C = 40.7%; H = 5.1% and O = 54.2%
Calculate the empirical formula weight of the compound. (At.wt of C = 12, O = 16, H = 1)
(1) 118 (2) 59 (3) 177 (4) 133

51. Total volume of atoms present in a face-centred cubic unit cell of a metal is (r is atomic radius) :
(1) 24 3 (2) 12 3 (3) 16 3 (4) 20 3
πr πr πr πr
3 3 3 3

52. 1
The gas expands adiabatically at constant pressure such that:- T ∝ .
√ V
The value of γ , i.e. (Cp/Cv) of the gas will be:
(1) 1.30 (2) 1.50 (3) 1.70 (4) 2

53. In dry ice the bond present between two molecules is

(1) Ionic bond (2) Covalent bond (3) Hydrogen bond (4) Vander Waal

54. Which of the following complex acts as reducing agent based on Sidwick EAN rule?
(1) [Mn(CO)5] (2) [Mn2(CO)10] (3) [Mn(CO)6] (4) [V(CO)6]-

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55. On the following complex ions, the one that probably has the largest overall formation constant, Kf is:
(1) [Co(NH3)6]3+ (2) [Co(H2O)6]3+ (3) [Co(NH3)2(H2O)4]3+ (4) [Co(en)3]3+

56. Which one of the following does not correctly represent the correct order of the property indicated against it?
(1) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing number of oxidation states
(2) Ti3+ < V3+ < Cr3+ < Mn2+ : increasing magnetic moment
(3) Ti < V < Cr < Mn : increasing melting points
(4) Ti < V < Mn < Cr : increasing 2nd ionization enthalpy

57. Addition of phosphate fertilizers to water bodies causes

(1) enhanced growth of algae
(2) increase in amount of dissolved oxygen in water
(3) deposition of calcium phosphate
(4) increase in fish population.

58. In context of actinoids, which of the following statements is not correct ?

(1) The actinoids are radioactive elements which make their study more difficult.
(2) There is a gradual decrease in the radii of the members with increasing atomic number in the series.
(3) The magnetic properties of actinoids can not be explained easily, as they are more complex.
(4) As compare to lanthanoid compounds, actinoid compounds are less basic.

59. Silicon has a strong tendency to form polymers like silicones. The chain length of silicon polymer can be
controlled by adding
(1) MeSiCl3 (2) Me2SiCl (3) Me3SiCl (4) Me4Si

60. Besides calcium, iron and sulphur, oxides of elements of which of the groups(s) are present in the mixture of
Cement ?
(1) group 2 (2) group 2, 13 and 14
(3) groups 2 and 13 (4) groups 2 and 14

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 ENGLISH PROFICIENCY AND LOGICAL REASONING
This section contains 30 questions (All questions are mandatory).
Q.61 to Q.70 are based on English Proficiency and Q.71 to Q.90 are based on Logical Reasoning.
Each question has 4 options out of which only ONE option is correct.
For each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +3 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

Paragraph for Questions 61 - 63

Read the passage carefully and answer the questions that follow.
The Centre and the States must become partners in the planning process to determine national
priorities together. The process of planning would undergo a change in view of the changes in
domestic economic situation and momentous trends emerging in the world. The development of
human resource and the building up of an institutional framework would have to receive
priority attention. The role of the government would also have to be examined so as to fully
involve the people in the process of nation-building. The main task would be to ensure that the
real initiative is transferred to the people. The private sector which would register expansion
hereafter should keep this objective firmly in view. The need for an effective population policy
is an urgent necessity in the country’s planning strategy. The family welfare programme should
not be treated as the Centre’s responsibility alone. The States should evolve a suitable
mechanism for closer involvement of the Government agencies, Zilla Parishads and Panchayts
for making the family welfare programme a success.
61. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(1) Effective family welfare programme is Centre’s responsibility alone.
(2) Population policy and planning process are interlinked.
(3) Family welfare programme should be left to the State Governments alone.
(4) The State Government should use punitive measures to control population.

62. What should be given priority attention?

(1) Role of the Government
(2) Decentralisation of power
(3) Involvement of people in labour welfare
(4) Human resource and institutional framework.

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63. What would force the planning process to undergo a change?
(1) Free market forces
(2) Domestic economic situation and world trends
(3) Domestic compulsions
(4) International pressures

64. Choose the most appropriate option for the converse voice. She was advised 15 days’ rest after her surgery.
(1) The doctor was advised her 15 days' rest after her surgery.
(2) The doctor has advised her 15 days' rest after her surgery.
(3) The doctor advised her 15 days' rest after her surgery.
(4) The doctor had advised her 15 days' rest after her surgery.

65. Choose the correct one word for the given statement.
Having no beginning or end to its existence.
(1) Eternal (2) Desist (3) Contagion (4) Venial

66. Rearrange P, Q, R, S, T to form a meaningful sentence. P: and was at once convinced Q: he sent a few copies of
the book to well-known poetry critics R: shaw read the first few lines of the volume S: and awaited their reaction
T: that what he was reading was real poetry\
(1) RPTQS (2) QSTPR (3) RSPQT (4) QPRST

67. Choose the correct synonym of the underlined word given in the sentence.
Her achievements will be hard to emulate.
(1) Imitate (2) Default (3) Neglect (4) Omission

68. Choose the correct antonym of the underlined word given in the sentence.
The beatitude of bliss brings everlasting happiness to the soul.
(1) Peace (2) Ecstasy (3) Bliss (4) Agony

69. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct phrasal verb.

How can you think of _____________ a moving car?
(1) moving in (2) picking off (3) setting off (4) getting on

70. Find the part of the sentence that contains an error.

This might be (a)/ the more difficult task (b)/ I would ever (c)/perform on the stage. (d)
(1) (a) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (d)

9610ZBS107116230011 13/23
71. In the following question find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
Admonish : ? : : Defeat : Conquer
(1) Administer (2) Celebrate (3) Berate (4) Negotiate

72. In the following question find out the alternative which will replace the question mark.
TGIR : IRTG :: PKMN : ?

(1) NMKP (2) MNPK (3) OLNM (4) QJKP

73. Which shape of the figure completes the second pair in a similar way as the first pair?

is to as is to ?

(1) (2) (3) (4)

74. One segment of the given design/pattern is missing. Select the alternative which will complete the design when
placed on the missing area.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

75. Identify the figure that completes the pattern.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

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76. In the following question select the one which is different from the other three responses. Choose the correct
option :
(1) 10 – 45 (2) 20 – 85 (3) 40 – 180 (4) 60 – 270

77. In the following question select the one which is different from the other three responses. Choose the correct
option.
(1) Spade (2) Spanner (3) Shovel (4) Rake

78. Out of the given figures, three are similar in a certain way. Find the odd one out.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

79. Select the alternative which represents three out of the five alternative figures which when fitted into each other
would form a complete square.

(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 3, 4, 5 (3) 2, 4, 5 (4) 2, 3, 4

80. Find out which of the figures (1), (2), (3) and (4) can be formed from the pieces given in figure (X).

(1) (2) (3) (4)

81. Find the missing character in the following figure:

13 54 ?
7 45 32
27 144 68
(1) 42 (2) 36 (3) 6 (4) 4

9610ZBS107116230011 15/23
82. In the given matrix the values of A, B and C respectively are ____.
9 A 12
B 10 7
8 C 11
(1) A = 13, B = 11, C = 9 (2) A = 13, B = 9, C = 11
(3) A = 9, B = 11, C = 13 (4) A = 9, B = 13, C = 11

83. Identify the missing number in the following sequence

2, 17, 52, ___, 206
(1) 73 (2) 85 (3) 113 (4) 184

84. This question consists of five figures marked A, B, C, D and E called the problem figures followed by four other
figures marked 1, 2, 3 and 4 called the answer figures. Select a figure from amongst the answer figures which
will continue the same series as established by the given problem figures.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

85. In the following question, two statements are given followed by two conclusions. You have to take the given
statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts and then decide which of
the given conclusion logically follows from the given statements disregarding commonly known facts.
Statements:
All cups are books.
All books are shirts.
Conclusions:
1. Some cups are not shirts.
2. Some shirts are cups.
(1) Only (1) conclusion following
(2) Only (2) conclusion following
(3) Either (1) or (2) follow
(4) Neither (1) nor (2) follows

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86. In the following question, two statements are given followed by four conclusions numbered I, II, III and IV. You
have to take the given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance from the commonly known facts
and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements disregarding
commonly known facts.
Statements :
Some cars are trains
Some trains are cats.
Conclusions:
1. No car is cat.
2. Some cats are trains.
3. Some cars are cats.
4. All trains are cars.
(1) Either 1 or 2 and 3 follows (2) Either 1 or 2 and 4 follows
(3) Either 1 or 3 and 2 follows (4) None of these

87. Select a figure from the options which will complete the given figure matrix.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

88. Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix.

(1) (2) (3) (4)

9610ZBS107116230011 17/23
 Paragraph for Questions 89
Direction: In question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine
each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark your answer as:
(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(c) If you think the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference is
likely to be true or false;
(d) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definite by false in the light of the facts
given; and
(e) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e., it contradicts the given facts.
Economic liberalization and globalization have put pressures on Indian industry, particularly on the
service sector to offer quality products and services at low costs and with high speed. Organizations
have to compete with unequal partners from abroad. It is well recognized that developing countries like
India are already behind other countries technologically, in many areas, although some of them,
particularly India, boast of huge scientific and technical manpower. In addition to this, if an
entrepreneur or industrialist has to spend a lot of his time, money and energy in dealing with
unpredictable services and in negotiating with the local bureaucracy, it can have a significant
dampening effect on business.
89. India at present is to some extent at par with the developed countries in terms of technological development.
(1) (d) (2) (b) (3) (c) (4) (a)

Paragraph for Questions 90

Direction: In question below is given a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine
each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity.
Mark your answer as:
(a) If the inference is ‘definitely true’ i.e. it directly follows from the facts given in the passage;
(b) If the inference is ‘probably true’ though not definitely true in the light of the facts given;
(c) If you think the data are inadequate i.e., from the facts given you cannot say whether the inference
is likely to be true or false;
(d) If you think the inference is ‘probably false’ though not definite by false in the light of the facts
given; and
(e) If you think the inference is ‘definitely false’ i.e., it contradicts the given facts.
A survey in India indicated that in the core section of the companies, which were analyzed, the
compensation package for executives was divided into several fringe benefit groups. The number of
items included in it rose as one ascended the management hierarchy. In many companies,
provision was made for transportation and medical and housing assistance. A few companies also
provided for children's education or permitted family allowance. Some of them have now adopted a
specialized approach called the "cafeteria approach" in salary fixation. What is sought here is that the
benefits must meet an executive's needs. Therefore, an appropriate selection has to be made of the
benefits in terms of his needs after consulting him. Thus, this approach would individualize the
system as the final choice is left to the executive concerned.
90. There is a standard universal compensation package for executives in most companies.
(1) (c) (2) (b) (3) (e) (4) (a)

18/23 9610ZBS107116230011
 MATHEMATICS
This section contains 40 questions (All questions are mandatory).
Each question has 4 options out of which only ONE option is correct.
For each question, marks will be awarded as follows:
Full Marks : +3 If correct answer is selected.
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is selected.
Negative Marks : –1 If wrong option is selected.

91. If maximum & minimum value of function ƒ(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 9x + 1 ∀ x ∈ [0,2] are M & m respectively, then
value of M – 2m is
(1) 3 (2) 2 (3) – 1 (4) 0

92. If the tangent at any point P(4m2, 8m3) of x3 – y2 = 0 is also a normal to curve x3 – y2 = 0, then m =
√2 √3 3 3
(1) ± (2) ± (3) (4) −
3 2 √ 2 √ 2

93. The area of the shorter region bounded by

1
|y| = 4 – x2 and |y| = 3x is given by ( 3K + ) sq-unit where K is equal to :-
3

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 3 1

3

1 1 1
94. If x = loga bc, y = logb ca, z = logc ab, then the value of + + will be
1+x 1+y 1 + z
(1) x + y + z (2) 1 (3) ab + bc + ca (4) abc

∣ x2 − 3x − 1 ∣
95. If ∣ ∣ < 3 then x ∈ ?
∣ x2 + x + 1 ∣

(1) ( – ∞ , ∞ ) (2) ( – 2, – 1)
(3) ( – ∞ , – 2) ∪ ( – 1, ∞ ) (4) None

96. The sum of the series

1 2 1 2 1
C02 + C1 + C2 +. . . . . + Cn2 is :-
2 3 n+1
1 2n 1 1 2n
(1) ( Cn ) (2) n + 1 (2n+1 Cn ) (3) ( Cn+1 ) (4) None of these
n n

a| π − x| + 1, x ⩽ 5
97. If the function f(x) = { is continuous at x = 5, then the value of a – b is :-
b|x − π | + 3, x > 5
2 2 2 −2
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5− π π −5 π +5 π +5

9610ZBS107116230011 19/23
 ∣ 2z − 1 ∣
98. If ∣ ∣ = 1 then locus of z is :-
∣ z + 2i ∣

(1) circle (2) straight line (3) Ellipse (4) Parabola

99. If z = x + iy (x, y ∈ R, x ≠ – 1/2), the number of values of z satisfying

|z|n = z2 |z|n – 2 + z|z|n–2 + 1 · (n ∈ N, n > 1) is
(1) 0 (2) 1 (3) 2 (4) 3

100. If a circle of radius R passes through the origin O and intersects the coordinate axes at A and B, then the locus of
the foot of perpendicular from O on AB is :
(1) (x2 + y2)2 = 4Rx2y2 (2) (x2 + y2)(x + y) = R2xy
(3) (x2 + y2)3 = 4R2x2y2 (4) (x2 + y2)2 = 4R2x2y2

101. A square is inscribed in the circle x2 + y2 – 6x + 8y – 103 = 0 with its sides parallel to the coordinate axes. Then
the distance of the vertex of this square which is nearest to the origin is :-
(1) 13 (2) √ 137 (3) 6 (4) √ 41

102. Solve the differential equation ( 1 + x√x2 + y 2 ) dx + (√x2 + y 2 − 1) y dy = 0

y2 1 2
(1) x+ + (x + y 2 )3/2 = C
2 3
y2 1 2
(2) x− + (x + y 2 )3/2 = C
2 3
y 2
1
(3) x− − (x2 + y 2 )3/2 = C
2 3
(4) None of these

103. The curve which is such that the portion of x axis cut off between tangent at any point and origin is proportional
to the ordinate of the point, is : (where a and k ∈ R)
(1) y = ae –x/Ky (2) x = ae –x/Ky (3) y = ae –y/Kx (4) x = ae –y/Kx
1 + sin x
, π < x < π , then
dy
104. If y = tan –1 equals :-
√( )
1 − sin x
2 dx
(1) – 1/2 (2) – 1 (3) 1/2 (4) 1
π /2
105. ∫ | sin x − cos x| dx is equal to :-
0

(1) 0 (2) √ 2−1

(3) 2(√2 − 1) (4) 2(√2 + 1)

20/23 9610ZBS107116230011
106. The value of integral
4
a
∫ min {|x − 1| , |x − 2| , |x − 3|} dx = where a and b are co-prime, then the value of (a + b)
b
0
is
(1) 3 (2) 5 (3) 7 (4) 9

107. Let x, y, z > 0 are respectively 2nd, 3rd, 4th term of G.P. and Δ =
∣ xk xk+1 xk+2 ∣
∣ ∣
∣ ∣
2 1
∣ yk y k+1 y k+2 = (r − 1) (1 −
∣ ) (where r is common ratio), then :-
∣ ∣ r2
∣ ∣
∣ zk z k+1 z k+2 ∣

(1) k = – 1 (2) k = 1 (3) k = 0 (4) None of these

2 2
108. Let S and S' be two foci of the ellipse x + y = 1. If a circle described on SS' as diameter intersects the ellipse
a2 b2
at real and distinct points, then the eccentricity e of the ellipse satisfies :-
(1) e = 1/√2 (2) e ∈ (1/√2, 1) (3) e ∈ (0, 1/√2) (4) None of these

109. An ellipse passes through the point (4, – 1) and touches the line x + 4y – 10 = 0. If its axes coincide with co-
ordinate axes, then its equation is :-
x2 y2 x2 y2 x2 y2
(1) + =1 (2) + =1 (3) + =1 (4) None of these
16 15 80 5 20 5

110. Range of the function f(x) = log2 [3x – [x + [x +[x]]] is :-

(Where [·] is greatest integer function)
(1) [0, 1] (2) {0, 1} (3) (0, 1] (4) [0, 1)

111. ƒ : R → R, ƒ(x) = ex+sinx is

(1) one-one and in to function (2) one-one and on to function
(3) many-one and in to function (4) many-one and on to function

112. A hyperbola has its centre at the origin, passes through the point (4, 2) and has transverse axis of length 4 along
the x-axis. Then the eccentricity of the hyperbola is :
2 3
(1) (2) (3) √ 3 (4) 2
√ 3 2

9610ZBS107116230011 21/23
113. If 1 1
∫
2
dx = − +K then Sum of a, b, c is equal to :
(2 sin x + 3 cos x) a(b tan x + c)

(1) – 7 (2) 3 (3) 7 (4) 10

114. If sin –1 θ = sin –1(sin5) then θ is

(1) sin (5 – π ) (2) sin (2 π – 5) (3) sin (5 – 2 π ) (4) None

cot x − cos x
115. lim equals :-
π ( π − 2x)3
x→
2
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 24 16 8
116. Let the matrix A and B be defined as
3 2 3 1 9 –1), is : –
A= [ ] and B = [ ], then the value of det. (2A B
2 1 7 3
(1) 2 (2) 1 (3) – 1 (4) – 2

117. A dice is rolled three times, find the probability of getting a larger number than the previous number each time ?
19 20 22 18
(1) (2) (3) (4)
216 216 216 216

118. Bag I contains 4 white and 3 black balls and another bag II contains 5 white and 2 black balls. Two balls are
drawn randomly from the first bag and put in the second bag and then a ball is drawn from the bag II. The
p
probability that the ball drawn from the second bag is white is expressed as ( ) where p, q ∈ N. Then the
q
minimum value of (p + q) is :-
(1) 207 (2) 106 (3) 105 (4) 205

119. The number of seven letters words which can be formed from the letters of the word 'SUCCESS' so that two C
are together but no two S are together, are :-
(1) 12 (2) 24 (3) 48 (4) 60

120. If a normal chord of the parabola y2 = 4ax subtend a right angle at the vertex, its slope is-
(1) ±1 (2) ± √ 2 (3) ± √ 3 (4) None of these

121. A ray of light moving parallel to the x-axis gets reflected from a parabolic mirror whose equation is (y – 2)2 =
4(x +1). After reflection, the ray must pass through the point :
(1) ( – 2, 0) (2) ( – 1, 2) (3) (0, 2) (4) (2, 0)

22/23 9610ZBS107116230011
122. If α , β , are the roots of equation x2 + bx + c = 0 and α > β and b > 0, c > 0 then :-
(1) β < α < 0 (2) β < 0 < α < | β | (3) α < 0 < β < | α | (4) β < 0 < α

123. The reflection of A(3, 4) in the line x – 2y + 10 = 0 is the point B. The reflection of B in line
x – y + 1 = 0 is the point C, then the circumcenter of the triangle ABC is-
(1) (5, 6) (2) (8, 9) (3) (7, 8) (4) None of these

124. The number of common terms to the two sequence 17, 21, 25, ....., 417 and 16, 21, 26, ....., 466 is
(1) 20 (2) 19 (3) 21 (4) 18

125. Let P be the point (1,2,3) and Q be a point on the line →r = i^ − j^ + 5k^ ( )
^ ^ ^
+ λ (−2i + 3j + 4k). Then the value of λ
for which line PQ is perpendicular to the plane 4x + 9y – 18z = 1 is-
1 1 2 2
(1) (2) − (3) − (4)
3 6 3 5

126. The length of the perpendicular drawn from the point (2, 1, 4) to the plane containing the lines
→r = i^ + j^ + λ i^ + 2j^ − k^ and →r = i^ + j^ + μ −i^ + j^ − 2k^ is :
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )

1 1
(1) √ 3 (2) (3) (4) 3
√ 3 3

127. Total no. of soln of equation cosx = sin 3x is , if x ∈ [ – π /2, π /2].

(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4

128. sin4 π + sin4 3 π + sin4 5 π + sin4 7 π =

8 8 8 8
(1) 1 (2) 1 (3) 3 (4) 3
2 4 2 4

129. If a vector →r of magnitude 3 √ 6 is directed along the bisector of the angle between the vectors →a = 7i^ − 4j^ − 4k^
and →b = −2i^ − j^ + 2k^ then →r
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(1) i − 7j + 2k (2) i + 7j − 2k
^ ^
(3) −i^ + 7j^ + 2k (4) ^
i − 7j^ − 2k

130. Let →a = 3i^ + 2j^ + 2k^ and →b = i^ + 2j^ − 2k^ be two vectors. If a vector perpendicular to both the vectors →a + →b and
→a − →b has the magnitude 12 then one such vector is
^ ^ ^ ^ ^ ^
(1) 4(2i + 2j − k) (2) 4(−2i − 2j + k)
^ ^
(3) 4(2i^ − 2j^ − k) (4) 4(2i^ + 2j^ + k)

9610ZBS107116230011 23/23
 Test Pattern

BITSAT

ANSWER KEY
Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 2 1 4 3 3 2 3 2 1 2 4 3 2 1 4 2 1
Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 1 3 1 2 3 2 4 1 2 1 3 3 1 1 1 2 4 4 3 3
Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 3 2 1 2 3 1 2 2 2 2 3 2 4 3 4 3 1 4 3 2
Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80

A. 2 4 2 3 1 1 1 4 4 2 3 2 3 2 4 2 2 4 4 3
Q. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
A. 4 4 3 2 2 3 1 1 1 3 1 1 2 2 3 2 1 1 2 3
Q. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
A. 4 2 1 1 3 2 1 2 3 2 1 1 3 3 3 4 2 2 2 2
Q. 121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130

A. 3 1 2 1 4 1 3 3 1 3

9610ZBS107116230011 Your Hard Work Leads To Strong Foundation Open

HINT – SHEET

1. Ans ( 1 )
F = Kx
U=– ∫ fdx

= − ∫ kxdx

= – 1 kx2
2
Work energy therem
2. Ans ( 3 )
→ →∣ → →
∣A
∣ × B∣ = A. B
ABsin θ = ABcos θ

tan θ = 1

θ = 45°

→ →∣ √ 2
∣A 2
∣ × B∣ = A + B + 2AB cos θ

= √ A2 + B2 + 2AB cos 45 = √A2 + B2 + √2AB

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-1/23
3. Ans ( 4 )
B = [L]

A√ x
U=
x+B

AL1/2
ML2T – 2 =
L

A = [ML5/2 T – 2]
AB = [ML7/2T – 2]
4. Ans ( 2 )
1 2 2E
E1 = Kx ⇒ x = √ 1
2 K
1 2E
E2 = Ky ⇒ y = √ 2
2
2 K
1
and E = K(x + y) 2⇒
x + y = √ 2E
2 K
2E 1 2E 2 2E
⇒√ +√ =√ ⇒ √ E 1 + √ E 2 = √E
K K K
5. Ans ( 1 )
Applying conservation of angular momentum
Li = LF
0 = I ω – mvr
1
200 × ω = 50 × 2 × 1 ⇒ ω = rad/ sec
2

1 v 1
ω platform = , ω man = =
2 r 2

ω rel = ω platform + ω man = 1

(Δθ)rel.
Δ θ rel = 2 π , t =
ωrl.
6. Ans ( 4 )
F – f = ma and f = µmg
f × R = I∝

2 a 2
f×R= mR2 × ⇒ f= ma
5 R 5
7. Ans ( 3 )
fk = μ N = 0.04 × 20g = 8 Newton
60 − 8
a= = 2m/s2
26
HS-2/23 9610ZBS107116230011
8. Ans ( 3 )
a = g tan θ
3
⇒ a = 10 × tan 37∘ = 10 × = 10 × 0.75 = 7.5 m/s2
4
9. Ans ( 2 )
Let OA and OB represents the respective velocities in the east and north directions. Then, AB = x represent the
change in velocity.

From figure, x2 = 52 + 52 = 2 × 52
or x = 2 × 5 m/s
√

Now acceleration, a = x
t
√ 2×5 1
∴ a= = m/sec2 (towards N-W).
10 √2

10. Ans ( 3 )
Initial velocity = u cos θi^ + u sin θj^
Final velocity = u cos θi^
1√
→vavg ∣ =
∣ (2u cos θ)2 + (u sin θ)2
2
11. Ans ( 2 )
H = H1 + H2
200 × 10−4 390 × 10−4
= (60 − 20) + (60 − 20)
1 1
= 0.8 + 1.56 = 2.36 J
12. Ans ( 1 )
1
Coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure is for all gases. The average transnational K.E. is
273
same for molecules of all gases and for each molecules it is 3 kT
2
kT
Mean free path λ = (as P decreases, λ increases)
√ 2πd 2 P
13. Ans ( 2 )
Mole remain constant
n = n1 + n2
P (2V ) P1 V P V
= + 2
RT R T1 T2
P 1 P1 P2
= [ + ]
T 2 T1 T2

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-3/23
14. Ans ( 4 )
GM
Gravitational field on the surface of a solid sphere Ig =
R2
By the graph
GM1
2
=2
(1)
GM2
and 2
=3
(2)
On solving
M1 1
=
M2 6
15. Ans ( 3 )
By law of floating
Mg = ρ 1V1g + ρ 2V2g ⇒ M = ρ 1V1 + ρ 2V2
M = 0.6 × 102 × 4 + 0.4 × 102 × 6 = 480 gm
Hence option (3)
16. Ans ( 2 )

W
weight density, λ =
L
L L
weight of rope at length =λ
4 4
W L W
= × =
L 4 4
Total weight suspended from pt. P,
W
F= +W′
4
W
( + W ′)
F 4
σ= =
A S
17. Ans ( 1 )
2
mv k k 1 k
= ⇒ mv2 = ∴ K.E. = mv2 =
r r2 r 2 2r
P.E. = ∫ F dr = ∫ k2 dr = − k
r r
k k k
∴ Total energy = K. E. +P . E. = − =−
2r r 2r
18. Ans ( 4 )
E1 E2 E3
r1 + r2 + r3
Eeq = 1 1 1
r1 + r2 + r3

HS-4/23 9610ZBS107116230011
19. Ans ( 2 )

ε0 A
Let = C {Area = A/2}
2d
2 (2C)(4C)
Ceq = 3C +
C + 3C 2C + 4C
3 4 25 ε0 A
== C+ C=
4 3 24 d
20. Ans ( 1 )

d 2
E (2πR) = − [B (πr )]
dt
r2 dB
⇒E=−
2R dt
r2
⇒ Edt = − dB
2R
0
qr2
⇒∫ qEdt = − ∫ dB
2R
B
qr2 B
⇒ mv =
2R
qr2 B
⇒v=
2mR
21. Ans ( 1 )
Volume of cube ⇒ v = a3
a = 1.2 × 10 – 2 m
Significant digit = 2
V = a3 ⇒ V = (1.2 ×10 – 2m)3
⇒ V = 1.728 × 10 – 6 m3
In this operation, minimum two significant digit is involved during multiplication of side.
The answer expressed with least significant digit hence volume expressed with two significant digit only.
V = 1.7 × 10 – 6 m3
22. Ans ( 3 )
Theoretical.

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-5/23
23. Ans ( 1 )
2 × 1010
Speed of wave = = 108 m/s
200
3 × 108
Refractive index = =3
108
Now refractive index = √εr μr
3 = √εr (1)
⇒ εr = 9
Option (1)
24. Ans ( 2 )
μ2 μ1 μ2 − μ1
− =
V −u0 −2R
μ3 μ2 μ3 − μ2
− =
Vf V −R
μ3 μ1 μ1 − μ2 μ2 − μ3
+ = +
Vf u0 2R R

μ1 − μ2
∴ +< μ 3 – μ 2 ⇒ μ 1 – μ 2 < 2 μ 3 – 2 μ 2 ⇒ μ 1 + μ 2 < 2 μ 3
2
25. Ans ( 3 )

→
∮
→ dl = μ i
B. 0

2
μ0 I (π( 3R
2
2
) − πR )

3R
B2π ( ) =
2 π(2R)2 − πR2
26. Ans ( 2 )
Energy hC = 4.5eV
λ
Hence transition B
27. Ans ( 4 )

HS-6/23 9610ZBS107116230011
28. Ans ( 1 )
210 P o →42 He +206
84 82 P b
mass defect = Δm = (mpo − mHe − mP b )
= 0.005818u
∴ Q = (Δm) × 931.48Mev = 5419kev
From conservation of linear momentum, P b = Pα
Kα m 206
∴ √2mP b KP b = √2mα Kα ⇒ = Pb =
KP b m α 4
206
∴ Kα = (Q) ( ) (Ktotal = Q)
206 + 4
206
= × 5419 ≈ 5319kev
210
29. Ans ( 2 )
c 320
fbefore crossing = f0 ( ) = 1000 ( )
c − vS 320 − 20
c 320
fafter crossing = f0 ( ) = 1000 ( )
c + vS 320 + 20
2cvs
Δ f = f0( )
− v2s
c2
Δf 2 × 320 × 20
× 100% = × 100 = 12.54% ≈ 12%
f 300 × 340
30. Ans ( 1 )
Ist minima
θ = 30
nλ
sin θ =
a
1 1×λ
=
2 1μm
λ = 0.5 μ m
D = 0.5 m
β = 1 × 10 – 2 m
d=?
Dλ
β=
d
1 × 0.5 × 10−6
10−2 =
2d
0.25 × 10−6
d=
10−2
d = 0.25 × 10 – 4 m
d = 25 × 10 – 6 m
d = 25 μ m
31. Ans ( 3 )
H + (or)
Phenol + HCHO −−−−
−
→ Bakelite
OH

32. Ans ( 3 )
Vulcanization of rubber is carried out by heating a mixture of isoprene & sulphur

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-7/23
33. Ans ( 1 )
It is used to separate liquid-liquid mixture which is immiscible with different densities
34. Ans ( 1 )
Aspirin

35. Ans ( 1 )

36. Ans ( 2 )

37. Ans ( 4 )
Tyrosine is not an essential amino acid.
38. Ans ( 4 )

39. Ans ( 3 )
HC ≡ C – CH=CH2
sp sp2
40. Ans ( 3 )
Reduction of Alkyl halide (except fluorides) produces alkane with zinc and dilute hydrochloric acids.
41. Ans ( 3 )
Δ H° = [ Δ fH°(CO2, g) × 1 + Δ fH°(H2O,l) x 2] – [ Δ fH°(CH4, g)]
– 890.4 = – 393.5 + ( – 285.9) × 2 – Δ fH°(CH4, g)
Δ fH° = – 395.5 – 571.8 + 890.4 = – 74.9

HS-8/23 9610ZBS107116230011
42. Ans ( 2 )
For Lyman series of He+2
1 1 9
= RH (2)2 ( − )
2
λ (1) (∞)2
1
= RH (2)2
λ
1
λ=
4 RH
+2
For Balmer series of Li
1 1 1
= RH (3)2 ( − )
2
λ (2) (∞)2
1 9RH
=
λ 4
0
Given that λ for Lyman of He+ = xA
4 (4) 16 x 0
So λ = = A
9 (4 RH ) 9
43. Ans ( 1 )
CO2(g) + C(s) ⇌ 2CO(g)
Initial 0.5 atm
At eqm. (0.5 – x) 2x
∴ (0.5 – x) + 2x = 0.8 or x = 0.3 atm
∴ PCO2 = 0.5 – 0.3 = 0.2
PCO = 2x = 2 × 0.3 = 0.6 atm
44. Ans ( 2 )
Change in concentration
Average rate =
T ime
Δn ΔP
The change in molarity = = = 0.0327
V RT
Rate of reaction = 0.0327
50 × 60
= 1.09 × 10 – 5 mol/litre second
45. Ans ( 3 )
500 × 2 = 0.5 × V
⇒ V = 2000 ml
added volume = 2000 – 500 = 1500 ml
46. Ans ( 1 )
Cr2+ |Cr3+ = +0.41V Mn2+ |Mn3+ = −1.57V
F e2+ |F e3+ = −0.77V Co2+ |Co3+ = −1.97V
As Cr will have maximum oxidation potential value, therefore its oxidation will be easiest.
47. Ans ( 2 )

=
pH = 2 – 0.74 = 1.26
9610ZBS107116230011 HS-9/23
48. Ans ( 2 )
dsample = 4 gm/lit. = 4 kg/m3
5
3P √ 3 × 1.2 × 10
Vrms = √ = = 300 m/sec
d 4
49. Ans ( 2 )
the relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of solute
50. Ans ( 2 )
40.7
C= = 3.3916
12
5.1
H= = 5.1
1
54.2
O= = 3.387
16
Their simple ratio comes to be 2 : 3 : 2.
So the empirical formula = C2H3O2.
51. Ans ( 3 )
Total no. of atoms in fcc = 4
4 3
assuming atom to be spherical , its volume = πr
3
16 3
Total volume of all atoms present in fcc = πr
3
52. Ans ( 2 )
1
T∝
√ V
TV1/2 = constant
For adiabatic process, TV1/2 = TV γ – 1 = constant
1 3
∴ γ –1= , γ=
2 2
53. Ans ( 4 )
Nonpolar + Nonpolar → London force
CO2 CO2 (vander waal force)
54. Ans ( 3 )
[Mn(CO)6] : EAN = 37
55. Ans ( 4 )
As chelation↑, stability↑.
56. Ans ( 3 )
The incorrect order of increasing melting point is
Ti < V < Cr < Mn
Melting point increases from Ti to chromium but decreases in case of Mn. Mn has melting point even lower
than that of Ti.
57. Ans ( 1 )
The addition of phosphate fertilizers to water bodies causes enhanced growth of algae.
Hence option (a) is the answer

HS-10/23 9610ZBS107116230011
58. Ans ( 4 )
Actinoid compounds are more basic than lanthanoid compounds.
59. Ans ( 3 )
R3SiCl is used to controlled chain length of silicone polymer.
R → Alkyl group Me → – CH3
60. Ans ( 2 )
Cement contains elements of group 2 (Ca), group 13 (Al) and group 14 (Si).
71. Ans ( 3 )
As, Admonish is less intense than berate similarly, defeat is less intense than conquer.
72. Ans ( 2 )

73. Ans ( 3 )
Overlapping of two designs of first figure becomes the second figure.
74. Ans ( 2 )
By observation,

75. Ans ( 4 )
By observation,

76. Ans ( 2 )
(10 × 5) – (10 ÷ 2) = 45
(40 × 5) – (40 ÷ 2) = 180
(60 × 5) – (60 ÷ 2) = 270
But same rule does not follow in option (2).
77. Ans ( 2 )
All except spanner are tools used by gardener, while spanner is used by carpenter.
78. Ans ( 4 )
By observation,

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-11/23
79. Ans ( 4 )

80. Ans ( 3 )
By observation,

81. Ans ( 4 )
13 + (7 × 2) = 27
54 + (45 × 2) = 144
4 + (32 × 2) = 68
82. Ans ( 4 )
Row wise total sum = 30 i.e.
9 + 9 + 12 = 30
13 + 10 + 7 = 30
8 + 11 + 11 = 30
Hence, option (4) is correct.
83. Ans ( 3 )
The given sequence 2,17,52,..........,206 follow a pattern :
13+12=2,
23+32=17,
33+52=52,
43+72=113,
53+92=206.
ence, 113 is the missing number.
84. Ans ( 2 )

In the first step, the elements at the four ends move in the sequence . In each subsequent step, the

elements move in the sequence obtained by rotating the previous sequences through 90° ACW. Also, in each
step, the element that reaches the encircled position gets replaced by a new element.
85. Ans ( 2 )

Only conclusion 2 follows.

HS-12/23 9610ZBS107116230011
86. Ans ( 3 )
For the given statements two possible cases are possible.

87. Ans ( 1 )
By observation,

88. Ans ( 1 )
By observation,

89. Ans ( 1 )
It is mentioned in the passage that though India boasts of huge technical manpower, yet it lags behind other
countries in technology. Thus, it is quite probable that India is in no way at par with the developed countries in
terms of technological development.
90. Ans ( 3 )
According to the passage, the compensation package in different companies includes different provisions.
91. Ans ( 1 )

∴ M = 5 and m = 1
M – 2m = 3

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-13/23
92. Ans ( 1 )
x3 – y2 = 0 ....(1)
dy
2y = 3x2
dx
∴ Slope of tangent at
dy 3x2
P= =( ) = 3m
dx 2y (4m2 ,8m3 )
∴ Equation of tangent at P is
y – 8m3 = 3m (x – 4m2)
or y = 3mx – 4m3 ....(2)
It cuts the curve again at Q,
From (1) & (2) ;
x = 4m2, m2
Put x = 8m2 in (2) ; then
y = – m3
2 3
∴ Q (m , – m )
Slope of tangent at
dy 3
Q=( ) =− m
dx m2 ,−m3
(
2 )

Slope of Normal at Q = 2 m
3
2
∴ = 3m
3m
2
or 9m = 2
93. Ans ( 2 )

2
⎡ ⎤

Area = 2 ⎢ 3 + ∫ (4 − x2 ) dx⎥
⎣
2 ⎦
1
19 1
= =6+
3 3
∴ K=2

HS-14/23 9610ZBS107116230011
94. Ans ( 2 )
Now, 1 + x = loga a + loga bc = loga abc
1
⇒ =logabca
1+x
1
Similarly, = logabcb and 1 = logabcc
1+y 1+z
1 1 1
∴ + +
1+x 1+y 1+z
= logabca + logabcb + logabcc
= logabcabc = 1
95. Ans ( 3 )
x2+x+1 > 0 ∀ x ∈ R
so |x2 – 3x – 1| < 3 (x2+x+1)
2 2 2 2
⇒ (x – 3x – 1) – [3 (x +x+1)] < 0
⇒ (4x2+ 2) ( – 2x2 – 6x – 4) < 0
⇒ (x+2) (x+1) > 0 ⇒ x ∈ ( – ∞ , – 2) ∪ ( – 1, ∞ )
96. Ans ( 2 )
n
Cr2
Given sum is write as ∑

r=0
r+1
1 n+1 n
= ∑( C r ) (n C r )
n+1 r+1
n
1 n+1
= ∑( Cr+1 ) (n Cr )
n + 1 r=0
1
= [n+1C1 nC0 + n+1C2 nC1 + .... + n+1Cn+1 nCn]
n+1
1
= [coefficient of xn+1 product of (1+x)n+1(x+1)n]
n+1
1
= [2n+1Cn+1] = 1 2n+1Cn
n+1 n+1
97. Ans ( 1 )

a| π – 5| + 1 = b|5 – π | + 3
a(5 – π ) + 1 = b(5 – π ) + 3
(a – b) (5 – π ) = 2
2
a−b=
5−π
98. Ans ( 1 )
|2z – 1| = |z + 2i|
⇒ |(2x – 1) + (2iy)| = |x + i(y+2)|
⇒ 3x2 + 3y2 – 4x – 4y – 3 = 0 i.e. Circle

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-15/23
99. Ans ( 2 )
The given equation is
|z|n = (z2 + z) |z|n – 2 + 1
⇒ z2 + z is real
⇒ z2 + z = ¯z2 + z¯
⇒ (z − z̄)(z + z̄ + 1) = 0
⇒ z = z¯ = x as z + z¯ + 1 ≠ 0 (x ≠ −1/2)
Hence, the given equation reduces to
xn = xn + x|x|n – 2 + 1
⇒ x|x|n – 2 = – 1
⇒ x=–1
So number of solution is 1.
100. Ans ( 3 )
Slope of AB = −h
k
Equation of AB is hx + ky = h2 + k2

h2 + k2 h2 + k2
A ( , 0) , B (0, )
h k
AB = 2R
⇒ (h2 + k2)3 = 4R2h2k2
⇒ (x2 + y2)3 = 4R2x2y2

101. Ans ( 4 )

R = √9 + 16 + 103 = 8√2
OA = 13
OB = √265
OC = √137
OD = √41

HS-16/23 9610ZBS107116230011
102. Ans ( 2 )
Re-arranging the equation ; we have
dx – y dy + x2 + y 2 (xdx + ydy) = 0
√

1√ 2
⇒ dx – ydy + x + y 2 d(x2 + y2) = 0
2
y2 1 2
⇒x – + (x + y2)3/2 = C
2 3
103. Ans ( 1 )

Equation of tangent y – y1 = m(x – x1)

Coordinate of T x − dx y , 0 ( )
dy
dx
Given x − y = ky
dy
dx 1
⇒ + (− ) x = −k . Its linear
dy y
IF = e – log y = 1
y
1
Solution x . = ∫ − k dx ⇒ x = − k log y + c
y y y
−x/ky
⇒ y = ae
104. Ans ( 1 )

π

⎛ 1 − cos( 2 + x) ⎞
–1
y = tan 
⎜⎜
π
⎟
⎟
⎷
⎝ 1 + cos( 2 + x) ⎠

π x ∣
= tan – 1 ∣
tan( + )∣ … … (i)
∣
4 2
π
Now, <x<π
2
π x π
∴ < <
4 2 2
π π x 3π
or 2
<
4
+
2
<
4
π x ∣ x x
∴ ) = – tan + )
∣
tan ( + (
∣ 4 2 ∣ 4 2
( ∵ in II quadrant)
π x
= tan{π − ( + )}
4 2
From Eq.(i)
y = tan – 1 tan π x
π − ( + )}
{
4 2
=π– π+ (
x
2
)
4
3π x
= −
4 2
π π
( ∵ principal value of tan−1 tan x in − to )
2 2
dy 1
∴ =−
dx 2
9610ZBS107116230011 HS-17/23
105. Ans ( 3 )

106. Ans ( 2 )

Required value
1 1 1 1 3
= (1)(1) + 2 ( × 1 × ) + × 1 × 1 =
2 2 2 2 2
107. Ans ( 1 )
∣ 1 ar a2 r 2 ∣ ∣ 1 1 1 ∣
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

Δ =xkykzk∣ ∣
1 ar2 a2 r 4
∣
∣
=a3k.r6k.a3r3 ∣ 1
∣
r r2 ∣
∣
∣ ∣ ∣ ∣

1 ar3 a2 r6 ∣
∣ ∣ 1 r2 r4 ∣
=a 3(k+1) · r6k+3(1 – r)(r – r2)(r2 – 1)
Clearly, k = – 1
1
∴ Δ = r – 2(1 – r)2(r2 – 1) = (r – 1)2 (1 − )
r2
108. Ans ( 2 )
The radius of the circle having SS' as diameter is r = ae.
b2
If it cuts an ellipse, then r > b or ae > b or e2 > or e2 > 1 – e2
a2
1 1 1
or e2 > or e1 > or e∈( , 1)
2 √ 2 √ 2

HS-18/23 9610ZBS107116230011
109. Ans ( 3 )
x2 y2
Let ellipse is 2 + 2 = 1
a b
∵ It passes through (4, – 1)
16 1
⇒ + =1 ...(1)
a2 b2
1 5
∵ y = − x + is a tangent to it
4 2
a 2
hence √ + b2 = 5 ....(2)
16 2
Solving (1) & (2) gives a2 = 20 and b2 = 5
110. Ans ( 2 )
f(x) = log2 [3x – 3[x]]
f(x) = log2 [3{x}]
3{x} ∈ [0, 3)
& [3 {x}] = 0, 1, 2
∴ Range of f(x) = 0, 1
111. Ans ( 1 )
x + sinx is strictly increasing function
if x + sinx ­then ex+sinxalso ­ ⇒ ƒ(x) is one-one
ex+sinx ∈ (0, ∞ ) ⇒ ƒ(x) is into function
112. Ans ( 1 )

x2 y2
− =1
a2 b2
2a = 4 ⇒ a = 2
x2 y2
− =1
4 b2
Passes through (4,2)
4 4 2
4− = 1 ⇒ b2 = ⇒e=
b2 3 √3

113. Ans ( 3 )
2 tan x/2
Put sinx = ( )
1 + tan2 x/2
1 − tan2 x/2
& cos x = ( )
1 + tan2 x/2

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-19/23
114. Ans ( 3 )
sin – 1 θ = sin – 1 (sin 5)
sin – 1 θ = 5 – 2 π
θ = sin (5 – 2 π )
115. Ans ( 3 )
cos x(1 − sin x)
lim
π π 3
x→ − x)8(
2 2
π π
sin( − x) (1 − cos( − x))
2 2
= lim
π π π 2
x→ 8 × ( − x) × ( − x)
2 2 2
1 1
= ×1×
8 2
1
=
16
116. Ans ( 4 )
9 – 1 22 |A|9
|2A B | =
|B|
9
4 × (−1)
= = –2
2
117. Ans ( 2 )
6C
3 20
P= =
6 3 216

Fav Case = 6 C3 Three numbers can be selected from six number & there is only one way in which three selected
number can appears.
118. Ans ( 2 )
Two balls transferred from I to II can be 1W and 1B or both W or both B.
Then the required probability
4C 3C 4C 3C
1 1 6 2 7 2 5
=( 7C
) . + ( 7 ) + ( 7 ).
2 9 C2 9 C2 9
43 p
= = ∴ p + q = 106
63 q
119. Ans ( 2 )
Considering CC as single object we will arrange CC, U, E at three places = 3!
× CC × U × E ×
4P
3
At thrse four vacant places 3 S can be arranged by
3!
4P
3
so required number of words = 3! × = 24
3!

HS-20/23 9610ZBS107116230011
120. Ans ( 2 )
If P(at12, 2at1) be one end of the normal, the other say Q(at22, 2at2)
then t2 = – t1 – 2 ... (1)
t1
Again slope of OP = 2at21 = 2
at1 t1

Slope of OQ = 2 ∴ 2 × 2 = – 1
t2 t1 t2
⇒ t1t2 = – 4 ... (2)
from (1) and (2)
4 2 2
– = – t1 – ⇒ + = t1 ⇒ t12 = 2
t1 t1 t1
⇒ t 1 = ± √2
Note : Slope of the normal at P is ( – t1)
121. Ans ( 3 )
After reflector ray must pass through focus.
S (0,2)
122. Ans ( 1 )
A > 0, B > 0, C < 0
So both roots of equation are negative and α < β (given).
So β < α < 0
123. Ans ( 2 )

Circumcenter is the point of intersection of the perpendicular bisectors of the sides.

124. Ans ( 1 )
In 17, 21, 25, ....., 417, number of terms = 101.
and Tn = 17 + (n – 1)4.
In 16, 21, 26, ....., 466, number of terms = 91
and Tm = 16 + (m – 1)5.
Tn = Tm ⇒ 17 + (n – 1)4 = 16 + (m – 1)5, 1 < n < 101,
and 1 < m < 91
∴ 5m – 4n – 2 = 0 ⇒ m = 2
∴ 5m – 4n – 2 = 0 ⇒ m = 2 is a solution.
Then n = 2, 7, .....,; 2 + (k – 1)5 < 101 ⇒ k = 20.
Also m = 2, 6, 10, .....
Hence, there are 20 common terms.
9610ZBS107116230011 HS-21/23
125. Ans ( 4 )

Any point on line is

Q(1 − 2λ, −1 + 3λ, 5 + 4λ)
∴ Direction ratios of PQ
are (−2λ, 3λ − 3, 4λ + 2)
PQ is perpendicular to the plane

⇒ PQ is parallel to normal of the plane

−2λ 3λ − 3 4λ + 2
⇒ = =
4 9 −18
2
⇒λ=
5
126. Ans ( 1 )
perpendicular vector to the plane
∣ i j k ∣

∣ ∣
^ ^ ^
→n = ∣ 1 2
∣
−1 ∣ = −3i + 3j + 3k
∣
∣ ∣
∣ −1 1 −2 ∣
Eq. of plane
– 3 (x – 1) + 3 (y – 1) + 3z = 0
⇒x–y–z=0
|2 − 1 − 4|
d(2,1,4) = = √3
2 2 2
√
1 +1 +1
127. Ans ( 3 )
2 2
16sin x + 161−sin x = 10
2
Put 16sin x = t
16
t+ = 10
t
2
t – 10t + 16 = 0
∴ t = 2 or t = 8
t=2 t=8
16 sin2 x
= 21 16 sin2 x
= 23
1
∴ sin2x = sin2x = 3/4
4
sinx = ± 1 sinx = ± 3/2 √
2
[0, 2 π ] total solution = 8
HS-22/23 9610ZBS107116230011
128. Ans ( 3 )
π 3π 5π 7π
sin4 + sin4 + sin4 + sin4
8 8 8 8
2 2
= 1 [(2sin2 π ) + (2sin2 3π ) ]
4 8 8
2 2
1 2 π 2 3π
+ [(2sin ) + (2sin ) ]
4 8 8
2
1 π 2 3π
= [(1 − cos ) + (1 − cos ) ]
4 4 4
2
1 π 2 3π
+ [(1 − cos ) + (1 − cos ) ]
4 4 4
2 2 2 2
1⎡ 1 1 ⎤
1⎡ 1 1 ⎤
= (1 − ) + (1 + ) + (1 − ) + (1 + )
4⎣ √2 √2 ⎦ 4⎣ √2 √2 ⎦

1 1 3
= (3) + (3) =
4 4 2
129. Ans ( 1 )
^
^ 7i − 4j − 4k 2i^ − j^ + 2k
a^ + b = ( ) +( )
9 3
(7i − 4j − 4k) + (−6i − 3j − 6k)
=
9
3√6(i − 7j + 2k)
∴ Vector mag. 3√6 =
√54

130. Ans ( 3 )
(→a + →b) × (→a − →b)= 2 (→b × →a )
∣^ ^ ^ ∣
∣i j k ∣
^
= 2 ∣ 1 2 −2 ∣∣ = 2(8i^ − 8j^ + 4k)
∣
∣3 2 2 ∣
^
(2i^ − 2j^ − k)
Required vector = ±12
3
^
= ±4(2i^ − 2j^ − k)

9610ZBS107116230011 HS-23/23